Neet CT 2 - 18.06.2023

1 | NEET COMBINED TEST - 2 NEET – CT 2 (18.06.
2023)
PHYSICS: Motion in 2D, Laws of Motion.

CHEMISTRY: Periodic Properties, Chemical Bonding.
BIOLOGY: Plant Kingdom, Animal Kingdom.
PHYSICS
1. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where
x and y are in metres and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
(a) 5 m s–2 (b) – 4 m s–2 (c) –8 m s–2 (d) 0
2. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is given by ⃗ = 4 sin(2t) ̂ + 4 cos(2t) ̂
where R is in meters, t is in seconds and ̂ and ̂ denote unit vectors along x-and y-directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
(a) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8  meter/second.
(b) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter.
(c) Acceleration vector is along − ⃗ .
v2
(d) Magnitude of acceleration vector is where v is the velocity of particle.
R
3. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° with
horizontal, it can travel a distance x1 along the plane. But when the inclination is decreased to
30° and the same object is shot with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Then x1 : x2 will
be
(a) 1 : 2√ (b) 1 : √ (c) √ : 1 (d) 1 : √
4. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m s–1 and angle q with the
horizontal. Another projectile fired from another planet with a velocity of 3 m s–1 at the same
angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the
earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in m s–2) is
(Given g = 9.8 m s–2)
(a) 3.5 (b) 5.9 (c) 16.3 (d) 110.8
5. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum will
be
(a) mv√ (b) zero (c) 2mv (d) mv / √
6. A particle A is dropped from a height and another particle B is projected in horizontal direction
with speed of 5 m/s from the same height then correct statement is
(a) particle A will reach at ground first with respect to particle B
(b) particle B will reach at ground first with respect to particle A
(c) both particles will reach at ground simultaneously
(d) both particles will reach at ground with same speed.
7. Two projectiles of same mass and with same velocity are thrown at an angle 60° and 30° with
the horizontal, then which will remain same
(a) time of flight (b) range of projectile
(c) maximum height acquired (d) all of them.
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2 | NEET COMBINED TEST - 2 NEET – CT 2 (18.06.2023)
8. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and
rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
angular speed of A to that of B will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) rA : rB (c) vA : vB (d) rB : rA
9. Two particles having mass M and m are moving in a circular path having radius R and r. If their
time period are same then the ratio of angular velocity will be
r R R
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
R r r
10. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their
speeds are such that each makes a complete circle in the same time t. The ratio of the angular
speeds of the first to the second car is
(a) r1 : r2 (b) m1 : m2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) m1 m2 : r1 r2
11. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of
flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is proportional to
1 1
(a) 2 (b) R 2 (c) R (d)
R R
12. If R and H represent the horizontal range and the maximum height achieved by a projectile then
which of the relation exists?
H R H R
(a)  4 cot θ (b)  4 cot θ (c)  4 tan θ (d)  4 tan θ
R H R H
13. For a given angle of the projectile if the initial velocity is doubled the range of the projectile
becomes
(a) Half (b) One –fourth (c) Two times (d) Four times
14. A projectile can have the same range for two angles of projection. If h1 and h2 are maximum
heights when the range in the two cases is R, then the relation between R, h1 and h2 is
(a) R = 4 h1h2 (b) R = 2 h1h2 (c) R = h1h2 (d) None of these
15. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s at an
angle of 30º with the horizontal. How far from the throwing point will the ball be at the height of
1 3
10 m from the ground? [ g = 10m/s2 , sin300 = , cos300 = ]
2 2
(a) 5√ (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5√
16. A body is projected from the ground with a velocity 50 m/s at an angle of 30°. It crosses a wall
after 3 sec. How far beyond the wall the body will strike the ground? [take g = 10 m/s2]
(a) 86.6 m (b) 96.2 m (c) 100.1 m (d) 111.1 m
17. I. The motion of a projectile may be thought of as the result of two separate, simultaneously
occurring components of motions.
II. At the maximum height for a projectile, the x-component of the velocity is zero.
III. In projectile motion, one component is along a horizontal direction without any acceleration
and the other along the vertical direction with constant acceleration due to the force of
gravity.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Both I and II (b) Both I and III (c) Only I (d) Only III

18. Three particles A, B and C are projected from the same point with the same initial speeds making
angle 30°, 45° and 60°, respectively with the horizontal. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) A, B and C have unequal ranges.
(b) Ranges of A and C are less than that of B.
(c) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than that of B.
(d) A, B and C have equal ranges.
19. A biker stands on the edge of a cliff 490 m above the ground and throws a stone horizontally
with an initial speed of 15 ms−1. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is 30 s.
(b) The time taken by the stone to reach the ground is 20 s.
(c) The speed with which it hits the ground is 99 ms−1.
(d) None of the above
20. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal hits the ground 3 km away. By adjusting its
angle of projection, it can (assume the muzzle speed to be fixed and neglect air resistance.)
(a) hit a target at 5 km (b) hit a target at 6 km
(c) cannot hit a target at 5 km (d) None of the above
21. The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15° is 50 m. If it is fired with the same
speed at an angle of 45°, its range will be
(a) 60 m (b) 71 m (c) 100 m (d) 141 m
22. Assertion(A) : The maximum height of projectile is always 25% of the maximum range.
Reason(R) : For maximum range, projectile should be projected at 90°.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
23. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph as shown. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is
(a) 24 N s (b) 20 N s (c) 12 N s (d) 6 N s

24. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 gm in 0.1 sec moving with speed 20 m/s, then he
experiences force of
(a) 300 N (b) 30 N (c) 3 N (d) 0.3 N
25. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t where, F is in
newton and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel.
What is the average impulse imparted to the bullet?
(a) 9 Ns (b) zero (c) 1.8 Ns (d) 0.9 Ns

26. A force of 6 N acts on a body at rest and of mass 1 kg. During this time, the body attains a
velocity of 30 m/s. The time for which the force acts on the body is
(a) 7 seconds (b) 5 seconds (c) 10 seconds (d) 8 seconds
27. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and gets reflected without loss of
speed as shown in the figure. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball
will be
(a) mV (b) 2 mV
(c) mV/2 (d) mV/3
28. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall.
It is reflected with the same speed at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for
0.25 seconds, the average force acting on the wall is
(a) 96 N (b) 48 N (c) 24 N (d) 12 N
29. An object flying in air with velocity (20 ̂ + 25 ̂ −12 ̂ ) suddenly breaks in two pieces whose
masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller mass flies off with a velocity (100 ̂ + 35 ̂ + 8 ̂ ).
The velocity of the larger piece will be
(a) 4 ̂ + 23 ̂ −16 ̂ (b) −100 ̂ − 35 ̂ − 8 ̂
(c) 20 ̂ +15 ̂ − 80 ̂ (d) −20 ̂ −15 ̂ − 80 ̂
30. A particle moving with velocity is acted by three forces shown by the
vector triangle PQR. The v e l o c i t y of the particle will
(a) change according to the smallest force ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) remain constant
31. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.
(b) Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.
(c) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
(d) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.
32. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank
in 4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be,
respectively
(a) 0.5 and 0.6 (b) 0.4 and 0.3 (c) 0.6 and 0.6 (d) 0.6 and 0.5
33. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string
passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a
rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = m). The pulley is
frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass
m1 is (Assume m1 = m2 = m3 = m)
g 1  gμ  2 gμ
(a) (b)
9 3
g 1  2 μ  g 1  2 μ 
(c) (d)
3 2

34. A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 ms–1. A box is gently dropped on it. The
coefficient of friction between them is m = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to
belt before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 m s–2, is
(a) 0.4 m (b) 1.2 m (c) 0.6 m (d) zero
35. The coefficient of static friction, µs, between block A of mass 2 kg and the
table as shown in the figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum mass value
of block B so that the two blocks do not move? The string and the pulley are
assumed to be smooth and massless. (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 2.0 kg (b) 4.0 kg (c) 0.2 kg (d) 0.4 kg
36. A block of mass 10 kg placed on rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction μ = 0.5,
if a horizontal force of 100 N acting on it then acceleration of the block will be
(a) 10 m/s2 (b) 5 m/s2 (c) 15 m/s2 (d) 0.5 m/s2
37. On the horizontal surface of a truck a block of mass 1 kg is placed (m = 0.6) and truck is moving
with acceleration 5 m/s2 then the frictional force on the block will be
(a) 5 N (b) 6 N (c) 5.88 N (d) 8 N
38. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45° inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body
and the inclined plane is
(a) 0.80 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.33
39. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the
figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at
constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration
due to gravity)
(a) 3mg (b) 6mg (c) zero (d) 2mg
40. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel.
The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension in the
supporting cable is
(a) 8600 N (b) 9680 N (c) 11000 N (d) 1200 N
41. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25
kg is suspended from it but will break if the mass exceeds 25 kg. What is the maximum
acceleration with which the monkey can climb up along the rope? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 5 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2 (c) 25 m/s2 (d) 2.5 m/s2
42. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a thread. It is
(i) lifted up with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2, (ii) lowered with an acceleration 4.9 m/s2.
The ratio of the tensions is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
43. Assertion(A) : If force is not parallel to the velocity of the body, but makes some angle with it, it
changes the component of velocity along the direction of force.
Reason(R) : The component of velocity normal to the force remains unchanged.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

44. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Newton’s third law of motion?
(a) To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
(b) Action and reaction act on the same body.
(c) There is no cause-effect relation between action and reaction.
(d) Action and reaction forces are simultaneous.
45. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has mass m. Find the
magnitude (in mg newton) and direction of
(i) the force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom due to all the coins on its top)
(ii) the force on the 7th coin by the 8th coin
(iii) and the reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin.
(a) 3, 3, − 4 (b) − 4, 3 , 3 (c) 3, − 4, 3 (d) None of these
CHEMISTRY
46. After the publication of Mendeleev’s periodic table, which of the following pairs of elements
were discovered later?
(a) Gallium and aluminium (b) Germanium and gallium
(c) Silicon and germanium (d) Aluminium and silicon
47. Assertion(A) : John Alexander Newlands arranged the elements in increasing order of their
atomic weights and noted that every eighth element had properties similar to the first element.
Reason(R) : Newlands’s law of octaves seemed to be true only for element upto silicon.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.
48. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to
(a) maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(b) magnetic quantum number of any element of the period.
(c) maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
(d) atomic number of any element of the period.
49. What is the outer electronic configuration of an element which is regarded as first metal of the
transition series?
(a) 3d0 4s1 (b) 3d0 4s2 (c) 3d1 4s2 (d) 3d2 4s2
50. Element (A) is the first element of the fifth period, element (B) is the first element of the 4d
transition series and element (C) ends at fifth period. Identify (A), (B) and (C).
(a) (A) = Rubidium, (B) = Scandium, (C) = Yttrium
(b) (A) = Potassium, (B) = Yttrium, (C) = Krypton
(c) (A) = Rubidium, (B) = Yttrium, (C) = Xenon
(d) (A) = Potassium, (B) = Scandium, (C) = Xenon
51. Some statements regarding inner transition elements are given below, choose the correct
statements.
I. Inner transition elements belong to the sixth and seventh period.
II. These elements are placed separately in the periodic table to maintain its structure.

III. Separate places in the periodic table to preserve the principle of classification by keeping
elements with similar properties in a single column.
(a) II and III (b) I and III (c) I, II and III (d) I and II
52. Which of the two elements are considered as exceptions while categorisation of s-, p-, d- and
f-block elements?
(a) Nitrogen and Hydrogen (b) Krypton and Helium
(c) Hydrogen and Helium (d) Lithium and Bromine
53. Some properties of s-block elements are given below. Identify the incorrect statement.
I. The reactivity decreases down the group.
II. The metallic character increases down the group.
III. The reactivity increases down the group.
IV. The metallic character decreases down the group.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and IV (d) III and IV
54. Match column I with column II and choose the correct code given below.
Column I Column II
Symbol of element Block of element
P. Bk (i) s-block
Q. Rg (ii) p-block
R. Te (iii) d-block
S. Sr (iv) f-block
(a) P – (i), Q – (ii), R – (iii), S – (iv) (b) P – (iv), Q – (iii), R – (ii), S – (i)
(c) P – (iii), Q – (ii), R – (i), S – (iv) (d) P – (ii), Q – (i), R – (iv), S – (iii)
55. Some statements regarding p-block elements are given below. Identify the correct statements.
I. The non-metallic character increases as we move from left to right across a period.
II. Metallic character increases as we go down the group.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) Both are incorrect
56. Which of the following properties does not belong to the d-block elements?
(a) They exhibit specific oxidation states. (b) They are all metals.
(c) They are mostly formed of coloured ions. (d) They are often used as catalyst.
57. Some properties of inner-transition elements are given below. Choose the incorrect statements.
I. They are all non-metals.
II. Within each series, the properties of the elements are not similar.
III. The chemistry of the early actinoids is simpler than the corresponding lanthanoids.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
58. Metals are usually solids at room temperature. Which of the following pairs of metals have very
low melting points, 302 K and 303 K respectively?
(a) Caesium and Gallium (b) Sodium and Beryllium
(c) Caesium and Magnesium (d) Gallium and Sodium
59. Assertion(A) : The two rows of elements at the bottom of the periodic table are called the
lanthanoids and actinoids.
Reason(R) : The elements after uranium are called trans-uranium elements.
(c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A and R are false.

60. Select the correct statement.

(a) Reactivity of the alkali metals decreases down the group.
(b) Reactivity of the halogens decreases down the group.
(c) Reactivity of alkali metals and halogens decreases down the group.
(d) Reactivity of alkali metals and halogens increases down the group.
61. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of atomic radii?
(a) Li < Be < C < N (b) Be < Li < C < N
(c) N < Be < Li < C (d) N < C < Be < Li
62. Some statements are given below regarding atomic radius in periods as well as group. Select the
correct statement/s.
I. Atomic radius of sulphur is greater than silicon.
II. Atomic radius of chlorine is lower than phosphorus.
III. Atomic radius of sodium is greater than caesium. (
IV. Atomic radius of iodine is lower than bromine.
(a) I and III (b) II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) II only
63. The ionic radii can be estimated by measuring the distances between
(a) anions and anions in ionic crystals. (b) cations and cations in ionic crystals.
(c) cations and anions in ionic crystals. (d) None of these.
64. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The cation with the greater positive charge will have a smaller radius.
(b) The anion with the greater negative charge will have the smaller radius.
(c) The cation with the lower positive charge will have a smaller radius.
(d) The anion with the lower negative charge will have the larger radius.
65. Energy is always required to remove electrons from an atom and hence ionization enthalpies are
always
(a) positive. (b) negative.
(c) firstly negative & then positive. (d) Firstly positive & then negative.
66. Some properties regarding chemical reactivity are given below. Identify the incorrect options.
(I) Cl2O7 oxide is basic in nature.
(II) N2O oxide is neutral in nature.
(III) Na2O oxide is acidic in nature.
(IV) As2O3 oxide is amphoteric in nature.
(a) II and III (b) I and IV (c) III and IV (d) I and III
67. Magnesium reacts with an element (x) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
configuration of (x) is 1s2, 2s2, 2p3, the simplest formula of the compound is
(a) Mg2x3 (b) Mgx2 (c) Mg2x (d) Mg3x2
68. Assertion(A) : The atomic size generally decreases across a period.
Reason(R) : Effective nuclear charge increases as the atomic number increases across a period.

69. Some statements regarding formal charge are given below. Identify the correct statement(s).
I. Formal charges do not indicate real charge separation within the molecule.
II. Formal charges help in the selection of the lowest energy structure from a number of possible
Lewis structures for a given species.
III. In polyatomic ions, it is feasible to assign a formal charge on each atom.
(a) I only (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
70. Which of the following is an example of odd electron molecule?
(a) BCl3 (b) NO (c) CO (d) H2O
71. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct code given below:
Column I (Molecule) Column II (Octet rule)
(P) BCl3 (1) Expanded octet
(Q) H2SO4 (2) Odd electron
(R) NO2 (3) Incomplete octet
(S) NF3 (4) Complete octet
(a) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4 (b) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
(c) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2 (d) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4
72. The lattice enthalpy of an ionic solid is defined as the energy required to completely separate
(a) one mole of a solid ionic compound into liquid constituent ions.
(b) one mole of a gaseous ionic compound into solid constituent ions.
(c) one mole of a solid ionic compound into gaseous constituent ions.
(d) one mole of a liquid ionic compound into solid constituent ions.
73. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of bond dissociation enthalpy?
(a) H2 < HCl < O2 < N2 (b) HCl < H2 < O2 < N2
(c) N2 < O2 < H2 < HCl (d) N2 < O2 < HCl < H2
74. Assertion(A) : In molecule formation, only the outer shell electrons take part in chemical
combination and they are known as valence electrons.
Reason(R) : By linking of chemical bonds, atom got stability.
75. In which of the following options, first molecule average bond length is greater than the second
one?
(a) C ≡ N, C ≡ C (b) C = N, C = C (c) C — C, C — N (d) O — H, C — H
76. Some statements regarding bond angle are given below. Identify the correct statement(s).
I. Bond angle is the angle between the orbitals containing bonding electron pairs around the
central atom in a molecule/complex ion.
II. Bond angle is expressed in degrees which can be experimentally determined by spectroscopic
methods.
III. Bond angle helps in determining the shape of the molecule/complex ion.
IV. Bond angle gives some idea regarding the distribution of orbitals around the central atom in a
molecule/complex ion.
(a) III only (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II, III and IV (d) I and III

77. Two statements for polarity of bonds are given below:

I. The existence of a 100% ionic or covalent bond represents an ideal situation.
II. In reality no bond or a compound is either completely covalent or ionic.
The given statements I and II are true or false?
(a) FF (b) TT (c) TF (d) FT
78. The dipole moment in case of BeF2 is zero, this is because
(a) the two unequal bond dipoles point in same directions and cancel the effect of each other.
(b) the two unequal bond dipoles point in opposite directions and cancel the effect of each other.
(c) the two equal bond dipoles point in same directions and cancel the effect of each other.
(d) the two equal bond dipoles point in opposite directions and cancel the effect of each other.
79. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) All the covalent bonds have some partial ionic character.
(b) The ionic bonds also have partial covalent character.
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) None of these are correct.
80. Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment?
(a) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3 (b) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O
(c) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (d) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O
81. Assertion (A) : Bond angle in water molecule is 104.5°.
Reason (R) : One lone pair of electrons present in H2O molecule.
82. Choose the correct statement/s regarding VSEPR theory.
I. The repulsion order follow the trends, lone pair–bond pair, bond pair–bond pair, lone pair–
lone pair.
II. The repulsion effects result in deviations from idealised shapes and alterations in bond angles
in molecules.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II (d) None of these
83. Match column I with column II.
Column I (Molecule) Column II (Shape)
(P) SO2 (1) Bent
(Q) SF4 (2) T-shape
(R) CIF3 (3) See-saw
(S) BrF5 (4) Square pyramid
(a) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4 (b) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
(c) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 (d) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4
84. Select the correct option in which first molecule has T-shape and second molecule has bent
shape.
(a) H2O and ClF3 (b) BrF5 and NH3 (c) SO2 and H2O (d) ClF3 and O3
85. Some descriptions are given below regarding a molecule.
(I) Distorted tetrahedron (II) Folded square (III) See-saw shape

On the basis of above information, identify the molecule.

(a) SO2 (b) SF4 (c) BF3 (d) H2O
86. Some statements regarding hybridisation are given below. Identify the correct statements.
I. The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number of the atomic orbitals that get hybridised.
II. The hybridised orbitals are always equivalent in energy and shape.
III. The hybrid orbitals are less effective in forming stable bonds than the pure atomic orbitals.
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
87. Which of the following is the correct increasing order of O2 molecule?
(a) σ2Pz < π2Px = π2Py < π*2Px = π*2Py < σ*2Pz
(b) σ2Pz < π2Px < π2Py < σ*2Pz < π*2Px < π*2Py
(c) π2Px < π2Py < σ2Pz < π*2Px < π*2Py < σ*2Pz
(d) π2Px = π2Py < σ2Pz < π*2Px = π*2Py < σ*2Pz
88. Hydrogen bonds are formed in many compounds, e.g. H2O, HF, NH3. The boiling point of such
compounds depends to a large extent on the strength of hydrogen bond and the number of
hydrogen bonds. The correct decreasing order of the boiling point of above compounds is
(a) HF > H2O > NH3 (b) H2O > HF > NH3
(c) NH3 > HF > H2O (d) NH3 > H2O > HF
– + 2–
89. Decreasing order of stability of O2, O2 , O2 and O2 is
(a) O2 > O2+ > O22– > O2– (b) O2– > O22– > O2+ > O2
(c) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22– (d) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
90. Assertion (A) : O2 molecule is paramagnetic while H2 molecule is diamagnetic in nature.
Reason (R) : Bond order of O2 molecular is two while bond order of H2 molecule is one.
BIO - BOTANY
91. Algae include unicellular forms like ...A..., filamentous forms like ...B... and colonial forms like ...C... .
Here, A, B and C refer to
(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Volvox, C–Ulothrix
(b) A–Ulothrix, B–Volvox, C–Chlamydomonas
(c) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Chlamydomonas
(d) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Ulothrix, C–Volvox
92. In algae, vegetative reproduction mainly takes place by
(a) budding (b) akinetes (c) fragmentation (d) heterocyst
93. Oogamous means
(a) fusion between female and male gametes of similar size
(b) fusion between one large female gamete and a smaller non-motile male gamete
(c) fusion between one large female gamete and a smaller motile male gamete
(d) fusion between one smaller female gamete and a large motile male gamete

94. Identify the given figures of algae and select the correct option.
(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox (b) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Laminaria

(c) A–Chara, B–Laminaria, C–Volvox (d) A–Porphyra, B–Polysiphonia, C–Fucus
95. Which of the following groups of marine algae is used as food?
(a) Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Gracilaria (b) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum
(c) Laminaria and Gracilaria (d) Porphyra and Chlamydomonas
96. People recovering from long illness are often advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet because it
(a) makes the food easy to digest (b) is rich in proteins
(c) has antibiotic properties (d) restores the intestinal microflora
97. The members of Chlorophyceae are usually green due to the presence of pigments
(a) chlorophyll-a (b) chlorophyll-b
(c) chlorophyll-a and b (d) chlorophyll-c
98. Storage bodies, pyrenoids in the chloroplast contain
(a) protein and starch (b) carbohydrate and protein
(c) polysaccharide and protein (d) starch and lipid
99. In green algae, vegetative reproduction takes place by
(a) fragmentation (b) different types of spores
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) conidia
100. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you
should choose?
(a) Types of pigments present in the cell (b) Nature of stored food materials in the cell
(c) Structural organisation of thallus (d) Chemical composition of the cell wall
101. Members of class–Rhodophyceae are known as red algae due to the presence of red pigment
(a) r-phycoerythrin (b) r-xanthophyll (c) chlorophyll-a (d) fucoxanthin
102. Which of the following is not matched?
(a) Chlamydomonas – Unicellular flagellated
(b) Laminaria – Flattened leaf-like thallus
(c) Chlorella – Unicellular non-flagellated
(d) Volvox – Colonial form, non-flagellated
103. Bryophytes mostly occur in
(a) dry area (b) terrestrial area
(c) humid, damp and shaded localities (d) in water
104. Bryophytes are also called ‘amphibians of the plant kingdom’ because
(a) water is essential for reproduction
(b) they occur only in water
(c) these plants can live in soil, but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction
(d) water is essential for spore formation
105. Mosses (Bryophytes) occur in moist places because
(a) they cannot grow on land (b) their gametes fuse in water
(c) they lack vascular tissue (d) they lack root and stomata

106. The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to replace cotton and used as a fuel is
(a) Marchantia (b) Riccia (c) Sphagnum (d) Funaria
107. Mosses along with lichen are of great ecological importance because
(a) they colonise barren rocks and decompose rock
(b) of their contribution to prevent soil erosion
(c) of their contribution in ecological succession
(d) All of the above
108. In given figure A, B, C and D represent
(a) A–Apophysis, B–Capsule, C–Sporophyte, D–Gametophyte
(b) A–Capsule, B–Seta, C–Sporophyte, D–Gametophyte
(c) A–Apophysis, B–Seta, C–Gametophyte, D–Sporophyte
(d) A–Apophysis, B–Capsule, C–Gametophyte, D–Sporophyte
109. Which group of plants constitutes the lower bryophytes?
(a) Liverworts (b) Mosses (c) Anthocerotales (d) Jungermanniales
110. Which of the following liverworts has thalloid plant body?
(a) Marchantia (b) Funaria (c) Sphagnum (d) Pogonatum
111. In mosses, vegetative reproduction takes place by
(a) fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema
(b) gemmae formation and endospore formation
(c) gemmae and tubers formation
(d) protonema
112. The moss plant is
(a) sometimes gametophyte and sometimes sporophyte
(b) predominantly gametophyte with sporophyte attached to it
(c) gametophyte
(d) sporophyte
113. Which of the following plant group is considered as first terrestrial plant to possess vascular tissues xylem
and phloem?
(a) Bryophytes (b) Pteridophytes (c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms
114. Select the correct sequential arrangement of reproductive structures in pteridophytes.
(a) Sporophyll Strobili Sporangia Spore mother cell® Spores
(b) Strobili Sporophyll Sporangia Spores
(c) Spores Sporophyll Sporangia Strobili
(d) Spores Sporangia Sporophyll Strobili
115. Which of the following pteridophytes is heterosporous in nature?
(a) Selaginella and Salvinia (b) Adiantum and Equisetum
(c) Psilotum and Lycopodium (d) Adiantum and Psilotum
116. Go through the following figures and identify these plants (A, B and C).
(a) A–Equisetum, B–Selaginella, C–Fern (b) A–Selaginella, B–Fern, C–Salvinia

(c) A–Fern, B–Salvinia, C–Equisetum (d) A–Salvinia, B–Equisetum, C–Fern

117. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent and free-living?

(a) Funaria (b) Marchantia (c) Pteris (d) Pinus
118. Which of the following gymnosperm has coralloid roots associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria?
(a) Pinus (b) Cycas (c) Cedrus (d) Ginkgo
119. In gymnosperms, the reduced gametophyte is called
(a) endospore (b) pollen grain (c) ovule (d) aplanospore
120. Angiosperms are also called
(a) seedless plants (b) fruitless plants (c) flowering plants (d) All of these
121. Eight nucleated female gametophyte is found in
(a) bryophytes (b) gymnosperms (c) angiosperms (d) pteridophytes
122. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to angiosperms?
(a) Endosperm — Triploid (b) Megaspore — Diploid
(c) Pollen grain — Haploid (d) Synergid — Haploid
123. Double fertilisation is
(a) fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(b) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(c) fusion of two male gametes of pollen tube with two different eggs
(d) syngamy and triple fusion
124. After fertilisation, the ovary and ovules, respectively develop into
(a) fruit, seed coat (b) seed coat, integuments
(c) fruit and seeds (d) seeds and fruit
125. Assertion (A) : Artificial system of classification separated closely related species.
Reason (R) : Artificial system gave equal weight age to vegetative and sexual characteristics.
(d) A is false but R is true.
126. Assertion (A) : Algae are the primary producers of many food cycles.
Reason (R) : Half of the total carbon dioxide-fixation on earth is carried out by algae.
127. Assertion (A) : Fertilisation in Cycas is called zooidogamy.
Reason (R) : Fertilisation in Cycas takes place by the formation of pollen tube.
128. Which of the following statements about bryophytes are incorrect?
(a) The sperms are biflagellate
(b) The sperms are released into water and fuse with the egg to produce the zygote outside the body
(c) Zygotes undergo reduction division immediately
(d) Both (b) and (c)

129. Read the following statements (I-IV) and answer the question, which follows them.
I. In liver worsts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living.
II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
130. Consider the following statements regarding reproduction in class–Chlorophyceae.
I. Asexual reproduction is mainly by flagellated zoospores produced in zoosporangia.
II. The sexual reproduction shows considerable variation in the type and formation of sex cells and it
maybe isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous. Choose the correct option.
(a) I is true, but II is false (b) I is false, but II is true
(c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
131. Consider the following statements about sexual reproduction in brown algae.
I. Sexual reproduction maybe oogamous, isogamous or anisogamous.
II. Union of gametes takes place in water or within the oogonium.
III. The gametes are pear-shaped and bear two laterally attached flagella.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) I, II and III
132. Consider the following statements regarding gymnosperms and choose the correct statements.
I. In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes have an independent existence.
II. The multicellular female gametophyte is retained within the megasporangium.
III. The gymnosperms are heterosporous. Of these statements:
(a) I and II are true, but III is false (b) I and III are true, but II is false
(c) II and III are false, but I is true (d) II and III are true, but I is false
133. Match the following columns.
Column I (Reproduction type) Column II (Characteristics)
A. Isogamous 1. Fusion between male (small) and female gamete (large)
B. Anisogamous 2. Both gametes are dissimilar in size
C. Oogamous 3. Both gametes are similar in size and non-motile
Codes:
A B C A B C
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 2
Column I (Products) Column II (Algae)
A. Algin 1. Chlorella
B. Carrageenan 2. Gracilaria
C. Agar 3. Red algae
D. Protein supplement 4. Brown algae
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
135. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome number in its
endosperm?
(a) 36 (b) 18 (c) 54 (d) 72

BIO - ZOOLOGY
136. Choose the incorrect option.
(a) Complete digestive system – Two openings, mouth and anus
(b) Incomplete digestive system – Single opening
(c) Open circulatory system – Blood is circulated through tube system
(d) Closed circulatory system – Arteries, veins and capillaries are present
137. Phylum(s) that exhibit radial or radial-like symmetry is/are
(a) Coelenterata (b) Echinodermata (c) Ctenophora (d) All of these
138. Choose the correct type of symmetry for the animals, A and B.
(a) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively (b) Bilateral, Radial, respectively

(c) Radial, Bilateral, respectively (d) Radial, Radial, respectively
139. Which one of the following diagram shows coelomate condition?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) None of these

140. Fill in the blanks with the correct options.
I. …A…have cellular level of organisation.
II. Coelom is not seen in…B…..
III. Radial symmetry is seen in phylum–Coelenterata, Ctenophora and…C…..
IV. Notochord is lacking in…D…
V. …E…are bilaterally symmetrical. Here A to E refers to
(a) A–Platyhelminthes, B–Echinodermata, C–Arthropoda, D–Mollusca, E–Porifera
(b) A–Porifera, B–Platyhelminthes, C–Echinodermata, D–Mollusca, E–Arthropoda
(c) A–Porifera, B–Echinodermata, C–Mollusca, D–Arthropoda, E–Platyhelminthes
(d) A–Echinodermata, B–Arthropoda, C–Platyhelminthes, D–Mollusca, E–Porifera
141. Which one of the following option is incorrect about the occurrence of notochord?
(a) It is present only in larval tail in ascidian
(b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(c) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
142. In most simple type of canal system of Porifera, water flows through which one of the following
ways?
(a) Ostia Spongocoel Osculum Exterior
(b) Spongocoel Ostia Osculum Exterior
(c) Osculum Spongocoel Ostia Exterior
(d) Osculum Ostia Spongocoel Exterior

143. The skeleton of animals belonging to phylum Porifera are made up of

(a) spicules (b) spiracles (c) spines (d) spongocytes
144. The animal(s) that never perform(s) locomotion voluntarily is/are
(a) Ascaris (b) Leucosolenia (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Hydra
145. The type of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is
(a) multiple fission (b) budding (c) sporulation (d) binary fission
146. Flame cells are present in
(a) Aschelminthes (b) Platyhelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Cephalochordata
147. If Hydra and Planaria are cut transversely in three equal parts, then
(a) all three parts will die
(b) regeneration will occur in all the three parts
(c) regeneration will occur only in anterior part
(d) regeneration occurs only in middle part
148. Wuchereria bancrofti is a common filarial worm. It belongs to phylum
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes (c) Annelida (d) Coelenterata
149. A triploblastic pseudocoelomate, bilaterally symmetrical human parasite, which is oviparous and
the transmission is by contaminated soil. It is
(a) filarial worm (b) hookworm (c) Palaloworm (d) tapeworm
150. Earliest occurrence of metamerism is witnessed in phylum
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Coelenterata
(c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida
151. Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, true coelom and open circulatory system are the
features of
(a) Annelida (b) Arthropoda (c) Mollusca (d) Echinodermata
152. Which one of the following insects is not of any economic benefit?
(a) Silkworm (b) Lac insect (c) Locust (d) Honeybee
153. The second largest number of species containing phylum after phylum–Arthropoda in the animal
kingdom is
(a) Annelida (b) Cnidaria (c) Mollusca (d) Chordata
154. All chordates have the following characteristics.
(a) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, triploblastic, open circulatory system
(b) Bilaterally symmetrical, presence of coelom, diploblastic or triploblastic
(c) Open circulatory system, diploblastic or triploblastic, coelom and bilaterally symmetrical
(d) Bilaterally symmetrical, coelom present, triploblastic with closed circulatory system
155. Reptiles are different from amphibians in
(a) the skin (b) structure of the heart
(c) development stages (d) All of these
156. The presence of which structure is common to frog and snake with respect to respiration?
(a) Diaphragm (b) Skin (c) Buccal cavity (d) Lungs
157. Which of the following groups of animals shares similarly regarding maintenance of constant
body temperature with mammals?
(a) Reptiles (b) Amphibians (c) Aves (d) Fishes

158. The unique character of animals belonging to class–Mammalia is

(a) bipedal locomotion (b) completely four-chambered heart
(c) the presence of mammary glands (d) fertilisation is internal
159. Which of the following animals is not viviparous?
(a) Flying fox (bat) (b) Elephant (c) Platypus (d) Whale
160. Which one of the following is not a mammalian character without exception?
(a) The presence of milk producing gland (b) They have two pairs of limbs
(c) Skin is unique in possessing hairs (d) Heterodont type of dentition
161. Assertion (A) : Radial symmetry in animals is advantageous in detecting food and danger.
Reason (R) : It allows the animal to be able to respond to stimulus from any direction.
162. Assertion (A) : Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine.
Reason (R) : Contaminated food is the main cause of intestinal infections by Aschelminthes.
163. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Phylum–Porifera – Presence of choanocytes and nematocysts
(b) Phylum–Coelenterata – Meandrina belongs to this phylum
(c) Phylum–Ctenophora – All exhibit bilateral symmetry only
(d) Phylum–Platyhelminthes – Wuchereria belongs to this phylum
164. Choose the correct statement.
(a) All mammals are viviparous
(b) All cyclostomes do not possess jaw and paired fins
(c) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart
(d) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum
165. Consider the following features.
A. Organ system level of organisation
B. Bilateral symmetry
C. True coelomates with segmentation of body.
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.
(a) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca (b) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(c) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata (d) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
166. Which of the following statements are true/false?
I. Cell aggregate body plan is found in phylum– Platyhelminthes.
II. Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found in animals.
III. Pseudocoelom is found only in phylum– Aschelminthes.
IV. All triploblastic animals have a true coelom.
V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals belong to phylum–Platyhelminthes.

(a) I and V are true and II, III and IV are false
(b) II, III and V are true and I and IV are false
(c) I, II and III are true and IV and V are false
(d) I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true
167. Choose the correct statement for starfish.
I. Sexes are separate and reproduction is sexual.
II. Development is indirect with free-swimming larva.
III. Mouth is present on the upper (dorsal) side and anus on the lower (ventral) side.
IV. Their body bears jaw-like structure which are called oral arms.
(a) I and III (b) I, II and IV (c) I, II and III (d) III and IV
168. Choose the correct option for the following statements.
I. All vertebrates are chordates.
II. Vertebrates possess notochord during embryonic period.
(a) I is true, but II is false (b) II is true, but I is false
(c) Both I and II are true (d) Both I and II are false
Column I (Level of organisation) Column II (Animal phyla)
A. Cellular level of organisation 1. Cnidarians
B. Organ level of organisation 2. Platyhelminthes
C. Organ system level of organisation 3. Chordates
D. Tissue level of organisation 4. Porifera
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
Column I (Scientific names) Column II (Common names)
A. Physalia 1. Liver fluke
B. Taenia 2. Scypha
C. Fasciola 3. Tapeworm
D. Sycon 4. Portuguese man of war
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 1 2 3 4
Column I (Common name of arthropodes) Column II (Scientific names)
A. Honeybee 1. Aedes
B. Mosquito 2. Apis
C. Lac insect 3. Laccifer
D. Silkworm 4. Bombyx

Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 1 3 2
Column I (Animals) Column II (Common names)
A. Hippocampus 1. Fighting fish
B. Betta 2. Great white shark
C. Clarias 3. Sea horse
D. Labeo 4. Angelfish
5. Rohu
6. Magur
Codes
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 6 5 (b) 6 2 4 1
(c) 3 2 6 4 (d) 4 1 6 5
173. In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some organs.
This characteristic feature is called
(a) segmentation (b) metamerism (c) metagenesis (d) metamorphosis
174. Which one of the following sets of animals share a four-chambered heart?
(a) Amphibian, reptiles, birds (b) Crocodiles, birds, mammals
(c) Crocodiles, lizards, turtles (d) Lizards, mammals, birds
175. Which of the following pairs of animals has non-glandular skin?
(a) Snake and frog (b) Chameleon and turtle
(c) Frog and pigeon (d) Crocodile and tiger
176. Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to a single taxonomic group?
(a) Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silverfish, dogfish, starfish
(b) Bat, pigeon, butterfly
(c) Monkey, chimpanzee, man
(d) Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm
(a) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia
(b) Asterias exhibits radial symmetry
(c) Fasciola is a pseudocoelomate animal
(d) Taenia is a triploblastic animal
(a) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material occurs through Malpighian tubules
(b) In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates
(c) In Fasciola flame cells take part in excretion
(d) Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet cross fertilisation takes place among them
179. Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called
(a) acoelomate (b) pseudocoelomate (c) coelomate (d) haemocoelomate


Column I (Phylum) Column II (Characteristic features)
A. Porifera 1. Canal system
B. Aschelminthes 2. Water vascular system
C. Annelida 3. Muscular pharynx
D. Arthropoda 4. Jointed appendages
E. Echinodermata 5. Metameres
Codes:
A B C D E A B C D E
(a) 2 3 5 4 1 (b) 2 5 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 5 4 2 (d) 1 5 3 4 2
***************

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1 | NEET COMBINED TEST - 2 NEET – CT 2 (18.06.

PHYSICS: Motion in 2D, Laws of Motion.

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(a) 24 N s (b) 20 N s (c) 12 N s (d) 6 N s

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60. Select the correct statement.

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77. Two statements for polarity of bonds are given below:

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On the basis of above information, identify the molecule.

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(a) A–Chlamydomonas, B–Chara, C–Volvox (b) A–Volvox, B–Ulothrix, C–Laminaria

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(a) A–Equisetum, B–Selaginella, C–Fern (b) A–Selaginella, B–Fern, C–Salvinia

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117. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent and free-living?

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(a) Bilateral, Asymmetrical, respectively (b) Bilateral, Radial, respectively

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) None of these

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143. The skeleton of animals belonging to phylum Porifera are made up of

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158. The unique character of animals belonging to class–Mammalia is

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180. Match the following columns.

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