Sample Beechjet Oral

 
Documentation – review licenses, medical certificates, and passports
ROE – Aircraft specific only, minimum of two questions per system, scenario based oral with
leading questions to help determine systems knowledge according to the PTS
The applicant can use anything normally available in the cockpit – TM, CRH, OH, Panel Art,
and CRM. 
 
MEMORY ITEMS
 
What are the memory items for: 
a) Engine Fail before V1 – wheel brakes, throttles, speedbrakes, TR’s
b) Engine Fail after V1 – pitch, gear, speed
c) Inadvertent TR deployment after V1 – EMER stow, pitch, gear, speed, thrust lever to
cutoff
d) Emergency Descent – thrust, speedbrakes, autopilot, and bank
e) Pitch Trim Runaway or Failure – Trim Int/AP Disengage (red switch) push and hold
 
POWERPLANT
 
What type of engines are on the Beechjet?
            Pratt and Whitney JT15D-5
 
What is the maximum thrust, static and continuous?
            2965 and 2900
 
What are the max N1 and N2 speeds?
            104% N1 and 96% N2
 
What is the primary instrument to determine thrust setting?
N1, the pilot needs to set published N1 (as a minimum) to ensure planned performance
data
 
What are the ITT limits for starting and normal operation?
            550 - 600 for 4 seconds, 600 – 700 for 2 seconds, takeoff is 700, max continuous is 680
 
What are the starter duty limitations?
            30 seconds on 5 minutes off, 30 seconds on 15 minutes off, 30 seconds on 60 minutes off
 
What items are on the accessory gearbox?
            DC starter generator, N2 tach generator, Oil pump, fuel pump, hydraulic pump, and
HMU
 
 
 
What does the EFC do (4)?
            Engine sync, minimum ground idle, works in conjunction with the HMU for start, and
compressor surge bleed valve
 
Scenario, Your flying along and you get an Engine Fire…You have the airplane.
What are the memory items for and engine fire?
            Throttle idle, throttle cutoff, engine fire switch push, either bottle armed switch push
 
What four things happen when you push the switchlight?
            Opens hydraulic and fuel valves, trips generator, and arms the bottles
 
(At this point review Engine Fire checklist and go over steps).
Why engine sync off?
            Don’t want to drag down the good engine; left is master, right is slave
 
Why boost pump off when the engine is already shut down?
            Don’t feed the fire, conservative approach since the fuel valve should be closed (Note the
engine shutdown or failure in flight checklist places boost pump to ON and fuel valve is
open to prevent damage to engine driven pump)
 
What would you do if you developed an imbalance?
Remember to go to step 13 of the checklist and turn the boost pump back on or you’ll
never correct a fuel imbalance
 
FUEL SYSTEM
 
What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff and landing?
            100 lbs and 300 lbs
 
(Open up fuel schematic in checklist)
How much fuel does the Beechjet hold, both in pounds and gallons?
            733 gallons and 4912 pounds (depending on fuel density)
 
What is the difference between the wing tanks and the fuselage tanks?
            Wet wing and metal tank for forward fuselage vs. bladder in the mid-fuselage and aft
tanks, aft tanks also have foam for sloshing
 
What is the normal fuel sequence?
            Burns from aft filler, aft fuselage, forward fuselage, mid fuselage, then wings
 
Which tank is depleted first?
            Aft filler
 
When does the transfer pumps run?
            When a generator is online and there is fuel in the mid fuselage tanks
 
What controls fuel transfer?
            Pilot float valves in outer wing tanks (use example of toilet bowl or cork)
 
Do the transfer pumps turn off?
            No, they continue to run at constant pressure and zero flow by closing the filler valve
 
If a float valve is inoperative, what other sources of protection do you have to prevent too much
fuel being put into the wings tanks?
            Sniffle valves to relieve pressure(5.0 psi) and the overpressure switch at 3.5 psi should
turn off the transfer pump as long as the switch is in ON or AUTO
 
How does fuel get from the wingtips to the fuel collector chamber?
            Gravity through the flapper valves
 
How does fuel get from the collector chamber into the engines?
            Motive flow primarily, with a back up from the boost pumps
 
What provides Motive flow for the primary jet pump?
            The engine driven fuel pump
 
What (4) times do the boost pumps come on automatically?
             Pressure less than 5.0 psi, starting, crossfeed, and fuel feed light (77 pounds)
 
AVIONICS
 
You have a red boxed “IAS” on your PFD, what does that mean?
            Your ADC has failed
 
What other red boxed flags would appear if your ADC has failed?
            ALT and VS
 
What action would you take if you had an ADC failure?
            Reversionary switch
 
You have a red boxed MAG on your MFD, what does that mean?
            Displayed heading failed due to AHRS failure. 
 
What other red boxed flags would appear if your AHRS has failed?
            ATT
 
What action would you take if you had an AHRS failure?
            Reversionary switch
 
What does a yellow USTB on the MFD mean?
            Radar stabilization has failed
 
COMPREHENSIVE ORAL SCENARIO
 
SCENARIO:  You just missed off of the GPS Runway 6 at KTEB and are flying the published
missed.  You are 5 miles from PATRN, weather is solid between 700 AGL to 3000 MSL with
icing reported.  You have smoke in the cockpit and it smells electrical – You have the aircraft.
 
What are the memory items for Electrical Fire or Smoke (reemphasize to clients where checklist
is, in FIRE tab, not under electrical)?
            O2 masks, goggles, MIC, SPKR, INTPH, smoke removal is necessary (manual
pressurization control), isolate if known, if unknown battery to EMER, and master
generators to EMER.
 
After the memory items, what (3) DC buses are still powered?
            Hot battery bus, emergency bus, and the standby bus
 
How much time do you have in this situation (Emergency Electrical Power)?
            30 minutes is only on the standby battery, main battery is a 40 amp hour battery, depends
on how many items you have on, recommend you hack the clock and minimize load on
emergency bus.  .
 
How can you extend battery life?
            Turn off lights; room lights specifically on HBB, cabin sign, flood lights, and map lights -
not a lot of options (reference pages E-44 and E-47)
 
(Step 10 in the checklist says Pitch trim –EMER). What happened to your Normal Pitch trim? 
Where is the Normal Pitch trim powered from?  Where is the EMER Pitch trim powered from?
Normal Pitch trim is powered from RH Load bus and now the RH Load bus is
unpowered.  Emergency pitch trim is on the Emergency bus
 
(Step 11 in the checklist says Icing Environment –Avoid).  What ice protection did you lose?
            Engines fail open, wings fail closed, don’t have H stab, no windshield heat, etc.
 
What is electrically heated?
            T0 probe, AOA vanes, Pitot tubes, static ports, H stab, H stab horn, and windshield
 
What is pneumatically heated?
            T1 probe, Engine inlet, bullet nose, stator vanes, wings
 
(Step 17 in the checklist says Flaps- will not extend).  Why not? 
            The flaps require electrical actuation even though you do have hydraulic pressure
 
How much will you have to increase your Vref speed for a no-flap approach?
            Vref +20 KIAS
 
How much is the distance increased for a zero flap landing?
            40%, note is at bottom of checklist
 
(Step 19 in the checklist says Landing Gear- Alternate Gear extension).  Why is that?
            The gear requires electrical actuation even though you do have hydraulic pressure. 
 
(Go to Alternate Gear Extension on page E-58)
Why do you pull the landing gear circuit breaker? (Checklist Step 2)
            Sequencing switches are electrical
 
What does the (SYSTEMS) mean in regard to CB’s? (Checklist Step 2)
            Tells you which panel the CB is located on to help narrow the hunt
 
Why 150kts max when normal gear extension limit is 200 kts? (Checklist Step 3)
            Gear loading for the nose gear, gravity falls backward
 
What does pulling the emergency landing gear down handle do? (Checklist Step 4)
            Releases 5 uplocks – 3 for the gear and the 2 main gear door uplocks, remember to push
handle down per placard
 
Why do you push it back in? (Checklist Step 7)
            To reset the mechanical door uplocks in preparation for the next step in checklist
 
Why do you pull the emergency door close handle? (Checklist Step 8)
            Raises the doors using nitrogen pressure, remember doors hang below gear
 
Why do you push it back in? (Checklist Step 10)
To save nitrogen pressure, otherwise may bleed off.  Also you need to reposition the valve
so nitrogen is available for emergency braking. 
 
(Returning back to the scenario)
What FLIGHT instruments will you have remaining while on Emergency electrical power?
            Peanut gages (standby attitude, airspeed, and altimeter), whiskey compass
 
What NAV instruments will you have remaining while on Emergency electrical power?
            Pilot’s SDU, No. 1 RTU/Nav
 
What COMM instruments will you have remaining while on emergency electrical power?
            No. 1 RTU/Comm
 
What are the 5 hydraulically operated components and which ones did you lose?
            SB’s, TR’s, flaps, gear, and brakes.  You lost all of them except for brakes.  But you
did                        lose anti-skid capability. 
 
What other in-flight situation would require placing both master generators to EMER?
            Loss of both generators, steps are identical if neither generator comes back (E-45)
 
 
What situations on the ground would require placing both master generators to EMER?
            Starter fails to cutout, Emergency evacuation, and ditching
 
HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
 
What is normal hydraulic pressure?
            Green arc, 1350 – 1550 psi
 
Why is engine bleed used in the hydraulic system?
            15 psi to prevent foaming in the reservoir
 
How much hydraulic fluid does the reservoir hold?
            1.1 gallons
 
With the gear handle UP, three green lights extinguished, and a red light in the handle, what does
this mean?
            At least one of the gear doors did not close
 
We’ve just taken off and can’t raise the gear, what is the problem?
            Failed squat switch, refer to E-59 in checklist for all squat switches
 
What are the (4) different modes of braking?
            Manual – pilot pumps fluid to the brakes i.e. setting parking brake when no hydraulics
available, Power brake – hydraulics w/o anti-skid , Anti-skid – everything working, and
Emergency – using the nitrogen bottle
 
What is the purpose of the accumulator?
            Prevent surges
 
When should the hydraulic pressure relief valve start to open?
            Starts at 1650 psi, fully open at 1850 psi
 
SCENARIO: Your flying along and you show 1900 PSI on the hydraulic gage….You have
the airplane. 
 
What would you do?
            Refer to checklist and HYD PRESS REL switch – GUARD UP/REL
 
When it comes time to lower the flaps and gear, what would you do?
            Must be zero flap, alternate gear extend, and use emergency brakes since checklist tells
you not to move switch back to NORM if above 1850 psi
 
How long will this increase your landing distance?
            90%  (40% increase for no flaps and 50% increase for Emergency brakes)
 
 
When would you perform Steps 2 and 3 in the High Hydraulic pressure checklist?
            When ever the ORIGINAL Hydraulic pressure was below 1850 PSI.
 
When does the “Hydraulic Press Lo” annunciator illuminate?
            Below 750 +/- 100 psi for more than 15 seconds
 
Why the time delay?
            To allow for drop in pressure when actuating multiple hydraulic components (high
demand), otherwise it would be a nuisance light
 
ENVIRONMENTAL/OXYGEN
 
What is the max pressure differential?
            9.1 psi +/- 0.1
 
What is the difference between the manual pressurization control and the cabin dump valve?
            CDV dumps to aircraft altitude and manual press control is 12,500 +/- 1500 feet
 
What causes a BLD AIR DCT FAIL light?
Either a bleed air duct rupture in the ACM or a bleed air leak in the wing anti-ice
manifold
 
Looking at the checklist, what does it do?
            Turns off both the cabin pressure source (ACM) and wing anti-ice, tries to troubleshoot
and isolate the cause of the problem
 
What does a door unlocked light mean?
            Either the entrance or aft fuselage door is not locked
 
Why do you want to reduce pressure to zero if able?
            Same reason you want to land unpressurized, don’t want the door to blow out and
damage or injure someone.  Example of 4’ X 2’ door, at 1 psi equals 1152 lbs of pressure
on the door surface. 
 
When will the CABIN PRESS LO come on?
            9,500 +/- 500 feet
 
When will the passenger masks automatically deploy?
            12,500 +/- 500 feet, will deploy manually with PASS OXY knob
 
What causes the AIR COND FAIL annunciator to come on?
            Overpressure of 53 psig or overheat 400 degrees Fahrenheit
 
Is the aircraft still being pressurized?
            Yes
 
Can you change the temperature of the air coming into the cabin in EMER?
            Reduce thrust but it’s still hot
 
What is the difference between NORM, 100%, and EMER on the pilot masks?
            NORM - up to 30,000 mix on demand, to FL 350 100% on demand, above FL 350 100%
at positive pressure
            100% - 100% on demand below FL 350, positive pressure above
            EMER – 100% at positive pressure at all altitudes
 
FLIGHT CONTROLS
 
How are the primary flight controls actuated?
            Mechanically
 
When do the speedbrakes automatically retract?
            Flaps beyond 10 and throttles advanced to takeoff power
 
When do you get a flap asymmetry?
            5-7 degrees difference (6.5) between the main flaps, no asymmetry protection for the aft
flaps
 
What happens to the flaps?  Can they be moved?
            They stop and can’t be moved
 
How does the rudder boost detect asymmetric engine thrust?
            Compares engine bleed pressure
 
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
 
What are the aircraft power sources?
            24V Battery 40 amp hour, 28V DC 400 amp generators, GPU 28V and 1000-1500 amps
 
What happens to the #2 inverter when DC power on the RH load bus fails?
            The #2 inverter will be powered by the Emergency bus
 
 Additionally, if the #1 inverter fails, what would happen?
            The #2 Inverter (which is already powered from the Emergency bus)  picks up the
primary 115V and 26V primary buses and then sheds the primary shed buses, the
secondary buses are unpowered.
 
What have you lost if the AC BUS SHED light is on?
            Flap position indicator, L and R oil pressure, and flap asymmetry protection
 
What is the minimum voltage for battery start?
            22 volts
 
What are the single generator operating limits?
            400 amps (below 29,000 ft), 440 in icing, 525 transient, 280 up to FL 410, and 260 above
FL410
 
What protections does the GCU provide (5)?
            Overvoltage and undervoltage, feeder-fault (ground fault), controls start cycle, parallels
generators, and disconnects the GPU relay is either generator is brought online
 
PERFORMANCE/WT AND BAL
 
What is the max ramp, max takeoff, max landing, and max zero fuel weights?
            16,300 lbs (16,500 lbs with modification), 16,100 lbs (16, 300lbs with modification),
15,700 lbs, and 13,000 lbs
 
What (5) factors may limit takeoff weight?
            Available runway length and ambient conditions, Obstacle clearance requirements
(climb gradients), destination landing weight limit, brake energy, and approach climb
 
What does ECS OFF for takeoff provide you?
            A little more thrust (about 0.2 to COF), note cannot use engine anti-ice when ECS OFF
is planned
 
What is the Standard IFR climb gradient (TERPS)?
            3.3% or 200 feet per nautical mile (This is the requirement to clear obstacles in IMC)
            Assume Standard IFR climb unless a SID tells you otherwise.
 
If you lost an engine during T/O, which performance chart would tell you whether or not you
could make these climb gradient requirements?
            Second segment climb
 
What speed would you perform a S.E. climb out?
            V2
 
To what altitude would you hold that speed?
            Till clear of all obstacles, (400 feet is for Part 25 certification, if no obstacles, then 400
feet is fine)
 
How can you depart an airport if you can’t achieve the Standard IFR climb gradient?
You can depart an airport legally as long as you are meeting certification requirements
(1.6% Net) AND can “see and avoid” all obstacles in VMC.  Refer to “Max T/O wt to
achieve T/O climb requirements”.
 
 
 
 
 
What performance chart would you use if you lost an engine on go around/missed approach?
 Approach climb gradient chart (F-62).  Be sure the client knows that they must meet
Standard IFR climb gradient requirements (3.3% or 200’/NM) on missed approaches in
order to clear obstacles (IMC).  If it is VMC, then they only need to meet certification
requirements (2.1%) and “see and avoid” all obstacles.  Refer to “Max T/O wt to
achieve Approach climb requirements”. 
 
What speed would you perform a S.E. go-around/missed approach?
 
            Vac = Vref + 22 kts
 
To what altitude would you hold that speed?
            Till clear of all obstacles, refer to MSA
 
What would be the most appropriate checklist for this S.E. missed approach?
            “Approach climb” checklist located behind the “OPER” tab.  This is a good time to
emphasize what is behind the “OPER” tab (abnormal approaches and landings). 
 
What is the difference between the Approach climb gradient chart and the Balked landing climb
gradient chart?
Balked landing is a two-engine climb chart/ Approach climb is a single engine climb
chart
 
Notice that the 2nd Segment Climb chart refers to “Net” climb gradient.  What does that mean?
“Net climb gradient” is the terminology (per Part 25) to describe the performance
expected by the average LINE pilot.  Remember that a TEST pilot demonstrated an
expected V1 cut/minimum climb performance (2.4% “Gross” climb) for airplane
certification on a standard day.  Due to the fact that the average line pilot has an
unexpected V1 cut, it is unlikely that this LINE pilot will be able to achieve the same
performance under the same conditions.  Therefore, Part 25 requires a 0.8% reduction in
performance (as compared to the TEST pilot) known as “Net Climb gradient”.  For
example, if the LINE pilot can achieve 4.0% “Net” climb gradient on a given day
according to the 2nd Segment Climb chart, then the TEST pilot would be able to achieve
4.8% under the same conditions. 
           
What is the difference between Landing brake energy and Accelerate stop brake energy?
            8.1 vs. 14.8 million ft pounds, fuse plugs for landing vs. complete brake failure in the
event of a rejected takeoff, for quick turns must refer to chart for turnaround times
 
FOR INITIAL CREWS AND TYPE RIDES:
 
DIFFERENCES
 
What type engines are on the Diamond?
            Pratt and Whitney JT15D-4 for 2500 lbs of thrust, thrust reversers are optional, slightly
higher ITT limit (720) and N2 limit (97)
 
When does ignition come on for start on the Diamond?
            Thrust lever over the hump, no EFC, only HMU
 
What does the Branson fuel modification do on the Diamond?
            Added an extra fuselage tank (97 gallons) and allows fuel from left wing tank into the
fuselage tank and auto shutdown when aft fuselage tank is full, only on ground
 
How many fuel transfer pumps does the Diamond have?
            One pump in aft fuel tank, but two switches
 
Where would you find the annunciator lights on the Diamond?
            On the overheard panel as opposed to the instrument panel
 
How do the AC electrical systems differ on the Diamond vs. the BE-400?
            MU-300 has many more items driven from AC, including items powered from the
secondary AC busses
 
Where is the rudder boost switch on the Diamond?        
            It doesn’t have one; it has a separate yaw damper tab on rudder, you CAN takeoff and
land with yaw damper engaged on this aircraft
 
What is different about the oxygen system on the Diamond?
            Two independent systems, passenger oxygen is from chemical generators (5 total each
supplying two masks) good for approx 15 minutes and an additional walkaround bottle
 
How are the flap settings different on a Diamond?
            No 20 flap detent, gear horn cannot be silenced with flaps greater than 10 and gear not
down and locked
 
Does the Diamond have an automatic flap delay for the H-stab system?
            No, you must manually time for 15 seconds after flaps at 10 before going to 30, there is
also an H-stab Deice back up switch that requires manual operation for 30 seconds ON
every 2 minutes
 
What is the maximum operating altitude of the Diamond?
            FL410