CAGAYAN STATE UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE

UNIT EXAMINATION IN MEDICAL BACTERIOLOGY (Bacteriology: Midterms)

Instructions. Kindly answer independently and upload your answers to jtcapili071681@gmail.com at

exactly 8pm. You are given 3 hours to finish the examination.

Part I. Multiple Choice.

1. All of the following pertains to Gram staining, except:
A. Gram positive bacteria stain purple because teichoic acid is soluble to alcohol
B. Gram negative bacteria stain pink because LPS is soluble to alcohol
C. The quality control for g(+) is S. aureus while E. coli is for gram (-) bacteria
D. The sequence for the gram staining is: CV- Gram’s iodine – alcohol- safranin

2. Which of the following bacteria has cell-wall containing mycolic acid but considered non-acid fast
bacilli?
A. Nocardia
B. Corynebacterium
C. Rhodococcus
D. Streptomyces

3. Which of the following is correct about acid-fast bacilli?

A. Partially acid-fast bacteria need higher concentration of decolorizer

B. The most preffered stain is the Ziehl-Neelsen Method

C. Acid alcohol contains 1% H2SO4

D. S. aureus stains blue in acid-fast stain while M. tb stains red

4. All of the following diseases have distinct bipolar bodies, except:

I. Whooping cough
II. Glander’s infection
III. Cat-bite infection
IV. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
V. Donovanosis
A. I, III, V
B. II, IV
 C. II, IV, V
D. I, II, III

5. Which of the following is true about spore-forming bacteria?

A. Bacillus produces spores in the absence of oxygen
B. C. perfringens’ spores have box-car appearance
C. The composition of endospore is Dipicolinic acid which makes the spores sensitive to
antibiotics
D. Spores stain red while bacteria stains green

6. All of the following are halophilic except:

I. S. epidermidis
II. S. bovis
III. S. agalactiae
IV. V. mimicus
V. E. faecalis

A. I, III, V

B. II, IV

C. I, II, IV

D. IV, V

7. All of the following are catalase positive, except:

I. C. perfringens
II. S. epidermidis
III. S. pyogenes
IV. A. israelli
V. S. dysenteriae
VI. P. aeruginosa
A. I, III, V
B. II, IV, VI
C. I, II, III
D. IV, V, VI

8. Which of the following stage of the growth cycle of bacteria is the most sensitive to antibiotics in
sensitivity test?
A. Physiologic phase
B. Exponential phase
C. Plateau phase
D. Decline phase

9. Which of the following is incorrect regarding enrichment media?

A. It prolongs the physiologic phase of the pathogen while it shortens the lag time of normal flora
B. BCYE is an example of Enrichment media
C. S. agalactiae culture media is an example of enrichment broth
D. Alkaline peptone water is the enrichment media for Vibrio before it is inoculate to TCBS
 10. XLD agar, except:
A. Selective media because it inhibits gram positive and other gram neg non-enteric pathogens
B. E. coli colonies turn Yellow while S. typhi turn Red/ colorless
C. Shigella colonies are colorless with black center while Salmonella colonies are colonies
without black centers
D. The pH indicator is phenol Red

11. All culture media needs autoclave as sterilization, except:

A. TCBS

B. LJ agar

C. Blood agar plate

D. Two of the choices

12. Which of the following is/are incorrectly paired?

I. Group A: Todd Hewiitt
II. CIN: Y. pestis
III. Skirrow at 42C: Helicobacter
IV. Cetrimide agar: Burkholderia
V. CCFA: C. perfringens
VI. LJ agar: M. leprae
A. One of the above
B. Two of the above
C. Three of the above
D.All of the above

13. Susceptibility testing performed on quality control organism using a new media lot number
yielded zone of inhibitions that were too large for all antibiotics tested. The testing was repeated
using media from a previously used lot number, all zones were acceptable. Which of the
following best explains the unacceptable zone sizes?
A. The antibiotic disks were not stored with the proper dessicant
B. The depth of the media was too thick
C. The depth of the media was too thin
D.The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media

14. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing rarely required for this organism.

A. Haemophilus

B. EBC

C. Enterococcus

D. L. monocytogenes

15. According to the Kirby Bauer Susceptibility Testing, what should be done when interpreting the
zone of a motile swarming organism such as Proteus?
A. The zone outside will be measured

B. The swarming should be ignored

C. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary

D. The isolate should be retested after diluting to O.5 Macfarland

16. The D-zone test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus strains demonstrating an
initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of:

A. Erythromycin sensitive, Clindamycin Sensitive

B. Erythromycin Resistant, Clindamycin Sensitive

C. Erythromycin Sensitive, Clindamycin Resistant

D. Erythromycin Resistant, Clindamycin Resistant

17. It is an antimicrobial agent but it is not an antibiotic because it is not produced by

microorganism.
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomyces
C. Amphoterecin B
D. Sulfanilamide

18. What is the relationship of MIC with ZOI?

A. Directly Proportional
B. Inversely Proportional
C. Both of the choices
D. None of the choices

19. Which of the following methods are used to detect B-lactamase?

A. Acidometric
B. Iodometric
C. Chromogenic
D. Cefinase Disk
E. All of the above

20. Calcium and magnesium cations affect Susceptibility testing by:

I. Increase resistance of Pae to aminoglycoside
II. Increase resistance of all bacteria to tetracycline
III. Increase resistance of Pae to Tetracycline
IV. Increase resistance of all bacteria to aminoglycoside

A. I, II

B. II, III
 C. I, III

D. II, IV

21. A gram stained sputum shows 40-50 squamous epithelial cells per LPF, along with G(+) cocci,
many gram negative rods and many g(+) cocci in pairs using the OIO. How should the MT report the
result of this smear?

A. Call physician directly to report life-threathening situation

B. ReportG(+) cocci, many gram negative rods and many g(+) cocci in pairs, as well as many
squamous epithelial cells

C. Subculture must be done to confirm

D. Do not report, request another specimen

22. Assuming that the clean-catch mistream urine was processed, which of the following is indicative
of UTI?

A. Less than 1,000 CFU/ml

B. Greater than 1000 CFU/ml

C. Greater than 10,000 CFU/ml

D. Greater than 100,000 CFU/ml

23. Confirmed Test:

A. Lactose Broth: Gas Production
B. Brilliant Green Bile lactose: Colonies
C. Levine’s EMB agar: Colonies
D. Agar slant: G (-) bacilli in the agar culture

24. Which of the following organisms will give the appropriate positive and negative reaction for the
Quality control of the test listed?
A. Gram stain= Positive: E. coli = Negative: N. meningitidis
B. Indole= Positive: E.coli = Negative: P. vulgaris
C. Catalase= Positive: S. aureus= Negative: S. epidermidis
D. Oxidase= Positive: P. aeruginosa = Negative: E. coli

25. Which of the following best describes S. aureus on BAP?

A. Small pinhead, non-hemolytic
B. Medium, creamy, B-hemolytic
C. Yellow colonies
D. Pinpoint, white, B-hemolytic
E. Mauve colonies
26. Which statement is incorrect for S. epidermidis?
xA. Fails to grow in MSA
xB. DNase negative
xC. Coagulase negative
?D. Zone of inhibition of 17 mm in Novobiocin

27. A Beta hemolytic, catalase positive, g(+) cocci is coagulase negative by the slide coagulase test.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action in identification of the organism?
A. Report a coagulase negative staphylococci
B. Perform Novobiocin susceptibility test
C. Reconfirm the Slide coagulase test
D. Perform a tube coagulase test

28. Which of the following test should be used to differentiate S. aureus from S. intermedius?
A. Acetoin
B. Catalase
C. Slide Coagulase
D. Novobiocin

29. From the following biochemical test: G (+); Cat (+); Coagulase (+); PYR (-); VP (+); Chromagar (+);
MSA (Yellow). What is the suspected treatment for this bacteria?
A. Oxacillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Penicillin

30. A child presented in august at the pediatric clinic with a superficial skin infection of the neck. The large
itchy lesions were cultured and diagnosis of Impetigo was made. Biochemical Tests were perfomed
and the following are the results:
BAP: B-hemolytic
Catalase: Neg
Bacitracin Test: 11mm
PYR: Positive
SXT: Resistant
6.5% NaCl: Neg
What is the probable causative agent of the Impetigo?

A. S. aureus

B. Group A Strep

C. Group B strep

D. Enterococci
31. When streaking a throat culture on 5% Sheep Blood agar plate, stabbing the agar plate provies
enhance detection for:
A. Protein M
B. Streptolysin S
C. Streptolysin O
D. DNAse

32. Which of the following are PYR Positive organism?

I. Group A Strep
II. Group B Strep
III. E. faecalis
IV. S. aureus
V. S. bovis
A. I, III
B. I, III, V
C. II, IV, V
D.All except II

33. Neonatal meningitis is uncommon but significant disease. Two important causes of this disease may
be somewhat difficult to differentiate on preliminary investigation. Which of the following sets of tests
provide the best differentiation of Group B strep and L. monocytogenes?
A. Gram stained smear, oxidase, optochin
B. Camp test, Hippurate Hydrolysis, Beta Hemolysis
C. Gram stained smear, catalase, motility
D.Reverse Camp, Bile esculin, H2S production

34. Differentiation of Group D enterococci for Group D Non-enterococci, except:

A. Growth in 6.5% NaCl
B. PYR test
C. Penicillin Test
D. Bile Esculin agar

35. Which of the following is not consistent with S. pnuemoniae?

A. Alpha hemolysis of sBAP
B. Taxo P ZOI: 15mm
C. Catalase test (+)
D. Colonies disintegrate with 4% Bile

36. Abiotrophia, a formerly known as Nutritionally Variant Streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or
chocolate agars because they are deficient in:
A. Hemin
B. Pyridoxal
C. Vitamin B12
D. Protein

37. A patient is experiencing Severe disseminated intravascular dessimination, complication from a

septicemia. G(-) Diplococci were seen. The following biochemical test results were seen:
Oxidase (+)
Superoxol: Negative
CHO utilization: Glucose (+); Maltose (+); Lactose (-)
DNAse Test: Green Color
The suspected microorganism is:
A. N. gonorrheae
B. N. meningitidis
C. N. lactamica
D.Moraxella

38. All of the following are appropriate when isolating N. gonorrhea from a genital specimen, except:
A. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport medium
B. Plate the specimen in MTM
C. Incubate in increased CO2
D.Culture in BAP and in ambient oxygen at 37C

39. Gray, Translucent, smooth colonies, may have dry, claylike consistency on BAP:

A. N. gonorrheae

B. N. meningitidis

C. N. lactamica

D. Moraxella

E. N. elongata

40. Large, nonpigmented or gray, opaque smooth friable, hocky puck consistency; colony may be
moved intact over surface of CAP. Oxidase positive; DNAse Test: Colorless; Butyrate Test: Positive

A. N. gonorrheae

B. N. meningitidis

C. N. lactamica

D. Moraxella

41. A sputum culture from a13 year old cystic fibrosis patient grew a predominance of short, gram
negative rods that tested oxidase negative. On MacConkey, Chocolate and blood agar plates, the
organism appeared to have a lavender-green pigment and smells like ammonia. Further testing
showed:
Motility (+)
DNAse: Colorless
Glucose: Oxidizer
Lysine Decarboxylase test: +
A. S. maltophilia
B. P. aeruginosa
C. A. baumanii
D.B. cepacian
42. Agram negative rod is isolated from a patient with second and third degree burns. The isolate
produces a bluish-green pigment and a characteristic fruity odor. Other characteristic observations
are:
TSI: K/K Motility: Positive Oxidase: Positive
A. Acinetobacter
B. Pseudomonas
C. Moraxella
D.E. coli

43. Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization and maybe mistaken for
Neisseria?
A. Acinetobacter
B. Bordetella
C. Stenotrophomonas
D.Burkholderia

44. Colonies appear black or very dark purple and cultures smell ammonium cyanide (almond-like)?
A. S. maltpohilia
B. C. violaceum
C. C. meningosepticum
D.S. marsescens

45. A group of elementary students became ill after eating undercooked ground beef prepared in
school cafeteria. The suspected bacteria is EBC. Panel of biochemical tests were performed.
TSI: Yellow/ Yellow with Gas Urease: Negative
VP: Negative MUG: No blue fluoresence
Indole: Positive MacConkey with Sorbitol: Colorless
Citrate: Green Color
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Enterobacter
D.Edwardsiella

46. A sputum culture from a nursing home patient grew gram-negative rods on MacConkey agar as
pink to dark pink Oxidase Negative colonies. Given the following result, which is the most likely
organism?
TSI: Yellow/ Yellow with Gas LDC: Positive
VP: Positive Citrate: Blue Color
Indole: Positive Motility: Negative
Urease: Positive Resistant to Carbapenem
A. E. coli
B. K. pnumoniae
C. K. oxytoca
D.P. vulgaris

47. A leg culture from a hospitalized 70 y/o diabetic men grew motile, lactose negative colonies on
MacConkey agar. Given the following reactions at 24 hours, what is the most probable organism?
H2S TSI: (-) Indole: Negative
MR: Negative Citrate: Positive
 DNAse: Positive Phenylalanine Deaminase: Negative
Gelatinase: Positive Lipase: Positive
A. E. coli
B. P. vulgaris
C. P. mirabilis
D. S. marcescens

48. Three blood cultures taken from a 30 y/o cancer patient receiving chemotherapy &admitted with
UTI grew a lactose-negative, motile, gram negative rods. Given the following biochemical reactions,
which is most likely organism?
LIA: R/A, H2S (-)
TSI: K/A, H2S(+)
IMViC: ++-v
Urease: Magenta
PAD: Green
A. P. vulgaris
B. P. mirabilis
C. P. retgerri
D.E. coli

49. A bloody stool cultured from 26 y/o woman after 3 days of severe diarrhea showed the following
results:
MacConkey agar: Colorless
HEA: Blue green colonies
SSA: Colorless colonies without black centers
Negative for Oxidase, Indole, Urease, H2S
Catalase: Negative
A. Shigella dysenteriae
B. Shigellasonnei
C. Salmonella typhi
D.E. coli

50. Three consecutive stool cultures from a25 year-old male patient produced scant normal fecal flora
on MacConkey agar and Hektoenagar. However, colonies on CIN agar shows bull’s eye colonies
with Oxidase negative test. The patient had been suffering from enterocolitis with fever,
diarrheaand abdominal pain for 2 days. What is the most likely identification for this gran negative
rod?
A. Y. pestis
B. Y. enterocolitica
C. Aeromonas
D.Klebsiella

51. Which of the following tests best differentiate Shigella from E. coli?
A. H2S, VP, Citrate, Urease
B. H2S, MR, Citrate, Urease
C. Lactose, Indole, ONPG, motility
D.Gas, Citrate, VP
52. Which of these enzymes are not possessed by delayed lactose fermenters?

A. β-galatosidase

B. β-galactoside permease

C. Lactose permease

D. Two of the choices

E. None of the choices

53. Identify the bacteria given the following biochemical tests results:
TSI: Yellow/ Yellow G(+) LDC: +
EMB: Fish eye colonies ODC: +
Motility: Positive ADH: Negative
IMVIC: --++

A. E. cloacae

B. E. aerogenes

C. E. agglomerans

D. K. pnuemoniae

E. P. shiggeloides

54. A culture of decubitus ulcer show agram-negative facultative bacilli. On TSI, it produced an
alkaline slant and acid slant with blackening of the agar. Test reaction in other media were as
follows:
Indole: Negative Urease: Negative after 1 hr PAD: Negative Citrate: Positive

A. P. mirabilis

B. C. freundii

C. C. koseri

D. P. vulgaris

55. An isolate of E. coli recovered from the stool of a patient with severe bloody diarrhea should be
tested for which sugar before sending to a reference laboratory?

A. Sorbitol

B. Lactose

C. Sucrose
D. Mannitol

56. The positive result on Citrate test is the alkalinity of the medium after the bacteria had utilized
the citrate. The positive color is:

A. Blue

B. Green

C. Yellow

D. Red

57. Which of the following tests detects the production of mixed acids as a result subsequent
metabolism to pyruvate?

A. Methyl Red

B. Voges Preskauer Test

C. Citrate

D. Indole

58. Tryptophan broth is inoculated and incubated 24 hours. After incubation, Kovac’s reagent is
added. A red color develops at the surface of the broth. What product of metabolism is formed?

A. Mixed acids

B. Acetoin

C. Malonate

D. Indole

59. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. ETEC: Cholera like Infection: Watery Diarrhea

B. EIEC: Shiga-like Infection: Bloody + WBC

C. EPEC: Infantile Diarrhea: Watery + Mucus

D. EHEC: Shiga-toxin producing: Bloody + WBC + Mucus

60. Which organism is associated with Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome & TTP?

A. E. coli 086
B. E. coli 0157:H7

C. EIEC

D. EPEC

61. The 2 reagents must be added to determine if the bacterium is VP positive?

A. Kovacs & Ehrlich

B. Taxo N &Dimethylsulfoxide

C. Alpha naphtol& 40% KOH

D. Sulfanilicacid &a-naphtylamine

62. Enterobactericeaeare:

A. All are lactose fermenters but not all are glucose fermenters

B. Facultative aerobes

C. Oxidase Negative except for Plessiomonasagglomerans

D. Gas producers except Shigella

63. Reagent in the string test used to identify V. cholerae

A. O.5% NaCl

B. O.5% Desoxycholate

C. 0.5% ethanol

D. 2% acid alcohol

64. A 35 y/o patient is diagnosed with Guillain-Barr Syndrome & gastroenteritis. Isolate shows
growth on Campy and Skirrows Medium incubated at 42C. Further biochemical tests were
performed. There was a purple color on Hippurate hydrolysis test. From these results, what is
causative agent?

A. C. coli

B. C. jejuni

C. C. fetus

D. H. pylori
 65. H. pylori can be identified presumptively by the following positive tests:

A. NO3, Hippurate, Catalase

B. Oxidase, Indoxyl acetate, Urease

C. Oxidase, Catalase, Urease

D. NO3, Catalase, Growth at 42C

66. Which group of tests best differentiates H. pylori from C. jejuni

A. Catalase, oxidase, Gram stain

B. Catalase, oxidase, Nalidixic acid susceptibility

C. Catalase, oxidase, Cephalotin susceptibility

D. Urease, Nitrate reduction, Hippurate Hydrolysis

67. A small gram-negative coccobacillus from CSF of a2 year old child have the following results:
Indole: Positive Glucose= (+ acid) Hemolysis: (-)
X requirement: + V-requirement: +
Urease: +/- Porphyrin Test: Negative

A. H. ducreyi

B. H. aphrophilus

C. H. influenzae

D. H. parahaemolyticus

68. A mixture of slender gram negative rods an coccobacilli with rounded ends was recovered from a
blood culture from a patient following root canal surgery. Given the following results, after 48
hours, what is the most likely organism?
Negative = Cat; LDC; Urease; ODC; X & V requirement; Indole
Positive= Oxidase, Piiting of agar in MacConckeyagar

A. H. aprophilus

B. A. actinomycetemcommitans

C. C. hominis

D. E. corrodens

E. K. kinggae
 69. Smooth gray colonies showing no hemolysis are recovered from an infected cat scratch on blood
and chocolate agar but fail to grow on MacConkey agar. The organisms are gram-negative
pleomorphic rods that are both catalase & oxidase positive and strongly indole positive. The most
likely organism is:
A. Chromobacterium
B. Capnocytophaga
C. Pasteurella
D. Kingella

70. What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium?

A. Inhibits normal flora
B. Enriches the medium
C. Enhances polymorphism
D. Enhances granule production

71. To confirm laboratory diagnosis of diptheria, it is essential to:

A. Grow characteristic colonies in special media
B. Find typical Granular staining bacilli in smears
C. Demonstrate toxin production
D. Study biochemical behaivior

72. A newborn girl becomes febrile and will not feed about an hour after birth. A gram (+) is recovered
from blood cultures from the newborn. The isolate has the following biochemical tests:
BAP: Beta hemolytic Catalase: Positive BEA: Positive
H2S : Negative Motile at room temp Hippurate: Purple

A. L. monocytogenes

B. Corynebacterium

C. Group B strep

D. Erysopelathrix

73. The production of H2S is one of the characteristic used to differentiate which of the aerobic g (+)
bacilli?
A. Listeria
B. Erysopelathrix
C. Corynebacterium
D. Lactobacillus

74. The appearance of Listeria in CAMP Test:

A. Bow-tie enhanced hemolysis
B. Blocked-type enhanced hemolysis
C. No hemolysis
D. B-hemolysis
75. Which of the following organisms will display lipase activity on egg yolk agar?
I. C. perfringens
II. C. botulinum
III. C. sordelli
IV. C. novyia
V. C. bifermentans
VI. C. sporogenes
VII. C. baratti

A. I, III, IV, V, VII

B. II, IV, VI

C. I, II, III

D. IV, V, VI

76. Which of the following organisms will display absence of opalescence in Nagler Test?
I. C. perfringens
II. C. botulinum
III. C. sordelli
IV. C. novyia
V. C. bifermentans
VI. C. sporogenes
VII. C. baratti

A. I, III, IV, V, VII

B. II, IV, VI

C. I, II, III

D. IV, V, VI

77. A slow-growing Mycobacterium that typically produces a rough buff-colored colony that is non-
chromogenic in a light test:

A. M. kansasii

B. M. scrofulaceum

C. M. tuberculosis

D. M. leprae

78. A mucolytic agent that digests tenacious sputum specimens:

 A. 5-10% CO2

B. Nalidixic acid

C. N-acetlyl-L-cysteine

D. Malachite green

79. Chistensen’s urea agar slants contain glucose, urea, NaCl, agar and phenol red. The
development of pink-red color is the result of:

A. Ammonia being formed from area breakdown

B. CO2being released from urea breakdown

C. The isolate not breakdown urea because it lacked urease enzyme

D. The fermentation of glucose

80. Oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium of Hugh and Leifson is well suited for nonfermenters
because of a:

A. High concentration of peptone and low concentration of carbohydrate

B. High concentration of both peptone and carbohydrate

C. High concentration of carbohydrate and low concentration of peptone

D. Low concentration of both peptone and carbohydrate

81. A TSI tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reactions: I. Alkaline slant II. Acid butt III.
H2S positive IV. Gas produced. The organism is most likely:

A. K. pneumoniae

B. S. dysenteriae

C. S. typhimurium

D. E. coli

82. A TSI tube inoculated with an organism gave the following reactions: I. Alkaline slant II. Acid butt III.
No H2S IV. No gas produced. The organism is most likely:

A. K. pneumoniae

B. S. dysenteriae
C. S. typhimurium

D. E. coli

83. On Bordet-Gengou medium, B. pertussis appears:

A. Dry, heaped, serrated

B. Iridescent, brown

C. Smooth, shiny, resembling mercury droplets

D. White, raised, rough

84. A pink zone on a DNase plate containing toluidine blue would be seen in 24 hours around colonies of:

A. Enterococcus faecalis

B. Serratia marcescens

C. Escherichia coli

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

85. What is this organism that exhibits a safety-pin appearance that grows colonies with deep pink
color in Ashdown media?
A. B. pseudomallei
B. Y. pestis
C. P. aeruginosa
D. S. marcescence

Part 2. Application:
1. Give the functions/importance/ purposes of:
a. Biochemical Testing of bacteria
- Microbial biochemistry tests shorten the time required to identify microbes, reduce costs,
and ensure or enhance the accuracy of identification of an unknown sample. It is the
fastest developing trend in microbial identification. In recent years, the rapid commercial
test kits for anaerobic bacteria have become available.
- The structural differences with respect to shape, size and arrangement of bacteria only
help in the process of identification, because there are many species of bacteria having
similar shape, size and arrangement. Therefore, ultimately, the identification of bacteria is
mostly based on the differences in their biochemical activities. Biochemical tests are
among the most important methods for microbial identification. It shortens the time
required to identify microbes, reduce costs, and ensure or enhance the accuracy of
identification of an unknown sample.
-
b. Antibiogram
- Antibiograms help guide the clinician and pharmacist in selecting the best empiric
antimicrobial treatment in the event of pending microbiology culture and susceptibility
 results. They are also useful tools for detecting and monitoring trends in antimicrobial
resistance. When antimicrobial susceptibility testing data are summarized cumulatively
for a hospital, healthcare system, or other healthcare facility periodically (such as yearly
or quarterly), trends in resistance can be identified and investigated.
2. Give the IMViC reactions of the following enterobacteria:
a. Yersinia intermedia (-+--)
b. Yersinia enterolitica (+/-,+,negative after 24 hours at 36°C but positive after
48h at 25°C, + (v+--)
c. Edwardsiella tarda (++--)
d. Proviencia stuartii (++-+)
e. Providencia rettgeri (++-+)
f. Proteus mirabilis( -+-+)
g. Proteus penneri (-+--_
h. Citrobacter freundii (-+-+)
i. Serratia liquefaciens (--++)
j. Hafnia alvei (-vv-) (v-variable)
k. Enterobacter agglomerans (-,-,++)
l. Enterococcus cloacae= (--++)
m. Klebsiella oxytoca (+,+,++
n. Klebsiella pneumoniae(-,-++)