Q1- The land areas and territorial waters adjacent thereto and the airspace above such land

areas and territorial waters are :

A- Flight information region (FIR).
B- Territory of Libya.
C- Flight information service (FIS).
Q2- The number of annexes to the convention on international civil aviation is :
A- 20.
B- 18.
C- 16.
Q3- The ATS airspaces are classified and designated by ICAO in:
A- 5 classes.
B- 7 classes.
C- 9 classes.
Q4 - To be eligible for a flight dispatcher licence, a person shall be at least :
A- 17 years of age.
B- 18 years of age.
C- 19 years of age.
Q5- GPWS is the abbreviation of :
A- Global possibility warning system.
B- Ground proximity warning system.
C- Any of the above.
Q6 - The pilot-in-command of an aircraft entering Tripoli FIR at points located over international
waters should contact Tripoli or Benghazi control, as appropriate, at least :
A- 3 minutes prior to crossing the FIR boundary.
B- 5 minutes prior to crossing the FIR boundary.
C- 10 minutes prior to crossing the FIR boundary.
Q7 - Flight plans are required for all flights within :
A- Tripoli FIR.
B- Controlled airspace.
C- Uncontrolled airspace.
Q8 - When a flight is dispatched to a destination aerodrome for which an alternate is neither
specified nor available, then the fuel required for a turbojet aeroplane is to fly to that aerodrome
and thereafter fly for :
A- 1hr at normal cruise fuel consumption.
B- 2 hrs at normal cruise fuel consumption.
C- 3 hrs at normal cruise fuel consumption.
Q9 - The ILS ICAO minima requirements for a CAT II precision approach are :
A- DH ≥ 200ft and RVR not less than 550 m or ground visibility not less than 800 m
B- DH ≤ 100ft and RVR not less than 350 m.
C- No DH no RVR requirements
 Q10- Runway with magnetic heading of “038” is rounded off, and will be called Runway
A-03.
B-050.
C-04.
Q11 -Visual runway is usually marked:
A-With red lights.
B-With a wind sock.
C-With runway number and dashed white centreline.
Q 12- A military airport is identified by:
A- A white light.
B- A control tower.
C- A rotating beacon which emits two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
Q13 . The area where aircraft are parked is called:
A- Taxi area.
B- The standard holds line.
C- Apron.
Q14 -Communication radios in general aviation uses:
A- Very high frequency (VHF).
B- Low frequency.
C- It depends on the runway in use.
Q15- “Line of sight” means :
A- Busy terminal area.
B- A 360 channel capability.
C- That obstructions such as terrain or the curvature of the earth
Block the radio waves.
Q16- In the event of a radio failure:
A- A tower can provide light signals to direct your aircraft.
B- Nothing to be done.
C- The tower gives no assistance to the aircraft.
Q17- Which factor would increase the density altitude :
A- An increase in ambient temperature.
B- An increase in humidity.
C- An increase in airspeed.
Q18- What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A- 15° f and 29.92 mil-bars.
B- 15° c and 1013 mil-bars.
C- None of the above.
Q19- Use the landing distance table ( no # 2) to answer :
What is the total distance to clear 50 ft. OBS. Given // Oat = 30°c
Pressure altitude = 2,000 feet Aircraft weight = 3800 lbs
A- 1650 feet.
B- 1550 feet.
C- 1750 feet.
Q20 - Use mach. = 80 cruise table (no# 5 ) to answer :
Given, // flight level = 310 aircraft weight = 76 tons
What is the STD Temperature at flight level 310 ?
A- - 17° c.
B- +17° c.
C- - 12° c.
Q21- The effect of tail-wind on the t/o and landing :
A- Tail-wind will increase t/o distance and decrease landing distance.
B- Tail-wind will decrease t/o distance and increase landing distance.
C- Tail –wind will not affect t/o and landing distances.
Q22- Density altitude calculations are based on:
A- Pressure altitude and A/C weight.
B- Pressure altitude and air speed.
C- Pressure altitude and air temperature.
Q23- Increased weight of the aircraft results in :
A- Increased ground roll during t/o and landing.
B- Increased performance.
C- Weight of an aircraft has no effect.
Q24- V1 speed is referred to as :
A- Rotation speed.
B- Decision speed.
C- Climb speed.
Q25- The maximum distance an air-plane can travel with a given amount of fuel
is referred to as :
A- Endurance.
B- Range.
C- Could be any answer
Q26- The airplane structure employing the semi-monocoque system :
A- Uses a substructure riveted to the skin to maintain the shape of the airframe and
increase its strength.
B- The structure is covered with cloth fabric.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q27- The continuous operation of the reciprocating engine is dependent on :
A- The continuous flow of fuel/air mixture.
B- The simultaneous function of the ancillary system and the precise timing of the
power stroke in each cylinder.
C- Neither (a) nor (b).
Q28-BThe introduced fuel air mixture to the cylinder is controlled by :
A- The throttle controls the amount of fuel/air mixture.
B- The mixture controls the fuel air ratio.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q29 - The electric boost pump function is:
A- To meters fuel to the engine, based upon throttles’ position.
B- To provides fuel pressure for engine starting.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q30 - If the fuel grade specified for your aircraft is not available :
A- You can use a higher grade of fuel.
B- You can use a lower grade of fuel.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q31- Engine oil system performs an important function that provides :
A- Engine lubrication and cooling and provides a seal between the cylinder walls and the pistons.
B- Lubrication of engine moving parts.
C- Cooling of engine by reducing some of the heat from the cylinders.
Q32 - Airplanes with constant speed propellers :
A- Propeller blade angle is selected and cannot be changed by the pilot.
B- Propeller blade angle is variable and pilot can change it.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q33 - The equator is :
A- Great circle which plane is perpendicular to Earth Axis.
B- Small circle parallel to poles.
C- Rhum time.
Q34 - Airports whose control Towers are shown in the charts :
A- With circle around it.
B- In blue color.
C- Arrow pointing up.
Q35 - V O R airborne equipment consist of :
A- Receiver and indicator.
B- Antenna, receiver and indicator.
C- Antenna and receive.
Q36 - During flight keeping the nose of aircraft pointing to the station is called :
A- Cross track.
B- Homing.
C- Bearing.
Q37 -The airborne instrument consisting of heading indicator and two bearing needles is :
A- Weather radar.
B- Radio magnetic indicator.
C- Vertical gyro.
Q38 - Relative bearing angle is measured :
A- Anti-clock wise.
B- Clockwise.
C- Vertically.
Q39- VOR operating frequencies are :
A- 100.00 MHz through 117.00 MHz.
B- 108.00 MHz through 117.95 MHz.
C- 105.00 kHz through 110.00 kHz.
Q40 - The N A V system which in continues position determining system in all weather
Operation is called :
A- Tacan.
B- Loran.
C- A D F.
Q41 - G.P.S means :
A- Gravity reading instrument.
B- Global position system.
C- General fuel monitor
Q42 - According to Bernoulli's principles the increase in speed of air on the top of airofoil will
produce:
A- A drop in pressure on the top of aerofoil which is a component of total lift
B- An increase in pressure on lower surface which is a component of total lift .
C- Neither (a) nor (b).
Q43 - lift for airplane during flight is created by:
A- The airflow over the fuselage and horizontal stabilizer.
B- The air flow as it passes over and under the wing.
C- The air flow as it passes under the wing.
Q44 - The stall always occurs at :
A - Critical angle of attack.
B- Certain airplane speed.
C- Critical airplane attitude.
Q45- the wings total lift depends on :
A- The combined effect of airspeed and angle of attack.
B- The effect of airspeed.
C- The effect of angle of attack.
Q46 - The ground effect phenomenon is associated with the reduction of the
induced drag due to :
A- The earths surface alters the three dimensional airflow pattern around the airplane.
B- The earths effect causes a reduction wing tip vortices and decrease in up wash and
dawn wash.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q47 - an airplane's stability is :
A- The characteristics of an airplane in flight to return to the condition of equilibrium
or steady flight after it was disturbed.
B- The characteristics of an airplane in flight to withstand stress resulting from maneuvers
C- Neither (a) nor (b).
Q48- the fowler flap :
A- Is attached to the wing by a track and rollers system.
B- As extended it increases the total wing area also the camber and chord line so
creasing angle of attack and lift.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q49 - the centre of pressure CP is a point along the chord line that changes position
with different flight attitudes :
A- It moves forward as AOA increases and aft as AOA decreases.
B- It moves aft as AOA increases and forward as AOA decreases.
C- Fixed and does not change.
Q50 - the load factor is :
A- The ratio of the load supported by the airplanes wings to the actual weight of the
airplane with its components.
B-The ratio of the maximum load to the actual weight of the airplane and its cmoments .
C- Neither (a) nor (b).
Q51 - ………… is the terminal aerodrome forecast, ………… is the name of code for
an aviation routine weather report, and ……………..., is the name of the code
for an aviation special weather report .
A- SPECI, METAR and AIRMET.
B- AIRMET, PIREP and SPECI.
C- TAF, METAR and SPECI.
Q52- What property of atmosphere is used to define different layers in the atmosphere
A- Height stability of the atmosphere.
B- Temperature change with.
C- Pressure change with.
Q53 - Which layer of the atmosphere contains most of the earth's weather ?
A- Thermosphere.
B- Mesosphere.
C- Troposphere.
Q54 -The boundary between the troposphere and stratosphere is called the :
A- Mesosphere.
B- Tropopause.
C- Stratopaus.
Q55 - What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist ?
A- Radiation fog and ice fog.
B- Steam fog and radiation fog.
C- Advection fog and upslope fog.
Q56 - What does CAVOK mean ?
A- Cloud is ok and visibility poor.
B- Cloud and wind ok.
C- Cloud and visibility ok.
Q57 - What are the three stages of the thunderstorms life cycle ?
A- Cumulus stage, mature stage, dissipating.
B- High humidity, lifting force, and unstable condition.
C- Stage stratus stage, updraft stage, dissipating stage.
Q58 -SIGMET information is issued as warning for significant weather to :
A- VFR operations.
B- Light aircraft.
C- All aircraft.
Q59- Which weather phenomenon below is always associated with a thunderstorm :
A- Fog.
B- Squall line.
C- Lightning.
Q60- What does the abbreviation SCT mean ?
A- 5/8 – 7/8 of the sky is covered by clouds.
B- 3/8 – 4/8 of the sky is covered by clouds.
C- 8/8 of the sky is covered by clouds.
Q61- What does 35010 KT mean ?
A- Surface wind direction 350 degrees wind speed 10 knots.
B- Surface wind speed 350 knots wind direction 10 degrees.
C- 35 temperature/ 10 dew point.
Q62- Which of the following is the correct sequence of elements for a TAF :
A- Type of report, station identifier, date and time of issued, valid date and time of report, forecast condition.
B- Station identifier, date and time of issued, type of report, forecast.
C- Type of report, date and time of issued, valid period, station identifier, forecast
Q63- ………….. Is one of the most dangerous sources of wind shear .
A- Microburst.
B- High pressure.
C- Altostratus clouds
Q64- Location indicators included in the text of a NOTAM shall be those contained in location
indicators:
A- Doc 7910.
B- Doc 8126.
C- Doc 8400.
A65- Units of measurement used in the dissemination of aeronautical information should be
consistent with the :
A- ICAO table.
B- Blue table.
C- Decision taken by the state.
Q66- The AIP is a publication containing information of a :
A- Short duration.
B- Long duration.
C- Lasting character.
 Q67- Each AIP shall be dated, in the case of AIP issued in loose-leaf form, each page shall be
dated, the date shall indicate clearly the :
A- Day, month and year.
B- Day, month (by name) and year.
C- None of the above.
Q68- The normal method of AIP amendment shall be by means of :
A- Entering new sheets.
B- Taking out old sheets.
C- Replacement sheets.
Q69- As a recommendation, AIP supplement pages should be colored in order to be conspicuous,
preferably in :
A- Red.
B- Green.
C- Yellow.
Q70-To identify a NOTAM series, letters A to Z may be used with the exception of
A- R and T.
B- S and T.
C- U and T.
Q71 - NOTAMC shall be originated, if it concerns a NOTAM cancelling a previous NOTAM and this
must be followed by the series and number/year for the :
A- New NOTAM.
B- Replaced NOTAM.
C- Cancelled NOTAM.
Q72- AIRAC is the acronym of :
A- Aeronautical information rules of air and control.
B- Aeronautical information regulation and control.
C- Aerodrome information and control
Q73 - False Horizon is another ILLUSION that occurs when :
A- Natural Horizon is obstructed or not readily apparent.
B- Runway lights are switched off.
C- The airport elevation below sea level.
Q74 - For night vision the rods can react to low light at night because the rods are
A- 10.000 times more sensitive to light than the cones.
B- Containing more cells.
C- Directly connected to brain.
Q75 - The approved aircraft position lights for night operation are :
A- Green light on left wing TIP and white light on right wing TIP.
B- Red light on left wing TIP and green light on tail.
 C- Green light on right wing TIP red light on left wing TIP and white light on the tail.
Q76- As prevention of hypoxia the best approach to hypoxia can be reduced or prevented by :
A- Maintaining good physical conditions.
B- Eating good food and avoid alcohol and smoking.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q77- Toothache causes :
A- Vision problems.
B- Instability.
C- Pain at altitude in flight.
Q78 - The air speed indicator is :
A- The only instrument using pitot static system.
B- The greater the pressure the greater the indicated air speed.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q79 - The upper limit of the white arc on the ASI indicates :
A- The maximum speed with the flaps extended.
B- The minimum speed with flaps retracted.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q80 - The true altitude is :
A- The actual height of the airplane above the earth’s surface over which is flying.
B- The vertical distance above the standard datum plane.
C- The actual height of the object above sea level.
Q81- The turn coordinator provides:
A- Indication of turn and quality.
B- Backup source of bank information in the event of the attitude indicator failure.
C- Both (a) and (b).
Q82 - The atmospheric pressure may be defined as the weight of:
A- A single column of air.
B- A single column of Hg.
C- Neither (a) nor (b).
Q83- Trip fuel is the fuel required :
A-From departure airport to destination airport.
B- From destination to alternate.
C- For start up and ground movement from apron to the runway.
Q84-If the destination is less than 6 hours flying away and has 2 separate runways and the
forecasted visibility plus and minus 1 hour from the ETA shows a ceiling of not less than
1500 ft and visibility of more than 2000m, you:
A- Need minimum 2 destination alternates.
B- 1 destination alternate is enough.
C- No destination alternate is required.
Q85 With tail wind :
A- Ground distance is more than air distance.
B- Air distance is more than ground distance.
C- Both are the same
. Q86- The ATC FLT PLN must be filed at least :
A- 30 min before the EOBT.
B- 1 hour before the EOBT.
C- 10 min before the EOBT.
Q87 - Item 8 in the ATC FPL “FLIGHT RULES” should be filled with the letter Y if:
A- Flying under IFR.
B- Flying under VFR.
C- Flying IFR first then VFR .
Q88 - For aircraft with MTOW of 110,000 KG, the wake turbulence category is :
A- Heavy.
B- Medium.
C- Light.
Q89 - EET means :
A- Estimated Elapsed Time.
B- Estimated Engine Torque.
C- En-route Exactly Time.
Q90 - Which is the correct description for the route from Tripoli to Benghazi ?
A- HLLT V300 MIS A411 HLLB.
B- TPI DCT BNA.
C- TPI V300 MIS A411 BNA.
Q91-What effect has high humidity on aircraft performance ?
A-It decreases performance.
B-It increases performance.
C-It has no effect
Q92 -As the out- side air temperature (oat) increases :
A-The density – altitude will increase.
B-The density – altitude will decrease.
C)The density – altitude will remain un- effected
Q93- The basic operating weight is the Basic Empty weight of the aircraft plus the weight
A- Crew.
B- Crew, catering, drinking water and toilet water.
C- Crew, catering, drinking water, toilet chemicals, and fuel.
Q94 - Beyond of the allowable forward C.G limit, results will be :
A- Higher take off speed and longer take off roll.
B- Improved performance.
C- Increased risk of stall.
Q95 - Which the following weights are the same ?
A- Taxi weight and ramp weight.
B- Ramp weight and takeoff weight.
 C- Landing weight and zero fuel weight.
Q96- If weight is removed from a cargo hold forward of the datum, the total moment is
A- Reduced.
B- Increased.
C- It depends on C.G position.
Q97- The landing weight is the takeoff weight :
A- Minus trip fuel.
B- Minus taxi fuel.
C- Minus reserve fuel.
Note: With reference to the Weight C.G envelope of FIG 4-11 answer :
Q98- An airplane gross weight is 3400 lb and the C.G position is 62 in The C.G forward limit is 64
in What is the weight to be added at the aft compartment at BS 180 to bring the C.G to the limit :
A- 106.3 lb.
B- 37.7 lb.
C- 58.6 lb.
Q99- The mean aerodynamic chord of an aeroplane is 120 in , and the aft C.G limit is 38% What
is the C.G limit from the LEMAC in inches :
A- 45.6 in.
B- 31.7 in.
C- 31.6 in.
Q100-The LEMAC is at BS 920.5 and the MAC is 130.4 in , what is the C.G position in inches
if the C.G is at 20% MAC :
A- 894.4 In.
B - 946.6 In.
C- 985.7 In.

GOOD LUCK