Compilation of PAES Exam Highlighted

PHILIPPINE
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
STANDARD
REVIEWER FOR CENTRALIANS
PHILIPPINE AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING ACT OF 1998
(RA 8559)
PHILIPPINE AGRICULTURAL AND

BIOSYSTEMS ENGINEERING ACT OF
2016
(RA 10915)
PAES COMPILATION BY:

ESTEH FRANK DFE
CENTRAL PHILIPPINE UNIVERSITY (CPU)
ILOILO CITY
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PHILIPPINE EXAM 1
AGRICULTURAL 1. Implement consisting of long, flat and
curved teeth made of spring steel.
ENGINEERING a.
b.
c.
Roller-harrow
Disc harrow
Spring-tooth harrow
STANDARD d. Spike-tooth harrow
2. PAES 151:2010 Agricultural Machinery
a. Power Sprayer for Mango –

Specifications
b. Sugarcane Planter – Specifications
c. Spring-tooth Harrow – Specifications
d. Mechanical Rice Transplanter –
Specifications
PAES 101 3. Type of field cultivator wherein main

frame is mounted on the front of the
tractor.
a. Three-point hitch mounted

b. Field cultivator
c. Front mounted
d. Drawn type cultivator
TO 4. Machine designed for transplanting rice

seedlings into a puddled and leveled field.
a. Transplanting
b. Transplanting arm
c. Mechanical rice transplanter
d. Human transplanting
PAES 166 5. Total force parallel to the direction of

travel required to move the implement.
a.
b.
Draft
Drawbar horsepower
c. Implement
d. Drawbar power
6. Based on PAES 117: 2000 small engine –

methods of test, how many hours shall the
engine run continuously with continuous
AGRICULTURAL
speed and power specified by the
manufacturer.
a. Four
MACHINERY b.
c.
d.
tHree
fiVe
Six
7. Implement performing shallow post-plant

tillage to aid the crop by loosening the
soil and/or by mechanical eradication of
undesired vegetation.
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a. Continuous-tool bar cultivator 15. Portion of an implement designed to
b. Field cultivator connect the implement to a power source.
c. Cultivating tillage implement
d. Separated gang cultivator a. Coulter
b. Draft
8. Implement consisting of tool bars that c. Blade
extend across the top of the rows, which d. Hitch
allow lateral adjustments of the tools for
different row spacing. 16. Miniature plow attachment whose purpose
is to turn over a small furrow slice
a. Continuous-tool bar cultivator directly ahead of the main moldboard plow
b. Field cultivator bottom, to aid in covering trash.
c. Cultivating tillage implement
d. Separated gang cultivator a. Coulter
b. Jointer
9. Implement consisting of tool bars that c. Blade
drop down between the rows to provide d. Hitch
maximum vertical clearance for the plants.
17. Soil profile modified by tillage or
a. Continuous-tool bar cultivator amendments for use by plant roots
b. Field cultivator
c. Cultivating tillage implement a. Root zone
d. Separated gang cultivator b. Land
c. Seedbed
10. Based on PAES Walking-type Agricultural d. Root bed
Tractor (rotary tilling-type), the noise
emitted by the tractor measured 50 mm away 18. PAES 124: 2002 walking-type
from the operator’s ear level shall not be agricultural tractor – Part 3: special type
more than? (float-assist tiller), what is the
recommended peak transmission efficiency of
a. 94 db (A) the tractor?
b. 98 db (A)
c. 96 db (A) a. 90%
d. 92 db (A) b. 85%
c. 80%
11. Soil-handling implements which forms d. 95%
uniform ridges of soil to predetermined
shapes 19. Part of the soil profile exploited by
the roots of plants.
a. Coulter
b. Bed shaper a. Root zone
c. Blade b. Seedbed
d. Hitch c. Root bed
d. Head land
12. Soil-working tool, consisting of an
edge and a surface, which is primarily 20. Soil zone which affects germination and
designed to cut through the soil. emergence of seeds.
a. Coulter a. Root zone

b. Draft b. Land
c. Blade c. Seedbed
d. Hitch d. Root bed
13. Circular, flat tool used to cut plant 21. Based on PAES 118: 2001 four-wheel
material and soil. tractor, the tractor shall be able to pull
field implements up to what speed?
a. Coulter
b. Bed shaper a. 8 km/h
c. Blade b. 10 km/h
d. Hitch c. 12 km/h
d. 14 km/h
14. Force to propel an implement in the
direction of travel which is equal and 22. Tillage in which a narrow curved shank
opposite to drawbar pull. is used.
a. Coulter a. Anchoring
b. Draft b. Ridging
c. Blade c. Listing
d. Hitch d. Chisel plowing
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23. Component of the power sprayer used to b. 3 kph to 4 kph
regulate the pressure. c. 5 kph to 6 kph
d. 8 kph to 9 kph
a. Automatic switch valve
b. Cut-off valve 31. Operation wherein a lister is used in a
c. Solenoid valve manner that forms a furrow midway between
d. Pressure relief valve two previous rows of plants
24. Type of force type hand pump that a. Harrowing

discharges water only on the forward stroke b. Middlebreaking
of the piston or plunger and draw in water c. Incorporating
into the cylinder during the back stroke. d. Off barring
a. Single acting 32. Plow bottom that has less curvature

b. Force type than the stubble and can be used easily for
c. Double acting stubble, ordinary trash and stalk cover
d. Lift type land.
a. General-purpose moldboard
25. Type of power sprayer mounted on b. Stubble moldboard
wheels, either pushed by an operator or c. Slatted moldboard
towed by a vehicle. The pump can be powered d. Moldboard plow
by an engine or an electric motor.
33. Plow bottom that has long, narrow and
a. Wheel frame power sprayer less sloping moldboard with a gradual twist
b. Wheel-mounted power sprayer that allows complete inversion of the
c. Power sprayer furrow slice with minimum breakage.
d. Frame mounted power sprayer
a. Share
26. PAES 159:2011 Agricultural Machinery b. Stubble moldboard
c. Plow bottom
a. Power Sprayer for Mango – d. Sod moldboard
Specifications
b. Sugarcane Planter – Specifications 34. Working part of the plow which includes
c. Spring-tooth Harrow – Specifications the share, moldboard, and landside, all
d. Mechanical Rice Transplanter – attached to the frog.
Specifications
a. Share
27. Sugarcane stalks containing buds used b. Moldboard plow
as planting mat. c. Plow bottom
d. Sod moldboard
a. Feeding shank
b. Sugarcane billet plant 35. What type of field operation pattern?
c. Sugarcane plant
d. Sugarcane billet
28. Based on PAES119: 2001 four-wheel

tractor – methods of test, what is the
recommended noise emitted by the tractor
measured 50 mm away from the operator’s ear
level?
a. Shall be more than 92 db (A)

b. Shall not be more than 92 db (A) a. Headland pattern turn strips each
c. Shall be lesser than 92 db (A) end
d. Shall be exactly 92 db (A)
b. Headland pattern from boundaries
29. Operation which pulverizes, smoothens, c. Headland alternation pattern
and makes the soil ready for planting. d. Headland strips alternation pattern
a. Harrowing 36. Type of plow mounted on the tractor’s

b. Middlebreaking three-point linkage and depends upon the
c. Incorporating tractor for its general operation.
d. Off barring
a. Trailing moldboard plow
30. Based on PAES 132: 2004 Disc/Moldboard b. Tractor-mounted moldboard plow
Plow – Methods of Test, what is the c. Tractor-mounted reversible disc plow
required travelling speed during operation d. Semi-mounted moldboard plow
for two-wheel tractor-drawn plows?
37. Type of plow hitched to the drawbar or
a. 2 kph to 3 kph lower links of the tractor, supported by
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two or three wheels and equipped with
hydraulic lines and cylinders for lifting 44. Type of hand pump intended for use in
and/or depth control. lifting water from low-head cisterns and
wells, the depth of which is not beyond the
a. Semi-mounted reversible disc plow head furnished by atmospheric pressure.
b. Trailing moldboard plow
c. Tractor-mounted reversible disc plow a. Single acting
d. Semi-mounted moldboard plow b. Lift type
c. Double acting
38. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated d. Force type
Knapsack Sprayer, the overall weight of the
sprayer with its component parts, when 45. Part of granule applicator where
fully loaded with water shall not exceed granules are loaded.
how many kilograms?
a. Hopper
a. 12 b. Agitator
b. 16 c. Granule
c. 22 d. Granule applicator
d. 25
46. PAES 163:2011 agricultural machinery
39. Serves as an adaptor of the drill bit
and conduit of water jet channel. a. Power sprayer for mango –
specifications
a. Drilling rig b. Sugarcane planter – specifications
b. Drilling pipe c. Spring-tooth harrow – specifications
c. Drill bit d. Mechanical rice transplanter –
d. AOTA specifications
40. A type of drilling rig in which the 47. PAES 166:2011 Agricultural Machinery
mode of drilling is done by using a
rotating drill bit that cut and loosen the a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test
soil thus producing a hole of required b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test
diameter. c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test
d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test
a. Rotary
b. Percussion 48. Secondary tillage implement consisting
c. Combination of long and curved teeth made of spring
d. AOTA steel which are fastened on the transverse
toolbars with the other end pointed to give
41. A type of drilling rig in which the good soil penetration.
mode of drilling is done by alternately
raising and dropping either an external a. Trailing spring-tooth harrow
weight (solid steel or wood) or the b. Harrowing
drilling stem itself, causing the impact of c. Spring-tooth harrow
the drill bit to the soil, thus producing a d. Auger head/drill bit
hole of required diameter.
49. Four-wheel tractor speed limit on paved
a. Rotary road in kph.
b. Percussion
c. Combination a. 15 to 22
d. AOTA b. 15 to 20
c. 14 to 26
42. Based on PAES 118: 2001 four-wheel d. 8 to 15
tractor, what is the allowable wheel slip
for maximum efficiency for two-wheel drive 50. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated
tractor at tilled or soft soil. Knapsack Sprayer, the flow rate from the
nozzle using water and the nozzles
a. 20-40 provided, shall lie in the range of 0.3 to
b. 10-20 1.4 L/min. at what mean pressure?
c. 10-15
d. 10-30 a. 100 kPa
b. 300 kPa
43. A type of drilling rig in which the c. 400 kPa
mode of drilling is done by rotary action d. 200 kPa
and percussion.
51. Tillage of an entire area as contrasted
a. Rotary to a partial tillage as in bands or strips.
b. Percussion
c. Combination a. Deep tillage
d. AOTA b. Broadcast tillage
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c. Rotary tillage
d. Oriented tillage 59. What type of field operation pattern?
52. Tillage action and transport operations

utilized to loosen, load, carry, and unload
soil.
a. Earthmoving
b. Land grading
c. Land forming
d. Land planning
53. PAES 128: 2002 drilling rig – methods

of test, the drilling rig shall be operated a. Continuous pattern turn strips each
for at least 100 mm diameter of bore hole end
and minimum depth of how many meters? b. Continuous pattern from boundaries
c. Continuous alternation pattern
a. 10 d. Continuous strips alternation
b. 20
pattern
c. 30
d. 40
60. Tillage, which constitutes the initial
54. Tillage operation which move soil to major soil-working operation, normally
establish a desired soil elevation and designed to reduce soil strength, cover
slope. plant materials, and rearrange aggregates.
a. Land grading a. Secondary tillage

b. Land forming b. Primary tillage
c. Land planning c. Ridge tillage
d. Soil cultivation d. Conservation tillage
55. Tillage operation which are oriented in 61. Tillage, following primary tillage,
specific paths or directions with respect which is designed to control weed growth
to the sun, prevailing winds, previous and to create specific soil surface
tillage actions, or field base lines. configurations before seeding.
a. Deep tillage a. Precision tillage

b. Broadcast tillage b. Secondary tillage
c. Rotary tillage c. Minimum tillage
d. Oriented tillage d. Primary tillage
56. Shallow tillage operation performed to 62. System traditionally performed in

promote growth of crop plants by creating a preparing a seedbed for a given crop and
soil condition conducive to aeration, grown in a given geographical area.
infiltration, and moisture conservation or
to pest control. a. Precision tillage
b. Secondary tillage
a. Earthmoving c. Minimum tillage
b. Land forming d. Conventional tillage
c. Land planning
d. Soil cultivation 63. What type of field operation pattern?
57. Mechanical manipulation of soil for any

desired purpose.
a. Precision tillage
b. Conventional tillage
c. Tillage
d. Mulch tillage
58. Based on PAES 124: 2002 walking-type

agricultural tractor – Part 3: special type
(float-assist tiller), what is the a. Overlapping alternation pattern
recommended noise emitted by the tractor b. Overlapping pattern from boundaries
measured 50 mm away from the operator’s ear c. Overlapping alternation strip
level? pattern
d. Overlapping alternation pattern
b. Shall be exactly 92 db (A) 64. System wherein least soil manipulation
c. Shall not be more than 92 db (A) is performed.
d. Shall be lesser than 92 db (A)
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a. Precision tillage a. Mounted mist
b. Secondary tillage b. Mist
c. Minimum tillage c. Backpack mist
d. Conventional tillage d. Wand
65. System in which tillage of the total 73. Part of the cylinder that is connected
soil surface is performed in such a way to the pump rod and which forces water up
that plant residue is specifically left on the draw pipe.
or near the soil surface.
a. Hand pump
a. Precision tillage b. Plunger/piston
b. Optimum tillage c. Pump stand/pedestal
c. Primary tillage d. Pump rod/plunger rod
d. Mulch tillage
74. Type of sugarcane planter that is
66. Implement which shatters the soil capable of chopping sugarcanes into billets
without complete burial or mixing of which are dropped into the furrows.
surface materials.
a. Manual sugarcane planter
a. Moldboard plow b. Mechanical sugarcane planter
b. Spiral plow c. Semi-automatic sugarcane planter
c. Chisel plow d. Sugarcane planter
d. Rotary plow
75. Based on PAES 118: 2001 four-wheel
67. Implement which cuts, partially or tractor, what is the allowable wheel slip
completely inverts a layer of soil to bury for maximum efficiency for two-wheel drive
surface materials, and pulverizes the soil. tractor at firm soil.
a. Row crop cultivator a. 5-10%

b. Roller-harrow b. 7-11%
c. Moldboard plow c. 12-18%
d. Rotary hoe d. 10-20%
68. Tool attached to the shank of the 76. Eliminates back and dead furrows and is
subsoiler to cut through the soil. used for surface irrigation.
a. Soil abrasion a. Subsoiler

b. Subsoiler b. Disc plow
c. Shank c. Roller-harrow
d. Ripper point d. Two-way plow
69. Series of hills in a field. 77. Implement for intermittent tillage at

depths sufficient to shatter compacted
a. Root-washed seedlings subsurface layers.
b. Rows
c. Hills a. Subsoiler
d. Soil-bearing seedlings b. Disc plow
c. Roller-harrow
70. Scratching, cutting, or abrasing of d. Two-way plow
materials caused by the action of soil.
78. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated
a. Soil abrasion Knapsack Sprayer Method of test, the
b. Subsoiler pumping rate shall not exceed how many
c. Shank strokes/min?
d. Ripper point
a. 10
71. Lever that connects the pump rod to the b. 25
pump head which often includes some c. 30
mechanism to add counterweight to balance d. 40
the weight of the water being lifted up the
draw pipe. 79. Consists of two gangs wherein one gang
is located behind the other at an angle and
a. Handle the harrow is operated in an offset
b. Plunger/piston position in relation to the tractor.
c. Pump stand/pedestal
d. Pump rod/plunger rod a. Roller-harrow
b. Offset disc harrow
72. Part of the mist blower that connects c. Spring-tooth harrow
the nozzle to the blower. d. Single-action disc harrow
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80. Implement used for seedbed preparation
which crushes soil clods and smooths and a. Soil-additive applicator
firms the soil surface. b. Soil-additive incorporator
c. Soil roller
a. Row crop cultivator d. Soil-working surface
b. Roller-harrow
c. Packer 87. Tillage tools which present a
d. Rotary hoe reasonable constant boundary area to the
soil.
tractor, what is the allowable wheel slip a. Multi-powered tillage tools
for maximum efficiency for four-wheel drive b. Soil abrasion
tractor at tilled or soft soil. c. Soil adhesion
d. Mechanical impedance
a. 15-21
b. 10-30 88. Scratching, cutting, or abrading of
c. 18-25 materials caused by the action of soil.
d. 8-13
a. Multi-powered tillage tools
82. What type of field operation pattern? b. Soil abrasion
c. Soil adhesion
89. Resistance to the movement of plant

parts or tillage tools through soil that is
caused by the mechanical strength of the
soil.

b. Soil abrasion
c. Soil adhesion
a. Circuitous pattern turn strips at
corner diagonals 90. PAES 160:2011 Agricultural Machinery
b. Circuitous pattern rounded corners
c. Circuitous pattern from back furrow a. Power Sprayer for Mango –
d. Circuitous pattern square corners Specifications
83. Implement wherein the frame and c. Spring-tooth Harrow – Specifications
cultivating tools are designed to d. Mechanical Rice Transplanter –
adequately pass through standing crop rows Specifications
without crop damage.
91. Type of soil auger that makes use of
a. Row crop cultivator human force to drill the soil.
b. Roller-harrow
c. Packer a. Motor-powered
d. Rotary hoe b. Soil boring auger
c. Fluid-powered
84. Machine used to apply, or to apply and d. Hand-operated type
incorporate soil additives by means of
tillage. 92. PAES 155:2010 Agricultural Machinery
a. Soil-additive applicator a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

b. Soil-additive incorporator b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test
c. Soil roller c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test
d. Soil-working surface d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test
93. Fine drops of liquid, such as water or

85. Based on PAES 132: 2004 Disc/Moldboard chemical pesticide, sprayed into the air.
Plow – Methods of Test, what is the
required travelling speed during operation a. Wand
for four-wheel tractor-drawn plows? b. Mist
c. Backpack mist
a. 3 kph to 6 kph d. Mounted mist
b. 10 kph to 12 kph
c. 8 kph to 9 kph 94. Type of soil auger that is powered by
d. 5 kph to 6 kph either pneumatic or hydraulic pump to drill
the soil.
86. Portions of tillage tools which are
designed to be in contact with the soil. a. Motor-powered
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EXAM 2
b. Soil boring auger
c. Fluid-powered
d. Hand-operated type
95. PAES 162:2011 agricultural machinery

1. Based on PAES 116: 2001 small engine,
a. Power sprayer for mango – methods of the noise emitted by the engine measured 50
test mm away from the operator’s ear level shall
b. Hand pump – methods of test not be more than?
c. Granule applicator – methods of test
d. Soil auger – methods of test a. 90 db
b. 94 db
96. Type of granule applicator designed for c. 96 db
handheld operation. It makes use of screw d. 92 db
or spinner plate operated manually to
facilitate metering of granules. 2. Two-wheel tractor speed limit on bare
dirt road in kph.
a. Orifice
b. Handheld granule applicator a. 8 to10
c. Spinner plate b. 15 to 20
d. Granule applicator c. 4 to 6
d. 8 to 15
97. Raised ridge left at the center of the
strip of land, when plowing is started from 3. Based on PAES 133: 2004 disc harrow –
center to side. methods of test, what is the travelling
speed to be maintained during operation?
a. Back furrow
b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow crown a. 7 kph to 8 kph
d. Dead furrow b. 9 kph to 10 kph
c. 2 kph to 3 kph
98. Trench left when the plow bottom cuts d. 5 kph to 6 kph
and turns the furrow slice.
4. Type of weeder with rectangular,
a. Back furrow triangular or crescent shapes with cutting
b. Furrow crown edges sharpened and hardened.
c. Furrow
d. Dead furrow a. Blade type
b. Hand-held weeder
99. What type of field operation pattern? c. Tine type
d. Rotary type
5. Type of weeder with a straight, curved,

round or square cross-section steel rods
with sharply pointed and hardened soil
engaging ends.
a. Blade type
b. Hand-held weeder
c. Tine type
d. Rotary type
a. Circuitous pattern turn strips at
6. Type of weeder which utilize either
corner diagonals blade or tine type of soil working parts
b. Headland pattern rounded corners with short (0.15 m to 0.5 m), medium (>0.5
c. Headland pattern from back furrow m to 1 m) and long (>1 m) handles.
d. Circuitous pattern square corners
a. Animal- drawn weeder
b. Power-weeder
c. Hand-held weeder
d. Push-type weeder
100. Sliding implement that cuts, lifts,
inverts and throws to one side a layer of 7. Type of weeder which utilizes either
soil (furrow slice) to bury surface blade, tine or rotary soil working parts
materials. for dry and wet field weeding.
a. Slatted moldboard a. Animal- drawn weeder

b. Moldboard plow b. Power-weeder
c. Plow bottom c. Tractor-mounted weeder
d. Sod moldboard d. Push-type weeder
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14. What type of field operation pattern?
8. Based on PAES 115: 2000 centrifugal,

mixed flow and axial flow water pumps –
methods of test the water to be used during
the test shall be clean with a temperature
range of?
a. 10 – 40 ºC
b. 20 – 70 ºC
c. 30 – 80 ºC a. Straight pattern turn strips at
d. 40 – 90 ºC corner diagonals
9. Type of weeder in which soil working c. Straight alternation pattern
parts are mounted on a frame or tool bar
d. Circuitous pattern square corners
and pulled by an animal for dry field
weeding.
15. Type of granule applicator that uses a
a. Animal- drawn weeder spinner plate or a screw attached to the
b. Power-weeder power take-off shaft to actuate metering of
c. Hand-held weeder granules.
d. Push-type weeder
a. Trailing granule applicator
10. Type of rotary weeder driven by its own b. Mounted granule applicator
engine for wet field weeding. c. Three-point hitch type granule
applicator
a. Power-weeder d. Mechanical walk-behind type
b. Tractor-mounted weeder
c. Hand-held weeder 16. PAES 148:2010 Agricultural Machinery
d. Push-type weeder
a. Soil Auger – Method of test
11. Type of weeder in which soil working b. Granule Applicator– Method of test
parts are mounted on a frame or tool bar c. Field Cultivator – Method of test
and pulled by either two- or four-wheel d. Subsoiler– Method of test
tractor for dry field weeding.
a. Animal- drawn weeder 17. Power requirement of an implement being

b. Power-weeder towed or pushed.
c. Tractor-mounted weeder
d. Hand-held weeder a. Draft
b. Drawbar horsepower
12. Type of granule applicator that uses c. Implement
wheel rotational motion to actuate d. Drawbar power
application of granules. The granules are
metered by a spinner plate or a screw 18. Ratio between the productivity of a
attached to the ground wheel. machine under field conditions and the
theoretical maximum productivity.
a. Powered walk-behind type
b. Trailing granule applicator a. Field efficiency
c. Mounted granule applicator b. Theoretical field capacity
d. Three-point hitch type granule c. Effective field capacity
applicator d. Field capacity
13. Type of knapsack granule applicator 19. Horizontal distance perpendicular to

that makes use of gravitational force to the direction of travel between the
apply granules. outermost edges of the implement.
a. Mounted granule applicator a. Implement width

b. Three-point hitch type granule b. Ground clearance
applicator c. Implement length
c. Mechanical walk-behind type d. Center of implement
d. Gravity knapsack
20. Unplowed soil at the end of the furrow
strip.
a. Root zone
b. Seedbed
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c. Root bed c. Internal combustion engine
d. Head land d. AOTA
21. Type of pump which combines some of the 28. I-head arrangement of valves wherein
features of both centrifugal and the axial the intake and exhaust valves are located
flow pump and in which head is developed in the cylinder head.
partly by the centrifugal force and partly
by the lift of the vanes on the water. a. Overhead valve (ohv)
b. Side valves (sv)
a. Mixed flow pump c. AOTA
b. Diffuser pump d. NOTA
c. Turbine pump
d. Mixed pump 29. System in which water/liquid-coolant
serves as the cooling medium which
22. Tillage implement resembling a double circulates in the water jackets to absorb
moldboard, one left wing and one right wing the heat of the engine.
used to make ridges and beds for planting
and trenches for irrigation and drainage a. Water-cooled
purposes. b. Liquid-cooled
c. Indirect cooling system
a. Furrower d. AOTA
b. Bedder
c. Ridger 30. Based on PAES 137:2004 agricultural
d. AOTA trailer – methods of test, what is the
maximum speed of operation for two-wheel
23. One movement of piston for each of the tractor?
events such as intake, compression, power
and exhaust. a. 10 kph
b. 15 kph
a. Four-stroke cycle c. 20 kph
b. Three-stroke cycle d. 25 kph
c. Two-stroke cycle
d. Single-stroke cycle 31. What type of field operation pattern?

tractor, what is the allowable wheel slip
for maximum efficiency for four-wheel drive
tractor at firm soil.
a. 6-20
b. 6-10
c. 6-25
d. 6-30
25. One downward movement of piston for the

events exhaust and intake and one upward
movement of piston for the events a. Circuitous pattern turn strips at
compression and power. corner diagonals
a. Four-stroke cycle c. Circuitous pattern from back furrow
b. Three-stroke cycle d. Circuitous pattern square corners
c. Two-stroke cycle
d. Single-stroke cycle 32. Engine in which combustion is achieved
by compressing the air until a high
26. Type of engine where the combustion of temperature is achieved to initiate
fuel takes place inside the cylinder. combustion of fuel.
a. Spark ignition engine a. Spark ignition engine
b. Compression ignition engine b. Compression ignition engine
c. Internal combustion engine c. Internal combustion engine
d. AOTA d. AOTA
27. Fuel and air mixture is first 33. Engine in which combustion occurs
introduced inside the cylinder in gaseous through the initiation of a spark on the
condition. It is then compressed and fuel and air mixture
ignited resulting to the generation of
power. a. Spark ignition engine
b. Compression ignition engine
a. Spark ignition engine c. Internal combustion engine
b. Compression ignition engine d. AOTA
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34. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated 42. Maximum distance that the plunger moves
Knapsack Sprayer, the tank shall have a when the handle is moved.
minimum capacity of how many liters?
a. Full stroke
a. 10 b. 1st stroke
b. 15 c. Stroke
c. 20 d. Half stroke
d. 25
43. Type of force type hand pump that
35. Vertical distance from base plane of discharges water on both forward and back
the pump to the free level of water source. strokes.
a. Static suction head (h1) a. Single acting

b. Head b. Force type
c. Total static head (hg) c. Double acting
d. Static discharge head (h2) d. Lift type
36. PAES 149:2010 Agricultural Machinery 44. What type of field operation pattern?
a. Soil Auger – Specifications

b. Granule Applicator– Specifications
c. Field Cultivator – Specifications
d. Subsoiler– Specifications
37. Part of the transplanting arm that

picks rice seedlings.
a. Transplanting arm
b. Pike
c. Grasping fork
d. Ripper point
a. Circuitous pattern 270 degrees turns
38. Modified wheel used in transplanters to
facilitate movement in the field. from boundaries or center
b. Circuitous pattern 270 degrees turn
a. Secondary wheel strips at corner diagonals
b. Paddle wheel c. Circuitous pattern 270 degrees
c. Primary wheel rounded corners
d. Floating wheel d. Circuitous pattern 270 degrees from
39. Rice seedlings grown in nursery for back furrow
transplanting wherein the soil is retained
with the roots for transplanting. 45. Power recommended by the manufacturer
for satisfactory operation under continuous
a. Root-washed seedlings duty condition within a specified speed
b. Transplanting range.
c. Hills
d. Soil-bearing seedlings a. Continuous brake power
b. Rated power
40. Type of mechanical rice transplanter c. Drawbar power
designed for handling rice seedlings that d. Net power
were grown with mat. Soil and fertilizers
were mixed thoroughly and filled uniformly 46. Type of weeder with curved or straight
in seedling boxes when growing the spikes or puddles radially attached to a
seedlings. common axle, which rotate to uproot and
bury weeds.
a. Walk-behind type
b. Root-washed seedling type a. Blade type
c. Riding type b. Hand-held weeder
d. Soil-bearing seedling type or mat c. Tine type
type d. Rotary type
41. Steel rod that connects the pump handle 47. Based on PAES walking-type agricultural
to the plunger assembly within the tractor (pull-type),the noise emitted by
cylinder. the tractor measured 50 mm away from the
operator’s ear level shall not be more
a. Hand pump than?
b. Plunger/piston
c. Pump stand/pedestal a. 98 db (A)
d. Pump rod/plunger rod b. 96 db (A)
12 | P a g e
c. 94 db (A) a. Power sprayer for mango – Methods of
d. 92 db (A) Test
b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test
48. Power output of a “fully equipped” c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test
engine. d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test
a. Continuous brake power 57. Component of the sugarcane planter that

b. Rated power cuts the sugarcane billets and drops it
c. Drawbar power into the furrow.
d. Net power
a. Feeding shank
49. Highest power developed. b. Sugarcane billet plant
c. Sugarcane plant
a. Continuous brake power d. Sugarcane billet
b. Peak brake power
c. Drawbar power 58. Agricultural equipment used for
d. Net power planting sugarcane billets.
50. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated a. Manual sugarcane planter

Knapsack Sprayer, the sprayer shall have a b. Mechanical sugarcane planter
minimum volumetric efficiency of? c. Semi-automatic sugarcane planter
d. Sugarcane planter
a. 95%.
b. 90%. 59. Based on PAES 155:2010 agricultural
c. 85%. machinery – mist blower: What is the
d. 80%. minimum net weight of mist blower?
51. Bar at the rear of a tractor to which a. 10 kg

implements are hitched. b. 15 kg
c. 20 kg
a. Rated power d. 25 kg
b. Drawbar
c. Net power 60. Self-propelled, wheeled vehicle having
d. AOTA two axles designed to carry, pull or propel
agricultural implements and machines.
a. Four-wheel tractor
a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test b. Four-wheel drive
b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test c. Two-wheel drive
c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test d. AOTA
d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test
61. What type of field operation pattern?
53. Operation of the pump from the topmost
position of the handle to its lowest
position.
a. Full stroke
b. 1st stroke
c. 2nd stroke
d. Half stroke
a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test
c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test a. Circuitous pattern turn strips at
d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test corner diagonals
55. Type of power sprayer mounted on a b. Circuitous pattern rounded corners
steel frame which is carried by at least c. Circuitous pattern from back furrow
two (2) operators for transport. d. Circuitous pattern square corners
a. Wheel frame power sprayer 62. Combination of one upper link and two
b. Wheel-mounted power sprayer lower links, each articulated to the
c. Power sprayer tractor and the implement at opposite ends
d. Frame mounted power sprayer in order to connect the implement to the
tractor.
a. Three-point linkage
b. Hitch point
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c. Link point a. 90 m/s
d. Aota b. 80 m/s
c. 70 m/s
63. Based on PAES 137:2004 agricultural d. 60 m/s
trailer – methods of test, what is the
maximum speed of operation for four-wheel 71. Any group of different tillage
tractor? operation, following primary tillage, which
are designed to create refined soil
a. 10 kph conditions before the seed is planted.
b. 15 kph
c. 20 kph a. Secondary tillage
d. 25 kph b. Mechanical tillage
c. Primary tillage
64. Articulated connection between a link d. Tillage
and the implement.
72. Spade-shaped, V-pointed soil working
a. Three-point linkage tool, which is used for various plowstocks,
b. Hitch point cultivators, grain drills, and soil
c. Link point scarifiers.
d. AOTA
a. Pike
65. Articulated connection between a link b. Shank
and the tractor. c. Shovel
d. Sweep
a. Three-point linkage
b. Hitch point 73. Operation which is performed to cut the
c. Link point soil with partial or complete soil
d. AOTA inversion.
66. Power measured at the flywheel or the a. Residue processing

crankshaft. b. Subsoiling
c. Moldboard plowing
a. Continuous brake power d. Vertical mulching
b. Engine power
c. Drawbar hp 74. Implement which works under the
d. Net power combined principles of the regular disc
plow and harrow.
67. Implement used to pulverize the soil to
attain a better soil tilt for the seed a. Plow-harrow
germination and growth. b. Subsoiling
c. General-purpose tillage implement
a. Disc harrow d. Vertical mulching
c. Tandem disc harrow 75. Implement used for broadcast or strip
d. Single-action disc harrow tillage and is also used as chemical
incorporator and as row crop cultivator.
68. Consists of two or more gangs, in which
a set of two gangs follows behind the front a. Plow-harrow
gangs and is arranged in such a way that b. Rotary tiller
the discs on the front gangs throw the soil c. General-purpose tillage implement
in one direction (usually outward) and the d. Vertical mulching
discs on the rear gangs throw the soil in
the opposite direction. 76. Based on PAES 153:2010 agricultural
machinery – hand pump: Force type hand pump
a. Disc harrow shall lift the water up to a height of how
b. Offset disc harrow many meters from the ground level?
c. Tandem disc harrow
d. Single-action disc harrow a. 10 m
b. 20 m
69. Operation that cuts and throws the soil c. 15 m
away from the base of plants. d. 25 m
a. Harrowing 77. Implement which consists of two

b. Middlebreaking horizontal power driven spiral flanged
c. Incorporating shafts which rotate vertically.
d. Off barring
a. Spiral plow
70. Based on PAES 155:2010 agricultural b. Rotary plow
machinery – mist blower: What is the c. Aota
minimum air speed of mist blower? d. Nota
14 | P a g e
d. Mist Blower – Specification
78. Auxiliary component of the subsoiler
that helps maintain uniform operating depth 86. Water pump powered by the movement of
and for adjusting depth of cut. human arms.
a. Gauge wheel a. Hand pump

b. Wheel slippage b. Plunger/piston
c. Clearance volume c. Pump stand/pedestal
d. Ground clearance d. Pump rod/plunger rod
79. Tillage which constitutes the initial 87. Quantity used to express a form (or
major soil-working operation, normally combination of forms) of the energy content
designed to reduce soil strength, cover of the liquid per unit weight of the liquid
plant materials, and rearrange aggregates. referred to any arbitrary datum.
a. Secondary tillage a. Static suction head (h1)

b. Mechanical tillage b. Head
c. Primary tillage c. Total static head (hg)
d. Tillage d. Static discharge head (h2)
80. Structural member primarily used for 88. Implement used for cutting, displacing
attaching a tillage tool to a beam. and/or shattering the soil to reduce soil
strength and to bury or mix plant
a. Soil abrasion materials, pesticides, and fertilizers in
b. Subsoiler the tillage layer.
c. Shank
d. Ripper point a. Primary tillage implement
b. Row crop cultivator
81. Type of self-propelled rice c. Moldboard plow
transplanter wherein the operator walks d. Secondary tillage implement
behind the transplanter during operation.
89. Based on PAES 120: 2001 Disc Harrow:
a. Walk-behind type
b. Root-washed seedling type
c. Riding type
d. Soil-bearing seedling type or mat
type
a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

b. Mechanical Rice Transplanter –
Methods of Test
c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test a. Tandem
d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test b. Offset
c. Single action
83. Ratio of the total number of hills with d. Any of the above
seedlings damaged by cutting, bending or
crushing during transplanting to the total
90. Is attached to the tractor’s lower
number of hills expressed in percentage.
hitch points and is raised/lowered by the
tractor hitch as well as a remote hydraulic
a. Percent missing hill
cylinder on the rear transport wheel.
b. Percent damaged hill
c. Percent damaged efficiency
a. Semi-mounted reversible disc plow
d. Planting efficiency
b. Trailing moldboard plow
c. Semi-mounted moldboard plow
84. Ratio of the number of hills with
d. Semi-mounted moldboard plow
seedlings to the total number of hill
expressed in percentage.
91. This plow is attached to the three-
point hitch and is fully carried by the
a. Percent missing hill
tractor in transport. This type is usually
b. Percent damaged hill
limited in size (2-4 discs) due to tractor
c. Percent damaged efficiency
front-end stability and hydraulic lift
d. Planting efficiency
capacity.
b. Semi-mounted moldboard plow
a. Subsoiler – Specification
c. Tractor-mounted reversible disc plow
b. Hand Pump – Specification
d. Semi-mounted moldboard plow
c. Granule Applicator – Specification
15 | P a g e
92. Attached to the tractor by three-point 99. Type of centrifugal pump with a casing
hitch linkages and are fully carried by the made in the form of a spiral or volute
tractor during transport. curve.
a. Semi-mounted moldboard plow a. Volute pump

b. One-way disc plow b. Mixed flow pump
c. Tractor-mounted reversible disc plow c. Diffuser pump
d. Semi-mounted moldboard plow d. Turbine pump
93. Based on PAES 144: 2005 Rice Drum 100. Based on PAES 161:2011 Agricultural
Seeder – Methods of Test, what is the Machinery – Soil Auger: What is the
required traveling speed maintained during recommended noise emitted by the tractor
operation? measured 50 mm away from the operator’s ear
level?
a. 5 kph to 6 kph a. Shall not be more than 92 db (A)
b. 9 kph to 10 kph b. Shall be more than 92 db (A)
c. 8 kph to 9 kph c. Shall be exactly 92 db (A)
d. 1 kph to 2 kph d. Shall be lesser than 92 db (A)
94. This is a type of tractor power-driven

seeder which drills and deposits the seeds
at a specified rate and depth and in
narrow-spaced rows. It cannot deposit the
seeds in hills or even in check rows.
a. Seed drill
b. Tractor power-driven seeder and
planter
c. Row-crop planter
d. Hill-drop planter
95. This is a type of tractor power-driven

seeder which can deposit the seeds at a
specified rate in hills and rows spaced to
permit inter-row cultivation and also
functions as a seed drill if required.
a. Row-crop planter
b. Hill-drop planter
c. Checkrow planter
d. Precision planter
96. This is a type of row-crop planter

which is designed to deposit one or more
seeds in a hill at equal intervals.
a. Tractor power seeder

b. Row-crop planter
c. Hill-drop planter
d. Precision planter

which enables operator to perform hill
planting at definite spacing (in checks or
squares). This facilitates mechanical weed
control and other operations.
a. Tractor power-driven seeder and

planter
b. Row-crop planter
d. Checkrow planter
98. Part of the plow which lifts, inverts

and throws the furrow slice to one side.
a. Stubble moldboard
b. Slatted moldboard
c. Moldboard
d. Plow bottom
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EXAM 3
d. Sugarcane planter
9. Boring part of the soil auger.
a. Motor-powered
b. Soil boring auger
1. System in which only isolated bands of c. Soil auger
soil is tilled. d. Auger head/drill bit
a. Strip tillage 10. Type of knapsack granule applicator
b. Mulch tillage which makes use of an engine or an electric
c. Ridge tillage motor attached to a fan blower to
d. Conservation tillage facilitate its operation.
2. Tillage which forms a ridge and furrow a. Powered walk-behind type
soil configuration. b. Powered knapsack
c. Mechanical walk-behind type
a. Bedding d. Gravity knapsack
b. Ridging
c. Listing 11. Type of walk-behind granule applicator
d. Aota that makes use of ground wheels to actuate
the screw or spinner plate for application
3. Filling up the pump with water to of granules.
displace or evacuate the entrapped air
through a vent and create a liquid seal a. Powered walk-behind type
inside the casing. b. Mounted granule applicator
c. Three-point hitch type granule
a. Mixed flow pump applicator
b. Axial flow pump d. Mechanical walk-behind type
c. Priming
d. Self-priming 12. Type of field cultivator wherein main
frame is mounted far behind the tractor.
4. Operation which mix or disperse foreign
materials, such as pesticides, fertilizers a. Three-point hitch mounted
or plant residues into the soil. b. Field cultivator
c. Shank
a. Harrowing d. Drawn type cultivator
b. Middlebreaking
c. Incorporating 13. Pump assembly attached to the stand
d. Off barring which contains the handle outlet assembly.
5. Theoretical power required for pumping. a. Hand pump
b. Pump head
a. Water power c. Pump stand/pedestal
b. Water horsepower d. Pump rod/plunger rod
c. Water pump
d. Water efficiency 14. Type of engine driven rice transplanter
which makes use of engine to actuate its
6. Valve used to stop the flow of fluid. movement in the puddled field.
a. Automatic switch valve a. Walk-behind type transplanter
b. Cut-off valve b. Engine driven or self-propelled rice
c. Solenoid valve transplanter
d. Pressure relief valve c. Riding type
d. Mechanical transplanter
7. Type of mist blower that is carried by
an operator on his back for mobility. 15. Type of pump which develop most of the
suction and discharge head by propelling or
a. Wand lifting action of the impeller vanes on the
b. Mist blower water.
c. Backpack mist blower
d. Wand a. Mixed flow pump
b. Axial flow pump
8. Type of sugarcane planter that is not c. Priming
capable of chopping sugarcane but instead, d. Self-priming
requires pre-cut billets for planting.
16. Based on PAES Walking-type Agricultural
a. Manual sugarcane planter Tractor (rotary tilling-type), what is the
b. Mechanical sugarcane planter minimum peak transmission efficiency of the
c. Semi-automatic sugarcane planter axle-driven rotary tiller?
17 | P a g e
a. 95% 24. Primary tillage operation which
b. 85% manipulates soil to a greater depth than
c. 90% 300 mm.
d. 80%
a. Deep tillage
17. Subsoiling under the plant row prior to b. Broadcast tillage
planting usually intended for subsurface c. Rotary tillage
drainage. d. Oriented tillage
a. Precision tillage 25. Two-wheel tractor speed limit on paved

b. Secondary tillage road in kph.
c. Minimum tillage
d. Conventional tillage a. 8 to10
b. 1 to 5
18. Plow bottom which is used in sticky c. 4 to 6
soils and soils that does not scour on d. 8 to 15
solid moldboard.
26. Tillage operation which move soil to
a. Slatted moldboard create desired soil configurations.
b. Moldboard plow
c. Plow bottom a. Earthmoving
d. Sod moldboard b. Land grading
c. Land forming
19. PAES 157:2011 Power Sprayer for Mango: d. Land planning
What is the minimum discharge rate of the
power sprayer. 27. Based on PAES 159:2011 Agricultural
Machinery – Sugarcane Planter: What is the
a. 15 Lps minimum field efficiency?
b. 15 Lpm
c. 15 Lph a. 90%
d. NOTA b. 60%
c. 80%
20. System in which a large number of d. 70%
depressions or small reservoirs are formed
to hold rain or sprinkler applied water. 28. Structural assembly which is used to
drill holes for the purpose of water-well
a. Secondary tillage construction.
b. Minimum tillage
c. Conventional tillage a. Drilling rig
d. Reservoir tillage b. Drilling pipe
c. Drill bit
21. Plow bottom that has short, broader and d. AOTA
curved more abruptly along the top edge and
is suited to work in soil which has been 29. Tillage operation that cuts and moves
cultivated from year to year. small layers of soil to provide smooth,
refined surface condition
a. Slatted moldboard
b. Moldboard plow a. Land grading
c. Stubble moldboard b. Land forming
d. Sod moldboard c. Land planning
d. Soil cultivation
22. Part of the plow that penetrates the
soil and cuts the furrow slice 30. Bit attached to the end of the drilling
horizontally. pipe which is directly in contact with the
soil formation and serves as cutting device
a. Share during drilling operation.
b. Moldboard plow
c. Plow bottom a. Drilling rig
d. Sod moldboard b. Drilling pipe
c. Drill bit
23. Type of plow that has the front end d. AOTA
directly connected to the tractor’s three-
point linkage and its rear end is supported 31. Tillage operation employing power-
by furrow and land wheels. driven rotary action to cut, breaks up, and
mix soil.
b. Trailing moldboard plow a. Deep tillage
c. Semi-mounted moldboard plow b. Broadcast tillage
d. One-way disc plow c. Rotary tillage
18 | P a g e
d. Oriented tillage
32. Based on PAES walking-type agricultural b. Field cultivator
tractor (pull-type), what is the minimum c. Shank
peak transmission efficiency of the d. Drawn type cultivator
tractor?
40. System that maintains a minimum of 30%
a. 55% residue cover on the soil surface after
b. 85% planting or maintains at least 1,100 kg/ha
c. 75% of flat small grain residue equivalent on
d. 95% the soil surface during the critical
erosion period.
33. Type of shovel which is wing-shaped.
a. Secondary tillage
a. Pike b. Mulch tillage
b. Shank c. Ridge tillage
c. Shovel d. Conservation tillage
d. Sweep
41. Implement used to pulverize the soil to
34. Generic term used for a small particle attain a better soil tilth for the seed
having a diameter ranging from 2 to 4 mm. germination and growth.
a. Hopper a. Roller-harrow
b. Agitator b. Disc harrow
c. Granule c. Spring-tooth harrow
d. Granule applicator d. Single-action disc harrow
35. Type of granule applicator that makes 42. Idealized system which permits a
use of the ground wheels to facilitate maximized net return for a given crop under
movement of the unit during operation. given conditions.
a. Trailing granule applicator a. Optimum tillage

b. Walk-behind granule applicator b. Primary tillage
c. Mounted granule applicator c. Ridge tillage
d. Three-point hitch type granule d. Conservation tillage
applicator
43. Based on PAES 165:2011 Granule
36. Type of walk-behind granule applicator Applicator: What is the recommended noise
that uses engine to actuate the agitator emitted by the tractor measured 50 mm away
and screw or spinner plate for application from the operator’s ear level?
of granules.
a. Powered walk-behind type b. Shall be lesser than 92 db (A)
b. Mounted granule applicator c. Shall be exactly 92 db (A)
c. Three-point hitch type granule d. Shall not be more than 92 db (A)
applicator
d. Mechanical walk-behind type 44. Implement with individually mounted
concave disc blades which cut, partially or
37. Tool used for displacing soil at completely invert a layer of soil to bury
various depths for soil research and surface material, and pulverize the soil.
analysis or for digging post holes by means
of a rotating helical flighting. a. Spiral plow
b. Rotary plow
a. Motor-powered c. Disc plow
b. Soil boring auger d. Two-way plow
c. Soil auger
d. Hand-operated type 45. Implement for seedbed preparation, weed
eradication, or fallow cultivation
38. Vertical distance from suction water subsequent to some form of primary tillage.
level to discharge water level, the sum of
the static suction and discharge heads. a. Row crop cultivator
b. Roller-harrow
a. Static suction head (h1) c. Packer
b. Head d. Field cultivator
c. Total static head (hg)
d. Static discharge head (h2) 46. Implement for crushing soil clods and
compacting the soil.
39. Type of field cultivator wherein main
frame is mounted to the rear of the tractor a. Row crop cultivator
using the three-point hitch linkages. b. Roller-harrow
19 | P a g e
c. Packer adjacent strips of land after finishing of
d. Rotary hoe plowing.
47. Sticking of soil to objects such as a. Back furrow

tillage tools or wheels. b. Furrow slice
c. Furrow
a. Multi-powered tillage tools d. Dead furrow
b. Soil abrasion
c. Soil adhesion 55. Spade-shaped, v-pointed soil working
d. Mechanical impedance tool, which is used for various plowstocks,
cultivators, grain drills, and soil
48. Soil-tool reaction in which soil slides scarifiers.
over the surface of the tillage tool
without significant adhesion. a. Mechanical tillage implement
b. Scouring
a. Mechanical tillage implement c. Shank
b. Scouring d. Shovel
c. Shank
d. Shovel 56. Machine used to mechanically
incorporate or mix material into the soil.
49. Based on PAES 165:2011 Granule
Applicator: what is the maximum net weight? a. Soil-additive applicator
b. Soil-additive incorporator
a. 15 kg c. Soil roller
b. Ten kg d. Soil-working surface
c. Twenty kg
d. 30 kg 57. Operation which breaks the clods,
levels and makes the soil ready for
50. Combined tillage implements which are planting.
composed of a lister and a planting
attachment to permit a single listing- a. Trailing spring-tooth harrow
seeding operation with the planter normally b. Harrowing
being operated in the furrow. c. Tooth/tine
d. Auger head/drill bit
a. Mechanical tillage implement
b. Scouring 58. PAES 164:2011 Agricultural Machinery
c. Lister-planter
d. Shovel. a. Power Sprayer for Mango – Methods of
Test
51. Based on PAES 161:2011 Agricultural b. Sugarcane Planter – Methods of Test
Machinery – Soil Auger: What is the minimum c. Spring-tooth Harrow – Methods of
field efficiency? Test
a. Ninety percent Methods of Test
b. 80%
c. Seventy percent 59. Part of the granule applicator that
d. 60% puts the granule in motion through
continuous stirring or rotation.
52. Implement for dislodging small weeds
and grasses and for breaking soil crust and a. Hopper
is used for fast, shallow cultivation b. Agitator
before or soon after crop plants emerge. c. Granule
d. Granule applicator
a. Row crop cultivator
b. Roller-harrow 60. Agricultural tool used to apply
c. Packer granular fertilizers or pesticides to the
d. Rotary hoe field.
a. Powered knapsack
53. Tillage tools powered by more than one b. Granule applicator
form of power, such as draft and rotating c. Mounted granule applicator
power, or draft and electrical power. d. Three-point hitch type granule
applicator
b. Soil abrasion 61. Opening in the hopper or tank through
c. Soil adhesion which the granules pass through.
a. Orifice
54. Open trench (about twice the width of b. Agitator
one plow bottom) left in between the c. Granule
20 | P a g e
c. 92 db
62. PAES 147:2010 Agricultural Machinery d. 94 db
a. Soil Auger – Specifications 70. Type of shovel used in hard soil

b. Granule Applicator– Specifications conditions and for deeper penetration.
c. Field Cultivator – Specifications
d. Subsoiler– Specifications a. Pike
b. Shank
63. Auxiliary component of the field c. Shovel
cultivator that helps maintain uniform d. Sweep
depth of cultivation and eliminate the need
to set the tension with the three-point 71. Based on PAES 120: 2001 Disc Harrow:
hitch every time you set a cultivator down.
a. Gauge wheel
b. Wheel slippage
c. Clearance volume
d. Ground clearance
64. Part of the field cultivator that holds

the transverse toolbars and gauge wheels
together.
a. Flywheel a. Tandem
b. Main frame b. Offset
c. Implement c. Single action
d. Drawbar clearance d. Any of the above
65. Tillage which constitutes the initial 72. Equipment powered by an electric motor
major soil-working operation, normally or by an engine used to spray fertilizer or
designed to reduce soil strength, cover pesticide to a certain height.
plant materials, and rearrange aggregates.
a. Wheel frame power sprayer
a. Secondary tillage b. Wheel-mounted power sprayer
b. Mechanical tillage c. Power sprayer
c. Primary tillage d. Frame mounted power sprayer
d. Tillage
73. Part of the mechanical transplanter
66. Structural member primarily used for that actuates picking and transplanting
attaching a tillage tool to a beam. seedlings into a puddled field.
a. Three-point hitch mounted a. Transplanting arm
b. Field cultivator b. Pike
c. Shank c. Grasping fork
d. Drawn type cultivator d. Ripper point
67. Soil mass cut, lifted, pulverized, 74. Type of self-propelled rice
inverted and thrown to one side of the plow transplanter that allows operator to ride
bottom. on the machine during operation.
a. Back furrow a. Walk-behind type
b. Furrow slice b. Root-washed seedling type
c. Furrow c. Riding type
d. Dead furrow d. Soil-bearing seedling type or mat
type
68. Four-wheel tractor speed limit onbare
dirt road in kph 75. Part of the spring-tooth harrow that
engages with the soil during operation.
a. 8 to10
b. 9 to 12 a. Trailing spring-tooth harrow
c. 4 to 6 b. Harrowing
d. 8 to 15 c. Tooth/tine
69. PAES 157:2011 Power Sprayer for Mango:
What is maximum required noise produce by 76. Type of hand pump that performs the
the power sprayer measured one meter away work of a lift pump and in addition forces
from the source of the noise. the water from the outlet at a pressure to
suit any domestic application.
a. 96 db
b. 90 db a. Single acting
21 | P a g e
b. Force type d. Net power
c. Double acting
d. Lift type 85. As the compressed air inside the
cylinder reaches a high temperature,
77. Deep tillage with at least 350 mm depth atomized fuel is injected in the combustion
for the purpose of loosening soil for root chamber, it ignites on contact with high
growth and/or water movement. temperature air to generate power.
a. Soil abrasion a. Spark ignition engine

b. Subsoiling b. Compression ignition engine
c. Deep tillage c. Internal combustion engine
d. Subsoiler d. AOTA
78. Vertical distance from the base plane 86. Power available at the drawbar
of the pump to the discharge water level. sustainable over a distance of at least 20
meters.
a. Static suction head (h1)
b. Head a. Rated power
c. Total static head (hg) b. Continuous brake power
d. Static discharge head (h2) c. Drawbar power
d. Net power
79. Equipment that sprays liquid in the
form of mist. 87. Consists of two gangs of discs, placed
end-to-end at an angle, which throw the
a. Mounted mist blower soil in opposite directions.
b. Mist blower
c. Backpack mist blower a. Disc harrow
d. Mounted mist blower b. Offset disc harrow
80. Unplowed soil. d. Single-action disc harrow
a. Land 88. PAES 150:2010 Agricultural Machinery

b. Seedbed
c. Root bed a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test
d. Head land b. Hand Pump – Methods of Test
c. Granule Applicator – Methods of Test
81. Type of granule applicator mounted on a d. Mist Blower – Methods of Test
tractor or vehicle.
89. Part of the subsoiler that holds the
a. Powered knapsack transverse toolbars together.
b. Mounted granule applicator
c. Three-point hitch type granule a. Flywheel
applicator b. Main frame
d. Mechanical walk-behind type c. Implement
d. Drawbar clearance
82. Type of weeder with curved or straight
spikes or puddles radially attached to a 90. Points in the field where a seedling is
common axle, which rotate to uproot and transplanted.
bury weeds.
a. Root-washed seedlings
a. Blade type b. Transplanting
b. Hand-held weeder c. Hills
c. Tine type d. Soil-bearing seedlings
d. Rotary type
91. Ratio of the total number of hills
83. Piston requires two movements to without seedlings to the total number of
complete one cycle. hills expressed in percentage.
a. Four-stroke cycle a. Percent missing hill

b. Three-stroke cycle b. Percent damaged hill
c. Two-stroke cycle c. Percent damaged efficiency
d. Single-stroke cycle d. Planting efficiency
84. Power indicated in the specification 92. Type of soil auger designed for
sheet or plate at a given rated speed drilling holes in the soil.
submitted by the manufacturer.
a. Motor-powered
a. Continuous brake power b. Soil boring auger
b. Rated power c. Fluid-powered
c. Rated brake power d. Hand-operated type
22 | P a g e
93. Type of soil auger that is powered by which is designed to deposit a single seed
an electric motor or an engine to drill the at equal row intervals.
soil.
a. Row-crop planter
a. Motor-powered b. Hill-drop planter
b. Soil boring auger c. Checkrow planter
c. Fluid-powered d. Precision planter
d. Hand-operated type
94. Part of the granule applicator that

spreads the granules.
a. Orifice
b. Handheld granule applicator
c. Spinner plate
95. Type of granule applicator designed to

be carried on back during application.
a. Powered walk-behind type

b. Knapsack granule applicator
c. Powered knapsack
d. Gravity knapsack
96. Consists of two gangs wherein one gang

is located behind the other at an angle and
the harrow is operated in an offset
position in relation to the tractor
centerline.
a. Disc harrow
d. Single-action disc harrow
97. Implement performing functions

simultaneously that of initial cutting,
breaking and pulverizing the soil.
a. Plow-harrow
b. Subsoiling
c. General-purpose tillage implement
d. Vertical mulching
98. Based on PAES 164:2011 spring-tooth

harrow – methods of test: what is the
maximum operating depth of the spring-tooth
harrow?
a. 152 mm or 6”
b. 12”
c. 170 mm
d. 180 mm
99. This is a type of seeder with metering

mechanisms driven by the ground wheels or
by powertake- off from a tractor.
a. Tractor power-driven seeder and

planter
b. Row-crop planter
d. Checkrow planter
23 | P a g e
EXAM 4
1. Twisting or turning force produced by 8. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
the motor. Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
a. Torque
b. Breakdown torque
c. Starting torque
d. AOTA
2. Type of centrifugal pump wherein the

impeller is surrounded by diffuser vanes.
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Volute pump
c. Mixed flow pump
d. Diffuser pump
a. Power engine
3. Structural member primarily used for b. Power take down
attaching a tillage tool to a beam or a c. Power take off
standard. d. Reverse
a. Mechanical tillage implement
b. Scouring 9. Based on PAES 153:2010 agricultural
c. Shank machinery – hand pump: Lift type hand pump
d. Shovel shall lift the water from cistern or well
to at least how many meters?
4. Motor torque at zero speed or the
maximum torque required to start the load. a. 10 m
b. 6 m
a. Torque c. 5 m
b. Breakdown torque d. 3 m
c. Starting torque
d. AOTA 10. Rice seedlings grown in nurseries for
transplanting wherein the roots are washed
5. Based on PAES 105 Designation and thoroughly to remove the soil.
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
a. Root-washed seedlings
b. Transplanting
c. Hills
d. Soil-bearing seedlings
11. Function of field speed, operating

width and field efficiency expressed in
ha/hr.
a. Field efficiency
b. Theoretical field capacity
c. Effective field capacity
a. Axle disconnect d. Field capacity
b. Axle connect
c. AOTA 12. Method of crop establishment for rice
d. NOTA wherein rice seedlings grown in a nursery
are pulled and transferred into puddled and
6. Any agricultural tool mounted on the leveled fields, 15 to 40 days after
tractor. seeding.
a. Draft a. Transplanting
b. Drawbar b. Transplanting arm
c. Three-point hitch mounted c. Mechanical rice transplanter
d. Implement d. Human transplanting
7. Based on PAES 149:2010 Subsoiler: What 13. Reduction on the distance traveled by
is the minimum field efficiency? the tractor due to the attached implement.
a. 90% a. Gauge wheel

b. Eighty % b. Wheel slip
c. Seventy % c. Clearance volume
d. 60% d. Ground clearance
24 | P a g e
14. Based on PAES 105 Designation and 19. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
a. Transmission oil pressure

b. Transmission oil
c. Transmission oil filter
a. Bucker control d. Transmission pressure
b. Engine control
20. Brake actuated by a compressive force
c. Loader bucker control in the hitch between a trailer and the
d. Loader control towing tractor used to decelerate a moving
trailer
15. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: a. Over-run brake
b. Parking brake
c. Service brake
d. AOTA

a. Reverse
b. Engine Revolution
c. Oil pressure
d. Rewind
16. Type of mechanical transplanter

designed for handling rice seedlings that
are removed from the traditional nurseries
and washed well with water. The seedlings
are neatly arranged on the seedling tray of a. Temperature
the transplanter. b. Humidity
c. Pressure
a. Walk-behind type d. Atmosphere pressure
b. Root-washed seedling type
c. Riding type
d. Soil-bearing seedling type or mat
type
17. Maximum torque a motor can develop

during overload without stalling.
a. Torque
b. Breakdown torque
c. Starting torque
d. AOTA
a. Transmission speed
18. Based on PAES 105 Designation and b. Transmission
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: c. Reel speed
d. Cylinder speed

a. Control lever operating direction

b. Loader boom control
c. Cylinder speed
d. Loader lift arm control float
25 | P a g e
a. Fuel 30. Implement consisting of long spikes
b. Danger fuel attached rigidly to cross bars and
c. Caution fuel staggered to attain maximum stirring and
raking of soil.
d. Fill fuel
a. Roller-harrow
24. Brake actuated by a pedal or lever to b. Disc harrow
keep the trailer in stationary or parked c. Spring-tooth harrow
position d. Spike-tooth harrow
a. Over-run brake
b. Parking brake 31. Type of pump with impellers rotating
c. Service brake inside a closed casing which draws water
d. AOTA into the pump through a central inlet
opening and forces water out through a
25. Based on PAES 151:2010 Mechanical Rice discharge outlet at the periphery of the
Transplanter: What is the minimum field housing by means of centrifugal force.
efficiency?
a. Centrifugal pump
a. 60% b. Volute pump
b. 90% c. Mixed flow pump
c. 80% d. Diffuser pump
d. 70%
32. Type of centrifugal pump wherein the
26. Brake actuated by a pedal or lever to impeller is surrounded by diffuser vanes.
decelerate and stop a moving trailer.
a. Turbine pump
a. Over-run brake b. Mixed flow pump
b. Parking brake c. Axial flow pump
c. Service brake d. Priming
d. AOTA
33. Implement for seedbed preparation, weed
27. Based on PAES 105 Designation and eradication, or fallow cultivation
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: subsequent to some form of primary tillage,
equipped with spring steel shanks.

b. Field cultivator
c. Shank
d. Drawn type cultivator
a. Wind flow
b. Turbine propeller 34. Type of spring-tooth harrow wherein
c. Ventilating fan main frame is towed behind the tractor.
d. Windshield wiper
a. Trailing spring-tooth harrow
28. Based on PAES 105 Designation and b. Harrowing
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: c. Spring-tooth harrow
35. Minimum vertical distance between the

soil surface and a potentially obstructing
machine element.
a. Oil lubricant type & frequency a. Gauge wheel
b. Ventilating arm b. Wheel slippage
c. Pressure control c. Clearance volume
d. Grease lubricant frequency d. Ground clearance
29. Based on PAES 105 Designation and 36. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
a. Engine oil pressure

a. Red alert b. Engine oil
b. Emergency c. Engine pressure
c. Caution d. Engine temperature
d. High voltage
26 | P a g e
37. Based on PAES 105 Designation and 43. Implement used for tilling the soil to
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: a shallower depth than primary tillage
implements, provide additional
pulverization, mix pesticides and
fertilizers into the soil, level and firm
the soil, close air pockets, and eradicate
weeds.
a. Primary tillage implement
b. Row crop cultivator
c. Moldboard plow
d. Secondary tillage implement
44. Based on PAES 120: 2001 Disc Harrow:

a. Transmission oil pressure
b. Transmission oil
c. Transmission pressure
d. Transmission temperature
a. Granule Applicator – Specifications

d. Mechanical Rice Transplanter – a. Tandem
Specifications
b. Offset
39. Implement for intermittent tillage at c. Single action
depths sufficient to shatter compacted d. Any of the above
subsurface layers, equipped with widely
spaced shanks either in-line or staggered 45. Implement used for breaking clods after
on a v-shaped frame. initial plowing, for subsequent operations
prior to transplanting and for puddling and
a. Soil abrasion leveling.
b. Subsoiler
c. Shank a. Comb-tooth harrow
d. Ripper point b. Roller-harrow
c. Disc harrow
40. System in which the primary tillage d. Spring-tooth harrow
operation is performed in conjunction with
special planting procedures in order to 46. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
reduce or eliminate secondary tillage Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
operations.
a. Precision tillage
b. Reduced tillage
c. Minimum tillage
d. Optimum tillage
41. System in which the ridges are formed

during cultivation or after harvest and
maintained from year to year in the same
location.
a. Remote extended
a. Tillage b. Remote retracted
b. Mulch tillage c. Remote cylinder
c. Ridge tillage d. Header
d. Conservation tillage
42. Tillage to partially bury and thereby Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
prevent movement of materials such as plant
residues or artificial mulches.
a. Bedding
b. Anchoring
c. Ridging
d. Listing
a. Loader lift arm control float
b. Reel height
c. Loader lift arm control level raise
d. Loader boom control
27 | P a g e
48. Undisturbed or unbroken side of the 53. Engine in which combustion is achieved
furrow. by compressing the air until a high
temperature is achieved to initiate
a. Furrow slice combustion of fuel.
b. Furrow crown
c. Furrow wall a. Spark ignition engine
d. Dead furrow b. Compression ignition engine
c. Internal combustion engine
49. Based on PAES 138: 2004 Guidelines on d. AOTA
After-Sales Service, supplying the services
of mechanic free of charge for replacing 54. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
parts under warranty to put the unit in Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
running condition during the warranty
period which includes the transportation
cost within, how many km radius?
a. 50-km radius
b. 100-km radius
c. 150-km radius
d. 200-km radius
50. Based on PAES 105 Designation and a. Park

Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: b. Stop
c. Pressure
d. Pin

a. Connection a. Remote cylinder

b. Differential lock b. Header
c. Hand brake c. Remote extended
d. Vertical movement d. Remote retracted
51. Based on PAES 105 Designation and 56. Engine in which combustion occurs
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: through the initiation of a spark on the
compressed fuel and air mixture.
a. Spark ignition engine

b. Compression ignition engine
c. Internal combustion engine
d. AOTA
57. Based on PAES 147:2010 field

cultivator: What is the minimum field
efficiency.
a. Engine Timing a. 80%
b. Engine oil pressure b. Eighty five %
c. Transmission oil pressure c. 70%
d. Engine R.P.M. d. Sixty %
52. Single or groups of soil-working tools 58. l-head arrangement of valves wherein
together with power transmission structure, the intake and exhaust valves are located
control, and protection systems present as on one side of the cylinder block.
an integral part of the machine.
a. Overhead valve (ohv)
a. Mechanical tillage implement b. Side valves (sv)
b. Scouring c. AOTA
c. Lister-planter d. NOTA
d. Shovel
28 | P a g e
59. System wherein air is used to remove 65. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
excess heat from the engine through metal Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
fins or shrouds which are located around
the cylinder thus creating the flow of air
to the engine body in order to maintain its
operating temperature.
a. Air-cooled
b. Direct cooling system
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
60. Series of events occurring one after a. Brake lock

the other in a definite order and repeats b. Connection lock
the events after the last one has occurred. c. Differential lock
d. Vertical movement
a. Cycle
b. Firing order 66. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
c. AOTA Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
d. NOTA
61. Piston requires four movements to

complete one cycle.
a. Four-stroke cycle
b. Three-stroke cycle a. Differential lock
c. Two-stroke cycle b. Tow
d. Single-stroke cycle c. Connection lock
d. Brake lock
62. Operation that cut, crush, anchor or
otherwise handle residues in conjunction 67. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
with soil manipulation. Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
a. Residue processing
b. Subsoiling

a. Hand brake
b. Vertical movement
c. Connection
a. Transmission oil pressure d. Differential lock
b. Engine R.P.M.
c. Engine Timing 68. Tillage operation which are oriented in
d. Engine oil pressure specific paths or directions with respect
to the sun, prevailing winds, previous
tillage actions, or field base lines.
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: a. Deep tillage
b. Broadcast tillage
c. Rotary tillage
d. Oriented tillage
69. Consists of two gangs of discs, placed

end-to-end at an angle, which throw the
soil in opposite directions.
a. Hand brake a. Comb-tooth harrow

b. Vertical movement b. Roller-harrow
c. Connection c. Single-action disc harrow
d. Differential lock d. Spike-tooth harrow
29 | P a g e
70. Consists of two or more gangs, in which 75. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
a set of two gangs follows behind the front Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
gangs and is arranged in such a way that
the discs on the front gangs throw the soil
in one direction (usually outward) and the
discs on the rear gangs throw the soil in
the opposite directions.
a. Double-action disc harrow

b. Tandem disc harrow
c. AOTA
d. Comb-tooth harrow
71. Peak of the turned furrow slice.
a. Back furrow
b. Furrow slice a. Neutral
c. Furrow crown
b. Rock shaft
d. Furrow
c. Neutral reverse
72. Based on PAES 105 Designation and d. Neutral shaft
a. Firing order
b. Firing connection
c. Firing movement
d. Firing fire

Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: a. Power take off
b. Forward
c. Power take down
d. Reverse

b. Reel height
a. Power take off c. Loader lift arm control level raise
b. Forward d. Loader boom control
c. Power take down
d. Reverse 77. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
a. Neutral shaft a. Loader lift arm control float

b. Neutral b. Reel height
c. Loader lift arm control level raise
c. Rock shaft
d. Loader boom control
d. Neutral reverse
30 | P a g e
78. Based on PAES 163:2011 Spring-tooth 85. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
Harrow: The spring-tooth harrow shall have Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols:
an operating depth of…
a. 50 to 150 mm
b. 2” to 6”
c. AOTA
d. NOTA
79. Deep tillage, below 350 mm for the

purpose of loosening soil for root growth
and/or water movement.
a. Residue processing
b. Subsoiling
80. Operation in which a vertical band of b. Reel height
mulching material is injected into the slit c. Loader lift arm control level raise
immediately behind a tillage tool shank. d. Loader boom control
a. Residue processing 86. Is one that needs to be manually

b. Subsoiling primed. The system has to be filled
c. Moldboard plowing initially by pouring water into the pipes
d. Vertical mulching from a bucket and thereafter the footvalve
will keep water in the system even after
81. Type of four-wheel tractor where power the pump is not used for some time.
is transmitted to all wheels.
a. Centrifugal pump
a. Four-wheel tractor b. Self-priming pump
b. Four-wheel drive c. Priming
c. Two-wheel drive d. Non-self-priming
d. AOTA
87. Is one that develops a vacuum
82. Based on PAES 165:2011 Granule sufficiently enough for atmospheric
Applicator: What is the minimum field pressure to force the liquid to flow
efficiency? through the suction pipe into the pump
casing without priming the pump?
a. 50%
b. Sixty percent a. Mixed flow pump
c. Eighty percent b. Self-priming pump
d. 70% c. Priming
d. Non-self-priming
83. Type of four-wheel tractor where power
is transmitted to rear wheels with small 88. Based on PAES 163:2011 Spring-tooth
front wheels being pushed along. Harrow: What is the minimum field
efficiency?
a. Four-wheel tractor
b. Four-wheel drive a. 50%
c. Two-wheel drive b. Eighty percent
d. AOTA c. 70%
d. Sixty percent
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: 89. Based on PAES 105 Designation and
a. Transmission speed a. Loader lift arm control float

b. Transmission b. Reel height
c. Reel speed c. Loader lift arm control level raise
d. Cylinder speed d. Platform height
31 | P a g e
90. Based on PAES 105 Designation and a. Ammeter or Generator light
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: b. Transmission
c. Engine
d. Polarity

a. All speed
b. Ground speed
c. All mechanisms
d. Ground mechanisms
91. Based on PAES 105 Designation and a. Transmission speed

Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: b. Concave clearance (Combine)
c. Reel speed
d. Cylinder speed (combine)

a. Oil level
b. Air filter
c. Dipstick
d. Smoke level a. All speed
b. Ground speed
92. Based on PAES 105 Designation and c. All mechanisms
d. Ground mechanisms

a. Oil level
b. Air filter
c. Dipstick
d. Smoke level
a. Oil level
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: b. Air filter
c. Dipstick
d. Smoke level

a. Windshield defroster
b. Air exhaust
c. Air direction
d. Fan defroster

a. Pressurized fuel
b. Pressurized petroleum
c. Pressurized open slowly
d. Caution pressurized fuel
32 | P a g e
EXAM 5
a. Power Sprayer for Mango –

Specifications
Specifications
a. Transmission speed
b. Concave clearance (Combine) 2. Tillage implement resembling a double
c. Reel speed moldboard, one left wing and one right wing
d. Cylinder speed (combine) used to make ridges and beds for planting
and trenches for irrigation and drainage
100. Base that attaches the hand pump to purposes.
the ground and connects to the draw pipe.
a. Furrower
a. Hand pump b. Lister
b. Plunger/piston c. Ridger
c. Pump stand/pedestal d. AOTA
d. Pump rod/plunger rod
3. Trailer designed to carry load for
agricultural purposes without power of its
own.
a. Agricultural trailer
b. Semi-trailer
c. Balanced trailer
d. AOTA

a. Oil lubricant type & frequency

b. Pressurized fuel
c. Pressurized petroleum
d. Caution pressurized fuel
a. Lights
b. Brake light
c. Signal light
d. Emergency light
33 | P a g e
a. Windshield washer
b. Light direction
c. Ventilating arm
d. Windshield wiper

a. Volume level
b. Volume warning
c. Volume emergency
d. Volume pressure

a. Humidity control
b. Temperature control
c. Pressure control
d. Atmosphere pressure control

a. Lights
b. Brake light
c. Turn signals
d. Emergency light

a. Opener
b. Choke
c. Switch
d. Transmission speed

a. Windshield washer
b. Light direction
c. Ventilating arm
d. Windshield wiper and wiper

a. Unloading auger
b. Loading auger
c. Fuel load
34 | P a g e
d. Flammable and the rest of the load is carried on its
axle.
Illustration of Commonly Used Symbols: a. Agricultural trailer
b. Semi-trailer
c. Balanced trailer
d. AOTA

a. Pressure level
b. Smoke level
c. Air filter a. Low speed
d. Engine coolant temperature b. Continuously variable (speed range)
c. Critical speed
14. Based on PAES 105 Designation and d. High speed
a. Lighter
b. Air
c. Wind direction
d. Fire a. Minutes
b. Seconds
15. Equivalent head required to overcome c. Hours
the friction caused by the flow through the d. Days
pipe and pipe fittings.
a. Static suction head (h1)

b. Friction head 21. Based on PNS/PAES 167:2015 Disc Plow
c. Total static head (hg) for Walking Type Agricultural Tractor:
d. Static discharge head (h2) Portion of an implement designed to connect
the implement to a power source.
16. Type of mist blower that is mounted on
a tractor or other vehicle for mobility. a. tilt angle
b. hitch
a. Mounted mist blower c. side angle
b. Mist blower d. NOTA
c. Backpack mist blower
d. Wand 22. Based on PNS/PAES 167:2015 Disc Plow
for Walking Type Agricultural Tractor:
17. Agricultural trailer whose total load Horizontal angle made by the disc with the
is supported by at least two axles with direction of travel.
four or more wheels when detached from the
towing tractor. a. tilt angle
b. hitch
a. Agricultural trailer c. side angle
b. Semi-trailer d. NOTA
c. Balanced trailer
d. AOTA 23. Based on PNS/PAES 168:2015 Disc Plow
for Walking-Type Agricultural Tractor: What
18. Agricultural trailer with one axle and is the minimum traveling speed during the
two wheels which, while in use, part of its operation of the walking type agricultural
load is transferred to the towing tractor tractor?
a. 3 kph
35 | P a g e
b. 4 kph c. Medium-scale
c. 5 kph d. Large-scale
d. 6 kph
31. Based on PAES 232:2008 Multicrop

24. Based on PNS/PAES 171:2015 Rice Washer-Peeler: Multicrop washer-peeler that
Precision Seeder: What is the minimum field has an effective capacity of more than 40
efficiency? kg/h
a. 60 % a. Small-scale
b. 80 % b. Medium-scale
c. 90 % c. Commercial-scale
d. 70 % d. Large-scale
25. Based on PNS/PAES 171:2015 Rice

Precision Seeder: What is the minimum
Seeding Rate (kg/ha)? 32. Based on PAES 232:2008 Multicrop
Washer-Peeler: What is the minimum machine
a. 15 efficiency of the multicrop washer-peeler?
b. 25
c. 35 a. 80 %
d. 45 b. 90 %
c. 60 %
26. Based on PNS/PAES 171:2015 Rice d. 70 %
Precision Seeder: What is the minimum
seeding efficiency (%)? 33. Based on PAES 232:2008 Multicrop
Washer-Peeler: What is the maximum noise
a. 85 level of the multicrop washer-peeler
b. 95 measured 50 mm away from the operator’s ear
c. 75 level at actual working position?
d. 65
a. 92dB
27. Based on PNS/PAES 171:2015 Rice b. 94dB
Precision Seeder: What is the maximum Noise c. 96dB
level? d. 99dB
a. 92dB
b. 94dB 34. Based on PAES 234: 2008 Multicrop Juice
c. 96dB Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
d. 99dB extractor that has an input capacity of up
to 15 kg/h?
28. Based on PNS/PAES 167:2015 Disc Plow a. Commercial/Large scale

for Walking Type Agricultural Tractor: b. Province scale
Angle made by the disc with the vertical c. Household/small scale
line. d. Medium scale
a. tilt angle
b. hitch 35. Based on PAES 234: 2008 Multicrop Juice
c. side angle Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
d. NOTA extractor that has an input capacity of up
to 15 kg/h to 40 kg/h?
a. Medium scale
29. Based on PAES 232:2008 Multicrop b. Commercial/Large scale
Washer-Peeler: Multicrop washer-peeler that c. Household/small scale
has an effective capacity of up to 15 kg/h d. Province scale
a. Commercial-scale
b. Large-scale
c. Small-scale 36. Based on PAES 234: 2008 Multicrop Juice
d. Medium-scale Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
extractor that has an input capacity of
30. Based on PAES 232:2008 Multicrop more than 40 kg/h?
Washer-Peeler: Multicrop washer-peeler that
has an effective capacity of more than 15 a. Household/small scale
kg/h up to 40 kg/h b. Medium scale
c. Commercial/Large scale
a. Small-scale d. Province scale
b. Commercial-scale
36 | P a g e
37. Based on PNS/PAES 260:2015 Paddy Seed
Cleaner: What is the minimum cleaning
recovery?
PHILIPPINE
a.
b.
96
99
%
%
AGRICULTURAL
c. 90 %
d. 92 %

ENGINEERING
Cleaner: What is the minimum purity of
output?
a. 96 %
STANDARD
b. 92 %
c. 98 %
d. 90 %

Cleaner: What is the maximum cleaning loss?
a.
b.
1%
0.5%
PAES 201
TO
c. 0.1%
d. 0.92%

PAES 259
Cleaner: What is the maximum noise level? AGRICULTURAL
a.
b.
92dB
94dB
MACHINERY
c. 96dB
d. 99dB
41. Based on PNS/PAES 262:2015 Multipurpose

Thresher: What is the capacity of a common
type thresher?
a. 0.3 – 1.5 tons/hr
AND
b. 1.0 – 2.5 tons/hr
c. 1.5 – 2.3 tons/hr
d. 0.5 – 3.0 tons/hr
42. Rotating implement which pulverizes,

firms or smooths soil by crushing or
PAES 301
TO
compacting.
a. Soil-additive applicator
b. Soil-additive incorporator
c.
d.
Soil roller
Soil-working surface PAES 320
Engineering
Materials
37 | P a g e
EXAM 6
c. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved
Blades
d. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades
8. Grains that have fallen to the ground

1. Pressure build-up in the plenum chamber due to the machine’s cutting operation.
to maintain uniform distribution of air
flow through the grain mass, expressed in a. Chipping loss
pascal. b. Cutting disc loss
c. Header loss
a. Plenum d. Reel loss
b. Static pressure
c. Heat utilization 9. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
d. Airflow rate (Circulated): What is the maximum header
loss?
2. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper: a. 1.5%
What is the maximum speed for the shaft of b. 0.5%
the mechanized coffee pulper? c. 0.75%
d. 0.95%
a. 120 rpm
b. 140 rpm 10. Type of micromill with input capacity
c. 160 rpm of 100-250 kg/h.
d. 180 rpm
a. Bran household model
3. Throw-in type of thresher wherein cut b. Fiber decorticator
plants are fed between the rotating c. Village model
cylinder and stationary concave and the d. Micromill
threshed materials/straws are discharged
out of the threshing chamber tangentially 11. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
What is the minimum purity with sieve and
a. Through flow thresher blower?
b. Throw-in thresher
c. Axial flow thresher a. 88.0%
d. Hold-on thresher b. 98.0%
c. 90.0%
4. Based on PAES 222: 2005 Chipping Machine d. 95.0%
(Circulated): What is the maximum noise
level? 12. Biomass furnace with combustion chamber
that have stair-liked arrangement of grate.
a. 94 dB
b. 98 dB a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect-
c. 92 dB fired
d. 99 dB b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass
furnace
5. Component of a rice mill that removes c. Step-grate direct-fired biomass
the hulls (palea and lemma) from the furnace
grains. d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace
a. Rubber roll type 13. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
b. Huller/dehuller (Circulated): What is the minimum purity
c. Abrasive type with sifter and fan?
d. Friction type
a. 97.0%
6. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper: b. 95.0%
What is the minimum pulping recovery? c. 99.0%
d. 93.0%
a. 91.5%
b. 93.5% 14. Paddy which are light green and chalky
c. 95.5% with soft texture.
d. 97.5%
a. Broken grains
7. Type of centrifugal fan that have blades b. Immature grain
which are curved forward to the direction c. Cracked grain
of the rotation and have larger flow rate d. Damaged grain
when compared to other centrifugal fans of
the same size and speed. 15. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
What is the maximum mechanically damaged
a. Centrifugal Fans with Airfoil Blades kernel?
b. Centrifugal Fans with Radial Tip
Blades a. 1.5%
38 | P a g e
b. 0.7%
c. 3.5% 23. Based on PAES 243: 2010 Biomass Furnace
d. 0.9% – Methods of Test: What is the maximum
moisture content for corn cobs to meet the
16. Device used for milling which consists efficient burning?
of rotating hammer(s) and a heavy
perforated screen at the bottom. a. 10%
b. 20%
a. Aspirator c. 14%
b. Degerminator d. 12%
c. Roller mill
d. Hammer mill 24. Dried coconut meat from which oil is
extracted.
17. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
(Circulated): What is the minimum field a. Streaks
efficiency? b. Fiber
c. Copra
a. 75.0% d. NOTA
b. 85.0%
c. 95.0% 25. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
d. 93.0% (Circulated): What is the maximum blower
loss?
18. Type of driving mechanism that uses
hydraulic or magnetic couplings between a. 1.2%
fan/blower wheel shaft and motor shaft b. 1.75%
which allows control of fan/blower wheel c. 1.5%
speed independent of the motor speed. d. 1.95%
a. Variable Drive Fan/Blower 26. Device for moving air which utilizes a
b. Axial-Flow Fans/Blowers power driven rotating impeller.
c. Belt-Drive Fan/Blower
d. Direct-Drive Fan/Blower a. Fan/blower
b. Static air power
19. Based on PAES 246:2010 Dehusked Corn c. Throttling device
Dryer: What is the minimum heating system d. Pitot tube
efficiency for petroleum based fuel
(indirect-fired)? 27. Part of the energy per unit time that
is imparted by the fan/blower to the air in
a. 90% overcoming static pressure from the inlet
b. 75% to the outlet.
c. 80%
d. 70% a. Fan/blower
b. Static air power
20. Forage chopper which uses a feeding c. Throttling device
mechanism consisting of two feed rolls, or d. Pitot tube
other means such as an auger, to advance
the crop to the cutting mechanism. 28. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
(Circulated): What is the maximum
a. Forage chopper separation loss?
b. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
c. Random-cut forage chopper a. 1.3%
d. Precision-cut forage chopper b. 0.75%
c. 0.85%
21. Based on PAES 246:2010 Dehusked Corn d. 0.95%
Dryer: What is the minimum moisture content
reduction rate? 29. Thread like component of rotating
cylinder of the pulping chamber.
a. 0.15% per hour
b. 0.25% per hour a. Mucilage
c. 0.35% per hour b. Flute
d. 0.45% per hour c. Parchment
d. Pulp
22. Fan that neutralizes air spin for it to
be used as blower in outlet duct and 30. Organic materials used as renewable
exhaust in inlet duct. source of energy like wood chips, corncobs
and rice hulls, etc.
a. Propeller Fan
b. Centrifugal Fans a. Biomass
c. Vane-Axial Fan b. Grate
d. Tube-Axial Fan c. Hearth
39 | P a g e
d. Workload c. 0.75%
d. 0.5%
31. Based on PAES 210:2000 Agricultural
Machinery – Corn Mill: 39. Side board made up of well machined
lumber strips properly dried and glued
a. 98 dB together.
b. 92 dB
c. 100 dB a. Lumber core
d. 99 dB b. Panel
c. Fiber-cement flat sheets
32. Are used when the shafts are virtually d. Particle board
collinear and when they remain in a fixed
angular relation with respect to each other 40. Batch type dryer equipped to circulate
(except for angular deflection). and/or mixed fixed volume of grain during
the drying operation.
a. Clamp shaft coupling
b. Flange face coupling a. Flatbed type
c. Flexible couplings b. Recirculating type
d. Rigid couplings c. Columnar type
d. Recirculating type
33. A cylinder which surrounds the shaft
and is filled with some form of fluid 41. High density fiberboard with a smooth
lubricant. surface on one side and a screen impression
on the other side.
a. Bolt
b. Journal bearing a. Particle board
c. Journal b. Smooth-one-side (s1s)
d. Lubricant c. Plywood
d. Smooth-two-sides (s2s)
(Circulated): What is the minimum purity 42. Based on PAES 250:2011 Coconut Coir
without sifter and fan? Decorticator: What is the maximum noise to
be emitted by the coconut coir
a. 97.0% decorticator?
b. 95.0%
c. 99.0% a. 86 dB
d. 93.0% b. 96 dB
c. 90 dB
35. Type of plywood intended for outdoor or d. 99 dB
marine uses, also known as type I.
43. Mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is
a. Exterior plywood passed intermittently in cycles or stages
b. Face through a drying chamber either by
c. Face-plywood mechanical means or by gravity with
d. Fiberboard subsequent cooling and tempering until the
grain reaches the desired moisture content.
36. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
What is the maximum noise level? a. Grain dryer
b. Indirect-fired dryer
a. 100 dB c. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer
b. 99 dB d. Multi-pass dryer
c. 98 dB
d. 92 dB 44. Longitudinal bran layers remaining in
the dorsal grooves after milling.
37. The distance (in millimeters), measured
parallel to the thread axis, between a. Streaks
corresponding points on adjacent thread b. Fiber
forms in the same axial plane on the same c. Copra
side of the axis. d. NOTA
a. Nut 45. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace:

b. Fastener What is the minimum heating system
c. Screw efficiency of the furnace for indirect-
d. Pitch fired?
38. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper: a. 80%

What is the maximum header loss? b. 75%
c. 70%
a. 1.5% d. 50%
b. 0.95%
40 | P a g e
46. Type of centrifugal fan that has 53. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
single-thickness steel fan blade and can What is the minimum purity with blower?
handle contaminated air streams. a. 88.0%
b. 95.0%
a. Centrifugal Fans with Radial Tip c. 98.0%
Blades d. 90.0%
b. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved
Blades 54. Part of the ear corn where the kernels
c. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades are attached.
d. Backward-Curved Blades
a. Corn cob
47. Type of centrifugal fan that are rugged b. Kernel
and self-cleaning and have non-tangential c. Corn ear
flow at the leading edge. d. Whole kernels
a. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved 55. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace:
Blades What is the minimum furnace efficiency?
b. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades
c. Backward-Curved Blades a. 80%
d. Backward-Inclined Blades b. 75%
c. 65%
48. This type of fan is also known as d. 50%
tubular centrifugal fan, in-line
centrifugal fan or mixed flow fan. 56. Machine used to remove the husk of corn
ear, detach, separate and clean the corn
a. Propeller Fan kernels from the cobs in one operation.
b. Axial-Centrifugal Fans
c. Vane-Axial Fan a. Disc-type
d. Tube-Axial Fan b. Corn sheller
c. Hopper-fed type
49. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine d. Corn husker-sheller
(Circulated): What is the maximum total
machine loss? 57. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
a. 2.5% (Circulated): What is the maximum
b. 1.75% mechanically damaged grain?
c. 3.5%
d. 2.95% a. 2.0%
b. 0.75%
50. In this type of fan, the air stream has c. 2.5%
to make two 45 degrees turns before exiting d. 2.95%
the fan housing.
58. Type of shelling unit consisting of a
a. Fan Wheel with Flat Back Plate vertical disc with spiked surface.
b. Fan with Conical Back Plate
c. Fan Wheel with Conical Back Plate a. Disc-type
d. Fan with Flat Back Plate b. Corn sheller
c. Hopper-fed type
51. These types of fan have up blast, down d. Corn husker-sheller
flow and radial discharge of air. This is
mainly use for exhausting and supplying air 59. Type of corn sheller wherein the ear
from and into the building. corn is fed into shelling chamber by
gravity.
a. Fan with Conical Blowers
b. Cross-Flow Blowers a. Disc-type
c. Vortex or Regenerative Blowers b. Corn sheller
d. Roof Ventilators c. Hopper-fed type
d. Corn husker-sheller
52. Rice grain from which the hull, the
germ, the outer bran layer, and the greater 60. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper:
part of the inner bran layer have been What is the minimum field efficiency?
removed, but part of the lengthwise streaks
of the bran layer may still be present on a. 55%
less than 15% of the sample grains. b. 65%
c. 75%
a. Regular milled rice d. 85%
b. Overmilled rice
c. Undermilled rice 61. Unbroken kernels after shelling
d. Well-milled rice
a. Corn ear
b. Kernel
41 | P a g e
c. Degerminated corn kernels b. Indirect-fired dryer
d. Whole kernels c. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer
d. Multi-pass dryer
62. Wire mesh or perforated sheet metal
used to separate large and/or small 71. Based on PAES 250:2011 Coconut Coir
particles. Decorticator: What is the peripheral speed
of the blades?
a. Aspirator
b. Degerminator a. 5 m/s
c. Oscillating screen b. 15 m/s
d. Laboratory sieve shaker c. 35 m/s
d. 25 m/s
63. Refers to corn grit # 10, #12, #14,
#16, and # 18 72. Type of thresher wherein the panicles
a. Grit # 18 of the cut plants are fed into the
b. Grit # 20 threshing chamber while the stalks are
c. Grit # 24 mechanically or manually held during the
d. Main product threshing operation.
64. Dryer in which the material being dried a. Mechanical rice thresher
moves through the drying chamber in a b. Throw-in thresher
substantially continuous stream and is c. Axial flow thresher
discharged without being recirculated. d. Hold-on thresher
a. Concurrent flow type 73. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
b. Continuous flow dryer What is the minimum purity with sieve?
c. Mixing type
d. Counter-flow type a. 90.0%
b. 88.0%
66. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper: c. 85.0%
The reaper shall be operated at what speed? d. 98.0%
a. 3 kph to 5 kph 74. Grains that was broken and/or dehulled

b. 5 kph to 6 kph (partially or fully) as a result of
c. 3 kph to 4 kph threshing operation.
d. 2 kph to 3 kph
a. Broken grains
67. Continuous flow dryer wherein the flow b. Immature grain
of air is transverse to the direction of c. Cracked grain
flow of the grain being dried. d. Mechanically damaged grain
a. Concurrent flow type 75. Ripened fruits of coffee shrubs.

b. Continuous flow dryer
c. Cross-flow type a. Coffee cherry
d. Non-mixing type b. Flute
c. Parchment
68. Dryer in which the products of d. Pulp
combustion come into direct contact with
the product being dried. 76. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
(Circulated): What is the maximum net
a. Indirect-fired dryer cracked grain?
b. Direct-fired dryer
c. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer a. 5.5%
d. Multi-pass dryer b. 4.75%
c. 5.0%
69. Dryer in which the products of d. 4.95%
combustion do not come in contact with the
products being dried. 77. Endocarp of the coffee cherry, lies
between the fleshy part (or pulp) of the
a. Grain dryer cherry and coffee bean.
b. Indirect-fired dryer
c. Direct-fired dryer a. Mucilage
d. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer b. Flute
c. Parchment
70. Device for removing excess moisture d. Pulp
from the grain, generally by forced or
natural convection with or without addition 78. Long and slender natural filament of
of heat. abaca plant.
a. Grain dryer a. Mucilage
42 | P a g e
b. Abaca fiber
c. Abaca stalk 86. Auxiliary device used to separate paddy
d. Pulp from brown rice.
79. Method that uses bolo to partially cut a. Polisher

(leaving the upper layer 1 mm to 2 mm thick b. Paddy separator
uncut) crosswise the middle of the inner c. Destoner
portion of the leaf sheath to be able to d. Whitener
extract the tuxie.
a. Bacnis method germ, the outer bran layer, and the greater
b. Locnit method part of the inner bran layer have been
c. AOTA removed, but part of the lengthwise streaks
d. NOTA of the bran layer may still be present on
more than 40 % of the sample grains.
(Circulated): What is the maximum noise a. Regular milled rice
level? b. Overmilled rice
c. Undermilled rice
a. 95 dB d. Well-milled rice
b. 98 dB
c. 91 dB 88. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine
d. 90 dB (Circulated): What is the minimum purity
without cleaning devices?
81. Flexible machine element used to
transmit motion and power between two a. 87.0%
shafts, the cross section of which is b. 85.0%
shaped roughly like a regular trapezoid c. 89.0%
outlined by the base, sides and top of the d. 80.0%
belt.
89. Refers to corn grit # 20 and # 24,
a. Flat belt pulley floured corn, germ and bran.
b. V-pulley
c. V-belt a. Grit # 20
d. Flat belt b. By-product
c. Grit # 24
82. Type of whitening machine consisting of d. Main product
a ribbed cylinder enclosed in a perforated
steel housing. 90. Milled corn kernels where the outer
covering and germs have been removed and
a. Rubber roll type with particle size of not less than 0.86
b. Friction type mm.
c. Abrasive type
d. Single-pass rice mill a. Grit # 20
b. By-product
83. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace: c. Corn grits
What is the minimum burning efficiency of d. Main product
the biomass furnace?
a. 80% (Circulated): What is the recommended
b. 95% peripheral speed of the threshing drum?
c. 70%
d. 50% a. 30 m/s
b. 20 m/s
84. Rice grain from which the hull, the c. 20 m/s to 30 m/s
germ, and the bran layers have been d. NOTA
completely removed.
92. Shallow bed batch type dryer wherein a
a. Regular milled rice fixed volume of grain is held stationary in
b. Overmilled rice a horizontal grain holding bin.
c. Undermilled rice
d. Brown rice a. Flatbed type
b. Recirculating type
85. Auxiliary device used to classify paddy c. Columnar type
based on length and thickness. d. Recirculating type
a. Polisher 93. Device used to remove grain moisture by

b. Paddy grader forcing heated air through the grain mass
c. Destoner until the desired moisture content is
d. Whitener attained.
43 | P a g e
a.
b.
Grain dryer
Direct-fired dryer
EXAM 7
c. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer
d. Multi-pass dryer
1. Source of energy that includes non-
94. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller: petroleum based fuels such as biomass and
What is the maximum scattering loss? solar energy.
a. 1.5% a. Conventional energy source

b. 0.95% b. Non–conventional energy source
c. 0.75% c. Aota
d. 0.5% d. Nota
95. Chamber wherein air pressure is 2. The part of the rotating shaft, axle,
developed for uniform distribution of the roll or spindle that turns in a bearing.
heated air through the grain mass.
a. Bolt
a. Heat utilization b. Journal bearing
b. Airflow rate c. Journal
c. Plenum d. Lubricant
d. Moisture gradient
3. Based on PAES 248:2010 Fruit Dryer: What
96. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper: is the maximum noise to be emitted by the
What is the maximum speed for the shaft of fruit dryer?
the manual coffee pulper?
a. 92 dB
a. 30 rpm b. 99 dB
b. 60 rpm c. 86 dB
c. 120 rpm d. 97 dB
d. 150 rpm
4. An externally threaded fastener designed
97. Volume of air in cubic meters delivered for insertion through holes in assembled
to the mass of grains per second. parts, and normally tightened or released
by torquing a nut.
a. Heat utilization
b. Airflow rate a. Bolt
c. Plenum b. Nut
d. Moisture gradient c. Fastener
d. Lubricant
98. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper:
What is the maximum separation loss? 5. A block or sleeve having an internal
thread designed to assemble with the
a. 1% external thread on a bolt, screw, stud or
b. 2% other threaded part.
c. 3%
d. 4% a. Nut
b. Fastener
99. Grains which are heat damaged, weather c. Screw
damaged, sprouted or distinctly damaged by d. Pitch
insects, water, fungi and/or any other
means. 6. Based on PAES 226: 2005 Agricultural
Machinery – Micromill: What is the minimum
a. Broken grains milling recovery?
b. Immature grain
c. Cracked grain a. 50 %
d. Damaged grain b. 75 %
c. 90 %
100. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine d. 62%
(Circulated): What is the recommended reel
speed in percent that should be faster than 7. A headed pin of metal used for uniting
the ground speed? two or more pieces by passing the shank
through a hole in each piece and then by
a. 50 % beating or pressing down the plain end so
b. 25 % as to make a second head
c. 25 % to 50 % a. Nut
d. NOTA b. Fastener
c. Screw
d. Rivet
44 | P a g e
8. Substances that cannot be melted and b. 98dB
remelted. c. 91dB
d. 92dB
a. Polymer
b. Thermosets 17. Grain which is heat damaged, weather
c. Monomer damaged, sprouted or distinctively damaged
d. Covalent by insects, water, fungi, and/or any means.
9. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace: a. Broken grains

What is the minimum heating system b. Immature grain
efficiency of the furnace for direct-fired? c. Cracked grain
d. Damaged grain
a. 65%
b. 50% 18. Classification system that indicates
c. 75% the uniformity of grind in the resultant
d. 70% product; sum of the weight fractions
retained above each sieve divided by 100.
10. Surface of the plywood showing veneer
of higher grade than that of the back side a. Germ
a. Exterior plywood b. Grit # 20
b. Face c. Main product
c. Face-plywood d. Fineness modulus
d. Fiberboard
19. Device use for grinding which is a
11. Milled corn kernels with particle size result of the impact between the particles
between 1.10 mm to 1.19 mm. and hammers, which are mounted on a shaft
rotating along a horizontal axis.
a. Grit # 10
b. Grit # 12 a. Hammer mill
c. Grit # 14 b. Degerminator
d. Grit # 16 c. Roller mill
d. Rubber roll
12. Machine used to remove the germ and
pericarp from the corn kernel. 20. Based on PAES 240:2010 Fans and
Blowers: In fan wheel with flat back plate,
a. Aspirator how many degrees the air stream has to make
b. Degerminator before exiting the fan housing?
c. Oscillating screen
d. Laboratory sieve shaker a. one 90 degrees turns
b. two 90 degrees turns
13. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller: c. three 90 degrees turns
What is the maximum unshelled loss? d. half 90 degrees turns
a. 1.5% 21. Cylindrical roll generally with

b. 0.75% protrusions or flutes, used to gather,
c. 5% compress and advance the crop into the
d. 0.95% cutterhead.
14. Process of reducing the corn kernels a. Aspirator

into pieces of grits, germ and pericarp b. Degerminator
with or without conditioning. c. Roller mill
d. Feedroll
a. Degerminator
b. Dry milling 22. Forage chopper which uses a feeding
c. Oscillating screen mechanism consisting of four or more feed
d. Laboratory sieve shaker rolls to partially orient and advance the
crop at a consistent rate into the cutting
15. Embryo of the kernel removed during the mechanism.
degermination process.
a. Forage chopper
a. Germ b. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
b. Grit # 20 c. Precision-cut forage chopper
c. Main product d. Throw-away type
d. Floured corn
23. Based on PAES 226: 2005 Agricultural
16. Based on PAES 226: 2005 Agricultural Machinery – Micromill: What is the minimum
Machinery – Micromill: What is the maximum head rice?
noise level?
a. 50 %
a. 99dB b. 25 %
45 | P a g e
c. 75% 31. Fan that serves as exhausting material
d. 80% from an inlet duct.
24. Type of forage chopper where the a. Propeller Fan

chopped materials are thrown away to the b. Centrifugal Fans
front area of the machine. c. Vane-Axial Fan
d. Tube-Axial Fan
a. Precision-cut forage chopper
b. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper 32. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
c. Random-cut forage chopper What is the maximum separation loss?
d. Throw-away type
a. 1.2%
25. Mechanical device used for extracting b. 0.1%
fibers by crushing, beating and scraping c. 1%
actions effected by the rotating cylinder d. 2%
with equally spaced blades and breaker or
scraper block the physical, chemical and 33. In this type of fan, the airflow passes
morphological properties of fibers twice through a fan wheel with forward-
extracted. curved blades.
a. Household model a. Fan with Conical Blowers

b. Fiber decorticator b. Cross-Flow Blowers
c. Village model c. Vortex or Regenerative Blowers
d. Micromill d. Roof Ventilators
26. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper: 34. Dehulled palay (husk/hull removed) with
What is the maximum scattering loss? the bran layer still intact.
a. 0.1% a. Regular milled rice

b. 0.3% b. Overmilled rice
c. 0.5% c. Undermilled rice
d. 0.7% d. Brown rice
27. Type of driving mechanism that directly 35. Conical structure or orifice rings that
transfers energy or power from engine are being used at the end of testing duct
crankshaft or motor shaft to the fan/blower of fan/blower to enable variation in air
volumetric flow rate.
a. Variable Drive Fan/Blower
b. Axial-Flow Fans/Blowers a. Fan/blower
c. Belt-Drive Fan/Blower b. Static air power
d. Direct-Drive Fan/Blower c. Throttling device
d. Pitot tube
28. Fans that force the air to move
parallel to the shaft on which the fan 36. Enclosed structure for intense heating
blades rotate. by fire using any biomass like woodchips,
corncobs and rice hulls as fuel.
a. Variable Drive Fan/Blower
b. Axial-Flow Fans/Blowers a. Biomass furnace
c. Belt-Drive Fan/Blower b. Grate
d. Direct-Drive Fan/Blower c. Hearth
d. Workload
29. Based on PAES 226: 2005 Agricultural
Machinery – Micromill: What is the maximum 37. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace:
bran? What is the rice hull angle of repose?
a. 50 % a. 30°-36°
b. 10 % b. 30°-40°
c. 90 % c. 35°-50°
d. 80% d. 35°-35°
30. Fans that are commonly used for 38. Materials to be processed (i.e. dried,
supplying cool air to certain processes and burned, melted, etc.) using biomass
exhausting hot or contaminated air and furnace.
corrosive gases in buildings.
a. Biomass furnace
a. Propeller Fan b. Grate
b. Centrifugal Fans c. Hearth
c. Vane-Axial Fan d. Workload
d. Tube-Axial Fan
46 | P a g e
39. Flue gas and other products of c. 90 %
combustion go into the dryer. d. 80%
a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect- 47. Are used to connect shafts with much
fired larger values of misalignment than can be
b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass tolerated by the other types of flexible
furnace couplings.
c. Direct-fired biomass furnace
d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace a. Clamp shaft coupling
b. Flange face coupling
40. Fine and powder-like particles c. Universal joint
parenchymatous cells that are extracted d. Rubber-flexible coupling
from the coconut husk.
48. Chemical compound with higher molecular
a. Coconut husk weight consisting of a number of structural
b. Coconut powder units linked together by covalent bonds.
c. Coconut peat
d. Coconut coir a. Polymer
b. Covalent
41. Power transmission device used to c. Copolymer
transmit power and motion between two d. Monomer
shafts consisting of flat belts which ride
in flat pulleys. 49. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper:
What is the minimum purity?
a. V-pulley drive
b. Flat belt drive a. 95%
c. V-belt drive b. 98%
d. Flat belt c. 91%
d. 93%
42. Keys with a tapered longitudinal
section. 50. Substances that melt on heating and are
a. Parallel keys processes in this state by a variety of
b. Flat belt keys extrusion and molding process.
c. Taper keys
d. Woodruff keys a. Thermoplastic
b. Covalent
43. Essentially a split and bolted sleeve c. Copolymer
coupling, proportioned to clamp firmly on d. Monomer
the shafts
51. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
a. Clamp shaft coupling What is the maximum blower loss?
b. Flange face coupling
c. Flexible couplings a. 0.5%
d. Rubber-flexible coupling b. 1.5%
c. 2.5%
44. Based on PAES 243: 2010 Biomass Furnace d. 3.5%
– Methods of Test: What is the maximum
moisture content for rice hulls to meet the 52. Type of threshing cylinder wherein
efficient burning? threshing is done between bar-like
protrusions in parallel orientation laid on
a. 7% the periphery of the cylinder and
b. 12% stationary bars built into or attached to
c. 14% the concave grate.
d. 13%
a. Peg-tooth cylinder
45. Are designed to connect shafts which b. Threshing unit
are misaligned either laterally or c. Rasp-bar cylinder
angularly. d. Threshing element
a. Clamp shaft coupling 53. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural

b. Flexible couplings Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the
c. Rubber-flexible coupling minimum fiber recovery for abaca?
d. Rigid couplings
a. 3.37 %
46. Based on PAES 226: 2005 Agricultural b. 4.37 %
Machinery – Micromill: What is the maximum c. 1.9 %
broken grains? d. 80%
a. 25 % 54. Part of the threshing unit that rotates

b. 50 % about an axis and it is equipped with
47 | P a g e
either pegs, rasp bars, or wire loops on 62. Ratio of the weight of grains that do
its periphery. not break in the process of milling and
with a size of three-fourth (3/4) or more
a. Peg-tooth cylinder of the whole grain to the total weight of
b. Threshing unit milled rice, expressed in percent.
c. Through flow thresher
d. Threshing cylinder a. Percent regular milled rice
b. Percent head rice
55. Attachments of the threshing cylinder c. Percent undermilled rice
such as pegtooth, wire-loop and rasp-bar d. Percent well-milled rice
that detaches the grains from the panicles.
63. Outermost rough covering of the palay
a. Peg-tooth cylinder grain (palea and lemma) consisting of the
b. Threshing unit empty glumes, floral glumes, and awn.
c. Through flow thresher
d. Threshing element a. Bran
b. Rice hull
56. Based on PAES 256:2011 Corn Picker: c. Aota
What is the minimum field efficiency? d. Nota
a. 95% 64. Based on PAES 242:2010 Biomass Furnace:

b. 85% What is the corncob angle of repose?
c. 75%
d. 65% a. 30°-40°
b. 35°-50°
57. Type of threshing cylinder wherein c. 35°-35°
wires of the same arc and size are d. 30°-36°
attached.
65. Type of rice mill using rubber roll
a. Upper concave huller and utilizes friction and/or
b. Wire-loop cylinder combination of other types of whitener.
c. Rasp-bar cylinder
d. Lower concave a. Rubber roll type
b. Friction type
58. A semi-circular shaped grate at the c. Abrasive type
upper portion of the threshing cylinder d. Single-pass rice mill
with louvers which assist threshing and
axial movement of the straw. 66. Rice mill that employs only one
whitening machine.
a. Upper concave
b. Wire-loop cylinder a. Rice mill
c. Rasp-bar cylinder b. Cone “cono” type
d. Lower concave c. Abrasive type
d. Single-pass rice mill
59. Bran outer layer of the brown rice
consisting of the aleurone cells covering 67. Component of a rice mill that removes
the endosperm of the rice grain. the bran layer in the brown rice.
a. Bran a. Polisher
b. Rice hull b. Paddy grader
c. Aota c. Destoner
d. Nota d. Whitener
60. Grains obtained after the removal of 68. Type of whitening machine consisting of
hull and bran. a cylinder or cone coated with abrasive
material such as emery stone or any similar
a. Regular milled rice materials enclosed in a perforated steel
b. Milled rice housing.
c. Undermilled rice
d. Well-milled rice a. Rice mill
b. Cone “cono” type
61. Rice mill that employs a series of two c. Abrasive type
or more whitening machines. d. Single-pass rice mill
a. Rubber roll type 69. Based on PAES 244:2010 Biomass

b. Friction type Shredder: What is the maximum recommended
c. Abrasive type noise for biomass shredder?
d. Multi-pass rice mill
a. 98 dB
b. 96 dB
48 | P a g e
c. 97 dB 78. Based on PAES 246:2010 Dehusked Corn
d. 92 dB Dryer: What is the required airflow rate of
drying air for dehusked corn dryer?
70. Milled corn kernels with particle size
between 1.2 mm to 1.4 mm a. 15 to 40 m3/min per cubic meter of
a. Grit # 10 dehusked corn
b. Grit # 12 b. 15 m3/min per cubic meter of
c. Grit # 14 dehusked corn
d. Grit # 16 c. 40 m3/min per cubic meter of
dehusked corn
71. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural d. 45 m3/min per cubic meter of
Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the dehusked corn
minimum fiber recovery for banana?
79. Portion of the combine comprising the
a. 0.37 % mechanism for gathering, and cutting,
b. 1.37 % stripping or picking the crop.
c. 3.9 %
d. 0.59% a. Chipping machine
b. Cutting disc
72. Cleaner that uses air to separate lower c. Header
density material from the corn kernels/corn d. Reel
grits such as floured corn, germ and bran.
80. Revolving slats or arms with battens
a. Aspirator arranged parallel to the cutter bar to hold
b. Degerminator the crop being cut by the knife and to push
c. Oscillating screen and guide it to a conveyor platform or
d. Laboratory sieve shaker feeder conveyor auger.
73. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller: a. Chipping machine

What is the minimum shelling recovery? b. Cutting disc
c. Header
a. 97.0% d. Reel
b. 95.0%
c. 99.0% 81. Mobile grain-harvesting machine for
d. 93.0% cutting, picking, stripping or picking up
crop, threshing, separating, cleaning and
74. Shelled corn kernels where the germ and conveying grain into a grain hopper and
pericarp have been removed. depositing harvest residue onto the ground.
a. Corn ear a. Rice stripper

b. Kernel b. Rice combine
c. Degerminated corn kernels c. Rice reaper
d. Whole kernels d. Corn reaper
75. Based on PAES 254:2011 Abaca Stripper: 82. Type of micromill with milling capacity
What is the maximum stripping loss? of 50 kg/h to less than 100 kg/h.
a. 20% a. Household model

b. 40% b. Fiber decorticator
c. 60% c. Village model
d. 80% d. Micromill
76. Equipment with definite shaking motion 83. Friction type rice mill performing
used to sort the size of the milled simultaneous hulling and whitening
materials using standard screen sieves. operations and having a milling capacity of
50-250 kg/h.
a. Aspirator
b. Degerminator a. Household model
c. Oscillating screen b. Fiber decorticator
d. Laboratory sieve shaker c. Village model
d. Micromill
77. Rotating part of the chipping machine
that holds the cutting knives. 84. Biomass fuels are fed on the combustion
chamber in cyclonic manner using a blower.
a. Chipping machine The biomass fuels in this type of furnace
b. Cutting disc are burned while in suspension.
c. Header
d. Reel a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect-
fired
49 | P a g e
b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass b. 92 dB
furnace c. 96 dB
c. Dry type biomass furnace indirect- d. 90 dB
fired
d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace 92. Cylindrical gear whose tooth traces are
helices, it transmits rotational motion and
85. Indirect-fired biomass furnace this power between two parallel axes.
type of biomass furnace shall use a heat
exchanger to prevent flue gas and other a. Helical gear
products of combustion to go with the b. Taper gear
drying air. c. Spur gear
d. Bevel gears
a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect-
fired 93. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural
b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the
furnace minimum fiber recovery for maguey?
c. Direct-fired biomass furnace
d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace a. 2.97 %
b. 3.75 %
86. Heat resisting lining of the furnace c. 1.9 %
using layer/s of fire bricks. d. 10%
a. Monolithic lining 94. Mechanical grain dryer wherein the

b. Concrete lining grain in fixed volume is held in the drying
c. Brick lining chamber in batches until the grain reaches
d. Ceramic fiber lining the desired moisture content.
87. Heat resisting lining of the furnace a. Flatbed type

using aggregates and bonding agent(s). b. Recirculating type
c. Batch type
a. Monolithic lining d. Recirculating type
b. Concrete lining
c. Brick lining 95. Based on PAES 220: 2004 Peanut Sheller:
d. Ceramic fiber lining What is the minimum shelling efficiency?
88. Method that uses tuxying knife to a. 95%

thrust one side of the leaf sheath and make b. 91%
a cut between the upper and the inner c. 99%
portions of the material to be able to d. 92%
extract the tuxies.
96. Total amount of heat utilized to
a. Bacnis method vaporize moisture in the material,
b. Locnit method expressed in kj/kg of h2o.
c. Tuxy a. Heat utilization
d. Tuxying b. Airflow rate
c. Plenum
89. Based on PAES 230: 2005 Coconut Oil d. Moisture gradient
Expeller: What is the minimum percent crude
oil recovery of oil expeller? 97. Based on PAES 254:2011 Abaca Stripper:
What is the maximum noise level?
a. 60%
b. 50% a. 92 dB
c. 40% b. 99 dB
d. 30% c. 96 dB
d. 97 dB
90. Separating the outer layer from inner
layer of leaf sheath which is at most 1.8 98. Percentage of grains free of foreign
mm of abaca leaf sheath either by locnit matter.
method (using tuxying knife) or bacnis
method (using bolo. a. Broken grains
b. Immature grain
a. Bacnis method c. Purity
b. Locnit method d. Damaged grain
c. Tuxy
d. Tuxying 99. Machine used to remove the hull and
bran of the palay to produce milled rice
91. Based on PAES 218: 2004 Forage Chopper: and consists mainly of hulling and
What is the required maximum noise level? whitening assembly.
a. 99 dB a. Rice mill
50 | P a g e
b. Cone “cono” type
EXAM 8
c. Abrasive type
100. Based on PAES 244:2010 Biomass

Shredder: What is the minimum shredding
efficiency?
a. 80% 1. Method of grain moisture determination
b. 90% based on actual extraction of water either
c. 85% by convection heating (oven method) or
d. 70% distillation.
a. Primary method
b. Secondary method
c. Aota
d. Nota
2. Grain or fraction of grain with its

length equal to or greater than eight-tenth
(8/10) of the average length of the whole
grain.
a. Regular milled rice

b. Head rice
c. Undermilled rice
d. Well-milled rice
3. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice

thresher: What is the maximum noise level?
a. 90db
b. 99db
c. 98db
d. 95db

germ, the outer bran layers, and the
greater part of the inner bran layer have
been removed, but part of the lengthwise
streaks of the bran layers may still be
present on less than 15% of the sample
grains.
a. Regular milled rice

b. Well-milled rice
c. Undermilled rice
d. Brown rice
5. Auxiliary device of a rice mill, which

removes the remaining small bran particles
on the milled rice and gives it a glossy
appearance.
a. Polisher
b. Paddy grader
c. Destoner
d. Whitener

What is the minimum pulping efficiency?
a. 91%
b. 93%
c. 95%
d. 97%
7. Small pieces or particles of grains that

pass through a sieve having round
perforations 1.4 millimeters in diameter.
51 | P a g e
a. Broken grains a. Abaca stripper
b. Overmilled rice b. Abaca fiber
c. Undermilled rice c. Abaca stalk
d. Brewers rice d. Pulp
8. Auxiliary device used to remove the 16. Fibrous covering of a coconut fruit
remaining small bran particles on the comprising of 30% fiber and 70%
milled rice and gives it a glossy parenchymatous cells.
appearance.
a. Coconut husk
a. Polisher b. Coconut powder
b. Paddy separator c. Coconut peat
c. Destoner d. Coconut coir
d. Whitener
17. Based on PAES 230: 2005 Coconut Oil
9. Equipment used to produce corn grits Expeller: What is the maximum noise emitted
using the dry milling process. by the oil expeller measured 50 mm away
from the operator’s ear?
a. Aspirator
b. Degerminator a. 98dB
c. Corn mill b. 96dB
d. Laboratory sieve shaker c. 97dB
d. 92dB
10. Based on PAES 214: 2004 Rubber Roll for
Rice Mill: What is the minimum hulling 18. Wheel with one or more grooved rims
efficiency of rubber roll when tested in used to transmit motion and power by means
accordance with PAES 215? of one or more v-belts
a. 80% a. Flat belt pulley

b. 95% b. V-pulley
c. 75% c. V-belt
d. 85% d. Flat belt
11. Milled corn kernels with particle size 19. Simple unpolymerized form of chemical
between 0.86 mm to 1.09 mm. compound.
a. Grit # 10 a. Polymer
b. Grit # 12 b. Covalent
c. Grit # 14 c. Copolymer
d. Grit # 18 d. Monomer
12. Shelled corn of either dent or flint 20. Based on PAES 206:2000 rice mill: What
varieties. are the maximum noise level for single and
multiple pass for cono and rubber roll?
a. Corn ear
b. Corn kernel a. 90db
c. Degerminated corn kernels b. 99db
d. Whole kernels c. 98db
d. 92db
13. Grate framework of metal bars or fire
bricks used to hold biomass fuel in furnace 21. A cylindrical gear whose tooth traces
for more efficient combustion. are straight lines parallel to the axis.
Generally, it transmits rotational motion
a. Biomass furnace and power between two axes.
b. Grate
c. Hearth a. Helical gear
d. Workload b. Taper gear
c. Spur gear
14. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper: d. Bevel gears
What is the maximum noise level?
22. Continuous flow dryer wherein the
a. 98db product being dried moves in the same
b. 100db direction as drying air.
c. 99db
d. 92db a. Concurrent flow type
15. Mechanical device used for extracting c. Mixing type
primary fibers by scraping action from d. Counter-flow type
blade and stripping block.
52 | P a g e
23. Based on PAES 256:2011 Corn Picker: b. 3%
What is the minimum conveyance efficiency? c. 5%
d. 7%
a. 99.0%
b. 89.0% 31. Semi-circular shaped wire mesh or bar
c. 79.0% grate covering the lower portion of the
d. 69.0% threshing chamber which causes the grains
to separate from the panicles.
24. Are commonly used in permanent
installations for heavy loads and large a. Upper concave
sizes and particularly for vertical drives, b. Wire-loop cylinder
as agitators. c. Rasp-bar cylinder
d. Lower concave
a. Clamp shaft coupling
b. Flange face coupling 32. Machine used to detach and separate the
c. Rubber-flexible coupling palay from the panicles.
d. Rigid couplings
a. Mechanical rice thresher
25. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural b. Through flow thresher
Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the c. Throw-in thresher
minimum fiber recovery for pineapple? d. Axial flow thresher
a. 3.37 % 33. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper:

b. 12.37 % What is the maximum total machine loss?
c. 1.42 %
d. 70% a. 1.5%
b. 1.15%
26. Part of the thresher where the grains c. 1.0%
are detached and separated from the d. 0.5%
panicles.
34. Grains that break in the process of
a. Peg-tooth cylinder milling which have a size of less than
b. Threshing unit eight-tenth (8/10) of the average length of
c. Through flow thresher whole grain.
d. Threshing element
a. Broken grains
27. Continuous flow dryer wherein the b. Overmilled rice
grains in the drying bin flows through the c. Undermilled rice
column in a straight path. d. Brewers rice
a. Concurrent flow type 35. Measure of the ability of the machine

b. Mixing type to remove the hulls without breaking the
c. Counter-flow type grain.
d. Non-mixing type.
a. Coefficient of hulling
28. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice b. Coefficient of wholeness
thresher: What is the maximum net cracked c. Coefficient head rice
grain? d. Coefficient undermilled
a. 5% 36. Corn grit by-product with particle size

b. 8% smaller than 0.70 mm
c. 10% a. Grit # 18
d. 1% b. Grit # 14
c. Grit # 24
29. Method of grain moisture determination d. Main product
based on some characteristics of the grain
sample such as electrical resistance and 37. Based on PAES 212: 2004 Rice Reaper:
capacitance which are related to moisture What is the maximum conveying loss?
content and must be periodically calibrated
against an official primary method. a. 7%
b. 1%
a. Primary method c. 5%
b. Secondary method d. 3%
c. AOTA
d. NOTA 38. Machine used to detach, separate and
clean the corn kernels from the cobs.
What is the maximum unpulped loss? a. Disc-type
b. Corn sheller
a. 1% c. Hopper-fed type
53 | P a g e
d. Corn husker-sheller b. 88.5%
c. 78.5%
39. Based on PAES 240:2010 Fans and d. 68.5%
Blowers: The lift-drag ratio for airfoil
type of blade shall have range value of? 47. Dryer in which the products of
combustion come into direct contact with
a. 40 to 63 the product being dried.
b. 30 to 63
c. 20 to 63 a. Indirect-fired dryer
d. 10 to 63 b. Direct-fired dryer
c. Heated-air mechanical grain dryer
40. Machine that cuts and lays stalks of d. Multi-pass dryer
planted rice crop.
48. Based on PAES 240:2010 Fans and
a. Rice stripper Blowers: What is the maximum noise emitted
b. Rice combine by the oil expeller measured 50 mm away
c. Rice reaper from the operator’s ear?
d. Corn reaper
a. 98dB
41. Dry and indehiscent seed developed from b. 96dB
the ovary of the ear corn. c. 97dB
d. 92dB
a. Corn ear
b. Kernel 49. Fibrous covering of a coconut fruit
c. Degerminated corn kernels comprising of 30% fiber and 70%
d. Whole kernels parenchymatous cells.
42. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice a. Coconut husk

thresher: What is the maximum mechanically b. Coconut powder
damaged grain? c. Coconut peat
d. Coconut coir
a. 2%
b. 4% 50. Consist essentially of an inorganic
c. 6% hydraulic binder or a calcium silicate
d. 1% binder formed by the chemical reaction of a
siliceous material and a calcareous
43. Grain which show signs of fissures or material reinforced by organic fibers
fractures or splinters. and/or inorganic synthetic fibers.
a. Broken grains a. Lumber core plywood/ply board

b. Immature grain b. Fiber-cement flat sheets
c. Cracked grain c. Interior plywood
d. Damaged grain d. Particle board
44. This type of fan has the best 51. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural
mechanical efficiency and the lowest noise Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the
level among the centrifugal fans. minimum fiber recovery for ramie?
a. Centrifugal Fans with Airfoil Blades a. 3.0 %

b. Centrifugal Fans with Radial Tip b. 8.0%
Blades c. 4.0 %
c. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved d. 5.0 %
Blades
d. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades 52. Sheets are intended for internal and
external applications where they will not
45. Chipping machine size reduction machine be subjected to the direct action of sun
either power or manually operated which is and rain. These sheets are further
used to cut or slice root crops or banana classified into five categories according
into small thin pieces called chips. to their modulus of rupture
a. Chipping machine a. Fiber-cement flat sheets type a

b. Cutting disc b. Fiber-cement flat sheets type b
c. Header c. Fiber-cement flat sheets type c
d. Reel d. Fiber-cement flat sheets type d
46. Based on PAES 256:2011 Corn Picker: 53. Plywood made up of face/back veneer,
What is the minimum total machine crossboard core veneer and well composed
efficiency? kiln dried lumber core.
a. 98.5% a. Lumber core plywood/ply board
54 | P a g e
b. Fiber-cement flat sheets c. Direct-fired biomass furnace
c. Interior plywood d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace
d. Particle board
62. Type of centrifugal fan that is curved,
54. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated with good flow condition at the leading
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum noise edge and blade tips are radial.
level?
a. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades
a. 100db b. Centrifugal Fans with Airfoil Blades
b. 99db c. Centrifugal Fans with Radial Tip
c. 98db Blades
d. 92db d. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved
Blades
55. Stratum or layer used in referring to
the successive layers of veneer in a panel. 63. Board principally made from wood chips
and formed by hot press process with
a. Ply adhesive.
b. Particle board
c. Plywood a. Panel
d. Plain b. Particle board
c. Plywood
56. A hardboard without any factory-applied d. Plain
finish.
a. Panel thresher: What is the minimum purity
b. Particle board without cleaning devices?
c. Plywood a. 90%
d. Plain b. 80%
c. 70%
57. Based on PAES 252:2011 Coffee Pulper: d. 60%
What is the maximum mechanically damaged
parchment coffee? 65. Fan Wheel with Flat Back Plate In this
a. 1.1% type of fan, the air stream has to make two
b. 3.5% 90 degrees turns before exiting the fan
c. 9.5% housing.
d. 4.5%
a. Fan Wheel with Flat Back Plate
58. Type of rice mill having an under- b. Fan with Conical Back Plate
runner stone disc huller and vertical cone c. Fan Wheel with Conical Back Plate
whitener. d. Fan with Flat Back Plate
a. Rice mill 66. Pistillate inflorescence of the plant

b. Cone “cono” type zea mays l., enclosed with a leaf-like
c. Abrasive type protective covering known as husk.
a. Corn ear
59. Milled corn kernels with particle size b. Kernel
between 1.5 mm to 1.7 mm c. Degerminated corn kernels
d. Whole kernels
a. Grit # 10
b. Grit # 12 67. Slender and greatly elongated natural
c. Grit # 14 filament of fiber plant
d. Grit # 16 a. Streaks
b. Fiber
60. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated c. Copra
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum net d. Nota
cracked kernel?
68. Based on PAES 256:2011 Corn Picker:
a. 3% What is the maximum noise level?
b. 7% a. 92 dB
c. 9% b. 99 dB
d. 5% c. 96 dB
d. 97 dB
61. Uses hot fluid as medium of heat
transfer
69. Type of centrifugal fan that is more
a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect- economical in production and has low
fired structural strength and efficiency.
b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass
furnace
55 | P a g e
a. Centrifugal Fans with Forward-Curved a. Mucilage
Blades b. Abaca fiber
b. Centrifugal Fans with Radial blades c. Abaca stalk
c. Backward-Curved Blades d. Pulp
d. Backward-Inclined Blades
70. Corn grit by-product with particle size Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the
between 0.70 mm to 0.85 mm. maximum noise level?
a. Grit # 18 a. 95dB
b. Grit # 10 b. 99dB
c. Grit # 20 c. 98dB
d. Main product d. 92dB
71. Based on PAES 228:2005 Agricultural 79. Continuous flow dryer wherein the
Machinery –Fiber Decorticator: What is the drying bin is similar to columnar drying
minimum fiber recovery for sisal? bin except that it includes louvers causing
mixing to occur as the grain flows through
a. 1.9 % the system.
b. 80%
c. 3.52 % a. Concurrent flow type
d. 4.37 % b. Continuous flow dryer
c. Mixing type
72. Continuous flow dryer wherein the grain d. Non-mixing type
being dried move in one direction and the
drying air moves in the opposite direction. 80. Power transmission device, which
consists of one or more v-belts, mounted on
a. Concurrent flow type two or more v-pulleys.
c. Counter-flow type a. V-pulley drive
d. Non-mixing type b. Flat belt drive
c. V-belt drive
73. Red or green thin fleshy outer layer of d. Flat belt
the coffee cherry.
81. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated
a. Mucilage Corn Sheller: What is the minimum purity?
b. Flute
c. Parchment a. 88.0%
d. Pulp b. 98.0%
c. 90.0%
74. Based on PAES 240:2010 Fans and d. 95.0%
Blowers: In fan wheel with conical back
plate how many degrees the air stream has 82. Milled corn kernels with particle size
to make before exiting the fan housing? between 1.8 mm to 2.0 mm.
a. one 45 degrees turns a. Grit # 10

b. two 45 degrees turns b. Grit # 12
c. three 45 degrees turns c. Grit # 14
d. half 45 degrees turns d. Grit # 16
75. Slimy layer found between the pulps and 83. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice
adhering to the parchment. thresher: What is the minimum purity
without sifter and with fan?
a. Mucilage
b. Flute a. 99%
c. Parchment b. 90%
d. Pulp c. 85%
d. 95%
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum 84. Belts used to transmit rotary motion
mechanically damaged kernel? and power between two shafts, which lie
flat on the face of its corresponding
a. 3% pulley
b. 5%
c. 7% a. Flat belt pulley
d. 9% b. V-pulley
c. V-belt
77. Part of abaca plant which consists of d. Flat belt
several layers of leaf sheath.
56 | P a g e
85. Batch type dryer wherein a fixed volume b. Journal bearing
of grain is held stationary in a vertical c. Journal
grain holding bin d. Lubricant
a. Flatbed type 93. Gears which are used to transmit motion

b. Recirculating type and power to shafts having intersecting
c. Columnar type axes.
d. Horizontal type
a. Helical gear
b. Taper gear
86. Auxiliary device used to separate c. Spur gear
stones from the palay and/or brown rice. d. Bevel gears
a. Polisher 94. A mechanical device designed

b. Paddy grader specifically to hold, join, or maintain
c. Destoner equilibrium of single or multiple
d. Whitener components
87. Based on PAES 254:2011 Abaca Stripper: a. Bolt

What is the minimum stripping efficiency b. Nut
for the mechanized stripping machine? c. Fastener
d. Lubricant
a. 90%
b. 80% 95. Spacing between rivet centers.
c. 85%
d. 70% a. Nut
b. Fastener
88. Difference between the maximum and the c. Screw
minimum grain moisture content randomly d. Pitch
sampled after drying.
a. Heat utilization What is the maximum noise level?
b. Airflow rate
c. Plenum a. 92 dB
d. Moisture gradient b. 99 dB
c. 86 dB
89. Rice grain from which the hull, the d. 97 dB
germ, the outer bran layers and the greater
part of the inner bran layers have been 97. Plywood faced with a material other
removed but part of the lengthwise streaks than wood, such as metal or plastic.
of the bran layers may still be present on
15% to 40% of the sample grains. a. Exterior plywood
b. Face
a. Regular milled rice c. Face-plywood
b. Overmilled rice d. Fiberboard
c. Undermilled rice
d. Well-milled rice 98. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum
90. Source of energy which includes scattering loss?
petroleum-based fuels such as kerosene,
gasoline, diesel oil and bunker fuel oil. a. 1.5%
b. 0.95%
a. Conventional energy source c. 0.75%
b. Non–conventional energy source d. 0.5%
c. Aota
d. Nota 99. Forage chopper without a distinct
feeding mechanism, usually employing flails
91. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice to impact-cut and chop crop directly into
thresher: What is the minimum purity with shorter pieces.
sifter and fan?
a. Forage chopper
a. 90% b. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
b. 91% c. Random-cut forage chopper
c. 97% d. Throw-away type
d. 85%
100. Based on PAES 230: 2005 Coconut Oil
92. A medium that supports the shaft Expeller: What is the maximum temperature
preventing metal to metal contact? measured from the expeller barrel?
a. Bolt a. 71ºC
57 | P a g e
b. 61ºC c. 2.2%
c. 51ºC d. 3.2%
d. 41ºC
8. Fine powder by-product of corn milling
process.
EXAM 9 a.
b.
Germ
Grit # 20
c. Main product
d. Floured corn
1. Type of driving mechanism that can
obtain any fan/blower speed by controlling 9. Sheet of plywood.
the pulley ratio.
a. Variable Drive Fan/Blower a. Panel
b. Axial-Flow Fans/Blowers b. Ply
c. Belt-Drive Fan/Blower c. Particle board
d. Direct-Drive Fan/Blower d. Plain
2. Tube that is being connected to a 10. Assembled product made of layers of
manometer and is being used to measure the veneers and/or lumber core held together by
static and total force of air in the an adhesive, the chief characteristics of
testing duct of fan/blower. which is the alternate cross layers,
distributing the longitudinal wood
a. Fan/blower strength.
b. Static air power
c. Throttling device a. Panel
d. Pitot tube b. Ply
c. Particle board
3. Fire resistant surface located at the d. Plywood
heating chamber of the biomass furnace.
a. Biomass furnace thresher: What is the maximum scattering
b. Grate loss?
c. Hearth
d. Workload a. 0.3%
b. 0.3%
4. Panel made of consolidated ligno- c. 0.3%
cellulosic fibers with the primary bond d. 0.3%
derived from their inherent adhesive
properties and/or the addition of resin or 12. High density fiberboard with smooth
other materials. surfaces on both sides.
a. Exterior plywood a. Particle board
b. Face b. Smooth-one-side (s1s)
c. Face-plywood c. Plywood
d. Fiberboard d. Smooth-two-sides (s2s)
5. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine 13. Sheets are intended for external
(Circulated): What is the maximum applications where they may be subjected to
unthreshed loss? the direct action of sun and rain. They may
be supplied coated or uncoated. These
a. 1.5% sheets are further classified into three
b. 0.75% categories according to their modulus of
c. 0.5% rupture.
d. 0.2%
a. Fiber-cement flat sheets type a
6. Type of plywood intended for inside use, b. Fiber-cement flat sheets type b
having limited moisture resistance. c. Fiber-cement flat sheets type c
d. Fiber-cement flat sheets type d
a. Ply board
b. Panel
c. Interior plywood 14. Based on PAES 256:2011 Corn Picker:
d. Particle board What is the minimum picking efficiency?
7. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice a. 99.5%
thresher: What is the maximum unthreshed b. 89.5%
loss? c. 79.5%
d. 69.5%
a. 0.2%
b. 1.2%
58 | P a g e
15. This fan causes the air/gas to enter b. Through flow thresher
from the side fan wheel, deflected 90 c. Throw-in thresher
degrees and Accelerates due to centrifugal d. Axial flow thresher
force as it flows over the fan blades and
exits the fan housing. 23. Based on PAES 258:2011Feed Mixer: What
is the maximum noise level?
a. Propeller Fan
b. Centrifugal Fans a. 92 dB
c. Vane-Axial Fan b. 99 dB
d. Tube-Axial Fan c. 96 dB
d. 97 dB
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum unshelled 24. The torque is transmitted through a
loss? comparatively soft rubber in compression.
a. 1.5% a. Clamp shaft coupling

b. 0.5% b. Flange face coupling
c. 0.95% c. Flexible couplings
d. 0.75% d. Rubber-flexible coupling
17. Slender and elongated fibrous materials 25. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice
extracted from coconut husk. thresher: What is the minimum threshing
efficiency?
a. Coconut husk
b. Coconut powder a. 95.8%
c. Coconut peat b. 91.8%
d. Coconut coir c. 99.8%
d. 92.8%
18. Based on PAES 246:2010 Dehusked Corn
Dryer: What is the minimum heating system 26. Keys with a semi-circular cross-
efficiency for petroleum based fuel section.
(direct-fired)?
a. Parallel keys
a. 80% b. Flat belt keys
b. 70% c. Taper keys
c. 85% d. Woodruff keys
d. 90%
27. Polymers consisting of more than one
19. Keys whose longitudinal sides are monomer.
parallel with each other.
a. Polymer
a. Parallel keys b. Thermoplastic
b. Flat belt keys c. Copolymer
c. Taper keys d. Monomer
d. Woodruff keys
20. Type of threshing cylinder wherein Dryer: What is the minimum heating system
spikes or pegs are attached on the efficiency for biomass fuel (indirect-
periphery of the cylinder in tandem or in fired)?
helical arrangements.
a. 50%
a. Peg-tooth cylinder b. 85%
b. Threshing unit c. 80%
c. Through flow thresher d. 70%
d. Threshing element
29. Dehulled palay (husk/hull removed) with
21. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated the bran layer still intact?
Corn Sheller: What is the maximum
separation loss? a. Regular milled rice
b. Overmilled rice
a. 1.2% c. Undermilled rice
b. 0.1% d. Brown rice
c. 1%
d. 2% 30. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice
thresher: What is the maximum separation
22. Type of thresher which detaches the loss?
grains by feeding the cut plants into the
machine. a. 1.3%
b. 2.3%
a. Mechanical rice thresher c. 3.3%
59 | P a g e
d. 0.3% a. Flat belt pulley
b. V-pulley
31. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated c. V-belt
Corn Sheller: What is the minimum shelling d. Flat belt
efficiency?
39. Based on PAES 201:2000 Heated-Air
a. 99.5% Mechanical Grain Dryer: What is the maximum
b. 97.5% noise emitted by the heated-air mechanical
c. 95.5% grain dryer?
d. 93.5%
a. Ninety two dB
32. Measure of the ability of the machine b. 95 dB
to remove the hulls. c. Eighty five dB
d. 99 dB
a. Coefficient of hulling
b. Coefficient of wholeness 40. Uses ambient air to be heated inside or
c. Coefficient head rice outside the heat exchanger and be used as
d. Coefficient undermilled drying air.
33. Non-ionic chemical bond formed by a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect-
stored electrons. fired
b. Dry type biomass furnace indirect-
a. Thermoplastic fired
b. Covalent c. Direct-fired biomass furnace
c. Copolymer d. Indirect-fired biomass furnace
d. Monomer
34. Based on PAES 224: 2005 Rice Combine thresher: What is the minimum threshing
(Circulated): What is the maximum recovery?
scaterring loss?
a. 90%
a. 1.5% b. 87%
b. 0.3% c. 85%
c. 0.5% d. 97%
d. 0.95%
42. Component of rice mill made of rubber
35. Biomass furnace that uses gravitational bonded to an inner metal drum core use for
force on feeding the biomass fuel. hulling.
a. Wet type biomass furnace indirect- a. Aspirator

fired b. Degerminator
b. Cyclonic direct-fired biomass c. Roller mill
furnace d. Rubber roll
c. Step-grate direct-fired biomass
furnace 43. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated
d. Gravity direct-fired biomass furnace Corn Sheller: What is the maximum blower
loss?
36. Wire mesh or perforated metal sheet,
moving in back-and-forth direction, a. 1.2%
permitting smaller particles to fall b. 0.1%
through the openings and larger particles c. 1%
to remain on top. d. 2%
a. Aspirator 44. The outer layer of abaca leaf sheath

b. Degerminator which contains the primary fiber.
c. Sifter
d. Laboratory sieve shaker a. Bacnis method
b. Locnit method
37. Based on PAES 204:2000 mechanical rice c. Tuxy
thresher: What is the maximum blower loss? d. Tuxying
a. 0.2% 45. Based on PAES 208:2000 Power-Operated

b. 1.2% Corn Sheller: What is the minimum shelling
c. 2.2% recovery?
d. 3.2%
a. 95.0%
38. Wheel having flat or crowned face used b. 99.0%
to transmit motion and power by means of c. 90.0%
flat belts. d. 97.0%
60 | P a g e
46. Ceramic fiber lining heat resisting
lining of the furnace using ceramic
materials.
a.
b.
c.
Monolithic lining
Concrete lining
Brick lining
PHILIPPINE
d. Ceramic fiber lining

Dryer: What is the minimum heating system
AGRICULTURAL
efficiency for biomass fuel (direct-fired)?
a.
b.
80%
65%
ENGINEERING
c.
d.
70%
90% STANDARD
48. Classification system that indicates
the uniformity of grind in the resultant
product; sum of the weight fractions
retained above each sieve divided by 100.
a. Germ
PAES 401
b. Grit # 20
c. Main product
d. Fineness modulus

Corn Sheller: What is the minimum shelling
efficiency?
a. 99.5%
b. 97.5%
c.
d.
95.5%
93.5%
50. Forage chopper which uses a feeding

TO
mechanism consisting of two feed rolls, or
other means such as an auger, to advance
the crop to the cutting mechanism.
PAES 420
a. Forage chopper
b. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
c. Random-cut forage chopper
d. Precision-cut forage chopper
AGRICULTURAL
STRUCTURES
61 | P a g e
d. Litter type
EXAM 10 8. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for Swine

Production: What is the minimum recommended
height for sidewalls of the building?
1. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for Swine
Production: What is the minimum height of a. 1.0m
pen partition for sow? b. 2.0m
c. 2.5m
a. 0.80meters d. 1.5m
b. 0.90meters
c. 1.00meters 9. The floor shall be elevated at least
d. 1.20meters ____ from the ground and the posts should
have a diameter of at least ____.
2. Swine raise for meat production usually
starts at 15 kg. a. 900mm;200mm
b. 800mm;250mm
a. Finisher c. 1000mm;100mm
b. Grower d. 950mm;200mm
c. Fattener
d. Litter 10. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural
Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage
3. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for Layer of Grains: What is the Optimum recommended
Production: What is the recommended space stack height in meters for rice?
requirement for waterers?
a. 4.57
a. 20 mm/bird b. 5.27
b. 40 mm/bird c. 4.27
c. 60 mm/bird d. 5.57
d. 80 mm/bird
11. Material used as bedding for animals.
Production: What type of roof is the figure a. Litter
below? b. Slot-litter type
c. Slotted type
d. Litter type
12. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for

Swine Production: What is the minimum
recommended space requirement for boar
pens?
a. 1.5 m2/animal
b. 2.5 m2/animal
a. Semi shed c. 8.15 m2/animal
b. Double span d. 7.50 m2/animal
c. Semi monitor
d. Monitor 13. Large nesting boxes for 3 - 6 layers.
5. Female swine that has not farrowed. a. Litter nest

b. Slot-litter nest
a. Finisher c. Slotted nest
b. Grower d. Community nest
c. Buck
d. Gilt 14. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for
6. Based on PAES 420:2002 what is the recommended space requirement for lactating
recommended lighting level for machine sows and litters: individual pens?
shed?
a. 2.5 m2/animal
a. 20 lux (Lumen/m2) b. 3.5 m2/animal
b. 50 lux (Lumen/m2) c. 6.15 m2/animal
c. 75 lux (Lumen/m2) d. 7.4 m2/animal
d. 100 lux (Lumen/m2)
15. Leading the cattle from the crowding
7. Material used as bedding for animals. pen to the holding chute/squeeze.
a. Litter a. Loading chute

b. Slot-litter type b. Working chute
c. Slotted type c. Holding area
62 | P a g e
d. Holding pen
16. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for Swine Production: What is the recommended
Broiler Production: What is the floor space lighting intensity for inspection areas?
requirement for broiler 4 weeks and below?
a. 50 lux (lumen/m2)
a. 6.25 m2/100 birds b. 100 lux (lumen/m2)
b. 8.25 m2/100 birds c. 150 lux (lumen/m2)
c. 10.25 m2/100 birds d. 200 lux (lumen/m2)
d. 12.25 m2/100 birds
17. Used to load cattle from working chute Broiler Production: What is the waterer
or crowding pen to a vehicle. length requirement for 4 weeks and below
age of chicks?
a. Loading chute
b. Working chute a. 4 linear m/100 birds
c. Holding area b. 7.5 linear m/100 birds
d. Holding pen c. 2.5 linear m/100 birds
d. NOTA
18. Animals are free to move between
resting, feeding and watering areas. 26. Based on PAES 418:2002 Primary
Processing Plant for Fresh Fruit and
a. Enclosed housing Vegetable: The storage area of a processing
b. Housing for broiler production plant shall have a capacity for temporary
c. Loose housing storage of raw materials for how many days?
d. Open-sided housing
a. 5-10 processing days
19. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for b. 8-10 processing days
Broiler Production: What is the recommended c. 9-10 processing days
brooding temperature for beyond 21 days age d. 2-5 processing days
of chicks?
a. 32C – 35C 27. PAES 409:2002 agricultural structures.

b. 29C – 32C
c. 27C – 29C a. Primary processing plant for fresh
d. provide heat only when necessary fruit and vegetable
b. Milking parlor
20. Cattle act of giving birth. c. Plant tissue culture laboratory
d. Greenhouses
a. Parturition
b. Faoling 28. Pugnacious animals are tied within the
c. Kidding pen while waiting to be slaughtered.
d. Farrowing
a. Loose pen
21. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. Loose type
Swine Production: What is the minimum c. Tie-up pen
height of pen partition under 25 kg? d. Tie-up type
a. 0.60 meters 29. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for

b. 0.70 meters Swine Production: What is the minimum
c. 0.80 meters height of pen partition for 25 kg – 100 kg?
d. 0.90 meters
a. 0.60 meters
22. Philippine water buffalo or swamp b. 0.70 meters
buffalo. c. 0.80 meters
d. 0.90 meters
a. Bull
b. Carabao 30. For swine, the space requirement should
c. Stallion be ____per animal (if the weight is more
d. Colt than 100 kg) and ____per animal (if the
weight is less than 100kg).
23. Based on PAES 410:2000 Lairage for
Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the a. 0.7 m2; 0.6 m2
space requirement of the swine if the b. 0.6 m2; 0.5 m2
weight is less than 100 kg? c. 0.5 m2; 0.4 m2
d. 0.4 m2; 0.3 m2
a. 0.6 m2 per animal
b. 0.7 m2 per animal 31. PAES 411:2000 agricultural structures.
c. 0.8 m2 per animal
d. 0.9 m2 per animal a. Biogas plant
63 | P a g e
b. Slaughterhouse for swine, small and a. 18 layers
large animals b. 16 layers
c. Lairage for swine, small and large c. 20 layers
animals d. 14 layers
d. Carabao feedlot
40. Renders an animal insensible before it
32. Based on PAES 405:2001 Cattle Feedlot: is killed.
What is the minimum roof slope for roofing
made of indigenous materials? a. Singeing
b. Dehairing
a. 58% c. Sticking
b. 25% d. Stunning
c. 30%
d. 45% 41. Based on PAES 408:2001 Carabao Feedlot:
What is the required lighting intensity for
33. Severance of the major blood vessels in the housing?
the neck or immediately anterior to the
heart by means of a knife and “stuck” shall a. 150 lux
be construed accordingly. b. 300 lux
c. 400 lux
a. Bleeding d. 200 lux
b. Pithing
c. Splitting 42. Preparation of carcass after
d. Sticking evisceration, ready for storage or sale.
34. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for a. Dressing

Layer Production: What is the slatted floor b. Bleeding
elevation from the ground? c. Pithing
d. Stunning
a. 1.0meter
b. 2.0meter 43. Based on PAES 420:2002 what is the
c. 1.2.0meter general recommended lighting for farm
d. 1.5meter workshop?
35. Remove as much blood from the carcass a. 100 lux (Lumen/m2)
as possible before further handling. b. 200 lux (Lumen/m2)
c. 300 lux (Lumen/m2)
a. Dressing d. 500 lux (Lumen/m2)
b. Bleeding
c. Pithing 44. Dividing carcass into parts.
d. Singeing
a. Splitting
36. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for b. Evisceration
Dairy Cattle: What is the required lighting c. Dehairing
intensity for the feeding area? d. Stunning
a. 150 lux 45. Black or green offal.

b. 300 lux
c. 400 lux a. Offal
d. 200 lux b. Black offal
c. Green offal
37. Lowering of animal into steam to d. Gut and tripe
prepare skin for dehairing.
46. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
a. Scalding for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
b. Dehairing the illumination required in all storage
c. Sticking rooms?
d. Stunning
a. 220 lux
38. Removal of the hair of the carcass. b. 540 lux
c. 740 lux
a. Dressing d. 110 lux
b. Dehairing
c. Pithing 47. Required facilities and operational
d. Singeing procedures to serve local markets in the
community.
Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage a. “A” slaughterhouse
of Grains: What is the Optimum recommended b. “AA” slaughterhouse
stack height for Rice? 16 c. “AAA” slaughterhouse
64 | P a g e
d. “AAAA” slaughterhouse c. 56.6
d. 51
48. Required facilities and operational
procedures to serve local markets within 56. Various processes that take place among
the country. the methanogens, non-methanogens and
substrates fed into the digester as inputs.
a. “A” slaughterhouse
b. “AA” slaughterhouse a. Methanization/digestion
c. “AAA” slaughterhouse b. Methanogens
d. “AAAA” slaughterhouse c. Secondary treatment
d. Influent
49. All parts including viscera of
slaughtered cattle, sheep, goats or swine 57. Temperature range of 20C – 40C where
that may be used for human consumption. mesophilic bacteria operates.
a. Meat a. Primary treatment

b. Offal b. Effluent
c. Carcass c. Mesophilic temperature rage
d. Green offal d. Influent
50. PAES 412:2002 agricultural structures. 58. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for
Broiler Production: What is the feeder
a. Cattle feedlot length requirement for 4 weeks and below
b. Warehouse for bagged storage of age of chicks?
c. Poultry dressing plant
d. Milking parlor a. 4 linear m/100 birds
b. 7.5 linear m/100 birds
51. Process composed of bleeding, c. 2.5 linear m/100 birds
defeathering, eviscerating, and from which d. NOTA
the head, shanks, crop, oil gland and other
inedible parts are removed. 59. Mixture of manure and water.
a. Dressing a. Litter
b. Bleeding b. Substrate
c. Pithing c. Sludge
d. Singeing d. Slurry
52. Based on PAES 420:2002 Farm workshop 60. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for
and Machinery Shed: What is the recommended Swine Production: What is the minimum
minimum distance of the building from other recommended space requirement for gestating
buildings to reduce fire hazard, to allow sows?
for future expansion, and maneuvering and
parking of machinery? a. 8.5 m2/animal
b. 2.0 m2/animal
a. 45 meters c. 2.1 m2/animal
b. 65 meters d. 1.20 m2/animal
c. 25 meters
d. 35 meters 61. Difference in height between the
digester wall and the filling line.
53. Process of removing the internal organs
in the abdominal and thoracic cavities. a. Outlet pipe
b. Filling line
a. Splitting c. Freeboard
b. Evisceration d. Inlet pipe
c. Dehairing
d. Stunning 62. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for
Layer Production: What is the minimum roof
54. Process of restraining birds prior to slope for roofing made of indigenous
slitting. materials?
a. Slitting a. 25%
b. Shackling b. 30%
c. Pithing c. 58%
d. Stunning d. 45%
55. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant: 63. Settled portion or precipitate of the
What is the C/N ratio content for Pugo slurry; a mud-like, semi-solid mass.
dung?
a. 27.4 a. Litter
b. 6.74 b. Substrate
65 | P a g e
c. Sludge 71. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for
d. Slurry Layer Production: What is the minimum
dimension for entrance door?
64. Space inside or outside the digester
for the collection and storage of biogas. a. 1000 mm wide by 2 m high
b. 1200 mm wide by 2 m high
a. Collecting tank/holding c. 800 mm wide by 2 m high
b. Digester/biodigester/bio- d. 900 mm wide by 2 m high
reactor/anaerobic
c. Gas production rate 72. Biogas: the minimum diameter of the
d. Gas chamber inlet pipe shall be.
a. 0.2 m.
65. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for b. 0.4 m.
Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor c. 0.6 m.
space requirement for milking and dry cows? d. 0.8 m.
a. 5 m2/animal 73. Based on PAES 414-1:2002 Waste

b. 7 m2/animal Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural
c. 10 m2/animal Liquid Waste, what is the recommended
d. 6 m2/animal Sludge accumulation ratio (SAR) for Swine?
66. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for a. 0.0295

Layer Production: What is the recommended b. 0.0485
space requirement for the feeder? c. 0.0129
a. 55 mm/bird d. 0.0529
b. 65 mm/bird
c. 75 mm/bird 74. Amount of biogas produced per day per
d. 85 mm/bird cubic meter of slurry.
67. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for a. Collecting tank/holding

Swine Production: The floor shall be skid- b. Digester/biodigester/bio-
resistant towards a gutter or drainage reactor/anaerobic
canal with a slope of… c. Gas production rate
d. Gas chamber
a. 2% - 4 %
b. 4% - 6 % 75. Based on PAES 420:2002 Farm workshop
c. 6% - 8 % and Machinery Shed: What is the minimum
d. 8% - 10 % dimension of a doorway?
68. Cantilever beam that holds the a. 3 m high and 3.7 m wide
gasholder/movable cover in position at the b. 4 m high and 3.7 m wide
desired biogas pressure. c. 5 m high and 3.7 m wide
d. 6 m high and 3.7 m wide
a. Collecting tank/holding
b. Digester/biodigester/bio- 76. Mixture of gas (composed of 50 to 70
reactor/anaerobic percent methane and 30 to 40 percent carbon
c. Gasholder retainer dioxide) produced by methanogenic bacteria.
d. Gas chamber
a. Biogas
69. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for b. Methanogens
Broiler Production: What is the recommended c. Primary treatment
brooding temperature for 14 – 21 days age d. Effluent
of chicks?
77. Amount of slurry fed per unit volume of
a. 32C – 35C digester capacity per day.
b. 29C – 32C
c. 27C – 29C a. Loading rate
d. provide heat only when necessary b. Gas production rate
c. Retention time
70. Serves as conveyor where the effluent d. Collecting time
or the slurry is forced out.
78. Biogas: The gas chamber shall be
a. Outlet pipe capable of withstanding an internal
b. Filling line pressure of ____.
c. Freeboard
d. Inlet pipe a. 0.10 bar
b. 0.15 bar
c. 0.20 bar
d. 0.25 bar
66 | P a g e
79. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for a. Clean runoff
Broiler Production: What is the recommended b. Disinfection
brooding temperature for 1 – 7 days age of c. Primary treatment
chicks? d. Secondary treatment
a. 32C – 35C 87. Liquid waste, partially or completely

b. 29C – 32C treated, flowing out of a reservoir, basin,
c. 27C – 29C or wastewater treatment plant.
d. provide heat only when necessary
a. Primary treatment
80. PAES 414-1:2002 agricultural structures b. Effluent
c. Mesophilic temperature rage
a. Waste management structures part 1: d. Influent
agricultural liquid waste
b. Waste management structures part 2 – 88. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for
agricultural solid waste composting Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor
c. Primary processing plant for fresh space requirement for cows in maternity
fruit and vegetable stall?
d. Biogas plant
a. 7 m2/animal
81. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. 10 m2/animal
Swine Production: What is the recommended c. 5 m2/animal
lighting intensity for breeding, gestation d. 6 m2/animal
and farrowing?
89. Rainfall containing animal manure.
b. 100 lux (lumen/m2) a. Lot runoff
c. 150 lux (lumen/m2) b. Effluent
d. 200 lux (lumen/m2) c. Influent
d. Lot manure
Broiler Production: What is the maximum 90. PAES 414-2:2002 Waste Management
width of the pen? Structures Part 2: Agricultural solid waste
– Composting: What is the recommended ph in
a. 8 m - 10 m the compost mixture?
b. 10 m - 12 m
c. 15 m - 20 m a. 5.5 – 8.0
d. 12 m - 15 m b. 6.5 – 8.0
c. 7.5 – 8.0
83. Presence of free oxygen is not d. 8.5 – 5.5
required.
91. Accumulated moist animal excrement that
a. Aerobic does not undergo decomposition or drying;
b. Anaerobic it includes feces and urine which may be
c. Dissolved solids mixed with bedding material, spilled feed
d. Fixed solids or soil.
84. Not contaminated with manure such as a. Lot runoff

runoff from roofs, grassed areas, drives b. Effluent
and other areas which are not animal c. Influent
alleys. d. Manure
a. Clean runoff 92. Capable of causing diseases.

b. Disinfection
c. Dissolved solids a. Substrate
d. Fixed solids b. Pathogenic microorganism
c. Slurry
85. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for d. Influent
Broiler Production: What is the recommended
brooding temperature for 8 – 14 days age of 93. That causes substances in liquid waste
chicks? to readily settle or float.
a. 32C – 35C a. Secondary treatment

b. 29C – 32C b. Primary treatment
c. 27C – 29C c. Effluent
d. provide heat only when necessary d. Influent
86. Process of killing all pathogenic 94. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for
microorganisms. Layer Production: What is the minimum floor
67 | P a g e
elevation from the ground? And the posts
should have a diameter of at least 200 mm.
a.
b.
1200 mm
500 mm
EXAM 11
c. 900 mm
d. 1500 mm
1. Based on PAES 405:2001 Cattle Feedlot:
What is the required dimension of the pen?
Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the a. 1.0 m – 3.5 m high
space requirement for loose type large b. 1.2 m – 1.5 m high
animals? c. 1.5 m – 1.5 m high
d. 2.0 m – 2.5 m high
b. 2.30 m2 per animal
d. 3.23 m2 per animal
space requirement for adult pigs in groups?
96. Used to convert dissolved or suspended
a. 1.5 m2/animal
materials into a form more readily
b. 2.7m2/animal
separated from the liquid waste being
c. 3.5 m2/animal
treated.
d. 2.50 m2/animal
a. Secondary treatment
3. Consists of liquid waste and slurry
b. Primary treatment
resulting from the production of livestock
c. Effluent
and poultry; and processing of crops,
d. Influent
livestock and poultry.
a. Agricultural solid waste
b. Toxic materials
recommended primary walkway?
c. Hazardous waste
d. Agricultural liquid waste
a. 1.5 m
b. 2.5 m 4. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural
c. 1.0 m Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage
d. 1.2 m of Grains: What is the optimum recommended
stack height for Wheat, barley and Maize?
98. Pit in the ground where liquid waste is
stored to produce a higher quality a. 18 layers
effluent.
b. 16 layers
c. 20 layers
a. Lagoon
d. 14 layers
b. Disposal site
c. Holding pond
d. Facultative lagoons
5. PAES 414-2:2002 agricultural structures
99. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and
a. Waste management structures part 1:
Vegetable Storage: What is the maximum
agricultural liquid waste
depth of pile for pumpkins and squash?
b. Waste management structures part 2 –
agricultural solid waste composting
a. 0.6 - 1 meters
c. Primary processing plant for fresh
b. 0.6 - 2 meters
fruit and vegetable
c. 0.6 - 3 meters
d. Biogas plant
d. 0.6 - 4 meters
6. Wastes resulting from the production and
100. Requires free oxygen.
processing of crops and animals or
agricultural products, including manures
a. Aerobic
with at least 20% solids, pruning and crop
b. Anaerobic residues wherever produced.
c. Dissolved solids
d. Fixed solids a. Agricultural solid waste
b. Toxic materials
c. Hazardous waste

of Grains: What is the size of the entrance
for normal temperature warehouse?
68 | P a g e
a. 6 meters wide and 4 meters high 15. Process where fungi digest the carbons
b. 5 meters wide and 4 meters high not degraded during composting and further
c. 4 meters wide and 4 meters high stabilizes the nutrients.
d. 8 meters wide and 4 meters high
a. Curing
8. Any item used to improve the compost b. Asepsis
structure and to increase porosity to allow c. Culture medium
internal air movement. d. Sterilization
a. Methanogens 16. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for

b. Agent Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum roof
c. Compost mix slope for adequate ventilation?
d. Bulking agent a. 25%
b. 30%
9. Weight ratio of carbon to nitrogen c. 58%
a. N:c ratio d. 45%
b. C:N ratio
c. Co:N ratio 17. Site where solid waste is finally
d. C:No ratio discharged and deposited.
a. Lagoon
10. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and b. Disposal site
Vegetable Storage: What is the average bulk c. Holding pond
density for pumpkins and squash? d. Facultative lagoons
a. 600 kg/m3 18. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for

b. 700 kg/m3 Broiler Production: What is the floor space
c. 500 kg/m3 requirement for broiler above 4 weeks old?
d. 400 kg/m3
a. 6.50 m2/100 birds
11. Controlled decomposition of organic b. 8.50 m2/100 birds
matter by micro-organisms, mainly bacteria c. 10.50 m2/100 birds
and fungi, into a humus-like product. d. 12.50 m2/100 birds
a. Composting amendment 19. Prevents excess solar radiation in the

b. Grit greenhouse.
c. Windrow composting a. Cooling
d. Composting b. Heating
c. Shading
12. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for d. Ventilation
Broiler Production: What is the minimum
floor elevation from the ground? And the 20. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and
posts should have a diameter of at least Vegetable Storage: What is the average bulk
200 mm. density for onions?
a. 600 kg/m3
a. 900 mm b. 650 kg/m3
b. 1200 mm c. 750 kg/m3
c. 500 mm d. 950 kg/m3
d. 1500 mm
21. Process of exchanging air inside the
13. Any item added to the compost mixture greenhouse with outside air to control
that alters the moisture content, C:N temperature, humidity, oxygen or carbon
ratio, or ph. dioxide levels.
a. Composting amendment a. Cooling

b. Grit b. Heating
c. Windrow composting c. Shading
d. Composting d. Ventilation
14. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural 22. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
of Grains: What is the Optimum recommended the minimum distance away from the bank if
stack height in meters for paddy. located near a river, stream, or lake?
a. 4.27 a. 10 meters
b. 5.57 b. 200 meters
c. 4.57 c. 100 meters
d. 3.27 d. 20 meters
23. Greenhouse using fans.
69 | P a g e
a. Heating 31. Growth of protoplasts, cells, tissues,
b. Shading shoot tips, roots, anthers, embryos,
c. Natural ventilation flowers and meristems in a laboratory
d. Mechanical ventilation medium.
24. Based on PAES 415:2001 Greenhouses: If a. Incubation

the walkway will be used only as a place to b. Asepsis
stand while servicing the benches, a c. Greenhouse
minimum of how many meter aisles shall be d. Tissue culture
used for indeterminate crops?
32. Any nutrient material prepared for the
a. 0.30 growth and cultivation plant tissue.
b. 0.50
c. 0.80 a. Incubation
d. 1.0 b. Asepsis
c. Culture medium
25. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for d. Sterilization
height of pen partition for boar? 33. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
a. 0.80 meters the required illumination for stunning
b. 0.90 meters area?
c. 1.00 meters
d. 1.20 meters a. 120 lux
b. 220 lux
26. If the walkway will be used only as a c. 200 lux
place to stand while servicing the benches, d. 250 lux
a minimum of ____aisle shall be used for
determinate crops and a minimum of 34. Process of making any material entirely
____aisle for indeterminate crops. free from living microorganism.
a. 0.10 m; 0.80 m a. Sterilization

b. 0.20 m; 0.80 m b. Disinfection
c. 0.30 m; 0.80 m c. Incubation
d. 0.40 m; 0.80 m d. Asepsis
27. Larger greenhouses often have 35. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for
____secondary aisle and ____primary aisle. Layer Production: What is the minimum roof
slope for adequate ventilation?
a. 0.60 m - 0.90 m; 1.0 m - 1.8 m
b. 0.60 m - 0.90 m; 1.2 m - 1.8 m a. 25%
c. 0.80 m - 0.90 m; 1.2 m - 1.8 m b. 30%
d. 1.0m - 0.90 m; 1.2 m - 1.8 m c. 58%
d. 45%
28. PAES 416:2002 Agricultural Structures
a. Cattle Feedlot 36. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for
b. Plant tissue culture laboratory Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor
c. Greenhouses space requirement for calves (7 months –
d. Fruit and Vegetable Storage one year)?
29. Condition that describes the freedom of a. 3 m2/animal

plant materials, culture medium, confines b. 4 m2/animal
of the culture vessel from contaminating c. 1 m2/animal
microorganisms. d. 2 m2/animal
a. Incubation
b. Asepsis 37. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for
c. Greenhouse Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum roof
d. Tissue culture slope for roofing made of indigenous
materials?
Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage a. 30%
of Grains: What is the Optimum recommended b. 45%
stack height in meters for Wheat, barley c. 58%
and maize? 4.57 d. 25%
a. 4.27
b. 5.57 38. Air currents in which air currents do
c. 4.57 not intermingle.
d. 3.27
a. Cooling
b. Heating
70 | P a g e
c. Laminar flow space requirement for heifer/steer (2 – 3
d. Ventilation years)?
39. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse a. 6 m2/animal

for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is b. 7 m2/animal
the illumination required in the cutting c. 5 m2/animal
and boning area? d. 10 m2/animal
a. 220 lux 47. Process of classifying into sizes

b. 540 lux according to criteria that may or may not
c. 740 lux be recognized or accepted by the industry.
d. 110 lux
a. Sorting
40. Individual divisions in a carton formed b. Sizing
by fiberboard dividers, each cell to c. Primary processing
contain one fruit. d. Grading
a. Pallet bin storage 48. Based on PAES 412:2002 Poultry Dressing

b. Air cooled Plant: What is the minimum lighting
c. Drip cooler intensity for General Operating area?
d. Cell pack
a. 100 lux (Lumen/m2)
41. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. 300 lux (Lumen/m2)
Swine Production: What is the minimum c. 200 lux (Lumen/m2)
recommended space requirement for gilts up d. 500 lux (Lumen/m2)
to mating?
49. Process of classifying into groups
a. 1.0 m2/animal designated by the person classifying the
b. 2.5 m2/animal produce either according to a set of
c. 3.5 m2/animal criteria or whatever criteria he may set.
d. 4.5 m2/animal
a. Sorting
42. Cartons in which the cover is separate b. Sizing
and fits snugly over the bottom part. c. Primary processing
d. Grading
a. Fumigation
b. Burlap 50. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural
c. Aeration Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage
d. Telescopic cartons of Grains: What is the minimum requirement
for illumination?
43. Product handling which include steps to a. 3 watts per square meter
make a harvested commodity more suitable b. 5 watts per square meter
for manufacturers or consumers c. 10 watts per square meter
a. Sorting d. 25 watts per square meter
b. Sizing
c. Primary processing
d. Grading 51. Process of determining whether the
grade standards have been interpreted or
44. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and enforced properly by inspecting random
Vegetable Storage: What is the maximum samples usually of predetermined amount
depth of pile for potatoes? large enough to give an indication of the
correctness of the grading procedure.
a. 4.2 - 6 meters
b. 3.2 - 5 meters a. Fumigation
c. 2.2 - 4 meters b. Burlap
d. 1.2 - 3 meters c. Inspection
d. Grading
45. Process of classifying into groups
according to a set of recognized criteria 52. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
of quality and size, each group bearing an for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
accepted name and size grouping. the minimum distance between the site
location and building used for human
a. Sorting habitation, factory, public road or public
b. Sizing place?
c. Primary processing
d. Grading a. 200 meters
b. 400 meters
46. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for c. 600 meters
Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor d. 800 meters
71 | P a g e
53. Process to ensure adequate protection of the other over malathion sprayed wooden
and safe delivery of a product from the pallets.
producer to the ultimate consumer.
a. Chinese method
a. Sorting b. Japanese method
b. Sizing c. Philippine method
c. Primary processing d. PAES method
d. Packaging
60. Warehouse for Bagged Storage of Grains:
54. Based on PAES 412:2002 Poultry Dressing Space between piles shall be ____wide.
Plant: What is the minimum lighting
intensity for working table operating area a. 0.5 meter wide
with? b. 0.6 meter wide
c. 0.8 meter wide
a. 500 lux (Lumen/m2) d. 1 meter wide
b. 100 lux (Lumen/m2)
c. 200 lux (Lumen/m2) 61. Based on PAES 415:2001 Greenhouses:
d. 300 lux (Lumen/m2) Framing shall be able to withstand maximum
wind gusts of…
55. PAES 419:2000 Agricultural Structures.
a. 150 km/hr
a. Cattle Feedlot b. 250 km/hr
b. Warehouse for Bagged Storage of c. 350 km/hr
grains d. 200 km/hr
d. Milking parlor 62. Based on PAES 405:2001 Cattle Feedlot:
What is the minimum space requirement for
56. Bagged grains with moisture content of feeding?
more than 14% are piled in this method.
This system of stacking provides a. 150 mm/animal
ventilation space between bags and allows b. 350 mm/animal
circulation of convective air currents that c. 550 mm/animal
provide a medium for heat dissipation. d. 750 mm/animal
a. Chinese method 63. PAES 420:2002 Agricultural Structures.

b. Japanese method
c. Philippine method a. Greenhouses
d. PAES method b. Fruit and Vegetable Storage
c. Farm workshop and Machinery Shed.
57. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for d. Carabao Feedlot
Swine Production: What type of roof is the
figure below? 64. Building for fabrication, repair and
maintenance of tools, implements,
equipments and parts of structures and
provides a place where tools, supplies and
spare parts are stored.
a. Workshop
b. Machinery shed
c. Farm workshop
d. AOTA
a. Semi span 65. Area to protect machinery from weather,
b. Semi shed theft, vandalism and to allow easy
c. Semi monitor maintenance and adjustment of machines.
d. Shed
a. Workshop
58. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag b. Machinery shed
Type Storage of Grains: Recommended c. Farm workshop
dimensions of warehouse with 100,000 bags d. AOTA
(1 bag = 50kg)
66. Substances on farms that is highly
a. 10 m x 28 m flammable or poisonous.
b. 20 m x 48 m
c. 25 m x 78 m a. Agricultural solid waste
d. 75 m x 142 m b. Toxic materials
c. Hazardous materials
59. Bagged grains with 14% moisture content
or lower could be piled in Chinese method.
Sacks are piled side by side and one on top
72 | P a g e
67. Refers to a male breeding swine which
is at least 8 months old. 75. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for
a. Finisher recommended space requirement for swine 81
b. Boar - 100 kg?
c. Buck
d. Ram a. 1.85 m2/animal
b. 2.85 m2/animal
68. Based on PAES 410:2000 Lairage for c. 0.80 m2/animal
Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the d. 0.85 m2/animal
illumination required within the lairage?
76. Act of giving birth in swine.
a. 110 lux
b. 210 lux a. Kidding
c. 120 lux b. Breeding
d. 220 lux c. Farrowing
d. Faoling
69. Swine from 40 to 65 kg.
77. Piglet that has been recently separated
a. Finisher from its mother.
b. Grower
c. Buck a. Weaner/weanling
d. Litter b. Litter
c. Fattener
70. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural d. Grower
of Grains: What is the minimum height of 78. The sows are removed when the piglets
the interior between the beam and floor for reach weaning age. The pigs remain in the
normal temperature warehouse? same building from farrowing until they
reach the desired weight for slaughtering.
a. 5 meters
b. 6 meters a. 1-unit system
c. 1.0 meters b. 3-unit system
d. 8 meters c. 4-unit system
d. 2-unit system
71. Floor shall be skid-resistant with
____slope towards a gutter or drainage 79. Area in which a sow is confined during
canal and the direction of the slope shall farrowing and lactation periods, but in
be away from the feeding trough. which the sow can turn around.
a. 1% - 3 % a. Creep area
b. 2% - 3 % b. Enclosed housing
c. 2% - 4 % c. Farrowing stall/farrowing
d. 3% - 4 % d. Farrowing pen
72. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for 80. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
Swine Production: What is the recommended Type Storage of Grains: Recommended
lighting intensity for growing and dimensions of warehouse with 30,000 bags (1
finishing? bag = 50kg)
a. 50 lux (lumen/m2) a. 10 m x 28 m
b. 100 lux (lumen/m2) b. 16 m x 48 m
c. 150 lux (lumen/m2) c. 75 m x 142 m
d. 200 lux (lumen/m2) d. 20 m x 48 m
73. Number of days an animal stays in a 81. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:
pen. What is the C/N ratio content for Hog dung?
a. Creep area Occupancy a. 13.7

b. Occupancy b. 23.1
c. Farrowing gestation c. 19.9
d. Farrowing days d. 9.65
74. Any breeding female pig that has 82. Mature female goat that has kidded.
farrowed.
a. Finisher
a. Finisher b. Ewe
b. Ewe c. Sow
c. Doe d. Doe
d. Sow
73 | P a g e
83. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for b. Bullcalf
Dairy Cattle: What is the required lighting c. Stallion
intensity for the pens? d. Colt
a. 50 lux 92. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse

b. 70 lux for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
c. 90 lux the illumination required in the gut
d. 100 lux room/tripery?
84. Doe without milk. a. 740 lux

b. 110 lux
a. Finisher c. 220 lux
b. Ewe d. 540 lux
c. Sow
d. Doe 93. Cattle mature female that has already
calved.
85. Based on PAES 412:2002 Poultry Dressing
Plant: What is the minimum lighting a. Cow
intensity for holding area? b. Heifer
c. Lamb
a. 300 lux (Lumen/m2) d. Carabao
c. 100 lux (Lumen/m2) 94. Based on PAES 409:2002 Milking Parlor:
d. 200 lux (Lumen/m2) What is the minimum width of the door?
86. Young goat under six months old of a. 0.5 m

either sex. b. 1.5 m
a. Litter c. 2.0 m
b. Kid d. 2.5 m
c. Lamb
d. Calf 95. PAES 406:2001 Agricultural Structures
87. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for a. Housing for Dairy Cattle
Layer Production: What is the required b. Cattle ranch
lighting intensity for the housing? c. Cattle Feedlot
d. Plant tissue culture laboratory
a. 150 lux
b. 200 lux 96. Area provided to accommodate animals
c. 300 lux before milking.
d. 400 lux
a. Holding area
88. Based on PAES 406:2001 Cattle Ranch: b. Holding pen
What is the fence height for Brahman cross c. Crowding pen
and exotics breeds? d. Holding pen
a. 2.0 m 97. Type of stall where animals must back

b. 0.8 m up to exit the stall.
c. 1.5 m
d. 1.7 m –1.8 m a. Walk-through
b. Cut- through stall
89. PAES 405:2001 Agricultural Structures. c. Back-out stall
d. Farrowing stall
a. Cattle Feedlot
b. Warehouse for Bagged Storage of 98. PAES 410:2000 Agricultural Structures
d. Milking parlor a. Waste Management Structures Part 1:
Agricultural liquid waste
90. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. Waste management structures part 2 –
Swine Production: What is the minimum agricultural solid waste composting
recommended space requirement for lactating c. Slaughterhouse for Swine, Small and
sows and litters: multi-suckling groups? Large Animals
d. Lairage for Swine, Small and Large
a. 3.15 m2/animal Animals
b. 2.5 m2/animal
c. 4.15 m2/animal 99. Any building or place used for killing
d. 5.6 m2/animal of animals where the flesh is intended for
human consumption.
91. Cattle breeding male of any age.
a. Slaughterhouse
a. Bull b. Lairage
74 | P a g e
EXAM 12
c. Milking parlor
d. “AAAA” slaughterhouse

recommended primary walkway? 1. Refers to sheep, goat, and deer.
a. 1.5 m a. Medium animals

b. 2.5 m b. Lairage animals
c. 1.0 m c. Large animals
d. 1.2 m d. Small animals
2. Separate compartment in the lairage used

to confine sick or suspected animals.
a. Crowding pen
b. Stunning pen
c. Holding pen
d. Detention pen

of Grains: What is the recommended capacity
of warehouse (cavans) with dimensions of
75m x 142m?
a. 700,000
b. 400,000
c. 500,000
d. 600,000
4. Animals are free to move in a pen while

waiting to be slaughtered.
a. Loose pen
b. Loose type
c. Tie-up pen
d. Tie-up type
5. The site shall be located far from any

building used for human habitation, and
from any factory, public road or public
place at least ____and should be free from
dust, odor, smoke, and other contaminants.
a. 100 meters
b. 200 meters
c. 300 meters
d. 250 meters
6. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:

What is the C/N ratio content for Carabao
dung?
a. 13.7
b. 23.1
c. 19.9
d. 9.65

space requirement for dry sows?
a. 1.5 m2/animal
b. 3.5 m2/animal
c. 1.15 m2/animal
d. 1.8 m2/animal
8. Edible part of the muscle of cattle,

sheep, goats or swine.
75 | P a g e
d. 100C
a. Meat
b. Black offal 16. Based on PAES 408:2001 Carabao Feedlot:
c. Offal What is the minimum space requirement?
d. Carcass
a. 2 m2/animal
9. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for b. 4 m2/animal
Broiler Production: What is the feeder c. 6 m2/animal
length requirement for above 4 weeks old d. 5 m2/animal
age of chicks?
17. Cleaning the carcass by burning the
a. 4 linear m/100 birds hair.
b. 7.5 linear m/100 birds
c. 2.5 linear m/100 birds a. Dressing
d. NOTA b. Bleeding
c. Pithing
10. Part of internal organs of a d. Singeing
slaughtered animal.
a. Offal 18. Based on PAES 410:2000 Lairage for

b. Carcass Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the
c. Black offal space requirement for small animals?
d. Green offal
11. Digestive tract of ruminants such as b. 1.56 m2 per animal
the stomach, or the intestines which still c. 0.16 m2 per animal
contain fecal matter. d. 1.86 m2 per animal
a. Meat 19. Trough that collects the waste from a

b. Offal larger area and directs the flow to a drain
c. Black offal opening.
d. Green offal
a. Trench drain
12. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. Drainage
Swine Production: What is the minimum c. Waste collector
recommended space requirement for swine 61 d. AOTA
- 80 kg?
a. 1.5 m2/animal What is the required lighting intensity for
b. 0.5 m2/animal the housing?
c. 0.55 m2/animal
d. 0.7 m2/animal a. 150 lux
b. 300 lux
c. 400 lux
13. Digestive tract of swine such as the d. 200 lux
stomach, or the intestines which still
contain fecal matter. 21. PAES 413:2001 Agricultural Structures
a. Offal a. Biogas plant

b. Black offal b. Slaughterhouse for Swine, Small and
c. Green offal Large Animals
d. Detained meat c. Lairage for Swine, Small and Large
Animals
14. If located near a river, stream, or d. Farm workshop and Machinery Shed
lake, the slaughterhouse shall be at least
____away from the bank. 22. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for
Broiler Production: What is the minimum
a. 10 meters aisles and walkways between doors and
b. 20 meters walls?
c. 30 meters
d. 40 meters a. 0.5 m wide
b. 1 m wide
15. Boiler room shall be provided for c. 1.5 m wide
supplying hot water with temperature of d. 2.0 m wide
____It should be equipped with heating
facilities. 23. Organic material used to produce
biogas.
a. 80C
b. 40C a. Litter
c. 70C b. Substrate
76 | P a g e
c. Sludge c. 3 m
d. Slurry d. 1.5 m
24. Based on PAES 402:2001 Housing for 31. Average period that a given quantity of
Broiler Production: What is the waterer slurry is retained in the digester for
length requirement for above 4 weeks old digestion.
age of chicks?
a. Loading rate
a. 4 linear m/100 birds b. Gas production rate
b. 7.5 linear m/100 birds c. Retention time
c. 2.5 linear m/100 birds d. Collecting time
d. NOTA
32. That inhibits the normal growth of
25. Balloon type digester volume is ____of pathogens in the digester such as mineral
the total digester volume is occupied by ions, heavy metals and detergents.
the slurry.
a. Toxic materials
a. 20% b. Hazardous waste
b. 40% c. Effluent
c. 60% d. Influent
d. 80%
33. Digester and gas chamber form separate
26. Used to process animal wastes or manure units.
to produce biogas and sludge consisting of
an inlet/mixing tank, digester, gas chamber a. Multi-digester plant
and outlet/sludge tank. b. Split-type plant
c. Biogas plant
a. Multi-digester plant d. Gas holder plant
b. Split-type plant
c. Biogas plant 34. Series of digesters.
d. Gas holder plant
a. Multi-digester plant
27. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. Split-type plant
Swine Production: What type of roof is the c. Biogas plant
figure below? d. Gas holder plant

of Grains: What is the recommended capacity
of warehouse (cavans) with dimensions of
25m x 78m?
a. 300,000
b. 400,000
a. Double span
c. 100,000
b. Semi monitor
d. 200,000
c. Semi shed
d. Monitor
36. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:
What is the minimum diameter of the inlet
28. Recommended dimensions of warehouse
pipe?
with 50,000 cavans is ____
a. 0.2 m
a. 10 m x 28 m
b. 0.5 m
b. 20 m x 48 m
c. 0.4 m
c. 25 m x 78 m
d. 0.1 m
d. 75 m x 142 m
37. Plant consisting of digester and a
29. Level of slurry when the digesters are
moving, floating gasholder that either
at full load.
float directly in the fermenting slurry or
in a separate water jacket.
a. Outlet pipe
b. Filling line
a. Floating type
c. Freeboard
b. Fixed type
d. Inlet pipe
c. Balloon type
d. Lagoon type
38. Closed digester with an immovable,
the minimum ceiling height from the floor?
rigid gas chamber and a displacement pit.
a. 1 m
a. Floating type
b. 2 m
77 | P a g e
b. Fixed type 46. Based on PAES 415:2001 Greenhouses:
c. Balloon type What is the maximum length of the
d. Lagoon type greenhouse?
a. 50 m
39. Tank chamber where manure and water are b. 25 m
collected, stored and separated from heavy c. 12 m
and non-biodegradable materials before d. 100 ft
feeding them into the digester.
47. Residue remaining after water is
a. Collecting tank/holding removed from waste material by evaporation.
b. Digester/biodigester/bio-
reactor/anaerobic a. Volatile solids
c. Gas production rate b. Total solids
d. Gas chamber c. Dissolved solids
d. Fixed solids
Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor 48. Part of total solids driven off as
space requirement for calves (3 - 6 volatile gases when heated to 600C.
months)?
a. Volatile solids
a. 2 m2/animal b. Total solids
b. 3 m2/animal c. Dissolved solids
c. 1 m2/animal d. Fixed solids
d. 4 m2/animal
49. Based on PAES 416:2002 Plant Tissue
41. Reactor any water and air tight Culture Laboratory: What is the minimum
container designed for the process of width for main doorways to allow easier
anaerobic microbiological degradation of movement of large equipments?
organic matter into which the slurry is
introduced for digestion and methanization. a. 1.5 m
b. 2.0 m
a. Collecting tank/holding c. 1.0 m
b. Digester/biodigester/bio- d. 2.5 m
reactor/anaerobic
c. Gas production rate 50. Part of total solids remaining after
d. Gas chamber volatile gases driven off at 600C.
42. Division in the digester that prevent a. Total solids

the slurry from premature exit into the b. Suspended solids
sludge/outlet tank. c. Dissolved solids
d. Fixed solids
a. Filling board
b. Baffle board 51. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for
c. Freeboard Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor
d. Inlet pipe space requirement for calves (up to 3
months)?
Swine Production: What is the minimum a. 1 m2/animal
recommended space requirement for swine 41 b. 2 m2/animal
- 60 kg? c. 3 m2/animal
d. 4 m2/animal
a. 0.5 m2/animal
b. 1.5 m2/animal 52. Non-biodegradable component of liquid
c. 2.5 m2/animal waste composed of sand, gravel, cinders or
d. 0.15 m2/animal other heavy solid materials.
44. Watery mixture of insoluble solid. a. Storage

b. Grit
a. Litter c. Windrow composting
b. Substrate d. Composting
c. Sludge
d. Slurry 53. Storage where liquid waste is stored
before final disposal.
45. Solids removed by filtration.
a. Lagoon
a. Total solids b. Disposal site
b. Suspended solids c. Holding pond
c. Dissolved solids d. Facultative lagoons
d. Fixed solids
78 | P a g e
54. Solid waste or combination of solid 60. Based on PAES 414-2:2002 Waste
waste which because of its quantity, Management Structures Part 2: Agricultural
concentration, or physical, chemical or solid waste – Composting: How many percent
infectious characteristics may: cause, or of moisture content should be maintained to
significantly contribute to an increase in nourish the composting bacteria?
mortality or an increase in serious
irreversible or incapacitating reversible, a. 10% - 20%
illness. b. 20% - 30%
c. 40% - 90%
a. Agricultural solid waste d. 50% - 60%
b. Toxic materials
c. Hazardous waste 61. PAES 415:2001 Agricultural Structures.
a. Cattle Feedlot
55. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for b. Plant tissue culture laboratory
Swine Production: What type of roof is the c. Greenhouses
figure below? d. Fruit and Vegetable Storage
62. Structure that provide a reliable

enclosure within which an environment
favorable to plant growth can be attained.
a. Shading
b. Greenhouse
c. Tissue culture
a. Semi span d. Ventilation
b. Semi shed
c. Semi monitor 63. Based on PAES 415:2001 Greenhouses: If
d. Shed the walkway will be used only as a place to
stand while servicing the benches, a
minimum of how many meter aisles shall be
56. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant: used for determinate crops?
What is the C/N ratio content for Chicken
dung? a. 0.30
b. 0.80
a. 13.7 c. 1.0
b. 23.1 d. 0.50
c. 19.9
d. 9.65 64. Removal of heat from the interior of
the greenhouse.
57. Based on PAES 414-1:2002 Waste a. Heating
Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural b. Ventilation
Liquid Waste, what is the scrape alley for c. Mechanical ventilation
dairy and beef cattle? d. Cooling
a. 1 m - 2.5 m wide 65. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural

b. 1.5 m – 2.5 m wide Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage
c. 2 m - 2.5 m wide of Grains: What is the recommended capacity
d. 2.5 m - 4 m wide of warehouse (cavans) with dimensions of
20m x 48m?
58. Interim containment of solid waste
after generation and prior to collection a. 70,000
for ultimate recovery or disposal. b. 80,000
c. 50,000
a. Storage d. 60,000
b. Grit
c. Windrow composting 66. Plant tissue culture laboratory main
d. Composting doorways shall be at least ____wide to
allow easier movement of large equipment
59. Involves the arrangement of compost mix and facilities.
in long, narrow piles or windrows that are
periodically turned to maintain aerobic a. 1m
conditions. b. 0.8m
c. 1.2m
a. Composting amendment d. 1.5m
b. Composting mix
c. Windrow composting 67. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:
d. Composting What is the C/N ratio content for Rice
straw (air dry)?
79 | P a g e
a. 27.4 should withstand heavy loads like wind
b. 6.74 gusts of…
c. 56.6
d. 51 a. 150 km/hr
b. 250 km/hr
68. Plant tissue culture laboratory door c. 350 km/hr
for staff, storage and chemical rooms d. 200 km/hr
should be at least ____
76. Storage provided with good ventilation.
a. 1m
b. 0.8m a. Pallet bin storage
c. 1.2m b. Air cooled
d. 0.5m c. Drip cooler
d. Cell pack
69. PAES 417:2002 Agricultural Structures.
a. Warehouse for Bagged Storage of What is the minimum roof slope for adequate
Grains ventilation?
b. Plant tissue culture laboratory
c. Greenhouses a. 30%
d. Fruit and Vegetable Storage b. 58%
c. 25%
70. Produce is piled in room-sized bins, d. 45%
which exerts forces that must be resisted
by the building walls. 78. Recommended layers for wheat, barley
and maize
a. Bag storage a. 14 layers
b. Bulk storage b. 16 layers
c. Pallet bin storage c. 18 layers
d. Cell pack d. 20 layers
71. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for 79. Process of using chemicals to control
Dairy Cattle: What is the required lighting insects in grains in a form of fumes.
intensity for the feed storage area?
a. Fumigation
a. 50 lux b. Burlap
b. 30 lux c. Aeration
c. 40 lux d. Telescopic cartons
d. 20 lux
72. Produce is placed in boxes or pallet Swine Production: What is the minimum
bins which in turn are stacked in storage recommended space requirement for swine 21
room. - 40 kg?
a. Pallet a. 0.5 m2/animal

b. Bag storage b. 0.85m2/animal
c. Bulk storage c. 0.7 m2/animal
d. Pallet bin storage d. 0.35 m2/animal
73. Low portable platform made of wood or 81. Amount of moisture in the grain
metal or plastic or in combination to expressed as percentage of the total weight
facilitate handling, storage, or transport of the sample, wet basis.
of materials as a unit load using a
forklift. a. Moisture content wet basis
b. Moisture content dry basis
a. Pallet c. Moisture content
b. Bag storage d. AOTA
c. Bulk storage
d. Pallet bin storage 82. Warehouse for bagged storage of grains
a minimum of ____space between the edge of
74. Coarse cloth made of jute, flax or the pile and the wall shall be provided.
hemp.
a. 0.5 meter
a. Fumigation b. 0.6 meter
b. Burlap c. 0.8 meter
c. Inspection d. 1 meter
d. Grading
75. Based on PAES 415:2001 Greenhouses: It for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
should be durable as well as economical and
80 | P a g e
the minimum elevation of the site from the b. 20 m x 48 m
ground? c. 25 m x 78 m
d. 75 m x 142 m
a. 600 mm
b. 600 cm 90. Based on PAES 416:2002 Plant Tissue
c. 2 m Culture Laboratory: What is the minimum
d. 600 inches width of aisles and passage?
84. Recommended height for paddy & rice a. 2.0 m

____ b. 1.5 m
c. 1.0 m
a. 4.27 meters d. 2.5 m
b. 4.37 meters
c. 4.47 meters 91. Height of structure the height of the
d. 4.57 meters interior between the beam and floor is ____
(minimum) for normal temperature warehouse.
85. Moving of air through stored grains at
low airflow rates (generally between 0.07 – a. 4.0 meters
0.28 cubic meters per minute per ton) for b. 6.0 meters
purposes other than drying, to maintain or c. 8.0 meters
improve its quality. d. 10.0 meters
a. Fumigation 92. The warehouse minimum requirement for

b. Burlap illumination is ____
c. Aeration
d. Telescopic cartons a. 3 watts per square meter.
b. 5 watts per square meter.
86. Based on PAES 407:2001 Housing for c. 10 watts per square meter.
Dairy Cattle: What is the minimum floor d. 200 watts per square meter.
space requirement for yearlings (1 – 2
years)? 93. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural
a. 3 m2/animal of Grains: What is the recommended capacity
b. 1 m2/animal of warehouse (cavans) with dimensions of
c. 2 m2/animal 10m x 30m?
d. 4 m2/animal
a. 20,000
b. 30,000
87. Based on PAES 416:2002 Plant Tissue c. 10,000
Culture Laboratory: What is the general d. 40,000
recommended lighting intensity for tissue
culture laboratory? 94. Crate device in which a sow is confined
during farrowing and lactation periods and
a. 300 lux (Lumen/m2) which prevents sow from turning around.
c. 100 lux (Lumen/m2) a. Creep area
d. 200 lux (Lumen/m2) b. Enclosed housing
c. Farrowing stall/farrowing
88. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for d. Farrowing pen
Swine Production: What type of roof is the
figure below? 95. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and
Vegetable Storage: What is the average bulk
density for potatoes?
a. 670 kg/m3
b. 570 kg/m3
c. 470 kg/m3
d. 370 kg/m3
96. Type of flooring with openings to

a. Semi shed facilitate cleaning of the droppings.
b. Double span
c. Monitor a. Litter
d. Semi monitor b. Slot-litter type
c. Slotted type
d. Litter type
89. Recommended dimensions of warehouse
with 10,000 cavans is ____
a. 10 m x 30 m Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the
81 | P a g e
EXAM 13
space requirement of the swine if the
weight is more than 100 kg?

b. 0.7 m2 per animal
1. Based on PAES 414-1:2002 Waste
Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural
d. 0.9 m2 per animal
Liquid Waste, what is the scrape alley for
swine and poultry?
98. Based on PAES 418:2002 Primary
Processing Plant for Fresh Fruit and
a. 1 m - 2.5 m wide
Vegetable: The doors shall have a minimum
b. 1.5 m – 2.5 m wide
width of…
c. 2 m - 2.5 m wide
a. 1.5 m d. 2.5 m - 4 m wide
b. 2.5 m
c. 3.5 m 2. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural
d. 4.5 m Structures – Warehouse for Bagged Storage
of Grains: What is the minimum space
99. Swine which are 66 kg and up. between the edge of the pile and the wall?
a. 0.5 meter
a. Finisher
b. 0.6 meter
b. Grower
c. 1.0 meter
c. Buck
d. 0.8 meter
d. Gilt
100. Used to funnel cattle into the working
Production: What is the recommended
chute.
lighting intensity for nurseries?
a. Holding area
b. Corral
b. 100 lux (lumen/m2)
c. Crowding pen
c. 150 lux (lumen/m2)
d. Holding pen
d. 200 lux (lumen/m2)
4. PAES 402:2001 agricultural structures

a. Housing for goat and sheep
b. Housing for layer production
c. Housing for broiler production
d. Housing for swine production
5. Use to restrain animals.
a. Holding pen
b. Milking parlor
c. Holding chute/squeeze
d. Holding pen
6. House wherein inside conditions are

maintained as near as possible to the
bird’s optimum requirements with the use of
mechanical ventilation and artificial
lighting.
a. Enclosed housing
b. Housing for broiler production
c. Loose housing
d. Open-sided housing
7. One to two year old cattle of either

sex.
a. Cow
b. Heifer
c. Lamb
d. Yearling
8. PAES 403:2001 agricultural structures
a. Housing for goat and sheep

b. Housing for layer production
c. Housing for broiler production
82 | P a g e
d. Housing for swine production
9. Area with its physical facilities used Swine Production: What is the minimum
for carabao fattening. recommended space requirement for swine 11
- 20 kg?
a. Loading area
b. Working area a. 0.20 m2/animal
c. Holding area b. 0.40 m2/animal
d. Feedlot c. 0.60 m2/animal
d. 0.80 m2/animal
Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural 17. Pen for confining animals from the
Liquid Waste, what is the recommended pasture.
Sludge accumulation ratio (SAR) for Cattle?
a. Loading chute
a. 0.1295 b. Working chute
b. 0.0485 c. Holding area
c. 0.0729 d. Holding pen
d. 0.0529
18. PAES 414-2:2002 Waste Management
11. Carabao feedlot the minimum space Structures Part 2: Agricultural solid waste
requirement shall be ____ – Composting: For aerobic conditions how
many percent of oxygen shall the composting
a. 4 m2/animal mass with adequate ventilation is provided?
b. 6 m2/animal
c. 8 m2/animal a. At least 5% oxygen
d. 5 m2/animal b. At least 5% methane
c. At least 5% carbon dioxide
12. Compartment which is suitable for d. NOTA
confining only one animal at a time while
it is being stunned and which is so 19. A slaughterhouse with facilities and
constructed as to confine, without operational procedures to serve any market.
discomfort, to prevent any substantial
movement of the animal forward, backward or a. “A” slaughterhouse
sideway. b. “AA” slaughterhouse
c. “AAA” slaughterhouse
a. Crowding pen d. “AAAA” slaughterhouse
b. Stunning pen
c. Holding pen
d. Detention pen 20. Based on PAES 410:2000 Lairage for
Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the
13. Building or a portion of building where space requirement for tie-up type large
milking occurs but where no animals are animals?
housed.
a. Slaughterhouse b. 2.30 m2 per animal
b. Lairage c. 3.30 m2 per animal
c. Milking parlor d. 3.23 m2 per animal
d. “AAAA” slaughterhouse
14. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant: Swine Production: What is the minimum
What is the C/N ratio content for Corn height of pen partition under 25 kg?
stalks (air dry)?
a. 0.60 meters
a. 27.4 b. 0.70 meters
b. 6.74 c. 0.80 meters
c. 56.6 d. 0.90 meters
d. 51
15. Insertion of a rod or coiled wire Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is the
through the hole in the skull of cattle space requirement of the swine if the
made by the captive blot to destroy the weight is less than 100 kg?
brain and spinal cord to prevent reflex
muscular action and possible injury to a. 0.6 m2 per animal
operatives. b. 0.7 m2 per animal
a. Bleeding d. 0.9 m2 per animal
b. Pithing
c. Singeing
d. Stunning
83 | P a g e
23. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural d. 1/2
of Grains: What is the Optimum recommended 31. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for
stack height for Paddy? Layer Production: What is the minimum space
requirement for birds in cages?
a. 18 layers
b. 16 layers a. 2.5m2/100 birds
c. 20 layers b. 5m2/100 birds
d. 14 layers c. 3m2/100 birds
d. 3.5m2/100 birds
24. Type of stalls that allows the animals
to proceed directly forward after milking 32. Adding or introducing anaerobic
is completed. bacteria to the digester.
a. Walk-through a. Seeding
b. Cut- through stall b. Substrate
c. Back-out stall c. Sludge
d. Farrowing stall d. Slurry
25. Requiring further examination as 33. Plant consisting of a heat-sealed

declared by a veterinary inspector after plastic or rubber bag (balloon), combining
veterinary examination. digester and gasholder.
a. Black offal a. Floating type

b. Green offal b. Fixed type
c. Condemned meat c. Balloon type
d. Detained meat d. Lagoon type
26. PAES 414-2:2002 Waste Management 34. Based on PAES 414-1:2002 Waste
Structures Part 2: Agricultural solid waste Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural
– Composting: What is the typical Liquid Waste, what is the minimum
composting time for in-vessel? acceptable depth for anaerobic lagoons?
a. 7 – 30 days a. 1.8 m
b. 7 – 30 weeks b. 2.8 m
c. 5 – 10 days c. 3.8 m
d. 7 – 20 days d. 4.8 m
27. Biogas plant where the digester and gas 35. Precipitate resulting from coagulation
chamber form one unit. or sedimentation of liquid waste.
a. Multi-digester plant a. Litter

b. Split-type plant b. Substrate
c. Biogas plant c. Sludge
d. Integrated plant d. Slurry
28. Process of removing the internal organs 36. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
in the abdominal and thoracic cavities. for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is
the required water temperature in the
a. Splitting boiler room?
b. Dehairing
c. Evisceration a. 100oC
d. Stunning b. 80oC
c. 40oC
29. Based on PAES 419:2000 Agricultural d. 90oC
of Grains: What is the space between piles? 37. Shall refer to the liquid produced when
waste undergo decomposition, and when water
a. 0.5 meter percolate through solid waste undergoing
b. 0.6 meter decomposition; contaminated liquid that
c. 1.0 meter contains dissolved and suspended materials.
d. 0.8 meter
a. Leachate
30. BIOGAS: For fixed type, the volume of b. Toxic materials
the outlet tank shall be ____of digester c. Hazardous waste
volume occupied by the slurry. d. Agricultural liquid waste
a. 1/4 38. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:

b. 1/3 What is the C/N ratio content for Duck
c. 1/5 dung?
84 | P a g e
c. Ridge and furrow greenhouse/gutter
a. 27.4 connected
b. 6.74 d. Ventilation
c. 56.6
d. 51 46. Based on PAES 411:2000 Slaughterhouse
39. PAES 414-2:2002 Waste Management the illumination required in the inspection
Structures Part 2: Agricultural solid waste stations dressing area?
– Composting: What is the typical
composting time for windrow method? a. 740 lux
b. 110 lux
a. 4 months c. 220 lux
b. 4 weeks d. 540 lux
c. 4 days
d. 40 hrs 47. Recommended height for wheat, barley
and maize.
Management Structures Part 1: Agricultural a. 4.27 meters
Liquid Waste, what is the recommended b. 4.37 meters
Sludge accumulation ratio (SAR) for c. 4.47 meters
Poultry? d. 4.57 meters
a. 0.0295 48. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant:

b. 0.0485 What is the C/N ratio content for Cow dung?
c. 0.0779
d. 0.0529 a. 13.7
b. 23.1
41. Liquid that flows into a containing c. 19.9
space. d. 9.65
a. Methanogens 49. Addition of heat to the interior of the

b. Primary treatment greenhouse from any energy source including
c. Effluent the sun
d. Influent a. Cooling
b. Heating
42. Lagoons that can function as aerobic or c. Shading
anaerobic depending on the environment. d. Ventilation
a. Facultative lagoons 50. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for

b. 5-day bio-chemical oxygen demand Layer Production: What is the maximum width
(bod5 ) of the pen?
c. Lagoon
d. Holding pond a. 8 m - 10 m
b. 15 m - 20 m
43. PAES 414-2:2002 Waste Management c. 12 m - 15 m
Structures Part 2: Agricultural solid waste d. 10 m - 12 m
– Composting: What is the typical
composting time for aerated static in pile? 51. Sheep under six months of age.
a. 4 months a. Litter
b. 4 weeks b. Kid
c. 4 days c. Lamb
d. 40 hrs d. Calf
44. Based on PAES 417:2002 Fruit and 52. Based on PAES 401:2001 Housing for
Vegetable Storage: What is the maximum Swine Production: What is the minimum
depth of pile for onions? recommended space requirement for swine up
to 10 kg?
a. 1.6 - 3 meters
b. 3 - 3.6 meters a. 0.11 m2/animal
c. 2.6 - 3 meters b. 0.21 m2/animal
d. 2 - 3.6 meters c. 0.31 m2/animal
d. 0.41 m2/animal
45. Method of greenhouse construction where
modular roof units are connected at the 53. Refers to catlle and carabao.
eave by a common gutter.
a. Medium animals
a. Heating b. Lairage animals
b. Shading c. Large animals
d. Small animals
85 | P a g e
d. 20
for Swine, Small and Large Animals: What is 62. Based on PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse
the minimum width of the door? for Bag Type Storage of Grains: What is the
maximum stack height in meters for wheat,
a. 0.5 m barley and corn? 4.57
b. 1.5 m a. 5.57
c. 2.0 m b. 3.50
d. 2.5 m c. 4.57
d. 3.57
55. For large animals, the space
requirement for loose type should be 63. Based on PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse
____per animal and ____animal for tie-up for Bag Type Storage of Grains: What is the
type. maximum stack height in layers for paddy?
16
a. 2.33 m2; 3.32 m2 a. 14
b. 2.23 m2; 3.30 m2 b. 16
c. 2.30 m2; 1.30 m2 c. 20
d. 2.23 m2; 3.30 m2 d. 18
56. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant: 64. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
What is the C/N ratio content for Corn cobs Type Storage of Grains: What is the maximum
(air dry)? stack height in meters for paddy?
a. 49.9 a. 6
b. 31 b. 5
c. 56.6 c. 4
d. 51 d. 3
57. Recommended dimensions of warehouse 65. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
with 500,000 cavans is ____ Type Storage of Grains: What is the maximum
a. 10 m x 28 m stack height in layers for rice?
b. 20 m x 48 m
c. 25 m x 78 m a. 14
d. 75 m x 142 m b. 20
c. 18
58. Based on PAES 413:2001 Biogas Plant: d. 16
What is the C/N ratio content for Peanut
hulls (air dry)? 66. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
Type Storage of Grains: What is the maximum
a. 49.9 stack height in meters for rice?
b. 31
c. 56.6 a. 6.5
d. 51 b. 5.5
c. 4.5
59. Based on PAES 403:2001 Housing for d. 3.5
Layer Production: What is the minimum
required height for the fence? 67. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
Type Storage of Grains: What is the space
a. 1.0m between piles?
b. 1.5m
c. 0.5m a. 1 meter
d. 0.8m b. 0.5 meter
c. 0.6 meter
60. Based on PAES 406:2001 Cattle Ranch: d. 0.8 meter
What is the minimum fence height?
68. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag
a. 1.5 m Type Storage of Grains: What is the minimum
b. 1.7 m –1.8 m space between the edge of the pile and the
c. 2.0 m wall?
d. 0.8 m
a. 1 meter
61. Based on PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse b. 0.5 meter
for Bag Type Storage of Grains: What is the c. 0.6 meter
maximum stack height in layers for wheat, d. 0.8 meter
barley and corn?
a. 18 Type Storage of Grains: What is the
b. 16 capacity (number of bags) of warehouse with
c. 14 dimensions of 10 m x 30 m (1 bag = 50 kg)?
86 | P a g e
a. 10,000 Type Storage of Grains: What is the
b. 20,000 capacity (number of bags) of warehouse with
c. 30,000 dimensions of 25 m x 78 m (1 bag = 50 kg)?
d. 40,000
a. 100,000
70. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag b. 200,000
Type Storage of Grains: What is the c. 300,000
capacity (number of bags) of warehouse with d. 500,000
dimensions of 16 m x 48 m (1 bag = 50 kg)?
a. 30,000 Type Storage of Grains: What is the
b. 60,000 capacity (number of bags) of warehouse with
c. 20,000 dimensions of 75 m x 142 m (1 bag = 50 kg)?
d. 80,000
a. 500,000
71. PNS/PAES 419:2015 Warehouse for Bag b. 400,000
Type Storage of Grains: What is the c. 300,000
capacity (number of bags) of warehouse with d. 800,000
dimensions of 20 m x 60 m (1 bag = 50 kg)?
a. 50,000
b. 60,000
c. 70,000
d. 80,000
87 | P a g e
PHILIPPINE EXAM 14
AGRICULTURAL 1. Operations connected with excavating and
placing embankments with soil, earth or
ENGINEERING
rock.
a. Clearing
b. Earthwork
STANDARD c.
d.
Grubbing
Excavation
2. What is the last layer from the bottom

in a typical cross section of a one lane
gravel road for expansion?
a. bituminous pavement
b. aggregate base course
c. aggregate subbase course
PAES d. concrete pavement
3. In canal (main) where the available

roadway width is ___, the carriageway width
shall be ___ and the shoulder width shall
421
be ___.
a. 4 meters; 2meters; 1 meter

b. 4 meters; 1.5meters; 1 meter
c. 6 meters; 2meters; 1 meter
d. 6 meters; 4meters; 1 meter
4. What is the minimum thickness of lining

ditch for concrete materials?
a. 0.25 meters
b. 0.20 meters
c. 0.15 meters
d. 0.10 meters
FARM 5. What is the 3rd layer from the bottom in

a typical cross section of one lane earth
TO
road?
a. aggregate base course

MARKET ROAD c.
d.
AOTA
NOTA
6. What is the minimum steep slope of back

slope v-ditch…?
a. 1:1.5
b. 3:1
c. 1:1
d. 2:1
7. What is the minimum thickness of lining

ditch for masonry with grouted ripraps?
a. 0.25 meters
b. 0.20 meters
88 | P a g e
c. 0.15 meters 15. The layer of aggregate, soil-treated
d. 0.10 meters aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate
that rests upon the subbase or if no
8. Space/location/site intended to employ subbase, upon the sub-grade.
traffic consideration for the transport of
agricultural products. a. Base course
b. Subbase course
a. Roadway c. Subgrade course
b. Lane carriageway d. Course
c. Road carriageway
d. Lane roadway 16. What is the 2nd layer from the bottom
in a typical cross section of a two lane
9. Saving of different existing materials gravel road
from the projects which are removed and
intended to be used in other construction. a. concrete pavement
a. Clearing c. base course
b. Salvage materials d. bituminous pavement
c. Grubbing
d. Excavation 17. What is the minimum steep slope of back
slope v-ditch?
10. What is the 1st layer from the top in a
typical position of bituminous road for a. 1:1.5
stage development? b. 3:1
c. 1:1
a. bituminous pavement d. 2:1
c. aggregate subbase course 18. The minimum radius design for curvature
d. concrete pavement of rolling terrain shall be?
11. Property of a soil which describes the a. 50 meters

distribution of size groups. b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters
a. Grading d. 500 meters
b. Gradation
c. Grade 19. Upper portion of material which act as
d. Gradient foundation subbase course?
12. The minimum road shoulder width shall a. Subgrade (gravel road)
be… b. Subgrade (bituminous, concrete road)
c. Subgrade (earth road)
A. 0.5 meter d. Subgrade (concrete road)
B. 1 meter
C. 1.25 meter 20. What is the 2nd layer from the top in a
D. 2 meter typical site of a one lane concrete road
for expansion?
13. Consists of the excavation and disposal
of all materials regardless of its nature, a. concrete pavement
not classified and included in the bill of b. aggregate base course
quantities under other pay items. c. base course
d. aggregate subbase course
a. Unclassified excavation
b. Rock excavation 21. Top surface of the roadbed upon which
c. Classified excavation the pavement is placed.
d. Muck excavation
a. Subgrade (bituminous, concrete road)
14. Granular material of mineral b. Subgrade (gravel road)
composition such as sand, gravel, shell, c. Subgrade (earth road)
crushed and uncrushed stone or lightweight d. Subgrade (concrete road)
materials.
22. What is the minimum steep slope of
a. Fill trapezoidal ditch?
b. Aggregates a. 2:1
c. Earthwork b. 1:1.5
d. Borrow c. 3:1
d. 1:1
89 | P a g e
23. For angle of intersection less than 31. Removal and disposal of trees,
_____are strongly discouraged. vegetation or other unwanted materials from
the ground surface.
a. 50 degrees
b. 45 degrees a. Clearing
c. 60 degrees b. Salvage materials
d. 45-60 degrees c. Grubbing
d. Excavation
24. The minimum road shoulder width shall
be? 32. Application of pressure to aggregates
to result in a dense mass free of excessive
A. 0.5 meter voids.
B. 1 meter
C. 1.25 meter a. Field density test
D. 2 meter b. Compaction
c. Course
25. For concrete road the maximum slope of d. Base course
road shoulder shall be_____ from the edge
of the road carriageway. 33. Structural component of specified
thickness. It may consist of one layer or
a. 4% more.
b. 1.5%
c. 1.5 – 2.0% a. Subbase course
d. 3% b. Subgrade course
c. Course
26. Vehicular and non-vehicular movement d. Base course
along a route such as pedestrians,
vehicles, animals, etc. 34. In lateral and sub-lateral canal where
the available roadway width is ____, the
a. Traffic shoulder shall expand to ____.
b. Roadway
c. Road carriageway a. 2 meters; 1 meters
d. Lane roadway b. 4 meters; 1 meters
c. 4 meters; 2 meters
27. The minimum radius design for curvature d. 3 meters; 2 meters
of flat terrain shall be?
35. What is the 2nd layer from the bottom
a. 50 meters in a typical cross section of a two lane
b. 100 meters bituminous road?
c. 150 meters
d. 500 meters a. concrete pavement
28. Consists of all excavations not c. base course
included in the bill of quantities under d. bituminous pavement
“rock excavation” or other pay items.
36. Preparation of the sub-grade, in line
a. Unclassified excavation and elevation, for application of pavement
b. Common excavation materials including base and surfacing
c. Classified excavation materials.
d. Muck excavation
a. Grading
29. The maximum side slope shall be? b. Gradation
c. Grade
a. 1:1.5 d. Gradient
b. 3:1
c. 1:1 37. Removal and disposal of trees, and
d. 2:1 other unwanted materials below the ground
surface.
30. The suitable material used for
embankments. a. Clearing
b. Salvage materials
a. Borrow c. Grubbing
b. Fill d. Excavation
c. Aggregates
d. Backfill
90 | P a g e
38. Roadway, which is divided into two (2)
or more clearly marked lanes for vehicular a. Fill
traffic. b. Aggregates
c. Earthwork
a. Roadway d. Borrow
b. Lane carriageway
c. Road carriageway 46. Slope of a roadway, channel, or natural
d. Lane roadway ground.
39. What is the 3rd layer from the top in a a. Grading

typical cross section of a two lane b. Gradation
bituminous road? c. Grade
d. Gradient
a. concrete pavement
b. aggregate base course 47. Rate of increase or decrease in the
c. none level of the land.
d. bituminous pavement
a. Grading
40. Form of stone, brick, concrete block, b. Gradation
concrete, or other similar building c. Grade
materials that have been bonded together d. Gradient
with mortar to form a structure.
48. What is the minimum steep slope of back
a. Salvage materials slope v-ditch?
b. Masonry a. 1:1.5
c. Riprap b. 3:1
d. Borrow c. 1:1
d. 2:1
41. Lateral design width for one lane or
two lanes strip of roadway. 49. Roadbed upon which the pavement
structures is placed.
a. Road carriageway width a. Subgrade (gravel road)
b. Lane roadway width b. Subgrade (bituminous, concrete road)
c. Turn-out section width c. Subgrade (earth road)
d. Road shoulder width d. Subgrade (concrete road)
42. Raised structure of soil, soil 50. For concrete road the maximum slope of
aggregate, sand or rock. road shoulder shall be ___ from the edge of
the road carriageway.
a. Salvage materials
b. Masonry a. 1.5%
c. Riprap b. 1.5 – 2.0%
d. Roadway embankment c. 3%
d. 4%
43. Part of the roadway next to the
traveled way or auxiliary lanes that 51. Application of pressure to aggregates
provide lateral support of base and surface to result in a dense mass free of excessive
courses and is an emergency stopping area voids.
for vehicles. a. Field density test
b. Compaction
a. Road carriageway c. Course
b. Lane roadway d. Base course
c. Turn-out section
d. Road shoulder 52. Structural component of specified
thickness. It may consist of one layer or
44. What is the 1st layer from the top in a more.
typical cross section of one lane
bituminous road? a. Subbase course
b. Subgrade course
a. bituminous pavement c. Course
b. aggregate base course d. Base course
c. aggregate subbase course
d. concrete pavement 53. Drainage structure that may or may not,
directly support and that extends across
45. The embankment material placed above and beneath a highway street, driveway,
natural ground line. alley, arterial, or other public way.
91 | P a g e
62. Determination of the degree of
a. Road carriageway drainage compactness of the soil
b. Riprap
c. Turn-out section a. Field density test
d. Culvert b. Compaction
c. Course
54. Product resulting from the mechanical d. Base course
crushing of gravel, with substantially all
fragments having at least one face 63. What is the minimum thickness of lining
resulting from fracture. ditch for masonry with grouted ripraps?
a. Salvage materials
b. Masonry a. 0.25 meters
c. Riprap b. 0.20 meters
d. Crushed gravel c. 0.15 meters
d. 0.10 meters
55. For angle of intersection ___may be
used in special situations. 64. Quarried stone especially selected,
graded and placed to prevent erosion and
a. 50 degrees thereby preserve the shape of a surface,
b. 45 degrees slope, or underlying structure.
c. 60 degrees
d. 45-60 degrees a. Salvage materials
b. Masonry
56. For angle of intersection less than ___ c. Riprap
are strongly discouraged. d. Roadway embankment
a. 50 degrees 65. Graded portion of a highway between top

b. 45 degrees and side slopes, prepared as a foundation
c. 60 degrees for the pavement structure and shoulder.
d. 45-60 degrees
a. Road bed
57. The minimum road shoulder width shall b. Grade
be? c. Course
d. Base course
A. 0.5 meter
B. 1.0 meter 66. Space/location/site intended to employ
C. 1.25 meter traffic consideration for the transport of
D. 2.0 meter agricultural products.
58. The cross fall (crown) shall be a. Roadway

a. 1.5% b. Lane carriageway
b. 1.5 – 2.0% c. Road carriageway
c. 3% d. Lane roadway
d. 4%
67. Travel way or crown portion of the
59. The minimum radius design for curvature roadway intended for the movement of
of flat terrain shall be vehicles, exclusive of shoulders.
a. 50 meters
b. 100 meters a. Roadway
c. 150 meters b. Lane carriageway
d. 500 meters c. Road carriageway
d. Lane roadway
60. The maximum longitudinal slope for
mountainous terrain shall be____with 68. Act of cutting, digging, or scooping to
maximum length of 300 meters remove material.
a. 10%
b. 12% a. Clearing
c. 10%-12% b. Earthwork
d. 15% c. Grubbing
d. Excavation
61. The maximum side slope shall be?
a. 1:1.5 69. The maximum side slope shall be?
b. 3:1
c. 1:1 a. 1:1.5
d. 2:1 b. 3:1
c. 1:1
92 | P a g e
d. 2:1 c. 3%
d. 4%
70. The cross fall (crown) shall be?
78. What is the maximum slope for concrete
a. 1.5% roads from the center line towards the
b. 1.5 – 2.0% ditch?
c. 3%
d. 4% a. 1.5%
b. 1.5 – 2.0%
71. The minimum radius design for curvature c. 3%
of flat terrain shall be? d. 4%
a. 50 meters 79. The maximum side slope shall be?

b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters a. 1:1.5
d. 500 meters b. 3:1
c. 1:1
72. For angle of intersection less than ___ d. 2:1
are strongly discouraged. 80. What is the minimum steep slope of back
slope v-ditch?
a. 50 degrees
b. 45 degrees a. 1:1.5
c. 60 degrees b. 3:1
d. 45-60 degrees c. 1:1
d. 2:1
73. Protection of soil from disclosing by
water, wind, or other agent. 81. The cross fall (crown) shall be ____
a. 1.5%
a. Clearing b. 1.5 – 2.0%
b. Earthwork c. 3%
c. Grubbing d. 4%
d. Erosion control
82. For angle of intersection less than
74. What is the minimum thickness of lining ____are strongly discouraged.
ditch for concrete materials?
a. 50 degrees
a. 0.25 meters b. 45 degrees
b. 0.20 meters c. 60 degrees
c. 0.15 meters d. 45-60 degrees
d. 0.10 meters
83. The minimum road shoulder width shall
75. The layer of aggregate, soil-treated be____
aggregate, treated soil, or soil aggregate A. 0.5 meter
that rests upon the subbase or if no B. 1.0 meter
subbase, upon the sub-grade. C. 1.25 meter
D. 2.0 meter
a. Subbase course
b. Subgrade course 84. The cross fall (crown) shall be ____
c. Course
d. Base course a. 1.5 – 2.0%
b. 3%
76. What is the minimum thickness of c. 4%
trapezoidal ditch design constructed with d. 1.5%
grouted ripraps or with concrete lining?
85. What is the 3rd layer from the top in a
a. 0.25 meters typical cross section of a two lane
b. 0.20 meters concrete road?
c. 0.15 meters
d. 0.10 meters a. concrete pavement
b. aggregate subbase course
77. What is the minimum slope for earth, c. base course
gravel and bituminous roads from the center d. NOTA
line towards the ditch.
a. 1.5% in a typical site of earth road for
b. 1.5 – 2.0% Expansion?
93 | P a g e
a. aggregate base course in a typical cross section of one lane
b. aggregate course concrete road?
c. AOTA
d. NOTA a. bituminous pavement
87. What is the 2nd layer from the top in a c. aggregate subbase course
typical cross section of one lane gravel d. concrete pavement
road?
94. The minimum radius design for curvature
a. bituminous pavement of mountainous terrain shall be.
b. aggregate base course a. 50 meters
c. aggregate subbase course b. 100 meters
d. concrete pavement c. 150 meters
d. 500 meters
88. The minimum radius design for curvature
of mountainous terrain shall be? 95. Refers to the layer of the specified or
selected materials of designated thickness
a. 50 meters in a pavement structure immediately above
b. 100 meters the sub-grade and below the base course.
c. 150 meters
d. 500 meters a. Subbase course
b. Subgrade course
89. Access roads that connect major road c. Course
arteries to the agricultural production d. Base course
areas where farm produce are being
mobilized and transported to the market by 96. In canal (main) where the available
the farmers and fishermen? roadway width is ___, the carriageway width
shall be ___ and the shoulder width shall
a. Road carriageway be ___.
b. Lane roadway
c. Turn-out section a. 4 meters; 2meters; 1 meter
d. Farm to market roads b. 4 meters; 1.5meters; 1 meter
c. 6 meters; 2meters; 1 meter
90. The minimum radius design for curvature d. 6 meters; 4meters; 1 meter
of rolling terrain shall be?
97. Roadway, which is divided into two (2)
a. 50 meters or more clearly marked lanes for vehicular
b. 100 meters traffic.
c. 150 meters
d. 500 meters a. Roadway
b. Lane carriageway
91. A widened, unobstructed shoulder area, c. Road carriageway
about 30 meters long, that may be used for d. Lane roadway
emergency purposes or allow slow-moving
vehicles to pull out of the carriageway to 98. Graded portion of a highway between top
give passing opportunity to following or and side slopes, prepared as a foundation
incoming vehicles. for the pavement structure and shoulder.
a. Road carriageway width a. Road bed

b. Lane roadway b. Grade
c. Turn-out section c. Course
d. Radius of curvature d. Base course
92. Consists of the removal and disposal of 99. Travel way or crown portion of the
deposits of saturated or unsaturated roadway intended for the movement of
mixtures of soils and organic matter not vehicles, exclusive of shoulders.
suitable for foundation material regardless
of the moisture content. a. Roadway
b. Lane carriageway
a. Unclassified excavation c. Road carriageway
b. Rock excavation d. Lane roadway
c. Classified excavation
d. Muck excavation 100. Access roads that connect major road
arteries to the agricultural production
areas where farm produce are being
94 | P a g e
mobilized and transported to the market by
the farmers and fishermen.
a. Road carriageway
b. Lane roadway
c. Turn-out section
d. Farm to market roads
PHILIPPINE
AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
STANDARDS
PAES 421:2009
Farm to
Market Roads
(Earth,
Gravel,
Bituminous,
Concrete)
95 | P a g e
REFERENCE
AMTEC. Philippine Agricultural Engineering Standards.

Volume I to IV. Agricultural Machinery Testing and
Evaluation Center. College of Engineering and Agro-
Industrial Technology. University of the Philippines, Los
Banos, College Laguna.
96 | P a g e
EXAM 1
1.C 11.B 21.A 31.B 41.B 51.B 61.B 71.A 81.D 91.D
2.D 12.C 22.D 32.A 42.C 52.A 62.D 72.D 82.B 92.D
3.C 13.A 23.D 33.D 43.C 53.C 63.A 73.B 83.A 93.B
4.C 14.B 24.A 34.C 44.B 54.A 64.C 74.C 84.A 94.C
5.A 15.D 25.B 35.B 45.A 55.D 65.D 75.B 85.D 95.D
6.C 16.B 26.B 36.B 46.C 56.D 66.C 76.D 86.D 96.B
7.C 17.D 27.D 37.B 47.C 57.C 67.C 77.A 87.A 97.A
8.A 18.C 28.B 38.C 48.C 58.C 68.C 78.D 88.B 98.C
9.D 19.A 29.A 39.B 49.B 59.A 69.B 79.B 89.D 99.C
10.D 20.C 30.B 40.A 50.B 60.B 70.A 80.B 90.B 100.B
EXAM 2
1.D 11.C 21.A 31.A 41.D 51.B 61.D 71.A 81.A 91.C
2.C 12.B 22.D 32.B 42.C 52.B 62.A 72.C 82.B 92.B
3.A 13.D 23.A 33.A 43.C 53.A 63.C 73.C 83.B 93.D
4.A 14.C 24.B 34.A 44.A 54.D 64.B 74.A 84.D 94.A
5.C 15.C 25.C 35.A 45.A 55.D 65.C 75.B 85.B 95.A
6.C 16.C 26.C 36.D 46.D 56.A 66.B 76.C 86.A 96.C
7.D 17.D 27.A 37.C 47.D 57.A 67.A 77.C 87.B 97.D
8.A 18.A 28.A 38.B 48.D 58.D 68.C 78.A 88.A 98.C
9.A 19.A 29.D 39.D 49.B 59.B 69.D 79.C 89.C 99.A
10.A 20.D 30.A 40.D 50.D 60.A 70.A 80.C 90.A 100.A
EXAM 3
1.A 11.D 21.C 31.C 41.B 51.B 61.A 71.B 81.B 91.A
2.D 12.D 22.A 32.B 42.A 52.D 62.C 72.C 82.D 92.B
3.C 13.B 23.C 33.D 43.D 53.A 63.A 73.A 83.C 93.A
4.B 14.B 24.A 34.C 44.C 54.D 64.B 74.C 84.C 94.C
5.A 15.B 25.A 35.B 45.D 55.D 65.C 75.C 85.A 95.B
6.B 16.D 26.C 36.A 46.C 56.B 66.C 76.B 86.C 96.B
7.C 17.A 27.C 37.C 47.C 57.B 67.B 77.D 87.D 97.C
8.A 18.A 28.A 38.C 48.B 58.C 68.A 78.B 88.A 98.A
9.D 19.B 29.A 39.A 49.A 59.B 69.C 79.B 89.B 99.A
10.B 20.D 30.C 40.D 50.C 60.B 70.A 80.A 90.C 100.D
EXAM 4
1.A 11.C 21.A 31.A 41.C 51.D 61.A 71.C 81.B 91.A
2.D 12.A 22.C 32.A 42.A 52.A 62.A 72.A 82.C 92.B
3.C 13.B 23.A 33.B 43.D 53.B 63.A 73.B 83.C 93.A
4.C 14.C 24.B 34.A 44.A 54.A 64.B 74.B 84.B 94.A
5.A 15.A 25.C 35.D 45.A 55.B 65.C 75.B 85.D 95.D
6.D 16.B 26.C 36.A 46.C 56.A 66.B 76.D 86.D 96.C
7.B 17.B 27.C 37.A 47.C 57.A 67.C 77.B 87.B 97.C
8.C 18.A 28.D 38.A 48.C 58.B 68.D 78.C 88.B 98.C
9.B 19.C 29.C 39.B 49.A 59.C 69.C 79.B 89.D 99.B
10.A 20.A 30.D 40.B 50.C 60.A 70.C 80.D 90.B 100.C
EXAM 5
1.A 11.D 21.B 31.B 41.A 51. 61. 71. 81. 91.
2.D 12.A 22.C 32.B 42.C 52. 62. 72. 82. 92.
3.A 13.D 23.A 33.C 43. 53. 63. 73. 83. 93.
4.A 14.A 24.A 34.C 44. 54. 64. 74. 84. 94.
5.A 15.B 25.A 35.A 45. 55. 65. 75. 85. 95.
6.A 16.A 26.A 36.C 46. 56. 66. 76. 86. 96.
7.B 17.C 27.A 37.B 47. 57. 67. 77. 87. 97.
8.B 18.B 28.A 38.C 48. 58. 68. 78. 88. 98.
9.A 19.B 29.C 39.A 49. 59. 69. 79. 89. 99.
10.C 20.C 30.C 40.A 50. 60. 70. 80. 90. 100.
97 | P a g e
EXAM 6
1.B 11.B 21.B 31.C 41.B 51.D 61.D 71.D 81.C 91.C
2.A 12.C 22.C 32.D 42.B 52.D 62.C 72.D 82.B 92.A
3.A 13.A 23.A 33.B 43.D 53.B 63.D 73.C 83.B 93.C
4.C 14.B 24.C 34.B 44.A 54.A 64.B 74.D 84.B 94.D
5.B 15.C 25.A 35.A 45.D 55.C 65.A 75.A 85.B 95.C
6.B 16.D 26.A 36.D 46.D 56.D 66.A 76.C 86.B 96.B
7.C 17.A 27.B 37.D 47.B 57.A 67.C 77.C 87.C 97.B
8.C 18.A 28.A 38.D 48.B 58.A 68.B 78.B 88.D 98.A
9.B 19.B 29.B 39.A 49.C 59.C 69.B 79.A 89.B 99.D
10.C 20.B 30.A 40.D 50.C 60.B 70.A 80.A 90.C 100.C
EXAM 7
1.B 11.D 21.D 31.D 41.B 51.A 61.D 71.D 81.B 91.C
2.C 12.B 22.C 32.C 42.C 52.C 62.B 72.A 82.A 92.A
3.A 13.C 23.A 33.B 43.A 53.A 63.B 73.D 83.D 93.B
4.A 14.B 24.D 34.D 44.A 54.D 64.D 74.C 84.B 94.C
5.A 15.A 25.B 35.C 45.B 55.D 65.A 75.A 85.D 95.A
6.D 16.D 26.C 36.A 46.B 56.D 66.D 76.D 86.C 96.A
7.D 17.D 27.D 37.C 47.C 57.B 67.D 77.B 87.A 97.C
8.B 18.D 28.B 38.D 48.A 58.A 68.C 78.A 88.B 98.C
9.A 19.A 29.B 39.C 49.B 59.A 69.B 79.C 89.A 99.A
10.B 20.B 30.A 40.C 50.A 60.B 70.C 80.D 90.D 100.B
EXAM 8
1.A 11.D 21.C 31.D 41.B 51.D 61.A 71.C 81.B 91.C
2.B 12.B 22.A 32.A 42.A 52.B 62.C 72.C 82.A 92.D
3.D 13.B 23.A 33.A 43.C 53.A 63.B 73.D 83.D 93.D
4.B 14.D 24.B 34.A 44.A 54.A 64.B 74.B 84.D 94.C
5.A 15.A 25.C 35.B 45.A 55.A 65.A 75.A 85.C 95.D
6.C 16.A 26.B 36.C 46.A 56.D 66.A 76.A 86.C 96.A
7.D 17.B 27.D 37.B 47.B 57.B 67.B 77.C 87.B 97.C
8.A 18.B 28.A 38.B 48.B 58.B 68.A 78.A 88.D 98.D
9.C 19.D 29.B 39.B 49.A 59.B 69.D 79.C 89.A 99.C
10.A 20.D 30.C 40.A 50.B 60.D 70.C 80.C 90.A 100.A
EXAM 9
1.C 11.A 21.C 31.A 41.D 51. 61. 71. 81. 91.
2.D 12.D 22.C 32.A 42.D 52. 62. 72. 82. 92.
3.C 13.A 23.C 33.B 43.C 53. 63. 73. 83. 93.
4.D 14.A 24.D 34.B 44.C 54. 64. 74. 84. 94.
5.D 15.B 25.C 35.D 45.D 55. 65. 75. 85. 95.
6.C 16.B 26.D 36.C 46.D 56. 66. 76. 86. 96.
7.A 17.D 27.C 37.B 47.B 57. 67. 77. 87. 97.
8.D 18.D 28.A 38.A 48.D 58. 68. 78. 88. 98.
9.A 19.A 29.D 39.A 49.A 59. 69. 79. 89. 99.
10.D 20.A 30.A 40.B 50.B 60. 70. 80. 90. 100.
EXAM 10
1.C 11.A 21.B 31.B 41.D 51.A 61.C 71.D 81.C 91.D
2.C 12.D 22.B 32.A 42.A 52.A 62.C 72.A 82.B 92.B
3.A 13.D 23.A 33.D 43.B 53.B 63.C 73.B 83.B 93.B
4.C 14.D 24.D 34.A 44.A 54.B 64.D 74.C 84.A 94.C
5.D 15.B 25.C 35.B 45.D 55.B 65.D 75.A 85.B 95.A
6.B 16.A 26.D 36.D 46.D 56.A 66.B 76.A 86.B 96.A
7.A 17.A 27.B 37.A 47.A 57.C 67.A 77.A 87.B 97.C
8.A 18.C 28.D 38.B 48.B 58.A 68.C 78.B 88.B 98.A
9.A 19.D 29.D 39.B 49.C 59.D 69.C 79.A 89.A 99.A
10.C 20.A 30.A 40.D 50.C 60.D 70.A 80.A 90.A 100.A
98 | P a g e
EXAM 11
1.B 11.D 21.D 31.D 41.A 51.C 61.B 71.C 81.A 91.A
2.D 12.A 22.A 32.C 42.D 52.A 62.D 72.A 82.D 92.C
3.D 13.A 23.D 33.B 43.C 53.D 63.C 73.B 83.B 93.A
4.A 14.A 24.C 34.A 44.A 54.A 64.A 74.D 84.D 94.B
5.B 15.A 25.D 35.A 45.D 55.B 65.B 75.D 85.C 95.B
6.A 16.A 26.C 36.A 46.C 56.B 66.C 76.C 86.B 96.A
7.A 17.B 27.B 37.C 47.B 57.B 67.B 77.A 87.B 97.C
8.D 18.D 28.B 38.C 48.C 58.C 68.A 78.A 88.D 98.D
9.B 19.C 29.B 39.A 49.A 59.A 69.B 79.D 89.A 99.A
10.A 20.B 30.C 40.D 50.A 60.B 70.B 80.B 90.D 100.A
EXAM 12
1.D 11.D 21.A 31.C 41.B 51.A 61.C 71.B 81.C 91.B
2.D 12.D 22.B 32.A 42.B 52.B 62.B 72.D 82.A 92.A
3.C 13.B 23.B 33.B 43.A 53.C 63.A 73.A 83.A 93.C
4.B 14.A 24.A 34.A 44.D 54.C 64.D 74.B 84.A 94.C
5.B 15.A 25.D 35.C 45.B 55.D 65.C 75.A 85.C 95.A
6.B 16.B 26.C 36.A 46.A 56.D 66.D 76.B 86.D 96.C
7.D 17.D 27.A 37.A 47.B 57.D 67.D 77.C 87.D 97.B
8.A 18.A 28.B 38.B 48.A 58.A 68.B 78.C 88.C 98.A
9.B 19.A 29.B 39.A 49.A 59.C 69.D 79.A 89.A 99.A
10.A 20.D 30.C 40.A 50.D 60.D 70.B 80.D 90.C 100.C
EXAM 13
1.A 11.A 21.B 31.B 41.D 51.C 61.A 71.A 81. 91.
2.A 12.B 22.A 32.A 42.A 52.A 62.C 72.A 82. 92.
3.B 13.C 23.B 33.C 43.B 53.C 63.B 73.A 83. 93.
4.C 14.C 24.A 34.A 44.B 54.B 64.A 74. 84. 94.
5.C 15.B 25.D 35.C 45.C 55.D 65.D 75. 85. 95.
6.A 16.A 26.A 36.B 46.D 56.A 66.B 76. 86. 96.
7.D 17.D 27.D 37.A 47.D 57.D 67.A 77. 87. 97.
8.B 18.A 28.C 38.A 48.C 58.B 68.A 78. 88. 98.
9.D 19.C 29.B 39.A 49.B 59.B 69.A 79. 89. 99.
10.C 20.C 30.B 40.A 50.D 60.A 70.A 80. 90. 100.
EXAM 14
1.B 11.B 21.A 31.A 41.A 51.B 61.D 71.D 81.B 91.C
2.B 12.B 22.A 32.B 42.D 52.C 62.A 72.B 82.B 92.D
3.D 13.A 23.B 33.C 43.D 53.D 63.A 73.D 83.B 93.D
4.C 14.B 24.B 34.C 44.A 54.D 64.C 74.C 84.A 94.A
5.D 15.A 25.A 35.B 45.A 55.D 65.A 75.D 85.D 95.A
6.A 16.B 26.A 36.A 46.C 56.B 66.A 76.A 86.D 96.D
7.A 17.A 27.D 37.C 47.D 57.B 67.C 77.C 87.C 97.D
8.A 18.C 28.B 38.D 48.A 58.B 68.D 78.A 88.A 98.A
9.B 19.A 29.D 39.C 49.C 59.D 69.D 79.D 89.D 99.C
10.A 20.D 30.A 40.B 50.D 60.B 70.B 80.A 90.C 100.D
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PHILIPPINE

PHILIPPINE AGRICULTURAL AND

PAES COMPILATION BY:

STANDARD d. Spike-tooth harrow

2. PAES 151:2010 Agricultural Machinery

a. Power Sprayer for Mango –

PAES 101 3. Type of field cultivator wherein main

a. Three-point hitch mounted

TO 4. Machine designed for transplanting rice

PAES 166 5. Total force parallel to the direction of

6. Based on PAES 117: 2000 small engine –

7. Implement performing shallow post-plant

a. Coulter a. Root zone

24. Type of force type hand pump that a. Harrowing

a. Single acting 32. Plow bottom that has less curvature

28. Based on PAES119: 2001 four-wheel

a. Shall be more than 92 db (A)

a. Harrowing 36. Type of plow mounted on the tractor’s

52. Tillage action and transport operations

53. PAES 128: 2002 drilling rig – methods

a. Land grading a. Secondary tillage

a. Deep tillage a. Precision tillage

56. Shallow tillage operation performed to 62. System traditionally performed in

57. Mechanical manipulation of soil for any

58. Based on PAES 124: 2002 walking-type

a. Row crop cultivator a. 5-10%

a. Soil abrasion a. Subsoiler

69. Series of hills in a field. 77. Implement for intermittent tillage at

89. Resistance to the movement of plant

a. Multi-powered tillage tools

a. Soil-additive applicator a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

93. Fine drops of liquid, such as water or

95. PAES 162:2011 agricultural machinery

5. Type of weeder with a straight, curved,

a. Slatted moldboard a. Animal- drawn weeder

8. Based on PAES 115: 2000 centrifugal,

a. Animal- drawn weeder 17. Power requirement of an implement being

13. Type of knapsack granule applicator 19. Horizontal distance perpendicular to

a. Mounted granule applicator a. Implement width

24. Based on PAES 118: 2001 four-wheel

25. One downward movement of piston for the

a. Static suction head (h1) a. Single acting

a. Soil Auger – Specifications

37. Part of the transplanting arm that

a. Continuous brake power 57. Component of the sugarcane planter that

50. Based on PAES 112: 2000 Lever-Operated a. Manual sugarcane planter

51. Bar at the rear of a tractor to which a. 10 kg

54. PAES 156:2010 Agricultural Machinery

a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

66. Power measured at the flywheel or the a. Residue processing

a. Harrowing 77. Implement which consists of two

a. Gauge wheel a. Hand pump

a. Secondary tillage a. Static suction head (h1)

82. PAES 152:2010 Agricultural Machinery

a. Subsoiler – Methods of Test

a. Semi-mounted moldboard plow a. Volute pump

94. This is a type of tractor power-driven

95. This is a type of tractor power-driven

96. This is a type of row-crop planter

a. Tractor power seeder

97. This is a type of row-crop planter

a. Tractor power-driven seeder and

98. Part of the plow which lifts, inverts