YAKEEN 2.0 TEST-08 (Physics) 16.01.

2022

1. A uniform copper rod of length 50 cm and diameter 8. What is the dimensional formula for thermal
3.0 mm is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface at resistance?
20°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of copper is (A) [M–1 L–2 T–1 K] (B) [ML2 T–2 K–1]
2.0 × 10–5 K–1 and Young’s modulus is 1.2 × 1011 –3 2
(C) [ML T K ] –1
(D) [M–1 L–2 T3 K]
N/m2. The copper rod is heated to 100°C, then the
tension developed in the copper rod is 9. Two ends of a rod of non-uniform area of cross-
(A) 12 × 103 N (B) 36 × 103 N section are maintained at temperature T 1 and T 2 (T 1 >
(C) 18 × 103 N (D) Zero T2) as shown in the figure

2. A seconds pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock

shows correct time at 25°C. How much time does the
clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature
is increased to 35°C? (steel = 1.2 × 10–5/°C)
(A) 321.5 s (B) 3.828 s
If I is heat current through the cross-section of
(C) 82.35 s (D) 36.28 s
conductor at distance x from its left face, then the
variation of I with x is best represented by
3. The water equivalent of 20 g of aluminium (specific
heat 0.2 cal g–1 °C–1), is
(A) 40 g (B) 4 g
(C) 8 g (D) 160 g (A) (B)

4. 100 g of ice (latent heat 80 cal g–1, at 0°C) is mixed

with 100 g of water (specific heat 1 cal g–1 °C–1) at
80°C. (C) (D)
The final temperature of the mixture will be
(A) 0°C (B) 40°C
(C) 80°C (D) < 0°C 10. Four rods of same material and having the same cross
section and length have been joined, as shown. The
5. 200 g of ice at –20°C is mixed with 500 g of water at temperature of the junction of four rods will be
20°C in an insulating vessel. Final mass of water in
vessel is (specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal
g–1°C–1)
(A) 700 g (B) 600 g
(C) 400 g (D) 200 g
(A) 20°C (B) 30°C
6. Which of the following material is most suitable for (C) 45°C (D) 60°C
cooking utensil?
(A) Low conductivity and low specific heat 11. Why it is more hotter for same distance over the top
(B) High conductivity and low specific heat
of a candle than it in the side of its flame?
(C) Low conductivity and high specific heat
(A) Conduction of heat in air is upward
(D) High conductivity and high specific heat (B) Heat is maximum radiated in upward direction
(C) Radiation and conduction both contribute in
7. Which of the following factors affect the thermal transferring heat upwards
conductivity of a rod? (D) Convection takes more heat in upward direction
(A) Area of cross-section
(B) Length of rod 12. A body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes
(C) Material of rod when the temperature of surroundings is 30°C. The
(D) All of these temperature of the body after next 10 minutes will be
(A) 30°C (B) 48°C
(C) 50°C (D) 52°C

[1]
13. Two metal spheres have radii r and 2r and they emit 20. For a black body at temperature 727°C, its rate of
thermal radiation with maximum intensities at energy loss is 20 watt and temperature of surrounding
wavelengths  and 2 respectively. The respective is 227°C. If temperature of black body is changed to
ratio of the radiant energy emitted by them per second 1227°C then its rate of energy loss will be
will be 320
(A) 304 W (B) W
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 3
(C) 16 : 1 (D) 8 : 1 (C) 240 W (D) 120 W

14. If temperature of sun is decreased by 1 % then the 21. A black body at 227°C radiates heat at the rate of 7
value of solar constant will change by cals/cm2 s. At a temperature of 727°C, the rate of heat
(A) 2% (B) –4% radiated in the same units will be
(C) –2% (D) 4% (A) 80 (B) 60
(C) 50 (D) 112
15. The coefficients of linear expansion of brass and steel
are l1 and l2 respectively. When we take a brass rod of 22. If m denotes the wavelength at which the radiative
length l1 and steel rod of length l2 at 0°C, then emission from a black body at a temperature T K is
difference in their lengths (l2 – l1) will remain the maximum, then
same at all temperatures, if
(A) 12 l1 = 22 l2 (B) 1 l2 = 2 l1 (A) m  T4 (B) m is independent of T
(C) m  T (D) m  T –1
(C) 1 l1 = 2 l2 (D) 1 l 2 = 2 l 2
2 1
23. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body,
3 what would be the temperature of the star, in which
16. The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg/m and at 40°C
992 kg/m3. The coefficient of volume expansion of the rate of energy production is Q?
14
water is  4R2Q   Q 
14

(A) 10–4/°C (B) 3 × 10–4/°C (A)   (B)  2 

–4
(C) 2 × 10 /°C (D) 6 × 10–4/°C     4R  
−1 2
Q  Q 
(C) (D)  2 
17. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal 4R2  4R  
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The 24. If transmission power of a surface is 1/9, reflective
temperature of their junction is power is 1/6, then what is its absorptive power ?
18 13
(A) (B)
13 18
3 15
(C) (D)
15 3
200
(A) 75°C (B) °C 25. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and
3 called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of
100
(C) 40°C (D) °C water are 39°W and 239°W respectively. What will
3 be the temperature on the new scale, corresponding to
a temperature of 39°C on the Celsius scale?
18. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m2 and thickness 0.1 m is (A) 139°W (B) 78°W
exposed on the lower surface to steam at 100°C. A (C) 117°W (D) 200°W
block of ice at 0°C rests on the upper surface of the
slab. In one hour 4.8 kg of ice is melted. The thermal
conductivity of slab is (Given latent heat of fusion of 26. A solid cylinder of length L and radius r is heat upto
ice = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1) same temperature as that of a cube of edge length a.
If both have same material, volume and allowed to
(A) 1.24 J/m/s/°C (B) 1.29 J/m/s/°C
cool under similar conditions, then ratio of amount of
(C) 2.05 J/m/s/°C (D) 1.02 J/m/s/°C radiations radiated will be (Neglect radiation emitted
from flat surfaces of the cylinder)
19. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0° C, the a 2a
resulting change in its entropy, taking latent heat of (A) (B)
3r rL
ice to be 80 cal/°C is
a2 a2
(A) 293 cal/K (B) 273 cal/K (C) (D)
(C) 8 × 104 cal/K (D) 80 cal/K rL 2rL
[2]
27. Internal energy of a non-ideal gas depends on
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Volume (D) All of these

28. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas the fraction

change in its pressure is equal to 4
V dV (A) T (B) 2T0
(A) − (B) − 3
0
dV V T0 5
dV dV (C) (D) T
(C) (D) − 2 30
V V
35. A sample of an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal
29. Which of the following laws of thermodynamics expansion. If dQ, dU and dW represent the amount of
defines internal energy? heat supplied, the change in internal energy and the
(A) Zeroth law (B) Second law work done respectively, then
(C) First law (D) Third law (A) dQ = +ve, dU = +ve, dW = +ve
(B) dQ = +ve, dU = 0, dW = +ve
30. In a thermodynamic process pressure of a fixed mass (C) dQ = +ve, dU = +ve, dW = 0
of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas (D) dQ = –ve, dU = –ve, dW = –ve
release 20 J of heat when 8 J of work was done on the
gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J,
36. In the diagram shown Qiaf = 80 cal and Wiaf = 50 cal.
then the final internal energy will be
If W = –30 cal for the curved path fi, value of Q for
(A) 2 J (B) 18 J path fi, will be
(C) 42 J (D) 58 J P
a f
31. A perfect gas goes from state A to state B by
absorbing 8 × 105 joule and doing 6.5 × 105 joule of
external work. If it is taken from same initial state A i
to final state B in another process in which it absorbs V
(0, 0)
105 J of heat, then in the second process work done (A) 60 cal (B) 30 cal
(A) On gas is 105 J (B) On gas is 0.5 × 105 J (C) –30 cal (D) –60 cal
(C) By gas is 105 J (D) By gas is 0.5 × 105 J
1
32. An ideal gas with adiabatic exponent  is heated at 37. A mass of dry air at N.T.P is compressed to th of
constant pressure. It absorbs Q amount of heat. 32
Fraction of heat absorbed in increasing the its original volume suddenly. If γ = 1.4, the final
temperature is pressure would be
(A) 32 atm (B) 128 atm
(A) γ (B) 1/ 1
(C) 1 – 1/ (D) 2γ (C) atm (D) 150 atm
32
33. A certain amount of an ideal monatomic gas needs 20
J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 10°C at 38. A mixture of gases at NTP for which γ = 1.5 is
constant pressure. The heat needed for the same 1
suddenly compressed to th of its original volume.
temperature rise at constant volume will be 9
(A) 30 J (B) 12 J The final temperature of mixture is
(C) 200 J (D) 215.3 J (A) 300°C (B) 546°C
(C) 420°C (D) 872°C
34. Two cylinders contain same amount of ideal
monatomic gas. Same amount of heat is given to two 39. In which process P-V diagram is a straight line
cylinders. If temperature rise in cylinder A is T0 then parallel to the volume axis?
temperature rise in cylinder B will be (A) Isochoric (B) Isobaric
(C) Isothermal (D) Adiabatic

[3]
40. Work done for the process shown in the figure is 42. A Carnot engine working between 300 K and 600 K
has a work output of 800 J per cycle. The amount of
heat energy supplied to engine from the source in
each cycle is
(A) 800 J (B) 1600 J
(C) 3200 J (D) 6400 J

43. If during an adiabatic process the pressure of mixture

(A) 1 J (B) 1.5 J of gases is found to be proportional to square of its
(C) 4.5 J (D) 0.3 J absolute temperature. The ratio of CP/CV for mixture
of gases is
(A) 2 (B) 1.5
41. During which of the following thermodynamic
process represented by PV diagram the heat energy (C) 1.67 (D) 2.1
absorbed by system may be equal to area under PV
graph ? 44. The temperature inside and outside a refrigerator are
273 K and 300 K respectively. Assuming that the
refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of
work done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will
(A) (B) be nearly
(A) 11 J (B) 22 J
(C) 33 J (D) 50 J

(C) (D) All of these 45. By opening the door of a refrigerator placed inside a
room you
(A) Can cool the room to certain degree
(B) Can cool it to the temperature inside the
refrigerator
(C) Ultimately warm the room slightly
(D) Can neither cool nor warm the room

[4]
 ANSWER KEY

1. (D)
2. (D)
3. (B)
4. (A)
5. (B)
6. (B)
7. (C)
8. (D)
9. (A)
10. (C)
11. (D)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (B)
15. (C)
16. (B)
17. (B)
18. (A)
19. (A)
20. (B)
21. (D)
22. (D)
23. (B)
24. (B)
25. (C)
26. (A)
27 (D)
28. (D)
29. (C)
30. (B)
31. (B)
32. (B)
33. (B)
34. (D)
35. (B)
36. (D)
37. (B)
38. (B)
39. (B)
40. (D)
41. (B)
42. (B)
43. (A)
44. (A)
45. (C)

[5]
 HINT AND SOLUTIONS
1. (D) Thermal conductivity is material property.
Since the rod is not bounded, No compressive stress
8. (D)
hence no tensions
L
R=
2. (D) KA
T 1 [R] = [M–1 L–2 T3 K]
= 
T 2 9. (A)
1 In steady state rate of heat transfer is constant so heat
= 1.2 10−5 10
2 current through any cross-section remains same with
T time.
= 6.0 10−5
T
Hence time lost in 1 week = 6.0 × 10–5 × T 10. (C)
= 6.0 × 10–5 × 7 × 24 × 3600 Incoming heat = outgoing heat
= 36.28 s (90° – ) + (60° – ) =  – 30° +  – 0°
180° = 4
3. (B) 45°C = 
0.2 × 20 = 4 [Thermal Capacity]
Water equivalent numerically equal to thermal 11. (D)
capacity On the sides heating is only due to Radiation but over
So, W = 4 g the top heating is due to Radiation as well as
convection.
4. (A)
100 g ice 0°C + 100 g water 80°C 12. (B)
Qrequired = mL if T = 80 [Qf becomes = 0°] Apply newton’s law of cooling
= 100 × 80 Qavailable = mCT  T −T 
ln  1 0  = Kt
= 8000 cal = 100 × 1 × 80 = 8000 cal  T2 − T0 
[Required to melt whole ice]  80 − 30 
ln   = K 10 ...(i)
Since Qrequired = Qavailable 60 − 30
 Whole system will be water at equilibrium and  
temperature would be 0°C Let temperature of body after next 10 minutes = T
So,
 60 − 30 
5. (B) ln  = K 10 ...(ii)
T − 30 
Maximum heat supplied by water  
Q1 = 500 × 1 × (20 – 0) Using equation 1 and 2
= 10,000 cal 5 30
ln = ln
Heat required to raise the temperature of ice upto 0°C 3 T − 30
Q2 = 200 × 0.5 × 20 30 × 3 = 5T – 5 × 30
= 2000 cal  T = 48°C
Q1 – Q2 = 8000 cal
Melts the ice 13. (A)
1
8000 = m × 80 T [wien’s displacement law]
m = 100 g 
So, mass of water is 500 + 100 = 600 g. T  2
So, 1 = 2 = =2
T2  1 
6. (B)
For cooking high conductivity and low specific heat and H = eAT 4  H  AT 4
because we do not want to waste heat energy in H 4r2 T4 1
1 = 2  14 =  4=
heating up the vessel it self also we want the vessel H 2 4(2r) T2 4 (2) 4
to absorb as much as heat is available.
 H1 : H2 :: 4 :1
14. (B)
7. (C)
[6]
  R
2
 Change in entropy S
Solar constant  T4  S =   T 
4
Heat absorbed
 r   =
Temperature at that instant
S 4T
= Q
S T S = [Q = mL1]
T T
and = −1% [given] 1000  80
T S =
S 273
So, = −4% S = 293 cal/K
S
20. (B)
15. (C)
According to Stefan – Boltzmann’s Law
Let the temperature difference be = t dH
l =l +l  t  T4 −T4
0
1 1 1 1 dt

l2 = l2 + l22t 20 10004 − 54 320
=  x= W
{Where l2 and l2 are increased lengths} x 1500 − 5
4 4
3
21. (D)
l  −l =l −l
2 1 2 1 Radiation  T4
4
{∵ difference of length is same at all temperature} R T 
l2 + l22t − l1 − l11t = l2 − l 1 So, 1
= 1
R2  T2 
l22 = l11 4
7  500 
= 
16. (B) x  1000 
2 = 1 (1 – T) x = 112 cal/cm2 s
992 = 998 (1 –  × 20)
 310−4 /°C 22. (D)
Wien’s displacement Law
m  T = b
17. (B)
1
3K(100 – ) + 2K (50 – ) = K So,  
m
T

23. (B)
Q = eAT 4
For black body e = 1
300K – 3K + 100K – 2K = K 14
 T =  Q 2 
400 = 6 4R 
400  
=
6
200 24. (B)
=
3 t+r+a=1
a = 1 – (t + r)
18. (A) 1 1
= 1− +
In 1 hour, 4.8 kg ice melts 9 6
 Heat supplied = 3.36 × 105 × 4.8 J {Q = L m}  
KA 13
Heat supplied per second =  T a=
18
L
3.36 105  4.8 K  0.36
=  100 25. (C)
1 3600 0.1 39 − 0 T − 39
K = 1.24 J/m/s/°C =
100 − 0 239 − 39
117° W = T
19. (A) 26. (A)

[7]
 Both have same volume ∆Q = nCP∆T
 a3 = r2L ...(i) 20 = nCP × 10 ……(1)
[ Temperature, material are same for both] ∆U = nCV∆T
Amount of radiation  Surface area C
U = n P T {∵ γmono = 5/3}
Radiation cylinder 2rL 2rL.a
= = 
Radiation cube 6a2 6a3
∆U = 12 J
Using equation (i),
We get
34. (D)
Rcylinder a
= Cylinder A Cylinder B
Rcube 3r
Free piston i.e., at Fixed piston i.e., at
27 (D) Constant pressure constant volume
Depends on Temperature, Pressure, Volume. ∆Q = ∆U
nCP∆T = nCV∆T’
28. (D) CPT0 = CV(∆T)’
PV  = constant So, P  V − C 5
T ' = P T0=  T 0= T0
P  dV  CV 3
Then, = −
 V  35. (B)
P   dQ = positive, dU = zero, dW = positive
29. (C)
∵ dQ = dU + dW
Internal energy is defined in first law
∵ ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
36. (D)
So, ∆U = ∆Q – ∆W
From process iaf

30. (B) a f
We know by 1st Law of Thermodynamics
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W
i
–20 J = ∆U – 8 J
∵ ∆U = Ufinal – Uinitial
∆U = –12 J Find ∆U first, ∆Q = ∆W + ∆U
So, Ufinal = Uinitial + ∆U 80 = 50 + ∆U
= 30 + (–12) = 18 J 30 cal = ∆U
Use this ∆U for process if
31. (B) ∆Q = ∆W + ∆U
∆Q = ∆U + ∆W ∆Q = –30 + (–30) = –060 cal
8 × 105 = ∆U + 6.5 × 105
1.5 × 105 J = ∆U 37. (B)
Again using ∆Q = ∆U + W for the second case ∆U Process carried out suddenly so process is adiabatic.
will stay the same.  PV  = K
Now, 105 = 1.5 × 105 + ∆W PV  = PV 
1 1 2 2

–0.5 × 105 = ∆W V 
32. (B) P2 = P1  1 
Heat absorbed in increasing temperature = ∆U = ∆Q  V2 
 V1 
7/5
– ∆W = nCV∆T P2 = (1 atm)
Heat absorbed 
Fraction of heat absorbed =  V1 / 32 
Total heat P2 = 1 atm × (25)7/5
nCV T CV 1 = 128 atm
= = =
nCP T CP 
38. (B)
33. (B)

[8]
 TVγ-1 = constant
TV  −1
1 1
=TV  −1
2 2 41. (B)
 −1
V 
T2 = T1  1  T is constant.
 V2 
1.5−1
 V  42. (B)
T = (273K )  1 
2
V / 9  W = 800 J
W T
T2 = (273 K) × 3 = 1− 2
= 819 K Q T1
= 546°C 800 300
= 1−
Q 600
39. (B) 1600 J – Q
P
43. (A)
P  T2
PT–2 = constant
  
V Compare with PT = constant
 1 −  
Process having a constant pressure, so isobaric
CP
process. ==2
CV
40. (D)
Area under graph and V axis = work done 44. (A)
T2 73 9
V  = 1− ;  = 1− =
W T1 300 100
25 cc
1 −  100 91
B = = −1 = ~ 11J
 9 9
10 cc A Q
=
P W
1 For W = 1 J
=  (30 + 10) 103  (25 −10) 10−6
2 Q =   Q = 11 J
= 0.3 J
45. (C)
Ultimately warm the room because work is being
done by the refrigerator.

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[9]
 YAKEEN-2.0
Practice Test-08 (Chemistry) 16-01-2022

46. Soaps can be classified as 53. The substances which effect the central
(A) carbohydrates nervous system and induce sleep are called
(B) ethers (A) Tranquillizers
(C) salts of fatty acids (B) Antipyretics
(D) none of these (C) Analgesics
(D) None of these
47. Which of the following is responsible for
depletion of the ozone layer in the upper 54. Select the incorrect statement regarding
strata of the atmosphere? synthetic detergents
(A) Polyhalogens (A) These have a non-polar organic part and
(B) Ferrocenes a polar group
(C) Fullerenes (B) These are surface active reagent
(D) Freons (C) These are sodium salt of fatty acids
(D) Their action is similar to the soap
48. Aspirin is chemically
55. Which of the following is an anionic
(A) Methyl salicylate
detergent?
(B) Ethyl salicylate
(A) CH3(CH2)16CH2OSO3Na
(C) Acetyl salicylic acid
+
(D) o-hydroxy benzoic acid (B) CH3(CH 2) 16 (CH 3)3Cl−
N
(C) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)𝑛
49. Green Chemistry means such reactions CH2CH2OH
which (D) C6H5SO3Na
(A) produce colour during reactions
(B) reduce the use and production of 56. Penicillin was first discovered by
hazardous chemicals (A) Alexander Fleming
(C) are related to the depletion of ozone (B) Tence and Salke
layer (C) S.A. Waksman
(D) study the reactions in plants (D) Louis Pasteur

50. Which one of the following is employed as a 57. Which is used for sterilization of water in
tranquilizer? water supply system of cities
(A) Equanil (A) Chlorine
(B) Naproxen (B) Sulphurdioxide
(C) Tetracycline (C) Potassium permanganate
(D) Chlorpheninamine (D) DDT

51. Bithional is an example of 58. The formulation of dettol contains

(A) Disinfectant (A) Chloroxylenol
(B) Antiseptic (B) Terpineol
(C) Antibiotic (C) Amine
(D) Analgesic (D) A and B

52. The use of chemicals for treatment of 59. Substance used for bringing down
diseases is called as temperature in high fever are called
(A) Homoeotherapy (A) Pyretics
(B) Isothermotherapy (B) Antipyretics
(C) Angiotherapy (C) Antibiotics
(D) Chemotherapy (D) Antiseptics
60. Which of the following represents scum 66. 10 g of glucose is dissolved in 150 g of
(A) C17H35COOK water. The mass percentage of glucose is
(B) C17H35COOH (A) 2.50%
(C) C15H31COOK (B) 6.25%
(D) (C17H35COO)2Ca (C) 8.75%
(D) 10%
61. Which one of the following is known as
broad spectrum antibiotics, It is rapidly 67. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form
absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract water, what is left at the end of the reaction?
(A) Streptomycine (A) 10 ml of H2
(B) Ampicillin (B) 5 ml of H2
(C) Chloramphenicol (C) 10 ml of O2
(D) Penicillin G (D) 5 ml of O2

62. Drugs that bind to the receptor site and 68. What volume of CO2 will be liberated at
inhibit its natural function are called NTP if 12 g of carbon is burnt in excess of
(A) antagonists oxygen?
(B) agonists (A) 11.2 L
(C) messengers (B) 22.4 L
(D) Penicillin (C) 2.24 L
(D) 1.12 L
63. The percentage of Se in peroxidase
69. The molarity of a solution containing 5.0 g
anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight
of NaOH in 250 mL solution is
(atomic weight = 78.4). Then minimum
(A) 0.1
molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous
(B) 0.5
enzyme is
(C) 1.0
(A) 1.568 × 104
(D) 2.0
(B) 1.568 × 103
(C) 15.68 70. For the complete combustion of 4 litre
(D) 3.316 × 104 ethane, how much oxygen is required?
(A) 14 litre
64. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is (B) 4 litre
dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL (C) 8 litre
of solution. If sodium carbonate dissociates (D) 12 litre
completely, molar concentration of sodium
ion, Na+ and carbonate ions, CO 32– are 71. 6.02 × 1020 molecules of urea are present in
respectively (Molar mass of Na2CO3 = 106 g 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of
mol–1) solution is
(A) 0.955 M and 1.910 M (A) 0.01 M
(B) 1.910 M and 0.955 M (B) 0.001 M
(C) 1.90 M and 1.910 M (C) 0.1 M
(D) 0.477 M and 0.477 M (D) 0.02 M

65. The molarity of H2SO4 solution, which has a 72. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the
density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% complete decompoisition of 9.85 g. BaCO3
by weight is is (At. wt. of Ba = 137)
(A) 1.84 M (A) 2.24 lit
(B) 18.4 M (B) 1.12 lit
(C) 20.6 M (C) 0.84 lit
(D) 24.5 M (D) 0.56 lit
73. Vapour density of a gas if its density is 0.178 80. Spraying of DDT produces pollution of the
g/L at NTP is type
(A) 0.178 (A) air
(B) 2 (B) air and water
(C) 4 (C) air and soil
(D) 0.089 (D) air, water and soil

74. The percentage value of nitrogen in urea is 81. Chlorofluorocarbon releases which of the
about following chemical harmful to ozone
(A) 46 (A) fluorine
(B) 85 (B) chlorine
(C) 18 (C) nitrogen peroxide
(D) 28 (D) sulphur dioxide

75. 5.6 litre of oxygen at STP contains 82. Classical smog occurs in places of
(A) 6.02 × 1023 atoms (A) excess CO2
(B) 3.01 × 1023 atoms (B) cool and humid
(C) 1.505 × 1023 atoms (C) warm, dry and sunny
(D) 0.7525 × 1023 atoms (D) excess NH3

76. Pollution is 83. Classification which is useful for doctors

(A) removal of top soil
(B) release of toxic/undesirable materials in
environment
(C) conservation of energy
(D) all of above
77. SO2 and NO2 produce pollution
increasing
(A) alkalinity
(B) acidity
(C) neutrality
(D) buffer action
78. Carbon monooxide is pollutant as it
(A) inactivates nerves
(B) inhibits glycolysis
(C) combines with oxygen
(D) combines with haemoglobin
79. Acid rains are produced by
(A) excess NO2 and SO2 from burning fossil
fuels
(B) excess production of NH3 by industry
and coal gas
(C) excess release of carbon monoxide by
incomplete combustion
(D) excess formation of CO2 by combustion
and animal respiration
(A) On the basis of drug action
(B) On the basis of pharmacological effect
(C) On the basis of chemical structure
(D) On the basis of molecular targets
84. Which of the following statements is true
by about photochemical smog?
(A) It is reducing in nature
(B) it is formed in winter
(C) It is a sulphurous smog
(D) Components of the smog, NO and O3,
irritate the nose and throat and their high
concentration causes headache, chest
pain, dryness of the throat, cough and
difficulty in breathing
85. Besides CO2, the other green house gas is
(A) CH4
(B) N2
(C) Ar
(D) O2
86. Ultraviolet radiation from sun causes a
reaction that produces
(A) fluorides
(B) carbon monooxide
(C) sulphur dioxide
(D) ozone
87. Water pollution is less if BOD is
(A) less than 5 ppm
(B) less than 15 ppm
(C) less than 50 ppm
(D) less than 100 ppm
88. Drained sewage has biological oxygen
demand (BOD)
(A) more than that of water
(B) less than that of water
(C) equal to that of water
(D) none of the above
89. Which of the following is not a herbicide ?
(A) Sodium chlorate
(B) Sodium arsenate
(C) Phosphate
(D) Triazines
90. Phosphate pollution is caused by
(A) weathering of phosphate rock only
(B) agriculture fertilizers only
(C) phosphate rocks and sewage
(D) sewage and agricultural fertilizers
 Answer Key
46. (C) 61. (C) 76. (B)
47. (D) 62. (A) 77. (B)
48. (C) 63. (A) 78. (D)
49. (B) 64. (B) 79. (A)
50. (A) 65. (B) 80. (D)
51. (B) 66. (B) 81. (B)
52. (D) 67. (D) 82. (B)
53. (A) 68. (B) 83. (B)
54. (C) 69. (B) 84. (D)
55. (A) 70. (A) 85. (A)
56. (A) 71. (A) 86. (D)
57. (A) 72. (B) 87. (A)
58. (D) 73. (B) 88. (A)
59. (B) 74. (A) 89. (C)
60. (D) 75. (B) 90. (D)
 Hint and Solutions

46. (C) 54. (C)

Basic Information.

47. (D) 55. (A)

Freons or chlorofluoro carbons are
responsible for depletion of the ozone layer 56. (A)
in the upper starta of the atmosphere. They
are used as propellants, aerosol spray caps,
refrigerants, fire-fighting reagents etc. They 57. (A)
are stable and chemically inert compounds.
They absorb UV - radiation and break down 58. (D)
liberating free atomic chlorine which causes
decomposition of ozone through free radical
59. (B)
reaction. This results in the deplection of the
ozone layer.
Freons are mainly Freon-1 (CFCl3) and 60. (D)
Feron-12 (CF2Cl2). They form free radical
of chlorine in presence of UV-radiation. 61. (C)
Such free radical decomposes O3 as follows:
Cl• + O3 → ClO• + O2 62. (A)
ClO• + O3 → Cl• + 2O2
Chlorine free radical 63. (A)
0.5% by weight means 0.5 g Se is present in
48. (C)
100 g of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme. As
Aspirin an antibiotic chemically Acetyl at least one atom of Se must be present in the
Salicylic acid enzyme and atomic weight of Se = 78.4,
therefore 1 g atom of Se, i.e. 78.4 g will be
present in enzyme
100
 78.4 g = 1.568 × 104 g.
=
0.5
49. (B)
Green chemistry involves such reactions 64. (B)
which reduce the use and production of numberof molesof solute
Molarity = volumeof solution(inm L) 1000
hazardous or toxic chemical to reduce
pollution from environment. 25.31000
=
106250 = 0.9547 0.955 M
50. (A)
Na2CO3 in aqueous solution remains
dissociated as
51. (B) Na CO 2Na+ + CO2−
Bithional is added to soaps to impart 2 3 3
antiseptic properties. x 2x x
Since, the molarity of Na2CO3 is 0.955
52. (D) M, the molartiy of CO32− is also 0.955 M
53. (A) and that of Na+ is 2 × 0.955 = 1.910 M
Tranquilizers reduce anxiety and tension
65. (B) 71. (A)
98% by mass means-98 g of H2SO4 is 6.021020 1000 6.021021
M= = = 0.01M
present in 100 g of acid. 100 6.021023 6.021023
given mass  1000
M=
mol. mass  V
72. (B)
Given, mass = 98 g BaCO3 → BaO + CO2
Mol. mass = 98 g 9.85
mass 100
V= density
= 1.84 197
mole–mole analysis
[ ∵ density of H2SO4 is 1.84 g/cc] 9.85
Putting the values :
197 = mole of BaO
M = 98 1000 1.84 = 18.4 M 1 1
98 100 9.85
Hence = vol (at STP)
66. (B) 197 22.4
1120
mass of solute Vol = = 1.12 Lit.
mass % = × 100 1000
mass of solution
10
= × 100 = 6.25% 73. (B)
150 + 10
At NTP, weight of 1 litre gas = 0.178 gm
67. (D) so weight of 22.4 litre gas = weight of 1 mole
as = molar mass of gas = 0.178 × 22.4 gm
2 H2 + O2 → 2H2O
vapour denstiy = molar mass of gas / 2
2 ml 1 ml 0.178 22.4 = 2
2 ml of H2 react with 1 ml of O2. Hence, 30 so V.D. =
2
ml of H2 will react with 15 ml of O2.
 O2 left = 20 – 15 = 5 ml. 74. (A)
Urea (NH2COH2)
68. (B) M.wt of Urea = 60
28
C(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) % of N = × 100 = 46 %.
1 mol 1 mol 60
12 g 22.4 L
75. (B)
69. (B) mole= 5.6
number of moles of solute 22.4
Molarity = volume of solution  no. of molecule = 5.6 × 2Na
22.4
= 5  1000 [∵ moles of NaOH = 5 ] 1
40  250 40 = × 6.02 × 1023 = 3.01 × 1023 atoms
= 0.5 M 2

70. (A) 76. (B)

2C6H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2 O
2 × 22.4 litre ethane required to complete
burning = 156.8O2.
4 litre = 156.8  4 litre O2
2  22.4
Basic Information.
77. (B)
SO2 and NO2 after oxidation and reaction
with water convert into acids. Acids come
down from the atmosphere in the form of
H2SO4, HNO3.
78. (D)
Carbon monoxide combine to haemoglobin
to form carboxy haemoglobin which is about
300 times more stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
This stable complex reduces the oxygen
carrying capacity of blood. This oxygen
deficiency causes headache, weak eyesight
nervousness and cardiovascular disorder.
84. (D)
Photochemical somg is occures in warm, dry
and sunny climate. It has high concentration
of NO, NO2 and O3. Their low
concentration causes irritation in nose and
throat and their high concentration causes
headache, chest pain, cough and difficulty in
breathing.

79. (A) 85. (A)

When fossil fuel burnt in automobile engines
different oxides like NO, NO2, SO2, SO3
are produced. In the presence of moisture
these oxides convert in the acids. THese
acids comes down from the atmosphere in
the form of rain, called acid rain.
S (from fossil fuel) + O2 SO2
SO2 + O3 SO3 + O2
SO2 + H2O2 H2SO4
SO3 + H2O H2SO4
2NO2 + H2O HNO3 + HNO2
80. (D)
81. (B)
82. (B)
Classical smog contains smoke, fog and
sulphur dioxide. It occurs in cool and humid
climate.
83. (B)
Green house gases are, CO2, CH4, O3 N2O
and CFCS water vapours.
86. (D)
Ultraviolet radiation from sum produces
ozone
87. (A)
Clean water has BOD value of less than 5
ppm
88. (A)
Drained sewages has BOD value more than
17 ppm while clean water has less than 5
ppm.
89. (C)
Phosphate is not a herbicide it is a fertiliser.
90. (D)
Sewage consists food materials which
contains phosphate and also agriculture
fertilizers contain phosphate which are
added in excess in corn fields.

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 1

YAKEEN- 2.0 (NEET)

16/01/2022
Practice Test- 08
91. Mark the incorrect option – 98. Spore develop inside …….. structure in
(A) Gymosperm show double fertilization Bryophytes –
(A) Flowers
(B) Angiosperm is heterosporus
(B) Capsule
(C) Zygotic meiosis occur in algae
(C) Sporangia
(D) Gemmae cup is present in Marchantia (D) Macrosporangia

92. Budding in protonema is feature of – 99. Zygotic meiosis not occur in –

(A) Marchantia (B) Spirogyra (A) Spirogyra
(C) Sphagnum (D) Pinus (B) Gelidium
(C) Polysiphonia
93. Which of the following is an examples of (D) Chlamydomonas
haplo-diplontic –
(A) Pinus and cycas 100. Another name for Pollen grain is –
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Pteris and Ectocarpus
(B) Male gametophyte
(C) Neem and mango
(C) Embryosac
(D) Volvox and Fucus (D) Microsporophyll

94. Similarity between fucus and Volvox is – 101. How many megaspores are functional after
(A) Both colonial formation of four megaspore due to meiosis
(B) Both oogamous inside megasporangia in gymnosperm –
(A) All four (B) None
(C) Both green algae
(C) One (D) two
(D) Both brown algae
102. Mannitol is food reserve inside cells of –
95. Precursor of seed habits first develop into – (A) Ullothrix (B) Gracilaria
(A) Seleginella and Salvinia (C) Laminaria (D) Cladophora
(B) Bryophytes
(C) Algae 103. Isogamous non-motile gamete present in –
(D) Gymnosperm (A) Ulothrix (B) Spirogyra
(C) Pinus (D) Gelidium
96. Strobilus or cone present in –
104. Oogamous type of reproduction is present
(A) Equisetum (B) Gelidium
in –
(C) Wheat (D) Sphagnum (A) All plant kingdom
(B) All green algae
97. Unicellular rhizoids is feature of – (C) All Red algae
(A) Marchantia (B) Ectocarpus (D) All Brown algae
(C) Neem (D) Fucus
 2

105. Lateral unequal flagella is feature of – 114. Which of the following is not incorrect for
(A) Kelp (B) Sphagnum red algae ?
(C) Funaria (D) All (A) Are mostly acellular
(B) Sexual reproduction is oogamous
106. Zoospore is absent in .............. Algae
complexed with post-fertilization
(A) Kelp (B) Spirogyra
(C) Porphyra (D) All changes
(C) Motile structures are common
107. In bryophytes diploid chromosome number (D) Cell wall lack polysulphate esters
occurs in
(A) Spore mother cell (B) Gametes 115. Approximately half of the total CO2
(C) Spores (D) Rhizoids fixation on earth is carried out by:
(A) Algae (B) Gymnosperms
108. Sporophyte dependent upon gametophyte is
found in (C) Angiosperms (D) Pteridophyte
(A) Angiosperm (B) Pinus
(C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes 116. Which of the following plants do not
produce seeds?
109. Bryophytes comprise (A) Ficus and Neem
(A) Sporophyte is of longer duration (B) Fern and Funaria
(B) Dominant phase of sporophyte which is (C) Mustard and Ficus
parasitic
(D) Cycas and Pinus
(C) Dominant phase of gametophyte which
produces spores
(D) Small sporophyte phase and generally 117. In liverworts
parasitic on gametophyte (a) Rhizoids are unicellular ,branched and
green
110. Sporophyte in bryophytes is (b) Plant body is thalloid and
(A) free-living dorsiventrally flat
(B) attached to the photosynthetic (c) Sporophyte is dependent upon
gametophyte gametophyte
(C) unicellular (d) Gametophytic plant develops from
(D) produced by spores Zygote
(A) (a) & (b) are correct
111. Protonema is found in the life cycle of
(B) (b) & (d) are correct
(A) Spirogyra (B) Rhizopus
(C) Funaria (D) Escherichia (C) (a) & (c) are incorrect
(D) (a) & (d) are incorrect
112. Which stage in mosses bears the sex
organs? 118. In bryophytes, male sex organ is
(A) secondary protonema which produces
(B) protonema stage antherozoids.
(C) leafy stage (A) Unicellular antheridium, biflagellate
(D) sporophyte (B) Multicellular antheridium, biflagellate
(C) Multicellular antheridium, multifiagellate
113. The red algae is red due to : (D) Unicellular spermatogonium, non-motile
(A) Chlorophyll-d
(B) r-phycocyanin 119. Archegoniophore is present in:
(C) r-phycoerythrin
(D) Chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-d (A) Adiantum (B) Funaria
(C) Marchantia (D) Chara
 3

120. Isogamous condition with flagellated 129. Select an incorrect statement about
gametes is found in algae – gemmae in bryophytes?
(A) Spirogyra (A) gemmae are green, multicellular,
(B) Volvox sexual buds
(C) Fucus (B) gemmae develop in small receptacles
(D) Chlamydomonas called gemma cups located on the
thalli.
121. Which of the following is not a class of (C) gemmae become detached from the
pteridophytes? parent body and germinate to form new
(A) Psilopsida (B) Lycopsida individuals.
(C) Bryopsida (D) Sphenopsida (D) gemmae are green, multicellular,
asexual buds
122. Which is not a character of Bryophytes?
(A) Presence of Capsule 130. Gametophytic and sporophytic phases are
(B) Independent sporophyte independent in
(C) Motile sperms (A) Pteridophytes (B) Bryophytes
(D) Water is essential for fertilization (C) Gymnosperms (S) Angiosperms

123. First land inhabiting plants are 131. The endosperm in gymnosperms is
(A) Angiosperms (B) Gymnosperms (A) Diploid (B) Haploid
(C) Bryophytes (D) Pteridophytes (C) Triploid (D) Polyploid

124. The first terrestrial plants to possess 132. Which one of the following plant is
vascular tissues are monoecious?
(A) Bryophytes (B) Pteridophytes (A) Marchantia (B) Cycas
(C) Gymnosperms (D) Angiosperms (C) Pinus (D) All of above

125. In pteridophytes, the main plant body is 133. Which one of the following is not a
(A) a gametophyte (B) thalloid pteridophytes?
(C) non vascular (D) a sporophyte (A) Polytrichum (B) Pteris
126. In pteridophytes, sporophylls are borne on (C) Selaginella (D) Psilotum
(A) sporophytes (B) gametophytes
(C) roots (D) sporangia 134. Giant Redwood tree is
(A) Sequoia (B) Ginkgo
127. In which pteridophyte sporophylls does not (C) Ephedra (D) Aebiesbalsamia
cones
(A) Selaginella (B) Equisetum 135. Heterospory is found in all members of and
(C) Pinus (D) Dryopteris few members of :
(A) Spermatophytes, pteridophytes
128. Species of Sphagnum provide (B) Pteridophytes, spermatophytes
(A) peat that have long been used as fuel (C) Bryophytes, pteridophytes
(B) peat that have long been used as as
(D) Pteridophytes, gymnosperms
packing material
(C) peat that have long been used as fibre
and for trans-shipment of non-living
material
(D) peat that have long been used as food
 4

ANSWERSKEY
91. (A) 114. (B)
92. (C) 115. (A)
93. (B) 116. (B)
94. (B) 117. (D)
95. (A) 118. (B)
96. (A) 119. (C)
97. (A) 120. (D)
98. (B) 121. (C)
99. (C) 122. (B)
100. (B) 123. (C)
101. (C) 124. (B)
102. (C) 125. (D)
103. (B) 126. (A)
104. (C) 127. (D)
105. (A) 128. (A)
106. (C) 129. (A)
107. (A) 130. (A)
108. (C) 131. (B)
109. (D) 132. (C)
110. (B) 133. (A)
111. (C) 134. (A)
112. (C) 135. (A)
113. (C)
 5

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

91. (A) 98. (B)

Double fertilization is the characteristic Spore develop inside capsule by meiosis
feature of angiosperms in Bryophytes

92. (C)
99. (C)
Mosses - Sphagnum NCERT PG NO:36
All algae show zygotic meiosis except
Kelp ,Ectocarpus ,Polysiphonia ,Fucus
93. (B)
shows zygotic mitosis
• Gymnosperm –Diplontic life cycle
• pteridophytes- haplo-diplontic life 100. (B)
cycle.
Male gametophyte
• Angiosperm-Diplontic life cycle
• Most algal genera are haplontic, 101. (C)
some algae Ectocarpus ,
The megaspore mother cell divides
kelp,Polysiphonia , are haplo-
meiotically to form four megaspores. One
diplontic and Fucus -diplontic
of the megaspores enclosed within the
megasporangium develops into a
94. (B) multicellular female gametophyte that
• Fusion between one large, non- bears two or more archegonia or female
motile (static) female gamete and a sex organs
smaller, motile male gamete-
oogamous 102. (C)
• Volvox, Fucus shows oogamous • Brown algae- Mannitol, laminarin
• volvox-green algae and focus-brown • Green algae-Starch
algae.
• Red algae-Floridean starch
95. (A)
103. (B)
• Selaginella and Salvinia -produce
• Isogamous and non-flagellated (non-
two kinds of spores, macro (large)
motile) gametes present in
and micro (small) spores, are known
Spirogyra.
as heterosporous
• Isogamous and flagellated (motile)
• The development of the zygotes into
Ulothrix
young embryos take place within the
female gametophyte • Red algae- flagella absent

96. (A) 104. (C)

Sporophylls may form distinct compact In red algae -Sexual reproduction is
structures called strobili or cones present oogamous and accompanied by complex
in Selaginella, Equisetum post fertilisation development

97. (A) 105. (A)

• Unicellular rhizoids is feature of • Lateral unequal flagella-brown algae
liverworts • Apical equal flagella-green alage
• Multicellular rhizoids- Mosses • Red alage –flagella absent
 6

106. (C) 115. (A)

Red algae –flagella absent Algae

107. (A) 116. (B)

Spore mother cell
108. (C)
In bryophytes -Sporophyte is non green,
non photosynthetic ,depend on
gametophyte
109. (D)
In bryophytes ,Zygotes do not undergo
reduction division immediately. They
produce a multicellular body called a
sporophyte.
• Sporophyte is non green, non
photosynthetic ,depend on
gametophyte
110. (B)
NCERT PG NO:35
111. (C)
In mosses- The predominant stage of the
life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte
which consists of two stages. The first
stage is the protonema stage
Seed bearing plants-Gymnosperm and
Angiosperm
117. (D)
spores germinate to produce gametophyte
118. (B)
sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular.
The male sex organ is called antheridium.
They produce biflagellate antherozoid
119. (C)
Marchantia NCERT PG NO 34
120. (D)
Chlamydomonas
121. (C)
Pteridophyte classified into Psilopsida
(Psilotum); Lycopsida (Selaginella,
Lycopodium), Sphenopsida (Equisetum)
and Pteropsida (Dryopteris, Pteris,
Adiantum).
• Bryophytes -Bryopsida

112. (C)
122. (B)
The second stage is the leafy stage, which
In bryophyte - Dependent sporophyte
develops from the secondary protonema as
a lateral bud. They consist of upright,
slender axes bearing spirally arranged 123. (C)
leaves. They are attached to the soil Bryophytes
through multicellular and branched
rhizoids. This stage bears the sex organs.
124. (B)
Pteridophyte- first terrestrial plants to
113. (C) possess vascular tissues – xylem and
Because of the predominance of the red phloem.
pigment, r-phycoerythrin in their body
125. (D)
114. (B) In pteridophytes, the main plant body is a
NCERT PG NO 33&34 sporophyte
 7

126. (A) 131. (B)

The sporophytes bear sporangia that are The endosperm in gymnosperms is
subtended by leaf-like appendages called haploid because directly developed from
sporophylls gametophyte

127. (D) 132. (C)

Dryopteris NCERT PG NO 37&38 Marchantia and cycas –Dioecious
• Pinus –monoecious
128. (A)
Species of Sphagnum, a moss, provide 133. (A)
peat that have long been used as fuel, and Polytrichum-Bryophyte
as packing material for trans-shipment of
living material because of their capacity to
hold water 134. (A)
One of the gymnosperms, the giant
redwood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest
129. (A)
tree specie
NCERT PG NO 35
135. (A)
130. (A)
Spermatophytes-Gymnosperm ,
Pteridophytes Angiosperm,
• Majority of the pteridophytes are
homosporous but genera like
Selaginella and Salvinia are
heterosporous

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 1

YAKEEN 2.0
PRACTICE TEST – 08 (Zoology) 16-01-2022

1. Match the following columns. 3. Match the following columns.

Column I Column II Column I Column II

(a) CNS 1. From tissue/organ (a) Synaptic vesicles 1. Resting potential

to CNS (b) Electrical potential 2. Nerve impulse
(b) PNS 2. From CNS to difference across
tissue/organ the resting plasma
(c) Afferent 3. Comprises of brain membrane
fibres and spinal cord (c) Action potential, 3. Neurotransmitter

(d) Efferent 4. Comprises of termed as a

fibres nerves of body (d) Gramular bodies 4. Nissl’s granules

Codes found in the Cell

body of a neuron
a b c d
Codes
(A) 2 3 4 1
a b c d
(B) 1 2 3 4
(A) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 4 3 (B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
2. Match the following columns.
4. Match the column I (the parts of the human
Column I Column II
brain) with column II (the functions) and
(a) External layer 1. Choroid identify the correct choice from the given
of eyeball option
(b) Inner layer of 2. Orbits Column I Column II
eyeball (a) Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary
(c) Middle layer 3. Sclera hormone secretion
of eyeball (b) Cerebellum 2. Controls vision and
(d) Socket of the 4. Retina hearing
skull (c) Hypothalamus 3. Controls the rate of
Codes heart beat
a b c d (d) Midbrain 4. Site of intelligence
(A) 1 2 4 3 5. Maintains body
(B) 2 1 3 4 posture
(C) 3 4 1 2 Codes
(D) 4 3 2 1 a b c d
(A) 5 4 2 1
(B) 4 5 2 1
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 4 5 1 2
 2

5. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic 13. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called
junction are called (A) sweat gland
(A) Hormones (B) prostate gland
(C) Cowper’s gland
(B) Neurotransmitters (D) sebaceous gland/ceruminous gland
(C) Cerebrospinal fluid
(D) Lymph 14. The part of internal ear responsible for hearing
is
6. Potential difference across resting membrane is (A) cochlea
negatively charged. This is due to differential (B) semicircular canal
distribution of the following ions. (C) utriculus
(D) sacculus
(A) Na+ and K+ ions
(B) and Cl– ions 15. The organ of Corti is a structure present in
(C) Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions (A) external ear
(B) middle ear
(D) Ca2+ and Cl– ions (C) semicircular canal
(D) cochlea
7. Resting membrane potential is maintained by
16. The functional unit of the contractile system in
(A) hormones (B) neurotransmitters
the striped muscle is:
(C) ion pumps (D) None of the above (A) Z-band (B) A-band
(C) Myofibril (D) Sarcomere
8. The function of our visceral organs is controlled
by 17. Muscles of the heart are:
(A) sympathetic and somatic neural system (A) Voluntary striated
(B) Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural (B) Voluntary smooth
system (C) Involuntary striated
(D) Involuntary smooth
(C) central and somatic nervous system
(D) None of the above 18. The dark bands (A-bands) of a skeletal muscle
arc known as :
9. Which of the following is not involved in knee- (A) Isotropic bands
jerk reflex? (B) Anisotropic bands
(A) Muscle spindle (B) Motor neuron (C) Intercalated disc
(D) Cross bridges
(C) Brain (D) Interneurons
19. True statement about white muscle fibres are:
10. An area in the brain which is associated with
(A) High no of sarcoplasmic reticulum
strong emotion is (B) More content of myoglobin
(A) cerebral cortex (B) cerebellum (C) More no of mitochondria
(C) limbic system (D) medulla (D) None of the above

11. Mark the vitamin present in rhodopsin. 20. During muscular contraction, the:
(A) I-zone will decrease in length
(A) Vitamin - A (B) Vitamin - B
(B) A-zone will decrease in length
(C) Vitamin - C (D) Vitamin - D (C) Z-zone will decrease in length
(D) H-zone will increase in length
12. Human eyeball consists of three layers and it
encloses
(A) lens, iris, optic nerve
(B) lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor
(C) cornea, lens, iris
(D) cornea, lens, optic nerve
 3

21. ….A… is attached to the tympanic membrane 29. Which state of a living muscle, are the
and the …B… is attached to the oval window following events associated?
of the cochlea. 1. Ca+2 released by sarcoplasmic reticulum
Choose the correct option for A and B. 2. Actin complexes with myosin
(A) A – Malleus, B – stapes 3. ATPase is activated
(B) A – Malleus, B – incus 4. Troponin binds Ca+2
(C) A – Stapes, B – malleus
(D) A – Incus, B – stapes (A) Relaxed state
(B) Muscle at the beginning of contraction
22. Striated muscles contract by : (C) Muscle in tetanus
(A) Sliding of actin filament upon myosin (D) Muscle at the end of contraction
filaments
(B) Sliding of myosin filaments upon actin 30. Total number of bones in the hind limb of a
filaments man is:
(C) Pulling together of myosin filaments (A) 14 (B) 21
(D) Pulling together of actin filaments (C) 24 (D) 30
23. The distance or length of the myofibril between
two adjacent Z-bands is called : 31. The correct sequence of meninges from the
(A) Sarcomere (B) Sarcolemma outer to the inner side is
(A) Arachnoid - piamater - duramater
(C) Fibril (D) Sarcoplasm
(B) Arachnoid - duramatcr - piamater
24. In a relaxed fibril, H-zone, a lighter region of (C) Piamater - arachnoid - duramater
low density can be seen in the centre of: (D) Duramater - arachnoid – piamater
(A) Anisotropic or A-band
(B) Isotropic or I-band 32. Sub-arachnoid space is found in
(C) Z-band (A) Below arachnoid (B) Durameter
(D) Both in A and I-band (C) Blastocoel (D) None of the above

25. Synovial membrane is found in: 33. The hind brain consists of
(A) Neuromotor junction (A) Pons + cerebellum
(B) Synaptic junction (B) Hypothalamus + cerebellum
(C) Joints (C) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum
(D) All the nerves (D) Medulla oblongata + cerebellum + pons

26. When the head of humerus fits into glenoid 34. Functions of neural system involve
cavity, joint is: (A) Integration and coordination of different
(A) Ball and socket joint organs
(B) Hinge joint (B) Regulation of metabolic activity
(C) Pivot joint (C) Homeostasis
(D) Saddle joint (D) All of the above

27. Axial skeleton is made up of: 35. White matter consists of

(A) Skull only (A) Nerve fibres with myelinated sheath
(B) Sternum only (B) Nerve fibres without myelinated sheath
(C) Complete vertebral column (C) Scattered areolar tissue
(D) All of the above (D) Nerve fibres with blood vessels

28. What is the right sequence of bones in the ear 36. The thermoregulatory centre is situated in
ossicles of a mammal starting from the (A) Spinal cord (B) Pituitary body
tympanum inwards: (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus
(A) Malleus, Incus, Stapes
(B) Malleus, Stapes, Incus
(C) Incus, Malleus, Stapes
(D) Stapes, Incus, Malleus
 4

37. Space between the two adjoining neurons 42. The pneumotaxis centre in the body is
where the chemical transmitter is released is (A) Heart (B) Lung
known as (C) pons (D) Liver
(A) Synaptic vesicle (B) Synapse
(C) Synaptic cleft (D) Terminal button 43. Reflexes for maintaining vital functions like
blood pressure arc localised in
38. Which part of the mammalian brain controls (A) Hind brain (B) Mid brain
muscular co-ordination (C) Fore brain (D) Cerebrum
(A) Cerebrum
(B) Medulla oblongata 44. CNS is mostly made of
(C) Cerebellum (A) Motor neurons and sensory neurons
(D) Corpus callosum (B) Sensory neurons and association neurons
(C) Association neurons
39. In which part of the following, the vomiting (D) Motor neurons and association neurons
centre is situated?
(A) Cerebrum 45. Read the following statements and choose the
(B) Cerebellum correct answer of the question following them.
(C) Medulla oblongata I. Both nose and tongue detect dissolve
(D) Hypothalamus chemicals
II. The chemical senses of gustation and
40. Eustachian tube connects ….A… cavity with olfactory are functionally similar
…B… III. The chemical senses of gustation and
Choose the correct option for A and B. olfactory are interrelated
(A) A – outer ear; B – pharynx IV. With each taste of food the brain
(B) A – inner ear; B – pharynx integrates the differential input from the
(C) A – pinna; B – pharynx taste buds and a complex favour is
(D) A – middle ear; B – pharynx perceived
How many of the above statements is/are
41. Reflex action immediately involves correct?
(A) Spinal cord (A) One (B) Two
(B) Cerebellum (C) Three (D) Four
(C) Medulla oblongate
(D) Optical lobe
 5

ANSWERS

1. (C) 24. (A)

2. (C) 25. (C)
3. (A) 26. (A)
4. (D) 27. (D)
5. (B) 28. (A)
6. (A) 29. (B)
7. (C) 30. (D)
8. (B) 31. (D)
9. (C) 32. (A)
10. (C) 33. (D)
11. (A) 34. (D)
12. (B) 35. (A)
13. (D) 36. (D)
14. (A) 37. (C)
15. (D) 38. (C)
16. (D) 39. (C)
17. (C) 40. (D)
18. (B) 41. (A)
19. (A) 42. (C)
20. (A) 43. (A)
21. (A) 44. (C)
22. (A) 45. (D)
23. (A)
 6

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (C) 10. (C)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 316 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321

2. (C) 11. (A)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 323 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 324

3. (A) 12. (B)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 317/318 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 324

4. (D) 13. (D)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321 Wax producing glands present in external
auditory canal are known as ceruminous
glands

5. (B)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 319 14. (A)

Internal ear has 2 parts; one is vestibular

apparatus for balancing and another is
6. (A) cochlea for hearing
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 317

15. (D)
7. (C) 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no. 326
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 317

16. (D)
8. (B) 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 305
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 316

17. (C)
9. (C) 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 304
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 322
 7

18. (B) 28 (A)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 304 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 325

19. (A) 29. (B)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 308 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 307

20. (A) 30. (D)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 307/ 308 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 310/311

21. (A) 31. (D)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 325 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 320

22. (A) 32. (A)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 306
23. (A)
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 305
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 320;
there are 2 space in between meninges: 1 is
subdural space between duramater and
arachnoid and another is sub arachnoid
space between arachnoid and piamater

33. (D)
24. (A)
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 305

34. (D)
25. (C)
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 327
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 312

35. (A)
26. (A)
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 312

36. (D)
27. (D)
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 309
 8

37. (C) 42. (C)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 319 Pneumotaxic centre for regulation of

respiratory centres of medulla are found in
pons.
38. (C)

Cerebellum is responsible for involuntary 43. (A)

control of skeletal muscles which is very
crucial for balance and posture control. 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321

39. (C) 44. (C)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321; all 11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 321
visceral organs and their reflexes (gastric
reflexes / cardiac reflexes / vomiting) are
also mediated by medullary centres.
45. (D)

Both olfaction and gustation are

40. (D) interrelated senses, both are functionally
similar and both basically have same
11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 325 mechanisms

41. (A)

11th BIOLOGY NCERT Page no 322: if a

reflex action is required an immediate
effects and the response is not very much
complex and does not need any prior
experience than spinal cord is the
responsible part from CNS

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