Form Number : R

Paper Code : ________________

R Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 7
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)

PRE-MEDICAL
ENTHUSIAST COURSE
RANK BOOSTER TEST -7
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : NEET

Important Instructions

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only. If any

student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to

accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball Point Pen

only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

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South Tukoganj, Indore (MP) - 452001 +91-731-4728500

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Topics
ENTHUSIAST COURSE : RBT-7
PHYSICS : ROTATIONAL MOTION (COM MOI ONLY)

CHEMISTRY : CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

BIOLOGY : BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 7

HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
1. If x1 and x2 are the distances of m1 and m2 4. A T-shaped object of uniform thickness & same
x1 material with dimensions shown in the figure, is
from their centre of mass then x will be equal r
2
lying on a smooth floor. A force F is applied at
to the point P parallel to AB, such that the object
has only the translation motion without rotation.
x1 x2
Find the location of P with respect to C :
m1 c.m m2
l
A B
m1 m2 m12 m22
(1) m (2) m (3) (4)
2 1 m22 m12
P
2l
R F
2. A disc of radius is cut out from a disc of
3
2radius R such that the circumference of the C
two discs touch each other as shown in figure.
The centre of mass of remaining disc from its 4l 2l 3l
(1) (2) l (3) (4)
centre is at a distance 3 3 2
5. The co-ordinate of centre of mass of a solid
hemi-sphere of radius R is
R y
R
3

x
R R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4) æ öR æ 3R ö
6 12 3 9 (1) ç 0, 2 ÷ (2) ç 0, 8 ÷
è ø è ø
3. A semicircular ring ABC of radius R is shown æ ö
2R æ ö 4R
in the figure. Its centre of mass is on (3) ç 0, p ÷ (4) ç 0, 3p ÷
è ø è ø
6. A uniform square plate ABCD has a mass of
y
A 10 kg. If two point masses of 3 kg each are
placed at the corners C and D as shown in the
O x adjoining figure, then the centre of mass shifts
B
to the point which is lie on -
C
y'

(1) O
x' O
x
(2) OC
(3) OA D y C

(4) OB (1) OC (2) OD

(3) OY (4) OX

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7. A semicircular portion of radius ‘r’ is cut from 10.
a uniform rectangular plate as shown in figure.
The distance of centre of mass 'C' of
remaining plate, from point ‘O’ is :
A shell is fired from ground to hit a target on
the ground at distance d. But at highest point
of its motion shell explodes in two equal parts
such that one piece retraces its path to the
point of projection on the ground. Then the
distance from the point of projection where
the second piece will strike the ground is

3 d
(1) d (2)
2 2

2r 3r (3) d (4) 2d
(1) (3 - p) (2) 2 ( 4 - p)
11. A man of mass m is standing on a plank of
mass M placed on a smooth surface. If the
2r 2r
(3) ( 4 + p) (4) 3 ( 4 - p) man moves a distance l relative to the plank
towards left, then w.r.t. ground plank moves
8. A uniform wire of length l is bent into the shape a distance
of 'V' as shown. The distance of its centre of
mass from the vertex A is ml ml
(1) Right, (2) Left,
M +m M +m
B
Ml Ml
(3) Right, (4) Left,
A 60 0 M +m M+m

12. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 0.5 kg are

C
moving in the same direction with speed of
2m/s and 6m/s respectively on a smooth
l 3
(1) l / 2 (2) horizontal surface. The speed of centre of
4
mass of the system is :
l 3
(3) (4) None of these 10 10
8 (1) m/s (2) m/s
3 7
9. Find the x coordinate of the centre of mass of
the bricks shown in figure : 11 12
(3) m/s (4) m/s
2 3
y 13. The velocity of centre of mass of the system as
shown in the figure
l
l 6 m 1kg 2m/s
l 4 m y
2 m
m x x’ x 2 kg
0
30

y’
24 25
(1) l (2) l 2m/s
25 24
æ2 - 2 3ö æ 2 + 2 3ö
ˆi - 1 ˆj ˆi - 2 ˆj
15 16 (1) çè 3 ø ÷ 3 (2) ç 3 ø ÷ 3
(3) l (4) l è
16 15
(3) 4iˆ (4) None of these

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 7

14. The figure shows the positions and velocities of 18. In Column I, shape of different bodies are given
two particles. If the particles move under the and in column II their moment of inertia are
mutual attraction of each other, then the given. Match column I with column II
position of centre of mass at t =1 s is Column I Column II
5m/s 3m/s
1kg 1kg
x=2m x=8m
4
(1) x=5m (2) x=6m (3) x=3m (4) x=2m (A) (P) mR 2
3
15. Two particles having mass ratio n : 1 are
interconnected by a light inextensible string Ring
that passes over a smooth pulley. If the system
is released, then the acceleration of the centre
of mass of the system is : mR 2
(B) (Q)
æ n + 1ö
2 3
(1) (n – 1) 2 g (2) ç ÷ g
è n - 1ø
2 Disc
æ n - 1ö æ n + 1ö
(3) ç ÷ g (4) ç n - 1 ÷ g
è n + 1ø è ø
16. Figure shows a uniform rectangular sheet with
mR 2
AB = 2BC. Moment of inertia of the sheet is (C) (R)
R R 4
maximum about
D P C rod of length 2R

R S
R
A Q B 3 2
(D) R (S) 2 mR
(1) AB (2) BC (3) PQ (4) RS
17. Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square
plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of A B C D
inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is:- (1) S R Q P
y (2) P Q S R
(3) Q P R S
(4) R S P Q
x
19. Two loops P and Qare made from a uniform
wire. The radii of P and Q are r1 and r2 re-
spectively, and their moments of inertia are

p æ4 pö r2
I1and I2 respectively. If I2/I1= 4 then equals
(2) ç - ÷ MR
2
(1) MR 2 r1
12 è3 4ø
æ 8 10 p ö æ4 pö
(3) ç - ÷ MR 2 (4) ç - ÷ MR 2
(1) 42/3 (2) 41/3 (3) 4–2/3 (4)4–1/3
è 3 16 ø è3 6ø

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20. A unifrom thin rod of length L and mass M is 24. Two circular loops of radius R and KR are
bent at the middle point O as shown in figure. made from same wire. The moment of inertia
Consider an axis passing through its middle about central axis of larger loop is 8 times that
point O and perpendicular to the plane of the of smaller loop. The value of k is
bent rod. Then moment of inertia about this (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 2
axis is :
25. The moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and
radius R about PQ axis will be-
(1) MR2

MR 2 D P
(2) M
2
2 1 R
(1) mL2 (2) mL2 O O'
3 3
3
(3) MR2
1 2
(3) mL2 (4) dependent on q D' Q
12 (4) 2MR2
21. A uniform disc of radius R lies in xy plane 26. On the marks of 20 cm and 70 cm of a light
with its centre at origin. Its moment of inertia meter scale, weights of 1kg and 4 kg
about the axis x = 2R and y = 0 is equal respectively are placed. The M.I. in Kg m2
to the moment of inertia about the axis y = d about the vertical axis through the 100 cm. mark
and x = 0. The value of d is will be :-
R 4 1kg 4kg
(1) R (2) 2R (3) (4) R
2 3
0 20 40 60 70 80 100
22. One quarter of a disc of mass m is removed. (in cm)
If r be the radius of disc, the new moment of
inertia about axis normally through centre is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
27. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of
3 1
(1) mr2 (2) mr2 diameter D and length L about an axis
8 2
perpendicular to the length and passes through
1 3 the centre of gravity will be :-
(3) mr2 (4) mr2
4 4
é D2 L2 ù é D2 L2 ù
23. Moment of inertia of a square plate of mass (1) M ê + ú (2) M ê + ú
ë 4 12 û ë 16 12 û
m and side length l about its one side AB is
I
é D2 L2 ù é D2 L2 ù
A D (3) ê 8 + 16 ú
M (4) ê 4 + 6 ú
M
ë û ë û
m
I
28. The M.I. of a thin rod of length l about the
perpendicular axis through its centre is I. The
B C M.I. of the square structure made by four such
rods about a perpendicular axis to the plane
ml 2 ml 2 ml 2 and through the centre will be-
(1) (2) (3) (4) ml2
6 3 12 (1) 4I (2) 8I (3) 12I (4) 16I

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 7

29. Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 33. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of
are connected with a massless rod of length 2R mass M and length l about an axis perpendicu-
as shown in the-figure.What will be the moment lar to the rod, through its centre is I. The mo-
of inertia of the -system about an axis passing ment of inertia of the rod about an axis perpen-
through the centre of one of the spheres and dicular to the rod through its end point is-
perpendicular to the rod I I
(1) (2) (3) 2I (4) 4I
4 2
Y 34. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of
M
P
M diameter D and length L about an axis
2

perpendicular to the length and passes through

R/

the centre of gravity will be :-

2R Y’ é D2 L2 ù é D2 L2 ù
(1) M ê + ú (2) M ê + ú
ë 4 12 û ë 16 12 û
21 2
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
5 5 é D2 L2 ù é D2 L2 ù
(3) ê 8 + 16 ú
M (4) ê 4 + 6 ú
M
5 5 ë û ë û
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 21 35. The moment of inertia of a square lamina about
30. A disc of certain radius is cut from a disc of the perpendicular axis through its centre of mass
mass 9M and radius R. Find its moment of is 20 kg-m2. Then, its moment of inertia about
inertia about an axis passing through its centre an axis touching its side and in the plane of the
C and perpendicular to its plane. lamina will be-
(1) 10 kg-m2 (2) 30 kg-m2
(3) 40 kg-m2 (4) 25 kg-m2
36. Two spheres A and B each of mass 5kg. are
joined on a light rod of 1m length at its ends.
considering these spheres as point masses, the
ratio of moment of inertia about axis through A
(1) 4MR2 (2) 6MR2 (3) 8MR2 (4) None
and middle point of rod perpendicular to it will
31. Two disc one of density 7.2 g/cm3 and the other be-
of density 8.9 g/cm3 are of same mass and
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
thickness. Their moments of inertia are in the
ratio- 37. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
density r is bent into a circular loop with centre
8.9 7.2 O as shown. the moment of inertia of the loop
(1) (2)
7.2 8.9 about the axis XX' is-
(3) (8.9 × 7.2) : 1 (4) 1 : (8.9 × 7.2) X X'
90°
32. A wheel of mass 10 kg has a moment of inertia O
of 160 kg-m2 about its own axis. The radius of
gyration is- rL3 rL3
(1) (2)
(1) 10 m (2) 4 m 8p2 16p2
(3) 5 m (4) 6 m 5rL3 3rL3
(3) (4)
16p2 8p2
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38. We have a rectangular slab of same thickness.
E, F, G, H are the middle point of AB, BC, CD
and AD respectively then which of the following
axis the moment of inertia will be minimum :–
42. A hemisphere and a solid cone of same
material have a common base. The centre of
mass of the common structure coincides with
the centre of the common base. If R is the
radius of hemisphere and h is height of the
cone, then :

h
(1) = 3
R

h 1
(1) AD (2) R =
3
(2) EG
h
(3) BD (3) =3
R
(4) HF
h 1
39. A rigid body can be hinged about any point on (4) =
R 3
the x-axis. when it is hinged such that the hinge
43. A uniform solid cone of height 40 cm is shown
is at x, the moment of inertia is given by I = x2–
in figure. The distance of centre of mass of the
2x + 99. The x-coordinate of centre of mass is
cone from point B (centre of the base) is :
:–
(1) x=2 (2) x=0 (3) x=1 (4) x=3
40. A thin rod of length 4l, mass 4m is bent at the
points as shown in the fig. What is the moment
of inertia of the rod about the axis passing point
O & perpendicular to the plane of the paper ?
O
(1) 20 cm (2) 10/3 cm
(3) 20/3 cm (4) 10 cm
90° 90°
44. A thin uniform wire is bent to form the two equal
sides AB and AC of triangle ABC, where AB
ml 2 = AC = 5 cm. The third side BC, of length
(1)
3 6cm, is made from uniform wire of twice the
10ml 2 density of the first. The distance of centre of
(2)
3 mass from A is :
ml 2
(3) 34
12 (1) cm
11
ml 2
(4)
24 11
(2) cm
41. The centre of mass of a body: 34
(1) Lies always at the geometrical centre 34
(3) cm
(2) Lies always inside the body 9
(3) Lies always outside the body 11
(4) cm
(4) Lies within or outside the body 45
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45. Find the position of centre of mass of the uni- 48. Which of the following factor affect the
form planner section shown in figure with re- equilibrium constant :-
spect to the origin (O) (1) Pressure (2) Volume
(3) Temperature (4) All
49. For an equilibrium, H2O(s) ƒ H2O(l) which of
the following statement is true :-
(1) The pressure changes do not affect the equilibrium
(2) More of ice melts if pressure on the system
is increased
(3) More of liquid freezes if pressure on the
system is increased
(4) All of these
æ 5a 5a ö
(1) ç 6 , 6 ÷ 50. The reaction CO + Cl2 ƒ COCl2 was carried
è ø
out at a specific temperature in a 500 ml capacity
æ 5a 5a ö flask. At equilibrium the flask was found to contain
(2) ç 3 , 3 ÷
è ø 0.3 mole of COCl2, 0.1 mole of CO and 0.1 mole
of Cl2. The value of Kc is equal to :-
æ 2a 2a ö
(3) ç 5 , 5 ÷ (1) 30
è ø

(4) None of these (2) 5

(3) 15

46. For the gas phase reaction; (4) 3

51. Consider the reactions
C 2 H 4(g) + H 2(g) ƒ C 2 H 6(g) ;
(i) 2CO2(g) + 2H2(g) ƒ 2CO(g) + 2H2O(g) ;
DH = -32.7Kcal is carried out in a vessel, the K1
equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be (ii) CO(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ CH4(g) + H2O(g) ; K2
increased by :
(iii) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ƒ CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ;
(1) Increasing temperature K3
(2) Decreasing pressure Which of the following relation is correct :-
(3) Removing some H2 1
(1) K 3 =
(4) All of these K1 ´ K 2
47. Le-chatelier principle is not applicable to : (2) K3 = K1 × K2
(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (3) K 3 = K 2 K1
(2) Fe(s) + S(s) FeS(s)
K
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (4) K3 = K
1

2
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

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52. Consider the following reaction :
2 Mol 4 Mol
2NO2(g) ¾® 2NO(g) + O2(g) 55. A2 B2
1L 3L
In the figure, below, identify the curves X, Y and
Z associated with the three species in the reaction: When A2 and B2 are allowed to react, the
equilibrium constant of the reaction at 27°C is
found (Kc = 4).
Concentration ®

X
A2(g) + B2(g) 2AB(g)
What will be the equilibrium concentration of
Y
AB?:-
Z
Time ® (1) 1.33 M (2) 2.66 M
(3) 0.66 M (4) 0.33 M
(1) X = NO, Y = O2, Z = NO2 56. I2(aq) + I–(aq) ƒ I3–(aq). We started with 1 mole
(2) X = O2, Y = NO, Z = NO2 I2 and 0.5 mole of I– in 1 litre flask. After
(3) X = NO2, Y = NO, Z = O2 equilibrium is reached excess of AgNO3 gave
(4) X = O2, Y = NO2, Z= NO 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate of AgI.
Equilibrium constant kC is :
53. In a general reaction A + B AB, which value
of equilibrium constant most favours the (1) 3.0 (2) 2.66
production of AB ? (3) 2.0 (4) 1.33
57. Water contains dissolved CO2, its reaction with
(1) 9.0 × 10–3
water is represented as :
(2) 3.0 × 10–3
CO2 + H2O ƒ H3O+ + HCO3–
–7
(3) 9.0 × 10
Kc for the reaction is 3.8 × 10–7 and pH = 6.
–12
(4) 9.0 10
[HCO3- ]
54. Consider following reactions in equilibrium with What is the value of [CO ] ?
2
equilibrium concentration 0.01 M of every
species (1) 3.8 × 10–1 (2) 3.8 × 10–13
(I) PCl5(g) ƒ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (3) 6.0 (4) 3.8

(II) 2HI(g) ƒ H2(g) + I2(g) 58. The equilibrium constant for reaction 2NO(g) ƒ
N2(g)+O2(g) is K then degree of dissociation will
(III) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ 2NH3(g)
be :-
Extent of the reactions taking place is :-
(1) K +1 (2) K -1
(1) I > II > III
(2) I < II < III 2 K
(3)
2 K +1
(3) II < III < I
(4) III < I < II 1- K
(4)
K

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Target : Pre-Medical 2022/RANK BOOSTER TEST - 7

59. N2 and H2 are taken in 1 : 3 molar ratio in a closed 64. At 500 K, the reaction given below has
vessel to attain the following equilibrium KC = 9
N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g). Find Kp for 1 3
NH3(g) ƒ N 2 (g) + H 2 (g)
reaction at total pressure of 2P if PN at 2
2 2
P What is the KP for reaction?
equilibrium is :-
3 N2(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ 2NH3(g)
1 4
(1) 2 (2) 2 (R ´ 500) –2
3P 3P (1) 81(R × 500)–2 (2)
4P 2 81
(3) (4) none 1
3 (3) (4) 81
81
60. For the reaction 2SO2 + O2 ƒ 2SO3 which
relation is possible at 10ºC 65. The value of Kp for the following reaction 2H2S(g)
2H2(g) + S2(g) is 1.2 × 10–2 at 106.5ºC. The
(1) KC – KP = 0 (2) KC – Kp = +ve
(3) KC – Kp = –ve (4) Kc = Kp value of Kc for this reaction is :
–2
61. A definite amount of solid NH4HS is placed in a (1) 1.2 × 10 (2) < 1.2 × 10–2
flask already containing ammonia gas at a certain (3) 83 (4) > 1.2 × 10–2
temperature and 0.50 atm pressure. NH4HS
66. N2O4 is dissociated to 33% and 50% at total
decomposes to give NH 3 and H 2S and at
pressure P1 and P2 atm respectively. The ratio of
equilibrium total pressure in flask is 0.84 atm.
P1/P2 is :
partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium is.
(1) 7/4 (2) 7/3
(1) 0.30 (2) 0.11 (3) 0.17 (4) 0.67
(3) 8/3 (4) 8/5
62. For the reaction
67. For : 2P(g) + Q(g) ƒ R(g) + S(g)
N2O4(g) ƒ 2NO2(g) find out the temperature at
Which of the following changes affect the
which KP = KC :-
equilibrium mixture's composition but leaves the
(1) 12.18 K value of equilibrium constant unchanged
1 (1) Decrease in temperature
(2) kelvin
R (2) Addition of inert gas at constant temperatrue
(3) Both (1) and (2) and volume
(4) Not possible under any conditions (3) Addition of reactants
63. In the equilibrium SO2Cl2 ƒ SO2 + Cl2 at 2000 (4) Increase in temperature
K and 10 atm pressure, %, Cl2 = % SO2 = 40 68. For A(g) + B(g) ƒ 2C(g) + D(g)
by volume. Then KP = 2 atm. If at any time the partial pressure of
(1) Kp = 2 atm A, B, C and D are 1 atm, 2 atm, 2 atm and 1 atm
respectively. Then :-
n(SO 2 Cl2 ) 1
(2) = at equilibrium (1) The net reaction will go in forward direction
n(SO 2 ) 4
(2) The net reaction will go in backward direction
(3) Kp = 8 atm (3) There is equilibrium condition
(4) n(SOCl2) = n(SO2) = n(Cl2) (4) This is not equilibrium condition
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69. A(g) ƒ B(g) + C(g). At equilibrium 0.2M A, 73. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is K, and
0.1M B & 0.2M C are found at 25°C. If the reaction quotient is Q. For a particular reaction
equilibrium concentrations of B & C are made half K
mixture, the ratio is 0.33. This means that :
of the given at 298 K then equilibrium Q
concentration of A will be :-
(1) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to form
(1) 0.02M (2) 0.04M more reactant species
(3) 0.05M (4) 0.06M (2) The reaction mixture will equilibrate to form
70. The equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + more product species
ˆˆ† 2HI is 49 then equilibrium constant of the
I2 ‡ˆˆ (3) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to product
following reaction is - concentrations will be 3
1 1
ˆˆ† HI
H2 + I2 ‡ˆˆ (4) The equilibrium ratio of reactant to product
2 2
concentrations will be 0.33
1
(1) 16 (2) 74. KC = 1 if :-
49
(3) 7 (4) 49 (1) DG° = 1 (2) DG° = 0
71. At 200ºC, nitrogen oxide reacts with oxygen to (3) DG° = +ve (4) DG° = – ve
form nitrogen dioxide as follows :
é N 2 O 4 ƒ 2NO2 ù
ˆˆ† 2NO2 , kc = 3 × 10
2NO + O2 ‡ˆˆ
6
75. ê colourless coloured ú on heating, colour of
ë û
In a mixture of the three species at equilibrium,
we can accurately predict that solution deepens then DH for reaction will be :-

(1) The concentration ofboth NO and O2 willbe much (1) –ve (2) +ve
larger than the concentration of NO2 (3) zero (4) unidentified
(2) The concentrations of both NO and O2 will be 76. In the formation of ammonia from N2 and H2, if
much smaller than the concentration of NO2. He is added at the constant pressure, formation
(3) The concentrations of either NO or O 2 (and of NH3 will :-
possibly both) will be much smaller than the (1) Increase
concentration of NO2 (2) Decrease
(4) The concentration of O2 will be exactly one (3) No change
half the concentration of NO (4) Increase dissociation of NH3
72. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + 77. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ 2NH3(g), initially the mole ratio
O2(g) ƒ 2NO(g) is 4 × 10 –4
at 200 K. In was 1 : 3 of N2 and H2. At equilibrium 50% of
presence of a catalyst, equilibrium is attained ten each has reacted. If total pressure at equilibrium
times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant is P, the partial pressure of NH3 is :-
in presence of the catalyst at 200 K is:- (1) P/3

(1) 40 × 10–4 (2) 4 × 10–4 (2) P/4

(3) P/6
(3) 4 × 10–3
(4) P/8
(4) Difficult to compute without more data

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78. The enthalpies of two reaction are DH1 and DH2 82. N2O4(g) ƒ 2NO2(g); K1
(both positive) with DH2 > DH1. If the temperature
1
of the reaction system is increased from T1 to T2, NO2(g) ƒ N O (g); K2
2 2 4
predict of the following alternatives is correct
regarding their equilibrium constants ? 2NO2(g) ƒ N2O4(g); K3

K' K' 1
(1) K = K
1 2
N O (g) ƒ NO2(g); K4
1 2 2 2 4

K' K' If K1 = K 2x = K3y = K z4 , then :-

(2) K > K
1 2

1 2
(1) –2,–1,2 (2) 2,–1,–2
K '1 K '2
(3) K < K
1 2 1 1 1 1
(3) - , -1, (4) , -1, -
(4) No change in equilibrium constant 2 2 2 2

79. For which of the reactions is product formation 83. In alkaline solution, the following equilibria
favoured by low pressure and high temperature :- exist :
(1) H2 + I2 2HI DH = –9.4 kJ (a) S2– + S ¾® S22– equilibrium constant K1
(2) CO2 + C(s) 2CO DH = 172.5 kJ
(b) S22– + S ¾® S32– equilibrium constant
(3) CO + 2H2 CH3OH DH = –21.7 kJ K2
(4) 3O2 2O3 DH = 285 kJ
K1 and K2 have values 12 and 11, respectively.
80. Initially 0.5 mole of H2 and 0.5 mole of I2 were What is equilibrium constant for the reaction :
mixed. Calculate the unreacted moles of H2 at
equilibrium H2+I2 ƒ 2HI; KC = 25. S32– ¾® S2– + 2S
(1) 132 (2) 7.58 × 10–3
1 7
(1) (2) (3) 1.09 (4) 0.918
9 18
5 1 84. Two equilibria AB ƒ A+ + B– and
(3) (4)
14 7 AB + B– ƒ AB-2 are simultaneously maintained
81. Following two equilibrium is simultaneously in a solution with equilibrium constant K1 and K2
established in a container respectively. The ratio of A+ to AB-2 in the solution
PCl5(g) ƒ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is :-
CO(g) + Cl2(g) ƒ COCl2(g) (1) Directly proportional to the concentration of B–
If some Ni(s) is introduced in the container (2) Inversely proportional to the concentration of B–
forming Ni(CO)4(g) then at new equilibrium
(3) directly proportional to the square of the
(1) PCl3 concentration will increase
concentration of B–
(2) PCl3 concentration will decrease
(4) Inversely proportional to the square of the
(3) Cl2 concentration will remain same
(4) CO concentration will remain same concentration of B–

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85. The equilibrium : 90. In which case(s), vapour density remains

unchanged on dissociation :
P4(g) + 6Cl2(g) 4PCl3(g)
ˆˆ† 2NO
(1) N2O4(g) ‡ˆˆ
is attained by mixing equal moles of P4 and Cl2 2(g)

ˆˆ† 2NO
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) ‡ˆˆ
in an evacuated vessel. Then at equilibrium : (g)

(1) [Cl]2 > [PCl3] (2) [Cl]2 > [P4] ˆˆ† PCl + Cl
(3) PCl5(g) ‡ˆˆ 3(g) 2(g)
(3) [P4] > [Cl2] (4) [PCl3] > [P4] (4) In all of above case
86. At 250°C, the observed vapour density of PCl5 91. How much oxygen can be delivered to the tissue
is 75. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 would by 1000 ml oxygenated blood under normal
be : [mol. wt. of PCl5 = 210] :- physiological condition?
(1) 75% (2) 40% (1) Around 5 m.l.
(2) Around 50 m.l
(3) 52.5% (4) 70%
(3) Around 15 m.l.
(4) Around 20 m.l.
92. Which is not true ?
D - DO (1) pCO2 of dexygenated blood is 95 mm Hg
87. a= T
DO (2) pCO2 of alveolar air is 40 mm Hg
(3) pO2 alveolar air is 104 mm Hg
Where,
(4) pO2 of oxygented blood is 95 mm Hg
DT = Theoretical vapour density 93. Conducting part of the respiratory system is
DO = Observed vapour density formed
a = Degree of dissociation (1) From external nostrils up to the initial bron-
chioles
This formula is applicable for (2) From external nostrils up to the terminal bron-
(1) PCl5(g) ƒ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) chioles
(2) N2O4(g) ƒ 2NO2(g) (3) From external nostrils up to the alveoli
(4) From external nostrils up to the alveoli
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ 2NH3(g) 94. Which one of the following is the correct
(4) Both 1 and 2 statement for respiration in humans ?
88. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 (a) obeying (1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking
the equilibrium; PCl5 ƒ PCl3 + Cl2 is related to industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
(2) Abut 90% of carbon dioxide (CO ) is carried
the pressure at equilibrium by :-
by haemoglobin as carbamino haemoglobin
1 (3) Receptors associated with aortic arch and
(1) a µ P (2) a µ
P carotid artery can not recognise change in CO
and H concentration
1 1
(3) a µ (4) a µ (4) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in
P2 P4 pons region of brain can increase the duration of
89. 2.2 mole of PCl5 were taken in a closed vessel inspiration
95. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration,
and dissociate into PCl3 and Cl2. At equilibrium
the capacity of lungs is known as –
total number of moles of reactant and products (1) Vital capacity
was 2.53. The degree of dissociation is : (2) Total lungs capacity
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.165 (3) IC
(3) 0.15 (4) 0.30 (4) EC

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96. 100. Contraction of diaphragm increases volume of
thoracic cavity in
(1) Dorso-ventral axis
(2) Lateral axis
(3) Antero-posterior axis
(4) Both (1) and (3)
101.

97. When temperature decreases oxy–Hb curve will–

(1) shift to left
(2) become straight
(3) become parabola
(4) all of these 102. Trachea is straight tube extending up to the
_____________ :-
98.
(1) end of thoracic cavity
(2) Mid thoracic cavity
(3) end of the neck
(4) middle of the neck
103. Which of the following is not an active process?
(1) Normal inspiration
(2) forceful inspiration
(3) Normal expiration
(4) Forceful expiration
104. During excercise, blood delivers what quantity
of O to the tissues ?
99. (A) Cricoid cartilage (1) 5 ml (2) 20 ml
(B) Thyroid cartilage (3) 15 ml (4) 100 ml
(C) Arytenoid cartilage
105. ‘C’ shape cartilages are found in :-
(D) Cartilage of Santorini
(E) Cuneiform cartilage (1) Trachea
Select the option which includes only the paired (2) Primary bronchus
cartilage (3) Secondary bronchus
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C
(3) C and A (4) C and D (4) All of these
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111. In human lungs are covered by :-
106. (1) Pericardium membrane
(2) Retro peritoneum membrane
(3) Pleural membrane
(4) Mediastinal membrane
112. Which is the part of respiratory tree of
srespiratory system:-
(1) Pulmonary bronchioles
(2) Alveolar duct
(3) Bronchi
107. Which of the following statement is not true ? (4) Trachea
(1) Haemoglobin has more affinity for CO than O2
(2) 7% CO2 is transported by plasma. 113.
(3) 7% O2 is transported by plasma.
(4) PO in alveoli is 104 mm of Hg.
2

108. Human has the ability to increase the strength of

inspiration and expiration with the help additional
muscles in
(1) Ribs (2) Diaphragm
(3) Abdomen (4) Sternum

109.

114.

110.

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115. 118.

119.

116.

120.

117.

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121. 126.

127.

122.

123.
128.

124.

129.

125.

130. Food and air pathway are divided at :

(1) larynx
(2) pharynx
(3) oesophagus
(4) stomach

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131. During hibernation, frog respires through : 137. In the given table choose the correct value of
(1) gills partial pressure :
(2) lungs
(3) integument/skin Deoxygen Oxygenat
Respiratory
(4) Buccopharyngeal Alveoli ated ed Tissue
gases
132. Which of the following is incorrect ? blood blood
(1) The alveoli are internally coated with thin film O2 104 b 95 d
of lecithin. CO 2 a 45 c 4
(2) Surfactant is secreted by type II cells of alveoli
(3) Surfactant increase surface tension
a b c d
(4) Deficiency of surfactant leads to collapsing
(1) 40 40 40 40
of lungs
(2) 45 45 95 45
133. (3) 45 40 45 95
(4) 40 95 40 4

138.

134.

135.

136.

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139. 144.

145.

140.

146.

141.

147.

142.

148.
143.

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149.
154.

150.

151. 155.

152.

156.

153.

157.

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158.

159.

164.

160.

161.
165.

162.
166.

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172.
167.

173.

168.

174.

169.

175.

170.

171.

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176. 178.

179.

177.

180.

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