SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC : JR AIIMS SUPER 60 DATE: 19-09-2022
Sub: BOTANY NEET WEEKEND TEST – 11 Max.Marks: 720
Guidelines:
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10

BOTANY (2) Calotropis and Sunflower

SECTION – A (3) China rose and mustard
1. The modified underground stems are (4) Sunflower and mustard
meant for storage for food in all of the 5. Which component of the embryo, present
given, except in the germinating seed give rise to the
(1) Potato (2) Colocasia stem?
(3) Turmeric (4) Euphorbia (1) Radicle (2) Plumule
2. Among the list of some plants (3) Endosperm (4) Aleurone layer
Grapevine, Pumpkins,Pea,Cucumber, 6. Select the incorrect match
Watermelon,Bougainvillea, China (1) Scutellum Maize
rose, Rose, Cactus (2) Aleurone layer Pea
How many of them show stem tendrils ? (3) Endospermic seeds Castor
(1) Three (2) Four (4) Fruit wall Pericarp
(3) Five (4) Two 7. Match the columns :
3. Which of the following features is Column-I Column-II
incorrect for phylloclade ? a. Drupe i. Coconut
(1) It is flattened in Opuntia b. Fibrous ii. Mango
(2) Green in colour and photosynthetic in mesocarp
nature c. Coleoptile iii. Muliathi
(3) Modified fleshy cylindrical structure d. Medicinal iv. Maize
(4) Has large number of stem thorns (1) a(i), b(iv),c(iii), d(ii)
4. Find odd one pair of plants w.r.t (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
phyllotaxy (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) Alstonia and Nerium (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

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8. The floral formula (2) Potato and ginger
(3) Onion and carrot
% K( 5)C1+ 2+( 2) A( 9)+1 G1
; represents, which (4) Amorphophallus and sweet potato
of the given plant families? 14. Select the correct statement
(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae (1) A sterile stamen is called staminate
(3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae (2) Free stamens in a flower is called
9. Racemose inflorescence is found in synanadrous condition
(1) Pea (2) Solanum (3) Stamens are united into two bundles
(3) Calotropis (4) Datura in pea
10. Select the pair of plants where gynoecium (4) Asterile pistil is called pistillate
is situated in centre and other parts of 15. Which of the following is correctly
flowers are located on the rim of the matched?
thalamus, almost at the same level as the (1) Formation of
Axile placentation
ovary. false septum
(1) Plum and Peach (2) Presence of true Marginal
(2) Guava and Cucumber septum placentation
(3) Ray floret and disc floret of sunflower (3) Absence of Free central
(4) Brinjal and Tomato septum placentation
11. Find odd one w.r.t gram seed (4) Presence of Parietal
(1) Presence of testa and tegmen ventral suture placentation
(2) Embryonal axis with plumule and 16. How many features are related to the
radical mango fruit?
(3) Endosperm as food storing tissue a. Simple fruit
(4) Cotyledons as food storing parts b. True fruit
12. Cymose inflorescence is characterized by c. False fruit
all, except. d. Edible mesocarp
(1) Main axis terminates into a flower (1) Four (2) Three
(2) Growth of floral axis is limited (3) Two (4) One
(3) Flowers are born in a basipetal order 17. Coconut is fibrous drupe because it has
(4) Younger flowers are arranged towards (1) Fibrous epicarp and stony endocarp
the apex (2) Fibrous mesocarp and stony epicarp
13. The edible underground stems are (3) Fibrous endocarp and stony seed coat
(1) Potato and tomato (4) Fibrous mesocarp and stony endocarp

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18. Which of the following statements is not 23. In floral formula, % stands for
true for maize seed ? (1) Bisexual flower
(1) Seed coat is thick and tough (2) Actinomorphic flower
(2) Seed is endospermic (3) Zygomorphic flower
(3) Sheath of the radicle is coleorhiza (4) Asymmetrical flower
(4) Seed coat is fused with fruit wall 24. Bisexual and zygomorphic flower,
19. Underground stem of which plant pair vexillary aestivation of corolla,
help them to spread to new niches ? diadelphous androecium and superior
(1) Strawberry and ginger ovary is a characteristic of
(2) Potato and turmeric (1) Solanaceae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Grass and strawberry (3) Fabaceae (4) Liliaceae
(4) Chrysanthemum and Pistia 25. Modified leaves are present in all except
20. Identify the ornamental plant of Fabaceae (1) Silk cotton (2) Pitcher plant
family ? (3) Venus fly trap (4) Cacti
(1) Gloriosa (2) Petunia 26. Choose the incorrect match
(3) Sesbania (4) Lupin (1) Zygomorphic flowers -pea ,gulmohur,
21. Match the following and choose correct (2) Asymmetric flower –canna
option. (3) Inferior ovary – pea,rose
Group-A Group-B (4) Hypogynous flowers – mustard, china
A) Aleurone layer i) Without fertilization rose
B) Parthenocarpic ii) Endosperm 27. Statement I:Veins provide rigidity to leaf
fruit lamina.
C) Ovule iii) Free carpels Statement II:Shape of lamina is nearly
D)Apocarpus iv) Seed
same in different leaves
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(3) Statement I incorrect but II is correct
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) Statement I is correct but II is
22. How many them from the following
incorrect
plants belong to fabaceae ?
28. Pulvinus leaf base is found in
Brinjal,lotus,sem,rose,lupin,arhar,orchid,
(1) Asteraceae members
pea,mango,muliathi,china rose
(2) Resinous plant
(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) Monocot plant
(3) 8 (4) 10
(4) Leguminous plants
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29. Leaves of most monocotyledons have (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
which type of venation : and Reason is correct explanation of
(1) Reticulate (2) Parallel Assertion
(3) Furcate (4) both (1) and (2) (2) Both Assertion and reason are true,
30. When margin of thalamus grow upward but Reason is not the correct explanation
enclosing the ovary completely and of Assertion
getting fused with it, the other parts of (3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
flower arise from above the ovary,then (4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
this type of flower is called SECTION – B
(1) Hypogynous (2) Epigynous 36. Select the wrong statement .
(3) Perigynous (4) Incomplete i)In mustard and Argemone ovary is one-
31. When stamens are attached to the tepal, chambered but it becomes two chambered
due to the formation of the false septum
then condition is called.
ii) Cassiahasvalvate aestivationin petal
(1) Episepalous (2) Epipetalous
iii) Sunflower has half inferior ovary in
(3) Epiphyllous (4) All of these
disc florets
32. Polyadelphous condition found in
iv) Flowers are arranged in basipetal
(1) China rose (2) Pea
order on the floral axis in Pea
(3) Citrus
v) Epipetalous stamens are found in
(4) Salvia and mustard
brinjal.
33. Radicle enclosed in a sheath which is
(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
called
(2) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
(3) (iii), and (v)
(3) Radical sheath (4) Both (a) and (b)
(4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
34. Non-endosperm seed is generally
37. Match the column
characteristics of
Column-I Column-II
(1) Dicotyledonous plant
A) Marginal placentation i) Sun flower
(2) Monocotyledonous plant
B) Parietal placentation ii) Pea
(3) Gymnospermic plant
C) Axile placentation iii) Mustard
(4) both (1) and (2)
D) Basal placentation iv) China rose
35. Assertion ; In Calotropis and Guava
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
plants, opposite type of phyllotaxy is
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
present.
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
Reason : In opposite type, a single leaf
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
arises at each node in alternate manner.
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38. Modifications of leaf for : (1)Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is
correct
(4) Statement I is correct but II is
incorrect
(1) A-support, tendril, B-protection,
41. The term used for fused petals is
spines, C-storage, fleshy leaves
(1) Gamopetalous (2) Polypetalous
(2) A-protection, spines, B-support,
(3) Gamophyllous (4) Syngenesious
tendril, C-storage, fleshy leaves
42. Monoadelphous term is used to indicate
(3) A-storage, fleshy leaves, B-protection,
(1) Anthers fused in a single bundle
spines, C-support, tendril
(2) Filaments of stamens fused in a single
(4) A-support, spines, B-protection,
bundle
tendril, C-storage, fleshy leaves
(3) Both anthers and filaments fused in a
39. Identify the wrong statements for seed
single group
from given statements.
(4) Only one whorl of stamens in a flower
i) The embryo is made up of an
43. What type of placentation is seen in
embryonal axis and one cotyledons in
gram and two cotyledons in pea Sweet pea?
ii) The ovules after fertilization, develop (1) Free central (2) Marginal
into seeds (3) Basal (4) Axile
iii) The seed coat has two layers, the 44. Floral formula fails to indicate
outer is testa and the inner is tegmen (1) epiphylly and epipetaly
iv) The hilum is a scar on the seed coat (2) floral symmetry
through which the developing seeds were (3) cohesion of stamens and carpels
attached to the fruit (4) aestivation and placentation
v) Seeds of castor is non-endospermic 45. Which of the following plants is used to
while seeds of bean, gram and pea are extract the blue dye ?
endospermic (1) Trifolium (2) Indigofera
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iv) and (v) (3) Lupin (4) Cassia
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (v) 46. In Bougainvillea, thorns are the
40. Statement I:Corolla may be bell- modifications of
shaped,funnel shapedor wheel shaped (1) stipules (2) adventitious root
Statement II :Valvate aestivation is found (3) stem (4) leaf
in Calotropis.
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47. How many plants among Indigofera, (c) It acts as a wedge to force open cracks
Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, in the soil into which the earthworm may
groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have crawl
stamens with different lengths in their (d) The prostomium is sensory in function
flowers ? In the above the correct statements are
(1) Three (2) Four (1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d
(3) Five (4) Six (3) b, c and d (4) a, b, c and d
48. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers 52. Assertion (A): Earthworms are known as
of ‘friends of farmers’.
(1) Brassica (2) Trifolium Reason (R) : They make burrows in the
(3) Pisum (4) Cassia soil and make it porous which helps in
49. The standard petal of a vexillary respiration and penetration of the
aestivation is also called developing plant roots.
(1) Pappus (2) Vexillum (1) Both A and R are correct and R
(3) Corona (4) Carina explains A
50. Go through the following matches (2) Both A and R are correct but R
i) Mint – Stolon doesn’t explain A
ii) Banana– Sucker (3) A is correct but R is false
iii) Zamikand – Storage stem (4) Both A and R are false
iv) Pine apple – Offset 53. Which of the following statement is
Which of these are correct ? correct with respect to earthworm?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) only (1) It has eyes and exhibit image
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) only formation
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (2) It has no light sensitive photoreceptor
(4) All are correct cells
ZOOLOGY (3) It has no eyes but does possess light
SECTION – A sensitive receptor cells
51. Read the following statements with (4) It has light sensitive receptors all over
respect to prostomium of earthworm the body
(a) It is the first segment of earthworm 54. Earthworm possesses
(b) It is lobe like and serves as a covering (1) special respiratory organs
for the mouth (2) uric acid as nitrogenous waste
(3) nerve ring that encircles pharynx
(4) ventral unpaired nerve cord
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55. Which of the feature is common in both 60. Tergites, sternites and pleurites of
male and female cockroaches? cockroach are
(1) Wings that extend beyond the tip of (1) podomeres (2) sclerites
the abdomen (3) metameres (4) fomites
(2) A pair of short, threadlike anal styles 61. Match the following
(3) Boat shaped 7th sternum Column-I Column-II
(4) A pair of jointed filamentous (A) Blood (i) Binding of worms
structures, anal cerci glands during copulation
56. During mating in earthworm, one (B) Calciferous (ii) Formation of
earthworm’s male genital apertures glands spermatophores
juxtapose the ………. of another (C) Prostate (iii) Neutralization of
earthworm to release the spermatophores glands humic acid
(1) female genital aperture (D) Accessory (iv) Synthesis of
(2) spermathecal openings glands haemoglobin
(3) openings of seminal vesicles (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(4) dorsal pores (2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
57. Which of the following holds the (3) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
embryos of earthworm? (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(1) Clitellum (2) Oviduct 62. In earthworm, the … (a) … shaped setae,
(3) Cocoon (4) Spermatheca embedded in the … (b) … pits in the …
58. Identify the correct combination from the (c) … of each segment
following in earthworm In the above, (a), (b) and (c) are
Column-I Column-II (1) (a)-S; (b)-endodermal; (c)-middle
th th
(1) Anterior loops 10 and 11 segments (2) (a)-V; (b)-epidermal; (c)-proximal
th th
(2) Lateral hearts 12 and 13 segments (3) (a)-V, (b)-endodermal; (c)-proximal
th th
(3) Accessory glands 17 and 18 segments
(4) (a)-S; (b)-epidermal; (c)-middle
st nd
(4) Non-setal regions 1 and 2 segments
63. Integumentary nephridia of clitellar
59. Earthworm is a hermaphrodite because
region in an earthworm are represented as
(1) self-fertilization takes place
(1) tufted nephridia
(2) female gonads mature earlier
(2) forests of nephridia
(3) male and female gonads are found in
(3) typical nephridia
the same worm
(4) septal nephridia
(4) fertilization takes place inside the
body
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64. In earthworm, the genital papillae are (b) Absent in last 23 or 25 segments of
present on both side segments where the intestine
segment with ………. is seen (c) Appear like an internal median fold of
(1) female genital aperture dorsal wall of intestine
(2) spermathecal openings (d) Helps in increasing the effective area
of absorption in the intestine
(3) male genital apertures
The above features are related to
(4) anus (1) clitellum (2) intestinal caeca
65. Paired mouthparts in cockroach are (3) visceral layer (4) typhlosole
(1) antennae and mandibles 70. Tegmina of cockroach emerge out from
(2) maxillae and mandibles (1) head (2) prothorax
(3) labrum and labium (3) mesothorax (4) metathorax
(4) epipharynx and hypopharynx 71. Which of the following structures of
66. In an earthworm, the mature sperm and earthworm regulate the volume and
egg cells and nutritive fluid are deposited composition
in cocoons produced by the of the body fluids?
(1) gland cells of clitellum (1) Typhlosole (2) Nephridia
(2) gland cells of accessory glands (3) Clitellum (4) Blood glands
(3) gland cells of prostate glands 72. Which of the following type of nephridia
(4) gland cells of spermathecae open into intestine of earthworm?
(1) Tufted nephridia
67. In an earthworm, the commissural vessels
(2) Micronephridia
connect subneural vessel with
(3) Septal nephridia
(1) ventral blood vessel
(4) Protonephridia
(2) dorsal blood vessel
73. Match the following
(3) supraoesophageal blood vessel
Column-I Column-II
(4) lateral oesophageal blood vessel
(i) First seen 15th
68. Blood glands of earthworm are present in (a) Septal nephridia
segment
the three segments where (b) Integumentary (ii) Absent in
(1) gonads are present nephridia Pheretima
(c) Typical (iii) Also termed
(2) clitellum is present
nephridia tufted nephridia
(3) pharyngeal nephridia are present (iv) Open on the
(d) Pharyngeal
(4) buccal cavity is present body surface by
nephridia
nephridiopores
69. Read the following characteristic features
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
of a structure of an earthworm
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(a) Found from 26th segment of intestine
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
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74. Blood cells of earthworm
(1) are phagocytic in nature
(2) keep Hb inside them
(3) synthesized by accessory glands
(4) are not seen in a mature worm
75. Identify the mismatched combination
with respect to cockroach
(1) Antennae – Monitor the environment
(2) Mandibles – Incise and grind the food
(3) Anal cerci– Hear the air borne sounds
(4) Hypopharynx – Acts as jaw of
vertebrates
76. Vermicomposting means
(1) transmission of diseases
cockroaches
(2) increasing the number of earthworms
by man
(3) increasing fertility of soil by the
earthworms
(4) biological control of insects by frog
77. The development of earthworms takes
place within the cocoons for about
(1) three days (2) three weeks
(3) thirty days (4) three months
78. The common prostate duct of earthworm
opens outside through
(1) a separate prostate duct opening
(2) genital papillae
(3) spermathecal openings
(4) male genital apertures along with vasa
deferentia
79. Different types of nephridia in an
earthworm are basically
(1) originatedfrom different germ layers
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(2) perform different functions like
respiration, excretion etc.,
(3) similar in structure
(4) similar to hepatocytes of higher
vertebrates
80. Read the following statements with
respect to head of cockroach
(a) Head is triangular in shape
(b) It lies anteriorly at right angles to the
longitudinal body axis
(c) It is formed by the fusion of five
segments
(d) It shows great mobility in all
directions by a body division called neck
In the above the correct statements are
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
by
(3) c and d (4) a, b and d
81. Which of the following statement is
incorrect in an earthworm?
(1) Nephridia are coiled tubules
(2) Gonads are mesodermal in origin
(3) Anterior loops connect the blood
vessels
(4) Gizzard is non-muscular but chitinous
82. The ingested organic rich soil passes
through the digestive tract where
digestive enzymes breakdown complex
food into smaller absorbable units in
earthworm. Which of the following
cannot be directly absorbed through the
intestinal membranes?
(1) Glucose (2) Amino acid
(3) Fatty acid (4) Starch
83. Blood vascular system of earthworm is
(1) with ventral heart
(2) of closed type
(3) with colourless blood
(4) without blood capillaries
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84. The muscle layers of body wall of (b) Cover the complete abdomen in male
earthworm are (c) Dark and leathery
(1) striated and non-striated muscles (d) Cover the hind wings in both male
(2) dorso-ventral and alary muscles and female
(3) circular and longitudinal muscles The above features are related to
(4) circular and oblique muscles (1) Nervures (2) Taenidia
85. Prothorax of cockroach doesn’t have (3) Phragmata (4) Tegmina
(1) legs (2) wings 91. Cockroach differs from earthworm by
(3) pronotum (4) sternite having
SECTION - B (1) metamerism
86. The ventral surface of earthworm is (2) true coelom
distinguished by the presence of (3) clitellum
(1) genital openings (2) nephridiopores (4) paired appendages
(3) mouth and anus (4) no openings 92. Which one of the following structures in
87. Innermost layer of body wall of Pheretima is not correctly matched with
earthworm is its function?
(1) non-cellular cuticle (1) Clitellum – Secretes cocoon
(2) coelomic epithelium (2) Intestinal caeca – Secrete amylolytic
(3) basement membrane enzymes
(4) musculature (3) Gizzard – Grinds the food particles
88. Hearts of Pheretima is located in (4) Setae – Defence against predators
(1) 7th, 9th, 12th and 13th segments 93. Match the following and choose the
th th th th
(2) 6 , 7 , 8 and 9 segments correct answer with respect to Pheretima
(3) 10th, 11th, 12th and 13th segments Column-I Column-II
(4) 6th, 7th, 9th and 10th segments A. Lateral I. 10th and 11th
oesophageal hearts segments
89. All are present in clitellar segments
II. 12th and 13th
except B. Testes
segments
(1) integumentary and septal nephridia III. 17th and 19th
C. Seminal vesicles
segments
(2) subneural and commissural vessels
IV. 11th and 12th
(3) male and female genital apertures D. Accessory glands
segments
(4) dorsal pores and nephridiopores (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
90. Read the following characteristics with (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
respect to the components of cockroach (3) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II
(a) Related to mesothorax (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
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94. After mating of earthworm (A) with (3) Ganglia and muscles
earthworm (B), the female genital (4) Mouth and buccal cavity
aperture of earthworm (B) is closed with
99. Which of the following are the short and
a wax plug. What could be the evil
conical structures that project from the
consequence in earthworm (B)?
intestine of earthworm on the 26th
(1) It fails to undergo oogenesis
segment?
(2) It fails to release ova into body cavity (1) Gastric caeca (2) Hepatic caeca
from the ovaries (3) Intestinal caeca (4) Rectal caeca
(3) It fails to release ova into cocoon 100. Which of the following is correct
(4) It fails to receive the sperms from pertaining to cockroach?
male gonopores (1) Nocturnal, fossorial, monoecious,
95. All these are found in genital pouch of coelomate
female cockroach except (2) Omnivorous, cursorial, dioecious,
(1) gonopore coelomate
(2) spermathecal pores (3) Detritivorous, fossorial, dioecious,
(3) anus coelomate
(4) pores of collateral glands (4) Diurnal, cursorial, monoecious,
96. The epidermis of earthworm is made up coelomate
of
(1) single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells PHYSICS

(2) many layers of columnar epithelial SECTION – A

101. A body projected with same speed at
cells
angles 600 and 300 with horizontal so that
(3) many layers of cuboidal epithelial
range is 10 3 m . Then match the
cells following.
(4) single layer of columnar epithelial List-I List-II
R1
cells a) e) 1
R2
97. Earthworm is T1
b) f) 3/1
(1) active during night than to day T2
(2) participating in fragmentation H1
c) g) 10 m
H2
(3) seen in burrows of soil
3
(4) more than one option is correct d) H1 + H 2 h)
1
98. Which of the following structures or (1) a-g, b-h, c-e, d-f
openings both are not seen in first
(2) a-f, b-g, c-h, d-e
segment of earthworm?
(1) Setae and ganglia (3) a-e, b-h, c-f, d-g

(2) Mouth and nephridiopores (4) a-h, b-e, c-g, d-f

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102. A body is projected with a velocity 20ms- 107. A body thrown horizontally from top of a
1
at an angle 600 with horizontal. Its speed tower. It reaches ground after 3s, at an
at the highest point is angle 450 to the ground. The velocity of
(1) 10 ms-1 (2) 20 ms-1 projection is ( g=10ms-2)
(3) 5 3 ms-1 (4) zero (1) 30 ms-1 (2) 20 ms-1
103. In a projectile motion, the velocity is (3) 40 ms-1 (4) 30 2 ms−1
perpendicular to acceleration of projectile 108. The height and width of each step of a
at stair case are 5 cm and 30 cm
(1) no instance (2) one instant respectively. A ball rolls off the top of a
(3) two instants (4) all instants stair with horizontal velocity V and hits
104. When a projectile is fired at an angle θ the edge of the 9th step. The magnitude of
w.r.t. horizontal with velocity u, then its V is ( g = 10 ms-2)
vertical component of velocity (1) 10 ms-1 (2) 9 ms-1
(1) remains same (3) 7.5 ms-1 (4) 45 ms-1
(2) goes on increasing with height 109. An arrow is projected into air. Its time of
(3) goes on decreasing with height flight is 5s. What is the maximum height
(4) first decreases and then increases reached by it ? (Take g = 10 ms-2)
105. A particle is thrown with the speed (1) 31.25 m (2) 24.5 m
10 3 ms -1 at angle 600 with the (3) 18.25 m (4) 46.75 m
horizontal. When the particle makes an 110. A particle is projected at an angle of 600
angle 300 with the horizontal then its with the horizontal from the ground with
speed at that position is a velocity 10 3 ms -1 . The angle between
(1) 45 ms-1 (2) 30 ms−1 velocity vector after 1s and initial velocity

(3) 10 ms−1 (4) 25 ms−1 vector is (g=10 ms-2)

106. A number of bullets are fired in all (1) 00 (2) 300

possible direction with the same initial (3) 600 (4) 900

velocity u. The maximum area of ground 111. Neeraj Chopra projected his javelin to

covered by the bullet is maximum possible horizontal distance of

2 2 90 m. Speed of projection of javelin with
 u2   u2 
(1) π   (2) π   respect to ground in ms-1 is ( g= 10 ms-2)
 g   2g 
2 2
(1) 10 (2) 20
u  u 
(3) π   (4) π   (3) 40 (4) 30
g  2g 

Sri Chaitanya Page 12

112. Two paper screens A and B are separated (1) 450 (2) 300
by 150 m. A bullet pierces A and B. The
(3) 600 (4) 150
hole in B is 20 cm below the hole in A. If
the bullet is travelling horizontally at the 118. If a bomber plane moving horizontally
time of hitting A, then the velocity of the with a constant velocity drops a bomb. Its
bullet at A is (g= 10 ms-2) trajectory to pilot of plane is
(1) 200 ms-1 (2) 750 ms-1
(1) Horizontal straight line
(3) 400 3 ms-1 (4) 1500 3 ms -1
(2) Parabola
113. The speed of a projectile at its maximum
(3) Vertical straight line
3
height is times its initial speed. The (4) Circular
2
angle of projection with horizontal is 119. The plots of intensity versus wavelength
(1) 300 (2) 600 for three black bodies at temperatures
0 0
(3) 45 (4) 90 T1 , T2 and T3 respectively are as shown.
114. An oblique projectile is at same height
Their temperatures are such that
above ground after 2s and 6s of
projection. The maximum height reached
(
by the body is g = 10 ms −2 )
(1) 40 m (2) 30 m
(3) 80 m (4) 60 m
115. A ball is projected from the origin. The x
and y coordinates of its displacement are (1) T1 > T2 > T3 (2) T1 > T3 > T2
given by x = 3t and y = 4t − 5t 2 . Find the
(3) T2 > T3 > T1 (4) T3 > T2 > T1
speed of projection (given x, y in m and
t in s ) 120. Temperature of water just below the layer
(1) 5 ms-1 (2) 10 ms-1 of water in a frozen lake is
(3) 1 ms-1 (4) 7 ms-1 (1) 0 K (2) 40C
116. If the equation of motion of a projectile (3) 00C (4) 270C
1
is y = 5 x − x 2 . The horizontal range of 121. A cylindrical rod having temperatures T1
8
the projectile is and T2 at its ends. The rate of flow of heat
(y and x are in metres) is Q1 cal/sec. If all the linear dimensions
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m are doubled keeping temperatures and
(3) 10 m (4) 80 m material constant, then rate of flow of heat
117. A stone is projected from the ground with Q2 will be
a velocity of 14ms -1 one second later it (1) 4 Q1 (2) 2 Q1
just clears a wall 2 m high. The angle of Q1 Q1
(3) (4)
4 2
projection with horizontal is ( g = 10ms -2 )
Sri Chaitanya Page 13
122. A black body has maximum wavelength
λm at temperature 2000 K. Its
corresponding wavelength at temperature
3000 K will be
3 2
(1) λm (2) λm
2 3 (1) 16 :1 (2) 8:1
4 9 (3) 9:4 (4) 16 : 9
(3) λm (4) λm
9 4
127. In steady state condition, the temperatures
123. The temperature of the body is increased at the two ends of a metal rod of length 25
from −730C to 3270C, the ratio of energy cm are 1000C and 00C. Then temperature
at a point 5cm from the hot end is
emitted per second is
(1) 680C (2) 800C
(1) 1: 3 (2) 1 : 81
(3) 400C (4) 200C
(3) 1 : 27 (4) 1 : 9
128. A compound slab is made of two parallel
124. Absorptive power of a perfect black body
plates of copper and brass of the same
is
dimensions and having thermal
(1) Infinity (2) zero
conductivities in the ratio 4:1. The free
(3) 1 (4) <1
face of copper is at 00C. The temperature
125. If wavelengths of maximum intensity of
of the interface is 200C. What is the
radiations emitted by the sun and the
temperature of the free face of brass?
−6 −4
moon are 0.5 ×10 m and 10 m
(1) 00C (2) 200
respectively, the ratio of their
(3) 400C (4) 1000C
temperatures is
129. A solid sphere is at a temperature T K.
(1) 1/100 (2) 1/200
The sphere is cut into two halves. The
(3) 100 (4) 200
fraction of energy emitted per second by
126. The spectrum of a black body at two
the half sphere to that complete sphere is
temperatures 270C and 3270C is shown in
___ (Assume temperatures to remain
the figure. Let A1 and A2 be the areas
constant)
under the two curves respectively. Find
1 1
(1) (2)
A2 2 4
the value of
A1
3 1
(3) (4)
4 16
130. The emissivity of a normal body 'e' is
(1) e = 1 (2) e = 0
(3) 0 < e < 1 (4) e = 0 (or) 1
Sri Chaitanya Page 14
131. A black metal foil receives radiation of 135. Fastest mode of transfer of heat is
power P from a hot sphere at absolute (1) Conduction (2) Convection
temperature T, kept at a distance d. If the
(3) Radiation (4) Contraction
temperature is doubled and distance is
doubled, then Power will be SECTION – B
(1) 64P (2) 16P 136. A projectile is thrown with an initial
(3) 4P (4) 8P ˆ ˆ ms −1 . If the range of the
velocity of ai+bj
132. A body cools from 600 C to 400 C in 7 projectile is twice the maximum height
minutes. What will be its temperature reached by it, then
after next 7 minutes if the temperature of (1) a = 2b (2) b = a
its surroundings is 100 C ? (3) b = 2a (4) b = 4a
(1) 460 C (2) 380 C 137. A body projected with 25 ms-1 at 450 with
(3) 280 C (4) 400 C horizontal has a range of 50m. The
133. Which of the following combination of decrease in range due to air resistance is
properties would be most desirable for a
( g = 10 m sec ) 2

cooking vessels
(1) 62.5 m (2) 12.5 m
(1) High specific heat and low thermal
(3) 25 m (4) 10 m
conductivity
138. A helicopter is flying horizontally a 8 m/s
(2) Low specific heat and high thermal
at an altitude 180 m. A package of
conductivity
emergency medicines is dropped from the
(3) High specific heat and high thermal
helicopter. Ignoring air resistance what is
conductivity
horizontal distance between the package
(4) Low specific heat and low thermal
and the helicopter when the package hits
conductivity
134. Three identical rods have been joined as (
the ground? g = 10 m sec 2 )
shown in the figure. The left and right (1) 48 m (2) 24 m
ends are kept at 00 C and 750C (3) 36 m (4) 72 m
respectively. The temperature of junction 139. From the top of a tower 20 m high, a ball
of the three rods will be is thrown horizontally. If the line joining
750C the point of projection to the point where
it hits the ground makes an angle of 450
00C with the horizontal, then the initial

0
75 C
(
velocity of the ball is g = 10 m sec 2 )
(1) 450 C (2) 600 C (1) 10 ms-1 (2) 4 ms-1
(3) 15 ms-1 (4) 3 ms-1
(3) 500 C (4) 200 C
Sri Chaitanya Page 15
140. Length of minutes hand of clock is 145. Most significant feature of black body
length 10 cm. The linear speed of tip of radiation curve is that. They depend only
minutes hand of the clock is on
π π (1) temperature of black body
(1) ms −1 (2) ms −1
3600 18000 (2) size of black body
π π
(3) ms −1 (4) ms −1 (3) shape of black body
9000 6000
(4) material of black body
141. A body allowed to fall freely from top of
146. A truck moving with a constant velocity
a tower reaches the ground in t s.
of 5ms-1 on a horizontal road. A boy on it
Another body projected horizontally with
projects a body vertically up with respect
a velocity of 5ms-1 from the same point.
to him and catches it back after 2s. The
The time taken by it to reach the ground
horizontal range of the body for another
is
boy standing on the road is
(1) t (2) <t
(3) >t (4) t+5 (
______ g = 10 m sec −2 )
142. A body projected with a velocity 20 ms-1 (1) 10 m (2) zero
at an angle 600 with horizontal on a level (3) 2.5 m (4) 20 m
ground. Its average velocity on striking 147. If the absolute temperature of a black
the ground is body is doubled the percentage increase in
(1) 20 ms-1 (2) zero the loss of heat by radiation is

(3) 10 ms-1 (4) 10 3 ms-1 (1)15% (2)16%

143. The intensity of thermal radiation from a (3)1600% (4)1500%

body at a temperature T at a point P 148. A metal ball kept in a cooling room, cools

away from it is I. If temperature of body from 72°c to 62°c in 10minutes and to

is doubled, then intensity of radiation at 52°c in ‘t’ minutes. Then ‘t’ is

same point P is (1) 10 min (2) 5 min

(1) 2 I (2) 4 I (3) >10 min (4) < 10 min

(3) 8 I (4) 16 I 149. Statement-A : Natural convection can

144. Modern arctic clothing has an additional take place in gravity free region.

thin shiny metallic layer next to skin. Statement-B : Polished surface is a poor

This is absorber but good reflector

(1) to prevent heat loss by conduction (1) A is true and B is false

(2) to prevent heat loss by radiation (2)A is false and B is true

(3) to prevent heat loss by convection (3) both A and B false

(4) to give support to the body (4) both A and B true

Sri Chaitanya Page 16
150. Matching the following 156. The set of compounds which represent
LIST – I LIST- II correct increasing oxidation states of
a) Absorptive power e) Watt / m2 Nitrogen is
b) Emissive power f) no unit (1) N 2 H 4 ,NH3 ,NH 2OH,N 2O
c) stefan’s constant g) Watt / m2 k 4 (2) NH3 ,NH 2OH,NO,N 2O3
d) Wein’s constant h) mk
(3) N3H,NH3 ,NO,N 2O
(1) a – f, b – e, c – g, d – h
(4) N 2O,NO2 ,N 2O3 ,N 2O5
(2) a – f, b – e, c – h, d – g
(3) a – e, b – f, c – h, d – g 157. All the following elements show “+8”

(4) a – g, b – f, c – e, d – g oxidation state in their oxides except

CHEMISTRY (1) Mn (2) Ru

SECTION – A (3) Os (4) Xe

151. Hydrogen shows “-1” state in 158. The element which shows least oxidation

(1) KH (2) H2S state in its compounds is

(3) H3PO4 (4) HF (1) Carbon (2) Sulphur

152. Oxidation states of oxygen in OF2, H2O2 (3) Hydrogen (4) Oxygen

and RbO2 are respectively 159. More than one non-zero oxidation state is

1 shown in its compounds by

(1) +2, − , −1 (2) +1 − 1, −2
2 (1) Fluorine (2) Sodium
1 (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorous
(3) +2 − 1, − (4) -2, -1, -2
2
160. Oxidation states of Bromine in tribromo
153. A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% by weight
octaoxide (Br3O8)are
of carbon. Empirical formula of the
(1) +5, +5, +5 (2) +2, +4, +6
hydrocarbon is
(3) +2, +2, +4 (4) +6, +4, +6
(1) CH (2) CH2
161. 3X 2 +6NaOH 
→ 5NaX+NaXO3 +3H 2 O .
(3) CH3 (4) CH4
‘X’ in this reaction cannot be
154. Gram equivalent weight is half its gram
(1) F (2) Cl
formula weight for the following salt
(3) Br (4) I
(1) Al2 ( SO 4 )3 (2) NaCl
162. Oxidation states of Nitrogen in
(3) AlF3 (4) CaCO3
Ammonium nitrate ( NH 4 NO3 ) are
155. Oxidation number of sulphur is least in
(1) −3, +1 (2) −2, +3
(1) S2Cl2 (2) H 2S
(3) −3, +5 (4) −3, +2
(3) MnSO4 (4) SO2

Sri Chaitanya Page 17

163. Number of electrons involved in the (1) OF2 (2) SF4
+
H
4 → SO 2
balanced half reaction, SO2- (3) XeF4 (4) XeF2
are
171. Shape of SCl4 molecule is
(1) 8 (2) 2
(3) 6 (4) 4 (1) Trigonal planar
(2) Distorted tetrahedral
164. Cl2 + OH − 
→ Cl − + ClO − + H 2O .The
(3) Bent T-shape
coefficient of OH − in the balanced
equation is (4) Square planar
(1) 1 (2) 4 172. Bond angle is maximum in
(3) 3 (4) 2 (1) CO2 (2) BF3
165. Empirical formula of benzene is same as
(3) CH 4 (4) H 2O
the empirical formula of
173. Number of sigma bonds in ethene
(1) Ethyne (2) Ethene molecule is equal to
(3) Ethane (4) Methane (1) 5 (2) 3
166. Oxidation state of phosphorous in (3) 4 (4) 6
NaH 2 PO2 is 174. All the carbon atoms are “sp2” hybridized
in
(1) +1 (2) +3
(1) Butane (2) Ethane
(3) +5 (4) +4
(3) Ethyne (4) Benzene
167. Average oxidation state of carbon is not
175. The species which does not exist is
zero in
(1) H 2+ (2) He2
(1) C6 H12O6 (2) HCHO
(3) Li2− (4) B2
(3) CH 3OH (4) CH 3COOH
176. According to molecular orbital theory, the
168. Which one of the following species has
number of pi bonds in C2 vapours is
bent shape ?
(1) 1 (2) zero
(1) SO3 (2) H 2O
(3) 2 (4) 3
(3) CO2 (4) NH 3
177. Paramagnetic species among the
169. The species in which the central atom has following is
the same hybridization as that of carbon
(1) H2 (2) Be2
in CO2 molecule is
(1) XeF2 (2) H 3O + (3) O2 (4) N2
178. All the following species have fractional
(3) BeCl2 (4) NH 2−
bond order except
170. The molecule in which the central atom
(1) O22− (2) H 2+
contains maximum number of lone pairs
(3) Li2− (4) O2−
is
Sri Chaitanya Page 18
179. All the following molecules can involve Correct statement is
in hydrogen bonding except. (1) Both A and B are redox reactions
(1) HF (2) H2O (2) Neither A nor B is a redox reaction
(3) HCl (4) NH3 (3) A is redox reaction but B is not a
180. Intra molecular hydrogen bonding is redox reaction
observed in all the following except. (4) A is not a redox reaction but B is a
(1) o-nitro phenol redox reaction
(2) o-hydroxy benzoic acid 187. A)3HNO2 
→ HNO3 +2NO+H 2 O
(3) o-hydroxy benzaldehyde
B)2KMnO 4 
→ K 2 MnO 4 +MnO 2 + O 2
(4) p-nitro phenol
Correct statement is
181. Coordinate covalent bond is absent in
(1) Both A and B are disproportionation
(1) CO32− (2) BF4−
reactions
+
(3) H 3O (4) NH 4+ (2) Neither A nor B is a
182. Most polar bond among the following is disproportionation reaction
(1) C−H (2) N−H (3) A is disproportionation reaction but B
(3) O−H (4) F−H is not a disproportionation reaction
183. The species which is not only iso (4) A is not a disproportionation reaction
structural but also iso electronic with but B is a disproportionation reaction
NH 4+ ion is 188. MnO4− + NO2− →
H +
Mn 2+ + NO3− . Number
(1) H 3O + (2) CH 3− of H+ ions involved in the balanced
(3) CH 4 (4) All of these equation is
184. Longest carbon-carbon bond length is (1) 6 (2) 20
observed (3) 10 (4) 14
(1) C2H4 (2) C6H6 189. Na + Cl2 
→ 2 NaCl ; Correct statements
(3) C2H2 (4) C2H6 regarding this reaction are
185. Orientation of all electron pairs is tetra A) Chlorine is the oxidizing agent
hedral but shape is angular in B) Sodium is the reducing agent
(1) BCl3 (2) H 2O C) It is not a redox reaction
(3) SO2 (4) CO32− (1) B only (2) B and C only

SECTION – B (3) A, B and C (4) A & B only

186. A)CaCO3 
→ CaO+CO 2

B)2KClO3 
→ 2KCl+3O 2
Sri Chaitanya Page 19
190. A compound in which the central atom is B) Magnetic behavior changes
in its highest oxidation state cannot act (1) Only A
like a reducing agent. Which one of the (2) Only B
following can act like a reducing agent (3) Neither ‘A’ nor ‘B’
(1) HNO3 (2) H 2 SO4 (4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

(3) P2O5 (4) SO2 → NH 4+ ,

197. Regarding the process NH 3 

191. Peroxo bond is present in the correct statements are

(1) SO2 (2) Na2O2 A) Hybridization of central atom changes

(3) MnO2 (4) Fe2O3 B) Shape of the species changes

(1) Only A (2) Only B
192. Both magnitude of oxidation state and
(3) Neither A nor B (4) Both A and B
valency of carbon are same in the
198. Statement-I : All P-Cl bond lengths in
compound
PCl5 are equal.
(1) CH 3Cl (2) CHCl3
Statement-II : SF6 molecule has square
(3) CCl4 (4) CH 2Cl2
pyramidal shape
193. C ≡ O is the structure of carbon (1) Statements I and II are correct
monoxide. Formal charge and oxidation (2) Statement I is correct but statement II
state of carbon in carbon monoxide are is incorrect
respectively. (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement
(1) −1, +2 (2) −2, −2 II is correct
(3) +1, -2 (4) 0,0 (4) Statements I and II are incorrect
194. Total number of bonds around central 199. Resonance is exhibited by
atom in SO3 molecule (violating octet A) CO32− B) CO2
rule) is C) O3
(1) 8 (2) 2
(1) A, B and C (2) A and B only
(3) 6 (4) 5
(3) B only (4) B and C only
195. Bond order is maximum in
200. The compound/species which contains
(1) N 2+ (2) N 2 Ionic bond, covalent bond and dative
(3) N 2− (4) C2 bond is

→ N 2+ .
196. Consider the process, N 2  (1) NaOH (2) NH4Cl
(3) HCN (4) KCl
Correct statements regarding the process
are
A) Bond order increases
Sri Chaitanya Page 20