1. Which of the following should be given priority in a.

Pressure on her arteries in the side-lying position

providing care to pregnant women and their families? b. Compression of the major vessels when she is on her
abdomen
a. Pregnant women who weighs 110lbs c. Vena Cava Syndrome
b. A 33 years old woman who is pregnant for the third time d. Back labor
c. Pregnant woman with history of hypertension in previous
pregnancy 9. You are planning care for Karen whose
d. Pregnant women whose systolic and diastolic pressures membranes have ruptured prematurely. You recognize
have increase by 5- 10 mmHg over baseline diastolic that the client’s risk is increased for:
pressures
a. Cervical lacerations
2. Which maternal behavior demonstrates the b. Supine hypotension
passage through Rubin’s task in the first trimester of c. Precipitous labor
pregnancy? d. Chorioamnionitis

a. Prepare siblings for birth of the baby
b. Ambivalent feeling about present pregnancy
c. Expressing concern about the birth plan
d. States the feelings of attachment to the fetus
3. What statement by the client would indicate a
need for further teaching about the physiologic anemia
of pregnancy?
10. Karen receives epidural anesthesia prior to
giving birth. What action by the nurse is appropriate?
a. Observe for signs of hypothermia
b. Evaluate the newborn’s respiratory efforts
c. Determine the mother’s level of pain immediately postpartum
d. Observe for signs of maternal hypotension and maintain
hydration

a. “Because I’m anemic, I am more likely to have low blood Situation: Kyle is o her 3rd month of pregnancy but this
pressure and low hemoglobin count.” is first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was
b. “I did not get enough iron in my diet before I became November 1. Her menstruation follows a regular 28 days
pregnant, so I am anemic now.” cycle.
c. Most pregnant women experiences anemia, so I have to
drink that iron pill as advised by my doctor” 11. On a 29 – day menstrual cycle. The nurse
d. “I ‘m a little anemic because my body is producing extra fluid expects that Kyle’s ovulation would have occurred on
in my blood.” what day of the cycle?
4. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks of gestation a. 19th day
called the clinic to report that she is experiencing vaginal b. 16th day
bleeding. What should be the initial response at the c. 15th day
nurse? d. 14th day

a. You are probably miscarrying. Bring all your pads and come 12. During her prenatal visit dated July 5, the age in
to the clinic now gestation in weeks is:
b. Describe the bleeding to me
c. Go to bed and rest for the remainder of the day and call if a. 30 - 31 weeks
bleeding continues b. 33 weeks
d. Come to the clinic the soonest possible time so you can be c. 34 weeks
assessed d. 34 -35 weeks

5. A pregnant patient assessed for vaginal 13. Using Nagele’s Rule, Kyle’s expected date of
bleeding. The nurse suspects that the patient has delivery is most likely to be:
incompetent cervix if there is: a. September 15
a. Light bleeding, closed cervix, cramping/ lower abdominal b. August 8
pain and uterus softer than normal c. August 22
b. Painless heavy bleeding on the 32nd week of pregnancy d. September 11
c. Painless bleeding on the 2nd trimester
14. When assessing the abdomen of Kyle, the
d. Uterus larger than normal, with excessive vomiting
fundus is likely palpated:
6. Mrs. Dela Cruz 2 months pregnant and has a
a. At the level of the navel
history of two spontaneous miscarriages. Which of the b. At the level of the symphisis pubis
following assessment indicates a potential for a third c. Midway between the xyphoid process and abdomen
miscarriage? d. Just below the xiphoid process
a. Lab results revealing an elevation in protein bound iodine 15. Calories needed by pregnant women per day:
b. Dietary intake indicating 300 more calories than eaten by the
non – pregnant a. Approximately 500 calories
c. Reports of exposure to child with rubella over a period of b. Approximately 300 calories
time c. Additional 300 calories
d. Nervous, anxious behavior noted during the prenatal visits d. Additional 500 calories

Situation: You have been doing follow up care for Karen 16. Kyle nears the end of her pregnancy and
and she has developed trust in you as her nurse. comments to the nurse, “I’ m curious, what causes labor
to begin?” which reply by Kyle is best?
7. Karen tells you that she has been feeling
contractions; but they stop when she walks around. a. “No one knows. It’s like a rosary, full of mysteries.”
These contractions are called: b. “It is believed that the exact cause of labor is uterine
contraction”
a. True Labor contractions c. “The pituitary gland in the brain releases a special hormone
b. False labor contractions that signals labor to begin.”
c. Premature labor d. “The exact cause of labor is unknown but it is believed to be
d. Dysfunctional multi-causal.”

8. Later in her pregnancy, you notice that Karen’s

blood pressure is lower when she rests on her back than
when she is on her side. This is due to:
17. Following confirmation of pregnancy, the client
has come into the clinic for the first prenatal visit. The
clients reports having a 5 –year old child who was born
at 42 weeks gestation, a set of 3 year old triplet’s who
were born at 34 weeks gestation and two pregnancy
delivered at 16th and 19th week. On the client‘s medical
record, the nurse would make which of the following
entries?
a. Gravida 4, para 1114
b. Gravida 5, para 1324
c. Gravida 5, para 1124
d. Gravida 5,para3112
Situation: The following questions will test the nurse’s
knowledge and competencies in MCN.
18. Nurse Katrina instructs the mother-to-be that to
ensure adequate fetal brain development the mother
should eat foods high in:
a. Fats and carbohydrates
b. Iron and Vit. B 9
c. Calcium and electrolytes
d. Iron and Vit.C
19. Nurse Katrina instructs the pregnant woman
about family planning while breastfeeding. Which
information is correct?
a. No birth control necessary until the first menstrual period
b. All oral contraceptives are contraindicated while
breastfeeding
c. All injectable contraceptions can be safely used while
breastfeeding
d. Exclusive breastfeeding can be the best form of
contraception
20. A client taking oral contraceptives. The nurse
should inform the client to stop taking the contraceptive
and report to the physician immediately if she
experiences:
a. Vertigo and nausea
b. Weight loss and breast pain
c. Hypotension and amenorrhea
d. Headaches and visual disturbances
21. A client asks you how does the Intrauterine
Device (IUD) prevents pregnancy. Your best answer
would be:
a. It prevents implantation by causing a non-specific
inflammatory response to the endometrium
b. Prevents fertilization
c. Prevents Ovulation
d. Traps the sperm cells in the cervix
22. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication
in the use of IUD?
a. Smoking 3 packs of cigarette a day
b. Pregnancy
c. Having 5 boyfriends
d. No child yet
23. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good posture will
prevent which prenatal discomfort?
A. Backache
B. Vertigo
C. Leg cramps
D. Nausea
24. The following signs and symptoms will be observed
by the nurse in a mother on her 7th month of pregnancy
EXCEPT:
A. Frequency of urination and tea colored urine
B. Fetal movements felt by mother
C. Mild Braxton Hicks contraction
D. Audible fetal heart beat (FHB)
25. Which of the following signs will require a mother to
seek immediate medical attention?
A. When the first fetal movement is felt on the 4th month
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
26. A pregnant client is admitted to the hospital for
preterm labor. The nurse's first intervention is to
a. obtain a complete history and update the physician.
b. initiate IV hydration and begin tocolytic medication.
c. Obtain a CBC.
d. monitor for contractions and fetal well-being.
27. The nurse is aware that absorption of medications
taken orally during pregnancy may be altered as the
result of:
a. Delayed gastrointestinal function
b. Reduced glomerular filtration rate
c. Developing fetal-placental circulation
d. Increasing secretion of hydrochloric acid
28.  A pregnant client asks the nurse about gestational
diabetes mellitus. The nurse responds based on the
understanding that gestational diabetes in pregnancy is
a. an impaired glucose tolerance.
b. beta cell failure in pregnancy.
c. type 1 DM undetected prior to pregnancy.
d. type 2 DM undetected prior to pregnancy.
29.  Which of the following is the most likely effect on the
fetus if the woman is severely anemic during pregnancy?
A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
30. A pregnant mother is admitted to the hospital with
the chief complaint of profuse vaginal bleeding. AOG 36
wks, not in labor. The nurse must always consider which
of the following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery under strict
asepsis with a double set-up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery must be
made ready before examining the patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine procedure
31. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs
are usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs
commonly given are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
32. In which of the following conditions can the causative
agent pass through the placenta and affect the fetus in
utero?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Rubella
C. Candidiasis
D. moniliasis
33. Which of the following causes of infertility in the
female is primarily psychological in origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence
34. The 1st  stage of labor begins with___and ends
with__?
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends with delivery of
placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with full dilatation
C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of cervix
and ends with delivery of baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with full dilatation
and effacement of cervix
35. The following are common causes of dysfunctional
labor. Which of these can a nurse, on her own manage?
A. Pelvic bone contraction
B. Full bladder
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head
D. Cervical rigidity
36.   Client is admitted in active labor. The nurse locates
fetal heart sounds in the upper left quadrant of the
mother's abdomen. The nurse would recognize which of
the following?
A. Client will probably deliver very quickly and without
problems.
B. This indicates that she will probably have a breech delivery.
C. The fetus is in the most common anterior fetal position.
D. This position is referred to as being left anteriopelvic.
37.   Assessment data from a woman in labor revealing
that she has had severe nausea during the early months
of pregnancy, back pain during the middle and last
months of pregnancy, and a long difficult labor might
indicate which of the following?
A. Altered coping related to the changes of pregnancy
B. Altered rest pattern related to decreased tolerance of pain
C. Potential for impaired bonding related to maternal
resentment
D. Potential for impaired infant growth related to maternal
fatigue
38.   Fetal distress is suspected if which of the following
diagnostic results is obtained?
A. Fetal heart rate acceleration occurring with scalp stimulation
B. Early decelerations indicated on the fetal heart monitor
C. Serial blood specimen readings reveal pH levels of 7.15
D. Meconium-stained AF in fetus is positioned in the left
sacroanterior
39.   If variable deceleration is noted on the fetal heart
monitor, the nurse should do which of the following?
A. Limit oral and intravenous fluids to decrease maternal fluid
volume and decrease circulatory overload.
B. Prepare a needle and large syringe so the physician can
remove the excess amniotic fluid causing the problem.
C. Remove oxygen, if present, and instruct the mother to
breathe slowly, since this is a sign of hyperventilation.
D. Turn the mother to a different position to relieve pressure on
the umbilical cord and restore circulation.
40.   Which of the following would be an appropriate
outcome criterion for a woman in Labor?
A. Demonstrates no signs of pain during the accelerated stage
of labor
B. Follows indicated methods for removal of pain
C. States she experienced no discomfort during the labor
process
D. Verbalizes that pain was maintained at a tolerable level
throughout most of the labor period
41. Which of the following measures could a nurse take
to facilitate comfort in the labor process?
A. Apply sanitary pad to decrease discomfort from vaginal
secretions.
B. If membranes are ruptured and fetus is not engaged,
encourage ambulation around the room.
C. Smooth the wrinkles from bed linen and remove sticky bed
clothes.
D. Tell the woman to remain as still as possible throughout the
labor process to decrease stimulation.
42. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client in
her 34th week of gestation who's experiencing
premature labor. What nonpharmacological interventions
should the plan include to halt premature labor?
A. Encouraging ambulation
B. Serving a nutritious diet
C. Promoting adequate hydration
D. Performing nipple stimulation
43. A woman in labor shouts to the nurse, "My baby is
coming right now! I feel like I have to push!" An
immediate nursing assessment reveals that the head of
the fetus is crowning. After asking another staff member
to notify the physician and setting up tor delivery, which
nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A. Gently pulling at the baby's head as it's delivered
B. Holding the baby's head back until the physician arrives
C. Applying gentle pressure to the baby's head as it's delivered
D. Placing the mother in a Trendelenburg position until the
physician arrives
44. The nurse is caring for a client who's in labor. The
physician still isn't present. After the baby's head is
delivered, which nursing intervention would be most
appropriate?
A. Checking for the umbilical cord around the baby's neck
B. Placing antibiotic ointment in the baby's eyes
C. Turning the baby's head to the side, to drain secretions
D. Assessing the baby tor respirations
 45. A client delivered an infant 12 hours ago and has
lots of questions regarding care, but shows little initiative
in caring for the newborn. According to Rubin's theory,
the client is exhibiting which stage?
a. Taking-in stage
b. Taking-hold stage
c. Letting-go stage
d. Good bonding behavior
46. A postpartum client's complete blood count reflects a
white blood cell count immediately after delivery to be
14,000 per cubic mm. The nurse reports this as
a. abnormal and indicating an infection is present.
b. an atypically low level.
c. elevated but normal following delivery.
d. within the normal range.
47. While assessing a client who just delivered a 9 lb 6
oz baby, the nurse assesses a firm fundus that is midline
at U/U. There is also a constant trickle of blood from the
vaginal area. Which of the following is the priority
nursing intervention?
a. Suspect postpartum hemorrhage and massage the uterus
b. Question the client regarding a history of hemorrhoids
c. Notify the physician of a possible laceration
d. Document this as a normal finding
48. A client who delivered an infant three days ago is
complaining of pain and frequency of urination and
nausea. The nurse takes the temperature and it is
38.9°C, or 102°F. Which of the following is the priority
intervention?
a. Call the physician to obtain an order for a urine specimen for
culture
b. Increase fluids and reassess the temperature in four hours
c. Tell the client that this is a normal finding and not to worry
d. Administer prescribed pain medication
49. The nurse is caring for a client postoperatively a. Acidosis
following a cesarean section. It is a priority for the nurse b. Rapid growth and development
to monitor the client for c. Early weaning
d. Physiologic jaundice
a. postpartum depression.
b. infection. 58. When should the cord be clamped after birth?
c. Dehydration
a. When the cord pulsation stops
d. Bloodclots
b. Between 1-3 mins.
50.  Twelve hours after delivery, the nurse assesses a c. Between 30 secs – 1 minute in preterms
client's vital signs. Which of the following findings should d. All of the above are appropriate
be reported? 59.  Initial cord care include which of these:
a. Temperature of 37.8°C, or 100.2°F 1. Put ties tightly around the cord at 2cm & 5cm from the
b. Respiratory rate of 18 bpm abdomen.
c. Blood pressure of 120/80 2. Observe for oozing blood
d. Pulse of 99 3. Apply 70% isopropyl alcohol to promote drying
4. Do not bind or bandage the stump
51. The nurse caring for a client who delivered one hour 5. Leave the stump uncovered
ago assesses the uterine fundus to be displaced to the a. 1,2,3,4
right. Which of the following is the priority intervention b. 2,3,4,5
the nurse should implement? c. 1,2,4,5,
d. 1,2,3,4,5
a. Take the client's vital signs
b. Check the client's perineal area 60. Which of the following is true on initiation of
c. Reevaluate the client after assisting to the bathroom to void breastfeeding?
d. Check the client's legs for swelling
1. Health workers should immediately help the newborn to
52. The nurse performs an assessment on a client latch on
diagnosed with endometriosis. Which of the following 2. Give sugar water to stimulate sucking reflex
assessment   findings would be indicative of this 3. Do not give bottles or pacifiers.
disorder?Select all that apply: 4. Do not throw away colostrums.
5. If the mother is HIV positive temporarily discontinue BF until
1. Spotting after intercourse medically cleared
2. Pain prior to menstruation a. 1,3,4,5
3. Dyspareunia b. 1,2,4,5
4. Menorrhagia c. 4 and 3 only
5. Mass felt on palpation d. 3,4,5 only
6. Yellow purulent discharge
a. 2,3,4 61. Proper care of the NB of a mother with HIV:
b. 1,5,6
c. 1,3,5,6 1. Universal precautions must be followed as with any other
d. all of these delivery and after care.
2. Her baby can have immediate skin-to-skin contact
53. An infant is born to a mother with poorly controlled 3. Breastfeeding must be withheld to prevent from neonatal
diabetes mellitus. The most important observation to transmission of the virus
make with the newborn in the first 24 hours after birth 4. Do not give the baby any other food or drink
would be: a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,4
a. Measurement of head circumference c. 2,4
b. Assessment of bowel function d. all
c. Assessment tremors
d. Assessment for hypercalcemia 62. The following can be safely used for Crede’s
prophylaxis:
Situation: The following questions pertain to UNANG
YAKAP (Essential Newborn care Protocol) 1. 1% Silver Nitrate drops
2. 2.5% povidone iodine drops
54. After a baby is born, what should be the first action? 3. 1% tetracycline ointment or erythromycin eye drops
a. 1 and 2 only
a. Clamp and cut the cord b. 2 and 3 only
b. Dry the baby c. All except 2
c. Suction the baby’s mouth and nose d. Any of these
d. Do foot printing
63. Which  of the following procedures are not routinely
55. During drying and stimulation of the baby, your rapid recommended for all neonates:
assessment shows that the baby is crying. What is your
next action? 4. Routine suctioning
5. Early bathing or washing
a. Suction the baby’s mouth and nose 6. Foot printing
b. Clamp and cut the cord 7. Giving sugar water, formula or other prelacteal feeds and
c. Do skin-to-skin contact use of bottles and pacifiers.
d. Do early latching 8. Application of alcohol, medicines, and other substances on
the cord stump and bandaging the cord stump or abdomen.
56. What are the benefits of immediate skin-to-skin a. Only 3 choices are correct
contact (SSC)? b. Only 1 option is incorrect
c. All options are incorrect
a. Provides warmth d. All options are correct
b. Increases overall duration of exclusive breastfeeding
c. Allows colonization of good bacteria 64. Purpose of administering Vitamin K to the newborn:
d. All of the above
a. Vitamin K prevents bleeding
57. Hypothermia can lead to which of the following b. Vitamin K is important for digestion of milk
conditions: c. Vitamin K is important for lung maturity
d. Vitamin K prevents pathologic jaundice
65. What is the best way of stimulating the newborn to
cry?
a. Suctioning
b. Rubbing the sole of the feet
c. Tangential foot slap
d. Drying and wiping the newborn
66.  Which of the following assessment findings would
alert the nurse to anticipate the development of jaundice
in a full-term newborn?
a. A negative direct Coombs test result
b. Infant blood type of O negative
c. Presence of a cephalohematoma
d. Maternal rubella status: immune
67. A nurse instructs the parent of a 2-year-old child who
has phenylketonuria (PKU) about acceptable foods to
include in the child’s diet. Which of the following foods, if
selected by the parent, indicates a correct understanding
of the teaching?
a. Chocolate milkshake
b. Peanut butter sandwich
c. Scrambled eggs
d. Animal-shaped crackers
68. A nurse provides home care instructions to the
parents of a child with celiac disease. The nurse teaches
the parents to include which of the following food items
in the child’s diet?
a. Rice
b. Oatmeal
c. Rye toast
d. Wheat bread
69. Which of the following should the nurse include in a
plan of care for a 5-year-old child admitted to the
hospital with the diagnosis of epiglottitis?
a. Perform a throat culture to identify the pathogen
b. Administer cough syrup to the child
c. Encourage the child to assume a tripod position
d. Restrict fluids
70. The nurse administers which of the following
vaccines to help prevent the development of epiglottitis?
a. Diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis (DTaP) combination
vaccine
b. Varicella vaccine (Varivax)
c. Haemophilus influenzae vaccine (HIB)
d. Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (Prevnar)
71. Which of the following infection control measures is
the priority for the nurse to implement in the care
provided to a 5-month-old infant admitted to the hospital
with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis?
a. Hand washing is required by all personnel and visitors
having contact with the infant
b. Gowns and masks must be worn by all personnel in the
infant's room
c. Place the infant in a private room
d. Visitors are restricted to only the parents of the infant
72. Postoperatively, for placement of a shunt for
hydrocephalus, the nurse should place a child in which
of the following positions?
a. Elevated 45 degrees in a supine position
b. Flat and lying on the unoperated side
c. Flat and lying on the operated side
d. Elevated 30 degrees and prone
73. The nurse caring for a child with muscular dystrophy
observes the child use the Gower maneuver while trying
to
a. sit
b. walk
c. stand
d. bendover
74. The nurse should prepare an 18-year-old adolescent
with acne who has not responded to antibiotic therapy
for which of the following tests prior to starting treatment
with isotretinoin (Accutane)?
a. Skin biopsy
b. Hearing test
c. Pregnancy test
d. Urinalysis
75. The mother of an infant who has had a cleft lip repair
tells the nurse that the physician said it was very
important not to let the baby cry and wants to know why.
Which of the following is the appropriate response by the
nurse? "Crying
a. impairs breathing."
b. stresses the sutures."
c. may result in gagging."
d. leads to crusting."
76. The nurse caring for a child with Hirschsprung's
disease documents the stools to have what
characteristic appearance?
a. Tarry and tenacious
b. Currant jellylike
c. Frothy and foul smelling
d. Ribbonlike
77. When preparing a child with probable
intussusception for a hydrostatic reduction procedure,
the nurse should explain which of the following aspects
of the procedure? The procedure will
a. blow air into a cavity of the bowel.
b. empty the bowel of all stool.
c. relax the bowel.
d. facilitate mixing the currant jellylike stool with normal stool.
78. Which of the following should the nurse include in
the nursing assessment of the endocrine system in a
child?
a. The number and type of pets in the home
b. Family health history
c. Dietary intake of calcium
d. History of streptococcus infection
79. A mother of a 4-year-old child asks the nurse
whether control of urine or stool comes first. Which of
the following responses is appropriate?
a. "Control of urine at night occurs first."
b. "Control of stool during the day occurs first."
c. "Control of stool at night occurs first."
d. "Control of urine during the day occurs first."
80. The nurse assists a 4-year-old child experiencing
primary enuresis to make which of the following menu
selections?
a. Hamburger, orange, and cola
b. Hot dog and a chocolate milk shake
c. Pizza, vanilla ice cream, and tea
d. Fried chicken and mashed potatoes
81. A clinic nurse instructs the mother of a child with a
sickle cell disease regarding the precipitating factors
related to pain crisis. Which of the following if identified
by the mother as a precipitating factor indicates the need
for further instructions?
a. Infection
b. Fluid overload
c. Trauma
d. Stress
82. When feeding an 18-month-old child two days after
he underwent a cleft palate repair, a nurse would offer
liquid nutrients using a:
a. Plastic cup
b. Flexible straw
c. Silatic nasogastric tube
d. Rubber-coated infant spoon
83. To help a mother anticipate the safety needs of
her nine-year-old son who is learning to ride a bicycle,
the nurse would teach that
A. a helmet will reduce his risk of head injury
B. the child must never ride without a friend nearby
C. a formal course of instruction is recommended
D. the child must ride on the sidewalk
84. The neonate is to receive an exchange transfusion.
Before the transfusion, the nurse explains to the mother
that treatment of hemolytic disease by exchange
transfusion is necessary to prevent damage to the
neonate’s
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Spleen
D. Kidneys
85. Before administering the measles, mumps and
rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 2-year-old child, it is
essential that a nurse assess for an allergy to:
a. peanuts
b. eggs
c. seafood
d. iodine
86. A mother of a 4-year-old expresses concern because
her hospitalized child has begun thumb sucking. The
mother states that this behavior began 2 days after
hospital admission. The most appropriate nursing
response is which of the following?
a. “A 4-year-old is too old for this type of behavior.”
b. “Your child is acting like a baby.”
c. “The doctor will need to be notified.”
d. “It is best to ignore the behavior.”
87. A nurse is assessing the play of a 4-year-old child.
Which of the following best describes what the nurse
would observe in the play of this age preschooler?
a. Plays alongside but not with playmates, taking toys away
from others, using a pounding bench, and playing with a
musical toy
b. Interactive play, obeying limits, creating an imaginary friend,
and engaging in fantasy play
c. Engaging in group sports and games and playing with
puppets
d. Playing alone in the corner, engaged in putting a puzzle
together
88. Which of the following should the nurse include when
preparing to teach a class on the introduction of new-
foods during the first year of life?
a. Place up to three foods on the spoon at one time with an old
favorite on the front of the spoon
b. Introduce fruits first, introduce one new fruit per day until all
fruits are introduced
c. Alternate between offering one spoonful of fruits and one
spoonful of vegetables
d. Introduce one new food at a time at seven-day intervals
89. Which of the following is the most age-appropriate
explanation the nurse should give a toddler who is to
take medication every morning for seven days?
a. "Your mommy will give you the medicine between 8:00 and
9:00 a.m. each morning until it is gone."
b. "You will be taking your medicine every morning after
breakfast until it is gone."
c. "For a week you will be taking your medicine in the early
morning."
d. "Your mommy will give you your medicine every day by 9:00
a.m. until it is gone."
90. Which of the following should the nurse include when
instructing a mother to administer vitamins to a
preschooler?
a. Give the vitamins with sips of milk
b. Give preschoolers half a vitamin
c. Store the vitamins in a locked cabinet that the child cannot
access
d. Allow the child to be independent by self-administering the
vitamins
91 Which of the following statements by the parents of a
preschooler would indicate that the parents had
implemented the nurse's instructions on dental hygiene
practices?
a. "Our child brushes his or her teeth without any help from
us."
b. "We give our child a pea-sized amount of fluoride
toothpaste."
c. "When our child is 6 years old, we will make an appointment
to see the dentist."
d. "When our child does a good job brushing we offer a
lollipop."
92.  Which of the following would be most helpful in
determining a child's nutritional status?
a. monitoring a child during mealtime at the hospital
b. offering nutritious foods and watching the child's response
c. having the child recite a usual day's meal and snack intake
d. placing the child on a specific diet, then assessing
compliance
93. Mr. and Mrs. Davis have a child with a homozygous
recessive trait; they are unaffected themselves. The
probability of having a second child with the same trait
is:
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
94. When teaching the parent of a four-year-old child
about expected age appropriate behaviors during
hospitalization, which of the following instructions would
a nurse give the parent ?
a. “It would not be unusual if your child starts to wet the bed.”
b. “Most of this age don’t cry when their parents go home for
the night.”
c. “You can expect your child to stop eating for a few days.”
d. “It is common for children of this age to cooperate for routine
procedures.”
95.  Which of the following statements, if made by a
four-year-old child whose brother just died of cancer,
would be age-appropriate?
a. “I know I’ll never see my brother again.”
b. “I’m glad my brother isn’t crying anymore.”
c. “I can’t wait to go get pizza with my brother.”
d. “I know where my brother is buried.”
96. A child appears to be relaxed and constrained can
lose control under the stress of procedure especially
injection. The nurse should
a. distract child with conversation.
b. have someone available to help hold the child if needed.
c. use safety precautions in administering medication
d. use phrase like "putting medicine under skin
97. The BEST position in intramuscular administration of
medication to a 2-year-old child is
a. Standing
b. Prone
c. Lying
d. semi-Fowler’s

98. Because a newborn is diagnosed with Down

syndrome, a nurse would anticipate that the infant is at
high risk for developing
A. altered thermoregulation
B. generalized infections
C. feeding problems
D. pathologic jaundice

99. A newborn is given an APGAR score of 8 at one

minute after birth. The nurse would expect the newborn
to have which of the following findings?
A. Heart rate of 96 beats/mins, weak cry, pale color and flaccid
posture
B. Heart rate of 110 beats/mins, weak cry, acrocyanosis, and
some flexion of the extremities
C. Heart rate of 120 beats/mins. Lusty cry, acrocyanosis and
minimal flexion of the extremities
D. Heart rate of 140 beats/mins, vigorous cry, pink trunk and
extremities and well-flexed posture

100. The nurse is assessing a pregnant woman. Which

signs or symptoms indicate a hydatidiform mole?
a. Rapid fetal heart tones
b. Abnormally high human chorionic gonadotropin
c. Slow uterine growth
d. Lack of symptoms of pregnancy