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Electrical Engineering MCQ
Electrical Engineering MCQ
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
4. none of the above
ANS: 2
3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then diode is …………..
biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
ANS: 1
kA
mA
μA
ANS: 3
2.5 V
3 V
10 V
0.7 V
ANS: 4
an amplifier
a rectifier
an oscillator
a voltage regulator
ANS: 2
the same as
more than
less than
ANS: 3
8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ……….. when forward
biased.
conductor
insulator
resistance material
ANS: 1
1 : 1
100 : 1
1000 : 1
40,000 : 1
ANS: 4
minority carriers
majority carriers
junction capacitance
ANS: 1
11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage current ………..
decreases
increases
becomes zero
ANS: 3
12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent vacuum diode
the same as
lower than
more than
ANS: 2
is increased
is decreased
ANS: 3
applied voltage
breakdown voltage
forward voltage
barrier potential
ANS: 4
15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a device is a
straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
linear
active
nonlinear
passive
ANS: 1
16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is …………
forward
inverse
poor
reverse
ANS: 1
non-linear
bilateral
linear
ANS: 1
reverse
forward
forward or reverse
ANS: 2
19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important consideration
is ………..
forward characteristic
doping level
reverse characteristic
PIC rating
ANS: 4
20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of depletion
layer………..
is decreased
in increased
ANS: 3
one pn junction
two pn junctions
three pn junctions
ANS: 1
an amplifier
a voltage regulator
a rectifier
a multivibrator
ANS: 2
23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal diode
the same as
less than
more than
ANS: 3
24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
reverse
forward
ANS: 1
forward
reverse
ANS: 2
26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a …………… source.
constant voltage
constant current
constant resistance
ANS: 1
is reverse biased
ANS: 3
ANS: 2
a non-linear
a linear
an amplifying
ANS: 1
undefined
sharp
zero
ANS: 2
solid state
vacuum tube
gas tube
ANS: 1
32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
lighting purposes
heaters
ANS: 3
ANS: 3
34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of 400/√2 volts, then
diode PIV rating is ………………….
400/√2 V
400 V
400 x √2 V
ANS: 2
1.21
2.5
0.48
ANS: 2
half-wave rectifier
ANS: 2
37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ……………… that of the
equivalent centre-tap rectifier
one-half
the same as
twice
four times
ANS: 1
38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a centre-tap rectifier
is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
twice
thrice
four time
one-half
ANS: 4
ANS: 2
paper capacitor
mica capacitor
electrolytic capacitor
air capacitor
ANS: 3
paper capacitor
air capacitor
mica capacitor
electrolytic capacitor
ANS: 1
42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage regulation
choke input
capacitor input
resistance input
ANS: 1
43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the step-down
transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak load voltage? Ignore diode
drop.
27.5 V
86.5 V
30 V
42.5 V
ANS: 4
40.6 %
81.2 %
50 %
25 %
ANS: 1
half-wave rectifier
ANS: 3
SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
………..
Ans : 2
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. 0 %
2. 5 %
3. 10 %
4. 8%
Ans : 3
1. of 10%
2. of 15%
3. of 25%
4. within 1%
Ans : 4
5. An ideal regulated power supply is one which has voltage regulation of …………
1. 0%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 1%
Ans : 1
Forward
Reverse
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
Shunt
Series
Series-shunt
Ans : 1
9. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for Zener
mechanism …………
Is increased
Is decreased
Ans : 2
10. The rupture of co-valent bonds will occur when the electric field is ………….
100 V/cm
6 V/cm
1000 V/cm
Ans : 4
Regulated DC Power
Supply Questions
Avalanche mechanism
Zener mechanism
Ans : 1
12. A Zener diode that has very narrow depletion layer will breakdown by ………
mechanism
Avalanche
Zener
Ans : 2
13. As the junction temperature increases, the voltage breakdown point for
avalanche mechanism ………….
Decrease
Increases
Ans : 3
Breakdown
Voltage
Power
Current
Ans : 1
15. Zener diode are generally made of ……….
Germanium
Silicon
Carbon
Ans : 2
16. For increasing the voltage rating, zeners are connected in …………..
Parallel
Series-parallel
Series
Ans : 3
17. In a Zener voltage regulator, the changes in load current produce changes in
…………….
Zener current
Zener voltage
Ans : 1
Very high
Moderate
Small
Ans : 4
19. A Zener voltage regulator will cease to act as a voltage regulator if Zener
current becomes ……………
Zero
Ans : 2
20. If the doping level is increased, the breakdown voltage of the Zener …………..
Is increased
Is decreased
Ans : 3
21. A 30 V Zener will have depletion layer width …………. that of 10 V Zener
More than
Less than
Equal to
Ans : 1
External resistance
Power dissipation
Ans : 3
1 O
1 O
100 O
10 O
Ans : 4
24. A certain regulator has a no-load voltage of 6 V and a full-load output of 5.82
V. What is the load regulation?
09%
87 %
72 %
Ans : 1
It is approximately constant
Ans : 4
It is a diode
It is a constant-voltage device
Ans : 3
Is a battery
Is forward biased
Ans : 2
28. The load voltage is approximately constant when a Zener diode is ……….
Forward biased
Unbiased
Reverse biased
Ans : 4
Series current
Zener current
Load current
Ans : 1
30. If the load resistance decreases in a Zener regulator, then Zener current
…………….
Decreases
Increases
Ans : 1
31. If the input a.c. voltage to regulated or ordinary power supply increases by 5%
what will be the approximate change in d.c. output voltage?
10%
20%
15%
5%
Ans : 4
32. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the d.c.
output voltage ………..
Increases
Decreases
Ans : 2
33. If the load current drawn by unregulated power supply increases, the d.c.
output voltage ………
Increases
Decreases
Ans : 2
34. A power supply has a voltage regulation of 1%. If the no-load voltage is 20 V,
what is the full-load voltage?
8 V
7 V
6 V
2 V
Ans : 1
35. Two similar 15 V Zeners are connected in series. What is the regulated output
voltage?
15 V
5 V
30 V
45 V
Ans : 3
36. A power supply can deliver a maximum rated current of 0.5 A at full-load
output voltage of 20 V. What is the minimum load resistance that you can connect
across the supply?
10 O
20 O
15 O
40 O
Ans : 4
37. In a regulated power supply, two similar 15 V zeners are connected in series.
The input voltage is 45 V d.c. If each Zener has a maximum current rating of 300
mA, what should be the value of the series resistance?
10 O
50 O
25 O
40 O
Ans : 2
Data insufficient
Ans : 2
39. When load current is zero, the Zener current will be ………
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
REGULATED D.C. POWER SUPPLY Objective type Questions and Answers pdf free
download ::
HOME Interview Questions MCQs *LAB VIVA CLASS NOTES SEMINAR TOPICS ONLINE TEST GATE CAT
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(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 15
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: b
Its frequency is
(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V refers to
Ans: b
7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different amplitudes and phase
angles are subtracted, the resultant is
Ans: a
(a) 127.4 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 282.8 V
(d)200V
Ans: a
9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of JT radians,
then
(a) both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
(b) both will reach their maximum values at the same instant
(c) when one wave reaches its maxi¬mum value, the other will reach its minimum value
Ans: c
Ans: a
11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase when the phase angle
between them is
(a) 360°
(b) 180°
(c) 90°
(d) 0°
Ans: b
12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the phase
difference between the current and voltage is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
Ans: b
13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case of
Ans: c
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave will ‘have the highest
r.m.s. value ?
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave has the least mean value
?
Ans: a
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
Ans: b
Ans: c
(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the average value is
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be
(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through a circuit element is given
as 30°. The essential condition is that
(c) both waves must have zero value at the same time
Ans: a
22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value at an angle
of______degrees.
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
Ans: a
(a) R/Z
(c) kW/kVA
Ans: e
Ans: b
27. Poor power factor
Ans: e
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kV
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value and reducing capacitance
to its half value
Ans: d
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then returns back to it during
other part of the cycle
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: e
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit containing
Ans: c
34. Time constant of an inductive circuit
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
Ans: a
(a) parallel
(b) series
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
Ans: d
(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
Ans: c
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines and transformers
Ans: d
40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time during which voltage
Ans: c
(a) oscillating
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non-oscillating
Ans: c
42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by steady (D.C.) current which when flowing
through a given circuit for a given time produces
(a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the same circuit
(c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the same circuit
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between r.m.s. value and average
value.
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) zero
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average value must always be taken
over
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: a
53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in the circuit voltage ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
Ans: a
(a) zero
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line when
Ans: a
57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the application of voltage to
each
Ans: c
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of resistance
Ans: a
59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit
Ans: d
Ans: a
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the supply line
Ans: e
62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency can be changed by
changing the value of
(a) R only
(b) L only
(c)C only
(d)LorC
(e) R,LorC
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) R/C
(b) RC2
(c) RC
(d) R2C
Ans: c
65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L series circuit, then time constant of this
circuit will be
(a) 0.001 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 100 s
Ans: b
66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
Ans: c
67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s. current which of the following
equation represents this wave ?
(b) 60 sin 25 t
(c) 30 sin 50 t
Ans: a
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply consumes 100 W.
Ans: d
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is 40 kVA
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on ordinary supply frequency is
more than its true resistance because of
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) demand
(b) load
(c) power
(d) form
Ans: c
75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct except
Ans: a
76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active power is 8 kW. The
reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Ans: b
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of equal frequency, when one
wave attains maximum value the other is at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) lags
(b) leads
Ans: b
81. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost purely
(a) resistive
(b) inductive
(c) capacitive
Ans: c
82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at_____ frequencies.
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) high
Ans: d
83. At ______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely resistive.
(a) low
(c) high
Ans: d
(d) no where
Ans: d
(b) transformers
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: a
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the source current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an alternating quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of a 3-phase supply
Ans: a
(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive section
Ans: b
90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies because they
Ans: d
Ans: d
92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor ?
Ans: c
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The r.m.s. value of full wave
rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
(d) zero
Ans: b
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit’ differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in current
(b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp increase in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp in¬crease in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in line current
Ans: a
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180° out of phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
Ans: c
Ans: c
101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50 W. This is due to
Ans: d
(b) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle between circuit voltage and
current is
(c) volt-amperes
Ans: a
104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s. value of 60 A is
(a) 60 sin 25 t
(b) 60 sin 50 t
Ans: c
105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms in parallel with a pure
inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
Ans: c
106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(b) be doubled
Ans: b
118. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to 1/2, the current will
(b) be doubled
Ans: a
119. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance the electrical power
converted into heat is
Ans: b
120. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an alternating voltage having an
r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Ans: a
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……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Ansr : 2
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
4. None of the above
Ansr : 1
3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output is fed back to
the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Ansr : 3
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Ansr : 4
5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain with negative
feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Ansr : 2
Resistive
Capacitive
Inductive
Ansr : 1
Resonant
Open loop
Closed loop
Ansr : 3
Is decreased
Is increased
Ansr : 2
Is decreased
Is increased
Ansr : 1
Oscillators
Rectifiers
Amplifiers
Ansr : 3
Current gain
Impedance matching
Voltage gain
Ansr : 2
Approximately equal to 1
Greater than 1
Ansr : 2
13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its output
impedance ……..
Is increased
Is decreased
Ansr : 1
Voltage feedback
Current feedback
Ansr : 1
Is increased
Is decreased
Ansr : 3
16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its
bandwidth……….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Ansr : 1
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
4. None of the above
Ansr : 3
1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Ansr : 4
A. fast turn-on
B.fast turn-off
D. about -10
gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
Ri=10k,Rf=100k,RL=10k
A. ∞
B.120k
C.110k
D.10k
7. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/µ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage
possible at a
frequency of 1MHZ is
A. 10 volts
D.5/2 volts
8. A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a differential amplifier
A.CMRR
B.bandwidth
C. slew rate
D.open-loop gain
A. gate voltage
B.drain voltage
C.source voltage
D.body voltage
Analogue Electronics Questions
A. junction capacitance
C.depletion capacitance
12. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias , the magnitude of electric field is
maximum at
A.0.25
B.0.5
C.0.75
D.1
15. A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits gives an o/p of 1.4v at
the signal
frequency of 3.89KHZ and 4.1KHZ .At the frequency of 4KHZ,the o/p voltage will
be
A.1 v
B. 2v
C.1.4v
D.2.8v
16. Class AB operation is often used in power large signal) amplifiers in order to
D. Q-factor of the o/p and i/p circuits as well as quiescent operating point
18. If =0.98 ,Ico=6µA and Iβ=100µA for a transistor,then the value of Ic will be
A.2.3mA
B.3.2mA
C.4.6 mA
D.5.2mA
A.resistor
B.inductor
C.capacitor
D.battery
20. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor differential amplifier
because of its
D. high CMRR
A. Reduces gain
C. Reduces bandwidth
D. Increases noise
22. A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30v,and a full-load voltage of 25v at
full-load
A. 5 Ω & 20 %
B. 25 Ω & 20 %
C. 5 Ω & 16.7 %
D. 25 Ω & 16.7 %
23. The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high frequencies because of
A. Transistor capacitances
25. An npn BJT has gm=38mA/v, cµ =10¯14 F, cπ =10¯13F and DC current gain
β0=90.For this
using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db bandwidth of
A. 50 KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17 KHz
D. 1000/7.07 KHz
27.An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/µsec has a gain of 40db.if
this amplifier
induced distortion, then the input signal level must not exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795 mV
D. 39.5mV
28. In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a
differential amplifier
are 48db &2db respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is
A.23dB
B.25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
29. Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high frequencies due to
the
C. Skin effect
A. 1/11KΩ
B. 1/5KΩ
C. 5KΩ
D. 11KΩ
31. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be represented as a
32. Three identical amplifiers with each one having a voltage gain of 50,input
resistance of 1KΩ
& output resistance of 250 ,are cascaded.The open circuit voltage gain of
combined amplifier is
A. 49dB
B. 51dB
C. 98dB
D. 102dB
34. In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes,Vdc & Vm are the dc & peak
values of the
voltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the peak inverse voltage of
the diode, then
A. CC-CB .
B. CE-CB
C. CB-CC
D. CE-CC
A. gm r0
B. gm / r0
C. gm rπ
D. gm /rπ
37. The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold circuits is
D. either A. or B.
against variations in
D. mechanical ruggedness
Answer: D
42. In a transistor leakage current mainly depends on
A. doping of base
B. size of emitter
C. rating of transistor
D. temperature
Answer: D
A. 99%
B. 85%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Answer: D
Answer: C
45. In all base driver amplifiers
Answer: A
B. saturation point
C. operating point
Answer: A
A. all resistors
B. all transistors
C. all inductors
D. all capacitors
Answer: D
48. Which of the following statements is false?
B. Class AB operation cannot be used for a push pull audio power output phase
Answer: B
49. Which of the following amplifier circuit using junction transistor has the best
gain?
A. Common base
B. Common emitter
C. Common collector
Answer: B
Answer: A
ANALOG ELECTRONICS Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
Ans: d
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
Ans: a
(c) voltage
Ans: c
(b) jute
Ans: c
(b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic
Ans: d
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly
due to
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
11. cables are used for 132 kV lines.
Ans: d
(b) armoured
Ans: a
(a) armour
(b) bedding
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
Ans: c
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
(b) sheath
(c) armour
Ans: d
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______ dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
Ans: c
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
(6) double
Ans: a
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: c
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the
use of
(a) inter-sheaths
Ans: c
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
Ans: d
Ans: a
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
Ans: c
Ans: c
(a) 0.04 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you
prefer ?
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum
distance between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
(a) it is hygroscopic
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
53. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
60. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
A. True
B. False
Answer :- A
A. True
B. False
Answer :- A
A. True
B. False
Answer :- A
B. False
Answer :- B
A. True
B. False
Answer :- A
CIRCUIT THEOREMS and CONVERSIONS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf ::
6. You cannot convert a voltage source to an equivalent current source, or vice
versa.
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
8. The Thevenin equivalent voltage (VTH) is the short-circuit voltage between two
terminals in a circuit.
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
10. Conversions between delta-type and wye-type circuit arrangements are useful
in certain specialized applications.
A. True
B. False
Answer :- A
CIRCUIT THEOREMS and CONVERSIONS Interview Questions and Answers free download
::
Ans: a
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
Ans: b
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of feedback gain the overall
gain of the system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
Ans: a
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control
system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: b
10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of the following is the
feedback element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
Ans: c
CONTROL SYSTEMS
Objective Questions
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) open
(b) closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the
following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
Ans: b
(c) Ear
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a man walks
along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error detectors in
instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system stable ?
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be increased
Ans: b
(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
Ans: a
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not
decrease ?
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with
(a) oscillations
Ans: d
Ans: a
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed loop system
to gain changes and
(a) Frequency
Ans: d
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following ?
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop system ?
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain margin
close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in control systems
should be avoided ?
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used ?
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
Ans: a
(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
Ans:
(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans:
(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is considered
analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
Ans: a
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered analogous to
(a) velocity
(b) pressure
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered analogous
to
(a) head
Ans: a
(a) charge
(b) resistance
Ans: b
(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
(d) temperature
Ans: d
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
(d) friction
Ans: c
52. signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signs are
equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the value of
controlled variable is known as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) servomotors
Ans:
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better ?
Ans: c
(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) amplidyneset
Ans:
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to
(a) capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the following?
Ans: a
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness of closed
loop systems for
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) no pole
Ans: a
(a) no pole
Ans: c
70. The type 2 system has ______ at the origin.
Ans: d
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to the system
is unit _______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains
below a certain level for all the time, the system is
(b) stable
(c) unstable
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the stability and
transient response ?
Ans: a
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following ?
(a) Lead-compensation
(b) Lag-compensation
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
Ans: a
Ans: c
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the following ?
(d) Overdamping
Ans:
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
(b) Potentiometer
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a controller ?
(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from maximum to minimum
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output changes from maximum to
minimum
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final control element
converts
Ans: b
(b) Selsyn
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-ordinates ?
(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
Ans: c
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
Ans: c
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
Ans: c
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it implies that
the system is
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
Ans: c
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave as
(a) oscillatory
(d) underdamped
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: d
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.
(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: c
105. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
Ans: c
(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
Ans: a
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
3. The substances which have a large number of free electrons and offer a low
resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
CURRENT
ELECTRICITY MCQs
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
(a) length
(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: a
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter)
is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is around
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
(a) 33 V
(b) 66 v
(c) 80 V
(d) 132 V
Ans: b
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance
of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same
length when connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four
wires are connected is series the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of
resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have no 1500 Q resistor but
have several 1000 Q ones which you would connect
Ans: b
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
Ans: a
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C.
circuit?
Ans: d
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon
(d) Brass
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: b
27. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
(b) Charge
(c) Power
(d) Energy
Ans: b
(d) amperes/volt
Ans: d
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a
Ans: c
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans: a
(a) insulators
Ans: b
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
Ans: b
(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans: d
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Ans: b
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
Ans: d
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans: c
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 8 watts
Ans: c
Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: a
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current
Ans: c
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance
becomes
Ans: a
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns
open
Ans: d
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a battery across
them, which of the following statement is true ?
Ans: a
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the voltage source
where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
Ans: a
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018
electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
(a) zero
(d) infinity
Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold resistance
because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
Ans: c
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans:
Ans: c
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
Ans: a
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series
circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
(a) decrease
(b) increase
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
Ans: c
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if
Ans: c
(b) Losses
Ans: b
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature
rises. This is due to
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
Ans: c
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in
reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
Ans: d
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
Ans: c
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance
of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: b
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Ans: b
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
Ans: a
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is
observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
Ans: b
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: b
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: c
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because
switching operation produces
Ans: a
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Ans: b
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its
length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Ans: c
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after
removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
Ans: b
Ans: b
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
(a) 9 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance
between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
(a) semi-conductors
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one
conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-
sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the resistance of other conductor will
be
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a
heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not
glow because
99. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity
of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied voltage
Ans: b
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
(a) zero
(b) infinite
Ans: b
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the
metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
Ans: c
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
Ans: a
(a) charcoal
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
Ans: b
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
(a) 1840
(b) 1840
(c) 30
(d) 4
Ans: a
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total
power supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according
to Joule’s law heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro ampere
current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient ?
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) 10-8 mm
(6) 10″6 cm
(c) 10″10 m
(d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
Ans: b
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
Jeeva
DECEMBER 15, 2020 AT 6:25 AM
It is not enough AE, JE level exams. So i want more stuff questions with
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JANUARY 17, 2017 AT 11:24 AM
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JANUARY 20, 2017 AT 5:14 AM
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DECEMBER 6, 2016 AT 11:14 PM
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OCTOBER 26, 2016 AT 11:30 PM
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OCTOBER 18, 2016 AT 10:04 AM
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square of current and resistor.
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SEPTEMBER 18, 2016 AT 10:32 AM
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(b) carbon
Ans: c
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
Ans:d
Ans: d
(a) mica
(b) copper
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means
of
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
Ans: b
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to And the direction of induced
e.m.f., the thumb points towards
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
Ans: d
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature
conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
Ans: c
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given
through
(a) commutator
Ans: a
(a) carbon
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of
conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with
sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
(a) mica
(b) copper
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with
conductors which
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in
magnetic neutral axis, there will be
Ans: c
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only
under the floating condition
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
Ans: c
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
Ans:
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have
Ans: a
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt gen¬erators
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) electromagnets
Ans: a
(c) voltage
Ans: d
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for
providing direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(b) Commutator
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
Ans: c
Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound
armature while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced
e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to
be least ?
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux
remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated
will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(d) E
Ans: b
Ans:
(b) copper
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
connected
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we
should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
Ans: d
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles
Ans: d
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) flux/pole
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical
neutral axis, when
Ans: a
(a) interpoles
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the
speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
Ans: b
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The
armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal
voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: e
Ans: a
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which
e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased,
then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while
running on no-load ?
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up
without any residual magnetism in the poles ?
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of
the following reasons except
(d) commutation
Ans: d
Ans: c
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open
circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
Ans: a
(a) zero
(b) small
(d) high
Ans: a
(a) demagnetization of leading pole tip and magnetization of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetization of trailing pole tip and magnetization of leading pole tip
Ans: a
Ans:
Ans: c
(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equalizer bar is
used
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all
loads ?
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be
run in parallel ?
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as
motor for which of the following reasons ?
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical value
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5
A. If the load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the
terminal voltage
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and
field resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000
amperes to the load circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar
voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that
they have ‘
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equalizer bar is used
(c) to reduce the combined effect of AR-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal cur¬rents to the load
Ans: d
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
Ans: c
Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having
duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave winding’s, there are as many commutator bars as the
number of
(a) slots
(d) poles
Ans: c
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap
flux in a D.C. generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of
their
Ans: c
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over
compounded generators is
Ans: a
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its
first trial run, the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
Ans: a
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
Amir shaikh
FEBRUARY 18, 2020 AT 1:41 PM
Pls. Provide a pdf of all electrical chapters
REPLY
kamlesh
DECEMBER 21, 2016 AT 5:01 PM
Please provide me PDF for all electrical mcq with Ans
REPLY
jass
AUGUST 28, 2016 AT 10:03 AM
hi admin…plz provide me d pdf of all electrical and electronics mcqs..I re-
ally need it for my entrance..will b vry thankful. .mail id is
jassidhu2912@gmail.com
REPLY
G.S. Choudhary
FEBRUARY 26, 2016 AT 8:01 PM
In DC generator, the electricity produced in armature is ,A-DC,B-AC
REPLY
Henry
FEBRUARY 16, 2016 AT 1:07 PM
Explanation of Q.49— numbr of parallel paths in lap winding = no. of
poles (i.e. 6) whereas for wave wdg its alwaz 2. So emf induced in wave
wdg will be 3 times the emf induced in lap. So, ratio will be 3:1
REPLY
Henry
FEBRUARY 17, 2016 AT 7:00 AM
hi Admin again requesting you for Digtal Electronics and Analog
Electronics mcqs. As evrytime i tried to open these topics under
ECE section only quiz questions (only 10) appears.
REPLY
jammy
FEBRUARY 26, 2016 AT 4:53 AM
answer is correct because we know emf induced in wave winding is
more as compared to lap winding which has main consideration of
current..
REPLY
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Ans: b
Ans: b
(c) Locomotive
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: c
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
Ans: a
Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
Ans: d
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical
energy is used.
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained
by
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only
because
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current
in the armature will be
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a
particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established,
the efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
Ans: d
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature
rise?
(b) Commutator
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of
rotation of D.C. motor ?
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the
rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
Ans: b
(a) low
(c) 1000 Q
Ans: a
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque
of the motor will be equal
to
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel for intermittent light
and heavy loads?
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly
opens
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor
starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(d) cumulativelyc’ompounded
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive
atmosphere ?
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will
decrease ?
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine
?
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when
the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C.
motor ?
Ans: c
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by
the motor, compound motor will have to be
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range
control is required.
Ans: d
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and
therefore make use of
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
Ans: a
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer
minimum efficiency ?
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated
load. The speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to
prevent a heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque
developed by the motor will
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
Ans: b
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors
over A.C. motors ?
(c) Stability
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C
ambient temperature, then the motor
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will
offer following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor
?
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current
Ans: d
(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run motor)
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and
many kinds of timers ?
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses
except
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely
to have highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the
load current ?
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon
Ans: f
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
Ans: d
(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss
in a D.C. generator ?
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of
heat?
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the
core of a D.C. generator ?
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
Ans: a
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(c) sparking
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C.
series motors of large capacity ?
Ans: c
(a) no-load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors
Ans: a
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
Ans: d
(a) Plugging
Ans: a
(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping,
reversing and speed control
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly
opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of
the time and some peak value for short duration. We will select the
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load
cycle and peak value for short duration. We will select this
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
Ans: a
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed.
This is possible by
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when
excited and driven
Ans: a
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
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5. 130 TOP MOST D.C.MOTORS Objective Type Questions and Answers
6. 250+ TOP MCQs on Starting of DC Motors – 1 and Answers
7. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating Characteristics of DC Compound Motor – 2
and Answers
8. 250+ TOP MCQs on Countercurrent Braking of DC Shunt Motors and
Answers
9. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating Characteristics of DC Shunt Motor -1 and
Answers
10. 300+ TOP Polyphase Induction Motors MCQs and Answers
11. 300+ TOP Single Phase Induction Motors Multiple Choice Questions &
Answers
12. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating Characteristics of DC Compound Motor – 1 and
Answers
13. 130 TOP D.C.MOTOR Questions and Answers pdf
14. 130 TOP DC MOTOR Objective Questions Answers pdf free Download
15. 250+ TOP MCQs on Braking of DC Motors – 2 and Answers
16. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating Characteristics of DC Motors and Answers
17. 250+ TOP MCQs on Dynamic Braking of DC Series Motors and Answers
18. 250+ TOP MCQs on PMDC Motors and Answers
19. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating Characteristics of DC Series Motor – 2 and
Answers
20. 300+ TOP D.C.MOTOR Interview Questions and Answers pdf
14 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP D.C. MOTORS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS”
Vipul Dhodi
JUNE 9, 2017 AT 4:52 PM
Very standard question sir, please mail in pdf all electrical topics
questions
REPLY
Pawan deep
FEBRUARY 10, 2017 AT 4:04 PM
Sir plz send me electrical enginerr all mcq question its very helpfull ques-
tion for examinatikn point of view plz sir srnd me
REPLY
दीपकं र महतो
FEBRUARY 9, 2017 AT 9:16 AM
Sir DMRC MAINTAINER के लिए अगर कु छ उपलब्ध हैं तो कृ पया मेरे ईमेल पर भेज
दीजिए।
REPLY
SATHI
DECEMBER 26, 2016 AT 7:37 AM
sir please send me electrical related MCQ question in pdf
my mail ID:satheeshaga@gmail.com
REPLY
gouri
NOVEMBER 1, 2016 AT 6:22 PM
sir,I kindly requesting you to send me all electrical related questions in
pdf form.
email-Id: chiru9036@gmail.com
REPLY
Ajanesh Pratap
SEPTEMBER 8, 2016 AT 5:36 PM
Sir please send me short objectives questions with answer of ac and dc
moter basic
REPLY
Rislu
JULY 29, 2016 AT 2:34 PM
Please send me all Electrical & Electronics related questions and answer
in pdf.
rislu16@gmail.com
REPLY
Harsh Desai
JUNE 5, 2016 AT 7:02 PM
All questions are very usefull and intresting..Sir plzz send me pdf of all
electrical field question and answer..@harshdesai166@gmail.com
REPLY
sumita
MAY 4, 2016 AT 4:09 AM
Pl send me PDF of machine interview question through mail.mail id is
sumsin24@gmail.com
REPLY
sreenu
APRIL 30, 2016 AT 8:48 AM
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hv pgcil exam on 08-04-2016 im preparing for cmptive exams i like this
web site this is very useful for me plz sir send me quickly
REPLY
Nazel
APRIL 26, 2016 AT 8:50 AM
These questions are helpfull for fresh graduate
REPLY
Rajat Bobade
APRIL 15, 2016 AT 10:45 AM
In next 10 days there is my exam on 24 April for Amravati municipal cor-
poration so please sir send me Pdf on my email
REPLY
Deepak
APRIL 9, 2016 AT 8:17 AM
Hi Sir,
REPLY
Jitendra
MARCH 28, 2016 AT 11:45 AM
Sir giv me all question on transmission and all in pdf format on my mail
id
Jitendrapatil56@gmail.com
REPLY
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1.In which of the following base systems is 123 not a valid number?
(a) Base 10
(b) Base 16
(c)Base8
(d) Base 3
Ans:d
(a) 1000
(b)964
(c)1024
(d) 1064
Ans:c
10111101
(a)675
(b)275
(c) 572
(d) 573.
Ans:b
4. Pick out the CORRECT statement:
(a) In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same value irrespective of its
position
(b) The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal to the number of symbols
in the system
(d) Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of three binary symbols.
Ans:c
(a) 10101.001
(b) 10100.001
(c) 10101.010
(d) 10100.111.
Ans:a
DIGITAL
ELECTRONICS
Questions
6.A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because
(c) all the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND gate realization
Ans:b
8. Most of the digital computers do not have floating point hardware because
Ans:a
Ans:d
10. (1(10101)2 is
(a) (37)10
(b) ( 69)10
(d) — (5)10
Ans:a
11. The number of Boolean functions that can be generated by n variables is equal
to
(a) 2n
(b) 22 n
(c) 2n-1
(d) — 2n
Ans:b
Ans:d
13. A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The next reading will be
(a)F52E
(b)G52F
(c)F53F
(d)F53O.
Ans:d
(b) logic 0 and, -1 are represented by negative and positive voltages respectively
Ans:d
(a) OR gate
Ans:c
(a) TTLAS
(b) CMOS
(c)ECL
(d)TTLLS
Ans:c
Ans:d
18. An OR gate has 6 inputs. The number of input words in its truth table are
(a)6
(b)32
(c) 64
(d) 128
Ans:c
(a) an astable MV
(b) a bistable MV
(c) a latch
Ans:c
20. NAND. gates are preferred over others because these
Ans:b
Ans:a
(a)2TTL
(b)5TTL
(c)8TTL
(d)10TTL
Ans:d
24. Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start bit and 2 stop bits, the number
of characters that 1200 BPS communication line can transmit is
(a)10 CPS
(b)120 CPS
(c) 12CPS
Ans:c
25. Indicate which of the following three binary additions are correct?
(a) I and II
Ans:d
26. Which is the correct order of sequence for representing the input values in K-
map?
a.19
b.12
c.27
d.21
Answer : d
a.NAND gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
Answer : a
a.NOT gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
Answer : a
30. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The resulting circuit is
………….
a.OR gate
b.AND gate
c.NOT gate
Answer : c
a.AND gate
b.NAND gate
c.NOT gate
Answer : c
a.NOT gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
Answer : a
b.NOT gates
c.NAND gates
Answer : c
a.Stop signal
Answer : b
35. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the output is ………………
a.0
b.1
c.Either 0 & 1
Answer : a
a.OR operation
b.AND operation
c.NOT operation
Answer : c
37. What would happen, if smaller logic modules are utilized for performing
logical functions associated with FPGA?
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER:a
38. What is/are the configurable functions of each and every IOBs connected
around the FPGA device from the operational point of view?
a. Input operation
ANSWER:d
39. Which type of CPLD packaging can provide maximum number of pins on the
package due to small size of the pins?
a. PLCC
b. QFP
c. PGA
d. BGA
ANSWER:d
40. Which mechanism allocates the binary value to the states in order to reduce
the cost of the combinational circuits?
a. State Reduction
b. State Minimization
c. State Assignment
d. State Evaluation
ANSWER:c
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
Ans: d
a) copper
b) aluminium
c) iron
d) galvanized steel
Ans: d
a) 500 ohms
b) 1000 ohms
c) 1500 ohms
d) 2000 ohms
Ans: b
4. Generally grounding is provided for
Ans: c
Ans: a
EARTHING or
GROUNDING Mcqs
6. For an EHV equipment for maintenance first it should be isolated and
connected to ground because
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
9. Moisture content in the soil __ the earth soil resistance
a) increase
b) decrease
Ans: b
b) moisture
c) Nacl
Ans: d
11. When the 3-phase system is not grounded and if Single Line to Ground fault
occurs, the voltage of the other two healthy phases will
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unaffected
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: b
(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates
Ans: b
Ans: e
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of interest
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand rate or fixed charges
are
Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives
Ans: b
Ans: e
Ans: a
Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the installed rated capacity
will have utilisation factor
Ans: c
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always
Ans: e
Ans: d
(a) the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a period
Ans: a
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning capacity of the plant vide
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed capacity will be in a
position to supply
Ans: b
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding
Ans: d
Ans: d
(b) batteries
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical fires ?
(a) Water
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c
(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed cost ?
(c) Depreciation
Ans: a
(b) Television
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions which
is not kept in operation but in working order,
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take load when switched on is
known as
Ans: d
(b) Toaster
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a fixed cost ?
(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for installation ?
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers are required for running
the plants ?
Ans: a
60. In which’of the following power plants the maintenance cost is usually high ?
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load
Ans: c
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load plant ?
Ans: d
Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved ?
Ans: d
(b) no load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor ?
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the synchronous capacitors are
installed
Ans: a
(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR
Ans: c
(c) Noise
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost ?
Ans: d
(b) decreases
(c) increases
Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum efficiency at
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage frequency.
Ans: d
(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of interconnecting various power
stations ?
Ans: a
(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and sometimes running of thermal
power plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation charges ?
Ans: d
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
Ans: d
Ans: a
(d) iMHD
Ans:
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following reasons ?
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to installation of
Ans: a
(b) generator
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for power factor improvement ?
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base load plant ?
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs maximum maintenance
attention ?
(b) Condenser
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the following engine will produce
least power ?
Ans: c
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the following power plants ? ‘
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of the following ?
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
Ans: d
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection against lightening over
voltages ?
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it will resort to which of the
following ?
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for electricity
Ans: a
Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the following ?
Ans: d
(b) shares
(c) bonds
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period ?
(a) Shares
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for power factor
improvement ?
Ans: d
ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Mcqs Pdf ::
of traction ?
Ans: a
2. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system ?
(a) 22 V
(b) 440 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 15 kV
Ans: a
Ans: b
4. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by
(a) flywheel
Ans:
Ans: e
(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
Ans: b
(a) 50 to 200
Ans: c
(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam
Ans: a
(a) up to 1500
Ans: a
(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 20 percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: c
13. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive gas exists ?
Ans: c
Ans: c
15. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to
(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a
(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Ans: c
Ans: b
(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans: c
19. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered to
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) 20 to 25 percent
(b) 30 to 40 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
(d) 60 to 70 percent
Ans: a
(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
Ans: d
23. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel engine
locomotive on broad gauge is usually restricted to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 17
Ans: b
24. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track ?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: c
(c) It is instantaneous
Ans: a
26. Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly ?
Ans: a
Ans: d
28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive will be
Ans: b
29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of the following
?
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over other
systems of traction ?
Ans: c
33. Co-efficient of adhesion is
(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
Ans: b
34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban and
suburban services on following account
Ans: d
Ans: c
36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of the following
?
(b) Gradient
Ans: d
(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
Ans: c
(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b
(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b
40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which of the
following?
(c) Pitching
Ans: a
Ans: c
(b) Ejector
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
46. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
(a) greased
(b) wet
Ans: d
47. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a) 12 V
(b) 24 V
(c) 220 V
Ans: d
48. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the least efficient
method of speed control ?
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: d
51. Locomotive having monomotor bogies
(c) has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
Ans: d
52. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the following
account ?
Ans: b
Ans: c
54. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which of the
following?
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: b
(b) Gradient
Ans: d
58. In case of ________ free running and coasting periods are generally long.
Ans: a
59. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum height of
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
Ans: c
(b) rails
(c) cables
Ans: b
(b) urban
(c) suburban
Ans: a
62. Locomotives with monometer bogies have
Ans: b
(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Ans: d
(a) 40 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 16 Hz
Ans: a
(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz
(d) 16 Hz
Ans: b
66. Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long distance electric train, is
provided
Ans: b
67. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first time in which of
the following years ?
(a) 1820—1825
(b) 1880—1885
(c) 1925—1932
(d) 1947—1954
Ans: c
(a) electrical-pneumatic
(b) mechanical-electrical
(c) hydro-mechanical
(d) hydro-pneumatic
Ans: c
(c) 60 to 80 kg
(d) 28 to 30 kg
Ans: d
Ans: c
71. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance requirements are the
least?
Ans: b
72. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV, 50 Hz single
phase traction ?
Ans: b
73. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the following could
be the value for wet rails ?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.225
(d) 0.16
Ans: d
74. watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy consumption for
suburban services.
(a) 15—20
(b) 50—75
(c) 120—150
(d) 160—200
Ans: b
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
Ans: d
(c) 5 to 10 km phps
(d) 15 to 25 km phps
Ans: b
(c) 16 km phps
(d) 40 km phps
Ans: a
(a) malleability
(b) toughness
(c) softness
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
Ans: c
4. The formula ____ determines the number of electrons that can be
accommodated in any level.
(a) 2n2
(6) 4n2
(c) 2n3
(d) 4ns
Ans: a
5. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small group of atoms is called
the
Ans: a
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) kanthal
Ans: a
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
Ans: c
11. Which of the following materials is preferred for transmitting electrical
energy over long distance ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
Ans: d
(d) infinite
Ans: a
Ans: f
14. The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: a
17. The value of critical field below the transition temperature will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: e
21. Mercury as an electric contact material is
(a) a liquid
(b) a metal
(d) a gas
Ans: c
Ans: a
23. Which of the following resistive materials has the lowest temperature co-
efficient of resistance ?
(a) Nichrome
(b) Constantan
(c) Kanthal
(d) Molybdenum
Ans: a
24. The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with wire of
(a) copper
(b) kanthal
(c) manganin
(d) nichrome
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) 18.0°K
(6) 9.22°K
(c) 4.12°K
(d) 1.14’K
Ans: c
27. By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy the residual resistivity
always
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
28. The structure sensitive property of a super conductor is
(a) critical magnetic field
Ans: c
(a) zero
Ans: a
30. Which of the following variety of copper has the best conductivity ?
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) Carbon
(b) Steel
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium
Ans: a
(b) Carbon
(c) Porcelain
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
(c) microwaves
Ans: d
(a) Copper-constantan
(b) Aluminium-tin
(d) Iron-steel
Ans: a
36. is viscoelastic.
(a) Cast-iron
(6) Graphite
(c) Rubber
(d) Glass
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
39 ______ is most commonly used for making magnetic recording tape
(d) Silicon-iron
Ans: b
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(d) copper
Ans: b
(a) Glass
(b) Quartz
(c) Corrundum
(d) Neoprene
Ans: b
(a) Fe203
(b) Si02
(c) AI2O3
(d) B2O3
Ans: b
43. A good electric contact material should have all of the following properties
except
Ans: a
(a) linear
(b) hexagonal
(c) orthorhombic
(d) cubic
Ans: d
45. Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of electrical conductors ?
(a) Composition
(b) Pressure
(c) Size
(d) Temperature
Ans: a
46. Thermonic emission occurs in
(a) vacuum tubes
(d) transistors
Ans: a
(a) Tin-lead
(6) Tin-silver-lead
(c) Copper-zinc
Ans: c
48. Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron _____ the electrical resistivity of iron.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: a
Ans: c
50. Non-linear resistors
Ans: a
Ans: d
52. Which of the following materials does not have covalent bonds ?
(b) Silicon
(c) Metals
Ans: c
(a) covalent
(b) metallic
Ans: d
54. Total number of crystal systems is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 12
Ans: c
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Ans: b
(a) the electronic concentration and the mobility of the free electrons
Ans: a
Ans: a
58. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by
Ans: c
59. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does not corrode in
atmosphere ?
(b) Atmospheric oxygen can only diffuse very slowly through the oxide layer which is formed
on the surface of aluminium
Ans: b
Ans: b
(a) Silica
(b) Germanium
(c) Selenium
(d) Gallium-arsenide
Ans: a
(b) compact
(c) inexpensive
Ans: d
63. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
Ans: c
64. Due to which of the following factors the brush wear rate is altered ?
Ans: e
65. Which of the following are non-conductors of electricity?
Ans: d
66. Carbon bearings are used under which of the following conditions ?
Ans: d
67. Which of the following high resistance materials has the highest operating
temperature ?
(a) Kanthal
(b) Manganin
(c) Nichrome
(d) Eureka
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
(b) thermocouple
Ans: e
Ans: d
72. Due to which of the following reasons copper and aluminium are not used for
heating elements ?
Ans: d
73. Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of electrical machines
because
(e) copper windings are less bulky and the machines become compact
Ans: d
74. Which of the following materials is used for making coils of standard
resistances ?
(a) Copper
(b) Nichrome
(c) Platinum
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
(a) insulators
(b) conductors
(c) semiconductors
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: c
(a) Solubility
(b) Viscosity
(c) Porosity
(d) Hygroscopicity
Ans: d
(a) temperature
(b) resistance
Ans: b
Ans: d
(a) Phosphorous
(b) Rubber
(c) Silicon
(d) Aluminium
Ans: c
(a) extrnisic
(b) intmisic
(c) N-type
(d) P-type
Ans: b
(a) Diamond
Ans: d
84. The photo-electric effect occurs only when the incident light has more than a
certain critical
(a) intensity
(b) speed
(c) frequency
Ans: c
85. If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in accordance with Ohm’s law it
is known as
(c) bad-conductor
(d) non-conductor
Ans: a
86. Spark plug makes use of which of the following materials for insulation ?
(a) Porcelain
(b) Slate
(c) Asbestos
(d) Glass
Ans: a
(a) large
(b) small
(c) nil
Ans: a
(b) Alloying
(c) Temperature
Ans: e
Ans: e
Ans: c
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) negative
Ans: a
Ans: a
93. The carbon percentage is least in
Ans: b
94. For a particular material the Hall coefficient was found to be zero. The
material is
(a) insulator
(6) metal
Ans: b
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: c
96. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is the hole current in
valence band.
(a) equal to
Ans: c
Ans: b
(a) An acceptor
(b) A donor
(c) Germanium
(d) Silicon
Ans: a
(c) temperature
Ans: c
100. For germanium the forbidden energy gap is
(a) 0.15 eV
(b) 0.25 eV
(C) 0.5eV
(d) 0.7eV
Ans: d
(a) Cost
(b) Durability
Ans: d
(a) Saturation
(c) Efficiency
Ans: e
(a) high
(b) low
Ans: a
4. If an insulating material is operated beyond the maximum allowable
temperature, its life is
(c) unaffected
Ans: b
(a) low
(b) medium
(c) high
Ans: c
Ans: b
7. In ______ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by the critical speed which
depends on the deflection of the shaft.
(a) small
(b) medium
(c) large
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
11. Commercial available medium size machines have a speed range of ______ .
Ans: d
(a) Induction
(b) Interaction
(c) Alignment
Ans: d
13. The change in flux linkages can be caused in which of the following ways ?
(a) The flux is constant with respect to time and is stationary and the coil moves through it
(b) The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the flux varies in magnitude with respect to
time
(c) Both the changes mentioned above occur together, i.e., the coil moves through a time
varying field
Ans: d
fracture.
(a) Silver
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d
(a) conductors
(b) semiconductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
(b) Aluminium
Ans: d
19 ______is extensively used for those portions of magnetic circuit which carry
steady flux and need superior mechanical properties ?
Ans: b
20. Hot rolled sheets have ______ value of permeability
(a) zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: b
21. The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat into their
surroundings by which of the following modes of heat dissipation ?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
Ans: d
22. The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its temperature and its
characteristics like colour, roughness etc.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
Ans: c
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(e) radiation
Ans: b
Ans: e
25. Which of the following methods is used for air cooling of turbo-alternators ?
Ans: d
26. Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators can be used for
machines of rating upto
(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans: c
27. Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen cooling ?
Ans: e
(a) 0.07
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5
Ans: a
29. Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient _____ times that of air
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5
Ans: a
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: d
(a) 50 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 200 MW
Ans: c
32. The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less as the rotor moves in
a medium of smaller density.
(a) air
(b) hydrogen
Ans: b
33. cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and field winding losses to a
cooling medium circulating within the winding insulation wall
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
Ans: a
34. Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be called
(a) “supercharged”
Ans: d
35. In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and rotor conductors are
made
(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
Ans: b
(a) 200 MW
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW
Ans: d
(a) 10 Q m
(b) 100 Q m
(c) 1000 Q m
(d) 2000 Q m
Ans: d
Ans: c
39. The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its final steady temperature
rise is called
Ans: a
40. In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about ______ than the
heating time constant because cooling conditions are worse at standstill.
(a) 2 to 3 times greater
Ans: a
41. By which of the following methods motor rating for variable load drives can
be determined ?
Ans: e
42. Which of the following methods does not take into account the maximum
temperature rise under variable load conditions ?
Ans: c
Ans: a
44. By which of the following methods the temperature rise of windings and other
parts may be determined ?
Ans: d
45. The slot leakage can be calculated by making which of the following
assumptions ?
(a) The current in the slot conductors is uniformly distributed over their cross-section
(b) The leakage path is straight across the slot and around the iron at the bottom
(c) The permanence of air paths is only considered. The reluctance of iron paths is assumed as
zero
Ans: d
46. The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends upon which of the
following factors ?
Ans: d
Ans: c
(a) Tractive
(b) Portative
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: a
51. The design of electromagnets is based upon which of the following
fundamental equations ?
Ans: e
52. When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced exactly one pole pitch apart
they are said to be of
Ans: b
Ans: a
54. The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils measured in terms of
coil sides is called
Ans: b
55. The winding where dummy coils are used is sometimes called
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: c
59. In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-section of the yoke is made about _____
greater than that of the core
(a) 5 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 30 percent
Ans: c
Ans: a
61. The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ______ permeability in the direction of the grain
orientation.
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) nil
Ans: b
(c) multi-layered
Ans: c
Ans: b
64. Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used in the transformers as high voltage
windings
(a) upto 20 kV
(b) upto 50 kV
(c) upto 80 kV
Ans: d
Ans: c
66. The heat dissipating capability of transformers of ratings higher than 30 kVA in increased
by providing which of
the following ?
(a) Corrugations
(b) Fins
(c) Tubes
Ans: e
67. Transformers with a capacity of up to _____ have a cooling radiator system with natural
cooling
(a) 2 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(d) 10 MVA
Ans: d
68. The forced oil and air circulation method is usual one for transformers of capacities
Ans: d
(a) 40°C
(b) 60°C
(c) 80°C
(d) 104°C
Ans: d
70. The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on account of which of the
following reasons ?
(c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage variations in accordance with
variations of load
Ans: d
71. D.C. windings are
Ans: c
72. The usual values of maximum flux densities for distribution transformers using hot rolled
silicon steel are
Ans: c
73. For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain oriented steel, which of the following
values of flux density may be used?
Ans: d
74. For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air blast type which of the following
values of current density may be used ?
Ans: c
75. A current density of _____ is ilsed for large power transformers with forced circulation of
oil or with water cooling coils
Ans: d
76. The high voltage winding is usually which of the following type ?
Ans: d
77. Which of the following is the basic consideration in the design of insulation ?
Ans: d
78. A practical formula for determining the thickness of insulation between low voltage and
high voltage windings is
(c) 4 + 0.7 kV mm
(d) 5 + 0.9 kV mm
Ans: d
79. The insulation between windings and grounded core and the insulation between the
windings of the same phase is
called
Ans: b
80. The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are used for current rating of
(a) upto 20 A
(b) upto 40 A
(c) upto 60 A
(d) upto 80 A
Ans: d
81. The surge phenomenon is particularly important in case of
Ans: c
(a) Traction
Ans: e
Ans: a
(6) interpoles
(c) frame
Ans: d
85. The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are usually _____ thick.
Ans: d
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d
87. ______ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of commutator,
Ans: a
88. Which of the following brushes can be used for high values of current density ?
Ans: a
(a) Radial
(b) Trailing
(c) Reaction
Ans: d
90. Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors which are fed from thyristor bridge
circuits ?
Ans: e
91. The weight of copper of both armature and field windings decreases with _____ in number
of poles.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
92. In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is _____ the number of poles.
(b) equal to
Ans: b
93. In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not be more than
(a) 100 A
(6) 200 A
(e) 300 A
(d) 400 A
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed should not, normally, exceed
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s
Ans: c
(a) 4 mm
(b) 6 mm
(c) 8 mm
(d) 10 mm
Ans: d
96. D.C. machines designed with a large value of air gap length have
Ans: c
97. In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive distortion of field form by the armature
reaction, the field mmf must be made
Ans: c
98. In D.C. machines, the ____ in field mmf results in increase in size and cost of machines.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
99. The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap lengths is comparatively
(a) quiet
(b) noisy
Ans: a
100. Which of the following methods may be adopted to reduce the effects of armature reaction
?
(d) Interpoles
Ans: e
(a) between 5 to 10 mm
(b) between 10 to 15 mm
(c) between 15 to 20 mm
(d) between 25 to 35 mm
Ans: d
110. In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole usually lies
(a) between 2 to 4
(b) between 6 to 8
(c) between 9 to 16
(d) between 20 to 30
Ans: c
Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known
as ______ constant
(a) time
(b) Faraday’s
(c) Boltzman
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) temperature
Ans: b
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-
acid battery are
Ans: c
7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the color of its positive
plate is
(b) brown
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: b
10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: b
13. Cells are connected in series in order to
Ans: a
(a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to
its
(a) compactness
Ans: d
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
Ans: d
21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination
and hence produce electricity during charging or discharging are known
as______materials.
(a) passive
(b) active
(c) redundant
(d) inert
Ans: b
Ans: c
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic
lead (Pb)
Ans: e
24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
Ans: d
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
(b) temperature
Ans: e
29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _____
appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that of the lead-acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
(c) lead
Ans: a
(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
Ans: a
(c) equal to
Ans: a
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
Ans: d
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
Ans: c
41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
Ans: d
(a) manometer
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell
is in
Ans: b
44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum
or minimum value
Ans: a
Ans: d
46. Undercharging
Ans: a
Ans: c
48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: a
49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens because of
Ans: e
50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called ______ materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
Ans: d
56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
Ans: d
60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
Ans: d
(a) rectifiers
Ans: d
62. Cell short circuit results in
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
Ans: d
Ans: d
67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following
ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
Ans: c
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
Ans: a
73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
Ans: d
Ans: a
(b) rubber
Ans: d
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
Ans: d
82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(b) gassing
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
(a) equal to
Ans: b
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____ hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.21
Ans: d
90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
Ans: d
91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully charged state to fully
discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material
of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
(a) no
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
Ans: d
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
Ans: d
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container.
This is done
Ans: c
101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta’s should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
other
Ans: d
102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
Ans: b
105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
Ans: b
(a) Lead-acid
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
Ans: c
(c) Water
Ans: c
Ans: a
110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
Ans: d
113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
Ans: c
(a) chlorine
(d) iron
Ans: d
Ans: b
116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an automobile battery ?
Ans: b
117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: a
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
BALAGURUNATHAN
JUNE 12, 2016 AT 4:54 PM
very useful
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(a) self-inductance
(d) capacitance
Answer: a
Answer: c
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(d) Resistance
Answer: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
Answer: a
Answer: d
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air
cored coil. The inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Answer: b
Answer: b
8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: d
13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils depends on
Answer: d
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
Answer: b
15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause
producing them is due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Answer: b
(a) Henry
Answer: b
Answer: b
18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit
current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
Answer: b
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Answer: c
20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?
(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(d) Webers/metre
Answer: b
21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of
current must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Answer: d
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If
the core length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the
inductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH
(d)48mH
Answer: a
23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of
coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Answer: c
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Answer: b
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is
increased to 400 turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the
same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Answer: d
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being
zero. If the two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Answer: c
27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient
of coupling will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Answer: b
28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive
reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
Answer: d
29. A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux
density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will
be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Answer: c
(b) charge
(c) energy
Answer: c
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1
tesla. The force on the conductor will be nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Answer: b
32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes
at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Answer: a
33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
Answer: c
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Answer: d
35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what
time interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Answer: c
36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
Answer: a
37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value
of inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Answer: b
38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Answer: b
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Answer: c
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
Answer: b
Answer: d
42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage
in the coil is not affected by
Answer: b
43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is
moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:
44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand
generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: a
45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the
conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b
46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: a
49. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the
lines of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b
50. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in
volts when the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit Weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: b
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
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we wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
1. Parallel
2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
ELECTRONIC
INSTRUMENTS
Questions
Amperes
kO/V
Ans : 3
10 kO/V
100 kO/V
50 kO/V
20 kO/V
Ans : 4
8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 O per volt and reads 50 V full scale, its
internal resistance is ………..
20 kO
50 kO
10 kO
Ans : 2
More
Less
Same
Ans : 1
1000 O
10 kO
20 kO
10 MO
Ans : 4
11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is increased, the intensity
of spot ………….
Is increased
Is decreased
Ans : 2
12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the horizontal plates
of a CRO
Sinusoidal
Rectangular
Sawtooth
Ans : 3
Ans : 2
GS/(G+S)
G+S
G-S
Ans : 1
Voltage
Current
Resistance
Ans : 2
1 kO/V
10 kO/V
5 kO/V
Data insufficient
Ans : 2
17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range when the meter
movement is rated for 50 µA of full-scale current?
10 kO
20 kO
200 kO
Ans : 3
18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
Carbon
Sulphur
Silicon
Phosphorous
Ans : 4
19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current will ………..
Increase
Decrease
Ans : 2
3 kO
kO
kO
6 kO
Ans : 1
Voltmeter
Multimeter
CRO
VTVM
Ans : 3
22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to observe the
waveform of signal.
Sinusoidal wave
Cosine wave
Sawtooth wave
Ans : 3
Voltage
Frequency
Phase
All of above
Ans : 4
G/50
G/49
49 G
50 G
Ans : 2
Voltmeter of range 10 V
Moving coil galvanometer
Ammeter of range 1 A
Ans : 1
Low
Infinite
Zero
High
Ans : 3
Low
Infinite
Zero
High
Ans : 2
28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of
resistance 99 O the shunt required is …………..
11 O
9 O
100 O
9 O
Ans : 1
29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The value of
resistance required in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV is ……………
nG
G/n
G/(n-1)
(n-1)G
Ans : 4
30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I amperes. The value of
resistance required in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range nI is
………….
nG
(n-1)G
G/(n-1)
G/n
Ans : 3
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 meters from a point charge is
200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to 2 meters, the field intensity will be
Ans: c
Ans: b
(a) proportional to d
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: b
7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the
existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
Ans: d
8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of an air capacitor, the
capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
Ans: b
9. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
(a) resistor
(b) insulator
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: b
18. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being charged from a constant
voltage source are separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
Ans: b
19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow
in the circuit because
Ans: a
20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100
times greater than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50
(6) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
Ans: b
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
23. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed”.
Ans: b
24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C
Ans: c
25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
Ans: d
Ans: b
27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
(b) dielectric
Ans: b
29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
30. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
Ans: c
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
Ans: b
32. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
Ans: b
33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
Ans: a
34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
(a) zero
Ans: a
Ans: b
37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Ans: b
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans:
(a) tubes
(c) disc
Ans: b
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a
(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
Ans: c
46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
Ans: b
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
Ans: a
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
Ans: b
52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
53. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
Ans: a
56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which
will have more value of capacitance ?
Ans: a
58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
(a) 20 to 60 volts
Ans:
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
64. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
Ans: b
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the
capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
Ans: b
66. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5%
(b) ± 10%
(c) ± 15%
(d) ± 20%
Ans: b
67. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
Ans: b
68. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance
of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
(a) Coulomb/meter
(b) Coulomb/meter
(c) Coulomb/meter
(d) Coulomb/meter
Ans: c
70. “The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface”.
Ans: a
(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
Ans: c
(d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
73. capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(e) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
76. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
Ans: a
79. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of
high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
Ans: b
80. ________field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
Ans: a
(a) 50 joules
Ans: d
82. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
Ans: b
83. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
Ans: d
(a) current
(b) voltage
(d) charge
Ans: d
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
86. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a
charged body is known as
(d) induction
Ans: d
87. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
88. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
Ans: a
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:
90. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
Ans: c
91. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit
cross section at that point.
Ans: a
92. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
Ans: c
(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
94. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
Ans: a
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
(a) increases
(b) decreases
Ans: b
(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
Ans: a
98. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
Ans: b
99. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 £2. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
101. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
voltage actually rises to ______ percent of its value.
Ans: c
102 The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to ______ percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
Ans:
Ans: d
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/meter
(c) Weber/meter
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
Ans: d
107. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is
applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
Ans: c
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
Ans: d
(a) 1 meter/coulomb
(c) 1 newton/meter
(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
Ans: a
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
Ans: d
112. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
113. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
Ans: c
114. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
115. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
Ans: c
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the
charging body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
Ans: b
117. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: c
120. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
Ans: a
122. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(c)few megohms
(d) zero
Ans: d
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
Ans: c
124. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: c
127. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then
this third charge will
Ans: b
Ans: a
129. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
Ans: a
Ans: d
131. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a
force of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
(a) J/mm
(b) C/m2
(c) kV/mm
(d) N/mm
Ans: c
133. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
Ans: d
(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Paper
Ans: c
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: a
136. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
Ans: b
137. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
Ans: c
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: a
Ans: d
(b) dielectric
Ans: b
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
Raghunath Munda
FEBRUARY 11, 2017 AT 5:15 PM
Hi …I want a details about electrostatic potential gradient….
REPLY
manash
NOVEMBER 6, 2016 AT 4:43 AM
sir ,some questions r wrong here 26-c,40-b,85-d,148-b r absolutely right
REPLY
arvind.suryawanshi
OCTOBER 3, 2016 AT 3:40 PM
Q.40 – B
REPLY
Arvind.Suryawanshi
SEPTEMBER 26, 2016 AT 5:37 AM
Q85. D is correct answer.
REPLY
jayendra
AUGUST 21, 2016 AT 11:19 AM
85. ans. a
REPLY
kiran
JULY 25, 2016 AT 11:15 AM
Q85 -ans-D
REPLY
arun
APRIL 29, 2016 AT 6:04 AM
17—D ans plzz correct that
REPLY
santosh murkut
APRIL 9, 2016 AT 11:11 AM
Q-148 .
REPLY
santosh murkut
APRIL 9, 2016 AT 7:00 AM
Q-26 ans should be -C
REPLY
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Ans : 3
1. diode
2. pentode
3. triode
4. tetrode
Ans : 2
1. unipolar
2. bipolar
3. unijunction
4. none of the above
Ans : 1
4. A JFET is a ………… driven device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both current and voltage
4. none of the above
Ans : 2
1. reverse
2. forward
3. reverse as well as forward
4. none of the above
Ans : 1
1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Ans : 3
Ans : 2
8. When drain voltage equals the pinch-off-voltage, then drain current ………….
with the increase in drain voltage
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains constant
4. none of the above
Ans : 3
9. If the reverse bias on the gate of a JFET is increased, then width of the
conducting channel …………..
1. is decreased
2. is increased
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Ans : 1
Ans : 4
Ans : 3
small
very high
very small
Ans : 2
gate voltage
source voltage
drain voltage
gate current
Ans : 1
Ans : 3
of impurity atoms
Ans : 2
16. In a JFET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off voltage, the depletion
layers ………
Ans : 1
Ans : 2
Ans : 1
triode
ordinary trnsistor
tetrode
JFET
Ans : 4
many gate
open gate
insulated gate
shorted gate
Ans : 3
21. Which of the following devices has the highest input impedance?
JFET
MOSFET
Crystal diode
ordinary transistor
Ans : 2
22. A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ………. to control the channel current
capacitor
battery
generator
Ans : 1
23. The pinch-off voltage in a JFET is analogous to ………. voltage in a vacuum
tube
anode
cathode
Ans : 3
forward
reverse
not
none of the above
Ans : 2
26. If the gate of a JFET is made less negative, the width of the conducting
channel……….
is decreased
is increased
Ans : 3
27. The pinch-off voltage of a JFET is about ……….
5 V
0.6 V
15 V
25 V
Ans : 1
a few hundred O
kO
several MO
Ans : 4
29. The gate voltage in a JFET at which drain current becomes zero is called
……….. voltage
saturation
pinch-off
active
cut-off
Ans : 2
four
five
two
Ans : 4
0.5 to 30 mA/V
Ans : 3
plate
cathode
grid
Ans : 2
tetrode
triode
diode
Ans : 1
35. If the cross-sectional area of the channel in n-channel JEFT increases, the
drain current ……….
is increased
is decreased
Ans : 1
Ans : 2
37. For VGS = 0 V, the drain current becomes constant when VDS exceeds ………
cut off
VDD
VP
o V
Ans : 3
38. A certain JFET data sheet gives VGS(off) = -4 V. The pinch-off voltage Vp is
……..
+4 V
-4 V
dependent on VGS
data insufficient
Ans : 1
o and IDSS
Ans : 4
extremely narrow
reverse baised
Ans : 2
of power rating
Ans : 3
42. A certain D-MOSFET is biased at VGS = 0 V. Its data sheet specifies IDSS =
20mA and VGS(off) = -5 V. The value of the drain current is …………
20 mA
0 mA
40 mA
10 mA
Ans : 1
the enhancement-mode
cut off
saturation
Ans : 2
44. A certain p-channel E-MOSFET has VGS(th) = -2V. If VGS= 0V, the drain
current is ……….
0 mA
ID(on)
maximum
IDSS
Ans : 1
Ans : 1
46. In a certain common-source D-MOSFET amplifier, Vds =3.2 V r.m. and Vgs =
280 mV r.m.s. The voltage gain is …………
1
11.4
8.75
3.2
Ans : 2
47. In a certain CS JFET amplifier, RD= 1kO , RS= 560 O , VDD=10V and gm=
4500 µS. If the source resistor is completely bypassed, the voltage gain is …………
450
45
2.52
4.5
Ans : 4
48. A certain common-source JFET has a voltage gain of 10. If the source bypass
capacitor is removed, ……………….
Ans : 3
49. A CS JFET amplifier has a load resistance of 10 kO , RD= 820O . If gm= 5mS
and Vin= 500 mV, the output signal voltage is ………..
2.05 V
25 V
0.5 V
1.89 V
Ans : 4
50. If load resistance in the above question (Q.49) is removed, the output voltage
will …………
1. increase
2. decrease
3. stay the same
4. be zero
Ans : 1
Ans: d
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Brass
(d) Steel
Ans: a
Ans: d
4. method has leading power factor
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: a
(d) at least one of the bodies must have some source of heating
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: a
12. The process of heat transfer during the reentry of satellites and missiles, at
very high speeds, into earth’s atmosphere is known as
(a) ablation
(b) radiation
(d) irradiation
Ans: a
13. Which of the following has the highest value of thermal conductivity ?
(a) Water
(b) Steam
Ans: c
Ans: d
15. Which of the following insulating materials was suitable for low temperature
applications ?
(d) Cork
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
18. Which of the following will happen if the thickness of refractory wall of
furnace is increased ?
Ans: c
19. The material of the heating element for a furnace should have
Ans: c
(a) oxidizing
(b) deoxidising
(c) reducing
(d) neutral
Ans: a
21. By which of the following methods the temperature inside arc nace can be
varied ?
Ans: d
(b) frequency
(c) current
(d) voltage
Ans: b
23. By the use of which of the following, high frequency power supply for
induction furnaces can be obtained ?
Ans: c
Ans: a
25. In an electric room heat convector the method of heating used is
Ans: b
(b) thermostat
(c) auto-transformer
Ans: d
(a) as an insulator
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: a
(b) nichrome
(d) silver
Ans: c
Ans: a
32. Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to have short arc length ?
Ans: e
33. In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum heat-transfer takes place
by
(a) radiation
(b) convection
(c) conduction
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) zero
(c) unity
Ans: b
(a) T1
(b) T2
(c) T3
(d) T*
Ans: d
Ans: a
39. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when
Ans: b
(a) series
(b) parallel
Ans: e
Ans: a
(c) due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy current loss takingplace in the charge
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) Thermostat
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Auto-transformer
Ans: b
46. For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating elements are made of
(a) copper alloy
(b) carbon
Ans: c
(c) The area of the surface over which heat is produced can be accurately controlled
Ans: d
(a) tungsten
(b) graphite
(c) silver
(d) copper
Ans: b
49. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power factors ?
(a) Unity
Ans: b
50. In direct arc furnace, which of the following has high value ?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
Ans: a
1. Mixed
2. Single
3. Unique
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. None of the above
Answer: 2
Answer: 2
HYBRID PARAMETERS
Questions and Answers
pdf
Ans : 1
Ans : 3
6. The dimensions of hie parameter are ………..
Mho
Ohm
Farad
Ans : 2
Voltage gain
Current gain
Input impedance
Ans : 2
Also change
Do not change
Ans : 1
Ans : 3
10. In order to determine hfe and hie parameters of a transistor, ………… is an a.c.
short-circuited
Input
Output
Ans : 2
Do not change
Also change
Ans : 3
Hoe
Hre
Ans : 1
1. The selection of an electric motor for any application depends on which of the
following factors ?
(d) Cost
Answer: e
Answer: e
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
(a) 2 kW
(b) 20 kW
(c) 50 kW
(d) 100 kW
Answer: d
(b) continuous
Answer: d
Answer: d
(c) Efficiency
(d) Braking
Answer: d
10. Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for overhead travelling cranes ?
Answer: c
Answer: b
12. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used for ______
excavators.
Answer: c
13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ?
Answer: a
(a) Frame
(b) Rearing
Answer: b
(c) Air-conditioners
Answer: d
16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal pump, will be of least
significance ?
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: a
19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling mills ?
Answer: d
(c) Cage
(d) Bush
Answer: d
21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of which of the following?
(a) Flux
(d) Speed
Answer: d
(b) needle
(c) bush
(d) thrust
Answer: a
23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are still preferred ?
(b) Reversibility
Answer: c
24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required
Answer: c
(d) is compact
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: b
28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably used for
Answer: b
(a) Pulley
(b) Starter
(d) Bearings
Answer: b
Answer: c
31. method of starting a three phase induction motor needs six terminals.
(a) Star-delta
(c) Auto-transformer
Answer: a
32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction motors the starting
voltage is not reduced.
(a) auto-transformer
(b) star-delta
Answer: c
33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against ______ load.
(a) heavy
(b) medium
(c) normal
(d) low
Answer: a
34. For a motor-generator set which of the following motors will be preferred ?
Answer: a
35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for kiln drives ?
Answer: d
(a) transformers
Answer: d
38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the following methods of starting
cannot be used ?
Answer: a
39. In which of the following applications the load on motor changes in cyclic
order ?
(b) Cranes
Answer: d
Answer: d
(c) Planer
(d) Lathe
Answer: b
42. For derries and winches which of the following drives can be used ?
Answer: d
(a) plugging
Answer: b
Answer: b
45. has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio.
Answer: c
46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit is
possible,
Answer: d
47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the following motors ?
Answer: c
48. In ________ the speed can be varied by changing the position of brushes.
Answer: b
49. In which of the following applications variable speed operation is preferred ?
(c) Refrigerator
Answer: b
Answer: d
(a) 20 to 30 m/s
(b) 10 to 15 m/s
(c) 5 to 10 m/s
Answer: d
Answer: c
53. By the use of which of the following m D.C. can be obtained from AC. ?
Answer: d
54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick speed reversal is the
main consideration ?
Answer: d
55. Which of the following motors is preferred when smooth and precise speed
control over a wide range is desired ?
Answer: a
56. For crane travel which of the following motors is normally used ?
Answer: d
(b) span
(c) tonnes
Answer: c
58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering are which of the
following ?
Answer: d
59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom hoist of a travelling
crane ?
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: c
63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is incorrect ?
Answer: a
64. For which of the following applications motor has to start with high
acceleration?
Answer: c
Answer: b
66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of the following
characteristics is of great importance ?
(c) Noise
Answer: c
67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor depends on which of the
following ?
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: a
70. In series motor which of the following methods can be used for changing the
flux per pole ?
Answer: d
1. Very large
2. Large
3. Extremely small
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Copper
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
Thin films
Monolithic
Hybrid
Ans : 2
INTEGRATED
CIRCUITS
Questions
DIL
Flatpack
TO-5
Ans : 2
Transistors
Diodes
Resistors
Ans : 4
Linear IC
Ans : 2
Resistors
Capacitors
Ans : 3
Digital
Linear
Ans : 1
A resistor
An insulating layer
Mechanical output
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
Thin-film
Hybrid
Thick-film
Monolithic
Ans : 4
Ans : 3
Linear ICs
Digital ICs
Ans : 2
Diode
Transistor
FET
Capacitor
Ans : 4
INTEGRATED CIRCUITS Objective Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
HOME Interview Questions MCQs *LAB VIVA CLASS NOTES SEMINAR TOPICS ONLINE TEST GATE CAT
Internship ABOUT US Privacy Policy
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
Ans: a
6. Relative permeability of vacuum is
(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
Ans: a
(b) aluminium
Ans: a
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c)41.4
(d) 100
Ans: c
9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and
transformer cores which have____permeability and_______hystersis loss.
Ans: c
Ans: b
11. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
Ans: a
12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when
suddenly connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is_______Vs
(a) 50
(b) 20
(c) 0.05
(d) 500
Ans: b
13. A material for good magnetic memory should have
Ans: d
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance
Ans: c
Ans: d
16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have
_____ retentivity and _______ coercivity.
Ans: b
17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the hysteresis loss in this
material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: c
20. Conductance is analogous to
(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance
Ans: a
21. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is
known as
(a) reluctivity
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
Ans: d
(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
Ans: b
(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is
compared with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
26. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
Ans: a
27. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(b) frequency
Ans: d
Ans: b
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
sushmitha j
JULY 25, 2017 AT 9:10 AM
sir i have applied for kpcl exam 2017 for electrical je post plz provide ob-
jective types question based on that syllabus
REPLY
B G SHENDGE
JULY 21, 2017 AT 4:35 PM
Please send me quastion answers on ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING in pdf
please
REPLY
Beereshekkelore
FEBRUARY 10, 2017 AT 2:48 PM
Question no 25 is how
REPLY
arun
DECEMBER 19, 2016 AT 6:48 PM
i m sorry i was wrong ….answer should be D
REPLY
arun
DECEMBER 19, 2016 AT 6:46 PM
answer of q no 27 will be B
REPLY
Dibakar mech
FEBRUARY 27, 2016 AT 2:44 PM
Sir, can you provide objective question on alternator in pdf file.
REPLY
Henry
FEBRUARY 15, 2016 AT 8:18 AM
Ans for Q.26 should be option “a”
REPLY
sarita
OCTOBER 29, 2016 AT 12:43 AM
How???? I think optin D for Ques 26.
REPLY
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(b) inductance
(d) flux
Ans: c
(d) through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
Ans: d
(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
Ans: c
6. Air gap has_______eluctance as compared to iron or steel path
(a) little
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) zero
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: b
(a) proportional to 7
(b) proportional to X
Ans: b
Ans: b
(a) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to go away from
the piece
(b) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in order to pass through
the piece
Ans: b
Ans: c
13. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is known as
(b) susceptibility
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: d
(a) henry/metre
(b) henry
(c) henry/sq. m
(d) it is dimensionless
Ans: d
17. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is placed
parallel to a magnetic field. The force experienced by the conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) BLI2
Ans: a
18. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to
Ans: d
Ans: b
20. Indicate which of the following material does not retain magnetism
permanently.
Ans: a
(a) cobalt
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) tungsten
Ans: c
(a) magnetoes
(c) transformers
(d) loud-speakers
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans:
25. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of free space
are known as
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) bipolar
Ans: c
26. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum any separated 1 metre
between centers >then a current of 1 ampere flows the. uk each conductor,
produce on each other a force of
Ans: d
27. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents
(a) voltage
(b) current
Ans: c
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Nickel
Ans: d
Ans: d
(c) conductance
(d) permittivity
Ans: b
31. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet. In order to
protect the meter functioning from stray magnetic fields
Ans: b
(a) reluctivity
(b) susceptibility
(c) permittivity
(d) conductance
Ans: a
(b) ferrites
Ans: d
34. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ?
(a) weber
(b) lumens
(c) tesla
Ans: c
35. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been removed is known
as
(a) permeance
(c) susceptance
(d) reluctance
Ans: b
(a) Maxwell
(b) Telsa
(c) Weber
Ans: b
(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Ebonite
Ans: d
(a) 1 Wb/mm2
(b) 1 Wb/m
(c) 1 Wb/m2
(d) 1 mWb/m2
Ans: c
39. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which statement
is not true ?
(b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the force exerted upon a charge
placed at that point
(c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric charge would experience a
force
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a charge of one coulomb
Ans: b
40. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not
depend upon
Ans: a
(a) 10 webers
(b) 10 webers
(c) 10 webers
(d) 10 webers
Ans: d
42. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the terminals of a
battery, the field at the center of the circle
Ans: d
Ans: c
44. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are separated by
20 mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor will be
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1 N
(d) 0.1 N
Ans: d
(a) 240 N
(6) 24 N
(c) 2.4 N
(d) 0.24 N
Ans: c
(a) 8 N-m
Ans: c
47. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through the coil. If
the length of the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the magnetic field strength ?
(c) 25 AT/m
Ans: b
48. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length of a pair of
conductors of a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and spaced 100 mm apart
?
(a) 22 x 10″8 N
(b) 22 x 10″7 N
(c) 22 x 10-6 N
(d) 22 x 10″5 N
Ans: d
Ans: c
50. The unit of flux is the same as that of
(a) reluctance
(b) resistance
(c) permeance
Ans: d
(a) ampere-hour
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) coulomb
Ans: d
Ans: c
53. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft iron is by
(b) induction
Ans: a
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(d) brass
Ans: c
55. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended magnetic needle,
the magnetic needle shall start rotating with a velocity
Ans: d
Ans: a
57. The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for the construction of
(b) transformers
(d) electromagnets
Ans: a
(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) insulating
Ans: c
59. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than air.
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) dielectric
Ans: c
(a) circular
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular
Ans: c
61. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece of same
length, the magnetic moment of each piece will be
(a) M
(6) M/2
(c) 2 M
(d) M/4
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: d
64. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field will affect
Ans: c
(c) the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and equidistant
Ans: c
(c) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
Ans: c
67. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored coil when
number of turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
68. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of 2 cm
length in magnetic field of 200 AT/m ?
(a) 2 AT
(b) 4 AT
(c) 6 AT
(d) 10 AT
Ans: b
(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside surface
(e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside surface
(d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside surface
Ans: d
70. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with fixed
number of turns. How does the magnetic induction B varies inside the coil if an
iron core is threaded into coil without dimensional change of coil ?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron in¬sertion
Ans: b
71. The magnetic reluctance of a material
Ans: a
Ans: d
73. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field ?
Ans: c
(a) is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
Ans: d
(d) a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(d) Iron
Ans: c
78. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for
engineering applications ?
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
Ans: c
Ans: a
91. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the highest ?
(d) Ferrites
Ans: d
Ans: c
93. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment should be zero
?
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: a
96. Temporary magnets are used in
(a) loud-speakers
(b) generators
(c) motors
Ans: d
(a) strong tendency of fan out of laminations at the end caused by repulsion among magnetic
lines of force
(b) uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between moving and stationary
parts
Ans: c
Ans:
Ans: c
(a) heating
(b) hammering
Ans: d
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
REPLY
Ankit Shende
MARCH 31, 2020 AT 8:00 AM
Iti electrician sathi mcq PDF patava
REPLY
अजित घोडके
JANUARY 11, 2017 AT 10:42 AM
मला मराठी मध्ये हे सर्व प्रश्न उत्तर मिळू शकतील का सर
REPLY
Athong
NOVEMBER 8, 2016 AT 9:39 PM
Sir could you please send me the complete syllabus of electrical engineer-
ing. Thank you
REPLY
Aditya kumar
MAY 8, 2016 AT 8:23 PM
Please send me pdf file objective electrical question
REPLY
Parmod kumar
MARCH 19, 2016 AT 5:32 PM
Sir plz send me all electrical & electronics objective questions & answers
pdf file.
REPLY
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standardizing instruments.
(a) absolute
(b) indicating
(c) recording
(d) integrating
Ans: a
Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total quantity of electricity
delivered in a particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
(a) Ammeters
(b) Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
Ans: d
(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
Ans: d
(b) portable
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating
instrument ?
Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the
latter to reach its final position quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device should have the following
property.
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must possess ?
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
Ans: e
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
Ans: a
Ans: c
13. Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of
instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
Ans: e
(a) 10 A
(b) 30 A
(c) 60 A
(d) 100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are used in conjunction
with
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR
Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day domestic and
industrial installations are
Ans: c
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C. circuits
Ans: c
Ans: d
20. A potentiometer may be used for
Ans: e
(b) Meggar
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: a
(b) spring
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
Ans: a
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) linear
(b) non-linear
Ans: a
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a dynamometer wattmeter
should be
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected on the supply side of the
current coil when
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: c
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter method, both the watt
meters had identical readings. The power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(d) zero
Ans: a
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of ohmmeter, the pointer
indicated a low resistance initially and then slowly came to infinity position. This
shows that capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(c) faulty
Ans: b
(c) Meggar
Ans: c
(a) battery
Ans: b
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
Ans: c
(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.
voltage ?
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery. The best device is
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: b
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the potentiometer
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer should be
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is desirable that the supply
for the potentiometer in taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction with an A.C. potentiometer
usually has a
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and quadrature
potentiometer are adjusted to be
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses
(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and De Santas bridge for
measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and modified De Santy’s bridge for
measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein bridge for measurement of
capacitance
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor is
(a) 10°
(b) 80°
(c) 120°
(d) 170°
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can use
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining three
arms
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific values
Ans: b
Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between the currents in the two
pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0°
(b) approximately 0°
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the two moving coils are at
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two adjacent reeds have a
difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: c
(a) bus-bars
(c) a lamp
Ans: b
(a) bus-bars
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the instruments available are
Ans: b
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale deviation of the instrument is
called
(c) linearity
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) platinum
(b) maganin
(c) silver
(d) nichrome
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is
Ans: b
Ans: c
(a) induction
(c) rectifier
(d) electrostatic
Ans: a
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it follows
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: a
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because current is proportional to
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: e
105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a minimum of
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the opposite sides of the spindle to
Ans: b
Ans: d
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the same time measures
their phase difference
Ans: d
Ans: c
1. Transmitter
2. Radio receiver
3. Between transmitter and radio receiver
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
1. Hartley
2. RC phase-shift
3. Wien-bridge
4. Crystal
Answer : 4
1. Frequency
2. Amplitude
3. Phase
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
4. In an AM wave useful power is carrier by ………….
1. Carrier
2. Sidebands
3. Both sidebands and carrier
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
1. Thrice
2. Four times
3. Twice
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Amplitude
Frequency
Phase
Answer : 1
7. Overmodulation (amplitude) occurs when signal amplitude is …………. carrier
amplitude
Equal to
Greater than
Less than
Answer : 2
Lower sideband
Upper sideband
Carrier
Answer : 3
50%
40%
60%
25%
Answer : 4
10. Overmodulation results in …………..
Answer : 3
Equal to
Greater than
Less than
Answer : 1
Is increased
Is decreased
Answer : 2
Transmitter
Radio receiver
Transmitting antenna
Answer : 3
14. A high Q tuned circuit will permit an amplifier to have high ……………
Fidelity
Frequency range
Sensitivity
Selectivity
Answer : 4
Space
An antenna
Cable
None of the above
Answer : 1
Carrier
Sideband
Answer : 2
Frequency
Phase
Amplitude
Answer : 3
IF stage
Receiving antenna
Audio stage
RF stage
Answer : 4
Amplitude
Frequency
Phase
Answer : 1
20. The signal voltage induced in the aerial of a radio receiver is of the order of
…………….
mV
µV
Answer : 2
Answer : 3
22. If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is said to
have high …………
Sensitivity
Selectivity
Distortion
Fidelity
Answer : 4
IF
RF amplifier
Audio amplifier
Detector
Answer : 1
Answer : 3
RF
IF
audio
Before RF
Answer : 2
26. In superhetrodyne receiver, the input at mixer stage is ……….
IF and RF
RF and AF
IF and AF
Answer : 4
Smaller bandwidth
Answer : 1
28. When the modulating signal controls the frequency of the carrier, we
get……….
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Frequency modulation
Answer : 3
Answer : 4
30. The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 kHz, the local oscillator
frequency is ………….
455 kHz
1310 kHz
1500 kHz
1520 kHz
Answer : 2
20 %
40 %
50 %
10 %
Answer : 1
Reduce noise
Answer : 3
Crystal
Wien-bridge
Phase-shift
Hartley
Answer : 4
34. A 100 V carrier is made to vary between 160 V and 40 V by the signal. What is
the modulation factor?
Answer : 2
5 kW
8 kW
25 kW
Answer : 1
8 kW
6 kW
06 kW
9 kW
Answer : 3
Answer : 2
Answer : 3
39. In a TRF radio receiver, the RF and detection stages are tuned to …………
Radio frequency
IF
Audio frequency
Answer : 1
Amplitude
Frequency
Phase
Answer : 2
MODULATION & DEMODULATION Objective Type Questions and Answers pdf free
download ::
One stage
Two stages
Three stages
Ans : 4
Voltage
Current
Power
Ans : 1
Is constant
Changes uniformly with frequency
Ans : 2
MULTISTAGE TRANSISTOR
AMPLIFIERS Questions and
Answers
Ans : 4
Economy
High efficiency
Ans : 2
RC
Transformer
Direct
Ans : 3
Power
Voltage
Current
Ans : 1
Ans : 2
100 pF
0.1 µF
0.01 µF
10 µF
Ans : 4
10
Ans : 1
11. When a multistage amplifier is to amplify d.c. signal, then one must use ……..
coupling
RC
Transformer
Direct
Ans : 3
RC
Transformer
Direct
Impedance
Ans : 2
In db
In volts
As a number
Ans : 1
c. resistance is low
Ans : 2
Large
Very large
Small
Ans : 3
16. If a three-stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 10 db, 5 db and 12 db,
then total gain in db is ……….
600 db
24 db
14 db
27 db
Ans : 4
RC coupling
Transformer coupling
Direct coupling
Impedance coupling
Ans : 2
Frequency distortion
Amplitude distortion
Ans : 1
19. RC coupling is not used to amplify extremely low frequencies because ………
Ans : 3
Step up
Step down
Ans : 2
21. The lower and upper cut off frequencies are also called …………………
frequencies
Sideband
Resonant
Half-resonant
Half-power
Ans : 4
30 db
60 db
120 db
600 db
Ans : 2
60 db
30 db
120 db
600 db
Ans : 1
50%
35%
26%
22%
Ans : 3
40%
80%
20%
25%
Ans : 1
Good
Very good
Excellent
Poor
Ans : 4
27. In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, we use ………..
RC coupling
Transformer coupling
Direct coupling
Ans : 1
28. The total gain of a multistage amplifier is less than the product of the gains of
individual stages due to …………
Ans : 2
It is a simple unit
Ans : 3
30. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to half, the db gain will fall by …….
5 db
2 db
10 db
3 db
Ans : 4
3 db
66 db
20 db
200 db
Ans : 2
32. An amplifier receives 0.1 W of input signal and delivers 15 W of signal power.
What is the power gain in db?
8 db
6 db
5 db
4 db
Ans : 1
6 W
68 W
Ans : 3
34. The output of a microphone is rated at -52 db. The reference level is 1V under
specified conditions. What is the output voltage of this microphone under the
same sound conditions?
5 mV
2 mV
8 mV
5 mV
Ans : 4
Low efficiency
Ans : 2
36. The number of stages that can be directly coupled is limited because ……..
Changes in temperature cause thermal instability
Ans : 1
Block a.c.
Ans : 2
38. The upper or lower cut off frequency is also called ………….. frequency
Resonant
Sideband
3 db
Ans : 3
The same as
Less than
Data insufficient
Ans : 1
1 µF
100 pF
0.01 µF
50 µF
Ans : 4
(c) no current can leave the junction without some current entering it.
Ans: b
2. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and
e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
Ans: a
(c) IR drops
Ans: d
Ans: d
(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a resistor, it is necessary
to know
Ans: b
11. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network when the load resistance
is equal to the output resistance of the network as seen from the terminals of the
load”. The above statement is associated with
Ans: d
source resistances”.
Ans: b
13. “In any linear bilateral network, if a source of e.m.f. E in any branch produces
a current I in any other branch, then same e.m.f. acting in the second branch
would produce the same current / in the first branch”.
Ans: c
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(d) Transistor
Ans: a
Ans: c
16. “In any network containing more than one sources of e.m.f. the current in any
branch is the algebraic sum of a number of individual fictitious currents (the
number being equal to the number of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is due to
separate action of each source of e.m.f., taken in order, when the remaining
sources of e.m.f. are replaced by conductors, the resistances of which are equal to
the internal resistances of the respective sources”.
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: c
(d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-variant elements
Ans: d
(a) 6.66 Q
(b) 12 Q
(c) 18Q
(d) 20Q
Ans: a
21. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal resistance of the source
should be
Ans: b
22. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of power c xerosis
(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
Ans: d
(a) 10 Q
(6) 20 Q
(c) 30 Q
(d) 40 Q
Ans: c
24. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of the source should be
Ans: a
25. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of
100 ohms the source will be
Ans: a
26. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is known as
Ans: b
27. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the same current path must
be in
Ans: a
28. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor diodes. The circuit
will be known as
Ans: a
29. A non-linear network does not satisfy
Ans: c
Ans: a
31. A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is known as
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans:
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: d
37. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law imposes
(c) no constraints
Ans: b
Ans: d
(a) node
(b) terminus
(c) combination
(d) anode
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is the passive element ?
(a) Capacitance
Ans: a
(c) Capacitance
Ans: c
(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
Ans: c
44. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Ans: b
45. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent elements of star circuit with
be
(a) RIG
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) 3R
Ans: a
(a) all independent current sources are short circuited and independent voltage sources are
open circuited
(b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all independent current sources are
short circuited
(c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all independent current sources are
open circuited
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
59. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved as there are
(c) sources
(d) nodes
Ans: c
(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an open circuit has the
characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a short circuit has the
characteristic of resistor R.
Ans: a
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
Raghunath Munda
FEBRUARY 11, 2017 AT 7:02 AM
Sir I need explanation so that I can understand details ……….and easy
.For this I think it is too important for who all needed a help of u…….
REPLY
Raghunath Munda
FEBRUARY 11, 2017 AT 6:54 AM
Sir for this to me is very important to me and I can face problems ……..I
think and is very necessary for who all r feeding ……I think he/she can
improve lots of…………….send me ………….
REPLY
basavraj
JANUARY 16, 2017 AT 5:11 PM
Q14……answer will be transistor i.e D
REPLY
Dhirendra Pratap
NOVEMBER 27, 2016 AT 10:24 AM
33- b answer heater coil because it is linear element
REPLY
iam_abdulwahab001@yahoo.com
REPLY
Raghav
NOVEMBER 12, 2016 AT 5:57 AM
I am preparing for MAHAGENCO exam 2017 , please send me the mate-
rial required for the exam at raghavgothe@gmail.com
REPLY
praveen
NOVEMBER 9, 2016 AT 8:31 AM
Q-45 ans is R/6
REPLY
Shabina
OCTOBER 7, 2016 AT 1:43 AM
Plz provide me with a pdf copy of all the q a ans.. …..
My id Sadiyashaikh1511@gmail.com
REPLY
Arvind.Suryawanshi
SEPTEMBER 27, 2016 AT 11:15 AM
Q34.:- B
REPLY
basavraj
JANUARY 16, 2017 AT 5:29 PM
correct..arvind
REPLY
neha
SEPTEMBER 14, 2016 AT 3:59 PM
14- a/d???? plz check
REPLY
Arvind.Suryawanshi
SEPTEMBER 27, 2016 AT 11:22 AM
Hi..
@neha
REPLY
Dheerendra Kumar
SEPTEMBER 9, 2016 AT 1:32 AM
Sir plz send me soft copy At strongwill28@gmail.com
REPLY
SATHI
SEPTEMBER 7, 2016 AT 6:51 AM
Please send pdf file
REPLY
Bhasker
SEPTEMBER 4, 2016 AT 5:26 PM
34 is B.
REPLY
RAJU S MULEY
SEPTEMBER 4, 2016 AT 3:00 PM
PLEASE SEND ME THESE PDF FILES
REPLY
DIVYASHREE S
AUGUST 31, 2016 AT 6:45 AM
pls send me all electrical engineering mcq its very helpfull for us ,send to
sdivyashree.s@gmail.com
REPLY
Jj
AUGUST 30, 2016 AT 6:14 PM
Check your answers for 31, 33, and 34
REPLY
Mohammad.parvez 46@
AUGUST 27, 2016 AT 6:24 AM
Send me pdf files
REPLY
Mohammad.parvez
AUGUST 27, 2016 AT 6:23 AM
Plz send me pdf file
REPLY
RITHIKA C
AUGUST 18, 2016 AT 6:06 AM
sir please send me the soft copy to rithikac6@gmail.com
REPLY
Mohit
AUGUST 12, 2016 AT 1:59 PM
please sent pdf
REPLY
Ritupon
JULY 21, 2016 AT 8:01 PM
Plz send me the mcq of electrical and electronic to my mail id..
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JULY 7, 2016 AT 11:46 AM
please sent me all question on my email id tejasmahala2003@yahoo.com
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pardeep kumar
JUNE 22, 2016 AT 11:38 AM
question 31 ans is D
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naik
JUNE 16, 2016 AT 1:42 PM
Please send soft copy
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Shobhit
JUNE 12, 2016 AT 6:50 AM
Please share interview based questions on superposition theoram
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kumar
JUNE 10, 2016 AT 7:00 AM
Q 33 ans is B…
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Nataraj
JUNE 7, 2016 AT 4:49 AM
Please share d soft copy to natarajb307@gmail.com
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Nataraj
JUNE 7, 2016 AT 4:46 AM
it will be great help if someone please share the soft copy to
natarajb307@gmail.com…
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Neha
JUNE 2, 2016 AT 6:15 AM
Q.44 ans will be 3R/2
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swapnil
JUNE 17, 2016 AT 3:33 AM
right neha
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MAY 14, 2016 AT 4:57 PM
Sir I need all the MCQs of Electrical and Electronics Engineering,Please
send me on anandmshr45@gmail.com
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APRIL 11, 2016 AT 6:24 PM
i want exlanation for all question then we understand eas-
ily……………………………sir please provide disscusion on this
web-
site……………………………………………………………………………………………………
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neeraj
APRIL 2, 2016 AT 5:49 AM
I think… Sir
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Asha
MAY 7, 2016 AT 8:59 AM
U r ryt…. N 33 ans is B
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rakesh
MARCH 31, 2016 AT 1:14 AM
Sir kindly give some easy question and answer which we may face
interview
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JUNE 7, 2016 AT 4:48 AM
Please share the soft copy to my id – natarajb307@gmail.com
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MARCH 16, 2016 AT 11:39 AM
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1. A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit generally has a gain factor
C. Of zero
D. Equal to one
Answer :- B. For non inverting amplifier the gain is A = 1 + (Rf/Rin)). So it will be always more
than one
2. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting op-amp, the (–) terminal
will
B. Be virtual ground
4. When a number of stages are connected in parallel, the overall gain is the
product of the individual stage gains
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
Answer :- C. The ideal Opamp output voltage is maintained constant. It is controlled by input
voltage.
Answer :- A.
7. Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass filter for R1 = 2.5kΩ and
C1 = 0.05μF
A. 1.273kHz
B. 12.73kHz
C. 127.3 kHz
D. 127.3 Hz
Answer :- A.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Answer :-D. The output voltage of inverting amplifier is Vout = (-Rf/Rin)Vin. By keeping 1
inverting amplifier and three no of sources (V1, V2, V3) in series corresponding input
resistors(R1, R2, R3), we can get this equation.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer :- D. The voltage follower which has one opamp has the output of Vo = Vin
10. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/μ S .The largest sine wave O/P voltage
possible at a frequency of 1 MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts
C. 5/ volts
D. 5/2 volts
Answer :- D
Hint: Slew rate is defined as the max. rate of change of output voltage. Its unit is V/μS.
Answer :- C
12) A 741-Type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwith product of 1MHz. A non-inverting
amplifier using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db
bandwidth of
A. 50KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17KHz
D. 1000/7.07KHz
Answer :- A
13) An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/sec has a gain of 40db.If
this amplifier has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20KHz
without introducing any slew-rate induced distortion, then the input signal level
exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795mV
D. 39.5mV
Answer :- C
A. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=0
B. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=0
C. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=∞
D. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=∞
Answer :- A
15) The approximate input impedance of the opamp circuit which has Ri=10k,
Rf=100k, RL=10k
A. ∞
B. 120k
C. 110k
D. 10k
Answer :- C
16) An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine wave o/p voltage possible
at a frequency of 1MHz is
A. 10 V
B. 5 V
C. 5V
D. 5/2 V
Answer :- A
17) Assume that the op-amp of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is a triangular wave, then V0
will be
A. Square wave
B. Triangular wave
C. Parabolic wave
D. Sine wave
Answer :- D
18) A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage of all op-amps. This
is done basically to provide the op-amps with a very high
A. CMMR
B. Bandwidth
C. Slew rate
D. Open-loop gain
Answer :- C
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
Answer :- A
20) In the differential voltage gain & the common mode voltage gain of a
differential amplifier are 48db & 2db respectively, then its common mode
rejection ratio is
A. 23dB
B. 25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
Answer :- C
(c) Summer
Answer :- C
(d) Buffers
Answer :-A
Answer :-C
(a) A ramp.
Answer :- A
26) For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the
CMRR is given by
A. Av + Ac
B. Av / Ac
C. 1 + Av / Ac)
D. Ac / Av
Answer :-B
27) Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger, because
C. Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation.
Answer :- C
(a) -6V
(b) -5V
(c) -1.2V
(d) -0.2V
Answer :- B
(a) 0.6A
(b) 0.5A
(c) 0.2A
(d) 1/12A
Answer :- B
30) Op-amp circuits may be cascaded without changing their input output
relationships
(a) True
(b) False
Answer :- A
OP AMP Questions :-
1. is a part of an Op-amp
2. has one input and one output
3. has two outputs
4. answers (1) and (2)
Ans : 4
Ans : 2
3. In differential-mode, …………….
Ans : 3
very high
very low
always unity
unpredictable
Ans : 2
6. The differential gain is ………
very high
very low
about 100
Ans : 1
1225
10,000
80 dB
Ans : 4
8. With zero volts on both inputs, an OP-amp ideally should have an output
………..
equal to zero
equal to CMRR
Ans : 3
9. Of the values listed, the most realistic value for open-loop voltage gain of an
OP-amp is ……
2000
80 dB
100,000
Ans : 4
10. A certain OP-amp has bias currents of 50 µA. The input offset current is ……..
700 nA
99.3 µA
49.7 µA
none of these
Ans : 1
11. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12µs. The slew rate is …….
90 V/µs
0.67 V/µs
1.5 V/µs
none of these
Ans : 2
increased
Ans : 3
Ans : 4
Ans : 2
15. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kO and Rf of 100 kO. The closed-
loop voltage gain is ………
100,000
1000
101
100
Ans : 3
16. If the feedback resistor in Q15 (above question) is open, the voltage gain …….
increases
decreases
is not affected
depends on Ri
Ans : 1
17. A certain inverting amplifier has a closed-loop voltage gain of 25. The Op-amp
has an open-loop voltage gain of 100,000. If an Op-amp with an open-loop voltage
gain of 200,000 is substituted in the arrangement, the closed-loop gain ……..
doubles
drops to 12.5
remains at 25
increases slightly
Ans : 3
is noninverting
Ans : 4
Ans : 3
none of these
Ans : 1
Ans : 3
22. The node voltage at the top of the til resistor is closes to ……….
zero
Ans : 2
Ans : 2
r’e
r’e/2
2r’e
RE
Ans : 3
RE
RC
2ß
Ans : 4
both iputs
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
28. The input stage of an Op-amp is usually a ……….
differential amplifier
CE amplifier
swamped amplifier
Ans : 1
r’e
2r’e
r’e/2
2RE
Ans : 4
a mechanical ground
an a.c. ground
a virtual ground
an ordinary ground
Ans : 3
Answer : 2
1. LC tank circuit
2. Biasing circuit
3. Transistor
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Half-way between maximum and minimum
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
4. In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillator is ……………. L or C.
1. Proportional to square of
2. Directly proportional to
3. Independent of the values of
4. Inversely proportional to square root of
Answer : 4
1. Damped
2. Undamped
3. Modulated
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neither positive nor negative
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 1
Answer : 3
1. Radio receivers
2. Radio transmitters
3. TV receivers
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
10. In a phase shift oscillator, the frequency determining elements are …………
1. L and C
2. R, L and C
3. R and C
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Answer : 1
13. If the crystal frequency changes with temperature, we say that crystal has
………….. temperature coefficient
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
14. The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to ………………. of the crystal
1. Rigidity
2. Vibrations
3. Low Q
4. High Q
Answer : 4
15. The application where one would most likely find a crystal oscillator is
……………..
1. Radio receiver
2. Radio transmitter
3. AF sweep generator
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Answer : 2
Answer : 3
Answer : 1
19. In a certain oscillator Av = 50. The attention of the feedback circuit must be
…………
1. 1
2. 01
3. 10
4. 02
Answer : 4
20. For an oscillator to properly start, the gain around the feedback loop must
initially be
1. 1
2. Greater than 1
3. Less than 1
4. Equal to attenuation of feedback circuit
Answer : 2
Answer : 3
1. By magnetic induction
2. By a tickler coil
3. From the centre of split capacitors
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
1. 100
2. 1000
3. 50
4. More than 10,000
Answer : 4
24. Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal oscillators because ………….
Answer : 1
1. Phase-shift oscillator
2. Hartely-oscillator
3. Colpitt’s oscillator
4. Crystal oscillator
Answer : 4
28. In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased four times, the frequency of
oscillations is …………
1. Increased 2 times
2. Decreased 4 times
3. Increased 4 times
4. Decreased 2 times
Answer : 4
Answer : 1
30. The signal generator generally used in the laboratories is ………….. oscillator
1. Wien-bridge
2. Hartely
3. Crystal
4. Phase shift
Answer : 1
A. 55 Ω
B. 5.5 Ω
C. 50 Ω
D. 9 Ω
ANS : B
2. The total resistance of a parallel circuit is 50 Ω. If the total current is 120 mA,
the current through the 270 Ω that makes up part of the parallel circuit is
approximately
A. 22 mA
B. 120 mA
C. 220 mA
D. 50 mA
ANS : A
3. The currents into a junction flow along two paths. One current is 4 A and the
other is 3 A. The total current out of the junction is
A. 1 A
B. 7 A
C. unknown
ANS : B
D. decreases
ANS : D
5. When a 1.6 kΩ resistor and a 120Ω resistor are connected in parallel, the total
resistance is
ANS : C
A. 50 mA
B. 70 mA
C. 120 mA
D. 40 mA
ANS : B
7. Three lights are connected in parallel across a 120 volt source. If one light
burns out,
D. the remaining two will glow with the same brightness as before
ANS : D
8. Four equal-value resistors are connected in parallel. Ten volts are applied
across the parallel circuit and 2 mA are measured from the source. The value of
each resistor is
A. 12.5 Ω
B. 200 Ω
C. 20 KΩ
D. 50 Ω
ANS : C
9. A set of Christmas tree lights is connected in parallel across a 110 V source. The
filament of each light bulb is 1.8 k. The current through each bulb is
approximately
A. 610 mA
B. 18 mA
C. 110 mA
D. 61 mA
ANS : D
10. The power dissipation in each of four parallel branches is 1.2 W. The total
power dissipation is
A. 1.2 W
B. 4.8 W
C. 0.3 W
D. 12 W
ANS : B
11. A 470 Ω resistor, a 220 Ω resistor, and a 100 Ω resistor are all in parallel. The
total resistance is approximately
A. 790 Ω
B. 470 Ω
C. 60 Ω
D. 30 Ω
ANS : C
12. Five light bulbs are connected in parallel across 110 V. Each bulb is rated at
200 W. The current through each bulb is approximately
A. 2.2 A
B. 137 mA
C. 1.8 A
D. 9.09 A
ANS : C
13. Four resistors of equal value are connected in parallel. If the total voltage is 15
V and the total resistance is 600 Ω, the current through each parallel resistor is
A. 25 mA
B. 100 mA
C. 6.25 mA
D. 200 mA
ANS : C
14. Five 100 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. If one resistor is removed, the
total resistance is
A. 25 Ω
B. 500 Ω
C. 100 Ω
D. 20 Ω
ANS : A
A. 18 W
B. 1.5 W
C. 48 W
D. 72 W
ANS : D
16. In a certain three-branch parallel circuit, R1 has 12 mA through it, R2 has 15
mA through it, and R3 has 25 mA through it. After measuring a total of 27 mA,
you can say that
A. R3 is open
B. R1 is open
C. R2 is open
ANS : A
17. A sudden increase in the total current into a parallel circuit may indicate
B. an open resistor
ANS : C
18. The following currents are measured in the same direction in a three-branch
parallel circuit: 200 mA, 340 mA, and 700 mA. The value of the current into the
junction of these branches is
A. 200 mA
B. 540 mA
C. 1.24 A
D. 900 mA
ANS : C
19. The following resistors are in parallel across a voltage source: 220Ω , 470Ω ,
and 560Ω . The resistor with the least current is
A. 220 Ω
B. 470 Ω
C. 560 Ω
ANS : C
20. Three 47 Ω resistors are connected in parallel across a 110 volt source. The
current drawn from the source is approximately
A. 2.3 A
B. 780 mA
C. 47 mA
D. 7.06 A
ANS : D
21. There is a total of 800 mA of current into four parallel resistors. The currents
through three of the resistors are 40 mA, 70 mA, and 200 mA. The current
through the fourth resistor is
A. 490 mA
B. 800 mA
C. 310 mA
D. 0 A
ANS : A
22. Four resistors are connected in parallel. Fifteen mA flows through resistor R.
If the second resistor is 2R, the third resistor 3R, and the fourth resistor 4R, the
total current in the circuit is
A. 60 mA
B. 15 mA
C. 135 mA
D. 31.25 mA
ANS : D
23. If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is removed, the total resistance
A. decreases
B. increases
D. doubles
ANS : B
24. Six resistors are in parallel. The two lowest-value resistors are both 1.2 kΩ.
The total resistance
A. is less than 6 kΩ
ANS : D
A. 48 mA
B. 12 mA
C. 0 A
D. 3 mA
ANS : B
Answers
Polyphase Induction Motors Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of silicon steel ?
(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
Answer: c
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Answer: b
(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
Answer: a
Answer: c
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Answer: a
(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Answer: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
in order to
Answer: d
Answer: b
(a) copper
(b) carbon
(d) aluminium
Answer: c
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor
e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Answer: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Answer: c
(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Answer: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Answer: d
(a) low
(b) negligible
Answer: c
Answer: a
17. The term ‘cogging’ is associated with
Answer: d
Answer: d
(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Answer: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average
flux density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Answer: b
Answer: d
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
Answer: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
Answer: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
Answer: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage
induction motor of the following type
Answer: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with auto starter is
Answer: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of double squirrel-cage induction motor
is constructed the two cages can be considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stater
Answer: b
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
Answer: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: c
(a) frequency
Answer: d
Answer: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
Answer: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to
Answer: a
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except
Answer: c
Answer: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(d) unity
Answer: a
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of stator slots (not equal)
Answer: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the normal
speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Answer: c
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and are in the same direction
Answer: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for the same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
Answer: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its fuses
blows out. Then the motor
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
Answer: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its fuses
blows out. Then the
motor
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
Answer: c
Answer: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
Answer: c
Answer: d
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing up to full load and then it falls again
Answer: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
Answer: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
Answer: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload
characteristics of which of the
following machines
Answer: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft ?
Answer: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage. The
pump runs. What will
Answer: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m.
Which motor will be the
costliest ?
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: d
(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
Answer: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction motor
?
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Answer: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor to
Answer: a
Answer: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be found by
Answer: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
Answer: c
(a) parabola
(b) hyperbola
Answer: c
Answer: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
Answer: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on full
load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Answer: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data found
from
Answer: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
Answer: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance per
phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
Answer: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of the
induction motor is zero ?
Answer: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(c) frequency
(d) output
Answer: a
Answer: d
(a) graphite
(b) grease
(d) molasses
Answer: b
Answer: d
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c
84. When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the rotor reactance at supply frequency and s the slip,
then the condition for maximum torque under running conditions will be
(a) sR2X2 = 1
(b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2
(d) R2 = s2X2
Answer: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
Answer: a
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the magnetic flux
Answer: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit
Answer: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
Answer: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
Answer: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
Answer: d
Answer: a
(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: c
(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
Answer: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
Answer: a
(d) applied voltage perl stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Answer: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is
Answer: a
Answer: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
Answer: c
Answer: b
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
BASAVRAJ
JANUARY 16, 2017 AT 10:56 AM
please reply me….
how rotor current will remains same if rotor resistance added to rotor
circuit??
ASHISH TRIPATHI
OCTOBER 4, 2016 AT 9:13 AM
please sent me all electrical engineering question & answer on my emai id
& this site very useful for competitive exam
REPLY
uday
SEPTEMBER 29, 2016 AT 9:33 AM
TOtal 110 selected questions are gun shot questions.
My suggestions are
REPLY
sreekanth
AUGUST 24, 2016 AT 7:23 PM
please add ome more question
what will happen the rotor circuit in squirrel cage i.m is open
REPLY
Moeketsi Mosoang
MAY 29, 2016 AT 8:03 PM
Hallo Sir, Please send all the electrical engineering questions and an-
swers in PDF. I am having an interview in one of the Lesotho open cast
mine on Friday
REPLY
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Ans : 2
1. In parallel
2. In series
3. In inverse-parallel
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
1. Bidirectional
2. Unidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
POWER ELECTRONICS
Questions
4. The V-I characteristics for a triac in the first and third quadrants are
essentially identical to those of ………………. in its first quadrant
1. Transistor
2. SCR
3. UJT
4. none of the above
Ans : 2
1. Only positive
2. Only negative
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Ans : 3
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
9. The device that does not have the gate terminal is ……………….
1. Triac
2. FET
3. SCR
4. Diac
Ans : 4
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Two pn junctions
2. One pn junction
3. Three pn junctions
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
1. Gate current
2. Gate voltage
3. Breakover voltage
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
1. An c.
2. A d.c.
3. A mechanical
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Lightly
2. Heavily
3. Moderately
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
15. Power electronics essentially deals with control of a.c. power at …………
Ans : 4
16. When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the resistance between the base
terminal is generally ………………..
1. High
2. Low
3. Extremely low
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
17. When a UJT is turned ON, the resistance between emitter terminal and lower
base terminal …………….
Ans : 2
18. To turn on UJT, the forward bias on the emitter diode should be …………… the
peak point voltage
1. Less than
2. Equal to
3. More than
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
19. A UJT is sometimes called …………. diode
1. Low resistance
2. High resistance
3. Single-base
4. Double-base
Ans : 4
20. When the temperature increases, the inter-base resistance (RBB) of a UJT
………….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
21. When the temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off ratio ……….
1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Essentially remains the same
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
22. Between the peak point and the valley point of UJT emitter characteristics we
have ………….. region
1. Saturation
2. Negative resistance
3. Cut-off
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
1. A breakover voltage
2. Gate voltage
3. Gate current
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Diac
2. Triac
3. Transistor
4. UJT
Ans : 4
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
28. After peak point, the UJT operates in the ……………. region
1. Cut-off
2. Saturation
3. Negative resistance
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
Ans : 4
Ans : 1
Ans: b
(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: d
(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
Ans: d
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
Ans: c
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high pressure limit of
p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
Ans: b
Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
Ans: b
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at
particular pressure
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of
steam extracted for feed heating
Ans: b
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal
efficiency
Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by
(b) heaters
Ans: c
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it has
Ans: d
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space
Ans: b
(a) air
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that produced by brick
chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
Ans: b
(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the chimney giving place to cold air
from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is higher than the pressure at
the chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its environmental pressure
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given mean
temperature of chimney gases
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside
temperature
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: d
(b) chimney
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan as
compared to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially superheated at
inlet is approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow rate per unit area of
steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow rate per area of steam
through a nozzle when steam is initially superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate per unit area is
minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam initially dry saturated at
inlet is approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the same pressure ratio leads to
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same pressure ratio leads to
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending upon inlet quality
Ans: a
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
Ans: a
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to exit from condenser
Ans: a
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c
59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared to without condenser, for
a given pressure and temperature of steam, is
(a) higher
(b) lower
Ans: a
(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
Ans: c
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water surrounds them
Ans: b
66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is
Ans: a
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump capacity of air extraction pump
Ans: b
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from condenser
Ans: d
(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
Ans: d
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) steel
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans: a
(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d
Ans: c
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept now-a-days is of the order
of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b
(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
Ans: b
Ans: d
Ans: c
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: d
(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(d) sand
Ans: c
(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for small power plant is
Ans: b
Ans: b
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is called
Ans: b
91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered to a bunker and then to
the various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
Ans: b
92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile matter and with caking
tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
Ans: c
(b) spreader
Ans: d
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is large, the stoker which is
used is
(c) any
Ans: b
Ans: d
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing some of the concentrated
saline water
Ans: c
Ans: c
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: e
2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system to D.C. ?
(a) Rectifiers
Ans: e
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
(e) none
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: b
7. Which of the following is reversible in action ?
Ans: c
(a) Load
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
Ans: b
(a) 200-100 V
(6) 600—800 V
(c) 1000—1200 V
(d) 1700—2000 V
Ans: d
10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a large-scale conversion from
AC. to D.C. power is required ?
Ans: d
11. A rotary converter in general construction and design, is more or less like
(a) a transformer
(c) an alternator
Ans: d
Ans: b
(a) Illumination
(b) Electrolysis
(d) Traction
Ans: b
14. Which of the following AC. motors is usually used in large motor-generator
sets?
Ans: a
Ans: c
(a) Telephones
(b) Relays
Ans: d
17. In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C. generator of the same
size will be
(a) same
(b) less
(c) double
Ans: b
(a) anode
(b) cathode
Ans: b
Ans: e
(a) 5.4 V
(b) 8.4 V
(c) 10.4 V
(d) 16.4 V
Ans: c
21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier, varies
Ans: d
22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a mercury arc rectifier
comprises of the following
Ans: d
23. Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of D.C. output (maximum
continuous rating) of
Ans: e
Ans: c
Ans: a
26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are inter changed
(c) both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction
Ans: a
Ans: d
28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier
Ans: c
Ans: e
30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its electrodes
Ans: d
Ans: a
(b) ionization
Ans: b
33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least undulating
current?
(a) Six-phase
(b) Three-phase
(c) Two-phase
(d) Single-phase
Ans: a
34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is restricted
to
(a) 2000 A
(b) 1500 A
(c) 1000 A
(d) 500 A
Ans: d
35. In a mercury arc rectifier______ flow from anode to cathode
(a) ions
(b) electrons
Ans: a
36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following voltage drops take place ?
Ans: d
37. On which of the following factors the number of phases for which a rectifier
should be designed depend ?
(d) The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to the best ad-vantage
Ans: e
(c) exponential
Ans: d
(a) resistance
(b) capacitance
Ans: c
41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid is made positive
relative to cathode, then it the electrons on their may to anode.
(a) accelerates
(b) decelerates
Ans: a
42. In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be struck between anode
and cathode only when the grid attains a certain potential, this potential being
known as
Ans: b
43. In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by varying the of grid
voltage.
(a) magnitude
(b) polarity
(c) phase
Ans: c
44. In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift between anode and grid
voltages can be achieved by means of
Ans: c
45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of the
following advantages ?
Ans: c
Ans: a
(a) 90 to 95%
(b) 85 to 90%
(c) 80 to 85%
(d) 65 to 75%
Ans: d
(a) 10°C
(b) 20°C
(c) 30°C
(d) 45°C
Ans: d
49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as high as
(a) 25°C
(b) 40°C
(c) 60°C
(d) 75°C
Ans: d
(a) 25, 35
(b) 40, 50
(c) 60, 70
(d) 75, 85
Ans: d
Ans: a
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
(c) 60 V
(d) 100 V
(e) 200 V
Ans: d
53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in supplying
direct current for electroplating ?
Ans: b
Ans: b
55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of low
voltage batteries from AC. supply ?
Ans: d
(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%
Ans: c
57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier chamber ?
Ans: d
Ans: a
59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silver
(d) graphite
(e) tungsten
Ans: d
(a) graphite
(c) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: b
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
ANS : 2
1. Triode
2. Pentode
3. Gas-filled triode
4. Tetrode
ANS : 3
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. None of the above
ANS : 3
SILICON
CONTROLLED
RECTIFIERS
Questions
ANS : 1
1. Unidirectional
2. Bidirectional
3. Mechanical
4. None of the above
ANS : 1
6. An SCR is sometimes called …………
1. Triac
2. Diac
3. Unijunction transistor
4. Thyristor
ANS : 4
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. None of the above
ANS : 2
1. At zero potential
2. Negative
3. Positive
4. None of the above
ANS : 3
ANS : 1
ANS : 2
Cathode
Anode
Anode supply
Gate
ANS : 4
Breakover voltage
Appropriate anode current
ANS : 3
ANS : 1
Voltage
Current
ANS : 2
15. In an SCR circuit the supply voltage is generally ……….. that of breakover
voltage
Equal to
Less than
Greater than
ANS : 2
16. When an SCR is turned on, the voltage across it is about ……….
Zero
10 V
1 V
1 V
ANS : 4
17. An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium because silicon ………
Is inexpensive
Is mechanically strong
Is tetravalent
ANS : 3
ANS : 1
19. In an SCR circuit, the angle of conduction can be changed by ……….
ANS : 2
Is increased
Is decreased
ANS : 3
21. If gate current is increased, then anode-cathode voltage at which SCR closes
…………….
Is decreased
Is increased
ANS : 1
ANS : 2
ANS : 4
ANS : 3
25. When SCR starts conducting, then ……………. loses all control
Gate
Cathode
Anode
ANS : 1
SILICON CONTROLLED RECTIFIERS SCR Objective Questions and Answers pdf free
download ::
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
C. Co-ordinate
ANS:- A
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
ANS:- C
A. Germanium
B. Silicon
C. Carbon
D. Sulphur
ANS:- B
SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions
ANS:- D
6 x 104
O cm
60
O cm
3 x 106
O cm
6 x 10-4
O cm
ANS:- B
100 O cm
6000 O cm
3 x 105 O m
6 x 10-8 O cm
ANS:- B
Goes up
Goes down
Can’t say
ANS:- B
Electron-pair bonds
ANS:- C
An insulator
An intrinsic semiconductor
p-type semiconductor
n-type semiconductor
ANS:- D
Free electrons
Holes
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:- A
ANS:- B
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Electrically neutral
ANS:- C
ANS:- D
Holes
Free electrons
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:- A
15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
A free electron
A free proton
A free neutron
ANS:- B
ANS:- B
17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk resistance of the
semiconductor ………..
Increases
Decreases
ANS:- C
18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to ……….
ANS:- B
Only holes
ANS:- C
20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal agitation is
called ……….
Diffusion
Pressure
Ionisation
ANS:- A
kO
MO
ANS:- A
ANS:- A
5 V
3 V
Zero
3 V
ANS:- D
Acceptor ions
Donor ions
ANS:- B
Almost no current
ANS:- B
Controlled switch
Bidirectional switch
Unidirectional switch
ANS:- C
kO
MO
ANS:- C
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
Junction capacitance
ANS:- A
Junction capacitance
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
ANS:- B
30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion layer ………
Decreases
Increases
ANS:- A
Aa
mA
kA
µA
ANS:- D
ANS:- A
ANS:- B
34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
Many holes
ANS:- D
A battery
A conductor
An insulator
ANS:- B
Ans: b
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in
series with the auxiliary winding is to
Ans: a
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a centrifugal switch
Ans: a
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
Ans: a
(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and carries only induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use
of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to dis- connect ‘starting winding when motor has
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then
which of the following motor will be preferred ?
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found
to be ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
Ans: c
Ans: c
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is usually
(a) lagging
(c) unity
Ans: a
(a) toys
(c) circulators
Ans: d
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
Ans: b
(b) Refrigerators
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control purposes ?
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on
Ans: a
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
Ans: a
Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time
phonographs ?
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
Ans: c
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
Ans: c
Ans: d
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low because
of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow of
current through
Ans: c
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore these are
considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
Ans: c
(a) is self-starting
Ans: d
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
(a) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
Ans: b
(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(d) nil
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of motor,
it would result in
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft because it
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
Ans: b
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
Ans: b
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about ____ percent of
synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is disconnected from the circuit
by means of a
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
Ans: a
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent reversals are
required
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small home
air-conditioners
because
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to open
then
Ans: d
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
Ans: c
Ans: d
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with reversed
connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed
connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to rest
then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and immediately connect it to
supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain
synchronous speed the motor will
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
Ans: b
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(d) solidly
Ans: a
Ans: a
(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the same speed and output
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with
(b) commutator
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from supply,
it continues to run only on
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start induction motor is incorrect ?
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor motors
Ans: c
Ans: e
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by
Ans: e
116. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-recorders
because
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
118. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct ?
(c) It is self-starting
Ans: d
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
Nishid
JUNE 4, 2018 AT 5:18 PM
Reluctance motor is similar to AC series motor
REPLY
mayank
AUGUST 26, 2016 AT 12:11 PM
Can anyone plz send the entire questions pdf file on my mail id its my
humble request plz I have exam of geb on september 4
REPLY
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Two transistors
One transistor
Three transistor
Ans : 2
2. The phase difference between the output and input voltages of a CE amplifier is
………………..
180o
0o
90o
270o
Ans : 1
Low
Very low
High
Very high
Ans : 3
4. When an a.c. signal is applied to an amplifier, ,the operating point moves along
…………….
c. load line
c. load line
Ans : 2
5. If the collector supply is 10V, then collector cut off voltage under d.c.
conditions is ………….
20 V
5 V
2 V
10 V
Ans : 4
c.
c.
Ans : 1
Coupling
Bypass
Leakage
Ans : 1
8. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines is called ……………..
Saturation point
Operating point
Ans : 3
9. The slope of a.c. load line is ……………… that of d.c. load line
The same as
More than
Less than
Ans : 2
10. If a transistor amplifier draws 2mA when input voltage is 10 V, then its input
impedance is ………..
20 kΩ
2 kΩ
10 kΩ
5 kΩ
Ans : 4
c. only
c. only
Ans : 1
Provide biasing
Ans : 3
13. In the d.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are
considered ……………..
Short
Open
Partially short
Answer : 2
(1 + α)
(1+ β)
Ans : 4
As volts
As a number
In db
Ans : 3
16. If the power and current gains of a transistor amplifier are 16500 and 100
respectively, then voltage gain is ………
165
165 x 104
100
Ans : 1
RL + RC
RC || RL
RL – RC
RC
Ans : 2
18. In a CE amplifier, the phase difference between voltage across collector load
RC and signal voltage is ………..
180o
270o
90o
0o
Ans : 4
19. In the a.c. equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier, the capacitors are
considered ………….
Short
Open
Partially open
Ans : 1
RC || RL
RL
RC
Ans : 4
Ans : 3
10 db
20 db
40 db
Ans : 2
23. In order to get more voltage gain from a transistor amplifier, the transistor
used should have …………..
Thin base
Thin collector
Wide emitter
Ans : 1
Provide biasing
Ans : 3
25. The purpose of emitter capacitor (i.e. capacitor across RE) is to ……….
Ans : 1
About 1
Low
High
Moderate
Ans : 4
27. If a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low resistance (e.g. speaker), then
voltage gain will be ………….
High
Very high
Moderate
Low
Ans : 4
Ans : 2
29. The radio wave picked up by the receiving antenna is amplified about ……..
times to have reasonable sound output
1000
A million
100
10000
Ans : 2
Grounded emitter
Grounded base
Grounded collector
Ans : 1
31. The d.c. load of a transistor amplifier is generally ………….. that of a a.c. load
The same as
Less than
More than
Ans : 3
32. The value of collector load RC in a transistor amplifier is ………… the output
impedance of the transistor.
The same as
Less than
More than
Ans : 2
33. A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load RC and emitter
resistance RE has a d.c. load of ……….
RC
RC || RE
RC – RE
RC + RE
Ans : 4
Electrolytic
Mica
Paper
Air
Ans : 1
35. A single stage transistor amplifier with no load sees an a.c. load of ……..
RC + RE
RC
RC || RE
RC/RE
Ans : 2
36. The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than the input power
because the additional power is supplied by …………
Transistor
Biasing circuit
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
Ans : 2
39. For highest power gain, one would use …………….. configuration
CC
CB
CE
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
SINGLE STAGE TRANSISTOR AMPLIFIERS Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
1. One state
2. Two states
3. Three states
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
1. A mechanical
2. An electronic
3. An electromechanical
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
3. The switch that has the fastest speed of operation is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
4. The most inexpensive switch is ………….. switch
1. Electronic
2. Mechanical
3. Electromechanical
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
1. Is operated mechanically
2. Is costly
3. Has high inertia
4. None of the above
Ans : 3
1. VCC
2. 0
3. VCC/2
4. 2VCC
Ans : 2
10
1000
109
Ans : 4
Is relatively inexpensive
Ans : 3
VCC
VCC/2
VCC/3
Ans : 1
Monostable
Astable
Bistable
Ans : 2
No stable state
Ans : 3
12. If d.c. supply of 10 V is fed to a differentiating circuit, then output will be …….
20 V
10 V
0 V
Ans : 3
13. If the input to a differentiating circuit is a saw-tooth wave, then output will be
………….
Square
Triangular
Sine
Rectangular
Ans : 4
No stable state
Ans : 1
15. If a square wave is fed to a differentiating circuit, the output will be …………
Sine wave
Rectangular wave
Triangular wave
Ans : 2
16. An integrating circuit is a simple RC series circuit with output taken across
………
Both R and C
C
None of the above
Ans : 3
17. For an integrating circuit to be effective , the RC product should be ………. the
time period of the input wave
Equal to
Ans : 4
C
Both R and C
Ans : 1
No stable state
Ans : 2
20. The multivibrator which generates square wave of its own is the …………
multivibrator
Monostable
Bistable
Astable
Ans : 3
Equal to
Ans : 4
Rectangular
Sinusoidal
Sawtooth
Square
Ans : 1
23. The positive clipper is that which removes the …………………. half-cycles of the
input voltage.
Negative
Positive
Ans : 2
c.
c.
Ans : 1
Receiving antenna
Radio transmitter
Radio receiver
Television receiver
Ans : 4
Off
Saturation
Active
Ans : 3
27. When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off region, the collector
current is ……………..
ICBO
ICEO
(ß + 1) ICEO
IC(sat)
Ans : 2
28. A negative clipper removes the ……………… half-cycles of the input voltage
Negative
Positive
Ans : 1
Rectangular
Triangular
Sine
Square
Ans : 4
1. Negative
2. 100 % positive
3. Both positive and negative
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
SOLID STATE SWITCHING CIRCUITS Objective Questions and Answers pdf free Download
::
Ans: d
Ans: d
3. SF6 gas
(c) is nontoxic
Ans: c
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of
(b) porcelain
Ans: a
5. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit
breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Ans: c
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote
operation ?
Ans: c
(a) fuses
(b) relays
Ans: c
(a) short-circuit
(b) temperature
(c) overload
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: a
SWITCHGEAR &
PROTECTION Mcqs
(d) temperature
Ans: e
(a) induction
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
Ans: e
13. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current
due to
(a) short-circuits
(c) grounds
Ans: b
(a) delayed
(b) instantaneous
Ans: b
Ans: c
Ans: d
17. In order that current should flow without causing excessive heating or voltage
drop, the relay contacts should
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
20. The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is achieved
by
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: b
24. Directional relays are based on flow of
(a) power
(b) current
Ans: a
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: c
29. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in electrical
circuits by measuring
(c) constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and abnormal conditions
Ans: c
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the circuit breaker
is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Ans: a
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated by
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: d
Ans: a
Ans: a
Ans: a
38. Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more than
Ans: c
(a) overload
(c) open-circuits
(d) short-circuits
Ans: d
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Ans: d
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of ________ .
(a) motors
Ans: a
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent is low
voltage system ?
(b) Isolator
Ans: a
(a) 33kVto66kV
(b) HkVto33kV
(c) 3.3kVandllkV
Ans: c
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are submerged in
oil. The main purpose of the oil is to
Ans: c
(a) SFe
Ans:
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power, the types of
relays used are
(a) thermocouple
Ans: c
Ans: b
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended because of
system
(b) insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to phase faults
Ans: d
49. The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of a transmission line.
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) unity
Ans: c
50. For the protection of power station buildings against direct strokes the
requirements are
(a) interception
Ans: c
51. The line insulation is the insulation level of the station equipment.
(b) same as
(d) proportional to
Ans: e
Ans: d
(a) tapping
Ans: d
(c) An impedance relay has maximum fault current when fault occurs near the relay
Ans: a
55. Discrimination between main and back up protection is provided by the use of
relays which are
(a) fact
(b) sensitive
(c) slow
Ans: c
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: d
Ans: d
58. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(c) The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C. component
(d) The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit equivalent fault reactance
Ans: a
Ans: e
(a) reactors
(b) resistors
(c) capacitors
Ans: a
Ans: c
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are installed for voltages above
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 60kV
(d) 110kV
Ans: b
63. The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result of
Ans: d
(b) Reactance
Ans: a
65. For which of the following protection from negative sequence currents is
provided ?
(a) Generators
(b) Motors
(d) Transformers
Ans: a
(b) Reactance
(c) Impedance
Ans: b
Ans: d
68. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential protection
is recommended ?
Ans: b
(a) thermocouple
(b) pyrometer
(d) thermometer
Ans: c
(a) generators
(b) busbars
(c) transformers
(d) motors
Ans: e
71. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within
(b) 5 to 10 sec
(c) 5 to 20 sec
(d) 20 to 30 sec
Ans: b
72. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
Ans: d
73. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first travelling on the
transmission line ?
(b) Relays
(d) Switchgear
Ans: a
74. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Resistance
(d) Reactance
Ans: b
Ans: a
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and minimum
maintenance ?
Ans: b
Ans: a
(b) Short-circuit
(e) Long
Ans: a
79. What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave of load connected to
transmission line if surge impedance of the line is equal to load ?
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity
Ans: a
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current and earth
fault protection of transformer against
Ans: b
Ans: d
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed to operate in
(b) 50 millisecond
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
(a) impedance
(b) directional
(c) non-directional
Ans: b
86. The material used for fuse must have
Ans: a
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the VII ratio will be
(b) lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(c) higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
Ans: b
88. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole structure) is
Ans: b
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased by
Ans: a
90. The inductive interference between power and communication line can be
minimized by
Ans: c
(b) motor
(c) generator
(d) feeder
Ans: a
Ans: a
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has
Ans: d
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) VAR
(d) kVA
Ans: a
(a) burning
(b) arcing
(c) melting
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
(a) overload
Ans: b
(a) 20 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 200 A
Ans: c
Ans: a
Ans: c
(d) switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and equipment
Ans: d
Ans: c
104. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat generated in a
H.R.C. fuse is dissipated ?
(a) Radiation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
Ans: c
Ans: b
106. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is provided by
(a) relay
Ans: a
(b) isolators
(d) reactors
Ans: d
Ans: b
110. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down when
Ans: a
and Answers
Synchronous Motors Questions :-
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because
Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: A
B. while over-excited
Answer: C
A. pony motor
Answer: D
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have
A. no slip-rings
B. one slip-ring
C. two slip-rings
D. three slip-rings
Answer: C
B. Over-excitation
Answer: A
Answer: A
A. V
B. V312
C. V2
D. 1/V
Answer: A
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the
load angle is
A. zero
B. 45°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Answer: C
A. under-loaded
B. over-loaded
C. under-excited
D. over-excited
Answer: D
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the
load on the motor is increased
Answer: D
Answer: C
A. the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed in an instant is absent
B. the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous speed is absent
Answer: A
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature
current because
B. the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
D. the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
Answer: B
16. Synchronous motor always runs at
Answer: A
A. leading current
B. lagging current
C. both A. and B.
Answer: A
C. distribution transformer
D. turbine
Answer: B
Answer: B
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £& depends on
Answer: A
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its
value in mechanical degrees is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
Answer: A
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on
A. speed
B. load
C. load angle
Answer: C
Answer: D
A. Windage loss
C. Copper loss
D. Core loss
Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: C
A. mild steel
B. chrome steel
C. alnico
D. stainless steel
Answer: A
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will
be
A. leading
B. lagging
C. unity
D. zero
Answer: B
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always
A. 1%
B. 0.5%
C. positive
D. zero
Answer: D
A. 1%
B. 100%
C. 0.5%
D. zero
Answer: D
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed
value by
C. changing frequency
D. using brakes
Answer: C
Answer: C
Answer: B
A. more
B. less
C. equal
D. twice
Answer: B
A. d.c. source
B. armature input
C. motor input
D. supply lines
Answer: A
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling
angle of
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Answer: C
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of
poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a synchronous motor
Answer: D
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at
the same speed ?
A. Universal motor
B. Synchronous motor
C. Induction motor
D. Reluctance motor
Answer: B
Answer: B
A. not-self starting
B. self-starting
C. essentially self-starting
Answer: A
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
D. unity or zero
Answer: C
A. back e.m.f.
B. armature current
C. power factor
D. torque angle
Answer: B
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an
equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
Answer: B
A. voltage booster
B. phase advancer
C. noise generator
D. mechanical synchronizer
Answer: B
A. carbon or graphite
B. brass or steel
C. silver or gold
D. copper or aluminium
Answer: B
A. fluctuating loads
Answer: D
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the
following will reduce ?
A. Stator flux
B. Pull in torque
C. Both A. and B.
Answer: D
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually fall in
range
A. 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
C. 85 to 95%
D. 99 to 99.5%
Answer: C
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have proper
A. voltage rating
B. current rating
C. power factor
D. speed
Answer: B
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry
A. direct current
B. alternating current
C. no current
Answer: A
C. a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less sensitive to load variations
Answer: D
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
C. both A. and B.
Answer: C
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load is
increased three times, its torque angle becomes approximately
A. one-third
B. twice
C. thrice
D. six times
E. nine times
Answer: C
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called _____
angle.
A. torque
B. obtuse
C. synchronizing
D. power factor
Answer: A
A. Damper winding
B. Star-delta starter
Answer: C
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more than the
synchronous speed during hunting, the damper bars develop
Answer: B
Answer: A
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator, in
polyphase multipolar synchronous motors running at full load, is of the order of
A. zero degree
B. two degrees
C. five degrees
D. ten degrees
Answer: C
Answer: B
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes
B. motor speed
Answer: C
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field winding
is usually
C. kept open-circuited
Answer: B
Answer: D
A. become more
B. become less
C. remain constant
Answer: B
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with
such an excitation that it takes power at lagging power factor. Now if the applied
voltage of the synchronous motor goes down, the power factor of the
synchronous motor will
A. remain same
B. go down
C. improve
Answer: C
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor action
and connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and accelerting
torque is produced by
Answer: E
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is
Answer: D
Answer: A
A. augments it directly
B. directly opposes it
C. cross-magnetises it
Answer: B
Answer: B
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of induction
motor because
Answer: A
Answer: B
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is
increased, the armature current drawn by it increases because
Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: B
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate
simultaneously ?
A. D.C. motor
B. Reluctance motor
C. Universal motor
D. Synchronous motor
E. Induction motor
Answer: D
Answer: C
D. induction motor
E. synchronous motor
Answer: E
A. 10 per cent
B. 6 per cent
C. 4 per cent
D. 2. per cent
E. zero
Answer: E
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by conducting insulation
resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
Answer: D
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field current ?
Answer: D
84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on all of the
following except
A. rotor excitation
C. direction of rotation
D. supply voltage
Answer: C
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when the
motor is
B. under-loaded
C. over-loaded
Answer: A
A. stator frame
B. rotor shaft
C. pole faces
Answer: C
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power factor
will be
Answer: A
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with
normal excitation is to
Answer: C
Answer: D
B. one
C. two
D. infinity
Answer: A
Answer: B
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of its field
current is reversed
Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C
A. windage friction
B. variable load
C. variable frequency
Answer: A
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a synchronous motor
can be changed to new fixed value ?
Answer: A
Answer: A
A. 3000 r.p.m.
B. 1500 r.p.m.
C. 750 r.p.m.
Answer: B
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant full load,
100% excitation and unity power factor. On changing the excitation only, the
armature current will have
Answer: D
B. synchronous motor
Answer: B
Answer: D
Answer: A
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be
A. zero
B. unity
C. lagging
D. leading
Answer: C
A. number of poles
B. flux density
C. rotor speed
D. rotor excitation
Answer: D
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop
without losing its synchronism, is known as
A. slip torque
B. pull-out torque
C. breaking torque
D. synchronising torque
Answer: D
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
Answer: C
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with
load?
A. Windage loss
B. Copper losses
Answer: A
A. flux density
C. speed
D. all of the above
Answer: A
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a
synchronous motor ?
D. Windage losses
Answer: D
A. one hour
B. one minute
C. one second
Answer: C
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will
pull into synchronism at rated rotor supply voltage and frequency is known as
A. pull-up torque
B. pull-in torque
C. pull-out torque
Answer: B
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has
Answer: A
A. a series motor
B. an induction motor
C. an alternator
D. a rotary converter
Answer: C
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open
circuited, the motor will
A. stop
Answer: A
Answer: A
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated stator supply voltage and frequency, is
known as
A. locked-rotor torque
B. synchronous torque
C. pull up torque
D. reluctance torque
Answer: A
Answer: A
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as the
angle between the
Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: C
D. the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle (90°)
Answer: D
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not
drive a mechanical load is called as
A. static condenser
B. condenser
C. synchronous condenser
Answer: C
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Answer: C
Answer: A
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
1. 250+ TOP MCQs on Starting of Synchronous Motors and Answers
2. 250+ TOP MCQs on DC Motors – Three Phase Synchronous Motors and
Answers
3. 250+ TOP MCQs on Induction Motors – Regenerative Braking (3-phase IM)
and Answers
4. 250+ TOP MCQs on Power Factor Correction by Synchronous Motors and
Answers
5. 250+ TOP MCQs on Synchronous Machine Applications and Answers
6. 250+ TOP MCQs on DC Motors – Three Phase Induction Motors and Answers
7. 250+ TOP MCQs on Applications of Polyphase Induction Motors and Answers
8. 250+ TOP MCQs on Excitation Systems for Synchronous Machines and
Answers
9. 250+ TOP MCQs on Physical Concepts of Synchronous Machine Operation
and Answers
10. 300+ TOP Induction Motors Interview Questions [LATEST]
11. 250+ TOP MCQs on Rotor EMF, Current and Power and Answers
12. 250+ TOP MCQs on Power Factor Control of Synchronous Machines and
Answers
13. 250+ TOP MCQs on Starting of Polyphase Induction Motors-II and Answers
14. 250+ TOP MCQs on Flux and MMF Phasors and Waves in Induction Motors
and Answers
15. 250+ TOP MCQs on Synchronizing Power and Synchronizing Torque and
Answers
16. 250+ TOP MCQs on Power Angle Characteristics of Synchronous Machines
and Answers
17. 250+ TOP MCQs on Principle of Operation and Answers
18. 250+ TOP MCQs on Operating (or Performance) Characteristics of Induction
Motors and Answers
19. 250+ TOP MCQs on Efficiency of Synchronous Machines and Answers
20. 250+ TOP MCQs on Induction Motors – Controlling Speed Using Inductance
and Answers
yogu
MAY 3, 2016 AT 7:42 AM
all are most imp and most ask quesions on gov exams..thnk u sir..
REPLY
Arvind
APRIL 25, 2016 AT 11:15 AM
Niece collection sir.
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(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
Answer: c
Answer: c
3. A transformer core is laminated to
Answer: b
Answer: d
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-
load current ?
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: c
(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Answer: b
(a) temperature
Answer: a
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is
around
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(d) Exciter
Answer: d
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area
Answer: a
17. A transformer transforms
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Answer: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because
(c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux is
zero
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain
constant irrespective of load changes are
Answer: c
Answer: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an
angle of about
(a) 180°
(b) 120″
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Answer: d
Answer: d
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to heating
Answer: c
Answer: a
(d) no load
Answer: a
(a) at no load
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: c
35. The power transformer is a constant
Answer: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon
their
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
Answer: b
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Answer: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected
with regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of
common load
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
Answer: b
39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are
different, then
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
Answer: b
Answer: d
(a) true
(b) false
Answer: b
(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Answer: d
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is
termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Answer: c
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Answer: b
(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
Answer: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is usually
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Answer: a
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil due to variation of
temperature of sur-roundings
Answer: d
(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV
(c) 132 kV
(d) 400 kV
Answer: d
(a) zero
(b) 1 ohm
(d) infinite
Answer: d
(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Answer: d
Answer: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil temperature
exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Answer: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer could be
Answer: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
Answer: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for transformer
core ?
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: a
(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
Answer: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for
transformer core ?
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
Answer: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two winding
transformer ?
Answer: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
Answer: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(b) power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
Answer: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
Answer: a
Answer: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
Answer: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to fullload
because
Answer: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
Answer: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,”the iron loss will
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Answer: c
Answer: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by
Answer: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
Answer: a
(c) paper
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should have
Answer: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____ viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Answer: a
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Answer: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?
Answer: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on
(a) frequency
Answer: d
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Answer: a
Answer: b
(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
Answer: c
(a) voltage
(b) current
(d) power
Answer: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Answer: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer
employing
Answer: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting capacitance
of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
Answer: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
Answer: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers are
Answer: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
Answer: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having a
turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
Answer: d
Answer: a
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Answer: d
Answer: a
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur at
Answer: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution
transformers ?
Answer: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to lightning and
switching ?
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Answer: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by
Answer: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
Answer: c
(a) Bushings
(b) Core
Answer: a
(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Answer: b
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?
Answer: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(b) Overload
Answer: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
Answer: b
(c) magnetostriction
Answer: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
Answer: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
Answer: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to measure
(e) efficiency
Answer: c
(c) efficiency
Ans: e
Answer: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
Answer: c
Answer: a
137. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
Answer: a
138. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Answer: c
139. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results in
change of supply current of
(c) 15 A
Answer: a
140. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same power
are
Answer: c
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
1. 250+ TOP MCQs on Alternating Current – Transformers | Class12 Physics
2. 250+ TOP MCQs on Current Transformers Construction and Answers
3. 250+ TOP MCQs on Ratios of Instrument Transformers and Answers
4. 250+ TOP MCQs on Three Winding Transformers and Answers
5. 250+ TOP MCQs on Transformer Construction (Winding) and Answers
6. 250+ TOP MCQs on No Load Operation of Transformer and Answers
7. 250+ TOP MCQs on Design Features of Current Transformers and Answers
8. 250+ TOP MCQs on Parallel Operation of Transformers and Answers
9. 250+ TOP MCQs on Instrument Transformers and Answers
10. 250+ TOP MCQs on Tap Changing Transformers – 1 and Answers
11. 250+ TOP MCQs on Advantages of Instrument Transformers and Answers
12. 250+ TOP MCQs on Additional Testing for Important Transformers and
Answers
13. 250+ TOP MCQs on OC Test on Transformer and Answers
14. 250+ TOP MCQs on Efficiency and Answers
15. 250+ TOP MCQs on Tests on Three Phase Transformers and Answers
16. 250+ TOP MCQs on Reduction of Errors in Potential Transformers and
Answers
17. 250+ TOP MCQs on Errors in Current Transformers and Answers
18. 250+ TOP MCQs on Real Transformer and Equivalent Circuit and Answers
19. 250+ TOP MCQs on SC Test on Transformer and Answers
20. 250+ TOP MCQs on Ideal Transformer and Answers
REPLY
C.V.Nagendra
NOVEMBER 24, 2016 AT 7:19 AM
may I request pleasesend all electrical engineering branch mcq for com-
pititive exams to email address sir (venkatanagendra701@gmail.com)
please urs mcq questions very useful sir
REPLY
pl. provide me the list of no load loss and full load loss of all rating of
transformers including power transformers for all the possible voltage
ratio.
REPLY
pankaj pagar
SEPTEMBER 8, 2016 AT 4:41 PM
sir please send can u PDF in transformer and DC machine mcq my email.
ppagar44@gmail.com
REPLY
Bhasker
APRIL 9, 2016 AT 3:22 PM
Thank you very much..These are very helpful…And Need More Questions
on Basic problms..It might be Helpful..
REPLY
prem
FEBRUARY 7, 2016 AT 7:25 PM
Definitely get a idea on competative exams
REPLY
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Mixer stage
Power stage
Detector stage
F stage
Ans : 2
Transformer
RC
direct
Impedance
Ans : 1
Two transistors
Three transistors
One transistor
Ans : 3
TRANSISTOR AUDIO POWER AMPLIFIERS
Questions and Answers
5%
50%
30%
25%
Ans : 4
30%
50%
80%
45%
Ans : 2
C
A
AB
Ans : 1
Small
Very small
Large
Ans : 3
8. In class A operation, the operating point is generally located ………. of the d.c.
load line.
At the middle
At saturation point
Ans : 2
AF amplifiers
Detectors
F. amplifiers
Ans : 3
Small
Large
Very large
Ans : 1
50%
90%
5%
5%
Ans : 4
12. A 2-transistor class B power amplifier is commonly called ……….. amplifier
Dual
Push-pull
Symmetrical
Differential
Ans : 2
13. If a transistor is operated in such a way that output current flows for 60o of
the input signal, then it is …………… operation
Class A
Class B
Class C
Ans : 3
14. If the zero signal dissipation of a transistor is 1W, then power rating of the
transistor should be at least ……………….
5 W
33 W
75 W
1 W
Ans : 4
15. When a transistor is cut off……………..
Ans : 1
Symmetrical
Single-ended
Reciprocating
Differential
Ans : 2
C
AB
Ans : 3
Preamplifier
Ans : 1
Dissipate heat
Facilitate connections
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
Push-pull amplifier
Class C amplifier
Ans : 1
22. If the power rating of a transistor is 1W and collector current is 100mA, then
maximum allowable collector voltage is ………..
1V
100V
20V
10V
Ans : 4
10%
0%
25%
50%
Ans : 2
24. What will be the collector efficiency of a power amplifier having zero signal
power dissipation of 5 watts and a.c. power output of 2 watts?
20%
80%
40%
50%
Ans : 3
25. The output signal voltage and current of a power amplifier are 5V and 200
mA; the values being r.m.s. What is the power output?
1 W
2 W
4 W
Ans : 1
26. The maximum a.c. power output from a class A power amplifier is 10 W. What
should be the minimum power rating of the transistor used ?
10 W
15 W
5 W
20 W
Ans : 4
27. For the same a.c. power output as above, what should be the minimum power
rating of transistor for class B operation?
10 W
4 W
8 W
Ans : 2
Class A
Class C
Class B
Class AB
Ans : 3
29. The class B push-pull circuit can deliver 100 W of a.c. output power. What
should be the minimum power rating of each transistor?
20 W
40 W
10 W
80 W
Ans : 1
Ans : 2
31. A transformer coupled class A power amplifier has a load of 100 O on the
secondary. If the turn ratio is 10:1, what is the value of load appearing on the
primary?
5 kO
20 kO
100 kO
10 kO
Ans : 4
Impedance matching
Distortionless output
Ans : 2
Only power
Only voltage
Ans : 1
1:1 ratio
Step-up
Step-down
Ans : 3
Collector efficiency
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
Burning of transistor
Ans : 2
Requires a transformer
Ans : 1
39. If the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor amplifier is not flat, then
there is distortion.
Amplitude
Intermodulation
Frequency
Ans : 3
RC
Direct
Impedance
Transformer
Ans : 4
TRANSISTOR AUDIO POWER AMPLIFIERS Questions and Answers pdf free download :-
1. a.c.
2. d.c.
3. both a.c. and d.c.
4. none of the above
Ans : 2
Ans : 1
Ans : 3
Unfaithful amplification
Ans : 2
Biasing circuit
Bias battery
Diode
Ans : 1
6. For faithful amplification by a transistor circuit, the value of VBE should ……….
for a silicon transistor
Be zero
Be 0.01 V
Ans : 3
7. For proper operation of the transistor, its collector should have …………
Ans : 2
Be zero
Be 0.2 V
Ans : 1
9. The circuit that provides the best stabilization of operating point is …………
Ans : 3
10. The point of intersection of d.c. and a.c. load lines represents …………..
Operating point
Current gain
Voltage gain
Ans : 1
100
200
Ans : 4
12. The zero signal IC is generally ……………… mA in the initial stages of a
transistor amplifier
More than 10
Ans : 2
13. If the maximum collector current due to signal alone is 3 mA, then zero signal
collector current should be at least equal to ………..
6 mA
mA
3 mA
1 mA
Ans : 3
Is complicated
Is sensitive to changes in ß
Ans : 2
15. The biasing circuit has a stability factor of 50. If due to temperature change,
ICBO changes by 1 µA, then IC will change by …………
100 µA
25 µA
20 µA
50 µA
Ans : 4
16. For good stabilsation in voltage divider bias, the current I1 flowing through R1
and R2 should be equal to or greater than
10 IB
3 IB
2 IB
4 IB
Ans : 1
17. The leakage current in a silicon transistor is about ………… the leakage current
in a germanium transistor
One hundredth
One tenth
One thousandth
One millionth
Ans : 3
18. The operating point is also called the ………….
Quiescent point
Saturation point
Ans : 2
19. For proper amplification by a transistor circuit, the operating point should be
located at the ………….. of the d.c. load line
Middle
Ans : 2
Also line
Data insufficient
Ans : 1
Many resistors
Ans : 3
Ans : 2
Ans : 3
2VBE
5 VBE
Ans : 1
Amplifier circuits
Switching circuits
Rectifier circuits
Ans : 2
26. For germanium transistor amplifier, VCE should ………….. for faithful
amplification
Be zero
Be 0.2 V
Ans : 3
27. In a base resistor method, if the value of ß changes by 50, then collector
current will change by a factor ………
25
50
100
200
Ans : 2
28. The stability factor of a collector feedback bias circuit is ……….. that of base
resistor bias.
The same as
More than
Less than
Ans : 3
29. In the design of a biasing circuit, the value of collector load RC is determined
by …………
VCE consideration
VBE consideration
IB consideration
Ans : 1
30. If the value of collector current IC increases, then the value of VCE …………
Remains the same
Decreases
Increases
Ans : 2
Is increased
Is decreased
Ans : 3
RE consideration
RC consideration
VCC consideration
Answer: 1
Is almost independent of IC
Is strongly dependant on IC
Ans : 2
34. When the temperature changes, the operating point is shifted due to …….
Change in ICBO
Change in VCC
Ans : 1
35. The value of stability factor for a base resistor bias is …………
RB (ß+1)
(ß+1)RC
(ß+1)
1-ß
Ans : 3
10 kO
1 MO
100 kO
800 O
Ans : 4
37. A silicon transistor is biased with base resistor method. If ß=100, VBE =0.7 V,
zero signal collector current IC = 1 mA and VCC = 6V , what is the value of the
base resistor RB?
105 kO
530 kO
315 kO
None of the above
Ans : 2
7 V
3 V
8 V
Ans : 4
8 V
6 V
7 V
Ans : 1
40. In voltage divider bias, operating point is 3 V, 2 mA. If VCC = 9 V, RC = 2.2 kO,
what is the value of RE ?
2000 O
1400 O
800 O
1600 O
Ans : 3
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. LC tank
4. Inductive
Ans : 3
1. Class A
2. Class C
3. Class B
4. None of the above
Ans : 2
1. Radio frequency
2. Low frequency
3. Audio frequency
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
4. Frequencies above …………… kHz are called radio frequencies
1. 2
2. 10
3. 50
4. 200
Ans : 4
1. 0
2. 5
3. 1
4. 8
Ans : 3
Minimum
Maximum
Zero
Ans : 2
Maximum
Quite large
Ans : 1
Zero
Maximum
Minimum
Ans : 3
R and L only
R and C only
Only R
L and C
Ans : 4
Capacitive
Resistive
Inductive
Ans : 2
Ans : 1
Increases
Decreases
Insufficient data
Ans : 3
13. At parallel resonance, the net reactive component circuit current is …………
Capacitive
Zero
Inductive
Ans : 2
C/LR
R/LC
CR/L
L/CR
Ans : 4
Ans : 1
2pfr x R
R / 2pfrL
2pfrL / R
R2/2pfrL
Ans : 3
Increases
Decreases
Insufficient data
Ans : 2
Zero
Inductive
Capacitive
None of the above
Ans : 1
Farad
Henry
Ohm
Ans : 3
20. If L/C ratio of a parallel LC circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit ……………..
Is decreased
Is increased
Ans : 2
21. At series resonance, the phase angle between applied voltage and circuit is
………..
90o
180o
0o
Ans : 3
Very large
Zero
Small
Ans : 1
23. If the resistance of a tuned circuit is increased, the Q of the circuit ………….
Is increased
Is decreased
Ans : 2
Sensitivity
Fidelity
Selectivity
Ans : 3
25. At parallel resonance, the phase angle between the applied voltage and circuit
current is …………….
90o
180o
0o
Ans : 3
Ans : 1
Voltage amplification
Current amplification
Ans : 1
Less than 5
Less than 10
More than 10
Ans : 3
29. The Q of a tuned amplifier is 50. If the resonant frequency for the amplifier is
1000kHZ, then bandwidth is …………
10kHz
40 kHz
30 kHz
20 kHz
Ans : 4
30. In the above question, what are the values of cut-off frequencies?
Ans : 2
31. For frequencies above the resonant frequency, a parallel LC circuit behaves as
a ……………. load
Capacitive
Resistive
Inductive
Ans : 1
Voltage amplifications
Current amplification
Ans : 3
Resistive
Capacitive
Inductive
Ans : 2
34. If a high degree of selectivity is desired, then double-tuned circuit should have
…………. coupling
Loose
Tight
Critical
Ans : 1
35. In the double tuned circuit, if the mutual inductance between the two tuned
circuits is decreased, the level of resonance curve ………..
Is lowered
Is raised
Ans : 3
36. For frequencies above the resonant frequency , a series LC circuit behaves as
a ………….. load
Resistive
Inductive
Capacitive
None of the above
Ans : 2
37. Double tuned circuits are used in ……………. stages of a radio receiver
IF
Audio
Output
Ans : 1
A pure resistive
A pure inductive
A pure capacitive
A resonant tank
Ans : 4
Low power
High power
Ans : 4
40. For frequencies below the resonant frequency , a parallel LC circuit behaves
as a …………… load
1. Inductive
2. Resistive
3. Capacitive
4. None of the above
Ans : 1
TRANSISTOR TUNED AMPLIFIERS Objective Questions and Answers pdf free download ::
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
ANS : 2
four
three
one
two
ANS : 4
heavily
moderately
lightly
ANS : 3
TRANSISTORS Questions and
Answers pdf
collector
base
emitter
collector-base-junction
ANS : 1
acceptor ions
donor ions
free electrons
holes
ANS : 4
6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
heavily
moderately
lightly
ANS : 2
current
voltage
ANS : 1
free electrons
holes
donor ions
acceptor ions
ANS : 2
heavily
moderately
ANS : 2
25%
20%
35 %
5%
ANS : 4
a reverse bias
low resistance
ANS : 3
high
low
very high
almost zero
ANS : 2
ANS :3
electron current
hole current
ANS : 1
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
ANS : 4
more than 1
less than 1
ANS : 2
IB
ICEO
ICBO
ßIB
ANS : 3
high
zero
low
very low
ANS : 1
100
50
about 1
200
ANS : 4
100 mA
100.1 mA
110 mA
ANS : 2
ß = 1 / (1 – a )
ß = (1 – a ) / a
ß = a / (1 – a )
ß = a / (1 + a )
ANS : 3
22. The value of ß for a transistor is generally ………………..
less than 1
above 500
ANS : 3
common emitter
common base
common collector
ANS : 1
common emitter
common collector
common base
ANS : 2
25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in ……………. arrangement is
the highest
common emitter
common collector
common base
ANS : 3
26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in a common base
arrangement is …………….
180o
90o
270o
0o
ANS : 4
common emitter
common base
common collector
ANS : 1
28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor
connected in common emitter arrangement is ………………
0o
180o
90o
270o
ANS : 2
common base
common collector
common emitter
ANS : 3
decreases
increases
ANS : 1
31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common collector arrangement
is ………..
equal to 1
more than 10
less than 1
ANS : 4
32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of a transistor
connected in common collector arrangement is ………………
180o
0o
90o
270o
ANS : 2
33. IC = ß IB + ………..
ICBO
IC
ICEO
aIE
ANS : 3
34. IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB + ………….
ICEO
ICBO
IC
(1 – a ) IB
ANS : 1
35. IC = [a / (1 – a )] IB + […….. / (1 – a )]
ICBO
ICEO
IC
IE
ANS : 1
germanium
silicon
carbon
ANS : 2
1 + a
1 + ß
ANS : 3
increase
decrease
ANS : 1
0.9
900
90
ANS : 4
ANS : 2
41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction of ………….
ANS : 3
more than
less than
the same as
ANS : 1
ANS : 4
germanium
silicon
carbon
ANS : 2
low resistance
ANS : 2
Answer: c
2. are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(c) Feeders
Answer: b
(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Answer: d
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Answer: c
Answer: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative
compound have life
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Answer: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution
of electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
Answer: d
Answer: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited
or lightly loaded line is called the
Answer: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called
the
Answer: a
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal reactants
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-distance
heavy power transmission
Answer: a
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e
17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is up to
(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Answer: d
(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Answer: d
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Answer: d
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(b) Draw-in-system
Answer: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
Answer: d
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too
hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with
temperature
Answer: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in
first cost ?
Answer: a
24. A booster is a
Answer: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is
employed for solution of network problems in interconnected system ?
Ans: e
Answer: d
27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is
Answer: d
(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Answer: c
(a) underground
(b) overhead
Answer: b
Answer: c
(a) solid
(b) stranded
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: d
34. Distribution lines in India generally use
Answer: b
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
Answer: b
(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
Answer: b
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Answer: b
Answer: c
(a) copper
(b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
(d) steel
Answer: d
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Answer: b
(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Answer: b
(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Answer: a
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Answer: c
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Answer: c
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at
(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Answer: c
Answer: d
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the
two sides
Answer: c
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire
feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
Answer: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As
compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle
point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
Answer: a
Answer: a
(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 8.8 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: b
(a) distributors
Answer: a
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when
Answer: c
Answer: d
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
Answer: d
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Answer: d
(b) winter
Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: c
62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?
Answer: c
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for
transmission lines possess ?
Answer: d
(a) 20—25 km
(b) 40—50 km
(c) 60—70 km
(d) 80—100 km
Answer: a
(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Answer: d
Answer: c
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Answer: d
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Answer: d
69. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
Answer: b
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and core of the conductor
carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and core of the conductor
carries more cur¬rent
Answer: b
Answer: d
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(b) Isolators
Answer: b
(a) exciters
Answer: a
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the
conductor exceeds
Answer: d
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
Answer: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
Answer: c
(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) triangular
(d) square
Answer: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Answer: d
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Answer: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission
voltage should be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Answer: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher
values except
Answer: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution
feeder, will be most economical ?
Answer: d
86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission
voltage should be in the range
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Answer: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
Answer: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step be¬cause of large angular displacement between the stations
Answer: c
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be increased by
Answer: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage
will
(a) fall
(b) rise
Answer: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due
to
Answer: a
(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
Answer: b
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR
requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
Answer: b
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected
by
Answer: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it
is due to
(b) corona
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: a
110. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the
earth which of the following will happen ?
Answer: a
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Ans-c
Ans-b
3. The resistance of a conductor having length l area of cross section a and resistivity ρ is given
as:
Ans-b
Ans-a
5. Which of the following quantities are same in all parts of a series circuit?
Ans-c
c. applied voltage is equal to the sum of voltage drops across individual resistors are additive
d.none
Ans-b
Ans-a
8. Three resistors, each of R ohms, are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any
two terminals will be:
a. 2/3 R b. 3/2R c. R d. 3R
Ans-a
Ans-
10. A 100W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 100W bulb is replaced by a
40w bulb, the heater output will :
Ans-b
11. The voltage applied across an electric iron is halved. The power consumption of the iron will
be:
Ans-b
Ans-c
13. Two heaters rated at 1000w, 250v each are connected in series across a 250v, 50Hz ac
supply. The total power drawn from the supply will be:
Ans-b
14. A 200w, 100v lamp is to be operated on 250v supply. The additional resistance required to be
connected in series will be:
Ans-c
Ans-d
Ans-c
Ans-c
18. A wye arrangement of resistances has each resistance of 3ohm, the equivalent delta
arrangement will have each resistance of values.
Ans-a
19. A battery is connected to a resistance causing a current of 0.5A in the circuit. The current
drops to 0.4 when an additional resistance of 5? is connected in series . The current will drop to
0.2A when the resistance is further increased by
Ans-c
Ans-c
Ans-c
22. When two cells are connected in parallel , it should ensure that have
Ans-b
Ans-b
Ans-c
Ans-b
Ans-b
Ans-c
a. the measurement reading will be too high b. Almost no current will flow in the circuit
c. the meter will burn out d. an inadmissably high current will flow
Ans-b
a. Multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter b. variable coil turns
Ans-a
Ans-c
31. Electric pressure is also called
a. resistance b. power c. voltage d. energy
Ans-c
32 The substances whfch have a large number of free electrons and offer a low resistance are
called
a. insulators b. inductors c. semi-conductors d. conductors
Ans-d
33. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?
a. Cast iron b. Copper c. Carbon d. Tungsten
Ans-b
34. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?
a. Copper b. Gold c. Silver d. Paper
Ans-d
Ans-cc
36 . Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) reluctance (d) capacitance
Ans-a
37. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as
(a) length (b) area of cross-section (c) temperature (d) resistivity
Ans-b
38. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
Ans-a
39. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-conductors
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases (d) remains constant
Ans-a
40. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its
specific resistance is around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m (b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10""8 Q-m (d) 1.8 x 10"8 Q-m
Ans-c
41. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms (b) 10 ohms (c) 15 ohms (d) 55 ohms
Ans-a
42. An instrument which detects electric current is known as
(a) voltmeter (b) rheostat (c) wattmeter (d) galvanometer
Ans-d
43. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The voltage across the resistor is
(a) 33 V (b) 66 v (c) 80 V (d) 132 V
Ans-b
44. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is 240 V. The resistance of the light
bulb is (a) 400 ohm (b) 600 ohm (c) 800 ohm (d) 1000 ohm
Ans-c
45. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of
one branch is 18 ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 ohm (b) 36 ohm (c) 48 ohm (d) 64 ohm
Ans-b
46. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional area and the same length when
connected in parallel give a resistance of 0.25 ohm. If the same four wires are connected is series
the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 3 ohm (d) 4 ohm
Ans-d
47. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and
12 ohms respectively. The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A (b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A (c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A (d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans-b
48. Current velocity through a copper conductor is
(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy (b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few micro second (d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans-c
49. Which of the following material has nearly zero temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin (b) Porcelain (c) Carbon (d) Copper
Ans-a
50. You have to replace 1500 ohm resistor in radio. You have no 1500 ohm resistor but have
several 1000 ohm ones which you would connect
(a) two in parallel (b) two in parallel and one in series (c) three in parallel (d) three in series
Ans-b
51. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when
(a) same current passes in turn through both (b) both carry the same value of current
(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents (d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans-a
52. Which of the following statement is true both for a series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents (b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive (d) Power are additive
Ans-d
53. Which of the following materials has a negative temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper (b) Aluminum (c) Carbon (d) Brass
Ans-c
Ans-a
55. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?
(a) Iron (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Carbon
Ans-b
56. For which of the following 'ampere second' could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance (b) Charge (c) Power (d) Energy
Ans-b
57. All of the following are equivalent to watt except
(a) amperes square ohm (b) joules/sec. (c) amperes x volts (d) amperes/volt
Ans-d
58. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10W is likely to be a
(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans-c
59. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans-a
60. Varistors are
(a) insulators
(b) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans-b
61. Insulating materials have the function of
(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans-a
Ans-d
63. The minimum charge on an ion is
(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom zero
Ans-b
64. In a series circuit with unequal resistances
(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans-c
65. The filament of an electric bulb is made of
(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans-c
66. A 3 ohm resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of
(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 12 watts
Ans-d
67. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an voltmeter
Ans-
68. The resistance of a few metres of wire conductor in closed electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero(b) low(c) high (d) very high
Ans-a
Ans-c
70. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans-a
71. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans-b
72. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series with a battery across them, which of the
following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(d) None of the above
Ans-a
73. Two resistances Rl and R2 are connected in series across the voltage source where R2>R1.
The largest drop will be across
(a) R2
(b) R1
(c) either Rl or R2
(d) none of them
Ans-a
74. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive 6.28 x 1018 electrons with
potential difference of 20 V across the terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans-d
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Ans-a
76. The hot resistance of the bulb's filament is higher than its cold resistance because the
temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans-c
77. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans-d
78. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided
(a) to prevent leakage of current (b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factor (d) none of above factors
Ans-c
79. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans-a
80. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans-b
81. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40 W bulb is replaced by 100
W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
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Ans-b
82. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 minutes. It is required to boil the boiler in 15 minutes,
using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water
(d) none of the above
Ans-a
83. An electric filament bulb can be worked from
(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans-d
84. Resistance of a tungsten as applied voltage increases
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans-b
85. Electric current passing through the circuit produces
(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans-c
86. Resistance of a material always decreases if
(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: c
87. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?
(a) Input power (b) Losses (c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed (e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
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88. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its temperature rises. This is due
to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
89. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
90. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
91. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective in reducing the
magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
92. It becomes more difficult to remove
(a) any electron from the
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
93. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
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94. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
95. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V (alternating). Which of the
following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will brighter (b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright (d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
96. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be
(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
97. In the case of direct current
(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
98. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of bubbling is observed. This
suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
100. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in
(a) parallel
(b) series
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(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
101. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
102. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is because switching
operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
103. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high
(a) resistance (b) inductance (c) capacitance (d) impedance
Ans: b
104. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three times its length without
change in volume, the new resistance of wire becomes
(a) 1/9 times (b) 3 times (c) 9 times (d) unchanged
Ans: c
105. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect it after removing a portion
of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
106. A field of force can exist only between
(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
107. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called
(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
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(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
108. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of
(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
109. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
110. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm's law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
111. 3 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is the resistance between any two
corners
?
(a) 3/2 Q (b 6 Q (c) 4 Q (d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
112. Ohm's law is not applicable to
(a) semi-conductors (b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors (d) high currents
Ans: a
113. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional area of one conductor is four
times that of the other. If the conductor having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40
ohms the resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
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114. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m. For a heater of 1 kW at
200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
115. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of
(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
116. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?
(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans: d
117. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
118. The condition for the validity under Ohm's law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature at negative end
Ans: a
119. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as between that of a conductor
and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having average value of conductivity
of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which conducts only half of the applied voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
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Ans: b
121. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper conductor of identical
cross-section, for the same electrical resistance, is
(a) 50%
(b) 60% (c) 100% (d) 150%
Ans: a
122. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero
Ans: b
123. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than most of the metals but much
greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
124. All good conductors have high
(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
125. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from
(a) charcoal (b) copper
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
126. Voltage dependent resistors are used
(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
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Ans: b
127. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly
Ans: a
128. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
129. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20 W the total power
supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
130. A thermistor has
(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
131. If, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then according to Joule's law
heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
132. Nichrome wire is an alloy of
(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
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133. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one microampere current to flow
through it.The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
Ans: d
135. Conductance : mho ::
(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
136. 1 angstrom is equal to
(a) 10-8 mm (6) 10"6 cm (c) 10"10 m (d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
137. One newton metre is same as
(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
138. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the
force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
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139. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 metres from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the
distance is reduced to 2 metres, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
(d) 1200 N/C
Ans: c
140. The lines of force due to charged particles are
(a) always straight(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved(d) none of the above
Ans: b
141. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
142. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .
(a) away from the charge (b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above
Ans: a
143. A field line and an equipotential surface are
(a) always parallel(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0(d) none of the above
Ans: b
144. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
145. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the of an , the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
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(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
147. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric having
(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
148. The units of capacitance are
(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
149. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
150. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the net cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
151. A dielectric material must be
(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor
Ans: b
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Ans: a
153. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by
(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
154. Which of the following is not a vector ?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
155. Two plates of a parallel capacitor after being charged from a constant voltage source are
separated apart by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates
(b) voltage across the plates decreases
(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
156. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the alternating current can flow in the circuit
because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
157. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an electrolytic field 100 times greater
than air. What will be the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 150 (d) 200
Ans: b
158. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Air capacitors have a blackband to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
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Ans: b
159. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of
(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
160. "The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the
amount oflcharge enclosed".The above statement is associated with
(a) Coulomb's square law
(b) Gauss's law
(c) Maxwell's first law
(d) Maxwell's second law
Ans: b
161. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant capacity 2/3 C can be
obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
162. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of the capacitor remains
unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
163. Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
164. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
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(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
165. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
166. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
167. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
168. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
169. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
170. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts
(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
(d) none of the above
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Ans: a
171. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
172. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is
(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
173. In a capacitive circuit
(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
174. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor, the potential difference
between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
175. Capacitance increases with
(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage
(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
176. A capacitor consists of
(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Ans: b
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Ans: b
178. Air capacitors are generally available in the range
(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a
Ans: c
180. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
181. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to wrong connections,
which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
182. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged from a D.C source of
voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
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183. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by (a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m (d) 8.854 x 10"12 F/m
Ans: b
184. The relative permittivity of free space is given by
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100 (d) 1000
Ans: a
185. Electric field intensity is a quantity
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both (a) and (6)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
186. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
187. The capacitor preferred for high circuits is
(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
188. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
189. While testing a capacitor with ohm-metre, if the capacitor shows charging, but the final
resistance reading is appreciably less than normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
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Ans: d
190. If a 6 mF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
191. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
192. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel with 50 pF condenser to
make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
193. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same physical dimensions. Which
will have more value of capacitance ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
194. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
195. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
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Ans:b
197. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
198. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
Ans: d
200. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Paper capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
201. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower the voltage breakdown
rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and yellow has the capacitance
value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage breakdown rating for the
combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between two conductors
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Ans: b
202. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of
(a) ± 5% (b) ± 10% (c) ± 15% (d) ± 20%
Ans: b
203. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
204. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each and placed at a distance
of
0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
205. The units of volume charge density are
(a) Coulomb/metre
(b) Coulomb/metre
(c) Coulomb/metre
(d) Coulomb/metre
Ans: c
206. "The surface integral of the normal component of the electric displacement D over any
closed surface equals the charge enclosed by the surface".
The above statement is associated with
(a) Gauss's law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) 's law
(d) Lenz's law
Ans: a
207. Dielectric strength of mica is
(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm
Ans: c
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208. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by (a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0(c) 2.0 to 4.0 (d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
209 capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.
(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
210. capacitors can be used only for D.C.
(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
211. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.
(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
212. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
213. The inverse of capacitance is called
(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
214. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is
(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
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215. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is than across the material of
high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
216. field is associated with the capacitor.
(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
217. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential difference of 10,000 V. The
energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
218. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10 mm and the internal
diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
219. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between them a potential
difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
220. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) charge
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221. The relative permittivity has the following units
(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
222. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by the nearness of a charged
body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
223. A unit tube of flux is known as tube
(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
224. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in an electric field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
225. The unit of electric intensity is
(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:c
226. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found with the help of
(a) Faraday's laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb's laws
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
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227. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing normally through a unit cross
section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
228. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
(c) potential gradient
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
229. Electric displacement is a quantity.
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
230. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
231. The unit of dielectric strength is given by
(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
232. Dielectric strength with increasing thickness
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
233. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its
(a) capacitance
(b) charge
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(c) energy
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
234. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
235. A capacitance of 100 pF is connected in series with a resistance of 8000 ohm. The time
constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
236. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface of the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
237. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during which capacitor charging
voltage actually rises to _ percent of its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 63.2, initial
(c) 63.2, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
238. The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time during which the
charging current falls to percent of its initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
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Ans:e
240. A capacitor consists of two
(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric
(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
241. Permittivity is expressed in
(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/metre
(c) Weber/metre
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
242. Dielectric strength of a material depends on
(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
243. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than the breakdown voltage is
applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
244. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?
(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
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Ans: d
245. 1 volt/metre is same as
(a) 1 metre/coulomb(6) 1 newton metre(c) 1 newton/metre(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
246. One volt is the same as
(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
247. The capacitance between two plates increases with
(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
248. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time constant of the charging
circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
249. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the capacitance is
(a) Wien's bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay's bridge
Ans: c
250. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
251. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will have the smallest
dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
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252. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then
(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then attracted towards the charging
body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
253. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
254. Paper condenser is
(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
255. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of thte following except
(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses
Ans: c
256. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which are 4 mm apart. The
strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
257. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should
(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at all
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Ans: a
258. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is
(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c) few megaahms
(d) zero
Ans: d
259. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 \iF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
260. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor (b) Electrolytic capacitor (c) Mica capacitor (d) none of the above
Ans: c
261. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide
(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
262. In order to remove static electricity from machinery
(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
263. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal and similar charges, then
this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
264. A region around a stationary electric charge has
(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
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Ans: a
265. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in
(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
266. Dielectric strength of medium
(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
267. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar charge repels with a force
of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
268. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in
(a) J/mm (b) C/m2 (c) kV/mm (d) N/mm
Ans: c
269. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When they are moved close
together so that they are now only 10 mm apart, the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
Ans: c
271. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength
(a) decreases
(b) increases
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272. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
273. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
274. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
275. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is
(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
276. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in
(a) metal plates (b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates (d) none of the above
Ans: b
277. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
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Ans: d
279. The unit of magnetic flux is
(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
280. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds to in an electric circuit.
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
281. Point out the wrong statement.
Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) lowers their power efficiency
(b) increases their cost of
(c) leads to their increased weight
(d) produces fringing
Ans: a
282. Relative permeability of vacuum is
(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-' H/m
Ans: a
283. Permanent magnets are normally made of
(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
Ans: a
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284. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is increased by percent.
(a) 25(b) 50 (c)41.4 (d) 100
Ans: c
285. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature and transformer cores which
have permeability and hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
286. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is maximum
(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
(b) at the start of the current flow
(c) after one time constant
(d) near the final maximum value of current
Ans: b
287. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
288. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of inductance 10 H when suddenly
connected to a D.C. supply of 200 V is Vs
(a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 0.05 (d) 500
Ans: b
289. A material for good magnetic memory
(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity
Ans: d
290. Conductivity is analogous to
(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance
Ans: c
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Ans: d
292. Those materials are well suited for making permanent magnets which have retentivity and
coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
293. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is , the hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
294. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low
Ans: a
295. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has
(a) low co-ercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high co-ercivity
Ans: c
296. Conductance is analogous to
(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance
Ans: a
297. The property of a material which opposes the creation of magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
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298. The unit of retentivity is
(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/metre
(d) ampere turn
Ans: b
299. Reciprocal of reluctance is
(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
300. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux of magnetic circuit is compared
with which parameter of electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
301. The unit of reluctance is
(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
302. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: d
303. Hysteresis loss least depends on
(a) volume of material (b) frequency
(c) steinmetz co-efficient of material(d) ambient temperature
Ans: d
304. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to reduce
(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss
(c) hysteresis loss
(d) all of the above
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Ans: b
305. "The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of
electricity".The above statement is associated with
(a) Newton's law
(b) Faraday's law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss's law
Ans: c
306. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of any substance is known as
constant
(a) time (b) Faraday's (c) Boltzman
Ans: b
307. During the charging of a lead-acid cell
(a) its voltage
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
308. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its
(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
309. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
310. The active materials on the positive and negative plates of a fully charged lead-acid battery
are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
310. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition, the colour of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
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Ans: c
311. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are
(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH (d) all of the above
Ans: d
312. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
313. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
314. The storage battery generally used in electric power station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
315. The output voltage of a charger is
(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
316. Cells are connected in series in order to
(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
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Ans: d
318. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of
(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
319. Duringthe charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell
(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
320. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-voltage system of charging a lead
acid cell has the advantage of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) avoiding excessive gassing Ans: c
321. A dead storage battery can be revived by
(a) adding
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
322. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
323. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to
(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
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Ans: d
324. Those substances of the cell which take active part in chemical combination and hence
produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as materials.
(a) passive (b) active (c) redundant (d) inert
Ans: b
325. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulphuric acid (electrolyte) approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
326. It is noticed that durmg charging
(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode becomes grey metallic
lead (Pb)
(e) all of the above
Ans: e
327. It is noticed that during discharging the following does not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
328. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
Ans: c
330. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in
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(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
331. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on
(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
332. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte assumes _ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
333. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
334. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly times that of the lead- acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
335. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
336. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
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(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
337. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is
(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide (c) lead (d) zinc powder
Ans: a
338. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges
(a) 500 (b) 700 (c) 1000 (d) 1250
Ans: d
339. Life of the Edison cell is at least
(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
340. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell
(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
341. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
342. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is
(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
343. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of
(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
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Ans: c
344. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature (d) all above
Ans: d
345. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by
(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
346. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is reduced to
1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) active state
Ans: b
347. In system the charging current is intermittently controlled at either a maximum or
minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
348. Over charging
(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
349. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
350. Internal short circuits are caused by
(a) breakdown of one or more separators
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Ans: c
351. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance
(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of the above
Ans: a
352. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates happens
because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte
(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
353. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy during the charge are
called materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
354. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as
(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
355. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond
(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
356. On overcharging a battery
(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
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Ans: d
357. Each cell has a vent cap
(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions
Ans: d
358. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates
(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
359. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
360. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of
(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
361. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from discharged to fully charged
condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
362. Battery charging equipment is generally installed
(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features
Ans: d
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363. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
364. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
Ans: d
366. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by
(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
367. Capacity of dry cells is
(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
368. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
369. Sulphated cells are indicated by
(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
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Ans: d
370. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it will require following
ratio of acid towater to get mixture of specific gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
371. Local action in a battery is indicated by
(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the cell is on open circuit
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: d
372. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high
(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur
Ans: d
373. Internal resistance of a cell is due to
(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
Ans: d
375. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
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Ans: a
376. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
377. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.
(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
378. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear
(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
379. Excessive charging a battery tends to
(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
380. Shelf life of a small dry cell is
(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
381. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of
(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
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Ans: c
383. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
384. of electrolytelndicates the state of charge of the battery
(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
385. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
386. Dry cell is modification of
(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
387. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in
(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
388. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is
(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
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(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
389. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is Edison cell.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
390. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
391. The body of Edison cell is made of
(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
392. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.95
(c) 1.1 (d) 1.21
Ans: d
393. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
394. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of volts from fully charged state to fully discharged
state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
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395. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to change the active material
of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
396. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces heat.
(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
397. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
398. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of volts.
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
399. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon
(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
400. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?
(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high temperature and humidity
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
401. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in
(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
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(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
402. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused
(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
403. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top of the battery container.
This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
404. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta's should be inserted in the electrolyte, not touching each
other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
405. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
406. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
407. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery
(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
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Ans: b
408. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?
(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
409. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?
(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
410. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
411. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V
(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
412. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be
(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
413. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capa-city
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
414. A typical output of a solar cell is
(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
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(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
415. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
416. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of the following will be
maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
417. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is
(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
418. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of
(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
419. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an ? (a)
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
420. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
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Ans: b
422. A constant-voltage generator has
(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
423. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced in it when the current through the
coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
424. As per Farada y's laws of electromagnetic induction, an e.m.f. is induced in a conductor
whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
425. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
426. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core
Ans: a
427. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,
(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
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Ans: d
428. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The
inductance of the coil will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
429. An open coil has
(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
430. Both the number of turns and the core length of an inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
431. If current in a conductor increases then according to Lenz's law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
432. The direction of incViced e.m.f. can be found by
(a) Laplace's law
(b) Lenz's law
(c) Fleming's right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Ans: b
433. Air-core coils are practically free from
(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
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Ans: c
434. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
Ans: d
436. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because
(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertf-cally
Ans: b
437. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the cause producing them is due
to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
438. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?
(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
439. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to
(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
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440. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
441. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?
(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
Ans: b
443. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate of change of current
must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
444. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is 6 mH. If the core length
is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the same, the in ductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH (d)48mH
Ans: a
445. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-efficients of coupling is
0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
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446. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient of coupling of 0.5. If the
two coils are connected in series aiding, the total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
447. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns is increased to 400
turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.) remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
448. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual inductance being zero. If the
two coils are connected in series, the total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
449. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the co-efficient of coupling
will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
450. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
451. A conductor 2 metres long moves at right angles to a magnetic field of flux density 1 tesla
with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
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Ans: c
452. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
453. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The
force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
454. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of 50 amperes at right
angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
455. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
456. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a result of a change in flux
which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Ans: d
457. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V. Over what time interval
must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
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(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
458. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
459. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1 A/s. The value of
inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
460. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
Ans: c
462. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current ?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
463. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in
(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
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Ans: d
464. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-induced voltage in the coil is
not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
465. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:a
466. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
467. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
468. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
469 When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8 with the lines of flux, the
force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
470. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the e.m.f. induced in volts when
the current in the circuit changes at the rate of unit weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
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Ans: c
472. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of lamina-tions of a D.C.
machine?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
473. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to
(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans: d
474. The resistance of armature winding depends on
(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
475. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
476. The commutator segments are connected to the armature conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
Ans: a
477. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
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Ans: c
478. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
479. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
480. Fleming's right-hand rule regarding direction of induced e.m.f., correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f. induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of conductor
Ans: b
481. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the thumb
points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
482. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearing
Ans: a
483. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be
(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
(d) any of the above
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Ans: d
484. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
485. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors is
fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
486. In a four-pole D.C. machine
(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
487. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used
(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
488. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage con-trol
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
489. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
490. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in
(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
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Ans: b
491. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
492. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of
(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
493. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv (b)Blv2 (c)Bl2v (d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
494. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen coils,
the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
495. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
496. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
497. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
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Ans: c
498. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic neutral
axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
499. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is
(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
500. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
501. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
502. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in
(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be increased to maintain the
voltage
(d) all above
Ans: d
503. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is
(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
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Ans: b
504. Welding generator will have
(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
505. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator segments is equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
506. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
507. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is
(a) to reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
508. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is
(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch
(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
509. A D.C. welding generator has
(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
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Ans: d
511. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C. generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
512. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by
(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
513. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on
(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding
(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
514. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators
(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
515. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing direct
current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
516. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
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517. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for
(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
518. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature while
generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
519. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
520. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains , if
the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
521. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon
(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the adjacent pole shoes
(d) all of the above
Ans:d
522. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of
(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
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Ans: a
523. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires
(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders
(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
524. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is
(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which open circuited coil is
connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
525. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to increasethe generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
526. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
527. D.C. series generator is used
(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
528. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any magnetism in the
poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
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Ans: d
529. Interpole flux should be sufficient to
(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
Ans: c
531. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
532. Permeance is the reciprocal of
(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
533. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles
(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
534. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to
(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
(d) all of the above
Ans: b
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535. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral axis,
when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
536. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the coil
is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
537. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
538. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
539. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is
(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
540. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by
(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
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541. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
542. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means
(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
543. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature resistance is
0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
544. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of
(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
545. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as to
bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
546. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies
(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
547. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
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Ans: b
548. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C. machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other
(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
549. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.
(a) Insulation failure between two com-mutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
550. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to
(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
551. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to
(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
552. A D.C. generator can be considered as
(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
553. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f. induced
is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
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Ans: d
554. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of
(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
555. Lap winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
556. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
557. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
558. In case of a flat compounded generator
(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
559. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
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560. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
561. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) almost zero
(b) less than noload terminal voltage
(c) more than noload terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
562. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is
(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
563. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the following
reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
Ans: c
565. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt generator. The armature
voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) willbeof5xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
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Ans: b
566. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit voltage
will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
567. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
568. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
569. Armature reaction in a generator results in
(a) demagnetisation of leading pole tip and magnetisation of trailing pole tip
(b) demagnetisation of trailing pole tip and magnetisation of leading pole tip
(c) damagnetising the centre of all poles
(d) magnetising the centre of all poles
Ans: a
570. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would produce
high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation
failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
571. Wave winding is composed of
(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
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Ans: a
573. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
574. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
575. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
576. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for which of
the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads Ans: d
577. A D.C. generator works on the principle of
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
578. A series generator can self-excite
(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero
(c) irrespective of the value of load current
(d) none of the above
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Ans: b
579. A shunt generator can self-excite
(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is critical value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resis-tance in the field circuit
Ans: a
580. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the load
current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
581. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
582. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance
of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load circuit. If their
e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V (b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V (d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
583. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have '
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
584. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
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Ans: d
586. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
587. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed
Ans: c
588. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole D.C. generator having duplex lap
winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
589. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
590. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
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591. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
592. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
593. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over compounded
generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
594. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run, the
first is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
Ans: b
596. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
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Ans: c
598. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
599. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
600. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
601. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: d
602. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
603. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
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Ans: c
604. Starters are used with D.C. motors because
(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while starting
Ans: d
605. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced
(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
606. A D.C. series motor is that which
(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
607. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because
(a) it the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
608. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
609. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will
(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by eddy currents
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Ans: d
610. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy is
used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
611. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
612. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
613. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is
(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
614. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors
(a) iip to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
615. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
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616. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
617. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the armature
will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
618. These days D.C. motors are widely used in
(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
619. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular motor is
D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator Ans: c
620. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
621. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used
(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
622. A three point starter is considered suitable for
(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
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Ans: b
623. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency
of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
624. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in case of
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
625. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
626. Which of the following /rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
627. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
628. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally
(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
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Ans: a
629. The speed of a D.C. series motor is
(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
630. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor
will be equal to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
631. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
632. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
633. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
634. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
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Ans: c
635. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
636. D.C. series motors are used
(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
637. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
638. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
639. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
640. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
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641. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
642. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
643. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio of back
e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
644. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. =1 /2x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = 1/2 x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
645. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
646. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
647. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
Ans: a
648. Three point starter can be used for
(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
649. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because
(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
650. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
651. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
652. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
653. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt field suddenly opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop Ans: a
654. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b
655. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
656. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
657. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is proportional to
(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
658. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
659. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in case of
(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
660. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
661. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
662. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a heavy
current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
663. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by
(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
664. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
665. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed by
the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(b) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
666. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
667. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying
(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
(d) any of the above
Ans: d
668. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
669. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed
(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
670. Which motor has the poorest speed control?
(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
671. The plugging gives the
(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
672. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides
(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
Ans: c
673. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher H.P.
motor
Ans: d
674. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer following
kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
675. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
676. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
677. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to square of
armature current
Ans: d
678. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-hold refrigerators ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: c
679. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling and many kinds of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: d
680. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
681. Ward-Leonard control is basically a
(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method
Ans: a
682. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
683. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
684. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control method is
(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
685. Regenerative method of braking is based on that
(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
686. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on
(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air
Ans: d
687. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
688. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
689. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
690. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon
(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
691. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving
(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
692. In a manual shunt motor starter
(a) over load is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel with the load
Ans: a
693. Which of the following steps is likely to result in reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core material
Ans: d
694. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
695. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a D.C.
generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
696. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
Ans: d
698. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
699. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in
(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
700. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
701. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
702. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors of
large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
703. Hopkinson's test on D.C. machines is conducted at
(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
704. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors
(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
705. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
706. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators ?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
707. In variable speed motor
(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
708. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f. induced is
(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
709. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing and
speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
710. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive centrifugal
stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
711. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time and
some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
712. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle and peak
value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
713. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
714. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in
(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
715. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is possible
by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
716. One D.C. motor another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
717. The insulating material for a
(a) low cost (b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength (d) all of the above
Ans: d
718. Which of the following protects a cable against mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
719. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?
(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
720. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
721. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
722. The bedding on a cable consists of
(a) hessian (b)
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
Ans: d
724. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath is provided.
(a) earthing connection (b) bedding
(c) armouring (d) none of the above
Ans: b
725. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
726. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
Ans: d
728. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
729. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at
(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
730. In single core cables armouring is not done to
(a) avoid excessive sheath losses (b) make it flexible
(c) either of the above (d) none of the above
Ans: a
731. Dielectric strength of rubber is around
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
732. Low tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
733. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
734. High tension cables are generally used upto
(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
735. The surge resistance of cable is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
736. PVC stands for
(a) polyvinyl chloride (b) post varnish conductor (c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor (e) none of the above
Ans: a
737. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
738. In capacitance grading of cables we use a dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
739. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
740. The material for armouring on cable is usually
(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
741. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are
(a) oil
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
742. The relative permittivity of rubber is
(a) between 2 and 3 (b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10 (d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
743. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66 kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of voids
Ans: d
744. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance
(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: c
745. In cables the charging current
(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
746. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced by
one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
747. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
748. In the cables, sheaths are used to
(a) prevent th from entering the cable `(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation (d) none of the above
Ans: a
749. The intersheaths in the cables are used to
(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
750. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is
(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
Ans: c
751. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
752. The insulation of the cable decreases with
(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
753. A cable carrying alternating current has
(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
754. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at
(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
755. Capacitance grading of cable implies
(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to counter the effect of inductance
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
756. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth
(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
757. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
758. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually
(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
759. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably
(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
760. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride (b) Vulcanised rubber (c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas(e) none of the above Ans: d
761. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
762. Copper as conductor for cables is used as
(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
763. The insulating material should have
(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
764. The advantage of oil filled cables is
(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
765. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is
(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
766. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on
(a) presence of moisture (b) working temperature
(c) time of application of the voltage (d) all of the above
Ans: d
767. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
768. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
769. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system' of
laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
770. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
1.DC GENERATORS
Ans: c
Ans: c
Ans: d
Ans: b
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws
(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Fleming's right-hand rule for finding the direction of induced e.m.f., when
middle finger points in the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the direction
of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming's right-hand rule to And the direction of induced e.m.f., the
thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the direction of generated
e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings
Ans: a
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always
(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of armature conductors
is fixed, then which winding will give the higher e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
Ans: b
Ans: a
Ans: d
Ans: c
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity of conductor, then
induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap winding with sixteen
coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally
(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact with conductors
which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these brushes in magnetic
neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as magnetisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from them only under the
floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital role for providing
direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave wound armature
while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio of the induced e.m.f. is generator A
and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now while pole flux remains
constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound generators, we should ensure
that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or negative side of the
armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without any residual
magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and electrical degrees will be the
same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the geometrical neutral
axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the self-induced e.m.f. in the
coil is neutralised by all of the following except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as 200 V. If the speed
increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V. The armature
resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are rockedm ahead so as
to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors and in which e.m.f.
induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is increased, then output
voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal voltage while running on
no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to build up without any
residual magnetism in the poles ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load because of all of the
following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation. The open circuit
voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced e.m.f. at zero speed will
be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be opened as it would
produce high inductive voltage which may be dangerous to personnel and may cause its
own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans: d
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in
parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators may run as motor for
which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V when the load current is 5 A. If the
load current is increased to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is 250 V. At full load the terminal
voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature resistance of 0.02 ohm and field
resistance of 50 ohm run in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to the load
circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
'
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage charac-teristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an equilizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both the machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal currents to the load
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long D.C. transmission lines ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
119. For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
121. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the total mutual air gap flux in a D.C.
generator is approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
122. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics
(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
123. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel operation of flat and over
compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field windings
(c) unequal speed regulation of their primemovers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
124. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed, fails to build up on its first trial run,
the first thing to do is to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of primemover
(d) check armature insulation resis¬tance
Ans: a
2.DC MOTOR
8. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, when the forefinger points in the direction of the
field or flux, the middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor
(c) resultant force on conductor
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without wastage of electrical energy
is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel, the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of maximum power, the current in the
armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current
Ans: d
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily confirmed that a particular
motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the
efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of
D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's law
(c) Coloumb's law
(d) Fleming's left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting torque more than the rated
torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is reduced by 50%, the torque of the
motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded 'motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable alongwith flywheel for intermittent light and heavy
loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to th£ motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow speed
Ans: c
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc'ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors, the compensating winding is
provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation in highly explosive
atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased, which of the following will decrease
?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better unifor-mity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the mag-netic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will be maximum when the ratio
of back e.m.f. to applied voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce the peak demand by the motor,
compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and wide speed range control is
required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high starting torque and therefore make
use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C. machine will offer minimum
efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to 1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The
speed regulation of the motor is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C. motor, in order to prevent a
heavy current from flowing though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are doubled, the torque developed
by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the advantage of D.C. motors over A.C.
motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature is to be used for 50°C ambient
temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recom-mended by manufacturer and select the next higher
H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are interchanged, this action will offer
following kind of braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(d) none of the above
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is proportional to
square of armature current
Ans: d
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for signalling devices and many kinds
of timers ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: d
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given below. Which loss is likely to have
highest proportion at rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies significantly with the load
current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
(d) None of the above
Ans: c
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced by laminating the core of a
D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses
Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10 kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses
Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(b) eddy current losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing two similar D.C. series motors
of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne's test
(b) Hopkinson's test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent starting, stopping, reversing
and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature due to excessive
centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop
Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain minimum value for most of the time
and some peak value for short
duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for certain part of the load cycle
and peak value for short duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: a
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more than full load speed. This is
possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current
(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second D.C. motor when excited and
driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
3. TRANSFORMERS
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain oriented steel is around
(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the following side is short
circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side
(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a D.C. supply because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses
(c) Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the rate of change of flux
is zero
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the applied voltage by an angle of
about
(a) 180°
(b) 120"
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the load depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in parallel are not connected with
regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from the power factor of
common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA ratings
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
39. Ifthe percentage impedances of the two transformers working in parallel are different,
then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the trans-formers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at which the two
transformers operate will be different from the power factor of the common load
Ans: d
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should have the quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and secondary inductances. The
statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set by magnetic forces, is termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c
47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax = maximum flux density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil unless the oil
temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability
Ans: c
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for the material for
transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-load, the copper loss will
be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-transformer over a two
winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers do not have equal
percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the trans¬formers is leading while that of the other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation of atmospheric
temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant from noload to
fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant
(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,"the iron loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) any of the above
Ans: c
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current
(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is necessary that they should
have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are obtained with transformer
employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet
(c) either of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end turns are heavily
insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by the shunting
capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from damage
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not occur in trans formers
are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which remain constant
irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase transformer having
a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum efficiency will occur
at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor
Ans: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on small distribution
transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
(d) All of the above
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage surges due to
lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be
determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the highest temperature
safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum temperature rise will occur
in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
132. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper losses, when its
transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
133. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
134. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load current. This results
in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A
(c) 15 A
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
135. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric motors of the same
power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given slight skew in order
to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor e.m.f. will
be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running speed of an
induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if the average flux
density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip fre-quency
(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the speed of the
squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to start cage induction
motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage induction motor is
constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of the following
methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by all of the following
except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage
Ans: c
40. The 'crawling" in an induction motor is caused by
(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots, runs at 1/7 of the
normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motorfor the same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy load and one of its
fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its fullload current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble the speedload
characteristics of which of the
following machines
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) universal motor
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to support the rotor shaft
?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower than its rated voltage.
The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for the following r.p.m.
Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle diagram for an induction
motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are placed deep in the rotor
to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a speed of 960 r.p.m. on
full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with the help of data
found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running condition is maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase equal to the resistance
per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of stator and rotor of
the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases exist ?
(a) Air motor
(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: a
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resis¬tance
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
(d) all above methods
Ans: d
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the running capacitor in series with
the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement between starting and running
winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to dis- connect 'starting winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed
(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high starting torque, then which of the
following motor will be
preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor
(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with meggar is found to be
ground. Most probable location of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot
(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on to supply with its
capacitor replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be reversed by reversing the
connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest starting torque ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing and control
purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oilfilled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C. supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: a
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally used in time
phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor
Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power factor will be low
because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by reversing the flow
of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic vibrations therefore
these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors
(c) Pistol drills
(d) All of the above
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of synchronous speed of
motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite parallel to the shaft
because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor at about
percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is disconnected from the
circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor where frequent
reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rush¬ing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as compressor motor in small
home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two capacitors fails to
open then
(a) motor will not come upto speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while it is running we
should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to supply with
reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to supply with reversed
connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and after motor comes to
rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and im-mediately
connect it to supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it cannot maintain
synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is disconnected from
supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
106. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record players and tape-
recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of upto 1 W output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in amplitude and phase
Ans: d
108. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase induction motoris correct
?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting
Ans: d
109. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in
(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
6. SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous motor is likely to occur
?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor suddenly gets
disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed
(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a synchronous motor
varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum when the load angle
is
(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation. Now if the load on
the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes more armature current
because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor current
Ans: b
16. Synchronous motor always runs at
(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £& depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6° electrical, its value in
mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the number of poles
are made half, the speed of
the rotor of a synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the same
speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Reluctance motor
Ans: b
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to load increases
essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that of an equivalent
induction motor. This is mainly
because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased, which of the following
will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the load is increased
three times, its torque angle
becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound round induction motor
is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator, in polyphase
multipolar synchronous motors
running at full load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action, field winding is
usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing current at lagging
power factor from constant
voltage supply, its field excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation operates with such an
excitation that it takes power
at lagging power factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes down,
the power factor of the
synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction motor action and
connecting field discharge resistance across field, starting and accelerting torque is
produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is
(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load is decreased from
its normal value, ignoring effects of armature reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power factor lagging load,
the armature field affects
the main field in the following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of induction motor
because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and drawing current at a
leading power factor from
constant voltage supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor
(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the load is increased,
the armature current drawn
by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor gets suddenly open-
circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to pull into
synchronism after applying D.C. field
current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses
(d) Low field current
Ans: d
84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed depends on all of the
following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence exists when the motor
is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running with normal
excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor
Ans: c
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the direction of its field current
is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a synchronous motor can be
changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency, pole number and load
torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at constant full load, 100%
excitation and unity power fac
tor. On changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the armature at noload is
approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can develop without losing
its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in
(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core surface in a
synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous motor will pull into
synchronism at rated rotor
supply voltage and frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor is open circuited,
the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at rest for any
angular position of the rotor, at rated
stator supply voltage and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined as the angle
between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity
(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is running on no load
and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and does not drive a
mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
2 are the conductors, which connect the consumer's terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
(d) None of the above
Ans: b
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and depreciation on the capital
outlay is equal to the
annual cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total annual cost will be
minimum and the corresponding size of conductor will be most economical. This statement
is known as
(a) Kelvin's law
(b) Ohm's law
(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday's law
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or any preservative compound
have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for transmission and distribution of
electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open-circuited or lightly
loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a 'constant voltage transmission system' ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of higher terminal
reactances
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size in case of long-
distance heavy power
transmission
Ans: a
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
(d) All of the above
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of dielectric losses with
temperature
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and lowest in first cost
?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following methods is employed for
solution of network problems
in interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin's theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
(d) none of the above
Ans: b
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans: c
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C. 2-wire feeder is
increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Ans: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal voltages. As
compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with same maximum
voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium
(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
(d) Any of the above
Ans: d
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Ans: d
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for transmission lines
possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life
(d) All of the above
Ans: d
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Ans: d
69. Which of the followingbus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Ans: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around the conductor
exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum v^lue)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
(c) any of the above
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the transmission voltage should
be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors have higher values
except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity
(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in distribution feeder,
will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the transmission voltage should
be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Ans: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step because of large angular displacement between the
stations
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
(d) all of the above
Ans: a
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the load VAR
requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
(d) any of the above
Ans: b
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, it is due
to
(a) permeability variation
(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
102. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and touches the earth
which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
(e) None of the above
Ans: a
8. CABLES
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor, in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity 4. If the insulation is replaced
by one of relative permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum stress of 10 kV/mm, then the
dielectric strength of insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run parallel the minimum distance
between the two, to avoid interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and inconvenient 'draw in system'
of laying of underground cables
is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
56. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b