PRESBYTERIAN NURSING & MIDWIFERY TRAINING COLLEGE:

BAWKU REGISTERED GENERAL NURSING

(DIPLOMA), END OF FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION 30TH
OCT, 2020.
ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY II. DIPLOMA GROUP 22

OBJECTIVE TEST

TIME ALLOWED: 75 MINUTES

IMPORTANT:
1. Do not open to questions until you are told to do so

2. Read the questions carefully and answer only what is asked

3. Attempt all questions

4. Write clearly in the answer clearly in the booklet provided using a pen

5. Stop writing as soon as you are instructed to do so

6. Remain in your seat until the papers are collected

1. An organ or structure that is not a component of the urinary system is the:
       A.   Urethra.
       B.   Gall bladder.
       C.   Ureter
       D.   Kidney.

2. Which of the following is not true about the functions of the kidney

      A.   Help regulate blood volume.

      B.   Help control blood pressure.
      C.   Help control blood PH.
      D.   help regulate blood glucose level

 
3.    The blood vessels entering the Bowman’s capsule are called...........................
A. artérioles
B. venules
C. afferent arterioles
D. efferent arterioles
 
4.    The urinary system is the principal system responsible for:
     I.   Removal of carbon dioxide.
     II.   Water and electrolyte balance.
     III.   Excretion of toxic nitrogenous compounds.

A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II and III
D. II and III only

 
5.    The structure that connects a kidney to the urinary bladder is the
    A.   Ureter.
    B.   Urethra.
    C.   Renal pelvis.
    D.   Collecting duct.

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7. What portion of the nephron extends into the medulla?

    A.   Nephron loop.

    B.   Proximal convoluted tubule.
    C.   Distal convoluted tubule.
    D.   Papillary duct.

 
8. The functional unit of the kidney is called a

     A.   Glomerulus.

    B.   Nephron.
    C.   Corpuscle.
     D.   Calyx.
 

9. Which of the following statements concerning the kidneys is FALSE?

    A.   They are retroperitoneal.

    B.   They each contain 8 to 15 renal pyramids.
    C.   They each have a distinct renal cortex and renal medulla region.
    D.   They are positioned between the third and fifth lumbar vertebrae.
 
9.    Which of the following is the correct sequence in which urine flows through
the kidney toward the urinary bladder?

    A.   Renal pelvis, major calyx, minor calyx, papillary duct, ureter.
    B.   Papillary duct, minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter.
    C.   Minor calyx, major calyx, papillary duct, renal pelvis, ureter.
    D.   Papillary duct, major calyx, minor calyx, ureter, renal pelvis.
 

10.Which of the following statements concerning the ureters is false?

    A.   The mucosa of each ureter is composed of transitional epithelium.

    B.   They are composed of three tunics.
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     C.   Muscular peristaltic waves move urine through the ureters.
    D.   They are located within the peritoneal cavity.
 
 

11. All of the following statements related to the male urethra are TRUE except:
   A.   It serves both the urinary and reproductive systems.
   B.   It contains a single urethral sphincter near the neck of the urinary
bladder.
   C.   It consists of three distinct layer of tissues.
   D.   It is approximately 20 cm long in an adult.
 

12. The hormone erythropoietin controls the production of …..

A. platelets
B. leukocytes
C. red blood cells
D. the release of prothrombin

13. Fibrous connective tissue that surrounds each kidney is the:

    A.   Cortex.

    B.   Hilum.
    C.   Medulla.
    D.   Renal capsule
 
14. The apex of the renal pyramid is called the:

   A.   Major calyx.

   B.   Minor calyx
   C.   Renal papilla.
   D.   Renal pelvis
 

15. The tuft of capillaries in the renal corpuscle is called the

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   A.   Podocytes.
   B.   Glomerulus.
   C.   Calyx.
   D.   Renal pyramid.
   

16. The location of the kidneys in relationship to the peritoneal lining of the
abdominal cavity is referred to as

   A.   Retroperitoneal.
   B.   Retroabdominal.
   C.   Posterior.
   D.   Dorsal.
 

17. The triangular area of the urinary bladder between the two ureters posteriorly
and the urethra anteriorly is the

   A.   External urinary sphincter.

   B.   Internal urinary sphincter.
   C.   Smooth muscle.
   D.  Trigone.

18. The glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and glomerulus make up the

A. Renal corpuscle
B. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Collecting system
D. Filtration apparatus

19. The main driving force and determinant of the net filtration pressure
A. blood osmotic pressure
B. capsular osmotic pressure
C. capsular colloidal pressure

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 D. glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

20. When the concentration of ADH increases

A. more urine is produced
B. less urine is produced
C. less water is reabsorbed by the nephron and collecting duct
D. the specific gravity of the urine decreases.

21. Which process results in increased blood pressure in response to hormone

release?
A. adrenergic response
B. countercurrent mechanism
C. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
D. renin-angiotensin-diuretic mechanism

22. Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence in which urine passes
through them to the external environment:
1. Ureter
2. Renal pelvis
3. Calyx
4. Urinary bladder
5. Urethra.

A. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
B. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5

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23. If the efferent arteriole constricts while the afferent arteriole remains
unchanged, the glomerular filtration rate
A. increases
B. does not change
C. decreases
D. cannot be determined

24. Which of the following statements about the urinary system is INCORRECT?
A. It carries out the majority of gluconeogenesis from glucose in the body.
B. It produces erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell formation.
C. It metabolizes vitamin D to its active form.
D. It produces renin, which helps regulate blood pressure.

25. The renal hilum lies on the __________ surface of the kidney.
A. medial
B. inferior
C. superior
D. lateral

26. All of the following functions are carried out in the renal tubules, EXCEPT
A. secretion
B. filtration
C. reabsorption
D. urine formation

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27. All of the following would stimulate the release of renin from granular cells,
EXCEPT
A. reduced stretching of the granular cells
B. low arterial blood pressure
C. high arterial blood pressure
D. stimulation of the granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system

28. Which of the following substances is the largest component of urine by weight
after water?
A. urea
B. creatinine
C. uric acid
D. uric acid

29. Digestion takes place in a long tube-like canal called the alimentary canal, or
the digestive tract. Food travels through these organs in the following order:
A. Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine,
large intestine and rectum
B. Mouth, oesophagus, stomach, large intestine,
small intestine and rectum
C. Mouth, stomach, oesophagus, small intestine,
large intestine and rectum
D. Mouth, stomach, oesophagus, small intestine,
large intestine and rectum

30. Our throat divides into two separate tubes: the windpipe and the oesophagus.
What structure prevents food from entering the windpipe?

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 A. tongue
B. uvula
C. epiglottis
D. Larynx

31. Which single statement below, about the stomach, is correct?

A. Glands called Peyer's patches are responsible for acid secretion
B. Pepsinogen and gastric lipase are two enzymes secreted into the lumen of
the stomach
C. The vagus nerve inhibits acid secretion after a meal has been consumed
D. mechanical digestion of swallowed food particles is absent in the
stomach.

32. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little
intrinsic factor?
A. Vitamin B12 injections
B. Vitamin B3 injections
C. Vitamin B6 injections
D. Antacid use

33. Which statement about protein digestion and absorption is MOST correct?
A. The products of protein digestion may be absorbed as free amino acids or
as di- or tripeptides
B. Gastric digestion of all proteins is equally efficient because of the
grinding action of the antrum.

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 C. Gastric zymogenic (chief) cells produce and secrete chymotrypsin,
elastase and carboxypeptidase A and this initiates the process of protein
digestion
D. The products of digestion of dietary protein by luminal and brush-border
enzymes are only absorbed by one of the 14 different amino acid
transporters.

34. Which of the following is not an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A. pancreas
B. liver
C. esophagus
D. gallbladder

35. Which of the following is not a tissue layer of the alimentary canal
A. mucosa
B. muscularis
C. secretin
D. serosa

36. Digestion refers to the

A. absorption of nutrients in the gut.
B. progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
C. input of food into the digestive tract.
D. chemicall/mechanical breakdown of food.

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37. In humans, the large intestine is the major site for the

A. storage of nutrients for future use

B. completion of carbohydrate digestion

C. completion of lipid digestion

D. absorption of water into the bloodstream

38.Pyloric stenosis is the narrowing of the pylorus of the stomach. The vomitus
in pyloric stenosis is not bile stained because
A. The bile duct is obstructed
B. The obstruction is above the opening of the common bile duct
C. The obstruction of the cardiac sphincter prevent bile from entering the
oesophagus
D. The sphincter of the bile duct is connected to the hypertrophied
Pyloric muscle

Use the below to answer questions 39-41.

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39. The chemical digestion of proteins begins in this organ.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

40. One digestive function of the secretion stored in structure F is

A. emulsification of lipids

B. hydrolysis of proteins

C. synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes

D. excretion of cellulose

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41. Insulin and glucagon are two main endocrine hormones responsible for
regulating blood sugar levels. Which structure produces these hormones?
A. C
B. E
C. B
D. F

42. What is the role of teeth in digestion?

A. They break down food mechanically, increasing the surface area of the
food for enzyme action.

B. They break down food mechanically, stimulating enzyme synthesis in the

food.

C. They break down food chemically, aiding the movement of the food
through the esophagus.

D. They break down food chemically, mixing saliva with the food for easier
digestion.

43. The serous membrane that adheres to the abdominal organs in the abdominal
cavity is known

A. Visceral peritoneal membrane

B. Visceral pleural membrane
C. Parietal membrane
D. Pericardial membrane

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44. Which of the following statements is not true about the peritoneum?
A. It is richly supplied with blood and lymph vessels, and lymph nodes.
B. The parietal peritoneum covers the abdominal organs
C. The viscera peritoneum covers the abdominal wall.
D. It provide a physical barrier to local infections.

45. The digestive system is supplied by nerves from the sympathetic and
parasympathetic division of the nervous system. A plexus (network) of
sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves exist between the muscle layer of the
alimentary canal called the
A. Auerbach’s plexus
B. Meissner’s plexus
C. Lee Franklin Hauser’s plexus
D. Great omentum

46. The activity of the parasympathetic nerves stimulation on the alimentary

include
I. Increased muscular activity, especially peristalsis
II. Increased activity of the myenteric plexus.
III. Decreased activity of the submucosal plexus

IV. decrease glandular secretion

A. I and II only

B. I, II and III only.

C. III and IV only

D. I, II, III and IV

47. The functions of the tongue include

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 I. aid in rolling the food to from a bolus
II. aid in speech
III. serves as an organ of taste
IV. Secretes salivary amylase.

A. I and III only

B. II and III only
C. I, II and III only
D. I, II, III and IV only.

48. The inactive digestive enzyme precursor, pepsinogen secreted by the chief cells
into the mucosal of the stomach is activated by the presence of
A. Bicarbonate ions
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Parietal cells
D. Bile salts

49. The alimentary canal is a continuous, coiled, hollow muscular tube that winds
through the ventral cavity and is open at both ends. Its accessory organs include all
of the following except:

A. liver
B. gall bladder
C. stomach
D. pancreas

50. Pharynx is lined with mucous membranes and mucous secreting glands to ease
the passage of food. The oropharynx serves as passageway for:

A. air only
B. water

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 C. food and water
D. air and food

51. Once food has been placed in the mouth, both mechanical and chemical
digestions begin. The six activities of the digestive process are:

A. ingestion, mastication, digestion, deglutition, absorption, egestion

B. ingestion, mastication, deglutition, digestion, absorption, egestion
C. deglutition, ingestion, mastication, egestion, absorption, defecation
D. ingestion, digestion, mastication, deglutition, absorption, defecation

52. Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What
hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?

A. Gastrin
B. Pepsin
C. HCl
D. Insulin
53. A patient verbalised of pain on the right iliac region. Nurse Christabel knows
that the organ affected would be the:

A. liver
B. sigmoid colon
C. appendix
D. duodenum

54. The serous membrane covering the surface of the lungs is called the:   

A. pleurisy  
B. mediastinum  

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 C. visceral pleura  
D. parietal pleura
 
55. The phospholipid molecule critical to lung function that coats the gas-
exposed alveolar surfaces is called:  

A. haemoglobin 

B. interferon  

C. lecithin  

D. surfactant  

56. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the paranasal sinuses?  

A. they help to moisten air     

B. they are olfactory receptors for smell    

C. they lighten the skull  

D. they act as resonance chambers for speech  

57.The respiratory conducting passageways perform all of the following functions 
EXCEPT:  

A. purify air  

B. warm incoming air  

C. humidify air  
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 D. exchange gases  

58. Which one of the following bones does NOT contain paranasal sinuses?  

A. mandible 

B. Frontal  

C. maxilla  

D. sphenoid      

59.The gas exchange that occurs between blood and tissue cells at systemic capillar
ies is called:  

A. pulmonary ventilation  

B. internal respiration  

C. expiration  

D. external respiration  

60. Oxygen binds with haemoglobin in the blood to form:  

A. bicarbonate ion       

B. carbon dioxide  

C. oxyhaemoglobin  

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 D. carbonic acid  

61. Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to:  

A. sneeze  

B. hear  

C. eat  

D. breathe 

 
62. The end products of all foods oxidized in the body are;
A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol
B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide
C. glucose, amino acids and water
D. carbon dioxide, energy and water

63. Which of the following would be employed to correct acidosis?

A. administration of potassium compounds
B. administration of sodium bicarbonates
C. administration of sodium and potassium compounds
D. administration of emetics and antihistamines

64. The terminal nerve fibres of the olfactory nerves are located in the ……….
A. brain
B. oral cavity
C. Eustachian tube
D. nasal cavity

65. The molecule involved in the transport of oxygen within the red cell and that
gives blood its characteristic red colour is called…….

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 A. fibrinogen
B. haemoglobin
C. prothrombin
D. glucagon

66. The inability of the respiratory system to efficiently get rid of carbon dioxide
leads to
A. acidosis
B. alkalosis
C. suffocation
D. apnoea

67. Exchange of gases between the blood and the lungs is called
A. external respiration
B. internal respiration
C. oxygenation
D. oxidation
68. The main function of the nasolacrimal duct is
A. warm air
B. secrete tears
C. drain tears
D. lighten the skull.

69. The act of swallowing is referred to as

A. deglutition
B. ingestion

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 C. mastication
D. assimilation

70. Which of the following statements is true about the trachea?

A. it connects the larynx with bronchi
B. divides at the carina into left and right primary bronchi
C. lined with ciliated mucosa that beats continuously along incoming air
D. Walls are reinforced with C-shaped hyaline cartilage

71. The area between the two lungs occupied by the heart, great vessels, trachea,
right and left bronchi, oesophagus, lymph nodes, lymph vessels and nerves is the
A. hilum
B. mediastinum
C. fissure
D. portal of entry

72. The main function of the pleural cavity is to

A. increase surface area of the alveoli
B. increase the efficiency of oxygen diffusion across capillary wall
C. minimize friction between the viscera and parietal pleura.
D. decrease the elastic recoil of the lung tissue.

73. Gas crosses the respiratory membrane of the respiratory system by

A. diffusion

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 B. osmosis
C. active transport
D. diapedesis

74. During inspiration,

A. the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract
B. the size of the thoracic cavity decreases
C. there is an increase in intrapulmonary volume.
D. diaphragm moves upwards.

75. This is a measure of the stretchability of the lungs effort required to inflate the
alveoli.
A. air resistance
B. compliance
C. surface tension
D. inflation

76. Carbon dioxide combines with haemoglobin as

A. carbaminohaemoglobin
B. oxyhaemoglobin
C. carbon monoxide
D. plasma

77. About 70% is transported in the plasma as

A. carbaminohaemoglobin

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 B. bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
C. oxyhaemoglobin
D. serum

78. The diaphragm is supplied by the

A. phrenic nerves.
B. intercostal muscles
C. kuffer cells
D. olfactory nerves

79.The ʺtanningʺ effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is expose
d to the sun is  due to:  

A. melanin  
B. keratin  
C. sweat  
D.  Langerhans cells  

80. Finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the epidermis are called:   

  A. hair bulbs  

B. dermal papillae  

C. hair follicles  

D.  Meissnerʹs corpuscles     

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81. Nails are composed of:   

A. keratin  
B. carotene  
C. haemoglobin  
D. melanin  

82.The layer of the epidermis in which cells first die because of their inability to 

get nutrients and oxygen is the:  

A. stratum basale  

B. stratum corneum  

C stratum spinosum  

D stratum granulosum

83.Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevent
s it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is:  

A. carotene  

B. mucus  

C. keratin  

D melanin  

84.A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on your foot. This lay
er is:  

A. stratum granulosum  

B. stratum spinosum  

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 C. stratum basale      

D. stratum lucidum  

85. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order:   

1.  stratum basale   

2.  Stratum corneum   

3.  Stratum granulosum   

4.  Stratum lucidum   

5.  Stratum spinosum  

A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4  

B. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1  

C. 2, 3, 5, 1  

D. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2  

86. Lack or absence of melanin results to a condition known as

A. melanosis
B. amelanosis
C. albinism
D. keratism

87. The two main layers of the skin are

A. epidermis and hypodermis

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 B. dermis and hypodermis
C. epidermis and subcutaneous layer
D. epidermis and dermis.

88. Which of these processes is not necessary for the maintenance of a healthy
epidermis
A. keratinization
B. desquamation
C. somatic cell division
D. meiosis

Answer questions 89 to 91 by matching the group of nerve cells in column A with

its appropriate function in column G. Use
Column F
A. Merkel’s cells
B. Pacinian corpuscles
C. Meissner’s corpuscle
D. Phrenic nerve

Column G
89. Sensitive to deep pressure…………….
90. Sensitive to light pressure……………
91. Sensitive to touch on the epidermis …………

92. Which of the following is not a function of the skin

A. stabilizing the skin position
B. providing thermal insulation

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 C. cushioning underlying structures
D. protecting epidermis from harmful effect of ultraviolet rays.

93. A specialised type of gland responsible for the production of earwax is the
A. Ceruminous Gland
B. sebaceous gland
C. serous gland
D. apocrine gland.

94. The portion of the hair that projects above the epidermis is the
A. root
B. shaft
C. hair follicle
D. bulb

95. These are little bundles of smooth muscles attached to hair follicles that
contract to form ‘goose bumps’ on the skin during cold weather
A. arrector pili
B. areolar
C. dense connective tissue
D. hair shaft.

96. The functions of the skin include

I. thermoregulation
II. Protection

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III. Synthesis of vitamin D
IV. Excretion of NaCl

A. I and II only
B. I, II and III only
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV only

97. Which of the following is not a principal organ involved in heat production
A. liver
B. spleen
C. skeletal muscles
D. digestive organs

98. Which action by the nurse in the neonatal unit will best prevent a newborn
from experiencing heat loss secondary to evaporation?
A. Wrapping the infant in warmed blankets
B. Thoroughly drying the child after bathing
C. Positioning the child away from outside windows
D. Positioning the child away from air conditioning vents in the nursery

99. Which action by the nurse in the neonatal unit will best prevent a newborn
from experiencing heat loss secondary to conduction?
A. Wrapping the infant in warmed blankets
B. Thoroughly drying the child after bathing
C. Positioning the child away from outside windows
D. Positioning the child away from air conditioning vents in the nursery

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100. The temperature regulation centre of the brain is located in the
A. dermis
B. hypothalamus
C. spinal cord
D. liver

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