Geology CCE (P) 2015

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CCE CP) = 2015 GEOLOGY KTM-17-XV DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO Subject Code: [1]7 Test Booklet No. 00463 TEST BOOKLET GEOLOGY Time Allowed : 2 (Two) Hours Full Marks : 200 a 10. lL. 12, INSTRUCTIONS ‘The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Subject Code shall be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer Sheet with black ball pen. Space provided for Series in the Answer Sheet is not applicable for Optional Subject. So the space shall be left blank. All questions carry equal marks. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet. No candidate shall be admitted to the Examination Hall/Room 20 minutes after commencement of distribution of the paper. The Supervisor of the Examination Hall/Room will be the time-keeper ‘and his/her decision in this regard is final No candidate shall leave the Examination Hall/Room without prior permission of the Supervisor/ Invigilator. No candidate shall be permitted to hand over his/her Answer Sheet and leave the Examination Hall/Room before expiry of the full time allotted for each paper. - No Mobile Phone, Pager, ctc., are allowed to be carried inside the Examination Hall/Room by the candidates. Any Mobile Phone, Pager, etc., found in possession of the candidate inside the Examination Hall/Room, even if on off mode, shall be liable for confiscation, No candidate shall have in his/her possession inside the Examination Hall/Room any book, notebook or loose paper, except his/her Admission Certificate and other connected paper permitted by the Commission. Complete silence must be observed in the Examination Hall/Room. No candidate shall copy from the paper of any other candidate, or permit his/her own paper to be copied, or give, or attempt to give, or obtain, or attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any kind, After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the Examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. Violation of any of the above Rules will render the candidate liable to expulsion from the Examination Hall/Room and disqualification from the Examination, and according to the nature and gravity of his/her offence, he/she may be debarred from future Examin: conducted by the Commission for appointment to Government Service. ‘Smoking inside the Examination Hall/Room is strictly prohibited. This Test Booklet contains one shect (two pages) for Rough Work at the end. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO [ No. of Questions : 100] Bes Cece (P)- 2015" GEOLOGY 1, The term ‘ithosphere’ includes the crust and the upper part of the mantle up to a depth of (A) 250 kilometres (B) 150 kilometres (©) 400 kilometres (D) 675 kilometres 2. In the solar system, which of the following planets possesses the least density? (A) Mercury (B) Mars (C) Jupiter (0) Saturn 3. Exfoliation occurs due to (A) running water (8) glaciers (C) fluctuation in temperature (D) strong winds 4. The diameter of the earth is about (A) 7400 kilometres (8) 13800 kilometres (©) 12800 kilometres (D) 21300 kilometres KTM-17-XV/14 5. The element that makes up about 50% of the earth's crust is (A) silicon (B) iron () oxygen (©) aluminium 6. Which one of the following is fissure eruption type? a) 8) © >) Vulcanian type Icelandic type Bandaisan type Vesuvian type 7. Flat topped sea mounts are known as @ ®) © © mesa guyot inselberg, monadnock 8. Siliceous deposits formed around geysers are a) ®) © @) cinders geyserites scoriae pumice 9. Find the odd one out of the 13. The shortening of bed takes place in following : case of (A) Frost heaving (A) reverse fault (B) Oxidation (C) Hydration (B) normal fault (D). Solution (©) wrench fault 10, The Himalayas rose from the primeval sea of (D) strike slip fault (a) Atlantic (B) Tethys 14, The normal fault having very low- ace angle dip is called () Arabian (A) detachment fault 11. The dip of any bed is considered as (B) gravity fault (A) a vector quantity (©) wrench fault (8) @ scalar quantity (©) both vector and scalar (©) pivot fault quantities (D) a quantity whose unit is not known 18. In NE India, Main Boundary Fault is present in 12. Which one of the following is an example of a structure having quaquaversal dip? tah sitgniony (A) Plateau (8) Nagaland (8) Dome Ete (©) Meghalaya asin (D) Horst (D) Arunachal Pradesh KTM-17-XV/14 3 [P.T.0. 16. If igneous rocks are unconformably overlain by younger sedimentary rocks, the resulting unconformity is (A) known as (A) disconformity 8) (8) non-conformity (C) angular unconformity wel (D) offlap © 17. A limited area of older rocks surrounded by younger rocks is 20. In an asymmetrical fold, the axis coincides with the crest of an anticline coincides with the trough of the syncline does not coincide with the crest of an anticline coincides with both the trough and the crest of an anticline called 21. Which one of the following is not a microfossil? (A) outlier @) (A) Radiolaria }) overlap Diator (©) intier pes (D) oman (©) Cyprea (D) Coccolithophore 18. Very closely spaced joints in rocks is known as 22. A well-known gastropod shell having (A) fracture cleavage sinistral coiling is (B) shear cleavage (A) Oliva (C) strain-slip cleavage (®) Physa (0) crenulation cleavage (C) Nerita 19. When stream valleys are guided by (D) Conus folds and are parallel to the trend of fold axes, the pattern of drainage is called @) 8) c) @) dendritic radial trellis annular KTM-17-XV/14 4 23. Pedicle opening is present in (A) cephalopod shell (B) brachiopod shell {C) gastropod shell (D) bivalved shell 24, Cardinal teeth in Lamellibranchia is 28, possesses monomyarian type situated at which place? of adductor muscle. (A) Below the beak (A) Lucina (B) At the ligament ua (©) Arca (C) Away from the beak (D) Exo (D) Cardinal. teeth were not Bem et 99, The” bivalvia obella ere joined together at the dorsal side by 25. Orthis is a genus of Sa (A) adductor muscle (A) Cephalopoda ee (B) Gastropoda (C) ligament (C) Trilobita (D) delthyrium (D)) Brachigpgas, 30. Which of the following is arranged properly based on the evolution of 26. surrounds the mouth in suture lines in Ammonoidea? Echinoidea. mee, eates (A) Ammonitic, Goniatitic, (A). Periproct camo : ®) Goniatitic, Ceratitic, (B) Madreporite ete (©) Ambulacrum (C) Ceratitic, ‘Ammonitic, Goniatitic (D) Peristome (D) Ammonitic, Ceratitic, Goniatitie 27. The toothless form of dentition of Lamellibranchia is known as 81. Spire is present in the class of ese (A) Lamellibranchia 2 oe (B) Brachiopoda (©) schizodont (C) Cephalopoda (D) edentulous (D) Gastropoda KTM-17-XV/14 8 [Pro. 32, ____ has the features of both plants 36. The normal class of monocli and animals. system is of (A) Alveolina (A) galena type (8) Coral (B) gypsum type (C) Buglena (©) zircon type (D) Foraminifera (D) beryl type: 33. Gymnosperm aif plant which 37. In hexagonal system, the twins are formed according to (A) exhibits no extinct varieties (A) Dauphine law (B) bears flowers (8) Carlsbad law (C) does not produce seeds in cones (©) Perictine law (D) produces seeds in cones (2) Manebach law 34. The age of Baculites is 38. Which one of the following is not galena type of a mineral? (a) Cretaceous (A) Garnet (B) Tertiary ®) Spinel (©) Devonian (©) Fluorspar (©) Silurian (©) Rutile 35. Cranidium of trilobites is a combination of 39. Acrystal is a periodic arrangement of (A) glabella + free cheeks (4) atoms (B) glabella + fixed cheeks (8) molecules (C) glabella + genal angle (C) ions (D) fixed cheeks + free checks (D) both atoms and molecules KTM-17-XV/14 6 40. The phenomenon of piezoelectricity is exhibited by those crystals that lacks a (A) symmetry axis (B) plane of symmetry {C) centre of symmetry (D) pseudosymmetry 41. The Miller’s symbol for parameters Ya : eb : c will be (a) 201 ®) 112 ( 012 (D) 221 42, ___ helps in determination of order of interference colour. (A) Gypsum plate (8) Quartz wedge (©) Mica plate (D) Sensitive tint 43. Dichroism is restricted to the crystal system(s) of (A) isometric (B) triclinic and monoclinic (C) tetragonal and hexagonal (0) orthorhombic KTM-17-Xv/14 44. Find the odd one out of the following : (A) Flint (B) Chalcedony (©) Anorthite (D) Opal 45. Find the odd one out of the following : (A) Grossular (B) Spessartite (C) Almandine (D) Lepidolite 46. can be used in the preparation of artificial polarizer. (A) Quinine calcium sulphate (8) Lead sulphate (C) Mixture of lead and iodine (D) Quinine iodine sulphate [P.7.0. 47. The chemical composition of sillimanite is (A) A1,03 “SiO (B) Al, -Si0, -2H,0 (C) Al,0g -2H20 (D) A103 -4H,0 48. A biaxial mineral is positive if (A) X is acute bisectrix (8) Zis acute bisectrix (©) Yis acute bisectrix (D) Z is obtuse bisectrix 49. The highest interference colour is produced in a thin section which is (A) parallel to the optic axis (B) perpendicular to the optic axis (C) at an angle of 15° from the cleavage direction (D) at an angle of 45° from the vibration direction 50. Which one of the following is a non-pleochroic mineral? (A) Biotite (B) Muscovite (C) Hypersthene (D) Garnet KTM-17-XV/14 is mineralogically equivalent to granite. (A) Aplite (8) Gabbro (C) Dolerite (D) Syenite is the volcanic equivalent of granodiorite. (A) Rhyolite (B) Dacite (©) Trachyte (0) Phonolite 53. Graphic texture is a product of crystallization at (A) tripple point (8) incongruent point {C) eutectic point {P) quadrotectic point 84. Which of the following may not be of metamorphic origin? (A) Granite {B) Basalt (C) Trachyte (D) Gabbro 85. Ophitic texture is exhibited by commonly (A) lamprophyre (B) dolerite (©) harzburgite (D) trachyte 56. Batholiths are always associated with (A) earthquake zones (B) orogenic belt {C) island arc (D) fold and faults 87. texture is absent in plutonic igneous rocks. (A) Holohyaline (B) Holocrystalline (C) Porphyritic (2) Granitic KTM-17-Xv/14 58. Conglomerate with compositionally ‘one type of pebble is called (A) polymictic conglomerate (B) oligomictic conglomerate {C) intraformational conglomerate (0) interformational conglomerate 59. Pudding stone isa synonymous term for (A) breccia (8) grit (C) khondalite (D) conglomerate 60, ____ is a light-coloured sandstone with at least 25% feldspar. (A) Orthoquartite (B) Arkose (C) Greywacke (D) Grit [P.7.0. 61. Silt and clay deposits formed by the 65. Blastoporphyritic means sediments carried in suspension by air currents is known as (A) an inherited porphyritic fabric (A) marlite (8) equigranular fabric (B) novaculite (C) a fabric that develops during metamorphism (©) loess (0) post-metamorphic fabric (D) lacustrine 66. Hornfelsic rocks form due to 62. Find the argillaceous rock from the metamorphism. following : (A). regional (A) Sandstone (®) contact (B) Siltstone (C) cataclastic (©) Shale (0) pneumatolytic (©) Grit 67. Which of the following rocks was 63. Find out the discordant bedding of produced by dynamothermal the following : metamorphism? (A) Current bedding (A) Schist (B) Graded bedding (8) Marble (©) Ripple marks (C) Mylonite (D) Mud cracks (0) ‘Slate 64, Rounded clasts, high SiO, and 68. The general temperature of, Al0,,high ZTR reflect metamorphism is in between (A) high maturity (A) 400 °C to 1100 °c (B) low maturity (B) 500 °C to 1200 °c (C) tectonic unstability (C) 100 °C to 3000 °C (D) reducing conditions (D) 200 °C to 800 °C KTM-17-XV/14 10 69. Regional metamorphism occurred due to conditions. (A) heat predominant (B) directed pressure predominant (C) uniform pressure and heat predominant (D) directed pressure and heat predominant 70. The minerals glaucophane and Jadeite are suggestive of (A) high temperature—low pressure (B) high pressure—low temperature (©) high temperature-high pressure (0) low pressure-tow temperature 71. Find the hydrothermal deposit from the following : (A) Residual deposit (8) Placer deposit (C) Cavity-filling deposit (0) Evaporites 72. Pyrolusite is an ore of (A) manganese ®) aluminium (C) iron (D) copper KTM-17-XV/14 73. The zone of oxidation in the supergene sulphide enrichment process extends (A)_ up to the water table (B) up to 25 metres above water table (C) just below water table {D) up to the soil level 74. Ladder views are usually found in (A) sill (B) dyke (©) lava flows (2) volcanic pipes 78. Which one of the following is not a magmatic concentration deposit? (A) Residual liquid deposit (®) Immiscible liquid deposit (C) Oxidized and —_ supergene deposit {D) Pegmatitic deposit 716. Asbestos is used for the production of (A) insulator (B) smelting material (C) textile product (©) alloy [P.-1.0. 77. According to Lindgren’s classifica- 81. The largest resources of lignite in the tion, a hydrothermal deposit which country are located in is formed at 300 °C to 500 °C and at very high pressure is (A) Bhuj and Mehsana, Gujarat (A) xenothermal (8) Palana and Baroner, Rajasthan (B) telethermal (C) Karewa Belt, Kashmir (©) mesothermal (D) Neyveli, South Arcot, Tamil Nadu (D) hypothermal 78. Which of the following deposits a era ce re eae valves die Ee amount of ash than the Gondwana coal (A) Chromite 4 (4) higher ©) Magnetite (8) equal (C) Sulphur (C) lower () Diamond : (0) infinitely higher 79. The chemical composition of chromite is 83. The oldest oil field of Assam is (A) Cr20, (A) Rudrasagar Oil Field (B) Fe0-Cr,03 (8) Lakwa Oil Field {Ohiraeed (C) Digboi Oi! Field Dae (D) Naharkatiya Oil Field 80. The coal deposit of Assam is econoistcalie satin ti 84. Chromite is a member of the (A) Tipam Group (A) Spinel Group (8) Surma Group (B) Epidote Group (©) Dining Group (C) Olivine Group (D) Barail Group (D) Mellilite Group KTM-17-XV/14 12 85. Copper deposit of Singhbhum is an 89. Which of the following formations example of contains three _fossiliferous limestone member? fissure vein deposit O — (A) Kopili Formation (ye seer sonegeroalt (B) Tikak Parbat Formation (C) ladder vein deposit (©) Shella Formation (D) saddle reef deposit (D) Bokabil'Formation 90. ___ Unconformity marks the 86. The fundamental lithostratigraphic cla: boundary between the Cuddapah Supergroup and the Archacan granites and gneisses in the (A) supergroup ‘Tirupati—Tirumala Hills of South India. (8) group P (A) Eparchaean (C) formation ©) Conrea (0) member (©) Murugan (D) Narasimhan The basic unit of biostratigraphy is 91. Which one of the following belongs to (A) subzone the Lower Vindhya Group? (8) zone (A) Kaimur refund (B) Rewa (©) Bhander (D) bed (0) Semri Bhuban Formation is under 92. In Upper Assam, the Dupitila Formation is known as (A) Disang Group (A) Dihing Formation (B) Jaintia Group - (B) Dhekiajuti Formation (©) Surma Group (©) Naogaon Formation (D) Barail Group (D) Namsang Formation KTM-17-XV/14 13 [P.7.0. 93. Palaeogene includes 97. (A) Palaeocene, Eocene and Oligocene (B) Oligocene, _ Miocene and Pliocene (©) Palaeocene, Eocene, Oligocene and Miocene (D) Miocene and Pliocene In the following, which is not a lithostratigraphic unit? (A) Member (B) Formation (C) Supersuite (D) Group 98. Which one of the following is found 94, Which of the following represents the most ancient = —_supracrustal lithounits of Dharwar Craton? (A) Sargon Group (8) Bababudan Group (C) Chitradurga Group (D) Ranibennur Group 95. The Lower Part of Shillong Group is (A) argillaceous (B) arenaceous (©) carbonaceous (0) rich in phosphorus 96. Shillong Group of Meghalaya is equivalent to (A) Iron ore Group (8) Barail Group (©) Raniganj Group (D) Jaintia Group KTM-17-XV/14 14 as an intrusive rock? (A) Mylliem granite (B) Khondalite (C) Deccan Trap (D) Sylhet Trap 99. Triassic Strata as exposed in Spiti Region is mainly (A) calcareous and arenaceous (B) calcareous and carbonaceous (©) calcareous and argillaceous (D) argillaceous and arenaceous 100. Who among the following made the ‘law of faunal succession’? (A). William Smith (B) W. King (©) L. L. Fermor (D) J. A. Dunn

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