Psychology 12th Edition Myers Test Bank

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1. The branch of psychology that focuses on the physical, cognitive, and social changes
that occur throughout the human life span is called
A) social psychology.
B) personality psychology.
C) developmental psychology.
D) biological psychology.

2. Professor Conrad is a research specialist in the study of identity formation during

adolescence. It is most likely that the professor is a ________ psychologist.
A) developmental
B) biological
C) psychodynamic
D) clinical

3. One of the three major issues in developmental psychology involves a focus on

A) stimulation and habituation.
B) conception and prenatal development.
C) embryonic and fetal development.
D) stability and change.

4. Stacey and Juan are taking a general psychology class and are studying for the
upcoming exam, which includes topics on development. Stacey believes that cognitive
development is a continuous process, while Juan thinks that cognitive change can
happen overnight, sort of like a light bulb coming on in a child's mind. Which major
issue are they debating?
A) nature and nurture
B) continuity and stages
C) predictability and unpredictability
D) stability and change

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5. Ross believes that personality development is a matter of sudden qualitative changes at
various turning points in the life span. His viewpoint is most directly relevant to the
issue of
A) stability and change.
B) nature and nurture.
C) stimulation and habituation.
D) continuity and stages.

6. Researchers who emphasize learning and experience tend to view development as

A) a continuous process, while those who emphasize maturation often view
development as a sequence of stages.
B) a sequence of stages, while those who emphasize maturation often view
development as a continuous process.
C) a cognitive process, while those who emphasize maturation often view
development as a social process.
D) a social process, while those who emphasize maturation often view development as
a cognitive process.

7. A stage theory of development was advanced by

A) Kohlberg.
B) Erikson.
C) Piaget.
D) all of these psychologists.

8. Age-linked stage theories of adult development are most likely to be criticized for
exaggerating the
A) importance of social influence.
B) predictability of development.
C) importance of epigenetic effects.
D) interaction of nature and nurture.

9. Samantha wants to learn about how people change and stay the same throughout the life
span. She is most interested in the developmental issue of
A) nature and nurture.
B) continuity and stages.
C) predictability and unpredictability.
D) stability and change.

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10. Exceptionally timid and cautious infants tend to become shy and unassertive
adolescents. This best illustrates the long-term stability of
A) temperament.
B) individualism.
C) teratogens.
D) habituation.

11. One research team observed that out-of-control 3-year-olds were the most likely to
become out-of-control adult gamblers. This finding is most central to the issue of
A) stability and change.
B) habituation and attention.
C) continuity and stages.
D) nature and nurture.

12. As boys with explosive tempers grow older, they are especially likely to have difficulty
maintaining good jobs and happy marriages. This fact is most relevant to the issue of
A) nature and nurture.
B) cognitive or social development.
C) stability and change.
D) continuity or stages.

13. Social attitudes have been found to be less stable during the impressionable years of
A) childhood.
B) late adolescence.
C) young adulthood.
D) middle adulthood.

14. It could be said that ________ provides our identity, while ________ allows us to adapt
and grow with experience.
A) nature; nurture
B) continuity; stages
C) predictability; unpredictability
D) stability; change

15. Sperm cells release ________ that eat away a mature egg cell's protective coating.
A) placentas
B) teratogens
C) enzymes
D) zygotes

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16. Boys first begin producing sperm during
A) embryonic development.
B) fetal development.
C) the first year after birth.
D) puberty.

17. Mature eggs first begin to be released from the ovaries of human females a short time
after the onset of
A) conception.
B) habituation.
C) puberty.
D) fetal development.

18. A fertilized egg is called a(n)

A) embryo.
B) zygote.
C) teratogen.
D) fetus.

19. Many of the outer cells of the zygote become the

A) fetus.
B) embryo.
C) placenta.
D) brainstem.

20. An embryo forms from the

A) zygote's inner cells.
B) zygote's outer cells.
C) placenta.
D) uterine wall of the mother.

21. From 2 weeks to 8 weeks after conception, the human organism is known as a(n)
A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) ovum.

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22. The developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth is known as
a(n)
A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) zygote.
D) ovum.

23. Responsiveness to sound begins during ________ development.

A) embryonic
B) zygotic
C) ovular
D) fetal

24. Organs such as the stomach develop enough to enable survival during
A) conception.
B) the first week after birth.
C) the embryonic stage.
D) the fetal period.

25. Research indicates that newborns can distinguish

A) their mother's voice from another woman's voice.
B) differences in light intensity but not differences in shape.
C) their mother's face from another woman's face.
D) differences in sound intensity but not differences in sound quality.

26. Harmful chemicals or viruses that can be transferred from a mother to her developing
fetus are called
A) embryos.
B) placentas.
C) teratogens.
D) zygotes.

27. Shanda used cocaine while she was pregnant, which damaged her developing fetus. The
cocaine was a(n)
A) enzyme.
B) teratogen.
C) genome.
D) placenta.

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28. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome demonstrate that alcohol is a
A) teratogen.
B) genome.
C) telomere.
D) schema.

29. Noticeable physical and mental abnormalities are most likely to be associated with
severe cases of
A) hypertension.
B) habituation.
C) diabetes.
D) fetal alcohol syndrome.

30. Substantial prenatal stress exposure puts a child at increased risk for
A) obesity.
B) heart disease.
C) psychiatric disorders.
D) all of these outcomes.

31. Lee is holding his newborn son, who is hungry and rooting for nourishment. Lee
obviously can't breast feed his son and he does not have a bottle with him. What is his
son likely to do?
A) suck on his hand
B) extend his or her arms and legs
C) cry
D) grab on to his dad's hand

32. After Becky rocks her newborn for about 30 minutes, the baby falls fast asleep. When
Becky attempts to lay the baby on her back, the baby's arms and legs spring out and the
baby begins to cry. Which reflex is the baby exhibiting?
A) rooting
B) sucking
C) startle
D) grasping

33. An automatic response ideally suited for survival is called a

A) neural network.
B) synapse.
C) teratogen.
D) reflex.

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34. Automatically withdrawing our limbs to escape pain illustrates
A) habituation.
B) the influence of teratogens.
C) an epigenetic effect.
D) a reflex response.

35. When Joan touched her infant's cheek, the baby turned his head toward the side that was
touched and opened his mouth. Joan was eliciting the reflex to
A) root for a nipple.
B) avoid pain.
C) habituate to touch.
D) facilitate social interaction.

36. Upon hearing a loud noise, 3-week-old Mia's arms and legs sprang out and her fist
clenched. Her reaction best illustrates
A) a critical period.
B) an epigenetic mark.
C) a startle reflex.
D) stranger anxiety.

37. A decrease in responding with repeated stimulation is called

A) a reflex response.
B) FAS.
C) habituation.
D) epigenetics.

38. Three-month-old Andrew was obviously startled by the first ring of the telephone, but
with each subsequent ring he seemed to become less reactive. This best illustrates the
process of
A) vocal intonation.
B) reflexive responding.
C) biological maturation.
D) habituation.

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39. As newborns, we turn our heads in the direction of human voices and we gaze longer at
more face-like images. This best illustrates that we are born preferring sights and sounds
that facilitate
A) development through distinct stages.
B) continuity of personality.
C) cumulative growth.
D) social responsiveness.

40. Research on the perceptual abilities of newborns indicates that they

A) see nothing for the first 12 hours.
B) see only differences in brightness.
C) recognize the outlines of objects but none of the details.
D) look more at a face-like image.

41. Biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience and that
enable orderly changes in behavior are referred to as
A) schemas.
B) attachments.
C) accommodation.
D) maturation.

42. In general, children cannot be trained to walk before they are 10 months old. This best
illustrates the importance of
A) conservation.
B) attachment.
C) object permanence.
D) maturation.

43. Kristen is a normal, healthy newborn. Research indicates that

A) she has most of the brain cells she is ever going to have.
B) the neural connections that will enable her to think and talk are already completely
formed.
C) she is already capable of forming permanent lifelong memories.
D) all of these statements are true.

44. The immaturity of an infant's nervous system is best demonstrated by its limited
A) accommodation.
B) number of brain cells.
C) imprinting.
D) neural networks.

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45. Excess neural connections within the brain are reduced through a process of
A) accommodation.
B) imprinting.
C) attachment.
D) pruning.

46. A use-it-or-lose-it pruning process shuts down some ________ and strengthens others.
A) secure attachments
B) epigenetic marks
C) neural connections
D) critical periods

47. A stimulating environment is most likely to facilitate the development of a child's

A) insecure attachment.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) egocentrism.
D) neural connections.

48. Motor development is mostly influenced by

A) nature.
B) nurture.
C) stability.
D) change.

49. Melissa's toddler is 2 years old but is not yet toilet trained. Melissa takes the toddler to
the toilet every 30 minutes, offers rewards if the toddler is successful, and praises the
toddler for sitting on the toilet. But, nothing is working! What should you tell Melissa?
A) “She definitely should be toilet trained by now. You must be doing something
wrong.”
B) “Have you tried offering candy as a reward?”
C) “Maybe check with the pediatrician. I read that 90 percent of toddlers are toilet
trained by the time they are two years old.”
D) “You can't rush toilet training. Muscular and neural maturation needs to occur
first.”

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50. Identical twins typically begin walking on nearly the same day. This best illustrates the
importance of ________ to motor skills.
A) responsive parenting
B) maturation
C) accommodation
D) conservation

51. The recommended position for putting babies to sleep is

A) on their stomachs.
B) on their backs.
C) on their sides.
D) in a nearly upright sitting position.

52. Mr. and Mrs. Batson can't wait to begin toilet training their 1-year-old daughter. The
Batsons most clearly need to be told about the importance of
A) imprinting.
B) conservation.
C) maturation.
D) object permanence.

53. The recommended back to sleep position has been associated with
A) somewhat later walking.
B) somewhat earlier walking.
C) somewhat earlier crawling.
D) somewhat later crawling.

54. Kayla is a teenager now and has been told many times by her mother that she was a
colicky baby, crying all the time. Kayla doesn't remember any of this. Her lack of
memory can be explained by
A) maturation.
B) infantile amnesia.
C) growth.
D) developmental progression.

55. At age 10, Cameron is unable to remember the dramatic car accident he was in or the
injuries he suffered when he was almost 3 years old. This best illustrates
A) an insecure attachment.
B) infantile amnesia.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) autism spectrum disorder.

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56. The relative lack of neural interconnections in the hippocampus and frontal lobes at the
time of birth is most likely to contribute to
A) infantile amnesia.
B) imprinting.
C) insecure attachment.
D) stranger anxiety.

57. Poor memory for early life experiences results from a baby's relative lack of ________
of the hippocampus.
A) secure attachment
B) maturation
C) egocentrism
D) stranger anxiety

58. When tethered to a mobile, infants learned the association between

A) looking and the mobile's smell.
B) rooting and the mobile's sound.
C) swallowing and the mobile's color.
D) kicking and the mobile's movement.

59. We refer to all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering,
and communicating as
A) cognition.
B) maturation.
C) accommodation.
D) assimilation.

60. Piaget is best known for his interest in the process of ________ development.
A) social
B) cognitive
C) emotional
D) physical

61. Piaget suggested that cognitive development involved an individual's construction of

A) neural networks.
B) schemas.
C) attachments.
D) critical periods.

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62. A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information is called a(n)
A) attachment.
B) theory of mind.
C) schema.
D) neural network.

63. Three-year-old Maddox mistakenly thinks that blown-up balloons are always round. His
idea best illustrates
A) a schema.
B) egocentrism.
C) conservation.
D) a secure attachment.

64. The processes of assimilation and accommodation were most clearly highlighted by
A) Rovee-Collier's infant memory theory.
B) the Harlows' attachment theory.
C) Erikson's psychosocial development theory.
D) Piaget's cognitive development theory.

65. According to Piaget, assimilation involves

A) the absorption of nutrients into the body for growth and development.
B) training children to behave in a socially acceptable manner.
C) interpreting new experiences in terms of one's current understanding.
D) altering existing schemas in order to incorporate new information.

66. Three-year-old Zara calls all four-legged animals “kitties.” Her tendency to fit all four-
legged animals into her existing conception of a kitten illustrates the process of
A) conservation.
B) assimilation.
C) accommodation.
D) egocentrism.

67. Adjusting current schemas to make sense of new information is called

A) egocentrism.
B) accommodation.
C) assimilation.
D) maturation.

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68. When people recognize the inaccuracy of ethnic stereotypes and revise their beliefs,
they are demonstrating the process of
A) maturation.
B) assimilation.
C) imprinting.
D) accommodation.

69. According to Piaget, we come to know the world primarily by looking, touching,
mouthing, and grasping during the ________ stage.
A) concrete operational
B) sensorimotor
C) formal operational
D) preoperational

70. The awareness that things continue to exist even when they are not perceived is known
as
A) conservation.
B) assimilation.
C) object permanence.
D) a secure attachment.

71. Remembering things one can no longer perceive is most clearly an indication of
A) assimilation.
B) basic trust.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.

72. Lisa attempts to retrieve her bottle after her father hides it under a blanket. This suggests
that Lisa has developed a sense of
A) egocentrism.
B) object permanence.
C) conservation.
D) accommodation.

73. Even young infants will at least temporarily look for a toy where they saw it hidden a
moment before. This suggests that Piaget
A) underestimated the importance of imprinting on infant attachment.
B) overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence.
C) underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants.
D) overestimated the continuity of cognitive development.

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74. Compared with time spent looking at the scene of a ball falling, infants spend ________
time looking at a ball stopping in midair. Compared with time spent looking at the scene
of a moving car, infants spend ________ time looking at a moving car seeming to pass
through a solid object.
A) less; more
B) more; less
C) less; less
D) more; more

75. According to Piaget, children in the preoperational stage are able to

A) represent objects with words and images.
B) reason abstractly and test hypotheses.
C) understand the principle of conservation.
D) think logically about tangible things.

76. The principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite
changes in the forms of objects is called
A) imprinting.
B) conservation.
C) object permanence.
D) accommodation.

77. Five-year-old Tammy mistakenly believes that her short, wide glass contains less soda
than her brother's tall, narrow glass. Actually, both glasses contain the same amount of
soda. This illustrates that Tammy lacks the concept of
A) conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) assimilation.
D) object permanence.

78. Current research on cognitive development indicates that

A) Piaget overestimated the cognitive competence of young children.
B) symbolic thinking develops earlier than Piaget believed.
C) Piaget's theory may apply only to middle‑class male children.
D) Piaget overlooked the importance of imprinting on cognitive development.

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79. When 2-1/2-year old Cassi plays with her dolls and stuffed animals, she makes them
carry on a conversation. Cassi is engaged in
A) egocentric behavior.
B) pretend play.
C) conservatism.
D) object permanence.

80. Judy DeLoache focused her research on children's

A) egocentric behavior.
B) pretend play.
C) conservatism.
D) object permanence.

81. Using a large pillow to symbolize a pony, Samantha bounced up and down on the pillow
as if she were riding the pony. Samantha is most clearly demonstrating
A) a theory of mind.
B) pretend play.
C) conservation.
D) role confusion.

82. The preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view is called
A) stranger anxiety.
B) egocentrism.
C) imprinting.
D) conservation.

83. Although Mr. Tong was obviously busy reading an absorbing novel, his 5-year-old
daughter kept interrupting him with comments and questions about the TV cartoons she
was watching. Before Mr. Tong becomes irritated with his daughter for being
inconsiderate, he should be alerted to Piaget's concept of
A) object permanence.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) accommodation.

84. According to Piaget, an egocentric child can best be described as

A) selfish.
B) conceited.
C) lacking in self-esteem.
D) cognitively limited.

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85. A susceptibility to the curse of knowledge is especially likely to be associated with
A) conservation.
B) egocentrism.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) assimilation.

86. Mistakenly assuming that the instructions for assembling a model ship would be clear to
your brother because they are clear to you best illustrates
A) egocentrism.
B) imprinting.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.

87. Children's ability to infer other people's intentions and feelings is indicative of their
emerging
A) theory of mind.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.

88. Children's emerging ability to tease, empathize, and persuade is a sign that they are
developing a theory of mind and that they are not completely
A) egocentric.
B) imprinted.
C) assimilated.
D) accommodated.

89. The ability of preschool children to empathize with classmates who are feeling sad
illustrates that preoperational children have developed
A) egocentrism.
B) the curse of knowledge.
C) a theory of mind.
D) a concept of conservation.

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90. If a child realizes that others may have false beliefs, we can probably say that the child
is not completely
A) egocentric.
B) accommodated.
C) imprinted.
D) authoritarian.

91. In an experiment, children saw a doll named Sally leave her ball in a red cupboard and
go away. They then observed another doll, Anne, move the ball to a different location.
In asking children where Sally will look for the ball upon her return, the investigators
were testing the children's
A) secure attachment.
B) sense of object permanence.
C) theory of mind.
D) stranger anxiety.

92. According to Piaget, children gain the ability to reverse simple mathematical operations
and understand conservation during the ________ stage.
A) preoperational
B) sensorimotor
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

93. Gilbert notices that his sausage is sliced into six pieces, whereas his brother's is sliced
into nine pieces. He understands, however, that his brother's sausage is not actually any
larger than his own. This indicates that Gilbert has by now reached the ________ stage
of development.
A) concrete operational
B) sensorimotor
C) formal operational
D) preoperational

94. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage is to the concrete operational stage as
________ is to ________.
A) assimilation; accommodation
B) object permanence; stranger anxiety
C) egocentrism; conservation
D) responsive parenting; temperament

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 95. Julie understands that if 4 coins added to 5 coins equals 9 coins, then 4 coins subtracted
from 9 coins equals 5 coins. This indicates that Julie has reached
A) a critical period.
B) the formal operational stage.
C) a secure attachment.
D) the concrete operational stage.

96. According to Piaget's theory, during the concrete operational stage, a child is still
unlikely to demonstrate
A) object permanence.
B) comprehension of mathematical transformations.
C) the ability to think hypothetically.
D) any evidence of logic.

97. According to Piaget, people are first able to reason abstractly and think hypothetically
A) after scaffolding has occurred.
B) before a critical period has passed.
C) during the formal operational stage.
D) during the concrete operational stage.

98. Specific accomplishments during the sensorimotor period of cognitive development

include
A) logic and moral reasoning.
B) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
C) pretend play and egocentrism.
D) conservation and mathematical transformations.

99. Specific accomplishments during the preoperational stage of cognitive development are
A) logic and moral reasoning.
B) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
C) pretend play and egocentrism.
D) conservation and mathematical transformations.

100. Who emphasized that children solve problems and step to higher levels of thinking by
relying on inner speech?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Jean Piaget
D) Harry Harlow

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101. Lev Vygotsky emphasized that the scaffold from which children step to higher levels of
thinking is
A) object permanence.
B) concrete operational thinking.
C) a theory of mind.
D) language.

102. Seven-year-old Montel avoided walking carelessly across a street with heavy traffic by
telling himself to “stop, look, and listen before crossing.” The value of his verbal self-
warning for controlling his own behavior was most clearly emphasized by
A) Erik Erikson.
B) Jean Piaget.
C) Lev Vygotsky.
D) Lawrence Kohlberg.

103. Second graders who ________ while doing math problems grasped third-grade math
better the following year.
A) muttered to themselves
B) physically exercised
C) closed their eyes
D) listened to music

104. Piaget emphasized how the child's mind grows through interaction with the physical
environment. Vygotsky emphasized how the child's mind grows through
A) imprinting.
B) a pruning process.
C) social mentoring.
D) a secure attachment.

105. Contemporary research suggests that Piaget identified fairly accurately ________ of
major cognitive developmental milestones.
A) both the sequence and the age-related timing
B) the sequence but not the age-related timing
C) the age-related timing but not the sequence
D) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing

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106. Characteristics of autism spectrum disorder include deficient communication and social
interaction skills, as well as
A) a prenatal addiction to drugs taken by one's mother.
B) memory deficits.
C) a lack of dopamine in relevant brain cells.
D) repetitive behaviors and interests.

107. Autism spectrum disorder is a disorder characterized by deficient social interaction and
an impaired
A) capacity for stranger anxiety.
B) sense of object permanence.
C) theory of mind.
D) concept of conservation.

108. Jeremy has difficulty recognizing that a sibling is scared or angry. Jeremy's difficulty
would be especially common for those with
A) infantile amnesia.
B) a secure attachment.
C) autism spectrum disorder.
D) schemas for familiar faces.

109. Which of the following has been found to contribute to autism spectrum disorder?
A) infantile amnesia
B) MMR vaccinations
C) abnormal brain development
D) authoritative parenting

110. ASD has differing levels of severity. Those formerly diagnosed with ________
generally have normal intelligence and function at a high level.
A) infantile amnesia
B) asthma
C) stranger anxiety
D) Asperger syndrome

111. ASD afflicts about ________ boys for every girl.

A) two
B) three
C) four
D) five

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112. The psychologist who has attempted to explain the fact that more boys than girls suffer
from autism spectrum disorder is
A) Jean Piaget.
B) Simon Baron-Cohen.
C) Lev Vygotsky.
D) Carolyn Rovee-Collier.

113. According to Baron-Cohen, whether male or female, those with ASD are systemizers
who have more difficulty
A) reading facial expressions.
B) forming secure attachments.
C) imitating other people's behavior.
D) with physical coordination.

114. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has argued that an “systermizing” is characteristic of

those with
A) infantile amnesia.
B) the curse of knowledge.
C) an insecure attachment.
D) autism spectrum disorder.

115. Several studies have revealed fewer-than-normal fiber tracts connecting the front to the
back of the brain among those with
A) childhood obesity.
B) autism spectrum disorder.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) stranger anxiety.

116. Less-than-normal activity in brain areas involved in mirroring others' actions has been
found to be associated with
A) autism spectrum disorder.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) a difficult temperament.
D) infantile amnesia.

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117. Researchers are exploring whether treatment with ________ might improve social
behavior in those with ASD.
A) adrenal hormones
B) testosterone
C) MMR vaccinations
D) oxytocin

118. The acquisition of a sense of object permanence is most closely associated with the
development of
A) conservation.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) imprinting.
D) egocentrism.

119. Connie and Andrew's infant son usually showed little reaction to being left with various
church nursery caregivers during weekly worship services. But when he was almost 9
months old, the baby began crying whenever his parents placed him in the arms of a
nursery caregiver. The baby's crying best illustrates an emerging
A) egocentrism.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) sense of self-awareness.
D) understanding of conservation.

120. Eighteen-month-old Justin follows his mother around the house, clinging tightly to her
when he is frightened. This best illustrates
A) object permanence.
B) attachment behavior.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) accommodation.

121. Young children typically try to stay very close to their parents when they are in an
unfamiliar setting. This best illustrates the adaptive value of
A) assimilation.
B) conservation.
C) attachment.
D) egocentrism.

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122. The Harlows' studies of infant monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that body
contact promotes
A) egocentrism.
B) attachment.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) conservation.

123. Infant monkeys raised with a nourishing wire mother and a nonnourishing cloth mother
A) preferred the nourishing wire mother.
B) preferred the nonnourishing cloth mother.
C) showed no preference for one mother over the other.
D) shifted their initial preference for the wire mother to the cloth mother as they
matured.

124. Which of the following factors is important for the development of attachment bonds
between human infants and their mothers?
A) conservation
B) familiarity
C) egocentrism
D) stranger anxiety

125. Dr. Hermitt believes that children whose parents are not responsive to their needs during
the first two months of life will never develop basic trust. Obviously, Dr. Hermitt
believes that this phase of development is a
A) concrete operational stage.
B) critical period.
C) cognitive schema.
D) theory of mind.

126. The form of attachment examined by Konrad Lorenz in his observations of ducklings is
called
A) maturation.
B) imprinting.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) a critical period.

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127. The process by which certain birds form attachments during a critical period very early
in life is called
A) imprinting.
B) conservation.
C) assimilation.
D) accommodation.

128. Lambs born and raised in the barn where the cattle are kept tend to stay near the cattle
when subsequently placed in open pasture. This best illustrates a process known as
A) imprinting.
B) conservation.
C) accommodation.
D) egocentrism.

129. Which of the following psychologists designed the strange situation experiment to study
children's attachment differences?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Jean Piaget
C) Mary Ainsworth
D) Lev Vygotsky

130. Mr. Johnson spends time each day caressing and rocking his infant daughter. This time
together should serve most directly to promote
A) secure attachment.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) egocentrism.
D) conservation.

131. At 12 months of age, Jeremy shows no more desire to be held by his own parents than
by complete strangers. His behavior best illustrates
A) object permanence.
B) insecure attachment.
C) conservation.
D) egocentrism.

132. Insecurely attached infants are those who respond to their mothers with either
A) conservation or basic trust.
B) egocentrism or empathy.
C) assimilation or accommodation.
D) anxiety or avoidance.

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133. Infants in a strange situation who cling to their mother rather than exploring their
surroundings show signs of
A) egocentrism.
B) avoidant attachment.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) anxious attachment.

134. Even though Alicia was busy playing when her mother came to pick her up from her
babysitter, she quickly ran to her mother, gesturing to be held. Alicia most clearly
showed signs of
A) conservation.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) secure attachment.
D) egocentrism.

135. Dr. Ensing studies the reactions of very young children who are briefly separated from
their mothers while in an unfamiliar setting. It is most likely that Dr. Ensing is
conducting research on
A) attachment.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) imprinting.

136. In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting, infants with an insecure attachment are most likely
to
A) demonstrate unusually low levels of stranger anxiety.
B) happily leave their mother's side and explore their new surroundings.
C) feel happy when their mothers leave them.
D) show indifference to their mother's return after a brief absence.

137. A mother who is consistently sensitive and responsive to her infant's cries for care and
protection is most likely to encourage
A) egocentrism.
B) stranger anxiety.
C) secure attachment.
D) conservation.

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138. When 1-year-old Andrea tries to talk, her mother talks back; when she smiles, her
mother smiles in return. These maternal reactions are most relevant to Andrea's
development of
A) a secure attachment.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.

139. Infants who are unable to predict how their parents will react to their cries for care and
attention are especially likely to show signs of
A) egocentrism.
B) conservation.
C) insecure attachment.
D) assimilation.

140. At 16 months of age, Edmund is uncertain whether his busy parents will take time to
feed him when he is hungry. This is most indicative of
A) insecure attachment.
B) egocentrism.
C) conservation.
D) object permanence.

141. Temperament is an individual's characteristic

A) social connectedness.
B) emotional reactivity.
C) physical health.
D) intelligence.

142. Our enduring personality traits are first evident in our differing
A) birth weights.
B) schemas.
C) temperaments.
D) reflex responses.

143. Nuria is usually timid and fearful, whereas her sister Kyra is typically relaxed and
cheerful. The two sisters are most strikingly different in
A) brain maturation.
B) egocentrism.
C) physical health.
D) temperament.

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144. Inherited genes most clearly contribute to individual differences in
A) secure attachment.
B) schemas.
C) temperament.
D) imprinting.

145. Those who incorrectly blame inadequate parental nurture for a child's insecure
attachment should be reminded of the impact of a child's
A) critical periods.
B) temperament.
C) infantile amnesia.
D) sense of object permanence.

146. Questions about the extent to which secure attachments are influenced by infant
temperament or by responsive parenting are most directly relevant to the issue of
A) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
B) critical periods and imprinting.
C) nature and nurture.
D) assimilation and accommodation.

147. Compared with 1965 fathers, today's co-parenting fathers spend ________ weekly hours
with their children. Couples that share housework and child care are ________ in their
relationships than couples who do not share these responsibilities.
A) more; no happier
B) more; happier
C) no more; no happier
D) no more; happier

148. Erik Erikson suggested that children with a secure attachment to their parents are
especially likely to have developed a sense of
A) stranger anxiety.
B) egocentrism.
C) basic trust.
D) object permanence.

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149. Erik Erikson suggested that a sense of basic trust during infancy results from
A) delay of gratification.
B) object permanence.
C) responsive parenting.
D) inborn temperament.

150. Some individuals are so uncomfortable getting close to others that they'll do anything to
maintain their distance. These people are said to demonstrate an insecure
A) preoperational attachment style.
B) anxious attachment style.
C) egocentric attachment style.
D) avoidant attachment style.

151. The loss of parental attention and care experienced by many orphaned children is likely
to put them at increased risk for
A) infantile amnesia.
B) egocentrism.
C) stranger anxiety.
D) insecure attachments.

152. Children who recover from adversity, as did most of the surviving children of the
Holocaust, most clearly illustrate
A) imprinting.
B) resilience.
C) egocentrism.
D) a midlife crisis.

153. Monkeys raised in total isolation have been observed to

A) imprint to the first moving object they observe.
B) become very fearful or aggressive when brought into close contact with other
monkeys their age.
C) form a close attachment to the first monkey with whom they experience bodily
contact.
D) show complete apathy and indifference to the first monkeys they encounter.

154. Research indicates that most abusive parents report that they themselves were
A) raised in a permissive and overindulgent environment.
B) raised by authoritative parents.
C) prevented from interacting with childhood peers.
D) battered or neglected as children.

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155. Golden hamsters that are repeatedly threatened and attacked while young grow up to be
________ when caged with same-sized hamsters.
A) egocentric
B) cowards
C) securely attached
D) bullies

156. Children exposed to severe or prolonged physical abuse respond to angry faces with
________ activity in threat-detecting areas of the brain. As adults they exhibit ________
startle responses.
A) diminished; weaker
B) heightened; weaker
C) diminished; stronger
D) heightened; stronger

157. A child's understanding of how he or she is similar and different from other children is
best described as part of the child's
A) insecure attachment.
B) critical period.
C) egocentrism.
D) self-concept.

158. Dmitri is a typical 6-month-old. When he looks into a mirror he is likely to

A) recognize the image as himself.
B) show no interest and ignore what he sees.
C) reach toward the image as if it were another child.
D) be somewhat frightened and turn away.

159. To recognize that a face seen in a mirror is his or her own, a child must have some
A) theory of mind.
B) secure attachment.
C) self-awareness.
D) concept of conservation.

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160. Researchers have sneakily dabbed a colored spot on young children's noses in order to
study the developmental beginnings of
A) egocentrism.
B) object permanence.
C) secure attachments.
D) self-awareness.

161. Parenting styles can be described as a combination of

A) involvement and restraint.
B) responsiveness and demandingness.
C) rules and affection.
D) oversight and involvement.

162. Psychologists describe child raising in which rules are imposed without explanation as
a(n) ________ style.
A) authoritative
B) egocentric
C) permissive
D) authoritarian

163. Authoritarian parents are especially likely to be

A) coercive.
B) confrontive.
C) unrestraining.
D) trusting.

164. Two characteristics of authoritative parents are that they provide children with
A) clear behavior expectations and demonstrate high levels of parental responsiveness.
B) confusing behavior expectations and demonstrate low levels of parental
responsiveness.
C) clear behavior expectations and demonstrate low levels of parental responsiveness.
D) confusing behavior expectations and demonstrate high levels of parental
responsiveness.

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165. The Albertsons establish and enforce rules for their children to follow. They give
reasons for the rules and invite their teenagers to join in the discussion when new rules
are being made. Psychologists would characterize the Albertsons as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) legalistic
C) authoritative
D) permissive

166. Kelly and Brian communicate few behavioral expectations to their children, and they
are typically inattentive to their children's needs for supervision. Psychologists would
characterize Kelly and Brian as ________ parents.
A) authoritarian
B) negligent
C) authoritative
D) permissive

167. Parents who make few demands on their children and use little punishment are
A) authoritarian.
B) authoritative.
C) egocentric.
D) permissive.

168. Levels of self-esteem in children are highest among children with ________ parents.
A) permissive
B) authoritative
C) conservative
D) authoritarian

169. Parents who discuss and negotiate family rules are especially likely to raise children
who are
A) self-reliant.
B) insecurely attached.
C) disobedient.
D) egocentric.

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170. The children of authoritarian parents tend to be ________ socially skilled than the
children of authoritative parents. The children of permissive parents tend to be
________ immature than the children of authoritative parents.
A) more; less
B) less; less
C) more; more
D) less; more

171. The association between authoritative parenting and the social competence of children
might result from an underlying third factor such as shared genes. This best reminds us
that
A) socially mature children evoke parental trust.
B) imprinting occurs during a restricted critical period.
C) we overestimate the value of secure attachments.
D) correlation is not causation.

172. Which of the following phases of development extends from the beginnings of sexual
maturity to independent adulthood?
A) puberty
B) adolescence
C) menarche
D) emerging adulthood

173. G. Stanley Hall described adolescence as a period of

A) identity verses role confusion.
B) intimacy versus loneliness.
C) storm and stress.
D) integrity and despair.

174. The term puberty refers to the period of

A) formal operations and the development of conventional morality.
B) late adolescence when self‑identity is formed.
C) rapid physical development and the onset of reproductive capability.
D) sexual attraction to the opposite‑sex parent.

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175. The physical changes associated with puberty are typically characterized by individual
differences in ________ of major sexual maturation milestones.
A) the sequence but not the age-related timing
B) both the sequence and the age-related timing
C) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing
D) the age-related timing but not the sequence

176. Boys who are stronger and more athletic during their early teen years tend to be
________ independent and ________ at risk for alcohol use and delinquency.
A) less; less
B) more; more
C) less; more
D) more; less

177. Who is likely to be the most popular student in the fifth-grade class?
A) Helmut, who is the tallest boy in the class
B) Jeff, who is the statistician for the basketball team
C) Hara, who is below average in height and physical maturity
D) Sally, who is the most sexually mature girl in the class

178. During their early teen years, girls who are more physically mature than most other girls
their age are most likely to experience higher-than-average levels of
A) conventional morality.
B) formal operational thinking.
C) sexual harassment.
D) role confusion.

179. Increased levels of body fat in females has been suggested as partially responsible for an
early onset of
A) postconventional morality.
B) formal operational thinking.
C) generativity.
D) puberty.

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180. Jake is a senior in high-school and is planning his college career. He has picked a major,
selected several universities to apply to, and has a list of scholarships he would like to
apply for as well. He would also like to live on campus his freshman year. His ability to
make these long-term plans is in part the responsibility of
A) pubertal development.
B) selective pruning of neurons.
C) limbic system development.
D) frontal lobe development and myelination.

181. The improved judgment and impulse control that occur as adolescents grow older is
made possible by the maturation of the
A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) frontal lobes.
D) limbic system.

182. Vincent's ability to reason hypothetically in his geometry class indicates that he is in the
________ stage of development.
A) concrete operational
B) formal operational
C) preconventional
D) postconventional

183. “If you're really concerned about the rights and dignity of women,” Yigal asked his
older brother, “how can you justify buying pornographic magazines?” Yigal's question
indicates that he is in the ________ stage of development.
A) formal operational
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) concrete operational

184. Like Piaget, Kohlberg emphasized that children's moral judgments build on their
A) cognitive development.
B) social development.
C) physical development.
D) economic development.

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185. Who analyzed people's answers to moral dilemmas for evidence of different stages of
moral reasoning?
A) Erik Erikson
B) Walter Mischel
C) Jean Piaget
D) Lawrence Kohlberg

186. Which theory would most likely suggest that children often take turns passing and
shooting a basketball because they want to avoid having others angry at them, whereas
adolescents often do so because they want to play the game the way it's supposed to be
played?
A) Erikson's psychosocial development theory
B) Piaget's cognitive development theory
C) Haidt's intuitionist theory
D) Kohlberg's moral development theory

187. According to Kohlberg, morality based simply on your own self-interest represents
________ morality.
A) concrete operational
B) preconventional
C) conventional
D) postconventional

188. Henry disapproves of stealing jelly beans from his sister's Easter basket because he
thinks his mother will spank him if he does. Henry's thinking best represents a
________ morality.
A) conventional
B) preconventional
C) concrete operational
D) postconventional

189. According to Kohlberg, morality based on a desire to uphold the laws of society is
characteristic of the ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional

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190. A student who does not cheat on tests because he doesn't want to violate classroom rules
is in Kohlberg's ________ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) conventional
D) postconventional

191. Formal operational thought is MOST necessary for the development of ________
morality.
A) preoperational
B) conventional
C) preconventional
D) postconventional

192. Preconventional morality is to postconventional morality as ________ is to ________.

A) caring relationship; ethical principles
B) self‑interest; social approval
C) social approval; self‑interest
D) self‑interest; ethical principles

193. Kohlberg's critics have noted that a postconventional level of morality is most likely to
be found among people who value
A) individualism.
B) moral intuitions.
C) concrete operations.
D) simple equality rather than equity.

194. Much of our psychological reasoning occurs on the “low road” of automatic
unconscious thinking. This is best illustrated by our
A) concrete operations.
B) moral intuitions.
C) formal operations.
D) postconventional morality.

195. Which perspective emphasizes that automatic feelings often precede and influence our
moral reasoning?
A) Kohlberg's moral development perspective
B) Haidt's intuitionist perspective
C) Piaget's cognitive development perspective
D) Erikson's psychosocial perspective

Page 36
196. The thought of eating boiled dog meat is so emotionally disgusting to Caitlin that she is
immediately sure it must be morally wrong. Her reaction is best explained in terms of
A) Piaget's cognitive development perspective.
B) Erikson's psychosocial perspective.
C) Haidt's intuitionist perspective.
D) Kohlberg's moral development perspective.

197. Killing one person to save five by throwing a switch that diverts a runaway trolley is
judged as more morally acceptable than killing one person to save five by pushing a
stranger directly into the path of the oncoming trolley. This best illustrates that moral
judgments may reflect
A) postconventional reasoning.
B) gut-level intuitions.
C) social identity.
D) formal operational thought.

198. Giving up immediate rewards to achieve longer-term goals is called

A) postconventional morality.
B) a pruning process.
C) delay of gratification.
D) formal operational thought.

199. Emily passes up the small pleasure of eating a high-calorie dessert for the greater
satisfaction of achieving her dieting goals in the upcoming month. Emily best illustrates
A) postconventional morality.
B) role confusion.
C) an intuitionist perspective.
D) delay of gratification.

200. Children who ________ are especially likely to be academically successful.

A) experience early pubertal maturation
B) exhibit moral intuition
C) are able to delay gratification
D) demonstrate preconventional morality

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201. The children who demonstrated delay of gratification in Mischel's classic marshmallow
test had ________ college completion rates and ________ often suffered addiction
problems.
A) lower; less
B) higher; less
C) higher; more
D) lower; more

202. Young children who more consistently delayed gratification in Mischel's classic
marshmallow tests are best described as more
A) socially dependent.
B) self-controlled.
C) anxious.
D) self-disclosing.

203. Piaget is to cognitive development as Erikson is to ________ development.

A) moral
B) physical
C) emotional
D) psychosocial

204. According to Erikson, infancy is to trust as adolescence is to

A) autonomy.
B) identity.
C) generativity.
D) integrity.

205. According to Erikson, late adulthood is to integrity as young adulthood is to

A) autonomy.
B) initiative.
C) intimacy.
D) identity.

206. According to Erikson, adolescents who are unable to develop a sense of identity
experience
A) postconventional morality.
B) role confusion.
C) delay of gratification.
D) an intuitionist perspective.

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207. On the quest to identity formation, adolescents in industrialist cultures
A) try different selves in different situations.
B) are concerned mostly with their self-image.
C) contemplate their own self-concept.
D) experiment with self-expression.

208. Jessie acts one way when she is with her friends and a different way when she is at
home with her family. This is normal. Jessie is
A) trying different selves in different situations.
B) concerned mostly with her self-image.
C) contemplating her own self-concept.
D) experimenting with self-expression.

209. According to Erikson, committing oneself to meaningful social roles would be most
indicative of the achievement of
A) autonomy.
B) competence.
C) initiative.
D) identity.

210. Ismael has switched his college major several times while trying to figure out what kind
of work he might like to do. Erikson would have suggested that Ismael lacks
A) identity.
B) initiative.
C) autonomy.
D) competence.

211. Lolita vacillates between acting rebellious toward her parents and high school teachers
and behaving with compliance and respect. Erikson would have suggested that Lolita's
inconsistency illustrates
A) delay of gratification.
B) role confusion.
C) a pruning process.
D) dual processing.

Page 39
212. When surrounded by men, a woman may become mindful of her gender because
________ often forms around one's distinctiveness.
A) social identity
B) moral intuition
C) intimacy
D) a sense of competence

213. As individuals progress through their teen years into early adulthood, their self‑esteem
typically becomes
A) less personalized and unique.
B) more fluid and changeable.
C) less integrated.
D) more positive.

214. Erikson suggested that the capacity to form close, loving relationships in young
adulthood depended on
A) demonstrating generativity.
B) developing a sense of integrity.
C) mastering formal operational thinking.
D) achieving a sense of identity.

215. According to Erikson, Lucinda's sense of who she is and where she's going increases her
chances of moving on to the next stage of
A) autonomy.
B) basic trust.
C) intimacy.
D) integrity.

216. When researchers sampled the daily experiences of American teens, they found them to
be unhappiest when they were
A) alone.
B) with siblings.
C) with friends.
D) with parents.

217. Adolescents and their parents are most likely to have disagreements regarding
A) religious beliefs.
B) career choices.
C) college choices.
D) homework.

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218. Parent-child conflict during the transition to adolescence tends to be ________ with
first-born rather than second-born children. The conflict tends to be ________ between
children and their mothers than between children and their fathers.
A) greater; stronger
B) smaller; weaker
C) greater; weaker
D) smaller; stronger

219. Adolescents who have been bullied by their peers are at increased risk of reduced
physical health and
A) delayed gratification.
B) postconventional morality.
C) psychological distress.
D) excessive online texting.

220. Casey is a college student who lives with her parents and commutes to her classes. She
works a part-time job to help cover her phone bill and college expenses. She is a(n)
A) young adult.
B) emerging adult.
C) late adolescent.
D) extended adolescent.

221. Mark is taking a year off after high school before starting college. He lives with his
parents and is working full time so he can save enough money to attend college the
following year. He is a(n)
A) young adult.
B) emerging adult.
C) late adolescent.
D) extended adolescent.

222. Compared with a century ago, in the United States today people are likely to
A) establish their adult careers at an earlier age.
B) marry for the first time at a later age.
C) live separately from their parents at an earlier age.
D) experience their first menstrual period at a later age.

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223. Which of the following is true of adolescence today as compared with a century ago?
A) Menarche occurs later in life, and adult independence occurs later in life.
B) Menarche occurs earlier in life, and adult independence occurs earlier in life.
C) Menarche occurs later in life, and adult independence occurs earlier in life.
D) Menarche occurs earlier in life, and adult independence occurs later in life.

224. Allowing 26-year-olds to remain on their parents' health insurance illustrates an

increasing recognition of a phase of life called
A) adolescence.
B) the formal operational stage.
C) emerging adulthood.
D) puberty.

225. Which of the following helps explain why the U.S. government now allows dependent
children up to age 26 to remain on their parents' health insurance?
A) the entrance into young adulthood
B) trends associated with emerging adulthood
C) the time frame of late adolescence
D) the possibility of extended adolescence

226. Which of the following is true of physical development in adult life?

A) The outward signs of advancing years are psychologically stressful for adults in
every culture.
B) Sensory ability and reaction time reach their peak by the mid‑twenties.
C) Most adults are keenly aware of the first signs of physical decline.
D) None of these statements is true.

227. As men progress through middle adulthood, they experience a ________ in sperm count
and a ________ in testosterone level.
A) rise; decline
B) decline; rise
C) rise; rise
D) decline; decline

228. Judy has recently had periods of mild physical discomfort, and her doctor notes that she
is no longer able to become pregnant. It is most likely that Judy is experiencing
A) immune weakness.
B) slowing of neural processing.
C) menopause.
D) a net loss of brain cells.

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229. The current life expectancy is
A) 71.
B) 76.
C) 81.
D) 82.

230. Today, ________ people worldwide are age 60 or older.

A) 1 in 10
B) 3 in 10
C) 4 in 10
D) 6 in 10

231. It is expected that ________ people worldwide will be age 60 or older by 2100.
A) 1 in 10
B) 3 in 10
C) 4 in 10
D) 6 in 10

232. Women worldwide outlive men by almost

A) 2 years.
B) 3 years.
C) 5 years.
D) 7 years.

233. Which of the following describes gender differences in life expectancy?

A) The number of newborn females is equal to the number of males, and females have
a longer life expectancy than do males.
B) The number of newborn females is larger than the number of males, and females
have a shorter life expectancy than do males.
C) The number of newborn females is equal to the number of males, and females have
a shorter life expectancy than do males.
D) The number of newborn females is smaller than the number of males, and females
have a longer life expectancy than do males.

234. A telomere is a region at the end of a(n)

A) neuron.
B) antibody.
C) teratogen.
D) chromosome.

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235. Longer telomeres are found in
A) emerging adults.
B) people who are obese.
C) younger males.
D) breast-fed babies.

236. Children subjected to frequent abuse or bullying are most likely to exhibit
A) a death-deferral phenomenon.
B) shortened telomeres.
C) terminal decline.
D) neurogenesis.

237. The increase in death rates among older people after they reach a life milestone such as
a birthday provides evidence of
A) the accumulation of antibodies.
B) a death-deferral phenomenon.
C) shortened telomeres.
D) terminal decline.

238. Research on people aged 65 and older has shown that

A) most older people become increasingly fearful of death as they age.
B) most older people experience loss of visual sharpness.
C) most victims of Alzheimer's disease can reverse the disorder by becoming
physically active.
D) most of those older than 65 reside in health care institutions such as nursing homes.

239. In late adulthood, the light-sensitive inner portion of the eye receives less light because
the eye's _________ shrinks and its ________ grows cloudy.
A) lens; pupil
B) retina; lens
C) pupil; lens
D) retina; pupil

240. Sixty-five-year-olds should drive cars with ________ windshields because with age the
eye's lens becomes ________ transparent.
A) tinted; more
B) tinted; less
C) untinted; more
D) untinted; less

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241. As people progress into old age, their disease-fighting immune systems become
A) more effective in resisting most life-threatening ailments.
B) less effective in resisting common cold viruses than in resisting cancer.
C) more effective in resisting upper respiratory flu than in resisting pneumonia.
D) completely ineffective in resisting any diseases without specific medication.

242. Compared with younger adults, older adults take ________ time to solve perceptual
puzzles and ________ time to remember names.
A) more; more
B) less; less
C) more; less
D) less; more

243. As people progress through late adulthood, they typically experience a slight
A) decrease in brain weight.
B) increase in colds and flu.
C) increase in life satisfaction.
D) increase in the perception of high-pitched sounds.

244. During memory tasks, the left frontal lobes are especially active in young adult brains,
while older adult brains use both left and right frontal lobes. This age-related change in
brain functioning best illustrates
A) terminal decline.
B) neurogenesis.
C) a death-deferral phenomenon.
D) plasticity.

245. Physical exercise helps maintain the ________ protecting the ends of chromosomes.
A) telomeres
B) myelin
C) teratogens
D) schemas

246. Physical exercise programs during late adulthood are most likely to
A) reduce brain shrinkage.
B) shorten telomeres.
C) prevent menopause.
D) inhibit the death-deferral phenomenon.

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247. Research suggests that the best way to enhance memory and reduce the risk of
significant cognitive decline in late adulthood is to engage in daily
A) problem-solving exercise.
B) visual-tracking exercise.
C) memory-retrieval exercise.
D) physical exercise.

248. Twenty-year-olds would most likely outperform 60-year-olds on an art history exam in
which they were asked to
A) list as many famous artists as possible.
B) match paintings with famous painters.
C) pick an artist's country of birth from a list of four possibilities.
D) respond to true–false statements regarding important events in artists' lives.

249. Remembering to do something at a particular time or in particular circumstances is

called
A) terminal decline.
B) prospective memory.
C) the social clock.
D) working memory.

250. The differences among adults' abilities to learn and remember are greatest among those
in their
A) forties.
B) fifties.
C) sixties.
D) seventies.

251. In recall and recognition tests of memory for recently learned material, older adults are
more likely than young adults to have difficulty
A) recalling meaningful material.
B) recognizing meaningful material.
C) recalling meaningless material.
D) recognizing meaningless material.

252. A ________ study compares people of different ages at the same point in time.
A) formal operational
B) cross-sectional
C) preconventional
D) longitudinal

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253. Tonya asks people of different ages to complete a measure of life satisfaction. She then
looks for life satisfaction differences across different age levels. Tonya is conducting a
________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) preoperational
C) cross‑sectional
D) concrete operational

254. A longitudinal study is research that

A) compares individuals of different ages at the same point in time.
B) involves different researchers assessing the behavior of a large group.
C) studies development during a critical period.
D) follows and retests the same people over time.

255. To compare moral reasoning skills of younger and older children, Professor Hauten
tested and retested a group of children from the time they were 4 until they reached the
age of 12. The professor conducted a ________ study.
A) longitudinal
B) concrete operational
C) preconventional
D) cross‑sectional

256. The accelerated loss of cognitive abilities in the last years of life is called
A) neurogenesis.
B) terminal decline.
C) brain plasticity.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.

257. There is some hope that daily memory, problem-solving, and cognitive training
exercises can sustain mental abilities in late adulthood. This hope is based in part on the
aging brain's
A) social clock.
B) shortened telomeres.
C) plasticity.
D) terminal decline.

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258. The deterioration of memory and thinking caused by ailments such as alcohol use
disorder or a series of small strokes is called
A) terminal decline.
B) a neurocognitive disorder.
C) menopause.
D) Alzheimer's disease.

259. A progressive erosion of mental functioning that was formerly known as dementia is
now called
A) brain plasticity.
B) menopause.
C) neurocognitive disorder.
D) a death-deferral phenomenon.

260. Alzheimer's disease can best be described as one form of

A) neurocognitive disorder.
B) brain plasticity.
C) neurogenesis.
D) menopause.

261. An early sign of Alzheimer's disease would most likely be

A) an inability to recognize oneself in a mirror.
B) the use of profane and abusive language.
C) upper respiratory flu.
D) difficulty in naming familiar objects or people.

262. Shriveled protein filaments in the cell bodies of acetylcholine-producing neurons is a

telltale abnormality associated with
A) menopause.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) brain plasticity.
D) pneumonia.

263. Adults are ________ likely to divorce in their early forties than in their early twenties.
They are ________ likely to commit suicide in their early forties than in their early
seventies.
A) less; less
B) more; more
C) less; more
D) more; less

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264. For those who report experiencing a life crisis, the trigger is usually
A) age.
B) entering middle adulthood.
C) mental decline.
D) a major event.

265. Judith is taking care of her aging parents but also provides support for her adult
children. Judith can be described as
A) a victim of the social clock.
B) entering late adulthood.
C) a member of the sandwich generation.
D) a young adult.

266. Emotional instability has been found to be

A) highest among 30-year-olds.
B) highest among 40-year-olds.
C) highest among 50-year-olds.
D) similar among adults at all of these ages.

267. The term social clock refers to

A) the culturally preferred time to leave home, marry, have children, and retire.
B) an optimal time for developing social bonds between children and caregivers.
C) the average age of people in different social groups and organizations.
D) the different ways in which societies evaluate the physical and cognitive changes
accompanying the aging process.

268. Erik Erikson maintained that the two basic aspects of life that dominate adulthood are
A) identity and independence.
B) intimacy and identity.
C) intimacy and generativity.
D) independence and generativity.

269. In explaining pair-bonding among humans, it has been suggested that parents who
cooperated to nurture their children to maturity were more likely to have their genes
passed on to future generations. This best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.
A) intuitionist
B) cross-sectional
C) evolutionary
D) longitudinal

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270. Compared with their counterparts of 30 years ago, people in Western countries today are
better educated and ________. These trends may help explain why the American
divorce rate has ________ since 1980.
A) marrying later; leveled off
B) marrying earlier; increased
C) marrying later; increased
D) marrying earlier; leveled off

271. Compared with their counterparts of 30 years ago, Americans are marrying at a(n)
A) older age and are experiencing more marital satisfaction.
B) younger age and are experiencing less marital satisfaction.
C) older age and have increased their standards for mate selection.
D) younger age and have decreased their standards for mate selection.

272. Compared with non-cohabiting couples, which of the following is true of couples who
live together before engagement and marriage?
A) They are initially more committed to the ideal of an enduring marriage, and they
become increasingly more marriage-supportive while cohabiting.
B) They are initially less committed to the ideal of an enduring marriage, and they
become increasingly more marriage-supportive while cohabiting.
C) They are initially more committed to the ideal of an enduring marriage, and they
become increasingly less marriage-supportive while cohabiting.
D) They are initially less committed to the ideal of an enduring marriage, and they
become increasingly less marriage-supportive while cohabiting.

273. Marriage bonds are especially likely to endure when a couple

A) lives together for a time before they become engaged and marry.
B) focuses their time and energy on their growing children's needs.
C) engages in less frequent sexual interactions.
D) engages in more positive than negative interactions with each other.

274. Kathryn and Rafael's third and last child is leaving home for college next year. Their
empty nest is likely to be a(n) ________ place.
A) depressed
B) happy
C) anxious
D) boring

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275. Dr. Anders is a 45-year-old physician who experiences a sense of personal fulfillment in
contributing to the well-being of others through her medical practice. Erik Erikson
would have suggested that Dr. Anders experiences
A) plasticity.
B) autonomy.
C) attachment.
D) generativity.

276. Research on people's feelings of satisfaction with their lives indicates that
A) adolescents report being slightly happier than people over 65 years of age.
B) people over 65 years of age report being slightly happier than adolescents.
C) middle-aged adults report being slightly happier than both adolescents and people
over 65 years of age.
D) compared with other phases of life, the over-65 years are not notably unhappy.

277. Compared with younger adults, older adults are ________ attentive to positive news and
they have ________ problems in their social relationships.
A) more; more
B) less; fewer
C) more; fewer
D) less; more

278. Compared with younger adults, older adults experience ________ anger, and they are
________ to perceive negative images.
A) more; quicker
B) more; slower
C) less; quicker
D) less; slower

279. Compared with the amygdala in younger adults, the amygdala in older adults shows
A) diminishing activity in response to positive events.
B) enhanced activity in response to negative events.
C) diminishing activity in response to negative events.
D) enhanced activity in response to positive events.

280. As adults advance in age, their positive and negative moods become
A) less extreme and more enduring.
B) more extreme and less enduring.
C) less extreme and less enduring.
D) more extreme and more enduring.

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281. Professor Appledorn emphasizes that whether people flourish in late adulthood depends
on a continuous interaction among their inborn temperaments, their personal
relationships, and their mental expectations regarding the aging process. The professor's
viewpoint best illustrates
A) longitudinal study.
B) a developmental stage theory.
C) an intuitionist perspective.
D) a biopsychosocial approach.

282. The grief experienced over the death of a loved one is especially severe when death is
experienced
A) as a time that requires sharing honest emotions with others.
B) after years of anticipating the death of one's loved one.
C) as a time for celebrating the life and memory of the deceased person.
D) as coming before its expected time on the social clock.

283. In Erikson's theory, the sense of integrity achieved in late adulthood refers to the feeling
that
A) one's life has been meaningful.
B) one is healthy and not dependent upon others.
C) one is acting ethically.
D) one's life is full of close friendships.

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Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. A
12. C
13. B
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. D
24. D
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. C
32. C
33. D
34. D
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. D
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. D
43. A
44. D

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45. D
46. C
47. D
48. A
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. D
54. B
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. D
59. A
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. B
67. B
68. D
69. B
70. C
71. D
72. B
73. C
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. A
78. B
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. B
83. C
84. D
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. A
89. C
90. A

Page 54
 91. C
92. C
93. A
94. C
95. D
96. C
97. C
98. B
99. C
100. B
101. D
102. C
103. A
104. C
105. B
106. D
107. C
108. C
109. C
110. D
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. D
115. B
116. A
117. D
118. B
119. B
120. B
121. C
122. B
123. B
124. B
125. B
126. B
127. A
128. A
129. C
130. A
131. B
132. D
133. D
134. C
135. A
136. D

Page 55
137. C
138. A
139. C
140. A
141. B
142. C
143. D
144. C
145. B
146. C
147. B
148. C
149. C
150. D
151. D
152. B
153. B
154. D
155. B
156. D
157. D
158. C
159. C
160. D
161. B
162. D
163. A
164. A
165. C
166. B
167. D
168. B
169. A
170. D
171. D
172. B
173. C
174. C
175. D
176. B
177. A
178. C
179. D
180. D
181. C
182. B

Page 56
183. A
184. A
185. D
186. D
187. B
188. B
189. C
190. C
191. D
192. D
193. A
194. B
195. B
196. C
197. B
198. C
199. D
200. C
201. B
202. B
203. D
204. B
205. C
206. B
207. A
208. A
209. D
210. A
211. B
212. A
213. D
214. D
215. C
216. A
217. D
218. A
219. C
220. B
221. B
222. B
223. D
224. C
225. B
226. B
227. D
228. C

Page 57
229. A
230. A
231. B
232. C
233. D
234. D
235. D
236. B
237. B
238. B
239. C
240. D
241. C
242. A
243. A
244. D
245. A
246. A
247. D
248. A
249. B
250. D
251. C
252. B
253. C
254. D
255. A
256. B
257. C
258. B
259. C
260. A
261. D
262. B
263. A
264. D
265. C
266. D
267. A
268. C
269. C
270. A
271. C
272. D
273. D
274. B

Page 58
275. D
276. D
277. C
278. D
279. C
280. A
281. D
282. D
283. A

Page 59