11th Medical NPT03 (23072303) F

NPT-01/XII-Aspire/22042303
NEET TEST SERIES
Test Code: 23072303 Test Date: 15-05-2023

NEET Part Test (NPT-03) Class: 11th Ignite
Student Name: Roll No. :
Time: 3 Hrs. 20 Min. Max. Marks: 720
Instructions for Candidates
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Enrolment No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she
occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both
the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed
upon them.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all
questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10
question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10
attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered as
answer.
5. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
6. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre
incharge.
7. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
8. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the
help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. Use of Pencil
is strictly prohibited
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. Do not use white fluid, fold or make any stray marks on ORS (Answer Sheet).
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
Hard work is the foundation of all achievements & no one ever succeeds without hard work
1
NPT-03/XI-Ignite/23072303
NEET TEST SERIES
Test Code: 22042303 Test Date: 08-05-2022

NEET Part Test (NPT-01) Class: 12th Aspire
Student Name: Roll No. :
Time: 3 Hrs. 20Min. Max.Marks : 720
Instructions for Candidates
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

1. A seat marked with Enrolment No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all questions are
mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for
marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered as answer.
5. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
6. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
7. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
8. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the ORS sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue
/ Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. Do not use white fluid, fold or make any stray marks on ORS (Answer Sheet).
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
2
Subject: Physics
Syllabus: Rectilinear Motion & Vectors

C 
Section-A (Attempt All 35 questions) B

A
1. For the figure – 
D 
  E
C B   
(a) A B  E = 0
  

A (b) C – D  – A
      
(a) A B  C (c) B  E – C  – D
   (d) all of the above
(b) B  C  A   
   7. If vectors P , Q and R have magnitude 5, 12 and 13
(c) C  A  B     
units and P  Q  R , the angle between Q and R is-
  
(d) A  B C = 0  5 
(a) cos 1  
2. Two forces of 4 dyne and 3 dyne act upon a body. The  12 
resultant force on the body can only be –  5
(b) cos 1  
(a) more than 3 dynes  13 
(b) more than 4 dynes
 12 
(c) between 3 and 4 dynes (c) cos 1  
 13 
(d) between 1 and 7 dynes
 2
3. Two vectors have magnitudes 3 unit and 4 unit (d) cos 1  
 13 
respectively. What should be the angle between them   
  
if the magnitude of the resultant is – 8. If A  B  C and | A || B || C | then the angle
(i) 1 unit (ii) 5 unit (iii) 7 unit  
between A and B is-
(a) 180º, 90º, 0º
(a) 45°
(b) 80º, 70º, 0º
(b) 60°
(c) 90º, 170º, 50º
(c) 90°
(d) None of these
(d) 120°
4. A vector is not changed if –
9. Which of the following pair of forces will never give
(a) It is rotated through an arbitrary angle
resultant force of 2 N?
(b) It is multiplied by an arbitrary scale
(a) 2N and 2N
(c) It is cross multiplied by a unit vector
(b) 1N and 1N
(d) It is a slide parallel to itself
      (c) 1N and 3N
5. If | A  B | | A |  | B | , the angle between A and B is (d) 1N and 4N
– 10. The variation of velocity of a particle moving along
(a) 60º straight line is shown in figure. The distance traversed
(b) 0º by the body in 4 seconds is –
(c) 120º
(d) 90º
6. For figure the correct relation is-
3
v
Velocity (m/sec.)
20
10 (b)
t
1 2 3 4 v
Time (sec)
(a) 70 m
(b) 60 m (c)
(c) 40 m t
(d) 55 m v
11. The v-t graph of a linear motion is shown in adjoining
figure. The distance from origin after 8 seconds is –
(d)
4 t
v(m/sec)
5 6 7 8 14. The adjoining curve represents the velocity-time graph

1 2 3 4 t(sec)
of a particle, its acceleration values along OA, AB and
–2 BC in metre/sec2 are respectively-
(a) 18 meters A B
(b) 16 meters 10
Velocity in m/sec
(c) 8 meters
(d) 6 meters
12. From figure the distance travelled in 5 second is –
C
Velocity (m/sec)
20
0 10 20 30 40
10 Time in sec
0 1 2 3 4 5 (a) 1, 0, –0.5
–10 (b) 1, 0, 0.5
–20 (c) 1, 1, 0.5
Time (sec.)
(a) 10m (d) 1, 0.5, 0
(b) 30m 15. Adjacent graph shows the variation of velocity of a
(c) 50m rocket with time. Find the time of burning of fuel from
(d) Zero the graph-
13. Which one of the following curves do not represent y
Velocity in m/s
motion in one dimension- 1000

v
110 x
10  Time (second)
(a) 120
t
(a) 10 sec
(b) 110 sec
(c) 120 sec
(d) cannot be estimated from the graph
4
16. A ball is dropped from certain height on a glass floor

so that it rebounds elastically to the same height. If the 4
v m/sec 
process continues, the velocity -time graph for such a 2
motion would be – 5 6 7 8
0 1 2 3 4 t(sec)
–2
–4
(a) 18 m
(b) 16 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 6 cm
19. The following shows the time-velocity graph for a
moving object. The maximum acceleration will be-
C
60
v(m/sec)
40
(a) (i)
(b) (ii) A B
20
(c) (iii)
D
(d) (iv) 20 30 40 70 t(sec)
17. The following figures show some velocity v versus (a) 1 m/sec2
time t curves. But only some of these can be realised (b) 2m/sec2
in practice. This are- (c) 3m/sec2
(d) 4m/sec2
20. The relation between time t and displacement x is
expressed by x = 2 – 5t + 6t2. What will be the initial
velocity of the particle ?
(a) – 5m/sec
(b) – 3m/sec
(c) 6m/sec
(d) 3m/sec
21. A rocket is projected vertically upwards and its time-
velocity graph is shown in the figure. The maximum
height attained by the rocket is –
(a) Only a, b and d
(b) Only a, b, c 1000
(c) Only b and c
v
(d) All of them (m/sec) 20 t(sec) 120
18. The velocity-time graph of a linear motion is shown
below. The displacement from the origin after 8
seconds is – (a) 1km
(b) 10km
(c) 100km
(d) 60km
5
22. A stone is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a

tower with a velocity u and it reaches the ground x
with a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is – (d)
t
(a) 3u2/g 26. The figure shows the displacement time graph of a
(b) 4u2/g particle moving on a straight line path. What is the
(c) 6u2/g average velocity of the particle over 10 seconds-
(d) 9u2/g 60
x(in metre)
23. A stone is dropped from a bridge and it reaches the 40
ground in 4 seconds. The height of the bridge is – 30
(a) 78.4m 20
(b) 64m 10
(c) 260m 0 2 4 6 8 10 t (sec)
(d) 2000m
(a) 2 m/s
24. The velocity verses time graph of a body moving
(b) 4 m/s
along a straight line is as shown in figure. The ratio of
(c) 6 m/s
displacement and distance covered by body in 5
(d) 8 m/s
second is-
27. A body is projected vertically upward from the surface
v
of the earth, then the velocity time graph is-
2
1 v
O (a)
1 2 3 4 5 t
–1 t
–2
v
(a) 2 : 3 (b) t
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1.5 : 5 v
25. A car starts from rest accelerates uniform for 4 second (c)
and then moves with uniform velocity which of the x-t t
graph represent the motion of the car-
v
x
(d)
t
(a)
28. The engine of a train passes an electric pole with a
t
velocity 'u' and the last compartment of the train
x crosses the same pole with a velocity 'v'. Then the
(b) velocity with which the mid-point of the train passes
t the pole is-
(a) u
x (b) v
(c)
uv
t (c)
2
u 2  v2
(d)
2
6
29. A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90 sec. When

standing on the same escalator now moving, he is
carried in 60 sec. The time he would take to walk up (d) v
the moving escalator will be- t
(a) 27 s 33. The graph between the displacement x and time t for a
(b) 72 s particle moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
(c) 18 s During the interval OA, AB, BC and CD, the
(d) 36 s acceleration of the particle is-
30. A person walks along an east-west street and a graph Y
displacement
of his displacement from home is shown in figure.
His average velocity for the whole time interval is- D
C
A B
40 X
O time
x(metre)
20
OA AB BC CD
O 19
3 6 9 12 15 18 21 (a) + 0 + +
–20 t(sec) (b) – 0 0 +
–40
(c) + 0 – +
(a) 0 m/s
(d) – 0 – 0
(b) 23 m/s
(c) 8.4 m/s 34. Which of the following velocity-time graphs represent
(d) None of these uniform motion ?
v
31. A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity at
half of the height is 10 m/s. The maximum height
(a)
attained by it is (g = 10 m/s2)-
(a) 8 m t
(b) 20 m v
(c) 10 m
(b)
(d) 16 m
32. Which of the following velocity-time graph shows a t
realistic situation for a body in motion ? v
(c)
t
(a) v
v
t
(d)
t
v 1 2
(b)
t 35. A car covers 3 distance with speed 20 km/hr and 3
distance with 60 km/hr. Average speed is-
(a) 40 km/hr
(c) v (b) 50 2 km/hr
t (c) 36 km/hr
(d) 80 km/hr
7
Section-B (This section will have 15 questions. s

Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out of (a)
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more
than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be t
considered for marking.)
s
(b)
36. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3m/s
and then moves with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 t
seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next
s
20 seconds. What is the average velocity of the
(c)
particle ?
(a) 3 m/s t
(b) 4 m/s
(c) 5 m/s s
(d) Zero (d)
37. Acceleration-time graph of a body is shown. The t
corresponding velocity-time graph of the same body 39. Displacement – time graph of a particle moving in a
is- straight line is as shown in figure.
a
t
v
Find the sign of acceleration in the above region
(a) (a) Zero, positive, negative, negative
(b) Positive, zero, negative, positive
t (c) Positive, zero, positive, negative
v (d) Positive, zero, negative, negative
40. A person moves 30 m north, then 20 m east then 30 2
(b)
m south-west . His displacement from the original
position –
t (a) 14 m south-west
v (b) 28 m south
(c) 10 m west
(c)
(d) 15 m East
41. 0.4 î + 0.8 ˆj + c k̂ represents a unit vector, when c
t
v is –
(a) 0.2
(d)
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.8
t
(d) 0
38. Which graph represents the uniform acceleration ?
42. Two forces, F1 and F2 are acting on a body. One force
is double that of the other force and the resultant is
8
equal to the greater force. Then the angle between (b) 18 m/s
the two forces is- (c) 27 m/s
(d) 36 m/s
(a) cos–1 (1/2)
48. If a train travelling at 72 kmph is to be brought to
(b) cos–1 (–1/2) rest in a distance of 200 metres, then its retardation
(c) cos–1 (–1/4) should be
(d) cos–1 (1/4) (a) 20 ms 2
   
43. The vectors A and B are such that | A  B | = (b) 10 ms 2
    (c) 2 ms 2
| A  B | . The angle between vectors A and B is-
(d) 1 ms 2
(a) 90º 49. An object is projected upwards with a velocity of
(b) 60 º 100 m / s . It will strike the ground after
(c) 75 º (approximately)
(d) 45 º (a) 10 sec
44. Given that A  B  C and that C is  to A . Further (b) 20 sec
if | A | | C |, then what is the angle between A and (c) 15 sec
(d) 5 sec
B
50. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches

(a) radian the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is
4
about
 (a) 80 m
(b) radian
2 (b) 40 m
3 (c) 20 m
(c) radian
4 (d) 160 m
(d)  radian
45. The maximum and minimum magnitude of the
resultant of two given vectors are
17 units and 7 unit respectively. If these two
vectors are at right angles to each other, the
magnitude of their resultant is
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 13
46. How many minimum number of coplanar vectors
having different magnitudes can be added to give
zero resultant
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
47. The acceleration ' a' in m / s 2 of a particle is given
by a  3 t 2  2 t  2 where t is the time. If the
particle starts out with a velocity u  2 m / s at t  0 ,
then the velocity at the end of 2 second is
(a) 12 m/s
9
Subject: Chemistry
Syllabus: Atomic Structure
Section-B (Attempt All 35 questions)
51. The electronic velocity in the fourth Bohr’s orbit

of hydrogen is v. the velocity of the electron in the
first orbit would be:
(a) 4v
(b) 16v
(c) v/4
(d) v/16 (a) 𝜆3 = 𝜆1 + 𝜆2
52. The first emission line of Balmer series for H – (b) 𝜆3 =
𝜆1 𝜆2
spectrum has the wave no. equal to: = 𝜆1 + 𝜆2
9𝑅𝐻 (c) 𝜆1 + 𝜆2 +𝜆3 = 0
(a) 𝑐𝑚−1
400 (d) 𝜆23 = 𝜆12 + 𝜆22
7𝑅𝐻
(b) 144
𝑐𝑚−1 56. The energy difference between the states n = 2 and
3𝑅𝐻 n = 3 is E eV, in hydrogen atom. The ionization
(c) 𝑐𝑚−1
4
5𝑅𝐻 potential of H atom is:
(d) 36
𝑐𝑚−1 (a) 3.2 E
53. If the ionization potential for hydrogen atom is (b) 5.6 E
13.6eV, then the wavelength of light required for (c) 7.2 E
the ionization of hydrogen atom would be: (d) 13.2 E
(a) 1911 nm 57. The shortest 𝜆 for the Lyman series is: (gives 𝑅𝐻 =
(b) 912 nm 109678 𝑐𝑚−1)
(c) 68 nm (a) 991 Å
(d) 91.2 nm (b) 700 Å
54. In an atom two electrons move around the nucleus (c) 600 Å
in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the (d) 811 Å
time taken by them to complete one revolution is: 58. The longest 𝜆 for the Lyman series is: (gives 𝑅𝐻 =
(a) 1:4 109678 𝑐𝑚−1)
(b) 4:1 (a) 1215 Å
(c) 1:8 (b) 1315 Å
(d) 8:7 (c) 1415 Å
55. Energy levels A,B,C of a certain atom corresponds (d) 1515Å
to increasing values of energy, i.e., EA < EB < EC. 59. The difference in angular momentum associated
If 𝜆1 , 𝜆2 , and 𝜆3 are the wavelength of radiations with the electron in two successive orbits of
corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and hydrogen atom is:
C to A respectively, which of the following (a) h/π
statements is correct? (b) h/2π
(c) h/2
(d) (n – 1) h/2π
60. For which of the following species, Bohr theory
does not apply?
10
(a) H
(b) He
(c) Li
(d) Be2 
61. The radius of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen
atom is ‘r’. The radius of the 4th orbit would be
(a) 4r (d)
64. How many spectral lines are seen for hydrogen
(b) 16r
atom when electron jump from n2 = 6 n1 = 1 in
(c) 64r
visible region?
(d) 2r
(a) 4
62. The ratio of energy of a photon of 2000 Å
(b) 3
wavelength radiation to that of 6000 Å radiation is
1 (c) 5
(a) 6 (d) 15
(b) 6 65. Which of the following is not isoelectronic with
1
(c) N3-?
3
(d) 3 (a) O2-
63. For three different metals A, B, C photoemission is (b) F-
observed one by one. The graph of maximum (c) Mg2+
kinetic energy versus frequency of incident (d) K+
radiation are sketched as: 66. What is the energy associated with 3rd energy shell
of hydrogen atom?
(a) – 1.51 eV
(b) – 13.6 eV
(c) – 3.4 eV
(d) – 10.2 eV
(a) 67. Rutherford’s experiment which established the
nuclear model of the atom used a beam of
(a) β-particles, which impinged on a metal foil
and got absorbed
(b) γ-rays which impinged on a metal foil and
ejected electron
(c) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil
(b) and got scattered
(d) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil
and got scattered
68. According to Bohr’s theory angular momentum of
an electron in 5th orbit is
5ℎ
(a) 2𝜋
2.5ℎ
(b) 𝜋
(c)
(c) 5th
(d) all of these
69. The potential energy of an electron is given as
11
𝑘𝑍𝑒 2 76. Which of the following electronic transition

(a) − 𝑟2
requires maximum energy in H –atom?
𝑘𝑍𝑒 2
(b) + 𝑟2 (a) 2 → 3
𝑘𝑍𝑒 2 (b) 3 → 4
(c) − 𝑟
(c) 4 → 5
𝑘𝑍𝑒 2
(d) + 𝑟 (d) 1 → 2
70. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum 77. The total number of spectral lines obtained in H –
wavelength is atom spectrum when electron jumps from higher
(a) X –rays orbit (n) to the ground state is given by
𝑛 (𝑛 + 1)
(b) Infra -red (a) 2
(c) Radiowaves 𝑛2
(d) Microwave (b) 2
𝑛 (𝑛 − 1)
71. Kinetic energy of ejected electron in photoelectric (c) 2
effect is given as (d) 2n2
1
(a) ℎ𝑣 − ℎ𝑣0 = 2 𝑚𝑣 2 78. As electron moves away from the nucleus, its
1 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 (a) K.E. decreases but P.E. increases
(b) 2
𝑚𝑣 2 = 𝜆 − 𝜆
0 (b) Both K.E. and P.E. decreases
1 2
(c) 2
𝑚𝑣 = ℎ𝑣0 + ℎ𝑣 (c) Both K.E. and P.E. increases
(d) Both (a) & (b) (d) K.E. increases but P.E. decreases
72. Plum pudding model of atom was given by 79. i. Electromagnetic radiations travel with velocity
(a) J. J. Thomson of light.
(b) Rutherford ii. Electrons will only eject from metal surface
(c) Bohr when incident wavelength (𝜆) is less than the
(d) Newton threshold wavelength (𝜆0).
iii. 1 eV = 1.602 × 10-19 CV
73. Which of the following atom will contain least
The correct statement is/are
number of neutrons? (a) i and ii
(a) 92U235 (b) i, ii and iii
(b) 92U238 (c) i and iii
(c) 93U239 (d) ii and iii
(d) 93U240 80. If a light of some wavelength falls on a metal
74. The only series of hydrogen spectrum which surface having threshold equal to 150 Å then for
appears in the visible region of the electromagnetic ejection of electron wavelength of incident light
spectrum may be
(a) Lyman (a) 120 Å
(b) Balmer (b) 160 Å
(c) Paschen (c) 100 Å
(d) Bracket (d) both (a) & (c)
75. Ratio of radii of first, second and third orbits of H 81. Bohr’s atomic model is
–atoms is (a) Valid only for Hydrogen and Hydrogen like
(a) 1 : 4 : 9 species
1 1 1
(b) 2
: 4
: 9 (b) Unable to explain Zeeman’s effect
(c) 3 : 2 : 6 (c) Unable to explain Stark’s effect
(d) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) All are correct
82. The ratio of radius of 2nd and 3rd Bohr orbit is
12
(a) 3 : 2 (a) 434nm

(b) 9 : 4 (b) 234nm
(c) 2 : 3 (c) 476nm
(d) 4 : 9 (d) 244nm
83. Which of the following properties of atom could 89. The ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom in the
be explained correctly by Thomson model of ground state is 2.18 × 10-18 Jatom-1. The energy
atom? required for the following process He+ (g) → He2+
(a) Overall neutrality of atom (g) + e- is
(b) Spectra of hydrogen atom (a) 8.72 × 10-18Jatom-1
(c) Position of elecrons, protons and neutrons in (b) 8.72 × × 10-19Jatom-1
atom. (c) 4.35 × 10-18Jatom-1
(d) Stability of atom (d) 2.62 × 10-19Jatom-1
84. A 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of 90. The ionization energy of the ground state of
wavelength 400nm. Calculate the number of hydrogen atom is 2.18 × 10-18 J. The energy of an
photons emitted per second by the bulb. electron in its second orbit would be
(a) 20.12 × 1020 S-1 (a) – 1.09 × 10-18 J
(b) 2.012 × 1020 S-1 (b) – 2.18 × 10-18 J
(c) 4.669 × 10-19 S-1 (c) – 4.36 × 10-18 J
(d) 49.69 × 10-19 S-1 (d) – 5.45 × 10-19 J
85. If the wave number of the first line in the Balmer 91. The ratio of energies of photons with wavelengths
series of hydrogen atom is 15000 cm-1, the wave 2000 Å and 4000 Å is
number of the first line of the Balmer series of Li2+ (a) 1/4
is: (b) 4
(a) 1.43 × 104 cm-1 (c) 1/2
(b) 1.66 × 109cm-1 (d) 2
(c) 13.5 × 105cm-1 92. The MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) body
(d) 1.35 × 105 cm-1 scanners used in hospitals operate with 400 MHz
radiofrequency energy. The wavelength
corresponding to this radio frequency is
Section-B (This section will have 15 questions. (a) 0.75 m
Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out (b) 0.75 cm
of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (c) 1.5 m
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions (d) 2 cm
will be considered for marking.) 93. Photon of which light has maximum energy
(a) red
86. The ratio of highest possible wavelength to lowest (b) blue
possible wavelength of Lyman series is
(c) violet
(a) 4/3
(b) 9/8 (d) green
(c) 27/5 94. Threshold wavelength depends upon:
(d) 16/5 (a) Frequency of incident radiation
87. Which of the following lines will have a wave no (b) Velocity of electrons
equal in magnitude to the value of R in the H - (c) Work function
Spectral series (d) None of the above
(a) limiting line of Balmer series 95. Photoelectric effect shows :
(b) limiting line of Lyman series (a) Particle – like behaviour of light
(c) first line of Lyman series (b) Wave – like behaviour of light
(d) first line of Balmer series (c) Both wave – like and particle – like behaviour
88. What is the wave length of a photon emitted of light
during a transition from n = 5 state to the n= 2 (d) Neither wave – like nor particle – like
state in the hydrogen atom behaviour of light
13
96. In photoelectric emission the energy of the emitted

electrons is:
(a) Larger than that of incident photon
(b) Smaller than that of incident photon
(c) Same as that of incident photon
(d) Proportional to intensity of incident light
97. When atoms are bombarded with 𝛼 – particles,
only a few in a million of the 𝛼 – particles suffer
deflections while others pass through deflected.
This is because:
(a) The force of attraction on the 𝛼 – particle by
the oppositely charged electrons is not
sufficient
(b) The nucleus occupies much smaller volume
compared to the volume of the atom
(c) The force of repulsion on the fast moving 𝛼 –
particle small
(d) The effect in the nucleus do not have any
effect on the 𝛼 – particles
98. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment
eventually led to the conclusion that:
(a) Mass and energy are related
(b) Electrons occupy space around the nucleus
(c) Neutrons are buried deep into the nucleus
(d) The point of impact with matter can be
precisely determined
99. Size of the nucleus is :
(a) 10-15 cm
(b) 10-13 cm
(c) 10-10 cm
(d) 10-8 cm
100. The ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is
13.6 eV. The energy required to remove an
electron from the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom is:
(a) 27.2 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 6.8 eV
(d) 3.4 eV
14
Subject: Botany
Syllabus: Biomolecules
Section-A (Attempt All 35 questions)

(b) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(c) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
101. Match the biomolecule in Column I with its
(d) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
function in Column II.
104. Number of carbon in arachidonic acids
Column I Column II
(a) 16
A. Starch (p) Protein synthesis (b) 17
(c) 19
B. Haemoglobin (q) Sex hormone (d) 20
105. Incorrect statement of the following is
C. RNA (r) Storage product (a) Secondary metabolites are useful for man
(b) Secondary metabolites have ecological
D. Steroid (s) Transport of gases
importance [defence action]
(a) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q (c) Secondary metabolites have no special role
(b) A – r, B – s, C – q, D – p for host organism
(c) A – q, B – s, C – p, D – r (d) None
(d) A – p, B – r, C – q, D – s 106. Which one of the following is toxic
102. Match the type of fat in column I with its (a) Vinablastin
source in Column II. (b) Abrin, Ricin
Column I Column II (c) Carotenoids
(d) Codaine
A. Triglyceride (p) Animal hormone 107. % weight of Human body in decreasing order
is:
B. Membrane lipid (q) Feather and leaves (a) Carbon > Oxygen > Nitrogen > Hydrogen
C. Steroid (r) Phospholipids (b) Carbon > Nitrogen > Hydrogen > Oxygen
(c) Oxygen > Carbon > Nitrogen > Hydrogen
D. Wax (s) Fat stores in the (d) Hydrogen > Oxygen > Nitrogen > Carbon
form of droplets 108. The following structure is
(a) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q
(b) A – s, B – r, C – q, D – p
(c) A – s, B – r, C – p, D – q
(d) A – r, B – s, C – p, D – q
103. Match the following
Column I Column II
(a) A nitrogen base
a. Glutamic acid i. Acidic amino acid (b) A nucleoside
(c) A nucleotide
b. Lysine ii. Neutral amino acid
(d) None of the above
c. Valine iii. Basic amino acid 109. Match the incorrect secondary metabolites
(a) Alkaloids Vinablastin, Curcumin
(a) a – i, b – ii, c – iii (b) Terpenoides Monoterpenes, Diterpenes
15
(c) Toxins Abrin, Ricin

(d) Lectins Concanavalin A
110. What is correct for average composition of cell
Average composition of Cell
Components % of Total
Cellular mass
P. Water i. 70 – 90%
Q. Protein ii. 10 – 15%
R. Nucleic Acid iii. 3%
S. Carbohydrates iv. 2%
(a) Primary structure of protein
T. Lipids v. 5 – 7%
(b) Secondary structure of protein
U. Ions vi. 1% (c) Tertiary structure of protein
(d) Haemoglobin structure
(a) P-i, Q-ii, R-iv, S-iii, T-iv, U-v 114. Which of the following is amino acid tyrosine
(b) P-i, Q-ii, R-vi, S-iii, T-iv, U-v
(c) P-i, Q-ii, R-v, S-iii, T-iv, U-vi (a)
(d) P-i, Q-iii, R-v, S-ii, T-iv, U-vi
111. Starch is helical secondary structure, which can
(b)
holds ...... molecules.
(a) Bromine
(b) Iodine
(c) Magnicium
(d) Potasium
112. Nitrogen containing heteropolysaccharide is (c)
(a) Cellulose
(b) Inulin
(c) Chitin
(d) Starch (d)
113. This is the structure of 115. Inorganic catalysts act efficiently at
(a) High temperature
(b) High pressure
(c) Both
(d) None
116. Ribozyme is: -
(a) RNA without sugar
(b) RNA without phosphate
(c) RNA having enzyme activity
(d) RNA with extra phosphate
117. Enzyme catalytic reaction
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 produces …… molecule
per seconds
16
(a) 600 molecules 125. Digestive enzymes are

(b) 600, 0 molecules (a) Hydrolases
(c) 600, 00 molecules (b) Transferases
(d) 600, 000 molecules (c) Oxydoredutases
118. Formation of the end product is (d) Ligases
C6H12O6+O2 → 2C3H4O3 + 2H2O 126. Maximum amount of cellulose occurs in
(a) Multienzymatic reaction (a) Cotton
(b) Single step reaction (b) Coir
(c) Combustion (c) Hemp
(d) A reductive process (d) Flax
119. When coenzyme combines with aponezymes, it 127. The two functional groups characteristic of
is called : - sugars are
(a) Holoenzyme (a) Carbonyl and phosphate
(b) Cofactor (b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Isoenzyme (c) Hydroxyl and methyl
(d) Prosthetic group (d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
120. Carbonic anhydrase accelerate the rate of 128. Which one of the following is not polymeric?
reaction by about (a) Proteins
(a) 200 times (b) Polysaccharides
(b) 6, 00, 000 times (c) Lipids
(c) 10 million times (d) Nucleic acids
(d) 10 billion times 129. Which one of the following statements is
121. Which of the following is/are a physical correct, with reference to enzymes?
process(es)? (a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(a) Change in shape without breaking the (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
bonds (c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
(b) Change in state of matter (d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
(c) Hydrolysis of starch into glucose 130. Which of the following describes the given
(d) Both a and b graph correctly?
122. If p (product) is at a lower level than s
(substrate), the reaction is an
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Endothermic reaction
(c) Spontaneous reaction
(d) Both a and c
123. Optimum temperature is the temperature at
which an enzyme (a) Endothermic reaction with energy A in
(a) Works at its best presence of enzyme and B in absence of
(b) Is not destroyed enzyme
(c) Action is reversed (b) Exothermic reaction with energy A in
(d) In inactivated presence of enzyme and B in absence of
124. Enzymes are basically made of enzyme
(a) Nucleic acid (c) Endothermic reaction with energy A in
(b) Proteins absence of enzyme and B in presence of
(c) Fats enzyme.
(d) Vitamins
17
(d) Exothermic reaction with energy A in

absence of enzyme and B in presence of Section-B (This section will have 15 questions.
enzyme Can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these
131. Which of the following is the least likely to be 15 questions. In case if attempts more than 10
involved in stabilizing the three – dimensional questions, first 10 questions will be considered for
folding of most proteins? marking.)
(a) Hydrogen bond s
(b) Electrostatic interaction
136. The enzyme depicted in the below graph is:
(c) Hydrophobic interaction
(d) Ester bonds
132. One of the major components of cell wall of
most fungi is
(a) Chitin
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Cellulose
(d) Hemicellulose
133. Which one of the following statements is (a) Amylase
wrong? (b) Pepsin
(a) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid (c) Trypsin
(b) Sucrose is a disaccharide (d) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(c) Cellulose is a polysaccharide 137. The curve given below show enzymatic activity
(d) Uracil is a pyrimidine with relation to three conditions (pH,
134. A typical fat molecule is made up of temperature and substrate concentration)
(a) Three glycerol and three fatty acid
molecules
(b) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid
molecule
(c) One glycerol and three fatty acid
molecules.
(d) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
135. Select the option which is not correct with
What do the two axises (x and y) represent?
respect to enzyme action.
x – axis y – axis
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active
(a) Enzymatic activity Temperature
site.
(b) Enzymatic activity pH
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not
(c) Temperature Enzyme Activity
reverse the inhibition of succinic
(d) Substrate concentration Enzymatic Activity
dehydrogenase by malonate
138. The fig. given below shows three velocity
(c) A non – competitive inhibitor binds the
substrate concentration curves for an enzyme
enzyme at a site distinct from that which
reaction. What do the curves a, b and c depict
binds the substrate
respectively?
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of
succinic dehydrogenase
18
The graph indicates

(a) A normal enzyme reaction, b – competitive (a) Cholesterol is an essential dietary
inhibition, c - non - competitive inhibition requirement of khapra beetle
(b) A - enzyme with an allosteric modularo (b) Growth of khapra bettle is directly
added, b-normal enzyme activity, c- proportional to cholesterol concentration
competitive inhibition (c) Cholesterol concentration of 2𝜇g/g diet is
(c) A - enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, b - the optimum level
competitive inhibitor added, c - normal (d) Growth of khapra beetle in inhibited when
enzyme reaction cholesterol concentration exceeds 2𝜇g/g diet
(d) A - normal enzyme reaction, b- 141. Enzyme often has additional parts in their
noncompetitive ihibitor added, c – allosteric structures that are made up of molecules other
inhibitor added than proteins. When this additional chemical
139. The given graph shows the effect of substrate part is an organic molecule, it is called
concentration on the rate of reaction of the (a) Cofactor
enzyme green gram – phosphatase. What does (b) Coenzyme
the graph indicate? (c) Substrates
(d) Both a and b
142. FAD is a coenzyme derived from
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Thiamine
(d) Niacin
143. Basis of life are
(a) Nucleic acids
(a) The rate of enzyme reaction is directly (b) Proteins
proportional to the substrate concentration (c) Nucleoproteins
(b) Presence of an enzyme inhibitor in the (d) Amino acids
reaction mixture 144. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in not
(c) Formation of an enzyme – substrate having
complex (a) Sugar
(d) At higher substrate concentration the pH (b) Glucose
increases. (c) Nitrogen base
140. In an experiment, freshly hatched larvae of an (d) Phosphate group
insect (Khapra beetle) where reared on a basal 145. Statement A: Glycine, an amino acid, comes
diet (complete diet without cholesterol) with under the category of non – essential amino
increasing amounts of cholesterol. Results acids.
obtained are shown in the graph given in the Statement B: The fact behind it is that glycine
table. cannot be synthesized in the body.
19
(a) Statement A and statement B both are true. 148. Which of the following nucleotide sequences
(b) Statement A and statement B both are false. contains 3 pyrimidine bases?
(c) Statement A is true but statement B is false. (a) GATCAATGC
(d) Statement A is false but statement B is true. (b) GCUAGACAA
146. Statement A: Presence of Flavin nucleotide is (c) UAGCGGUAA
essential for the activity of some enzymes. (d) Both b and c
Statement B: Flavin nucleotide is an activator of 149. Tertiary structure of proteins having amino acid
these enzymes. cysteine is achieved through
(a) Statement A and statement B both are true. (a) Ionic bonds
(b) Statement A and statement B both are false. (b) Covalent bonds
(c) Statement A is true but statement B is false. (c) Bisulphite bonds
(d) Statement A is false but statement B is true. (d) Hydrogen bonds
147. Statement A: Enzymes becomes inactive below 150. Heterocyclic ring is found in
minimum temperature. (a) Nitrogen bases
Statement B: The inactivity of the enzymes is (b) Pentiose sugar
due to denaturation. (c) Lecithin
(a) Statement A and statement B both are true. (d) All of these
(b) Statement A and statement B both are false.
(c) Statement A is true but statement B is false.
(d) Statement A is false but statement B is true
20
Subject: Zoology
Syllabus: Biomolecules
Section-A (Attempt All 35 questions)

(a) Chitin – Polymer of glucosamine
151. Glucose is (b) Glycogen – Polymer of glucose
(a) Cane sugar (c) Cellulose – Heteropolysaccharide
(b) Grape sugar (d) Inulin – Homopolysaccharide
(c) Malt sugar 159. Unbranched polymer of glucose is
(d) Triose sugar (a) Starch
152. Pentoses and hexoses are common (b) Glycogen
(a) Oligosaccharides (c) Cellulose
(b) Disaccharides (d) Chitin
(c) Monosaccharides 160. The most abundant carbohydrate in biosphere is
(d) Polysaccharides (a) Starch
153. Which of the following is present in acid (b) Glycogen
insoluble fraction? (c) Cellulose
(a) Glucose (d) Hemicellulose
(b) Fructose 161. Which of the following amino acid is basic in
(c) Alanine nature?
(d) Lipids (a) Glutamic acid
154. Secondary metabolite that is a polymeric (b) Lysine
substance is (c) Valine
(a) Ricin (d) Tyrosine
(b) Monoterpenes 162. Select the false statement regarding proteins.
(c) Curcumin (a) A protein is a heteropolymer and not a
(d) Rubber Homopolymer
155. Choose a secondary metabolite that is a drug as (b) Collagen is the most abundant protein in
well the animal world
(a) Concanavalin A (c) RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in
(b) Vinblastine the whole biosphere
(c) Diterpenes (d) The first amino acid in the polypeptide
(d) Ricin chain is called C – terminal amino acid and
156. Inulin is a polymer of the last amino acid is called N – terminal
(a) Fructose amino acid.
(b) Glucose 163. Mark the incorrect statement about adult human
(c) Mannose haemoglobin
(d) Ribose (a) It is made up of four sub – units.
157. Structural polysaccharide among following is (b) Two sub – units are of 𝛼 – type and two
(a) Glycogen sub – units of 𝛽 – type
(b) Starch (c) It has quaternary structure w.r.t. level of
(c) Inulin organisation
(d) Cellulose (d) It is a simple protein
158. Select the mismatch
21
164. Structural level of organisation in a protein 171. All the following statements are correct about
absolutely necessary for the many biological enzymes, but one is wrong. Select the incorrect
activities is statement.
(a) Primary (a) Almost all enzymes are proteins
(b) Secondary (b) There are some nucleic acids which behave
(c) Tertiary like enzymes and are called ribozymes
(d) Quaternary (c) Enzymes obtained from thermophilic
165. Antibodies that help of fight infectious agents organisms retain their catalytic power at
are high temperatures up to 80 – 90℃.
(a) Polysaccharides (d) Ribozyme was discovered by Altman et al.
(b) Amino acids 172. Study the reaction given below
(c) Proteins 
Enzyme
CO2  H2O   H2CO3
(d) Glucose
In absence of any enzyme this reaction is very
166. Arachidonic acid has
slow, with 200 molecules of H2CO3 being
(a) 20 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon
formed in an hour. In presence of enzyme the
(b) 20 carbons including carboxyl carbon
reaction speeds up dramatically with about 600,
(c) 16 carbons excluding carboxyl carbon
000 molecules formed every second. Select the
(d) 16 carbons including carboxyl carbon
enzyme which has accelerated up the reaction
167. Lecithin is
by 10 million times.
(a) Simple lipid
(a) Ribozyme
(b) Derived lipid
(b) Carbonic anhydrase
(c) Phospholipid
(c) Catalase
(d) Steroid
(d) Peroxidase
168. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
173. Which of the following is not an example of
(a) Lipids are strictly macromolecules
competitive inhibition?
(b) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons including
(a) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
carbonyl carbon
malonate
(c) Oils have low melting point and hence
(b) Sulpha drugs used to control bacterial
remain as oil in winters
pathogens.
(d) Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty
(c) Inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase by
acid
ethanol in methanol poisoning
169. Which one is correct base pairing found in
(d) Inhibition of hexokinase by glucose – 6 –
DNA molecules?
phosphate
(a) Cytosine – Uracil
174. Set of coenzymes that are nucleotides of
(b) Thymine – Guanine
vitamin niacin is
(c) Thiamine – Adenine
(a) NAD, NADP
(d) Cytosine – Guanine
(b) FMN, FAD
170. Which of the following is not a salient feature
(c) ATP, ADP
of B – DNA?
(d) ATP, FAD
(a) One full turn of helical strand involves 10
175. A cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
bases pairs
carboxypeptidase is
(b) Pitch of helix would be 34 Å
(a) Zinc
(c) Diameter of double helix would be 20 Å
(b) Coper
(d) This DNA exhibits left handed coiling
(c) Calcium
22
(d) Magnesium (b) Decreases by half

176. Group of enzymes that helps in catalysing a (c) No effect
transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) (d) First increases than decreases
between a pair of substrates is 181. Monomeric unit is not available for
(a) Oxidoreductases (a) Proteins
(b) Transferases (b) Lipids
(c) Lyases (c) Polysaccharides
(d) Isomerases (d) Nucleic acids
177. Factor(s) which can influence enzyme activity 182. Phosphodiester bond is characteristically found
is/are in
(a) High temperature (a) Deoxyribonucleic acid
(b) pH (b) Chitin
(c) Substrate concentration (c) Phospholipid
(d) All of these (d) Cellulose
178. What would happen to Vmax, in presence of a 183. Dehydration synthesis during peptide bond
competitive inhibitor? formation involves loss of which molecule?
(a) Decreases (a) Amino acid
(b) Increases (b) CO2
(c) Remains the same (c) NH2
(d) First increases then decreases (d) Water
179. Study the following graph of concept of 184. Hydroxymethyl I the side chain of which amino
activation energy given below. Select the acid?
correct option for stages labelled A to D. (a) Tyrosine
(b) Serine
(c) Cysteine
(d) Tryptophan
185. Statement A: Catalytic activity is lost when co
– factor is removed from the enzyme.
Statement B: Co – factor plays a crucial role in
the catalytic activity of the enzyme.
(a) Statement A and statement B both are true.
(b) Statement A and statement B both are false.
Section-B (This section will have 15 questions.

(a) 1 Can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these
(b) 2 15 questions. In case if attempts more than 10
(c) 3 questions, first 10 questions will be considered for
(d) 4 marking.)
180. Enzymes work at optimum temperature. Over a
range of 5 – 40℃, what would happen to the 186. Statement A: Only three types of
rate of enzyme controlled reactions for every macromolecules are found in living system.
10℃ rise in temperature?
(a) The rate doubles itself
23
Statement B: Lipids carbohydrates Nucleic (b) Competitive inhibition – Decrease in Km

Acids and Polysaccharides are macromolecules and Vmax value
found in living system. (c) Heterocyclic ring – Adenine and guanine
(a) Statement A and statement B both are true. (d) Coenzymes – Vitamin derivatives
(b) Statement A and statement B both are false. 191. Select the correct matched based on graph
(c) Statement A is true but statement B is false. given
187. Biocatalysts
(a) Hasten the rate of a given metabolic
conversion
(b) Are mostly nucleic acids
(c) Work at similar temperature and pH optima
(d) Act by altering the equilibrium biomolecule
on
188. Select the correct match between column I and (a) A – proteins
column II. (b) E – lipids
Column I Column II (c) B – nucleic acids
(d) C – Ions
a. Cellulose (i) Storage homo – 192. Which of the following statements is wrong?
polysaccharide (a) Hydrogen bonds are crucial for stabilising
the alpha helical structure in a given protein
b. Chitin (ii) Structural (b) Transient state structure of the substrate
homopolysaccharide formed during an enzymatic reaction is
high energy and unstable
c. Inulin (iii) Branched polymer
(c) Complementary base pairing is applicable
of glucose
to RNA if needed
d. Glycogen (iv) Exoskeleton of (d) Concanavalin A is a lectin which is
arthropods categorised as a primary metabolite
193. Competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
(v) Cannot trap I2 (a) Increases Km value of substrate for that
molecules enzyme
(b) Decreases Km value of substrate for that
Choose the correct option. enzyme
(a) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (c) Decreases Vmax value of the enzymatic
(b) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) reaction
(c) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (d) Increases Vmax value of the enzymatic
(d) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) reaction
189. Select the non -reducing sugar among the 194. Select the option which is mismatched.
following. (a) Transferases – Transfer of specific groups
(a) Galactose other than hydrogen from one substrate to
(b) Fructose another
(c) Glucose (b) Isomerases – Catalyse the rearrangement of
(d) Sucrose molecular structure to form isomers
190. Select the incorrect match. (c) Lyases Catalyse the cleavage of substrate
(a) Lecithin – Phosphoglyceride into two parts, without hydrolysis.
24
(d) Dehydrogenases – Catalyse oxidation – (d) Exothermic reaction with energy A in

reduction reaction involving transfer of absence of enzyme and B in presence of
electrons enzyme
195. Select the correct option which shows the 198. Find the incorrect statement about chitin.
structure of a zwitterion. (a) Occurs in exoskeleton of arthropods and
R fungal walls
(b) Formed of N – acetyl glucosamine
(a)
H+3N CH COOH monomer
R (c) Formed of 𝛽 (1 – 4), glycosidic bond
between monomers
(b)
H+3N CH COO- (d) It is a heteropolymeric polysaccharide
199. Statement A: Competitive inhibitor cloudy
R
resemble the substrate in its molecular
(c)
H2N CH COOH structure.
Statement B: Allostearic inhibitor complex
H2N CH COO- with the substrate the binding site of enzyme.
R (a) Statement A and statement B both are true.
(d)
196. 'A' and 'B' constitute sucrose which is a 'C' (b) Statement A and statement B both are false.
sugar. A, B and C in the above statement
represent.
200. The figure given below shows the conversion
(a) Glucose, fructose, reducing
of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In
(b) Glucose galactose, non – reducing
which one of the four options (1 – 4) the
(c) Galactose, glucose, reducing
components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and
(d) Glucose, fructose, non – reducing
D are identified correctly?
197. Which of the following describes the given
graph correctly?
(a) Endothermic reaction with energy A in

presence of enzyme and B in absence of
enzyme
(b) Exothermic reaction with energy A in A B C D
presence of enzyme and B in absence of
enzyme (1) Potential Transiti Activati Activati
(c) Endothermic reaction with energy A in energy on state on on
absence of enzyme and B in presence of energy energy
enzyme with with out
enzyme enzyme
25
(2) Transiti Potentia Activati Activati

on state l energy on on
energy energy
with – with
out enzyme
enzyme
(3) Activati Transiti Activati Potential
on on state on energy
energy energy
with out with
enzyme enzyme
(4) Activati Transiti Activati potential
on on state on energy
energy energy
with with out
enzyme enzyme
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
26

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NPT-01/XII-Aspire/22042303

NEET TEST SERIES

Test Code: 23072303 Test Date: 15-05-2023

Time: 3 Hrs. 20 Min. Max. Marks: 720

Instructions for Candidates

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

NEET TEST SERIES

Test Code: 22042303 Test Date: 08-05-2022

Time: 3 Hrs. 20Min. Max.Marks : 720

Instructions for Candidates

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so

5 6 7 8 14. The adjoining curve represents the velocity-time graph

motion in one dimension- 1000

16. A ball is dropped from certain height on a glass floor

22. A stone is thrown vertically upwards from the top of a

29. A person walks up a stalled escalator in 90 sec. When

Section-B (This section will have 15 questions. s

Section-B (Attempt All 35 questions)

51. The electronic velocity in the fourth Bohr’s orbit

𝑘𝑍𝑒 2 76. Which of the following electronic transition

(a) 3 : 2 (a) 434nm

96. In photoelectric emission the energy of the emitted

Section-A (Attempt All 35 questions)

(c) Toxins Abrin, Ricin

Q. Protein ii. 10 – 15%

R. Nucleic Acid iii. 3%

(a) 600 molecules 125. Digestive enzymes are

(d) Exothermic reaction with energy A in

The graph indicates

Section-A (Attempt All 35 questions)

(d) Magnesium (b) Decreases by half

Section-B (This section will have 15 questions.

Statement B: Lipids carbohydrates Nucleic (b) Competitive inhibition – Decrease in Km

(d) Dehydrogenases – Catalyse oxidation – (d) Exothermic reaction with energy A in

(a) Endothermic reaction with energy A in

(2) Transiti Potentia Activati Activati

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