ANAQUE REVIEW CENTER

MIDWIFERY Licensure Examination

Tuesday, JULY 15, 203
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DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE ALLOWED.
1. Which of the following is NOT part of the female external genitalia?
A. Clitoris C. Cervix
B. Labia D. Meatus

2. What female structure is homologous to scrotum in men?

A. Clitoris C. Cervix
B. Labia minora D. Labia majora

3. A pregnant mother who just received her covid-19 vaccine develops

fever. What drug should be given to her
A. Remdesivir C. Paracetamol
B. Ceftriaxone D. Antiviral

4. What is the normal weight of term pregnant uterus

A. 1000grams C. 10,000 grams
B. 500 grams D. 100 grams

5. Specialized layer of a pregnant endometrium is termed as

A. Decidua C. Fundus
B. Gravida D. Contraction

6. How many days can be sperm cell be viable inside the reproductive
tract of women
A. 1 to 2 days C. 5 to 7 days
B. 3 to 5 days D. 7 to 10 days

7. A fertile period cervical mucus can be described as _____________.

A. thick and yellow C. thin with curds
B. thin and colorless D. thick and fishy odor

8. Using the Basal Body Temperature method of natural family planning,

the fertile period is identified by a slight rise in body temperature
due to the effect of the hormone ___________.
A. Estrogen C. Progesterone
B. HCG D. FSH

9. The main mechanism of action for pregnancy prevention of the cervical

mucus method is ____________.

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 A. thickens cervical mucus C. makes cervical mucus thin
B. Reduces mobility of oviducts D. prevention of ovulation

10. Using the Cycle Beads method to avoid pregnancy, the menstrual
cycle of the woman should be between ________ days.
A. 28 – 34 C. 29 - 35
B. 27 – 33 D. 26 – 32

11. A known complication of combined oral contraceptive is _________.

A. Nausea C. loss of weight
B. Amenorrhea D. deep venous thrombosis

12. The muscle of the pelvic floor that encircle the anus and is
attached to the coccyx is _________.
A. Ischiocavernous C. bulbocavenous
B. sphincter ani D. transverse perineal

13. Based on R.A.7392, the midwife can perform the following after
training, EXCEPT __________.
A. perform internal examination
B. Inject oxytocin after delivery of placenta
C. repair second degree perineal tears
D. routinely insert intravenous fluid in labor

14. The normal measurement of the interspinous diameter is _________.

A. 8 cm C. 13.5 cm
B. 10 cm D. 12 cm

15. The following findings can be CLINICALLY evaluated during

internal examination EXCEPT __________.
A. true conjugate C. cervical effacement
B. station of the head D. cervical dilation

16. Which is the presenting diameter in face presentation?

A. submento bregmatic C. suboccipito bregmatic
B. fronto occipital D. mento occipital

17. One of the following statements regarding viral hepatitis

infection is true, EXCEPT __________.
A. common cause of jaundice in pregnancy
B. positive HBsAg means chronic carrier
C. may be transmitted across the placenta
D. hepatitis B is a food borne infection

18. If her cervix is closed, non-tender without passage of tissues,

the likely diagnosis is _________ abortion.
A. Missed C. complete
B. Incomplete D. threatened

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 19. The definite management for this type of abortion with open
cervix and retained tissue is ___________.
A. progesterone tablets C. isoxsuprine tablets
B. observation and rest D. completion curettage

20. Now, decided on the long acting reversible method of

contraception, which of the following choices can Veronica use?
A. intrauterine device C. oral contraceptive pills
B. bilateral tubal ligation D. cycle beads method

21. What is the EARLIEST sign that a baby is ready to breastfeed?

A. Drooling C. tonguing
B. mouth opening D. licking

22. Normally, at what age in month should the startle reflex in

infant's disappear?
A. 10 C. 5
B. 3 D. 8

23. Which of the following findings in the newborn will NOT need an
immediate referral to a physician?
A. Discharges from the eyes
B. Crying excessively
C. Too light or too heavy breathing
D. Spitting up small a amounts of milk especially after feeding

24. Which of the following is a fine motor skill that can be

observed in the 11-12 months old infant?
A. Picking an object with thumb and finger
B. Standing by holding a furniture
C. Uttering the words "bye-bye"
D. Crying when mother leaves the room

25. Soon after birth, which of the following should you do FIRST for
the baby?
A. Examine the baby and wrap in a warm blanket
B. Suction nose and mouth as a routine procedure
C. Thoroughly dry the baby
D. Perform APGAR scoring

26. In a home visit, a mother asks about toys. Which of the following
will you recommends appropriate for a 6 month old infant?
A. Rattles C. Push-pull toys
B. Squeeze toys D. Building blocks

27. You administered DPT immunization to Baby Lyn today. You instruct
her mother to bring back Baby Lyn for her second dose of DPT after
__________.
A. 3 months C. 4 weeks
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 B. 2 weeks D. 2 months

28. Assessment findings revealed that pus is draining from the ear
and discharge is reported for more the 2 weeks. How would you classify
Lester's illness?
A. Mastoiditis C. No ear infection
B. Chronic ear infection D. Acute ear infection

29. An 8 - month old infant differs from the 5 - months old in his
ability to ___________.
A. smile socially C. sit securely without support
B. imitate facial expressions D. stand

30. Boy David's weight at birth is 7.7 pounds. What is his weight in
kilograms?
A. 4.5 C. 3
B. 3.5 D. 4

31. Normally and as a measure of adequate hydration, how many times

should a newborn void daily?
A. 4 to 5 C. 2 to 3
B. 6 to 8 D. 3 to 4,

32. At how many dose should measles immunization be given for

infants?
A. 1 C. 2
B. 3 D. 4

33. Which of the following is a condition in infants that is

characterized by extreme calorie deficiency?
A. Marasmus C. Kwashiorkor
B. Scurvy D. Avitaminosis

34. As part of your assessment you palpate neonate's anterior

fontanel. Which of the following would you consider a normal finding?
A. Depression C. Softness
B. Bulging D. Complete closure

35. Which of the following assessment findings in the 24-hour old

baby boy will need a referral to the Pediatrician?
A. Jaundice C. Irregular respiration
B. Enlargement of the breast D. Audible bowel sound

36. At what age in months would you expect the weight of an infant to
increase by twice as much as his birth weight?
A. 10 – 11 C. 8 – 9
B. 12 – 14 D. 5 – 6

37. You teach mother C to recognize danger signs in her newborn.

Which of these is NOT a danger sign?
A. Spontaneous movement of the extremities
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 B. Stopped feeding well
C. Respiratory rate of 68 per minute
D. Convulsions

38. Which of the following statements about Vitamin A deficiency is

INCORRECT?
A. Milk, liver and papaya should be part of infant's feeding to help
prevent Vitamin A deficiency
B. Lack of fat in the diet contributes to poor absorption of Vitamin A
C. Presence of Bitot's spots at the sides of the eyeball is a symptom of
Vitamin A deficiency at its early stage
D. Conjunctival dryness in infant is a sign of Vitamin A deficiency

39. In normal infants the voluntary active grasp activity is first

evident at the age of _________.
A. 4-5 months C. 2-3 months
B. 8-10 months D. 6-7 months

40. Giving of solid foods in addition to milk can be started when an

infants is at the age of
A. 10 to 12 months C. 4 to 6 months
B. 7 to 10 months D. 8 to 10 months

41. After one day postpartum, the midwife did vulvar care. In doing
so, what is the proper direction in doing the procedure?
A. From anus to vulva C. From anterior to posterior
B. From posterior to anterior D. Side to side

42. The following are to be considered in providing postpartum

perineal-genital care, EXCEPT ______________.
A. patient is experiencing discomfort in the area
B. self-care abilities of the patient
C. patient has history of UTI
D. perineal-genital hygiene practices

43. To do internal examination (I.E) you placed the patient in dorsal

recumbent position which is the BEST suitable because it
_____________.
A. relaxes abdominal muscle C. helps in bearing down
B. gives comfort to the patient D. is comfortable for you

44. With Tetanus Toxoid (TT1) and Tetanus Toxoid 2 (TT2) given to her
on previous pregnancy, her infant will be protected from Neonatal
Tetanus and Normie will be protected for ___________ years.
A. 10 C. 3
B. 5 D. 8

45. After TT1 and TT2, when is the BEST time to give TT3 so that
Normie will have 5 years of protection? It can be given at least
__________ after TT2.
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 A. 6 months C. 1 year
B. 10 months D. 2 year

46. The doctor's order is to give medication q.o.d. It means:

A. 4 x a day C. Every 4 hours
B. Every other day D. Twice a day

47. ____________ exercise for female strengthen perineal muscles

thereby helps in promoting urinary elimination.
A. Kegel C. Bicycle
B. Walking D. Stretching

48. What is Corrigan's pulse?

A. Systolic contraction and diastolic dilation of the pupil.
B. A decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 15 mmHg when the arm is held
above the head.
C. A rapid and forceful distension of the arterial pulse with a quick
collapse.
D. Systolic and diastolic sounds heard over the femoral artery

49. The foot of the bed is lower than the head of the bed, used to
prevent esophageal reflux.
A. Reverse Trendelenburg C. Fowler's
B. Back – lying D. Trendelenburg

50. Which of following is direct maternal death?

A. Hemorrhage secondary to V.A
B. Infection related to abortion complication
C. Shock due to anaphylaxis
D. Pneumonia related to Covid

51. Which of the following expanded scope of functions of midwife is

considered malpractice?
A. Perform internal examination
B. Give IV infusion in an obstetrical emergency
C. Perform episiotomy
D. Suture 1st & 2nd laceration

52. Covid vaccination is given in which route of administration?

A. Subcutaneous C. Intradermal
B. Intramuscular D. Oral

53. This position is usually used for postural drainage, increase

venous return, and management for shock.
A. Reverse Trendelenburg C. Trendelenburg
B. Fowler's D. Back – lying

54. Prolonged and obstructed labor may result to having an abnormal

connection between the vagina and rectum is called ___________.

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 A. vaginal prolapse C. rectal prolapsed
B. rectovaginal fistula D. vesicovaginal fistula

55. Which part is the LEAST consideration in female catheterization?

A. Vaginal canal C. Ureters
B. Meatus D. Bladder

56. When the tears involve the skin and vaginal mucous membrane,
subcutaneous tissues, fascia, muscles and sphincter ani and rectum is
not torn, the laceration is __________ degree.
A. Second C. fourth
B. Third D. first

57. It is a semi-sitting position with head of bed is raised to 45

degrees angle and convenient for eating, reading and watching T.V.
A. Back – lying C. Reverse Trendelenburg
B. Fowler's D. Trendelenburg

58. When the tears involve the skin and vaginal mucous membrane,
subcutaneous tissues, fascia, muscles,sphincter ani and rectum the
laceration is __________ degree.
A. Second C. fourth
B. Third D. first

59. Which of following disease is NOT caused by virus?

A. Leprosy C. Measles
B. AIDS D. Hepatitis

60. Mr. Lopez has just donated blood. How many hours will be needed
by his body in order to replace the amount of blood extracted from
him?
A. 8 – 10 C. 24
B. 12 D. 3 – 5

61. According to the World Health Organization (WHO) the definition

of health includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Physical well-being C. Social well-being
B. Economic well-being D. Mental well-being

62. The end goal of Primary Health Care approach is for people to be:
A. assertive C. good motivator
B. self-reliant D. good leader

63. The following statement about Rabies is true EXCEPT:

A. Deadly bacteria C. Bite from dog, cats
B. Causes encephalitis D. Attacks the central nervous system

64. When a women dies _______ days after termination of pregnancy

from any related cause or aggravated by her pregnancy excluding deaths
from accident is called maternal death.
A. 45 C. 42
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 B. 28 D. 30

65. Action plan in community organization has the following criteria

EXCEPT ____________.
A. Time frame/resources needed C. Benefit
B. Objectives/activities D. Expected outcome

66. In order to determine the success or failure of programs

implemented, needed data will come from _________________.
A. demographic data C. population pyramid
B. survey D. vital statistics

67. ______________ is a type of epidemiology wherein survey are used

to find out the nature of the population affected by a particular
disease noting the age, sex and occupation.
A. Qualitative C. Descriptive
B. Empirical D. Analytical 

68. People with the following warning signs are advised to seek
consultation immediately EXCEPT ________________.
A. Fever of 37°C & loose stool (2x a day)
B. Blood in your stool
C. Severe Dehydration
D. Severe abdominal pain or rectal pain

69. When a midwife organizes the community into groups to encourage

active participation in health programs/activities, she is doing
__________________.
A. Program formation C. Preparation entry
B. Community mobilization D. Determination of needs

70. If Tetanus Toxoid 4 (TT4) is given to G4P5 pregnant, how many

years will she be protected from Tetanus?
A. 5 C. 10
B. lifetime D. 3

71. The process by which you are able to know the people through
gathering of specific profile of the community is through community
___________________.
A. Development C. assessment
B. Empowerment D. participation

72. In giving Anti-Measles the following is considered EXCEPT

_________________.
A. route is subcutaneous
B. inject in the outer part of upper arm
C. clean site with cotton with alcohol
D. instruct mother on how to hold the baby

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 73. The management done to ensure the potency of vaccines from the
time of manufacture, until the time it is given to eligible target is
__________________.
A. cold chain C. shake test
B. cold dog D. vaccine carrier

74. There are three (3) levels of prevention in our Philippines

Health Care Delivery System. Which among the following is considered
1st level of prevention?
A. Immunization C. Physical and respiratory therapy
B. Boiling drinking water D. Case finding

75. It is considered the universal precaution in preventing cross

infection/contamination:
A. Wearing of gloves C. Use of alcohol
B. Use of hand gel D. Hand washing

76. Under the IMCI, a midwife can base her assessment of Severe
Pneumonia if the child has _______________.
A. Malnutrition C. high fever
B. chest indrawing D. low grade fever

77. It is the time when disease are most contagious & easily
transmitted to others.
A. Prodromal period C. Communicability period
B. Contact period D. Incubation period

78. A pregnant mother has received two doses of tetanus toxoid. The
baby is protected from tetanus neonatorum thru type of immunity?
A. Natural active C. Artificial active
B. Natural passive D. Artificial passive

79. _____________ is the process by which you are able to know the
people through gathering of specific profile of the community.
A. Community participation C. Community development
B. Community assessment D. Community empowerment

80. The study of a community clients through gathering of specific

data to know the profile of the place is:
A. Community empowerment C. Community assessment
B. Community participation D. Community development

81. Malpractice is different from illegal practice because illegal

practice is _____________.
A. practicing the profession without a license
B. performing procedures not the right way
C. putting titles after the name with no legal basis
D. deviating procedures from the correct one

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 82. The ethical behavior of a midwife when offering to render service
to a postpartum mother and her baby is _____________.
A. Tell the mother that you are best known midwife in the community
B. Inform the mother that you are better off in giving postpartum
care than other midwives
C. Charge a professional fee that commensurate with the service
rendered
D. Inform the patient that your fee is lower than the other midwives
in the community

83. The midwife was found guilty by the court of misdemeanor and she
was punished by ___.
A. fine and imprisonment upon court decision
B. imprisonment for a period of not less than two years but not more
than seven years
C. a fine of not less Php 10,000.00 and imprisonment for a period of
not less than two years but not more than seven years
D. a fine of not less than Php 10,000.00 only

84. As a midwife, she must upheld herself by professional ethics.

This means that
A. she must be guided by the principles of right action exemplary in
the practice of the profession
B. she must observe the measure stick for midwives in their
professional conduct in dealing with patients
C. her actions are based on sufficient consideration
D. her conduct must be worthy of high standards

85. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about abortion?

A. Abortion is never permitted even if it will save the mother's life
B. Abortion is not allowed in the country based on its Constitution
C. Abortion may be allowed as per request of the family
D. Abortion is allowed as long as its objective is justifiable

86. It is not enough that a midwife has the technical skills, she
must have the basic leadership skills as well. Becoming a good leader,
a midwife must possess the following, EXCEPT ____________.
A. expert in establishing linkage with other healthcare groups
B. able to identify different channels of communications
C. capacity to recognize others weaknesses and help to improve
D. ability to encroach on other members functions

87. How will you manage when your friend approaches you for abortion?
A. I will advise her to look for other friends willing to help her and
I will start avoiding her to have peace of mind
B. I will refer her to another midwife who is performing the procedure
but let her promise not to implicate me in the situation
C. I will agree with her plans but it will be performed in place far
from place to avoid being implicated in her problem

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 D. I will convince her to continue with her pregnancy and help her
realize the consequences of her plan

88. The following are prohibited under the Midwifery Law, EXCEPT
_____________.
A. practicing using a re-issued certificate of registration
B. appending RM after the name after failing the exam
C. practicing without taking the examination
D. practicing using certificate of registration of another

89. We can say that the midwife is "unprofessional" if she displays

which of the following behaviors?
A. Checks the mistakes of other midwives in front of patients
B. Discusses mistakes of other midwives in a private venue
C. Let the midwives realized their own errors
D. Ignores mistakes of others and just continue with her work

90. Regardless of the organizations, midwives are assured that by

joining a professional organization, they are observing the following,
EXCEPT _______________.
A. promulgating the code of technical standards of the profession
B. members of the team encroaching on other member's functions
C. enforcing the law and sanctions regarding the scope of practice
D. united as a body legally engaged in upholding the quality service
in the community

91. To be qualified as member of the professional organization, a

midwife needs ______________.
A. Not take active part in all activities of the profession as long as
she keeps in touch with the officers and the current trends of the
profession.
B. To be registered as professional and be updated with the
organization's activities and updates relative to the profession.
C. To pass the board examination, take an oath and regularly
participate in the upliftment of the profession
D. May not take oath but regularly attends to the organization's
meetings, seminars and conventions.

92. Professional organizations promote the following, EXCEPT:

A. Cohesiveness among the members
B. Establishment of a solid front in the solution of problems
confronting the profession
C. Individual struggle for prestige and increase of income
D. Enhancement of knowledge and skills of midwife practitioners

93. Midwives can actively participate in researches for the

improvement of the profession. This endeavor is one of the
responsibilities of the professional organizations which is embodied
with Section 11 of the _____________________.
A. Midwifery Law C. Code of Ethics
B. Modernization Act of PRC D. Expanded functions of midwives
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 94. Once a midwife becomes a member of an organization, she/he is
________________.
A. Not permitted to join other organizations
B. Obliged to comply with the provisions of the organization's by-laws
C. Judged based on the reputation of an organization
D. Forced to attend to all the activities of the organization

95. Membership to a professional organization is ________________.

A. Inherent to the functions of the organization
B. Compulsory
C. Standard Operating Procedures for graduate-registered midwives
D. Voluntary

96. If you were the midwife faced with the problem, how would you
manage the situation?
A. I will remind the physician regarding the rights of patients
B. I have nothing to do between the physician-patient relationship
C. I will just explain to the patient the necessity of the procedure
D. I will just keep silent and follow the instruction of physician

97. If ever the procedure done made the patient's condition more
serious, the physician is _____________.
A. not liable because the he/she is licensed to perform the procedure
B. liable because non-consent of the patient
C. less liable since it is done with the best of his capability
D. just in doing the procedure for the patient's benefit

98. Even if the physician was successful and the patient benefited
from the action, the _________.
A. legal implication of consent must be reviewed and be given emphasis
B. patient may still be thankful because she became better despite her
not being told her actual condition
C. physician may do the same with other patients but utmost care
D. rights of every patient sometimes are not considered as long as the
physician is licensed to perform the procedure

99. Which of the following is TRUE about patient's rights?

A. Patients' rights may be ignored if the physician is licensed and
trained for the purpose
B. Patients' rights are only theories
C. Patients' rights may be considered depending on the condition and
the needed procedure
D. Patients' rights must prevail at all times

100. There are situations where physicians are forced to perform

procedures without patient consent if the ____________.
A. physician was advised by the hospital chief
B. patient has no capability to pay
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 C. patient is between life and death
D. physician is experimenting a procedure

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