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TIẾNG ANH THẦY TÙNG CHUYÊN ĐỀ ĐỌC HIỂU SỐ 1 – C1

READING COMPREHENSION PACK 1 – C1
Class: 2009C1 C2 – Reference Materials

Họ, tên học sinh: ______________________________________________________________

Read the following passages and choose the best answers to the questions.

1.
Supernovas are the most powerful and spectacular outbursts known in nature. What is called a Type II
supernova is due to the collapse of a massive star, at least eight times as massive as the sun, that has used up
its main nuclear fuel and produced a nickel-iron core. When this core can no longer support the pressure of the
star’s outer layer, it collapses to form a neutron star of immense density. Over 2,500 million tons of neutron star
packed into a matchbox. Its temperature is around 100,000 million degrees centigrade. Multitudes of neutrons
are produced in the collapsed star, which pass directly through the star into space, and this release of neutrons
causes the core to respond with a shock wave that moves outward. When it meets the material that is falling
inward, the result is a catastrophic explosion. Sometimes most of the star’s material is blown away, leaving only
a small, incredibly dense remnant that may be a neutron star or, in extreme cases, a black hole.
A supernova is often more than 500 million times as luminous as the sun. A supernova remnant (SNR)
may be detectable as a pulsar, an example of which is the Crab Nebula, known to be a remnant of the
supernova observed in the year 1054. The 1987 supernova in the Large Cloud of Magellan had a low peak
luminosity by supernova standards, only about 250 million times that of the sun. As its brightest the supernova
shone as a star between magnitudes 2 and 3, even though it was 170,000 light-years away.

Question 1: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The heat of supernovas.
B. The formation and power of a supernova.
C. The role of shock waves in a supernova.
D. The density of a neutron star.
Question 2: The word it refers to the
A. core of the collapsed B. neutron star
C. shock wave D. catastrophic explosion
Question 3: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about the 1987 supernova?
A. It was the brightest supernova.
B. It was brighter than the sun.
C. It shone as a star between magnitudes 3 and 4.
D. It had the lowest peak luminously.
Question 4: The word detectable is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. assumed B. known C. perceptible D. audible
Question 5: Which of the following words can best be substituted for remnant?
A. characteristic B. relic C. specter D. remainder
Question 6: The author of this passage is most likely
A. an astronomer B. an economist C. a mathematician D. a botanist
Question 7: The word multitudes is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. small numbers B. groups C. lots D. temperatures
Question 8: The word luminous is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. powerful B. bright C. hot D. distant
Question 9: What can be inferred from the passage about supernovas?
A. They sometimes result in a black hole. B. The sun is a remnant of supernova.
C. They occur when two stars collide. D. They only happen to pulsars.
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Question 10: According to the passage, what marks the beginning of a supernova?
A. The neutrons of a star become very dense.
B. A massive star uses up its main nuclear fuel.
C. A star has grown too big.
D. A star is born.

2.
Marian Anderson’s brilliant singing career began at age six when she sang spirituals at the Union
Baptist Church in her hometown of Philadelphia. She toured Europe in the 1920s, drawing vast acclaim;
however, when she returned to the United States she was still barred from performing on the American operatic
stage. After she was prevented from singing in Washington’s segregated Constitution Hall in 1939, Eleanor
Roosevelt intervened and arranged for Miss Anderson to perform at the Lincoln Memorial. A crowd of 75,000
people came to watch her sing before the Memorial. Marian Anderson’s beautiful contralto voice broke down
racial barriers, showing white Americans that blacks had a profound contribution to make to America’s cultural
life. Eventually, in 1955, she became the first African- American singer to perform at New York’s Metropolitan
Opera. In her many years of touring she had to endure a racism that forced her to enter concert halls and hotels
through service entrances. Her grace under this stress showed a moral perseverance that paralleled that of
the famous Martin Luther King, Jr.
Question 1: We can conclude from the passage that Marian Anderson first toured Europe instead of
the United States because
A. she was paid more in Europe
B. she was not allowed to perform in the United States
C. there were better operatic facilities in Europe
D. it was too expensive to tour in the United States
Question 2: The word acclaim could best be replaced by
A. publicity B. fund C. approval D. attention
Question 3: The word intervened could best be replaced by
A. appreciated B. supported C. interrupted D. interfered
Question 4: This significance of Anderson’s Lincoln Memorial performance was that
A. Eleanor Roosevelt arranged it B. her contralto voice was beautiful
C. 75,000 people came D. she was a black performer
Question 5: The phrase broke down racial barriers means
A. disclosed opportunities B. shattered obstacles
C. revealed inaccuracies D. analyzed destinations
Question 6: Where is the best place in the passage to add the following sentence?
“A crowd if 75,000 people came to watch her sing before the Memorial.”
A. after the word “… Memorial” B. after the word “… Stage”
C. after the word “… Opera” D. after the word “… entrances”
Question 7: The word grace is similar in meaning to
A. awkwardness B. cruelty C. elegance D. saintliness
Question 8: According to the passage, what did Marian Anderson have in common with Martin Luther
King, Jr.?
A. Moral perseverance B. a clear strong voice
C. a performance at the Lincoln Memorial D. singing in church
Question 9: The author’s tone in this passage is
A. instructive B. critical C. respectful D. regretful
Question 10: What does the word this refer to?
A. touring for many years B. racist attitudes toward her
C. performing before thousands of people D. being like Martin Luther King, Jr

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3.
The principle of use and disuse states that those parts of organisms’ bodies that are used grow larger.
Those parts that are not tend to whither away. It is an observed fact that when you exercise particular
muscles, they grow. Those that are never used diminish. By examining a man`s body, we can tell which
muscles he uses and which he does not. We may even be able to guess his profession or his recreation.
Enthusiasts of the "body building" cult make use of the principle of use and disuse to "build" their bodies, almost
like a piece of sculpture, into whatever unnatural shape is demanded by fashion in this peculiar minority culture.
Muscles are not the only parts of the bodies that respond to use in this kind of way. Walk barefoot and you
acquire harder skin on your soles. It is easy to tell a farmer from a bank teller by looking at their hands alone.
The farmer’s hands are horny, hardened by long exposure to rough work. The teller`s hands are relatively soft.
The principle of use and disuse enables animals to become better at the job of surviving in their world,
progressively better during lifetime as a result of living in that world. Humans through direct exposure to
sunlight, or lack of it, develop a skin color which equips them better to survive in the particular local conditions.
Too much sunlight is dangerous. Enthusiastic sunbathers with very fair skin are susceptible to skin cancer.
Too little sunlight, on the other hand, leads to vitamin-D deficiency and rickets. The brown pigment melanin
which is synthesized under the influence of sunlight, makes a screen to protect the underlying tissues from the
harmful effects of further sunlight. If suntanned person moves to a less sunny climate, the melanin disappears,
and the body is able to benefit from what little sun there is. This can be represented as an instance of the
principle of use and disuse: skin goes brown when it is used and fades to white when it is not.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How principles of use and disuse change people’s concepts of themselves.
B. The way in which people change themselves to conform to fashion.
C. The changes that occur according to the principle of use and disuse.
D. The effects of the sun on the principle of use and disuse.
Question 2: The phrase wither away is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. split B. rot C. perish D. shrink
Question 3: The word those refers to
A. organisms B. bodies C. parts D. muscles
Question 4: According to the passage, men who body build
A. appear like sculptures B. change their appearance
C. belong to strange cults D. are very fashionable
Question 5: From the passage, it can be inferred that the author views body building
A. with enthusiasm B. as an artistic form
C. with scientific interest D. of doubtful benefit
Question 6: The word horny is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. firm B. strong C. tough D. dense
Question 7: From the passage, it can be inferred that the principle of use and disuse enables
organisms to
A. change their existence B. automatically benefit
C. survive in any conditions D. improve their lifetime
Question 8: The author suggests that melanin
A. is necessary for the production of vitamin D.
B. is beneficial in sunless climates.
C. Helps protect fair-skinned people.
D. Is a synthetic product.
Question 9: In the second paragraph, the author mentions sun tanning as an example of
A. humans improving their local condition.
B. Humans surviving in adverse conditions.
C. Humans using the principle of use and disuse.
D. Humans running the risk of skin cancer.
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Question 10: The word susceptible could best be replaced by

A. condemned B. vulnerable C. allergic D. suggestible

4.
When the first white men came to America, they found vast amount of natural resources of tremendous
value. Forests covered a large part of the nation, later gas, oil and minerals were found in unbelievable
amounts. There was a great abundance of very fertile soil. Forests, prairies, streams and rivers abounded with
wildlife So vast were these resources that it seemed that they could never be used up. So forests were
destroyed to make way for farmland. Grassland and prairies were plowed and harrowed. Minerals and oil were
used in great quantities to supply a young industrial nation. Almost every river became the scene of factories,
mills and power companies. Mammals and birds were slaughtered for food and sport.
Within a short time, the results were obvious. Floods caused millions of dollars’ worth of damage yearly.
The very fertile soil washed away or blown up in great clouds. The seemingly inexhaustible oil and minerals
showed signs of depletion. Rivers were filled with silt from eroding farms and wastes from factories. Many of the
rivers were made unfit for fish. Several species of birds disappeared, and some mammals seemed on the verge
of going. Future timber shortages were predicted. In short, Americans soon became to realize that some sorts
of conservation program must be set up, if future as well as present Americans were to share in the resources
that are the heritage of every American
Question 1: The title below that best expresses the main theme or subject of this paragraph is
A. What the first white men found in America B. The cause of timber shortages
C. The loss of topsoil D. The story of America resources
Question 2: It seemed to the early American settlers that
A. game was scarce B. forests should not be cut
C. the natural resources were inexhaustible D. there was a shortage of minerals
Question 3: The use of America’s natural resources by the early settlers was
A. careless B. scientific C. unbelievable D. predicted
Question 4: Much of fertile soil of America has
A. sunk deep into the earth B. been eroded by wind and water
C. been covered by lakes D. become the scene of factories
Question 5: One reason many of the rivers are no longer suitable living places for fish is that
A. too many fish have been caught B. floods have caused much damage
C. a conservation program has been set up D. factories have dumped waste into the rivers
Question 6: Another for “fertile” is
A. wet B. productive C. useful D. irrigated
Question 7: Another word for “slaughtered” is
A. killed B. caught C. reared D. wounded
Question 8: Another word for “depletion” is
A. redundancy B. reduction C. replenishment D. reaffirmation
Question 9: Another word for “prairies” is
A. meadows B. plateaux C. high lands D. plateaus
Question 10: Another word for “verge” is
A. peak B. brink C. occasion D. possibility

5.
The national park movement began in the United States in 1870 when a team of explorers suggested
that part of the Yellowstone River region be set aside in order to protect its geothermal features, wildlife,
forests, and exceptional scenery for the benefit of future generations. Congress responded by creating
Yellowstone National Park, the world's first, in 1872.
The idea proved popular, and the number of national parks in this country grew rapidly, new parks being
set up by presidential proclamation and sometimes as the result of gifts by states of the union or by individuals.
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Administration of this increasingly complex system was in the hands of the U.S. Army for thirty years from 1886,
but then Congress created the National Park Service as part of the Department of the Interior to oversee it.
Today, in addition to what might be thought of as typical national parks, the Service also manages
places of historic interest, hiking trails, seashores, rivers, reserves of scientific interest and memorials. In all,
more than 300 entities are involved, covering over 32 million hectares. Each unit is directed by a superintendent
who is responsible for all aspects of the operation. Staff include administrative personnel and, according to the
nature of the unit, park rangers, naturalists, historians, and maintenance workers.
Perhaps unexpectedly, the Statue of Liberty and the White House both fall within the system. It is sites
such as these which help account for the extraordinary number of visitors, now totaling some 400 million
annually. To serve such large numbers, guest facilities are offered at every site, which may include hotels,
restaurants, gas stations, and transportation systems. All these are operated by private concessionaires, who
must observe specific regulations imposed by the Federal Government.
Question 1: What is the main topic of the first paragraph?
A. The natural features of Yellowstone B. The origins of national parks
C. The role of Congress D. Explorations of the Yellowstone River
Question 2: The expression set aside in line 2 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. purchased B. fenced off C. looked into D. reserved
Question 3: In line 8, it refers to
A. the Department of the Interior B. the National Park Service
C. The U.S. Army D. this increasingly complex system
Question 4: It may be inferred from the passage that the National Park Service was created in
A. 1886 B. 1872 C. 1916 D. 1930
Question 5: According to the passage, the original idea for a national park came from
A. a private group B. Congress
C. the National Park Service D. The U.S. Army
Question 6: The word hiking in line 10 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. walking B. vacation C. natural D. riding
Question 7: The word sites in line 14 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. vistas B. places C. relics D. monuments
Question 8: According to the passage, some National Park Service entities do NOT have
A. park rangers B. supervisors
C. administrative personnel D. guest facilities
Question 9: In line 21, these refers to
A. numbers B. hotels
C. transportation systems D. facilities
Question 10: Where in the passage does the author exemplify the popularity of national parks with the
public?
A. lines 6-8 B. lines 11-13
C. lines 17-19 D. lines 20-22

6.
Set aside time each day
Most of us can fine 15 minutes or half an hour each day for some specific regular activity. It may be a
free period or regular wait, say in the queue for a bus or meal- even while eating breakfast. One famous
surgeon always made it a rule to spend at least 15 minutes on general reading before he went to sleep each
night. Whether he went to bed at 10 p.m. or 2-30 a.m. made no difference. Even if you cannot keep to this kind
of discipline, it is a good idea to make sure you always have a general interest book in your pocket. Don’t forget
it should be a book which entertains you and the English must not be too difficult for you.

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Check your progress through pacing

Nearly all speed reading courses have a “pacing” element - some timing device which lets the student
know how many words a minute he is reading. You can do this simply by looking at your watch every 5 or 10
minutes and noting down the page number you have reached. Check the average number of words per age for
the particular book you are reading. How do you know when 5 minutes has passed on your watch if you are
busy reading the book? Well, this is difficult at first. A friend can help by timing you over a set period, or you can
read within hearing distance of a public clock which strikes the quarter hours. Pace yourself every three or four
days, always with the same kind of easy, general interest book. You should notice your habitual w.p.m. (word
per minute) rate creeping up.
Check comprehension
Obviously there is little point in increasing your w.p.m. rate if you do not understand what you are
reading. When you are consciously trying to increase your reading speed, stop after every chapter (if you are
reading a novel) or every section or group of ten or twelve pages (if it is a textbook) and ask yourself a few
questions about what you have been reading. If you find you have lost the thread of the story, or you cannot
remember clearly the details of what was said, re-read the section or chapter.
“Lightning speed” exercise
Try this from time to time. Take four or five pages of the general interest book you happen to be reading
at the time. Read them as fast as you possibly can. Do not bother about whether you understand or not. Now
go back and read them at what you feel to be your “normal” w.p.m. rate, the rate at which you can comfortably
understand. After a “lightning speed’ read through (probably around 600 w.p.m.) you will usually find that your
“normal” speed has increase - perhaps by as much as 50-100 w.p.m. This is the technique athletes use when
they habitually run further in training than they will have to on the day of the big race.
Question 1: The passage recommends setting aside for reading practice
A. two hours a day B. one hour a day
C. 15 minutes or half an hour a day D. three times a day before meals
Question 2: One famous surgeon always made it a rule to read
A. for 15 minutes at 10 p.m. each night
B. at least 15 minutes at bedtime
C. at least 15 minutes at either 10 p.m. or 2-30 a.m.
D. whether he had a spare moment
Question 3: It is a good idea always to carry in your pocket
A. a book you will never forget B. a serious book
C. several books of various kinds D. an easy and entertaining English book
Question 4: A pacing device
A. times a student’s reading speed B. is not included in most speed reading courses
C. is an aid to vocabulary learning D. should be used whenever we read alone.
Question 5: Looking at your watch every 5 or 10 minutes
A. avoids the need for reading faster
B. is not the same as pacing
C. is not easy at first
D. help you to remember the page number you were at last time
Question 6: The passage recommends pacing yourself
A. every two days with different kinds of book
B. every three or four days with the same kind of book
C. every week with the same kind of book
D. as often as you read a book
Question 7: When you are reading a novel the passage advises you to pause to check the content
A. every chapter B. every hour
C. every three or four pages D. after every page
Question 8: The purpose of pausing for thought every so often is to
A. rest the eyes
B. make sure you have not missed any pages
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C. make sure you really understand what you have read

D. prevent brain fatigue
Question 9: If you have lost the thread of a story you are reading, the passage recommends
A. choosing an easier book
B. glancing back over the chapter you have just read
C. asking a friend to help you with the difficult words
D. learning the previous chapter by heart
Question 10: The purpose of the lightning speed exercise is to
A. increase your normal speed by practicing at a very high rate
B. get through the book in half the time so that you can go on to the next
C. help you understand more of the content of the book
D. enable you to win reading races against your friends

7.
Mickey Mouse was not Walt Disney's first successful cartoon creation, but he is certainly his most
famous one. It was on a cross-country train trip from New York to California in 1927 that Disney first drew the
mouse with the big ears. Supposedly, he took his inspiration from the tame field mice that used to scamper into
his old studio in Kansas City. No one is quite sure why he dressed the mouse in the now- familiar shorts with
two buttons and gave him the yellow shoes. But we do know that Disney had intended to call him Mortimer until
his wife Lillian intervened christened him Mickey Mouse.
Capitalizing on the interest in Charles Lindbergh, Disney planned Mickey's debut in the short cartoon
Plane Crazy, with Minnie as a co-star. In the third short cartoon. Steamboat Willie, Mickey was whistling and
singing through the miracle of the modern soundtrack. By the 1930s Mickey's image had circled the globe. He
was a superstar at the height of his career.
Although he has received a few minor changes throughout his lifetime, most notably the addition of
white gloves and the rounder forms of a more childish body, he has remained true to his nature since those first
cartoons. Mickey is appealing because he is nice. He may get into trouble, but he takes it on the chin with a
grin. He is both good-natured and resourceful. Perhaps that was Disney's own image of himself. Why else
would he have insisted on doing Mickey's voice in all the cartoons for twenty years? When interviewed, he
would say, "There is a lot of the mouse in me." And that mouse has remained one of the most pervasive images
in American popular culture.
Question 1: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. The image of Mickey Mouse
B. The life of Walt Disney
C. The history of cartoons
D. The definition of American culture
Question 2: What distinguished Steamboat Willie from earlier cartoons?
A. Better color B. A sound track
C. Minnie Mouse as co-star D. The longer format
Question 3: The word pervasive in line 16 could best be replaced by
A. well loved B. widespread C. often copied D. expensive to buy
Question 4: The word appealing in line 13 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. attractive B. famous C. exceptional D. distinguishable
Question 5: The word those in line 12 refers to
A. cartoons B. forms C. gloves D. changes
Question 6: Where in the passage does the author relate how Mickey got his name?
A. Lines 3-4 B. Lines 8-9 C. Lines 18-19 D. Lines 6-7
Question 7: What does the author mean by the statement “Although he has received a few minor
changes throughout his lifetime, most notably the addition of white gloves and the
alterations to achieve the rounder forms of a more childish body, he has remained true to
his nature since those first cartoons”?
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A. The current version of Mickey Mouse is different in every way from the early cartoons.
B. The original Mickey Mouse was one of the first cartoon characters.
C. In the first cartoons, Mickey Mouse looked more like a child.
D. The personality of Mickey Mouse has not changed over the years.
Question 8: What did Disney mean when he said, “There is a lot of mouse in me”?
A. He was proud of the mouse that he created.
B. He knew that the mouse would be a famous creation.
C. He created the mouse with many of his own qualities.
D. He had worked very hard to create the mouse.
Question 9: The first image of Mickey Mouse is described as all of the following EXCEPT
A. he was dressed in shorts with two buttons. B. He had big ears.
C. He wore yellow shoes. D. He was wearing white gloves.
Question 10: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. the history of cartoons B. other images in popular culture
C. Walt Disney’s childhood D. the voices of cartoon characters

8.
There were two ways by which one could get to the Old Stone Mill. One, from the side road by a lane
which, edged with grassy, flower-decked banks, wound between snake fences, along which straggled irregular
clumps of hazel and blue beech, dogwood and thorn bushes, and beyond which stretched on one side fields of
grain just heading out this bright June morning, and on the other side a long strip of hay fields of mixed timothy
and red clover, generous of color and perfume, which ran along the snake fence till it came to a potato patch
which, in turn, led to an orchard where the lane began to drop down to the Mill valley.
At the crest of the hill travelers with even the merest embryonic aesthetic taste were forced to pause.
For there the valley with its sweet loveliness lay in full view before them. Far away to the right, out of an angle
in the woods, ran the Mill Creek to fill the pond which brimmed gleaming to the green bank of the dam. Beyond
the pond a sloping grassy sward showed green under an open beech and maple woods. On the hither side of
the pond an orchard ran down hill to the water's edge, and at the nearer corner of the dam, among a clump of
ancient willows, stood the Old Stone Mill, with house attached, and across the mill yard the shed and barn, all
neat as a tidy housewife's kitchen. To the left of the mill, with its green turf-clad dam and placid gleaming pond,
wandered off green fields of many shading colors, through which ran the Mill Creek, foaming as if enraged
that it should have been even for a brief space paused in its flow to serve another's will. Then, beyond the
many-shaded fields, woods again, spruce and tamarack, where the stream entered, and maple and beech on
the higher levels. That was one way to the mill, the way the farmers took with their grist or their oats for old
Charley Boyle to grind.
The other way came in by the McKenzies' lane from the Concession Line, which ran at right angles to
the side road. This was a mere foot path, sometimes used by riders who came for a bag of flour or meal when
the barrel or bin had unawares run low. This path led through the beech and maple woods to the farther end of
the dam, where it divided, to the right if one wished to go to the mill yard, and across the dam if one wished to
reach the house. From any point of view the Old Stone Mill, with its dam and pond, its surrounding woods and
fields and orchard, made a picture of rare loveliness, and suggestive of deep fullness of peace. At least, the
woman standing at the dam, where the shade of the willows fell, found it so. The beauty, the quiet of the scene,
rested her; the full sweet harmony of those many voices in which Nature pours forth herself on a summer day,
stole in upon her heart and comforted her. She was a woman of striking appearance. Tall and straight she
stood, a figure full of strength; her dark face stamped with features that bespoke her Highland ancestry, her
black hair shot with silver threads, parting in waves over her forehead; her eyes deep set, black and somber,
glowing with that mystic light that shines only in eyes that have for generations peered into the gloom of
Highland glens.
Question 1: This passage probably comes from
A. the end of a story. B. a brochure.
C. the middle of a story. D. the beginning of a story.
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Question 2: Based on this passage, what might you assume about the author?
A. He or she lives in a big city.
B. He or she is an expert horse rider.
C. He or she has spent some time in the country.
D. He or she is in love with the woman on the dam.
Question 3: Which sense does the author rely on most while setting his scene?
A. sound B. sight C. smell D. touch
Question 4: What time of year does this take place?
A. late spring B. early fall
C. the middle of winter D. late summer
Question 5: What is the best definition for embryonic as it is used here?
A. meaning something other than what it seems to mean
B. full of feeling
C. incorrect
D. just beginning to exist
Question 6: The author’s attitude towards the land around the mill can best be described as
A. annoyed B. confused C. amused D. enraptured
Question 7: The phrase foaming as if enraged is an example of which literary device?
A. personification B. alliteration C. understatement D. assonance
Question 8: Which word best describes the mood of the Old Stone Mill?
A. apathetic B. tranquil C. loud D. frenzied
Question 9: What will probably happen in the paragraphs after this passage?
A. The mill will be attacked by aliens.
B. Something will happen to the woman standing by the dam.
C. The dam will burst.
D. The scene will shift to a downtown apartment building.
Question 10: What is a likely location for this scene?
A. Thailand B. Scotland C. Australia D. Saskatchewan

9.
How a man uses money - makes it, saves it, and spends it - is perhaps one of the best tests of practical
wisdom. Although money ought by no means to be regarded as a chief end of man's life, neither is it a trifling
matter, to be held in philosophic contempt, representing as it does to so large an extent, the means of physical
comfort and social well-being. Indeed, some of the finest qualities of human nature are intimately related to the
right use of money; such as generosity, honesty, justice, and self - sacrifice; as well as the practical virtues of
economy and providence. On the other hand, there are their counterparts of avarice, fraud, injustice, and
selfishness, as displayed by the inordinate lovers of gain; and abuse the means entrusted to them. "So that", as
it wisely observed by Henry Taylor in his thoughtful “Notes from Life”, “a right measure and manner in getting,
saving, spending, giving, taking, lending, borrowing, and bequeathing, would almost argue a perfect man”.
Comfort in worldly circumstances is a condition which every man is justified in striving to attain by all
worthy means. It secures that physical satisfaction, which is necessary for the culture of the better part of
his nature; and enables him to provide for those of his own household. Nor ought the duty to be any the less
indifferent to us, that the respect which our fellow men entertain for us in no slight degree depends upon the
manner in which we exercise the opportunities which present themselves for our honorable advancement in life.
The very effort required to be made to succeed in life with this object, is of itself an education;
stimulating a man's sense of self-respect, bringing out his practical qualities, and disciplining him in the exercise
of patience, perseverance, and such like virtues. The provident and careful man must necessarily be a
thoughtful man, for he lives mot merely for the present, but with provident forecast makes arrangements for the
future. He must also be a temperate man, and exercise the virtues of self-denial, than which nothing is so
much calculated to give strength to the character. John Sterling says truly, that "the worst education which
teaches self denial is better than the best which traches everything else, and not that." The Romans rightly
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employed the same word (virtus) to designate courage, which is in a physical sense what the other is in moral;
the highest virtue of all being victory over ourselves.
Question 1: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Wealthy people and poor people can both be virtuous.
B. Money is insignificant.
C. Money is the most important thing in the world.
D. The was a person handles money indicates his or her general character.
Question 2: The author’s purpose in writing this essay is
A. to teach people how to earn a great deal of money.
B. to warn readers about the dangers of greed.
C. to describe the life of a wealthy person.
D. to convince the reader that proper money management is a sign of good character.
Question 3: Which is the best synonym for the word providence?
A. prudence B. fate C. sustenance D. doom
Question 4: What would be the author’s response to those who say that poverty is noble?
A. The author would agree with this statement.
B. In order to cultivate other virtues a person must have money.
C. Once a person gets rich, they can start worrying about self-discipline.
D. The Romans believed that poor people are evil.
Question 5: Which word best describes the author’s attitude to Henry Taylor?
A. admiring B. skeptical C. condescending D. disgusted
Question 6: What does the author imply by saying that money provides physical satisfaction, which
is necessary for the cultivation of the better part of his nature?
A. People are friendlier after they have had a hot bath.
B. In order to improve oneself in more lofty ways, one must attain the basic necessities.
C. The most important thing in life is physical pleasure.
D. Money can only provide physical pleasure.
Question 7: What does the author mean by the comment, The very effort required to be made to
succeed in life with this object, is of itself an education?
A. In order to earn money a person needs to go to college.
B. Money makes people seems smarter than they are.
C. That learning to manage money effectively entails learning a number of other valuable skills.
D. Only intelligent people can earn money.
Question 8: Why must provident and careful man be a thoughtful man?
A. because he has earned a great deal of money
B. because he is familiar with the works of Henry Taylor
C. because he gives most of his money to charity
D. because he must always be planning for the future
Question 9: The author brings up the Roman word for courage to illustrate
A. his knowledge of the classics
B. that people throughout history have valued money
C. that self-discipline is less important than physical bravery
D. that self-control is similar to physical bravery
Question 10: What is the definition of the word temperate as it is used in this essay?
A. moderate B. irritated C. self-denying D. warm

10.
The white rings of Saturn, the second largest planet in the solar system and named for the ancient
Roman god of agriculture, were first seen by the Italian astronomer Galileo in 1610. He interpreted the rings as
being two smaller bodies, but in the late 1650s Huygens correctly theorized that there was indeed a ring. It was
not until the mid-19th century that J.C Maxell demonstrated mathematically that these rings were composed of
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minute and unconnected particles. In 1980, the Voyager I spacecraft showed that the ring system was highly
structured.
This system is vast, some twenty-one times the diameter of the Earth, but it has a maximum thickness
of only two kilometers. Spectroscopy, the analysis of radiated light to determine the elements present, show
that the particles in the system consist of water ice, which is likely covers rocky silicate cores. The ring may
have originated ad debris from satellites or comets, though another theory holds that they may consist of
material left over from the formation of the planet itself.
Apart from the myriad ring particles, themselves satellites of course, there are at least twenty-four
larger satellites proper orbiting Saturn. This means that Saturn has the most extensive satellite system yet
found among the nine planets of our solar system. More than one-third of Saturn’s satellites have been
discovered in the past twenty years. While in general less strikingly varied than the moons of Jupiter, those of
Saturn do provide one notable exception. Titan. This satellite, second only in size to Jupiter’s Ganymede, is
unique in the solar system in having a substantial atmosphere.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The planet Saturn B. Galieo’s discoveries
C. Our solar system D. Saturn’s satellites
Question 2: Why does the author mention the Roman god of agriculture?
A. To explain the relationship with Galieo B. To explain the age of the planet Saturn
C. To account for what the planet is called D. To account for the planet’s white rings
Question 3: Which of the following may NOT be inferred from the passage?
A. Galileo failed to interpret correctly what he saw.
B. No one had observed the rings of Saturn before Galileo
C. J.C. Maxwell’s demonstration preceded Voyager I by some thirty years
D. Huygens disagreed with Galileo’s interpretation of the rings.
Question 4: The word it in line 7 refers to
A. Earth B. thickness C. system D. diameter
Question 5: According to the passage
A. the origin of the ring particles is uncertain
B. Spectroscopy proved the rings come from debris
C. The ring system is thicker than the Earth’s diameter
D. Saturn’s ring system is theoretical
Question 6: The word they in line 10 refers to
A. cores B. rings C. satellites D. comets
Question 7: The word myriad in line 12 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. numerous B. small C. mysterious D. separate
Question 8: The word unique in line 17 is CLOSEST in meaning to
A. unusual B. unparalleled C. noteworthy D. unpredictable
Question 9: According to the passage,
A. Titan is the second moon of Saturn B. Ganymede has a substantial atmosphere
C. Ganymede is bigger than Titan D. Titan and Ganymede are moons of Jupiter
Question 10: Which of the following words is defined in the passage?
A. these rings - line 4 B. water ice - line 9
C. spectroscopy - line 8 D. satellite system - line 13

P1: BCBCD ACBAB P2: BCDDB ACACB P3: CDDCD CCCCB

P4: DCABD BABAB P5: BDDCA ABADC P6: CBDAC BACBA
P7: ABBAA DDCBD P8: DCBAD DABBB P9: DDABA BCDDC
P10: DCCCA BABCB

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