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Questions

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

Q1. Quantities in physics are classified as either vectors or scalars.

Which of the following units could only be used for a scalar quantity?
A m s−1
B m s−2
C kg m s−2
D kg m−3
Q2. Which row of the table gives the meaning of the stated unit prefixes?

Q3. Which of the following quantities has the SI base units kg m 2 s−3?
A force
B momentum
C power
D work done

Q4. A locomotive pulls a train at constant speed against a force of 8 400 kN. The output power of the
locomotive is 70 MW.

Which of the following gives the time in seconds for the locomotive to pull the train a distance of 1 km?

(Total for each question = 1 mark)


Q5. A student walks for 6 seconds. The displacement-time graph for the student is shown.

Which row of the table shows the final


displacement and velocity of the student?

Q6. The diagrams below show the velocity of an object before and after a force is applied.
The magnitude of the velocity did not change.

Which of the following arrows represents the direction of the change in velocity?

A
B
C
D

Q7. A tennis ball is moving through the air. The diagram shows the horizontal and vertical components of
its velocity.
Which of the following expressions gives the magnitude of the velocity in m s–1?

Q8. A ball rolls off a table with a horizontal velocity of 1.2 m s −1. The ball takes 0.9 s to reach
the ground and lands a distance s from the table as shown.

Which of the following expressions could be used to


determine the value of s in metres?

Q9. A car is moving towards a stop sign at a speed of 25 m s −1. The driver applies the brakes 20 m before
the sign and decelerates uniformly to rest just before the sign.
Which of the following gives the magnitude of the car's deceleration in m s−2?

Q10. A student used a falling sphere to determine the acceleration of free-fall g. The sphere was released
from rest.
Which two quantities would require the fewest measurements to be taken in order to determine g?

A displacement and initial velocity

B displacement and time

C final velocity and displacement

D final velocity and time


Q11. A student used a falling sphere to determine the acceleration of free fall.

A camera produced images of the sphere at constant time intervals as it fell.

The positions of the sphere in the first two images are shown. Image 1 shows the sphere's position at the
instant it was released.

Which of the positions P, Q, R or S will the sphere be at in Image 3?


(1)
A P
B Q
C R
D S

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q12.

A ball is travelling horizontally at a speed of 7.0 m s −1. The ball hits a vertical wall and rebounds along its
initial path at a speed of 5.0 m s−1.
The ball has an acceleration of 300 m s−2 while in contact with the wall.

Which of the following expressions gives the time of contact t between the ball and the wall?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q13.

Select one answer from A to D and put a cross in the box . If you change your mind about an
answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

An object on the Moon falls a vertical distance of 0.32 m, from rest, in a time of 0.63 s.

Which of the following expressions gives the acceleration due to gravity on the Moon in m s−2?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q14.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A ball bearing falls vertically from rest through a distance of 50 cm in a time of 0.32 s.

Which expression gives the acceleration of the ball bearing in m s–2?


A 1 ÷ 0.322
B 0.5 ÷ 0.32
C 100 ÷ 0.322
D 50 ÷ 0.32

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q15.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

A machine has a power of 750 W and transfers 150 kJ of energy during a time t.

Which of the following expressions gives t in seconds?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q16.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

The velocity-time graph shows the motion of a particle with a constant acceleration. P, Q and R represent
the magnitudes of each area shown.
Which of the following expressions gives the total displacement of the particle?

A P+Q

B P+Q−R

C R+Q

D R−Q

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q17.

The steps on an escalator move with a speed of 0.5 m s −1. The vertical component of their velocity is 0.3 m
s−1 upwards.

Which of the following is the horizontal component of velocity for the escalator steps?
(1)
A 0.2 m s−1
B 0.4 m s−1
C 0.5 m s−1
D 0.8 m s−1

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q18.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

A rocket is accelerating horizontally due to a constant resultant force.

The mass of the rocket decreases steadily as it uses up its fuel.

Which graph shows how the acceleration of the rocket could change?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q19.

Two objects P and Q are at the same position at time t = 0 s. The graphs show how the velocity v varies
with time t for each object.
Which of the following statements describes the positions of P and Q at t = 4 s?

A P and Q are both at the initial position.

B P and Q are the same distance from the initial position.

C P is further from the initial position than Q.

D Q is further from the initial position than P.

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q20.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

The diagram shows a roller coaster. A roller coaster car stops momentarily at P before descending towards
Q.

Which of the following expressions could be used to determine the velocity of the roller coaster car at Q?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q21.

Which of the following is a vector quantity?


A density
B kinetic energy
C momentum
D viscosity

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q22.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A student walked 12 km on a bearing of 135° and then walked 20 km on a bearing of


340° as shown.

Which of the following could represent the final displacement of the student from his
starting point?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q23.

Select one answer from A to D and put a cross in the box . If you change your mind about an
answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

The diagram shows a student during a parachute jump on a windy day. The vertical component of her
velocity is 5.0 m s−1. The horizontal component of her velocity is 8.0 m s−1. She descends at an angle θ to
the vertical.

Which row of the table gives expressions for the magnitude and angle of the student's resultant velocity?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q24.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

A student determined a value for g by dropping a metal sphere from rest. The student measured the
distance fallen and the time taken for the sphere to fall.

The student obtained a value for g of 11.2 m s-2.

Which of the following could explain the difference between the student's value and the accepted value?

A The air resistance was not negligible.

B The student's measured distance was greater than the actual distance.

C The sphere did not fall vertically.

D The student's measured time was greater than the actual time taken.

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q25.

The area under each of the following graphs represents a physical quantity.

For which graph is the area under the graph not equal to work done?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q26.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

Two different springs, S1 and S2, are suspended from a fixed support. Masses are attached to the bottom of
S1 and S2 as shown.

The extension of S1 is x, and the extension of S2 is . The elastic strain energy in spring S1 is E.

Which of the following is the elastic strain energy in spring S 2?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q27.
Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

Two forces P and Q act on an object as shown.

Which of the following is a correctly drawn, scaled, vector diagram for the resultant R of forces P and Q?

D
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q28.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A crane lifts a container of weight 4.0 × 105N through a height of 25 m.

Which of the following gives the gravitational potential energy gained by the container in joules?
A 4.0 × 105 × 9.81 × 25
B 4.0 × 105 × 25
C 4.0 × 105 × 25 ÷ 9.81
D 4.0 × 105 ÷ 9.81

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q29.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A lamp with an efficiency of 0.68 usefully transfers 120 J of energy.

Which of the following can be used to determine E, the energy supplied to the lamp?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q30.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .
A hydroelectric power station has an efficiency of 32%. In one hour the useful energy output of the power
station
is 1.2 × 1013 J.

Which of the following expressions gives the total power input to the power station in watts?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q31.

An electric pump lifts water from a well through a height of 10 m at a rate of 4 kg s −1.
The water leaves the pump with a velocity of 5 m s −1 as shown.

Which of the following expressions could be used to determine the minimum power output of the pump in
watts?

(Total for question = 1 mark)


Q32.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A water pump causes 200 g of water to be ejected from the nozzle of a garden hose each
second at a velocity of 3 m s−1.

Which of the following expressions could be used to determine the minimum output power
in watts required from the pump?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q33.

A motor with an efficiency of 68% is used to raise a load of 350 N through a height of 25 m.

Which of the following expressions gives the energy supplied to the motor?

(Total for question = 1 mark)


Q34.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct . If you change your mind about
an answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A cylinder of aluminium has a weight of 35.0 N and a volume of 1.32 × 10 −3 m3 .

Which of the following calculations gives the density of aluminium in kg m−3 ?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q35.

A force F was applied to compress a spring by a distance x.

A second spring of double the stiffness was compressed by the same distance x.

Which of the following gives the magnitude of the force applied to the second spring?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q36.

A rugby player kicks a ball off the ground at an angle of 35.0° to the horizontal as
shown. The ball reaches a maximum height of 5.0 m before returning to the ground.
(a) Show that the initial speed of the ball is about 17 m s −1.
(3)
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(b) After travelling a horizontal distance of 22.0 m the ball reaches the goal.

To score, the ball must be more than 3.00 m above the ground when it reaches the goal.
Deduce whether an initial speed of 17.0 m s −1 is sufficient to score.
(5)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q37.

Select one answer from A to D and put a cross in the box . If you change your mind about an
answer, put a line through the box and then mark your new answer with a cross .

A wire breaks when a tensile force T is applied. A second wire, made of the same material, has twice the
diameter.

Which of the following is the force required to break the second wire?

(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q38.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

When compressed by a force of 50 N, a spring had a length of 12.0 cm.

When compressed by a force of 70 N, the same spring had a length of 7.1 cm.

Which of the following expressions gives the stiffness k of the spring in N cm-1?
(Total for question = 1 mark)

Q39.

Answer the question with a cross in the box you think is correct ( ). If you change your mind, put a
line through the box ( ) and then mark your new answer with a cross ( ).

Two arrangements, P and Q, of identical springs are subjected to the same tensile force F as shown.

When one spring is subjected to a tensile force F, the elastic strain energy for the spring is E.

Which row of the table gives the total elastic strain energy for each arrangement?

(Total for question = 1 mark)


Q40.

A swimmer swims a 100 m race. A simplified displacement-time graph for the swimmer
is shown.

(a) Draw a corresponding velocity-time graph for the motion of the swimmer on the axes below.
Show all working in the space below.
(4)
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(b) To increase her initial speed, the swimmer began the race by gliding underwater
for 15 m and then began to use her arms and legs. This was not represented on the
simplified displacement-time graph.
(i) Sketch onto the axes below to show the actual variation of displacement with
time for the first 15 m of the race.
(2)
(ii) Explain one other way in which the motion of the swimmer has been simplified
when drawing the displacement-time graph.
(2)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q41.

The velocity-time graph for a car for the first part of a journey is shown.
(a) As the velocity of the car increased, the driver changed gear. Each change in gear produced a small
decrease in velocity.
(i) State how the graph shows that in 3rd gear the car has a smaller acceleration than in 1st gear.
(1)
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(ii) Determine the average acceleration when the car is accelerating in 2nd gear.
(2)
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Average acceleration in 2nd gear = ...........................................................


(iii) The equation that links the power P of a car engine to the forward force F on the car and the
velocity v of the car is
P = Fv
Comment on the magnitude of F when the car is in higher gears, assuming P remains constant.
(2)
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(b) The manufacturer of a different car gives the following information.

(i) Calculate the minimum time taken for the car to accelerate from rest to 60 miles per hour. You may
assume that the time taken to change gears is negligible.
1 mile = 1600 m
(4)
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Time = ...........................................................
(ii) Explain why there will be a maximum speed at which the car can travel.
(3)
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(Total for question = 12 marks)


Q42.

A golfer hit a golf ball into the air at a speed of 52 m s -1 and an angle of 41° to the horizontal, as shown.

The ball landed on the ground near a hole. The ground was 11 m higher than the starting point of the ball.

(a) Show that the vertical component of the ball's initial velocity was about 30 m s -1.
(2)
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(b) Show that the time taken by the ball to reach the ground was about 7 s. You should ignore the effects
of air resistance.
(3)
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(c) The hole is a horizontal distance of 250 m from the starting point of the ball, as shown.

Deduce whether the ball landed within 5.0 m of the hole. You should ignore the effects of air resistance.
(3)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q43.

A student carried out an experiment to measure the acceleration of free-fall g.

A ball bearing was released from position A. The time t for the ball bearing to fall a distance l was
measured. This was repeated for decreasing values of l.

Explain how the measurements obtained can be used to determine a value for g in m s−2.
Your answer should include a sketch on the axes below of the graph that the student would expect to
obtain.
(5)

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(Total for question = 5 marks)

Q44.

A trolley accelerates from rest at point A, down a straight track to point B. The trolley then continues along
a horizontal track to point C, as shown.

The effects of air resistance and friction are negligible.

(a) Show that the trolley reaches point B with a speed of about 3 m s−1 .
(3)
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(b) Determine the time taken by the object to move from point A to point C.
(4)
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Time taken = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 7 marks)

Q45.

The photograph shows an area of land where golfers can practise their golf shots.
Distances are marked out along the land in front of where the golfer stands, to measure the distance
travelled by the ball.

Two levels are available. If the lower level is used, the ball lands at the same height from which it was hit. If
the higher level is used, this enables the ball to be hit further.

(a) A ball is given an initial velocity of 33 m s−1 at an angle of 28° to the horizontal.
When hit from the lower level, this ball travels a horizontal distance of 92 m before landing. Use of the
higher level increases the horizontal distance travelled before landing by 10 m.
Deduce whether an upper level at a height of 4.5 m would be sufficient to produce this increase. You
should ignore air resistance.
(5)
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* (b) Your answer to part (a) did not consider the effect of air resistance.
The trajectories of the motion of the golf ball with air resistance and without air resistance are shown.

Explain the differences between the two paths.


(6)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q46.

A skier moving at 25 m s−1 skis off a ramp. The ramp is angled upwards at 10° to the horizontal, as shown.

There is a flat surface that starts 30 m from the ramp. The flat surface is 2.9 m below the ramp.
(a) Deduce whether the skier reaches the flat surface before landing. You may ignore any effects of air
resistance.
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(b) Another skier travels along the horizontal surface with an initial speed of 23 m s −1 .
She comes to rest after travelling a distance of 43 m.
Calculate the average force required to bring the skier to rest.
mass of skier = 63 kg
(3)
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Average force = ...........................................................


(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q47.

The luge is an event at the Winter Olympics. An athlete lies on a small sledge and races down an icy track,
feet first.

(a) An athlete accelerates down a straight section of the track as shown. The track is at an angle θ to the
horizontal.

Draw a free-body force diagram for the sledge and athlete.


You should consider the relative sizes of the forces when drawing your diagram.
(4)
(b) The mass of the athlete is one of the factors that affects her time to complete the race.
(i) Explain why the mass of the athlete has little effect on the initial acceleration.
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(ii) Explain, in terms of forces, why the athlete reaches a maximum velocity.
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(iii) It is stated that the maximum speed is greater for athletes of greater mass.
Suggest why this is only correct up to a certain mass.
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(c) After the finish line there is a straight, uphill section of track for the sledge to decelerate in. The
maximum permitted gradient of this section is 20 %.
(i) Show that a track with a gradient of 20% is at an angle to the horizontal of about 11°.
(1)
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(ii) An athlete reaches the finish line at a velocity of 33 m s −1. She then applies a minimum braking force
of 240 N as she moves along the uphill section of track to help her come to a stop.
Calculate the minimum uphill length of track L that should be available for braking. You should ignore
all frictional forces other than those applied by the athlete.
mass of sledge and athlete = 95 kg
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L = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 18 marks)

Q48.

A distress flare may be launched from a boat, to signal for help.

(a) A flare was launched from a stationary boat at an angle of 30° to the horizontal.
(i) The flare was launched to the right from the launch position marked × on the boat in the diagram
below.
Complete the diagram to show the path taken by the flare before it hit the sea.
(1)
(ii) The maximum height of the flare above the launch position was 42 m.
Show that the flare was launched at a speed of about 60 m s −1.
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(iii) The flare was visible from a maximum distance of 8 km. A rescue boat was 8.2 km from the boat in
distress.
Determine whether the flare travelled a sufficient distance to be visible from the rescue boat. You
should assume that the flare was launched in the direction of the rescue boat.
(4)
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(b) State one assumption you made in (a)(iii).


(1)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)


Q49.

A student set up the apparatus shown.

(a) When released from a height h, trolley A ran down the slope and then continued to move horizontally.
On the horizontal part of the track a frictional force F brought the trolley to rest over a short distance d. The
trolley has a mass m. The student measured d for a range of heights h.
The student plotted the following graph of d against h.

Derive an expression for the gradient of the graph, in terms of F, m and g.


(2)
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(b) In a second experiment, an identical trolley B was placed at rest at the bottom of the slope. When
trolley A was released as before, it rolled down and collided with trolley B. After the collision the two trolleys
joined together and moved off to the right with a velocity v.

The student predicted that, provided friction was ignored, .


Assess whether the student was correct.
(4)
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(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q50.

An explosion projects a rock into the air with a speed of 50 m s–1 at an angle to the horizontal of 40°.

(a) Show that the rock would reach its maximum height about 3 s after the explosion.
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(b) The rock moves in the direction of a hill. The side of the hill is at 20° to the horizontal, as shown.
After a certain distance, the rock lands on the side of the hill.
Deduce whether the rock hits the ground before it reaches its maximum possible height.
(6)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q51.

In 2016, the European Space Agency sent the Schiaparelli probe to Mars.

As the probe approached the surface of Mars, with a vertical velocity component of 460 m s –1, a parachute
was opened to reduce the speed of the probe. Once the vertical velocity of the probe had reduced to 75 m
s–1, the parachute was removed and the thrusters were switched on.

Due to an error the thrusters were switched off too soon, leaving the probe to 'free fall' to the surface of
Mars.
(a) The parachute was used over a decrease in height of 9.7 km.
(i) Show that the average vertical deceleration of the probe due to the parachute was about 11 m s –2.
(2)
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(ii) The parachute was at an angle to the vertical as shown.

The total resistive force acting on the parachute and probe was at an average angle of 6° to the
vertical.
Calculate the magnitude of the average total resistive force. You may neglect the mass of the
parachute.
mass of probe = 600 kg
gravitational field strength on Mars = 3.8 N kg–1
(3)
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Average total resistive force = ...........................................................

(b) The probe was in 'free fall' from a height of 3.7 km, reaching the surface of Mars with a velocity of 150
m s–1.
Explain whether the term 'free fall' is correct in this context.
Your answer should include a calculation.
gravitational field strength on Mars = 3.8 N kg–1
(6)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q52.

A firework is launched into the air and explodes once it reaches a maximum height.
(a) The firework is designed to explode at a maximum height of 350 m.
(i) Show that the vertical component of the velocity at launch is about 80 m s −1.
(2)
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.............................................................................................................................................
(ii) The vertical component of the velocity at launch depends on both the initial velocity of
the firework and θ, the angle between the initial velocity and the horizontal.
Sketch a graph showing how the initial velocity required for the firework to reach
the maximum height of 350 m varies with θ for the firework.
(4)

(b) A student wanted to estimate the maximum diameter of the firework after exploding.
The student estimated:

• the time taken between seeing the firework explode and hearing the firework explode
• the angle from the top to the bottom of the firework
Describe how the student could determine the maximum diameter of the exploded
firework using the estimated data.
(2)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q53.

A dragster is a racing car designed for a very short race along a completely straight track, so must be able
to accelerate at a very high rate. The dragster and driver shown below have a combined weight of 1.23 ×
104 N. The centre of gravity is 1.80 m in front of the rear axle.
The front axle of the dragster is 6.00 m from the rear axle.

(a) Calculate the reaction forces R1 and R2, shown on the diagram, when the dragster is stationary and not
accelerating.
(3)
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R1 = ...........................................................

R2 = ...........................................................

(b) When the dragster starts, there is a driving force that gives the dragster an initial forward acceleration
of 5.50 g.
Calculate the initial driving force on the dragster.
(2)
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Initial driving force = ...........................................................

(c) The power from the car's engine is constant.


Explain how the force from the engine varies as the car accelerates.
(2)
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(Total for question = 7 marks)

Q54.

A sledge accelerates, due to gravity, from rest down a frictionless slope. Air resistance can be ignored. The
slope is at an angle of 6.9° to the horizontal, as shown.

(a) Complete the free-body force diagram below for the sledge.
(2)

(b) The slope has a total length of 60 m.


(i) Show that the initial acceleration of the sledge along the slope is about 1 m s –2.
(2)
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(ii) Determine the speed of the sledge at the end of the slope.
(2)
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Speed at end of slope = ...........................................................


(iii) Determine the time taken for the sledge to travel to the end of the slope.
(2)
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Time taken = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q55.

When water vapour in the atmosphere cools it condenses, forming tiny drops of water. These
drops increase in size by colliding with each other and fall back to the ground as rain.

(a) As a raindrop falls through the air it eventually reaches its terminal velocity. The upthrust
on the raindrop can be considered to be negligible.
(i) Explain what is meant by the terminal velocity of the raindrop. Your answer should
include a free-body force diagram for the raindrop when terminal velocity has been reached.
(4)
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(ii) The air resistance F acting on a raindrop travelling at a velocity v, can be
determined using the expression

where A is the cross-sectional area of the raindrop and is the density of the air.
Calculate the terminal velocity of a spherical raindrop of radius 2.0 × 10 −3 m.
density of air = 1.2 kg m−3
density of rainwater = 1.0 × 103 kg m−3
(4)
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Terminal velocity = ...........................................................

(b) Some plants have adapted to high rainfall by having a specialised shape and waxy
leaves. This allows rain to slide down a leaf and off the end as a series of drops.
(i) A drop of water slides off a leaf as shown.
Add to the diagram to show the position of the drop at regular intervals of time.
The first two positions have been drawn for you.
(2)

(ii) Water falls from a leaf at a steady rate of five drops per second.
As each drop reaches the ground, there are four drops above it in the air.
Calculate the height of the leaf from the ground. It can be assumed that the drop
at the highest position has just left the leaf.
(3)
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Height of leaf = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 13 marks)

Q56.

A book of length l and weight W is positioned on a shelf as shown.


(a) State what is meant by centre of gravity.
(1)
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.............................................................................................................................................

(b) There are contact forces at the two positions where the book touches the shelf.
The book is moved a distance x to the right as shown.

The magnitude of the contact force R varies with x.

Sketch on the axes below the variation of R with x between 0 and . You should mark the maximum
value of R onto the axes.
(3)
(c) Explain why the book will not remain on the shelf if
(2)
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(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q57.

A coat hook is attached to a smooth door by a screw as shown.

(a) The diagram below shows three of the forces that act on the coat hook when a coat is hung from it. The
weight of the coat hook may be neglected.
Add a labelled arrow to the diagram to show the additional force required for the coat hook to be in
equilibrium.
(2)

(b) If too many coats are hung on the coat hook, the hook will rotate and pull the screw out of the door.
Point P is the position of the pivot as shown.

The maximum horizontal force from the screw is 150 N.

The mass of one coat is 2.6 kg.

Deduce whether a person could hang more than two of these coats from the hook.
(4)
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(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q58.

A uniform, horizontal flagpole is connected by a hinge to a wall at position O. An aluminium wire connects
the pole to the wall at A, as shown.

(a) A free-body force diagram for the flagpole is shown below.


Identify the forces X, Y and Z.
(3)
X ..........................................................................................................................................

Y ..........................................................................................................................................

Z ..........................................................................................................................................

(b) The aluminium wire will break if the tension in the wire exceeds 350 N.
The wire is attached to the flagpole at B, 0.8 m from the wall.
The wire is at an angle of 20° to the flagpole.
Assess whether the wire will break. You should use the principle of moments, taking moments about O.
length of flagpole = 1.2 m
mass of flagpole and flag = 15 kg
(3)
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(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q59.

A student is flying a kite. The kite is held in equilibrium by a string as shown.

The weight of the kite is 24 N, and the wind exerts a force of 70 N at an angle of 43° to the vertical, as
shown below.
(a) Determine the magnitude of the tension in the string by using a scaled vector diagram.
(4)

Tension = ...........................................................

(b) The student wants to determine the tension T in the string. She attaches a mass holder to the string.
The student adds known masses to the mass holder until the kite is in equilibrium and part of the string
becomes horizontal, as shown.

The student takes a photograph of the arrangement.


Describe how the student can use the photograph to determine T.
(5)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q60.

Popcorn kernels contain water. When heated, the water turns to steam. The kernel 'pops' and moves
upwards.

(a) The photographs above show a popcorn kernel just before popping and at the maximum height after
popping. The time between the two photographs was 83 ms.
(i) Determine the maximum height after popping.
(2)
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.............................................................................................................................................
Maximum height = ...........................................................
(ii) Calculate the initial speed of the 'popped' popcorn kernel.
(3)
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Initial speed = ...........................................................

(b) The average water content in a popcorn kernel is 14% of the total mass of the kernel.
A kernel is heated until it pops. Steam is ejected downwards, and the popped kernel moves upwards
with an initial speed of 1.5 m s−1.
Calculate the speed at which the steam is ejected.
total mass of unpopped kernel = 0.11 g
(4)
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Speed = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q61.

An aluminium sphere collides head-on with a stationary steel sphere. The two spheres move off separately
after the collision.

(a) State the principle of conservation of momentum.


(2)
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.............................................................................................................................................

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(b) The aluminium sphere has an initial velocity of 10.0 m s –1. Immediately after the collision the velocity of
the steel sphere is 5.0 m s–1.

Calculate the velocity v of the aluminium sphere immediately after the collision.
mass of aluminium sphere = 2.7 kg
mass of steel sphere = 7.9 kg
(3)
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v = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 5 marks)

Q62.

P and Q are identical spheres. Sphere P moves along a smooth horizontal surface and collides with sphere
Q, which is initially stationary.

After the collision:

• sphere P moves off with a momentum of 0.096 kg m s –1 in a direction of 15° to its initial direction.
• sphere Q moves off with a momentum of 0.14 kg m s–1 in a direction of 10° as shown.
(a) Use a scaled vector diagram to show that the magnitude of the total momentum of spheres P and Q
after the collision is about 0.2 kg m s–1.
(4)

Total momentum of spheres P and Q after the collision = ...........................................................

(b) State the principle of conservation of linear momentum.


(2)
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(c) Calculate the initial velocity of sphere P.
mass of sphere P = 0.12 kg
(2)
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Initial velocity of sphere P = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q63.

The photograph shows a fireboat used to put out fires on ships at sea. A pump, fixed
to the boat, pumps water from the sea. The seawater is projected at high speed out of a
pipe connected to the pump.

(a) The mass of seawater pumped each second is 300 kg. The pipe has a diameter of 10.0 cm.
density of seawater = 1030 kg m−3
(i) Show that the speed at which the seawater is projected from the pipe is about 37 m s −1.
(4)
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(ii) Determine the rate at which the momentum of the seawater is changed by the pump.
You may assume that the seawater is initially stationary.
(2)
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Rate of change of momentum = ...........................................................

(b) Projecting water from the pipe causes a force to be exerted on the pump.
Explain the direction of the force on the pump.
(2)
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(c) Initially the pump is turned off and the fireboat moves forwards through the water at a constant speed.
The boat's
engine provides a constant forward force.
When the pump is turned on, water is projected forwards and the fireboat slows to a
lower constant speed.
Explain why the boat now has a lower constant speed.
Your answer should refer to all the horizontal forces on the boat.
(3)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)


Q64.

The diagram shows two bumper cars, P and Q, at an amusement park.

Q was stationary. P was moving at a speed of 2.10 m s -1 towards Q.

P collided with Q. After the collision, P and Q moved off in the same direction. P moved with a speed of
1.15 m s-1. Q moved with a speed of 1.57 m s-1.

(a) (i) Show that the total mass of Q was about 150 kg.
total mass of P = 250 kg
(3)
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(ii) State one assumption you made in your calculation in (a)(i).
(1)
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(iii) The collision lasted a total time of 1.35 s.
Calculate the average horizontal force on Q during the collision.
(3)
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Average horizontal force = ...........................................................

(b) Explain why P decelerates during the collision. Your answer should make reference to Newton's laws of
motion.
(3)
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(Total for question = 10 marks)

Q65.

A game is played where each player must use a 'mallet' to hit a disc across a table into the opponent's
goal.

One player accidentally lets go of a mallet. The mallet travels at a speed of 1.6 m s −1 and collides with a
stationary disc.

After the collision, the mallet continues in the same direction at a lower speed of 0.3 m s −1. The disc moves
in the same direction as the mallet with a velocity v, as shown.

(a) Calculate a value for v.


Assume that frictional forces are negligible.
mass of disc = 0.035 kg
mass of mallet = 0.17 kg
(3)
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v = ...........................................................

(b) To reach the goal, the disc must move up a ramp which is at an angle of 30° to the horizontal.
The velocity of the disc at the bottom of the ramp is 5.0 m s −1. The disc moves up the ramp and work is
done by the disc against the frictional force. The disc moves a distance of 6.5 cm up the ramp before
moving back down.
Determine the frictional force acting on the disc.
(6)
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Frictional force = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q66.

A toy car is released from rest and rolls down a slope, as shown.
mass of car = 0.160 kg
speed of car at bottom of slope = 2.6 m s–1

(a) Calculate the increase in kinetic energy of the car as it accelerates down the slope.
(2)
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Increase in kinetic energy = ...........................................................

(b) As the car accelerates down the slope, the work done against frictional forces is 0.26 J.
Calculate the vertical displacement of the car.
(2)
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Vertical displacement of car = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 4 marks)

Q67.

Muscles move body parts by contracting and relaxing. For the forearm to hold a ball in the
position shown, the biceps muscle contracts, creating a tension T in the muscle as shown.
A student modelled the forces on the forearm using a uniform beam and spring arrangement
as shown below. The length and weight of the beam were the same as the length and weight
of the forearm.

(a) It can be assumed that the biceps muscle acts as a spring at an angle of 70° to the
beam, 4.0 cm from the pivot O.
Determine the magnitude of T. You will need to estimate the total length of the forearm
and hand.
force of ball on beam = 4.5 N
weight of beam = 15 N
(5)
Estimate of total length of forearm and hand = ...........................................................

.............................................................................................................................................

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T = ...........................................................

(b) Explain a limitation of using a beam to model the forearm.


(2)
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(Total for question = 7 marks)

Q68.

A uniform plank of length 4.0 m is pivoted 0.90 m from one end. The weight of the plank is 250 N. A person
of weight 950 N stands at one end of the plank. A person of weight 650 N stands a distance x from the
pivot so that the plank is in equilibrium, as shown.

(a) Add to the diagram to show the forces acting on the plank.
(2)
(b) Calculate the distance x.
(3)
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x = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 5 marks)

Q69.

A large parasol has been set up on a windy day. The centre of gravity of the parasol is vertically above the
centre of the base. The bottom of the parasol starts to lift from the ground as shown. The weight of the
parasol is 110 N.

(a) The force of the wind is 14 N in a horizontal direction.

Explain why the parasol will topple. Your answer should include a calculation.
(4)
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(b) To prevent the parasol from toppling, a rope is attached to the parasol at 1.50 m from the ground as
shown. The rope makes an angle of 44° to the vertical.

The horizontal force from the wind is now 25 N.


Determine, by taking moments about the centre of the base, the vertical force that the base exerts on
the ground.
Assume that the force which the ground exerts on the base acts through the midpoint of the base.
(5)
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Force exerted on the ground = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q70.

A railway carriage of mass 7.15 × 104 kg moving at 4.50 m s−1 collides with a second railway carriage of
mass 5.35 × 104 kg moving in the same direction.

The carriages join together. Immediately after the collision they move at a speed of 3.62 m s −1 .
(a) Show that the total momentum of the carriages immediately after the collision was approximately 4.5 ×
105 kg m s−1.
(2)
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(b) Calculate the velocity of the second carriage before the collision.
(2)
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Velocity of second carriage = ...........................................................

(c) Calculate the change in total kinetic energy during the collision.
(2)
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Change in total kinetic energy = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q71.

A pulley system is used to lift a 5.00 kN load through a height of 1.50 m. The system consists of one fixed
pulley and the other pulley can move. The pulleys are connected by a nylon rope, as shown.
The nylon rope will stretch when it is used in this way. The weight of the pulleys and the rope can be
ignored, and you may assume that there is no friction in the pulleys.

The properties of the nylon rope are:

Young modulus of nylon 2.70 GPa

overall length of rope before adding the load 6.00 m

area of cross-section 3.00 × 10−4 m2

(a) The greater the length of a rope, the smaller the stiffness of the rope.
Explain why.
(2)
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(b) (i) Show that the stiffness k of the nylon rope is about 1.4 × 105 N m−1.
(3)
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(ii) The pulley system lifts the 5.00 kN weight at a steady rate.
Determine the extension of the rope while the lift is taking place.
(3)
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Extension of rope = ...........................................................


(iii) Calculate the work done in stretching the rope.
(2)
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Work done in stretching rope = ...........................................................

(c) Assess whether the stretching of the rope has a significant effect on the efficiency of the pulley system.
(2)
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(Total for question = 12 marks)

Q72.

The diagram shows a lift system for moving people up and down a tall building. There is a counterweight to
balance the weight of the lift. An electric motor is used to raise and lower the lift.
(a) Explain how the counterweight affects the amount of work required from the electric motor to raise the
lift.
(2)
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(b) The electric motor raises the lift through a height of 40.0 m in a time of 30.0 s.
Show that the output power of the electric motor is about 12 kW.
total mass of lift and people = 2 250 kg
mass of counterweight = 1 300 kg
(4)
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(c) The electric motor dissipates energy to the surroundings at a rate of 3 600 W.
Determine the efficiency of the electric motor.
(2)
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Efficiency = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q73.

A rope is used to pull a box a fixed distance s along a horizontal surface. The rope is at an angle θ to the
horizontal and a constant force F is applied to the rope as shown.

Explain how the work done on the box by F varies as θ varies.


(3)
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(Total for question = 3 marks)

Q74.

The diagram shows a system used to move a stone block up a ramp. A team of people uses a rope to pull
the block at a constant speed.
height of ramp = 4.35 m
angle of ramp to horizontal = 6.0°
mass of block = 2.10 × 103 kg
speed of block up ramp = 0.450 m s–1
total power of team = 6.25 kW

(a) Show that the total force that the team exerts on the block is about 14 kN.
(2)
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(b) Determine the total work done by the team.


(3)
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Total work done = ...........................................................

(c) Show that the useful work done on the block is about 90 kJ.
(2)
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(d) Determine the efficiency of the system.


(2)
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Efficiency = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q75.

Moving walkways are often found in airports. One moving walkway carries passengers up an incline of 30°,
as shown.

(a) A single passenger of mass 72 kg stands on the walkway.


The speed of the walkway is 0.51 m s−1.
Show that the rate at which the walkway does work on the passenger is about 200 W.
(3)
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(b) The walkway system has an efficiency of 78%.


Calculate the power input to the system when 15 passengers of average mass 72 kg
are standing on the walkway.
(3)
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Power input = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q76.

Every litre of fuel used in a car engine releases 32 MJ of energy. During one journey the car used 65 litres
of fuel. The car journey lasted 8 hours.

(a) Show that the average power input to the engine was about 70 kW.
(2)
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(b) The car travelled a total distance of 730 km during the journey.
The average force of the engine was 2.1 kN.
Show that the average power output of the engine was about 50 kW.
(3)
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(c) Determine the efficiency of the engine.


(2)
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Efficiency of engine = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 7 marks)

Q77.
A regenerative braking system allows an electric car to use its kinetic energy to charge a battery as the car
decelerates.

(a) A car travelling at 13.0 m s-1 decelerated to rest.


The energy transferred to the car's battery during the deceleration was 73.9 kJ.
Calculate the efficiency of the regenerative braking system.
mass of car = 1560 kg
(3)
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Efficiency = ...........................................................

(b) (i) Drag forces act on the car as it moves through the air.
State how the drag forces vary with the velocity of the car.
(1)
.............................................................................................................................................

.............................................................................................................................................
(ii) The graph shows how the efficiency of the regenerative braking system depends upon the initial
velocity of the car for initial velocities in the range 20 m s -1 to 40 m s-1.

Explain why the efficiency of the regenerative braking system varies as shown in the graph.
(4)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q78.

A ball falls through a vertical height of 0.60 m before bouncing at point A on a ramp, as shown.

(a) Show that the velocity of the ball immediately before the bounce is about 3 m s −1.
(2)
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(b) Kinetic energy is conserved as the ball bounces off the ramp. The ball bounces at an angle of 70° to
the vertical.
State expressions for the horizontal and vertical components of velocity of the ball immediately after the
bounce.
(2)
Horizontal component = ...........................................................

Vertical component = ...........................................................

(c) Point A is 0.86 m vertically above the ground and 1.23 m horizontally from the end of the ramp as
shown.

Deduce whether the ball will bounce a second time on the ramp.
(4)
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(Total for question = 8 marks)

Q79.
Machines make work easier by changing the size or direction of a force. A student
designed a simple machine to lift a box of mass 50 kg. The student claimed the
efficiency of the machine was greater than 90%.

The machine used a slope of height 2.0 m and length 15 m to move the box. The box was
connected to an 8.0 kg mass by a rope over a pulley as shown. As the 8.0 kg mass fell, the
box moved up the slope at a steady speed.

Determine whether the maximum efficiency of the machine was greater than 90%.
(4)
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(Total for question = 4 marks)

Q80.

An elastic cord was fixed between the end of an air track and a glider.
The glider was pulled to the right, giving the elastic cord an extension Δ x as shown.
The glider was released, and it moved to the left. A light gate was used to measure the maximum velocity
of the glider. This was repeated for different values of Δ x.

A student obtained the following results.

(a) The principle of conservation of energy predicts that the graph should be a straight line through the
origin. For the range of values of Δ x used, the elastic cord obeyed Hooke's law.
(i) Explain this prediction.
(4)
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(ii) Determine the stiffness k of the elastic cord.
mass of glider = 300 g
(3)
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k = ...........................................................

(b) When the glider was moved to the right by more than 0.5 m, the graph began to curve.
Explain why the shape of the graph changed.
(2)
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.............................................................................................................................................

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(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q81.

The diagram shows a climber on a rock face. A rope is kept firmly anchored by a person on
the ground and passes through a smooth loop to the climber. The climber slips and falls a short
distance as shown.

(a) The 'fall factor' is used by climbers to estimate the severity of a climbing fall and is given by

A climber slips and falls with a 'fall factor' of 0.80 before coming to rest.
The energy from the fall is absorbed by the climbing rope.
The maximum strain in the rope is 9.0%.
(i) Show that the maximum force acting on the climber due to the rope is about 10 kN.
Assume the extension of the rope is proportional to its tension.
total unstretched length of rope = 15.0 m
mass of climber = 71 kg
(5)
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(ii) A new climber suggests using a longer length of rope between the loop and the
climber, as this would absorb more energy after a fall.
Comment on this suggestion.
(2)
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(b) Climbing rope manufacturers recommend that ropes are replaced every 5 years.
The force-extension graphs, up to the breaking point, for a one metre length of a rope when
new and after 5 years are shown.
Comment on the manufacturers' recommendation. Your answer should include calculations.
(6)
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(Total for question = 13 marks)

Q82.

A spherical polystyrene bead is immersed in oil. The bead has diameter 4.00 × 10 −3 m. The bead is
released and moves upwards through the oil at a constant velocity.

(a) Complete the free body force diagram below to show all the forces acting on the polystyrene bead.
(2)

(b) Show that the upthrust the oil exerts on the bead is about 3.1 × 10 −4 N.
density of oil = 930 kg m−3
(3)
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(c) Stokes' law shows how the viscous drag on a sphere is related to its velocity through a fluid.
Stokes' law is only valid if the bead is moving sufficiently slowly through the oil.
(i) State the reason for this condition.
(1)
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.............................................................................................................................................
(ii) For Stokes' law to be valid the speed of the bead through the oil must be less than vR, where
Deduce whether Stokes' law can be applied to this bead.
viscosity of oil = 4.90 × 10−2 Pa s
weight of polystyrene bead = 1.05 ×10 −5 N
(5)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q83.

The photograph shows a submarine below the surface of the sea.

(a) The submarine has a volume of 5.83 × 10 3 m3 .


The submarine is stationary in a region of the sea where the density of the seawater is 1.03 × 10 3 kg
m−3 .
(i) Calculate the upthrust exerted on the submarine by the seawater.
(2)
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Upthrust = ...........................................................
(ii) Explain why the mass of the submarine must be 6.0 × 10 6 kg.
(2)
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(b) The submarine now moves into a region of the sea where the water is less salty, and the density of the
water reduces
to 1.01 × 103 kg m−3 .
(i) Explain what would happen to the submarine as it moves into this region of lower density seawater.
(3)
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(ii) The submarine alters its weight by pumping water in or out of its internal tanks.
Determine the mass of water that the submarine should pump, in or out of its tanks, to maintain its
depth below the surface of the sea.
(2)
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Mass of water = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q84.

A student used the apparatus shown to investigate the forces acting on a uniform, solid sphere placed in
water.
(a) Draw a free-body force diagram for the sphere when it is suspended in water as shown.
(3)

(b) As the sphere was lowered into the water, the reading on the balance increased from 315 g to 465 g as
shown.

(i) Explain the increase in the reading on the balance. Your answer should include a reference to
Newton's third law.
(3)
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(ii) Determine the mass of the sphere.
density of water = 1000 kg m−3
density of sphere = 2000 kg m−3
(4)
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Mass of sphere = ...........................................................

(iii) The water was replaced with the same mass of oil and the experiment repeated.
The density of the oil is less than the density of water.
Explain what happens to the final reading on the balance.
(2)
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(Total for question = 12 marks)

Q85.

Stokes' law can be used to determine the magnitude of the viscous drag for small, spherical objects moving
through a fluid.

(a) State one other condition that must be met in order for Stokes' law to apply to the moving object.
(1)
.............................................................................................................................................

(b) A sphere falls through water at a constant speed of 0.50 m s −1.


Assess whether Stokes' law can be applied to the falling sphere.
You should include calculations in your answer.
diameter of ball bearing = 6.0 × 10−3 m
mass of steel ball bearing = 9.1 × 10 −4 kg
upthrust on ball bearing = 1.1 × 10 −3 N
viscosity of water = 8.9 × 10−4 Pa s
(5)
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(Total for question = 6 marks)

Q86.

Water is dropped into a container of oil. The water forms small spherical droplets that move slowly
downwards.

(a) A droplet moves downwards at a constant speed. The flow of oil around the droplet is laminar.
(i) State what is meant by laminar flow.
(1)
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.............................................................................................................................................
(ii) State the condition necessary for the speed of the droplet to be constant.
(1)
.............................................................................................................................................

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(b) A spherical droplet has a volume of 3.35 × 10 –8 m3.


(i) Calculate the weight of the droplet.
density of water = 1.00 × 103 kg m–3
(3)
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Weight of droplet = ...........................................................


(ii) Show that the upthrust on the water droplet when it's completely submerged in oil is about 3 × 10 –4
N.
density of oil = 0.94 × 103 kg m–3
(2)
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(iii) Calculate the terminal velocity of this water droplet in the oil.
viscosity of oil = 0.11 Pa s
(4)
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Terminal velocity = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q87.

A student carried out an experiment to determine the viscosity of a liquid. He measured the terminal
velocities v of several different glass spheres of diameter d, as they fell through the liquid.

The student used his measurements to plot the graph of v against d2 shown below.

(a) Explain what is meant by terminal velocity.


(2)
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(b) A glass sphere of diameter 35 mm is travelling through the fluid at terminal velocity.
Show that the drag force on this sphere is about 0.2 N.
density of glass ρg = 2.52 × 103 kg m−3
density of liquid ρs = 1.43 × 103 kg m−3
(5)
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(c) The student reads in a textbook that if Stokes' law is obeyed

v = k d2
where k is a constant.
(i) Deduce from the graph whether the flow of liquid around the spheres was laminar.
(3)
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(ii) Determine a value for k using the student's graph.
(3)
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k = ...........................................................
(iii) The constant k is given by

where η is the viscosity of the liquid.


Determine a value for η.
density of glass ρg = 2.52 × 103 kg m−3
density of liquid ρs = 1.43 × 103 kg m−3
(2)
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η = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 15 marks)

Q88.

A student carried out an experiment to determine the viscosity of washing up liquid using the apparatus
shown.

(a) The student released the sphere at the top of the cylinder and made measurements, using a
stopwatch and metre rule, so the terminal velocity of the sphere could be determined.
(i) Describe a method that the student could use to determine an accurate value for the terminal
velocity of the sphere. You may add to the diagram above.
(5)
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(ii) Explain why the use of a larger sphere would increase the percentage uncertainty in the calculated
value of the terminal velocity.
(4)
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(b) (i) Complete the free-body force diagram for the sphere when travelling at terminal velocity.
(3)

(ii) The student obtained a value of 0.16 m s−1 for the terminal velocity of the sphere.
Calculate the viscosity η of the washing up liquid in Pa s.
radius of sphere = 4.8 × 10 −3 m
weight of sphere = 3.5 × 10 −2 N
density of washing up liquid = 1.1 × 103 kg m−3
(4)
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η = ........................................................... Pa s

(Total for question = 16 marks)

Q89.

A falling sphere viscometer is a device used to determine the viscosity of a liquid. A sphere falls through a
cylinder containing a liquid, and the terminal velocity of the sphere is measured.

(a) State why the temperature of the liquid should not increase during the measurement.
(1)
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(b) A scientist measured the terminal velocity of an aluminium sphere as it fell through glycerol.
(i) Show that the weight of the sphere is about 4.8 × 10 -3 N.
density of aluminium = 2.70 × 103 kg m -3
diameter of sphere = 7.00 × 10-3 m
(4)
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(ii) The terminal velocity of the sphere was 4.05 × 10 -2 m s-1.
Deduce whether Stokes' law applied to the falling sphere.
density of glycerol = 1.26 × 103 kg m -3
viscosity of glycerol = 9.50 × 10 -1 Pa s
(3)
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(iii) State one condition that must be met for Stokes' law to apply.
(1)
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(c) A scientist used the viscometer to measure the viscosity of blood. The viscosity of blood is typically in
the range 3 × 10-3 Pa s to 4 × 10-3 Pa s.
Explain why the scientist should use an aluminium sphere with a much smaller diameter than the sphere
used with the glycerol. Do not include calculations in your answer.
viscosity of glycerol = 9.50 × 10 -1 Pa s
(5)
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(Total for question = 14 marks)

Q90.

Concrete is a material often used for building.

A stress-strain graph for one type of concrete is shown. Positive values of strain represent compression
and negative values of strain represent tension.
(a) Explain how the stress-strain graph shows that concrete is more suitable for use under compression
than under tension.
(2)
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(b) Steel is a metal often used in building. The stress-strain graph for steel is shown.
A steel rod has a diameter of 45 mm.

Calculate the maximum force that could be applied to the steel rod before it fractures.
(3)
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Maximum force = .......................................................

(c) To make concrete suitable for use under large forces steel rods are sometimes embedded in the
concrete.
An external tensile force is applied to the steel rods. Concrete is poured into a mould around the rods.
Once the concrete has set the external force is removed from the steel rods, placing the concrete in
compression.
(i) Explain how this process increases the maximum tensile force that the concrete can withstand
before fracture.
(4)
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(ii) Explain why the external tensile force in the rods must not take the steel beyond its elastic limit.
(2)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q91.

When an increasing force is applied to a steel cable it will eventually reach its elastic limit.

(a) State what is meant by the elastic limit.


(1)
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.............................................................................................................................................
(b) The elastic limit of a steel cable was reached when a force of 13.4 × 106 N was applied. The extension
of the cable was 0.126 m.
length of cable = 6.00 m cross-sectional area of cable = 9.60 × 10-3 m2
(i) Calculate the strain of the cable at its elastic limit.
(2)
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Strain = ...........................................................
(ii) Calculate the stress in the cable at its elastic limit.
(2)
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Stress = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 5 marks)

Q92.

A steadily increasing tensile force was applied to a sample of a titanium alloy.

The sample had an original length of 40.0 cm and diameter of 5.05 mm.

(a) State a suitable measuring instrument to measure the diameter of the sample.
(1)
.............................................................................................................................................

(b) The graph shows how stress varied with strain for the sample.
(i) Determine the Young modulus of the sample.
(3)
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Young modulus = ...........................................................


(ii) The sample broke at point B.
Determine the force required to break the sample.
(4)
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Force = ...........................................................
(iii) The graph below shows a linear section of the stress-strain graph for the sample.

Show that the area under this graph represents the work done per unit volume in stretching the
sample.
(3)
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(iv) The area under any stress-strain graph represents the work done per unit volume.
Estimate the amount of work required to break the titanium alloy sample.
(4)
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Work = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 15 marks)

Q93.
A student used the equipment shown to investigate the behaviour of a spring.

The student recorded the position of the spring on the metre rule for increasing loads. He plotted the graph
shown for the loading and unloading of the spring.

(a) The student continued to increase the load until the spring exceeded the elastic limit at point L.
(i) State the significance of point K.
(1)
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(ii) Explain the significance of point L.
(2)
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(iii) The graph for the unloading of the spring is also shown on the axes.
Suggest why the unloading graph has a different gradient to the loading graph.
(1)
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.............................................................................................................................................

(b) A second student repeated the investigation but forgot to subtract the original length of the spring from
his measurements.
Sketch, on the axes below, the shape of the graph he would obtain for the loading of the spring.
(1)

(c) A third student repeated the investigation using two new springs connected in series as shown.

The springs were identical to the spring used in the original investigation.
Explain why the spring constant for this arrangement of the springs would be half that for one spring.
(4)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q94.
A student carried out an experiment to determine the Young modulus of a sample of stainless steel in the
form of a wire. The student added weights to the wire and measured the corresponding extensions.

The wire had an unstretched length of 2.6 m. The diameter of the wire was 5.6 × 10 –4 m.

The student plotted a graph of weight against extension. The graph showed that the limit of proportionality
was not exceeded.

(a) State what is meant by the limit of proportionality.


(1)
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(b) The student's graph is shown below.

(i) Determine the gradient of the graph.


(2)
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Gradient = ...........................................................
(ii) Determine the Young modulus of stainless steel using your value for the gradient.
(3)
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Young modulus = ...........................................................

(c) The breaking stress for this stainless steel is known to be 480 MPa.
Deduce whether it is safe for the student to increase the weight to 100.0 N.
(3)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q95.

The Tyrolean traverse is a technique for crossing a deep valley. The photograph shows a climber crossing
a river using this technique. The climber moves along a rope suspended from the bank on either side of the
river.

(a) The free-body force diagram for the climber is shown below. The weight of the climber is 650 N.
Show that the tension T in the rope is about 1.3 × 103 N.
(3)
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(b) The rope has an unstretched length of 120 m as shown below.

(i) Determine the strain in the rope while it is supporting the weight of the climber.
You may ignore the weight of the rope.
(3)
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Strain = ...........................................................
(ii) The rope has a cross-sectional area of 3.14 × 10−4 m2.
Determine the Young modulus of the rope material.
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Young modulus = ...........................................................

(Total for question = 9 marks)

Q96.

The transmission of electricity over long distances requires a conducting cable that is suitable to hang from
supporting towers called pylons.

The vertical distance from the line of support to the lowest point on the wire is called the sag. Due to the
high voltages involved, the cable must maintain a minimum distance from the ground.

(a) The temperature and the tension in the cable affect the sag.
(i) Suggest one further factor that may increase the sag of a cable.
(1)
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(ii) A cable of mass M is at an angle θ to the horizontal.
Explain why the tension in the cable decreases as the sag increases.
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(b) A type of conducting cable used in overhead power lines is ACSR. This cable has a steel core
surrounded by strands of aluminium cable of the same diameter.

Stress-strain graphs for samples of steel and aluminium typically used in each strand of the cable are
shown.

(i) Show that the Young modulus of steel is about 2 × 1011 Pa.
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(ii) The pylons are positioned every 270 m.
Show that the stress in a strand of steel is about 70 MPa.
(2)
cross-sectional area of one strand = 2.3 × 10 −6 m2
tension per m for steel = 0.62 N m−1
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(iii) ACSR cables consist of a steel core surrounded by strands of aluminium cable.
The extension produced, due to the tension, for each strand of aluminium is 0.95 m.
Comment on why ACSR cables consist of both a steel core and strands of aluminium cable. You
should include a calculation as part of your answer.
(3)
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(Total for question = 11 marks)

Q97.

A student carried out an experiment to determine the Young modulus of copper. She used the
apparatus below to observe the position of a marker as a copper wire extended under increasing
applied loads.

(a) Describe how the diameter of the wire should have been determined.
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(b) The student calculated the extension of the copper wire for each applied load. She then
plotted a graph of load against extension.

Determine a value for the Young modulus of copper.


original length of copper wire = 2.4 m
diameter of copper wire = 2.3 × 10 −4 m
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Young modulus of copper = ...........................................................

(c) Explain why the sample of wire used in this experiment should be long and thin.
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(Total for question = 13 marks)

Q98.

A student carried out an experiment to determine the Young modulus of copper.

She added a mass m to the free end of a sample of copper in the form of a long thin wire and the
corresponding extension Δ x was measured. This was repeated for increasing masses.

(a) State the meaning of the term Young modulus.


(1)
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(b) The student repeated the measurement of the diameter of the wire at different positions and
orientations of the wire. She obtained the following results.

(i) Determine the cross-sectional area of the sample of wire used.


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Cross-sectional area = ...........................................................


(ii) The student plotted a graph of m against Δ x. She measured the gradient and obtained a value of
195 kg m−1.
Determine the Young modulus of the copper.
length of sample of copper used = 3.50 m
(3)
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Young modulus = ...........................................................


(iii) The experiment was repeated by another student, using a 2.00 m length of the copper wire.
Suggest how the values obtained for the gradient and hence the Young modulus will differ between
the students.
(2)
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(Total for question = 9 marks)

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