REGIONAL EXAMINATION FOR NURSE REGISTRATION

March 5, 2018

CARICOM COUNTRIES

CLINICAL NURSING-OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

RENR REVIEW
DURATION 2 ½ hrs

NO OF ITEMS: 100
1. A nurse prepared a client for operating theatre. On arrival the theatre nurse realized that
the patients arm band was missing and the patient was not shaved. The nurse neglected
which safety check prior to taking the patient to the theatre?

a. Omission to assess the Preop check list

b. Omission to communicate with the patient
c. Omission of physical assessment
d. Omission of the stipulated surgery

2. Prior to going to surgery the doctor prescribed 75mg pethidine for a patient scheduled for
a laparotomy. The DDA Cupboard contains 100mg ampules. The nurse who was
assigned the patient went to administer the medication. In addition to getting a witness to
the administration, it is also important for the nurse to document in the record book the
________

a. Wasted amount
b. Client’s response
c. Route of administration
d. Client’s vital signs

3. A client after 15 minutes after receiving 100mg of pethidine complains of dizziness and
“funny feeling in his head”. On assessment the client’s vital signs are P 100 R 16 T37 BP
100/60. The nurse would implement which action as PRIORITY?

a. Administer Naloxone as prescribed

b. Apply bed rails and monitor the client
c. Notify the physician of the client’s status
d. Document the findings on the client’s record

4. A 6 year old child sustained a fractured tibia of the left leg. A lower leg cast was applied.
The client complained of unrelieved pain over the Malleoli. Which intervention would
the child need?

a. Cast replaced with air

b. Bivalving the cast
c. Extra padding inserted
d. A window cut in the cast
5. A patient came to the Accident and Emergency Department with complaint of abdominal
pain. On assessment the client has a low grade fever. When examining the patient the
nurse should assess:

a. the abdomen in a clockwise direction

b. the symptomatic quadrant last
c. the symptomatic quadrant first
d. the quadrant adjacent the symptomatic quadrant

6. Which conducting research method, the nurse identifies that the best method used for
generalisation would be:

a. Quota
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Stratified random

7. The nurse while auscultating a client’s lung field heard crackles. The nurse concludes that
which of the following is the PRIORITY DIAGNOSIS?

a. Fluid volume excess

b. Impaired tissue perfusion
c. Ineffective breathing
d. Impaired gaseous exchange

8. A patient had a C4 spinal damage after being involved in a Motor Vehicle Accident.
What result would demonstrate an effective nursing intervention?

a. Intact skin integrity

b. Bowel and bladder control
c. Improved Physical activities
d. Transfer from bed to chair

9. Which of the following micro-nutrient would the nurse suggest to an antenatal client that
would BEST aid in the development of her unborn during pregnancy?

a. Vitamin C
b. Folic acid
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K
10. When assessing a woman who is 12 weeks pregnant, the nurse would detect a palpable
fundus at:

a. Symphysis pubis
b. Non-palpable
c. Umbilicus
d. Between Symphysis pubis and umbilicus

11. An elderly patient was admitted with signs of confusion. The admitting nurse would
INITIALLY focus further PRIORITY assessment for?

a. Present infection
b. Signs of orientation
c. Signs of abuse
d. Client support base

12. A nurse is attempting to pass an NG tube met with resistance. If the nurse forces the NG
tube through the patient’s nostril, the nurse could be charged with?

a. Unintentional tort
b. Battery
c. Assault
d. Negligence

13. A person with End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) will likely have anaemia because:

a. Decrease production of erythroprotein by kidneys

b. Lysis of red blood cells
c. Increase BUN and Creatinine
d. Decrease blood flow to the Kidneys

14. A patient with Crush injury to tibia of his left leg returned from surgery after doing Open
Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF) complained of paresis to his left foot. The nurse
would monitor the patient for:

a. Circulation
b. Sensation
c. discolouration
d. warmth
15. The nurse is assessing the diet that the Patient Care Assistant (PCA) is about to assist an
HTN patient to have. Which diet would the nurse allow the PCA to feed to the patient?

a. Tomato salad, Grilled pork, potato salad,

b. Steamed fish, tomato salad, whole milk
c. Boiled egg, bread, skimmed milk
d. Lean stake, whole milk, tomato salad,

16. What would be the nurse’s advice to a couple enquiring about sex during pregnancy?

a) No sex after 3rd trimester

b) No sex until 16 weeks after pregnancy
c) Continue, won’t hurt baby
d) Copious sexual activity

17. A staff was admitted to the female ward and overheard another staff member on the
night shift discussing untruthful things about her. She spoke to the supervisor about the
matter. When discussing the issue with the staff member the supervisor would discuss the
legal implication of:

a. libel
b. slander
c. defamation of character
d. breach of confidentiality

18. A nurse would expect a primi-gravida who has experienced lightening to report which of
the following?

a) Pedal oedema
b) Heartburn
c) Urinary frequency
d) Constipation

19. A patient diagnosed with Schizophrenia presents with a flat affect. Which of the
following will the nurse expects to find?

a) Blank staring and an expressionless face

b) Fixed facial expression and ambivalence
c) Ambivalence and an expressionless face
d) Blank stare and autistic behavior
20. What is the MOST important difference between a good leader and manager?

a) They are born not made

b) Inspires
c) Plan, co- ordinate and control
d) Follow system and structure

21. The clinical manager observes different procedures carried out by several nurses. The
nurse manager would send which nurse for additional infection control classes?

a) The nurse who wears her mask after use

b) The nurse who scrubs her hand for at least 15 seconds during washing
c) The nurse who wears a HEPA mask when caring for a patient with TB
d) The nurse who removes her gloves, then gown, then mask

22. In evaluating the effectiveness of interventions for a diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition:

Less than Body Requirement, the nurse would expect to find?

a) Weight gain of 1kg

b) Increase in Hb 8%
c) Serum Albumin > 30mg/dL
d) Diminishing sacral oedema

23. Which of the following medication would cause the nurse to monitor the client’s blood
glucose as part of the plan of care?

a. Corticosteroids
b. ACE Inhibitors
c. Cardiac Gycosides
d. Diuretics

24. A patient who sustained severe burn injury is to receive 5000mls of resuscitation fluid.
The charge nurse would have no complaint if she observes what amount of fluid
documented in the final 8 hours of administration?

a. 2500
b. 1500
c. 2000
d. 1250

25. Which of the following diagnostic test is used to confirm Syphilis?

 a. Lumbar puncture
b. VDRL
c. Genital swab
d. Urine analysis

26. The nurse assesses a client’s lab results and observe this acid base imbalance [PaCO2-30
pH- 7.48 HCO3- 28]. The nurse interprets the results and take which PRIORITY
ACTION?

a. Oxygen 2liters via nasal cannula

b. Encourage slow deep breath
c. Encourage rapid deep breathing
d. Place client in high fowlers position

27. During a pregnant client’s physical examination she told the nurse that her LMP was
September 28, 2013, the nurse accurately calculate the EDD to be:

a. May 5, 2014
b. June 6, 2014
c. July 7, 2014
d. September 8, 2013

28. The nurse grasp the fold of skin over the dorsum of an elderly client’s hand and notes
tenting. To determine skin turgor of this client the nurse should validate by:

a) Grasping a fold of skin further up the client’s arm

b) Placing the dorsum of hand over the skin
c) Depressing skin over a bony prominence
d) Grasping a fold of skin over the client’s forehead*

29. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with an MI assess the patient’s chest pain to be
2/10 MOST appropriate intervention to lower this patient’s oxygen demand is to:

a) Limit visitation
b) Limit physical activity
c) Administer prescribed Morphine
d) Administer supplemental oxygen

30. Community health nurses uses information system and technology to collect data on
outbreaks. What is the process of on-going systematic collection, analysis and
interpretation of data called?
 a) Tracking
b) Research
c) Investigation
d) Surveillance

31. A patient is seen at A&E for surgery related to ectopic pregnancy. She is seen by the
nurse anaesthetist who received her and conducted her assessment. The patient was
medicated pre- operatively as ordered. Before leaving Accident & Emergency for
Operating Theatre the patient complains of drowsiness and dry mouth. The nurse
concludes that the drug which most likely caused these symptoms is:

a) Physostigmine (eserine)
b) Atropine sulphate
c) Alprazolam (Xanax)
d) Tamsulosin (Flomax)

32. What order would you expect the nurse to follow when giving care to a patient at an
antenatal clinic?

a) Vital signs, interview, health teaching, blood test

b) Vital signs, blood test, health teaching, interview
c) Interview, vital signs, health teaching, blood test
d) Interview, vital signs, blood test, health teaching

33. The Community Health Nurse determines there is a need for further teaching if a woman
identifies which of the following as a risk factor for breast cancer?

a) ageing
b) family history
c) Use of oral contraceptives
d) HPV infection

34. A patient carries Nitroglycerin (GTN) to work and wraps it in a napkin; what is the
mechanism behind this action?

a) It is accessible so as to not open cover

b) Less potent; if exposed to air and light
c) Have it at work and home
d) Napkin is clean

35. A client is about to be discharged with a prescription for the antipsychotic agent
Haloperidol (Haldol), 10 mg by mouth twice per day. During a discharge teaching
session, the nurse should provide which instruction to the client?
 a. Take the medication 1 hour before a meal.

b. Decrease the dosage if signs of illness decrease.

c. Avoid the sun as much as possible.

d. Increase the dosage up to 50 mg twice per day if signs of illness don’t decrease.

36. A client with schizophrenia who receives Fluphenazine (Prolixin) develops

pseudoparkinsonism and akinesia. What drug would the nurse administer to minimize
extrapyramidal symptoms?

a. benztropine (Cogentin)

b. dantrolene (Dantrium)

c. clonazepam (Klonopin)

d. diazepam (Valium

37. A client tells the nurse that people from Mars are going to invade the earth. Which
response by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

a. “That must be frightening to you. Can you tell me how you feel about it?”

b. “There are no people living on Mars.”

c. “What do you mean when you say they’re going to invade the earth?”

d. “I know you believe the earth is going to be invaded, but I don’t believe that.”

38. Client with paranoid schizophrenia is suspicious of the food served at the mental health
facility. Which of the following interventions by the nurse would be MOST
INAPPROPRIATE based on this client’s clinical manifestation?

a. Facing this client when speaking to him.

b. Allowing this client to examine everything that is given to him.
c. Whispering when dealing with other patients so as not to disturb this client.
d. Allowing client to help in preparing his food or have food brought from home if he
prefers.

39. A client diagnosed with stage one Cervical Cancer came to the health centre for follow-
up Pap smear. The patient’s health promotion is at what level of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
 c. Tertiary
d. Rehabilitation

40. Vector borne diseases is becoming increasingly prevalent in the Caribbean. Which of the
following vector borne illness has the same sign and symptom as dengue?

a. Malaria
b. Chikungunya
c. West-Nile virus
d. Chicken pox

41. The mission of the Regional Nursing Body includes:

a. Advising governments of the region on health issues

b. Ensure affordability of health care in the region
c. Ensure adaptability of health care in the region
d. Reporting to the ICN on health issues

42. Immediately after an earthquake, a number of patients in the accident and emergency
department are exhibiting inappropriate behaviour, depression and hysterical reactions to
which of the following needs should the nurse give PRIORITY?

a. self-esteem
b. physiological
c. psychological
d. love and belonging

43. A client on Continuous Peritoneal Dialysis (CPD) feels uncomfortable he notices the
nurse did not warm the dialysate. Why should the nurse warm the dialysate prior to
peritoneal dialysis?

a. Relax abdominal muscles

b. Provide extra warmth to the body
c. Facilitate the removal of serum urea
d. Force Potassium back into the cells

44. A client returned from surgery after reduction of a fractured femur. A key aspect of the
focused assessment to identify musculoskeletal complications include?

a. Vital signs
b. Op site
 c. IV fluids
d. Circulatory functions

45. The percentage of burn area using the Rule of Nine to determine the total burn surface
area on the anterior arms and anterior trunk would be:

a. 18%
b. 22.5%
c. 27%
d. 31.5%

46. A client suffered extensive burns and requires a nasogastric tube. A third year student
nurse asked the staff nurse why the patient would need to have the nasogastric tube. The
nurses MOST accurate response would be?

a. Because the patient is NPO

b. The client is at risk for GI bleed
c. To increase protein to reduce catabolism
d. In case the client needs emergency surgery

47. Which of the following is considered a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

a. Foetal heart tone

b. Positive BHCG
c. Foetal parts
d. Breast tenderness

48. Which topic would be expected to be on the teaching plan for patients in the first
trimester of pregnancy?

i. Hospital Registration
ii. Danger signs in pregnancy
iii. Expected changes in pregnancy
iv. Presenting high risk pregnancy

a. I & II
b. I & III
c. II & III
d. II & IV

49. The emergency nurse observes a saw tooth pattern wave form on a 12-lead ECG. The
nurse would report which of the following to the doctor?

a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Atrial flutter
 c. Myocardial infarction
d. Tachycardia

50. The nurse assessing a patient for surgery determines the patient is at risk for surgical
complications if the patient is?

a. Under weight
b. Of African descent
c. Have taken herbal meds
d. Dehydrated

51. The nurse is conducting a research on the chronic illness (Hypertension). During the
literature review phase, to which local organization could the nurse turn for information?

a. Statistical institute
b. Health ministry
c. WHO
d. PAHO

52. The office of the chief nurse ordered an audit of the patients’ record which revealed
several discrepancies. The unit manager while putting measures in place to fix the issues,
does this with the primary purpose of ensuring:

a. Adherence to standards
b. The nurse practice act is enforces
c. The ICN code of ethics is not breached
d. No such audit will reoccur

53. Staff nurse Shaw made an application to the office of the matron for a Post Basic course.
Staff nurse Shaw’ s action is reflecting the ICN Element of:

a. Nurses and People

b. Nurses and Profession
c. Nurses ad Practice
d. Nurses and Co-worker

54. A Collegial relationship is one in which the staff works together harmoniously. Which of
the following is NOT reflecting this principle?

a. The Patient Care Assistant (PCA) and the nurse performs a bed bath
b. The staff nurse is reprimanded by the supervisor about not wearing a hat
c. A staff nurse and her colleague are at odds about an assignment
 d. A staff nurse and are colleague reprimand a student about a wrong injection site

55. The nurse assess a 12 lead ECG and observes elevated ST segment with QRS changes.
Accorded to the emergency protocol adapted from the American Heart Association,
which f the following would the nurse administer first?

a. Oxygen
b. Nitro-glycerine ( nitrostat)
c. Morphine
d. Aspirin

56. A client is scheduled for Umbilical hernia repair; the client was informed of possible
ways for Hernia Strangulation. When would the nurse call the doctor?

a. Vomiting
b. Diarrhoea
c. Fever
d. Constipation

57. After a teaching session on safe foods, the public health nurse identifies the need for
follow-up if a member of the group states which of the following? Select all that
apply
i. “ I will keep hot foods hot”
ii. “ the swollen cans on the supermarket shelves contains more”
iii. “ the food venders needs proper hand washing facility”
iv. “ the food handlers clinic is for food venders, restaurant owners, cooks and
chefs”
a. i iii
b. iii iv
c. ii iv
d. i ii

58. Which medication should the nurse question administering?

a. The ACE inhibitor to the client diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI) who is on
a ventilator and has a BP of 88/62.
 b. The calcium channel blocker to a client diagnosed with hypertension who has a
headache and a BP of 220/98.
c. The beta blocker to a client diagnosed with migraine headaches who has an apical
pulse of 52.
d. The cardiac glycoside to a client diagnosed with heart failure who denies being
nauseated.

59. A client presents to the accident and emergency area with a deep laceration to the left
femoral region of his leg. The nurse assess the vital signs and finds: R-34, BP-90/60
mmHg P-140bpm. The nurse implements shock interventions for which of the following?

a. Cardiogenic
b. Hypovolemic
c. Distributive
d. Neurogenic

60. Which of the staff nurse’s personal attributes is an important consideration for the unit
manager when discussing making an experienced nurse a preceptor for new graduates?
Select all that apply.

i. The nurse’s need for the monetary stipend.

ii. The nurse’s ability to organize the work.
iii. The ability of the nurse to interact with others.
iv. The quality of the care the nurse provides.
a. i ii iii
b. ii iii iv
c. i iii iv
d. i ii iv

61. The nurse on the paediatric unit is preparing a teaching plan for a 9 year-old. The nurse
would construct the plan to fit which developmental task?

a. Guilty feeling about not being able to complete a task

b. Despondency about not achieving set goals
c. Eager to assist with cleaning the house
d. Eager to go home with parents

62. The Nurses Association of Jamaica plays a key role in the professional development of
Nurses. Apart of the Association’s core mission is:

a. Ensuring safe work place for nurses

b. Achieving reciprocity for nurses
c. Advising on health methods
 d. Negotiating salaries

63. The nurse is double checking the treatment chart of a patient diagnosed with Tuberculosis
expects to find which of the following drugs written on the order?

a. Isoniazid, streptomycin, carbamazepine

b. Isoniazid Ethambutol, Rifampin
c. Cyclophosphamide, Streptomycin, Rifampin
d. Pyrazinamide, Ramipril, Streptomycin

64. Nurse X is a young Unit Manager of the Paediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are
senior to her, very articulate, confident and sometimes aggressive. Nurse X feels
uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her
department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take?

a. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
b. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently
c. Seek help from the Director of Nursing
d. Quit her job and look for another employment

65. A student nurse asked the charge nurse about the purpose of performance appraisal. The
charge nurse tells the student that performance appraisal consists of all the following
activities EXCEPT:

a. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.

b. Using agency standards as a guide.
c. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses
d. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behaviour

66. The nurse when managing the unit, communicates through downward and upward
channels and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is
her style of management?

a. Benevolent –authoritative
b. Consultative
c. Exploitive-authoritative
d. Participative

67. The staff nurse decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following
elements is NOT included?

a. Level of authority
b. Lines of communication
 c. Span of control
d. Unity of direction

68. During a ward conference, the ward manager presents the nursing procedures to be
followed, she refers to what type of standards?

a. Process
b. Outcome
c. Structure
d. Criteria

69. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?

a. The things that were planned are done

b. Physicians do not complain.
c. Employees are contended
d. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate

70. The nurse when conducting research, checks if the instruments meet the criteria for
evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield
the same response upon its repeated administration?

a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Sensitivity
d. Objectivity

71. The nurse at a quality improvement conference explores the topic of shaping an
organization through its philosophy. The nurse should explore the organizations:

a. Mission
b. Philosophy
c. Structure
d. Goals

72. Which of the following organization is governed by law?

a. Statutory
b. Non-statutory
c. Dormant
d. Social
73. Non-verbal communication tells more about what an individual is feeling. Which of the
following is considered non-verbal communication?

a. Gesture and touch

b. Writing and nodding
c. Reading and writing
d. Smiling and writing

74. Nosocomial infection is hospital acquired infection. The infection control nurse would
explain that nosocomial infection is likely to be spread by:

a. Droplets
b. Air borne
c. Vector
d. contact

75. A patient came to the health centre at 16 weeks gestation. The midwife should tell the
patient to return at what point for the next visit?

a. 20/ 40
b. 22/ 40
c. 23/ 40
d. 28/ 40

76. The staff nurse when assessing the Lumbar puncture results for a 3 year old would show
what that would inform a diagnosis of Meningitis?

a. Turbid cells in CSF

b. Decrease WBC
c. Increase glucose in CSF
d. Negative gram-stain

77. A 36 year-old Spanish speaking patient was refused care by staff nurse Jackie because of
being unable to speak English. Which action by staff nurse Jackie would be considered
unethical?

a. I will only care for patients who can speak English

b. All patients coming to hospital must bring a translator
c. Asking the hospital translator to intervene
d. Telling the supervisor she does not speak Spanish
78. The nurse caring for a patient with chronic Dementia is designing a plan of care. The
nursing implementation considered PRIORITY is:

a. Give chores to prevent boredom

b. Leave the room the same
c. Place colourful items in the room
d. Stand to the side of the client at all times

79. The nurse after filling out an incident report following a medication error consulted with
the supervisor on what to do with the forms. The supervisor instructs the nurse to do all
the following except

a. Submit the forms in the nursing office and human resource

b. Submit one form to nursing office and one in the client record
c. Document the incidence but not that a report was filed
d. Reread the report before submitting

80. A woman with a obstetric history of 12 live births, 2 abortions, 6 living with a current
pregnancy the nurse documents the gravity and parity as:

a. G15 p12+2
b. G15 p12+6+2
c. G12 p14+2
d. G12 p8

81. During the ward round a client suddenly develop symptoms of an MI. Nurse recalls
seeing a DNR order in the client’s record how should the nurse proceed?

a. Continue to give treatment for symptoms and comfort

b. Leave the client since a DNR order is in place
c. Inform the relatives about the implications of the DNR
d. Consult with another staff nurse on how to proceed

82. A client with Chronic Renal Failure tells the nurse he is weak and tired. The parameter on
the clients lab form that would most accurately validates the client’s subjective data is:

a. Elevated Bun an Creatinine

b. Mildly decrease PH
c. Markedly decrease HB
d. Uremic frost on the skin
 83. A nurse on the morning shift is assigned to care for four clients. Which client will the
nurse assess first after receiving report from the night shift?

a. A client scheduled for an electrocardiogram (ECG) at 11 am

b. A client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status who is for bronchoscopy at 9 am
c. A client who has undergone above-the-knee amputation who is scheduled for
discharge home
d. A client who had a seizure at 2 a.m. and was treated with intravenous (IV) diazepam
(Valium) and phenytoin (Dilantin)

84. The client is diagnosed with laryngeal cancer had a laryngectomy done. Which
intervention would be priority for the nurse?

a. Assess the client’s ability to swallow.

b. Examine the client’s speech.
c. Review the client’s lab values.
d. Discuss client’s response with the family.

85. . The nurse is transcribing the doctor’s orders for a client who is scheduled for an
emergency appendectomy and who is being transferred from the emergency department
(ED) to the surgical unit. Which order should the nurse implement first?

a. Obtain the client’s informed consent.

b. Administer the pre-op medication
c. Shave the lower right abdominal quadrant.
d. Ensure the pre-op checklist is filled

86. The nurse is caring for clients on the paediatric medical unit. Which client should the
nurse assess FIRST?
a. The child diagnosed with type 1 diabetes who has a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
b. The child diagnosed with pneumonia who is coughing and has a temperature of 100 F
c. The child diagnosed with gastroenteritis who has a potassium (K) level of 3.9 mEq/L.
d. The child diagnosed with jaundice who has serum bilirubin level of 1.0mg/dl
Mr Jay Sing was brought to the emergency room with history of SOB, with generalized
weakness; he has been experiencing drenching night sweats. He complains of anorexia and
notices significant weight loss. After a chest x-ray a diagnosis of Tuberculosis was made.

87. Which of the following is not a risk factor for Mr. Sing contracting TB

a. Consumption of milk
b. Living near a factory
c. Living in a crowded community
d. Contact with someone with TB
88. During meal Mr. Sing states I am not used to looking like this. Which of the meals on the
food cart would be the MOST APPROPRIATE for the nurse to serve him?

a. Chicken breast, pasta salad, mixed vegetables and fruit juice

b. Burger, canned fruits, mixed vegetables and water
c. Baked bean, sunshine rice, mixed vegetables and fruit juice
d. Roast beef, raw vegetables, mixed nuts

89. When taking Mr. Sing’s blood pressure, the nurse would take which of the following
precautions?

a. Mask, gloves, gown

b. Mask and gloves
c. Gloves only
d. Mask only

90. After an education session with Mr. Sing, the nurse would be MOST CONCERNED if
he made which of the following statement?

a. “ My medication will be long term”

b. “I will have to sleep in a separate room”
c. “I can still go to my football games on Sunday”
d. “I can take my mask of when I am alone in my room”

91. Mr Sing was prescribed Rifampin, Isoniazid and Streptomycin. The nurse would
recommend vitamin B6 if the client states which of the following?

a. My urine and saliva appears orange

b. My stomach is upset when I take the medication
c. I used to feel when an insect crawls on me
d. My mouth has a very bitter taste

92. Mr Sing is coughing thick yellow secretions. Which of the following would be an
effective nursing intervention

a. Instruct him to turn every two hours

b. Encourage oral fluids
c. Administer mucolytic
d. Encourage ambulation
93. The nurse needs to prepare Mr. Sing for transfer to National Chest Hospital. The nurses
action would be considered safe if she:

a. Inform national Chest of the transfer

b. Transport the patient in a mask
c. Take the patient to the ambulance bay
d. Transport the patient in gloves, gown and mask

94. Mr Sing is to return to the hospital for sputum culture. He would be considered as still
having active TB if the culture reveals which of the following?

a. Pneumocystis carinii
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Tubercles in the lung
d. Positive Tuberculin

95. The client is having fetal heart rates of 90–110bpm during the contractions. THE FIRST
action the nurse should take is__________________.

a) Reposition the monitor

b) Turn the client to her left side
c) Ask the client to ambulate
d) Prepare the client for delivery

96. A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control.
Which method of birth control is MOST suitable for the client with diabetes?

a) Intrauterine device
b) Oral contraceptives
c) Diaphragm
d) Contraceptive sponge

97. Several nurses complain to the nurse manager that one of the patient care aides constantly

takes extensive lunch breaks. The nurse manager should:

a. Convene a group meeting of all the patient care aides to review their responsibilities
related to time management
b. Talk with the patient care aide to explore the reasons for the behaviour and review
Expectations
c. Arrange a meeting with the nurses so that they can confront the patient care aide as
a group
 d. Document the patient care aide’s behaviour and place it in the aide’s personnel file

98. A supervisor communicates expectations about a task to be completed and then delegates

the task. Which management function is being implemented by the supervisor?

a. Planning
b. Directing
c. Organizing
d. Controlling

99. Which of the following are benefits that may be derived from documentation in nursing
practice? It:

i guides the process of delivery of client care

ii reflects client’s involvement in his/ her care
iii provides evidence that may reflect malpractice
iv provides information for health care personnel

a. i, ii, iii
b. i, ii, iv
c. i, iii, iv
d. ii, iii, iv

100. Which of the following serve as legitimate data sources that nursing personnel can
use to plan client care?

i Reference letters from medical personnel

ii Information from clients and significant others
iii Feedback from opinions of visitors and “well-wishers”
iv Personal observations made on clients’ behaviour by nurses

a. i, ii, iii
b. i, ii, iv
c. i, iii, iv
d. ii, iii, iv