Unit 1,2,3,4,5,6a, 6B, 7a, 7B, 8, 9 Quizlet

UNIT 1 QUIZLET
Types of cells having similar functions are called what?

Tissue
In the anatomic position, the soles of the feet are on which surface of the body.
Posterior
On the upper limb, the axillary region is where you find what body region?
Armpit
Which one of the following systems transports lipids absorbed from the digestive system to the
blood?
Lymphatic
The inguinal area is the name for what body region?

Groin
In response to an increase in body temperature, which one of the following acts as an effector
in the thermoregulatory negative feedback system?
Sweat glands
A group of similar organisms of the same species is called what?

Population
The anatomical term used for the sole of the foot is called what surface of the foot?
Plantar
Which one of the following options best describes the process of differentiation?
An unspecialized cell becoming specialized
The buttocks is referred to as what body region?

Gluteal
A controlled experiment is one that can test more than one prediction or hypothesis at a time
False
Which of the following is not one of the four basic tissue types?
Glandular
A scientific approach to explaining some aspect of the natural world includes all of the following
except:
Faith-based reviews
A discrete unit of macro-life is called what?
Multicellular organism
Which one of the following acts as a control center during the regulation of lactation?
Hypothalamus
The characteristic of life defined as the production of new cells or organisms is called what?
Reproduction
Which plane cuts the body vertically into anterior and posterior portions?
Coronal
Which one of the following options best describes the contents of the pleural cavity?
Lungs
Science is limited by what science can actually know about nature and also by what science
ought to do.
True
Which one of the following organs has a major role in two different body systems?
Pancreas
Which plane cuts the body into superior and inferior sections?
Axial or transverse
Which level of organization can be described as “related organs working for a common
function”?
System
Choose the sequence below which is listed as proximal to distal.

Thigh, knee, leg, ankle, foot
What body structure is formed from other tissue types?

Organ
Which of the following is a component of the integumentary system?

Skin
The characteristic of life defined as an increase in mass is termed what?

Growth
The biosphere is defined as any place on earth which supports life.

True
"If the experimental results do not support your hypothesis, then you should redesign your
hypothesis and start the process again."
True
A population consists of all the species living in a certain area.
False
The characteristic of life defined as the body or cell's response to environmental change is
termed what?
Irritability
The characteristic of life defined as living things taking in and using energy and materials is called
what?
Metabolism
The anatomical term used for the sole of the foot is called what surface of the foot?
Plantar
What sort of feedback describes the response to the onset of uterine contractions during
childbirth when a hormone is released which acts to stimulate further contractions?
Positive feedback
A controlled experiment is one that can test more than one prediction or hypothesis at a time
False
The liver is part of which one of the following body systems?

Digestive
It is always easy to determine if an entity is living.

False
The shoulder is distal to the elbow.

False
The first step in using the scientific method is to form an hypothesis.

False
A fact is a piece of information that can be verified such as whether the bread tastes good.
False
All species living in a certain area is called what?

Community
A theory is a set of hypotheses that when looked at together form a broad supportive basis to
explain a natural phenomenon.
True
The heel of the foot is referred to as what body region?
Calcaneal
Atoms are similar to subatomic particles.

False
The characteristic of life defined as the production of new cells or organisms is called what?
Reproduction
What is one cause of genetic variation of parents which can be inherited by the offspring?
Mutation
When the body is in the anatomical position, the palmar surfaces of the hands point in which
one of the following directions?
Anteriorly
A controlled experiment should have all the features listed below except:
Several Testable predictions
In the anatomic position, the soles of the feet are on which surface of the body.
Posterior
Connective tissue is considered a tissue because it carries signals.

False
Which major organ is located in the superior portion of the dorsal cavity?
Brain
Which plane cuts the body vertically down the midline into equal left and right halves?
Sagittal
The skeletal system consists of only the bones associated with the body skeleton.
False
Together with the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra, which one of the following organs
makes up the urinary system?
Kidney
Living organisms share many physical and chemical properties with non-living naturally
occurring reactions in nature.
True
A compartmentalized structure in a cell formed from large macromolecules is called what?

Organelle
In response to an increase in body temperature, which one of the following acts as an effector
in the thermoregulatory negative feedback system?
Sweat Gland
An epithelium is considered a tissue because they all have the common function of lining
exterior and interior spaces.
True
Organs of the body having similar function are called what?
System
What sort of feedback mechanism occurs when a drop in blood pressure occurs, a hormone is
released which then acts to increase blood glucose back to normal levels?
Negative feedback
The wrist is distal to the elbow.

True
UNIT II QUIZLET
Which one of the following types of bond does not involve a sharing or swapping of electrons?
Hydrogen bond
A large polymer of sugar units such as glycogen or starch is called what type of carbohydrate?
Polysaccharide
"Pure water does have a pH of 7.0 but if it sits open to the air, the pH begins to become more
acid due to absorption of what from the air?"
Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following elements commonly ionizes to form an anion?

Halogen (Group 17)
________ structure in a protein is formed from hydrogen bonding.

Secondary
Stable elements usually have an equal number of protons and electrons.

False
Which one of the following refers to the minimum energy needed to initiate a reaction?
Activation energy
The basic structure of a nucleotide is a phosphate group attached to a sugar which is attached
to a base.
True
__________ are long-chain fatty acids that are solids at room temperature.
Waxes
Carbon 14 is radioactive with an atomic mass of 14 so the number of protons it has in its
nucleus is?
6
__________ are long chained hydrocarbons with a carboxyl group on the end making it acidic.
Fatty acids
The chemical structure of which one of the following types of lipids is based on carbon rings
rather than chains?
Steroids
Three fatty acids are linked to which one of the following molecules to form a triglyceride
molecule?
Glycerol
__________ usually have four fused ring compounds and are an essential part of cell
membranes.
Sterols
What type of bond occurs when an electron is captured entirely by one of the elements in a
compound?
Ionic Bonding
"When sodium hydroxide (lye) releases a hydroxyl ion (OH) in water, it is called a _________?"
Base
"If a molecule is hydrophilic, it can easily dissolve in water."

True
Carbon 14 is radioactive with an atomic mass of 14 so the number of neutrons it has in its
nucleus is?
8
Which one of the following states of matter has the most kinetic energy?
Gas
If a solution has a pH of 4 and distilled water has a pH of 7, how many times more acidic is the
solution than distilled water?
1000
What type of bond occurs when a hydrogen atom participates in a polar covalent bond so that
it is slightly positive in charge.
Hydrogen bonding
The half-life of a radioactive element is not dependent upon how much radioactive element
you start with but rather with the rate of emission of radioactivity.
True
Non-polar compounds such as salts dissolve in water.

False
Which one of the following terms better describes most catabolic reactions?
Exergonic
Which one of the following is the process by which RNA is synthesized using a DNA template?
Transcription
Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of ADP and a phosphate group
into ATP?
ATP Synthase
The most reactive of elements are those that have their outer electron shell completely filled.
False
An ionized form of which one of the following elements contributes to the hardness of bone
and to the excitation-contraction coupling in muscle?
Ca
"If a molecule is hydrophobic, it can easily dissolve in water."

False
Which one of the following best describes how to calculate the mass number of an element?
Add the number of protons and the number of neutrons
All elements have a nucleus formed of protons and neutrons.

False
__________ have up to three fatty acids attached to a single glycerol molecule

Triglycerides
________ structure describes the interaction of R-groups on amino acids in a protein that can be
hydrophobic or hydrophilic.
Tertiary
"When a hydrogen ion and hydroxyl ion combine to form H2O or water, the resulting solution
is termed what?"
Neutral
"When water molecules form hydrogen bonds with other water molecules, the slightly
positively charged hydrogen atoms bond with the slightly negatively charged oxygen atoms."
True
Which one of the following statements comparing human DNA and RNA is not correct?
DNA contains Uracil
__________ usually have four fused ring compounds and are an essential part of cell
membranes.
Sterols
The number of electrons in outer orbit of an element determines the degree of reactivity of an
element.
True
Which one of the following best describes the transition from the solid state to the liquid state?
Melting
________ structure is the sequence of amino acids in a protein held together by peptide bonds.
Primary
Denaturation breaks down which structure in a protein to cause a destruction of the three
dimensional arrangement of a protein with subsequent precipitation.
Secondary
Proteins are large polymers made of repeating amino acid subunits.

True
Water molecules regularly form ionic bonds with other water molecules.
False
What type of bond occurs when electrons are shared by two atoms?
Covalent bonding
Three fatty acids are linked to which one of the following molecules to form a triglyceride
molecule?
Glycerol
Which one of the following is a mixture composed of different-sized particles that readily
separate into layers when the mixture is still?
Suspension
"The pH Scale is a measure of the hydroxyl ion concentration in a solution such as blood, water
or orange juice."
False
Which one of the following mixture is an example of a colloid?

Colloid
Which one of the following is not one of the four components attached to the alpha carbon of
an amino acid?
Iron Atom
Which one of the following types of bond links the two ions of a molecule of sodium chloride?
Ionic bond
________ structure describes the interaction that occurs between protein subunits that come
together to form a larger protein structure.
Quarternary
Which one of the following molecules is always found in the polar head of a phospholipid?
Phosphate
In an ATP molecule, which one of the following types of bonds are often described as “high-
energy” bonds?
Phosphate bonds
A single unit of sugar is what type of carbohydrate?

Monosaccharide
Substances that release hydrogen ions when dissolved in water are called what?
Acids
Which one of the following best describes the taste of a solution of weak acid?
Sour
A molecule of ATP contains one of the following nitrogenous bases?

Adenine
A short chain of sugar units such as sucrose composed of glucose and fructose (table sugar) is
called what type of carbohydrate?
Oligosaccharide
Ribose sugar is found in DNA.

False
"When chlorine captures an electron from sodium, the extra electron gives chlorine a negative
charge so it is now called a CHLORIDE ION."
True
UNIT III QUIZLET
The process of crossing over is the basic mechanism for shuffling the genetic traits from the
mother's and father's chromosome contribution to the offspring.
True
During ___________, the chromosomes decondense and daughter nuclei re-form.
Telophase
During Interphase, the time that DNA and the chromosomes are being duplicated is called
what?
S-phase
Glycolysis does not function unless oxygen is present.

False
What organelle has ribosomes attached to it and synthesizes proteins?

Rough ER.
Which one of the following best describes the total number of chromosomes in a gamete?
23
Osmotic pressure is the actual pressure that the protein solute exerts on the side of the
membrane with the highest solute concentration.
False
Irradiating food works to kill off any bacteria in that food but because the food is left slightly
radioactive, many people do not want to eat it.
False
Which one of the following is continuous with the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope?
Rough ER
Which one of the following organelles is required for the synthesis of proteins?
Ribosomes
The plasma membrane is formed of a lipid bilayer with functional _________ floating within the
bilayer.
Proteins
In humans, division of the nucleus in cells other than sex cells is called what?
Mitosis
What organelle in eukaryotic cells consists of a double membranous structure and makes most
of the ATP that the cell uses for synthetic and maintenance reactions?
Mitochondria
After glycolysis has produced pyruvic acid, pyruvic acid goes into the mitochondria to produce
ATP if:
Oxygen is present
The Kreb's Cycle will not function unless oxygen is present.

True
All eukaryotic cells in mature organisms contain nuclei.

False
When molecules of perfume in a room disperse throughout the room from an area of high
concentration to low, the process is called ___________.
Diffusion
During Interphase, the time after cell division in which the cell is preparing to duplicate DNA is
called what?
G1-PHASE
During Interphase, the time that DNA and the chromosomes are being duplicated is called
what?
S-PHASE
During Interphase, the time after the DNA and the chromosomes have been duplicated and
when the cell is beginning to prepare for mitosis and cytokinesis is called what?
G2
Which one of the following organelles contains a variety of digestive and hydrolytic enzymes
that break down large molecules?
Lysosomes
The normal diploid number of chromosomes in humans is what number?

46
What type of solution will cause RBC hemolysis?

Hypotonic
Enzyme denaturation can occur if the temperature at which they are operating is too high.
True
During mitosis, the chromosomes attach to a spindle apparatus composed of ________ which is
a kind of scaffolding to attach and separate chromosomes into two cells.
Microtubules
Which one of the following stages of DNA replication occurs first?

Unwinding of the double helix
The organelle consisting of flattened membrane sacs which modify proteins by adding sugar
molecules to them and package them for transport out of the cell is called what?
Golgi Apparatus or body
Which one of the following best describes the process of translation?

An mRNA strand is used as a template for the production of a protein
In a lipid membrane bilayer, the hydrophobic side of the lipid molecules face inward.
True
A solution which draws water out of RBC's placed in it is called what type of solution?
Hypertonic
During meiotic prophase in females, all chromosomes that pair up will look like each other.
True
Proteins in the cell membrane which assist cells in sticking to each other are called __________.
Adhesions Proteins
Prokaryotic cells such as bacteria contain no _________ and their DNA is immersed in the
cytoplasm.
Nucleus
After glycolysis has produced pyruvic acid, lactic acid is produced from pyruvic acid if:
Oxygen is not present
During meiosis 1, chromosomes exhibit crossing over as indicated by the places on sister
chromatids where they can be seen to be sticking to one another which are called __________ .
Chiasmata
If ability to form ATP is eliminated as when knobs on inner membrane of bat brown fat
mitochondria are not there, then electrons flow:
All of the above
During meiotic division _____, homologous chromosomes separate without centromere

splitting producing haploid cells.
One
The drug Cytochalasin B can dissociate microtubules and stops cells from dividing.
False
During mitosis, the spindle apparatus is held in place by two __________ at each end.
Centrioles
The process of crossing over may occur during which one of the following phases of meiosis?
Prophase I
During ________, chromosomes attach as individual chromosomes to the spindle apparatus by

the centromere.
Metaphase
Catabolism is the term used to describe all the synthetic reactions in the body.
False
Proteins in the cell membrane which help to carry molecules across the membrane both
inward and outward are called ___________.
Transport
Osmotic pressure is the actual pressure that the protein solute exerts on the side of the
membrane with the highest solute concentration.
False
One spermatogonium produces ______ sperm.

4
If, when red blood cells are added to a solution they undergo crenation, which one of the
following best describes the tonicity of that solution relative to the red blood cells.
Hypertonic
Which one of the following is the site of translation?

Ribosomes
The Kreb's Cycle is an example of a __________ metabolic pathway.

Circular Pathway
When energy in the form of ATP is used to move solutes across a membrane against the
concentration gradient using receptor membrane proteins, this type of transport is called
what?
Active Transport
In the Fluid Mosaic Model for membrane structure, proteins embedded in the cell membrane
are rigidly held in place by microfilaments.
False
Crossing over in meiosis __________________.

Leads to genetic recombination
Alternative sources of energy for the body may be found in:

All of the above
All cells are microscopic and cannot be seen with the naked eye.
False
"Which of the following statements is not included in the ""cell theory"" developed by Robert
Hooke and others in the 17th Century."
All cells contain a nuclei
The mechanism of ATP production in the mitochondria involves the production of a:

Hydrogen Ion gradient
Enzymes are considered catalysts because they speed up a reaction and are consumed and
changed by it.
False
In the Fluid Mosaic Model for membrane structure, proteins embedded in the cell membrane
are rigidly held in place by microfilaments.
False
The primary lipid in the cell membrane is the phospholipid.

Phospholipid
A potassium ion channel is best described as a type of which one of the following?
Channel Protein
When material is brought inside the cell by way of phagocytosis, that process is called what?
Endocytosis
During translation, which one of the following describes the number of nucleotides in a mRNA
molecule that makes up one codon?
3
Glycolysis breaks down pyruvic acid to form glucose and ATP.

False
What organelle consists of small vesicles containing powerful enzymes to degrade foreign
material?
Lysosomes
Which one of the following processes is an example of receptor-mediated endocytosis?

Uptake of transferrin into an precursor cell
All eukaryotic cells in mature organisms contain nuclei.
False
The normal haploid number of chromosomes in humans is what number?

23
The availability of _______ controls the rate of oxidative phosphorylation and how fast glucose is
broken down to CO2 and H2O.
ADP+P
During ________, chromosomes attach as individual chromosomes to the spindle apparatus by

the centromere.
Metaphase
The term proliferation describes which one of the following processes?

Cell Division
Enzymes are mostly protein with exception of an RNA enzyme.

True
UNIT IV QUIZLET:
The lining of the secretory parts of ducts, retina, kidney tubules, ovaries, testes and
bronchioles is what type of epithelium?
Simple Cuboidal
In the control of homeostasis, the __________ is the portion of the brain such as the
hypothalamus that determines where to route the signal from the receptor.
Integrator
Glands that have no ducts and secrete hormones directly into the blood stream are called
_______.
Endocrine glands
The skin is composed of what type of epithelium.

Stratified Squamous
There are ___________ basic tissue types.

Four
Which one of the following types of epithelium lines the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic
vessels?
Simple Squamous epithelium
_________ muscle tissue is composed of long cells, multinucleated, usually attached to bone
usually and are under our conscious control.
Skeletal
What type of connective tissue contains elastin, a protein which makes the tissue flexible and
forms the support for our external ear?
Elastic cartilage
In the control of homeostasis, the _________ is usually a nerve ending which can detect a
particular environmental change such temperature, touch or sound.
Receptor
When an epithelium consists of cells that appear layered, but they are all connected to the
basement membrane, it is said to be ______________.
Pseudostratified
A group of cells interacting in a common function is called what?

Tissue
Which one of the following types of muscle contains individual cells several centimeters long?
Skeletal muscle
Choose the type of fiber that is strong and stretchable and present in the walls of the lungs.
Elastic fibers
Which of the following is the one type of membrane that does not exhibit epithelial cells?
Synovial membrane
_________ muscle tissue is composed of long cells, multinucleated, usually attached to bone
usually and are under our conscious control.
Skeletal
When an epithelium consists of many layers of cells with only the bottom layer of cells
attached to basement membrane, it is said to be __________.
Stratified
The sheetlike tissue that lines the free surfaces of the body, both the exterior surfaces and
interior surfaces is called ___________ tissue.
Epithelial
Which muscle type below is non-striated?

Smooth muscle
Which one of the following stains is commonly used to differentiate between nucleic acids
within the nucleus and basic cytoplasmic proteins?
Hemotoxylin and eosin
Epithelium is most lilely to be found in which one of the following locations?

Lining the gastrointestinal tract
Which one of the following best describes a type of epithelium that is multi-layered and
hardened with a fibrous protein?
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelial
________ junctions (also called desmosomes) are spotlike welds holding cells together.
Adhering
Which muscle type below is non-striated?

Smooth muscle
The action of which one of the following types of muscle causes the movement of partially
digested matter along the intestines?
Smooth muscle
What type of connective tissue contains cells called osteocytes, has a hard matrix and contains
collagen fibers?
Bone
A group of cells interacting in a common function is called what?

Tissue
Blood is classified as which one of the following types of tissue?

Connective tissue
_________ muscle tissue is composed of cells having a single nucleus and are not under our
conscious control.
Smooth
What type of connective tiissue has cells which appear as signet rings with the inner space
filled with fat and the nucleus appearing as the stone in the signet ring.
Adipose
All cells in body are bathed by extracellular fluid.

True
Glands that secrete fluids outside the body via ducts are called ______________.
Exocrine glands
When an epithelium consists of a single layer, it is said to be _____________.
Simple
In the control of homeostasis, the __________ is the final target which receive the signal from the
integrator and causes an effect to occur such as muscle shivering in response to cold or
increased sweating in response to body heating.
Effector
The lining of the gut, parts of uterus, and small bronchi is what type of epithelium?
Simple columnar
Which one of the following contains a few specialized stem cells called satellite cells which are
capable of limited repair?
Skeletal muscle
In the control of homeostasis, the __________ is the portion of the brain such as the
hypothalamus that determines where to route the signal from the receptor.
Integrator
In the control of homeostasis, the environmental change which is detected by the body is
called what?
Stimulus
Which one of the following types of epithelium lines the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic
vessels?
Simple squamous epithelial
The epidermis has no blood vessels.

True
The bottom layer of the epidermis has living cells that die and accumulate keratin as they
move away from dermis.
True
Which one of the following is a gland that secretes its products in a holocrine manner?
Sebaceous gland
Sometimes referred to as respiratory epithelium, which one of the following best describes the
epithelium that lines the majority of the upper respiratory airways?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelial
The lining of the secretory parts of ducts, retina, kidney tubules, ovaries, testes and
bronchioles is what type of epithelium?
Simple cuboidal
The dermis of the skin is composed of _________.

Dense Irregular connective tissue
__________ contains many parallel collagen fibers which resist being stretched and form
tendons and ligaments.
Dense regular connective tissue
The lining of the gut, parts of uterus, and small bronchi is what type of epithelium?
Simple columnar
Which one of the following best describes the structure of pancreatic acinar glands, and
sublingual and submandibular salivary glands?
Compound tubuloacinar glands
Which one of the following types of epithelium has the greatest ability to stretch without
tearing?
Transitional epithelium
__________ junctions form points of adhesion between lining epithelial cells to prevent leakage
of molecules from outside to inside the body.
Tight
The lining of blood and lymph vessels, air sacs of lungs and the peritoneum is what type of
epithelium?
Simple squamous
What type of connective tissue is packed with collagen fibers and forms the intervertebral
disks?
Fibrocartilage
In a __________ feedback mechanism for homeostatic control, the end result of the initial
stimulus is an effector response which inhibits the further action of the receptor.
Negative
In a __________ feedback mechanism for homeostatic control, the end result of a stimulus is to
increase response to further intensify output as during during childbirth when the pressure of
the fetus on the uterine wall causes increasing contraction until the fetus is born.
Positive
The sheetlike tissue that lines the free surfaces of the body, both the exterior surfaces and
interior surfaces is called ___________ tissue.
Epithelial
_________ muscle is found in the heart and these cells are branched with a single nucleus per
cell.
Cardiac
Neurons in the nervous system carry electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.
True
Which one of the following types of connective tissue secretes antiangiogenesis factor and as a
result is avascular?
Cartilage
Serous membranes line the cavities of the digestive, respiratory and reproductive systems.
False
Choose below the correct order of steps in making a microscope slide from a tissue slice.
-orientation, fixation, embedding, sectioning, staining
A blister forms from continuous rubbing that pulls the dermis from the hypodermis with fluid
collection in the torn region.
False
_________ muscle tissue is composed of cells having a single nucleus and are not under our
conscious control.
Smooth
On average, males have more RBCs than do females.

True
What type of connective tissue is unusual because it has a matrix that is fluid?
Blood
Choose the type of fiber that forms fine frameworks and is present in the stromal tissue of the
spleen.
Reticular
Which one of the following best estimates the maximum magnification of an electron
microscope?
2,000,000
Choose the type of fiber that is strong and stretchable and present in the walls of the lungs
Elastic fibers
UNIT V QUIZLETS:
Which one of the following is the most common type of cell in the epidermis?
Keratinocyte
Which nail region is formed from the thickened skin area made from the stratum corneum
which secures the nail to the fingertip?
Hyponychium
The majority of heat is lost from the body through which one of the following organs?
Skin
Goose bumps are caused by contraction of what muscle?

Arrector pili
In thermoreception, the "cold" receptors are located in the dermis of the skin.
False
Fur in mammals is considered what type of hair?

Terminal hair
What type of fiber(s) are found in the connective tissue forming the dermis?
Collagen and elastic
What epidermal layer contributes most directly to formation of dandruff?

Stratum corneum
In which epidermal layer would you find keratinization occurring?

Stratum Granulosum
Which one of the following is most significant determinant of skin color?

Amount of melanin produced
Cells involved in the healing of the epidermis are produced by cell division occurring in which
one of the following epidermal strata?
Stratum Basale
During which phase in deep wound healing does hemostasis play a role?
Inflammatory phase
Which skin receptor is sensitive to vibration and pressure?

Pacinian corpuscles
Which nail region is formed from keratocytes surrounding the bail root from which the nail
grows?
Matrix
What type of skin sensory neurons are stimulated by extreme temperature, physical,
mechanical or chemical irritation?
Nociceptor
Which one of the following is the most common type of cell in the epidermis?
Keratinocyte
What type of connective tissue forms the portion of the dermis termed the reticular region?
Dense connective tissue
Identify the substance present in skin which absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation to protect
deeper tissue from damage?
Melanin
At puberty, what type of hair grows in the area of the face (beard) in males, and in the genital
region and axillary region of males and females?
Terminal hair
What area of the body indicated below is the stratum corneum thickest?
Soles of the feet
Which one of the following cell types produces scar tissue?

Fibroblast
What type of sweat gland is activated by the sympathetic nervous system in response to
hyperthermia?
Merocrine gland
In hypothermia, what might one expect the arector pili muscles in the skin to do?
Contract pulling hair up
Choose from the list below the name for the free edge of the nail made up of thickened
stratum corneum and serves to secure the nail to the fingertip.
Hyponychium
The secretory portion of the apocrine gland contains mainly a watery solution that helps to
contribute to thermoregulation.
False
Which one of the following epidermal strata contains the most live cells?
Stratum Basale
Which nail region describes the nail visible on the dorsal surface of the distal end of the digit?
Plate
During which phase in deep wound healing does hemostasis play a role?
Inflammatory phase
Which one of the following temperatures most closely approximates normal core body
temperature?
98.6 degrees F
The disease, Xeroderma pigmentosum, is a genetic disease caused by what defect?

Defective DNA repair enzymes
The beginning of keratinocyte death and presence of keratohyalin and lamellar granules are
indicative of keratinocytes in which epidermal layer?
Stratum granulosum
Which cells in the epidermis are known as tactile cells and are associated with sensory nerve
endings?
Merkel cells
The bulb portion of the dermal root sheath has what function?
Contains blood vessels to nourish hair growth
Starting at the centermost area of the hair shaft and going outward, pick the correct sequence
of layers from the list below.
-medulla, cortex, cuticle, epithelial root sheath, dermal root sheath
The active form of vitamin D is associated with the regulation of which one of the following
ions?
Calcium
In the hair Growth Cycle, what is the stage during which the hair falls out?
Telogen stage
Which epidermal cell layer consists of living keratinocytes held together by desmosomes?
Stratum spinosum
Which one of the following best approximates the proportion of total heat loss which occurs
through the skin?
80%
There appears to be a link between fingerprint patterns and certain genetic abnormalities such
as Down’s syndrome.
True
The portion of the hair which is embedded deep in the dermis is called what?
Root
If you perceive pain in the area of skin located just below your sternum, from what organ
might this pain be coming from?
Intestine
he beginning of keratinocyte death and presence of keratohyalin and lamellar granules are
indicative of keratinocytes in which epidermal layer?
Stratum Granulosum
If you perceive pain in the area just below your rib cage on the anterior or ventral surface,
what body organ might be from where the pain arises.
Liver
Which epidermal layer is first involved in the repair process?

Stratum Basale
Which epidermal layer contains epidermal stem cells?

Stratum Basale/ Stratum Germinativum
Which one of the following is an immune cell routinely found in the epidermis?
Langerhans cell
Which one of the following best approximates the time required for a cell to transition from
the basal layer towards the apical layers, become keratinized, and finally be sloughed off?
Four weeks
What type of connective tissue forms the portion of the dermis just beneath the epidermis?
Areolar connective tissue
When our hands get sweaty during a tension-filled moment, which type of sweat gland is
producing the excess sweat?
Merocrine gland
Which type of sweat gland secretes a substance that bacteria can act on to produce body
odor?
Apocrine gland
What oily substances secreted onto skin help to prevent water from being absorbed into the
skin and excessive evaporation of water from the skin?
Sebum/ Glycolipid
Which skin receptor is sensitive to touch, pressure and vibration?

Meissner’s corpuscles
The skin is considered an epithelium since it covers an external space.

False
What is the name of the short, fine hair that covers the body of the newly born infant?
Vellus
The hypodermis is not considered part of the dermis.

True
Rarely, excess hair covers almost the entire body as a fur sometimes giving this condition the
name, werewolf syndrome, but the medical name for this genetic condition is what?
Hypertrichosis
in thermoreception, the "warm" receptors are located in the dermis of the skin.
True
What important discovery did Henry Faulds, a Scottish medical missionary, make in 1880 that
is still important today?
Surface ridges on fingertips do not change over a lifetime
Referred pain describes the feeling of pain in one’s left chest and arm when having a heart
attack.
True
Cells involved in the healing of the epidermis are produced by cell division occurring in which
one of the following epidermal strata?
Stratum Basale
The very thin, unpigmented hair covering the fetus is called what?
Lanugo
Identify the salty, acidic substance that is secreted onto the skin and helps inhibit microbial
growth?
Sweat
Which one of the following types of glands contributes to thermoregulation?

Merocrine gland
Which epidermal layer is first involved in the repair process?
Stratum Basale
Lamellar granules found in the keratinocytes of the stratum granulosum epidermal layer are
composed of what substance?
Glycolipid
Which sweat glands develop during puberty and are located mainly in the armpits and
anogenital areas?
Apocrine gland
What is the name of the process which describes warm air around the body moving away from
the body surface to be replaced by cooler air?
Convection
In the Hair Growth Cycle, what is the stage during which hair growth occurs?
Anagen Stage
Hair follicles and sweat glands are found in the dermis and are considered to be of dermal
origin.
False
The property of strength and resistance to stretching is due to the presence of what fiber(s) in
the dermis?
Collagen
What is the name of the process which describes sweat absorbing heat and becoming vapor
moving away from the skin?
Evaporation
Which statement below best describes how epidermal cells receive nutrient?
Nutrient diffuses from dermal capillaries toward the epidermis
Which one of the following is the term used for the white, half-moon shaped area at the
proximal end of the nail?
Lunule
What is name of the process which describes the transfer of heat when vasodilation of blood
vessels near the skin transfers heat to the external atmosphere?
Conduction
In the Hair Growth Cycle, what is the stage during which the cells of the hair matrix stop
dividing and metabolic activity ceases?
Catagen stage
In the Hair Growth Cycle, what is the stage during which hair growth occurs?
Anagen stage
The stage at which the cells in the hair matrix are dividing is termed what stage?
Anagen stage
The cells forming the hair arise from what region?

Matrix
Which skin “appendages” listed below are produced by the epidermis?

All the listed choices
Which skin receptor is sensitive to touch and pressure?

Merkel Discs
Which one of the following best approximates the proportion of total body weight that is
accounted for by the skin?
15%
A precursor form of which one of the following vitamins is produced in the skin?
Vitamin D
UNIT VI A QUIZLETS:
__________ joints form the soft spots on a baby's head.

Fibrous
When blood calcium level is low, PTH (parathyroid hormone) is released and stimulates
osteoblasts to dissolve bone, releasing calcium.
False
The ulna articulates with the radius by way of an interosseous membrane.

True
The cervical curve of the vertebral column forms when the baby is able to hold its head up.
True
The primary and secondary curves of the vertebral column are present from birth.
False
Pick the term below that best fits what a sulcus is.
A bony groove that houses a tendon, nerve, or blood vessel
Ribs 11 and 12 do not attach to the sternum and are called what?
Floating ribs
Which bone below contains the coronoid process at its posterior for the site of attachment of
the temporalis muscle on either side of the head?
Mandible
At the femur’s most distal end, what bump can you palpate on the lateral surface of the femur
at the knee joint?
Lateral condyle
What is the function of the superior articulating facet of a vertebra?

To articulate with the inferior facet of the vertebra above it
Ligaments connect bone to bone at places called joints.

True
Pick the description that best fits the term “crest” as in the iliac crest
A narrow ridge of bone
At the wrist joint, tendons are enclosed in sheaths which can become inflamed due to
repetitive movements such as typing to produce carpal tunnel syndrome.
True
What is the largest bone of the sternum?

Body
What feature distinguishes thoracic vertebra from other types?

Presence of articulating facets on transverse processes
What anterior edge on the hip can be palpated and is the site of attachment for abdominal
muscles?
Iliac crest
When you move your head from right to left and left to right as in signifying no when asked a
question, what best describes the action of the atlas and axis?
The atlas articulates the axis
The pelvic girdle is larger and more basin-like in females than males for childbearing and birth.
True
An elastic cartilage model of the long bone forms first.

False
The braincase consists of the eight bones that surround your brain.
True
Ribs 1 – 7 attaches anteriorly to the sternum are called what type of ribs?
True ribs
Which carpal bones articulate with the radius and ulna?

Scaphoid, Lunate and triquetral
The primary and secondary curves of the vertebral column are present from birth.
False
What structure of the femur at its most proximal end can be palpated on the side of the hip?
Greater trochanter
What anatomic feature on the scapula is the site of articulation with the head of the humerus?
Glenoid fossa
What anterior edge on the hip can be palpated and is the site of attachment for abdominal
muscles?
Iliac crest
Pick the description that best fits the term “tuberosity” as in the ischial tuberosity.
A rough projection of bone for attachment of muscles
The pelvic girdle is larger and more basin-like in females than males for child bearing and
birth.
True
An immature bone cell found in growing bone is called what?

Osteoblast
Pick the description that best fits the term “fovea” as in the fovea of the head.
A small pit or depression
The largest sinuses in the skull are located in the occipital bone.
False
What portion of the hip do we sit on and is the site for muscle attachment?
Ischial tuberosity
Is the ulna on the medial or lateral side of the forearm when the arm is in the anatomic
position?
Medial
Which part of the sternum is most superior portion and site of articulation with the first and
second costal cartilages?
Which part of the sternum is most superior portion and site of articulation with the first and
second costal cartilages?
Manubrium
What two bones does the clavicle articulate with?

Scapula and manubrium
True
Which bone below contains the nasolacrimal duct and forms the anterior part of the medial
wall of the orbit.
Lacrimal
The nose is formed mostly from bone.

False
Bones are not considered organs because they do not contain the four basic tissue types.
False
Identify the large foramen formed by the pubis and the ischium in the hip?
Obturator foreman
The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, pectoral girdle, rib cage, and vertebral
column.
False
Which bone below is a single bone and forms the bridge of the nose?
Nasal
In later years, especially in women, osteoporosis may set in and bone loss of Calcium may
occur faster thereby weakening bones of the hip and spine.
True
Which bone below forms the lower jaw.
Mandible
We have a great range of motion in our pectoral girdle because it is tightly attached to the
body frame.
False
Hormones from the parathyroid gland are involved in releasing calcium from bone and also in
storing it in bone.
True
Pick the description that best fits the term “spine” as in the anterior superior iliac spine.
A sharp, pointed, narrow process
An epiphyseal plate of cartilage forms at either end of a long bone and is the future growth
plate so bone may grow longer.
True
The Pectoral Girdle is composed of the clavicle, scapula and humerus.

False
Pick the term below that best describes what a foramen is.
A round hole through a bone
Which bone is horseshoe-shaped and located just superior to the larynx?

Hyoid
What anatomic feature of the humerus is known as the “funny bone”?

Medial epicondyle
The fibula is not a weight bearing bone and if broken, you can still walk on your leg but it will
be painful.
True
Pick the description that best fits the term “eminence” as in the intercondylar eminence.
An elevation or projection
Pick the term below that best fits what a meatus is.
An opening of a canal through a bone
A __________ joint is a type of joint which has a capsule that secrete slippery synovial fluid into
the joint to make movement easier.
Synovial
Which vertebral type has the largest body?

Lumbar
Pick the term below those best fits what a sinus is.
A cavity or recess in a bone
The intervertebral foramen is the opening between the pedicles which allow for the passage of
the spinal cord and meninges.
False
When you “stubb” your toe, what bony type are you bumping and hurting?
Phalanges
Pick the description that best fits the term “fossa” as in the iliac fossa.
A shallow, broad or elongated pit
__________ joints form the soft spots on a baby's head.

Fibrous
True
Which vertebral type does not posses a vertebral body?

C1- First cervical
In a ___________ joint, cartilage fills the space between bones resulting in not much movement
such as with breastbone (sternum) and some ribs.
Cartilaginous
Pick the description that best fits the term “tubercle” as in the lesser tubercle of the humerus.
A small, rounded projection
Which bone below contains the nasolacrimal duct and forms the anterior part of the medial
wall of the orbit.
Lacrimal
When you move your head up and down as in nodding yes to a question, what best describes
the action of the atlas vertebra?
The atlas articulate with the occipital condyles of the occipital bone
Is the ulna on the medial or lateral side of the forearm when the arm is in the anatomic
position?
Medial
When you kneel on your knee, what structure on the tibia are you kneeling on?
Tibial tuberosity
What anatomic feature on the hip bone is injured when one has a hip pointer?
Anterior superior iliac crest
The ulna primarily articulates with only the humerus and the carpal bones of the wrist.
Fasle
UNIT VI B QUIZLETS:
The function of amphiarthroses can be best described by which one of the following?
Allows a small degree of movement
The compression of intervertebral discs as we age results in loss of height and increased risk of
pinched spinal nerves.
True
The epiglottis is an example of which one of the following types of cartilage.

Elastic cartilage
Where would you expect to find the epiphyseal plate in a long bone?
Metaphysis
Which part of the temporal bone has the zygomatic process and the mandibular condyle?
Squamous part
Which movement about a synovial joint describes the movement of the scapula forward?
Protraction
Which one of the following types of fibrous joint occurs when two bones are bound together
by an interosseous ligament?
Syndesmosis
Choose from the options below the correct order for the stages of intramembranous
ossification.
formation of an ossification center, calcification of the osteoid matrix, formation of
trabeculae, development of the periosteum
Which part of the temporal bone contains the external acoustic meatus and the styloid process
projecting downward for attachment of ligaments and muscles?
Tympanic part
Which movement about a synovial joint describes the movement of rotating the forearm so
that the palms face upwards or in the anterior direction?
Supination
Which one of the following arteries is responsible for providing arterial blood to both the
diaphysis and metaphysis of a long bone?
Nutrient artery
Spongy bone tissue is found in the head of long bones and in the flat bones of the skull and
contains red bone marrow and participates in red blood cell production.
True
Which movement about a synovial joint describes lifting the scapula upwards?
Elevation
Which bone listed below is not part of the viscerocranium?

Temporal
Which movement about a synovial joint describes bringing two bones closer together?
Flexion
Which one of the following bones is classified as a flat bone?

Hip bone
In order to regulate the levels of calcium in the blood, which one of the following hormones is
secreted by the thyroid gland and opposes the effects of parathyroid hormones by reducing
osteoclastic activity in bone?
Calcitonin
Choose the bone listed below that is not part of the neurocranium?
Zygomatic
The acromial end of the clavicle articulates with which one of the following bones?
Scapula
The roof of the orbits along with the supercilliary arch are regions of what bone?
Frontal
Which terms below best describe the joints that permit free movements?
Synovial and diarthroses
The bones of synchondroses are connected by a layer of which one of the following types of
cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
Which movement about a synovial joint describes the movement of rotating the forearm so
that the palms face upwards or in the anterior direction?
Supination
Yellow bone marrow is principally responsible for storing which one of the following
substances?
Triglycerides
A type of bone cell that helps to break down the bone matrix in the bone remodeling process
is called what?
Osteoclast
Which movement about a synovial joint describes bringing the fingers together?
Adduction
The diploe of flat bones is typified by the presence of a diaphysis, epiphysis and medullary
cavity.
False
Which one of the following bones is classified as a flat bone?

Hip bone
From a functional point of view, what type of joint provides no movement at all?
Synarthroses
What type of joint does not show much movement and is located between the breastbone
(sternum) and some of the ribs?
Cartilaginous
cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
In movements possible around a synovial joint, __________ describes the movement of an arm
or leg being moved away from the body.
Abduction
n movements possible around a synovial joint, __________ describes the spreading of one's
fingers.
Abduction
Which part of the temporal bone contains the external acoustic meatus and the styloid process
projecting downward for attachment of ligaments and muscles?
Tympanic part
“Ball and socket” joints are examples of what type of joint?
Synovial
This bone forms the back and base of the skull and contains the foramen magnum.
Occipital
Which one of the following names is given to the longitudinal ridge on the posterior aspect of
the femoral shaft that provides an origin point for a number of muscles, including the biceps
femoris, adductor magnus and vastus lateralis?
Linea aspera
At the cellular level, the loss of bone as we age is due to osteoclasts producing more bone than
osteoblasts breakdown.
False
The medullary cavity is a feature of which one of the following regions of a long bone?
Diaphysis
The acromial end of the clavicle articulates with which one of the following bones?
Scapula
Which part of the temporal bone contains the internal acoustic meatus and the inner ear.
Petrous part
cartilage?
Hyaline cartilage
What bone forms the bump or lateral malleolus located on the lateral side of the ankle?
Fibula
Yellow bone marrow is in active formation of red blood cells and some types of white blood
cells.
False
Which one of the following terms best describes the dense layer of connective tissue that
surrounds the cartilage of a developing bone?
Perichondrium
Which one of the following joints allows the widest range of movement in the body?
Shoulder
Choose the correct order for the stages of bone remodeling?

bone resting, bone resorption, bone reversal, bone formation, bone mineralization
In intramembranous ossification during the formation of an ossification center, the
mesenchyme cells differentiate initially into which one of the following bone cells?
Osteogenic cells
or leg being moved closer to the body.
Adduction
The combination of a Haversian Canal, concentric lamellae (rings around canal) and osteocytes
is called what?
All of the above
The long tubular shaft of a long bone is called what?

Diaphysis
Which movement about a synovial joint describes lifting the scapula upwards?
Elevation
From a functional point of view, what type of joint allows free movement such as the knee or
shoulder joint?
Diarthroses
Which movement about a synovial joint describes bringing two bones closer together?
Flexion
What anatomic feature is represented and able to be palpated in the region of the medial or
inner portion of one’s ankle?
Medial malleolus
In movements possible around a synovial joint, __________ describes the movement of bringing
two bones closer together.
Flexion
Which part of the temporal bone has a large prominence for the insertion of the
sternocleidomastoid muscles?
Mastoid process
The superior radioulnar joint is an example of which one of the following types of joint?
Pivot
Which one of the following carpal bones is located in the proximal row and lies lateral to the
lunate bone?
Scaphoid
Which one of the following pairs of ribs is considered to be false?

9th
Which movement about a synovial joint describes twisting the foot so that the sole faces inward toward
the center line of the body?
Inversion
A type of bone cell that helps to break down the bone matrix in the bone remodeling process
is called what?
Osteoclast
Which artery is responsible for bringing nutrients and oxygen to the inner part of compact
bone, spongy bone and bone marrow?
Nutrient artery
The small round spaces which house the mature bone cells are called what?
Lacunae
Which one of the following bony features is best described as a small pit or depression that
provides attachment for muscles and ligaments?
Fovea
Which part of the temporal bone has a large prominence for the insertion of the
sternocleidomastoid muscles?
Mastoid process
Which movement about a synovial joint describes moving the foot to close the angle between
the foot and the leg?
Dorsiflexion
Which tarsal bone does the fibula articulate with in the ankle region?
Talus
in as wide a circle as possible.
Circumduction
In a healthy knee, what structure(s) does the synovial fluid come in contact with?
All of the listed options
In movements possible around a synovial joint, __________ describes the movement which
causes the angle between two bones to widen.
Widen
Which one of the following types of cell is responsible for the initiation of the calcification
process in bone?
Osteoblast
Yellow bone marrow is in active formation of red blood cells and some types of white blood
cells.
False
This bone is a single bone in the midline of the cranium and contains air cells and the cribiform
plate.
Ethmoid
Which suture is responsible for holding together the occipital and parietal bones of the
cranium?
Lambdoid suture
Epiphyseal plate formation is the first step in long bone formation .

False
Spongy bone tissue is found in the head of long bones and in the flat bones of the skull and
contains red bone marrow and participates in red blood cell production.
True
UNIT VII A QUIZLETS:
Which one of the following types of contractile filaments found in the sarcoplasm of smooth
muscles has a tropomyosin component?
Thin filaments
All of each I band is contained within a sarcomere.

False
Which one of the following is the term used to describe the ability of a muscle to stretch
without injury?
Extensibility
Muscle tension is the collective force formed during contraction.

True
When describing a muscle, which one of the following words best describes the Latin word
“brevis”?
Short
Which two of the following are contractile proteins present in skeletal muscle?
Mysosin and actin
Which one of the following terms best describes the role of brachialis, given that it assists
biceps brachii in flexing the elbow?
Synergist
"A bands" are contained entirely within a sarcomere.
True
Which one of the following is not one of the common properties associated with all muscles?
Convertibility
Which one of the following best describes a motor unit?

Somatic motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
The origin of the triceps is the scapula.

True
Starting from the point at which ATP binds to the heads of the myosin filaments, place the
following in the correct sequence to describe the muscle contraction cycle.
ATP hydrolysis, crossbridge formation, power stroke, crossbridge detachment
Two proteins, troponin and tropomyosin, are found along the surface of the __________
filaments.
Actin
Which one of the following muscles is multipennate?

Deltoid
A straight muscle fits into which one of the following categories?

Parallel
Which three of the muscles below have partial insertion on the linea alba?
transversus abdominis, internal oblique, external oblique
Which of the following statements best describes what happens in muscle fibers after 5 - 10
minutes of strenuous exercise.
aerobic respiration of glucose from glycogen (stored in muscle) generates needed ATP
When a sarcomere contracts, the myosin filaments slide over the actin filaments bringing the
myosin filaments closer together
False
The insertion of a muscle is that end which during contraction, stays relatively motionless.
False
Which of the following muscles act to extend the knee?

vastus medialis, rectus femoris
Skeletal muscles contract in response to nervous stimulation but if the nerves are cut, the
muscle will not contract unless stimulated artificially.
True
How many molecules of ATP are produced by the catabolism of one creatine phosphate
molecule?
One
The orbicularis oculi has which one of the following actions?

Closes the eye
The erector spinae muscles consist of which set of three muscles listed below?
longissimus, spinalis, iliocostalis
Which of the following structures pass through openings in the diaphragm?

esophagus, aorta, inferior vena cava
Which of the following best describes cardiomyocytes?

branched, linked by intercalated discs, striated
Skeletal muscle contraction requires ___________.

All of the above
In which one of the following stages of a twitch contraction does crossbridge formation occur?
Contraction period
Many muscles operate together to produce the same movement and are termed ""synergists".
True
Which of the following muscles are flexors of the hip?

Iliacus, psoas
Which muscles form the calcaneal tendon, also known as the Achilles tendon?
Gastrocnemius, soleus
Which one of the following terms best describes the shortening of a muscle while maintaining
constant tension within that muscle?
concentric isotonic contraction
Which one of the following best describes the action of the triceps brachii?
extension of the elbow and adduction of the arm
Which one of the following muscle groups acts to increase the size of the throrax by drawing
the ribs upwards and outwards?
External intercostals
Rigor mortis is caused by the lack of ATP.
True
Which one of the following ions is released into the cytosol of muscle fibers in response to an
action potential and plays a key role in skeletal muscle contraction?
Calcium
If strenuous muscle contraction continues and oxygen runs out, what statement best
describes what happens next.
Glycolysis will begin and accumulate ATP and lactic acid until muscle contraction ceases due to
cramping
Muscle tension is the collective force formed during contraction.

True
The muscles of the back can be divided into which three of the following categories?
Erector spinae, transversospinalis, superficial muscles
Aerobic exercise works muscles at a rate at which the body can keep them supplied with
oxygen and results in what changes in the muscles being exercised?
All of the above
Which one of the following neurotransmitters is released by somatic motor neurons where
they synapse with skeletal fibers?
Acetylocholine
In muscle contraction, when calcium is released from the cellular storage system, the myosin
head forms a ""cross-bridge"" between the myosin and the actin filament.
True
Which of the following statements best describes what happens during the initial phase of
muscle contraction.
Creatine phosphate passes phosphate quickly to ADP to make more ATP
Which two of the following muscles insert onto the humerus?

Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi
When a sarcomere contracts, the myosin filaments slide over the actin filaments bringing the
myosin filaments closer together.
False
During muscle contraction, when calcium ions bind to ___________, the binding site on the actin
filament is uncovered.
Troponin
Which one of the following superficial muscles of the back elevates the ribs?
Serratus posterior superior
Which one of the following terms describes the sheet of thick connective tissue that surrounds
the entirety of a skeletal muscle?
Epimysium
In muscle contraction, the actin ""head"" contains an enzyme, ATPase, which breaks down ATP
to ratchet (move) the myosin filament forward as long as ATP is present.
False
Skeletal muscles contract in response to nervous stimulation but if the nerves are cut, the
muscle will not contract unless stimulated artificially.
True
Which one of the following muscles does not insert on the hyoid bone?
Sternothyroid
The insertion of a muscle is that end which during contraction, stays relatively motionless.
False
The origin of the splenius capitus includes which of the following vertebrae?
C7, T1
Which one of the following types of contractile filaments found in the sarcoplasm of smooth
muscles has a tropomyosin component?
Thin filaments
The space between the end of a motor neuron and where it abuts against the muscle cell
membrane is called what?
Synapse
Which of the following muscles form the deep layer of both the male and female pelvic floor?
Levator ani, coccygeus
The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a type of rough Endoplasmic Reticulum which releases Calcium
ions during contraction of the muscle fiber.
False
The insertion of the biceps is the scapula.

False
As the electrical impulse spreads over the muscle fiber at the start of contraction, it causes the
sarcoplasmic reticulum (smooth ER) in the muscle fiber to release _____________ ions.
Calcium
Which one of the following terms best describes a muscle that holds the proximal end of
another muscle in place?
Fixator
Cardiac muscles can only contract if they are stimulated by nerves or by artificial means.
False
Acetylcholine is released from the tip of the motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction
where it binds to receptors on the muscle membrane to cause the muscle fiber to contract.
True
Which one of the following terms is used for the thread-like organelles composed of actin and
mysosin filaments found in muscles cells?
Myofibrils
The sarcomere is considered to be the contractile unit of the muscle.

True
Single unit smooth muscle is found in which one of the following?

Walls of blood vessels
Muscles that act to move a limb away from the midline of the body commonly have which one
of the following terms as part of their name?
Abductor
UNIT VIIB QUIZLETS:
What is the insertion of the latissimus dorsi?

Humerus
Which of the thorax muscles below are most active during inspiration (breathing in)?
Where does the frontal belly of the occipitfrontalis muscle insert?
Skin of forehead
What is the insertion for the semispinalis capitis muscle?

C1-C3 TRANSVERSE PROCESSES
Which of the quadriceps muscles below is the most anterior and originates on the anterior
superior iliac spine and acetabulum of the hip bone.
Rectus femoris
Which of the following muscles does not insert on the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon?
Sartorius
What muscle has an action of raising the upper eyelid?

Levator palpebrae superioris
Which of the following is not found in fast twitch muscle fibers?

Found in large muscles like the guteal
What is the origin of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

Lesser wing of sphenoid
Identify the large muscle on front of the arm with two heads that have an origin on the scapula
and insertion on the radial tuberosity.
Biceps brachii
Which of the muscles listed below are involved in increasing intra-abdominal pressure in
processes like coughing, urination, defecation, childbirth, vomiting and respiration?
All of the listed muscles
What is the origin of the external intercostals?

Inferior borders of ribs 1-11
What is the name of the large muscle on the anterior chest wall that inserts on the humerus
and can adduct and internally rotate the humerus?
Pectoralis major
Choose the action of the orbicularis oris muscle.

Closing and pursing lips
What is the origin of the rectus abdominis muscle in the trunk musculature?
Pubis of hip bone
Which thin muscle of the posterior forearm and thumb has its origin on the ulna, insertion on
the 1st distal phalanx and action to flex the thumb.
Flexor pollicis longus
What type of contraction describes a muscle that changes length but tension stays the same?
Isotonic contraction
Which of the muscles below insert on the lesser trochanter of the femur?
None of these muscles
What is the insertion for the diaphragm?

Central tendon
Muscles composed of thousands of muscle fibers follow the all or none principle for
contraction.
False
What is the insertion of the buccinator muscle?

Modiolus
Which of the muscles below insert on the lesser trochanter of the femur?
None of the above
The diaphragm separates the thorax from the abdomen.

True
Which thin muscle of the posterior forearm divides into four thin tendons distally with an
origin on the ulna, insertion on phalanges 2 - 5 and an action to flex the wrist and fingers 2 – 5?
Flexor digitorum profundus
All of the rotator cuff muscles insert on the greater tubercle of the humerus.
True
The function of the rotator cuff muscles is to hold the head of the humerus within the
acromion fossa of the scapula.
False
What is the origin of the subscapularis muscle in the shoulder?

Subscapular fossa of scapula
What is the origin of the masseter muscle?

Zygomatic bone
Choose the action of the buccinator muscle

Keeps food from collecting between teeth and cheeks
What is the action of the deltoid muscle?

Abducts the arm
Which of the quadriceps muscles below is the most anterior and originates on the anterior
superior iliac spine and acetabulum of the hip bone.
Rectus femoris
Which of the muscles listed below is located between the ribs and scapula and functions to
protract the scapula and pectoral girdle?
Serratus anterior
Choose the correct class of lever to describe when the load is placed between the fulcrum and
the effort (force) as in raising your heel from the ground.
Second class lever
When the diaphragm contracts, what happens to the air pressure inside the thoracic cavity?
Decreases
Which muscle below forms the bulk of the calf musculature, originates on the medial and
lateral condyle of the femur and inserts on the calcaneus.
Gastrocnemius
Which leg muscle below acts on the knee joint with origin on the lateral condyle of femur,
insertion on the tibia and action of rotating femur laterally?
Popliteus
The force with which a skeletal muscle can contract is related to the length of its sarcomeres.
True
Pectoralis major
If the left sternocleidomastoid muscle contracts and the right does not, what action results?
Heads move to the left
What is the origin of the infraspinatus muscle in the shoulder?

Infraspinous fossa of scapula
What is the origin of the subscapularis muscle in the shoulder?

Subscapular fossa of scapula
Choose the insertion of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle.
Superior tarsus (eyelid)
Which thin muscle crosses the front of the elbow with an origin on the humerus and coronoid
process of ulna, insertion on radius and action to flex elbow and pronate forearm?
Pronator teres
Which small square muscle below lies on the anterior distal forearm with its origin on the ulna,
insertion on the radius and action to pronate the forearm.
Pronator quadratus
What is the origin for the internal intercostals?

Superior borders of ribs 2-12
Sartorius
What is the origin of the supraspinatus muscle in the shoulder?

Supraspinous fossa of scapula
What is the origin of the semispinalis capitis muscle?

Spinous processes of T3-T6 vertebra
Choose the action of the zygomaticus minor muscle.

Raises the upper lip as in smiling
Choose the correct classification for muscle contraction which involves no change in length or
tension.
Isometric contraction
What is the insertion of the gluteus medius?

Greater trochanter of femur
Which muscle below is located on the anterior forearm and divides into four tendons which
insert on fingers 2 – 5 and act to extend the wrist and fingers 2 – 5?
Extensor digitorum
The zygomatic minor muscle is the antagonist of the platysma.

True
The diaphragm separates the thorax from the abdomen.

True
Which muscle below is the longest muscle in the body and travels obliquely across the front of
the thigh?
Sartorius
Which muscle below is not one of the rotator cuff muscles in the shoulder region?
Deltoid
The platysma is the antagonist of the zygomatic minor muscle.

True
Along the bottom edge of the internal oblique, a tunnel is formed for passage of the round
ligament in females.
False
Identify the large, triangular muscle on back of the neck, shoulders and upper back that can
retract the scapula and extend and laterally flex the head and neck?
Trapezius
What is the action for the platysma muscle?

Wrinkles the skin of the neck
What is the origin for the occipital belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle?
Occipital bone
The oxygen debt of a muscle in prolonged state of contraction is the time it takes to replace all
the creatine phosphate reserves.
False
Which of the thorax muscles below are most active during inspiration (breathing in)?
The function of the rotator cuff muscles is to hold the head of the humerus within the
acromion fossa of the scapula.
False
Which thin muscle of the posterior forearm forms into four thin tendons distally with an origin
on the common flexor tendon, insertion on middle phalanges 2 - 5 and action of flexing fingers
2 – 5?
Flexor digitorum superficialis
Pectoralis major
What is the insertion for the semispinalis capitis muscle?

C1-C3 Transverse processes
What is the insertion of the gluteus maximus?

Gluteal tuberosity
Which of the muscles listed below is located on the anterior chest wall, inserts on the scapula
and has an action of pulling the shoulder girdle forwards and downwards?
Pectoralis minor
What is the origin of the teres minor muscle in the shoulder?

Lateral boarder of scapula
Which muscle below would you use to adduct the hip and flex the knee?
Gracilis
What is the insertion of the buccinator muscle?

Modiolus
Where does the frontal belly of the occipitfrontalis muscle insert?

Skin of the forehead
Identify the large, triangular muscle on back of the neck, shoulders and upper back that can
retract the scapula and extend and laterally flex the head and neck?
Trapezius
Sartorius
What is the action of the temporalis muscle?

Elevates and retracts the mandible
What is the insertion of the gluteus medius?

Greater trochanter of femur
Which thin muscle crosses the front of the elbow with an origin on the humerus and coronoid
process of ulna, insertion on radius and action to flex elbow and pronate forearm?
Pronator teres
What is the origin for the occipital belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle?
Occipital bone
Identify the large muscle on the back of the arm with three heads that have an origin on the
scapula and humerus and insertion on the olecranon of the ulna.
Triceps brachii
Which thin muscle below is located on the front of the forearm with origin on the humerus,
insertion on the styloid process of radius and flexes the elbow.
Brachioradialis
What is the origin of the semispinalis capitis muscle?

Spinous processes of T3-T6 vertebra
What is the origin of the teres major muscle in the shoulder?

Inferior angle of scapula
What muscle forms the innermost layer of the sidewalls of the abdomen?
Transversus abdominis
Which leg muscle below acts on the knee joint with origin on the lateral condyle of femur,
insertion on the tibia and action of rotating femur laterally?
Popliteus
What is the origin of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

Lesser wing of sphenoid
What is the action for the brachialis muscle?

Flex the elbow
Which muscle of the shoulder and shoulder girdle has an origin of T1 – T12 spinous processes,
iliac crest and ribs 9 – 12 and inserts on the humerus with an action of extending, adducting
and medially rotating the arm at the shoulder joint?
Lattissimus dorsi
What is the origin of the teres major muscle in the shoulder?

Inferior angle of scapula
When the internal intercostals and the innermost intercostals contract, what happens to the
air pressure inside the thoracic cavity?
Increases
Which muscle below is located deep in the calf, becomes tendinous at back of ankle and
travels into sole of foot to insert on the distal phalanx and has an action to flex the big toe.
Flexor halluncis longus
UNIT VIII QUIZLETS:
White matter in spinal cord is located on the outside and grey matter is on inside in the shape
of a butterfly.
TRUE
The ___________ lobe of the cerebral cortex is located behind the ears on the sides of each
cerebral hemisphere and processes information about hearing and complex visual
associations such as identifying faces.
Temporal
The action potential for a neuron shows a rolling reversal of charge moving down the nerve
membrane that constitutes the transmission of the impulse and is measured as:
The outside is now negative and the inside positive
Which one of the following nerves is the sixth cranial nerve?

Abducens nerve
PCP is considered to be a:
Deliriant
Receptors that respond to painful stimuli belong to which one of the following categories?
Nociceptors
Which brain structure(s) listed below does not reside within the medulla oblongata?
Habenular Nuclei
Which one of the following cranial nerves conveys motor information to the muscles of facial
expression?
Facial Nerve
What is the function of the commissural tracts in the cerebrum?

Connect gyri in different hemispheres
Identify the sulcus below which separates the temporal lobe from the frontal lobe.
Lateral sulcus
Which of the following nerves innervates most muscles of the tongue?

Hypoglossal nerve (XII)
The descending spinal cord tracts carry motor information to the body and exit via which
spinal root?
Anterior (Ventral) horn
The _________ effect describes one drug blocking the effect of another drug.
Antagonistic
The spinal cord consists of only myelinated nerve fibers.

False
Which brain structure(s) listed below does not reside within the medulla oblongata?
Habenular Nuclei
What portion of the diencephalon does the pineal gland attach?

Epithalamus
In a neuron membrane exhibiting an action potential, the inward flow of sodium which causes
nearby membrane regions to open their channels so that sodium starts rushing in at that point
is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.
False
Which one of the following cranial nerves conveys sensory information from the baroreceptors
of the carotid sinus to the brain?
IX
The medulla oblongata and the cerebellum are located in the:

Hindbrain
The medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain belong to what brain part?
Brainstem
The type of neuron that takes information from one neuron to another neuron and reside
entirely within the central nervous system is called what?
Interneurons
Which one of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system?
Spinal Cord
Nerves which function in mobilizing body resources such as in "fight or flight" response belong
to the:
Sympathetic portion of the autonomic system
Which of the following transmitter substances stimulates excitatory activity in the CNS?
Glutamate
Which spinal cord tract carries information from the brainstem to body regions to maintain
muscle tone, balance, posture and orientation of head and limbs?
Extrapyramidal tracts
Based on their location in the body, which sensory receptor is found in joints, muscles,
tendons and the inner ear.
Proprioceptor
The Limbic System is composed of the:
Thalamus, hippocampus, hypothalamus, amygdala
Acetylcholine esterase is a neurotransmitter secreted by neurons to stimulate other neurons

and also muscles to contract.
False
In the disease, myasthemia gravis, the myelin sheath is destroyed causing paralysis.
False
Barbiturates are considered to be:

Sedatives
Which one of the following numerals represents the cranial nerve that controls the muscles
that regulate the aperture of the pupil and the shape of the lens?
III
The resting membrane potential for a neuron, exhibits a separation of charge between the
inside and outside of the cell membrane that is:
Positive outside, Negative inside the membrane
An axon is a type of nerve cell extension which takes a signal away from the cell body.
True
The pons connects the medulla to the:

Midbrain
Which of the following nerves innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?
Spinal root od accessory nerve (crX)
Choose below the correct order for stimulus path in a reflex arc.
Sensory receptors, sensory neurons, synapses, and interneurons, motor neurons, effectors,
responses
The ___________ lobe of the cerebral cortex is located on the upper rear of the cerebrum and
located here are the somatosensory cortex which receives signals from skin and joints.
Parietal
In the spinal cord, is the gray matter located toward the outside or inside of the spinal cord
structure?
Inside
The ___________ portion of the limbic system is the major brain activity affected by psychoactive
drugs such as alcohol, nicotine, marijuana, cocaine, heroin and many other street drugs.
Hypothalamus
The dorsal roots emerging from the posterolateral slides of the spinal cord are formed from
which one of the following types of nerve fibers?
Sensory fibers
The nerve axon on motor neurons is covered by a myelin sheath formed from Schwann Cells
that has nodes or indentations.
True
The thalamus and hypothalamus are located in the:

Forebrain
________ neurons take information from brain to muscles or glands, have many dendrites and
one axon.
Motor
Which of the following transmitter substances is inhibitory in the CNS?

GABA
Choose from the sensory receptors listed below classified on microscopic structure the type
which sense pain, heat, tickle, itch and touch?
Free nerve endings
________ neurons take information from receptors for heat, taste, touch, and light to the central
nervous system and they have one axon and one dendrite.
Sensory
Which one of the following is not a major factor that determines and maintains the resting
potential of a neuron?
Opening of voltage-gated channels in the plasma membrane
The brain emits electrical signals which indicate levels of activity in brain neurons and these
electrical outputs are called electroencephalograms or EEG's.
True
Which one of the following types of neuroglial cells are widespread throughout the peripheral
nervous system?
Schwann cells
The visual and auditory conducting and coordinating areas are located in the:
Midbrain
The action potential for a neuron shows a rolling reversal of charge moving down the nerve
membrane that constitutes the transmission of the impulse and is measured as:
The outside is now negative, and the inside is positive
The ___________ lobe of the cerebral cortex is located at the lower rear portion of the cerebrum;
visual centers located here.
Occipital
Which one of the following divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System has long preganglionic
fibers that synapse at autonomic ganglia within the walls of the target organ?
Parasympathetic nervous system
From the list below, where would you expect to find cerebrospinal fluid?
Between pia mater and arachnoid mater
The nerve axon on motor neurons is covered by a myelin sheath formed from Schwann Cells
that has nodes or indentations.
True
What is the function of the projection tracts in the cerebrum?

Connect gyri with different areas of CNS
Which one of the following conveys sensory information about pain, pressure, non-
discriminative touch and temperature to the brain?
Spinothalamic tract
Which one of the following is the middle layer of the meninges?

Arachnoid mater
In neurons of the body, _________ions are found outside the cell membrane.
Sodium
The hippocampus, amygdala and cingulate gyrus are all considered part of which of the
following?
Limbic system
What name is given to the nerve roots from the lumbosacral spine that fills the vertebral canal
below the second lumbar vertebra?
Cauda equine
Nuclei in which one of the following brain regions are the major regulators of autonomic tone?
Hypothalamus
Which one of the following cranial nerves transmits parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to
the majority of the viscera of the body?
Vagus nerve
Only neurons possess a resting potential.

False
Which one of the following regions is most clearly associated with the primary sensory cortex?
Postcentral gyrus
The _________ effect describes one drug enhancing the effect of another drug.
Potentiating
Nuclei in which one of the following brain regions are the major regulators of autonomic tone?
Hypothalamus
A dendrite is a type of nerve cell extension which takes a signal away from the cell body.
False
Based on their location in the body, which sensory receptor is found in blood vessels, nervous
tissue, muscles and visceral organs.
Interceptor
Spinal cord functions consist of serving as a conduction pathway to and from the brain and
also as a site for reflex action.
True
The descending spinal cord tracts carry motor information to the body and exit via which
spinal root?
Anterior (ventral) horn
What portion of the diencephalon does the pituitary attach?

Hypothalamus
What is a function of the pons?
Fibers from cerebrum pass through pons to cerebellum
Based on their location in the body, which sensory receptor is found in joints, muscles,
tendons and the inner ear.
Proprioceptor
Which one of the following is the part of the brain from which most of the cervical nerves
arise?
Brainstem
Where would you find the habenular nuclei?
Epithalamus
Based on the type of stimulus modality, which sensory receptor is stimulated by chemicals
released at the site of tissue damage?
Nociceptor
Which brainstem portion listed below contains the nuclei for the cranial nerves V, VI, VII and
VIII?
Midbrain
Which one of the following cranial nerves leaves the head and neck region to innervate much
of the thoracic and abdominal viscera?
X
The knee jerk reflex belongs to which category of reflex?

Spinal reflex
Nerves are the organs of nervous system.

True
The _________ effect describes two drugs taken together which have more of an effect than if
taken separately.
Synergistic
The receptors that provide information about the relative position of body parts and
movement belong to which one of the following categories?
Proprioceptors
Myelinated fibers in the brain and spinal cord are found in white or gray matter?
White matter
In the brain, is the gray matter located toward the outside or inside of the brain structure?
Outside
The ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular nerves are the major branches of which cranial
nerve?
Trigeminal nerve
White matter in spinal cord is located on the outside and grey matter is on inside in the shape
of a butterfly.
True
Which one of the following cranial nerves leaves the head and neck region to innervate much
of the thoracic and abdominal viscera?
X
The two hemispheres of the cerebrum are located in the:

Forebrain
In a neuron membrane exhibiting an action potential, the inward flow of sodium which causes
nearby membrane regions to open their channels so that sodium starts rushing in at that point
is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.
False
Which of the meninges thickens to form the denticulate ligaments which cover the posterior
and anterior nerve roots on either side of the spinal cord?
Pia mater
Which spinal horn listed below contains the cell bodies of motor neurons which supply body
musculature with stimulation for contraction?
Anterior (Ventral) Horn
The brachial plexus is formed from the ventral roots of spinal nerves emerging at which one of
the following vertebral levels?
C5-T1
The neuron action potential exhibits an "all or none" response.

True
Spinal cord functions consist of serving as a conduction pathway to and from the brain and
also as a site for reflex action.
True
________ neurons take information from receptors for heat, taste, touch, and light to the central
nervous system and they have one axon and one dendrite.
Sensory
Which one of the following types of neurotransmitter is released by both preganglionic and
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
Acetylcholine
What portion of the diencephalon does the pineal gland attach?

Epithalamus
What is the smallest lobe of the brain?

Insula
What is the primary function of the cerebellum?

Controls muscle coordination, maintains balance and equilibrium
UNIT IX QUIZLET:
Which one of the following hormones suppresses appetite?

Leptin
How many parathyroid glands do we possess?

4
What is the function of the hormone secretin secreted by the S cells of the duodenum?
Stimulates secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice by pancreas
Which cell type in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans secretes insulin?

Beta cells
What term is used to describe the action when a single hormone forms a hormone-receptor
complex which then triggers a cascade of events inside the target cell?
Agonist
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are produced by chromaffin cells located in which one of the
following regions of the suprarenal gland?
Medulla
Which cell type in the pancreatic islets of Langerhans secretes somatostatin?

Delta Cells
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

Sweat gland
The numbers “3” and “4” associated with the thyroid hormones T3 and T4 refer to which one of
the following?
Number of iodine atoms in each of the hormones
Which cell type is not found in the ovary?

Zygote
During the menstrual cycle, what is the function of the estrogen produced by the growing
follicle in the ovary?
Inhibits secretion of follicle stimulating hormone by the pituitary
Which portion of the pituitary gland has both an endocrine and nervous function?
Neurohypophysis
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are produced by chromaffin cells located in which one of the
following regions of the suprarenal gland?
Medulla
What is the first thing that happens when blood pressure decreases in the afferent arterioles
of the kidney?
Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin
What menstrual cycle problem is indicated when there is a lack of a menstrual period?
Amenorrhea
Which of the following hormones plays a major role in sleep regulation?

Melatonin
What is the target organ(s) for LH (luteinizing hormone)?

Ovaries and Testes
Mineralocorticoids are produced by which one of the following layers of the suprarenal gland?
Zona glomerulosa
Which function below is not one that is directly linked to angiotensin II?
Targets kidneys to reabsorb sodium ions and water
What is the function of renin secreted by the juxtglomerular cells of the kidney when blood
pressure decreases?
Angiotensinogen is converted to angiotensin I
What hormone listed below is secreted by the cells lining the fundus in the stomach and
epsilon cells of the pancreas which targets the brain?
Grehlin
What term is used to describe the action when one hormone can act as a secondary hormone,
promoting the effect of a primary hormone?
Permissive
Which one of the following is stimulated by glucocorticoids?

Gluconeogenesis
Angiotensin II stimulates cells in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to release which
one of the following hormones?
Aldosterone
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)?

Gonadotrophs
In the testes, which one of the following cell types produces testosterone?
Leydig cells
Which one of the following best describes the relative speed of onset for the effects of the
endocrine system relative to that of the nervous system?
Endocrine effects occur more slowly than nervous effects
What nuclei in the hypothalamus secrete oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone at their axon
terminals in the posterior pituitary?
Paraventricular nuclei
What action listed below occurs when sperm count is high?

Promotes secretion of inhibition by Sertoli cells
To which stage of the stress response does increased heart rate and constriction of blood flow
to viscera and skin belong?
Fight-or-flight response
Glucocorticoids are produced by which one of the following layers of the suprarenal gland?
Zona fasciculate
Androgens are produced by which one of the following layers of the suprarenal gland?
Zona reticularis
What is the target organ(s) for MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone)?

Skin and Brain
What is the target organ(s) for hGH (human growth hormone)?

Bone and Muscle
What percentage of pancreatic cells are exocrine?

99%
What hormone listed below is secreted by the I cells in the mucosa of the duodenum with a
target of the pancreas and gallbladder?
CCK (cholecystokinin)
Which one of the following describes the actions of hormones that act locally rather than at a
distance from the site of release?
Paracrine
What is the importance of the hypophyseal portal circulation which flows from the
hypothalamus to the adenohyphysis?
It connects the nervous system to the endocrine system
Which one of the following hormones is produced by the kidneys and increases oxygen
delivery to cells of the body?
Erythropoietin
To which stage of the stress response does the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone
and growth-hormone-releasing hormone belong?
Resistance reaction
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases hGH (human growth hormone)?
Somatotrophs
Besides the ovary, which other organ produces the hormone estrogen?
Placenta
What is the function of relaxin secreted by the corpus luteum?

Promotes flexibility of pubic symphysis and dilates uterine cervix durng labor
What is the function of angiotensin-converting enzyme when blood pressure decreases?

Angiotensin I is changed to Angiotensin II
What hormone listed below is secreted by the S cells of duodenum with a target of the
pancreas, liver and stomach?
Secretion
What menstrual cycle problem is associated with painful menstruation?

Dysmenorrhea
What is the target organ(s) for PRL (prolactin)?

Mammary glands
Which hormone below is not involved in the stress response?
Gastrin
Which hormone below is not soluble in water?

Testosterone
Which one of the following best describes the relative speed of onset for the effects of the
endocrine system relative to that of the nervous system?
Endocrine effects occur more slowly than nervous effects
What nuclei in the hypothalamus secrete oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone at their axon
terminals in the posterior pituitary?
Paraventricular nuclei
What is the function of the hormone cholecystokinin produced by the I cells of the duodenum?
Relaxes the hepatopancreatic sphincter to release bile into the duodenum
What is the primary function of follicle stimulating hormone?

Stimulate spermatogenesis
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the pancreas?

Gastrin
Glucocorticoids are produced by which one of the following layers of the suprarenal gland?
Zona fasciculate
Angiotensin II stimulates cells in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to release which
one of the following hormones?
Aldosterone
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases ACTH (adreno-corticotropic hormone)?

Corticotrophs
Which one of the following terms best describes hormones that produce an action greater
when acting together than either would on their own?
Synergistic
Which hormone below is not secreted by cells of the thyroid gland?

Calcitriol
What is the name of the saddle-like depression in the superior surface of the sphenoid bone in
which the pituitary gland resides and is protected?
Sella turcica
What is the first thing that happens when blood pressure decreases in the afferent arterioles
of the kidney?
Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin
What is the function of relaxin secreted by the corpus luteum?

Promotes flexibility of pubic symphysis and dilates uterine cervix during labor
Which of the options listed below is not caused by an increase in levels of the thyroid
hormones T3 and T4?
Increased lipogenesis
Where would you expect to find Herring Bodies?

Neurohypophysis
Which one of the following is the target organ for inhibin in both males and females?
Pituitary gland
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an endocrine gland?

Secretes to external spaces
What is the name of the action type for hormones that act on the same cell that produces it.
Autocrine
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)?

Gonatrophs
Which ion blood level below is not regulated by the action of parathyroid hormone?
Potassium
Which cells in the adrenal medulla secrete adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline
(norepinephrine)?
Chromaffin cells
Which action below is not one associated with a “fight or flight” response?
Blood flow to digestive organs increases
If fertilization of the egg occurs during the menstrual cycle, what is the function of the corpus
luteum?
Secretes progesterone
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases PRL (prolactin)?

Lactotrophs
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of an endocrine gland?

Secretes to external places
Which portion of the pituitary gland has both an endocrine and nervous function?
Neurohypophysis
Where in the structure of the ovary are the ovarian follicles found?
Cortex
What term is used to describe the action when a single hormone forms a hormone-receptor
complex which then triggers a cascade of events inside the target cell?
Agonist
Which one of the following cell types secretes parathyroid hormone?
Chief cells
What is the function of the hormone secretin secreted by the S cells of the duodenum?
Stimulates secretion of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice by pancreas
Which one of the following terms is given to the state that occurs if the resistance reaction fails
to combat the stressor?
Exhaustion
What is the primary function of luteinizing hormone?

Promotes testosterone secretion by Leydig cells
What hormone listed below is secreted by the G cells in the stomach, duodenum and pancreas
with a target of the chief cells, parietal cells and smooth muscle in the stomach?
Gastrin
What menstrual cycle problem is caused by endometrial cells growing in the pelvic cavity and
undergoing a menstrual cycle.
Endometriosis
Which one of the following is not a glucocorticoid?

Glucagon
What term is used to describe the action when one hormone can block the action of another
hormone by binding to the receptor?
Antagonist
To which stage of the stress response does increased heart rate and constriction of blood flow
to viscera and skin belong?
Fight-or-flight responses
To which stage of the stress response does the increase in sweating and dilation of airways
belong?
Fight-or-flight responses
Which cells listed below is not located in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas?
Acini
What is the name of the action type for hormones that act on the same cell that produces it.
Autocrine
What hormone listed below is secreted by the S cells of duodenum with a target of the
pancreas, liver and stomach?
Secretion
What is the importance of the hypophyseal portal circulation which flows from the
hypothalamus to the adenohyphysis?
It connects the nervous system to the endocrine system
Which one of the following is the target organ for inhibin in both males and females?
Pituitary gland
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)?

Thyrotrophs
Which hormone listed below does not act antagonistically to regulate blood calcium levels?
Thyroxine
In the testes, which one of the following cell types produces testosterone?
Leydig cells
What is the primary function of follicle stimulating hormone?

Stimulate spermatogenesis
What menstrual cycle problem is associated with mood swings, fluid retention, anxiety,
backache and joint pains?
Premenstrual syndrome
If no fertilization of the egg occurs during the menstrual cycle, what is the function of the
corpus luteum?
Degenerates so that progesterone level decrease
What is the primary function of luteinizing hormone?

Promotes testosterones secretion by Leydig cells
Mineralocorticoids are produced by which one of the following layers of the suprarenal gland?
Zona glomerulosa
During the menstrual cycle, what is the function of the estrogen produced by the growing
follicle in the ovary?
Stimulates the production of luteinizing hormone by the pituitary
Which anterior pituitary cell type releases hGH (human growth hormone)?
Somatotrophs

Unit 1,2,3,4,5,6a, 6B, 7a, 7B, 8, 9 Quizlet

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UNIT 1 QUIZLET

Types of cells having similar functions are called what?

The inguinal area is the name for what body region?

A group of similar organisms of the same species is called what?

The buttocks is referred to as what body region?

Choose the sequence below which is listed as proximal to distal.

What body structure is formed from other tissue types?

Which of the following is a component of the integumentary system?

The characteristic of life defined as an increase in mass is termed what?

The biosphere is defined as any place on earth which supports life.

The liver is part of which one of the following body systems?

It is always easy to determine if an entity is living.

The shoulder is distal to the elbow.

The first step in using the scientific method is to form an hypothesis.

All species living in a certain area is called what?

Atoms are similar to subatomic particles.

Connective tissue is considered a tissue because it carries signals.

A compartmentalized structure in a cell formed from large macromolecules is called what?

The wrist is distal to the elbow.

Which one of the following elements commonly ionizes to form an anion?

________ structure in a protein is formed from hydrogen bonding.

Stable elements usually have an equal number of protons and electrons.

"If a molecule is hydrophilic, it can easily dissolve in water."

Non-polar compounds such as salts dissolve in water.

"If a molecule is hydrophobic, it can easily dissolve in water."

All elements have a nucleus formed of protons and neutrons.

__________ have up to three fatty acids attached to a single glycerol molecule

Proteins are large polymers made of repeating amino acid subunits.

Which one of the following mixture is an example of a colloid?

A single unit of sugar is what type of carbohydrate?

A molecule of ATP contains one of the following nitrogenous bases?

Ribose sugar is found in DNA.

UNIT III QUIZLET

During ___________, the chromosomes decondense and daughter nuclei re-form.

Glycolysis does not function unless oxygen is present.

What organelle has ribosomes attached to it and synthesizes proteins?

The Kreb's Cycle will not function unless oxygen is present.

All eukaryotic cells in mature organisms contain nuclei.

The normal diploid number of chromosomes in humans is what number?

What type of solution will cause RBC hemolysis?

Which one of the following stages of DNA replication occurs first?

Which one of the following best describes the process of translation?

During meiotic division _____, homologous chromosomes separate without centromere

During ________, chromosomes attach as individual chromosomes to the spindle apparatus by

One spermatogonium produces ______ sperm.

Which one of the following is the site of translation?

The Kreb's Cycle is an example of a __________ metabolic pathway.

Crossing over in meiosis __________________.

Alternative sources of energy for the body may be found in:

The mechanism of ATP production in the mitochondria involves the production of a:

The primary lipid in the cell membrane is the phospholipid.

Glycolysis breaks down pyruvic acid to form glucose and ATP.

Which one of the following processes is an example of receptor-mediated endocytosis?

The normal haploid number of chromosomes in humans is what number?

During ________, chromosomes attach as individual chromosomes to the spindle apparatus by

The term proliferation describes which one of the following processes?

Enzymes are mostly protein with exception of an RNA enzyme.

The skin is composed of what type of epithelium.

There are ___________ basic tissue types.

A group of cells interacting in a common function is called what?

Which muscle type below is non-striated?

Epithelium is most lilely to be found in which one of the following locations?