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Rajasthan Judiciary (Civil Judge) Test Series -

Mock Test
Lawlogy 29 Mar, 2023

Table of Content

Questions
Question 1: Mere possession of title is

Option A: Enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

Option B: Not enough to maintain an action under Section 5 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

Option C: Only (b) is correct

Option D: None of the above

Question 2: Under which one of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, English
mortgage has been defined?

Option A: Section 58(e)

Option B: Section 58(d)

Option C: Section 58(g)

Option D: Section 58(f)

Question 3: Lease under section 105 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, pertains to :

Option A: A lease of immovable property

Option B: A lease of movable property

Option C: Both immovable and movable property

Option D: Does not to any particular property

Question 4: Which one of the following relation does not come within the undue influence
relationship?

Option A: Doctor and Patient

Option B: Customer and Shopkeeper

Option C: Lawyer and Client

Option D: Master and Servant

Question 5: A rustic woman in apprehension of assault and maltreatment makes a confession

for murder of her mother-in-law at the Village Panchayat. Whether this confession is
admissible?

Option A: As extra-judicial confession

Option B: Inadmissible due to involuntariness

Option C: As a supporting evidence to the fact deposed by the other witness

Option D: Partly admissible

Question 6: Facts supporting or rebutting the opinion of the experts are relevant under

Option A: Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act

Option B: Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act

Option C: Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act

Option D: Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act

Question 7: Which Section provides for a special remedy of possession by way of summary
procedure for a person disposed of immovable property without consent and otherwise in due
course of law.
Option A: Section 6 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Option B: Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

Option C: Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963

Option D: All of the above

Question 8: In case, the donee dies before acceptance of the gift, the said gift under the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882, is ______.

Option A: Valid

Option B: Heritable

Option C: Void

Option D: Voidable

Question 9: Chapter V of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with

Option A: oral evidence

Option B: documentary evidence

Option C: burden of proof

Option D: witnesses

Question 10: No substituted performance of contract under Section 20 of Specific Relief Act,
1963 shall be undertaken unless ________.

Option A: the party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing

Option B: not less than thirty days' notice

Option C: the party in breach of contract has refused or failed to perform after the notice

Option D: all of the above

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Question 11: A, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him
as his house keeper. In return, B agreed to pay A Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and
Rs. 500 per month for housing keeping. The agreement is :

Option A: Valid

Option B: Void

Option C: Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object

Option D: Unlawful being opposed to public policy

Question 12: Under which provision of law, can a court direct any person to write any words or
figures for comparison of handwriting?

Option A: Section 91 of Cr.P.C.

Option B: Section 54A of the Cr.P.C.

Option C: Section 73 of Indian Evidence Act

Option D: Section 45 of Indian Evidence Act

Question 13: 'A' accused of murder, alleges that by grave and sudden provocation, he was
deprived of the power of self-control. 'B' denies this fact

Option A: The burden of proof must be shared by both 'A' and 'B'

Option B: The burden of proof is on 'B'

Option C: The burden of proof is on prosecution

Option D: The burden of proof is on 'A'

Question 14: By which amendment, the word Secular and Socialist were included in the
preamble?

Option A: 1st Amendment

Option B: 6th Amendment

Option C: 42nd Amendment

Option D: 44th Amendment

Question 15: Dumb witness may give his evidence by writing or sign in open court such
evidence shall be deemed to be :

Option A: Written Evidence

Option B: Oral Evidence

Option C: Not admissible in evidence

Option D: It depends on the discretion of the court to accept it is or not

Question 16: Contingent agreement to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens

:

Option A: are void if the impossibility of the event is known to the parties at the time when it is
made

Option B: are void if the impossibility of the event is not known to the parties to agreement at the
time when it is made

Option C: are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the
agreement at the time when it is made

Option D: are voidable at the option of the parties

Question 17: The right to 'equality before law' contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India
is available to :

Option A: natural persons only

Option B: legal persons only

Option C: citizens of India

Option D: all persons whether natural or legal

Question 18: The Sections in the Code of Civil Procedure

Option A: can be amended by the Parliament

Option B: can be amended by a High Court or the State Legislature

Option C: can be amended by the Court hearing the suit

Option D: can be amended by the parties to the suit

Question 19: Article 39A of the Constitution pertains to :

Option A: Equality before law

Option B: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

Option C: Equal justice and free legal aid

Option D: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Question 20: Doctrine of unjust enrichment' was laid down by the Supreme Court in which one
of the following cases?

Option A: Sarla Mudgal vs. Union of India

Option B: Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs. Union of India

Option C: S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India

Option D: Unni Krishnan vs. State of AP

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Question 21: Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that the
objection regarding territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction has to be raised at the first available
opportunity?

Option A: Section 10

Option B: Section 11

Option C: Section 20

Option D: Section 21

Question 22: Rajya Sabha can withold Money Bill for a period of :

Option A: 14 days
Option B: 3 months

Option C: 6 months

Option D: None of the above

Question 23: Suits for declaration and injunction in respect of public nuisances under Section
91 of CPC can be instituted by

Option A: an individual without the leave of the Court

Option B: an individual with the leave of the Court

Option C: two or more persons without the leave of the Court

Option D: two or more persons with the leave of the Court

Question 24: Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to :

Option A: Interpretation of statutes to solve the problem of competing legislature in the same
field

Option B: Serve the objectionable portions of the statute that violate Fundamental Rights

Option C: Interpretation of statutes to solve problem arising out of territorial nexus

Option D: Interpretation of statutes to solve problems of waiver of Fundamental Rights

Question 25: "Where a plaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes any
portion of his claim, he shall not afterwards sue in respect of the portion so omitted or
relinquished". The genesis of this principle lies in :

Option A: Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

Option B: Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Option C: Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Option D: Order I Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Question 26: On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of action, is :
Option A: Barred by principles of Res judicata.

Option B: On its own force, does not preclude the plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint.

Option C: Barred under Order XXIII.

Option D: None of the above

Question 27: Limitation Act, 1963 bars

Option A: Right

Option B: Duty

Option C: Liability

Option D: Remedy

Question 28: Choose the correct option : As per Section 3 of the Limitation Act, in a suit
instituted after the prescribed period of limitation, the plea of limitation may be :

Option A: Waived by the defendant

Option B: Cannot be ignored and such suit shall be dismissed

Option C: Waived by both the parties to the suit with consent

Option D: Can be ignored by the Court

Question 29: 'Time requisite' under Section 12(2) of Limitation Act means

Option A: Minimum time

Option B: Maximum time

Option C: Actual time taken

Option D: Absolutely necessary time

Question 30: In which section of Limitation Act, effect of death before accrual of right to sue is
provided?
Option A: Section 16

Option B: Section 18

Option C: Section 19

Option D: Section 20

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Question 31: Which one of the following section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to
juveniles jurisdiction?

Option A: Section 25

Option B: Section 26

Option C: Section 27

Option D: Section 28

Question 32: The direction to ensure that police officers do not arrest accused unnecessarily
and magistrates do not authorise detentions casually were issued by the Supreme Court in the
following case :

Option A: Arnesh Kumar vs. State of Bihar

Option B: Lalita Kumari vs. State of UP

Option C: Sumita Kumari vs. State of Bihar

Option D: Anju Chaudhary vs. State of UP

Question 33: What is the extent of period of security which a Court can order under Section 106
of Cr.P.C.?

Option A: Not exceeding three years

Option B: Not exceeding six months

Option C: Not exceeding two years

Option D: Not exceeding one year

Question 34: Statement recorded by police officer during investigation under Section 161 of the
Cr.P.C. can be used during trial -

Option A: for contradicting the witness

Option B: for corroborating the witness

Option C: both for (a) and (b)

Option D: neither for (a) nor (b)

Question 35: Which Section of the Cr.P.C., 1973 applies when the officer-in-charge of a police
station receives information that a person has committed suicide?

Option A: Section 174

Option B: Section 181

Option C: Section 154

Option D: Section 147

Question 36: The effect of error in stating the required particulars in the charge, shall be
regarded material under which of the following circumstances?

Option A: When co-accused dies.

Option B: When the accused is misled by the error.

Option C: When a material witness becomes hostile.

Option D: When the accused is declared absconded.

Question 37: In a summons case, when the accused appears or is brought before the
Magistrate, it shall not be necessary to :

Option A: State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused

Option B: Ask whether he pleads guilty

Option C: Ask whether he has any defence to make

Option D: Frame a formal charge

Question 38: Under Section 313 of Cr.P.C., the statement of the accused -

Option A: Will be recorded on oath.

Option B: Will be recorded without oath.

Option C: Either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the Court.

Option D: Court can exempt from oath.

Question 39: Dishonestly' has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful
gain to one person and wrongful loss to another, under -

Option A: Section 21 of IPC

Option B: Section 23 of IPC

Option C: Section 24 of IPC

Option D: Section 25 of IPC

Question 40: In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of
fine ________.

Option A: has to be rigorous

Option B: has to be simple

Option C: can be rigorous or simple

Option D: can be partly rigorous and partly simple

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Question 41: A', is in a house which is one fire, with 'Z', a child. People below hold out a blanket.
'A' drops the child from the house-top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but
not intending to kill the child, and intending, in good faith, for the child's benefit, and the child
dies : Which of the following offence has been committed by 'A'?
Option A: Section 304A of IPC

Option B: Section 304 Part II of IPC

Option C: Section 302 of IPC

Option D: A has committed no offence

Question 42: A' agree with 'B' that he will help 'B' in copying in his examination. This is an act of
-

Option A: Criminal conspiracy

Option B: Abetment

Option C: Common intention

Option D: Common object

Question 43: Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion is punished
under which section of the IPC?

Option A: Section 151

Option B: Section 153

Option C: Section 153A

Option D: Section 153B

Question 44: Which provision of the Indian Penal Code makes water pollution punishable?

Option A: Section 277

Option B: Section 278

Option C: Section 279

Option D: Section 280

Question 45: A prostitute, suffering from communicable disease, has sexual intercourse with a
man representing that she was free from any disease commits :
Option A: Unnatural offence

Option B: Hurt

Option C: Cheating

Option D: Mischief

Question 46: Voyeurism has been criminalized in India by virtue of which amendment to IPC?

Option A: 2015

Option B: 1983

Option C: 1870

Option D: 2013

Question 47: The law relating to criminal misappropriation of property is given under Section

Option A: 403 IPC

Option B: 404 IPC

Option C: 407 IPC

Option D: 411 IPC

Question 48: A' voluntarily throws into river a ring belonging to 'Z', with the intention of thereby
causing wrongful loss to 'Z'. This is an offence of

Option A: theft

Option B: mischief

Option C: extortion

Option D: cheating

Question 49: Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act deals with

Option A: Punishment for dishonour of cheque

Option B: Right of holder

Option C: Rights of holder in due course

Option D: None of the above

Question 50: If the person committing an offence under Section 138 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act, 1881, is a company, the following shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence :

Option A: A person who, at the time offence was committed, was in charge of, and was
responsible for the conduct of the business of the company and not the company

Option B: The company, in its name

Option C: A Director of the Company nominated by the Central Government

Option D: A person, in charge of and responsible for the conduct of the business of the company,
as well as the company

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Question 51: Where in an enactment, there are two provisions which cannot be reconciled with
each other; they should be so interpreted that, if possible, effect may be given to both. This is
what known as the _______.

Option A: Rule of harmonious construction

Option B: Rule of reasonable construction

Option C: Rule of ejusdem generis

Option D: None of the above

Question 52: Rule of ejusdem generis is applicable when ________?

Option A: Specific word follow general words

Option B: General words follow specific words

Option C: Either (a) or (b)

Option D: Both (a) and (b)

Question 53: ______ contain in them an object of the Act.

Option A: Long title

Option B: Short title

Option C: Preamble

Option D: None of the above

Question 54: "Presiding Officer" under Section 2(l) of Sexual Harassment Act means the
presiding officer of the Internal Complaints Committee nominated under ______.

Option A: Section 3(2)

Option B: Section 4(2)

Option C: Section 6(2)

Option D: Any of the above

Question 55: "Tribunal" has been defined under _______ of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act.

Option A: Section 2(b)

Option B: Section 2(d)

Option C: Section 2(f)

Option D: Section 2(j)

Question 56: Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, in the absence of any agreement to the
contrary, the rent of the premises let out after the commencement of the Act shall be liable to
be increased at the rate of _____ per annum.

Option A: 3%

Option B: 5%

Option C: 6%

Option D: 9%
Question 57: Revision of rent is provided under _______ of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act.

Option A: Chapter 2

Option B: Chapter 3

Option C: Chapter 5

Option D: Chapter 7

Question 58: Under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act, landlord is entitled to possession if he is or
was an "employee of Central or State Government" or local bodies or State owned corporations
and filed the aforesaid petition within a period of _______.

Option A: 6 months

Option B: 1 year

Option C: 2 years

Option D: 3 years

Question 59: The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 is to protect

Option A: The girl child below 12 years of age

Option B: All children below 18 years of age

Option C: All persons against sexual assault

Option D: Any victim

Question 60: The provisions of Section 3 to 13 (both inclusive) of POCSO Act shall not apply in
case of _______ when it is undertaken with the consent of his parents or guardian.

Option A: Oral Examination

Option B: Cross Examination

Option C: Medical Examination

Option D: All of the above

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Question 61: The Special Court under POCSO Act shall complete the trial, as far as possible,
within a period of _______ from the date of taking cognizance of the offence.

Option A: 3 months

Option B: 6 months

Option C: 1 year

Option D: 18 months

Question 62: In which of the following leading cases, Hon'ble Supreme Court held that benefit
of Section 3 or Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is subject to the limitations
laid down in these provisions and the words 'may direct' in Section 4 does not mean 'must
direct'?

Option A: State of Gujarat vs. V.A. Chauhan

Option B: Phul Singh vs. State of Haryana

Option C: Ram Prakash vs. State of Himachal Pradesh

Option D: Smt. Devki vs. State of Haryana

Question 63: Protection of action taken in good faith is dealt under ________ of Probation of
Offenders Act.

Option A: Section 15

Option B: Section 16

Option C: Section 17

Option D: Section 18

Question 64: The offence under Section 31(1) of the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005 shall be

Option A: Cognizable and non-bailable

Option B: Cognizable and bailable

Option C: Non-cognizable and bailable

Option D: Non-cognizable and non-bailable

Question 65: In which section of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
there are provisions regarding appeal?

Option A: Section 28

Option B: Section 29

Option C: Section 30

Option D: Section 31

Question 66: Which section defines a child in conflict with law under Juvenile Justice Act,
2015?

Option A: Section 14

Option B: Section 16

Option C: Section 12

Option D: Section 13

Question 67: "Abandoned Child" under the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 means a child :

Option A: Deserted by his adoptive parents

Option B: Deserted by his biological parents

Option C: Either of the above

Option D: Deserted by his guardians

Question 68: Any person aggrieved by the order made by the competent authority under the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000 can appeal to

Option A: The Sessions Court

Option B: The High Court

Option C: Home Minister

Option D: Chief Judicial Magistrate

Question 69: The upper age limit upto which a child having committed offence is considered to
be a juvenile is :

Option A: 16 years

Option B: 18 years

Option C: 15 years

Option D: None of the above

Question 70: "Indecent representation of women" is defined under _______ of Indecent

Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986.

Option A: Section 2(c)

Option B: Section 2(d)

Option C: Section 4

Option D: Not defined

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Question 71: 'उच्‍चारण' शब्‍द का सन्धि- विच्‍छे द है -

Option A: उचा + चरण

Option B: उच् + चारण

Option C: उच्‍च + चारण

Option D: उत् + चारण

Question 72: 'द्रौपदी का चीर होना' मुहावरे का अर्थ है -

Option A: बढा-चढा कर कहना

Option B: अत्‍यधिक विस्‍तृत होना

Option C: दृढ संकल्‍प लेना

Option D: तुच्‍छ होना

Question 73: 'सेना' का पर्यायवाची है -

Option A: कटक

Option B: घटक

Option C: तारक

Option D: दक्षक

Question 74: निम्‍नलिखित में से 'तद्धव' शब्‍द है -

Option A: समुद्र

Option B: शांति

Option C: ताप

Option D: काज

Question 75: अधोगति में उपसर्ग है -

Option A: अध

Option B: अधो

Option C: अध:

Option D: गति

Question 76: 'आवाहन' का विलोम शब्‍द है -

Option A: अवरोह

Option B: अनुवर

Option C: विसर्जन
Option D: अनाहार

Question 77: 'बुराइयों' से सदैव दूर रहिए। इस वाक्‍य में बुराइयों शब्‍द में संक्षा है -

Option A: समूहवाचक संज्ञा

Option B: भाववाचक संज्ञा

Option C: व्‍यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा

Option D: जातिवाचक संज्ञा

Question 78: निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन-सा शब्‍द सदैव एकवचन प्रयुक्‍त होता है ?

Option A: जनता

Option B: ऑख

Option C: ऑंसू

Option D: बाल

Question 79: निम्‍नलिखित विकल्‍पों में से अकर्मक क्रिया है -

Option A: पढना

Option B: हँसना

Option C: लिखना

Option D: खाना

Question 80: 'अनुभवी' का विशेष्‍य है ?

Option A: अनु

Option B: अनुभव

Option C: अनुभाव

Option D: अनुभ

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Question 81: वर्तनी के अनुसार शुद्ध रूप का चयन कीजिए

Option A: ईर्ष्‍या

Option B: ईर्षा

Option C: इर्षा

Option D: ईरषा

Question 82: शुद्ध वाक्‍य का चयन कीजिए -

Option A: मैं अनेक विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।

Option B: मैं कई विद्वान जनों से मिला हूँ।

Option C: मैं बहुत सारे विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।

Option D: मैं अनेकों विद्वानों से मिला हूँ।

Question 83: 'और' से पहले किस चिह्र का प्रयोग नहीं होता ?

Option A: पूर्ण विराम

Option B: अल्‍प विराम

Option C: प्रश्‍नवाचक

Option D: ये सभी

Question 84: 'यथाविधि' का सही उत्‍तर बताइए -

Option A: नियम के अनुसार

Option B: विधि के अनुसार

Option C: नियम के तहत

Option D: नियम अविरूद्ध

Question 85: 'किए हुए उपकार को मानने वाला' वाक्‍यांश के लिए एक शब्‍द है -

Option A: कृ तज्ञ
Option B: कृ तघ्‍न

Option C: अभारी

Option D: ऋणी

Question 86: To have an axe to grind

Option A: A private end to serve

Option B: To fail to arouse interest

Option C: To have no result

Option D: To work for both sides

Question 87: Synonym of "Busy" is :

Option A: Active

Option B: Occupied

Option C: Preoccupied

Option D: Diligent

Question 88: Antonym of "Vivacity" is :

Option A: Beauty

Option B: Humour

Option C: Apathy

Option D: Truthfulness

Question 89: He said to her, "What a cold day!"

Option A: He told her that it was a cold day.

Option B: He exclaimed that it was a cold day.

Option C: He exclaimed sorrowfully that it was a cold day.

Option D: He exclaimed that it was a very cold day.

Question 90: Fill in the blanks : _____ Children recited _____ poem in ______ honour of ______
Prime Minister.

Option A: the, a, an, a

Option B: a, the, the, the

Option C: no article, a, an, the

Option D: the, a, the, the

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Question 91: Had he wanted, he ______ have completed the project by now.

Option A: should

Option B: might

Option C: could

Option D: must

Question 92: "The boy's friend came tumbling _____ the boy had fallen." - Fill in the blank with
the appropriate conjunction.

Option A: After

Option B: Whereas

Option C: Lest

Option D: If

Question 93: "The first ship departed promptly, ______ the others hung back." - Fill in the blank
with the appropriate conjunction.

Option A: Unless
Option B: Whether

Option C: Lest

Option D: Whereas

Question 94: ______ of the helpers is available.

Option A: No

Option B: Any

Option C: Some

Option D: None

Question 95: She ______ (leave) for Jammu yesterday.

Option A: leaves

Option B: is leaving

Option C: has been leaving

Option D: left

Question 96: Where ______ he _____ (go) to play in the evening.

Option A: did, go

Option B: has, gone

Option C: does, go

Option D: does, going

Question 97: Fill in the blank : Please, stop ______ so many mistakes.

Option A: to make

Option B: make

Option C: making
Option D: makes

Question 98: Fill in the blank : He got _____ the bus when he reached Jaipur.

Option A: of

Option B: off

Option C: over

Option D: beneath

Question 99: He sold his house for a song. "for a song" means :

Option A: at a reasonable price

Option B: at a discount

Option C: very cheaply

Option D: at a premium

Question 100: Find the correctly spelt word.

Option A: Indipensable

Option B: Indipenseble

Option C: Indispansible

Option D: Indispensable

Answers
Question No Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer

 1  a  51  a

 2  a  52  b

 3  a  53  c

 4  b  54  b
Question No Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer

 5  b  55  d

 6  b  56  b

 7  c  57  b

 8  c  58  b

 9  b  59  b

 10  d  60  c

 11  c  61  c

 12  c  62  c

 13  d  63  b

 14  c  64  a

 15  b  65  b

 16  c  66  d

 17  d  67  c

 18  a  68  a

 19  c  69  b

 20  b  70  a

 21  d  71  d

 22  a  72  b

 23  d  73  a

 24  a  74  d

 25  c  75  c

 26  b  76  c

 27  d  77  d

 28  b  78  a

 29  c  79  d

 30  a  80  b

 31  c  81  a

 32  a  82  a
Question No Correct Answer Question No. Correct Answer

 33  a  83  d

 34  a  84  b

 35  a  85  a

 36  b  86  a

 37  d  87  b

 38  b  88  c

 39  c  89  d

 40  b  90  d

 41  d  91  c

 42  a  92  a

 43  c  93  d

 44  a  94  d

 45  b  95  d

 46  d  96  c

 47  a  97  c

 48  b  98  b

 49  a  99  c

 50  d 100   d

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