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Pricing Approaches For Credit Derivatives
Pricing Approaches For Credit Derivatives
Pricing Approaches For Credit Derivatives
Contents
Credit default swaps: .................................................................................................................................... 2
Binary CDS vs. Vanilla CDS ........................................................................................................................ 4
Forward/Deferred CDS.............................................................................................................................. 5
Amortized CDS .......................................................................................................................................... 5
Quanto CDS (dual currency CDS) .............................................................................................................. 6
Diffusion models for intensity of defaults and recovery rates. Which contract is better? Vanilla/binary
CDS? .......................................................................................................................................................... 7
Joint correlated Geometric Brownian motions for default intensity and recovery rates .................... 7
Joint correlated CIR processes for default intensity and recovery rates .............................................. 8
Basket default swaps on credits with equal and unequal expiries ............................................................... 8
Basket default swaps when the components’ expiries are unequal ...................................................... 12
Basket default swaps when default times are not correlated. Calibration of copula parameters......... 12
Diffusion models for basket default swaps............................................................................................. 15
CDX .............................................................................................................................................................. 15
CDX on credits with equal outstanding notionals and expiries .............................................................. 15
CDX on entities with different outstanding notionals and identical expiries ......................................... 17
CDX on entities with different outstanding notional and expiries ......................................................... 18
Diffusion models for CDX ........................................................................................................................ 19
Option pricing approaches for CDOs .......................................................................................................... 19
CDOs with tranches having equal expiries.............................................................................................. 20
CDOs with tranches having different expiries ........................................................................................ 21
Diffusion models for CDOs ...................................................................................................................... 22
CLOs ............................................................................................................................................................ 22
Use credit default swaps and basket default swaps to mitigate credit risk ............................................... 22
An approach to compute RWA when CDS and guarantees are simultaneously used ................................ 23
Credit default swaps:
When it comes to modelling the market risk of credit derivatives, and to study the P&L distribution &
credit risk parameters, one can either touch the spread dynamics or the default intensity dynamics along
with the recovery rate process.
Mathematical framework:
For the protection buyer, assume that we pay 𝑐 on a notional 𝑁, with expiry 𝑇 and frequency 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞 of
payments per year. Assume that 𝑡1 , 𝑡2 , … , 𝑡𝑁 are the payment times if the default doesn’t occur until
expiry. Assume also that the instantaneous risk-free rate is 𝑟𝑠 and the recovery rate is 𝑅, which for the
moment is assumed to be fixed. Then the stochastic value of the premium leg and default leg are:
𝑡
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = ∑𝑡𝑚≥𝑡 𝑐 ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅ (𝑡𝑚 − 𝑡𝑚−1 ) ⋅ 1(𝜏 > 𝑡𝑚 ) ⋅ exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
𝜏
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = (1 − 𝑅) ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅ 1(𝜏 ≤ 𝑇) ⋅ exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
The CDS spread is the value of 𝑐 that satisfy 𝐸[𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿)] = 𝐸[𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿)] or, the value 𝑐 that makes at
initiation the CDS to be worth 0 to both the buyer and the seller of the protection insurance.
REMARK:
If the interest rates are constant and the default time is 𝐸𝑥𝑝(𝜆) distributed, then we get the credit
triangle relationship: 𝑠(0, 𝑇) = (1 − 𝑅) ⋅ 𝜆
𝜆1 , 0 ≤ 𝑡 ≤ 𝑡1
𝜆 , 𝑡 < 𝑡 ≤ 𝑡2
If we have a piecewise exponential model where 𝜆(𝑡) = { 2 1 then, 𝑠(0, 𝑇) =
…
𝜆𝑛 , 𝑡 ≥ 𝑡𝑛−1
(1 − 𝑅)𝜆1 , 𝑇 ≤ 𝑡1
𝑡1 𝑇−𝑡
(1 − 𝑅) ⋅ (𝜆1 ⋅ + 𝜆2 ⋅ 𝑇 1 ) , 𝑡1 < 𝑇 ≤ 𝑡2
𝑇
…
𝑡1 𝑇−𝑡𝑛−1
{(1 − 𝑅) ⋅ (𝜆1 ⋅ 𝑇 + ⋯ + 𝜆𝑛 ⋅ 𝑇 ) , 𝑇 ≥ 𝑡𝑛−1
Numerical example:
Suppose a bank buys protection on a bullet loan with outstanding notional 𝑁 = 1,000,000$ and expiry
in 5 years issued by a company whose default intensity is 5% per year, and the recovery rate is 50%.
If the risk-free rate is 4.5%, and assuming that the spread follows a geometric Brownian motion with
the diffusion parameter 𝜎 = 20%, we get the main risk results in the tables below (Expected loss,
Expected Shortfall, Risky Present Value of 1 basis point, the spread, the Value at Risk and Economic
Capital based on Expected Shortfall 97.5% and different horizons) when payments are once, twice a
year or quarterly:
Table 1: Risk indicators when 𝒓𝒔 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟓, 𝝉 ∼ 𝑬𝒙𝒑𝒐(𝝀 = 𝟓%), 𝑹 = 𝟓𝟎%, 𝑵 =
𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝑼𝑺𝑫, 𝝈𝒔𝒑𝒓𝒆𝒂𝒅 = 𝟐𝟎% for different horizons
Table 1 bis: Same data as above but for CDS with semi-annual payments of premiums
CONCLUSION 1: The CDS with semi-annual payments and quarterly payments display slightly more
credit risk.
Economic capital is defined in line with the Basel III methodologies where 𝐸𝐶𝑎𝑝 = 𝐸𝑆(97.5%; ℎ) −
𝐸𝐿(ℎ) (depending on the Expected Shortfall instead of VaR (99%).
Table 3: Risk indicators for Exponential model and Piecewise exponential model and horizons of 10 days,
20 days and 40 days. The credit spread volatility is assumed 20%.
We compare in the below table the risks of binary CDS and vanilla CDS.
Table 4: Binary CDS risk measures when assumed recovery rate in case of default is 𝑅 = 50%, the value
paid Is 450,000$ out of 1,000,000 in case of default, annual coupon payment
For more details, there is a special section dedicated on which CDS is riskier.
Forward/Deferred CDS
Suppose now that we want to price a deferred CDS that would start paying premiums in 4 years and end
in 8 years 𝐶𝐷𝑆(0,3,8), that means a forward CDS starting in 3 years, with the first premium paid
annually in 4 years (5 payments).
Table 5: Risk characteristics for Deferred CDS (0,3,8), annual frequency,𝜎𝑠𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑 = 𝜎𝑠 = 20%(𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙)
Amortized CDS
Most of the credit instruments have amortizing schemes therefore the CDS instruments that should best
hedge credit risk would be amortized CDS-es.
Amortizable CDS, used in combination with amortized bonds/loans are the ideal and standard hedging
strategies for credit risk.
Numerical example: Suppose a CDS is written so that it corresponds to a loan expiring in 5 years, with
annual amortizements, while the default intensity is estimated at 𝜆 = 600𝑏𝑝𝑠.
The baseline assumption is an exponential model of times to default, and we assume the credit spread
moves at a geometric Brownian motion from the current spread with a 𝐿𝑁(0, 𝜎𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 = 20%)
distribution.
The economic capital is again based on Expected shortfall – Expected Loss at a level of 97.5%.
𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡:EL (expected loss), ES (Expected Shortfall), Risky Present Value of 1 $, spread, Value at Risk and
Economic Capital (horizon = 10 days)
Context: This instrument is useful when offering insurance on credits issued by entities from low-
developed financial markets, where CDS presence in domestic currency is non-existent or very poor.
If the currency rates and the default times are independent, then a cross-currency CDS (also named
quanto) where both premium and default leg are in foreign currency, display a similar behavior, but with
reference risk-free rate as the local (domestic) rate.
The spread formula for constant default rate (𝜆), and flat term structure rate (𝑟) and the annual
volatility of the FX rate is 𝜎 is given below:
2 +𝜆)(𝑇−𝑡)
(1 − 𝑅)𝜆 1 − 𝑒 −(𝑟𝑑𝑜𝑚−𝜎 1
𝑠= ⋅ ⋅ 2
𝑟𝑑𝑜𝑚 − 𝜎 2 + 𝜆 𝑇−𝑡 ∑𝑡𝑚≥𝑡 Δ𝑡𝑚 𝑒 −(𝑡𝑚−𝑡)(𝑟𝑑𝑜𝑚+𝜆−𝜎 )
For more details about this formula, you can contact me via Linkedin.
𝟐)
The new risky present value of a unit dollar is ∑𝒕𝒎 ≥𝒕 𝚫𝒕𝒎 𝒆−(𝒕𝒎 −𝒕)(𝒓𝒅𝒐𝒎 +𝝀−𝝈 = 𝑹𝑷𝑽𝟎𝟏
A borrower from Romania issues a loan of 10,000,000 RON towards a Romanian investment bank. The
bank, in order to cover against credit risk, wants to buy insurance, but cannot buy CDS on the local
market but only on the international market.
He accepts to enter a CDS where default and premium leg are paid in euros in case of default, at the
initial historical exchange rate. Suppose that the initial FX rate is 𝑋0 = 5𝑅𝑂𝑁/𝐸𝑈𝑅𝑂 and the EURO and
ROMANIAN LEU risk-free interest rates are at 4.1% (EURIBOR 6M) and 6.1% levels (ROBOR 6M).
Then for a 5-year CDS, corresponding to the 5-year loan, without amortizement, and where annual
payments for the insurance are made, we get the results below:
Table 7: Risk Characteristics when recovery R = 40%, 𝜆 = 4.5%, 𝑟𝑅𝑂𝑁 = 6.1%, 𝑟𝐸𝑈𝑅 = 4.1%
Context & Numerical example: Assume that we wonder ourselves whether to use a vanilla CDS or
binary CDS to hedge the credit risk, but we would also like to benefit from the potential gains.
For that we have the choice between entering a 5-year vanilla CDS and entering a binary CDS that pays
500,000 $ on an outstanding notional of 1,000,000 $.
The risk-free rate is 4.5%, the payments of CDS are made on an annual basis.
We consider that both the recovery and default intensity present uncertainty in the future.
Hence one may use the stochastic process for each credit risk parameter:
𝑑𝜆𝑡 = 𝜎1 𝑅𝑡 𝑑𝐵𝑡1
𝑑𝑅𝑡 = 𝜎2 𝑅𝑡 𝑑𝐵𝑡2
Below I present the results for Value at Risk 95% for 1 month horizon when several hypothetical
situations occur:
One may see that when both recovery rate and default intensity are uncertain, the binary CDS is a more
secure instrument than the vanilla CDS to be held.
Most of the risk is born by the default intensity risk, however as one can see from cases III and IV.
In case of geometric Brownian motions, there are no closed formulas for the survival probabilities, but
one can use the associated PDE of the survival function 𝑆(𝑡, 𝑇) and then solve it numerically.
If 𝜆(𝑡): 0 ≤ 𝑡 ≤ 𝑇 satisfies the stochastic equation 𝑑𝜆𝑡 = 𝑎(𝜆(𝑡))𝑑𝑡 + 𝑏(𝜆(𝑡))𝑑𝐵𝑡 then the function
𝑆(𝑡, 𝑇) satisfies the following parabolic equation:
𝜕2 𝑆 1 2 𝜕𝑆 𝜕𝑆
𝜕𝜆2𝑡
⋅ 2 𝑏(𝜆(𝑡)) + 𝑎(𝜆(𝑡)) ⋅ 𝜕𝜆 − 𝜕𝑡 − 𝜆(𝑡)𝑆(𝑡, 𝑇, 𝜆(𝑡)) = 0
Proof:
𝑇 𝑇
𝑆(𝜆𝑡 , 𝑡, 𝑇) = 𝐸𝑄 [𝑒 − ∫𝑡 𝜆𝑠 𝑑𝑠
|𝐹𝑡 ] = 𝐸𝑄 [𝑒 − ∫𝑡 𝜆𝑠 𝑑𝑠
|𝜆𝑡 ] because 𝜆𝑡 follows a Markov process.
Joint correlated CIR processes for default intensity and recovery rates
Assume that the default intensity (𝜆𝑡 ) and recovery rate (𝑅𝑡 ) are following the processes:
Assume that we want to price 5-year CDS after 1 month, given the initial spreads of each. The worst 5%
PnLs in either case are presented below under 4 possible scenarios:
The binary CDS is more secure than vanilla CDS when joint default and recovery risk are considered.
Remark: The affine diffusion processes are preferred to geometric Brownian motion, because the first
model can be calibrated from empirical survival probabilities, unlike the latter model.
Suppose we wish to value a 𝑘-to-default swap on 𝑛 credits written by 𝑛 entities whose notionals are
𝑁1 , 𝑁2 , … , 𝑁𝑛 , the recovery rates are 𝑅1 , 𝑅2 , … , 𝑅𝑖 = (1 − 𝐿𝐺𝐷)𝑖 , and the default times are 𝜏𝑖
The stochastic value of the premium leg and default leg can be represented as follows:
𝑡
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = 𝑐 ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅ ∑𝑡𝑚≥𝑡 Δ𝑡𝑚 ⋅ 1{𝜏𝑘:𝑛 ≥ 𝑡𝑚 } ⋅ exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠) and
𝜏
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = 𝑋 ⋅ 1{𝜏𝑘:𝑛 ≤ 𝑇} ⋅ 𝑒𝑥𝑝(− ∫𝑡 1:𝑛 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠) where 𝜏𝑘:𝑛 is the 𝑘 𝑡ℎ default time between the 𝑛
entities where 𝑋 = ∑𝑛𝑖=1 1{𝜏𝑘:𝑛 = 𝜏𝑖 }(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖
𝐸[𝑋⋅1(𝜏𝑘:𝑛 ≤𝑇)𝐵𝑡 (𝜏𝑘:𝑛 )]
The value of the spread 𝑘𝑇𝐷 is 𝑠 𝑘𝑇𝐷 = 𝑁⋅∑ where 𝑁 is the notional defined in the
𝑡𝑚 ≥𝑡 Δ𝑡𝑚 𝑆𝑘:𝑛 (𝑡𝑚 )⋅𝐵𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )
k-to-default contract.
REMARKS:
Example 1:
Suppose we wish to issue a First to default credit swap defined on three entities that have issued 3
bonds expiring in 5 years, that pay annual coupons of 7%, 9% and 11%. The recovery rates are 50%,60%
and 40% respectively and the default intensities of 6%, 8% and 11%
The face values of the bonds are 1,000,000$ each. The spreads and RPV’s for a First-to-default swap
with contractual notional of 𝑁 = 1,000,000$and yearly payments are in the table below:
If the default intensities and credit spreads go up-and-down with 50bps, 100 bps and 200 bps we have
the following spread:
The first-to-default swap is 2 times riskier than the second to default swap and 10 times riskier than a 3rd
to default swap.
The Value at Risk 99% for 10-day, 20-day, 40-day, 60-day and 120-day horizon of such an instrument
need a spread dynamic assumption.
Assume the ratings of the three entities are BB, B and C where a universe of 6 ratings are AA, A, BB, B, C
and D (default)
The transition matrix is assumed to be 𝑃(1) = (𝑝𝑖𝑗 ) and the last row is 𝑃(1)(6, . ) = (0,0,0,0,0,1)
1≤𝑖,𝑗≤6
The Value at Risk is found by assuming a P&L distribution. The fastest way to compute the 𝑃&𝐿 is to
use𝑅𝑃𝑉01 approach, or a 𝑅𝑃𝑉 − 𝜃 approach if the horizon is greater than 20 days.
Horizon (𝒉) 𝑽𝒂𝑹(𝟗𝟗%, 𝒉) 𝑽𝒂𝑹(𝟗𝟕. 𝟓%, 𝒉) 𝑬𝑺(𝟗𝟕. 𝟓%; 𝒉) 𝑬𝑳(𝒉𝒐𝒓) 𝑬𝑪𝒂𝒑(𝟗𝟕. 𝟓%𝑬𝑺) ECap(99%VaR)
10D 28,934.07 25,199.06 28,760.71 -837.283 29,598 29,771.3
20D 43,159.29 35,957.8 44,281.55 890.6858 43,390.9 42,268.6
40D 54,243.96 44,957.42 55,136.68 1,085.477 54,051.2 53,158.5
60D 65,630.83 56,471.7 67,128.81 796.0629 66,332.7 64,834.8
120D 90,834.41 75,015.39 89,480.94 -1,448.89 90,929.8 92,283.3
The economic capital based on 97.5% Expected shortfall for the Basket Default Swaps are increasing for
the horizons mentioned.
Example 2:
Suppose we have two credits, represented by bullet loans with outstanding notionals 𝑁1 , 𝑁2 ,expiries
equal to 𝑇1 = 5years, 𝑇2 = 8years and we wish to price a First-to-default swap issued on these two
loans.
This instrument can be decomposed into a First-to-Default Swap that would expire in 5 years + a
forward(deferred) CDS that will start payments in 5 years and would end its payments at time 𝑇2
The stochastic value of the premium leg is 𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = Premium leg of a first-to-default swap
(0, 𝑇1 , 𝑁1 , 𝑁2 ) + premium leg of a deferred CDS which pays after 𝑇1 years and ends in 𝑇2 years
Numerical examples:
1. Suppose the default intensities are 5% for the first entity, 8% for the second entity, the entities
issue 𝑁 =1,000,000 euro bullet loans and the recovery rates are 50% each. The loans expire in 5
years and 8 years respectively.
What is the value of a derivative that covers against the first default on a period of 8 years based on
the 2 loans if a premium of 12% out of the notional 𝑵 = 𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎$ is required to be paid yearly?
The product can be structured as a First-to-default swap for 5 years + forward swap between 5 year
and 8-year expiry.
The characteristics of the First to default, Second to default swap are covered in the table below:
The Economic capital is based on the 𝐸𝑆(97.5%; 10𝐷) and the expected loss for 10 days horizon.
2. Suppose the default intensities are 5%, 8% and 11%, the entities issue 𝑵 = 𝟏, 𝟎𝟎𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 euro
bullet loans and the recoveries are 40%, 60%, 70%. The loans expire in 5 years, 8 years and 10
years.
For 10 days horizon we have the results shown below:
The required capital (Economic Capital based on the Expected Shortfall 97.5%) is decreasing with the
entity that defaults, and corresponds to a junior, mezzanine and senior tranche.
Example 3:
Let us assume a portfolio contains 𝑛1 credits with notionals 𝑁1 , 𝑁2 , … , 𝑁𝑛1 and expiry (𝑇1 ) and 𝑛2 credits
with notionals 𝑁𝑛1 +1 , … , 𝑁𝑛1 +𝑛2 (expiry = 𝑇2 )
Suppose the premium is paid based on a notional 𝑁, not necessarly equal to any of the notionals 𝑁𝑖 , 𝑖 ∈
{1,2, … , 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 }
𝑡 <𝑇
The stochastic value of the premium leg is: 𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = 𝑐 ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅ ∑𝑡𝑚
𝑚 ≥𝑡
1
1{𝜏1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 > 𝑡𝑚 }𝐵(𝑡, 𝑡𝑚 ) + 𝑐 ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅
∑𝑡𝑡𝑚 ≤𝑇2
𝑚 >𝑇1
1(𝜏𝑛1 +1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 > 𝑡𝑚 )𝐵(𝑡, 𝑡𝑚 ) = 𝑃𝐿(𝐹𝑡𝐷(𝐸1 , 𝐸2 , … , 𝐸𝑛1 +𝑛2 ; 𝑇1 ))] + 𝑃𝐿(𝐹𝑡𝐷(𝑛1 + 1, … , 𝑛1 +
𝑛2 ; 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑑, 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 ))
The stochastic value of the default leg is: 𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = 𝑋1 ⋅ 1{𝜏1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 ≤ 𝑇1 }𝐵(𝑡, 𝜏1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 ) + 𝑋2 ⋅
𝑛 +𝑛
1{𝑇1 ≤ 𝜏1:𝑛1 , 𝜏𝑛1 +1:𝑛2 ∈ (𝑇1 , 𝑇2 )}𝐵(𝑡, 𝜏𝑛1 +1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 ) where 𝑋1 = ∑1 1 2 1{𝜏1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 = 𝜏𝑖 }(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖 =
(1 − 𝑅𝑖∗ )𝑁𝑖∗ and 𝑋2 = ∑𝑛𝑛11 +𝑛 2
+1 1{𝜏𝑛1 +1:𝑛1 +𝑛2 = 𝜏𝑖 }(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖
In case the two classes of entities show independent default times, then the value of the premium leg
and default leg are the value of a first-to-default swap on 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 credits and expiry 𝑇1 + a deferred first
to default swap starting the payments in 𝑇1 and ending in 𝑇2 on 𝑛2 entities.
In this case, only the stochastic value of the default leg changes as follows:
𝑛 𝜏1:𝑛
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = ∑(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖 ⋅ 1{𝜏1:𝑛 = 𝜏𝑖 } ⋅ 1{𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑇𝑖 }exp(− ∫ 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
𝑖=1 𝑡
Numerical example 4:
If we assume a first-to-default swap with independent default times expo distributed with intensities
6%, 8%. 11%, recovery rates of 50%, 60%, 40%, expiries of 5 years, 7 years and 9 years and annual
payments we obtain the following results:
The risk-free rate curve is assumed flat at 4.5% and the face value of the contract is equal to the face
values of each entity: 1,000,000 euros.
Actually, the spreads are independent of the outstanding notional debts, if these are equal along with
their recovery rates.
Basket default swaps when default times are not correlated. Calibration of copula
parameters
Numerical example (Compare independent, Clayton, normal and student copulas):
Suppose we want to price a first-to-default swap on 3 entities, representing credits issued by 3 SMEs,
with outstanding notionals equal to 1,000,000$each, the default times being exponentially distributed
with parameters 6%, 8% and 11%.
The loss given defaults for the 3 SMEs are 50%,40% and 60% respectively.
The contract will expire in 5 years and the risk-free rates are considered to be all around 3.5%
1 0.5 0.3
Here 𝜃 = 1.5, 𝜌 = [0.5 1 0.4],𝜈 = 5
0.3 0.4 1
In case of normal copulas with 𝜌 correlation matrix we have the following plot:
Figure 2: Spread of a Basket Default Swap when defaults are exponential with normal copula
Here we consider the default times exponentially distributed but with the correlations between the first
and second entity increasing from 0 to 70%.
We observe that a single correlation in case of normal copula doesn’t affect significantly the spread
(whether it is the first, second or third-to-default spread).
Kendall’s tau:
Genest and McKay show that for an Archimedean copula, the expression of Kendall’s tau is:
1 𝜙(𝑢)
𝜏 < 𝐶 >= 1 + 4 ∫0 𝜙′ (𝑢)
𝑑𝑢where 𝜙is the generator of an Archimedean copula satisfying:
One conclusion I have reached is that the higher the correlation between the default intensities is, the
narrower gets the difference between spreads.
Numerical example:
As above, the notional outstandings are 1,000,000 euros each, the recovery rates are 50%,60%,40% and
the initial default rates are 6%,8%,11%
The volatilities of the default intensities are 𝜎1 = 𝜎2 = 𝜎3 = 20%, while the correlation between the
default intensities are 𝜌12 = 𝜌23 = 𝜌13 = 50%
Then we have the following results regarding the Value at Risk 95% for a 1 month horizon:
CDX
CDX on credits with equal outstanding notionals and expiries
In this case consider 𝑁1 = 𝑁2 = ⋯ = 𝑁𝑛 the outstanding notionals of 𝑛credits from 𝑛 different entities.
An insurance buyer would pay a rate 𝑐 on the notional 𝑁 = (𝑁1 + 𝑁2 + ⋯ + 𝑁𝑛 ). Every time a default
happens, the notional would decrease by 𝑁/𝑛
1
The outstanding notional can therefore be written as 𝑁𝑡 (𝑢) = 𝑁 ⋅ (1 − 𝑛 ∑𝑛𝑖=1 1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢))
𝑘
After the 𝑘 𝑡ℎ default, the notional would become 𝑁 (1 − 𝑛)
1
At time 𝑢 ≥ 𝑡, the cumulative loss would be 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = 𝑛 ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝑁(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢) meaning that the
incremental loss between two fixing times is Δ𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 ) = 𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 ) − 𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚−1 )
One may deduce that the stochastic value of the premium and default legs are:
𝑡
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = 𝑐∑Δ𝑡𝑚 𝑁𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )𝐵(𝑡, 𝑡𝑚 ) where 𝐵𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 ) = exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
𝑡
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = ∑Δ𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
𝑡
E[Δ𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )exp ∑(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)]
Therefore 𝑐 = 𝐸[∑Δ𝑡𝑚 𝑁𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )𝐵(𝑡,𝑡𝑚 )]
REMARK:
In the particular case where 𝜏𝑖 ∼ Exponential(𝜆𝑖 ) and the risk-free is approximated with an average 𝑟𝑓
interest rate risk-free, then:
𝑛 𝑛
1 1
𝐸[Lt (𝑢)] = ∑ 𝑁(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )(1 − 𝑒 −𝜆𝑖𝑢 ) ⇒ 𝐸[Δ𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )] = ⋅ 𝑁 ⋅ ∑(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )(𝑒 −𝜆𝑖𝑡𝑚−1 − 𝑒 −𝜆𝑖𝑡𝑚 )
𝑛 𝑛
1 1
1 𝑁 𝑛 −𝜆 𝑢
On the other hand the notional outstanding is 𝐸[𝑁𝑡 (𝑢)] = 𝑁 (1 − 𝑛 ∑𝑃(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢)) = ∑ 𝑒 𝑖
𝑛 1
REMARK 2:
𝑁 𝑁
If the notionals and recoveries are equal, 𝑁1 = 𝑁2 = ⋯ = 𝑁𝑛 = ⇒ 𝑠 𝐶𝐷𝑋 ⋅ 𝑁 = ∑𝑛1 𝑠𝑖𝐶𝐷𝑆 ⋅
𝑛 𝑛
If the notionals are not equal, but the recoveries are, then 𝑠 𝐶𝐷𝑋 = 𝑤1 𝑠1𝐶𝐷𝑆 + ⋯ + 𝑤𝑛 𝑠𝑛𝐶𝐷𝑆
Numerical example:
Suppose an investor buys a CDX on 3 entities with recovery rates 50%, 50%, 50%, default intensities 6%,
8% and 11%. The notionals of the underlying credits are 1,000,000 EUROS each and the contract
notional is also 1,000,000EUROS.
The results for the independent exponential default times are below:
𝑁𝑡 (𝑢) = ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝑁𝑖 ⋅ (1 − (𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢)) and the loss 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = ∑𝑛1 𝑁𝑖 (1 − 𝑅𝑖 )1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢)
If the outstanding notionals are not equal, the recoveries are not equal but the expiries are, then the
following result holds:
𝑁1 𝑁𝑛
𝑠 𝐶𝐷𝑋 = 𝑠1𝐶𝐷𝑆 ⋅ (1 − 𝑅1 ) ⋅ + ⋯ 𝑠𝑛𝐶𝐷𝑆 (1 − 𝑅𝑛 ) ⋅
∑(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖 ∑(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )𝑁𝑖
Suppose we have a triple-name CDX on 3 loans with notionals outstanding 𝑁1 , 𝑁2 , 𝑁3 =
300,000; 200,000; 100,000$ each, recovery rates 𝑅1 = 60%, 𝑅2 = 50%, 𝑅3 = 40%, and default
intensities 5%, 8%, 10%. The loans have all 5 years to expiry.
If the default times are independent, the spread of a CDX with 5 year expiry is 𝑠 𝐶𝐷𝑋 ≈ 3.4%
The loss at time 𝑢 starting at time 𝑡 can be seen as 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝑁𝑖 ⋅ (1 − 𝑅𝑖 ) ⋅ 1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ min(𝑢, 𝑇𝑖 ))
The spread of the CDX can then be computed similarly as in the previous case.
Numerical example:
Suppose a bank wishes to write a CDX on 3 credits whose outstanding notionals are 1million, 2million
and 3 million euros respectively. The credits expire in 5 years, 7 years and 9 years respectively.
The recovery rates are 70%, 50% and 30%. The default intensities (in annual noting) are 5%, 8% and 11%.
If the recovery rates are equally 50% then the CDX spread would be 4.40%-4.50%
If the recovery rates are 70%, 50% and 50% the spread would be 4.21%.
This can be also considered as a call spread with the underlying the losses of the portfolio and the strike
prices 𝐴(𝑙𝑜𝑛𝑔), 𝐷(𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑟𝑡) (if 𝐴 > 0)
[𝐴,𝐷]
If 𝐴 = 0, then 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = value of an asset-or-nothing put + a cash-or-nothing call
𝐷 − 𝐴, 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) ≤ 𝐴
[𝐴,𝐷] [𝐴,𝐷]
𝑁𝑡 (𝑢) = (𝐷 − 𝐴) − 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = {𝐷 − 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢), 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) ∈ [𝐴, 𝐷]
0, 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) > 𝐷
In case 0 < 𝐴 < 𝐷, this is a put spread with strike prices 𝐴, 𝐷 (long put with strike A and expiry 𝑇 + short
put with strike 𝐷 and expiry T).
If 𝐴 = 0 (junior tranche), the notional outstanding can be simply considered as a put price long with
strike price 𝐷 and expiry at 𝑇 (the common expiries of the credits underlying the CDO).
CDOs with tranches having equal expiries
Stochastic discounted values of the premium and default legs:
𝑡𝑚
[𝐴,𝐷]
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝑃𝐿) = 𝑐 [𝐴,𝐷] ∑ Δ𝑡𝑚 𝑁𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 )𝑒𝑥𝑝(− ∫ 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
𝑡𝑚 ≥𝑡 𝑡
[𝐴,𝐷] 𝑡
𝑆𝑉𝑡 (𝐷𝐿) = ∑𝑡𝑚≥𝑡 Δ𝐿𝑡 (𝑡𝑚 ) ⋅ exp(− ∫𝑡 𝑚 𝑟𝑠 𝑑𝑠)
Numerical example:
The recovery rates in case of defaults are considered 60%, 50%, 40% (there is no recovery risk).
The results for the 3 tranches are given in the table below (at a 10-day investment horizon)
∑ 𝑁𝑖 (1 − 𝑅𝑖 )1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢), 𝑢 ≤ 𝑇1
𝑖=1
𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = 3
NUMERICAL EXAMPLE:
Assuming we are in the same situation as in the previous paragraph, but instead the expiries are 6 years,
5 years and 6 years, respectively and a 5-year CDO is issued with annual premium payments.
CLOs
CLOs can be treated as particular cases of CDOs (even though the underlying assets of CLOs are loans
while the underlying assets of CDOs are mainly bonds).
CLOs are mainly ABS with two tranches: equity and senior tranches.
Because CLOs have loans as underlying assets, technically CLOs are CDOs with amortization schemes.
Mathematical framework
Similar to CDOs, the cumulative loss at time 𝑢can be written as 𝐿𝑡 (𝑢) = ∑𝑁𝑖 (𝑢)(1 − 𝑅𝑖 )1(𝜏𝑖 ≤ 𝑢)
The individual notionals 𝑁𝑖 (𝑢) are no longer constant, as in a standard CDO, but depend on the
amortization scheme.
The remaining steps for pricing and valuation are identical with the one from standard CDOs.
Numerical example:
The amortization schemes consist of annual repayments of principal, and the CLO expires in 5 years.
Table 1: CLO results with 300,000$, 200,000$, 100,000$ notional outstanding, 𝜎(𝑠𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑑) = 20%, 𝐴0 =
0, 𝐴1 = 40000, 𝐴2 = 140,000, 𝐷3 = 300,000 (3rd detachment point)
Use credit default swaps and basket default swaps to mitigate credit risk
I will show how to adjust the Simplified Approach when we have credit insurance derivatives as
hedging instruments.
If the hedging instruments’ lifetime does not match the credits’, then a maturity mismatch might apply:
min(𝑇𝐺 ,𝑇,5)−0.25
𝐶𝐴 = 𝐶 ⋅ min(𝑇,5)−0.25
where 𝑇, 𝑇𝐺 is the residual maturity of the exposure and the collateral (or
guarantee)
Example 1:
Consider a 10-year credit of 100 million $ given by bank A to corporate B, rated BBB.
To protect itself against the potential default of B, bank A buys protection from bank C, rated A+, under
the form of a CDS with 4 years to expiry, on 60 million $.
min(10,4,5)−0.25 min(10,4,5)−0.25
Then 𝑅𝑊𝐴 = (100 − 60 ⋅ min(10,5)−0.25
) ⋅ 100% + 60 ⋅ min(10,5)−0.25
⋅ 50% = 76.31 million $
If the CDS would last at least 5 years, no maturity adjustment is needed so the RWA would be 𝑅𝑊𝐴2 =
(100 − 60) ⋅ 100% + 60 ⋅ 50% = 70 million $
Example 2:
Suppose a bank grants three credits of 𝑁1 = 50, 𝑁2 = 60, 𝑁3 = 70 million euros with expiry in 10 years.
All debtors have 𝐵𝐵rating. The default intensities have been estimated to be 700 bps, 900 bps, 1100
bps per year.
Suppose one wishes to use a first-to-default swap on the three entities to hedge against one of the
defaults, which lasts 𝑇 years and is written on 50 million euros.
Then the adjustment would apply to all exposures, with weighted probabilities.
𝜆1 1 11
It can be deduced that 𝑃(𝜏1:3 = 𝜏1 ) = = 25.92%, 𝑃(𝜏1:3 = 𝜏2 ) = , 𝑃(𝜏1:3 = 𝜏3 ) = =
𝜆1 +𝜆2 +𝜆3 3 27
40.74%
If 𝑇 ≥ 5,then the adjustment is not needed. In case the First to default swap is applied then the𝑅𝑊𝐴 =
155million $.
If no FtD Swap is being used, then the RWA is the sum of the credits, that is 180 million euros.
If a CDS on the first credit would be used, the RWA = (50 − 50) ⋅ 100% + 60 ⋅ 100% + 70 ⋅ 100% +
50 ⋅ 50% = 155 million euros.
Step 1: We compute the adjusted EAD* by using comprehensive approach (with haircuts)
Step 2: We apply the formula 𝑅𝑊𝐴 = (𝐸𝐴𝐷 − 𝐶𝐴 ) ⋅ 𝑅𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑢𝑒𝑟 + 𝐶𝐴 ⋅ max(𝑅𝑊𝐶 , 20%) where 𝐶𝐴 =
adjusted notional of the CDS or the insurance derivative.
EXAMPLE:
The notional is 100 million $. The credit has two collaterals: 5 million $ cash deposit and 5 million $ gold
deposit.
The bank also buys a 30 million $ of a 7-year CDS on B, from a bank rated AA.
A haircut of 15% on the gold deposit is used according to Basel II and III accords.
So, if we use the CDS as protection, the RWA becomes 𝑅𝑊𝐴 = (90.75 − 30) ⋅ 50% + 30 ⋅ 20% =
30.375 + 6 = 36.375
Without any guarantee or protection, 𝑅𝑊𝐴 = 50% ⋅ 100 = 50𝑚𝑛$
REMARK: A CDS would be more effective in reducing the required capital than the guarantees.
See also:
https://www.scribd.com/document/675256817/Pricing-CDS-Using-Credit-Transition-Matrices