Test Booklet Code-C

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 23-JULY-2023 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
2. The test is of 3 Hours 20 Minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four
options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in
each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to
135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to
150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen)
in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered
by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, ONE Mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer
Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

02. If force 4iˆ  4ˆj  7kˆ acts on body and produces

acceleration 3 m/s2 then find mass of body?
Attempt All 35 Questions (1) 4kg (2) 3kg
(3) 5kg (4) 7kg
01. Calculate tension in wire 1 shown in figure:
03. If a cricket ball of mass 200 gm collides with a bat
with velocity 30m/s and returns with the same speed
within 0.01 sec. The force acted on bat is:
(1) 1200 N (2) 1400 N
(3) 1600 N (4) None of these

04. Find force on 1st coin due to ground when counted

from bottom:
1kg
1kg
400 200 1kg
(1) N (2) N
9 9 1kg
250 500 (1) 40 N (2) 4 N
(3) N (4) N
9 9 (3) 0 N (4) 10 N
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 1
Test Booklet Code-C
05. No force is required for: 11. In the given figure find out distance travelled by 2 kg
(1) An object moving in straight line with constant block in first 2 sec?
velocity
(2) An object moving in circular motion
(3) An object moving with constant acceleration
(4) An object moving in elliptical path

06. Find the tension at the mid point ‘P’ of the rod:
(1) 10 m (2) 12 m
(3) 24 m (4) 8 m

(1) 7 N (2) 14 N 12. For the given momentum-time (P-t) graph, find the
(3) 21 N (4) 3.5 N ratio of force on particles A & B:
1
07. Momentum of a body moving in a straight line is p = (1)
(t2 + 2t + 1)kg m/sec. Find the force acting on body 3
at t = 2 sec:
(2) 3
(1) 6 N (2) 8 N
(3) 4 N (4) None of these (3) 1
(4) 3
08. A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in the
figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string (in kg
13. The ratio of weight of a mass in a stationary lift and
wt) is:
a lift moving downward with constant acceleration
‘a’ is 3:2. Find the value of ‘a’:
g
(1) (2) g
2
g g
(3) (4)
3 4

14. The acceleration of system over the wedge as shown

in the figure is:
(1) 2 / 3 (2) 3/2
(3) 2 3 (4) 2

09. find initial accelerations of A and B respectively, just

after string is cut:

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2

(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

15. In which of the following cases the magnitude of

acceleration of the block A will be maximum
(Neglect friction, mass of pulley and string):

(1) g, g (2) g, g

(3) g, g (4) g, g

10. A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a spring (1) (2)

balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure. The
spring balance measure:

(2) (4)

(1) 50 N (2) 25 N
(3) 500 N (4) 10 N
2 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
16. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected to 20. A box is placed on the surface of a truck. When the
each other with threads and are placed on a table as truck accelerates in the forward direction, then the
T direction of force of friction on lower surface of the
shown in figure. The ratio 1 is : (Take g = 10m/s2) box due to surface of the truck to prevent the sliding
T2
of the box is:
(1) In backward direction (2) In forward direction
(3) In upward direction (4) In downward direction

21. Observer O1 is in a lift going upward and O2 is on

ground both apply Newton’s law and measure
normal reaction on the body:

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 1

17. Consider three cases in equilibrium:

(1) They both measure the same value
(2) They both measure different value
(3) They both measure zero
(4) Not sufficient data

22. In non-intertial frame, the second law of motion is

written as:
(1) F = ma (2) F = ma + FP
(3) F = ma - FP (4) F = 2ma
(Where FP is pseudo-force, while a is the
acceleration of the body relative to non-intertial
frame)
A ma of mass 60 kg is holding the string connected
to block of mass 4kg as shown. Then the incorrect 23. All surfaces are smooth in following figure, Find F
statement is: such that block remains stationary with respect to
(1) Normal reaction will be maximum on man in wedge.
first case.
(2) Normal reaction will be least in third case.
(3) Tension in the string held by man is least in third
case.
(4) Tension in string held by man is maximum in
second case.
(1) Mg tanθ (2) Mg sinθ
18. At which point in the given graph, magnitude of rate (3) (M + m)g tanθ (4) (M + m)g sin θ
of change of momentum is maximum. (KE = Kinetic
energy and x is position) 24. Figure shows two cases. In first case a spring (spring
constant K) is pulled by two equal and opposite force
F at both ends and in second case is pulled by a force
F at one end. Extensions (x) in the springs will be

(1) A (2) B 2F
(1) In both cases x 
(3) C (4) D K
F
(2) In both cases x 
19. No force acts on particle, it is found that particle has K
non-zero acceleration. Then: 2F F
(1) Frame of reference is inertial (3) In first case x  , in second case x 
K K
(2) Frame of reference is non-inertial
F 2F
(3) Newton’s first law is applicable in this situation (4) In first case x  , in second case x 
(4) None of the above. K K
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 3
Test Booklet Code-C
25. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively, are 31. The static friction force between a car’s tyre and the
connected by a massless spring as shown in fig. A ground can do all of the following except.
force of 200N acts on the 20kg mass. At the instant (1) speed the car up
shown the 10kg mass has acceleration 12m/s2 (2) slow the car down
towards right. The acceleration of 20kg mass at this (3) change the car’s direction
(4) It can do all of the above things
instant is :
32. A block placed on a plane and there is friction
between the block and the plane. The plane is
accelerated to the right. If the block remains at the
same position on the plane, which of the following
pictures might show the free-body diagram for the
block? (All of the vectors shown are forces.)
(1) 12m/s2 (2) 4m/s2
(3) 10m/s2 (4) Zero

26. A man weights 80kg. He stands on a weighing scale (1) (2)

in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform
acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on
the scale? (g = 10m/s2)
(1) Zero (2) 400N
(3) 800N (4) 1200N

27. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of (3) (4)

inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated
horizontally so that the block does not slip on the
wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block
(g is acceleration due to gravity) will be 33. A mass hangs from a spring and oscillates vertically.
(1) mg/cosθ (2) mg cosθ The top end of the spring is attached to the top of a
(3) mg sinθ (4) mg box, and the box is placed on a scale, as shown in
figure. The reading on the scale is largest when the
28. A 60kg body is pushed with just enough force to mass is :
start it moving across a floor and the same force
continues to act afterwards. The co-efficient of static
and kinetic friction are 0.5 & 0.4 respectively. The
acceleration of the body is : (Take g = 10m/s2)
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
(3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 3.8 m/s2

29. Three boxes are pushed with a force F across a

frictionless table, as shown in Figure. Let N1 be the (1) At its maximum height
normal force between the left two boxes, and let N2 (2) At its minimum height
be the normal force between the right two boxes. (3) At the midpoint of its motion
Then (4) All points give the same reading

34. A book of weight 20N is pressed between two hands

and each hand exerts a force of 40N. If the book just
starts to slide down. Coefficient of friction is
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.2
(1) F = N1 = N2 (2) F + N1 = N2 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.1
(3) F > N1 = N2 (4) F > N1 > N2
35. A car running with a velocity 72 kmph on a level
road, is stopped after travelling a distance of 30m after
30. Two people pull on opposite ends of a rope, each disengaging its engine (g = 10ms–2). The coefficient of
with a force F. the tension in the rope is friction between the road and the tyres is
(1) F/2 (2) F (1) 0.33 (2) 4.5
(3) 2F (4) Zero (3) 0.67 (4) 0.8
4 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
41. A mass m rests under the action of a force F as
shown in the figure on a horizontal surface. The
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate coefficient of friction between the mass and the
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of surface is μ. The force of friction between the mass
these 15 questions. and the surface is:

36. A block of mass 20kg is pushed with a horizontal

force of 90N. If the coefficient of static and kinetic
friction are 0.4 and 0.3, the frictional force acting on
the block is (g = 10ms–2)
(1) 90N (2) 80N
(3) 60N (4) 30N
F
(1) μmg (2) [mg  ]
37. The angle of inclination of an inclined plane is 60o. 2
Coefficient of friction between 10kg body on it and F 3 F
its surface is 0.2, g = 10ms–2. The acceleration of the (3) (4) [mg  ]
2 2
body down the plane in ms–2 is
(1) 5.667 (2) 6.66 42. A man drags an m kg crate across a floor by pulling
(3) 7.66 (4) Zero on a rope inclined at angle θ above the horizontal. If
the coefficient of static friction between the floor and
38. A cart of mass M has a block of mass m in contact crate is μs then the tension required in the rope to
with it as shown in the figure. The coefficient of start the crate moving is:
friction between the block and the cart is μ. What is s mg s mg
the minimum acceleration of the cart so that the (1) (2)
(sin   s cos ) (sin   s cos )
block m does not fall?
s mg s mg
(3) (4)
(cos   s sin ) (cos   s sin )

43. What force must man exert on rope to keep platform

in equilibrium : (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) μ g (2) g/μ

(3) μ/g (4) Mμg/m

39. A body of mass m is kept stationary on a rough

inclined plane of angle of inclination θ. The
magnitude of force acting on the body by the
inclined plane is equal to:
(1) mg (2) mg sin θ
(3) mg cos θ (4) None

40. The system shown is just on the verge of slipping. (1) 100N (2) 200N
The coefficient of static friction between the block (3) 300N (4) 500N
and the table top is:
44. A 20 kg monkey slides down a vertical rope with a
constant acceleration of 7ms–2. If g = 10ms–2, what is
the tension in the rope?
(1) 140N (2) 100N
(3) 60N (4) 30N

45. A block of mass 1kg is kept on a horizontal surface

in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between
the block and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of
truck is 5m/s2, then frictional force acting on the
block is:
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.95 (1) 2N (2) 3N
(3) 0.15 (4) 0.35 (3) 5N (4) 6N
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 5
Test Booklet Code-C
46. A 1 kg block is being pushed against a wall by a
force F = 75N as shown in the figure. The coefficient
of friction is 0.25. the magnitude of acceleration of Attempt All 35 Questions
the block is : (Take g = 10m/s2)
51. The correct order of ionic radius is -
(1) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(2) Yb3+ < Pm3+< Ce3+ < La3+
(3) La3+ = Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(4) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
52. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact
that
(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(1) 10m/s2 (2) 20m/s2
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(3) 5m/s2 (4) None
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
47. A body of weight w1 is suspended from the ceiling
53. The ionic radius of Cr is maximum in which of the
of a room through a chain of weight w2. The ceiling
following compounds?
pulls the chain by a force:
(1) Cr(CO)6 (2) CrCl3
(1) w1 (2) w2
(3) Cr2O3 (4) K2CrO4
w  w2
(3) w1 + w2 (4) 1
2 54. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a
collection of isoelectronic species?
48. A scooter starting from rest moves with a constant (1) N3–,O2–,F–,S2– (2) Li+,Na+,Mg2+,Ca2+
acceleration for a time Δt1, then with a constant + – 2+
(3) K ,Cl ,Ca ,Sc 3+
(4) Ba2+,Sr2+,K+,Ca2+
velocity for the next Δt2 and finally with a constant
deceleration for the next Δt3 to come to rest. A 500N 55. The first ionisation energy of Mg, Al, P
man sitting on the scooter behind the driver and S follows the order :
managers to stay at rest with respect to the scooter (1) Mg < Al < P < S (2) Al < Mg < P < S
without touching any other part. The force exerted (3) Al < Mg < S < P (4) Mg < Al < S < P
by the seat on the man is:
(1) 500N throughout the journey 56. Electronic configuration of Palladium is :
(2) Less than 500N throughout the journey (1) (Kr)4d105s0 (2) (Kr) 4d95s1
(3) More than 500N throughout the journey 9 2
(3) (Kr) 4d 5s (4) (Kr) 4d105s1
(4) > 500N for time Δt1 and Δt3 and 500N for Δt2
57. Which of the following transitions involves
49. A block A kept on an inclined surface just begins to maximum amount of energy -
slide if the inclination is 30o. The block is replaced (1) M–(g) M(g) (2) M(g)M+(g)
by another block B and it is found that it just begins (3) M+(g) M2+(g) (4) M2+(g)M3+(g)
to slide if the inclination is 40o:
(1) Mass of A > mass of B 58. Which are correct match :
(2) Mass of A < mass of B (i) Eka Silicon – Be
(3) Mass of A = mass of B (ii) Eka Aluminium – Ga
(4) All the three are possible (iii) Eka Manganese – Tc
(iv) Eka Scandium – B
50. In the shown mass pulley system, pulleys and string (1) (ii) & (iii) (2) (i), (ii) & (iv)
are massless. The one end of the string is pulled by the (3) (i) & (iv) (4) All
force F = mg. The acceleration of the block will be:
59. Which of the following is/are Dobereiner
triad :
(i) P, As, Sb (ii) Cu, Ag, Au
(iii) Fe, Co, Ni (iv) S, Se, Te
Correct answer is –
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) All

60. Which of the following set of elements obeyes

Newland’s octave rule -
(1) g/2 (2) 0 (1) Na, K, Rb (2) F, Cl, Br
(3) g (4) 3g (3) Be, Mg, Ca (4) B, Al, Ga
6 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
61. Elements with atomic number 47 belongs to- 70. Assertion:
(1) 4th period & XII group First ionisation energy for nitrogen is lower than
(2) 4th period & XI group oxygen
(3) 5th period & XII group Reason:
Across a period effective nuclear charge decrease
(4) 5th period & XI group
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion
62. Which of the following element have maximum (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
atomic volume? not the correct explanation of Assertion
(1) K (2) Ca (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Fe (4) Br (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

63. The correct order of increasing atomic radius of the 71. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below.
following elements is –
(1) S < O < Se < C (2) O < C < S < Se List I List II
(3) O < S < Se < C (4) C < O < S < Se (Successive IE) (kJ mol-1) (Element)
IE1 IE2 IE3
(1) 1312 - - (A) H
64. The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, (2) 520 7297 11810 (B) Li
656 and 3210 kJ mol–1. The number of valence (3) 900 1758 14810 (C) Be
electrons in the element are : (4) 800 2428 3660 (D) B
(1) one (2) two (1) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
(3) three (4) four (2) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
65. If bond length of F2 = 1.44 Å, bond length of (4) A –1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
H2 = 0.74 Å, EN of 'H' = 2.1, EN of F = 4, then find
out H-F bond length – 72. The graph of first ionization enthalpy versus atomic
(1) 0.919 Å (2) 1.09 Å number as follows:
(3) 2.18 Å (4) 0.82 Å

66. Element X has ionization energies : 7.6, 15.0, 80.1,

109.3, ….. (in eV). Element Y has corresponding
values : 8.1, 16.3, 33.5, 45.1, 166.7, 205.1, 264.4, First 
….. (in eV). What would be the likely formula for a I.P.


compound that may be formed from X and Y?   
(1) X2Y (2) XY     
      
(3) XY2 (4) X2Y3
Atomic Number
67. Which group of atoms have nearly the same atomic
radius ? Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs (2) Li, Be, B, C (1) Alkali metals are at the maxima and noble gases
(3) Fe, Co, Ni (4) F, Cl, Br, I at the minima.
(2) Noble gases are at the maxima and alkali metals
68. What were the main demerits of Mendeleev’s at the minima.
periodic table? (3) Transition element are at the maxima.
(i) Disimilar metals are placed in same group (4) Minima and maxima do not show any regular
behaviour.
(ii) Atomic weight of some elements were not
justified
73. Which of the following iso electronic ions has the
(iii) Isotopes were not given separate places. lowest ionization enthalpy?
(iv) Lanthanides were treated as single (1) K+ (2) Ca2+
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) (3) Cl 
(4) S2
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
74. The correct order of second ionization potential of
69. Diagonal relationship is not shown by carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is
(1) Li and Mg (2) Be and Al (1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C
(3) B and Si (4) C and P (3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 7
Test Booklet Code-C
75. The ions which are arranged in correct order of
increasing radii are
(1) K+, Ca2+, S2+ (2) Be2+, Mg2+, Na+ This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(3) O2–, F–, N3– (4) S2–, O2–, As3– can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions.
76. Among alkaline earth metals, the metal with lowest
melting point: 86. Choose incorrect statement
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) BeSO4 and MgSO4 are highly soluble in water
(3) Sr (4) Ba (2) The thermal stability of carbonates of alkaline
earth metals increase from BeCO3 to BaCO3
77. Among alkaline earth metals, the metal with highest (3) For BeSO4, MgSO4 the magnitude of hydration
reducing power enthalpies is greater than lattice energies
(1) Mg (2) Ca (4) In Epsom salt, MgSO4, 7H2O, the co-ordination
(3) Sr (4) Ba
number of Mg is seven
78. The flame colour Sr is
(1) Apple green (2) Brick red 87. A BeCl2 + b LiAlH4  c BeH2 + d LiCl + e AlCl3 in
(3) Crimson red (4) Yellow the balanced equation, sum of (a + b + c + d + e)
value is
79. The metal used in making windows of X-rays tubes (1) 5
(1) Mg (2) Be (2) 6
(3) Ca (4) K
(3) 7
80. Which oxide does not have rock salt structure (4) 8
(1) BaO (2) MgO
(3) CaO (4) BeO 88. For alkaline earth metals the second ionisation
enthalpy values are nearly ______ times that of 1st
81. Choose incorrect statement ionisation enthalpy values.
(1) BeO, Be(OH)2 are amphoteric (1) Twice
(2) From Be (OH)2 to Ba(OH)2 , The PH of solution (2) Thrice
increases
(3) Four
(3) The fluorides of alkaline earth metals are less
soluble in water than the chlorides (4) Same as 1st ionisation enthalpies
(4) The MgCl2 6H2O is dehydrated by heating to
get anhydrous salt 89. The hydration enthalpy in moreve for
(1) Be2+
82. Choose incorrect statement (2) Mg2+
(1) From BeCO3 to BaCO3, the lattice energy will
(3) Ba2+
almost remain constant
(4) Li+
(2) From BeSO4 to BaSO4, the hydH0 values become
less ve
(3) The solubility of carbonates increases from 90. In two alkaline earth metal salts, one gives apple
BeCO3 to BaCO3 green and other gives brick red in flame test. The
(4) The solubility of carbonates decreases from sum of atomic number of those alkaline earth metals
BeCO3 to BaCO3 x4
is x. Then the value of =
16
83. Which alkaline earth metal nitrate is crystallized as
anhydrous salt (1) 4
(1) Be (2) Mg (2) 5
(3) Ca (4) Ba (3) 6
(4) 7
84. The hybridization of Be in BeCl2 solid
(1) Sp (2) Sp2 91. All enzymes that utilise ATP in phosphate transfer
3
(3) Sp (4) No hybridization require __________ as cofactor
(1) Ca
85. Which alkaline metal hydroxide dissolves in excess
alkali (2) Ba
(1) Be (2) Mg (3) Be
(3) Ca (4) Ba (4) Mg
8 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
92. The settings of cement is due to
(1) Change of gypsum to plaster of paris
(2) Hydration of the molecules of the constituents Attempt All 35 Questions
and their rearrangement
(3) The reaction of Al2O3 with SiO2 101. Who described the first action spectrum of
(4) Dehydration of the molecules of the constituents photosynthesis ?
(1) Julius Von Sachs (2) Cornelius Van Neil
and their rearrangement
(3) T. W. Engelman (4) Jan Ingenhous
93. The purpose of adding gypsum to cement is 102. Movement of protons through CF0 – CF1 complex in
(1) To impart grey colour to cement chemiosmosis is by
(2) To decrease the setting time of cement (1) Simple diffusion (2) Facilitated diffusion
(3) To slow down the process of setting of the (3) Active transport (4) Pump
cement 103. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect
(4) It acts as a coolant about photosynthesis ?
(1) 6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
94. When gypsum is heated above 393K, the product (2) Physico-chemical process in green plants
obtained is (3) In green plants H2O or H2S can be hydrogen donor
(1) Plaster of paris (4)Water is oxidized and CO2 is reduced
(2) Albaster 104. During photosynthesis :
(3) Slaked lime (1) Both CO2 and water get oxidized
(4) Dead burnt plaster (2) Both CO2 and water get reduced
(3) Water is reduced and CO2 is oxidized
95. In bleaching powder, the oxidation states of two (4) CO2 gets reduced and water gets oxidized
chlorine atoms are 105. The products of light reaction of photosynthesis are
(1) +1, +1 (2) +1, 1 (1) O2 ATP and NADPH (2) CO2 and NADH2
(3) 1, 1 (4) +1, 0 (3) ADP and NAD+ (4) O2 and C6H12O6

96. For a good quality cement the ratio of lime (CaO) to 106. Paper chromatography is used to separate the leaf
the total of the oxides of silicon (SiO2), Aluminium pigments. On a chromatogram yellowish green
(Al2O3) and iron (Fe2O3) should be as close as colour represent the :
possible to (1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.5 (3) Carotene (4) Xanthophylls
(3) 2.0 (4) 3.0
107. Correct equation that represents the photolysis of
H2O is
97. Which is lewis catalyst
(1) 2H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e
(1) MgCl2 (2) SrCl2
(2) H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e
(3) CaCl2 (4) BeCl2
(3) 4H2O  4H+ + O2 + 4e
(4) 2H2O  4H+ + 2O2 + 2e
98. Which metal carbonate of alkaline earth metal is
unstable and can be kept only in the atmosphere of 108. Stroma lamellae membrane lacks :
CO2 (1) PS I only
(1) Be (2) Mg (2) PS II only
(3) Ca (4) Ba (3) PS I & electron carriers
(4) PS II and NADP reductase enzyme
99. The alkaline earth metal not readily attacked by
acids is 109. Photosystem-I and photosystem-II are named :
(1) Ba (2) Ca (1) In the sequence of their discovery
(3) Mg (4) Be (2) In the sequence of their position
(3) In the sequence of their electron transfer
(4) In the sequence of their oxidation
100. A doctor by mistake administers a dilute Ba(NO3)2
solution to a patient for radiographic investigations 110. (a) The most abundant enzyme in the world
which of the following should be best to prevent the (b) Its active site can bind to both CO2 and O2
absorption of soluble barium and subsequent barium (c) Has a much greater affinity for CO2 than O2.
poisoning The above facts are characteristic of which enzyme?
(1) NaCl (2) Na2SO4 (1) PEPcase (2) RuBisCO
(3) Na2CO3 (4) NH4Cl (3) Hexokinase (4) Nitrogenase
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 9
Test Booklet Code-C
111. Which element is required for photolysis of water: 118. Identify A & B in the graph
(1) Mg (2) Mn
(3) Fe (4) Zn A
B
112. Experiment using two leaves a variegated leaf or a
leaf that was covered with black paper and one that
was exposed to light, on testing these leaves for
starch shows that photosynthesis occurs only in
_______ part of leaf in _______ of sun light.
(1) non-green, presence
(2) green, presence
(3) non-green, absence
(4) green, absence

113. Photosynthesis is important because

(1) it is the primary source of all food on earth
(2) it is responsible for release of O2 into the A B
atmosphere by green plants (1) Rate of respiration Action Spectrum
(3) it is responsible for release water vapour into the (2) Rate of respiration Absorption
atmosphere. Spectrum
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Rate of Action Spectrum
Photosynthesis
114. In photosynthesis, protons accumulate in the (4) Rate of Absorption
(1) inner membrane space of mitochondria Photosynthesis Spectrum
(2) matrix of mitochondria
(3) lumen of thylakoid 119. Identify the indicated structures of the chloroplast
(4) stroma of thylakoid given below.

115. Which of the following statement is incorrect

regarding Pigments?
(1) Pigments are substances that have an ability to
absorb light, at specific wavelengths.
(2) Chlorophyll-b is the chief pigment associated
with photosynthesis.
(3) Leaf pigments can be separated by
chromatography
(4) Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll-a from
photo oxidation.
A B C D E
Stromal Lipid Starch
116. Which of the following statement is incorrect? (1) Grana Stroma
lamella droplet granule
(1) Photosystem-I receives electrons from
Starch Lipid Stromal
Photosystem-II (2) Grana Stroma
granule droplet lamella
(2) Photosystem-II receives electrons from
Stromal Starch Lipid
Photolytic dissociation of water. (3) Grana Stroma
lamella granule droplet
(3) Formation of NADPH is associated with
Stromal Starch Lipid
Photosystem-II. (4) Stroma Grana
lamella granule droplet
(4) Reaction center of Photosystem-I is P700
120. Which one occurs in both during cyclic and non-
117. Which among the following sentence is wrong about
cyclic modes of photophosphorylation ?
Light reaction?
(1) Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II.
(1) It is also known as 'photochemical' phase. (2) Formation of ATP
(2) It includes light absorption, water splitting, (3) Release of O2
oxygen release, and the formation of high-energy (4) Formation of NADPH
chemical intermediates.
(3) Reaction centre consist of single molecule of
121. Photosynthesis is the transformation of
chl-a and 2 molecules of Chl-b. (1) light energy to chemical energy
(4) The pigments are organised as two discrete(2) chemical energy to light energy
photochemical light harvesting complexes(LHC)
(3) light energy to kinetic energy
within PS-I and PS-II. (4) solar energy to potential energy
10 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
122. Dark reaction of photosynthesis results in the 130. Read the following pair :
formation of (A) Diatoms – Cell wall made of cellulose plates
(1) O2 (2) NADPH+H+ (B) Dinoflagellates - water bloom
(3) ATP (4) Glucose (C) Slime mould - decomposer nature
(D) Euglenoids - some time behave like predator
123. During photosynthesis, electrons are continuously (E) Protozoa - unicellular prokaryotes
lost from the reaction centre of PSII. By which Choose the correct pairs from them:
process these electrons are replaced? (1) A,B,C,D (2) B,C,D,E
(1) Sunlight (3) B,C,D (4) A,C,D,E
(2) Photolysis of water
(3) Release of oxygen 131. If in a cell in G2 phase, the number of chromosomes
(4) Redox reaction is 2n and the amount of DNA is 4C then which of
the following is correct for G1 phase and metaphase
124. The light harvesting complex (LHC) is made up of of this cell ?
(1) one molecule of chl-a. (1) G1 phase = 2n, 4C Metaphase = 4n, 4C
(2) very few molecules of chl-a. (2) G1 phase = 4n, 2C Metaphase = 2n, 2C
(3) Hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins (3) G1 phase = 2n, 2C Metaphase = 2n, 4C
(4) Chl-a + Chl-c + protein + DNA. (4) G1 phase = 4n, 4C Metaphase = 4n, 2C

125. Which one of the following is not an essential need 132. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the
for chemiosmosis?  correct sequences
(1) ATP synthase (A)Terminilisation of chiasmata
(2) Proton gradient (B) Crossing over
(3) CO2 splitting (C) Synapsis
(4) A membrane (D)Disjunction of chromosome
(E) Dissociation of synaptonemal complex
126. Chemiosmotic hypothesis for generation of ATP The correct sequence is :
during light reaction was first explained by (1) A B C D E (2) E D C B A
(1) Hill (2) Emerson (3) C B D E A (4) C B E A D
(3) P. Mitchell (4) Van Niel
133. Select the incorrect statements.
127. The hydrogen donor in bacterial photosynthesis is (1) In some social insects haploid cell divide by
usually mitosis to form gametes.
(1) Water (2) Mitotic division usually takes place in the
(2) Hydrogen sulphide – H2S differentiated tissues
(3) Sulphurous acid (3) Mitosis helps to restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic
(4) Ammonia ratio
(4) Mitosis helps in cell repair
128. Match the column I (characters) with column II
(organisms) and select the answer :
134. Assertion:
Column-I Column-II Diplotene (Dictyotene) stage restriction occurs in
(Characters) (Organisms) female only
(A) Cell wall - silica (i) Cyanobacteria Reason:
Gemetogenesis rests for a long period at diplotene
(B) Transverse and (ii) Slime moulds stage in female
Longitudinal flagella (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a
(C) Heterocyst (iii) Dinoflagellates correct explanation for assertion.
(D) Saprophytes (iv) Euglenoids (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is
(E) Pellicle (v) Chrysophytes not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(1) A  v, B  i, C  ii, D  iii, E  iv (4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect
(2) A  v, B  iii, C  i, D  ii, E  iv
(3) A  v, B  ii, C  i, D  iv, E  iii 135. In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by
(4) A  v, B  iv, C  i, D  ii, E  iii cytokinesis as a result of which
(1) Uninucleate condition arises leading to the
129. Genetic material present in bacterial cell is : formation of syncytium
(1) DNA bound with proteins (2) Multinucleate condition arises leading to the
(2) DNA bound with histones formation of syncytium
(3) RNA bound with proteins (3) Cellular endosperm in coconut
(4) DNA+Histones+Non-histones+RNA (4) Both (2) and (3)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 11
Test Booklet Code-C
141. Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that
the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate from the stroma. This damage will have the most
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of direct effect on which of the following processes ?
these 15 questions. (1) The splitting of water
(2) The absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
136. Branched chain lipids occur in the cell membranes (3) The flow of electrons from photosystem-II to
of photosystem-I
(1) Archaebacteria (4) The synthesis of ATP
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Actinomycetes 142. The bacteria oxidizing a number of inorganic
(4) Streptomyces compounds to obtain energy for assimilation of
carbon dioxide are called :
137. The most primitive in the following are (1) photoautotrophic bacteria
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) chemoautotrophic bacteria
(2) Bryophytes (3) heterotrophic bacteria
(3) Gymnosperms (4) holozoic bacteria
(4) Monocots
143. If an Amoeba is placed in distilled water, its
138. In five kingdom system bacteria are included in contractile vacuole :
monera but non-cellular organism like viruses and (1) divides
viroids and lichens are included in : (2) disappears
(1) Kingdom – Fungi (3) works faster
(2) Kingdom - Animalia (4) works slowly
(3) Kingdom – Protista
(4) In no any kingdom 144. At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to the
spindle fibres by their.
139. Chloroplast shows division of labour because : (1) Centromere
(1) There are separate thylakoids for light and dark (2) Satellites
reaction (3) Secondary constrictions
(2) Light reaction is performed in grana and dark (4) Kinetochores
reaction in stroma
(3) Light reaction is performed in stroma and dark 145. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t diatoms
reaction in grana (1) They float actively in stegnant water
(4) There are two photosystems to perform light (2) They are photosynthetic
reaction (3) Their walls are embedded with silica
(4) They found in both fresh water and marine
140. What is correct for antenna molecules ? environments
(a) Make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing
different wave length of light 146. Read the following statements carefully and choose
(b) Consist of only carotenoids the incorrect one
(c) Receive the energy from reaction centre (1) Bacteria are the second largest members of
(d) Are associated with both PSI and PSII kingdom monera
(2) Cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial or
(1) All of theses filamentous forms
(2) (a) and (d) (3) Comma-shaped bacterium is vibrium
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) BGA often forms blooms in polluted water
(4) (b) and (c) bodies
12 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
147. Which of the following statements are incorrect
about meiosis?
(A)It yields four genetically identical cells. Attempt All 35 Questions
(B) It involves two successive division without any
DNA replication occurring between them. 151. The process of digestion refers to
(C) Intrameiotic interphase involves replication of (1) absorption of water and food
DNA and centrioles. (2) conversion of complex substances into simple
(D)Meiosis-I results in the formation of two form by only chemical process
daughter cells each with haploid number of
(3) conversion of monomers into polymers
chromosomes and 1C DNA content.
(1) A, B and C (2) A and B (4) None of these
(3) A, C and D (4) C and D
152. Which one of the following terms describes human
148. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is dentition?
incorrect? (1) Pleurodont, monophyodont, homodont
(1) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis–I and II (2) Thecodont, diphyodont, heterodont
(2) DNA replication occurs is S phase of Meiosis–II (3) Thecodont, diphyodont, homodont
(3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and (4) Pleurodont, diphyodont, heterodont
recombination occurs in Meiosis–I
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
Meiosis–II 153. Choose the correct dental formula of monophyodont
teeth of humans.
149. Statement-I: 2123
(1)
Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans. 2123
Statement-II: 2122
Diatoms possess both chlorophyll-a and chlorophyll-c. (2)
(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are True 2122
(2) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are not True 0021
(3)
(3) Statement-I is True but the Statement-II is 0021
False. 2102
(4) Statement-I is False but the Statement-II is (4)
2102
True.

150. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select 154. The substance which is hardest in the body of
the answer which gives correct identification of the humans is
stage with its characteristics : (1) Enamel
(2) Bone
(3) Calcified cartilage
(4) Dentine

155. The tongue of human is attached to the floor of the

oral cavity by a small fold of tissue known as
(1) Papillae
(2) Buds
(3) Frenulum
(4) Epiglottis
 
156. Assertion:
(1) Anaphase Endoplasmic reticulum and The study of classification of organisms is called
nucleolus not reformed yet taxonomy.
(2) Telophase Nuclear envelop reforms, Golgi Reason:
complex reforms Taxonomy and systematics have the same meaning.
(3) Late Chromosomes move away (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
anaphase from equatiorial plate, Golgi the correct explanation of assertion.
complex not present (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(4) Cytokinesis Cell plate formed, not the correct explanation of assertion.
mitochondria distributed (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
between two daughter cells (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 13
Test Booklet Code-C
157. Choose the option with correct labels for A, B, 160. Match the following structure with their
C and D given in the figure of human digestive respective location in organs.
system. Column –I Column-II
Crypts of
(A) (1) Pancreas
Lieberkuhn
(B) glisson’s capsule (2) Duodenum
Islets of
(C) (3) Small intestine
Langerhans
(D) Brunner’s glands (4) Liver
Select the correct option from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(1) A  2, B  4, C  1, D  3
(2) A  3, B  4, C  1, D  2
(3) A  3, B  2, C  1, D  4
(4) A  3, B  1, C  2, D  4

161. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play

school and passes through a dental check-up.
The dentist observed that the boy had 20 teeth.
Which teeth were absent?
(1) Incisors (2) Canines
(3) Premolars (4) Molars

162. Given below is the diagram of the T.S of alimentary

canal. Label it correctly and choose the correct
option.

A B C D
(1) Pharynx Gall DuodenumCaecum
bladder
(2) Larynx Duodenum Caecum Jejunum
(3) Parotid gland Ascending Jejunum Duodenum
colon
(4) Submaxillary Gall Caecum Descending
gland bladder colon

158. The three major parts starting from oesophageal end

to the intestinal end excluding body are
A B C D
(1) cardiac, pyloric, fundus Made of Rugae or Made of
(2) fundus, cardiac, pyloric Muscularis
(1) connective villi smooth
layer
(3) cardiac, fundus, pyloric tissue formation muscles
(4) pyloric, fundus, cardiac Muscular
(2) Serosa Mucosa Submucosa
is layer
Made of
159. Which of the following is incorrect? Made of Rugae or
Made of thin loose
(3) smooth villi
(1) Gastro-oesophageal is the opening of oesophagus mesothelium connective
muscles formation
into J’-shaped bag-like structure. tissue
Contain
(2) Duodenum is C-shaped.
nerve
(3) Jejunum is long coiled portion of small intestine. (4) Serosa blood and Mucosa Submucosa
(4) Ileum is the highly coiled middle portion of lymph
small intestine. vessels
14 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
163. The location of salivary glands is
(1) Cheeks and upper jaw A B C D E
(2) Lower jaw, cheeks and below the tongue Ducts
(3) Below the tongue and behind the wisdom tooth Gall Ducts from Hepatic
(4) Below the tongue and upper jaw (1) Pancreas
bladder from liver gall duct
bladder
164. The figure shows a section of small intestine mucosa Pancreatic Hepatic Ducts
showing villi. Choose the option for correct label A (2) Pancreas Liver
duct duct from liver
to D.
Ducts Ducts
Gall Pancreatic
(3) from gall Pancreas from
bladder duct
bladder liver
Ducts
Pancreatic from Ducts
(4) Pancreas Liver
duct gall from liver
bladder

167. Botanical gardens have:

(1) collection of endemic living species only
(2) collection of exotic living species only
(3) collection of living plants
(4) collection of only local plants

168. Hepato - pancreatic duct which is guarded by:

(1) Cardiac Sphincter (2) Sphincter of oddi
A B C D (3) Pyloric Sphincter (4) Anal Sphinctor
(1) Crypts Capillaries Lacteal Villi
169. Match the following and choose correct one:
(2) Villi Lacteal Capillaries Crypts
(3) Lacteal Crypts Capillaries Villi Column –I Column- II
(4) Capillaries Crypts Lacteal Villi (A) Stomach (1) Brush border
(B) Duodenum (2) ‘C’ shape
165. Choose the Incorrect statement
(1) Liver weighs about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in an adult (C) Goblet cells (3) ‘J’ shape
human and is situated in the abdominal cavity (D) Microvilli (4) Mucus
below the diaphragm and has two lobes.
(2) A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the (1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
vermiform appendix, which is a vestigial organ (2) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
arises from the both Caecum and Ileum (3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(3) The major components of our food include (4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
170. Which is the common passage for food and air.
166. Choose the correct option for the given figure lables (1) Trachea
A, B, C, D, E. (2) Larynx
(3) Oesophagous
(4) None of these

171. Glisson’s capsule covers

(1) Hepatic cords
(2) Liver lobes
(3) Gall bladder
(4) Hepatic lobules

172. Pyloric sphincter regulates the passage of food from

(1) small intestine into large intestine
(2) oesophagus into stomach
(3) large intestine to stomach
(4) none of these
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 15
Test Booklet Code-C
173. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to 179. The oesophagus and wind pipe open into:
rectum possesses four layers. Find the correct option (1) Gullet (2) Glottis
from the following in relation to these layers. (3) Larynx (4) Pharynx
(1) The mucosal layer forms finger like folds (villi)
in the stomach and irregular folds (rugae) in the 180. The stomach is located in the upper ____ portion of
small intestine. the ____ cavity:
(2) Muscularis is formed by smooth muscles usually (1) Right, thoracic (2) Left, abdominal
arranged into an outer circular and an inner (3) Right, abdominal (4) Left, thoracic
longitudinal layer.
(3) All the four layers show modifications in 181. Statement-I:
different parts of the alimentary canal Food provides energy and only inorganic materials
(4) Serosa is the outermost layer and is made up of a for growth and repair of tissues.
thick mesothelium with some connective tissues. Statement-2:
Caecum is a large blind sac which hosts some
174. The part of the colon that opens into the rectum symbiotic micro-organisms
which open out through the anus. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) Transverse colon (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(2) Descending colon (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(3) Ascending colon (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
(4) Descending part
182. Statement-I:
175. In duodenum Brunner’s glands are present in: Vermiform appendix is a wide finger like projection
(1) Submucosa Statement-2:
(2) Mucosa Descending colon and sigmoid colon together form
(3) Muscularis descending part of colon
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
176. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are formed by (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(1) Mucosa in between the bases of villi in the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
intestine
(2) Sub-mucosa in between the bases of microvilli in 183. Statement-I:
the intestine Liver is the largest gland of human body
(3) Mucosa in between the bases of microvilli in the Statement-2:
intestine Common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct together
(4) Both sub-mucosa and mucosa in between the form hepato-pancreatic duct
bases of villi in the intestine (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
177. A “1” flap called “2” prevents the entry of food into (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
the glottis opening of the “3”  during “4”. Identity (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
1, 2, 3 and 4.
184. Assertion:
1 2 3 4 Dogs and cats have some similarities.
(1) Cartilaginous Hypoglottis Wind Swallowing Reason:
pipe They belong to the same familyFelidae.
(2) Bony Glissons Stomach Digestion (1) Both assertion and reason are true andreason is
capsule the correct explanation ofassertion.
(3) Bony Pharynx Oral Ingestion (2) Both assertion and reason are true butreason is
cavity not the correct explanation ofassertion.
(4) Cartilaginous Epiglottis Trachea Swallowing (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
178. Following are given parts of small and large
intestine. 185. Statement-I:
(i) Cecum (ii) Colon (iii) Jejunum Pancreas exocrine portion secrets an acidic
(iv) Rectum (v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures in Statement-2:
the order food passes through them from the small Pancreas endocrine portion secretes hormones
intestine to the anus. insulin, calcitonin and glucagon
(1) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) (2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
(3) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) (3) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
(4) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
16 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.
 Test Booklet Code-C
193. Which of the following cannot reproduce?
(1) Amoeba (2) Mule
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (3) Fungi (4) Queen Bee
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. 194. Assertion:
True regeneration can be observed in
186. The hard chewing surface of the teeth made up of
planaria.
(1) Dentine (2) Enamel
Reason:
(3) Cartilage (4) Bone
A fragmented Planaria regenerates the lost part of
its body and develops into a new organism.
187. The transverse section of gut moscularis, an oblique (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is
muscle layer present in the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Oesophagus (2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(2) Duodenum not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Colon (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Stomach (4) Both assertion and reason are false.

188. Intestinal villi are supplied with : 195. Which of the following is the incorrect option with
(1) Only capillaries respect to alimentary canal in human?
(2) Only lacteals (1) The upper surface of the tongue has papillae, all
(3) Lacteals , Artery, Vein of which bear taste buds
(4) Capillaries and lacteals (2) The pharynx serves as a passage of food but not
air.
189. Which of the following is the structural and (3) Oesophagus is a short thin tube which leads to
functional unit of liver? stomach.
(1) Hepatic cells (2) Hepatic cord (4) All of these
(3) Hepatic lobule (4) Hepatic lobe
196. Choose the correct classification of LION
190. Common bile duct is formed when Phylum class order Family Genus Species
(1) Right and left hepatic ducts are fused (1) Chordata Vertebrata Primata Felidae Panthera leo
(2) Bile duct is fused with pancreatic duct (2) Chordata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera leo
(3) Cystic duct is fused with right hepatic duct. (3) Vertebrata Mammalia Carnivora Canidae Canis leo
(4) Cystic duct (duct of gall bladder) is fused with a
(4) Vertebrata Mammalia Primata Canidae Canis leo
common hepatic duct
197. Anatomical regions of stomach are A to F
191. Match the column-I with column- II and select the represents:
correct option:
Column I Column II
(A) Increase in number a. Consciousness
of cells
(B) Chemical reactions b. Reproduction
(C) Response to stimuli c. Metabolism
(D) Budding d. Growth
(1) A-a, B-b, C-d, D-c (2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b
(3) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-d (4) A-d, B-b, C-c, D-a

192. Which one of the following is true?

(1) In plants and animals, cell division occurs
continuously.
(2) In plants, cell division occurs up to a certain age
whereas in animals, it occurs continuously.
(3) In plants cell division occurs continuously
whereas in animals, itoccurs only upto a certain (1) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Body, E- Pyloric
age. (2) B- Cardiac, C- Fundus, D- Body, E- Pyloric
(4) In plants and animals, cell division occurs only (3) B- Fundus, C- Cardiac, D- Pyloric, E- Body
up to a certain age. (4) B- Fundus, C- Body, D- Cardiac, E- Pyloric
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 17
Test Booklet Code-C
198. Which of the following is not a major component of 200. Match the column and select the correct option:
our food
Column I Column II
(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins A. Flora a. Provide information to
identify names and
(3) Fats
species in an area.
(4) Vitamins
B. Manuals b. Provide information on
any one taxon.
199. A zoological garden has all of the following C. Monographs c. Help in the identification
characteristics, except of the organism.
(1) wild animals are under human care. D. Catalogues d. Provide index to the plant
(2) wild animals are provided conditions similar to species
their natural habitat.
(3) it enables us to understand the skeleton sand (1) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d
integumentary systems of wild animals. (2) A-a, B-c, C-b, D-d
(4) it enables us to know about the food habits and (3) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
behaviour of wild animals. (4) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b

18 SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2.

 Test Booklet Code-C

Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur, 760 002

www.svmberhampur.com

Date : 23-JULY-2023 Total Marks : 720 Time : 08:00 - 11:20 AM

ANSWER KEY
Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A
01 1 26 4 51 2 76 2 101 3 126 3 151 4 176 1
02 2 27 1 52 3 77 4 102 2 127 2 152 2 177 4
03 1 28 2 53 1 78 3 103 3 128 2 153 3 178 2
04 1 29 4 54 3 79 2 104 4 129 1 154 1 179 4
05 1 30 2 55 3 80 4 105 1 130 3 155 3 180 2
06 2 31 4 56 1 81 4 106 2 131 3 156 3 181 4
07 1 32 3 57 4 82 3 107 1 132 4 157 1 182 3
08 3 33 2 58 1 83 4 108 4 133 2 158 3 183 2
09 1 34 1 59 3 84 3 109 1 134 1 159 4 184 3
10 2 35 3 60 3 85 1 110 2 135 2 160 2 185 4
11 2 36 3 61 4 86 4 111 2 136 1 161 3 186 2
12 1 37 3 62 1 87 3 112 2 137 1 162 3 187 4
13 3 38 2 63 2 88 1 113 4 138 4 163 2 188 4
14 1 39 1 64 3 89 1 114 3 139 2 164 2 189 3
15 2 40 4 65 1 90 2 115 2 140 2 165 2 190 4
16 3 41 3 66 1 91 4 116 3 141 4 166 3 191 2
17 2 42 4 67 3 92 2 117 3 142 2 167 3 192 3
18 3 43 3 68 2 93 3 118 4 143 3 168 2 193 2
19 2 44 3 69 4 94 4 119 3 144 4 169 1 194 1
20 2 45 3 70 4 95 2 120 2 145 1 170 4 195 4
21 1 46 2 71 4 96 3 121 1 146 1 171 4 196 2
22 3 47 3 72 2 97 4 122 4 147 3 172 4 197 1
23 3 48 4 73 4 98 1 123 2 148 2 173 3 198 4
24 2 49 4 74 3 99 4 124 3 149 1 174 4 199 3
25 2 50 3 75 2 100 2 125 3 150 2 175 1 200 3

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 19

 Test Booklet Code-B
RM-NEET Batch, Weekly Test-5, Hint. Solution, Date: 23-JULY-2023
01. Answer (1) 16. Answer (3)
50  40 10 30  10
a  m / s2 a  2m / s 2
9 9 10
400 T1 = 1[10 + 2] = 12N
T1  4[g  a]  N T2 = 3[10 – 2] = 24N
9
02. Answer (2) T1 1

Fnet = ma T2 2

| F| 42  42  7 2 9 17. Answer (2)
m    3kg 18. Answer (3)
a 3 3
03. Answer (1) 19. Answer (2)
Without force object having acceleration implies that
P m[vf  vi ]
F  frame of reference is having acceleration.
t t 20. Answer (2)
m[30  30] 0.2  60 Pseudo force on block acts in backward direction.
   1200N
0.01 0.01 Therefore direction of friction force on the box in
04. Answer (1) forward direction.
05. Answer (1)
06. Answer (2)
24
a  2m / s 2
12
21. Answer (1)
Force does not depend upon frame of reference.
22. Answer (3)
23. Answer (3)
TP = (7) × 2 = 14N 24. Answer (2)
07. Answer (1) 25. Answer (2)
dp 26. Answer (4)
F  Ft  2  2t  2  Ft  2  2(2)  2  6N
dt 27. Answer (1)
28. Answer (2)
08. Answer (3)
T cos30o  T1 
  T  40N
T sin 30o  20N 
T1  20 3N  2 3kg  wt
09. Answer (1) fs max = μsN1 = 0.5 × 600 = 300N
10. Answer (2) F  f k 300  (0.4)(600)
a 
 T  5g sin 30o m 60
Reading      2.5kg  wt  25N
g g 300  240 60
a   1m / s 2
11. Answer (2) 60 60
30 29. Answer (4)
a  6m / s 2 30. Answer (2)
5
31. Answer (4)
1
S  ut  at 2  12m 32. Answer (3)
2 33. Answer (2)
12. Answer (1) 34. Answer (1)
FA tan 30o 1 35. Answer (3)
 
FB tan 45 o
3 36. Answer (3)
13. Answer (3) 37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (2)
mg 3 g
  2g  3g  3a  a  N = ma
m(g  a) 2 3 to prevent block m from falling,
14. Answer (1) μN > mg
20sin 53o  20sin 37o 16  12 μma > mg
a   1m / s 2 g
4 4 a
15. Answer (2) 

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 20

 Test Booklet Code-C
39. Answer (1) 42. Answer (4)

Since the body is at rest, Let tension in string is F

N = mg cos θ Fr = μsN
Fr = mg sin θ N + F sinθ = mg
 N  mg  Fsin 
Magnitude of force acting on block by inclined
surface, To start sliding F cos θ = Fr = μsN
F cos θ = μs(mg – F sin θ)
F  N 2  Fr2  (mg cos ) 2  (mg sin ) 2  F cos θ = μsmg – μsF sin θ
 F(cos   s sin )  s mg
F  mg cos 2   sin 2 
s mg
F = mg F
cos   s sin 
40. Answer (4)
43. Answer (3)
FBD of blocks are

3T = 900
N′ = 40N
T = 300N
T2 = 40μ
44. Answer (3)
8 T1 T2
o o
 o

sin(90  60 ) sin 90 sin120o
2T2
16  T1 
3
2T2
 16
3
3  16
40 
2
3 mg – T = ma
  0.35 (20 × 10) – T = (20 × 7)
5
200 – 140 = T
41. Answer (3)
T = 60N
45. Answer (3)
46. Answer (2)

fmax = μN = 0.25 × 60 = 15N

Force friction = F cos 30o (since the block is at rest)
45  (10  15)
3F a
 1
2
2 a = 20m/s
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 21
 Test Booklet Code-B
47. Answer (3) 62. Answer (1)
Is per Lother mayer’s curve, among the period 4
elements K have greatest atomic volume because K
is an alkali metal.
63. Answer (2)
64. Answer (3)
65. Answer (1)
Use Schomaker Stevenson formula.
66. Answer (1)
67. Answer (3)
68. Answer (2)
69. Answer (4)
Only metals of 2nd period and group 1, 2 and 13
48. Answer (4) show diagonal relationship. So, C and P don’t show
Net content force between seat and man is the vector diagonal relationship.
sum of normal reaction and friction so in case of
acceleration it is more than weight and for uniform
motion it is equal to weight.
49. Answer (4) 70. Answer (4)
As angle of repose is different for the two blocks that In a period from left to right effective nuclear charge
means the friction coefficient is different in the two increases and size decreases, as a result ionisation
cases and angle of repose is independent of the mass energy increases. But elements of IIA and VA group
of body placed on inline so all cases of masses are on the account of their completely – filled and half
possible. filled orbtials have high IE than the elements of IIIA
50. Answer (3) and VIA group.
71. Answer (4)
Successive ionisation energies of the given elements
are as follows:
Element E.C IE1 IE2 IE3
H 1s1 1312.0 ---- ----
2 1
Li 1s 2s 518.0 7314 11810
Be 1s2 2s2 899.9 1758 14810
B 1s2 2s2 2p1 801 2460 3644
72. Answer (2)
In a period, alkali metals have the lowest and
noble gases have the maximum I.E.
73. Answer (4)
2F – mg = ma
S2 has the largest size and hence the lowest I.E.
2mg – mg = ma 74. Answer (3)
ma = mg 75. Answer (2)
a=g 76. Answer (2)
51. Answer (2) Due to weak crystal structure
52. Answer (3) 77. Answer (4)
Experimental
3d  4d  5d 78. Answer (3)
Zr  Hf due to Lanthanide contraction Experimental
53. Answer (1) 79. Answer (2)
The oxidation state of Cr in carbonyl is zero
Be metal is opaque to x rays
54. Answer (3)
55. Answer (3) 80. Answer (4)
56. Answer (1) Beo has ZnS structure (CN 4 :4)
57. Answer (4) 81. Answer (4)
58. Answer (1) MgCl2. 6H2O on heating undergo hydrolysis to give
59. Answer (3) Mg(OH)2
60. Answer (3) 82. Answer (3)
61. Answer (4) Solubility of carbonates decreases down the group
Electronic configuration is [Kr]4d105s1 83. Answer (4)
Period no = 5; group no = XI Barium nitrate crystallises as anhydrous salt
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 22
 Test Booklet Code-C
84. Answer (3) 110. Answer (2)
In solid BeCl2, Be forms four bonds SP3 111. Answer (2)
85. Answer (1) 112. Answer (2)
Be(OH)2 amphoteric dissolves in excess alkali 113. Answer (4)
86. Answer (4)] 114. Answer (3)
Maximum coordination number of Mg is 6. 115. Answer (2)
87. Answer (3) Chl-a is he chief pigment
2BeCl2 + LiAlH4  2BCH2 + LiCl + AlCl3 116. Answer (3)
88. Answer (1) Formation of NADPH is associated with PS-I in
For all alkaline earth metals 2nd IP in nearly twice of NCPP
1st IP 117. Answer (3)
89. Answer (1) 118. Answer (4)
2+
Be has high charge low radius more hydration 119. Answer (3)
90. Answer (4) 120. Answer (2)
Ca Z = 20 brickred 121. Answer (1)
Ba 56 apple green 122. Answer (4)
76  4 123. Answer (2)
Sum 76 5 124. Answer (3)
16
91. Answer (4) 125. Answer (3)
Mg 126. Answer (3)
92. Answer (2) 127. Answer (2)
Hydration of molecules rearrangement hardens 128. Answer (2)
cement increases 129. Answer (1)
93. Answer (3) Histone-like proteins (HLPs) are bacterial proteins
Gypsum increases setting time which are basic in nature and associated with nucleoid
94. Answer (4) and play roles in maintaining DNA structure.
Anhydrous CaSO4 130. Answer (3)
Does not give plastic mass with water 131. Answer (3)
95. Answer (2) 132. Answer (4)
133. Answer (2)
Cl1
134. Answer (1)
Ca
135. Answer (2)
OCl1 136. Answer (1)
96. Answer (3) 137. Answer (1)
Experimental 138. Answer (4)
97. Answer (4) 139. Answer (2)
BeCl2 electron deficient Division of labour means different biochemical reaction
98. Answer (1) performed by different structure in a cell or organisms
BeCO3 unstable decomposes to BeO and CO2 140. Answer (2)
99. Answer (4) 141. Answer (4)
Be forms oxide layer 142. Answer (2)
100. Answer (2) Purple sulfur bacteria and green sulfur bacteria are
BaSO4 is used in radiographic investigations for chemoautotrophic bacteria.
image is the human gastro intestinal tract. 143. Answer (3)
101. Answer (3) Function of contractile vacuole is osmoregulation, if:
102. Answer (2) (i) Amoeba place in distilled water or found in
103. Answer (3) pond, lake, etc. contractile vacuole work faster
104. Answer (4) (ii)Amoeba placed in high concentrated solution or
105. Answer (1) found in ocean contractile vacuole disappears.
106. Answer (2) 144. Answer (4)
107. Answer (1) 145. Answer (1)
Photolysis of H2O Diatoms are planktonic in nature and passively float
H2O  2H+ + 2e + [O] or with water current.
2H2O  4H+ + 4e + O2 146. Answer (1)
108. Answer (4) Bacteria are first largest members of kingdom monera.
109. Answer (1) 147. Answer (3)
PS-I and PS-II named are given in the sequence of 148. Answer (2)
their discovery but in NCPP, PS-II comes first 149. Answer (1)
before PS-I due to their function or sequence of 150. Answer (2)
their electron transfer. 151. Answer (4)
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 23
 Test Booklet Code-B
152. Answer (2) 172. Answer (4)
153. Answer (3) Pyloric sphincter regulates the passage of food from
Monophyodant teeth are formed once during life stomach to small intestine.
rd
time 8 premolars and 4-3 molars (wisdom teeth) 173. Answer (3)
are absent in milk teeth and only present in adult 174. Answer (4)
0021
teeth so it’s dental formula is . The descending part includes descending colon and
0021 sigmoid colon. It opens into the rectum which opens
154. Answer (1) out through the anus.
The hard chewing surface of the teeth made up of
175. Answer (1)
enamel which is hardest part in the body.
155. Answer (3) In duodenum submucosa forms brunner’s glands for
156. Answer (3) mucus secretion.
Taxonomy and systematic have the different 176. Answer (1)
meanings. Systematic means systematic 177. Answer (4)
arrangement of organisms. 178. Answer (2)
157. Answer (1) A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the
158. Answer (3) entry of food into glottis, opening of the trachea
Stomach has four parts, they are cardiac portion, (wind pipe) during swallowing.
fundic region, body and pyloric position. Among
179. Answer (4)
these body is main central region rest of three forms
oesophageal end to initial part of intensive. 180. Answer (2)
159. Answer (4) The stomach is located in the upper left portion of
160. Answer (2) abdominal cavity.
161. Answer (3) 181. Answer (4)
Milk teeth present children’s up to 5 years. So a Caecum is a small blind sac which hosts some
baby boy with two years means milk teeth present in symbiotic micro-organisms.
his oral cavity. Premolar only absent in milk teeth.
182. Answer (3)
162. Answer (3)
Vermiform appendix is a narrow finger like tubular
A Serosa made up of thin mesothelium. B Label
represent smooth muscles, C lable represents sub projection.
mucosa which is made up of loose connective tissue 183. Answer (2)
and D label represent mucosa which forms gastric The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together
rugae in stomach & finger like folds called villi in into the duodenum as the common hapato-
intestine. pancreatic as the common hepato-pancreatic duct.
163. Answer (2) 184. Answer (3)
Salivary glands are 3 pairs i.e.
Dogs and cats have some similarities but both are
(i) Parotids present at cheeks not belongs to same family. Dogs are canidae and
(ii) Sub maxillary/sub mandibular present at lower cats are Felidae family.
jaw and (iii) Sub ligulas present below the tongue.
185. Answer (4)
164. Answer (2)
165. Answer (2) Exocrine portion of pancreas secrete alkaline
A narrow finger like tubular projection, the pancreatic juice and endocrine portion secretes
vermiform appendix, which is a vestigial organ hormones like Insulin and Glucogon.
arises from calcium only not from ileum. 186. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3) 187. Answer (4)
167. Answer (3) In Transeverse section of gut, muscularis layer
Botanical gardens have collections of living plants consists of an oblique muscle layer present in some
for reference. regions like stomach.
168. Answer (2) 188. Answer (4)
169. Answer (1)
Intestinal villi are supplied with a network of
170. Answer (4)
capillaries and a large lymph vessel called the
Pharynx serves as a common passage for food and
lacteal.
air.
171. Answer (4) 189. Answer (3)
Each hepatic lobule is covered by a thin connective The hepatic lobules are the structural and functional
tissue sheath called the Glisson’s capsule. units of liver.
SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 24
 Test Booklet Code-C
190. Answer (4) 196. Answer (2)
191. Answer (2) Classification for lion – Phylum – Chordata
192. Answer (3) Class – Mammalia
193. Answer (2) Order – Carnivora
There are many organisms which do not reproduce. Family – Felidae
Eg:- Mules, sterile worker bees and infertile human Genus – Panthera
Species - Ieo
couples.
197. Answer (1)
194. Answer (1) 198. Answer (4)
The major components of food are carbohydrates,
195. Answer (4)
proteins and fats. Vitamin and minerals are required
The upper surface of the tongue has papillae. some in small quantities.
199. Answer (3)
of which bees taste buds and Pharynx serves as a
Zoological gardens are not useful to understand the
common passage for food and air. Oesophagus is a skeleton and integumentary system of wild animals.
long thin tube. 200. Answer (3)

SARASWATI VIDYA MANDIR, Coaching Division, Neelakantha Nagar, Berhampur – 2. 25