Scientific American Psychology 2nd

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1. Chemically, medicines such as morphine and codeine are related to:

A) cocaine.
B) amphetamine.
C) opium.
D) caffeine.

2. Psychologists refer to one's awareness of oneself, one's thoughts, and the environment
as:
A) perception.
B) intelligence.
C) cognition.
D) consciousness.

3. The term "consciousness" refers to:

A) the state of being awake.
B) one's awareness of oneself and the environment.
C) higher-level reasoning and problem solving.
D) one's objective assessment of the world.

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4. Dr. Ferguson is investigating which smoke alarm tones are most likely to awaken older
adults when they are sleeping. Dr. Ferguson is a psychologist interested in:
A) human factors.
B) developmental psychology.
C) biopsychosocial.
D) clinical practice.

5. Ms. Reyes teaches a drama class for children and youth. She asks her pupils to lie on the
floor with their eyes closed and to become aware of all the sensations they experience,
from growls in their stomachs to the buzzing of the fluorescent lights. From a
psychological standpoint, Ms. Reyes is trying to develop her students':
A) consciousness.
B) cognition.
C) motivation.
D) emotion.

6. Which early psychologist believed that psychology should restrict itself to the study of
observable behaviors?
A) James
B) Wundt
C) Watson
D) Titchener

7. Which pioneering psychologist viewed the study of consciousness as central to

psychology?
A) Skinner
B) James
C) Watson
D) Pavlov

8. Identify a barrier to the study of consciousness.

A) stringent religious beliefs
B) continuous change in experiences
C) financial constraints
D) cultural differences

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 9. Desiree's literature professor remarks that James Joyce's Ulysses is known for its
stream-of-consciousness narrative. She immediately recalls that the early psychologist
_____ is associated with the term "stream of consciousness."
A) John Watson
B) Edward Titchener
C) Wilhelm Wundt
D) William James

10. Which statement is MOST accurate with respect to the current study of consciousness in
psychology?
A) Brain scans provide a subjective method of studying consciousness.
B) Understanding conscious experience is now an important goal in psychology.
C) Psychologists have revived and refined introspection as a way to study
consciousness.
D) Recent technological advances have failed to offer much insight into
consciousness.

11. The contemporary field of _____ is devoted to the scientific study of conscious
experience.
A) clinical psychology
B) human factors engineering
C) cognitive psychology
D) behavioral psychology

12. One's ability to read, understand, and—ideally—remember a textbook paragraph is

related to the area of _____ psychology.
A) developmental
B) cognitive
C) social
D) clinical

13. Identify an application of optogenetics in the field of psychology.

A) With optogenetics, researchers can activate or deactivate an existing gene by
replacing it with an artificial piece of DNA and see how it affects animals'
cognition.
B) It helps researchers understand how electrical signals travel along the axons of
individual neurons to pass between brain cells.
C) With optogenetics, researchers can activate or deactivate neurons or groups of
neurons over milliseconds and see how it affects animals' behavior.
D) It helps researchers understand how motor signals travel the final common path of
motor neurons to produce behavior.

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14. Think back through psychology's history. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Consciousness has never been a key focus of study in psychology.
B) Consciousness continues to be a key focus of study in psychology.
C) Consciousness has become an important topic in psychology, but only very
recently.
D) Consciousness was a central focus in the field, but only very early on in
psychology's history.

15. Which statement does NOT describe a barrier to the scientific study of consciousness?
A) Consciousness is inherently subjective.
B) Most psychologists no longer believe consciousness is a suitable subject of study.
C) Consciousness is always changing.
D) Sophisticated technology is needed to penetrate the brain basis of consciousness.

16. _____ allows information to be collected and saved (at least temporarily) with little or
no conscious effort.
A) Inattentional blindness
B) Selective attention
C) Automatic processing
D) Sensory adaptation

17. Automatic processing is defined as:

A) the tendency to become less aware over time of unchanging stimuli.
B) taking in information with little or no conscious effort.
C) the ability to focus attention on a small segment of information.
D) the failure to process objects one can clearly sense.

18. Summer cannot remember locking the back door on her way out this morning. "I'm sure
I must have," she reassures herself. This example BEST illustrates:
A) automatic processing.
B) altered states of consciousness.
C) the cocktail-party effect.
D) sensory adaptation.

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19. Which situation BEST illustrates automatic processing?
A) Gerri drives into a pole that seems to have appeared from nowhere.
B) Francisco ignores the sound of the television to focus on a telephone conversation.
C) Devin pours water into the coffee maker, forgetting that he added water just a
second ago.
D) Ellie no longer smells the cat's litter box in her own apartment.

20. Which statement BEST expresses the relationship between automatic information
processing and conscious information processing?
A) Automatic processing interferes with conscious information processing.
B) Automatic processing is a product of conscious information processing.
C) Automatic processing has little to do with conscious information processing.
D) Automatic processing enables conscious information processing.

21. A narrow focus on specific stimuli is called:

A) sensory adaptation.
B) inattentional blindness.
C) automatic processing.
D) selective attention.

22. While reading a friend's status update on a social networking site, Cory ignores the
scrolling newsfeed and the changing advertisements on the right-hand side of the screen.
Cory is demonstrating:
A) automatic processing.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) selective attention.
D) altered states of consciousness.

23. Regarding selective attention, which statement is TRUE?

A) Unselected information is not processed.
B) Selective attention is better among older than among younger adults.
C) Stimuli that occur only once are more likely to be attended than are repeated
stimuli.
D) Positive emotions improve selective attention more than negative ones do.

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24. All else being equal, which individual is MOST likely to show enhanced selective
attention?
A) Elsie, an older adult
B) Jerry, who is hearing a song for the first time
C) Alison, who is very happy
D) Rhiannon, a 5-year-old kid

25. The cocktail-party effect is a phenomenon of:

A) memory.
B) sensation.
C) automatic processing.
D) attention.

26. The efficient use of _____ is known as the cocktail-party effect.

A) automatic processing
B) sensory adaptation
C) selective attention
D) inattentional blindness

27. Lance is engrossed in an intense conversation at a crowded art gallery opening.

Suddenly, his attention is riveted by the mention of his name in a far corner of the room.
Lance's experience demonstrates:
A) inattentional blindness.
B) the cocktail-party effect.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) hypnagogic processing.

28. The failure to become aware of stimuli one can clearly sense is called:
A) selective attention.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) inattentional blindness.
D) automatic processing.

29. Inattentional blindness demonstrates that:

A) we do attend to all the stimuli we sense.
B) stimuli that are sensed are not necessarily attended.
C) certain stimuli are almost always processed automatically.
D) awareness decreases when stimuli do not change.

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30. In Neisser's classic demonstration of inattentional blindness, just over _____% of
participants failed to notice an image of a woman superimposed on a video of a
basketball game.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

31. In a classic demonstration of inattentional blindness, Neisser's participants counted

passes while watching a basketball game video (Neisser, 1979). The researchers
recorded whether participants noticed a woman's image superimposed on the video. In
this study, the _____ variable is _____.
A) dependent; whether participants noticed the woman
B) control; whether participants noticed the woman
C) dependent; the number of passes counted
D) control; the number of passes counted

32. Biological processes occurring on a cycle of approximately 24 hours are called _____
rhythms.
A) tidal
B) diurnal
C) circadian
D) infradian

33. Which process exemplifies a circadian rhythm?

A) the sleep-wake cycle
B) seasonal bird migration
C) the menstrual cycle
D) bears hibernating in the winter

34. Circadian rhythms are regulated by:

A) paradoxical sleep.
B) seasons of the year.
C) patterns of light and dark.
D) waking consciousness.

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35. Every 28 or 29 days, Danielle menstruates. Danielle's cycle exemplifies:
A) a biological rhythm.
B) a circadian rhythm.
C) waking consciousness.
D) inattentional blindness.

36. The _____ in the hypothalamus regulates the body's circadian rhythms.
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) retinal ganglion cell layer
C) ventromedial cortex
D) lateral geniculate nucleus

37. Which physiological cycle exemplifies a circadian rhythm?

A) body temperature variations
B) stages of sleep
C) bears hibernating in the winter
D) menstrual cycles

38. Concerning biological rhythms, which statement is TRUE?

A) Biological rhythms are different and distinct from circadian rhythms.
B) A number of biological rhythms are also circadian rhythms.
C) Circadian rhythms is a synonym for biological rhythms.
D) All biological rhythms are circadian rhythms.

39. Which brain or body structure is CORRECTLY matched with its function?
A) pineal gland – secretes melatonin
B) suprachiasmatic nucleus – regulates alertness
C) retinal ganglion cells – regulate pineal gland
D) reticular formation – senses light

40. Every morning, Janna almost falls asleep in the shower. Lamont is no good until he's
had several cups of coffee, or until 11 A.M.—whichever comes later. Janna is probably
a(n) _____, while Lamont is probably a(n) _____.
A) lark; lark
B) lark; owl
C) owl; lark
D) owl; owl

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41. Identify the region of the brain in the hypothalamus that is responsible for sending
messages about light to the rest of the hypothalamus and the reticular formation.
A) the suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) the pineal gland
C) the pituitary gland
D) the lateral geniculate nucleus

42. Bronwyn is a night auditor in a hotel. Most nights, she works from 11 P.M. to 7 A.M.
Bronwyn is not alone: Shift workers make up _____% of the American work
force.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25

43. Difficulty falling or staying asleep is referred to as:

A) cataplexy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) narcolepsy.

44. José has trouble falling sleep. Even though he goes to bed at 11 each night, he's often
still awake at 2 or 2:30 in the morning. José suffers from:
A) sleep apnea.
B) insomnia.
C) cataplexy.
D) narcolepsy.

45. A manufacturing company installs bright lights in a plant in which many employees
work the 11 P.M.–7 A.M. shift. The lights simulate morning sun, helping the
suprachiasmatic nucleus to reduce the _____ gland's production of the sleep-inducing
hormone _____.
A) pineal; leptin
B) pineal; melatonin
C) adrenal; leptin
D) adrenal; melatonin

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46. Shift workers face an elevated risk of:
A) small-cell lung cancer.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) developing heart disease.
D) developing kidney stones.

47. Which stage of consciousness is CORRECTLY paired with its corresponding brain
wave?
A) waking consciousness – theta waves
B) Stage N1 sleep – alpha waves
C) Stage N3 sleep – delta waves
D) Stage R sleep – beta waves

48. Which sequence CORRECTLY orders the different brain waves sleepers display as they
pass from waking consciousness to Stage N1 sleep and, finally, to Stage N3 sleep?
A) alpha, theta, beta, delta
B) alpha, beta, delta, theta
C) beta, theta, alpha, delta
D) beta, alpha, theta, delta

49. As an individual passes from an awake, alert state to a relaxed, drowsy state, an EEG of
that individual's brain activity might show a decrease in _____ waves and the
appearance of _____ waves.
A) alpha; beta
B) alpha; theta
C) beta; alpha
D) beta; theta

50. Aria is deciphering a cryptic clue in a difficult crossword puzzle. An EEG of her brain
would trace _____ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) delta
D) theta

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51. Brody is just drifting off to sleep. An EEG would reveal an increase in _____ waves and
a decrease in beta waves.
A) alpha
B) delta
C) sigma
D) theta

52. Brief periods of “spiky” brain wave patterns called sleep spindles are characteristic of
_____ sleep.
A) REM
B) Stage N1
C) Stage N2
D) slow-wave

53. In general terms, how do brain waves change as a sleeper progresses from Stage N1
sleep to Stage N3 sleep?
A) Their frequency decreases.
B) Their frequency increases.
C) Beta waves become more common.
D) Alpha waves become less common.

54. During which stage of sleep do sleep spindles and K-complexes appear?
A) NREM 1 sleep
B) slow-wave sleep
C) NREM 2 sleep
D) paradoxical sleep

55. The GREATEST secretion of growth hormone occurs during _____ sleep.
A) Stage N1
B) Stage N2
C) REM
D) Stage N3

56. Dreams are MOST often reported when sleepers wake from _____ sleep.
A) Stage N1
B) REM
C) slow-wave
D) non-REM

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57. REM sleep is also called paradoxical sleep because:
A) the brain is active, but the major skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
B) the skeletal muscles remain active, but the brain is inactive.
C) the brain is less active than it is during other sleep stages.
D) both the brain and the body are inactive.

58. Warren's eyes are moving rapidly behind the lids. His legs and arms are paralyzed.
Warren is showing signs of:
A) sleep terrors.
B) sleep spindles.
C) REM sleep.
D) cataplexy.

59. The brain waves during REM sleep MOST closely resemble those seen during:
A) waking consciousness.
B) Stage N2 sleep.
C) Stage N3 sleep.
D) Stage N1 sleep.

60. How long is a typical sleep cycle, in which a sleeper progresses through some or all of
the sleep stages?
A) 1 hour
B) 90 minutes
C) 2 hours
D) several hours

61. _____ waves indicate a deep sleep.

A) Alpha
B) Delta
C) Beta
D) Theta

62. At birth, _____% of total sleep is rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50

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63. According to National Sleep Foundation, on a typical weeknight, the average American
sleeps _____ hours.
A) fewer than 6
B) 6–7
C) 7–8
D) more than 8

64. Identify a characteristic of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.

A) growth hormone secretion reaching its peak
B) body temperature starting to fall
C) pulse and breathing rate fluctuating
D) eyeballs moving gently beneath the lids

65. If you look at an EEG of a person in Stage N1 sleep, which waves are you MOST likely
to observe?
A) theta waves
B) delta waves
C) beta waves
D) alpha waves

66. Sudden "sleep attacks" are characteristic of a sleep disorder called:

A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep terrors.
D) sleep apnea.

67. Which statement BEST expresses the relationship between narcolepsy and cataplexy?
A) Cataplexy and narcolepsy are similar disorders.
B) Cataplexy is a symptom of narcolepsy.
C) Narcolepsy is a form of cataplexy.
D) Narcolepsy and cataplexy are both sleep disturbances.

68. Ron experiences overwhelming sleep attacks. These attacks happen anytime,
anywhere—during meetings at work, at family events, on commuter trains, and during
church services. Sometimes, Ron has nearly a dozen such attacks in a single day. Ron
suffers from a sleep disturbance called:
A) cataplexy.
B) REM sleep behavior disorder.
C) narcolepsy.
D) insomnia.

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69. Most often, narcoleptic attacks last:
A) a day or two.
B) seconds or minutes.
C) about an hour.
D) an hour or two.

70. _____ entails sudden episodes involving a loss of muscle tone.

A) Narcolepsy
B) Somnambulism
C) Sleep paralysis
D) Cataplexy

71. Following a sudden loss of muscle tone, Ward falls to the floor, as limp as cooked
spaghetti. Ward is experiencing _____, a symptom of _____.
A) cataplexy; narcolepsy
B) narcolepsy; cataplexy
C) sleep paralysis; narcolepsy
D) cataplexy; sleep paralysis

72. Most sleep paralysis episodes last:

A) a few seconds.
B) several minutes.
C) one to two hours.
D) a day.

73. Cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations are all common symptoms of
a sleep disorder called:
A) sleep terrors.
B) insomnia.
C) narcolepsy.
D) REM sleep behavior disorder.

74. One symptom of the sleep disorder _____ is vivid hypnagogic hallucinations.
A) obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea
B) REM sleep behavior disorder
C) insomnia
D) narcolepsy

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75. A disturbance of non-REM sleep characterized by complex motor behavior during sleep
is known as:
A) obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea.
B) narcolepsy.
C) insomnia.
D) sleepwalking.

76. _____ occurs when the mechanism responsible for paralyzing the body during Stage R
sleep does not function properly.
A) Cataplexy
B) REM sleep behavior disorder
C) NREM sleep arousal disorder
D) Sleepwalking

77. According to the text, which sleep disorder primarily affects older men?
A) narcolepsy
B) REM sleep behavior disorder
C) sleep apnea
D) sleepwalking

78. Researchers suspect sleep spindles are associated with:

A) memory consolidation and intelligence.
B) secretion of growth hormone during rapid eye movement sleep.
C) improving night vision.
D) replenishment of neurotransmitters.

79. Which sleep disturbance is NOT correctly matched with a description?

A) sleep apnea – difficulty breathing during sleep
B) narcolepsy – sudden sleep during waking consciousness
C) insomnia – difficulty sleeping
D) REM sleep behavior disorder – sleepwalking

80. Many times each night, Claire's upper airway closes and her breathing stops for 10 to 15
seconds. She wakes, gasping. Claire exhibits:
A) cataplexy.
B) somnambulism.
C) narcolepsy.
D) sleep apnea.

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81. What proportion of people experience at least some symptoms of insomnia?
A) 1/5
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 1/2

82. Four-year-old DeMarcus falls asleep shortly after his 8:30 P.M. bedtime. At about 9:45,
he suddenly sits up in bed, breathing rapidly and appearing to be in a state of sheer
panic. DeMarcus is experiencing:
A) insomnia.
B) a narcoleptic attack.
C) sleep terrors.
D) REM sleep behavior disorder.

83. _____ nightmares, sleep terrors occur during _____ sleep.

A) Like; non-REM
B) Like; REM
C) Unlike; non-REM
D) Unlike; REM

84. Which choice CORRECTLY classifies sleep disturbances as either REM or non-REM
disorders?
A) REM disorders – sleep terrors, REM sleep behavior disorder
B) non-REM disorders – sleep terrors, narcolepsy
C) REM disorders – nightmares, REM sleep behavior disorder
D) non-REM disorders – sleep apnea, nightmares

85. Occasionally, after having been asleep, Jane sits upright in bed. Eyes open and face
blank, she begins speaking gibberish. Ted sometimes acts out violent dreams; he has
even injured himself once or twice. Jane experiences a disorder of _____ sleep. Ted
experiences a disturbance of _____ sleep.
A) non-REM; non-REM
B) non-REM; REM
C) REM; non-REM
D) REM; REM

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86. During _____, certain neurons in the brainstem control the voluntary muscles, keeping
most of the body still.
A) slow-wave sleep
B) rapid eye movement sleep
C) NREM 1 sleep
D) NREM 2 sleep

87. Which statement is a fact?

A) Exercise promotes rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
B) Alcohol enhances sleep quality.
C) Everyone needs 8 hours of sleep each night.
D) Yawning helps keep the brain cool.

88. Identify a TRUE statement about sleep.

A) Sleep disturbances post surgery often result in delirium tremens.
B) Sleep deprivation for 17 to 19 consecutive hours produces the same effect as
having a blood alcohol content of 0.05%.
C) Sleep deprivation is associated with an increase in ghrelin, a hormone that inhibits
appetite.
D) Sleep disturbances result in neuronal activity in areas of the brain that get excited
during learning tasks.

89. Which theory of sleep affirms the adaptive function of sleep?

A) the restorative theory
B) the neurocognitive theory
C) the consolidation theory
D) the evolutionary theory

90. Anya pulled all-nighters both last night and the night before. Tonight, finally, she
anticipates going to bed at her usual time. Which alternative accurately describes and
identifies what Anya is likely to experience?
A) Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage.
This phenomenon is called restoration.
B) Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the REM stage.
This phenomenon is called REM rebound.
C) Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the non-REM
stages. This phenomenon is called restoration.
D) Anya will spend a greater proportion of her sleep time than usual in the non-REM
stages. This phenomenon is called non-REM rebound.

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91. Driving after being awake and active for 24 hours straight is:
A) not really dangerous.
B) hazardous but less dangerous than driving drunk.
C) at least as dangerous as driving drunk.
D) much more dangerous than driving drunk.

92. Research suggests that depriving people of _____ sleep can cause emotional
overreactions to threatening situations.
A) NREM 1
B) paradoxical
C) NREM 2
D) slow-wave

93. William Shakespeare wrote that "sweet sleep . . . knits the ravelled sleeve of care." The
emphasis on repair suggests that Shakespeare endorsed the _____ theory of sleep.
A) consolidation
B) activation-synthesis
C) restorative
D) evolutionary

94. Dr. Destri argues that sleep functions to conserve energy during periods in which
hunting and gathering would be dangerous or unproductive. Dr. Destri's views reflect
the _____ theory of sleep.
A) evolutionary
B) consolidation
C) restorative
D) psychoanalytic

95. Potential biological functions of sleep include:

A) neurotransmitter replenishment.
B) protein production.
C) growth hormone secretion.
D) All of these are potential functions of sleep.

96. Which solution is NOT recommended if one has trouble sleeping?

A) Avoid caffeine.
B) Keep the bedroom quiet and dark.
C) Take sleeping pills.
D) Exercise during the day.

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 97. Sigmund Freud suggested that the purpose of dreams involved:
A) memory consolidation.
B) the release of growth hormones.
C) wish fulfillment.
D) random chatter among neurons.

98. The latent content of a dream:

A) is the remembered storyline of a dream.
B) is the dream one remembers having.
C) is a dream's underlying meaning.
D) can be revealed during Stage N3 of sleep.

99. Esther dreams that she is flying. Esther's psychoanalyst suggests that such a dream
represents a hidden desire for sexual intercourse. Which statement is TRUE?
A) Flying is part of the activation-synthesis model.
B) Flying is the latent content.
C) Flying is the manifest content.
D) Sex is the manifest content.

100. As a psychodynamic psychologist, Dr. Flaherty adheres to Freud's wish-fulfillment

ideas about the function of dreams. Which piece of evidence is potentially consistent
with wish-fulfillment being the purpose of dreaming?
A) Dreams often reflect the dreamer's immediate environment.
B) Areas of the brain associated with motivation and emotion are active during REM
sleep.
C) Dreams are a byproduct of memory consolidation.
D) Dreaming is associated with random activity among neurons.

101. According to _____, a network of neurons exists in the brain that is necessary for
dreaming to occur.
A) the holonomic brain theory
B) the activation-synthesis model of dreams
C) Baars's theory of consciousness
D) the neurocognitive theory of dreams

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102. Dr. Gremillion argues that dreaming is related to memory consolidation. Dr. Gremillion
subscribes to the _____ theory of dreams.
A) wish-fulfillment
B) activation-synthesis
C) restorative
D) neurocognitive

103. According to _____, during rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, the brain tries to make
sense of neural activity in the vestibular system that results in dreaming.
A) Baars's theory of consciousness
B) the neurocognitive theory of dreams
C) the activation-synthesis model of dreams
D) the holonomic brain theory

104. Contrary to popular assumption, less than _____% of dream time is devoted to sexual
activity.
A) 12
B) 2
C) 23
D) 32

105. Approximately _____% of one's dream time is devoted to sexual themes. This
estimation is _____ with Freud's psychoanalytic theory.
A) 12; consistent
B) 12; inconsistent
C) 68; consistent
D) 68; inconsistent

106. Regarding dreaming, which statement is TRUE?

A) Lucid dreaming is very rare.
B) Dreams occur in both REM and non-REM sleep.
C) Some people do not dream.
D) Non-REM dreams are more vivid than dreams in REM sleep.

107. A sleeper's first dream usually begins:

A) a few minutes after falling asleep.
B) about 90 minutes after falling asleep.
C) about halfway through the night's sleep.
D) about 90 minutes before waking up.

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108. The total time spent in dreaming during a typical night's sleep is about:
A) 15–30 minutes.
B) 30–60 minutes.
C) 1–2 hours.
D) 2–3 hours.

109. Dreams in which sleepers realize they are dreaming are called _____ dreams.
A) conscious
B) latent
C) lucid
D) manifest

110. In the middle of an unsettling dream, Tremaine becomes aware that he is, in fact,
dreaming. Such an experience is called a _____ dream; about _____% of us have had
such a dream.
A) latent; 50
B) latent; 75
C) lucid; 50
D) lucid; 75

111. Psychoactive drugs cause changes in psychological activities that are associated with
our _____ experiences.
A) preconscious
B) subconscious
C) conscious
D) unconscious

112. Which drug is psychoactive?

A) acetylcholine
B) curare
C) rocuronium
D) nicotine

113. Gilbert does not want to take a psychoactive drug. Which chemical is NOT
psychoactive since it does not cross into the brain?
A) caffeine
B) nicotine
C) curare
D) alcohol

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114. Tammy and Maureen enjoy a glass of wine with dinner. After the meal, each woman
has a cigarette with a cup of coffee. How many psychoactive drugs did the women
consume?
A) none
B) one
C) two
D) three

115. Ariel is drinking a can of beer. Barry is smoking a cigarette. Cord is smoking a
marijuana cigarette. Who is using a psychoactive drug?
A) Only Cord is using a psychoactive drug.
B) Only Ariel and Cord are using psychoactive drugs.
C) Only Barry and Cord are using psychoactive drugs.
D) All these people are using psychoactive drugs.

116. The MOST commonly consumed psychoactive drug in the United States is:
A) caffeine.
B) marijuana.
C) alcohol.
D) nicotine.

117. In a study conducted by the Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services
Administration in 2014, about _____% of Americans aged 12 and older reported that
they had used illegal drugs over the past month.
A) 60
B) 1.2
C) 20
D) 9.4

118. Cory Monteith, star of the television show Glee, died from a toxic combination of
alcohol and heroin. Alcohol and heroin are both:
A) depressants.
B) hallucinogens.
C) psychedelics.
D) stimulants.

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119. Which types of drugs are stimulants?
A) amphetamines
B) benzodiazepines
C) barbiturates
D) opioids

120. Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that act as:

A) amphetamines.
B) tranquilizers.
C) stimulants.
D) hallucinogens.

121. Benzodiazepines and barbiturates are types of:

A) opioids.
B) stimulants.
C) depressants.
D) hallucinogens.

122. Kim suffers from generalized anxiety disorder. Her psychiatrist prescribes a drug with a
mild calming effect. The psychiatrist MOST likely prescribed:
A) Vicodin.
B) OxyContin.
C) Ritalin.
D) Xanax.

123. Cassie is at a popular nightclub. She is acting uninhibited but also confused. She may
have unwittingly consumed _____, a(n) _____.
A) OxyContin; benzodiazepine
B) OxyContin; stimulant
C) Rohypnol; benzodiazepine
D) Rohypnol; opioid

124. Which class of drugs is CORRECTLY matched with its function?

A) opioids – sedative; increase neural activity
B) barbiturates – minimize pain perception
C) benzodiazepines – calming; sleep-inducing
D) depressants – increase CNS activity

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125. _____ are a type of _____.
A) Depressants; barbiturate.
B) Barbiturates; depressant
C) Amphetamines; barbiturate
D) Barbiturates; amphetamine

126. Why, precisely, is one NOT supposed to mix alcohol and barbiturates?
A) It is dangerous to mix a stimulant like alcohol with a depressant like barbiturates.
B) They are both stimulants.
C) They are both depressants.
D) It is dangerous to mix a stimulant like barbiturates with a depressant like alcohol.

127. _____ is the MOST widely used depressant in the United States.
A) Xanax
B) Alcohol
C) Valium
D) Marijuana

128. Gina and Hal had several drinks at a party last night. In order to be considered binge
drinking, Gina, who is female, will need to have consumed _____ drinks, while Hal,
who is male, will need to have consumed _____ drinks.
A) five; four
B) four; five
C) three; four
D) four; three

129. According to the text, nearly _____% of American adults have a drinking problem.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 25
D) 40

130. Speech becomes slurred when one's blood alcohol content reaches:
A) .05.
B) .08.
C) .10.
D) .15.

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131. Shelly is "falling-down drunk." She has to be helped out of the car and then throws up
on the sidewalk. Her blood alcohol content is probably nearing:
A) .08.
B) .10.
C) .15.
D) .40.

132. Most notably, alcohol increases the activity of the neurotransmitter:

A) acetylcholine.
B) glutamate.
C) norepinephrine.
D) GABA.

133. Women who drink alcohol during pregnancy can give birth to babies with:
A) alcoholic liver disease.
B) alcoholic myopathy.
C) Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome.
D) fetal-alcohol syndrome.

134. Identify a symptom of Wernicke–Korsakoff syndrome.

A) limb deformity
B) weight loss
C) confusion and memory problems
D) heat intolerance

135. Which statement MOST accurately describes the effect of caffeine and the other
stimulants on the nervous system?
A) They decrease central nervous system activity.
B) They increase parasympathetic nervous system activity.
C) They decrease sympathetic nervous system activity.
D) They increase central nervous system activity.

136. Which drug is NOT a stimulant?

A) cocaine
B) caffeine
C) ketamine
D) methamphetamine

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137. After lunch, Katya drinks a cup of coffee and smokes a cigarette. Katya consumes two:
A) stimulants.
B) depressants.
C) hallucinogens.
D) opioids.

138. Cocaine's rush reflects its effects on the neurotransmitters:

A) adenosine and glutamate.
B) serotonin and acetylcholine.
C) GABA and glutamate.
D) dopamine and norepinephrine.

139. More emergency room visits stem from _____ than from any other illegal drug.
A) methamphetamine
B) marijuana
C) cocaine
D) heroin

140. According to the textbook, "Many cocaine users find they can never quite duplicate the
high they experienced the first time, so they take increasingly higher doses . . . " This
sentence BEST describes:
A) tolerance.
B) withdrawal.
C) hallucination
D) delirium tremens

141. According to the National Institute on Drug Abuse, severe consequences of _____ use
include extreme weight loss, tooth decay, and psychosis with hallucinations that can
come and go for months, if not years, after quitting
A) PCP
B) methamphetamine
C) heroin
D) marijuana

142. How does the action of methamphetamine differ from that of cocaine?
A) Methamphetamine and cocaine stimulate different neurotransmitters.
B) Methamphetamine suppresses appetite, whereas cocaine does not.
C) Methamphetamine stays in the body longer than cocaine does.
D) Methamphetamine increases CNS activity, whereas cocaine depresses it.

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143. Anjelica is recovering from long-term drug abuse. She has lost a drastic amount of
weight and has suffered extensive tooth decay. The drug she was MOST likely abusing
is:
A) methamphetamine.
B) ketamine.
C) LSD.
D) MDMA.

144. According to the textbook, moderate _____ use is associated with enhanced recall
ability and increased endurance during physical exercise.
A) nicotine
B) alcohol
C) heroin
D) caffeine

145. Worldwide, the leading cause of premature death is:

A) illegal drugs.
B) AIDS.
C) tobacco.
D) road accidents.

146. Approximately _____% of American adults smoke cigarettes.

A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 40

147. An executive smokes cigarettes in his office after business hours. The lingering toxins
from the tobacco smoke—called _____ smoke—may pose a health hazard to the
custodians who clean the office overnight.
A) firsthand
B) secondhand
C) secondary
D) thirdhand

Page 27
148. Fallon, a 28-year-old woman, is a drug addict. Nonprescription use of the drug
she uses is illegal; hence, she does not buy it from a pharmacy. Instead, she brews
it in the laboratory at her house using battery acid, drain cleaner, and over-the-
counter cough medicines. Given this information, identify the drug that Fallon
MOST likely uses.
A) heroin
B) Xanax
C) Rohypnol
D) methamphetamine

149. Caffeine blocks the action of a neurotransmitter called:

A) adenosine.
B) dopamine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) adrenaline.

150. The neural mechanisms activated by nicotine are similar to those underlying the effects
of:
A) alcohol.
B) cocaine.
C) heroin.
D) marijuana.

151. Which of the hallucinogens has never been used as a medical anesthetic?
A) PCP
B) ketamine
C) marijuana
D) MDMA

152. Which drug is NOT a hallucinogen?

A) PCP
B) methamphetamine
C) MDMA
D) ketamine

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153. _____ are a group of psychoactive drugs that produce sensations of things that are not
actually present.
A) Depressants
B) Hallucinogens
C) Stimulants
D) Sedatives

154. Because it is chemically similar to _____, Ecstasy may be seen as both a hallucinogen
and a _____.
A) cocaine; depressant
B) cocaine; stimulant
C) methamphetamine; depressant
D) methamphetamine; stimulant

155. According to the textbook, the drug Ecstasy triggers a dramatic release of the
neurotransmitter:
A) serotonin.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) endorphin.

156. Which consequence may result from continued use of Ecstasy?

A) abnormalities in sperm production
B) decreased motivation
C) suppression of the immune system
D) impaired planning and attention

157. Sarah feels full of energy, and her heart is beating rapidly. She feels as if she were
watching herself in a movie. Her euphoria, though, is morphing into anxiety. Which
drug has Sarah MOST likely consumed?
A) Ecstasy
B) Rohypnol
C) Valium
D) Xanax

158. The MOST commonly used illegal drug in the United States is:
A) ketamine.
B) cocaine.
C) MDMA.
D) marijuana.

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159. By the time they have graduated from high school, just over _____% of high school
students have tried marijuana.
A) 25
B) 40
C) 50
D) 65

160. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the active ingredient in:

A) PCP.
B) MDMA.
C) marijuana.
D) OxyContin.

161. Jake is a long-term marijuana user. Unlike long-term users of amphetamines, it is

unlikely that Jake will experience _____ if he discontinues using.
A) lingering hallucinations
B) reduced motivation
C) suppression of the immune system
D) memory deficits

162. Which class of drugs is CORRECTLY matched with its function?

A) stimulant – reduces nervous system activity
B) hallucinogen – reduces nervous system activity
C) hallucinogen – increases nervous system activity
D) stimulant – increases nervous system activity

163. Which street drug is CORRECTLY classified?

A) methamphetamine – hallucinogen
B) heroin – stimulant
C) cocaine – depressant
D) Special K – hallucinogen

164. Which slang term is CORRECTLY paired with the drug it denotes?
A) crank – cocaine
B) ganja – LSD
C) crack – methamphetamine
D) yellow jackets – barbiturates

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165. _____ is the BEST term for a state in which the body can no longer function normally
without a particular psychoactive drug.
A) Physiological dependence
B) Hallucination
C) Psychological dependence
D) Depression

166. _____ is the BEST term for a state in which an individual believes a particular
psychoactive drug is needed for optimal emotional or mental functioning.
A) Physiological dependence
B) Psychological dependence
C) Hallucination
D) Withdrawal

167. Tolerance is indicative of _____ dependence. Withdrawal indicates _____ dependence.

A) physiological; physiological
B) physiological; psychological
C) psychological; physiological
D) psychological; psychological

168. According to the data from National Institute on Drug Abuse, 2012, how many
Americans are dependent on alcohol?
A) 5–10 million
B) 10–15 million
C) 15–20 million
D) over 20 million

169. According to the data from National Institute on Drug Abuse, 2012, approximately
_____ million Americans abuse marijuana.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

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170. After an entire day without alcohol, Selena is sweaty and shaking. Taryn claims she
needs to smoke marijuana daily to keep stress at bay. Selena displays _____
dependence. Taryn displays _____ dependence.
A) physiological; physiological
B) physiological; psychological
C) psychological; physiological
D) psychological; psychological

171. Giacomo uses cocaine. He finds that he needs a line or two to recreate the original
effects of a "bump." Which term is MOST specific in describing Giacomo's experience?
A) withdrawal
B) hallucination
C) depression
D) tolerance

172. Terry has quit using OxyContin. His nose is running and he is sweating. His pupils are
dilated and tears are running from the corners of his eyes. Which term is MOST specific
in describing Terry's experience?
A) tolerance
B) hallucination
C) withdrawal
D) depression

173. What is the psychotic condition that occurs when a chronic alcoholic suddenly stops
drinking?
A) erythema nodosum
B) cataplexy
C) delirium tremens
D) narcolepsy

174. According to many researchers, _____ is an altered state of consciousness involving

heightened responsivity to suggestions.
A) hypnosis
B) meditation
C) cataplexy
D) hypnagogia

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175. Using _____, researchers have found evidence of changes in the brain during hypnosis.
A) PET scans
B) fMRI techniques
C) transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D) EEG recordings

176. The word "hypnosis" comes from the Greek term for:
A) dream.
B) sleep.
C) death.
D) coma.

177. Which idea concerning hypnosis is FALSE?

A) Hypnotized people cannot exhibit superhuman strength.
B) Hypnosis can promote the formation of false memories.
C) Hypnotized people can be made to act against their will.
D) Hypnosis can be used to treat chronic pain.

178. Hypnosis can help a person:

A) relive childhood experiences.
B) improve athletic performance.
C) recall long-forgotten memories.
D) exhibit superhuman strength.

179. Louis, Wendy, Dave, and Charlie have all scheduled appointments to undergo hypnosis
to treat a variety of issues. Of the four people, who is LEAST likely to benefit from their
treatment?
A) Louis, who has insomnia
B) Wendy, who wishes to relieve tension headaches
C) Dave, who wishes to overcome a phobia
D) Charlie, who wishes to recover lost childhood memories

180. Which statement concerning hypnosis is FALSE?

A) Hypnotized people are less focused and easily distracted.
B) Hypnotized people are highly responsive to suggestions.
C) Hypnosis is associated with heightened imagination.
D) Hypnosis is associated with an extremely receptive attitude.

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181. How long does it take a good hypnotist to perform an induction?
A) about 1 hour
B) less than 1 minute
C) between 5 and 10 minutes
D) about 30 minutes

182. The idea of an ever-present “hidden observer” during hypnosis is part of the _____
theory of hypnosis.
A) role-play
B) divided-consciousness
C) expectation
D) Mesmer

183. One of the MOST noted hypnosis researchers is _____. He believed that hypnosis
_____.
A) Hilgard; causes a division of consciousness
B) Hilgard; is really no different than waking consciousness
C) Hobson; causes a division of consciousness
D) Hobson; is really no different than waking consciousness

184. Hilgard and his colleagues hypnotized participants to believe they would not experience
pain when they placed one hand in ice water. Participants were asked to press a response
button with the other hand if they felt any pain. What did Hilgard and his colleagues
find?
A) Participants said they felt no pain, and they did not press the button to indicate any
pain.
B) Participants said they felt no pain, but they pressed the button to indicate some
pain.
C) Participants said they were in pain, but they did not press the button.
D) Participants said they were in pain, and they pressed the button.

185. Hilgard and his colleagues hypnotized participants to believe they would not experience
pain when they placed one hand in ice water. Although the participants reported no pain,
they indicated pain by pressing a response button. This finding:
A) supports the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
B) contradicts the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
C) supports the role-play theory of hypnosis.
D) contradicts both the divided-consciousness and role-play theories of hypnosis.

Page 34
186. The textbook reports that the hypnotic response is influenced by the rapport between the
hypnotist and the patient. How might one evaluate this finding with respect to the
theories of hypnosis described in the text?
A) This finding supports the divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis.
B) This finding supports the role-play theory of consciousness.
C) This finding contradicts both the divided-consciousness and the role-play theories
of hypnosis.
D) This finding is consistent with both the divided-consciousness and the role-play
theories of hypnosis.

187. Identify a TRUE statement about hypnosis.

A) It induces long-term amnesia.
B) It elicits superhuman strength.
C) It has been used to retrieve lost memories.
D) It has been used therapeutically to treat phobias.

Page 35
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. B
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. C
20. D
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. A
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. A
40. D
41. A
42. C
43. B
44. B

Page 36
45. B
46. C
47. C
48. D
49. C
50. B
51. A
52. C
53. A
54. C
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. A
60. B
61. B
62. D
63. B
64. C
65. A
66. A
67. B
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. A
72. A
73. C
74. D
75. D
76. B
77. B
78. A
79. D
80. D
81. C
82. C
83. C
84. C
85. B
86. B
87. D
88. B
89. D
90. B

Page 37
 91. C
92. B
93. C
94. A
95. D
96. C
97. C
98. C
99. C
100. B
101. D
102. D
103. C
104. A
105. B
106. B
107. B
108. C
109. C
110. C
111. C
112. D
113. C
114. D
115. D
116. A
117. D
118. A
119. A
120. B
121. C
122. D
123. C
124. C
125. B
126. C
127. B
128. B
129. A
130. C
131. C
132. D
133. D
134. C
135. D
136. C

Page 38
137. A
138. D
139. C
140. A
141. B
142. C
143. A
144. D
145. C
146. B
147. D
148. D
149. A
150. B
151. D
152. B
153. B
154. D
155. A
156. D
157. A
158. D
159. B
160. C
161. A
162. D
163. D
164. D
165. A
166. B
167. A
168. C
169. D
170. B
171. D
172. C
173. C
174. A
175. A
176. B
177. C
178. B
179. D
180. A
181. B
182. B

Page 39
183. A
184. B
185. A
186. B
187. D

Page 40