TRẮC NGHIỆM SHĐC

1.
Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into
smaller ones?
A. catalysis B. metabolism C. anabolism D. dehydration E. catabolism
2. Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

A. Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions.
B. It provides energy coupling between exergonic and endergonic reactions.
C. Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free
energy.
D. Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two.
E. It is one of the four buveilding blocks for DNA synthesis.
3. Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?

A. a pentose sugar B. a DNA nucleotide C. an RNA nucleotide
D. an amino acid with three phosphate groups attached E. a phospholipid
4. -S-S- bonds are found in which structure of proteins

A. Primarily chain B. Secondary structure C. Tertiary structure D. A & C E. A & B
5. The energy currency of the cell is _________.

A. DNA B. RNA C. ATP D. Amino acid E. Phospholipid
6. The units of proteins which unite in long chains to form proteins, are called as
A. Amino acidsB. Sugar C. DNA D. Purines E. Pyrimidines
7. Which of the following is a milk protein?

A. Casein B. Myosin C. Pepsin D. Lactose E. Lactogen
8. The fibrous protein is/are?

A. Keratin B. Myosin C. Elastin D. Lactogen E. All
9. The protein that contains O2 is/are?

A. Keratin B. Myosin C. Elastin D. Lactogen E. All
10. Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?

A. mitochondrial matrix
B. mitochondrial outer membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial intermembrane space
E. cytosol
11. Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be
expected to reveal high levels of
A. insulin B. glucagon C. secretin D. gastrin E. glucose
12. The amino acid tyrosine is a starting substrate for the synthesis of
A. epinephrine B. steroid hormones C. parathyroid hormone D. vitamin D E. acetylcholine
13. A disease that destroys the adrenal cortex should lead to an increase in the plasma levels of
A. glucocorticoid hormones
B. epinephrine
C. acetylcholine
D. glucose
E. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
14. In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate
substrates via the action of the steroid hormone
A. glucagon B. thyroxine C. epinephrine D. cortisol E. ACTH
15. Melatonin is secreted by
A. the hypothalamus during the day
B. the pineal gland during the night
C. the autonomic nervous system during the winter
D. the posterior pituitary gland during the day
E. the thyroid gland during cold seasons
16. After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of
A. ecdysone B. glucagon C. thyroxine D. oxytocin E. insulin
17. The higher level of metabolic activity typical of non-hibernating temperate mammals during the
winter months is due to increased secretion of
A. ecdysone B. glucagon C. thyroxine D. oxytocin E. growth hormone
18. Testosterone is an example of

A. an androgen B. an estrogen C. a progestin D. a catecholamine E. an adrenal steroid
19. List the aliphatic amino acid?

A. Glutamate B. Valine C. Threonine D. Cytosine E. Cysteine
20. List the aromatic amino acid?

A. Glutamate B. Valine C. Threonine D. Tyrosine E. Cysteine
21. List the nonpolar amino acid side chain?

A. Glutamate B. Valine C. Histidine D. Arginine E. Aspartate
22. Each amino acid has:

A. –NH2; –COOH; side chain B. –NH2; –COOH; –H; side chain
C. –NH2; –COOH; distinctive side chain D. –NH2; –COOH; –H; distinctive side chain
23. All amino acids in proteins are of the L-configuration

A. True B. False
24. Which method is determined the three-dimensional structure of proteins

A. Lipid extraction B. X-ray C. HPLC D. LC/MS
25. Which statement is corrected?

A. Cholesterol is both supplied with the diet and synthesized from acetyl-CoA
B. Cholesterol is only supplied with the diet
C. Cholesterol is only synthesized from acetyl-CoA
D. Cholesterol is only derived from vitamin D
26. Steroid hormone synthesis is branched from

A. Cholesterol, Cortisol, Testosterone B. Cholesterol, Vitamin D, Testosterone
C. Cholesterol, Cortisol, Estrogen D. Vitamin D, Cortisol, Testosterone
27. Plasma cholesterol concentration depends on

A. LDL delivery from liver to organs and HDL recollection in liver
B. VLDL delivery from liver to organs and LDL recollection in liver
C. HDL delivery from liver to organs and LDL recollection in liver
D. LDL delivery from liver to organs and LDL recollection in liver
28. Vitamin A is toxic in excess

A. True B. False
29. Vitamin K is a membrane antioxidant

A. True B. False
30. Vitamin C is necessary for blood clotting

A. True B. False
31. Fat-soluble vitamin

A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin B6
32. Water-soluble vitamin

A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B6
33. ____ deficiency causes pernicious anemia

A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin A
34. The function of vitamin B12 needs to be considered together with _____.
A. Vitamin B1 B. 13-cis retinoic acid C. Folate D. Malate
35. ______ characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency

A. Megaloblastic anemia B. Scurvy C. Immunodeficiency D. Blindness
36. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) is required for FMN and ____ synthesis

A. FAD B. NAD C. Amino acids D. Cholesterol
37. _____, the pentose sugar in ribonucleic acid (RNA)

A. 2-Deoxy ribose B. Ribose C. Glucosamine D. Sorbitol
38. _____, the deoxypentose in DNA

39. _______, an amino sugar; N-acetylglucosamine

40. _______, a phosphate ester of glucose

A. 2-Deoxy ribose B. Ribose C. Glucosamine D. Glucose- 6-phosphate
41. _____ exist in free form and as components of more complex lipids
A. Fatty acids B. Ribose C. Glucosamine D. Glucose- 6-phosphate
42. _____ (milk sugar)

A. Lactose B. Maltose C. Sucrose D. Glucose
43._____, a three-carbon carboxylic acid, is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis

A. Lactate B. Maltose C. Pyruvate D. Glucose
44. LDH regenerates NAD+ consumed in the GAPDH reaction, producing _____, the end product of
anaerobic glycolysis
A. Lactate B. Maltose C. Pyruvate D. Glucose
45. The ______ contains 20,000–25,000 different protein coding genes spread over 23 chromosome
pairs.
A. Human genome B. Transcriptome C. Proteome D. Polymer
24. Defect of amino acids containing sulphur

A) Hyper cholesterol
B) Homocystinuria
C) Anemia
D) Porosity
28. What happens when phenylalanine is access in body?

A) Phenylketonuria
B) phenylalanine antidepressant
C) Schizophrenia
D) Blindness
32. The amino acid that have basic side chains at neutral pH
A) Lysine, Arginine, Histidine
B) Tryptophan
C) Alanine
D) Serine
33. Arginine is synthesized in the enterocyte, with either _____ or glutamate as the dietary precursor
A) Lysine
B) Tryptophan
C) Proline
D) Tyrosine
34. The example of tryptophan disorders.

A) Schizophrenia, major depressive disorder, and bipolar disorder.
B) Blindness
C) Folate deficiency
D) Malate deficiency
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The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can be neither created nor destroyed. For living
organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law?
a. The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment.
b. The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity.
c. Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics.
d. The energy content of an organism is constant.
e. Organisms are unable to transform energy.
Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?

a. They combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules.
b. They are usually coupled with anabolic pathways to which they supply energy in the form of ATP.
c. They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.
d. They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.
e. They are endergonic.
Starting with one molecule of glucose, the "net" products of glycolysis are
a. 2 NADH, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O.
b. 2 NAD+, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and 2 H2O.
c. 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, and 2 H2O.
d. 6 CO2, 6 H2O, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate.
e. 6 CO2, 6 H2O, 36 ATP, and 2 citrate.
Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?

A) They do not depend on enzymes.
B) They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions.
C) They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
D) They release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers.
E) They consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment.
Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?

A) They combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules.
B) They supply energy, primarily in the form of ATP, for the cell's work.
C) They are endergonic.
D) They are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis.
E) They build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds.
When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat
generated?
A) It is used to power yet more cellular work.
B) It is used to store energy as more ATP.
C) It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.
D) It is lost to the environment.
E) It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.
When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate. What purpose does this serve
(if any) in the cell?
A) The phosphate is released as an excretory waste.
B) The phosphate can only be used to regenerate more ATP.
C) The phosphate can be added to water and excreted as a liquid.
D) The phosphate may be incorporated into any molecule that contains phosphate.
E) It enters the nucleus to affect gene expression.
A number of systems for pumping ions across membranes are powered by ATP. Such ATP-powered
pumps are often called ATPases although they don't often hydrolyze ATP unless they are
simultaneously transporting ions. Because small increases in calcium ions in the cytosol can trigger a
number of different intracellular reactions, cells keep the cytosolic calcium concentration quite low
under normal conditions, using ATP-powered calcium pumps. For example, muscle cells transport
calcium from the cytosol into the membranous system called the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). If a
resting muscle cell's cytosol has a free calcium ion concentration of 10⁻⁷ while the concentration in the
SR is 10⁻², then how is the ATPase acting?
A) ATPase activity must be powering an inflow of calcium from the outside of the cell into the SR.
B) ATPase activity must be transferring Pi to the SR to enable this to occur.
C) ATPase activity must be pumping calcium from the cytosol to the SR against the concentration
gradient.
D) ATPase activity must be opening a channel for the calcium ions to diffuse back into the SR along
the concentration gradient.
E) ATPase activity must be routing calcium ions from the SR to the cytosol, and then to the cell's
environment.
What is the difference (if any) between the structure of ATP and the structure of the precursor of the A
nucleotide in RNA?
A) The sugar molecule is different.
B) The nitrogen-containing base is different.
C) The number of phosphates is three instead of one.
D) The number of phosphates is three instead of two.
E) There is no difference.
Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?

A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme.
B) The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction that occurs in the absence of
the enzyme.
C) The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium.
D) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions require energy to activate the enzyme.
E) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions release more free energy than noncatalyzed reactions.
Which of the following is true of enzymes?

A) Nonprotein cofactors alter the substrate specificity of enzymes.
B) Enzyme function is increased if the 3-D structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered.
C) Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and
temperature.
D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering activation energy barriers.
E) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by providing activation energy to the substrate.
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CARBOHYDRATE
1. The general chemical formula of carbohydrate is

A. (CH2O)n B. (CH2O)2n C. (CHO)n D. CnH2nO
2. Which of the following is an aldotriose?
A. Dihydroxyacetone B. Glyceraldehyde C. Ribulose D. Erythrose
3. What is the molecular formula of sucrose?

A. C12H22O11 B. C10H20O10 C. C6H12O6 D. C12H20O11
4. The glycosidic linkage between glucose molecule in maltose is

A. β 1 – 4 B. α 1 – 2 C. α 1 – 4 D. β 1 – 2
5. A keto pentose will have _______ sterioisomers.

A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
6. The reserve food material of green algae is

A. Laminarin B. Chrysolaminarin C. Floridian starch D. Starch
7. The only carbohydrate which is not having any chiral carbon atom is
A. Glyceraldehyde B. Erythrose C. Dihydroxyacetone D. Erythrulose
8. Select the odd one from the following

A. Arabinose B. Xylose C. Lyxose D. Erythrose
9. A pentose sugar reported to be present in heart cells

A. Xylose B. Arabinose C. Lyxose D. Xylulose
10. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?

A. D-glucose and D-mannose B. D-glucose and D-galactose
C. D-glucose and L-glucose D. A & B
11. Select the odd one from the following

A. Xylulose B. Dihydroxyaceton C. Glyceraldehyde D. Ribulose
12. Which of the following sugar give a positive result with Seliwanoff test
A. Sucrose B. Glucose C. Galactose D. Mannose
13. Which of the following is a keto tetrose?

A. Erythrulose B. Xylulose C. Sorbose D. Psicose
14. The glycosidic linkage between two glucose molecules in isomaltose is

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 6 D. β 1 – 6
15. Which of the following is an alpha lactone

A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin K
16. A sweetener used in sugar less gums and candies

A. Ribitol B. Xylitol C. Inositol D. Mannitol
17. The glycosidic linkage in cellobiose is

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 6 D. β 1 – 6
18. Pick out the odd one from the following

A. Deoxyribose B. Rhamnose C. Fucose D. Altrose
19. Lectins are _______

A. Sugars specific to proteins B. Proteins specific to sugars
C. Enzymes specific to carbohydrates D. Carbohydrates specific to enzymes
20. Which of the following is a keto triose?

A. Dihydroxyacetone B. Glyceraldehyde C. Ribulose D. Erythrose
21. Maltose is a disaccharide of _____
A. Glucose and galactose B. Glucose and glucose
C. Glucose and lactose D. Fructose and lactose
22. Glycosidic bond in sucrose is ____

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 2 D. β 1 – 2
23. Minimum number of carbon required for a ketose sugar to have cyclic structure is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
24. An aldo hexose will have ____ stereoisomers

A. 8 B. 10 C. 14 D. 16
25. Minimum number of carbon required for a monosaccharide

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
26. The vitreous humor of eye is compose of ______

A. Heparin B. Hyaluronic acid C. Keratan Sulfate D. Chondroitin sulfate
27. N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl muramic acid (NAM) in peptidoglycan is connected by
______ glycosidic linkage.
A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 2 D. β 1 – 2
28. Sulbactam is a ____

A. β -lactam antibiotic B. β lactamase C. β lactamase inhibitor D. A class of penicillin
29. Which of the following is not a sugar molecule of the O-antigen of gram negative bacteria?
A. Tyvelose B. Abequose C. 2 keto-3-deoxyoctanoate D. Teichoic acid
30. Glycosidic bond between galactose and glucose in lactose is

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 2 D. β 1 – 2
31. Which of the following is a sugar alcohol?

A. Arabitol B. Manitol C. Sorbitol D. All of these
32. Minimum number of carbons required for an aldose sugar to have a cyclic structure is ______
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
33. The reserve food materials of Rhodophyceae (red algae) is _____

A. Laminarin B. Chrysolaminarin C. Floridian starch D. Starch
34. Reserve food material of fungi is _______

A. Glucose B. Starch C. Laminarin D. Glycogen
35. Glycosidic bond in Trehalose is _______

A. α 1 – 4 B. α 1 – 2 C. α 1 – 1 D. β 1 – 2
36. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

A. Maltose B. Lactose C. Trehalose D. Cellobiose
37. A disaccharide of galactose and fructose joined by β 1 – 4 glycosidic linkage:

A. Trehalose B. Lactulose C. Gentiobiose D. Melibiose
38. Which of the following sugar do not form cyclic structure?

A. Erythrulose B. Dihydroxyacetone C. A & B D. Erythrose
39. A disaccharide of two glucose molecules joined by β 1 – 6 glycosidic linkage:

A. Trehalose B. Gentiobiose C. Lactulose D. Melibiose
40. Glycerol moieties in Teichoic acid of bacterial cell wall are linked each other by ___
A. Ether bonds B. Ester bonds C. Phosphodiester bonds D. Glycosidic bonds
41. A disaccharide of galactose and glucose in α 1 – 6 glycosidic linkage:

A. Lactose B. Melibiose C. Gentiobiose D. Verbacose
42. Which of the following sequence correctly represent the sweetness of Glucose, Sucrose and
Fructose
A. Glucose < Sucrose < Fructose B. Sucrose < Glucose < Fructose
C. Glucose ≤ Sucrose < Fructose D. Glucose > Fructose > Sucrose
43. After the osazone test, the sample sugar gave needdle shaped crystals, the sample sugar will be
_____
A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Maltose D. Cellulose
44. Partial fermentation of cane sugar by Leuconostoc mesenteroides produce:

A. Glucose and Fructose B. Glucose and Gluconic acid
C. Fructose and Gluconic acid D. Dextran
45. Which of the following commonly acts as the precursor for the synthesis of Vitamin C (Ascorbic
acid) in plants:
A. Fructose B. Ribose C. Glucose D. Ribulose
46. Which of the following is an example for a trisaccharide?

A. Verbascose B. Stachyose C. Raffinose D. Sucralose
47. Chrysolaminarin is _____

A. A storage polysaccharide of green algae B. A storage polysaccharide of brown algae
C. A storage polysaccharide of red algae D. A storage polysaccharde of diatoms
48. Which of the following is an example for an artificial sweetener of saccharide origin?
A. Sucralose B. Saccharin C. Stachyose D. All of these
49. In a chemical reaction ‘X’ is able to convert Cu 2+ ions to Cu+ ions. If ‘X’ is a carbohydrate, which of
the following best explains to be the ‘X’?
A. ‘X’ is a reducing sugar B. ‘X’ is a non-reducing sugar
C. ‘X’ is a monosaccharide D. A & B E. A & C
50. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

A. Glucose in closed ring form B. Glucose in open chain form C. Sucrose
51. D-glucose reacts with molecular oxygen (O2) in the presence of the enzyme glucose oxidase to
form D-glucono-δ -lactone and ______
A. H2O B. H2O2 C. H2 D. O3
52. Most prominent carbohydrate component of hemicellulose is

A. Pectin B. Arabinose C. Arabinoxylan D. Suberin
53. Which of the following is an example for heteropolysaccharide?

A. Hyaluronic acid B. Gelatin C. Glycogen D. A & B
54. Glucose on oxidation with bromine water forms

A. Glucuronic acid B. Glucosaccharic acid C. Gluconic acid D. Mannose
55. Dextrin is a branched bacterial homo polysaccharide of ____ linked D-glucose with ___ branches.
A. α 1 – 6 and α 1 – 3 B. β 1 – 6 and β 1 – 3 C. β 1 – 6 and α 1-3 D. α 1-6 and β 1-3
56. Laminarin is ______

A. A storage polysaccharide of red algae
B. A storage polysaccharide of brown algae
C. A structural polysaccharide of red algae
D. A structural polysaccharide of brown algae
58. Agar is obtained from green algae

A. A, B & C B. B, C & D C. C, D & E D. D, E & A
59. Caramelization of sucrose yields

A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Glucose and Fructose D. Charcoal
60. Which of the following reaction is called “Maillard reaction”

A. Reaction between amino group and hydroxyl group
B. Reaction between amino group and keto group
C. Reaction between amino group and aldehyde group
D. Reaction between amino group and carboxylic group
61. Bial’s test is used to detect the presence of ______

A. Triose B. Tetrose C. Pentose D. Hexose
62. Which of the following animal possess cellulose?

A. Coelenterates B. Sponges C. Tunicates D. Protozoans
63. Glucose residues in amylose are linked by

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 6 D. β 1 – 6
64. Chitin is a ______

A. Homopolysaccharide of N acetyl glucosamine
B. Heteropolysaccharide of N acetyl glucosamine and N acetyl muramic acid
C. A complex polymer of many sugars
D. A branched homopolysaccharide of N acetyl glucosamine
65. The branch points of amylopectin are connected by

A. α 1 – 4 B. β 1 – 4 C. α 1 – 6 D. β 1 – 6
66. Which of the following is an example for homopolysaccharide?

A. Cellulose B. Starch C. Glycogen D. All of these
Carbohydrate Metabolism: MCQ on Glycolysis & Gluconeogenesis
1) Which of the following enzyme is not involved in galactose metabolism?

a) Glucokinase b) Galactokinase
c) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyl transferase d) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase
2) Which of the following enzyme is defective in galactosemia- a fatal genetic disorder in infants?
a) Glucokinase b) Galactokinase
c) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyl transferase d) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase
3) In liver, the accumulation of which of the following metabolite attenuates the inhibitory of ATP on
phosphofructokinase?
a) Glucose-6-Phosphate b) Citrate
c) Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate d) Fructose-2,6-Bisphosphate
4) Mutation in which of the following enzymes leads to a glycogen storage disease known as Tarui’s
disease?
a) Glucokinase b) Phosphofructokinase c) Phosphoglucomutase d) Pyruvate Kinase
5) Erythrocytes undergo glycolysis for the production of ATP. The deficiency of ……………. enzyme
leads to hemolytic anemia?
a) Glucokinase b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Phosphoglucomutase d) Pyruvate Kinase
6) Cancer cells have high energy demands for replication and division. Increased flux of glucose into
glycolysis replenishes the energy demand. Which of the following enzyme plays an important role in
tumor metabolism?
a) Glucokinase b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Phosphoglucomutase d) Pyruvate Kinase M2
7) Which of the following glucose transporter (GLUT) are important in insulin-dependent glucose
uptake?
a) GLUT1 b) GLUT2 c) GLUT3 d) GLUT4
8) Which of the following glucose transporter (GLUT) is present in beta cells of the pancreas?
9) Which of the following glucose transporter (GLUT) is important in fructose transport in the intestine?
10) Which of the following metabolite negatively regulates pyruvate kinase?

a) Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate b) Citrate c) Acetyl CoA d) Alanine
11) In absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted into lactate in muscle because

a) Lactate is the substrate from the downstream pathway
b) Lactate acts as a substrate for the formation of amino acid
c) during the product of lactate two ATP are produced
d) during lactate formation, NADH is reconverted into NAD.
12) Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is inhibited by the accumulation of long-chain fatty acid in
the liver?
a) Hexokinase b) Glucokinase c)Phosphofructokinase d) Pyruvate kinase
13) Which of the following statement related to phosphofructokinase-I is false:

a) PFK-2 is the isoenzyme of PFK-1 that is present in the liver
b) PFK-1 is activated by AMP whereas inhibited by ATP and citrate
c) The binding of ATP to PFK-1 induces the conformation change from R to T state
d) PFK-1 is regulated by posttranslational modification such as phosphorylation
14) Which of the following statement about Phosphofructokinase-2 (PFK-2) is false?

a) PFK-2 is a bifunctional enzyme having a kinase domain, phosphatase domain, and a regulatory
domain
b) Activated protein kinase A phosphorylates PFK-2 and activates phosphatase domain
c) PFK-2 catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 2-6 bisphosphate
d) PFK-2 phosphatase activity is activated by the insulin signaling pathway.
15) Which of the following hormone decreases blood glucose and increases the uptake of glucose in
various tissues like skeletal muscle, adipose tissues?
a) Glucagon b) Epinephrine c) Cortisol d) Insulin
16) Which of the following statement is true?

a) Glycolysis occurs only in mammalian cells
b) Glycolysis occurs in mitochondria
c) Glycolysis occurs in the presence and absence of oxygen
d) Glycolysis occurs when ATP concentration is high.
17) What is the rate-limiting step in glycolysis?

a) Hexokinase b) Phosphohexose isomerase
c) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase d) Enolase
18) The net gain of ATP during the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is:
a) 1 ATP b) 2 ATP c) 1 ATP +1 GTP d) 4 ATP
19) During the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, two NADH molecules are generated. Which of the
following steps generates NADH?
a) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1-6-bisphosphate
b) Conversion of glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate to 1-3-bisphosphoglycerate
c)Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate
d) Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
20) What is the committed step in glycolysis?

a) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate
b) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
c) Conversion of glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate to 1-3-bisphosphoglycerate
d) Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate
21) Glycolysis consists of three irreversible steps. Which of the following enzyme-catalyzed reaction
are not irreversible steps in glycolysis?
a) Hexokinase b) Phosphofructokinase
c) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate kinase d) Pyruvate kinase
22) The following are the negative regulators of phosphofructokinase except

a) ATP b) AMP c) Citrate d) pH
23) Which of the following step is inhibited by sodium fluoride?

a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase b) 3-phosphoglycerate mutase
c) Enolase d) AMP
24) Which of the following step is inhibited during arsenate poisoning?

a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase b) 3-phosphoglycerate mutase
c) Enolase d) Pyruvate kinase
25)Which of the following enzyme catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to lactate?

a) Pyruvate reductase b) Lactate reductase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
26) Glucokinase is an isoenzyme of hexokinase that has high Km and Vmax. Which of the following
organ expresses glucokinase?
a) Kidney b) Muscle c) Liver d) Brain
27) Gluconeogenesis is the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate molecules. Which of the
following is not substrate for gluconeogenesis?
a) Lactate b) Alanine c) Glycerol d) Acetyl CoA
28) Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver and kidneys. Which is of the following enzyme are important
for gluconeogenesis are expressed exclusively in these tissues?
a) Glucose-6-phosphatase b) Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase d) Pyruvate carboxylase
29) During gluconeogenesis, the three irreversible steps of glycolysis have to be bypassed. The first
step is the conversion of pyruvate to phosphoenolpyruvate. Which of the following statement is false
regarding the reaction step?
a) This reaction involves a two-step process catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase and
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
b) Conversion of oxaloacetate from pyruvate occurs in mitochondria and shuttled into the cytosol.
c) Formation of phosphoenolpyruvate requires both ATP and GTP as an energy source.
d) Acetyl CoA is an activator of the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase.
30) During gluconeogenesis, the three irreversible steps of glycolysis have to be bypassed. The final
step is the conversion of glucose-6-P to glucose that is catalyzed by glucose-6-phosphatase. Which of
the following statement is true about the reaction step?
a) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose releases one ATP molecule
b) It is a highly active enzyme in skeletal muscle
c) Defect in glucose-6-phosphatase leads to abnormal accumulation of glycogen in the liver
d) The reaction occurs in mitochondria
31) Which of the following statement is true about Cori Cycle?

a) The Cori cycle involves three tissues muscle, liver, and brain
b) It involves the transport of lactate from the liver to skeletal tissue for gluconeogenesis
c) It involves the transport of lactate from skeletal muscle to liver for gluconeogenesis
d) It is active during resting stages and well-fed condition
32) During prolong starvation, which of the following hormone is responsible for increasing
gluconeogenesis in the liver
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) TSH d) Thyroxine
Carbohydrate Metabolism: MCQ on Pentose Phosphate Pathway
1) Which of the following step is common in glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway?
a) Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-P b) Conversion of glucose-6-P to ribose-5-P
c) Conversion of glucose-6-P- to fructose-6-P d) Conversion of glucose to glucose-1-P
2) Pentose phosphate pathway is responsible for generating NADPH (reducing equivalents in the cell)
in the cell. Which of the following enzyme is involved in generating NADPH?
a) Glucose-6-P oxidase b) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
c) Glucose-6-P reductase d) Glucose-6-P synthetase
3) Which of the following step is the rate-limiting step of the pentose phosphate pathway?
a) Transketolase b) Glucose-6-P dehydrogenase
c) Transaldolase d) Phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
4) Insulin activates the pentose phosphate pathway. Which of the following enzyme is activated by
insulin action?
5) Which of the following enzyme is used for the diagnosis of thiamine deficiency?
6) Glucose -6-Phosphate dehydrogenase is allosterically activated by

a) NADPH b) NADH c) NAD + d) NADP +
7) Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase is allosterically inhibited by

a) Acetyl CoA b) Citrate c) Glucose d) Fructose
8) In some individuals, ingesting fava beans leads to hemolytic anemia. Which of the following enzyme
may be deficient in these individuals?
a) Glucose-6-Phosphatase b) Glucose-6-P- dehydrogenase
c) Glucose -6-Phosphate Isomerase d) Glycogen phosphorylase
9) What is the cause of hemolytic anemia in Glucose-6-phosphate deficiency?

a) Decreased ATP in erythrocytes
b) Decreased free radicals in erythrocytes
c) Increased sodium concentration in erythrocytes
d) Increased free radicals in erythrocytes
10) The glutathione cycle is the conversion of oxidized glutathione to reduced glutathione in the
presence of NADPH. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes this reaction
a) Glutathione peroxidase b) Glutathione dehydrogenase
c) Glutathione reductase d) Glutathione synthetase
Carbohydrate Metabolism: MCQ on Glycogen Synthesis and Breakdown
1) Which of the following is false about glycogen molecules?

a) Glycogen is polysaccharide
b) Glycogen is a polymer of beta-D-Glucose
c) Glycogen consists of α(1-4) and α (1-6) glycosidic linkage
d) Glycogen have are a helical structure with branching.
2) Which of the following organs does not have glycogen storage?

a) Liver b) Muscle c) Intestine d) Erythrocytes
3) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for glycogen breakdown?

a) Glycogen phosphorylase b) Glycogen phosphatase
c) Glycogen hydrolase d) Glycogen phosphoglycosidase
4) Liver glycogen contributes to the maintenance of glucose but not muscle glycogen. Which of the
following enzyme is absent in muscle?
a) Glycogen phosphorylase b) Hexokinase
c) Glucose-6-phosphatase d) Debranching enzyme
5) Which of the enzyme is responsible for the hydrolysis of α (1-6) glycosidic bond present at a
branching point of glycogen molecules?
a) β-Glucosidase b) α- Glucosidase c) Glycosidase d) Phosphorylase
6) Glycogen phosphorylase is responsible for the breakdown of glycogen to

a) Glucose b) Glucose-1-phosphate c) Glucose-6-phosphate d) Maltose
7) Which of the following is false about enzyme glycogen phosphorylase of glycogen breakdown?
a) Glycogen phosphorylase is active as a homodimer.
b) Glycogen phosphorylase is present in two conformation state
c) Glycogen phosphorylase possess high-affinity binding to glycogen in T conformational state
d) Glycogen phosphorylase high-affinity binding to glycogen in R conformation state
8) Which of the following metabolite allosterically activate glycogen phosphorylase?

a) ATP b) AMP b) Glucose-6-P d) Glucose-1-P
9) In response to glucagon and epinephrine, cells undergo a series of changes in signal-transducing

molecules that phosphorylates and activates glycogen phosphorylase. Which of the following enzyme
is responsible for covalent modification of glycogen phosphorylase?
a) Protein kinase A b) Phosphorylase kinase c) Protein kinase C d) Protein kinase B
10) Which of the following is not the direct/ indirect activator of glycogen phosphorylase in muscle?
a) AMP b) Ca++ c) Epinephrine d) Insulin
11) Which of the following protein is required for de novo synthesis of glycogen?
a) Glycoprotein b) Glycogenin c) Proteoglycan d) Glucogenin
12) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the addition of UDP-Glucose to the existing
chain?
a) Glycogen synthase b) Glycogen polymerase
c) Glycogen synthetase d) Glyocogen lyase
13) All the following enzymes are involved in glycogen synthesis except
a) Hexokinase b) Phosphoglucomutase
c) Glucose-1-P uridylyltransferase d) Glycogen synthetase
14) Which of the following statement is false regarding glycogenesis?

a) Glycogen synthase is activated in the phosphorylated state.
b) Glycogen synthase enzyme is inhibited by glucagon and epinephrine action.
c) Protein phosphatase removes the phosphate group and activates the enzyme
d) Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and skeletal muscles
15) The iodine test is used to differentiate glycogen from starch. On iodine test glycogen gives
a) Blue color b) Green color c) Yellow color d) Violet color
Metabolism: MCQ on Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA, Krebs Cycle)

1) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is catalyzed by the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase. In
this reaction
a) NADPH is oxidized to NADP b) NADH is oxidized to NAD
c) NADP is reduced to NADPH d) NAD is reduced to NADH
2) The conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA is known as

a) Oxidative decarboxylation b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Reductive biosynthesis d) Reductive decarboxylation
3) Which of the following is false regarding enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase?

a) It is a multi-enzyme complex
b) It catalyzes the reversible reaction (conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA)
c) The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is a mitochondrial enzyme
d) It requires thiamine, flavin and nicotine vitamin co-enzymes
4) Which of the following is not the regulator of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

a) Calcium b) Acetyl CoA c) ATP d) Citrate
5) Arsenic binds to the thiol group of lipoic acid and interferes with the activity of enzymes that require
lipoic acid as a co-factor. Which of the following enzyme does not require lipoic acid?
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Malate dehydrogenase d) Branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase
6) Citrate synthase is the enzyme that catalyzes the condensation of acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate to
citrate. Which of the following is an activator of this enzyme?
a) Succinyl CoA b) NADH c) Fatty Acyl CoA d) ADP
7) Which of the following enzyme catalyzes substrate-level phosphorylation i.e conversion of GDP to
GTP?
a) Malate dehydrogenase b) Fumarase
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase d) Succinyl CoA thiokinase
8) When two carbon Acetyl CoA is oxidized to CO2, the total yield of ATP is
a) 8 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16
9) Which of the following is not the irreversible reaction of Kreb's cycle?

a) Isocitrate dehydrogenase b) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c) Citrate synthase d) Malate dehydrogenase
10) Which of the following enzyme causes congenital lactic acidosis

c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase d) Malate dehydrogenase
11) Which of the following enzyme of the TCA cycle catalyzes co-reduction of FAD+ to FADH2?
c) Succinate Dehydrogenase d) Malate dehydrogenase
12) Citric acid cycle is also known as the amphibolic pathway (function both in oxidative and synthetic
processes). Which of the following is a correct statement regarding
a) Alpha-ketoglutarate plays a critical role in amino acid metabolism
b) Oxaloacetate is an intermediate for gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis
c) Succinyl CoA is involved in ketone body metabolism
d) All of the above
13) Which of the following metabolic intermediate activates the citric acid cycle?
a) High NADH/NAD ratio b) High ADP/ATP ratio
c) High Oxaloacetate d) None of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
LIPIDS, FATS & WAXES
1. Which of the following molecule can act as molecular chaperons for assisting the folding of
proteins?
A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins C. Lipids D. Amides
2. Which of the following macro-molecule can be most structurally diverse among living world?
A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Nucleic acids D. Lipids
3. Fat storing cells of vetebrates are called

A. Hepatocytes B. Asterocytes C. Adipocytes D. Melanocytes
4. The enzyme abundantly distributed in adipocytes and germinating seeds are

A. Proteases B. Lipase C. Cellulase D. Nuclease
5. Rancidity of lipids of lipid rich food stuffs is due to:

A. Hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
B. Reduction of fatty acids
C. Oxidation of fatty acids
D. Dehydrogenation of saturation fatty acids
6. Main function of preen glands in birds is

A. Hormone secretionB. Fatty acid degradation
C. Wax secretion D. Pigment synthesis
7. Which of the following statement is true
A. Oxidative rancidity is observed more frequently in animal fats than vegetable fats
B. Oxidative rancidity is observed more frequently in vegetable fats than animal fats
C. Plants fats ado not undergo oxidative rancidity
D. Oxidative rancidity can be effectively checked by dehydrogenation of fatty acids
8. Number of milligrams of KOH required to neutralize fatty acid present in 1g of fat is called
A. Potassium number B. Acid number C. Saponification number D. Iodine number
9. Saponification number is the number of milligrams of KOH required to saponify 1g fat. Which of the
following statement is true about saponification number?
A. The shorter is the chain length of fatty acids, the higher is the saponification number
B. The shorter is the chain length of fatty acids, the lower will be the saponification number
C. The higher is the chain saturation of fatty acid, the lower will be the saponification number
D. The lower is the saturation of fatty acid, the higher will be saponification number
10. The degree of unsaturation of lipid can be measured as _______

A. Saponification number B. Iodine number
C. Polenske number D. Reichert Meissil Number
11. The number of OH groups in fats can be expressed as ______

A. Polenske number B. Reichert Meissil Number
C. Acetyl number D. Iodine number
12. Polenske value of fatty acid indicates _______

A. How much unsaturation is there in the fatty acid
B. Level of saturation in the fatty acid
C. Indication of branching of fatty acid in the fat
D. How much volatile fatty acid can be extracted through saponification
13. Which of the following is an example for derived lipids?

A. Steroids B. Terpenes C. Carotenoids D. All of these
14. Naturally occurring fats are ______

A. L types B. D types C. An equi-molar mixture of L and D types D. Symmetric
15. Generally fats with unsaturated fatty acids are ______ at room temperature (25 0C)
A. Solid B. Liquid C. Liquid in the presence of oxygen D. Liquid in the absence of oxygen
16. Carnauba wax is an example for _____

A. Liquid wax B. Soft wax C. Hard wax D. Archaebacterial wax
17. Specific gravity of lipid is ______

A. 0.2 B. 0.8 C. 1.0 1.5
18. Greater the number of carbon atom in chain of fatty acid, ______
A. The boiling point will be higher
B. The boiling point will be lesser
C. The melting point will be higher
D. The melting point will be lower
19. Dietary fats are transported as

A. Chylomicrons B. Liposomes C. Lipid globules D. Oil droplets
20. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids takes place at

A. Peroxisome B. Mitochondria
C. Mitochondria and Peroxisome D. Mitochondria, Peroxisome and ER
21. Most commonly occurring fatty acids in nature are:

A. Even number of carbon atoms in an un-branched chain of 12 – 24 carbons
B. Odd number of carbon atoms in an un-branced chain of 12 – 24 carbons
C. Even number of carbon atoms in a branched chain of 12 – 24 carbons
D. Odd number of carbon atoms in a branced chain of 12 – 24 carbons
22. In most of the naturally occurring mono-unsaturated fatty acids, the double bonds will be placed
between _______
A. C6 – C7 B. C7 – C8 C. C8 – C9 D. C9 – C10
23. Which of the following molecule acts as a sugar carrier in animals?

A. Warfarin B. Ubiquinone C. Plastoquinone D. Dolichol
24. The best source of trans fatty acid in diet is ____

A. Vegetables B. Ground nut C. Dairy products D. Fruits
25. LDL and HDL are commonly known as ____ and ___ respectively
A. Good cholesterol and bad cholesterol
B. Bad cholesterol and good cholesterol
C. Assimilatory cholesterol and oxidative cholesterol
D. Oxidative cholesterol and assimilative cholesterol
26. The solubility of fatty acids in water _____

A. Increase with increase in chain length and fewer the double bonds
B. Increase with increase in chain length and increase in double bonds
C. Decrease with chain length and decrease with number of double bonds
D. Decrease with chain length and increase with double bonds
27. At room temperature (250C), a fat with saturated fatty acid of 12 – 20 carbon have:
A. Liquid consistency B. Solid consistencyC. Cannot be predicted
28. Carbon atoms in fatty acid are ___ than those of sugars
A. Less reduced B. More reduced C. Less oxidized D. More oxidized
29. In naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids, the double bonds are in ___ conformation
A. Cis conformation B. Trans conformation
C. A mixture of cis and trans conformation D. Cis and trans conformation alternatively
30. Increased dietary uptake of trans fatty acid causes blood level ____
A. Increase of HDL B. Increase of LDL
C. Increase of LDL and decrease of HDL D. Increase of HDL and decrease of LDL
31. Which of the following is a cyclic fatty acid?

A. Cerebronic acid B. Ricinoleic acid C. Chaulmoorgic acid D. Oleic acid
32. Which of the following is NOT an essential fatty acid?

A. Linoleic acidB. Linolenic acid C. Arachidonic acid
33. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Cholesterols are present in both plants and animals
B. Sterol is the only type of cholesterol in plants
C. Cholesterol is not found in plants
D. Cholesterol is completely absent in liver cells of cold blood animals
34. Heart attach possibility in women is fewer than men. The probable reason for this may be:
A. Blood HDL level in female is more than male
B. Blood HDL in female is less than male
C. Blood of female individuals do not contain HDL
D. Blood of female individuals do not contain LDL
35. At room temperature (250C) an unsaturated fatty acid will have ______
A. Liquid consistency B. Solid consistency C. Waxy consistency D. Cannot be predicted
36. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Sodium salt of higher fatty acid is called soft soaps
B. Potassium salt of higher fatty acid is called soft soaps
C. Sodium salt of higher fatty acid is called hard soaps
D. Potasium salt of higher fatty acid is called hard soaps
a. A b. A, B, C c. B, C d. B, D
37. The triterpenoid which acts as the precursor of all animals sterols:
A. Lanosterol B. Cholesterol C. Cycloartenol D. Isoprenoids
38. The precursor of all fungal sterols is ___

39. The triterpenoid which acts as the precursor of almost all plant sterols:
40. A sterol present in the plasma membrane of fungi and protozoans instead of cholesterol is
A. Lanosterol B. Cholesterol C. Ergosterol D. Cycloartenol
41. The sterol which acts as the precursor of Vitamin D2 (provitamin D2) is:
A. Colcalciferol B. Lanosterol C. Cholesterol D. Ergosterol
42. Which of the following is an example for phytosterol?

A. β -sitosterol B. Campesterol C. Brassicasterol D. All of these E. None of these
43. A naturally occuring fatty acid with C-C triple bond in the hydrocarbon chain:
A. Digitoxin B. Oubain C. Neumotinic acid D. None of these
44. Which of the following is NOT an omega-6 fatty acid?

A. Alpha-linolenic acid B. Linoleic acid C. Eicosadienoic aicd D. Arachidonic acid
1) Free fatty acids in the plasma

a) Circulate in the unbound state
b) Bind to lipoproteins and circulated
c) Bind to albumin and circulated
d) Bind to a fatty acid-binding protein and circulated
2) In what compartment does the de novo fatty acid synthesis occur?

a) Mitochondria b) Peroxisome c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Cytosol
3) What is the precursor for fatty acid synthesis?

a) Acetyl CoA b) Propionyl CoA c) Succinyl CoA d) Acetoacetyl CoA
4) The conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA is the rate-limiting step in fatty acid synthesis. Which
of the following enzyme catalyzes the above-mentioned reaction?
a) Acetyl CoA carboxylase b) Malonyl CoA synthetase
c) Acetyl CoA decarboxylase d) Malonyl CoA synthase
5) The acetyl CoA is produced in the mitochondria and must be transported into the cytosol for the
synthesis of fatty acid. Which of the following is true regarding its transport?
a) Acetyl CoA is diffused from the mitochondrial membrane
b) Acetyl CoA is transported by its specific transporter protein
c) Acetyl CoA is converted into pyruvate, enters into the cytosol and acetyl CoA is regenerated
d) Acetyl CoA is converted into citrate, enters into the cytosol and acetyl CoA is regenerated.
6) What is the allosteric regulator of acetyl CoA carboxylase?
a) Fatty acid b) ATP c) Citrate d) Acetyl CoA
7) Which of the following event inactivates acetyl CoA carboxylase?

a) ADP-Ribosylation b) Glycosylation c) Phosphorylation d) Farnesylation
8) Which of the following is not a positive regulator of acetyl CoA carboxylase

a) Excess calories b) Insulin c) Citrate d) Long-chain fatty acid
9) Which of the following enzyme statement is not true regarding fatty acid synthase?
a) Fatty acid synthase is a multifunctional enzyme
b) Fatty acid synthase is active as a dimer
c) Fatty acid synthase is activated by high-calorie food
d) Fatty acid synthase complex is inhibited by its phosphorylation
10) What form of energy is required for fatty acid biosynthesis?

a) ATP b) NADH c) NADPH d) FADH2
11) What is the source of NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis?
a) Pentose phosphate pathway b) Malic enzyme c) Both d) None
12) What is the fate of fatty acid entering into the cells
a) Fatty acid diffuses into mitochondria for beta-oxidation
b) Fatty acid is converted into fatty acyl CoA (activated form)
c) Fatty acid is bound to albumin in the cytosol
d) None of the above
13) The role of L-carnitine in fatty acid metabolism is

a) Facilitate the transport of fatty acid from the cytosol to mitochondria
b) Serve as a cofactor for enzyme fatty acid synthase
c) Activator of acetyl CoA carboxylase
14) Identify the correct sequential enzymatic step for fatty acid synthesis
a) Delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Thiolase
b) Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, Delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Thiolase
c) Thiolase, Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, Delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase
d) Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase, delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, Hydroxy acyl dehydrogenase, Thiolase
15) The complete beta-oxidation of palmitoyl CoA yield

a) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 NADH
b) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 FADH2
c) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA, 8 NADH, and 8 FADH
d) 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA and 16 NADPH
16) High rate of beta-oxidation in the liver leads to ketogenesis (ketone body synthesis). Which of the
following condition result in ketogenesis
a) Uncontrolled Type I diabetes b) Pregnancyc) Starvation d) All of the above
17) Which of the following step is unique to the formation of ketone bodies
a) Formation of Acetoacetyl CoA catalyzed by thiolase
b) Formation HMG CoA catalyzed by HMG CoA synthase
c) Splitting of HMG CoA to acetyl CoA and acetoacetate catalyzed by HMG CoA lyase
d) Reduction of acetoacetate to 3-hydroxybutyrate catalyzed by 3-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase
18) Identify the key regulators of the ketogenic pathway

a) Acyl CoA/CoA ratiob) NADH/NAD ratio c) Insulin/Glucagon ratio d) All
19) Dicarboxylic aciduria is characterized by the excretion of C6–C10 ω-dicarboxylic acids and by
nonketotic hypoglycemia. Identify the defective enzyme from the following?
a) Long Chain Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase
b) Medium Chain Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase
c) Short Chain Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase
d) Very Long Chain Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase
20) Which of the following is the rate-limiting step of fatty acid oxidation and also inhibited by malonyl
CoA
a) Thiokinase b) Carnitine Palmitoyl transferase I
c) Acyl CoA Dehydrogenase d) Thiolase
1) The cholesterol serves as the precursor for the following biosynthetic pathways EXCEPT
a) Bile acid synthesis b) Steroid hormone synthesis
c) Aldosterone synthesis d) Thyroid hormone synthesis
2) Which of the following lipid act as lungs surfactant?

a) Phosphatidylcholine b) Phosphatidylethanolamine
c) Ceramide d) Phosphatidylinositol
3) Identify the simple lipid from the following

a) Lecithin b) Fatty acid c) Triacylglycerol d) Steroids
4) All of the followings are complex lipids, except

a) Phosphatidic acid b) Cerebroside c) Cardiolipin d) Cholesterol
5) Which of the following is an essential fatty acid?

a) Linolenic acid b) Arachidonic acid c) Oleic acid d) Palmitic acid
6) Bile acid is derived from:

a) Cholesterol b) Amino acids c) Fatty acidsd) Bilirubin
7) Which of the following lipid is mostly present in mitochondrial membranes?

a) Lecithin b) Cephalin c) Cardiolipin d) Ceramide
8) Insulin enhances the uptake of triacylglycerols in adipose tissues. Which of the following enzyme is
activated that facilitates the uptake?
a) Hormone-sensitive lipase b) Lipoprotein lipase c) LCAT d) Apo C-II
9) Familial hypercholesterolemia is a genetic disorder of cholesterol metabolism. The defect lies in

a) Transport of cholesterol from extrahepatic tissue to the liver
b) Impairment of cholesterol degradative pathway
c) Impairment of uptake of cholesterol by tissues
d) Impairment of HDL metabolism due to deficiency of Apo-A
10) Which of the following inhibits acetyl CoA carboxylase- a rate-limiting enzyme of fatty metabolism?
a) Citrate b) ATP c) Malonyl CoA d) Acyl CoA
11) Acetyl CoA serves as the precursor for the synthesis of cholesterol, and the biosynthesis of
cholesterol is tightly regulated. Which of the following step is a regulatory step of cholesterol
biosynthesis.
a) Formation 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl COA b) Formation of Mevalonate
c) Formation of Isoprenoid Unit d) Formation of Lansterol
12) The enzyme that regulates the biosynthesis of cholesterol also serves as the druggable target for
the reduction of hypercholesterolemia (increase blood cholesterol). Identify the regulatory enzyme
from the following option.
a) HMG-CoA synthase b) HMG- CoA reductase
c) Lansterol oxidase d) Cholesterol synthase
13) Which of the following hormone increases the synthesis of cholesterol by regulating the enzyme
HMG CoA reductase?
a) Insulin b) Glucagon c) Glucocorticoids d) All of the above
14) Sterol Regulatory Binding Protein binds to DNA at the sterol regulatory element to increase the
expression of HMG CoA reductase, and synthesis of cholesterol. The presence of a high cellular
concentration of cholesterol
a) Increases the proteolytic cleavage, release, and shuttling of SREBP into the nucleus
b) Decreases the proteolytic cleavage and release of SREBP from ER
c) Activates SREBP by inducing the conformational change
d) Inhibit SREBP by competitively binding to DNA binding site of SREBP
15) Hormones such as insulin & glucagon regulate HMG CoA reductase by a phosphorylation and
dephosphorylation process. Phosphorylation of HMG CoA reductase results in decreased enzyme
activity. Identify the correct statement from the following
a) Insulin inhibits kinase that phosphorylates HMG CoA reductase
c) Insulin activates kinase that phosphorylates HMG CoA reductase
c) Insulin activates the phosphatase that removes a phosphate group from HMG CoA reductase
d) Insulin inhibits kinase that phosphorylates HMG CoA reductase
16) Hypercholesterolemia refers to a condition with high cholesterol with serum cholesterol level
a) >160 mg/dL b) >200 mg/dL c) >240 mg/dL d) >280 mg/dL
17) Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the conversion of cholesterol to cholesterol ester
inside the cells?
a) Lecithin Cholesterol Acyl Transferase b) Acyl CoA Cholesterol Acyl Transferase
c) Cholesterol Esterase d) None of the Above
18) Which of the following glycolytic intermediates serves as the precursor for the backbone for the
synthesis of Triglycerides, Phosphatidylcholine, Phosphatidylethanolamine?
a) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate b) Pyruvate
c) 1-3 Bisphosphoglycerate d) 3-Phosphoglycerate
19) Ceramide is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum from the amino acid serine. Ceramide is an
important signaling molecule (second messenger) that regulates the pathways including
a) apoptosis b) cell senescence c) cell differentiation d) All of the above
20) Identify the phospholipid that possesses a surfactant activity and synthesized shortly before
parturition in full-term infants. The deficiency of this phospholipid in the lungs causes respiratory
distress syndrome.
a) Dipalmitoylphosphatidyletholamine b) Ceramide
c) Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine d) All of the above
21) A child is was brought to the hospital with the clinical presentation of mental retardation, blindness,
and muscular weakness. The biochemical examination showed the accumulation of GM2 gangliosides
in the tissues. What is the possible cause of the disease?
a) Tay Sachs Disease caused by Hexosaminidase A deficiency
b) Fabry Disease caused by Alpha-Galactosidase deficiency
c) Krabbe Disease caused by Beta-Galactosidase deficiency
d) Gaucher Disease caused by Beta-Glucosidase deficiency
1) A child was presented with diarrhea and failure to thrive. The clinical and biochemical investigation
showed fat malabsorption, spinocerebellar degeneration, pigmented retinopathy, and acanthocytosis.
develop. He had decreased night and color vision and followed by reductions in daytime visual acuity.
The blood chemistry profile showed extremely low plasma cholesterol and triglyceride levels with no
detectable chylomicrons VLDL, LDL, or apoB. The genetic analysis showed that the disease was
inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Identify the probable cause from the following
a) Mutation in the gene that codes for ApoB
b) Mutation in the gene that codes for MTP
c) Mutation in the gene that codes for ApoC-II
d) Mutation in the gene that codes for CEPT
2) The biochemical analysis of plasma from a patient with pancreatitis showed hypertriglyceridemia
with increased VLDL and chylomicrons. To further investigate, the patient was administered with
heparin intravenously and blood samples were collected to analyze the lipolytic activity in plasma. The
test showed low LPL activity in post heparinized blood samples. Identify the probable cause of the
after an intravenous heparin injection increased VLDL and Chylomicrons
a) Deficiency of Apo B b) Deficiency of Lipoprotein Lipase
c) Deficiency of LDL receptor d) Deficiency of Apo A-I
3) The highest phospholipids content is found in …

a) Chylomicrons b) VLDL c) LDL d) HDL
4) The class of lipoproteins that is protective against atherosclerosis is …

a) Low-density of lipoproteins b) Very low-density lipoproteins
c) High-density lipoproteins d) Chylomicrons
5) Genetic deficiency of lipoprotein lipase cause hyperlipoproteinemia of the following type:

a) Type I b) Type IIa c) Type IIb d) Type V
6) Activated lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase is essential for the conversion of ...

a) VLDL remnants into LDL b) Nascent HDL into HDL
c) HDL2 into HDL3 d) HDL3 into HDL2
7) Zellweger’s syndrome is associated with abnormality of

a) Nonessential fatty acid metabolism b) Essential fatty acid metabolism
c) cholesterol metabolism d) Lipoprotein metabolism
8) Tangier disease is a disorder of lipoprotein metabolism. The phenotype corresponds to

a) Low level of VLDL b) Low level of LDL
c) Low level of IDL d) Low level of HDL
9) Although ketogenesis occurs in hepatocytes it cannot utilize ketone bodies. It is due to deficiency of
the enzyme
a) Thiokinase b) Thiophorase c) Thiolase d) Thiolyase
10) Fatty acid oxidation is regulated by malonyl CoA. The malonyl CoA inhibits
a) The entry of fatty acid into the cell
b) Activation of fatty acid to fatty acyl CoA
c) Shuttling of fatty acyl CoA to mitochondria
d) Dehydrogenation of fatty acyl CoA to enoyl CoA
11) Familial Hypercholesterolemia is a codominant genetic disorder caused by a mutation of the gene
that encodes for:
a) Apolipoprotein E b) Apolipoprotein B c) LDL receptor d) VLDL receptor
12) Which of the following statement is true regarding familial hypercholesterolemia?

a) In heterozygotes, the serum cholesterol level range from 275 to 500 mg/dL
b) Plasma triglycerides are generally elevated >300 mg/dL
c) Serum LDL-cholesterol is within the normal range
d) All of the above
13) Familial Hypertriglyceridemia is characterized by

a) Increased plasma VLDL and triglycerides (200-500 mg/dL)
b) Normal or mildly increased cholesterol level (<250 mg/dL)
c) Reduced plasma HDL level
d) All of the above
14) Chylomicron is a type of lipoprotein that transports triglycerides from the intestine to peripheral
tissues. Which of the following is an integral apolipoprotein present in chylomicron?
a) Apo B100 b) Apo B48 c) Apo CII d) ApoE
15) Which of the following is an integral apolipoprotein present in VLDL, IDL, and LDL?
16) The lipoprotein lipase is present in the endothelial surfaces of adipose tissues, heart and it is
required for hydrolysis and release of triglycerides from chylomicrons. Which of the apolipoprotein that
is present in chylomicron serves as the activator of an enzyme lipoprotein lipase?
17) Chylomicron remnants are rapidly taken by the liver in a process that requires
18) HDL is a type of lipoprotein that is important for acquiring cholesterol from VLDL and
chylomicrons. Which of the following proteins are important for HDL function?
a) Apo A-I b) Lecithin-Cholesterol Acyltransferase (LCAT)
c) Cholesteryl Ester Transport Protein d) All of the Above
19) The clearance of LDL cholesterols in hepatocytes require:

a) LDL receptor b) Apo CII receptor c) Scavenger receptor BI d) None of the above
20) The HDL is taken up by the hepatocytes via

a) LDL receptor b) Apo CII receptor c) Scavenger receptor BI d) None of the above
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
AMINO ACIDS
1. Which of the following amino acid is sweet in taste?
A. Glycine B. Alanine C. Glutamic acid D. None of these
2. Which of the following amino acid act as inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A. Glycine B. Alanine C. GABA D. All of these E. None of these
3. The amino acid commonly used as an ingredient in the buffers of SDS PAGE.
A. Aspartic acid B. Glutamic acid C. Glycine D. Aspartic acid and Lysine together
4. Which of the following amino acid will be absent in α helix structure of protein?
A. Glycine B. Galine C. Glutamic acid D. Proline
5. Aminolevulinic acid, the first product in porphyrin biosynthesis in eukaryotes, is synthesized from
____ and succinyl-CoA.
A. Valine B. Tryptophan C. Methionine D. Glycine
6. Carnosine is a dipeptide of histidine and ____

A. β -histidine B. β -alanine C. β -lysine D. α -lysine E. Tryptophan
7. Which of the following enzyme contain Selenocysteine?

A. Nitrate reductase B. Catalase C. Glutathione peroxidase D. All of these
8. Amino acid used in the ‘stripping’ of Western blotting experiment is:

A. Glutamic acid B. Phenyl alanine C. Alanine D. Glycine
9. Total number of proteinogenic (protein building) amino acids in the living world is ___
A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23
10. Amino acid selenocysteine is coded by ____

A. UAA B. UAG C. UGA D. AUG
11. Which of the following is a glucogenic amino acid?

A. Glycine B. Proline C. Alanine D. A & B E. All of these
12. Which of the following amino acid act as excitatory neurotransmitter?

A. Glutamate B. Aspartate C. Cysteine D. All of these E. None of these
13. Which amino acid act as the precursor of nucleotide biosynthesis?

A. Aspartate B. Glycine C. Glutamine D. A & B E. All of these
14. Bacteria prefer to use the codon CGA instead of AGA to code for Arginine. This is an example for
____
A. Second genetic code B. Nullomers C. Transcriptional decoding D. Allomers
15. Which of the following is an example for a bio-plastic?

A. Polyaspartase B. Polyglutamate C. Poly-L-lysine D. All of these
16. Histones are rich in _____

A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Lysine and Arginine
17. Single letter code of pyrrolysine is ____
A. B B. J C. O D. U
18. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?

A. Proline B. Histidine C. Leucine D. Methionine
19. What is the molecular weight of Glycine?

A. 75 g/mol B. 80 g/mol C. 90 g/mol D. 95 g/mol
20. Among the 20 standard proteins coding amino acids, which one least occurs in proteins?
A. Glycine B. Alanine C. Tryptophan D. Methionine
21. Which amino acid, among the 20 standard protein coding amino acids, is most abundantly occurs
in proteins?
A. Glycine B. Methionine C. Serine D. Leucine
22. Which of the following amino acid is having more polarity?

A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Aspartate
23. Majority of enzyme’s active site usually contain one or more ____ residues.
A. Glycine B. Tryptophan C. Histidine D. Arginine
24. The following is the amino acid sequence of an alien polypeptide: ‘AGQHIKXSKPWYVGLBUFF’.
The ‘X’ in the given sequence represents _____
A. Asparagine B. Isoleucine C. An ambiguous aa D. An unknown aa
25. Aa acting as a defensive molecule in plants:

A. Canavanine B. Con-canavalin C. Proline D. All of these
26. Which amino acid act as the precursor for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter serotonin?
A. Tyrosine B. Tryptophan C. Glycine D. Arginine
27. _____ is an exclusively ketogenic aa in human

A. Valine B. Methionine C. Leucine D. Proline
28. pI of ___ is near to physiological Ph

A. Lysine B. Histidine C. Arginine D. Glutamic acid
29. Which aa act as the precursor of dopamine?

A. Glycine B. Aspartate C. Valine D. Tyrosine
30. What is the molecular weight of Tryptophan?

A. 202 g/mol B. 204 g/mol C. 206 g/mol D. 208 g/mol
31. Aa which act as the precursor of IAA (indole 3-acetic acid) biosynthesis in plants is ___
A. Tyrosine B. Phenylalanine C. Tryptophan D. Methionine
32. Aa involved in urea cycle ___

A. Ornithine B. Citrulline C. Arginine D. A & B E. All of these
33. Which of the following amino acid have the buffering capacity at physiological pH?
A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Aspartic acid
34. Aa which act as the precursor of epinephrine synthesis is ___
A. Glycine B. Aspartate C. Tyrosine D. Valine
35. Which aa act as the precursor of nitric oxide biosynthesis in animals?

A. Phenyl alanine B. Arginine C. Aspartate D. Ornithine
36. Which of the following is an essential aa?

A. Aspartic acid B. Alanine C. Leucine D. Asparagine E. All of these
37. Which of the following is a non-essential aa?

A. Alanine B. Histidine C. Lysine D. Methionine E. All of these
38. Which of the following is an is coded by a single codon?

A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Tryptophan D. Phenylalanine
39. First discovered aa is ____

A. Asparagine B. Aspartate C. Glutamate D. Glutamine
20. Among the 20 standard protein coding aa, which was the last discovered aa?
A. Leucine B. Isoleucine C. Threonine D. Serine
21. pH below pI aa will be ____

A. Anionic B. Cationic C. Net charge zero D. No charge
22. Naturally occurring proteins are usually polymers of ___

A. D-aa B. L-aa C. A mixture of D and L aas D. Either D aas or L-aas
23. At zwitterionic form, an aa will act as ___

A. Proton donor B. Proton acceptor C. Proton donor and acceptor D. None of
these
24. Which of the following aa is more likely to occupy the interior of a globular pr?
A. Methionine B. Aspartate C. Lysine D. Arginine E. All of these
25. Prs absorb UV light at 280 nm and show a characteristic peak at this wavelenth. Which aa residue
in the pr is responsible for this absorption?
A. Methionine B. Valine C. Glutamic acid D. Tryptophan
26. Glycine is ______

A. A stimulatory neurotransmitter B. An inhibitory neurotransmitter
C. Not act acting as a neurotransmitter D. A & B E. Not a neurotransmitter
27. Selenocysteine is a rare aa which contain ____

A. Selenium B. Selenium and Sulfur C. Sulfur D. Selenium and Nickel
28. Which of the following aa contain a thioether group in the side chain?
A. Cysteine B. Cystine C. Glycine D. Methionine
29. An aa with a sulfhydryl group in the side chain:

A. Methionine B. Cystine C. Cysteine D. All of these
30. Which among the following is the largest aa?

A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Tryptophan D. Histidine
31. Which of the following aa is completely non-polar?

A. Phenylalanine B. Tyrosine C. Tryptophan D. All of these E. None of these
32. Which aa is known as “the 22nd aa”?

A. Selenocysteine B. Pyrrolysine C. N-formylmethionine D. Selenomethionine
33. Cystine is ____

A. Highly polar B. Highly non polar C. Partially polar D. Partially non polar
34. The side chain of Histidine contain _____

A. Indole ring B. Phenol group C. Imidazole ring D. Guanidino ring
35. Taurine, the major constituent of bile, is derived from ____

A. Cysteine B. Methionine C. Tryptophan D. Lysine
36. Selenocysteine is a derived from ____

A. Cysteine B. Serine C. Methionine D. Cystine
37. Example for selenocysteine containing pr:

A. Glutathione peroxidase B. Thioredoxin reductase C. Glycine reductase D. All E. None
38. A fully protonated glycine (NH3+-CH2-COOH) can release ___ protons.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
39. ____ is the only aa which is optically inactive.

A. Valine B. Glycine C. Selenocysteine D. Proline
40. Which group of a fully protonated glycine (NH 3+-CH2-COOH) first release a ‘proton’ when it is
titrated against –OH- ions?
A. Carboxyl group B. Amino group C. Both at the same time D. Can’t be predicted
41. p Ka is the measure of a group to ____ proton.

A. Take up B. Release C. Combine D. Consume
42. Which of the following aa bears a guanidine group in the side chain?
A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Proline
43. The precursor of glycine synthesis in microbes and plants is ______

A. Serine B. Leucine C. Valine D. None of these
44. Single letter code of selenocysteine is ______

A. B B. J C. U D. O
45. Which of the following aa have an imino group in the side chain?
A. Proline B. Asparagine C. Glutamate D. Histidine
46. 4-hydroxy proline (a derivative of proline) is abundantly present in _____

A. Keratin B. Myoglobin C. Hemoglobin D. Collagen
47. Desmosine is a comlex derivative of 5 _____ residues.

A. Lysine B. Arginine C. Histidine D. Methionine
48. Isoelectric pH is designated as _____
A. pKa B. pI C. Pi D. None of these
49. Which of the following aa is biosynthesized from Ribose-5-phosphate?

A. Histidine B. Serine C. Glycine D. All of these
50. Aa biosynthesized from Pyruvate of glycolysis is _____

A. Alanine B. Valine C. Leucine D. All of these
51. Aromatic aas (Phenyalanine, Tyrosine and Tryptophan) are derived from Phosphoenol pyruvate
and ____
A. Ribose-5-phosphate B. Erythrose 4-phosphate C. Oxaloacetate D. α -ketoglutarate
52. Isoleucine is derived from _____

A. Methionine B. Theronine C. Lysine D. Leucine
53. Blood clotting pr thrombin usually contain which of the following modified aa?
A. 4-hydroxy proline B. 5-hydroxy lysine C. 6-N-methyl lysine D. γ -carboxy glutamate
54. Cysteine is not an essential aa in human, since we have the machinery to synthesize cysteine
from other two aas namely ____ and serine.
A. Methionine B. Selenocysteine C. Citrulline D. Hydroxyproline
55. Which of the following contain a disulfide bridge?

A. Cysteine B. Cystine C. Methionine D. None E. All
56. Which of the following pr contain a modified aa – desmosine?

A. Keratin B. Gelatin C. Elastin D. Collagen
57. During biosynthesis, Methionine and Threonine are derived from a common intermediate:
A. Chorismate B. Citrulline C. Homoserine D. Cystathione
58. 6-N-methyl lysine is a derivative of lysine, present in _____

A. Keratin B. Collagen C. Myosin D. Myoglobin
59. A common intermediate branch point in the synthesis of all aromatic aas such as Tryptophan,
Phenylalanine and Tyrosine is ______
A. Homoserine B. Chorismate C. Cystathione D. None of these
60. Sarcosine, a ubiquitous non protenacius aa in animals and plants is _____

A. N-methylglycine B. N-methylvaline C. N-methylserine D. N-methylmethionine
1) Glutamate and Glutamine are nutritionally non-essential amino acids. The conversion of alpha-
ketoglutarate to glutamate and glutamine are catalyzed by:
a) Glutamate synthetase and Glutamate dehydrogenase b) Glutamate transaminases
c) Glutamate dehydrogenase and Glutamine synthetase d) None of Above
2) Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE:

a) Glutamate dehydrogenase catalyzes the incorporation free ammonium ion to form glutamate
b) Glutamate synthetase utilized ATP as energy for the incorporation of ammonium ion to form
glutamine
c) Asparagine synthetase utilized ATP as energy for the incorporation of ammonium ion to form
asparagine
d) Asparagine dehydrogenase catalyzes the incorporation free ammonium ion to form aspartate
3) Glutamate and Glutamine are a critical entry point for free ammonia to enter the metabolic pathway.
Which of the following pathway glutamate metabolism is regulated by allosteric inhibitors such as
alanine, glycine, carbamoyl phosphate
a) Glutamate synthase b) Glutamate synthetase
c) Glutamate dehydrogenase d) Glutamate deoxygenase
4) N-acetyl Glutamate is an activator of urea synthesis and formed from condensation glutamate and
acetyl CoA. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes this reaction?
a) Arginosuccinate synthetase b) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
c) N-Acetyl glutamate synthase d) Glutaminase
5) Cysteine is a nutritionally non-essential amino acid, and it is synthesized from

a) Proline b) Valine c) Glycine d) Methionine
7) Which one of the following statement concerning a one-week-old male infant with undetected
classic phenylketonuria is correct?
a) Tyrosine is a non-essential an amino acid for the infant
b) High levels of phenylpyruvate appear in the urine
c) A diet devoid of phenylalanine should be initiated immediately
d) Therapy must begin within the first year of life
8) Maple syrup disease is a disorder due to deficiency of pathway that degrades:

a) Tyrosine b) Tryptophan c) Leucine d) Methionine
9) Which of the following amino acids have an important role in the transport of amino group from
peripheral tissues to the liver?
a) Serine b) Methionine c) Glutamine d) Arginine
10) Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder caused by a deficiency of an enzyme that converts

phenylalanine to tyrosine. Identify the correct statements regarding phenylketonuria
a) PKU occurs due to deficiency of both PAH and dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency
b) Missense mutation of the PAH gene are frequently observed in PKU patients
c) All PKU patients do not respond to biopterin treatment
1) Heme is a tetrapyrrole structure consisting of Fe+2 ions in the center of the porphyrin ring. Which of
the following proteins consist of heme?
a) Myoglobin b) Hemoglobin c) Cytochrome d) All of the above
2) Besides erythroid precursor cells, which of the following is the site for the synthesis of heme?
a) Kidney b) Spleen c) Liver d) Heart
3) Which of the following is not the precursor for the synthesis of Heme?
a) Glycine b) Succinyl CoA c) Both of the aboved) None of the above
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
DNA, RNA AND PROTEIN
2) In some viruses, RNA serves as the storage of genetic materials and DNA is synthesized from RNA
by the enzyme known as:
a) DNA synthetase b) DNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) DNA convertase
3) Which of the following process does not occur in prokaryotes

a) Replication b) Transcription c) Translation d) Splicing
4) Phosphodiester bond links two nucleotides together and maintains polarity which refers to:
a) the 5' hydroxyl group of pentose of one nucleotide to 3' hydroxyl group of adjacent nucleotide
through a phosphate group.
b) 5' end with a phosphate group and 3'end with hydroxyl are free.
c) addition of new nucleotide occurs via attachment of 5' phosphate group of new nucleotide to 3'
phosphate group of an existing chain.
d) All of the above
5) DNA helices exist in various form. Which of the following form is predominantly expressed in cells
a) A-Helix b) B- Helix c) E-Helix d) Z-Helix
10) The DNA replication occurs in a semi-conservative manner which means

a) Two daughter cells with one consisting of double helical parent DNA, others have newly
synthesized DNA.
b) Two daughter cells each consisting one parental strand and one newly synthesized DNA.
c) Two daughters cells each consisting of one-half parental and another half newly synthesized DNA
resulting from the crossover.
11) Which of the followings are the characteristic feature of DNA replication
a) DNA replication is template directed b) DNA replication requires short RNA primers
c) DNA replication is a highly accurate process d) All of the Above
13) The short strand of ........ primer is required for the replication of DNA:
a) DNA b) RNA c) Histone d) hnRNA
19) Which of the following statement is true regarding an enzyme DNA polymerase that catalyzes the
elongation of complementary DNA strand?
a) DNA polymerase III is a highly processive enzyme.
b) DNA polymerase III possess 5'-3' polymerase activity required for elongation.
c) DNA polymerase III possess 3'-5' exonuclease activity important for maintaining fidelity.
d) All of the above
20) In prokaryotes, the RNA primer from the lagging strand is removed and replaced by the DNA
sequence. This process is catalyzed by an enzyme ............... which possess 5'-3' exonuclease activity
and 5'-3' polymerase activity.
a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II c) DNA polymerase III d) DNA polymerase IV
1) Identify the correct statement regarding the function of ribonucleic acid (RNA)
a) messenger RNA serves as a template for synthesis of proteins
b) tRNA serves as the adapter molecule for the addition of amino acids and elongation of the peptide
chain
c) ribosomal RNA serves as machinery for protein synthesis
d) All of the above
2) Which of the following RNA serves the regulatory functions including splicing, gene silencing?
a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) small RNA
5) In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase catalyzes the synthesis of:

a) mRNA b) rRNA c) tRNA d) All of the above
6) The RNA polymerase is a multi-subunit enzyme that recognizes a consensus nucleotide sequence
(promoter region) upstream of the transcription start site. In prokaryotes, the consensus promoter
sequence consists of 5-TATAAT-3' also known as
a) Enhancer box b) Pribnow box c) Transcription unit d) None of the above
12) In eukaryotes, the RNA synthesis process is more complex than prokaryotes. The RNA synthesis
process is regulated by chromatin structure, upstream and downstream sequences, binding partners,
etc. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the transcription process in eukaryotes:
a) Most actively transcribed genes are found in a loosely relaxed form of chromatin called euchromatin
b) The most inactive segment of DNA is found in compact chromatin structure called heterochromatin
c) Histone modification such as methylation, acetylation regulate the RNA transcription by modulating
chromatin structure
d) All of the above
1. Pr absorbs UV light at the region of ____

A. 240 nm B. 260 nm C. 280 nm D. 300nm
2. Which of the following is NOT an extracellular matrix pr?
A. Albumin B. Elastin C. Collagen D. Fibronectin
3. The bond stabilizing the primary structure of a pr:

A. Covalent bonds B. Hydrogen bonds C. Ionic bonds D. Covalent and Hydrogen bonds
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
VITAMINS
1. Calcium regulation, bone formation
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin K
2. Blood clotting
3. Energy production, growth and functioning of nerve tissue, memory and emotional stability
a) Thiamine (Vitamin B1) b) Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
c) Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) d) Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
4. Synthesis of fats and amino acids

Implant in energy producing reactions involving enzymes

a) Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) b) Niacin/Nicotinic Acid
c) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) d) Folic Acid
Role in multiplication of all cells especially red blood cells and the cells of immune system
Used to treat pernicious anemia

Reproduction and skin

Skin and vision

Used to treat megaloblastic anemia

Most common table salt

a) Phosphorus b) Potassium c) Sodium d) Iron
Essential for bone and tooth formation

a) Calcium b) Fluoride c) Iodine d) Magnesium
Prevention of dental caries

Essential for tooth and bone formation, healthy gums, formation of collagen, resistance to infections,
and wound healing
Blood has excess

Needed for bone, protein, new cells, clotting blood, insulin function
Important for water balance

Essential food factors, chemicals in nature, present in certain food, can be synthesized
a) Vitamin b) Homeopathy c) Herbal Products d) Minerals
Important for the formation of blood and oxygen transport

Used as germicides, antiseptics, and dyes

Vitamins are calorie-dense nutrients that are needed in tiny amounts in the diet and help to drive
cellular processes  False
Fat-soluble vitamins are easily absorbed and excreted in urine.  False
Night blindness and xerophthalmia are the early and late stages of a vitamin A deficiency
 True
The most important and well-known role of vitamin D is to help synthesize proteins that help clot blood.
 False
Vitamin D deficiency in children can lead to an abnormality of bone formation called rickets.
 True
Vitamin E supplements improve the blood clotting activity of vitamin K.  False
Vitamin E is an antioxidant that protects saturated fat from oxidation.  False
The main role of vitamin K is to help activate proteins that help blood clot.  True
Water-soluble vitamins are easily absorbed and stored in the liver.  False
Some water-soluble vitamins are destroyed when exposed to light, heat, or oxygen during processing.
 True
Vegetables and citrus fruits are excellent sources of vitamin C.  True
B vitamins act as parts of coenzymes.  True
Folate intake before and during pregnancy is related to neural tube defects.  True
The best way to select foods that are rich in vitamins is to make sure that each food selected is the
richest source of a particular vitamin you need.  False
Vegetarians should take a vitamin supplement because plants are grown in soil that is deficient in
nutrients.  False
Which characteristic is LEAST likely to apply to a fat-soluble vitamin?

a. toxic in excess b. dissolves in lipids c. requires bile for absorption
d. easily absorbed and excreted in urine e. commonly found in foods that contain fat
Which vitamin supplement is known to cause malformations of a fetus?  Vitamin A

Which vitamin is mismatched with its deficiency?  Vitamin D - pernicious anemia
Which of the following is least likely to contribute to cases of rickets in the U.S.?
a. increased time spent indoors
b. dark skin pigmentation
c. a preference for soft drinks over milk in adolescents
d. increased physical activity in organized sports
e. use of UV-blocking sunscreen
The need for vitamin E rises as people consume more _____ because it requires antioxidant
protection by the vitamin.
a. meat b. fried food c. trans fat d. saturated fat e. polyunsaturated fat
You have a friend who eats a lot of highly processed foods, fast foods, and convenience foods, but
does drink fortified milk. You could share with your friend that that she is at risk for developing _____
deficiency.
a. thiamin b. vitamin E c. vitamin D d. riboflavin e. vitamin A
If you eat a food that contains a large dose of thiamin and riboflavin, what will most likely happen to
the thiamin and riboflavin?
a. They will be stored in the body tissues for later use as needed.
b. They will increase destruction of free radicals in the body.
c. They will be excreted if not used on the day they are absorbed.
d. They will be stored in fat cells, which can lead to toxicity.
e. They will promote the production of red blood cells.
Which statement regarding water-soluble vitamins is not true?

a. Some water-soluble vitamins are destroyed when exposed to light, heat, or oxygen during
processing.
b. Water-soluble vitamins easily dissolve and drain away with cooking water.
c. Water-soluble vitamins are easily absorbed and stored in the liver.
d. Foods never deliver toxic doses of the water-soluble vitamins.
e. Water-soluble vitamins are easily excreted in the urine.
A woman who is on a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss may have difficulty maintaining an
adequate level of the B vitamins thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and folate. What characteristic of her diet
would cause this?
a. exclusion of fruits
b. exclusion of grains and cereals
c. exclusion of starchy vegetables
d. exclusion of dairy
e. exclusion of meat and fat
Current recommendations for fruit and vegetable intakes are for us to consume a variety from each
category on a daily basis. What are the two vitamins that are abundant in leafy greens and citrus fruits,
as well as other fruits and vegetables?
a. riboflavin and vitamin K
b. vitamin B12 and thiamin
c. folate and vitamin C
d. vitamin A and vitamin E
e. thiamin and vitamin C
Which individual has a valid reason to take a vitamin/mineral supplement?

a. someone who is addicted to drugs or alcohol
b. someone who is feeling tired and wants a supplement to provide energy
c. someone who is stressed and does not get enough exercise
d. someone who believes that food grown on today's soils lack nutrients
e. someone who does not like to eat vegetables
Which of the following describe the fat soluble vitamins?
a. few functions in the body b. easily absorbed and excreted
c. stored extensively in tissues d. a and c
Most water soluble vitamins are not stored in tissues to any great extent  True
Fat soluble vitamins are mostly absorbed into

a. the lymph b. the blood c. the extracellular gluid d. b and c
Which of the following foods is (are) rich in beta-carotene?

a. sweet potatoes b. pumpkin c. spinach d. all of the above
Vitamin A supplements can help treat acne  False
Vitamins D functions as a hormone to help maintain bone integrity  True
Which of the following is (are) rich sources of vitamin E?

a. raw vegetable oil b. colorful foods, such as carrots
c. milk and milk products d. raw cabbage
Vitamin E is famous for its role

a. maintaing bone tissue integrity b. maintaining connective tissue integrity
c. protecting tissues from oxidation d. as a precursor for vitamin C
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis of key bone proteins  True
Vitamin K
a. can be made from exposure to sunlight b. can be obtained from most milk products
c. can be made by digestive tract bacteria d. b and c
Water soluble vitamins are mostly absorbed into
a. the lymph b. the blood c. the extracellular fluid d. b and c
The water soluble vitamins are characterized by all of the following except
a. excesses are stored and easily build up to toxic levels b. they travel freely in blood
c. excesses are easily excreted and seldom build up to toxic levels d. b and c
The theory that vitamin C prevents or cures cold is well supported by research  False
Vitamin C deficiency symptoms include

a. red spots b. loose teeth c. anemia d. all of the above
B vitamins often act as

a. antioxidants b. blood clotting factors c. coenzymes d. none of the above
The eating pattern that best provides nutrients

a. singles out a rich source for each nutrient and focuses on these foods
b. includes a wide variety of nutrient dense foods
c. is a western eating style that includes abundant meats and fats
d. singles out rich sources of certain phytochemicals and focuses on these foods
The FDA has extensive regulatory control over supplement sales  False

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1.

2. Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?

3. Which of the following is most similar in structure to ATP?

4. -S-S- bonds are found in which structure of proteins

5. The energy currency of the cell is _________.

7. Which of the following is a milk protein?

8. The fibrous protein is/are?

9. The protein that contains O2 is/are?

10. Where does glycolysis take place in eukaryotic cells?

18. Testosterone is an example of

19. List the aliphatic amino acid?

20. List the aromatic amino acid?

21. List the nonpolar amino acid side chain?

22. Each amino acid has:

23. All amino acids in proteins are of the L-configuration

24. Which method is determined the three-dimensional structure of proteins

25. Which statement is corrected?

26. Steroid hormone synthesis is branched from

27. Plasma cholesterol concentration depends on

28. Vitamin A is toxic in excess

29. Vitamin K is a membrane antioxidant

30. Vitamin C is necessary for blood clotting

31. Fat-soluble vitamin

32. Water-soluble vitamin

33. ____ deficiency causes pernicious anemia

35. ______ characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency

36. Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) is required for FMN and ____ synthesis

37. _____, the pentose sugar in ribonucleic acid (RNA)

38. _____, the deoxypentose in DNA

39. _______, an amino sugar; N-acetylglucosamine

40. _______, a phosphate ester of glucose

42. _____ (milk sugar)

43._____, a three-carbon carboxylic acid, is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis

24. Defect of amino acids containing sulphur

28. What happens when phenylalanine is access in body?

34. The example of tryptophan disorders.

Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?

Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?

Which of the following statements is true concerning catabolic pathways?

Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-catalyzed reactions?

Which of the following is true of enzymes?

1. The general chemical formula of carbohydrate is

3. What is the molecular formula of sucrose?

4. The glycosidic linkage between glucose molecule in maltose is

5. A keto pentose will have _______ sterioisomers.

6. The reserve food material of green algae is

8. Select the odd one from the following

9. A pentose sugar reported to be present in heart cells

10. Which of the following is an epimeric pair?

11. Select the odd one from the following

13. Which of the following is a keto tetrose?

14. The glycosidic linkage between two glucose molecules in isomaltose is

15. Which of the following is an alpha lactone

16. A sweetener used in sugar less gums and candies

17. The glycosidic linkage in cellobiose is

18. Pick out the odd one from the following

19. Lectins are _______

20. Which of the following is a keto triose?

22. Glycosidic bond in sucrose is ____

24. An aldo hexose will have ____ stereoisomers

25. Minimum number of carbon required for a monosaccharide

26. The vitreous humor of eye is compose of ______

28. Sulbactam is a ____