PART III: AGRICULTURAL MECHANIZATION, AGRICULTURAL POWER,

AGRICULTURAL MACHINERY and ALLIED SUBJECTS

UNIVERSITY OF THE PHILIPPINES – LOS BAÑOS

1. The distance from the center of the crankshaft to the center of the crankpin.\
a) crank throw
b) cam shaft
c) crank rod
d) crank stroke

2. Continuous running tests of a single cylinder engine is done in_____ hours.

a) 24 hours
b) 8 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 5 hours
3. The winding that is not connected to the power source, but carries current that
comes from the magnetic linkage.
a) secondary windings
b) stator windings
c) rotor windings
d) primary windings

4. Engines are not normally used for:

a) 4-wheel tractors
b) 4-row harvesters
c) power sprayers
d) 1-ton rice mills
5. If an electric motor rated at 220 volts and 4.8 amperes is converted to 110 volts, then
its rated current will be:
a) 2.4 A
b) 7.2 A
c) 4.8 A
d) 9.6 A
6. Maximum allowed untilled or percent overlap of hand tractors for field operation:
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 20%

7. They are endless belts made with single ply high tensile cords and they are oil and
heat resistant.
a) leather belts
b) synthetic belts
c) rubber belts
d) nylon cords
8. What is the field efficiency of a two-wheel tractor with rototiller as implement given
the following tests result data:
Test Area = 25 m x 20 m
Rototiller width of cut = 700 mm
Total time of testing = 30 min
No. of turns from headland to headland (one loop)= 10 rounds
Speed= 40 m/min
 a) 40%
b) 42%
c) 45%
d) 47%
9. Four-wheel tractors are characterized as:
a) low speed-low torque
b) low speed-high torque
c) high speed-high torque
d) high speed-low torque
10. A 10 hp split-phase motor running at 1800 rpm is to be used to drive an axial flow
thresher. The machine should run at approximately 1,500 rpm. The center to center
distance should not exceed 1,110 mm. Space limits the diameter of the driven pulley to
290 mm. Determine the design power (hp) and speed ratio of the engine.

a) 15 hp and 1.2:1
b) 15 hp and 1.6:1
c) 13 hp and 1.2:1
d) 13 hp and 1.6:1

11. An engine having a compression ratio of 8:1, stroke of 5 inches and a bore
diameter of 4 inches was used as prime mover for plowing operation. What should be
the clearance volume (cm3) of the engine to achieve this ratio?
a) 183.86 cc
b) 138.68 cc
c) 174.90 cc
d) 147.09 cc
12. The field area (m2) required for testing the performance of a hand tractor is:
a) 200
b) 400
c) 500
d) 300

13. How many rice combines are recommended for a 200 ha contiguous farm given a
3.0 m wide rice combine harvester traveling at 5 kph with 90% material efficiency and
operating at 6 net hours per day. The window of operation is 14 days with only 80%
possible operational days.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
14. Trading entity authorized by foreign and local suppliers and/or manufacturers to
distribute agricultural machinery to dealers:
a) manufacturer
b) distributor
c) dealer
d) entrepreneur

15. The application rate of a certain chemical is recommended at 5 kg/ha. The

calibration test of a 15-liter knapsack sprayer is as follows: Nozzle discharge = 1.0
liter/min, swath = 2500 mm and walking speed = 22 m/min. Determine the total volume
of water applied per hectare.
a) 195 l/ha
b) 205 l/ha
c) 210 l/ha
d) 190 l/ha

16. It is a special arrangement of gears so constructed and located in the transmission

system of a 4-wheel tractor that permits one driving wheel to rotate slower or faster than
the other and at the same time propel its share of the load.
a) Gear box
b) Clutch
c) Differential
d) Power take-off

17. A gear whose teeth are straight, but the sides are tapered so that they would
intersect the axis at a common point.
a) miter gear
b) spur gear
c) straight bevel gear
d) helical gear

18. The perpendicular distance between the wing and the point of the share determines
the:
a) traverse dimension of plow
b) longitudinal dimension of plow
c) diagonal dimension of plow
d) maximum dimension of plow

19. It produces its torque by virtue of the force of weights pressing against the driving
or frictionally driven member.
a) plate clutch
b) disc clutch
c) conical clutch
d) centrifugal clutch
20. A field measuring 50 m X 100 m is to be prepared using a 1.3-m upland power tiller
at a speed of 3 kph. Assume a 12% overlap between passing and 15 seconds turn-
around time at the end of each pass. Determine the field efficiency when tilling is done
along the shorter field direction.
a) 70 %
b) 80%
 c) 75%
d) 85%
21. Sprayers are used primarily for the application of:
a) herbicides
b) fungicides
c) insecticides
d) pesticides

22. A 4-wheel tractor with 3X14 inches moldboard plow is to operate on sandy loam
soil (specific draft = 0.21-0.42kg/cm2) at a depth of 25.4 cm. The maximum draft and
percent increase in draft due to speed are shown in the table below. Determine the
tractor horsepower required to perform the operation.

a) 45 hp
b) 46 hp
c) 36 hp
d) 50 hp

23. It is a method of pump drive where the pump is built with a common shaft and
bearings for the pump and the driver forming a single compact unit:
a) closed- connected
b) belt-driven
c) direct-coupled
d) sprocket-driven

24. This is the application and management of pests by manipulating the environment
or implementing preventive practices such as using plants that are resistant to pests,
proper timing of planting and crop rotation.
a) Ecological Control
b) Cultural Control
c) Biological Control
d) Chemical Control

25. Determine the performance index of a two-row upland weeder with an effective
working width of 500 mm and field efficiency of 75%. The animal pulling the weeder is
traveling at 2.5kph and the plant damage is 8% with weeds before using the planter of
400 and weeds after weeding of 30.
a) 798 ha/h-hp
b) 726 ha/h-hp
c) 797 ha/h-hp
d) 725 ha/h-hp

26. Which of the following is not a typical example of a small single-cylinder engine?
a) air-cooled gasoline engine
b) air-cooled diesel engine
c) water-cooled gasoline engine
 d) water-cooled diesel engine
27. This type of transmission system is common to two wheel tractors
a) Direct coupling
b) Chain and sprockets
c) Gear systems
d) Differential

28. The calibration of the 8X8 (8 rows X 8 inches row spacing) grain drill is shown
below. The row spacing is to be adjusted to 16 inches and the ground wheel diameter
is 1.2 m. What is the seeding rate at ½ open seeding adjustment?

a) 24 kg/ha
b) 48 kg/ha
c) 25 kg/ha
d) 49 kg/ha

29. Planters which are designed to plant one or more seeds or plants with row spacing
equal to hill spacing:
a) solid planters
b) precision planter
c) check row planter
d) hill drop planter

30. A 118 inches wide combine traveling at 4 kph can empty its 2.0-ton grain tank in 4
minutes. The combine is to work an area of 20 hectares with a field yield of 4 tons/ha. It
is operating unloading on-the-go and while in harvesting operation, the machine makes
an overlap of 10% every time it passes through a 500m headland to headland distance.
It takes 12 seconds to turn at the headland. What is the efficiency of the machine?
a) 87%
b) 88%
c) 97%
d) 96%

31. How many spark plugs are needed in a 16-valve, 4-stroke, 4-cylinder compression
ignition engine?
a) 0
b) 4
c) 8
d) 6

32. Determine the brake thermal efficiency of an engine if its mechanical efficiency is
87% and the indicated thermal efficiency is 45%.
a) 38%
b) 39%
c) 40%
d) 41%
33. The process of allowing into the engine chamber a volume of air larger than what
the engine chamber would normally admit during suction stroke.
a) Turbocharging
b) Supercharging
c) Choking
d) Intake

34. For complete combustion of diesel, how much air is needed?

a) 11.1 kg/kg of diesel
b) 12.5 kg/kg of diesel
c) 14.9 kg/kg of diesel
d) 24.5 kg/kg of diesel

35. The bore of an engine is 9 cm and the stroke is 10 cm. Find the piston
displacement.
a) 70.7 cc
b) 202.5 cc
c) 636.2 cc
d) 706.9 cc

36. What is the engine displacement of 3¾ x 4¼-in 4-cylinder engine?

a) 212.8 in3
b) 187.8 in3
c) 53.2 in3
d) 46.9 in3

37. It absorbs the pressure of the expanding gases.

a) Piston rings
b) Connecting rod
c) Crankshaft
d) Piston

38. If the clearance volume of a 3.5 x 4-in gasoline engine is 7 cubic inches, what is the
compression ratio?
a) 6.5:1
b) 7.28:1
c) 5.87:1
d) 5.28:1

39. Determine the firing interval of a 4-stroke, 3-cylinder in-line engine?

a) 90°
b) 120°
c) 180°
d) 240°

40. An engine is tested on a dynamometer and produced 450 N-m of torque at a speed
of 2400 rpm. Calculate the power output.
a) 18 kW
b) 36 kW
c) 57 kW
d) 113 kW
41. What is the brake thermal efficiency of a gasoline engine which uses 0.4 kg of
fuel/kW-hr?
 a) 35%
b) 30%
c) 20%
d) 19%
42. Assuming a mechanical efficiency of 90%, determine the mean effective pressure
produced by a 4-cylinder, 4-stroke engine with 3-in by 4-in cylinder if it produces 7 hp at
3300 rpm.
a) 16.5 psi
b) 24.75 psi
c) 33 psi
d) 66 psi

43. It is a measure of the tendency of gasoline to resist detonation during combustion in

an engine
a) Anti-knock
b) Fire point
c) Cetane number
d) Octane number
44. How many degrees of crankshaft rotation are represented by each inch on the face
of a flywheel 1-foot in diameter?
a) 1°
b) 9.5°
c) 15°
d) 19.1°
45. How much carbon dioxide is produced for every kilogram of diesel fuel burned?
a) 0.65 kg/kg of fuel
b) 16 kg/kg of fuel
c) 24.5 kg/kg of fuel
d) 3.11 kg/kg of fuel

46. Which gas constitutes the highest percentage in the composition of exhaust gases
when ethanol was used as fuel in an SI engine?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon monoxide

47. What is the speed ratio of the transmission unit to give the tractor a travel speed of
3.5 kph. The engine speed is 2200 rpm and a rear wheel diameter of 55 centimeters.
a) 33.72:1
b) 65.2:1
c) 11.43:1
d) 2.74:1

48. In engines with overhead valves, which pushes the pushrods?

a) Tappet
b) Rocker arm
c) Cam
d) Crankshaft

49. What is the engine displacement for a 10 cm by 15 cm engine with 4 cylinders?

a) 5 L
 b) 4.7 L
c) 2.5 L
d) 1.3 L
50. How much power is actually received by a pump run by a 7.5-hp engine running at
2800 rpm if a 3% slip is allowed between belt and pulleys?
a) 7.3 hp
b) 7.5 hp
c) 9.75 hp
d) 7.0 hp

51. This refers to the changes in the front and rear wheel reaction that occur when a
tractor pulls a drawbar load.
a) Resistance
b) Traction
c) Rolling moment
d) Weight transfer
52. The exhaust valve of a 4-stroke engine, having a 45-cm diameter flywheel, opens 5
cm as measured on the flywheel before crank center and closes 1.25 cm after head
center. How long in degrees is it open?
a) 97.2°
b) 164.1°
c) 195.9°
d) 198.3°

53. Assuming complete combustion, how much heat is generated in the cylinder of an
engine consuming 8 liters of gasoline in an hour?
a) 77.75 kW
b) 279.9 kW
c) 279.9 MW
d) 77.75 MW

54. How many liters of alcohol would be required to produce the same heat value as a
liter of gasoline?
a) 1L
b) 1.6 L
c) 2L
d) 3.2 L

55. Any substance that is added to or removed from the tractor to change traction or
stability.
a) Pneumatic tire
b) Water
c) Ballast
d) Stabilizer

56. Determine the brake thermal efficiency of a 5-hp gasoline engine consuming 2 liters
of fuel in an hour?
a) 19%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 35%
57. A 5-liter engine consumes 11.5 liters of diesel fuel in 30 minutes. The engine is
operating with a thermal efficiency of 18% and is running at 2400 rpm. Calculate the
brake torque.
a) 447 N-m
b) 86.9 N-m
c) 173.8 N-m
d) 89.4 N-m

58. A 15.6-liter, 4-cycle engine produces a brake mean effective pressure 1077 kPa.
Calculate the brake torque.
a) 1337 N-m
b) 2674 N-m
c) 4200 N-m
d) 669 N-m

59. How many amperes will a 6-volt starting motor draw when operating at 200 rpm
and developing a torque of 30 lb-ft at the pinion? Transmission efficiency is 70%.
a) 0.27 A
b) 12 A
c) 142 A
d) 203 A

60. What is the efficiency of the transmission if the input speed is 2000 rpm, input
torque of 220 lb-ft and an output torque at the final drive is 17000 lb-ft at 19 rpm?
a) 8.6%
b) 91.4%
c) 77.3%
d) 73.4%

61. What type of utility change happens if I make the product available where it is most
needed
a) Form
b) Time
c) Place
d) Possession

62. Which subsystem is in charge of wholesalers, retailers, traders, middleman, etc

a) Input
b) Processing
c) Production
d) Marketing
63. What is not a characteristic of an agricultural product
a) SEASONAL
b) fresh
c) perishable
d) variable

64. What is not a characteristic of a wholesaler

a) Substantial working capital
b) Has transportation ability
c) Carries assortment of different products in small quantities
d) Access to market facilities
65. A Classification of an agribusiness product that is directly consumed by buyers
a) Fresh
b) Semi Processed
c) Finished
d) Point of Consumption
66. What hinders farmers from directly transacting with supermarkets and
hypermarkets?
a) Creating a marketing association
b) Having a consolidator
c) Lacks transaction document
d) Has a consolidator

67. The following are Product Strategies except

a) Branding Strategy
b) Packaging Strategy
c) Labeling Strategy
d) Pricing Strategy
68. This is where marketing ends
a) Point of consumption
b) Point of production
c) At the farmer’s home
d) Usually the first sale of the farmer

69. This is the start of the agribusiness marketing chain

a) Input Subsystem
b) Production Subsystem
c) Processing Subsystem
d) Marketing Subsytem

70. Which is not currently a trend in marketing

a) Increase in supermarket
b) Increase in food safety
c) Change in preferences in terms of consumption
d) Use of cash instead of digital currency

71. Type of utility that happens when a middleman freezes pork product to make it
available when most needed
a) Form
b) Time
c) Place
d) Possession

72. It is the process of continuously and profitably satisfying customer’s needs, wants
and expectation superior to competition
a) Input Subsystem
b) Production Subsystem
c) Processing Subsystem
d) Marketing

73. The 4 Ps of marketing are

a) Product, Price, Place, Promotion
b) Product Price Packaging, Promotion
c) Packaging, Price, Place, Promotion
 d) Packaging, Product, Price, Promotion
74. When I deliver earlier than expected, I provide
a) Happiness
b) Satisfaction
c) Dissatisfaction
d) Delight
75. The type of orientation that focuses on the needs of the customer
a) Product concept
b) Selling concept
c) Production concept
d) Marketing concept
76. This occurs when total revenue equals total costs.
a) breakeven point
b) Interest
c) maximum profit
d) maximum total revenue

77. In deciding whether one should replace an old machine with a new one, the
purchase cost of the old machine is treated as a/an
a) book cost
b) burden cost
c) opportunity cost
d) sunk cost
78. A firm could breakeven if it operated at 30% of its capacity. Its annual fixed costs
are ₱ 9,000,000 and the variable cost of its product is ₱ 100 per unit. The product is
sold for ₱ 250 per unit. How much would be the firm’s profit if it operated at full
capacity?
a) ₱ 9,000,000
b) ₱ 21,000,000
c) ₱ 41,000,000
d) ₱ 50,000,000

79. For a certain item that a local manufacturer produces, it was determined that the
relationship between price and demand is given by p = 1,900 – 0.1p. The company’s
fixed cost is ₱ 1.5 M per month, and the variable cost is ₱ 800 per unit. What volume of
production will maximize the company’s total monthly profit?
a) 5,500
b) 7,500
c) 8,500
d) 9,500

80. A small shop in Nueva Ecija fabricates portable rice threshers for rice producers in
the locality and sells each unit at ₱ 50,000. Each unit is produced at a labor cost of ₱
9,000, material cost of ₱12,500 and other variable costs of ₱ 3,500. Fixed charges
incurred per annum amount to ₱ 1,200,000. The shop now plans to drop the price of the
thresher by ₱ 5,000. What is the difference between the breakeven points based on the
reduced price and on the original price?
a) 8 units
b) 12 units
 c) 16 units
d) 20 units
81. Edgar borrowed ₱ 30,000 from a local commercial bank. The loan is charged with
a 16% per year simple interest rate but the interest is to be deducted from the loan at
the time the money is borrowed. At the end of one year, Edgar has to pay ₱
30,000. What is the actual rate of interest?
a) 16.10%
b) 19.05%
c) 24.10%
d) 38.10%
82. A machine which costs ₱ 562,500 when new, has a lifetime of 15 years and a
salvage value equal to 20% of its original cost. If depreciated by the sum-of-the-years-
digits method, the depreciation charge during the 8th year of the machine is closest to
a) ₱ 30,000
b) ₱ 33,750
c) P37,500
d) ₱ 6,667

83. Charina desires to make an investment in bonds, provided she can realize 10%
annually on her investment. How much can Charina afford to pay for a ₱ 50,000 bond
that pays 5% annual interest and will mature 10 years hence?
a) ₱ 33,674.72
b) ₱ 34,638.58
c) ₱ 55,000.00
d) ₱ 69,304.34
84. Rosalie arranges to repay a ₱ 180,000 bank loan in 18 equal monthly payments at
an interest rate of 12% compounded monthly. Immediately after her sixth payment, she
applied for another loan in the bank worth ₱ 90,000, also at 12% compounded monthly.
She is able to persuade the banker to let her repay the remaining debt of the first loan
and the entire amount of the second loan in 15 equal monthly payments. The first of
these payments would be made one month after she receives the second loan. The
amount of each of the 15 monthly payments is closest to
a) ₱ 10,977
b) ₱ 12,874
c) ₱ 14,000
d) ₱ 15,402

85. Among the following, that which can be classified as overhead cost is
a) Cost of plastic cups in a coffee shop
b) Cost of power used to run plant equipment
c) Cost of computer parts in a store that assembles and sells computer units
d) Wages of an injection machine operator in a plastics factory

86. PAES 303:2000 provides the power rating of roller chain based on a service life of
_______?
a) 15 000 hr
b) 1 000 hr
c) 5 000 hr
d) 10 000 hr
87. What is the center distance between two spur gears (T1 = 25 teeth, T1 = 45 teeth,)
with a diametral pitch of 3?
a) 99 mm
b) 11.7 inches
c) 23.3 inches
d) 60 inches

88. These are multiple keys in the general form of internal and external gear teeth,
used to prevent relative rotation of cylindrically fitted machine parts.
a) Rigid couplings
b) Involute splines
c) Square splines
d) Friction clutches

89. What is the degree of freedom of a spherical joint?

a) 11
b) 2
c) 3
d) -1

90. A board principally made from wood chips and formed by hot press process with
adhesive:
a) plywood
b) fiberboard
c) adhesive-bonded fiberboard
d) particle board
91. These are activities which create faster and more efficient performance of other
marketing activities. These include market intelligence and marketing information
dissemination, financing, provision of marketing support facilities, and promotions.
a) Transactional activities
b) Physical handling and distribution of products
c) Facilitating activities
d) Agroservices activities

92. This is a continuous function of marketing. The objective of this function is to

inform prospective buyers of product availability and also to increase sales.
a) Pricing
b) Promotion
c) Research and development
d) Distribution

93. Because of the variability in agricultural outputs, ________ must be done to

facilitate buying, selling, transportation, storage, and pricing of the produce.
__________ is done to standardize measurements, which could be in terms of size,
weight, and overall quality.
a) Grading
b) Assembly
c) Negotiation
d) Packing/packaging
94. These are the types of middlemen who do the business of negotiating in behalf of
the producers and the buyers. They do not assume ownership of the products that they
are handling.
a) Retailers
b) Wholesalers
c) Assemblers
d) Agents and brokers
95. Marketing overcomes several separations. One of these is separation in
__________. This happens when producers tend to locate where it is economical to
produce while consumers are located in many scattered locations.
a) Separation in Time
b) Separation in Information
c) Separation in Location
d) Separation in Value

96. In a vegetable farm, cost of planting materials and fertilizers, and wages of farmers
are examples of
a) book costs
b) disposal costs
c) operation and maintenance costs
d) overhead expenses

97. In a cassava processing plant, costs of land, building and milling machines are
examples of
a) investment cost
b) operation and maintenance costs
c) overhead expenses
98. The following are characteristics of an ordinary annuity except
a) Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.
b) The amounts of periodic payments are equal.
c) The payments are made at the beginning of each period.
d) The payments are made at equal interval of time.

99. This is a method of computing for depreciation charges wherein the annual charge
is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year to which the
depreciation applies.
a) Declining balance method
b) Sinking fund method
c) Straight line method
d) Sum-of-years digit method

100. At age 22, you invest ₱ 500,000 into a mutual fund. If the fund averages a 3.5%
annual return, your investment is worth how much by the time you are 30 years old?
a) ₱ 657,500.00
b) ₱ 658,404.52
c) ₱ 681,448.68
d) ₱ 697,154.56