Test taking examinations

Prepared by: Tom Labonete RN- EMT, LPT

Hematologic & Immune disorders

1.For an adult client to be diagnosed with acquire immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which
condition must be present?
A. Infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), tuberculosis, and cytomegalovirus
infection
B. Infection with HIV, an alternative lifestyle, and a T-cell count above 200 cells/ µl
C. Infection with HIV, CD4+ count below 200 cells/ µl and a T-cell count above 400 cells/ µl
D. Infection with HIV, a history of acute HIV infection, and CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/ µl

2.Which body substance most easily transmit human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. Feces and saliva
B. Blood and semen
C. Breast milk and tears
D. Vaginal secretions and urine

3.Immediately after giving an injection, a nurse is accidentally stuck with the needle when a client
becomes agitated. When is the best time for the employer to test the nurse for human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies to determine if she became infected as a result of the
needle stick?
A. Immediately and then again in 6 weeks
B. Immediately and then again in 3 months
C. In 2 weeks and then again in 6 months
D. In 2 weeks and then again in 1 year

4.Which factor makes it difficult to develop a vaccine for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A. HIV is a virus
B. HIV matures early
C. HIV mutates easily
D. HIV spreads thoroughly body secretions

5.A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which dietary
recommendation may help this client reduce inflammation?
A. Fish oil
B. Vitamin D
C. Iron-rich foods
D. Calcium carbonate
6.Which is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used most often to treat rheumatoid
arthritis?
A. Furosemide
B. Haloperidol
C. Ibuprofen
D. Methotrexate

7.Which method of transmission has the most risk for exposure to human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV)?
A. Routine teeth cleaning at the dentist’s office
B. Intercourse with your spouse
C. Unprotected, noninsertive sexual contact
D. Intercourse with a new partner without a condom

8.Which client is most at risk for developing rheumatoid arthritis?

A. A 25-year-old woman
B. A 40-year-old man
C. A 65-year-old woman
D. A 70-year-old man

9.Which precautions must a nurse take when taking the blood pressure of an HIV-positive client?
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing a gown
C. Using contact precautions
D. Washing hands

10.Which group or factor is linked to higher morbidity and mortality in human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV)-infected clients?
A. Homosexual men
B. Lower socioeconomic status
C. Treatment in a large teaching hospital
D. Treatment by a physician who specializes in HIV infection

Emotional needs related to Health Problems

11. A client is admitted to the hospital with metastatic cancer. The client has abdominal pain, a
temperature of 100.4F and distended abdomen. The client asks the nurse, “Do you think that I’m
going to have surgery?” T he statement by the nurse that would best help to establish a
therapeutic relationship at this time:
a) “Are you afraid to have surgery?”
b) “Some people with your problem have surgery.”
c) “I really don’t know. You’ll have to ask your doctor.”
d) “Has someone talked to you about having surgery?”

12. A female client with the diagnosis of Cronh’s disease tells the nurse that her boyfriend dates
other women. She believes that this behavior causes an increase in her symptoms. In an effort to
counsel the client, the nurse should first:
a) Help her to explore attitudes towards herself
b) Educate the client’s boyfriend about her illness
c) Suggest that the client should not see her boyfriend for a while
d) Schedule a counseling session for the client and her boyfriend

13. A 24-year- old college student had a right above the-knee amputation resulting from trauma
sustained in a motor vehicle accident. Upon awakening from surgery the client says.”What
happened to me? I don’t remember a thing.” The nurse initially response should be:
a) “Tell me what you think happened.”
b) “You were in a car accident this morning.”
c) “You lost your leg because of a car accident.”
d) “You sound concerned; you’ll remember more as you wake up.”

14. Three days after an uneventful recovery from an acute myocardial infarction a client is to
moved out of the cardiac unit. The most important nursing function should be to:
a) Provide a sense of security for the client
b) Inform the family of the anticipated move
c) Select a room adjacent to the cardiac unit
d) Give the prescribed sedative before the move

15. While taking the history from a client the nurse promotes communication by:
a) Asking “why” and “how” questions
b) Using broad, open-ended statements
c) Reassuring the client that there is no cause for alarm
d) Asking questions that can be answered by “yes” or “no”

ONCOLOGIC NURSING

16. A woman is undergoing chemotherapy treatment for uterine cancer. She asks the nurse how
chemotherapeutic drugs work. The most accurate explanation would include which statement?
a) They affect all rapidly dividing cells.
b) Molecular structure of the DNA segment is altered.
c) Chemotherapy stimulates cancer cells to divide.
d) The cancer cells are sensitive to drug toxins.

17. An adult experiences severe vomiting from cancer chemotherapy drugs. Which acid-base
imbalance should the nurse anticipate?
a) Ketoacidosis
b) Metabolic acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Respiratory alkalosis

18. A woman loses most of her hair as result of cancer chemotherapy. The nurse understands that
which of the following is true about chemotherapy induced alopecia.
a) New hair will be gray
b) Avoid the use of wigs
c) The hair loss is temporary.
d) Pre-chemo hair texture will return.

19. An adult is diagnosed with Hodgkin’s disease Stage 1A. He is being treated with radiation
therapy. To minimize skin damage from radiation therapy the nursing care plan should include
which of the following?
a) Avoid washing with water.
b) Apply a heating pad to the site.
c) Cover the area with an airtight dressing.
d) Avoid applying creams and powders to the area.

20. An adult develops a second-degree or second-level skin reaction from radiation therapy.
When evaluating his symptoms, the nurse can expect to find all of the following except:
a) Scaly skin.
b) An itchy feeling.
c) Dry desquamation.
d) Reddening of the skin.

21. An adult client is receiving radiation therapy. The nurse is teaching the client about signs of
radiation-induced thrombocytopenia, which include:
a) Fatigue
b) Shortness of breath
c) Elevated temperature
d) A tendency to bruise easily
 22. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy. Which activity by the
client indicates he does not understand the side effects of radiation therapy?
a) Using an electric razor
b) Eating a high-protein diet
c) Taking his children to see Santa at the mall
d) Calling the doctor for a temperature of 101’F (38.3’C).

23. Which statement tells the nurse that a man needs further information about testicular self-
examination (TSE)?
a) “The best time to perform TSE is immediately before sexual intercourse.”
b) “It’s normal to find one testis lower than the other.”
c) “I should have my doctor examine any lumps I find, even though they might be benign.”
d) “That cord-like thing that I feel on the top and back of the testicle is not something to be worried
about.”

24. A woman has breast cancer. Her physician has just told her that her cancer has been staged
as”T2,N1,MO,” and the client asks the nurse what this means. The nurse’s answer is based on
the understanding that;
a) The primary tumor is 2 cm in diameter, she has one positive lymph node, and no metastasis.
b) There are two primary tumors, one involved lymph node chain, and no metastasis.
c) The primary tumor is between 2 cm and 5 cm in size, she has metastasis to one movable lymph
node, and no distant metastasis.
d) There is carcinoma in situ, no regional lymph node metastasis cannot be assessed.

25. The nurse at a senior citizen center is teaching a class on the early warning signals of cancer.
Which of the following will be a part of the teaching plan for this class?
a) Reduction in the amount of dietary fat
b) Stop cigarette smoking
c) Avoid overexposure to the sun
d) Practice monthly breast examination (BSE)

INTEGUMENTARY

26. Local hot and cold applications transfer temperature to and from the body by:
a) Radiation
b) Insulation
c) Convection
d) Conduction

27. Cholesterol is important in the human body for:

a) Blood clotting
b) Bon formation
c) Muscle contraction
d) Cellular membrane structure

28. The client with unresolved edema will most likely develop:
a) Proteinuria
b) Contractures
c) Tissue ischemia
d) Thrombus formation

29. The darkening of tissue seen in chronic venous insufficiency results from the breakdown of
hemoglobin will subsequent formation of:
a) Heme
b) Ferric chloride
c) Ferrous sulfide
d) Insoluble proteins

30. The nurse realizes that sink faucets in a client’s room are considered contaminated because:
a) They are not in sterile areas
b) They are opened with dirty hands
c) Large numbers of people use them
d) Water encourages bacterial growth

SKELETAL SYSTEM

31. The synovial fluid of the joints minimizes:

a) Efficiency
b) Work output
c) Friction of the joints
d) Velocity of movements

32. Compact bone is stronger than cancellous bone because of its greater:
a) Size
b) Weight
c) Volume
d) Density

33. A client with systemic lupus erythematosus questions the nurse as to the source of this
disease. The nurse is aware that this is a disease of:
a) Joints
b) Bones
c) Connective tissue
d) Purine metabolism
 34. The risk of osteoporosis is increased when a client:
a) Receives long-term steroid therapy
b) Has a history of hypoparathyroidism
c) Engages in strenuous physical activity
d) Consume excessive amounts of estrogen

35. Osteoporosis may be caused by:

a) Estrogen therapy
b) Hypoparathyroidism
c) Prolonged mobility
d) Excess calcium intake

Cardiovascular disorder
36. A client electrocardiogram (ECG) is showing ST elevation in Leads V 2, V3 and V4. Which artery
is most likely to be occluded?
A. Circumflex artery
B. Internal mammary artery
C. Left anterior descending artery
D. Right coronary artery

37. When do coronary arteries primarily receive blood flow?

A. During inspiration
B. During diastole
C. During expiration
D. During systole

38. Which is the most common symptom of myocardial infarction (MI)?

A. Chest pain
B. Dyspnea
C. Edema
D. Palpitations

39. Which landmark is the correct one for obtaining an apical pulse?
A. Left fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line
B. Left fifth intercostal space, midclavicular
C. Left second intercostal space, midclavicular
D. Left seventh intercostal space, midclavicular line

40. Which system is the most likely origin of pain the client describes as knifelike chest pain that
increases in intensity with inspiration?
A. Cardiac
 B. Gastrointestinal
C. Musculosketal
D. Pulmonary

41. While assessing a client’s heart sounds, a murmur is heard at the second left intercostal space
along the left sterna border. Which valve is most likely involved
A. Aortic
B. Mitral
C. Pulmonic
D. Tricuspid

42. Which blood test is most indicative of cardiac damage?

A. Lactate dehydrogenase (LD)
B. Complete blood count (CBC)
C. Troponin I
D. Creative kinase (CK)

43. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client wit myocardial infarction?
A. To sedate the client
B. To decrease the client’s pain
C. To decrease the client’s anxiety
D. To decrease oxygen demand on the client’s failure

44. Which condition is most commonly responsible for myocardial infarction (MI)?
A. Aneurysm
B. Heart failure
C. Coronary artery thrombosis
D. Renal failure

45. After a myocardial infarction (MI), serum glucose levels and free fatty acid production both
increase. What type of physiologic both increase. What type of physiologic changes are these?
A. Electrophysiologic
B. Hematologic
C. Mechanical
D. Metabolic

Client with alterations in fluid and electrolyte and acid base balance
46.The nurse is assessing the IV route of a client with diabetes following an infiltration. Which of the
following signs is associated with infiltration of fluid?
a) Infusion site swells
b) Infusion site is warm
 c) Infusion site is hard
d) Vein is inflamed

47.A nurse is monitoring the infusion of blood components being administered to a client with HIV.
The client has developed fluid overload because the blood components were infused too quickly.
Which of the following is a symptom of fluid overload?
a) Lower back pain
b) Distended neck veins
c) Facial flushing
d) Blood in urine

48. A client in the second trimester of pregnancy is admitted to the healthcare facility with severe
shortness of breath. The arterial blood gas analysis showed decreased PaCO 2 and an altered acid-
based balance. Which of the following should the nurse include as the cause of hyperventilation
in the client?
a) Decreased lung capacity
b) High progesterone level
c) Decreased serum sodium
d) Increased aldosterone level

49. One clinical manifestation the nurse would expect to find during the emergent phase in a patient
with a full-thickness burn over the lower half of the body is:
a) fever
b) severe pain
c) shivering
d) unconsciousness

50. The nurse caring for a diabetic client who has been NPO for 5 days and receiving only dextrose
5% in lactated Ringer’s solution (4 liters daily) reviews the client’s most recent arterial blood gas
results and observes that the pH is now 7.28 what is the most likely explanation for this finding?
A. Acidosis in response to the presence of excessive ketoacids.
B. Acidosis in response to the presence of excessive lactic acid
C. Acidosis in response to the presence of excessive loss of carbonic acid
D. Acidosis in response to the presence of excessive loss of sulfuric acid