Medical Buzzwords part 1
1. Cogwheel rigidity
2. Tongue fasciculations
3. Focal neurologic
deficits < 1 day
4. "Floppy baby history
5.
of honey ingestion?"
6.7.
8. "Obese female with headache
takes OCPs?"
9. Headache in band-like distribution
11. "Unilateral headache tearing
10.
(lacrimation)?"
12. "Blurred yellowing vision
headache?"
14.
17. Kayser Fleischer rings
18. Painful pharyngeal erythema with exudate
19. Kerley B lines?
20. Janeway lesions/Osler's nodes
21. HACEK?
22. Pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting
forward?
23. Rib notching?
24. Irregularly irregular rhythm?
25. Machinery like murmur?
26. Mid systolic click?
27. Crescendo decrescendo murmur?
28. Diminished absent lower limb pulses?
29. "Shipyard workers ship builders?"
30. "Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy/
granulomas?"
Parkinson's disease
ALS - Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis aka motor
neurone disease
TIA
Botulism
Benign intercranial hypertension - also known as
Pseudotumour cerebri
Tension headache
Cluster headache
Digoxin toxicity
13.
15.
16.
Wilson's disease
Streptococcus throat infection
Congestive heart failure/Pulmonary oedema
Subacute bactirial endocarditis
"Acronym for the set of slow-growing Gram negative
bacteria that form a normal part of the human
oropharyngeal flora. They are a frequent cause of
endocarditis in children.
Haemophilus (Haemophilus parainfluenzae
Haemophilus aphrophilus and Haemophilus
paraphrophilus)
Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
(Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans)
Cardiobacterium hominis
Eikenella corrodens
Kingella (Kingella kingae)"
Pericarditis
Coarctation of the aorta
AF
PDA
Mitral valve prolapse
Aortic stenosis
Coarctation of the aorta
Asbestosis
Sarcoidosis
31. Cobblestoning? Crohn's disease

Ascending cholangitis - This is known as Charcot's

32. "RUQ pain/ fever / jaundice?"
triad
33. "RUQ pain / fever / jaundice + altered Ascending cholangitis - This is known as Reynold's
mental state and shock?" Pentad
34. Food poisoning from reheated fried rice? Bacilus Cerues
35. Positive Murphy's Acute cholecystitis
36. "Alcoholic retching then haematemesis?" Mallory Weiss tear
37. "Nonbilious vomiting / olive size
Pyloric stenosis
abdominal mass?"
38. Birds beak on barium swallow? Achalasia
39. Sail sign Pneumomediastinum (aka mediastinal emphysema)
40. Abdominal pain wakes patient from sleep? Peptic ulcer disease
41. Apple-green birefringence? Amyloidosis
42. Night blindness leading to tunnel vision? Retinitis pigmentosa
Tuberous sclerosis - White or lighter patches of skin
43. Ash leaf spots? that may appear anywhere on the body and are caused
by a lack of melanin.
Tuberous sclerosis - Areas of thick leathery skin that
44. Shagreen patches? are dimpled like an orange peel. Usually found on the
lower back or nape of the neck
Necrobiosis lipoidica
Skin lesions of classic NL begin as 1- to 3-mm well-
circumscribed papules or nodules that expand with an
45. "Asymptomatic shiny patches / red-brown
active border to become waxy atrophic round plaques
with yellow / Diabetic?"
centrally. Initially these plaques are red-brown in color
but progressively become more yellow and atrophic in
appearance. Most commonly occur on pre-tibial area.
46. "Obesity / amenorrhea / hirsuitism /
PCOS
infertility?"
47. Snowstorm on ultrasound? Hydatidiform mole
48. Clue cells on wet mount? Bacterial vaginosis
49. "Green frothy foul vaginal discharge?" Trichomoniasis
Varicocele

50. Bag of worms?
51. Positive testicular transillumination?
52. Dinner fork deformity?
53. Ascending weakness/paralysis?
54. Chubby teen male with knee pain?
NB. Can be secondary to obstruction of left renal vein
(such as with a renal cell carcinoma / a renal vein
thrombus /or retroperitoneal adenopathy)"
Hydrocele
Colle's fracture?
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (also known as
slipped capital femoral epiphysis)
 55. Honey coloured crust? Impetigo
56. Butterfly rash? SLE
57. Target lesion on skin? Lyme disease
58. Bilateral bell's palsy with target lesion on
Lyme disease
skin?
59. Umbilicated papules? Molloscum contagiosum
60. Silver scales? Psoriasis
61. Christmas tree patterned rash? Pityriasis rosea
62. Herald patch? Pityriasis rosea
63. Cafe au lait spots? Neurofibromatosis
64. 'Lead pipe' rigidity from antipsychotics? Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Malignant hyperthermia
In susceptible individuals the drugs for general
anaesthesia can induce a drastic and uncontrolled
increase in skeletal muscle oxidative metabolism
65. High fever/ rigidity after anaesthesia?
which overwhelms the body's capacity to supply
oxygen / remove carbon dioxide and regulate body
temperature eventually leading to circulatory collapse
and death if not treated quickly."
66. "Heat intolerance / palpitations?" Hyperthyroidism
67. "Cold intolerance / weight gain?" Hypothyroidism
68. Pruritus after bath/shower? Polycythaemia (rubra) Vera
69. Infant on cow's milk diet? Iron deficiency anaemia
70. Bronze skin? Haemochromatosis
71. Koplik's spots Measles
Scarlet fever (disease caused by an exotoxin released
72. Sandpaper rash?
by Streptococcus pyogenes)
73. Blueberry muffin spots? Congenital rubella
74. Atypical lymphocytosis? Mononucleosis
75. Rice water stool? Cholera
76. Black eschar on skin? Anthrax
77. "Child with strawberry tongue / rash /
Kawasaki's disease
fever > 5d"
78. Painless genital ulcer/chancre? Syphilis
79. Steamy/cloudy cornea? Glaucoma
Behcet's syndrome - a form of vasculitis that can lead
80. "Oral ulcers / genital ulcers / arthritis?"
to ulceration and other lesions. (Not Reiters!)
81. Palmar crease/simian crease? Down syndrome
82. Positive C-anca? Wegener's granulomatosis
83. Unilateral headache inc ESR? Temporal arteritis

Medical Buzzwords part 2

1. What is associated with: Starry sky pattern? Burkitt's lymphoma

2. Which organ most commonly recieves mets? Adrenal gland (rich blood supply)
3. What is the most common testicular tumor in Yolk sac tumor, Seminoma
children? in Men?

4. What is associated with: Auer's rods? Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M3

5. What is associated with: Aschoff's bodies? Rheumatic fever

6. What is associated with: Birbeck granules? Histiocytosis X

7. What is associated with: Neurofibrillary Alzheimer's disease

tangles?

8. What is associated with: Bence-Jones Multiple myeloma

proteinuria?

9. What is associated with: Cal-Exner bodies? Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary

10. What is associated with: Cowdry type A Herpes virus

bodies?

11. What is associated with: Codman's triangle on Osteosarcoma

an x-ray?

12. What is associated with: Councilman bodies? Toxic or viral hepatitis

13. What is associated with: Calf Duchenne's muscular dystrophy

pseudohypertrophy?

14. What is associated with: Reed-Sternberg cells? Hodgkin's lymphoma

15. What is associated with: Heinz bodies? G-6-PD deficiency

16. What is associated with: Homer-Wright Neuroblastoma

rosettes?
17. What is associated with: Curschmann's spirals? Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)

18. What is associated with: Kayser-Fleischer Wilson's disease

rings?
19. What is associated with: Lewy bodies? Parkinson's disease

20. What is associated with: Orphan Annie cells? Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

21. What is associated with: Russell bodies? Multiple myeloma

22. What is associated with: Reinke's crystals? Leydig cell tumor

23. What is associated with: Blue sclera? Osteogenesis imperfecta

24. What is associated with: Soap-bubble Giant cell tumor of the bone
appearance on an x-ray?
25. What is associated with: Pseudorosettes? Ewing's sarcoma

26. What is associated with: Lucid interval? Epidural hematoma

27. What is associated with: Bloody tap on lumbar Subarachnoid hemorrhage

puncture?

28. What is associated with: Pseudopalisades? Glioblastoma multiforme

29. What is associated with: Charcot-Leyden Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)

crystals?

30. What is associated with: Streaky ovaries? Turner's syndrome

31. What is associated with: Cafe au fait spot on Neurofibromatosis

the skin?

32. What is associated with: Keratin pearls? Squamous cell carcinoma

33. What is associated with: Signet ring cells? Gastric carcinoma

34. What is associated with: Mallory's bodies Chronic alcoholism

35. What is associated with: Blue-domed cysts? Fibrocystic change of the breast

36. What is associated with: Schiller-Duval Yolk sac tumor

bodies?

37. What is associated with: Senile plaques? Alzheimer's disease

38. What is associated with: WBCs in the urine? Acute cystitis

39. What is associated with: RBCs in the urine? Bladder carcinoma

40. What is associated with: RBC casts in the Acute glomerulonephritis

urine?

41. What is associated with: WBC casts in the Acute pyelonephritis

urine?

42. What is associated with: Renal epithelial casts Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
in the urine?

43. What is associated with: Waxy casts? Chronic end-stage renal disease

44. What is the most common: Cause of chronic Lead

 metal poisoning?

45. What is the most common: Cause of congenital Tetralogy of Fallot

cyanotic heart disease?

46. What is the most common: Cardiac tumor? Left atrial myxoma

47. What is the most common: Vasculitis? Temporal arteritis

48. What is the most common: Congenital cardiac Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
anomaly?

49. What is the most common: Primary tumor of Hemangioma (benign)

the liver?
50. What is the most common: Primary malignant Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
tumor of the lungs?

51. What is the most common: Cause of nephrotic Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

syndrome?

52. What is the most common: cause of nephrotic Lipoid nephrosis

syndrome in children?

53. What is the most common: Organism that Escherichia coli

causes pyelonephritis?

54. What is the most common: Renal cell cancer Clear cell
type?

55. What is the most common: Tumor of the liver? Metastatic cancer (GI, breast, lungs)

56. What is the most common: Malignant tumor of Squamous cell carcinoma
the esophagus?

57. What is the most common: Tumor arising Multiple myeloma

within the bone?

58. What is the most common: Primary malignant Cervical neoplasia

tumor of the female genital tract in the world?

59. What is the most common: Tumor of the Leiomyoma

female genitourinary tract?

60. What is the most common: Benign tumor of the Serocystadenoma

ovary?

61. What is the most common: Benign tumor of the Fibroadenoma

 breast?

62. What is the most common: Benign lesion that Fibrocystic change of the breast
affects the breast?

63. What is the most common: Malignant tumor of Invasive ductal carcinoma
the breast?

64. What is the most common: Tumor in men Testicular tumors

between the ages of 15 and 35?

65. What is the most common: Germ cell tumor in Seminoma

men?

66. What is the most common: Testicular tumor in Yolk sac tumor
infants and children?

67. What is the most common: Malignant germ cell Choriocarcinoma

tumor in women?

68. What is the most common: Solid tumor in the Nephroblastoma

body?

69. What is the most common: Acquired GI Necrotizing enterocolitis of infancy

emergency of infancy?

70. What is the most common: Primary malignant Serocystadenocarcinoma

tumor of the ovary?

71. What is the most common: Cardiac tumor of Rhabdomyoma

infancy?

72. What is the most common: Acute metal Arsenic

poisoning?

73. What is the most common: Proliferative Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
abnormality of an internal organ?

74. What is the most common: Malignant tumor in Osteosarcoma

the bone of teenagers?

75. What is the most common: Site of a cerebral Middle cerebral artery
infarct?
76. What is the most common: Cause of dementia Alzheimer's disease
between the ages of 60 and 90 years?

77. What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor Glioblastoma multiforme
 in adults?
78. What is the most common: Primary CNS tumor Medullablastoma
in children?

79. What is the most common: Cardiac pathology Libman-Sacks endocarditis

in patients with SLE?

80. What is the most common: Chromosomal Kleinfelter's syndrome

disorder involving sex chromosomes?

81. What is the most common: Tumor on sun- Basal cell carcinoma
exposed sites?

82. What is the most common: Chromosomal Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
disorder?

83. What is the most common: Heart defect in Endocardial cushion defect
Down syndrome?

84. What is the most common: Cause of urinary BPH

tract obstruction?

85. What is the most common: Eye tumor in Retinoblastoma

children?

86. What is the most common: Intraspinal tumor? Ependymoma

87. What is the most common: Lymph node Periaortic lymph nodes
affected in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?

88. What is the most common: Renal pathology in Diffuse proliferative GN

patients with SLE?

89. What is the most common: Cause of cirrhosis Alcohol

in the USA?

90. What is the most common: Malignant tumor in Breast

women?

91. What is the most common: Cancer of the Squamous cell carcinoma
vulva?

92. What is the most common: Cause of Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
hospitalization in children younger than 1 year
of age?

93. What is the most common: Cause of diarrhea in Rotavirus

children?
94. What is the most common: Malignancy in ALL
children?
95. What is the most common: Thyroid cancer? Papillary carcinoma

96. What is the most common: Benign GI tumor? Leiomyoma

97. What is the most common: Testicular tumor in Yolk sac tumor
children?

98. What is the most common: Helminthic parasite Ascaris lumbricoides

worldwide?

99. What is the most common: Cause of Polycystic ovaries

anovulation?

100. What is the most common: Cause of Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
death in neonates?
101. What is the most common: Cardiac Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
anomaly in children?

102. What is the most common: Congenital Atrial septal defect (ASD)
heart defect in adults?

103. What is the most common: Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Complication of PDA?

104. What is the most common: Cardiac Coarctation of the aorta

anomaly in Turner's syndrome?

105. What is the most common: Cause of Amyloidosis

restrictive cardiomyopathy?

106. What is the most common: Cause of VSD

pulmonary hypertension in children?

107. What is the most common: Rheumatoid arthritis

Inflammatory arthritis?

108. What is the most common: Cause of Emphysematous bleb

spontaneous pneumothorax
109. What is the most common: Cause of Asbestosis
nonorganic pneumoconiosis?

110. What is the most common: Cause of Renal cell carcinoma

painless hematuria?

111. What is the most common: Cause of Infection

hematuria?
112. What is the most common: Sickle cell disease
Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis?

113. What is the most common: Cause of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

infection for a patient on a ventilator?

114. What is the most common: Cause of Renal failure

death in SLE?

115. What is the most common: Cause of a Malaria

nontraumatic splenic rupture?

116. What is the most common: Cause of Thrombocytopenia

abnormal bleeding?

117. What is the most common: Organ Kidney

involved in amyloidosis?

118. What is the most common: Esophageal Squamous cell carcinoma

carcinoma?

119. What is the most common: Cause of Alcohol abuse

chronic pancreatitis?

120. What is the most common: Cause of Mumps

infectious pancreatitis?
121. What is the most common: Aspiration pneumonia
Complication of nasogastric tube feeding?

122. What is the most common learning Dyslexia

disability?

123. What is the most common: Cause of Depression

insomnia?
124. What is the most common: Form of Coagulative
necrosis?

125. What is the most common: Cause of Chlamydia trachomatis

blindness worldwide?

126. What is the most common: Cause of the Parainfluenza virus

croup?
127. What is the most common: Cause of a Coronavirus
cold in the winter and summer?
128. What is the most common: Cause of a Rhinovirus
cold in the spring and fall?
129. What is the most common: Cause of RSV
viral pneumonia leading to death?
130. What is the most common: Pituitary Chromophobe adenoma
tumor?
131. What is the most common: Cause of Sheehan's syndrome
panhypopituitarism?
132. What is the most common: Cause of Diverticulosis
rectal bleeding?

133. What is the most common: Cause of Hirschsprung's disease

neonatal bowel obstruction?

134. What is the most common: Cause of Adhesions and hernias

intestinal obstructions in adults?

135. What is the most common: Site of Splenic flexure

ischemia in the GI tract?

136. What is the most common: Kidney Calcium oxalate

stone type?

137. What is the most common: Cause of Pituitary adenoma

Cushing's syndrome?

Chromosomal disorders
138. What chromosomal translocation is Chromosome 9,22 (Philadelphia chromosome)
associated with: Chronic myeloid leukemia
(CML?
139. What chromosome: Ewing's sarcoma? Chromosome 11,22

140. What chromosome: Adult familial Chromosome 5,21

polyposis?

141. What chromosome: Burkitt's Chromosome 8,14

lymphoma?

142. What chromosome: Acute Chromosome 15,17

promyelocytic leukemia (M3)?
143. What chromosome: Follicular Chromosome 14,18
lymphoma?

144. What chromosome is associated with: Chromosome 5p

Cru di chat?

145. What chromosome: Patau's syndrome? Chromosome 13

146. What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis Chromosome 17

 I?

147. What chromosome: Huntington's Chromosome 4p

disease?

148. What chromosome: Familial Chromosome 19

hypercholesterolemia?

149. What chromosome: Marfan's disease? Chromosome 15

150. What chromosome: Chronic Chromosome 12

lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)?

151. What chromosome: Albinism? Chromosome llp

152. What chromosome: Cystic fibrosis? Chromosome 7

153. What chromosome: Tay-Sachs disease? Chromosome 15q

154. What chromosome: Neimann-Pick Chromosome 11p

disease?
155. What chromosome: Gaucher's disease? Chromosome 1

156. What chromosome: Neurofibromatosis Chromosome 22q

II?
157. What chromosome: Down syndrome? Chromosome 21

158. What chromosome: Edward's Chromosome 18

syndrome?

159. What mineral is associated with Chromium (Cr)

impaired glucose tolerance?

Minerals and vitamins

160. What mineral is associated with Iodine (I)
hypothyroidism?

161. What mineral is an important Molybdenum (Mb)

component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?

162. What vitamin deficiency has the Riboflavin (B2) deficiency

following signs: angular stomatitis, glossitis,
and cheilosis?

163. What vitamin is a component of the Thymine (Bl)

coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?

164. Avidin decreases the absorption of what Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites
 vitamin?

165. What are the four Ds of niacin 1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
deficiency?
166. What mineral is an important Selenium (Se)
component of glutathione peroxidase?

167. What mineral deficiency in children is Zinc (Zn) deficiency

associated with poor growth and impaired
sexual development?
168. What mineral, via excessive depositions Iron (Fe)
in the liver, causes hemochromatosis?

169. What vitamin is needed in the Pyridoxine (B6)

production of heme?

170. What vitamin is a component of the Pantothenic acid

enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?

171. What vitamin is given as prophylactic Thiamine (B1)-to prevent Wernicke's

treatment for patients who suffer from encephalopathy and Korsakoff's encephalopathy
alcoholism?

172. What vitamin deficiency has the Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency [Folic acid
following signs: homocysteinuria and deficiency has only homocysteinuria as a sign.]
methylmalonic aciduria?

173. What vitamin deficiency is evidenced Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) deficiency (These are the
by the following signs: poor wound healing, signs of scurvy.)
loose teeth, bleeding gums, petechiae, and
ecchymosis?

174. What are the three carboxylase enzymes 1. Pyruvate 2. Acetyl CoA 3.Propionyl CoA
that require biotin? carboxylase

175. What vitamin requires intrinsic factor Cyanocobalamin (B12)

(IF) for absorption?

176. What mineral is a component of Copper (Cu)

cytochrome a/a3?

177. Leukopenia, neutropenia, and mental Copper (Cu) deficiency

deterioration are signs of what mineral
deficiency?

178. What vitamin deficiency causes a Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency

glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in
alcoholics?
179. What mineral deficiency involves blood Copper (Cu) deficiency
vessel fragility?

180. Megaloblastic anemia and Folic acid deficiency

thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin
deficiency?

Antidotes
181. What is the antidote for an overdose Oxygen
with: Carbon monoxide?

182. What is the antidote for an overdose Dimercaprol

with: Mercury?

183. What is the antidote for an overdose Pyridoxine

with: Isoniazid?

184. What is the antidote for an overdose Physostigmine

with: Atropine?

185. What is the antidote for an overdose Dimercaprol, D-penicillamine

with: Arsenic?

186. What is the antidote for an overdose Antidigoxin Fab fragments

with: Digoxin?

187. What is the antidote for an overdose Dimercaprol

with: Gold?

188. What is the antidote for an overdose Ethyl alcohol

with: Ethylene glycol?

189. What is the antidote for an overdose Naloxone, naltrexone

with: Opiates/narcotics?

190. What is the antidote for an overdose Atropine, 2-PAM

with: Organophosphates?

191. What is the antidote for an overdose Vitamin K

with: Warfarin?

192. What is the antidote for an overdose D-Penicillamine

with: Copper?

193. What is the antidote for an overdose Protamine sulfate

with: Heparin?
194. What is the antidote for an overdose Deferoxamine
 with: Iron?

195. What is the antidote for an overdose Ethyl alcohol

with: Methyl alcohol?
196. What is the antidote for an overdose Amyl nitrate, sodium nitrate, or sodium thiosulfate
with: Cyanide?

197. What is the antidote for an overdose EDTA (calcium disodium edetate), dimercaprol,
with: Lead? succimer

198. What is the antidote for an overdose Methylene blue

with: Nitrates?

199. What is the antidote for an overdose N-Acetylcysteine

with: Acetaminophen?

Neurology
200. If a patient presents with nystagmus, Hemisphere
dystaxia, and hypotonia of the ipsilateral limbs,
what area of the cerebellum is affected?

201. What lesion of the cerebellum is usually Posterior vermis lesion

caused by an ependymoma or
medulloblastoma, resulting in dystaxia of the
trunk with an inability to maintain an upright
posture?
202. What spinal cord lesion causes a Tabes dorsalis (neurosyphilis)
bilateral dorsal column loss below the level of
the lesion?
203. What spinal cord lesion results in a Syringomyelia (VWC lesion)
bilateral loss of pain and temperature at the
level of the lesion?
204. What spinal cord injury results in Polio (bilateral ventral horn lesion)
flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy?
205. What arterial occlusion would result in Anterior spinal artery occlusion (posterior spinal artery
a loss of all tracts in the spinal cord except the supplies the dorsal columns)
dorsal columns?

206. What spinal cord lesion results in a Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's
lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion at the level disease
of the lesion and an upper motor neuron
(UMN) lesion below the level of the lesion?

207. What disease is associated with Subacute combined degeneration

demyelination of the dorsal column,
spinocerebellar tract, and corticospinal tract?

208. What arterial occlusion results in

 contralateral spastic hemiparesis, contralateral Posterior cerebral artery occlusion (ventral midbrain
spastic lower face, and ipsilateral oculomotor syndrome)
palsy (dilated, ptosis, eye down and out)?

209. What arterial occlusion results in the Vertebral artery-pyramid

following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Contralateral spastic hemiparesis of
the body?
210. What syndrome is associated with an Brown-Sequard syndrome (heimisection of the spinal
ipsilateral UMN lesion below the level of the cord)
lesion, ipsilateral dorsal column loss at and
below the level of the lesion, an LMN lesion at
the level of the lesion, bilateral loss of pain and
temperature at the level and contralateral below
the level of the lesion, and Horner's syndrome
if it is above the level of C6?
211. What arterial occlusion results in the Vertebral artery-medial lemniscus
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Contralateral loss of position and
vibration?
212. What is the name for the most Vertebra prominens (C7 in 70% of cases, C6 in 20%,
prominent spinous process in the spine? T1 in 10%)
213. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN VIll
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Deafness?
214. What arterial occlusion results in the Vertebral artery-CN XII
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue?
215. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-CN Vll
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Ipsilateral facial paralysis?

216. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- descending
following syndromes (Name artery and specific autonomics
region.): Ipsilateral Horner's syndrome?

217. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- vestibular nuclei
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Nystagmus away from the lesion?

218. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery- spinotbalamic tract
following syndromes (Name artery and specific
region.): Contralateral pain and temperature of
the body?

219. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-spinal nucleus of
following syndromes (Name artery and specific CN V
region.): Ipsilateral pain and temperature loss
 of the face?

220. What arterial occlusion results in the Anterior inferior cerebellar artery-inferior cerebellar
following syndromes (Name artery and specific peduncle
region.): Ipsilateral limb ataxia?
Anatomy
221. What muscle initiates Abduction of the Supraspinalis
arm?
222. Damage to what nerve will give you Long thoracic nerve To avoid confusing long thoracic
"winged scapula'."? nerve and lateral thoracic artery: Long has an "n" for
nerve; lateral 3 & has an "a" for artery.

223. What nerve is damaged if the patient Obturator nerve (nerve to the medial compartment of
cannot ADduct the thigh? the thigh)

224. Foot drop" is caused by a compromise Common peroneal nerve

in what nerve?
225. In what compartment of the thigh is the Anterior compartment (it's the blood supply to the
profundus femoris artery found? posterior compartment)
226. What nerve is compromised in carpal Median nerve
tunnel syndrome?
227. What two muscles are inner- vated by Deltoid and teres minor
the axillary nerve?
228. What vein, in the antecubital fossa, Median cubital vein (most common site for
forms the communica- tion between the basilic venipuncture)
vein and the cephalic vein?
229. What muscle acts in all ranges of Deltoid
motion of the arm?
230. What forms the anatomic snuff box? Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus,
extensor pollicis brevis
231. What nerve is damaged if a patient Radial nerve
presents with "wrist drop"?
232. What is the longest muscle of the body? Sartorius

233. What two nerves innervate the Femoral and obturator nerves
pectineus muscle?

234. What superficial vein empties into the Short saphenous vein
popliteal fossa?

235. What is the artery of the anterior Anterior tibial artery

compartment of the leg?

236. What nerve supplies the lateral Superficial peroneal nerve

compartment of the leg?

237. What sensory nerve are you testing Deep peroneal nerve
when you touch the first web space of the toes?
238. The peroneal artery is a branch of what Posterior tibial
artery?
239. Inflammation of the pre- patellar bursa Housemaid's knee
is often referred to as what?
240. At what vertebral level does the trachea T4-T5 (It is known as the carina.)
bifurcate?
241. What attaches the cusps of the valves to Chordae tendineae
the papillary muscles in the heart?
242. The obturator artery is a branch of what Internal iliac artery
major artery?

243. What is the first branch off the Inferior phrenic artery
abdominal artery?

244. Into what vessel does the right gonadal The inferior vena cava
vein drain?

245. Into what vessel does the left gonadal The left renal vein
vein drain?

246. At what vertebral level does the C4

common carotid artery bifurcate?

247. At what vertebral level is the hyoid C3

bone found?

248. The ophthalmic artery is a branch of Internal carotid artery

what vessel?

249. What forms the portal vein? The union of the superior mesenteric and the splenic
veins

250. Where does the inferior mesenteric vein The splenic vein
drain?

251. What vein is formed by the union of the Superior vena cava
right and left brachiocephalic veins?

252. What is the only muscle in the larynx Cricothyroid (It's innervated by the external laryngeal
that is not inner- vated by the recurrent laryn- nerve.)
geal nerve?

253. The folds of the mucosa of the stomach Rugae

are known as what?

254. What comprises the portal triad? 1. Common bile duct 2. Hepatic artery 3. Portal vein
255. To enter into the lesser peri-toneal sac, Foramen of Winslow
you must traverse through what foramen?

256. What is another name for the Pouch of Douglas

rectouterine pouch?

257. What structure traverses the diaphragm IVC

at the level of T8?

258. What are the components of the Pudendal nerve and internal pudendal artery and vein
pudendal canal?

259. A fracture of the surgical neck of the Axillary nerve

humerus will most likely damage what nerve?

260. What is the function of gray rami They are postganglionic sympathetic axons.
communicans?

261. What two muscles do you test to see if Trapezius and sternocleidoinastoid
CN XI is intact?

262. What component of the corneal reflex is Motor aspect

lost in a CN VII deficit?

263. Toward what side would the uvula The left (points to the unaffected side)
point if the right CN X were damaged?

264. What is the only organ in the body Adrenal rnedulla

supplied by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?

265. What vessel can be found atop the Subclavian vein

scalene anterior?

266. Where does the parotid (Stenson's) duct Opposite the second upper molar tooth
enter the oral cavity?

267. What muscle is the most superiorly Levator palpebrae superioris

situated muscle in the orbit?

268. What is the triad of Horner's syndrome Miosis, ptosis, and anhydrosis

269. What is the only muscle of the tongue Palatoglossus

not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve?
270. What are the names ligaments that 1. Supraspinous ligament 2. Interspinous ligament 3.
would pierced, in order, by a lumbar puncture? Ligamentum flavum
271. What vein courses along the medial Basilic vein
aspect of the forearm?
272. Loss of ABduction of the lower limbs Superior gluteal nerve
 results in Trendelenburg gait; what nerve is
compromised to cause this?
273. What nerve is affected when a patient Inferior gluteal nerve (nerve to the gluteus maximus)
has difficulty rising from a sitting position?

274. What is the nerve for the anterior Deep peroneal nerve
compartment of the leg?

275. What is the artery for the posterior Posterior tibial arterv
compartment of the leg?
276. If you were to do a pleural tap, what The superior border of the rib
region of the intercostal space would your Because the neurovascular bundle is located on the
needle enter? inner surface of the inferior border of the rib
277. Why?
278. The ventral rami of what cervical C3, C4, and C5 keep the diaphragm alive!
vertebrae innervate diaphragm?
279. What is the largest muscle in the body Gluteus maximus

280. What structure does the left recurrent The arch of the aorta
laryngeal nerve loop around before it ascends
into the larynx?
281. What bursa is inflamed in "clergyman's Infrapatellar bursa
knee"?
282. What comprises the "unhappy triad" of 1. Medial collateral ligament 2. Medial meniscus 3.
the knee? Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) The severity of
injury to these ligaments is ranked from bad to worst
in relation to how many of them are damaged, and they
are usually damaged in the order listed

283. What arteries join together forming the Left and right vertebral arteries
basilar artery?

284. What is the major difference between No valves and no smooth muscle in the walls of the
the veins in the face and the veins in the rest of veins in the face
the body?
285. What connects the lateral ventricles to Foramen of Monro
the third ventricle?
286. What connects the third and the fourth Cerebral aqueduct
ventricles together?
287. How does cerebrospinal fluid leave the Through the foramina of Magendie (medial) and
fourth ventricle? Luschka (lateral) M in Magendie = medial; L in
Luschka = lateral.
288. What are the three anatomic 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic appendages
characteristics that differentiate the large
bowel from the small bowel and the rectum?
289. What muscle forms the "bed" for the Quadratus lumborum
kidney?
290. What are the 10 retro- peritoneal 1. Duodenum 2. Ascending Colon 3. Ureters 4.
organs? Pancreas 5. Suprarenals 6. Descending colon 7. Aorta
8. Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. Inferior vena cava
291. What is the only cranial nerve with the CN I
ability to regenerate?

292. What duct transmits secretions from the Wharton's duct

sub- mandibular gland to the oral cavity?

293. What area of the posterior aspect of the The optic disk is the blind spot.
eye has no photo receptors?

294. What are the borders of Hesselbach's Rectus abdominis medially, Inferior epigastric vessels
triangle? laterally, Inguinal ligament as the base

295. What structure(s) traverse the Esophagus and gastric plexus of nerves
diaphragm at the level of T10?
296. What structure(s) traverse the Aorta, azygous vein, and thoracic duct Remember:
diaphragm at the level of T12? One at Ts, two at Tlo,three at T,Z.

297. What is the function of white rami They are preganglionic sympathetic axons. They are
communicans? white because they are myelinated
298. What is the region of the fallopian tube Ampulla
where fertilization most commonly occurs?

299. Which type of hemorrhoids are painful? External hemorrhoids; internal hemorrhoids lack pain
fibers.
300. What are the five terminal branches of 1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4. Mandibular 5.
the facial nerve? Cervical (Two Zebras Bit My Clavicle.)

301. What cranial nerve is affected if you CN III

have a laterally deviated eye that is dilated with
a ptosed eyelid?

302. What are the four muscles of 1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial pterygoid 4.
mastication? Lateral pterygoid

Non specific
303. Dementia is associated with a decrease Acetylcholine (ACh)
in what neurotransmitter in the amygdala,
hippocampus, and temporal neocortex?

304. Name the incurable disease affecting Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

adults which is a spongiform encephalopathy
caused by a prion ; is fatal usually within 1
year of onset; results in cortical and cerebellar
atrophy; and is characterized by a rapidly
progressive dementia with myoclonus and EEG
 abnormalities?

305. What disease, occurring in patients Huntington's chorea

approximately 40 years of age, is characterized
by autosomal dominant inheritance associated
with chromosome 4, atrophied caudate nucleus,
choreoathetoid movements, and progressive
dementia (Hint: Patients commonly commit
suicide.)?

306. What DSM-IV axis II diagnosis would Obsessive-compulsive

the following patient fulfill: perfectionist, male,
first born, preoccupied with rules, harsh
discipline upbringing, lacks sense of humor,
inflexible, miserly?

307. What symptoms of schizophrenia Positive symptoms (type I)

associated with dopamine receptors include
delusions, hallucinations, and agitation?

308. What is the leading cause of Fetal alcohol syndrome

preventable mental retardation?

309.
310. What drug is used to prevent alcohol Disulfiram
consumption by blocking aldehyde
dehydrogenase?

311. Which drug is used to treat opiate Clonidine

withdrawal, attention deficit hyperactive
disorder (ADHD), and sometimes Tourette's
syndrome?

312. Which drug is used to treat the Naloxone or naltrexone

respiratory depression associated with an
overdose of opioids?

313. Which opioid agonist, more addictive Methadone

than heroin, is used in the treatment of heroin
dependence?

314. What five things are checked in the 1. Sldn color 2. Heart rate 3. Reflexes 4. Muscle tone
APGAR test? 5. Respiratory rate APGAR Appearance, Pulse,
Grimace, Activity, Respiration

315. What type of seizure is associated with Petit mal (absence) seizure
young children and involves a brief loss of
 consciousness with minor motor activity?

316. What is the drug of choice for treatment Ethosuximide

of Petit Mal seizures?

317. What neurodegenerative disorder is Pick's disease

associated with frontal and temporal lobe
atrophy and is manifested primarily as
dementia?
318. What disease causes ceruloplasmin Wilson's disease
deficiency, hepatolenticular degeneration, and
Kayser-Fleischer rings?

319. What type of seizure involves no loss of Simple partial seizure

consciousness, altered sensory perception, and
an EEG focal spike or a spike with a slow wave
pattern?

320. What type of seizure is characterized by Grand mal seizure

major motor activity, loss of consciousness,
and no true aura?

321. Name the type of seizure in which the Complex partial seizure
person smells "burning rubber," has
hallucinations and illusions, demonstrates
automatism after aura, experiences focal
sensory perceptions, and loses consciousness?

322. What disorder involving a lesion of the Broca's aphasia

frontal lobe (Brodmann's area 44) is
characterized by the following: there is no
problem with comprehension; the person has
trouble repeating statements; speech is broken,
telegraphic, and ungrammatical; the person
may be mute; and the person may be very
frustrated?

323. Where is the lesion if the person refuses Right parietal lobe
to accept that there is a problem, neglects the
left side, and has constructional apraxia?

324. What disease involves a lesion of the Wernicke's aphasia

superior temporal gyros (Brodmann's area 22),
impaired comprehension, fluent but incoherent
and rapid speech, and hyperactivity, but no
muscle weakness?

325. What is the most common dementia in Alzheimer's disease

 persons older than 65 years of age that is more
common in women, and that involves diffuse
atrophy, flattened cortical sulci, senile plaques,
enlarged cerebral ventricles, neuro6brillary
tangles, granulovascular changes, and ß-2
amyloid with T proteins?

326. What syndrome is characterized by the Kliiver-Bucy syndrome

following: bilateral medial temporal lobe
lesion, placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality,
hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and visual
agnosia?

327. In what chronic and irreversible disease Korsakoff's syndrome (alcohol induced amnestic
does the patient present with thiamine syndrome)
deficiency, confusion, confabulations, and
amnesia?

328. What disease is produced by a Albinism (Tyrosine is converted to melanin by the

deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase? enzyme tyrosinase.)

329. Lack of what vitamin causes multiple Biotin

carboxylase deficiency?

330. What enzyme is deficient in Cystathionase

cystathioninuria?

331. What enzyme is deficient in maple Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase

syrup urine disease?

332. What substrate gets built up in Glucosyl cerebroside

Gaucher's disease?

333. What enzyme is deficient in Homocysteine methyl transferase or cystathionine

homocystinuria? synthetase

334. What substrate is built up in Niemann- Tyrosine kinase

Pick disease?
335. What is another name for isolated right- Cor pulmonale
sided heartfailure?
336. What region of the aorta is affected in Ascending arch or the root
syphilitic (luetic) aneurysms?
337. What cell type is commonly elevated in Eosinophils
asthma?
338. What enzyme level is commonly Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
elevated in sarcoidosis?
339. What form of lung cancer is commonly Malignant mesothelioma
associated with asbestosis?
340. With what protein-losing enteropathy Menetrier's syndrome
do you see hypertrophied gastric rugal folds?
341. What hepatic pathology is associated
with ingestion of oral contraceptives?
342. Liver adenoma
343. True or false alpha-1-antitrypsin True; it is most commonly associated with panacinar
deficiency can lead to cirrhosis of the liver? emphysema of the lower lobes.

344. What organism is associated with Clonorchis sinensis

cholangiocarcinoma?

345. True or false-polycythemia is True, because there is an increase in erythropoietin

associated with renal cell carcinoma?

346. What cancer of the male genitourinary Prostatic carcinoma

system is associated with osteoblastic bony
metastasis?

347. What female genitourinary pathology is Hydatidiform mole

associated with elevated levels of human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and has a
"snowstorm" appearance on an ultrasound?

348. What subset of leukemia involves Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)-M5, also called
gingival hypertrophy? acute myelogenous leukemia

349. What chemical pathogen is associated Arsenic

with squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

350. Antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti- Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

dSDNA, and smooth muscle antigen (Sm ag)
are all used to diagnose what disease?

351. SS-A(Ro), SS-B(La), and R-ANA are Sjogren's disease

diagnostic markers of what disease?
352. What disease is characterized by Osteopetrosis (Albers- Schonberg disease)
decreased bone resorption due to defective
osteoclast function?
353. Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and Scleroderma
anti-SCL-70 antibodies are diagnostic of what
disease?
354. A gastric mucosal erosion caused by Curling's ulcer (Burns = hot = curling iron) VXP
extensive burns to the body surface is known as
what?

355. A superficial gastric mucosal erosion Cushing's ulcer

causing an excessive secretion of pepsin, due to
an increase in intracranial pressure from trauma
 or surgical injury to the CNS, is known as
what?

356. What two antibodies are used to Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal antibodies
diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

357. What is the triad of Meig's syndrome? 1. Right-sided hydrothorax 2. Ascites 3. Ovarian
fibroma

358. What is the triad of Plummer-Vinson 1. Atrophic glossitis 2. Esophageal webs 3. Iron-
syndrome? deficiency anemia

359. In multiple myeloma, what are the Russell bodies

immunoglobulin protein droplets within plasma
cells called?

360. Obstetric hemorrhage or shock to the Sheehan's syndrome (approximately 90% destruction
anterior pituitary leads to what syndrome? of the pituitary)

361. In what condition is a strawberry Cholesterolosis

gallbladder seen?

362. What is the term for a palpable left Virchow's node (due to metastatic gastric carcinoma)
supraclavicular lymph node?
363. What pathology is associated with Hepatic venous thrombus
Budd-Chiari syndrome?
364. Cell fragments of hemolysis are known Helmet cells (schistocytes)
as what?
365. What drug can cause amyloidosis and Heroin
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the
kidney?
366. With what disease do you see dust- Coal workers' pneumoconiosis
containing macrophages within a reticulin
mesh?
367. With what two pathologies is a 1. Asbestosis 2. Silicosis
honeycomb lung associated?

368. What is Caplan's syndrome? Rheumatoid arthritis with silicosis

369. With what is cherry red intoxication Acute carbon monoxide poisoning
associated?

370. With what disease do you see Down syndrome

Brushfield's spots?

371. What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are Aschoff's bodies of rheumatic fever
surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages
throughout all the layers of the heart?
372. What cardiac pathology are children Rheumatic heart disease
with pharyngeal infections more likely to
develop?
373. What is the term for white retinal spots Roth's spots
surrounded by hemorrhage? In bacterial endocarditis
374. In what condition are they seen?

375. The painless hemorrhagic areas on the Janeway lesions

palms and soles in a patient with bacterial
endocarditis are known as what?
376. What are the four cardiac abnormalities 1. Shifting of the aorta 2. Hypertrophy of the right
associated with tetralogy of Fallot? ventricle 3. Interventricular septal defect 4. Pulmonary
stenosis 3X (SHIP)
377. What disease affects medium to small Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) Remember by P in P-
arteries, occurs most commonly in men, is ANCA and P in PAN.
associated with elevated perinuclear anti-
neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody (P-ANCA)
levels to myeloperoxidase, and involves 30%
of patients with hepatitis Bs antigen?
378. With what disease do you see IgA Henoch-Schonlein purpura
deposits in small vessels of the skin and the
kidneys?
379. What type of vasculitis presents with Temporal arteritis (usually in women older than 80
headache, facial pain, and sometimes loss of years of age)
vision?

380. What type of vasculitis affects children, Kawasaki disease; Think kids, koronary, konjunctiva-
has conjunctival involvement associated with Kawasaki
skin rash and lymphadenopathy, and involves
70% of persons with coronary artery
aneurysms?

381. What is the difference between a true A true aneurysm is the bulging of an arterial wall that
aneurysm and a false aneurysm? is intact, whereas a false aneurysm is a rupture where a
sac is formed by the tissue adjacent to the artery

382. What is the term for laminated Schaumann's bodies

concretions of Ca2+ and protein found in
granulomas, especially sarcoidosis?

383. What condition is manifested by Mikulicz's syndrome

bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands,
submaxillary gland, and submandibular gland
with posterior uveal tract involvement?

384. In what autosomal recessive (AR) Kartagener's syndrome

disease do you see a decrease in adenine
triphosphatase (ATPase) activity of dynein
 arms in cilia, also known as immotile cilia
syndrome?
385. What disease involves a decrease in al- Panacinar emphysema
antitrypsin activity, causing all the alveoli to be
affected?
386. What lung pathology involves columnar Chronic bronchitis
to squamous cell metaplasia and cannot be
diagnosed unless the patient has 3 months of
productive sputum for 2 years or more?
387. What bronchogenic carcinoma: Is found Adenocarcinoma
in the peripheral aspect of the lung and is
known as the "scar" carcinoma?
388. What renal pathology involves uniform Membranous glomerulonephritis (MGN)
thickening of the glomerular capillary wall,
"granular" appearance under the microscope,
and effacement of foot processes?
389. What syndrome has massive Nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia,
and anasarca as its components?
390. What renal pathology is associated with Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
an alteration of the basement membrane and
mesangial cell proliferation, along with a tram-
track appearance under the microscope?

391. What is the triad of renal cell 1. Hematuria 2. Costovertebral pain 3. A palpable
carcinoma? mass
392. What is the most common type of Calcium oxalate
kidney stone?

393. In what condition do you see Pyelonephritis

"dimpling" on the kidney's surface?

394. What are the four most common 1. Lung 2. Liver 3. Brain 4. Bone
metastatic sites for renal cell carcinoma?

395. What is the causative organism Schistosomiasis haematobia

involved in squamous cell carcinoma of the
bladder?

396. What GI pathology can be caused by a Pseudomembranous colitis

patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by With vancomycin or metronidazole
Clostridium diffcile, ischemia, Staphylococcus,
Shigella, or Candida infections?
397. How is Pseudomembranous colitis
treated?
398. What regions of the GI tract are the The lesser curvature of the stomach and the first part
most common sites of peptic ulcers? of the duodenum
399. What three criteria allow you to 1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the
differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or surrounding mucosa
carcinoma?
400. What is the watershed area of the GI It is the most common site of ischemic bowel disease
tract? (splenic flexure of large bowel).

401. With what autosomal dominant disease Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (rarely predisposes to colon
do you see polyps in the GI tract that can be cancer)
large and pedunculated, along with melanin
pigmentation of the oral mucosa, lips, and
palms?
402. What is the most common hemolytic Autoimmune/immune hemolytic anemia
anemia that has an elevated reticulocyte count
and a positive result on a Coombs' test?
403. What is the first sign of megaloblasdc Hypersegmented polymorphonucleocytes (more than
anemia on a blood smear? five lobes)
404. With what autosomal dominant disease Gardner's syndrome
do you see osteomas in the mandible and
maxilla, epidermoid cysts, and edematous
polyps in the GI tract?

405. What X-linked recessive disease Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

involves a decrease in hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT), mental
retardation, self-mutilation, choreoathetosis,
and spasticity and an increase in uricemia?

406. In what X-linked recessive disease is G-6-PD deficiency (glucose-6-phosphate

there a decrease in the hexose monophosphate dehydrogenase deficiency)
(HMP) shunt, along with Heinz body
formation?

407. What illegal drug can cause Cocaine

rhabdomyolysis, myocardial infarction,
cerebral infarct, and lethal cardiac arrhythmias?

408. What type of metal poisoning causes Lead

mental retardation, somnolence, convulsions,
and encephalopathy?
409. What type of acute metal poisoning Mercury
involves stomach and colon erosion and acute
tubular necrosis?
410. What enzyme level increases in hours Creatinine phospholanase (CPK)
and falls 24 to 48 hours after a myocardial
infarction?

411. What form of infectious endocarditis is Acute infectious endocarditis

most likely to metastasize?
412. What is the terminology for the Benign nephrosclerosis
secondary disease of benign hypertension in
the kidney?

413. What is the term for the appearance of Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has
petechiae on its surface)?

414. What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis Onion skinning

of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to
malignant hypertension?

415. What form of angina pectoris is Stable angina (S-T depressions are seen on EKG.)
classically brought on by exercise or by an
elevated heart rate?

416. What form of angina pectoris is the Unstable angina

most serious and is referred to as "preinfarction
angina"?

417. What marker increases in 12 hours, Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)-1 > 2

peaks in 48 to 72 hours, and falls in 1 to 2
weeks after an MI?

418. What form of angina pectoris is caused Prinzmetal's angina (variant). S-T elevations are seen
by coronary artery vasospasms? on EKG.

419. What test uses p24 protein when ELISA test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test)
diagnosing HIV?

420. What type of vasculitis occurs in male Buerger's disease

heavy smokers, typically younger than 35 years
of age, that can cause gangrene in the lower
extremities?

421. Low to absent levels of pulmonary NRDS (neonatal respiratory distress syndrome)
surfactant along with hyaline membrane
formation is the hallmark of what?

422. What tumor involves an increase in 5- Carcinoid tumor of the heart

hydroxyindoleacetic acid; is associated with
skin flushing, cramps, diarrhea, and nausea;
and affects the valves on the right side of the
heart along with the endocardium?

423. What disease usually occurs in men in Wegener's granulomatosis

 their 40s who present with persistent
pneumonia, chronic sinusitis, renal disease, and
mucosal alterations, and show an increase in
cytoplasmic antineutrophilic cytoplasmic
antibodies (C-ANCAs)?

424. What bronchogenic carcinoma is Squamous cell carcinoma

commonly associated with Addison's disease?

425. What disease involves a weakened Takayasu's arteritis (pulseless disease)

pulse and hypotension in the upper extremities,
visual problems, and dizzy spells and occurs in
Asian females who are 15 to 45 years of age?

426. What bronchogenic carcinoma occurs Small-cell carcinoma (oat cell)

most commonly in men and smokers; is found
centrally; and can have eetopic production of
adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) or
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

427. What disease, diagnosed by exclusion, Sarcoidosis

involves bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and
noncaseating granulomas in many organs and
is most commonly seen in black women?

428. What causes a nutmeg liver? Right-sided heart failure

429. What bronchogenic carcinoma is Squamous cell carcinoma

associated with an elevated level of Cat+,
involves keratin pearls, occurs in men more
than women, is associated with smoking,
occurs in the major bronchi, and is seen in the
central areas of the lung?

430. What GI pathology involves a loss of Celiac disease

villi and a decrease in the absorptive area due
to gluten sensitivity?

431. What tumor spreads via the lymphatic Krukenberg's tumor

system into the peritoneum, rectal shelf, and
both ovaries, secondary to metastatic gastric
carcinoma?

432. What is necrosis and distortion of liver Cirrhosis

architecture with nodular regeneration and
fibrosis known as?

433. What autosomal dominant syndrome Familial poly posis coli

 involves 1000 or more edematous polyps, most
commonly affects the colorectal area, and is
associated with chromosome 5q21?

434. What autosomal dominant disease Tylosis

involves hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles
in association with esophageal carcinoma?

435. What primary carcinoma is associated Gastric carcinoma

with signet ring cells?

436. What liver pathology involves an Chronic alcoholism

increase in AST, GGT, Mallory bodies, fatty
change, and micronodular cirrhosis?

437. What pigment, called the "aging Lipofuscin

pigment," is due to free radical injury and lipid
peroxidation and is seen in brown atrophy?
438. In what rare autosomal recessive Chediak-Higashi syndrome
disorder do you see neutropenia, defective
degranulation, and delayed microbial killing
due to a problem in chemotaxis and migration?

439. What causes platelets to bind to the von Willebrand's factor (factor VIII)
collagen of the basement membrane?

440. What are the three causes of transudate? 1. CHF 2. Cirrhosis 3. Nephrosis

441. What are the three platelet aggregating 1. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) 2. Prostaglandin 3.
factors? Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)

442. What is the triad of fat embolism? 1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurs
within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g., long
bone fracture)

443. What are the three Bs of adult 1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
polycystic kidneys?

444. In what disease do you see horseshoe Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)
kidneys, rockerbottom feet, low-set ears,
micrognathia, and mental retardation?

445. What genetic disease has an increased Klinefelter's syndrome

risk for developing carcinoma of the breast?

446. What disease involves microcephaly, Patau's syndrome (trisomy 13)

mental retardation, cleft lip or palate, and
dextrocardia?
447. What disease, caused by decompression Caisson's disease
sickness, leads to multiple foci of ischemic
necrosis that affect the head of the femur,
humerus, and tibia?

448. What disease involves mental Down syndrome (trisomy 21)

retardation, flat face, muscle hypotonia, and a
"double-bubble" sign on an x-ray and poses an
increased risk of Alzheimer's disease and acute
lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

449. What disease involves a patient with Sjogren's disease

dry eyes and dry mouth; is associated with
other collagen vascular diseases and B cell
dysfunction; occurs in women more than men;
and poses an increased risk of the patient
developing a high-grade B cell lymphoma?

450. What are the two most common viral 1. CMV retinitis 2. HSV-2
infections in HIV?

451. What is the most common opportunistic Toxoplasmosis

infection of the CNS in HIV?

452. What are the four DNA oncogenic 1. HPV (human papilloma virus) 2. EBV (Epstein-Barr
viruses? virus) 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi's sarcoma- HSI/?

453. What disease is X-linked recessive, Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

presents with eczema thrombocytopenia and an
increased chance of developing recurrent
infections, involves a decrease in serum IgM
and in the T cell-dependent paracortical areas
of the lymph nodes, and means that the patient
is likely to develop malignant lymphoma?
454. What type of erythema do you see in: Erythema nodosum
Ulcerative colitis?

455. Rheumatic fever? Erythema marginatum

456. Stevens-Johnson syndrome? Erythema multiforme
457. What is the triad of meningitis? 1. Fever 2. Headache 3. Stiff neck (Nausea,
photophobia, and irritability are also commonly seen
in patients with meningitis.)

458. What carcinoma in the thyroid involves Medullary carcinoma

stromal amyloidosis and an excessive release
of calcitonin?
459. What is the name for an adenoma in the Conn's syndrome
adrenal glands that causes elevated levels of
aldosterone?

460. What type of pancreatic tumor has the Insulinoma

following common signs: hypoglycemia,
hunger, sweating, tremors, seizures, and coma?

461. The most common causes of Staphylococcus aureus

osteomyelitis: Overall?

462. In neonates? Streptococcus agalactiae

463. In patients with sickle cell disease? Staphylococcus aureu.s (but they are more prone to
developing salmonella infections)

464. In drug addicts? P.seudomonas

465. What renal disease in diabetic patients Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease

is seen as a halo of capillaries around the
mesangial nodules?

466. With what pancreatic tumor do you see Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) tumor of the
watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and pancreas
achlorhydria?

467. What are the four most common causes 1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell
of femoral head necrosis? anemia

468. What bone pathology is associated with Osteosarcoma

teenagers, occurrence in men more than
women, hematogenous spread to the lungs, and
Codman's triangle on an x-ray?

469. What is the collapse of the vertebral Pott's disease

body due to Tb known as?

470. What pathology is associated with Chondrosarcoma

cartilage formation in the bone of the jaw,
shoulder, and pelvic girdle and presents in
middle age?

471. What disease is found in persons in the Giant cell tumor of the bone
20- to 40-year-old age range; affects women
more than men; occurs at the epiphysis of the
knee; and is seen as a "soap bubble"
appearance on an x-ray?
472. What disease is seen in the first or Ewing's sarcoma
second generations; is associated with
chromosome 11,22; affects men more than
women; and has pseudorosettes and an onion-
skin layering formation?

473. What joint is affected causing osteoarthritis?

Heberden's nodes in

474. Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint Osteomalacia

(Bouchard's nodes are in the proximal
interphalangeal [PIP] joint)
475. What vitamin D deficiency leads to a
softening of the bone causing
demineralization?

476. Podagra, tophi in the ear, and Gout

polymorphonucleocytes (PMNs) with
monosodium urate crystals are associated with
what pathology?

477. With what pathology are bamboo spine Ankylosis spondylitis

on an x-ray and the haplotype HLA-B27
associated?

478. With what pathology is deposition of Pseudogout

calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than
50 years of age associated?

479. What childhood pathology involves Rickets

anterior bowing of the tibia, epiphyseal
enlargements, and costochondral widening with
the endochondral bones being affected?

480. What is the triad of Reiter's syndrome? 1. Peripheral arthritis 2. Conjunctivitis 3.

Nongonococcal urethritis

481. What is the most common organ Kidney

involved in amyloidosis?

482. What disease involves a failure of the DiGeorge's syndrome

third and fourth pharyngeal pouches to
develop, with a lack of T cell immunity causing
a poor defense response to certain fungal and
viral infections and tetany?

483. What disease involves a lack of both T Severe combined immunodeficiency

cell-mediated and Immoral immune responses
 that can be either X-linked or autosomal
recessive?

484. What pathology involves excessive Scleroderma

fibrosis throughout the body via increased
fibro- blast activity, occurs in women more
than men, and is most commonly seen in the
third to the fifth decade?

485. What disease arises from the adrenal Neuroblastoma

medulla, displaces and crosses the midline,
metastasizes early, is the most common solid
tumor, and is seen in the 2- to 4-year-old age
group?

486. What tumor is seen in the 2- to 4-year- Wilms' tumor

old age group; does not cross the midline; has
immature glomeruli, tubules, and stroma; and
metastasizes late to the lungs?

487. What disease is characterized by a Paget's disease of the bone

mosaic pattern of bone marrow replacement;
involves high-output cardiac failure; and occurs
in women more than men and in people older
than 40 years of age?

488. What disease has the following
characteristics: occurrence in women more than
men; involvement of the second or third
generation; positive ANAs; joint pain; skin
rash in a malar distribution; diffuse proliferate
GN; Libman- Sacks endocarditis; and
neurologic disorders?
SLE : MD SOAP N HAIR (malar rash; discoid lesion;
serologic; oligoarthritis; ANA positive;
pleuritis/pericarditis; neurologic complications;
hematologic [leukopenia/thrombocytopenia];
anticardiolipin antibodies; 3 & immunologic; and
renal)

Microbiology and Immune

489. What bacteria constitute the most Pseudomonas
common cause of nosocomial infections in
burn patients and in patients with cystic
fibrosis?

490. What infective bacteria are found in Escherichia coli strain 0157:H7ss
undercooked hamburgers?

491. What organism is said to have a Malassezia furfur

"spaghetti and meatball" arrangement under a
microscope?
492. What fungus is associated with rose Sporothrix schenckii
gardener's disease?

493. What organism is associated with Legionella

pneumonia acquired from air conditioners?

494. What species of bacteria is associated Bordetella pertussis

with whooping cough?

495. What two bacteria are associated with 1. Brucella 2. Listeria (has tumbling motility)
drinking unpasteurized milk?

496. What organism is associated with Helicobacter pylori

gastritis and ulcers?

497. What species of bacteria is associated Escherichia coli (enterotoxic)

with traveler's diarrhea?

498. With what organism is "currant jelly" Klebsiella pneumoniae

sputum associated?

499. What is the most common cause of Salmonella enteritidis

enterocolitis?
500. What organism is so infective that it Shigella
takes only 1 to 10 organisms to cause an
infection?
501. What organism stains bipolar and Yersinia pesos
causes buboes?
502. Rice water stools are indicative of what Vibrio cholerae
organism?
503. With what organism are intracellular Neisseria gonorrhoeae
gram-negative inclusions in neutrophils
associated?
504. What organism is most likely to cause Pasteurella
an infection if you are bitten by a dog or a cat
505. What organism is associated with a Salnwnella typhi
rigid belly and rose spots on the belly?

506. What organism will cause an infection Vibrio parahaemolyticus

if undercooked or raw seafood is eaten?

507. What organism is likely to infect you if Vibrio vulnificus

you get cut by a shell at the beach?

508. What fungus is seen as colored Chromomycosis

cauliflower lesions?
509. What fungus is found in soil with bird Histoplasma capsulatum
or bat feces?
510. Which organism causes San Joaquin Coccidioides immitis
fever?

511. What fungus causes endocarditis in IV Candida albicans

drug users?

512. What fungus is found in pigeon Cryptococcus neoformans

droppings?

513. What fungus is stained positive with

India ink? Cryptococcus neoforrnans

514. What virus is the most common Rhiuovirus

causative agent of the common cold in the
summer and the fall?

515. To what family of viruses do dengue, Flavivirus

St. Louis, and yellow fever belong?

516. What is the name of the bullet-shaped Rhabdovirus

virus?

517. What virus is responsible for causing Paraiuflueuza virus

the croup and also the common cold in the
young and the old?

518. What is the causative agent of orchitis, Mumps virus

parotids, and pancreatitis?

519. What virus causes hoof-and-mouth Vesicular stomatitis virus

disease?

520. What is the most common cause of Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
pneumonia in children 1 year old or younger?

521. What virus is the most common cause Coronavinzs

of the common cold in the winter and early
spring?

522. What is the most common cause of Rotavirus

diarrhea in infants?

523. What two viruses cause pancreatitis? 1. Mumps 2. Coxsackie B40

524. With what two viruses are Reye's 1. Varicella virus 2. Influenza virus
syndrome associated?
525. What is the most common cause of Streptococcus agalactiae or Escherichia Coli
meningitis in: Children younger than 3 months
of age?

526. What is the most common cause of Haemophilus influenzae type b

meningitis in: Non-immunized children 12
months to 6 years old?

527. What is the most common cause of Streptococcus pneumoniae

meningitis in: Immunized children 12 months
to 6 years old?

528. What is the most common cause of Neisseria meningitidis

meningitis in: Military recruits?

529. What is the most common cause of Cryptococcus neoformans

meningitis in: HIV+/immunocompromised
persons?

530. What is the most common cause of Streptococcus pneumonia

meningitis in: Adults?

531. What is the most common cause of RSV

bronchiolitis in children?

532. What is the most common cause of Escherichia coli

urinary tract infections?

533. Which three organisms cause 1. CMV 2. Toxoplasma gondii 3. Listeria

heterophilic negative mononucleosis?

534. What two genera are spore formers? 1. Clostridia 2. Bacillus

535. What bacteria are responsi- ble for Bacillus anthracis

woolsorters' disease?

536. What is the most common cause of Streptococcus pneumoniae

bacterial pneumonia?

537. What bacteria cause subacute Streptococcus viridans

endocarditis and dental caries?

538. What bacteria are responsible for food Bacillus cereus

poisoning from rice, fried rice, and reheated
foods?

539. Which bacteria present as a common Listeria

cause of meningitis in renal transplant patients?
540. What bacteria get inoculated into the Clostridium tetani
body by a puncture wound in the skin and also
inhibit glycine and GABA?

541. What bacteria are found in poorly Clostridium botulinum

preserved canned food and cause flaccid
paralysis?

542. What bacteria cause myonecrosis? Clostridium perfringens

543. What bacteria cause Clostridium difficile

pseudomembranous colitis?

544. What bacteria are associated with food Staphylococcus aureus

poisoning from ham, potato salad, and
custards?

545. Which organism causes Lyme disease? Borrelia burgdorferi

546. Which organism causes Weil's disease? Leptospira

547. What organism causes Q fever? Coxiella burnetii

548. Which agent causes pneumonia in Mycoplasma pneumonia

college students and military recruits?

549. What is the tetrad of Jarisch- Rigors, leukopenia, decrease in blood pressure, and
Herxheimer reaction? increase in temperature

550. Which spirochete causes Rocky Rickettsia rickettsii (wrist to trunk rash)
Mountain spotted fever?

551. Which organism causes trench fever? Rochalimaea quintana

552. Which organism causes pneumonia in Chlamydia psittaci

bird owners?

553. Which virus is associated with hairy T HTLV-I and HTLV-II

cell leukemia?

554. What is the drug of choice to treat: Vidarabine

HSV encephalitis?
555. What is the drug of choice to treat: RSV Ribavirin
pneumonia?

556. What is the drug of choice to treat: Ganciclovir

CMV retinitis/infection?
557. What is the drug of choice to treat: Amantadine
Influenza A?

558. What is the drug of choice to treat: Acyclovir

HSV?
559. What is the drug of choice to treat: Interferon alpha
HPV?
560. What three organs can be affected by 1. Heart 2. Esophagus 3. Colon Remember-you get
Trypanoaoma cruzi? "megas:" 1. Cardiomegaly 2. Megaesophagus 3.
Megacolon

561. What organism causes kala-azar, which Leishmania donovani

is associated with hyperpigmentation of the
skin, enlargement of the spleen, and decreased
bone marrow activity?
562. What people are "protected" from People with heterogenous sickle cell trait
malaria?
563. What types of Plasmodium produce Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale
latent hypnozoites in the liver, which can cause
a relapse?
564. What organism is associated with liver Entamoeba histolytica
abscess, t ulcers, and perforated diaphragms?
565. What three carcinomas are associated 1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharvngeal 3. Thymic
with EBV?
566. What protein of the HIV virus is used to P24
detect if a patient is HIV-positive by ELISA?
567. With what virus do you see Koplik's Rubeola (measles)
spots and Worthin- Finkeldy cells, and possibly
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis?
568. What is the most common viral cause of Coxsackie B
myocarditis?
569. What virus, which creates painful Herpes simplex II
vesicular lesions, is a cause of aseptic
meningitis?
570. What type of hepatitis has the highest Hepatitis E
mortality rate among pregnant women?
571. What IIPV is the causative agent of HPV 6 and 11
anogenital warts?
572. What parasite can cause vitamin B12 Diphyllobothrium latum
deficiencies?
573. What viral infection is associated with Yellow Fever (flavivirus)
black vomit?
574. What immunoglobulin is the first IgM
antibody in an immune response?
575. What is the major antibody of external IgA
secretions?
576. What is the major antibody of internal IgG
 secretions (blood, CSF, lymph)?
577. What type of hypersensitivity involves Type II hypersensitivity
autoimmune hemolytic anemia,
erythroblastosis fetalis, Goodpasture's
syndrome, parasitic killing, Graves' disease,
and myasthenia gravis?
578. What type of hypersensitivity involves Type I hypersensitivity
systemic anaphylaxis and skin and food
allergies?
579. What type of hypersensitivity is Type I hypersensitivity
mediated by IgE?

580. What form of hypersensitivity includes Type II hypersensitivity

IgG- or IgM-activating phagocytosis,
complement, or antibody-dependent cell-
mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
581. What type of hypersensitivity involves Type III hypersensitivity
the antigen-antibody complex and activates
complement, leading to tissue injury?
582. What type of hypersensitivity involves Type III hypersensitivity
serum sickness, SLE, Arthus reaction, and
acute glomerulonephritis?
583. What type of hypersensitivity involves Type IV hypersensitivity
a Tb test, viral infections, graft rejections, and
tumor-associated antigen?
584. What form of hypersensitivity involves Type IV hypersensitivity
T cell-mediated cytotoxicity?
585. What X-linked recessive disease X-linked agammaglobulinemia
involves failure of maturation of pre-B cells
with no surface immunoglobulins, leading to
recurrent pyogenic infections in infants?
586. What AR disease involves a lack of Phenylketonuria (PKU)
phenylalanine hydroxylase?
587. What disease is seen in children Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
younger than 5 years of age; X-linked
recessive, cardiac myopathies; calf
pseudohypertrophy; lordosis; protuberant
bellies; an increase then a decrease in CPK;
and death in the second generation of life?

588. What disease involves "cold" skin Job's syndrome

abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil
chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than
2000?
589. What AR disease contains the most Myeloperoxidase deficiency
common neutrophil defect?
590. What disease involves an adenosine Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
deaminase deficiency, B and T cell deficiency,
 and defective IL-2 receptors?
591. What AR disease presents with B and T Ataxia-telangiectasia
cell deficiencies, lymphopenia, an IgA
deficiency, cerebellar problems, and spider
angiomas?
592. What disease involves a deficiency in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
IgM; elevated IgA; normal IgG; and recurrent
pyogenic infections, especially from
pneumococci; and thrombocytopenia?
593. What syndrome in children involves Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome
hypofunction of the adrenal glands due to
bilateral hemorrhagic infarctions, which are
most commonly associated with
meningococcemia?
594. What thyroid carcinoma presents with Papillary carcinoma of die thyroid
psammoma bodies?
595. In what disease do you see a large, Riedel's thyroiditis
hard, fibrous proliferation of the connective
tissue of the thyroid?
596. What are low levels of Ca2+ and P04 Hypoparathyroidism
along with neuromuscular irritability signs of?
597. What pathology has the following Pheochromocytoma
signs: severe headache, palpitations with or
without tachycardia, diaphoresis, anxiety,
nervousness, and hypertensive episodes?
598. What pathology has the following Primary hyperparathyroidism
signs: elevated levels of Cat+, cardiac
arrhythmias, bone resorption, kidney stones,
and metastatic calcifications?
599. What adrenal pathology presents with Addison's disease
hypotension, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and
hyperkalemia along with skin pigmentation and
associated with micro cardia ?
600. What disease, with familial mental Fragile X syndrome
retardation, presents with large everted ears and
macroorchidism?
601. What ovarian pathology is associated Dysgerminoma
with Turner's syndrome or malformation of the
genitals and comprises 50% of all malignant
germ cell tumors?
602. What AR disease involves a deficiency Gaucher's disease
in glucocerebrosidase,a huge spleen, and
engorged phagocytic cells and is associated
with chromosome 1?
603. What disease, with an abnormality in Osteogenesis imperfecta
collagen type I, presents with "blue sclera"?
604. What cell consists of a binucleate giant Reed-Sternberg cells
cell with eosinophilic inclusions?
605. What disease involves bilateral, Polycystic ovaries
enlarged, pale ovaries and presents with
infertility, hirsutism, obesity, secondary
amenorrhea with elevated levels of LH,
testosterone, and low levels of FSH?
606. What AR disease involves a deficiency Albinism
in tyrosinase, poses an increased risk of
developing basal cell or squamous cell
carcinoma, and is associated with chromosome
llp?
607. What is the most common fatal Cystic fibrosis
recessive disease in whites?
608. What AR disease has a deficiency in Alkaptonuria
homogentisic oxidase that causes brittle,
fibrillated articular cartilage, blue-black
pigmentation of collagen, and urine that turns
black upon standing?
609. What AR disease involves a decreased Niemann-Pick disease
amount of sphingomyelinase, massive
organomegaly, zebra bodies, and foamy
histiocytes microscopically and is associated
with chromosome llp?
610. What disease has multiple Neurofibromatosis I (chromosome 22q is with
schwannomas, cafe au lait spots on the skin, neurofibromatosis II and no Lisch nodules either)
and Lisch nodules and is associated with
chromosome 17q?
611. Name the AD disease associated with Marfan's syndrome
chromosome 15 in which the patient has long
extremities, lax joints, pigeon chest, and
posterior mural leaflet prolapse, and is prone to
developing dissecting aortic aneurysm?
612. What AR disease involves a defect in Cystic fibrosis (Parents are usually the first to find out
amino acid 508 on chromosome 7, causing a because the baby tastes salty.)
defect in Cl- transportation that leads to
recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase
in viscid mucoid secretions along with
pancreatic insufficiencies?
613. What AD disease, associated with Familial hypercholesterolemia
chromosome 19, involves a defect in the LDL
receptors, leading to skin and tendon
xanthomas?
614. In what syndrome does the patient have von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
angiomatosis; renal cell carcinomas;
pheochromocytomas; retinal, cerebellar,
medulla, or spinal cord hemangioblastomas;
and epidermal cysts?
615. What AD disease is associated with Huntington's disease
chromosome 4p; does not present until the
 person is in his or her 30s; and involves
atrophy of the caudate nucleus, dilatation of the
lateral and third ventricles, and signs of
extrapyramidal lesions?
616. What spinal cord pathology is caused Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)-Lou Gehrig's
by a degeneration of the cortical spinals, disease
leading to weakness, fasciculations,
hyperreflexia, and spasticity?
617. What are the two reasons for 1. Vitamin B12 deficiency 2. Folate deficiency
megaloblastic anemia with elevated mean
corpuscular volume (MCV)?
618. What are the five reasons for 1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia
normochromic normocytic anemia with a 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte
count?
619. What are the four reasons for 1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e., porphyrin and heme
hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low synthesis disorders) 2. Thalassemia 3. Iron deficiency
MCV? 4. Lead poisoning
620. What are the three causes for 1. Marrow failure 2. Cancer 3. Leukemia
normochromic normocytic anemia with a
normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
621. What CNS tumor is seen in persons Glioblastoma multiforme
between 40 and 50 years of age; occurs in men
more than women; affects the cerebral brain
stem; is GFAP-positive; has a poor prognosis;
and microscopically displays
pseudopalisades,increased cellularity,
pleomorphism, neovascularization, and
necrosis?
622. What CNS pathology has a protracted Oligodendroglioma
history of seizures, occurs in the 30- to 40-
year-age range, and microscopically involves
"fried egg" cells?
623. In what disease do you see atrophy of Pick's disease
the frontal and temporal lobes ("walnut
brain")?
624. What disease affects the basal ganglia Parkinson's disease
and the substantia nigra, produces cogwheel
rigidity, mask-like faces, and resting tremors;
and reveals Lewy bodies microscopically?
625. What pathology has bilateral Multiple sclerosis
periventricular plaques, perivascular
inflammation, and demyelination and is
thought to be autoimmune or brought on by a
viral infection?
626. What is the most common Ependymoma
intramedullary spinal cord tumor?
627. hat common cause of hypogonadism in Klinefelter's syndrome
 men involves testicular atrophy, azoospermia,
gynecomastia, and Barr bodies?
628. What is the syndrome associated with Turner's syndrome
women of short stature with a web neck, a low
posterior hairline, streaky ovaries, and
preductal coarctation of the aorta?
629. What syndrome has the following Nephritic syndrome
components: hypertension, proteinuria,
hematuria, azotemia, and oliguria?
630. What type of glomerular nephritis (GN) Postinfectious glomerular nephritis
occurs most commonly in children after a
pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune
complex mediated; and is seen as "lumpy-
bumpy" subepithelial deposits?
631. In what type of GN, seen in the 2- to 6- Minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis)
year-old age group, is there albuminuria and
effacement of the visceral epithelial foot
process with no deposits?
632. What type of GN, associated with celiac
disease and dermatitis herpetiformis, has Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy)
mesangial deposits of IgA, C3, properdin, IgG,
and IgM?
633. What pathology has pulmonary and Goodpasture's syndrome
renal basement membrane involvement and
crescent formation and involves type II
hypersensitivity?
634. What form of GN is characteristically Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
associated with crescent formation?
635. What type of GN has C3, IgG, C1q, C4 MPGN type I (two thirds of the MPGN cases)
along with subendothelial deposits?
636. A herniation of the brain through a Fungus cerebri
defect in the skull is known as what?
637. What is it called when the posterior Tonsillar herniation
cerebellar mass pushes the tonsils through the
foramen magnum?
638. What form of lymphoma is diffuse in Small-cell lymphoma
the lymph node, has an IgM spike, slowly
evolves to chronic lymphocytic leukemia
(CLL), is seen in the old, and also has liver,
spleen, and bone marrow involvement?

1. What lymphoma arises from germinal follicles 1. Follicular lymphoma

and is associated with proto- oncogene bcl-2
due to translocation of chromosome 14,18?
2.
2. What lymphoma is a diffusely mixed, diffusely Diffuse aggressive lymphoma
large cell that grows rapidly and consists
mainly of B cells along with "null" cells?
3. What lymphoma forms 30% of childhood Burkett's lymphoma
lymphomas, is linked to EBV, is associated
with chromosome 8,14q translocation, and has
a "starry sky" pattern of involvement on a
histologic section?

4. What variant of small lymphocytic lymphoma Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

has a slow course and elevated levels of IgM
that lead to hyperviscosity syndrome and
blindness?

5. What AR disease involves a deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease

hexosaminidase A and cherry red spots on the
retina; is seen more commonly in Jewish
people; and is associated with chromosome
15q?

6. Name the condition described by the following: Multiple endocrine neoplasia, type I (MEN I)-
Adenomas of the thyroid, parathyroid, and Wermer's syndrome
adrenal cortex along with Zollinger-Ellison
syndrome?

7. Pheochromocytoma, medullary carcinoma of MEN Ila-Sipple's syndrome

the thyroid, and adenoma of the parathyroid?

8. What leukemia is associated with a Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

chromosome 9,22 translocation; constitutes
80% of childhood leukemias; and has blasts
with PAS-positive material and terminal
deoxy-transferase (TdT) marker present?

9. What leukemia is seen in the 15- to 39-year-old Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)
age group, has blasts with myeloperoxidase-
positive granules, tends to invade tissues, and is
associated with a poor prognosis?

10. What leukemia is seen in the 25- to 60-year-old Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
age group and is associated with chromosome
9,22 translocation, bcr-abl oncogene, and blast
crisis?

11. What leukemia is the most indolent of all Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
leukemias; affects persons older than 55 years
of age; and is associated with trisomy 12 (Hint:
95% are B cell neoplasms.)?

12. What is the drug of choice for status Diazepam

 epilepticus?

13. What is the commonly IV opioid used in Fentanyl

surgery?

14. Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of Propofol

postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of
recovery?

15. What is the drug of choice for amebic Metronidazole

dysentery caused by Bacillus fragil%s?

16. What is the only form of insulin that can be Regular insulin
given IV?

17. What antimicrobial agent's major side effect is: Chloramphenicol

Gray baby syndrome?

18. What condition involves high urine flow, low Diabetes insipidus (lose water)
urine osmolarity, low ECF volume, high ECF
osmolarity, low ICF volume, and high ICF
osmolarity?

19. When do you see low urine flow, high urine SIADH (water retention)
osmolarity, high ECF volume, low ECF
osmolarity (low Na+), high ICF volume, and
low ICF osmolarity?

20.

Medical Buzzwords part 3

1. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules diabetic nephropathy
2. Minimal change disease cancer association Hodgkin's lymphoma
3. c-ANCA Wegener's
4. p-ANCA (2) Churg-Strauss, Microscopic polyangitis

5. X-linked, type IV collagen disorder alport (hematuria, sensory hearing loss, ocular
changes)

6. cloudy urine, positive leukocyte esterase, cystitis

nitrites

7. wilm's tumor with muscular hemihypertrophy beckwith-wiedemann

8. painless hematuria urothelial (transitional) carcinoma
9. Boot shaped heart Tetralogy of Fallot
10. Duodenal atresia is associated with what Down syndrom
syndrome
11. Double bubble sign Duodenal atresia
12. FAP with fibromatosis and osteomas Gardner syndrome
13. FAP with CNS tumors Turcot syndrome
14. Decreased ADAMTS13 TTP
15. What microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is HUS
usually seen in children with E coli O157 H7
dysentery
16. Folate is absorbed where Jejunum
17. Intrinsic factor-Vit B12 complex are absorbed Ileum
where

Most Common
1. Most Common Cause of Worm Infection : Pinworms – Ascaris
2. Most Common Cause of Viral Encephalitis : Herpes Simpli Virus
3. Most Common Cause of ViraL Meningitis : Coxsackie or Echovirus groups of
enteroviruses
4. Most Common Cause Bacterial Meningitis in Elderly is strep. Pneumonia
5. Most Common Cause of Meningitis in Newborns : Group B streptt.
6. Most Common Cause of Meningitis in Children : Streptt. Pneumonia
7. Most Common Cause of Meningitis in Young Adults (Teen) : Neisseria Meningitidis
8. Most Common Type of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma Mxied Cellularity & Best Prognosis is
Lymphatic
9. Predominant.
10. Most Common Type of Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma : B-cell lymphomas
11. Most Common Thyroid disease : Goiter
12. Most Common site of Atherosclerosis : Carotid Bifurcation
13. Most Common Surgical emergency : Acute Appendicitis
14. Most Common site of Diverticula : Sigmoid Colon
15. Most Common Cause of SIADH : Small Cell CA of the Lung
16. Most Common Cause of Death in DKA pt. : Cerebral Edema
17. Most Common Cause of STDs : Chlamydia
18. Most Common Cause of 2ry HTN : Renal disease
19. Most Common cause of right-sided heart failure : left-sided heart failure (either
systolic or diastolic
20. heart failure)
21. Most Common Cause of Intrinsic RF : Acute Tubular Necrosis
22. Most Common Cause of Acute RF : Pre-Renal Causes
23. Most Common Cause of Chronic RF : Diabetic Nephropathy
24. Most Common Cause of 2ry Pulmonary HTN : COPD
25. Most Common Cause of Protozoal Diarrahea : Giardia
26. Most Common Cause of Portal HTN : Liver Cirrhosis
27. Most Common Cause of Peripheral Neuropathy : D.M
28. Most Common Cause of Opportunistic infection in AIDS : Pneumocystis Carinaii
Pneumonia
29. Most Common Cause Chromosomal Anomaly that cause 1ry Abortion : Trisomy
16
30. (also it is the most common trisomy in human pregnancies)
31. Most Common Cause of 2ry Abortion : Cervical Incompetence
32. Most Common Cause of Post-Partum Hemorrhage : Uterine Atony
33. Most Common Cause of Anti-Partum Hemorrhage :Abraptio Placenta
34. Most Common Cause of Late 2ry Post-Partum Hemorrhage : Retained Placental
Tissue
35. Most Common Cause of Post-Menopausal Bleeding : Atrophic Vaginitis
36. Most Common Cause of Post-Menopausal Bleeding : Atrophic endometritis
37. Most Common Cause of Uterine Tumor : Leiomyoma (Fibroid)
38. Most Common Cause of Death in Pre-eclampsia : Cerebral hemorrhage
39. Most Common Cause of Nephrotic Syndrome : Mininmal Change Dis.
40. Most Common Cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Adults : Focal segmental
glomerulosclerosis
41. Most Common Cause of Myocarditis : Coxsackie A virus
42. Most Common Cause of Mental Retardation : Down’s Syndrome
43. Most Common Cause of Mental Retardation in boys Worldwide : Fragile X
syndrome
44. Most Common Cause of Mental Retardation in boys Worldwide : Down’s
Syndrome
45. Most Common Cause of Liver Infection : Hepatitis A
46. Most Common Cause of Intussuception : Terminal ileum into Cecum
47. Most Common Cause of Hyperthyroidisim : Graves Disease
48. Most Common Cause of Hypothyroidsim in developed countries : Hashimoto’s
Thyroditis
49. Most Common Cause of Hypothyroidsim world wide : Iodine deficiency
50. Most Common Cause of Hypopitutarism in Children : Craniopharyngioma
51. Most Common Cause of HTN is : Eseential HTN
52. Most Common Cause of HTN in children : Renal Parenchymal Dis.
53. Most Common Cause of HTN in Young women : OCPs
54. Most Common Cause of 2ry HTN IS Renal disease .
55. Most Common Cause of Hyperparathyroidisim : Adenoma > Hyperplasia > CA
56. Most Common Cause of Hyperparathyroidisim : CRF
57. Most Common Cause of Hypercalcemia : Hyperparathyroidisim
58. Most Common Cause type of Hernia in males & females : Indirect Inguinal
59. Most Common Cause of Hernia in Females : Indirect Inguinal
60. Most Common Cause of Hernia in Males : Indirect Inguinal
61. Most Common Cause of Hernia in Females : Femoral Hernia
62. Most Common Cause of Hereditary Bleeding Disorders : Von Willebrand’s Dis.
63. Most Common Heart valve involved in RF : Mitral Valve
64. Most Common Heart valve Involved in Bacterioal Endocarditis : Mitral Valve
65. Most Common Heart valve Involved in Bacterioal Endocarditis in IV drug users :
Tricuspid valve
66. Most Common Cause of Heart Murmur is Mitral valve Prolapse
67. Most Common Cause of Glomerulonephritis in Adult : IgA Nephropathy (Berger ’s
Dis)
68. Most Common Cause of Glomerulonephritis in Children : Post-Strepttococal G.N
69. Most Common Cause of GIT obstruction : Adhesions
70. Most Common Cause of Small bowel obstruction : Adhesions
71. Most Common Hernia that cause GI obstruction : Indirect Inguinal Hernia
72. Most Common Protien in Urine w Multiple Myeloma : Bence Jones Protien
73. Most Common Cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia : 21 hydroylase def.
74. Most Common Disk herniation : L4 – L5
75. Most Common Cause of End Stage Kidney Dis : DM
76. Most Common Cause of Dietary Def : Iron
77. Most Common Cause of Diarrhea in children : Rotavirus
78. Most Common Cause of Demenitia : Alheimer’s Dis.
79. Most Common Cause of Death worldwide : Ischemic Heart Dis.
80. Most Common Cause of Death in SLE pts. : Lupus Nephropathy Type 4 : Diffuse
Proliferating
81. Most Common Cause of Death in HTN pts. : Acute MI
82. Most Common Cause Silent Asymptomatic MI : DM
83. Most Common Cause of Death in Alheimer’s pts. : Aspiration Pneumonia
84. Most Common Cause of Death in Stroke pts. : Aspiration Pneumonia
85. Most Common Cause of Cushing Syndrome : Eogenous Steroid Therapy
86. Most Common Cause of Coronary Art. Thrombosis : Left Ant. Descending Art.
87. Most Common Cause of Cyanotic Heart Dis. : TOF
88. Most Common Cause of Congenital Heart Dis, : VSD ( Membranous)
89. Most Common Cause GIT anomaly : Meckel Diverticulum
90. Most Common Cause Liver Cirrhosis in Western communities : Alchohol
91. Most Common Cause Liver Cirrhosis in Jordan : Hepatitis B
92. Most Common Chromosomal disorder : Down’s Syndrome
93. Most Common Carpal Bone Fracture : Scaphoid Bone
94. Most Common Cause of Mets. For any CA : Regional Lymph Node
95. Most Common Cause Mets. After Regional L.N : Liver
96. Most Common Cause of Leukemia in all children : ALL
97. Most Common Cause of Leukemia/Malignancy in elderly : CLL
98. Most Common Cause of Gynecological Malignancy : Endometrial CA
99. Most Common Surgical Gynecological proplem : Utrine Fibroid
100. Number of the Chromosome involved in Cystic Fibrosis : Ch. 7
101. Most Common Cause Blindness is Diabetic Retinopathy
102. Most Common Breast Mass in young age is Fibroadenoma
103. Most Common Cause of Acute Infective Endocrditis : Staph Aureus
104. Most Common Cause of Subacute Acute Infective Endocrditis : Staph Viridans
105. Most Common Cause Bacterial Arthritis in Young age : Nisseria Gonorrhea
106. Most Common Cause of Nosocomial Pneumonia : Staph. Aureus
107. Most Common Cause of Epiglotittis : Haemophillus Influena Type B
108. Most Common Cause of Otitis Media : Streptt. Pneumonia
109. Most Common Cause of Food Poisoning : Staph Aureus
110. Most Common GIT microflora : Bacteriodes
111. Most Common Cause of Sepsis in IV drug abuser : Staph. Aureus
112. Most Common Cause of Pneumonia in IV drug Abuser : Staph. Aureus
113. Most Common Cause of PID : Chlamydia
114. Most Common Cause of Community Acquired Pneumonia : Streptt. Pneumonia
115. Most Common Cause of Nosocomial Infection : UTI
116. Most Common Cause of Atypical Pneumonia : Mycoplasma
117. Most Common Cancer of Pancreas : Adenocarcinoma
118. Most Common Cause of Pancreas CA ; Head
119. Most Common Pituitary Mass : Prolactinoma
120. Most Common Benign Mass of Placenta : Haemangioma
121. Most Common Cause Salivary Gland CA : Pliemorphic Adenoma
122. Most Common Skin CA : Basal Skin CA
123. Most Common Stomach CA : Adenocarcinoma
124. Most Common Testicular : Seminoma
125. Most Common Thyroid CA : Papillary CA
126. Most Common Malignant Lymphoma in Children : Burkitt’s Lymphoma
127. Most Common Cause of Addison’s Disease : AI
128. Most Common Cause of Acute MI in Children : Kawasaki Dis
129. Most Common Site of Aneyrysm : Abdominal Aorta
130. Most Common Cause of Subarachnoid Hge : Aneurysm of Circle of Willis
131. Most Common Cause of Epidural (Etradural) Hge : Head Trauma
132. Most Common Cause of Subdural Hge
133. Source of Bleeding in Epidural Haematoma : Middle Meningeal Artery
134. Source of Bleeding in Subdural Haematoma : Bridging Viens
135. Subdural Haematoma in MRI : Crescent Shape
136. Epiadural Hematoma in MRI : Biconcave Shape
137. Most Common Cancer in Infancy is Hemangioma
138. Most Common Cause of Abdominal mass in Newborn : Hydronephrosis
139. Most Common Cause of Abdominal mass in Children < 1 year : Neuroblastoma
140. Most Common Cause of Abdominal mass in Children > 1 year : Wilm’s Tumor
141. Most Common Cause of men in Jordan : Colon
142. Most Common Cause of men in International : Prostate
143. Most Common Cause in Women : Breast CA
144. Most Common Benign Tumor in Women : Leimyoma (Fibroid)
145. Most Common Breast CA : Infiltrating Ductal Adenocarcinoma
146. Most Common Liver CA : Metastasis
147. Most Common 1ry Liver CA : HCC
148. Most Common Liver CA in children : Hepatoblastoma
149. Most Common Cancer Death worldwide : Lung CA
150. Most Common 1ry Bone CA in Adults & Old Age : Multiple Myeloma
151. Most Common Mets. To Bone CA in males : Prostate CA
152. Most Common Mets. To Bone CA in females : Breast CA
153. Most Common Bone CA in Children : Osteosarcoma
154. Most Common Brain Malignant Tumor in Children : Medulloblastoma in
Cerebellum
155. Most Common Brain Benign Tumor in Children : Pilocytic Astrocytoma
156. Most Common Brain Malignant Tumor in Adult : (Gliomas ; Glioblastoma
Multiform)
157. Most Common Brain Benign Tumor in Adult :
158. Most Common Soft Tissue Mass / C.T tumor : Lipoma
159. Most Common Benign Eosphageal Neoplasm : Leimyoma
160. Most Common Malignant Eosphgeal Neoplasm ; Squamous Cell CA
161. Most Common Site of Squamous Eosphgeal CA : Upper 2/3
162. Most Common Site of Eosphgeal Adenocarcinoma : Upper 1/3
163. Most Common Origin of Mets. To Liver : Lung then GI malignancy
164. Most Common Cancer in Mouth , Anus , Tounge , Mouth : Squamous Cell CA
165. Most Common cause of respiratory distress in newborn : Transient tachypnea of
the newborn
166. Most Common associated anomaly with coarctation : Bicuspid valve
167. Most Common affected joint in gout : First MTP
168. Most Common type of fluid collection in scrotum : Hydrocele
169. Most Common affected bowel segment in TB : Ileocecal area
170. Most Common abdominal emergency of early childhood : Intussusception
171. Most Common bacterial cause of mesenteric adenitis : Yersinia Enterocolitica
172. Most Common benign hepatic lesion : Hemangioma
173. Most Common benign intraconal tumor of the orbit in adults : Cavernous
hemangiomas.
174. Most Common benign testicular mass : Simple cyst
175. Most Common benign tumor of spleen : Hemangioma
176. Most Common benign tumor of the lung : Hamartoma
177. Most Common bilateral testicular tumor : Lymphoma
178. Most Common breast tumor under age 25 years : Fibroadenoma
179. Most Common cardiac manifestation of Systemic Lupus Erythematous :
Pericarditis
180. Most Common cardiac tumor in children : Rhabdomyoma
181. Most Common causative organism of acute pyogenic meningitis in adults : Strep.
Pneumonia
182. Most Common causative organism of neonatal pyogenic meningitis : E. coli
183. Most Common cause for pulmonary edema : Left-sided heart disease
184. Most Common cause non iatrogenic cause of small bowel obstruction : Hernia
185. Most Common cause of a large choroid plexus cyst : Trisomy 18
186. Most Common cause of a large pleural fluid collection in the newborn period :
Chylothorax
187. Most Common cause of acute testicular pain in postpubertal male : Acute
epididymitis
188. Most Common cause of acute testicular pain in prepubertal male : Torsion
189. Most Common cause of bilateral breast edema : CHF
190. Most Common cause of biliary obstruction : Choledocholithiasis
191. Most Common cause of bleeding between menstrual cycles : Endometrial
hyperplasia
192. Most Common cause of bronchopneumonia : Staphylococcal
193. Most Common cause of cancer deaths in males and females : Bronchogenic CA
194. Most Common cause of cause of infectious esophagitis : Candida Esophagitis
195. Most Common cause of cavitary (necrotic) pneumonia in a child : Strep pneum
196. Most Common cause of Charcot joints : Diabetes mellitus
197. Most Common cause of colonic obstruction in adults : Malignancy
198. Most Common cause of colonic obstruction in the infant : Meconium plug
syndrome in CF patients
199. Most Common cause of congenital CNS infection : CMV
200. Most Common cause of congenital duodenal obstruction : Duodenal atresia
201. Most Common cause of cord ischemia : Thromboembolic disease
202. Most Common cause of cyanosis in a child : Tetralogy of Fallot
203. Most Common cause of cyanosis n newborn Transposition of great vessels
204. Most Common cause of dwarfism : Achondroplasia
205. Most Common cause of end-stage renal disease : Diabetic Nephropathy
206. Most Common cause of epididymitis in males aged 15 to 35 years : Sexually
transmitted diseases
207. Most Common cause of facial hemipalsy : Bell palsy
208. Most Common cause of left atrial dilatation : Mitral regurgitation
209. Most Common cause of lower GI bleeding : Diverticulosis
210. Most Common cause of malignancy of men in the world – Bronchogenic CA
211. Most Common cause of membranous croup : Staph. Aureus
212. Most Common cause of Neonatal Pneumonia : Group B streptococcus
213. Most Common cause of nephrocalcinosis in adults : Primary hyperparathyroidism
214. Most Common cause of osteoblastic bone metastases in an adult female : Breast
CA
215. Most Common cause of osteoblastic bone metastases in an adult male : Prostate
CA
216. Most Common cause of renal vein thrombosis in adults : Nephrotic syndrome
217. Most Common cause of squamous cell ca. in the renal pelvis : Chronic Infected
stag horn calculus
218. Most Common cause of testicular swelling : Hydrocele
219. Most Common cause of SVC syndrome : Bronchogenic CA
220. Most Common cause of tricuspid stenosis : Rheumatic heart disease
221. Most Common cause of sudden cardiac death among young people Hypertrophic
Cardiomyopathy
222. (HCM)
223. Most Common cause of toxic mega colon : Pseudomembranous colitis
224. Most Common chest x-ray abnormality in the ICU : Atelectasis
225. Most Common complication of ERCP : Pancreatitis
226. Most Common congenital abnormality of GI tract : Meckel’s diverticulum
227. Most Common congenital anomaly of CNS in live births : Myelomeningocele
228. Most Common congenital defect of CNS : Anencephaly
229. Most Common component of mixed germ cell tumors : Embryonal Cell CA
230. Most Common congenital heart disease : Bicuspid aortic valve.
231. Most Common cranial nerve affected by a pituitary macroadenoma : CN VI
232. Most Common cranial nerve to be affected with schwannoma : VIII
233. Most Common cyanotic congenital heart malformation beyond neonatal period :
TOF
234. Most Common diffuse breast disorder : Fibrocystic disease of breast
235. Most Common cystic tumor of pancreas : Mucinous cystic neoplasm
236. Most Common estrogenic ovarian tumor : Granulosa Cell Tumor
237. Most Common benign ovarian neoplasm in young and middle-aged women (<45
years) : Mature
238. teratoma
239. Most Common Cause of Ovarian CA : Epithelial Serous Cyst Adenocarcinoma
240. Most Common sex cord-stromal cell tumor : Ovarian Fibroma
241. Most Common Benign ovarian neoplasm : Serous Cystadenoma
242. Most Common malignant ovarian neoplasm : Serous Cystadenocarcinoma
243. Most Common etiology for osteomyelitis : Staphylococcus aureus
244. Most Common etiology of bilaterally enlarged, hyperechoic kidneys in newborn
infant : ARPKD.
245. Most Common etiology of mesenteric adenitis : Viral
246. Most Common extra-adrenal site of pheochromocytoma : Organ of Zuckerkandl
247. Most Common extraaxial neoplasm of CNS : Meningioma
248. Most Common etiology of rickets : Vitamin D deficiency
249. Most Common extrapulmonary site of tuberculosis : Urinary tract
250. Most Common form of emphysema in smokers : Centrilobular emphysema
251. Most Common form of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy : Asymmetric involvement of
the
252. interventricular septum
253. Most Common form of systemic vasculitis in adults : Giant cell (temporal) arteritis
254. Most Common functional tumors of the ovary : Sex cord–stromal tumors
255. Most Common germ cell tumor associated with excessive hCG production
:Choriocarcinoma
256. Most Common germ cell tumor associated with excessive hCG production after
choriocarcinoma :
257. Dysgerminoma
258. Most Common GI neoplasm : Adenoma
259. Most Common gynecologic neoplasm : Uterine Leiomyoma
260. Most Common histologic type of bronchogenic carcinoma associated with
cavitation : Squamous
261. Most Common histologic type of bronchogenic carcinoma associated with
pancoast tumor :
262. Squamous
263. Most Common histologic type of bronchogenic carcinoma associated with pleural
effusion :
264. Adenocarcinoma
265. Most Common intramedullary tumor in children : Astrocytoma
266. Most Common intramedullary tumor of adults : Ependymoma
267. Most Common intraocular neoplasm in childhood : Retinoblastoma
268. Most Common intraorbital tumors found in adults : Cavernous hemangiomas
269. Most Common intrathoracic fetal anomaly : Congenital diaphragmatic Hernia
270. Most Common islet cell tumor in MEN 1 : Gastrinoma
271. Most Common islet cell tumor of the pancreas : Insulinoma
272. Most Common liver tumor after metastases : Hemangioma
273. Most Common location for a pilocytic astrocytoma : Cerebellum
274. Most Common location of benign and malignant masses in breast : Upper outer
quadrant
275. Most Common location of an ectopic pregnancy : Ampullary region of the
fallopian tube
276. Most Common location of benign and malignant masses in breast : Upper outer
quadrant
277. Most Common location of bronchogenic carcinoma : Right upper lobe
278. Most Common location of intraorbital abscess : Subperiosteal space on medial
wall
279. Most Common malignancy of childhood : Leukemia
280. Most Common malignant bone tumor in children : Ewings
281. Most Common malignant neoplasm of diaphragm : Fibrosarcoma
282. Most Common malignant neoplasm of the spleen : Lymphoma
283. Most Common malignant primary bone tumor in young adults + children :
Osteosarcoma
284. Most Common malignant sex cord–stromal tumor : Granulosa cell tumor
285. Most Common malignant testicular neoplasm : Nonseminomatous germ cell
tumors
286. Most Common malignant tumor of the duodenum : Adenocarcinoma
287. Most Common malignant tumor of the heart : Angiosarcoma
288. Most Common malignant tumor of the small bowel : Carcinoid
289. Most Common mammographic finding in DCIS : Microcalcifications
290. Most Common mammographic finding in Infiltrating/Invasive Lobular Carcinoma :
Architectural
291. distortion
292. Most Common mass lesion of the cerebellopontine angle after acoustic
schwannoma : Meningioma
293. Most Common metastasis to the heart : Melanoma
294. Most Common missed type of breast cancer on mammography :
Infiltrating/Invasive Lobular
295. Carcinoma
296. Most Common metastatic cause of linitis plastica : Breast carcinoma
297. Most Common neonatal cyanotic congenital heart malformation : Transposition of
the great vessels
298. Most Common neoplasm of internal auditory canal / cerebellopontine angle :
Vestibular Schwannoma
299. Most Common organism of acute pyogenic meningitis in infants & children : N.
meningitides
300. Most Common pediatric tumor causing isosexual precocious puberty in a girl :
Granulosa cell tumor
301. Most Common predisposing disorder of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax :
COPD
302. Most Common pregnancy-related mortality in the first trimester Ectopic
pregnancy
303. Most Common pineal tumor : Pineal Germinoma
304. Most Common primary brain tumor : GBM
305. Most Common primary cardiac tumors in adults : Myxomas
306. Most Common site for cardiac myxoma : Left atrium
307. Most common primary cerebellar mass in an adult : Hemangioblastoma
308. Most Common primary demyelinating disease : MS
309. Most Common primary female urethral malignancy : Squamous cell carcinoma
310. Most Common primary hepatic neoplasm in infants & children <5 years old :
Hepatoblastoma
311. Most Common primary lung tumor under age 16 : Bronchial Adenoma
312. Most Common renal fusion anomaly : Horseshoe kidney
313. Most Common renal mass in a 3 months old infant : Mesoblastic nephroma
314. Most Common respiratory cause of cold agglutinin production : Mycoplasma
pneumonia
315. Most Common spinal cord tumor : Ependymoma
316. Most Common single cause of breast lumps in females between 35 to 55 years of
age : Breast cyst
317. Most Common systemic allergic hypersensitivity-related acute small-vessel
vasculitis in children : HSP
318. Most Common testicular tumor in a young boy : Yolk sac tumor
319. Most Common tumor of adenohypophysis : Pituitary Adenoma
320. Most Common tumor of the appendix : Carcinoid
321. Most Common type of abdominal wall hernia : Inguinal hernia
322. Most Common type of brain hernaition : anterior / uncal transtentorial
323. Most Common type of cancer to arise from a thyroglossal duct cyst : Papillary
carcinoma
324. Most Common type of cardiomyopathy : Dilated cardiomyopathy
325. Most Common type of liver abscess : Pyogenic Liver Abscess
326. Most Common type of lymphoma involving the head and neck region : Diffuse
large B-cell lymphoma
327. Most Common type of malignancy in undescended testis : Seminoma
328. Most Common type of of pituitary adenomas : Prolactinoma
329. Most Common virilizing tumor of ovary : Sertoli-Leydig Cell Tumor
330. Most Common Site of Squamous Cell CA in mouth : Lower Lip
331. Most Common Cause of Abruptio placenta : Pre-eclamptic Toxemia
332. Most Common Cause of 1st trimester Bleeding : Abortion
333. Most Common Cause of Ectopic Pregnancy : PID
334. Most Common Cause of post partum haemorrage is Uterine Atony
335. Most Common Cause of Maternal Death is Postpartum Bleeding
336. Most Common Indication of CS is previous CS
337. Most Common Indication of CS in primgravida is failure to progress (
Cephalopelvic / Disproportion)
338. Most Common Risk Factor of Uterine Rupture is Previous CS
339. Most Common Risk Factor of Cervical CA is HPV
340. Most common primary obstetric causes of neonatal death is preterm delivery/birth
341. Most Common Cause of Death in Premature infants : RDS
342. Most Common Female pelvis : Gynecoid (Rarest being platy pelloid)
343. Most Common Cause of PID : Chlamydia
344. Most Common Cause Valvular / Vainal prutitis : Candida
345. Most Common Specific Anomaly in Infants of Diabetic mothers : Sacral Agensis (
 Caudal Regression
346. Syndrome)
347. Most Common Congenital Anomaly in Infant of Diabetic mother : VSD
348. Most Common Cause of Polyhydroamnios : Idiopathic
349. Most Common Cause of Preterm Labour : Preterm
350. Most Common Cause of Oligohydroamnios : Rupture of Amniotic Membranes
(ROM)
351. Most Common Cause of Preterm Labour : Preterm Rupture of Amniotic
membranes
352. Most Common Fetal position : Left Occipito Anterior
353. Most Common form of cephalic presentation : Vertex presentation
354. Most Common Cause of 2ry Amenorrhea : Pregnancy
355. Most Common Cause of Pathological 2ry Amenorrhea : PCOs
356. Most Common Symptom of Valvular CA : Pruritis
357. Most Common Type of (Cervical / Valvular / Vaginal ) : Squamous Cell CA
358. Most Common Cause of Heavy Vaginal Bledding in Child-bearing age : Dysf.
Uterine Bleeding
359. Most Common Cause of Painful Vaginal Rash : HSV type 2
360. Best Time for DM Screening during Pregnancy : 24 – 28 weeks
361. Best Time for Group B Streptt. Screening : 35 – 37 weeks
362. Best Time for Triple Marker Screening : 15 – 20 weeks
363. Best way to Dx Endometrioses : Laproscopy
364. Best way to Dx Ectopic Pregnancy : Laproscopy
365. Best way to Dx Fibroid : Ultrasound
366. Best way to Dx Adenomysis : MRI
367. Most Dangerous Complication of IUFD : DIC
368. Most Dangerous Complication of Missed Abortion : DIC
Name Triad Disease
Achalasia Triad increased lower esophageal Achalasia
sphincter(LES)tone, decreased LES
relaxation, aperistalsis
Alkaptonuria Triad Ochronotic arthritis, Ochronotic Alkaptonuria
pigmentation, Urine darkens on standing
Anderson Triad Subcutaneous emphysema, rapid Esophageal
respirations, and abdominal rigidity rupture (likely
intraabdominal)
Triad of Anderson Bronchiectasis, Cystic Fibrosis, Vitamin A Anderson
syndrome (not to deficiency Syndrome
be confused with
the Anderson
triad of
esophageal
rupture)
Beck's triad Muffled heart sound, Distended neck Cardiac
veins, Hypotension tamponade
Charcot's Right Upper Quadrant Pain, Fever, Ascending
cholangitis triad Jaundice cholangitis
Charcot's scanning speech, intention tremor, Multiple sclerosis
neurologic triad nystagmus
Triad of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, Congenital
congenital intracranial calcifications toxoplasmosis
toxoplasmosis
Triad of cataracts, patent ductus arteriosus, Congenital
congenital rubella sensorineural hearling loss rubella
Congestive Heart Tachycardia, Tachypnea, Tender Congestive Heart
Failure Triad hepatomegaly Failure
Cushing's triad of Bradycardia, Bradypnea, Hypertension head injuries
Increased
Intracranial
Pressure
Dieulafoy's triad hyperesthesia of the skin, exquisite Acute
tenderness and guarding over appendicitis
McBurney's point
Fanconi syndrome Aminoaciduria, Proteinuria, Phosphaturia Fanconi
triad syndrome
Female athlete eating disorders, amenorrhoea,
triad decreased bone mineral density
Gradenigos Triad Sixth cranial n. Palsy, Persistent ear Gradenigo's
discharge, Deep seated retro orbital pain syndrome
Triad of opioid Respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils,
overdose CNS depression
Triad of Focal necrotizing vasculitis, necrotizing Granulomatosis
granulomatosis granulomas in the lung and upper airway, with polyangiitis
with polyangiitis necrotizing glomerulonephritis
Hakim Triad[1] Urinary incontinence, Gait disturbance, Normal pressure
(Adams Triad) Dementia hydrocephalus
Triad (Triad of Malena, Obstructive jaundice, Biliary colic Hemobilia
Sandblom)
Triad of Meigs' ascites, pleural effusion, benign ovarian Meigs' syndrome
Syndrome tumor
Hemolytic Uremic Anaemia, Thrombocytopenia, Renal Hemolytic-
Syndrome Triad failure (But see Pentad of TTP below) uremic syndrome
Hutchinson's triad Hutchison's teeth, Interstitial keratitis, Congenital
Nerve deafness syphilis
Kartagener Triad of bronchiectasis, Recurrent Kartagener
Syndrome Triad sinusitis, and, Situs inversus, syndrome
Leriche's Triad of bilateral hip, thigh, and buttock Leriche's
syndrome Triad claudication, impotence, and symmetric syndrome
atrophy of the bilateral lower extremities
due to chronic ischemia
Meckler's triad vomiting, pain and subcutaneous Boerhaave
emphysema syndrome
Meltzer's triad purpura, arthralgias, weakness/myalgias Cryoglobulinemia
O’ Donoghue Twisting force in a weight bearing knee
Triad (Also known joint causes injury to Medial collateral
as Unhappy Triad) ligament, Anterior cruciate ligament,
Medial meniscus
Triad of Reactive Urethritis, conjunctivitis and anterior Reactive arthritis
arthritis uveitis, arthritis
Saint's Triad Gall stones, Diverticulosis, Hiatus hernia
Samter's triad Aspirin sensitivity, Nasal polyps, Asthma Aspirin-induced
(also known as asthma
Acetylsalicylic acid
triad or Widal's
triad or Francis'
triad or Aspirin
triad)
Tetany in Children Stridor, Carpopedal spasm, Convulsions Tetany
- Triad
Triad of Albinism Black locks, Occulo-cutaneous Albinism, Albinism
Deafness of sensorineural type
Triad of Alport Sensorineural deafness, Progressive renal Alport syndrome
Syndrome failure, Ocular anomalies
Triad of Behcet's Recurrent oral ulcers, Genital ulcers, Behcet's
Syndrome Iridocyclitis Syndrome
Triad of Causes of Glossitis, Alopecia, Dermatitis
Biotin Deficiency
Triad of Henoch– Palpable purpura on buttock/legs, IgA vasculitis
Schönlein purpura arthralgias, abdominal pain
Triad of Pain, hematuria, renal mass Hypernephroma
Hypernephroma
Triad of Growth retardation, Mental changes, Kwashiorkor
Kwashiorkor Edema
Triad of Plummer- Iron deficiency anemia, dysphagia, Plummer-Vinson
Vinson syndrome esophageal webs syndrome
Triple Test (for Estimation of hcg, Estriol, and AFP
diagnosis of
downs syndrome)
Trotter's Triad Conductive deafness, Immobility of Nasopharyngeal
homolateral soft palate, Trigeminal carcinoma
neuralgia
Unhappy Triad ACL, MCL, Medial Meniscus injury Knee Injury
Virchow's triad Stasis, Hypercoagulability, Vessel injury Venous
thrombosis
Triad of Wernicke Confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia Wernicke
encephalopathy encephalopathy
Triad of Alports Sensorineural deafness
Syndrome Progressive renal failure
Ocular anomalies
Triad of Recurrent oral ulcers
Behcet's Genital ulcers
Syndrome Iridocyclitis
[mnemonic: can’t see, can’t pee, can’t
eat spicy curry]

Kartagener’s Triad of bronchiectasis

Syndrome Triad Recurrent sinusitis, and
Situs inversus
Hemobilia - Malena
Triad (Triad of Obstructive jaundice
Sandblom) Biliary colic
[mnemonic: MOB]

Cushing Triad Bradycardia

of Increased Bradypnea
Intracranial Hypertension
Pressure

Congestive Tachycardia
Heart Failure Tachypnea
Triad Tender hepatomegaly

O’ Donoghue Twisting force in a weight bearing knee

Triad joint causes injury to
 1. Medial collateral ligament
2. Anterior cruciate ligament
3. Medial meniscus
Muffled heart sound
Beck’s Triad Distended neck veins
Hypotension

Triad of Stridor
Tetany in Carpopedal spasm
Children - Triad Convulsions

Fanconi Aminoaciduria
Syndrome Triad Proteinuria
Phosphaturia
Hemolytic Anaemia
Uremic Thrombocytopenia
Syndrome Triad Renal failure

Whipple’s Triad Hypoglycaemia during attacks

S.glucose 10%
Hypergammaglobulinemia
Lytic bone lesions
Virchow’s Triad Stasis
Hypercoagulabilty
Vessel injury
Trotter's Triad Conductive deafness
Immobility of homolateral soft palate
Trigeminal neuralgia

Saint's Triad Gall stones

Diverticulosis
Hiatus hernia

Kwashiorkar Growth retardation

Mental changes
Edema

Estimation of hcg,
Triple Test Estriol,
and AFP
(for diagnosis of downs syndrome
Pentalogy of Fallot's tetralogy with, in addition, a
Fallot patent foramen ovale or
Atrial septal defect
Reynolds Abdominal pain,
Pentad Fever,
Jaundice,
Shock, and
. Depression of central nervous system
function (usually indicative of acute
suppurative cholangitis)

Hutchinson’s Hutchison's teeth

 Triad Interstitial keratitis
Nerve deafness
Triad of Pain + hematuria + renal mass
Hypernephroma
Gradenigos Sixth cranial n. Palsy
Triad Persistent ear discharge
Deep seated retro orbital pain
Charcot’s Triad Pain + fever + jaundice
Triad of Black locks
Albinism] Occulo-cutaneous Albinism
Deafness of sensorineural type
[mnemonic: BADS
Anderson Triad Bronchiectasis
Cystic fibrosis
Vitamin A deficiency
Alkaptonuria Ochronotic arthritis
Triad Ochronotic pigmentation
Urine darkens on standing
Pentad of TTP haemolytic anaemia
Microangiopathic Fever
Disturbed neurological function
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia
Triad of Causes Glossitis,
of Biotin Alopecia,
Deficiency Dermatitis

Hypoglycaemia during attacks, resolution of

Whipple's Insulinoma
symptoms upon correction of blood glucose,
Triad
symptoms brought about by low glucose states.
Triad of Aortic
Aortic Chest pain, Heart failure, Syncope Stenosis
stenosis
Murphy's Acute
Pain-> Vomiting -> Fever appendicitis
triad
Mesenteric
Tillaux's triad cyst

small bowel obstruction, a gallstone outside the Gallstone

Rigler's triad ileus
gallbladder, and air in the bile ducts
Pentads
Name Pentad Disease

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, Thrombotic

Pentad of thrombocytopenic
Fever, Disturbed neurological function,
TTP purpura
Renal failure, Thrombocytopenia
 Omphalocele, Anterior diaphragmatic Thoracoabdominal
Pentalogy of
hernia, Sternal cleft, Ectopia cordis, syndrome
Cantrell
Intracardiac defect.
Pentalogy of Fallot's tetralogy with, in addition, a patent
Fallot foramen ovale or, Atrial septal defect.
Reynolds Pentad Abdominal pain, Fever, Jaundice, Shock acute
and Depression of central nervous system suppurative
function cholangitis

Medical Mnemonic
complications of myocardial infarction 1. Death
(DARTH VADER( 2. Arrhythmia
3. Rupture (free ventricular wall/ ventricular septum/ papillary muscle
4. Tamponade
5. Heart failure (acute or chronic)
6. Valve disease
7. Aneurysm of ventricle
8. Dressler’s syndrome
9. thromboEmbolism (mural thrombus)
10. Recurrence/ mitral Regurgitation
Beck’s triad of acute cardiac tamponade (3 1. Distant heart sounds
D’s) 2. Decreased arterial BP
3. Distended neck veins

Causes of upper zone pulmonary 1. ABPA

fibrosis (A TEA SHOP)
Aspiration of foreign body (which
bronchus is more vertical)
2. TB
3. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
4. Ankylosing Spondylitis
5. Sarcoidosis
6. Histiocytosis
7. Occupational (silicosis, berylliosis)
8. Pneumoconiosis (coal-worker’s)
Inhale a bite, goes down right

Features of a life-threatening asthma 1. Arrhythmia/ Altered conscious level

attack (A CHEST) 2. Cyanosis, PaCO2 normal
3. Hypotension, Hypoxia (PaO2<8kPa, SpO2 <92%)
4. Exhaustion
5. Silent chest
6. Threatening PEF < 33% best or predicted (in those >5yrs old)
i. Vestibular/ Vagal reflex (pain)
Causes of Vomiting (VOMITING) ii. Opiates
iii. Migraine/ Metabolic e.g. DKA
iv. Infection
v. Toxicity (cytotoxic, digoxin)
vi. Increased ICP/ Ingested alcohol
 vii. Neurogenic
viii. GI/ Gestation
i. Asterixis, Ascites, Ankle oedema, Atrophy of testicles
Signs of chronic liver disease ii. Bruising
(ABCDEFGHIJ) iii. Clubbing/ Colour change of nails (leuconychia)
iv. Dupuytren’s contracture
v. Encephalopathy / palmar Erythema
vi. Foetor hepaticus
vii. Gynaecomastia
viii. Hepatomegaly
ix. Increase size of parotids
x. Jaundice
1. Hypogonadism
Complications of hereditary 2. Cancer (hepatocellular)
haemochromatosis 3. Cirrhosis
(HaemoChromatosis Can Cause 4. Cardiomyopathy
Deposits Anywhere) 5. Diabetes mellitusy

1. Dysdiadochokinesia/ Dysmetria
)Cerebellar signs (DANISH 2. Ataxia
3. Nystagmus (horizontal)
4. Intention tremor
5. Slurred speech
6. Hypotonia
Pinpoint Pupils are caused by oPioids and Pontine Pathology
Causes of Pinpoint pupils

i. Café au lait spots

Diagnostic criteria of ii. Axillary + inguinal freckling
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (CAFÉ iii. Fibromas
SPOT) iv. Eye: Lisch nodules
v. Sphenoid dysplasia
vi. Positive family history
vii. Optic Tumour (glioma)
1. Wet = urinary incontinence
Features of normal pressure 2. Wobbly = ataxic gait
hydrocephalus (Wet, Wobbly, Wacky) 3. Wacky = dementia

 Pheochromocytoma (rule of 10’s) o 10% extra-abdominal

o 10% malignant
o 10% bilateral
o 10% in children
o BUT 30% genetic/syndromic!

 Insulinoma (rule of 10’s) o 10% are part of MEN1 syndrome

o 10% are multiple
o 10% are malignant
 o 10% contain ectopic pancreatic tissue

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism a. Sweating

(SWEATING) b. Weight loss
c. Emotional lability
d. Appetite increased
e. Tremor/ tachycardia
f. Intolerance of heat/ Irregular menstruation/ Irritability
g. Nervousness
h. Goitre and GI problems (diarrhoea)
Symptoms of hypothyroidism – tends a. Memory loss
to occur in middle aged women b. Obesity
)(MOM’S SO TIRED c. Malar flush/ Menorrhagia
d. Slowness (mentally and physically)
e. Skin and hair dryness
f. Onset gradual
g. Tiredness
h. Intolerance to cold
i. Raised BP
j. Energy levels fall
k. Depression/ Delayed relaxation of reflexes
Causes of adrenal insufficiency a. Autoimmune (Addison’s disease)
(ADDISON) b. Degenerative (amyloidosis)
c. Drugs (e.g. ketoconazole)
d. Infections (e.g. TB, HIV)
e. Secondary (hypopituitarism)
f. Others (adrenal bleeding)
g. Neoplasia
 Folate deficiency causes (A FOLIC 1. Alcoholism
DROP) 2. Folic acid antagonists
3. OCP
4. Low dietary intake
5. Infection (giardiasis)
6. Coeliac disease
7. Dilantin (phenytoin)
8. Relative folate deficiency
9. Old
10. Pregnancy

Causes of thrombocytopenia (PLATELETS) 1. Platelet disorders (DIC, TTP, ITP)

2. Leukaemia
3. Anaemia
4. Trauma
5. Enlarged spleen
6. Liver disease
7. Ethanol
8. Toxins e.g. heparin, aspirin, chemotherapy, benzene
 9. Sepsis

 Shared features of limited and 1. Calcinosis

systemic scleroderma (CREST) 2. Raynaud’s phenomenon
o 3. Esophageal dysmotility
4. Sclerodactyly
5. Telangectasia

 Types of psoriatic arthritis (DRAMA) 1. Distal interphalangeal

o 2. Rheumatoid- like
3. Asymmetrical oligoarticular/pauciarticular
4. Mutilans
5. Ankylosing-spondylitis- like

Sarcoid systemic features (FILLED BAGEL) 1. Facial nerve palsy

2. Infiltrations of lung parenchyma/ pulmonary Insufficiency
 3. Lymphadenopathy (hilar)
4. Liver + spleen enlargement
5. Elevated Ace and Ca2+
6. Dilated cardiomyopathy
7. Bone cysts
8. Arthralgia
9. Granulomata of skin
10. Erythema nodosum
11. Lupus pernio

 Reversible causes of cardiac arrest o Hypovolaemia

(6H’s and 4T’s) o Hypoxia
o o H+ (acidosis)
o Hypothermia
o Hypoglycaemia
o Hypokalaemia
o Hyperkalaemia
o Tension pneumothorax
o cardiac Tamponade
o Thrombosis (PE/MI)
o Toxins

DKA precipitants (5 I’s) 1. Infection

2. Ischaemia (cardiac, mesenteric)
 3. Infarction
4. Ignorance (poor control)
5. Intoxication (alcohol)

 Surgical Sieve (INVITED MDC) 1. Infection

 o 2. Neoplasia
3. Vascular
4. Inflammatory/autoimmune
5. Trauma
6. Endocrine
7. Degenerative
8. Metabolic
9. Drugs
10. Congenital

 Lump examination (3S’s, 3C’s, 3T’s, 1. Site

1F) 2. Size
3. Shape
4. Contour
5. Colour
6. Consistency
7. Tenderness
8. Tethering
9. Transillumination
10. Fluctuance

 Causes of abdominal distension (6 F’s) 1. Fat

o 2. Fluid
3. Flatus
4. Faeces
5. Foetus
6. Fulminant mass

 Abdominal causes of clubbing (4 C’s) 1. Coeliac disease

o 2. Cirrhosis
3. Crohn’s
4. ulcerative Colitis

 Causes of Pancreatitis (GET 1. Gallstones

SMASHED) 2. Ethanol
3. Trauma
4. Steroids
5. Mumps
6. Autoimmune diseases e.g. SLE
7. Scorpion venom
8. Hypothermia, Hypercalcaemia, Hyperlipidaemia
9. ERCP, Emboli
10. Drugs (e.g. thiazide and loop diuretics, azathioprine)

 Components of Glasgow score for 1. PaO2 (<8kPa)

 pancreatitis (PANCREAS) 2. Age (>55)
3. Neutrophilia (WCC > 15 x 109/L)
4. Ca2+ (<2mmol/L)
5. Renal function (urea >16mmol/L)
6. Enzymes (LDH >600 iu/L or AST >200 iu/L)
7. Albumin (<32g/L)
8. Sugar (blood glucose >10mmol/L)

 Meckel’s diverticulum (Rule of 2’s) 1. 2% of population

o 2. 2x commoner in males
3. 2 feet proximal to ileocaecal valve
4. 2 inches in length
5. 2 types of common ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic)

 Acquired causes of cataracts 1. Diabetes

(DAMAGED) 2. Aging
3. Myopia/ Myotonic dystrophy
4. Anterior uveitis (chronic)
5. Glaucoma
6. Electricity/ radiation/ trauma
7. Drugs (e.g. amiodarone, busulfan, chlorpromazine, dexam

 Causes of optic atrophy (ICING) 1. Ischaemia

2. Compressed nerve
3. ICP increased
4. Neuritis
5. Glaucoma

 Signs of optic neuropathy (PLAC) o Pale disc

o Loss of visual acuity/ Loss of red colour vision
o Afferent pupillary defect
o Central scotoma

o Symptoms of retinal 1. Floaters

detachment (4 F’s) 2. Flashes
3. Field loss
4. Falling acuit

 Causes of optic neuropathy (NIGHT 1. Neuritis

TIC) 2. Ischaemia (Giant cell arteritis, vasculopaths)
o 3. Granulomatous infiltration
4. Hereditary (e.g. Friedrich’s ataxia)
5. Traumatic
 6. Toxins (e.g. methanol, ethambutol, methotrexate, amioda
7. Irradiation
8. Compression

 Complications of multiple pregnancy 1. Hydramnios (poly)

(HI PAPA) 2. Intrauterine growth restriction
3. Preterm labour
4. APH
5. Pre-eclampsia
6. Abortion

 Causes of postpartum haemorrhage (4 o Tissue (retained placenta)

T’s) o Tone (uterine atony)
o o Trauma
o Thrombin (coagulation disorders, DIC)

 Postpartum haemorrhage risk factors 1. Prolonged labour/ Polyhydramnios/ Previous C-section

(PARTUM) 2. APH
o 3. Recent Hx of bleeding
4. Twins
5. Uterine fibroids
6. Multiparity

 Management of shoulder dystocia

1.
(HELPER)
1. call for Help
2. Episiotomy
3. Legs up (McRoberts maneuver)
4. Pressure suprapubically
5. Enter vagina for shoulder rotation
6. Reach for posterior shoulder/ Return head into vagina (Z
Rupture clavicle or pubic symphysis

 Criteria for forceps delivery 1. Foetus alive

(FORCEPS) 2. Os dilated
o 3. Ruptured membrane, Rotation complete
4. Cervix take up
5. Engagement of head
6. Presentation suitable
7. Sagittal suture in AP diameter of inlet

 Causes of delirium (DELIRIUM) 1. Drugs (TCAs, opiates, benzodiazepines, antiparkinsonian

alcohol withdrawal)
2. Epilepsy/ Electrolyte imbalance (e.g. hyponatraemia)
3. Liver failure/ Low oxygen (MI, PE)
4. Infection
 5. Retention (urinary/ faecal)
6. Intracranial
7. Uraemia
8. Metabolic (e.g. DM, thiamine deficiency, thyroid problem

 ACE inhibitor side effects 1. Cough

(CAPTOPRIL) 2. Angioneurotic oedema
3. Proteinuria
4. Taste disturbance/ Teratogenic in 1st trimester
5. Other (fatigue, headache)
o 6. Potassium increased
7. Renal impairment
8. Itch
9. Low BP (1st dose)

 Beneficial effects of inhibition of o Analgesia

prostaglandin synthesis i.e. o Antipyretic
paracetamol and NSAIDs (5 A’s) o Anti-inflammatory
o Antithrombotic
o Arteriosus (NSAIDs for closure of patent ductus arteriosu

 Side effects of systemic corticosteroids 1. Cushing’s syndrome

(CORTICOSTEROIDS) 2. Osteoporosis
o 3. Retardation of growth
4. Thin skin, easy bruising
5. Immunosuppression
6. Cataracts and glaucoma
7. Oedema
8. Suppression of HPA axis
9. Teratogenic
10. Emotional disturbance
11. Rise in BP
12. Obesity (truncal)
13. Increased hair growth (hirsutism)
14. Diabetes mellitus
15. Striae

 Drugs that potentiate warfarin (O 1. Omeprazole

DEVICES) 2. Disulfiram
3. Erythromycin
4. Valproate
5. Isoniazid
6. Ciprofloxacin and Cimetidine
 7. Ethanol (acutely)
8. Sulphonamides

 Drugs that decrease the effectiveness 1. Phenytoin

of warfarin (PC BRAS) 2. Carbamazepine
o 3. Barbiturates
4. Rifampicin
5. Alcohol (chronic use)
6. Sulphonylureas

 Side effects of sodium valproate 1. Vomiting

(VALPROATE) 2. Alopecia
o 3. Liver toxicity
4. Pancreatitis/ Pancytopenia
5. Retention of fats (weight gain)
6. Oedema (peripheral)
7. Anorexia
8. Tremor
9. Enzyme inhibitor

 Features of Marfan’s syndrome 1. Mitral valve prolapse

(MARFANS) 2. Aortic dissection/ Aortic aneurysm
o 3. Regurgitant aortic valve / Retinal detachment
4. Fibrillin-1 mutation
5. Arm span > height / Arachnodactyly
6. Near-sighted / Nasal voice (high-arched palate)
7. Scoliosis / Subluxated lens / pectus eScavatum

 Features of DiGeorge syndrome 1. Cardiac abnormalities

(CATCH 22) 2. Abnormal facies
o 3. Thymic hypoplasia/aplasia
4. Cleft palate
5. Hypocalcaemia
6. 22q11 deletion

 Features of Fragile X syndrome (Rule 1. Male

of M’s) 2. Macroorchidism
o 3. Mental retardation
4. Maxillary excess 9long face)
5. Muscle tone decrease
6. Movements stereotyped
7. Mutation in FMR1 gene
8. Multiple CGG repeats
 9. Mothers (females) are obligatory carriers

 Features of Tay Sachs disease (TAY 1. Testing recommended

SACHS) 2. Autosomal recessive/ Amaurosis
o 3. Young death (<4years old)
4. Spot in macula
5. Ashkenazi Jews
6. CNS degeneration
7. Hexoaminidase A deficiency/ HEA gene mutation
8. Startle easily/ (lysosomal) Storage disorder/ Sphingolipid