CRIMINOLOGIST LICENSURE BOARD EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 8. What crime committed by Lenie?

COMPILATION a. Theft
b. snatching
Case Situation: c. Robbery
Bong surreptitiously went into the premises of Esco. Not d. Grave Threat
knowing that Esco was inside the house, he burned the house that
Case Situation:
resulted also to the death of Esco.
Manuel entered the house of Lenie by breaking
1. Bong is liable of what crime? the main door. Once inside, Manuel with intent to gain
a. Arson took the LCD Television.
b. Murder 9. Manuel is liable of what crime?
c. Homicide
d. Arson with Murder a. Robbery
2. However if Bong knew that Esco was inside the house and his b. Theft
purpose of burning is to kill Esco.What crime committed by c. Malicious mischief
Bong?
d. snatchig
a. Arson
b. Murder 10. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door
c. Homicide without breaking it since it was left unlocked and thereafter
d. Arson with Murder took the LCD Television of Lenie. Manuel is liable of a crime of.
Case Situation: a. Robbery
Marcos and Chiz conspired to kill Llanes. They mutually b. Theft
helped one another in abducting Llanes. Before they shoot Llanes, c. Malicious mischief
Marcos intentionally cut off his right ear.
d. snatching
3. What crime did Marcos and Chiz commit? 11. What if Manuel entered the house through the main door
a. Homicide without breaking it since it was left opened and thereafter took
b. Murder the LCD Television, however, when he is supposed to leave,
c. Homicide with Mutilation Lenie arrived, thus Manuel was forced to pass at the back door
d. Murder with serious physical injur which was locked by breaking it. Manuel is liable of what
4. What if Marcos and Chiz did not cut off the right ear, instead
crime?
they soak Llanes into a boiling water. What are did they
commit? a. Robbery
a. Homicide b. Theft
b. Murder c. Malicious mischief
c. Homicide with Mutilation d. snatching
d. Murder with serious 12. Supposed Manuel entered the house through the main door by
5. What if Marcos and Chiz did not conspired to kill Llanes but opening it with the use of an ATM card to open the door lock
they just saw the latter while walking and intentionally they
without breaking it. Upon entry he took the LCD Television.
shoot which resulted to the death of Llanes. What crime did
they commit? Manuel is liable of a crime of?
a. Homicide a. Robbery
b. Murder b. Theft
c. Frustrated homicide c. Malicious mischief
d. Attempted murder d. Robbery with Theft
Case Situation: Case Situation:
Grace and Jomar begot a child named Manuel The pig of Mang Rodrigo entered in the farm of
without being married. Grace and Jomar parted their Manuel and destroyed the mongo crop of the latter. As a
ways. Grace got married to Bong, however, they were not consequence, Mang Rodrigo got furious, thus, he hacked
blessed to have a child of their own, and thus, they had the pig with a bolo. The pig dies as a result.
legally adopted Manuel. One afternoon, Manuel killed 13. What crime is committed by Mang Rodrigo?
Jomar while the latter was sleeping.
6. What crime committed by Manuel? a. theft
b. property damaged
a. Parricide c. malicious mischief
b. Homicide d. robbery
c. Murder 14. Supposing that after killing the pig, Mang Rodrigo makes use of
d. Infanticide its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked some.
7. What if Manuel killed Grace? What crime committed by Mang Rodrigo?
a. Parricide a. theft
b. Homicide b. property damaged
c. Murder c. malicious mischief
d. Infanticide d. robbery
Case Situation: 15. Supposed it was a Carabao that destroyed the mongo crops of
Allan and Grace while walking towards home Manuel. What crime committed by Manuel?
were approached by Lenie. The latter who is armed with a a. theft
gun declared hold-up while poking the said gun upon b. malicious mischief
Allan. Lenie demanded for their wallet and gave the same c. Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law
to him for fear of their lives. Lenie with intent to gain, d. robbery
employed intimidation in taking the personal property of
Allan and Grace.

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16. Supposed after killing the Carabao Mang Rodrigo makes use of 28. What if Lola C who actually entered the bank and took all the
its meat by keeping it in his refrigerator and cooked some, what money from the teller?
crime committed by Mang Rodrigo? a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
a. theft
c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. malicious mischief d.principal
c.Violation of Anti-Cattle Rustling Law 29. What if Lola A who was outside the bank and served as look-
d. robbery out??
17. Validity of Search Warrant a. principal by inducement
b.principal by direct participation
a. when the judge sign c. principal by indispensable cooperation
b. upon serve d.principal
Case Situation:
c. from the date indicated therein
Alden induces Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice to kill Aldub
d. from the date receive by officer
who is living on an island far from the town, in consideration of the
18. Quantum of proof required whether to file an information or amount of 500,000.00. Lola Dora, te owner of the only boat in the
complaint in court? place agreed to transport Yaya Dub, Pastillas and Vice and actually
a. probable cause transported them in a place in consideration of 10,000.00,Lola Dora
b. personal knowledge agreed despite knowing the criminal purpose of Yaya Dub,Pastillas
c. substancial and Vice. Upon reaching the place, Yaya Dub held the hands of
Aldub while Pastillas stabs Yayadub and as a result, Aldub dies.
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
Viceremains as look-out.
19. If the search is illegal the things seized is?
a. competent 30. Alden is liable for a crime as?
b. irrelevant a. principal by inducement
c. inadmissible b.principal by direct participation
d. admissible c. principal by indispensable cooperation
20. t is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is d.principal
31. Yaya Dub is also liable for a crime as?
the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of action?
a. principal by inducement
a. Factum probandum b.principal by direct participation
b. Evidence c. principal by indispensable cooperation
c. factum probans d.principal
d. factum prubans 32. Vice Pastillas so liable for a crime as?
Case Situation: a. principal by inducement
Alden got married to Maine Mendoza. After 4years from of b.principal by direct participation
being husband and wife, they were not blessed with a child. Alden c. principal by indispensable cooperation
had an illicit relation with Ms. Pastillas. Ang a neighbor), who gave d.principal
birth to child (C). Maine learned about Alden’s relation with Ms. 33. Lola Dora as the owner of the only boat is liable of a crime as?
Pastillas. To cover their illicit relation, Alden intentionally killed his a. principal by inducement
illegitimate infant at its 72 hours age. b.principal by direct participation
21. For what crime Alden can be charged? c. principal by indispensable cooperation
a. homicide b. parricide d.principal
c. murder d. infanticide 34. What if there are several boats available to transport, Lola Dora
22. What if it is Maine who killed the infant? is liable of a crime as?
a. homicide b. parricide a. principal
c. murder d. infanticide b.accessories
23. What if it is the father of Alden who killed the infant? c. accomplice
a. homicide b. parricide d.principal by indispensable cooperation
c. murder d. infanticide 35. What if Pastillas just bury the cadaver of Aldub and he has
24. What if the infant is only two (2) days old? What crime is knowledge about the crime Pastillas is liable of a crime as?
committed by Alden, Maine or the father of Alden? a. principal
a. homicide b. parricide b.accessories
c. murder d. infanticide c. accomplice
Case Situation: d.principal by indispensable cooperation
Lola A, Lola B and Lola C robbed a bank. Lola A and B 26. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of
entered the bank and took all the money from the teller while Lola C the frustration and anger people experience over their
remains outside the bank and served as look-out. inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
25. Lola A is liable for a crime as? a. strain theory
a. principal by inducement b. psychological theories
b.principal by direct participation c. differential association theory
c. principal by indispensable cooperation d. labeling theory
d.principal 36. A and B one neighbors who case to play “tako” ane day, A
26. Lola B is liable for a crime as? persuaded B to steal the bike of C.In the study of criminal law
a. principal by inducement what is the term used for it?
b.principal by direct participation a. Conspiracy
c. principal by indispensable cooperation b. Proposal
d.principal c. Entrapment
27. Lola C is liable for a crime as? d. Instigation
a. principal by inducement 37. In tumultuous affray ender Article 251 of the RPC how person
b.principal by direct participation may are included?
c. principal by indispensable cooperation a. 3
d.principal b. 8
c. 4

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 d. 6 b. No
38. What Quantum of Evidence required in criminal case? c. It depends
a. Preponderance of evidence d. Yes
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
47. Who among the following can apply for release under the Law on
c. Probable cause
d. Substantial Evidence Recognizance?
39. In Revise Penal Code, the intentional or malicious destruction of a. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
property by means of fire is called. three (3) years and above
a. Arson b. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is
b. Combustion Twelve (12) months and above
c. Disposition c. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is not
d. Murder
morethan Six (6) months
40. Volunteer Probation Aides may be appointed from among
d. One who is charged with an offense whose penalty is Six
citizens of
(6) months and above
a. Good repute and probity
48. A hostile witness is one whose testimony is not favorable to the
b. High educational level
cause of the party who called him as a witness. Can leading question
c. Good religious background
be asked?
d. High social standing
a. It depends
41. Which of the following procedures should be observed in
b. No
handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
c. Partially
1.They should be segrageted especially during the
d. Yes
withdrawal period
49. What is the function responsibility of prison guards?
2.They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to
a. Inmates health
commit suicide or
b. Prison security
self-mutilation
c. Prison's Interpersonal relations
3.They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
d. Prison industry
unless prescribed by a physician
50. A has grudge against B. He went to the house of B and look for the
4.They should be transferred to mental institution of
latter. However, B was on vacation in the province. In his spite, he
proper psychiatric treatment
destroyed the door of B. Later on, he noticed that the door could be
a. 2, 3 and 4
useful. So, he brought it to his house. What crime was committed?
b. 3, 4 and 1
a. Robbery
c. 4, 1 and 2
b. Maliscious Mischief
d. 1, 2 and 3
c. Attempted Qualified Trespass to Dwelling
42. Which of the following is not an element of malicious mischief?
d. Theft
a. The damage was caused inadvertently
51. What do you call the court that co-equal to the Court of Appeals?
b. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions of
a. Sandiganbayan
arson
b. Court of first instance
c. The offender has caused damage to the property of
c. Supreme court
another
d. Tanodbayan
d. The damage was caused deliberately
52. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the
43. In special law, the imposed penalty is two years to seven years.
sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
Applying the indeterminate sentence law, how many years?
a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
a. 1
sentence
b. 2
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
c. 7
sentence
d. 8
c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate
44. George, the 20-years old son of a rich politician, was arrested at
sentence
the NAIA arrival lounge and found positive for opium, a
d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
dangerous drug. When arrested, 15 grams of cocaine were found
sentence
in his bagpack. What offense would you charge George under
53. Is there a complex crime when crime is committed to conceal
R.A No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act)?
another crime? 2 CRIMES
a. Importation of dangerous drugs.
a. It depends
b. Possession of dangerous drugs.
b. No
c. Use and possession of dangerous drugs
c. Partially
d. Use of dangerous drugs
d. Yes
45. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
54. What is the primary purpose of the pre-sentence investigation?
appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate sentence of
a. Accepted
the offender
b. Determinate
b. To exonerate the offender
c. Sensitive
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend himself
d. Unreliable
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case
46. In the Criminal Law, the Court personnel next in rank to the
55. The following are rights of a witness under the rules of court
presiding judge in the lower court is the Branch Clerk of Court. In
EXCEPT:
the absence of the judge, the branch clerk of court may hear simple
a. To be examine only as to matters pertinent to the issue
case of unjust vexation.
b. Not to give an answer which will tend to subject him to a
a. Possible

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 penaly of an offense d. The Court who place him on probation
c. To remain silent 64. According to the control theory, crime and delinquency result with
d. To be protected from irrelevant questions an individual bond to _____________ is weak and broken.
56. What is meant by the concept of probation which is from the latin a. Behavior
word "probitio" and had historical roots in the pratice of judicial b. Police
repreive? c. Law
a. Live with integrity d. Society
b. Testing period 65. Which of the following offenses may be prosecuted by a person
c. Walk with faith other than (not) the offended party?
d. Out of the institution a. Abduction
57. In the study of crime, what is the distinction, if any, between a b. Act of lasciviousness
felony and a crime? c. Seduction
a. Crime and felony are the same d. Falsification
b. Crime covers felonies 66. What types of questions are allowed to be asked to a witness who is
c. No distinction whatsoever unwilling to testify?
d. The source of felony is a RPC a. Intelligent
58. Mayor saw A and B boxing each other. He approached the two and b. Leading
identified himself as a mayor and attempted to pacify them c. Misleading
whereupon B attacked mayor. C, a bystander came to aid of the d. Unresponsive
Mayor. Upon seeing C helping the mayor, A attacked C. What crime 67. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is
was committed by the one who attacked C? imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger toward
a. Direct assault and exact vengeance upon the criminal?
b. Indirect assault a. Retribution
c. None b. Restoration
d. Physical injury c. Rehabilitation
59. Level of security facility which is usually enclosed by a thick wall d. Deterrence
about 18-25 feet high, on top are catwalks in every corner, a tower 68. The following are the elements of maliscious mischief:
post is manned by heavily armed guards: i. The offender deliberately caused damage to
a. Maximum security facility property
b. Medium security facility ii. Such act does not constitute arson or other
c. Super maximum security facility crimes involving destruction
d. Minimum security facility iii. Such acts also constitute other crimes involving
60. Ramon witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to destruction
testify for fear of his life despite a subpoena being served on him. iv. The act of damaging anothers property was
Can the court punish him for contempt? committed merely for the sake of damaging it
a. No, since no person can be compelled to be a witness b. I, III, IV
against another. c. I, II, IV
b. No, since Ramon has a valid reason for not testifying. d. I, II, III
c. Yes , since litigants need help in presenting their case. e. II, III, IV
d. Yes, since public interest in justice requires his testimony. 69. Who among the following may be granted conditional pardon?
61. What documents are attached to the Release Document of the a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government physician
Parolee? b. A prisoner who served as "bastonero"
Prison record c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
Name of the Parolee and Probation Officer d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke his
Location of the Prison or Confinement probation conditions
Order of Court 70. The Post-Sentence Investigation Report is submitted to court
a. 4 and 1 within_________.
b. 1 and 2 a. 10-day period
c. 3 and 4 b. 30-day period
d. 2 and 3 c. 15-day period
62. We known that the Lord Jesus Christ, our savior, was brutally d. 60-day period
crucified in the Middle East some 2100 years ago. According to our 71. Within how many days after the expiration of the period to execute
criminal/ penal law, What aggravating circumstance will you use to the warrant of arrest that the officer to whom it was assigned for
those who consfired in the killing? the execution shall make a report to the judge who issued the
a. Abused of Superior Strength warrant?
b. Conspiracy a. 10
c. Intimidation b. 15
d. Treachery c. 20
63. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides undertake d. 30
supervision and visitation of the probationer. However, control over 72. Which of the following is a crime against the Fundamental Law of
the probationer and probation program is exercised by the State?
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides a. Espionage
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator b. Piracy
c. The Secretary of Justice c. Treason

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 d. Violation of Domicile; if private person- Qualified trespass d. Slander
to dwelling 82. A complaint may be filed by any of the following, EXCEPT:
73. The Metropolitan Trial Court convicted Virgilio and Dina of a. Offender
concubinage. Pending appeal, they applied for bail, claiming they b. The offender party
are entitled to it as a matter of right. Is their claim correct? c. Other public officers
a. No, bail is dependent on the risk of flight. d. Any peace officers
b. No, bail is not a matter of right after conviction. 83. Is there an instance where an accesory exempted from criminal
c. Yes, bail is a matter of right in all cases not invloving moral liability/
turpitude. a. It depends
d. Yes, bail is a matter of right in the Metropolitan Trial Court b. No
before and after conviction. c. Sometimes
74. X went to the United States. While he was there, encountered d. Yes
Y an American. They eventually got married. When X returned 84. X tried to kill Y by poisoning. One morning, X put sugar on the
to the Philippines, his wife Z filed an action against him for food of Y thinking that it was arsenic. Instead of dying, Y
violating their marriage. What is X liable to? suffered diabetes. In this case, the crime is not committed
a. Adultery because the material he mixed on the foods is
b. Bigamy a. Impossible
c. Concubinage b. Inadequate
d. Polygamy c. Ineffectual
75. Leave of Court is required to amend a complaint or information d. Intentional
before arraignment if the amendment_______________. 85. The president grants absolute/conditional pardon based on the
a. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher recommendation of:
to a lower offense or excludes any accused a. Board of Pardon and Parole
b. Downgrades the nature of the offense from a higher b. Bureau of Correction
to a lower offense and adds another accused c. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a d. Office of the Executive Secretary
higher offense and excludes any of the accused 86. What law prohibits the imposition of death penalty in the
d. Upgrades the nature of the offense from a lower to a philippines?
higher offense and adds another accused a. R.A 7659
76. In Criminal law and Jurisprudence, there are two acts- internal b. R.A 7965
and external act. Which of the two acts is indispensable for the c. R.A 8177
act to be punishable as a crime? d. R.A 9346
a. External act 87. For search to be considered as an incident of the arrest, it must be
b. Intentional act made at the place where the:
c. Internal act a. Contraband was found
d. Unintentional act b. Police station is located
77. In criminal procedure, who conducts the direct examination? c. Arrest was effected
a. Opponent d. Crime was forced
b. PAO lawyer 88. Bearing in mind the distinction between private and public
c. Proponent document, which of the folowing is admissible in evidence without
d. Prosecution further proof of due execution or genuiness?
78. The system of key control in a jail includes: a. Baptismal Certificates.
a. An updated system of monitoring and control of keys b. Documents acknowledged before a Notary Public in
b. A documented inventory of security personnel Hongkong
c. A collector of all padlocks and keys c. Official record of the Philippines Embassy in Singapore
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting them certified by the Vice-consul with official seal
79. The following are classified as crimes against chastity, EXCEPT: d. Unblimished receipt dated December 20, 1985 signed by
a. Simple Seduction the promise, showing payment of a loan, found among
b. Adultery the well-kept file of the promissor.
c. White Slave Trade 89. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to serve
d. Sexual Harassment his sentence by the court if he
80. The following are considered minor offenses of an inmate, a. Becomes unruly and undicipline
EXCEPT: b. Commits another offense
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate c. He is 21 years old
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect d. Violates any of the conditions of the probation
when confronted by or reporting to any officer or 90. Which evidence is presented to vary the terms of a written
member of the custodial force agreement, there is the application of the____________evidence
c. Willful watse of food rule.
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and a. Documentary
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings b. Best
81. The following are classified as crimes against honor, EXCEPT: c. Written
a. Premature Marriage d. Parol
b. libel 91. X, a doctor, put a poison on the food of his wife. When she eat the
c. Incriminating innocent person food, moments later, she suffered excruciating pain in the stomach.

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 Seeing his in agony, X got pity on his wife and administered an a. When she befriends and puts a sleeping pill in the victims
antidote. Thus, the wife did not die. What crime was committed by drink to enable her husband to have intercourse with the
X? victim's.
a. Attempted Parricide b. When the offender uses an instrument and inserts it in the
b. Frustrated Parricide mouth of the victim's.
c. Serious Physical Injuries c. When the rape is committed by two or more person's.
d. No crime d. With the use of force or intimidation.
92. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was the founder of probation in 101. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional. Will
the United States? he qualify for probation?
a. Sir Walter crofton a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. Alexander Maconochie b. No, his sentence is morethan Six (6) years and One (1) day
c. John murry spear c. Yes, his sentence is less than Six (6) years and One (1) day
d. John Augustus d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1) day
93. A petition for the grant of basolute or conditional pardon shall be 102. There are four (4) acknowledged goals of ___________ as follows:
favorably endorsed to the Board by the________ if the crime retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, and rehabilitation.
committed by the petitioner is against national security. a. Criminal intent
a. Secretary of foreign Affairs b. Criminal mind
b. Secretary of Justice c. Criminal sanction
c. Secretary of National Defense d. Criminal action
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government 103. The city prosecutor charged Ben with serious physical injuries for
94. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be stabbing terence. He was tried and convicted as charged. A few days
treated__________. later, Terence died due to severe infection of his stab wounds. Can
a. Comprehensively the prosecution file another information against Ben for homicide?
b. Appopriately a. No, double jeopardy is present since Ben had already been
c. Confidentially convicted of the first offense.
d. Judiciously b. No, there is double jeopardy since serious physical injuries
95. Studies are conducted to determine the experiences of residents is necessarily included in the charged of homicide.
with crimes which are not usually reported to the police. What are c. Yes, since supervening event altered the kind of crime the
these studies called? accused committed.
a. Population Surveys d. Yes, since Terence's death shows irregularity in the filing
b. Police surveys of the earlier charge against him.
c. Victimization surveys 104. Under which condition can a prisoner be immediately released
d. Information surveys provided he is not a recidivist or he had not been previously
96. What term denotes a new or fresh trial when an appellate court convicted 3 or more times of any crime?
sends a case back to lower court for new trial? a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the maximum penalty
a. Trial by publicity for the offense he may be found guilty of is destierro
b. Trial by jury b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty
c. Trial by default of the offense he may be found guilty of is prision
d. Trial de novo correccional
97. Facts already known or ought to be known by judge by reason of c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the maximum penalty
their office and of which they may properly take and act without of the offense he may be found guilty of is reclusion
proof re called matters of: perpetua
a. Priveleged communication d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or morethan the
b. Judicial notice possible maximum term of punishment of the offense he
c. Pleadings maybe found guilty of.
d. Judgment 105. A science involving technical knowledge about the traces of crime is
98. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison known as:
sentence? a. Forensic medicine
a. Commutation of sentence b. Physical science
b. Parole c. Forensic science
c. Absolute pardon d. Criminalistic Technology
d. Conditional pardon 106. To be considered an accessory, the author of the crime must be
99. Which among the following is a requisite before an accused may be guilty of any of the following, EXCEPT:
discharged to become a state witness? a. Murder
b. Treason
a. The accused does not appear to be guilty. c. Parricide
b. The accused has not at any time been convicted of any d. Infanticide
offense. 107. The following are crimes against national security and the law of
c. The testimony of the accused sought to be discharged can nations EXCEPT one:
be substantially corroborated on all points. a. Violation of neutrality
d. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the b. Rebellion
accused hose discharge is requested. c. Treason
100. Choose the correct circumstance when a woman may be held liable d. Espionage
for rape: 108. Which of the following is NOT classified as a crime committed by

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 public officers? b. Person accused
a. Forgery c. territory
b. Official breaking seal d. subject matter
119. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace
c. Malversation
officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the law
d. Refusal of assistance violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
109. Inmates with heart diseases need to be treated with a little more prosecutor.
care than the other inmates. Which of the following should NOT be a. Complaint
done by a jail officer? b. Pleadings
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff regularly c. Information
b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his prescribed diet d. Affidavit
120. Prescription of offense commence to run:
c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or
d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient inmate peace officers or their agent.
110. The following are aggravating circumstances EXCEPT: b. Upon filing of cases in court.
a. Movement of the offender is restricted c. Upon escape of the accused.
b. Cruelty d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
c. Adding ignominy
d. Taking advantage of superior strength 121. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
procedure, EXCEPT:
111. When taking up arms against the government was undertaken by
a. Where the penalty is six months Imprisonment
members of the military, what law was violated? Republic b. Violation of traffic laws
Act________. c. Violation of rental laws
a. 9165 d. Where the penalty fees not exceed six (6) months
b. 7610 imprisonment
c. 6506 122. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous
system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”?
d. 6968
a. Amphetamines
112. The following properties may be taken by the officer effecting the b. Naptha
arrest, EXCEPT those: c. Barbiturates
a. That may be used for escaping d. Diazepam
b. Used in the commission of a crime 123. The following offense cannot be prosecuted de officio without
c. That are within the immediate vicinity a complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT:
d. Which are means of committing violence a. Rape
b. Abduction
113. Which authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone
c. Seduction
preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable d. Adultery and Concubinage
sentence for the offense he is charged with? 124. Complaint or Information shall charge only one offense. This is
a. Batas Pambansa 95 the rule on:
b. Batas Pambansa 85 a. Duplicity of offense
c. Batas Pambansa 105 b. Complex crime
d. Batas Pambansa 965 c. compound crime
d. continuing crime
114. An advantageous result in the integration of correctional agencies
125. In People v. Pinzon under what Constitutional Mandates an
is: arresting officer should inform the person to be arrested of his
a. More physical facilities to maintain rights?
b. More prisoners to supervise a. Art. III Sec. 12
c. Divided resources such as manpower and finances b. b.Miranda Doctrine
d. Better coordination of services and increased cost- c. R.A. 7438
d. Rule 115
efficiency
126. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
115. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by of 2002, providing Funds Therefore and for Other Purposes.
secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and a. RA 9165
prosecution to appeal. b. RA 1956
a. Inquisatorial c. RA 9156
b. mixed d. RA 1965
c. accusatorial 127. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
d. fixed a. Reclusion Perpetua
116. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted b. Life Imprisonment
either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended c. Death
party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the d. Fine
accused presumed innocent. 109. Complaint and information can be amended to ____ after plea
a. inquisitorial and during the trial with leave of court and without causing
b. mixed prejudice to the rights of the accused.
c. accusatorial a. form
d. fixed b. substance and form
117. That law expanding the jurisdiction of the MTC, MTCC, MCTC. c. substance
a. R.A. 7691 d. none of these
b. R.A. 8493 128. A petition for suspension of criminal action upon the pendency
c. BP 129 of a prejudicial question in a civil action may be filed:
d. R.A. 1379 a. before the prosecution rests
118. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court, b. before arraignment
EXCEPT: c. before preliminary investigation
a. Extent of penalty d. before plea

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129. Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a logical c. At night time
antecedent of the issue involved therein, and the cognizance of d. from sun dust till dawn
which pertains to another tribunal. 141. When making an arrest the arresting officer ____ the warrant
a. Prejudicial question of arrest in his possession?
b. inquest proceeding a. Need not have
c. preliminary investigation b. Should always have
d. custodial investigation c. may sometime have
130. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is d. need to have
sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a 142. It refers to the questioning initiated by law enforcement officer
crime has been committed and the respondent is probably after a person has been taken into custody.
guilty thereof, and should be held for trial. a. custodial investigation
a. preliminary investigation b. inquest
b. inquest proceeding c. interview
c. prejudicial question d. interrogation
d. custodial investigation 143. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even without a
131. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases punishable by: warrant?
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day a. When the crime was committed in the presence of
b. more than four years, two months and one day the arresting officer.
c. less than four years, two months and one day b. When the crime was in fact been committed and
d. six years, one day and above there is personal knowledge based on probable cause
132. The following persons are authorized to conduct preliminary that the person to be arrested has committed it.
investigation, EXCEPT: c. When the person to be arrested is an escapees.
a. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Court d. All of the choices
b. Provincial and city prosecutors and their assistants 144. It is a security given for the temporary release of a person in
c. Judges of the Municipal Trial Court and Municipal custody of the law.
Circuit Trial Courts a. Bail
d. National and Regional state prosecutors; b. parole
e. a and c c. fine
133. After the filing of the Complaint or Information in court without d. conditional pardon
a preliminary investigation within how many days an accused 145. Trial _____ may proceed in case the accused person failed to
person upon knowing the filing of said complaint may ask for appear at the trial without justification and despite due notice.
preliminary investigation? a. In absentia
a. 5 days b. in flagrante de licto
b. 15 days c. on the merits
c. 10 days d. none of these
d. 30 days 146. When Bail is a matter of right?
134. Is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be a. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan,
bound to answer for the commission of an offense. Municipal or Municipal Circuit trial court.
a. Arrest b. Upon conviction by the Regional Trial Court
b. Warrant c. before conviction by the Regional Trial Court
c. jurisdiction d. upon preliminary investigation
d. Seizure 147. Bail is a matter of right under the constitution, EXCEPT:
135. Validity of the warrant of arrest? a. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua to death
a. no fixed duration b. crime punishable by life imprisonment
b. 30 days c. crimes punishable by death
c. 20 days d. crime punishable by reclusion perpetua or life
d. 10 days imprisonment when evidence of guilt is strong
136. Lifetime of search warrant? 148. When bail is a discretionary?
a. 10 days a. Upon conviction by the RTC not punishable by
b. 20 days reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment.
c. 5 days b. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
d. No fixed duration more than 20 years who is a recidivist.
137. Within how many days upon the date of execution of a warrant c. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
of arrest the person charged with its execution shall report to more than 20 years when there is undue risk that he
the court which issue such warrant when arrest was not been may commit another crime during the pendency of
made? the appeal.
a. 10 days d. Upon conviction by the RTC exceeding 6 years but not
b. 30 days more than 20 years who has previously escaped from
c. 20 days legal confinement.
d. 5 days 149. Is an offense which, under the existing law at the time of its
138. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and capturing the commission and at the time of the application for admission to
law breakers in the execution of their criminal plan. bail may be punished with death.
a. instigation a. capital offense
b. investigation b. less grave
c. entrapment c. heinous crime
d. Entertainment d. grave felony
139. In flagrante delicto means _____? 150. The following are kinds of bail, EXCEPT:
a. caught in the act a. Property Bond
b. instigation b. Cash Bond
c. caught after commission c. Corporate surety bond
d. entrapment d. Recognizance
140. When arrest may be made? e. None of the choices
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time

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151. When the maximum penalty to which the accused may be a. Motion to quash
sentenced is destierro, he shall be released after ____ of b. nolleprosequi
preventive imprisonment. c. Motion to dismiss
a. 30 days d. bill of particulars
b. 20 days 162. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish
c. 15 days or the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the
d. 60 days offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the
152. Bail shall automatically be cancelled upon: commission of the offense.
a. acquittal of the accused a. Prescription of crime
b. execution of the judgment of conviction b. acquisitive
c. dismissal of the case c. prescription of penalty
d. all of the choices d. extinctive
153. It is the rule which states that if the inculpatory facts and 163. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of
circumstances are capable of two or more interpretation, one being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time.
which is consistent with the innocence of the accused and the a. double jeopardy
other consistent with his guilt, or they are evenly balanced. The b. double trial
constitutional presumption of innocence should tilt the scale in c. double trouble
favor of the accused and he must be acquitted. d. double counter
a. Equipoise rule 164. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment
b. Presumption of guilt not exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall
c. Hornbook doctrine become permanent after ____.
d. due process of law a. one year
154. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist b. 2 years
destitute litigant? c. 5 years
a. Counsel de officio d. d. 4 years
b. counsel de parte 165. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the
c. Public Attorney’s Office court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall
d. National Prosecution Office order a pre-trial conference?
155. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and a. 30 days
to testify or to bring with him any books or documents under b. 15 days
his control at the trial of an action. c. 20 days
a. subpoena d. d. 60 days
b. subpoena ducestecum 166. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for
c. subpoena ad testificandum trial after a plea of not guilty is entered?
d. d. warrant of arrest a. 15 days
156. Unless shorter period is provided by special law or Supreme b. 20 days
Court Circular, the arraignment shall be held within ___ days c. 30 days
from the date the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of d. 180 days
the accused. 167. The trial of a case shall commence with ___ days from receipt
a. 30 days of the pre-trial order?
b. 10 days a. 30 days
c. 15 days b. 15 days
d. 5 days c. 20 days
157. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall d. 60 days
be entered. 168. The trial court have how many days from the first day of trial to
a. Not guilty terminate the same?
b. admission by silence a. 60 days
c. guilty b. 365 days
d. none c. 180 days
158. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following d. 150 days
circumstances: 169. The trial of a case can be made in absentia except on the
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense following circumstances:
b. plea of guilty to capital offense a. at the arraignment and plea
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense b. during the trial whenever necessary for identification
d. all of these purposes
159. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion c. at the promulgation of sentence, unless for a light
alleging among others the defect of the complaint or offense
information and the details desired in order to enable him to d. all of the choices
properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is known as: 170. The order of trial is:
a. motion for bill of particular a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
b. motion for clarification
c. motion to dismiss b. Prosecution, cross, redirect, re-cross
d. motion for postponement c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re direct
160. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be d. Direct, cross, rebuttal, and surrebattal
suspended on the following grounds: 171. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound or any other appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in
mental condition. testimony.
b. There exist a prejudicial question. a. Testimonial aids
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the b. Emotional security items
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of c. support
the President . d. none of these
d. All of the choices 172. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
161. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of
accused is: justice.

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 a. leading questions b. Jurisprudence
b. relevant c. jurisdiction
c. misleading d. court
d. Narrative 184. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance.
173. Which of the following is a ground for discharge of an accused a. Original jurisdiction
to be state witness: b. Exclusive jurisdiction
a. there is absolute necessity for the testimony of the c. concurrent jurisdiction
accused. d. appellate jurisdiction
b. said accused does not appear to be the most guilty 185. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the
c. said accused has not been convicted of a crime others.
involving moral turpitude/ a. Original jurisdiction
d. all of the choices b. Exclusive jurisdiction
174. After the prosecution rest its case, the accused person may c. appellate jurisdiction
move for the dismissal of the case on: d. concurrent jurisdiction
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an 186. It is the system or criminal procedure which is characterized by
opportunity to be heard. secrecy of investigation and the option of the defense and
b. Demurrer to evidence prosecution to appeal.
c. motion for reconsideration a. Inquisitorial
d. motion for new trial b. mixed
175. It is the judicial examination and determination of the issue in c. accusatorial
an action or proceeding, civil or criminal. d. fixed
a. pre-trial 187. It is that system of criminal procedure which is conducted
b. trial either at the initiative of the public prosecutor or the offended
c. plea bargaining party and the right to appeal are limited to the defense and the
d. Judgment accused is innocent.
176. Is the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not a. inquisitorial
guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the proper b. mixed
penalty and civil liability. c. accusatorial
a. judgment d. fixed
b. rendition of judgment 188. In criminal cases, what determine the jurisdiction of court,
c. promulgation of judgment EXCEPT:
d. conviction a. Extent of penalty
177. It is the degree of proof which does not excluding the possibility b. Person accused
of error, produces absolute certain. Moral certainty only is c. territory
required. d. subject matter
a. acquittal 189. Sworn statement, subscribed by offended party, any peace
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the law
c. clear and convincing violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
d. preponderance of evidence prosecutor.
178. It is the finding of not guilty based on merits or that the a. Complaint
evidence does not show that his guilt is proof beyond b. Pleadings Section
reasonable doubt. c. Information
a. dismissal
d. Affidavit
b. conviction
c. acquittal 190. Prescription of offense commences to run:
d. judgment a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or
179. Judgment becomes final when? peace officers or their agent.
a. the period for perfecting an appeal lapse. b. Upon filing of cases in court.
b. when the sentence is partially of totally satisfied or c. Upon escape of the accused.
served. d. Upon re-appearance of the accused
c. when the accused waived in writing his right to 191. When an appeal shall be taken?
appeal. a. within 10 days
d. when he appealed for probation b. within 30 days
e. all of the choices c. within 15 days
180. Which of the following cannot be filed after judgment of d. within 5 days
conviction becomes final. 192. Property subject of search and seizure, EXCEPT?
a. Motion for new trial a. Subject of the offense
b. Motion for reconsideration b. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of
c. Motion to dismiss the offense
d. All of these c. Used or intended to be used as the means of
181. Who represents the State in an action for appeal? committing an offense
a. prosecutor d. Firearm
b. Secretary of DOJ 193. When search must be made?
c. appellant a. in the day time
d. Solicitor General b. only during sunrise
182. The party appealing the case shall be called? c. any time of the day and night
a. appellant d. in the presence of two witnesses
b. accused 194. In a criminal case, the People of the Philippines is the ____?
c. Appellee a. Plaintiff
d. Defendant b. Private offended party
183. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where c. defendant
the power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in d. Respondent
criminal case.
a. Venue

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195. A complaint or information have the same legal content,
however, they differ as to who subscribe to it, who subscribe an
information?
a. Accused
b. Prosecutor
c. Witness
d. victim
196. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the
following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
investigation except?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
b. Judge MTC/MCTC
c. Regional State Prosecutor
d. Public Attorney’s office
e. b and d
197. An Special Law which defines certain rights of accused,
detained or under custodial investigation as well as duties of
the arresting detailing and investigation officer.
a. R.A. 7438
b. R.A. 7348
c. R.A. 7834
d. d. R.A. 3478
198. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also
known as:
a. rights against illegal arrest
b. the right to presume innocent
c. rights against self- incrimination
d. right to live
199. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
pleading are prohibited except:
a. motion to quash
b. bill of particular
c. answer
d. demurred to evidence
200. The following cases committed by public official with salary
grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the
Sandiganbayan, Except:
a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379
and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-
A.
c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their
office.
d. None of the choices
201. It is the law which classifies rape from crime against chastity to
crimes against person, making crime prosecutable even without
a complaint filed the offender party?
a. R.A. 8353
b. R.A. 9283
c. R.A. 8493
d. d. R.A. 7055
202. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided
by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil
action for recovery of civil liability can be separated?
a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
b. When the offended party reserves his right to
institute the civil action;
c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior
to the criminal action.
d. all of the choices
203. What is the effect of death of the accused in civil actions?
a. It extinguishes the civil liability arising from delict.
b. Independent civil action instituted may be continued
against the estate or legal representative of the
accused.
c. If the accused dies before arraignment, the case shall
be dismissed without prejudice to any civil action the
offended party may file against the estate of the
deceased.
d. all of the choices
G.S.T. 2019
204. Pursuant to Rule 114 of the Rules of Court, a detainee may be
released on bail in the following manner, except:
a. property bond
b. performance bond
c. corporate surety
d. recognized
205. Demurer to evidence may be filed by a party to a case
a. after arraignment
b. after the defense has rested its case
c. after trial
d. after the prosecution had rested its case
206. The accused may questioned the legality of his arrest ___
otherwise the said accused could no longer questioned the
same and that the arrest is presumed by the court as valid.
a. before arraignment
b. before conviction
c. before preliminary investigation
d. before trial
207. The following are the matters to be taken up in pre-trial
conference except:
a. examination of witnesses
b. marking of evidence
c. plea bargaining
d. stipulation & simplification of issues
208. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. before arraignment
b. before the pre-trial conference
c. before the prosecution rest its case
d. before the prosecution presents evidence
209. Amendment without leave of court before the accused pleads
is allowed by the Rules of Court under the following instances
EXCEPT:
a. amendment as to substance
b. amendment as to form
c. amendment that reflect typographical error
d. amendments to downgrades the nature of the crime
210. One of the requisites in order that one of the accused may be
discharged in order to be state witness is that
a. Said accused does not appear to be the most guilty
b. Said accused does not appear to be least guilty
c. Said accused must not appear to be guilty
d. Said accused must appear to be innocent as char
211. P.D. 1508 is repealed by the Local government Code of 1991.
Under the said code, the Lupon of each barangay shall have
authority to bring together the parties actually residing in the
same city or municipality for amicable settlement where the
offense committed is punishable by imprisonment exceeding
one (1) year. This statement is:
a. absolutely true
b. partly true
c. absolutely false
d. partly false
212. In Metropolitan Trial Court, the complaint is filed with the:
a. Office of the President
b. Office of the Clerk of Court
c. Office of the Prosecutor
d. Office of the Ombudsman
213. In general, the formal requisites of a complaint or information
are the following, EXCEPT:
a. It must be in writing
b. It must be in the name of the People of the
Philippines.
c. It must be filed with the Prosecutor’s Office
d. It must be filed in court
214. Z as husband dies before he could institute the criminal action
for adultery against his wife and the paramour. The case may:
a. No longer be prosecuted
b. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
c. Still be prosecuted
d. Be prosecuted by the State
215. The right of the State to initiate criminal actions in behalf of
incapacitated individual with no known parents, grandparents
or guardian is known as:
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 a. Doctrine of parens patriae c. Delays the proceedings upon any petition for the
b. Doctrine of non-suability liberation of such person.
c. police power d. Delays the filing of a criminal offense against the
d. habeas corpus detainee to the proper judicial authority.
216. The modes of making an arrest are: e. All of these
a. by an actual restraint of the person to be arrested 226. Mr. Mabait was arrested for illegal possession of firearms which
b. by the submission to the custody of the person is considered a low power gun. Considering that the crime is
making the arrest punishable by correctional penalty, within how many hours
c. by using unreasonable force should that a case be filed to the proper judicial authority?
d. a and b only a. 12 hours
e. a and c only b. 18 hours
217. The following are crimes Against National Security and Law of c. 24 hours
Nations, EXCEPT. d. 36 hours
a. Treason 227. It is the unauthorized act of public officer who compels a
b. Piracy and mutiny person to change his resident or otherwise expels him from the
c. Espionage Philippines.
d. Rebellion a. violation of domicile
218. Breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person b. arbitrary detention
who owes allegiance to it. c. trespass to dwelling
a. treason d. expulsion
b. espionage 228. The following are act constituting Violation of Domicile.
c. adherence to the enemy a. Any public officer or employee who enters any
d. rebellion dwelling against the will of the owner thereof.
219. The degree of proof required to convict a person accused of b. Any public officer or employee who searches any
treason. papers or other effects found therein without the
a. substantial evidence previous consent of the owner.
b. proof beyond reasonable doubt c. Any public officer or employee who refuses to leave
c. two witness rule the premises, after having surreptitiously entered said
d. preponderance of evidence dwelling and after having been required to leave the
220. The following are elements of Piracy, EXCEPT: premises.
a. A vessel is on the high seas or in Philippine waters; d. Any public officer or employee who searches domicile
b. The offenders are not members of its complement or without witnesses.
passengers of the vessel; e. All of the choices
c. That the offender resist to a superior officer; 229. SPO1 Masinop having authorized by a search warrant, search
d. The offenders either attack or seize that vessel or the house of Mr. Mando N. Ducot. After having discovered the
seize the whole or part of the cargo of said vessel, its item specified in the warrant, SPO1 Masinop took the same and
equipment or personal belonging of its complement includes the jewelry box filled with jewelry which is not
or passengers. included in the list of the item to be seized. SPO1 Masinop is:
221. Which of the following does NOT qualify the crime of Piracy: a. Liable for the crime of violation of domicile
a. Whenever the pirates have seized the vessel on the b. Not liable for the crime of violation of domicile
high seas or in Philippine waters c. May not be liable for violation of domicile
b. Whenever the pirates have seized a vessel by d. Liable for a crime but not on
boarding or firing upon the same. violation of domicile
c. c.Whenever the pirates have abandoned their victims 230. The following are crimes against the fundamental law of the
without means of saving themselves. States. Which one can be committed by private person?
d. Whenever the crime is accompanied by murder, a. Arbitrary detention
homicide, physical injuries, or rape. b. Violation of Domicile
222. Otherwise known as the “Anti-Piracy and Anti-highway Robbery c. Interruption of religious worship
Law of 1974. d. Offending religious feelings
a. Comm. Act No. 616 e. Prohibition, interruption or dissolution of peaceful
b. P.D. 532 meetings
c. P.D. 533 231. The law which provides Human Security
d. R.A. 6235 a. R.A. 9208
223. PO1 Matiyaga, without legal grounds arrested and detained b. R.A. 9745
Mr. Tamad and deprived said person of his liberty is liable for: c. R.A. 9372
a. illegal detention d. R.A. 7438
b. arbitrary detention 232. Angelo Vergara not only confessed his membership with the
c. unlawful arrest Sparrow unit but also his participation and that of his Group in
d. kidnapping the killing of SPO2 Manalad while the latter was manning the
224. The following are legal grounds for the detention of any traffic along C. M. Recto Ave. Manila. Under the facts given,
person, EXCEPT: what crime was committed by the former and that of his
a. commission of a crime Group?
b. escape from prison / penal institution a. murder
c. violent insanity or other ailment requiring the b. sedition
compulsory confinement c. rebellion
d. a and c only d. homicide
e. a, b and c 233. This crime is committed by raising publicly and taking arms
225. The following are acts constitute a crime of delaying release, against government to completely overthrow and supersede
EXCEPT: said existing government.
a. Delays the performance of a judicial or executive a. treason
order for the release of a prisoner. b. rebellion
b. Delays the service of the notice of such order to said c. coup d’etat
prisoner. d. sedition

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234. A swift attack accompanied by violence, intimidation, stealth, c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National
directed against duly constituted authorities, public utilities, Assembly
military camps and installation with or without civilian support d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or
for the purpose of diminishing state power. the agents of such person
a. treason 243. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT.
b. rebellion a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order
c. coup d’etat b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful
d. sedition utterances
235. It is a felony which in its general sense is raising of c. Alarms and scandals
communications or disturbances in the state outside of the d. Delivering prisoners form Jails
legal method. e. None of the choices
a. treason 244. Mr. Pasaway while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in
b. rebellion the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his
c. coup d’etat birthday. Such act constitutes ___?
d. sedition a. illegal discharge of firearm
236. A police officer, who arrested a member of congress while b. alarm & scandals
going to attend a senate session for a traffic violation is liable c. disturbances
for: d. outcry
a. crime against popular representation 245. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of
b. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National service of sentence.
Assembly a. By means of unlawful entry By breaking doors,
c. violation of parliamentary immunity windows, gates, walls, roofs or floors.
d. all of the foregoing b. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit,
237. The Kilusan ng mga hindi Ungas at Paranoid (KHUP) was violence or intimidation.
organized by Mr. Panot allegedly for protecting the poor c. Through connivance with other convicts or
laborer, where in fact it was organized to form a group that employees of the penal institution.
would rise against the rich businessmen of their city. For what d. All of the choices
crime can they be charged? 246. Mr. Bandido was convicted for a crime of robbery before
a. Illegal assembly serving his sentence or while serving the same he committed a
b. Illegal association crime of murder. What condition is said to have occurred?
c. coup d’etat a. recidivism
d. rebellion b. reiteration
238. Any association, organization, political party or group of c. quasi-recidivism
persons organized for the purpose of overthrowing the d. habitual delinquency
Government of the Republic of the Philippines or for the 247. It is committed by giving to a treasury or bank note or any
purpose of removing the allegiance to said government or its instrument payable to bearer or to order the appearance of a
law, the territory of the Phils. or any part thereof, with the open true and genuine document. It is likewise committed by
or covert assistance or support of a foreign power by force falsification through erasing, substituting, counterfeiting, or
violence, deceit or other illegal means. Is a crime of: altering by any means, the figures, letters, words or signs
a. Rebellion contained therein (Art. 169)
b. Illegal Association a. Falsification of public document
c. Subversive Association or Organization b. Forgery
d. Illegal Assembly c. Falsification
239. Mrs. Grace, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer d. d.Fasification by public officer, employee or notary or
Pandac and Councilor Panot were surveying the land occupied ecclesiastical minister
by informal settlers for government projects and for their 248. A person who counterfeits or imitate a traffic police sticker and
relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs. Lourdes, sell the same shall be liable for a crime of:
one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Ditas when the a. Estafa through falsification of a public document
latter came near. One of the close escorts of the Mayor defends
her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and punched as well. For b. Theft through falsification of a public document
what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged for in relation to
Mayor Grace? c. Falsification of public document
a. Sedition d. Forgeries
b. Slander by Deeds 249. This crime is committed by any person without any distinction,
c. Direct Assault by falsely representing himself as an officer and performing
d. Rebellion under pretense of official position any act pertaining to such
240. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT: person.
a. The assault is committed with a weapon a. usurpation of authority
b. The offender is a public officer or employee b. estafa
c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority c. usurpation of official functions
d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a d. a & c
person in authority 250. Any other name a person which publicly applies to himself
241. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an without authority of the law.
individual or as a member of some court or government a. alias
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____? b. A.K.A.
a. Agent of a person in authority c. fictitious names
b. Judicial authority d. true name
c. person in authority 251. It is committed by a person, who being under oath are required
d. Public employee to testify as to the truth of a certain matter at a hearing before
242. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously a competent authority, shall deny the truth or say something
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such person, contrary to it.
while engaged in the performance of official functions. a. forgery
a. Direct assault b. perjury
b. Indirect Assault c. falsification

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 d. false testimony 261. The following are crimes classified under infidelity or public
252. Consist of acts which are offensive to decency and good officers:
customs, which having been committed publicly, have given a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
rise to public scandal to persons who have witness the same. b. Infidelity in the custody of documents
a. immoral doctrines c. Revelation of secrets
b. obscene publication and exhibition d. all of these
c. grave scandal 262. This is committed by any public officer or employee who shall
d. libel overdo himself in the correction or handling of a prisoner or
253. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence but detention prisoner under his charge by the imposition of
has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or punishment not authorize by the regulations or inflicting
herself to lawful calling. punishment in a cruel or humiliating manner.
a. bum a. Police brutality
b. vagrant b. Sadism
c. prostitute c. Maltreament of prisoners
d. destitute d. Physical injures
254. It is the improper performance of some acts which should have 263. This is committed by any public officer who shall solicit or make
been lawfully be done. immoral advances to a woman under his custody or to other
a. malfeasance women like the wife, daughter, sister or relative within the
b. misfeasance same degree by affinity of any person in the custody of a
c. nonfeasance warden or officer.
d. dereliction of duty a. Sexual harassment
255. It is crime committed by a judge who knowingly issued an b. Abuses against chastity
unjust order which decides some point or matter but which c. Acts of Lasciviousness
however, is not a final decisions of the matter in issue: d. Abuse of authority
a. Knowingly rendering unjust judgment 264. Takes place whenever a person is killed during a confusion
b. Judgment rendered through negligence attendant to quarrel among the several persons not continuing
c. Unjust interlocutory order a group and the perpetrators cannot be ascertained.
d. Malicious delay in the administration of justice a. homicide
e. Betrayal of trust by an attorney or solicitor – b. murder
revelation of secrets c. death caused by tumultuous affray
256. This one is committed by public officers or employees who, in d. riots
dereliction of the duties of his office, shall maliciously refrain 265. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the
from instituting prosecution for the punishment of violators of death of their unborn child is guilty of:
law, or shall tolerate the commission of offenses. a. parricide
a. Direct bribery b. abortion
b. Indirect bribery c. intentional abortion
c. Qualified bribery d. unintentional abortion
d. Prevaricacion or negligence or tolerance in 266. A formal and regular combat previously concerted between
prosecution of offenses two parties in the presence of two or more seconds of lawful
257. What crime is committed by any public officer or employee age on each side, who make the selection of arms and fix all
who shall agree to perform an act constituting a crime, in other conditions.
connection with the performance of his official duties, in a. riot
consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present received by b. duel
such officer, personally or through the mediation of another. c. tumultuous affray
a. Direct bribery d. mutilation
b. Qualified bribery 267. It is the lopping or clipping off some part of the body, e.g. a
c. Indirect bribery woman cutting the penis of a male lover to deprive of the latter
d. Prevarication or negligence or tolerance in of its true.
prosecution a. physical injury
258. Any public office who is entrusted with law enforcement who b. duel
refrain from arresting or prosecuting an offender who has c. tumultuous affray
committed a crime punishable by reclusion perpetua and/or d. mutilation
death in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or present. 268. What crime is committed by person who assaulted another,
a. bribery causing the latter to be absent from work for two weeks?
b. direct bribery a. mutilation
c. qualified bribery b. serious physical injury
d. indirect bribery c. less serious physical injury
259. It is a crime committed by any appointed public official who d. slight physical injury
shall become interested in any transaction within his territory, 269. Committed by a man having a carnal knowledge with a child
subject to his jurisdiction during his incumbency. less than 12 years old.
a. Prohibited transaction a. rape
b. Possession of prohibited interest by a public officer b. acts of lasciviousness
c. seduction
c. Fraud against public treasury d. abduction
d. Prevarication 270. A private individual who detains another for the purpose of
260. This is committed by an accountable public officer who, shall depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three days is
appropriate, or shall misappropriate or shall consent, or guilty of:
through abandonment or negligence shall permit another a. illegal detention
person to take public funds or property. b. arbitrary detention
a. Direct bribery c. serious illegal detention
b. Technical malversation d. slight illegal detention
c. Malversation of public funds 271. A person who got into a dispute with another, assaulted the
d. Embezzelment latter for the purpose of delivering his victims to the jailer is
guilty of what crime?

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 a. illegal detention 282. Altering the place of a mojon in the lot to insure that the
b. illegal arrest property would be large when surveyed is a crime of:
c. unlawful arrest a. estafa
d. physical injuries b. chattel mortgage
272. Refers to a crime committed by any person who threatens c. usurpation
another with the infliction upon the person, honor or property d. altering boundaries or landmarks
of the latter or of his family of any wrong amounting to a crime. 283. It is the willful damaging of another’s property for the sake of
a. grave threat causing damage due to hate, revenge or other evil motive.
b. light threat a. swindling
c. grave coercion b. destruction of property
d. light coercion c. malicious mischief
273. When a threat to commit a wrong not consulting a crime is d. chattel mortgage
made by another, what crime is committed? 284. What crime was committed by a married woman having carnal
a. grave threat knowledge with a man not her husband?
b. light threat a. adultery
c. graver coercion b. concubinage
d. light coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
274. Any person who by means of violence shall seize anything d. seduction
belonging to his debtor for the purpose of applying the same to 285. A married man who allows his paramour to live in their conjugal
the payment of a debt, is committing. dwelling is liable of what crime?
a. grave threat a. adultery
b. light threat b. concubinage
c. graver coercion c. acts of lasciviousness
d. light coercion d. seduction
275. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of 286. Lewd acts committed upon person of either sex not amounting
force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, to rape by using force or intimidation.
whether right or wrong. a. adultery
b. concubinage
a. grave threat c. acts of lasciviousness
b. light threat d. seduction
c. grave coercion 287. A person who ripped the dress of a woman and placed his penis
d. light coercion over the woman’s genital organ is liable for what crime?
276. It includes human conduct, which although not productive of
some physical or material harm would annoy any innocent a. rape
person b. seduction
a. light threat c. forcible seduction
b. light coercion d. acts of lasciviousness
c. unjust vexation 288. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his girlfriend by
d. grave coercion promising the latter with marriage, what crime was committed?
277. It is the taking of personal belonging to another, with intent to a. seduction
gain by means of violence against, or intimidations upon things b. acts of lasciviousness
of any person, or using force upon anything. c. abduction
a. robbery d. none of the foregoing
b. theft 289. Alfred directed his employee Luz to deliver several pieces of
c. brigandage jewelries to his Mother whom he had misunderstanding. The
d. estafa latter however, pawned the said jewelries and misappropriated
278. A stole thing from a locker by means of the key of the owner, the same. What would be the proper offense committed by
what crime was committed? Luz?
a. a theft a. swindling
b. robbery b. theft
c. possession of pick locks c. robbery
d. possession of false key d. malicious mischief
279. A crime committed by more than three armed malefactors who 290. Which of the following crimes does not operates as an
form a band for the purpose of committing robbery in the absolutory cause which could serves as an exemption against
highway or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or members of the family from criminal ability in crimes against
to obtain ransom, or for any other purpose to be attained by properties.
means of force & violence. a. Robbery
a. Robbery b. theft
b. kidnapping c. malicious mischief
c. brigandage d. estafa
d. d. theft 291. It is defined as a method fixed for the apprehension and
280. Committed by any person who with intent to gain but without prosecution of person alleged to have committed a crime.
violence or intimidation of persons nor force upon things shall a. Criminal procedure
take personal property of another without latter’s consent. b. Criminal jurisprudence
a. robbery c. rules of court
b. kidnapping d. rules of procedure
c. brigandage 292. It refers to the authority or power to hear and decided cases.
d. theft a. Jurisdiction
281. A housemaid who was caught in the act of carting away the b. b. Jurisprudence
furniture of her employer would be charged of what crime? c. Venue
a. theft d. territory
b. robbery 293. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where
c. qualified theft the power of the court is exercised and which is jurisdictional in
d. estafa criminal case.

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 a. Venue c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the
b. Jurisprudence law
c. jurisdiction d. No, for a did not loiter again
d. court 304. Under what characteristics of criminal law the above
294. It is the authority to hear or try a case for the first instance. circumstance falls?
a. Original jurisdiction a. Generality
b. Exclusive jurisdiction b. Territoriality
c. concurrent c. Prospective
d. appellate jurisdiction d. Retroactive
295. It is the sole authority to hear cases to the exclusion of the 305. What legal maxims support the above scenario?
others. a. Pro reo Principle
a. Original jurisdiction b. Nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege
b. Exclusive jurisdiction c. Actus non facitreum, nisi mens sit rea
c. appellate jurisdiction d. Actus me invitusfactus non
d. concurrent jurisdiction 306. Which of the following legal maxim means “the act cannot be
296. Is that branch of municipal or public law which defines crimes, criminal unless the mind is criminal”.
treats of their nature and provides for their punishment? a. Pro reo
a. civil law b. Nullumcrimennullapoena sine lege
b. procedural law c. Actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
c. criminal law d. Actus me invito factus non est meus actus
d. substantive law 307. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
297. The following are sources of criminal law, EXCEPT: essence being the substitution of a legislative flat for a judicial
a. Act 3815 determination of guilt.
b. City and municipal ordinance a. Ex post facto law
c. Special penal laws b. Bill of attainder
d. constitution c. Retroactive law
298. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of d. Prospective
criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect on? 308. The following persons are exempt from criminal liability under
a. January 1, 1923 the principle of public international law, EXCEPT:
b. January 1, 1932 a. Heads of states
c. December 8, 1930 b. ambassador
d. January 1, 1933 c. ministers of plenipotentiary
299. The following are characteristics of classical theory of criminal d. charges d affaires
law, EXCEPT: e. None of the choices
a. the basis of criminal liability is human free will and 309. Crimes committed within the territorial water of another
the purpose of the penalty is retribution. country can either be triable in that country or in the country
b. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolutely where the vessel is registered. What rule provides that a crime
free will to choose between good and evil, thereby committed on board vessel shall be NOT tried in the court of
placing more stress upon the effect or result of the the country having territorial jurisdiction, unless their
felonious act than the man. commission affects the peace and security of the territory or
c. there is scant regard to the human element. the safety of the state is endangered.
d. That man is subdued occasionally by strange and a. French rule
morbid phenomenon which constrains him to do b. American Rule
wrong, in spite of or contrary to his violation. c. Spanish Rule
300. Acts or omissions punishable by law are crimes. What are acts d. English Rule
committed or omitted in violations of special laws? 310. Any bodily movement tending to produce some effect in the
a. felony external world.
b. offense a. act
c. misdemeanor b. Omission
d. in fractional law c. Dolo
301. Basically, there are three fundamental characteristics of d. Culpa
criminal law. What characteristics of criminal law states that 311. Felonies are committed either by Dolo or ____.
criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in the a. Deceit
Philippines? b. Fault
a. Generality c. Culpa
b. Territoriality d. Intent
c. Prospective 312. Things which are wrongful in their nature.
d. Retroactive a. evil
302. The following are the exemption to the rule of Generality, b. mala in ce
EXCEPT: c. mala in se
a. Those who are subject of treaty stipulation d. mala prohibita
b. Those who are immune under the law of preferential 313. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite
application result.
c. Those who are exempted under Public International a. intent
law b. motive
d. President, Prime Minister and Ambassador c. deceit
303. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on d. fault
January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a city ordinance was passed 314. The following are crime committed by mistakes which does not
punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be operate as an Exemption/justification, EXCEPT:
held liable for his act of loitering? a. Aberratio Ictus
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it b. Error in Personae
b. Yes, under the principle of retroactive effect of c. PreaterIntentionem
criminal law d. Mistake in fact

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315. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence, c. serious physical injury
unbroken by any efficient intervening cause, produces the d. less serious physical injury
injury without which the result would not have occurred. 324. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime, starting from
a. Proximate cause the point where the offender begins the commission of the
b. Intervening cause crime to that point where he has still control over his acts
c. Immediate cause including their (acts) natural course.
d. Probable cause a. Subjective Phase
316. Death is presumed to be the natural consequence of physical b. Objective Phase
injuries inflicted in the following; EXCEPT c. Internal Act
a. The victim at the time the physical injuries were d. Act of Execution
inflicted was in normal heath. 325. Which of the following is NOT a Factor in determining stage of
b. The death may be expected from the physical injuries execution of felony?
inflicted. a. Nature of the offense
c. Death ensued within a reasonable time. b. Elements constituting the felony;
d. The resulting injury is due to the intentional act of the c. Manner of committing the felony
victim. d. Intent in committing the crime
317. The following are elements of impossible crime, EXCEPT: 326. A, B and C and five unarmed men conspired to rob the Banco
a. That the act performed would be an offense against de Oro. While having their meeting at their safe-house, a group
persons or property. of PNP personnel arrested them. What crime was committed by
b. That the act was done with evil intent A,B, and C?
c. That its accomplishment is inherently impossible, or a. Illegal Assembly
that the means employed is either inadequate or b. Conspiracy to commit robbery
ineffectual. c. Attempted Robbery
d. That the act does not constitute a crime of negligence d. No crime
or imprudence. 327. A,B and C conspired to rob the Philippine National Bank in their
318. X tried to kill Y by putting in his food a substance which he secret safe house. While they are planning how to commit the
thought was arsenic (poison) when in fact it was just a sugar. Y crime, operatives of the NBI barged in and arrested the group.
was not killed as a consequence. What X did he commit? a. What crime was committed by A,B and C?
a. Mistake in the blow b. No crime was committed
b. No crime committed c. Under the facts no crime was committed as mere
c. preaterintentionem conspiracy to commit a crime is not punishable
d. impossible crime d. Attempted robbery
319. Whenever a court has knowledge of any act which it may deem e. Frustrated robbery
proper to repress and which is not punishable by law, it shall: 328. Grave felonies are those to which the law attaches the capital
a. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the punishment or penalties which in any of their periods are:
Chief Executive, through the Department of Justice a. light
b. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief b. correctional
Executive, through the Department of Justice. c. afflictive
c. Render the proper decision, and shall report to the d. reflective
Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 329. In case of crimes which are latter subject of special penal laws,
d. Dismiss the case and shall report to the Chief Justice what rule of interpretation shall be applied?
of the Supreme Court. a. The RPC shall be observed
320. This takes place when the offender commences that b. The RPC shall prevails over special laws.
commission of a felony by overt acts, and does not perform all c. The RPC will be supplementary to special law
the acts of execution which should produce the felony by d. The Special Law shall be supplementary to the RPC
reason of some cause or accident other than his own 330. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as
spontaneous desistance. its author or owner. It implies that the act committed has been
a. Consummated freely and consciously done and may therefore be put down to
b. Frustrated the doer as his very own.
c. Attempted a. Guilt
d. Impossible crime b. Liability
321. A with intent to kill, fired a gun towards B, hitting B at his c. Responsibility
shoulder. B was able to run away and survived the injury, what d. Imputability
crime is committed by A? 331. Acts of a person which are said to be in accordance with the
a. Physical Injury law, so that such person is deemed not to have transgressed
b. Frustrated Homicide the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability.
c. Attempted Homicide a. justifying circumstances
d. Less serious physical injury b. mitigating circumstances
c. exempting circumstances
322. The following are the elements of frustrated felonious, EXCEPT: d. aggravating circumstance
a. The offender performs all the acts of execution 332. The following are the requisites for self-defense, EXCEPT
b. All the acts performed would produce the felony as a a. Unlawful aggression.
consequence but the felony is not produced. b. Reasonable necessity of the means employed to
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of the prevent or repel it.
perpetrator. c. Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the
d. Due to some cause or accident other than his own person defending himself.
spontaneous desistance. d. Lack of intent on the part of the person defending
323. Mrs. Lucila with intent to kill puts poison on the coffee of her himself.
husband Mr. William Herschel, when Mr. was at the stage of 333. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the
convulsion, Mrs. Lucila had a change of heart and administer an offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the
antidote causing Mr. William to survive but left in comatose. conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
What was committed by Mrs. Lucila? a. Justifying
a. Frustrated parricide b. Mitigating
b. b.attempted parricide c. Exempting

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 d. Aggravating is usually granted to certain classes of persons usually political
334. Charles Darwin, 15 year old child, took the cellphone of Ms. offenders, who are subject to trial but not yet convicted.
IsabelaBernales, Charles is ___. a. Pardon
a. Liable for the crime of theft b. Commutation
b. Liable for the crime of robbery c. Parole
c. Not liable for the crime of theft d. Amnesty
d. Not liable for the crime of robbery 344. The law which prohibits the imposition of the death penalty?
335. The following circumstances exempt a person from criminal a. RA 6981
liability though there is civil liability considering that there is b. P.D. 968
crime committed, EXCEPT: c. R.A. 9346
a. Minority d. R.A. 4103
b. Accident 345. How do you call an offender who within a period of ten (10)
c. Imbecility/Insanity years from the date of his release or last conviction of the
d. Acting under compulsion of an irresistible force crimes of Serious Physical Injuries, robbery (robo), Theft
e. Acting under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of (hurto), Estafa or falsification is found guilty of any of the said
an equal or greater injury. crimes a third time or offener?
336. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT: a. Recidivist
a. Children 15 years of age below b. Quasi recidivist
b. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without c. Reiteration
discernment d. habitual delinquent
c. Insane persons or an imbecile persons 346. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of
d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with alternative circumstances, except:
discernment. a. Low degree education
337. Who among the following incurs full responsibility upon b. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not
commission of a crime? intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
a. Those 15 years of age and below c. Relationship in crimes against property
b. Those who are 18 years of age and above d. Relationship in crimes against persons
c. Those who are over 15 but under 18 years of age 347. Refers to persons who take direct part in the execution of a
crime.
d. Those who are 18 years of age a. principals
b. accessories
338. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of c. accomplice
public policy and sentiment, there is no penalty imposed. d. instigators
a. Justifying circumstances 348. A person who directly induce others to commit a crime is
b. Mitigating circumstances regarded as:
c. Absolutory cause a. principal by direct participation
d. Exempting circumstances b. principal by indispensable cooperation
339. X was charged before the court. During the pendency of his trial c. principal by induction
he died. What would be the effect of his death on the case d. instigators
involved and on his criminal liability? 349. The desire or wish in common thing
a. The criminal case will be dismissed ad his criminal a. intent
liability is extinguished. b. motive
b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal liability c. conspire
is not extinguished. d. cooperate
c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his 350. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of
resurrection. another person is liable as:
d. Actually there will be no effect at all because his a. principal
relatives will be the one to face trial and punished in b. accessory
case of his conviction. c. accomplice
340. Which of the following operates as an absolutory cause. d. conspirator
a. Spontaneous desistance 351. Personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no
b. Accessories who are exempt from criminal liability by property to meet the fine.
reason of relationship a. subsidiary penalty
c. Legal spouse or parent who inflicts slight physical b. suspension
injuries under exceptional circumstances c. penalty
d. Person exempt from criminal liability for theft d. d.civil interdiction
swindling and malicious mischief by relationship to 352. In cases where in the commission of an offense is necessary in
the offended party the commission of another it is said the crime is:
e. All of the choices a. formal crime
341. An aggravating circumstances which generally apply to all b. informal crime
crimes such as dwelling, nighttime or recidivism. c. compound crime
a. generic d. complex crime
b. specific 353. An entire penalty, enumerated in the graduated scale of
c. qualifying penalties.
d. Inherent a. degree
342. C raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her b. period
using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is c. prescription
committed aggravated by what circumstances? d. duration
a. ignominy 354. A sentence of imprisonment for the maximum period defined
b. passion by law subject to the termination by the parole board at any
c. cruelty time after service of the sentence.
d. Craft a. Suspension
343. Is an act of sovereign power granting a general pardon for past b. indeterminate sentence
offense and is rarely exercised in favor of a single individual and c. prescription

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 d. period of penalty 365. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute
355. The crime of libel and other similar offenses shall prescribe in the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
how many years? a.prescription of crime
a. 15 years b.prescription of prosecution
b. 1year c.prescription of judgment
c. 10 years d.prescription of penalty
d. 5 years 366. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty
356. Those crime punishable by death, reclusion perpetua and is suspended.
reclusion temporal shall prescribe in: a.Pardon
a. 20 years b.commutation
b. 15 years c.amnesty
c. 10 years d.reprieve
d. 5 years 367. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a
357. Those punishable by correctional penalties shall prescribe in more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.
how many years? a.mala prohibita
a. 20 years b.mala in se
b. 15 years c.private crimes
c. 10 years d.public crimes
d. 5 years 368. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted
358. Light offenses prescribe in: together in the commission of a crime.
a. 12 months a.gang
b. 6 months b.conspiracy
c. 4 months c.band
d. 2 months d.piracy
359. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I kill you this week”. 369. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A bought a firearms. On Friday, he waited for B and shot him a.Negligence
but killed C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime b.imprudence
committed by A is: c.omission
a. Attempted murder d.act
b. frustrated murder 370. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
c. illegal discharge of firearm capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
d. all of these a.Misfeasance
360. In so far as C is concerned the crime committed is: b.entrapment
a. frustrated homicide c.inducement
b. murder d.instigation
c. consummated homicide 371. The following are exempted from criminal liability, EXCEPT:
d. none of the above a. Children 15 years of age below
361. X (as principal) committed the crime of Homicide b. Insane persons or Imbecile persons
(consummated) which is punishable by Reclusion Perpetua. c. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted with
He pleaded guilty to the charge at the arraignment.
discernment
Determine his penalty.
a. Prision mayor (at any period) as minimum to d. Children over 15 but under 18 who acted without
Reclusion temporal (minimum period) as the discernment
maximum period of the indeterminate penalty. 372. Those grounds which makes the person not imputable for the
b. Prision mayor (minimum) as minimum to Reclusion offense since there is a wanting in the agent of the crime of the
temporal (any period) as the maximum period of the conditions which make the act voluntary or negligent.
indeterminate penalty a. Justifying
c. Reclusion temporal as the minimum period to b. Exempting
reclusion perpetua as maximum c. Mitigating
d. Prision mayor d. Aggravating
362. X (as principal) committed grave coercion (consummated)
373. When a public officer convinces a person to commit a felony
punishable by prision correctional. There was one aggravating
and would arrest him or her after its commission he is
circumstances in the commission of the crime let us say “with
committing.
the aid of armed men”. Fix his penalty.
a. instigation
a. Arresto mayor (any period) as minimum to Prision
correctional (maximum period) as maximum period of b. entrapment
the indeterminate penalty. c. conspiracy
b. Arresto mayor (medium period) as minimum to d. proposal
Prision correctional (any period) as maximum period 374. It operates to reduce the penalty by one to two DEGREES
of the indeterminate penalty depending upon what the law provides and cannot be offset by
c. Prision correctional medium to Prison mayor as any aggravating circumstances.
maximum period a. Mitigating Circumstances
d. None of the above b. Exempting circumstances
363. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. c. Ordinary Mitigating Circumstances
a.15-18 years old d. Privilege Mitigating circumstances
b.18-70 years old 375. Crimes are classified in various categories. What classifications
c.9 years old and below of crime is when a single act results to or more serious or less
d.between 9 and 15 years old serious offenses.
364. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the a. Continuing Crime
execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. b. Complex crime or delito complejo
a.Accomplices c. Special complex crime
b.Suspects d. Compound crime or delito compuesto
c.principal actors 376. Mr. J. Dellinger with intent to kill Mr. R. Pitts bought a rifle from
d.accessories Mr. C. Goddard. Knowing Mr. Dellinger’s plan, Mr. Goddard

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 sold the gun. Since Mr. Pitts is in an Island for vacation and the
only way to reach the island is to ride a boat, Mr. Dellinger
rented the boat of Mr. F. Galton, the owner of the only boat
that can be rented to reach the island. Also knowing Mr.
Dellinger’s plan, Mr. F. Galton allowed the boat to be rented for
a much higher price. Mr. Dellinger successfully reached the
island and killed Mr. R. Pitts. Before leaving the island Mr. Pitts
requested the service of Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds to
bury Mr’s Pitts Body in exchange for thousand of pesos. What
was the crime committed by Mr. Dellinger?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Manslaughter
377. What is the participation of Mr. F. Galton?
a. Principal by direct participation
b. Principal by induction
c. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Accomplice
378. What about Mr. C. Goddard?
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
379. What about Mr. W. Herschel and Mr. H. Faulds?
a. Principal
b. Accomplice
c. Accessory
d. Principal by indispensable cooperation
380. The following are Justifying Circumstances, EXCEPT?
a. Obedience to a lawful order
b. Lawful Exercise of Rights or office or performance of
duty
c. A person who acts under compulsion of an irresistible
force
d. Avoidance of greater evil or injury
381. The following felonies cannot be prosecuted de officio without
a complaint first filed by the offended party, EXCEPT:
a. Seduction
b. Rape
c. Abduction
d. Acts of Lasciviousness
382. What crime is committed if the unlawful taking of personal
property belonging to another is committed with grave abuse
of confidence?
a. Robbery
b. Qualified Theft
c. Theft
d. Burglary
383. What crime is committed if a person commits a crime of
murder with the use of unlicensed firearm?
a. Murder
b. Illegal Possession of firearm
c. Qualified Illegal possession of firearm
d. Murder with illegal possession of f/a.
384. If physical violence or moral pressure is exerted upon a person
in a manner that is determined and constant until the lawful
purpose is realize, the crime committed is:
a. Threat
b. Grave threat
c. Coercions
d. Light threat
385. When the wrong threatened to be inflicted upon the offended
party does not amount to a crime the designation of the
offense is called
a. Threats
b. Grave threats
c. Light Threats
d. Coercion
386. A public officer who without legal ground shall prohibit or
interrupt the holding of a peaceful meeting or dissolved the
same is liable for:
a. Prohibition of a peaceful meeting
b. dissolution of peaceful meeting
c. Interruption of peaceful meeting
d. all of the choices.
387. If a private person removes a person confined in jail or penal
institution or helps in the escape of such person by means of
violence, intimidation, bribery or any other means, the crime
committed is:
a. Evasion of service of sentence
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Delivery of prison from jail
d. corruption of public official
388. Light offenses prescribe in:
a. 12 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 2 months
389. X raped the wife in the presence of the husband, forcing her,
using the dog-style position in the sexual act. Rape is
committed aggravated by what circumstances?
a. ignominy
b. passion
c. cruelty
d. obstruction
390. Refers to the gathering, transmitting or losing information
relative to national defense with intent to be used to the injury
of the Republic of the Philippines.
a. treason
b. conspiracy to commit treason
c. espionage
d. misprision to treason
391. To avoid being charged with delay in the delivery of persons to
proper judicial authorities, a person caught in the act of
committing a felony punishable by penalties which are
correctional in nature must be delivered to said authorities
within how many hours?
a. 12
b. 36
c. 18
d. 48
392. Amendments with leave of court after the accused pleads are
allowed under the following circumstance.
a. Amendments as to substance
b. Amendments as to form
c. Amendments that change the nature of the offense
d. None of these
393. The rule is that the civil action for the recovery of civil liability
arising from the offense charged is deemed instituted with the
criminal action. This rule does not apply in the following
instances, EXCEPT.
a. When the offended party waives the civil action
b. When the offended party reserves the right to
institute separate civil action
c. When the offended party institute the criminal action
d. When the offended party institute the civil action
prior to the criminal action.
394. The reservation of the right to institute separate civil action
shall be made:
a. Before the arraignment
b. During the pre-trial conference
c. Before the prosecution rest
d. Before the prosecution present evidence
395. The rule prohibits the filing of the following pleadings in the
criminal case, EXCEPT:
a. Motion for postponement
b. Counter affidavit
c. Counterclaim
d. Third party complaint
396. The petition for suspension of the criminal action based upon
the pendency of prejudicial question in a civil action may be
filed with the following, EXCEPT one:
a. The court where the civil action is pending
b. The court where the criminal action is pending
c. Office of the prosecutor

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 d. None of these b. Any court within the judicial region where the crime
was committed
397. Under the rules, a preliminary investigation is required before c. Any Regional Trial Court in the Philippines
the filing of a complaint or information where the penalty for d. Any Court Within judicial region where the warrant
the offense is: shall be enforced
a. At least 6 years and 1 day 408. An appeal made to the RTC from decisions of the first level
b. At least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day court shall be by:
c. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day a. Notice of appeal
d. Exceeding 6 years and one day b. by Petition for review
398. The following may be submitted by the respondent in a c. Petition for review on certiorari
preliminary investigation, EXEPT: d. Petition for certiorari
a. Counter-affidavit
b. Motion to dismiss 409. After the prosecution rest its case, the case can be dismiss due
c. Witness counter affidavit to insufficiency of evidence by:
d. supporting documents a. The courts own initiative
399. The following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary b. By the accused through his counsel by Demurrer to
investigation on cases falling within their jurisdiction, EXCEPT: evidence
a. Provincial prosecutor c. By the prosecution on its own initiative
b. City prosecutor d. a and b only
c. Special prosecutor of the Ombudsman 410. Mr. Tsu a Chinese Businessman paid the Warden for the escape
d. Judges of Municipal trial court of his brother Chan. The Warden ordered his jail guard to leave
400. An offense which under the law existing at the time of its the door unlocked so as to facilitate the escape of Mr. Chan.
commission and of the application for admission to bail may be The guard leaves the door unlocked and tells Mr. Chan to
punish with death is called: escape at mid-night. What crime was committed by the
a. Capital punishment Warden?
b. Heinous crime a. Evasion of service of sentence
c. Capital Offense b. Direct Bribery
d. Grave offense c. Delivery of prison from jail
401. The court may dismiss the case on the ground of insufficiency d. corruption of public official
of evidence: 411. What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives
a. On the motion of the accused filed with prior leave of with the prisoner?
court a. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
b. By its own initiative after giving the prosecution an b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
opportunity to be heard c. Delivering prisoner from jail
c. On motion of the accused thru counsel d. A and B
d. A and B only 412. A public officer or a warden who solicits or makes immoral or
402. Manuel notices his cell phone in the possession of Ruben which indecent advances to a woman who is under his custody or wife
was snatched from him three days ago. He confronted the or daughter of the person under his custody shall be liable for:
latter and force to get back said cell phone against his will. For a. Acts of lasciviousness
what crime or crimes may Manuel be liable for, if he will go to b. Abuses against Chastity
force to get back the same? c. Indirect Bribery
a. Coercion d. infidelity in the custody of prisoners
b. Robbery 413. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence
c. Threats which means that evidence must have such relation to the fact
in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The
d. Theft
other requisite is ____________?
403. The following statement are false, EXCEPT: a. That is should not be excluded for by law.
a. The accused may enter his plea by counsel
b. That it is material to the facts in issue
b. The accused must personally enter his plea
c. The accused must excused/waived arraignment c. That it is credible
d. The accused may be arraigned in a court other than d. That it is the best evidence
where the case is assigned. 414. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence,
404. Bail is a matter of right even in the case of capital offense and collateral matters are not allowed. Except:
the evidence of guilt is strong. a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish
a. Absolutely true the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.
b. Absolutely false b. When it is competent
c. Partly true
c. When it is credible
d. Partly false
405. Arrest is the actual restrain of a person to be placed under the d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue
custody of the law. It should be made at: based on other related evidence.
a. Anytime of the day 415. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a
b. anytime of the day and night person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what
c. Anytime of the morning requisites of admissibility?
d. d. anytime of the night a. materiality
406. It is a mock serenade of discordant noises made with kettles, b. competency
his horns, etc, designated to deride or annoy: c. relevancy
a. Charivari d. credibility
b. Grave scandal
416. It is that quality of evidence which tends to influence the trier
c. Alarm and Scandal
of facts because of its logical connection with the issue.
d. Harana
Evidence which has an effective influence or bearing to the
407. The application for search warrant may be filed with the
question?
following, EXCEPT:
a. material
a. Any court within whose territorial jurisdiction a crime
was committed. b. relevant
c. competent

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 d. credible b. Emotional security items
417. The provisional dismissal of offenses punishable by c. support item
imprisonment of more than 6 years shall become permanent d. none of these
________ after issuance of the order without the case having 428. It is a type of a question that can be allowed in all stages of
been revived. examination of a child, if the same will further the interest of
a. One year justice.
b. six months a. leading questions
c. Two years
b. misleading
d. three years
418. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the c. relevant
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall d. narrative
order a pre-trial conference? 429. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
a. 30 days evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
b. 20 days a. Matters of Public Knowledge
c. 15 days b. The measure of time
d. 60 days c. Law of nations
419. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for d. Law of nature
trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? 430. Court may take judicial notice of the following in exercise of its
a. 15 days discretion, EXCEPT.
b. 30 days a. The geographical divisions
c. 20 days b. Matter which are of public knowledge;
d. 180 days c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
420. The law expanding the jurisdiction of the Metropolitan Trial d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their
Court is called? judicial functions.
a. R.A. 7691 431. Matters of judicial notice have three material requisites. These
b. R.A. 3019 requisites are:
c. R.A. 8493 a. The matter must be one of common and general
d. B.P. 129 knowledge.
421. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any peace b. It must be well and authoritatively settled and not
officer of public officer in charged of enforcement of the law doubtful or uncertain
violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
c. It must be known to be within the limits of the
prosecutor.
a. Complaint jurisdiction of the court.
b. Information d. All of the choices
c. Pleadings 432. Self incriminatory statement falling short of an
d. Affidavit acknowledgement of guilt made by a party in the course of the
422. Prescription of offense commence to run: proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
a. Upon discovery of the crime by the offended party or a. Admission
peace officers or their agent. b. self serving statement
b. Upon filing of cases in court c. declaration against interest
c. Upon escape of the accused d. confession
d. Upon re-appearance of the accuse
433. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no
423. The following are cases covered by rules on summary
evidence shall be admissible other than the original documents
procedure EXCEPT:
itself. This refers to the _____.
a. Where the penalty is six months imprisonment.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Violation of traffic laws
c. Violation of rental laws b. Secondary Evidence Rule
d. Where the penalty foes not exceed six (6) months c. Parol Evidence Rule
imprisonment d. Best Evidence
424. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to assist 434. What are secondary evidence?
destitute litigant? a. Certified true COPY of a document
a. Counsel de officio b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
b. counsel de parte c. Testimony of witnesses
c. Public Attorney’s Office d. All of the choices
d. National Prosecution Office 435. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon
425. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and
and there can be, as between the parties and their successors
to testify or to bring with him any books or documents under
in interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents
his control at the trial of an action.
of the agreement.
a. subpoena
a. Parol evidence Rule
b. subpoena duces tecum
b. b. parol evidence
c. subpoena ad testificandum
c. Best Evidence Rule
d. warrant of arrest
d. Secondary Evidence
426. The order of trial is:
436. As a rule all persons who can perceived, and perceiving, can
a. Prosecution, accused, rebuttal and surrebattal
make known of their perception to others can be witness and
b. Prosecution. cross, redirect, re cross the following shall not be a ground for disqualification.
c. Direct, cross, re-cross, re-direct a. Religious and political belief
d. Direct, cross, rebuttal and surrebattal. b. Interest in the outcome of the case
427. Refers to items such as dolls, puppets, drawings, mannequins c. conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by
or any other appropriate demonstrative device to assist him in law
testimony.
d. All of the choices
a. Testimonial aids

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437. An Act Providing for A Witness Protection, Security and Benefit b. hearsay evidence is not acceptable as evidence in
program and for other purposes. court
a. R.A. 6981 c. Hearsay evidence is evidence given in the authority of
b. R.A. 6646 another person.
c. P.D.749 d. hearsay evidence is evidence with respect to facts of
d. R.A. 6770 which the witness has no personal knowledge
438. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, because it is derived from the knowledge or
other direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants.
perception of others who are not called to testify.
This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege. 446. The declaration of a dying person, made under the
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in any
b. declaration against pedigree
case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of
c. declaration against common reputation the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death.
d. res inter alois acta rule a. Dying declaration
439. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any b. res gestae
liability and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on c. declaration against interest
the following case, EXCEPT.
d. declaration about pedigree
a. In civil cases
447. Is the duty of the party to present evidence on the facts in issue
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount of
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or evidence required by law.
other expenses occasioned by an injury. a. burden of evidence
d. In criminal cases b. burden of proof
440. A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a c. proof of evidence
plea of guilty to a lesser offense is_____? d. cause of action
a. not admissible in evidence against the accused who
448. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of Australia anchored
made the plea of offer. at Manila Bay wherein an Australian national was caught in
b. admissible in evidence against the accused who made possession of Cocaine. What rule provides that a crime
the plea of offer committed while on board of the vessel.
c. shall not be considered an plea a. French rule
d. will be considered a plea of not guilty b. American Rule
c. Spanish Rule
441. The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act,
d. English Rule
declaration, or omission of another, except as provided by the
449. Shall deprive the offender rights of parental authority or
rules of court.
guardianship.
a. Res inter alios acta rule
a. subsidiary penalty
b. admission by co-partner b. penalty
c. admission by co-conspirator c. suspension
d. admission by silence of a person for not doing or d. civil interdiction
saying anything when an act or declaration is said 450. It is a case of concubinage when a woman has a sexual
against him in his presence. relationship to a married man. This statement is?
442. The following are the requirements in determining child’s a. True
competency as a witness EXCEPT: b. false
a. capacity of Observation c. It depends
d. Partly false
b. capacity of Recollection
451. The following are considered afflictive penalties, except:
c. capacity of Communication a. death by lethal injection
d. capacity to Comprehend b. reclusion perpetua
443. Where several extrajudicial confessions had been made by c. reclusion temporal
several person charged with the same offense and without the d. prison mayor
possibility of collision among them, the fact that the statements 452. It is a case of adultery when a man has a sexual relationship to
are in all respects identical is confirmatory of the confessions of a married woman.
the co-defendants and are admissible against the other persons This statement is?
implicated therein. a. True
a. interlocking confessions b. false
b. res inter alios acta rule c. It depends
c. admission by privies e. Partly false
d. confession by co-defendant 453. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived
444. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are
hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing represented on material substances.
when the act or declaration is such as to call for action or a.documentary evidence
comment if not true, and when proper and possible for him to b.testimonial evidence
do so, may be given in evidence against him. c.material evidence
a. admission by silence d.real evidence
454. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
b. confession
occurrence of a fact.
c. admission by co-conspirator a.positive evidence
d. admission by privies b.corroborative evidence
445. Which of the following is the Hearsay evidence rule? c.secondary evidence
a. That a witness can testify only to those facts which he d.negative evidence
knows of his personal knowledge; that ism which are 455. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
derived from his own perception. render judgment after a fair trial.
a.ex post facto law

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 b.equal protection of the law a. 15 days
c.rule of law b. 20 days
d.due process of law c. 30 days
456. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is d. 180 days
intended. 467. Pursuant to Section 2 of Rule 112 of the Rules of Court, the
a. Aberratio ictus following officers are authorized to conduct preliminary
b. Error in personae investigation except?
c. Dura Lex Sed lex a. Provincial and City Prosecutor
d. Praeter Intentionem b. Judge MTC/MCTC
457. If an accused person who refuses to plead, a plea of ___ shall c. Regional State Prosecutor
be entered. d. Public Attorney’s office
a. Not guilty e. b and d
b. admission by silence 468. A Special Law which defines certain rights of accused, detained
c. guilty or under custodial investigation as well as duties of the
d. none arresting detailing and investigation officer.
458. When reception of evidence is necessary under the following a. R.A. 7438
circumstances: b. R.A. 7348
a. Plea of guilty to lesser offense c. R.A. 7834
b. plea of guilty to capital offense d. R.A. 3478
c. Plea of guilty to non-capital offense 469. Under the Rule 115 of the Rules of Court, an accused cannot be
d. all of these compelled to be a witness against himself. This principle also
459. When the complaint is vague, the accused may file a motion known as:
alleging among others the defect of the complaint or a. rights against illegal arrest
information and the details desired in order to enable him to b. the right to presume innocent
properly answer and prepare for trial. This motion is known as: c. rights against self- incrimination
a. motion for bill of particular d. right to live
b. motion for clarification 470. Under the Rules on Summary Procedures, the following
c. motion to dismiss pleading are prohibited except:
d. motion for postponement a. motion to quash
460. Upon motion of the proper party, arraignment shall be b. bill of particular
suspended on the following grounds: c. answer
a. The accused appears to be suffering from unsound d. demurred to evidence
mental condition. 471. The following cases committed by public official with salary
b. There exist a prejudicial question. grade 27 and above fall under the exclusive jurisdiction of the
c. c. A petition for review of the resolution of the Sandiganbayan, Except:
prosecutor is pending either at the DOJ or office of a. Crimes committed in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379
the President . and section 2, chapter 2, title VII, Book two of the RPC
d. All of the choices b. Civil and criminal cases filed pursuant to and in
461. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an connection with executive order nos. 1, 2, 14 and 14-
accused is: A.
a. Motion to quash c. Crimes committed by public official in relation to their
b. Nolle pro sequi office.
c. Motion to dismiss d. None of the choices
d. bill of particulars 472. Civil liability arising from the offense charged is deemed
462. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish instituted upon the filing of criminal action in court as provided
or the termination of the power to prosecute or punish the by Rule 111 of Rules of Court. In what instances can a civil
offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the action for recovery of civil liability can be separated?
commission of the offense. a. When the offended party waives the civil action;
a. Prescription of crime b. When the offended party reserves his right to
b. acquisitive institute the civil action;
c. prescription of penalty c. When the institution of the civil action is made prior
d. extinctive to the criminal action.
463. It is one of the grounds for motion to quash. It is the danger of d. all of the choices
being prosecuted for the same offense for the second time. 473. Alden Richard, a Mayor of Valenzuela together with engineer
a. double jeopardy Maine Mendoza and Councilor Sipag were surveying the land
b. double trial occupied by informal settlers for government projects and for
c. double trouble their relocation. The residents oppose with the plan. Mrs.
d. double counter Lourdes, one of the residents, slapped the face of Mayor Alden
464. Provisional dismissal of offense punishable by imprisonment when the latter came near. One of the close escorts of the
not exceeding six years or a fine of any amount or both shall Mayor defends her but Mrs. Lourdes also slapped him and
become permanent after ____. punched as well. For what crime Mrs. Lourdes can be charged
a. one year for in relation to Mayor Alden?
b. 2 years a. Sedition
c. 5 years b. Slander by Deeds
d. 4 years c. Direct Assault
465. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the d. Rebellion
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall 474. The following qualifies Direct Assault, EXCEPT:
order a pre-trial conference? a. The assault is committed with a weapon
a. 30 days b. The offender is a public officer or employee
b. 15 days c. The offender lays hands upon a person in authority
c. 20 days d. The offender seriously intimidating or resisting a
d. 60 days person in authority
466. How many days are given to an accused person to prepare for e. It should be noted that the assault should be mad
trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? without public uprising.

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475. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an a.impossible crimes
individual or as a member of some court or government b.aggravating circumstances
corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____? c.absolutory causes
a. Agent of a person in authority d.complex crimes
b. Judicial authority 485. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if
c. person in authority it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
d. Public employee a.compound crime
476. It is committed by any person who shall resist or seriously b.impossible crime
disobey any person in authority, or the agents of such person, c.complex crime
while engaged in the performance of official functions. d.accidental crime
a. Direct assault 486. The law which re-imposed the death penalty.
b. Indirect Assault a.RA 5425
b.RA 8553
c.RA 7659
c. Disobedience to summons issued by the National d.RA 9346
Assembly 487. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its
d. Resistance & disobedience to a person in authority or owner or author
the agents of such person a.responsibility
477. The following are crimes classified as public disorders, EXCEPT. b.duty
a. Tumults and other disturbances of public order c.guilt
b. Unlawful use of means of publication and lawful d.imputability
utterances 488. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
c. Alarms and scandals although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies
d. Delivering prisoners form Jails beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
e. None of the choices a.fortuitous event
478. Mr. Lambat while under the influence of liquor fired a gun in b.fate
the air to proclaim to the people that he is celebrating his c.accident
birthday. Such act constitutes ___? d.destiny
a. illegal discharge of firearm 489. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices,
b. alarm & scandals usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our
c. disturbances country.
d. outcry a.penal laws
479. Mrs. Gloria., a sister of Mr. Sicia D (a sentenced prisoner), gave b.special laws
20K to the Jail Warden to facilitate or allow the escape of her c.common laws
brother is guilty of what crime? d.statutory laws
a. Evasion of service of sentence 490. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the
b. delivering prisoners from jail crime any of all the conditions that would make an act.
c. Bribery Voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there
d. Corruption of public official is civil liability
a.Exempting
480. The following circumstances qualifies the crime of evasion of b.alternative
service of sentence. c.justifying
a. By means of unlawful entry d.aggravating
b. By breaking doors, windows, gates, walls, roofs or 491. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance
floors. with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
c. By using picklocks, false keys, disguise, deceit, a.exempting
violence or intimidation. b.alternative
d. Through connivance with other convicts or c.justifying
employees of the penal institution. d.aggravating
e. All of the choices 492. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim
481. Within how many days after arraignment and from the date the suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the accused shall pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
order a pre-trial conference? a.Ignominy
a. 30 days b.cruelty
b. 20 days c.treachery
d.masochism
c. 15 days
493. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
d. 60 days previously convicted by final judgment of another crime
482. How many days is given to an accused person to prepare for embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
trial after a plea of not guilty is entered? a.Recidivism
a. 15 days b.habitual delinquency
b. 30 days c.reiteracion
c. 20 days d.quasi-recidivism
d. 180 days 494. Alevosia means
a. Craft
483. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted
b. treachery
except upon a complaint filed by whom?
c. evident premeditation
a.Parents d. cruelty
b.Offended Spouse 495. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
c.Guardians render judgment after a fair trial.
d.God father a. ex post facto law
484. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of b. equal protection of the law
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. c. rule of law
d. due process of law

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 506. Any evidence which is obtained in violation of any rights of a
496. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his person will not be admissible in court. This is anchored on what
release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious requisites of admissibility?
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is
a. a. materiality
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
a. Recidivist b. relevancy
b. quasi-recidivist c. competency
c. habitual delinquent d. credibility
d. hardened criminal 507. Evidence which the witness states that he did not see or know
497. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is of the factual occurrences what kind of evidence?
intended. a. negative
a. Aberratio ictus
b. affirmative
b. Error in personae
c. Dura Lex Sed lex c. positive
d. Praeter Intentionem d. Alibi
498. It means mistake in the blow. 508. An additional evidence of different kind tending to prove the
a. Aberratio Ictus same facts in issue. Evidence which are supplementary to that
b. Error in Personae already given and tending to strengthen or confirm it.
c. Dura lex sed lex a. Corroborative
d. Praeter Intentionem
b. Associative
499. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present. c. Commulative
a. Attempted d. Credible
b. Frustrated 509. Is the one required to prove a criminal case. It refers to the
c. Consummated logical and inevitable result of the evidence on record, exclusive
d. Accomplished of any other consideration, of the moral certainty of the guilt of
500. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
the accused or that degree of proof which produces conviction
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
a. Absolutory Cause in an unprejudiced mind.
b. Mistake of facts a. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Conspiracy b. Clear and Convincing Evidence
d. Felony c. Preponderance of evidence
501. It is the means, sanctioned by these rules of ascertaining in a d. Substantial evidence
judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact? 510. It is that proof which, if unexplained or uncontradicted, is
a. Evidence sufficient to sustain the proposition it supports or to establish
b. Facts the facts or to counterbalance the presumptions of innocence
c. Proof to warrant a conviction.
d. Burden of proof a. Prima-facie evidence
502. It is the ultimate facts or the facts in issue or to be proved. It is b. Preponderance of evidence
the essential facts constituting the plaintiff’s cause of action? c. Rebuttal evidence
a. Factum probandum d. Sur-rebuttal evidence
b. Evidence 511. Court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of
c. factum probans evidence of the following, EXCEPT:
d. proof a. Matters of Public Knowledge
503. The rules of evidence shall be _____, except as otherwise b. Law of nation
provided by law or these rules. c. The measure of time
a. the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings d. Law of nature
b. not the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings 512. Court may take judicial notice of the following exercise of its
c. dependent on the type of case involved discretion, EXCEPT:
d. absolutely the same in all courts and in all trials and a. The geographical divisions
hearings b. Matter which are of public knowledge
504. Relevancy is one of the requisites for admissibility of evidence c. Matters capable of unquestionable demonstration; or
which means that evidence must have such relation to the fact d. Matter ought to be known to judges because of their
in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence. The judicial functions.
other requisite is ____? 513. When can proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a
a. That it should not be excluded for by law party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow the
b. That it is material to the facts in issue parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a
c. That it is credible material issue in the case?
d. That it is the best evidence a. after the trial
505. Evidence must be relevant in order to be admissible hence, b. before judgment
collateral matters are not allowed. Except: c. on appeal
a. When it tends in any reasonable degree to establish d. all of the choices
the probability or improbability of the fact in issue. 514. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an
b. When it is competent acknowledgment of guilt made by a party in the course of the
c. When it is credible proceeding in the same case which does not require proof.
d. When it has the ability to prove the facts in issue a. Admission
based on other related evidence b. declaration against interest
c. self-serving statement

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515. Evidence that is directly addressed to the senses of the court.
a. Real or Object
b. Testimonial
c. Documentary
d. Direct
516. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document no
evidence shall be admissible other than the original documents
itself. This refers to the ___.
a. Best Evidence Rule
b. Secondary Evidence Rule
c. Parole Evidence Rule
d. Best Evidence
517. What are the exemptions to the best evidence rule:
a. When the original has been lost or destroyed orunder
cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the
part of the offeror;
b. When the original is in the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or
other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be
established from them is only the general result of
the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of
the public officer or is recorded in a public office.
e. All of the choices
518. When the original document has been lost or destroyed, or
cannot be reproduced in court, the offeror, upon proof of its
execution or existence and the cause of its unavailability
without bad faith on his part, may prove its contents by a copy,
or by a recital of its contents in some authentic document or by
the testimony of witnesses in the order stated.
a. Secondary Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Secondary Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
519. When secondary evidence is allowed?
a. When the original has been lost, destroyed or cannot
be produced in court, without bad faith on the part of
the offeror;
b. When the original is under the custody or under the
control of the party against whom the evidence is
offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice;
c. When the original consist of numerous accounts or
other documents which cannot be examined in court
without great loss of time and the fact sought to be
established from them is only the general result of
the whole; and
d. When the original is a public record in the custody of
a public officer or is recorded in a public office
e. All of the choices
520. What are secondary evidence?
a. A Certified True COPY of a document
b. A recital of its contents in some authentic document
c. Testimony of witnesses
d. All of the choices
521. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon
and there can be, as between the parties and their successors
G.S.T. 2019
in interest, no evidence of such terms other than the contents
of the agreement.
a. Parol Evidence Rule
b. Best Evidence Rule
c. Parol Evidence
d. Secondary Evidence
522. It refers to an evidence of oral or written statement of a party
presented as evidence to modify, explain or add to the terms of
the written agreement.
a. Parol Evidence
b. Secondary Evidence
c. Best Evidence
d. Parole Evidence Rule
523. On which of the following circumstances parol evidence can be
accepted?
a. When there is an intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or
imperfection in the written agreement;
b. The fulfillment of the written agreement to express
the true intent and agreement of the parties thereto;
c. The validity of the written agreement;
d. The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties
or their successors in interest after the execution of
the written agreement.
524. The following are qualifications for discharged of a person to be
state witness.
a. There is absolute necessity for the testimony of the
accused whose discharge is requested;
b. There is no other direct evidence available for the
proper prosecution for the offense committed except
the testimony of said accused;
c. The testimony of said accused can be substantially
corroborated in its material points;
d. Said accused appear to be the most guilty;
e. Said accused has not at any time been convicted of an
offense involving moral turpitude;
525. R.A. 1405 is the law which prohibits the disclosure or
examination of bank deposits. As a general rule bank deposits
are absolutely confidential in nature and may not examined or
inquired or looked into by any person or government officials,
EXCEPT:
a. upon written permission of the depositor
b. in cases of impeachment
c. upon order of competent court in cases of briber,
dereliction of duty of public officials
d. in case where the money deposited or invested is the
subject matter of litigation
e. in cases of well explained wealth
526. No person may be compelled to testify against his parents,
other direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants.
This is embodied under what principle?
a. Parental and filial privilege
b. declaration against pedigree
c. declaration against common reputation
d. declaration against Parental relationship
527. An offer of compromise is considered not an admission of any
liability and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror on
the following case, EXCEPT:
a. In civil cases
b. Those arising from criminal negligence
c. An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or
other expenses occasioned by an injury
d. In criminal cases
528. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. secondary evidence
b. prima facie evidence
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 c.corroborative evidence 540. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign territorial
d. Cumulative evidence jurisdiction which generally follows the Nationality Principle
529. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted and not the Domiciliary Principle except when the crime
is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed. committed on board vessels affects the national security of the
a.secondary evidence Country where such vessel is located.
b.prima facie evidence a. French Rule
c.corroborative evidence b. English Rule
d.best evidence c. Spanish Rule
530. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived d. Greek Rule
from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are 541. A legislative act that inflicts punishment without trial, its
represented on material substances. essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for a judicial
a.documentary evidence determination of guilt.
b.testimonial evidence a. Ex post facto law
c.material evidence b. Retroactivity
d.real evidence c. Bill of attainder
531. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
d. Prospective
occurrence of a fact.
a. positive evidence 542. Which of the following is NOT an element of the Crime of Dolo
b. corroborative evidence or Deceit?
c. secondary evidence a. Intent
d. negative evidence b. Freedom
532. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and c. Intelligence
render judgment after a fair trial. d. Negligence
a.ex post facto law 543. These are crimes which are NOT considered bad in itself but the
b.equal protection of the law doer is found to have transgress the law for act which it
c.rule of law prohibits.
d.due process of law a. Crime
533. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary source of b. Felonies
criminal laws in the Philippines. It approved on? c. Mala in se
a. January 1, 1923 d. Mala Prohibita
b. January 1, 1932 544. Is that act performed which would be an offense against
c. December 8, 1930 persons or property where it not for the inherent or legal
d. January 1, 1933 impossibility of its accomplishment.
534. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is a. Mala in se
intended. b. mala prohibita
a. Aberratio ictus c. Impossible crime
b. Error in personae d. Formal crimes
c. Dura Lex Sed lex 545. It is the moving power or which impels a person to act and not
d. Praeter Intentionem an essential element of a crime but would tend to establish the
535. Is that branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of identity of the perpetrator.
their nature and provides for their punishment? a. Intent
a. Act 3815 b. Motive
b. Criminal Law c. Negligence
c. Revised Penal Code d. ignorance
d. Criminal Procedure 546. The following are causes which would produce criminal liability
536. Criminal law is binding on all persons who live or sojourn in though the result be different from what is intended, EXCEPT:
Philippine territory regardless of sex, race or religious a.Abberatio ictus
affiliation. EXCEPT matters covered by: b.Error in Personae
a. Treaty Stipulation c.Preater intentionem
b. Public International Law d.Ignorantia Facti
c. Law of Preferential Application 547. The offender performs all the acts of execution that would
d. All of the choices produce the felony as a consequence but the felony is not
537. By Principles of Public International law, the following enjoin produced by reason of causes independent of the will of the
immunity from the application of the Philippine Criminal law, perpetrator.
EXCEPT: a. Attempted
a. Consul b. Consummated
b. Heads of State c. Frustrated
c. Ambassador d. Formal Crimes
d. d. Minister de affaires 548. Refers to crimes consummated in one instant or by a single act.
538. Acts or omission punishable by public law commanding or a.formal crimes
forbidding it: b.formal felonies
a. Crimes c.informal crimes
b. Felonies d.material crimes
c. Offense 549. It exists when two or more persons come to an agreement to
d. Infractions of law commit a felony and decide to commit it.
539. Is the theory in criminal law in which the basis of criminal a. Proposal
liability is human free will, the purpose of punishment is b. Conspiracy
retribution and is generally exemplified in the Revised Penal c. A & B
Code. d. Cuadrilla
a. Eclectic 550. A deduction of one-fifth of the period of his sentence shall be
b. Classical Theory granted to any prisoner who, having evaded the service of his
c. Positivist Theory sentence during calamity, gives himself up to the authorities
d. Neo-Classical Theory within 48 hours following the issuance of a proclamation
announcing the passing away of the calamity.

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 a. Good Conduct Time Allowance d. Suppressive Detention
b. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty 562. A penalty that deprive the offender of his (1) rights of parental
c. Executive Clemency authority, or guardianship;(2) Marital authority; (3) The right to
d. Indeterminate Sentence manage his property; and (4) The right to dispose of such
551. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute property by any act or any conveyance inter vivos.
the final sentence after the lapse of certain time. a. Absolute disqualification
a. Prescription of Crime b. Temporary disqualification
b. Prescription of Penalty c. Bond to keep the peace
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime d. Civil interdiction
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the 563. It is a punishment whereby a convict is banished to a certain
commission of crime place and is prohibited from entering or coming near that place
552. The forfeiture or loss of the right of the State to prosecute the designated in the sentence, not less than 25 kilometers but not
offender after the lapse of certain time. to extend beyond 250 kilometers.
a. Prescription of Crime a. Transportation
b. Prescription of Penalty b. Deportation
c. Forfeiture of the Proceeds of Crime c. Destierro
d. Confiscation of tools or equipment used in the d. Extradition
commission of crime 564. Penalties according to their gravity are as follows, except:
553. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and a. Capital
sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the b. Afflictive
court and to the supervision of a probation officer. c. Correctional
a. Parole d. Slight
b. Pardon e. Light
c. Probation 565. Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the imposition of
d. Amnesty penalty:
554. Known as the “Indeterminate Sentence Law” or the Parole Law. a. Retribution or expiation
a. Act No. 4103 as amended b. Correction or reformation
b. RA No. 4103 as amended c. Social defense
c. RA No. 4225 as amended d. Public Rataliation
d. PD No. 968 as amended 566. The punishment imposed by lawful authority upon a person
555. What is the penalty of impossible crime? (Art. 59) who commits a deliberate or negligent act which is against the
a. Arresto Menor law.
b. Arresto Mayor a. Penalty
c. Prision Correctional b. Ordeal
d. Prision Mayor c. Fine
556. It provides that the maximum duration of convict’s sentence d. Imprisonment
shall not be more than 3 times the length of the most severe of 567. Article 20 provides for the exemption as accessories from
the penalties imposed upon him but in no case to exceed 40 criminal liability, EXCEPT:
years. a. Natural brother/ sister
a. Three-fold rule b. Legitimate brother/ sister
b. Three-fold liability rule c. Adopted brother/ sister
c. Four-fold rule d. Brother-in-Law/ Sister-in-Law
d. Four-fold liability rule e. Brother in a fraternity
557. In case the offender cannot pay the fine, he shall serve the 568. One who: (a) concurs with the criminal design of the principals
same in prison and shall be credited ___ for each day of by direct participation; (b) cooperates in the execution of the
subsidiary imprisonment. offense by previous or simultaneous acts, with the intention of
a. Php 8.00 supplying material or moral aid in the execution of the crime in
b. Php 12.00 an efficacious way.
c. Php 35. 00 a. Principal by indispensable cooperation
d. Highest minimum wage existing in the country b. Principal by inducement
558. It is the expenses of litigation allowed by the Rules of Court to c. Accomplice
be assessed against or to be recovered by a party in litigation. d. Accessory
a. Costs 569. Principal who materially execute the crime. He appears at the
b. Fine crime scene and performs acts necessary in the commission of
c. Damages the crime.
d. Civil liability a. Principal by inducement/ induction
559. Who may grant pardon? b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
a. The President c. Principal by direct participation
b. The private offended party d. Principal by conspiracy
c. The accused 570. Who are criminally liable?
d. The People of the Philippines a. Principals
560. If the detention prisoner does not agree to abide by the same b. Accomplices
disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted prisoners, the c. Accessories
credited preventive imprisonment is d. All of the choices
a. Fulltime credit 571. Those which must be taken into consideration as aggravating or
b. 4/5 credit mitigating according to the nature and effects of the crime and
c. 2/3 credit the other conditions attending its commission.
d. 1/5 credit a. Extenuating
561. Period of detention undergone by an accused where the crime b. Mitigating
with which he is charged is non‐bailable or, even if bailable, he c. Alternative
is unable to post the requisite bail. (Art. 39) d. Aggravating
a. Solitary confinement 572. It pertains to the moral order, which adds disgrace to the
b. Preventive imprisonment material injury caused by the crime. It adds insult to injury or
c. Inmate incarceration

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 adds shame to the natural effects of the crime. It shocks the a. Arbitrary detention
moral conscience of man. b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
a. Cruelty proper authorities
b. Ignominy c. Delaying release
c. Outraging d. Illegal Detention
d. Scoffing 583. Committed by a public officer who detains a person for some
573. Husband A treating his wife B and his child as a sex object, also legal ground but fails to deliver such person to the proper
forcing to watch obscene indecent shows .Is A committed crime authority w/n the prescribed time.
of Violence Against Women and Their Children? a. Arbitrary detention
a. Maybe NO b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
b. Yes proper authorities
c. No c. Delaying release
d. Maybe YES d. Illegal Detention
574. The offense of gathering, transmitting, or losing information 584. A crime committed by a public officer who unduly delays the
respecting the national defense with intent, or there is reason release of a person in his custody in spite of a judicial/
to believe that information is to be used to the injury of the executive order to release him.
Republic of the Philippines or to the advantage of any foreign a. Arbitrary detention
nation. b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the
a. Treason proper authorities
b. Rebellion c. Delaying release
c. Espionage d. Illegal Detention
d. Mutiny 585. A public officer who without authority compels a person to
575. Other acts constituting the crime of espionage are punishable change his residence is guilty of
under a. Grave Coercion
a. BP No. 616 b. Grave Threat
b. PD No. 616 c. Expulsion
c. CA No. 616 d. Violation of Domicile
d. RA No. 616 586. A public officer who procures a search warrant without just
576. Committed when two countries are at war of which the cause is liable of
Philippines is not involved and the offender violates the a. Abuse in the service of search warrant
regulation issued by the government enforcing neutrality. b. Warrant maliciously obtained
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal c. Searching domicile without witnesses
b. Violation of neutrality d. Violation of Domicile
c. Correspondence with hostile country 587. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the
d. Flight to enemy’s country Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer,
577. A person who wrote a letter to an official of an enemy country commanding him to SEARCH for personal property described
despite government prohibition is liable of this crime. therein and bring it before the court.
a. Inciting to war/ giving motive for reprisal a. Warrant of Arrest
b. Violation of neutrality b. Search Warrant
c. Correspondence with hostile country c. Subpoena
d. Flight to enemy’s country d. Summons
578. Robbery or depredation in the high seas, without lawful 588. In the case of People Vs Thomas Sr, the Supreme Court in the
authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and appreciation of that a paraffin test has been held to be highly
intention of universal hostility. a. Accepted
a. Mutiny
b. Determinate
b. Piracy
c. Sea-jacking c. Sensitive
d. Hi-jacking d. Unreliable
579. The axe gang are raping women in all the places they go from 589. To be eligible for the grant of conditonal pardon what portion of the
Batanes to Sulu. Their acts sow and created a widespread and sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner?
extra-ordinary fear and panic among the populace. They a. Atleast one half of the minimum of his indeterminate
demanded from the government to release all prisoners entire sentence
the country for them to stop raping. Are they liable for
b. Atleast one half of the maximum of his indeterminate
terrorism?
a. Yes sentence
b. No c. Atleast one fourth of the maximum of his indeterminate
c. Doubtful sentence
d. No answer d. Atleast one third of the minimum of his indeterminate
580. Which of the following is not a form of arbitrary detention? sentence
a. Detaining a person without legal ground 590. What is the oldest written penal law of the Philippines?
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the a. Codigo Penal
proper authorities b. Code of Kalantiao
c. Delaying release c. Code of Hammurabi
d. Illegal Detention d. Maragtas Code
581. A crime committed by a public officer/ employee who detains a 591. How penal laws are construed when the law is vague?
person without legal ground. a. Liberally in favor of the government
a. Arbitrary detention b. Liberally in favor of the offended party
b. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the c. Liberally in favor of the accused
proper authorities d. Liberally in favor of the innocent
c. Delaying release 592. Refers to crimes which are wrongful in their nature thus
d. Illegal Detention requires the highest condemnation of the society.
e. No crime a. Crimes mala prohibita
582. A crime committed by a private individual who detains a person b. Crimes mala in se
without legal ground. c. Crimes supersedeas

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 d. Crimes flagrante delicto c. completely reliable source and is
593. This rule recognizes that the host country has jurisdiction over Usually reliable
crimes committed on board the vessel unless they involve the d. completely reliable source and is confirmed by other
internal management of the vessel. sources
a. American Rule 602. Seeing ahead and making sound assumption?
b. English Rule a. prioritizing
c. French Rule b. foretelling
d. Filipino Rule c. forecasting
594. Literally, “friend of the court”. Are experienced and impartial d. documenting
attorneys that may be invited by the court to appear as amicus 603. This Police Station activity increases the number of arrest of
curiae’ criminal syndicate member?
a. investigation
a. Champertous contract b. intelligence
b. Amicus curiae c. crime search
c. Amicus curiea d. patrol
d. Champertuos contract 604. Which agent who has reached the enemy and able to get
595. A contract whereby the lawyer agrees to pay the expenses of information and would be managed to get back?
litigation in return for the agreement of the client to pay the a. mercenary
lawyer a portion of the thing or property that might be won or b. none
recovered in the trial or litigation. This is unethical for the c. penetration
lawyer and hence illegal. d. assassin
605. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?
a. Champertous contract a. trumpet
b. Amicus curiae b. siren
c. Amicus curiea c. horn
d. Champertuos contract d. radio
596. The practice of filing multiple suits on different courts based on 606. The act of expelling squatters by the legal process is called?
the same cause of action. This is not allowed and is a ground for a. tear down
dismissal of the case filed by the guilty party. b. eviction
c. squadron
a. contempt d. demolition
607. H refers to the importance of the establishment with reference
b. forum shipping
to the national economy and security?
c. forum shopping
a. risk analysis
d. direct contempt
b. relative critically
597. It is a small ceremonial mallet  commonly made of hardwood, and a c. risk assessment
symbol of the authority and right to act officially in the capacity of d. relative vulnerability
a chair or presiding officer. 608. There were 750 rape cases in 2010, as against 928 in 2011.
a. Gavel What was the percent increase?
b. Hammer a. +27.3%
c. Wood hammer b. +23.7%
598. The constitution provides for the prescribed dress code of all c. +37.2%
judges and it is called as. d. +32.7%
a. Black robes 609. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
b. Black toga a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
c. Black dress b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
d.White robes c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
599. It is the lists of cases that are scheduled to be heard on a d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
particular day usually placed or posted outside the courtroom. 610. The importance of the firm or installation with reference
to the national economy or security:
a. Court calendar a. Relative security
b. Supreme Court calendar b. Relative necessity
c. School calendar c. Relative criticality
d. Schedule calendar d. Relative vulnerability
600. Contempt committed in the presence of or so near a court or 611. These are the major courses of action that the
judge as to obstruct or interrupt proceedings before it. organization plans to take in order to achieve its
a. contempt objectives.
b. direct contempt a. Procedures
c. indirect contempt b. Strategies
d. disobedience c. Plans
d. Objectives
612. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders but
Law Enforcement they offer advice. Frequently this advice is based on the
high level of expertise, but the advice carries no formal

Administration
requirement of acceptance.
a. Democracy
b. Functional authority
601. A-2 in Intelligence report means? c. Line authority
a. usually reliable source and is confirmed by other sources d. Staff authority
613. The __________ means controlling the direction and flow
b. completely reliable source and is of decisions through unity of command from top to
Probably true bottom organization.

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 a. Audit d. counter-intelligence
b. Coordination 623. The effectiveness and efficiency of the patrol function can
c. Monitoring be enhanced if there is detailed and up-to date information about
d. Authority crime and criminals. This calls for the establishment of:
614. PO III Peter Factor is assigned to collect available a. patrol base headquarters
information concerning the activities of the Red Scorpion b. crime information center
Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police? c. management information center
a. anti – juvenile delinquency d. public information office
b. criminal investigation 624. Planning cannot be undertaken without referring to
c. intelligence operations ________ on the entire police organization, community, crime,
d. patrol activities equipment inventories, personal data, etc.
615. Intelligence can and should do nothing more than.
a. costs
a. promote better police-citizen interaction
b. data
b. enhance the probability of accuracy in report writing
c. plans
c. improve administration efficiency particularly in
d. statement
recruitment and selection
625. New employees should be briefed on security rules and
d. increase the number of arrests of criminal syndicate
members regulations of the organization and the importance of observing
616. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report them. This process is called:
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? a. security information
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is b. security reminders
possibly true c. security orientation
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is d. security investigation
improbable 626. What plans require action or assistance from persons or
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is agencies outside the police organization?
probably true a. tactical plan
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is b. extra department plan
doubtfully true c. management plan
617. PO III Juan Tupaz submitted an intelligence report d. all of these
evaluated as B – 5. What does that mean? 627. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law abiding
a. information is usually from a reliable source and is citizens feeling of security but the reaction of fear for the
possibly true would be violators.
b. information is usually from a reliable source and is a. double-officer patrol
improbable b. single-officer patrol
c. information is usually from a reliable source and is c. low visibility patrol
probably true d. high visibility patrol
d. information is usually from a reliable source and is 628. The transfer of heat from one material to another by
doubtfully true direct contact is called _______?
618. Who may be automatically granted height waiver, as a. oxidation
provided under Section 15 of Republic Act No. 8551? b. convection
a. Police retirables requesting for extension of service. c. conduction
b. Member of the cultural minorities duly certified by d. radiation
the appropriate government agency. 629. How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
c.Government employees wishing to transfer to the irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and little
PNP chance of detection?
d.Graduates of Criminology
a. systematic pilferer
619. Plans which require action or assistance from persons or
b. ordinary pilferer
agencies outside the police organization. c. casual pilferer
a. management plans d. unusual pilferer
b. operational plans 630. An appeal filed with the Napolcom Regional Appellate
c. tactical plans Board shall be decided within ______ days from receipt of the
d. extra-department plan
nation appeal.
620. Protection of classified document concerning their
a. fifty
preparation, classification, reproduction, handling, transmission,
b. twenty
disposal and destruction. c. thirty
a. document security d. sixty
b. operational security 631. In the intelligence functions, the black list includes
c. physical security ________ forces.
d. organizational security
a. unwanted
621. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed
b. friendly
between the potential intruder and the objects, persons and c .neutral
matters being protected? d. unfriendly
a. document security 632. The first step in the planning process is to recognize the
b. communications security need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way to
c. physical security discovering the need to plan?
d. personnel security
a. conduct of research
622. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of
b. conduct of training
operation used in the planning and objects, persons and matters
c. conduct of inspection
being protected?
d. conduct of management audit
a. military intelligence
b. strategic intelligence
c. combat intelligence

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 633. The special formations used in crowd control include
the wedge, diagonal and deployed line. When a crowd is
small enough not to require a squad, then the formation is:
a. diagonal
b. wedge
c. deployed line
d. clockwise
634. Under this principle, the chief executive directly controls
two to ten subordinates, who then control two to ten
subordinates each and so on until the bottom of the
organization is reached.
a. scalar principle
b. exception principle
c. unity of command
d. span of control
635. What is meant by an evaluation of C-1?
a. information comes from an unreliable source and is
probably true
b. information comes from a fairly reliable source and
is confirmed by other sources
c. information comes from an unreliable source and is
improbable
d.information comes from an unreliable source and is
doubtfully true
636. Under physical security, what should be placed between
the prospective intruder and target installation?
a. Hazard
b. Net
c. Risk
d. Barrier
637. Mr. Jun de las Alas was born on June 1, 1975. Does he
meet the age requirement for entry to the police service
in June 1999?
a. No, but he can apply for age waiver
b. Yes, he is only 24 years old and is within the age
requirement
c. Yes, he meets the maximum age requirement
d. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
638. A police officer who manages a police station must use all
of the following skills, EXCEPT.
a. conceptual
b. technical
c. interpersonal
d. communication
639. The planning process generally consists of five (5) steps in
sequential order. (Which is the first step?)
a. formulation of details of the plan
b. recognition of the need to plan
c. setting up planning objectives
d. gathering and analysis of data
640. In the PNP organization what do you mean by RCA:
a. Renewal Clothing Allowance
b. Recollection Clothing Allowance
c. Replacement Clothing Allowance
d. Reimbursement Clothing Allowance
641.These are barbed wires placed above a vertical fence
in order to increase physical protection of establishment or
installations.
a. top tower
b. top guard
c. cellar guard
d. tower guard house
642. What is the next planning step after the need to plan is
recognized?
a. evaluate alternatives
b. formulate the objective
c. execute the plan
d. analyze the data
G.S.T. 2019
643. This type of patrol performs certain specific,
predetermined preventive strategies in a regular and
systematic basis.
a. apprehension-oriented patrol
b. low visibility patrol
c. split-force patrol
d. directed deterrent patrol
644. Among the following applicants for appointment to the
police service, who may be automatically granted height
waiver?
a. government employees wishing to transfer to the
PNP
b. members of cultural minorities duly certified by the
appropriate government agency
c. police retirables requesting for extension of service
d. graduate of criminology
645. The following changes must be made in police operating
procedures if the investigative skills of patrol personnel are to be
employed to their fullest advantage EXCEPT.
a. patrol supervisor should insists that patrol officers
simply make a brief report and return to patrol duties
rather than complete their investigations
b. patrol officers should be better trained and
equipped to conduct routine investigations
c. patrol officers should be encouraged to devote
more time to the investigation of crimes to which they
respond
d. the patrol supervision should be able to provide
the patrol officer with assistance in determining
whether a case has sufficient merit to warrant
immediate follow-up investigation by the patrol
officer
646. The more complex the organization, the more highly
specialized the division of work, the greater the need for:
a. cleaner delineation of functions
b. coordinating authority
c. strictly line discipline
d. finer division of supervision
647. The ________ differs from routine patrol methods in that
patrol officers perform certain specific, predetermined
preventive strategies on a regular and systematic basis.
a. low-visibility patrol
b. directed deterrent patrol
c. split force patrol
d. apprehension-oriented patrol
648. PO II Carlo Y. Alba and PO I Anglelo S. Suba report only to
one (1) supervisor. This is the principle of _______________.
a. unity of command
b. delegation of authority
c. span of control
d. report to immediate superior
649. PO III Serafin B. Alta frequents clubs, places of
amusement and entertainment known to be habitually
visited by his subject and his subject’s associates. PO III
Alta’s undercover assignment is called.
a. multiple assignment
b. social assignment
c. work assignment
d. dwelling assignment
650. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. classified information must not be discussed by one
friends and members of the family
b. classified information should be known only by one
person
c. cabinets with classified documents must be secured
with padlocks and security measures at all time
d. all classified documents must be safeguarded
651. Assessing organizational strengths and weakness is
usually known as:
a. force field analysis
b. Delphi technique
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 c. simulation model 662. Selling security within the organization sets and maintains a
d. forecasting climate of _______ to the appreciation of the
652. These regulations establish the specifications of uniform department’s objectives.
and the manner in which they are to be worn: a. participation
a. personnel transaction regulations b. clear
b. firearms regulations c. understanding
c. uniform regulations d. collaboration
d. equipment regulations 663. Mr. Jaime del S. Rio was born on May 1, 1975, does he meet
the age requirement for entry to the police service in
653. Police visibility in strategic and crime prone areas June 2002?
projects ________ thus, an effective crime prevention a. No, he has exceeded the maximum age requirement
strategy. b. Yes, he is only 27 years old and is within the age
a. police omnipresence requirement
b. police effectiveness c. No, but he can apply for age waiver
c. police discretion d. Yes, he meets the maximum education requirement
d. police authority 664. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is
654. Which of the following trait or ability is most important “the information comes from a completely reliable source
for a police officer? and is probably true”?
a. personnel integrity and honesty a. B-2
b. physical stamina and bearing b. A-2
c. courageous c. A-3
d .high intelligence d. A 1
655. In 2001, there were 200, 450 crimes reported to the 665. In 2001, physical injuries numbered 12,500 out of a total
Police Station of Municipality A. If the population of crime volume of 60,500. What percent of the total crime
Municipality is 5 Million, what is the crime rate? volume is attributed to physical injuries?
a. 3509 a. 18.7%
b. 4010 b. 20.7%
c. 4250 c. 25.7%
d. 4009 d. 4.8%
656. If a complaint or incident is NOT Fully disposed of as a 666. SPO I Edna E. Castro evaluated the information gathered
result of the first investigation, a _________ report should be as “completely reliable, source probably true”. What is
submitted. the type of evaluation?
a. investigation report a. A-5
b. case disposition report b. A-1
c. follow-up report c. A-4
d. crime report d. A-2
657.The advantages of a strong patrol are more than make up 667. It is ongoing process which ensures that new risks are
for slightly inferior performance. More patrolmen are then recognized and that established deterrents remain necessary
made available for emergency and the more active and and cost effective.
widespread the patrol, the more apparent is their presence, a. inspection
thus, promoting the impression of - b. interrogation
a. suspensions c. risk analysis
b. effectiveness d. evaluation
c. omnipresence 668. What type of patrol performs certain specific,
d. efficiency predetermined preventive strategies on a regular and
658. What is the importance of a firm or installation in the systematic basis?
relation to national security referred to? a. split-force patrol
a. relative security b. low visibility patrol
b. relative necessity c. apprehension-oriented
c. relative criticality d. directed deterrent patrol
d. relative vulnerability 669. A patrol beat refers to a:
659. When heat is transmitted by a circulating medium, the a. Number of crimes to be solved
method is called ____________. b. Number of residents to be protected
a. radiation c. Location of police headquarters
b. oxidation d. Geographical area to be patrolled
c. convection 670. It is importance of installation in relation to national
d. conduction security.
660. The __________ includes citizens who are cleared to a. relative criticality
attend meeting in Malacañang. b. relative indispensability
a. white list c. relative security
b. black list d. relative vulnerability
c. target list 671. It is the formal process of choosing the organization
d. access list mission and overall objective both the short and long
661. The attestation function over police appointment is term as well as the divisional and individual objectives
vested in the: based on the organizational objectives.
a. Civil Service Commission a. planning
b. National Police Commission b. organizing
c. Professional Regulations Commission c. directing
d. Department of Interior and Local Government d. managerial decision-making

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 672. A _________ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the d. authorized strength
anticipated arrival of a suspect who is either wanted 682. When police patrols are increased beyond normal
for investigation or who is expected to commit a crime levels, this is called ________?
at a certain location. a. reactive patrol
a. stake out b. directed deterrent patrol
b. cops and robbers game c. citizen patrol
c. follow up d. proactive patrol
d. surveillance 683. What is the method of collection of information wherein
673. How is the crew complement of a Mobile Patrol Division the investigator tails or shadows the persons or
organized into shifts for each duty? vehicles?
a. daily four-shift a. Research
b .daily five-shift b. Surveillance
c. one shift-daily c. Casing
d. daily three-shift d. Photography
674. The formulation of conclusions from the theory 684. Before a security expert can recommend what type of
developed, tested and considered valid as a result of security will needed by an industrial establishment, there is a
interpretation is called. need for him to undertake a :
a. collection a. security training
b. integration b. security check
c. evaluation c. security survey
d. deduction d. security education
675. In 2001, murder accounted for 10% of all index crimes. If 685. When one procures information about subject secretly;
the total index crimes were 25,000, how many were he is performing _______ collection method.
murder incidents? a. routine
a. 250 b. overt
b. 2,500 c. active
c. 500 d. covert
d. 5,000 686. Under this principle, each group reports to an
676. The more complex the organization, the more highly individual who is part of a supervisory group that answers
specialized the division of work, the greater the need to a higher supervisor and so on until a group of
for: administrators report to the chief executive.
a. cleaner delineation of functions a. unity of command
b. coordinating authority b. span of control
c. strictly line discipline c. scalar principle
d. finer division of supervision d. aggregation
677. The following questions are tests for accuracy of 687. Which of the following is NOT patrol pattern?
information, EXCEPT: a. clockwise
a. Does the report agree or disagree with available and b. zigzag
related intelligence? c. criss-cross
b. Is the reported fact or event known in advance d. stationary
c. Is it the same or consistent with known modus 688. To what unit do policeman in plain clothes belong when
operandi? they infiltrate and gather information about criminal
d. Is the information about the target or area of the syndicates?
operation? a. Budget
678. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or b. Planning
lahar cannot be prevented from occurring. To minimize c. Intelligence
the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the d. Patrol
security officer must prepare a: 689. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
a. guard deployment plan a. Performance evaluation measures credibility of
b. security education plan the police personnel.
c. civil defense plan b. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
d. disaster or emergency plan increases of promotion.
679. It involves segregation of deviants into isolated c. Performance evaluation is done once a year
among police personnel.
geographic areas so that they can easily be controlled.
d. Performance evaluation is implemented to
a. Coercion determine the quality of work performance of
b. Quarantine personnel.
c. Conversion 690. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation
d. Containment
section in police stations prepare their work programs in
680. What management principle provides that only one
which areas are called ___.
officer be in direct command or supervision of each
a. Budget
officer.
b. Management
a. span control c. Operational plans
b. unity of command d. Tactical plan
c. chain of command 691. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to
d. line of authority
capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of
681. What is referred to as total number of police officers
actions of foreign nations?
assigned to patrol duties?
a. combat intelligence
a. effective strength
b. national intelligence
b. mandatory strength
c. police intelligence
c. actual strength

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 d. strategic intelligence c. Routine preventive patrol
692. How are coded messages converted to intelligible d. Inspection of identified hazards
language? 703. Disaster preparedness and control plans should include
a. Encoding _______ so that people who are directly involved know
b. Processing the extent of the incident.
c. Labeling a. evacuation services
d. Decoding b. identification services
693. The type of undercover operation wherein techniques c. counseling services
are applied for a longer time and are considered as the most d. public information services
different (difficult) investigate activity, yet the most 704. An intelligence report classified as A-2
rewarding. means__________.
a. casing a.the information comes from a completely reliable
b. undercover operation source and is doubtfully true
c. penetration b. the information comes from a completely reliable
d. surveillance source and is probably true
694. As Security Director of Company B, you should know c.the information comes from a usually reliable source
how many beds, are normally available in a multiple injury and is and is probably true.
d.the information comes from a usually reliable source
situation and how many ________ patients can be processed
and is possibly true
at a single time. 705. It ensures the question “what is to be accomplish by
a. Wounded the plan?”
b. Emergency
a. objectives
c. Female
b. planning assumptions
d. Male
c. problems
695. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is
d. planning environment
determined through a process called _________. 706. The Neighborhood Team Policing exhibit the following
a. security training organizational features, EXCEPT:
b. security education
a. Unified delivery of services
c. security promotion
b. Low-level flexibility in decision-making
d. security investigation
c. Combined investigation and patrol functions
696.This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying
d. Unity of direction
in wait rather that upon high visibility patrol techniques? 707. Patrol Officers are useful in crime solution if they are
a. decoy patrol properly trained in criminal investigation. Which of the
b. high visibility patrol
following cannot be undertaken by them?
c. directed patrol
d. low visibility patrol a. He can locate and question the suspect if he
697. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at a apprehends him.
b. He can identify available evidences.
designated location and under specific circumstances?
c. He can take note of statements of the suspect.
a. management plans d. He can issue the treasury checks to fellow
b. tactical plans policemen.
c. operating plans 708. It is a physical security applied to business groups engaged
d. procedural plans
in industries, like manufacturing, assembling, research and
698. What type of organization consciously coordinates the
development, processing, warehousing and even
activities of two or more persons towards a given
agriculture.
objective?
a. operational security
a. flexible organization
b. formal organization b. industrial security
c. informal organization c. physical security
d. non-flexible organization d. special types
699. Who among the following meets the age qualification for 709. It is the broadest branch of security which is concerned with
appointment to the police service? the physical measures to prevent unauthorized access.
a. Rey who is 20 years old a. operational security
b. Dennis who is 17 years old b. industrial security
c. John who is 22 years old
c. physical security
d. Santi who is 35 years old
700. The covert observation of an area, a building or d. special types
stationary object in order to gain information is called: 710. Are the acts or conditions affecting the safe operation of the
a. undercover works facility caused by human action, accidental or intentional.
b. penetration a. security hazards
c. casing b. man-made hazard
d. surveillance c. natural hazard
701. If a fire in a warehouse is about to involve barrels of d. all of the above
bleaching powder, the greatest danger would be from: 711. Are those caused by natural phenomena which caused
a. fast-burning flare-up that could not be controlled damage, disturbance and problems of the normal
b. an explosion functioning of human activities, including security.
c. the impossibility of using water on the fire
a. security hazards
d. a toxic and irritant gas
702. Which of the following is not included in the patrol b. man-made hazard
function? c. natural hazard
a. Response to citizen calls d. all of the above
b. Investigation of crimes

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 712. It is the importance of the firm with reference to the d. exit conference
national economy and security. 722. . It is a fact finding probe to determine a plant’s
a. relative criticality adequacy and deficiency in all aspects of security.
b. relative vulnerability a. security inspections
c. all of the above b. security survey
d. non of the above c. special survey
713. One who steals with pre-conceived plans and takes away d. supplemental survey
any of all types of items or supplies for economic gain. 723. . It is the exposure and teaching of employees on security
a. pilferer and its relevance to their work.
b. casual pilferer a. security education
c. systematic pilferer b. security indoctrination
d. intruder c. security training
714. . A medium of structure which defines the physical limits d. security awareness
of an installation to restrict or impede access thereto. 724. . It is an authenticated list of personnel given to security
a. natural barrier allowing entry to a compound or installation thereof.
b. man-made barrier a. controlling
c. perimeter barrier b. access list
d. physical security c. exclusion area
715. . It is a type of perimeter barrier made of chain link with d. controlled area
mesh openings not larger that two inches square, and 725. . Any area, access to which is subject to special restriction
made or #9 gauge wire or heavier. control.
a. clear zone a. restricted area
b. bodies of water b. exclusion area
c. building wall c. controlled area
d. wire fence d. coverage factor
716. . It surmounted by the barbed wire top guards, and if the 726. . A restricted area containing materials or operation of
height is less than the prescribed, additional topping is security interest.
placed to attain the minimum height requirement. a. restricted area
a. clear zone b. exclusion area
b. bodies of water c. controlled area
c. building wall d. coverage factor
d. wire fence 727. It is the key elements in the security survey system of a
717. . An unobstructed area maintained on both sides of the plant or installation.
perimeter barrier. a. security guard
a. clear zone b. human guard
b. bodies of water c. company guard
c. building wall d. agency guard
d. wire fence 728. . It is a term used in England for lock pickers,
718. . He may issue or revoke licenses issued to security safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted rooms or
guards. areas.
a. Chief, PNP a. doppler effect
b. Mayor b. duress code
c. Governor c. peterman
d. Secretary, DILG d. fail safe
719. . It is an additional overhang barbed wire placed on 729. . A term applied to a device or system that in the event of
vertical perimeter fences facing upward and outward failure or a component, the incapacity will be signaled.
with a 45 degree angle with three to four strand of a. doppler effect
barbed wire. b. duress code
a. topping c. peterman
b. top guard d. fail safe
c. all of the above 730. . It is a practical test of a plan or any activity to test its
d. non of the above validity, it is also an operational readiness exercise.
720. . Are house like structure above the perimeter barriers, it a. dry run
give psychological effect to violators. b. run through
a. guard towers c. controlling
b. tower guards d. fire drill
c. guard house 731. . It is the susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
d. guard post damage, loss or disruption of operation due to various
721. . A conference or dialogue between the survey team and hazard.
management officials before security survey is a. relative criticality
conducted. b. relative vulnerability
a. pre- security survey c. all of the above
b. post- security survey d. non of the above
c. entrance conference

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 732. . It includes records that are irreplaceable, reproduction a. P50,000.00
of which does not have the same value as the original b. P100,000.00
records. c. P150,000.00
a. useful records d. P200,000.00
b. vital records 743. . PSAs with 100 guards must initially procure at least how
c. important records many firearms for use of its security guards.
d. non-essential records a. 10
733. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of b. 20
irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity? c. 30
a. casual pilferer d. 70
b. ordinary pilferer 744. . PSAs who have been applying for regular license to
c. systematic operate must have at least ___ pieces of licensed
d. unusual pilferer firearms.
734. . The extinguishment of fire by using water solution, and a. 10
the temperature is lowered below the burning point. b. 20
a. smothering c. 30
b. starving d. 70
c. cooling 745. . The stock of ammunitions of the PSAs shall not exceed a
d. all of the above basic load of how many rounds per unit of duly licensed
735. . It is a type of built-in sprinklers which works by the firearms.
increase of room temperature, and which automatically a. 20
operates the system to put out the fire. b. 12
a. wet pipe system c. 50
b. automatic sprinklers d. 25
c. dry pipe system 746. . This is quantity of ammunitions to be issued to
d. stand pipe system individual security guards.
736. . These fire results from the burning of wood, paper, a. 20
textiles and other carbonaceous materials. b. 12
a. Class “A” Fires c. 50
b. Class “B” Fires d. 25
c. Class “C” Fires 747. It is the only instances wherein PDAs & PSAs may be
d. Class “D” Fires allowed to use high powered firearms; except one.
737. . Private Security Agencies must be registered at what a. upsurge of lawlessness and criminality
government agency. b. upsurge of bank and armored bank robbery
a. DTI c. transporting big amount of money
b. PNP d. providing security to VIPs
c. CSC 748. . The prescribed high-powered firearms not exceed how
d. LGU many percent of the total number of guards employed.
738. It is the minimum guard requirements for the issuance a.5%
of temporary license. b.10%
a.100 c.15%
b.1,000 d.20%
c.50 749. . These are the qualifications of a licensed watchman or
d.200 security guard, EXCEPT:
739. . The regular security guard license is good for how many a. high school graduate
years? b. physically & mentally fit
a. 1 year c. 18 to 50 years of age
b. 2 years d. without pre-licensing training
c. 6 months 750. . There are two different ways in which security guards
d. 3 years are hired or employed, the company guard and the other
740. . It is the minimum capitalization for PSA. one is:
a. P1,000,000.00 a. government guards
b. P500,000.00 b. private security agency
c. P100,000.00 c .propriety guards
d. non of the above d. in-house guards
741. . It is the required minimum number of guards to operate 751. . This is an Act to Regulate the Organization and
company security forces. Operation of PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs.
a. 30 a. PD 603
b. 200 b. EO 292
c. 50 c. RA 5487
d.100 d. PD 968
742. . A PSA with 200 to 499 guards shall pay how much 752. . They are any person who offers or renders personal
amount of surety bond to a reputable insurance service to watch or secure either residential or business
company. establishment or both.

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 a. private detective b. 30
b. security guards c. 10
c. propriety guards d. 40
d. company guards 763. . __________ are included in the category of in-house
753. . Are any person who is not a member of the AFP or PNP, guards.
but involved in detective work. a. government guards
a. private detective b. private security agency
b. security guards c. propriety guards
c. propriety guards d. all of the above
d. company guards 764. . It is charge with the directing the work and observing
754. . It is any person who for hire or reward or on the behavior performance of the men under his unit.
commission, conducts or carries on or holds himself out
in carrying detective works. a. security guard
a. PDA b. security supervisor
b. PSA c. watchman
c. GSU c. security officer
d. CSF 765. . The following items must be stipulated in the security
755. . It is any person, association, partnership, firm or private service contract, EXCEPT:
corporation that employs any watchman or guards. a. money consideration
a. PDA b. number of hours of security service
b. PSA c. salary of the security guard
c. GSU d. commission of the operator
d. CSF 766. . It is administrative sanctions that can be imposed to any
756. . It is a security force maintained and operated by the applicant who failed to submit the complete
private company/corporation for its own protection and requirements in the renewal of license.
security requirements  a. cancellation
a. PDA b. revocation
b. PSA c. nullification
c. GSU d. suspension
d. CSF 767. . It shall apply to all PDAs/PSAs/CSFs/GSUs throughout
757. . It is a security unit maintained and operated by any the Philippines.
government entity other than military or police. a. Private Scty. Law
a. PDA b. RA 5487
b. PSA c .IRR of RA 5487
b. GSU d.all of the above
c. CSF 768. . It refers to the Summary Power of the Chief, PNP as
d.PAD provided by R.A. 5487.
758. . It is the umbrella organization for PDA and PSA. a. suspension of license
b. cancellation of license
a. PADPAO, Inc. c. all of the above
b. SAGSD d. non of the above
c. SEC 769. . It is the established rules and regulations in the
d. PNP operation of GSUs, EXCEPT:
759. . It is a government agency involved in the supervision of a. registration at SAGSD
the internal affairs of the PSAs, PDAs, CSFs and GSUs. b. registration at CSG
a. PADPAO, Inc. c. both A & B
b. SAGSD d. registration at SEC
c. SEC 770. . Any member of the GSUs shall be required to secure a
d. PNP __________ to exercise profession at SAGSD.
760. . It is the age requirement for the operator or manager of a. permit
PSA, PDA, CSF, and GSU. b. authority
a. 25 years c. registration
b. 30 years d. license
c. 35 years 771. . How many days prior expiry month of license shall
d. 20 years require PSL holders to undergo NP examinations.
761. . It is the initial number of guard requirements that must a. 60 days
be contracted for the 1st year of operation of PSA. b. 30 days
a. 100 c. 45 days
b. 200 d. 15 days
c. 1,000 772. . Neuro-Psychiatric Clearance shall be issued by the
d. 50 accredited testing centers within how many days after
762. . What is the minimum number of guard requirements in the date of examination.
the operation of branch offices of PSA. a. 60 days
a. 20 b. 30 days

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 c .45 days d. SAGSD Officer
d.15 days 784. . These are authorized to conduct investigation on all
773. . Moribund but previously licensed security agency, complaints against securities of PSAs or detective of
means: PDAs.
a. dying PSA a. C, ROPD
b. viable PSA b. Inves. Comm., CSG
c. new PSA c. all of the above
d. renewing PSA d. none of the above
774. .It refers to the requirements for application for licenses 785. . It must be avoided by the private security personnel,
as security officers, guards, and operators. either physically or otherwise with the strikers.
a. physical & mental examination a. direct contact
b. medical & dental examination b. indirect contact
c. physical agility test examination c. confrontation
d. drug test examination d. carrying of firearms
775. . Blue Guard Medal Valor is awarded by whom? 786. . The City or Municipal Mayors has the power to muster
a. DILG or _________ the members of the agency in case of
b. C, PNP emergency or in times of disasters or calamity.
c. PD, PPO a. organize
d. RD, PRO 3 b. incorporate
776. . Letter of Commendation to PSGs is awarded by whom? c. utilize
a. PSAs Operators d. deputize
b. CSF Managers 787. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information
c. all of the above is-
d. non of the above a. Intelligence
777. . It shall be submitted immediately after graduation to b. Police Community Relation
the C, PNP. c. Civil Security Group
a. closing reports d. Investigation and Detective Mngt.
b. opening reports 788. . Who is the Chairman of NAPOLCOM?
c. participants a. Chief of Staff, AFP
d. name of course b. Secretary of the DILG
778. . It is required to the License to Operate PSAs/CSFs. c. Secretary of National Defense
a. displayed d. Chief of the PNP
b. carried 789. . It is the minimum educational attainment for promotion
c. registered in the PNP.
d. all of the above a. MNSA
779. . Merger of PSAs/PDAs is commonly known as ______ in b. Master’s Degree
the industrial security management. c. OSEC
a. Kabit System d. BS Degree
b. Illegal Operation 790. . Attrition system is a means under Republic Act Nr. 8551
c. Merger of Security to remove from the PNP, police officers who are-
d. Moribund Security a. inefficient
780. . It is no anymore required to PSAs/PDAs securing b. ineffective
temporary license to operate. c. unproductive
a. pre-inspection d. all of the choices
b. post-inspection 791. . The nature of which, the police officer is free from
c. inspection specific routine duty is the definition of -
d. continuing inspection a. “on duty”
781. . It shall not be issued unless prior inspection is b. “special duty”
conducted to the applicant agency. c. “leave of absence”
a. regular license d. “off duty”
b. temporary license 792. . An area containing two or more beats, routes or post is
c. license to operate called-
d. permit to operate a. post
782. . These are the classifications of offenses as prescribed by b. unit
the IRR of R.A. 5487, EXCEPT: c. sector
a. serious offense d. section
b. light offense 793. . The lowest rate in the Performance Evaluation Rating in
c. grave offense the PNP is-
d. less grave offense a. Very Satisfactory
783. . They have the authority to conduct inspection to b. Fair
PSAs/PDAs/CSFs/GSUs, EXCEPT: c. Outstanding
a. C, SAGSD d. Poor
b. C, ROPD
c. PD, PPO

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 794. . The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and b. Research Development
receive a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month. How much c. Police Community Relation
will be his Longevity Pay? d. Human Resource & Doctrine Devt.
a. 5,000 pesos 805. . The National Capital Region Police Office is divided into
b. 7,500 pesos how many districts?
c. 10,000 pesos a. four
d. 12,500 pesos b. six
795. . SPO4 Masipag receives a base pay of Php14, 000. He c. five
had been in the service for 27 years. How much is his d. seven
longevity pay? 806. . A functional group within a section is called-
a.Php4, 200 a. division
b. Php5, 000 b. route
c. Php6, 500 c. unit
d. Php7, 000 d. sector
796. . A primary subdivision of a bureau is called- 807. . The staff directorate in charge of gathering information
a. division is-
b. unit a. Intelligence
c. section b. Police Community Relation
d. department c. Comptrollership
797. . The mandatory training course for PO1 for them to be d.Investigation and Detective Mgt.
promoted to PO2 or PO3. 808. . Which of the following is not an administrative support
a. PSJLC unit?
b. PSOBC a. Special Action Force
c. PSOOC b. Civil Security Group
d. PSBRC c. Police Security and Protection Office
798. . Time-In-Grade needed by a Senior Inspector before he d. all of the choices
could be promoted to Chief Inspector is- 809. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
a. 1 year members who want to be promoted to-
b. 3 years a. SPO4
c. 2 years b. SPO3
d. 5 years c. SP01
799. . An area assigned for foot or motorized patrol purposes d. PO3
is called- 810. Under the general qualifications for appointment in the
a. beat PNP, male applicant must be with a height of at least-
b. sector a. 1.62 m
c. route b. 1.64 m
d. post c. 1.57 m
800. . The system used in PNP promotions is called- d. 1.54
a. Performance 811. . The mandatory training course of SPO4 before they can
b. Seniority be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector is-
c. Palakasan a. Officers Basic Course
d. Merit b. Officers Candidate Course
801. . The directorate who is in charge of supplies and c. Officers Advance Course
equipments of PNP is- d. Senior Leadership Course
a. logistics 812. . What is the nature of appointment of PNP personnel
b. comptrollership under the waiver program?
c. intelligence a. permanent
d. plans b. contractual
802. . What is the maximum tenure of a Police Regional c. temporary
Director? d. probationary
a. 4 years 813. .The Police Regional Office covering Metro-Manila is-
b .5 years a. Western Police District
c. 6 years b. NCRPO
d. 9 years c. Southern Police District
803. . The period of time in the present rank in permanent d. Central Police District
status is called- 814. . The equivalent rank of Major General in the PNP is-
a. Time-In-Grade a. Director General
b. Length of Service b. Chief Superintendent
c. Seniority in rank c. Deputy Director General
d. Plantilla position d. Director
804. . The directorate who is the “make-up artist” and 815. . The number 2 man in the PNP organization in-
“deodorant” of the PNP is called- a. TCDS
a. Personnel Records Mgt. b. DDG for Administration
c. DDG for Operations

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 d. none of them a. two
816. .The national headquarters of the PNP is- b. four
a. Camp Dangwa c. three
b. Camp Crame d. five
c. Camp Aguinaldo 828. . What is the lowest administrative penalty?
d. Fort Bonifacio a. Forfeiture of Pay
817. . The purpose of promotion in the PNP is- b. Restricted to Specified limits
a. recognition of good work c. Witholding of Privilege
b. gives officers high morale d. Admonition
c. gives higher pay 829. . It is the period given for a PNP member admitted under
d. all of the choices the educational attainment waiver to finish his B.S.
818. . Waiver system in the PNP will apply if- Degree according to RA 8551?
a. recruitment falls on summer a. 4 years
b. qualified applicant falls below quota b. 6 years
c. ordered by the President c. 5 years
d. none of them d. 7 years
819. . Mental fitness of an applicant in the PNP is verified 830. . It is the number of year of non-promotion before a PNP
thru- Member can be attrited.
a. medical examination a. 5 years
b. neuro-psychiatric examination b. 15 years
c. physical fitness examination c. 10 years
d. drug test d. 20 years
820. . Age waiver can be granted if the applicant is- 831. . It also referred to as Monthly Retirement Benefits
a. 20 to 36 years old (MRB).
b. 19 to 36 years old a. lump sum
c. 21 to 35 years old b. pension
d. 20 to 35 years old c. gratuity
821. . What is the minimum rank for a police officer to be d. allowance
qualified a the C, PNP? 832. . Insubordination is an administrative infraction referred
a. Director to as-
b. Superintendent a. citizens complaint
c. Chief Superintendent b. grave misconduct
d. Director General c. breach of internal discipline
822. . The law that grants automatic eligibility for those who d. none of them
passed any licensure examination administered by the 833. . PLEB is composed of how many person?
Professional Regulations Commission is- a. 3
a. Republic Act Nr. 6506 b. 5
b. Republic Act Nr. 1080 c. 4
c. Republic Act Nr. 6975 d. 6
d. Republic Act Nr. 8551 834. . How many years is maximum tenure in officer of the
823. . The highest award given to a PNP member is- Chief, PNP?
a. Medalya ng Kadakilaan a. four years
b. Medalya ng Kagitingan b. six years
c. Medalya ng Sugatang Magiting c. five years
d. Medalya ng Kabayanihan d. nine years
824. . What is the duration of the PNP Field Training Program? 835. . How long will be the extension of tenure of the Chief,
a. 10 months PNP if extended?
b. 18 months a. not more than 1 year
c. 12 months b. not less than 2 years
d. 24 months c. more than 1 year
825. . When is the date of effectively of the PNP Reform and d. none of them
Reorganization Act? 836. . The law that grants eligibility to Criminology Board
a. 1992 Exam passers is-
b. 1996 a. Republic Act Nr. 6506
c. 1994 b. Republic Act Nr. 1080
d. 1998 c. Republic Act Nr. 8551
826. . What law was amended by RA 8551? d. Republic Act Nr. 6975
a. RA 7659 837. . The agency that administers all the mandatory training
b. RA 6425 for police officers is
c. RA 6975 a. PPSC
d. RA 9165 b. PNP
827. . Valenzuela City maintains a police force with a total c. DHRDD
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB d. NAPOLCOM
must be established? 838. . Who can grant waivers for applicants in the PNP?

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 a. President 848. . The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police
b. Chief, PNP Superintendent is vested in the-
c. Sec. of DILG a. Chief, PNP
d. NAPOLCOM b. President
839. . Which of the following administer the PNP Entrance and c. Civil Service Commission
Promotional Exam for policemen as provided for under d. NAPOLCOM
Republic Act Nr. 8551? 849. . When can the President extend the tenure of service of
a. NAPOLCOM the Chief, PNP?
b. Civil Service Commission a. after 4 years
c. Congress b. there is no successor
d. PNP c. during martial law
840. . What is the basis for promotion that includes the length d. national emergencies
of service in the present rank? 850. . What is the benefit derived by a PNP officer qualified for
a. Merit early retirement?
b. Superiority a. two ranks higher
c. Time-In-Grade b. one rank higher
d. Age c. his present rank
841. . In availing of early retirement, one must have rendered d. one year gratuity
continuous service of- 851. . Who shall attest the appointment of PNP officers?
a. 10 years a. Civil Service Commission
c. 15 years b. Congress
b. 20 years c. Commission of Appointment
d. 25 years d. NAPOLCOM
842. . What is the length of service before a PNP member 852. . Police Junior Leadership Course is intended for PNP
would be qualified for optional retirement? members who want to be promoted to-
a. 5 years a. SPO4
b. 10 years b. SPO1
c. 15 years c. SPO3
d. 20 years d. PO3
843. . A promotion by virtue of exhibited act of courage and 853. . The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that the State
extra-ordinary gallantry beyond the call of duty is called- shall establish and maintain one police for which shall be-
a. Regular a. national in scope
b. Permanent b. civilian in scope
c. Temporary c. national in character
d. Meritorious d. military in character
844. . Refers to a location where the search, which is duly 854. . What is the meaning of PPSC?
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent the a. Phil. Public Safety Course
commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other b. Phil. Private Safety College
legitimate purposes. c. Phil. Public Safety College
a. Clear Zone d. Phil. Private Safety Course
b. Public Place 855. .The mandatory training required for promotion to the
c. Police Checkpoint rank of Police Superintendent is called-
d. Pre-Determined Area
a. MNSA
845. . It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on foot
b. OSEC
or in a vehicle, based on reasonable suspicion/probable
c. MPSA
cause, for the purpose of determining the individual’s
d. Master’s Degree
identity and resolving the officer’s suspicion concerning
856. . He is the first Chief of the Philippine Constabulary?
criminal activity.
a. Capt. Henry T. Allen
a. Frisking
b. Gen. Rafael Crame
b. Search
c. Col. Lamberto Javalera
c. Spot Check
d. Capt. Columbus Piatt
d. Pat-down Search
857. .It is an association or group of individuals with a
846. . A promotion granted to PNP personnel who dies while
common goal.
in the performance of duty is called-
a. Police organization
a. Regular
b. Law enforcement group
b. Posthumous
c. Non-government organization
c. Temporary
d. Organization
d. None of them
858. . Who is the Father of Modern Policing System?
847. . Under the lateral entry program in the PNP, a
a. Edwin Sutherland
criminologist who applied and selected will have the
b. Emile Durkhiem
initial rank of -
c. Sir Robert Peel
a. Senior Inspector
d. Leonard Keeler
b. Inspector
859. .Who is the first Chief of Police of Manila?
c. SPO4
a. Capt. George Curry
d. Chief of Inspector

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 b. Capt. Henry Allen c. Commission on Appointment
c. Capt. Columbus Piatt d. President of the Phil.
d. Capt. Howard Taft 871. . The number 4 man in the PNP organization is the -
860. . Rape punished under RPC is crime against _____. a. Dep. Dir. Gen for Opns
a. chastity b. Dep. Dir Gen for Adm
b. passion c. The Chief Directorial Staff
c. person d. Regional Director of the NCR
d. mankind 872. . The National Appellate Board Office of the NAPOLCOM
861. . What is given to a PNP member for every 5 years of is located in what city?
satisfactory service rendered? a. Quezon City
a. promotion b. City Of Manila
b. longevity pay c. Mandaluyong City
c. additional allowance d. Makati City
d. retirement benefits 873. . Police Senior Superintendents are appointed by-
862. . What is the lowest administrative penalty? a. Chief, PNP
a. reprimand b. Secretary, DILG
b. admonition c. President of the Phil.
c. restriction d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
d. forfeiture of pay 874. . The law that merges the police and Philippine
863. .Citizen’s complaint may be brought before the Chief of Constabulary into the PC-INP is-
Police, City or Municipal Mayors and _______. a. R.A. 7659
a. Chief, PNP b. R.A. 6975
b. Provincial Director c. R.A. 8551
c. Regional Director d. P.D. 765
d. PLEB 875. . How many deputies do the PNP consist?
864. . Decision the Chief, PNP in administrative cases where a. one
the penalty is dismissal, demotion and forced resignation b. three
may be appealed before this body. c. two
a. Regional Appellate Board d. four
b. Office of the President 876. . How many police Regional Offices (PRO) are there in the
c. National Appellate Board PNP Organization?
d. Chairman, NAPOLCOM a. fourteen
865. . Which of the following composed the PNP? b. sixteen
a. members of the INP c. Fifteen
b. members of the PC d. Seventeen
c. members of the PNP 877. . The Performance Evaluation Rating in the PNP is done
d. all of the choices how many times per year?
866. .What is the rank of the Chief Directorial Staff? a. once
a. Deputy Director General b. thrice
b. Police Director c. twice
c. Police Chief Superintendent d. four
d. Police Senior Superintendent 878. . MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration is
867. . The kind of promotion granted to a candidate who offered and administered by an institution known as-
meets all the basic qualification for promotion is termed- a. PPSC
a. special b. NAPOLCOM
b. meritorious c. National Defense Office
c. regular d. National Defense College
d. ordinary 879. . The mandatory training course needed to be promoted
868. . It is the mandatory training course for SPO4 before they to SPO1 and SPO2 is called-
can be promoted to the rank of Police Inspector. a. Police Basic Course
a. Officer’s Basic Course b. Junior Leadership Course
b. Officer’s Advance Course c. Senior Leadership Course
c. Officer’s Candidate Course d. Officers Candidate Course
d. Senior Leadership Course 880. . The administrative support unit in charge of delivering
869. . How many Staff Directorates are there in the PNP the necessary supplies and materials to all PNP units in
National Office (NHQ-PNP)? the field is called-
a. eleven a.Finance Service
b. ten b.Logistics Support Service
c. nine c.Computer Service
d. twelve d.Communications & Electronics Svc
870. . Generally, PNP promotions are subject to the 881. . The highest ranking Police Non-Commissioned Officer
confirmation of the: is-
a. Civil Service Commission a. SPO2
b. NAPOLCOM b. SPO4

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 c. SPO3 a. RA 6040
d. Inspector b. RA 157
882. . How many stars are there in the rank of Police Director? c. RA 5487
a. one d. PD 765
b. three 892. . The theory of police service which states those police
c. two officers are servants of the people or the community
d. four refers to:
883. . The Republic Act that is also known as the DILG Act of a. Old
1990 that established the PNP under the DILG is- b. Home rule
a. Republic Act Nr. 6975 c. Modern
b. Republic Act Nr. 7659 d. Continental
c. Republic Act 8551 893. . Dr. WWW is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join
d. Presidential Decree 765 the Philippine National Police. What would be his initial
884. . In the history of our police force, who was the first rank upon entry?
Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? a. Senior Inspector
a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno b. Chief Inspector
b. Gen. Raul Imperial c. Inspector
c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez d. none of the choices
d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
894. . The following are functions in a police organization,
885. . The primary objective of Philippine National Police:
EXCEPT:
a. Law Enforcement
a. primary functions
b. Peace and Order
b. administrative functions
c. Protect and Serve
c. secondary functions
d. Crime Prevention
d. auxiliary functions
886. . The national headquarters of the PNP is located in
895. . If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief of
disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of the
the Philippine Constabulary.
Patrol officer is:
a. Rafael Palma
a. Conduct a complete search.
b. Cesar Nazareno
b. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
c. Rafael Crame
c. No further search may be made.
d. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Turnover the suspect to the immediate
887. . Richard Aldenjoined the PNP in 1996. He was 30 years
supervisor.
old then. What year can Alden retire?
896. . He is known as the father of modern policing system?
a. 2017
a. August Vollmer
b. 2031
b. Robert Peel
c. 2032
c. Oliver Cromwell
d. 2022
d. Cesare Lombroso
888. . The Role of the PNP on matters involving the
897. . When responding to call for police assistance due to
suppression of insurgency and serious treats to national
planted or found explosives, what immediate actions
security?
should the patrol officer will do?
a. The AFP operating through the area commander
is the one primarily responsible on matters a. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive or not.
involving insurgency and other serious treats to b.Dispose the item immediately to avoid further injury to
national security. happen.
b. The PNP is relieved of the primary role towards c.Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive Ordinance
insurgency and other serious treats to national Disposal Team.
security. d.Call to the Tactical Operation Center for proper
c. The PNP shall provide assistance to the AFP in
procedure to be followed, after investigating the item.
insurgency-affected areas.
d. All of the choices 898. . Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of the Armed
889. . The procedure which is intended to be used in Forces of the Philippines. What is his equivalent rank in
situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by men the PNP?
in the field operations relative to reporting, dispatching, a. Inspector
raids, arrest and investigation refers to b. Chief Inspector
a. Field Procedure c. Senior Inspector
b. Time Specific plan d. Superintendent
c. Problem oriented plan 899. . How many Deputy Director General ranks are there in
d. Headquarters procedure the PNP?
890. . The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for a period a. 1
______? b. 3
a. Not exceeding four years. c. 2
b. Not exceeding five years. d. 4
c. Not exceeding six years. 900. . The highest rank in the BJMP is __________.
d. Not exceeding three years. a. Four star general
891. . The law that empowered the police commission to b. Director
conduct entrance and promotional examination for c. Chief Superintendent
police members refers to:

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 d. Director General (PNP) 911. . As per the requirement of R.A. 6975, there should be
901. . What is the minimum police-to-population ratio? how many PLEB for every 500 police personnel?
a. 1:1000 a. one (1)
b. 1:1500 b. more than one
c. 1:500 c. at least one
d. 1:7 d. less than one
902. . The fourth man in command of the PNP is the 912. . If you are the patrolman on beat, what would be the
__________. immediate things to do when accident occur?
a. DDG for operation a. Cordon the area
b. Chief, Directorial Staff b. Go away and call your superior
c. DDG for administration c. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
d. Chief, PNP d. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
903. . Which of the following is NOT included in the powers 913. . Detective Beat System is one of the concrete responses
and function of the PNP? of the PNP in reinventing the field of investigation. Who
a. enforce all laws and ordinances is the NCRPO Chief who introduces this DBS?
b. maintain peace and order a. Dir. Alma Jose
c. investigate and prevent crimes b. Dir. Romeo Pena
d. prosecute criminal offenders c. Dir. Sonny Razon
904. . The word “police” was derived from the Greek word d. Dir. Rene Sarmiento
_______, which means government of the city. 914. . All of the following are members of the People’s Law
a. politia Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
b. Polis a. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and
c. politeia Order Council from among the respected members of
d. Policy the community
b. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality
905. . It is defined as the determination in advance of how the
concerned chosen by the association of barangay
objectives of the organization will be attained. captains
a. planning c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
b. Advancement d. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the
c. police planning Philippines
d. Development 915. . Two or more persons forming an organization must
906. . It is the premier educational institution for the training, identify first the reason for establishing such
human resource development and continuing education organization. They must identify the organization’s
of all personnel of the PNP, BFP, and BJMP. _________:
a. PPSC a. strategy
b. RTS b.mission
c. PNPA c.vision
d. NPC d. objective
907. . It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s 916. . To improve delegation, the following must be done,
complaint against the police officers. EXCEPT:
a. IAS a. establish objectives and standards
b. PNP b. count the number of supervisors
c. require completed work
c. PLEB
d. define authority and responsibility
d. NAPOLCOM 917. . The number of subordinates that can be supervised
908. . The provincial governor shall choose the provincial directly by one person tends to:
director from a list of _____ eligible’s recommended by a. Increase as the physical distance between supervisor
the PNP regional director: and subordinate as well as between individual
a. six subordinate increases
b. Five b. Decrease with an increase in the knowledge and
c. Three experience of the subordinate
d. four c. Increase as the level of supervision progresses for
the first line supervisory level to the management
909. . The deployment of officers in a given community, area
level
or locality to prevent and deter criminal activity and to d. All of the above
provide day-to-day services to the community. 918. . This means controlling the direction and flow of
a. Patrol decisions through unity of command from top to bottom
b. Beat Patrol of organization:
c. Line Patrol a. Audit
d. Area Patrol b. Coordination
910. . The head of the IAS shall have a designation of c. Monitoring
____________? d. Authority
a. Director General 919. . Which of the following statements is true:
b. Solicitor General a.Performance evaluation measures credibility of
c. Inspector General the police
d. IAS General b.Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
increases or promotion

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 c.Performance evaluation is done once a year b. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed Sr.
among police personnel Inspector via Lateral entry.
d.Performance evaluation is implemented to c. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
determine the quality of work performance of
Inspector after graduation.
personnel
920. . The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the DILG for d. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and
_______: First Place in the Examination.
a. Administrative control 930. . Planning as a management function is to
b. Operational supervision be done in the various levels of PNP
c. Administration and control Organization. Broad policy based from laws
d. Policy and program coordination directives, policies and needs in general is the
921. . SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the same supervisor. responsibility of:
This is the principle of __________: a. Directorate for Plans
a. delegation of authority b. President of the Philippines
b. span of control c. Chief, PNP
c. unity of command
d. Dep. Dir. For Administration
d. chain of command
922. . The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the 931. . What is the rank equivalent of PNPDeputy
Director General of the PNP is; Director General in the Armed Forces of the
a. 4 years Philippines?
b. 56 years a. Lt. General
c. 5 years b. Major General
d. 21 years c. Brigade General
923. . In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? d. General
a. standard operation procedures 932. . The Philippine National Police will recruit
b. special operation procedures 500 new policemen on April 2013 to fill up its
c. standard operating procedures quota. Who among the following applicants is
d. special operating procedures qualified to apply?
924. . The following are the characteristics of a good plan, a. Alden who was born on April 24, 1978
except: b. Maine who was born on November 22, 1980
a. Flexibility c. Vice who was born on March 17, 1993
b. specific d. Plastillas who was born on August 10, 1991
c. Clear 933. . Police Inspector Katunggali joined the
d. expensive Philippine National Police on October 1,
925. . If the annual quota for the year 2013 is 1200. How many 1988.Nevertheless, he want to pursue his career as
of the annual quota is allocated for women? embalmer, he decided to file an optional retirement so
a.10% that he could enjoy benefits of the gratifying PNP which he
b.120 served with extreme commitment and loyalty. When does
c.100 Mark Espinosa can retire?
d.200 a. October 5, 1998
926. . Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP may be b. October 6, 1999
waived in the following order: c. September 5, 2010
a. age, height, weight & education d. September 5, 2008
b. age, weight, height & education 934. . Which of the following administrative
c. height, education, weight & age penalties is immediately executory?
d. in any order a. Dismissal
927. . It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on the basis b. Forfeiture of pay
provided by law. c. Suspension
a. attrition d. Death penalty
b. separation 935. . It is the third in command in the Philippine National
c. romotion Police:
d. Retirement a. Regional Director
928. . The age requirement for new PNP applicants must not b. Chief Directorial Staff
be less than twenty-one (21) years of age. The Maximum c. DeputyChief for Administrationd.
age requirement for PNP applicants using the lateral d. Deputy Chief for Operation
entry program is ____. 936. . The head of the National Capital Regional
a. 35 years old Police Office shall assume the position of NCR director
b. 25 years old with the rank of:
c. 30 years old a. Chief Superintendent
d. 31 years old b. Director
929. . A Field training Program for all PNP uniformed members c. Superintendent
is required for permanency of their appointment. Who d. General
among the following is exempted to undergo the Field 937. . Under the waiver program, who among the following
Training Program and issued a permanent appointment? PNP applicants is the least priority for appointment?
a. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed Sr. a. maine who just earned 72 units in college b.
Inspector via Lateral entry. Paloma who is under height

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 c. Jauquinwho is underweight D.It is the nucleus of the police department
d. Alden who is overage E.It is the operational heart of the police department
938. . Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known 947. .The performance evaluation system in the PNP is
as____________. conducted:
a.Department of Interior and Local Government Act of A.thrice a year
1990 B. Every 6 months
b.Department of the Interior and Local Government Act of C.Every 2 years
1990 D. Quarterly
c.Department of Interior and the Local Government Act of 948. . A PNP member who acquired permanent physical
1990 disability in the performance of his dutyand unable to
d.Department of the Interior and the Local Government further perform his duty shall be entitled to a lifetime
Act of 1990 pension equivalent to:
939. . SPO3 Manny Weather receives 27, 690.00 A50% of his last salary
base pay since he was promoted. After five years from B. 70% of his last salary
promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after C.60% of his last salary
adding his longevity pay? D. 80% of his last salary
a. 32, 690.00 949. . How many successive annual ratingperiods before a
b. 37, 690.00 police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or
c. 30, 459.00 poor performance?
d. 31, 549.00 A.2
940. . Decisions rendered by the national IAS B.4
shall be appealed to the__________: C.3
D.1
a. Regional Appellate Board
b. National Appellate Board 950. . How many cumulative annual ratingperiods before a
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board police officer may be separated due to inefficiency or
d. National Police Commission poor performance?
941. . It is known as the Professionalization act of 1966. A.2
a. R.A. 4864 B.4
b. R.A. 8551 C.3
c. Act 175 D.1
d. PD 765 951. .In this theory, management assumes employees may be
942. .__________ is given to any PNP member who has ambitious and self-motivated and exercise self-control. It
exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk of is believed that employees enjoy their mental and
his life above and beyond the call of duty. physical work duties.
A. Meritorious Promotion A.Hawthorne Effect
B. Special Promotion B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
C. Regular Promotion
D.Y theory
D. On-the-Spot Promotion 952. .The theory X and Y is a human motivation created by?
943. .PNP members under the waiver program but is A.Edward H. Sutherland
dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements B.C. Edwin Hawthorne
can re-apply to the PNP? C.Henry A. Landsberger
A. Maybe Yes D.Douglas McGregor
B.Maybe No 953. In this theory, which has been proven counter-effective
C..Absolutely Yes in most modern practice, management assumes
D.Absolutely No employees are inherently lazy and will avoid work if they
944. .The reason why police officer appears in court as a can and that they inherently dislike work. As a result of
witness has to be in complete uniform is to show his this, management believes that workers need to be
respect to the court and to his: closely supervised and comprehensive systems of
A.Position/Rank controls developed.
B.Superior A.Hawthorne Effect
C.Profession B.Stockholm Syndrome
C.X theory
D.Comrades
D.Y theory
945. .Which among the following is NOT subjected to field 954. .This kind of organizational structure classifies people
Operational Plans? according to the function they perform in their
A.Patrol professional life or according to the functions performed
B.Records by them in the organization.
C.Investigation A.Functional Structure
D. Traffic B.Line and Staff Structure
946. . Which of the following statement is not true about C.Line Structure
patrol? D.Divisional Structure
A.It is the backbone of the police department 955. .If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding
B.It is the essence of police operation 30 days but not less than 16 days, the citizen’s complaint
C.It is the single largest unit in the police department that against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
can be eliminated A.Office of the chief of police

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 B.PLEB C.Budgeting
C.Mayor’s Office D.Planning
D. any of the choices 966. . Are guidelines for action to be taken under specific
956. .Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be ___ of the circumstances and details with the following procedures.
base pay and longevity pay of the retired grade in case of A.Field Procedures
20 years active service B.Procedural plan
A.50% C.Operational Plans
B.10% D.Functional plan
C.2.5% 967. . Which of the following is not a function of police
D.55% personnel unit?
957. .This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as A.Preparing policy statements and standard operating
drug crackdown, crime prevention program, or Procedures relating to all areas of the administration of
neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the human resources
objective is accomplished or the problem is solved B.Serves as an adviser to the chief and other line officials
regarding personnel matters
A.Strategic plan
C.Conducts exits interviews with resigning officers to
B.Time Specific plan
identify, and subsequently correct, unsatisfactory
C.Problem oriented plan working conditions
D.time bound operational plan D. Establish criteria for promotion to the exclusive ranks
958. .This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on 968. .It refers to the process of screening out or eliminating
routine and field operations and some special operations undesirable applicants that do not meet the
A.Strategic plan organization’s selection criteria
B.Time Specific plan A. Promotion Recruitment
C.Problem oriented plan B.Transfer Selection
D. policy or procedural plan C.Recruitment
959. .The head of the NCR shall have the rank of_____? D.Selection
A.Superintendent 969. .It is recognized as the best method of filing
B. Director A.Pigeon Hole
C.Senior Superintendent B.retrieval operation
D. Chief Superintendent C.Records Management
D.chain of custody
960. . The institution of a criminal action or complaint against
970. .It is considered to be the heart of any identification
a police officer is
system; it provides positive identification of the criminal
A.A ground for dismissal
A.Arrest and booking report
B.Not qualified for promotion
B.Miscellaneous Records
C.Automatically dismiss
C.Identification record
D.Not a bar to promotion
D.Fingerprint Records
961. .Refers to the utilization/use of units or elements of the
971. .The payment of Missing Uniformed Personnel’s monthly
PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties,
salary and allowances for the heirs is for a maximum of
enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order,
how many year?
prevention of crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
A.1 year
offenders to justice
B. 2 months
A.Deployment C. 4 years
B.Reinforcement D.2 years
C.Reintegration 972. .In Supervisory Training, a minimum of _____ number of
D.Employment
hours of classroom training should be required for newly
962. . What is the first step in making a plan?
promoted supervisory personnel
A.Frame of reference
A.72 hours
B.Analyzing the Facts
B.80 hours
C.Collecting all pertinent data
C.75 hours
D.Identification of the problems
D.85 hours
963. .It identify the role of police in the community and future
973. .It should be proactive, people oriented, based on
condition in state
individual need, and delivered in such a way as to
A.Visionary Plans
motivate the experienced officer Higher dgreee of
B.Strategic Plans
C.Synoptic Planning professionalism/
D.Incremental Planning Professionalization.
964. .Is that field of management which involves planning, A.Recruit Training
and controlling the efforts of a group of individuals B.Specialized training
toward achieving a common goal with maximum C.In Service
D.Field Training
dispatch and minimum use of administrative resources.
974. . When an officer reaches the time-in-grade possessing
A.Human Resources
the entire mandatory and other consideration in
B.Personnel Management
C.Human Management promotion, is what kind of promotion?
D.Personnel Administration A.Promotion by Virtue of Position
965. . Is the process of developing methods or procedure or B. Regular Promotion
an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the C.Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
accomplishment of a definite objective.
975. .It involves assistance and action by non police agencies
A.Management
such as Local Safety Council for Traffic Division, DSWD for
B.Functioning

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 Child/Juvenile Delinquency, or Disaster Preparedness A.Character Investigation
plans and Civil defense plans B.Physical Investigation
A.Management Plans C.Background Investigation
B.Procedural plan D. Personnel Security Investigation
C.Tactical Plans 985. .The importance of the firm or installation with reference
D. Extra departmental plan
to the national economy security
976. . Refers to the distinctive physical device of metal and
A.Relative vulnerability
ribbon, which constitute the tangible evidence of an
B. Relative program
award:
C.Relative criticality
A.Medal
D. Relative security
B. Awards
986. .Private security agencies have to be registered with the:
C.Decorations
A.SEC
D.Ribbons
B.DTI
977. .For every _______ letters of commendation, a medalya
C.PADPAO
ng papuri may be awarded to nay PNP member:
D. PNP, SAGSD
A.Six
987. .To deny outsiders from visual access in a certain facility
B. Four
what must be constructed.
C.Five
A.Full view fence
D. Three
B. Chain link fence
978. .Imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction,
C. Solid fence
domination, or excessive use of authority:
D. Multiple fences
A.Misconduct
988. . A private security Guard who is escorting a big amount
B. Dishonesty
of money or cash outside his area of jurisdiction shall be
C.Incompetency
issued with a-
D. Oppression
A.Firearms
979. .The operational support unit of the PNP shall function as a
B. Mission Order
mobile strike force or reaction unit to augment police
C.Duty Detail Order
forces for civil disturbance control, counter-insurgency,
D. None of These
hostage taking, rescue operations and other special
989. .What is the duration of the Basic Security Guard Course?
operations:
A. 150 Hours
A.NARCOM
B. 72 Hours
B. SAF
C. 48 Hours
C.SWAT
D. 300 Hours
D. SOCO
990. .All except one are the line leadership staff:
980. .The organizational structure of the PNP is __________.
A.Detachment Commander
A.Line
B.Post-in-Charge
B. functional
C.Chief Inspector
C.staff
D.Security Supervisor 1
D. line and staff
991. . Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double
981. . As a General Rule, High powered firearms are not
strand, 12 gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an
allowed to possess except when there is an upsurge of
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
lawlessness and criminality as determined by proper
___ high excluding the top guard.
authority, but shall not exceed ______ of the total
A.8 feet
number of security guards.
B.7 feet
A.50%
C.9 feet
B. 20%
D. 6 feet
C.30%
992. . Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, license
D. 10%
issued to security guards.
982. . The vault door should be made of steel at least
A. Any of the choices
__________ in thickness?
B. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
A.7 inches
C. Secretary, DILG
B. 9 inches
D. C/PNP
C.6 inches
993. .What type of alarm is best suited for doors and
D. 20 feet or more
windows?
983. . An act or condition, which results in a situation
A. Photoelectric
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that,
B. Metallic foil
could result to loss.
C. Audio detection
A.Hazards
D. Microwave Detection
B. Environmental Hazards
994. .Is the process of conducting physical examination to
C.Natural Hazards
determine compliance with establishment security
D. Security Hazards
policies and procedures?
984. .An inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion,
A. Security Education
integrity, morals and loyalty of an individual in order to
B. Security Survey
determines person suitability for appointment or access
C. Security Planning
to classified matter.

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 D. Security Inspection
995. . Is a corporate and executive responsibility, involving the 1004. .The following things are used as barrier, which serves
knowledge of the objectives of the security and the as a deterrent to the possible intruder in an Industrial
Complex, EXCEPT:
means and the method to reach these objective or goal
a. Human
must then involve. b. Fences
A. Security Inspection c. Doors
B. Security Hazards d. Concertina
C. Security Planning 1005. .Vaults are storage devices which are usually
D. Security Survey designed to be at least _______fire resistant.
996. . A mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic device a. 3 hours
b. 24hours
designed to prevent entry into a building, room
c. 6hours
container, or hiding place, and to prevent the removal of d. 12 hours
items without the consent of the owner 1006. . A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit
A .Padlocks boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
B. Locks utilizing combinations by means of a dial.
C. Code Operated a. Lever locks
D. Lever Locks b. Combination lock
c. Padlock
997. . A type of protective alarm system where the central
d. Code operated locks
station located outside the installation. When the alarm 1007. . The maximum number of firearms allowed to possess
is sounded, it will notifies the police and other agency by a PSA should not exceed by___ units.
A. Local Alarm system a. 30
B. Auxiliary System b. 70
C. Central Station System c. 500
d. 1000
D. Proprietary
1008. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue-
998. . It is placed on the floor in such a position that tellers green color?
may activate the alarm by placing the front of their foot a. Sodium vapor lamp
to engage the activation bar b. Incandescent lamp
A. Bill traps c. Mercury vapor lamp
B. Foot Rail Activator d. Quartz lamp
C. Knee or Thigh Buttons 1009. .What type of security deals with the industrial plants
and business enterprises where personnel, processes,
D. Foot buttons
properties and operations are safeguarded?
999. These are wide beam units, used to extend the a. Personnel security
illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the b. industrial security
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a c. Physical security
narrow, horizontal and from 15 to 30 degrees in the d. bank security
vertical plane 1010. .The following are principles of Physical Security,
A. Fresnel Lights EXCEPT:
a. There is impenetrable Barrier.
B. Street Lights
b.Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
C. Floodlights c.Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
D.Search lights d.Intelligence requires continuous security measures.
1000. . What is the required capital investment for 1011. . The susceptibility of a plant or establishment to
organization of private security agency? damage, loss or disruption of operations due to various
A. P 500,000 hazards.
a. Relative vulnerability
B. B. P 100,000
b. Relative criticality
C. P 1,000,000 c. Relative susceptibility
D. P 50,000 d. Relative security
1001. . One who steals with preconceived plans and takes 1012. . Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible
away any or all types of items or supplies for economic authority that the person described is cleared to access
gain? and classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
A. Normal Pilferer clearance will remain valid for a period of____ from
the date of issuance.
B. Regular Pilferer
a. 1 year
C. Casual Pilferer b. 4 years
D. Systematic pilferer c. 2 years
1002. . The metallic container used for securing documents or d. 5 years
small items in an office or installation refers to: 1013. . The tenure of a security guard is:
A. Safe a. Six Months
B. Vault b. Co-terminus with the service contract
c. Two years
C. File room
d. Contractual
D. None of these 1014. . Which among the following is not an advantage of a
1003. .Chain link fences must be constructed in______ full-view fence, except:
material excluding the top guard? a.It allows visual access to the installation which aids the
a. Seven feet intruder in planning.
b. Six feet b.It allows the intruder to become familiar with
c. Four feet .the movements of persons in the installation
d. Five feet

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 c.It creates shadows which could prevent concealment of d. Free zone
the intruder. 1025.The extension period for a license to operate issued
d.None of these upon a PSA that lacks the required minimum number of
1015. .Every registered PSA are mandatory to give surety bond guards is:
which shall answer for any valid and legal claims against a. 1 month
such agency filed by aggrieved party. How much is the b. 6 months
Surety bond of PSA with 500-799 guards. c. 2 years
a. 50, 000 d. 1 year
b. 100, 000 1026.Which of the following types of lock is generally used
c. 150, 000 in car doors?
d. 200,00 a. Warded lock
1016. . What type of investigation involves all aspect and b. Lever lock
details about the circumstances of a person? c. Disc tumbler lock
a. partial background investigation d. Combination lock
b. completebackground investigation 1027. PADPAO stands for:
c. personnel security investigation a. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective
d. national agency check Agency Operators, Inc.
1017. . The exposure and the teaching of employees on b. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency
security and its relevance to their work is: Operators, Inc.
a.Security Inspection c. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector
b.Security Education Agency Operators, Inc.
c.Security Orientation d. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective
d.Security Survey Associations Operators, Inc.
1018. .A type of security which provides sufficient 1028. 1 It refers to a protection against any type of crime to
illumination to areas during hours of darkness safeguard life and assets by various methods and
a. Protective Lighting device.
b. Fresnel Lights a. Physical Security
c. Search Lights b. Perimeter Security
d. Street Lights c. Operational Security
1019. . Type of alarm system which is usually activated by the d. Security
interruption of the light beam is known as: 1029. . All except are the qualifications of a security officer.
a. Metallic foil a. Has graduated from a Security Officer
b. Electric eye device b. Training Course.
c. Audio alarm c. Holder of Masters Degree.
d. Microwave alarm d. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP.
1023.What is the ratio of the security guard to their e. Physically or mentally fit.
licensed firearm is needed after operating for six months. 1030. .These provides access within the perimeter barrier
a. 1:3 and should be locked and guarded.
b. 1:5 a. Gates and Doors
c. 1:2 b. Side-Walk Elevator
d. 1:1 c. Utilities Opening
1020. .What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in d. Clear Zones
areas where insects predominate? 1031. .A fact finding probe to determine a plant adequacy
a. Mercury vapor lamp and deficiency in all aspects of security, with the
b. Quartz lamp corresponding recommendation is:
c. Sodium vapor Lamp a. security inspection
d. Gaseous Discharge Lamp b. security education
1021. . What is an act governing the organization and c. security training
management of private security agency, company guard d. security survey
force and government security forces? 1032. . What unit of PNP handles the processing and
a. RA 8574 issuances of license for private security personnel?
b. RA 5478 a. PNP SOSIA
c. RA 4587 b. PNP FED
d. RA 5487 c. PADPAO
1022. .Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain link or d. PNP SAGSD
concertina. Chain link are for ______. 1033. . What is the most common type of human hazard?
a. Solid structure a. Sabotage
b. Least permanent structure b. Pilferage
c. Permanent structure c. Theft
d. Semi- permanent structure d. Subversion
1023. it is more comprehensive investigation than the NAC & 1034. . What is the security force maintained and operated
LAC since it includes thorough and complete investigation of by any private company/ corporation for its own
all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a person’s life is security requirements?
conducted? a. GSU
a. Personnel Security Investigation b. CSF
b. Partial Background Investigation c. PSA
c. Background Investigation d. PD
d. Complete Background Investigation 1035. . What type of controlled area requires highest degree
1024.The unobstructed area maintained on both sides of a of security?
perimeter barrier on the exterior and interior parallel area a. Limited
to afford better observation of the installation refers to: b. Restricted
a. Clear zone c. Special
b. Complimentary zone d. Exclusive
c. Open zone

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 1036. . What lock requires manipulation of parts according
to a predetermined combination code of numbers? a. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the company’s
a. Card- operated lock Vault.
b. Combination lock b. Turnover to the next security guard on duty.
c. Electromagnetic lock c. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
d. Card Operated d. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer of the guards
1037. .What type of lamp emits bright white light? table.
a. Sodium vapor lamp
b. Mercury vapor lamp 1046. . Any physical structure whether natural or man-made
c. Incandescent lamp capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal or
d. Quartz lamp unauthorized access.
1038. . What type of security lighting is focused to the a. Perimeter Fences
intruder while the guard remains in the comparative b. Wire Fences
darkness? c. Moveable Barrier
a. Controlled lighting d. Barrier
b. Fresnel light 1047. . A company owned protective alarm with unit in a
c. Emergency lighting nearest police station of fire department.
d. Glare- projection a. A. Proprietary Alarm
1039. . What is the system of natural or man- made barriers b. Auxiliary Alarm
placed between the potential intruder and the object, c. Central Alarm
person and matter being protected? d. Security Alarm
a. Communication security 1048. . It is Lighting equipment which produced diffused light
b. Document security rather than direction beam. They are widely used in
c. Physical security parking areas
d. Barrier a. Street Lights
b. Search Lights
1040. .The following are the purposes of Security Survey, c. Flood Lights
EXCEPT: d. Fresnel Lights
a. To ascertain the present economic status
b. To determine the protection needed
c. To make recommendations to improve the overall 1049. . A portable and detachable lock having or sliding hasp
security which passes through a staple ring or the like and is
d. None of these then made fast or secured.
a. Lock
1041. . License to Operate (LTO) is a License Certificate b. Padlock
document which is issued by ____________ c. Code Operated
authorizing a person to engage in employing security d. Card Operated
guard or detective, or a juridical person to establish,
engage, direct, manage or operate a private detective 1050. . It is a test for safe’ to determine if the sudden rise in
agency. temperature will not cause the safe to rupture. If the
a. Secretary of DILG safe can withstand 2000
b. Security and Exchange Commission 0
F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening then it has
passed the test.
c. Chief, PNP a. Fire Endurance Test
d. President b. Fire and Impact Test
c. Burning Test
1042. . One of the specifications of a barbed wire fence is d. Explain Hazard Test
that the distances between strands will not exceed
_______and at least one wire will be interlock vertical 1051. . The following are phases of Security Education,
and midway between posts. EXCEPT:
a. 3 inches a. Special Interview
b. 6 inches b. Security Seminar
c. 4 inches c. Security Promotion
d. 7 inches d. Training Conference

1043. .Clear Zone of _______ must be established between 1052. . How is one classified if he steals primarily because of
the perimeter barrier and structure within the irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity and
protected areas. little chance of detection?
a. 20 feet or more a. Systematic pilferer
b. 40 feet or more b. Ordinary pilferer
c. 30 feet or more c. Casual pilferer
d. 50 feet or more d. Unusual pilferer

1044. .A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistance 1053. Psychology of Omnipresence means______.
container usually a part of the building structure use a. Low Visibility
to keep, and protect cash, documents and valuables b. High Visibility
materials. c. Reactive
a. Vault d. Proactive
b. Safe
c. File Room 1054. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
d. None of these operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
1045. . Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after his Tour of PNP investigational capability.
Duty, what shall he do with his Firearm? a. Detective Beat Patrol

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 b. Integrated Patrol System c. 3 shifts
c. Community Oriented Policing System d. every other day shift.
d. Team Policing
1055. Report prepared by the patrol officer upon reaching 1064. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce or totally
the end of the line beat, and before returning to the prevent the desire of human being to commit crime.
point of origin. a. Preventive
a. Patrol Report b. Proactive
b.Situation Report c. Reactive
c.Investigation Report d. High Visibility
d.Incident Report
1065. Bicycle patrol has the combined advantage of
1056. The ideal police response time is: ________________ since they can be operated very
a. 3 minutes quietly and without attracting attention.
b. 5 minutes a. Mobility and wide area coverage.
c. 7 minutes b. Reduced speed and greater area covered.
d. 10 minutes c. Shorter travel time and faster response.
d. Mobility and stealth
1057. Persons, Place, thing, situation or condition
possessing a high potential for criminal attack or for 1066. What is the most excellent method of Patrol in San
the creation of problem necessitating a demand for Juanico Bridge?
immediate police service: a. Foot Patrol
a. Hazard b. K-9 Patrol
b. Opportunity c. Automobile Patrol
c. Perception of Hazard d. Bicycle Patrol
d. Police Hazard

1058. The most expensive patrol method and gives the 1067. When was the first automobile patrol initiated in the
greatest opportunity to develop sources of Philippines and the First Chief of the Mobile patrol
information is: bureau of Manila Police Department was Isaias Alma
a. Foot Patrol Jose?
b. Marine Patrol a. May 7, 1954
c. Mobile Patrol b. May 17, 1954
d. Helicopter Patrol c. May 14, 1957
1059. Walking closed to the building at night is a tactic in d. March 10, 1917
patrol which makes the policemen less visible during
the night. The primary purpose is:
1068. As a Patrol officer, when checking suspicious persons,
a. To surprise criminals in the act of committing a
places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles
crime
especially during night-time, be prepared to use your
b. To have sufficient cover
service firearm and Flashlight should be-
c. To attract less attention
d. For safety of the Patrol officer
a. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a
possible target.
1060. The following are included in the cause and effect of
b. Tightly away from the body to avoid making you a
team policing.
possible target.
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
c. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
b. lessen the crime rate;
adversary.
c. Facilitate career development;
a. None of these
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
1069. What is your priority as a Patrol officer when
responding to Calls for Police Assistance?
a. a, b, e a. Arrest criminals
b. c. a, b, d, e b. Securing the area
c.a, c, d, e c. Aiding the injured
d. d. a, b, c, e d. Extort Money
1061. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers 1070. As a rule, moving vehicle shall not be fired upon,
perform specific predetermined preventive functions except when its occupants pose imminent danger of
on a planned systematic basis: causing death or injury to the police officer or any
a. Target Oriented Patrol other person, and that the use of firearm does not
b. High-Visibility Patrol create a danger to the public and outweighs the likely
c. Low-Visibility Patrol benefits of its non-use. In firing upon a moving vehicle,
d. Directed deterrent Patrol the following parameters should be considered
1062. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area can be EXCEPT:
best penetrated by the police through.
a. Foot patrol a. Accessibility or the proximity of the fleeing
b. Bicycle patrol suspect/s with the police officer and other persons.
c. Mobile patrol b. The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
d. Helicopter patrol in certainty the police officer or other persons
1063. Integrated patrol system is the total system used to c. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm the
accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP. police officer or other persons.
The Police officers in Police Community Precincts d. The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to
render 24 hours duty with prescribed divisions of: avoid traffic accident.
a. 2 shifts
b. 4 shifts

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 1071. When Patrol officer visually observe a weapon during A. Clockwise pattern
pat-down search, a more secure search position may B. Zigzag pattern
be: C. Counter clockwise pattern
a. Standing position D. Crisscross pattern
b. Lying Face down Position
c. Hands placed against a stationary object, and 1080. The following are the advantages of Foot Patrol.
feet spread apart. EXCEPT:
d. All of these a. It involves larger number of personnel
b. It develops greater contact with the public
1096. The following are types of specialized patrol method c. It insures familiarization of area
except: d. It promotes easier detection of crime
a. Marine Patrol
b. Air Patrol 1081. Dogs are of great assistance in search and rescue as
c. Canine Patrol well as in smelling out drugs and bombs. What do you
d. Foot Patrol call the large dog with drooping ears and sagging jaws
1072. A uniformed patrol officers work in generally judged and keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used for
by his- tracking purposes?
a. Knowledge of all problems in the community a. German shepherd
b. Residents developed good public relations b. Bloodhounds
c. Ability to keep his post free from crimes and minor c. Doberman pinscher
offenses d. Black Labrador Retrievers
d. His capability to solve crimes that happened in his area
1082. The best method of patrol to be done in sector is:
1073. Can the Patrol officers disperse unlawful assemblies? a. Foot
a. True b. Automobile
b. False c. Bicycle
c. Absolutely Yes d. d. Helicopter
Absolutely No

1074. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the number of

apprehension of law violator to engage in certain
types of crimes: 1083. A supervisor’s span of control is usually computed in
a. Preventive Patrol terms of number of:
b. High-Visibility Patrol a. Superiors to whom he reports
c. Low-Visibility Patrol b. Superiors from whom he takes orders
d. Proactive Patrol c. Subordinates directly reporting to him
d. Any of these
1075. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about patrol?
a. It is the backbone of the police department 1084. Frequent beat changes prevent a police officer from
b. It is the essence of police operation becoming _______ with people, hazards, and facilities
c. It is the nucleus of the police department on his beat.
d.It is the single largest unit in the police Department that a. Well Acquainted
can be eliminated b. Sluggish
c. Energetic
1076. It is an immediate response to block the escape of d. Unfamiliar
lawless elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints are ignored or 1085. The patrol pattern to be followed after the clockwise
during hot pursuit operations. It is set up by police and before the counter-clockwise?
personnel conducting mobile patrol on board a a. Straightway
marked police vehicle, or those conducting ISO and b. Crisscross
foot patrol operations within the vicinity/periphery of c. Sector
the national or provincial highways. d. Zigzag
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint 1086. The two-man patrol became_________ due to
c. High-Risk Arrest increase attack of police officer by militant, dangerous
d. High Risk Stop section to be patrolled and many riots demonstration
in the street.
1077. The following are patrol activities, except: a. Unnecessary
A. Arrest of alleged criminals b. Necessary
B. Responding to emergency calls c. Voluntary
C. Inspection services d. Redundant
D. Preparation of investigation reports
1087. A police strategy which aims to directly involve
1078. This type of patrol maintains better personal contact members of the community in the maintenance of
with the members of the community ideal in gaining peace and order by police officers.
the trust and confidence of the people to the police: a. Integrated Police System
A. Horse Patrol b. Comparative Police System
B. Bicycle Patrol c. Detective Beat System
C. Automobile Patrol d. Community Oriented Policing System
D. Foot Patrol
1088. Which among the following routine patrol duties, is
1079. The patrol pattern which is usually done at the last the least likely to become completely a function of
hour of duty to ascertain that nothing happened in automobile patrol is the checking of-
the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is: a. Security of business establishment.

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 b. Street light outrages. c. Community Relation
c. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. d. Team policing
D.llegalposting of signs and other advertisement. 1098. What is the appropriate patrol method that is most
ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue
1089. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post for patrolmen operations?
in areas where police hazards are serious is that, it a. Motorcycle
usually- b. Automobile
a. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman. c. Helicopter
b. Lays the patrolman open to unwarranted charges. d. Horse
c. Wasteful of manpower.
d. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or hearing when quick 1099. If the external patting of the suspect’s clothing fails to
mobilization is needed. disclose evidence of a weapon the next procedure of
1090. Patrol weaken the potential offenders belief in the- the Patrol officer is:
a. Opportunity for graft. a.Conduct a complete search.
b. Existence of an opportunity to effectively violate the b.The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
law. c. No further search may be made.
c. Effectiveness of Police Administration. d.Turnover the suspect to the immediate
d. Police bureau’s willingness to use specialized squads. supervisor.

1100. During Civil Disturbances, what may be utilized when

demonstrators become unruly and aggressive forcing
troops to fall back to their secondary positions?
1091. Team Policing is said to be originated in________: a. Tear Gas
a. Aberdeen, Scotland b. Water Cannon
b. Lyons, France c. Truncheon
c. Vienna. Austria d. Shield
d. London, England 1101. Going left while patrolling upon reaching every
1092. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for intersection until reaching the point of origin is
patrolling: following what pattern?
a. Egyptians a. Clockwise
b. English b. Zigzag
c. Chinese c. Counter clockwise
d. American d. Crisscross
1093. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to 1102. All but one are the advantages of Bicycle Patrol:
in order to catch criminals is known as: a. Can report regularly to the command center.
a. High visibility patrol b. Can operate quietly and without attracting attention.
b. Blending patrol c. It is inexpensive to operate .
c. Low visibility patrol d. It can cover areas that are not accessible by patrol cars.
d. Decoy patrol
1103. Its purpose is to provide the organizational and
1094. A wanted to commit suicide by jumping in a 14 h floor operational framework in truly affecting mechanisms
building. Which of the following should be the first toward enhancing the efficiency and effectiveness of
thing to do by the Patrol officer who first arrived at the PNP investigational capability.
scene? a. Detective Beat Patrol
a. Urge no to jump b. Integrated Patrol System
b. Call nearest relative c. COPS-Community Oriented Policing System
c. Clear the area d. Team Policing
d. Report immediately to Station
1104. The members of the Patrol teams shall form and
1095. What is the most realistic advantage of the motorcycle assemble at the police unit
patrol over the other patrol methods? headquarters at least _______ before the start of their
A. Low cost shift for accounting-
B.Visibility a. 10 minutes
C. Speed b. hour
D. Security c. 30 minutes
1096. The basic purpose of patrol is most effectively d. 15 minutes
implemented by police activity which-
1105. The police must make an effort to ascertain and amaze
a. Provides for many types of specialized patrol, upon the law abiding citizens and would be criminals
with less emphasis on routine. alike that the police are always existing to respond to
b.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker any situation at a moment’s notice and he will just
aspiration to commit crime. around the corner at all times. This statement refers
c.Influences favorable individual and group to:
attitudes in routine daily associations with the police. a. Police Omnipresence
d. Intensifies the potential offender’s b. Police Patrol
expectation of apprehension. c. Police Discretion
1097. What is the new concept, police strategy which d. Integrated Patrol
integrates the police and community interests into a 1106. The patrol method characterized by speed and
working relationship so as to produce the desired mobility and considered as lest expensive as it utilizes
organizational objectives of peacemaking? lesser number of men and covers a wider area in a
short period of time, while protection to patrol
a. Preventive patrol officers:
b. Directed Patrol a. Foot patrol

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 b. Motorcycle Patrol b. Crisscross
c. Automobile Patrol c. Clockwise
d. Helicopter patrol d. counter clockwise

1107. Team members of the decoy may dress themselves in 1116. Itis a “frisk” or external feeling of the outer garments
a manner designed to help them blend the of an individual for weapons only.
neighborhood where they are deployed. a. Frisking
a. Absolutely False b. Search
b. Absolutely True c. Spot Check
c. Absolutely Yes d. Pat-down Search
d. Absolutely No
1117. It is one by patrolling the streets within the perimeter
1108. “Personality clash is reduced”, it is the advantage of: of the beat not at random but with definite target
a. One Man Patrol Car location where he knows his presence is necessary.
b. Two Man Patrol Car a. Target Oriented
c. Foot Patrol b. Zigzag
d. Canine Patrol c. Clockwise
d. Criss-Cross
1109. The least desirable of all police shifts due to lack of
activities: 1118. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol; the following
a. Afternoon Shift are the advantages of Foot patrol, EXCEPT:
b. Morning Shift
c. Night Shift a. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for action taken.
d. None of these b. It enables patrol officers to cover a considerable area
c. Inspire more Public confidence.
1110. It refers to a patrol strategy directed towards specific d. The officer can actually get to know the physical layout
persons or places: of his beat better.
a. Target Oriented Patrol
b. High-Visibility Patrol 1119. The word Patrol was derived from the French word
c. Reactive Patrol ________which means to go through paddles.
d. Directed deterrent Patrol a. Patroulier
b. Patroul
1111. This patrol tactic differs from traditional patrol c. Politeia
methods in that patrol methods; patrol officers d. Politia
perform specific predetermined preventive functions
on a planned systematic basis: 1120. The concept of Unity of command is:
a. Target Oriented Patrol a. No one should have more than one boss.
b. High-Visibility Patrol b. Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
c. Low-Visibility Patrol c. Number of subordinates that a Superior can effectively
d. Directed deterrent Patrol supervise.
d.Conferring certain tasks, duties, and responsibilities
to subordinates.

1121. Which among the following Patrol Method is

appropriate when responding to quick emergency
call?
1112. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting of armed a. Motorcycle Patrol
and dangerous person or persons, aboard a vehicle or b. Air Patrol
on foot, including the power to use all necessary and c. Automobile Patrol
legal means to accomplish such end. d. Foot Patrol
a. Dragnet Operation
b. Hasty Checkpoint 1122. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for
c. High-Risk Arrest services
d. High Risk Stop a. Reactive patrol
b. Directed deterrent patrol
1113. Which among the following activities during post- c. Proactive patrol
patrol or post-deployment phase is not included? d. Blending patrol
a. Formation & Accounting
b. Debriefing/Report Submission 1123. Before policemen become a dispatcher he must
c. Inspection & recall of Equipment be_______.
d. Briefing a. Voice Radio Operator
b. Trained Formally
1114. Police Patrols were restricted only to answering calls c. Licensed Dispatcher
of service. d. Coordinator
a. Reactive
b. High Visibility 1124. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was
c. Proactive initiated on:
d. Low Visibility a. August 10, 1917
b. August 7, 1901
1115. The first organized patrol for policing purposes was c. November 22, 1901
formed in London. This patrol pattern is usually done d. March 17, 1901
at the last hour of duty to ascertain that nothing
happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol? 1125. What should be accomplished by Patrol officers during
a. Straight Post-Deployment Phase?

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 a. Situation Report c. Motive
b. Citation Report d. Capability
c. Daily Patrol Report 1136. The factors to be considered in determining the
d. Hourly Patrol Report number of patrol officers to be deployed in an area are
the following, except:
1126. This patrol tactic would result to improvement of a. Size of the area
police omnipresence: b. Possible problems to be encountered
a. Target Oriented Patrol c. Topography
b. High-Visibility Patrol d. none of the choices
c. Low-Visibility Patrol 1137. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the
d. Directed deterrent Patrol people together in a cooperative manner in order to
prevent crime:
1127. It is the most prevalent and economical method of a. Integrated Patrol
patrol used in patrol force: b. Team policing
a. Foot Patrol c. Reactive patrol
b. Air Patrol d. Proactive patrol
c. Automobile Patrol
d. Motorcycle Patrol
1128. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times 1138. The theory in patrol which states that police officers
more sensitive than human’s sense of smell? should conduct overt police operations in order to
a. One thousand times discourage people from committing crime refers to:
b. One hundred times a. Theory of police omnipresence
c. Ten thousand times b. Low police visibility theory
d. Ten million times c. Low profile theory
d. Maximum deterrence theory
1129. Transfer of knowledge from one person to another
through common medium and channel. 1139. The principle of patrol force organization which states
a. Information that patrol officers should be under the command of
b. Communication only one man refers to:
c. Police Communication a. Span of control
d. Radio b. Unity of command
c. Chain of command
1130. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly d. Command responsibility
authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for 1140. The elimination of the opportunity of people to
other legitimate purposes. commit crime as a result of patrol.
a. Clear Zone a. Crime prevention
b. Public Place b. Crime intervention
c. Police Checkpoint c. Crime suppression
d. Pre-Determined Area d. Crime deterrence

1131. It refers to a repeated circuit of in guarding, primarily 1141. The Greek word which means “government of a city”
to prevent the commission of crimes and maintain the or “civil organization and the state”, which is claimed
peace and order situation in a particular area: as the origin of the word police refers to:
a. Police Patrol a. Politia
b. Preventive Patrol b. Policia
c. Foot Patrol c. Politeia
d. Patrol d. Polis
1142. Under the Integrated Patrol System, the primary
1132. It is the primary objective of police patrol operations: objective of patrol activity is:
A.Crime Prevention a. To prevent commission of crime.
B.Protect and Serve b. Integrate the police and the community
C.Law enforcement c. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D. All of the choices d. Visibility and Omniprescence.
1143. What law provides for the creation of the National
1133. Doubling the level of routine patrol is a a. patrol Intelligence Coordinating Agency?
strategy called: a. RA 157
a. Reactive Patrol b. B. EO 213
b. Directed Patrol c. RA 6040
c. Preventive Patrol d. EO 246
d. Proactive Patrol 1144. A person who breaks intercepted codes.
a. Crypto Analyst
1134. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident b. Cryptographer
faster but undetected, then the best patrol method c. Cryptograph
that he should employ is: d. Code breaker
a. Bicycle patrol
b. Automobile patrol 1145. Agent who is a member of paramilitary group
c. Motorcycle patrol organized to harass the enemy in a hot war situation.
d. Foot patrol a. Guerilla
b. Propagandist
1135. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a c. Provocateur
person that enables another to victimize him: d. Strong Arm
a. Instrumentality 1146. It is a type of Cover which alters the background that
b. Opportunity will correspond to the operation.

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 a. Multiple 1156. The process of extracting information from a person
b. Natural believes to be in possession of vital information
c. Artificial without his knowledge or suspicion.
d. Unusual a. Elicitation
1147. Which of the following statements is TRUE? b. Surveillance
c. Roping
A.Intelligence Officer can submit his information report d. Undercover Operations
any time since it is to processes.
b. All intelligence information’s are collected by 1157. It is a type of Agent used in collecting information who
clandestine method. leaks false information to the enemy.
c. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a medium a. Double Agent
size police station. b. Expendable Agent
d. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence information c. Agent of Influence
by initiating good public relations. d. Penetration Agent
1148. Wire tapping operations in our country is strictly
prohibited but it can be done at the commander’s 1158. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police
discretion since it tends to collect intelligence Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to
information. the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest,
a. Partly True and prosecution of criminal offenders.
b. Partly False a. Internal Security Intelligence
c. Wholly True b. Public Safety Intelligence
d. Wholly False c. Criminal Intelligence
1149. If information comes with a low reliability and d. Preventive Intelligence
doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded
or refused acceptance? 1159. Intelligence is the end product resulting from the
a. Maybe Yes collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
b. Yes interpretation of all available information. What is
c. No considered as the core of intelligence operations?
d. Maybe No a.Dissemination
1150. In selection and recruitment of informers the best b. Analysis
factor to be considered is: c. Mission
A.Age d. Planning
B.Access
C.Educational Attainment D.Body 1160. He is regarded as the "Father of Organized Military
built Espionage".
1151. It is otherwise known as the “Anti-Wiretapping Act” a. Alexander the Great
which prohibits wiretapping in our country. b. Frederick the Great
a. RA 1700 c. Karl Schulmeister
b. RA 4200 d. Arthur Wellesley
c. RA 7877
d. RA 7160 1161. There are four categories of classified matters; top
1152. Security Clearance is a certification by a responsible secret, secret, confidential, and restricted. To
authority that the person described is cleared to distinguish, their folder consists of different colors.
access and classify matters at appropriate levels. What will be the color of the document which requires
Interim clearance will remain valid for a period of____ the highest degree of protection?
from the date of issuance. a. Red
a. 1 year b. Black
b. 5 years c. Blue
c. 2 years d. Green
d. 4 years 1162. What verse of the Holy Bible that includes the biblical
indication of the beginning of Intelligence?
1153. How will you evaluate the intelligence report of Agent a. Number 13:17
Mariano with an evaluation rating of D2? b. Number 3:17
c. Number 17:13
a. Completely reliable source doubtfully true information d. Number 17:3
b. Unreliable source – probably true information 1163. A certain locality is identified to be a major source of
c. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information illicit drugs, to resolve this issue intelligence officer
d. Not Usually reliable source – probably true information was deployed to live in the area for a considerable
amount of time to find out the authenticity of such
1154. It is a process or method of obtaining information reports.
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge a. Social assignments
information. b. Work assignments
a. Interview c. Organizational assignments
b. Interrogation d. Residential assignments
c. Forceful Interrogation
d. Tactical Interrogation 1164. It is a type of intelligence activity which deals with
defending the organization against its criminal
1155. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record enemies?
discreetly conversations of other people. a. Line Intelligence
a. Eavesdropping b. Counter-Intelligence
b. Bugging c. Strategic Intelligence
c. None of these d. Tactical Intelligence
d. Wiretapping

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 1165. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which a. Overt Operation
is “usually from a reliable source and improbable b. Surveillance
information”? c. Covert Operation
a. C-5 d. Analysis
b. B-5
c. B-3
d. C-3 1175. Investigation of the records and files of agencies in the
1166. It is a form of investigation in which the operative area and residence of the individual being
assumes a cover in order to obtain information investigated.
a. Overt operation a. CBI
b. Undercover assignment b. NAC
c. Covert operation c. PBI
d. clandestine operation d. LAC

1167. It refers to a person who is highly skilled in converting 1176. The type of intelligence that is immediate in nature
message from clear to unintelligible forms by use of and necessary for more effective police planning.
codes and cipher. a. Line Intelligence
a. Cryptographer b. Strategic Intelligence
b. Crypto Analyst c. Police Intelligence
c. Cryptography d. Departmental Intelligence
d. Cryptechnician
1177. It is considered as the most secured method of
1168. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered disseminating the information to the user of classified
by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly Reliable and matters is by means of:
doubtfully true information? a. Debriefing
a. D-4 b. Conference
b. C-4 c. Cryptographic method
c. C-5 d. Seminar
d. D-5

1169. In surveillance, the following are done to alter the 1178. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to
appearance of the surveillance vehicle, EXCEPT: form a logical picture or theory.
a.Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle a. Integration
b.Putting on and removing hats, coats and sunglasses b. Evaluation
c.Change of seating arrangement within the surveillance c. Deduction
vehicle d. Interpretation
d.Keep the cars behind the subject car.
1179. In intelligence functions, a black list means:
1170. A _______ is usually for the purpose of waiting for the a. Neutral
anticipated arrival of the suspect who is either wanted b. Unwanted
for investigation or who is expected to commit a crime c. Friendly
at a certain location. d. Unfriendly
a. Stake out
b. Rough Shadowing 1180. It is claimed that 99% of information is obtained from
c. Shadowing conspicuous sources and 1% of information is
d. Surveillance obtained from clandestine sources. Clandestine
means.
1171. In the Intelligence function, the black list includes a. Observable
________ forces. b. Overt
a. Unwanted c. Visible
b. Friendly d. Covert
c. Neutral
d. Unfriendly 1181. An E-3 intelligence report means:

1172. They are responsible for foreign intelligence of United a. The information comes from completely reliable sources
Kingdom and it is also referred as Box 850 because of and Improbable true.
its old post office box number. b. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
a. Security Service probably true.
b. Secret Intelligence Service c. The information comes from Fairly Reliable sources and
c. Government Communication Headquarters doubtfully true.
d. Defense Intelligence Staff d. The information comes from Unreliable sources and
1173. Known as the Prussia's "King of Sleuthhounds" as possibly true.
minister of police he studied the use of propaganda 1182. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is
and censorship as well as utilizing statistical generally refers to as?
intelligence accounting. a. Plant
a. Herbert Yadley b. Stakeout
b. Wilhem Steiber c. None
c. Admiral Yamamoto d. Tailing or Shadowing
d. Joseph Fouche 1183. The classification “Top secret”, have the security color
folderof?
1174. If the information or documents are procured openly a. Red
without regard as to whether the subject of the b. Black
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose c. Blue
or purposes for which it is being regarded. d. Green

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 1184. The process of assigning higher category of document 1194. The combination of the elements isolated analysis
or information according to the degree of security with other known information related to the
needed. operation.
a. Degrading a. Recording
b. Classification b. Analysis
c. Upgrading c. Integration
d. Advancement d. Interpretation

1185. It is a process or method of obtaining information 1195. It deals with the demographic and psychological
from a captured enemy who is reluctant to divulge aspects of groups of people.
information. a. Sociological Intelligence
a. Interview b. Economic Intelligence
b. Forceful Interrogation c. Biographical Intelligence
c. Interrogation d. Political Intelligence
d. Tactical Interrogation
1196. Which among the following principles of intelligence
1186. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine deemed to be the most important?
if the information is true and-
a. Reliable a.intelligence requires continuous security measures
b. Accurate b. Intelligence and operation are interdependent
c. Correct c. Intelligence must be available on time
d. Probably true d. Intelligence must be flexible

1187. This kind of intelligence is long range in nature: 1197. It is the careful inspection of a place to determine its
a. Line Intelligence suitability for a particular operational purpose.
b. Operational Intelligence a. Casing
c. Strategic Intelligence b. Loose Tail
d. Counter Intelligence c. Rough Shadowing
d. Stakeout
1188. It refers to a place, building or enclosed area where
police undercover men meet for debriefing or 1198. It refers to the determination of the pertinence of the
reporting purposes. information to the operation, reliability of the source
a. Safe house of or agency and the accuracy of the information.
b. Log a. Evaluation
c. Live Drop b. Recording
d. Decoy c. Credibility
d. Appraisal
1189. It is more comprehensive than the NAC or LAC, which
includes some or all of the circumstances.
a. National Agency Check
b. Background Investigation 1199. It refers to the most dangerous type of informant.
c. Complete Background Investigation a. Women
d. Personnel Security Investigation b. Double Crosser
c. False
1190. He is regarded as the Greatest Spymaster at all time: d. Anonymous
a. Frederick the Great
b. Alexander the Great 1200. It is the transforming of coded message into plain text.
c. Arthur Wellesley a. Coding
d. Joseph Hernandez b. Encrypting
c. Decoding
1191. What specialist group of CIA that was established to d. Reclassify
research, create and manage technical collection
discipline and equipment. 1201. After the planning on how intelligence is to be
collected, the intelligence officer must have thorough
a.National Clandestine Service knowledge of the __________.
b.Directorate of Support
c. Directorate of Intelligence a. The strength of the area where the information will be
d. Directorate of Science and Technology gathered
b. Where they will be collecting the information
1192. The persons listed in________ are allowed to enter a c. Available sources of information
certain establishment or building. d. The vulnerabilities of the possessor of intelligence
a. Access list
b. Black List 1202. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the street of
c. Blue Print Rome to gather first hand information, he is
d. Silver list considered as the greatest military strategist.
a. Alexander the Great
1193. The deliberate destruction, disruption, or damage of b. Hannibal
equipment, a public service, as by enemy agent or c. Frederick the Great
dissatisfied employees. d. Genghis Khan
a. Subversion
b. Sabotage 1203. If information comes with a low reliability and
c. Espionage doubtful accuracy, will this information be discarded
d. None of these or refused acceptance?

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 a. Yes a. Counter
b. True b. Departmental
c. No c. Line
d. False d. National

1204. It is one of the Functional Classification of Police 1213. Is the reduction of information into writing or some
Intelligence which refers to the knowledge essential to other form of graphical representation and the
the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest, arranging of this information into groups related
and prosecution of criminal offenders. items.
a. Internal Security Intelligence a. Recording
b. Criminal Intelligence b. Integration
c. Public Safety Intelligence c. Analysis
d. Preventive Intelligence d. Demonstration

1205. If the information or documents are procured openly 1214. What is the evaluation rating of Unreliable and
without regard as to whether the subject of the Possibly true?
investigation becomes knowledgeable of the purpose a. -2
or purposes for which it is being regarded. b. E-2
a. Overt Operation c. E-3
b. Clandestine d. C-3
c. Surveillance
d. Covert Operation 1215. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in
destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign
1206. Which of the following is the most common reason activities and the protection of information against
why an informer gives information to the police? espionage, subversion and sabotage.
a. Monetary Reward a. Passive Intelligence
Popularity b. Counter Intelligence
Revenge c. Line Intelligence
As a good citizen d. Demographic Intelligence

1207. A method of collecting information thru interception 1216. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance
of telephone conversation. of peace and order.
a. Bugging a. CRIMINT
b. Wire Tapping b. SIGINT
c. Code name c. PUSINT
d. NONE d. INSINT

1208. Is the condition, situation, and circumstance the

enemy’s’ area of consideration that render the 1217. Who directs the organization conducting the
criminal groups susceptible to damage, deception, or clandestine activity?
defeat by the police organization. a. Manager
a.Conclusion b. Superior
b.Capabilities c. Sponsor
c. Vulnerabilities d. Agent
d.Evaluation
1218. Agents who molds the attitudes, opinions, and actions
1209. It is the general statement describing the current of an individual group or nation.
police internal defense, internal development, a. Propagandist
psychological operation and responsibilities of the b. Support Agent
organization c. Principal Agent
a. Area of operation d. Action Agent
b. Capabilities of organized crime
c. the crime situation 1219. Refers to a place where agents or informants leave
d. the mission their messages to the other Agents.
a. Live Drop
1210. It is defined as evaluative and interpreted information b. Safe House
concerning organized crime and other major police c. Decoy
problems. d. Bait
A.Military Intelligence
b.Military Information 1220. All except one are interrelated to one another.
c.Police Intelligence a. Fixed Surveillance
d.Police Investigation b. Stakeout Surveillance
c. Stationary Surveillance
1211. The term appropriate for someone who gives d. Active Surveillance
information in exchange for a reward is:
a. Informer 1221. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to
b. Informant the different hang out places of the subject.
c. Special informer a. Social Assignment
d. Confidential Informant b. Residential Assignment
c. Work Assignment
1212. The intelligence required by department or agencies d. None of these
of the government to execute its mission and
discharge its responsibilities.

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 1222. A person who informs solely for the pecuniary or other a. Cryptography
material gain he is to receive. b. Cryptanalysis
a. Gratitude c. Decipher
b. Repentance d. Coding
c. Remuneration
d. Vanity 1233. The protection resulting from the application of
1223. National Intelligence Coordinating Agency is led by a- various measures which prevent or delay the enemy
a. Director or unauthorized person in gaining information through
b. General communication.
c. President a. Communication Security
d. Director-General b. Physical Security
c. Document Security
1224. Integrated product of intelligence developed by all d. Internal Security
government departments concerning the broad aspect
of national policy and national Security. 1234. Those documents place on a Blue Folder are
a National Intelligence considered as:
b.Departmental Intelligence a. Top Secret
c. International Intelligence b. Secret
d. Social Intelligence c. Restricted
d. Confidential
1225. .The process of categorizing a document or
information according to the degree of security 1235. Documents which are classified as Secret should be
needed. placed on-
a. Classification a. Blue Folder
b. Upgrading b. Black folder
c. Reclassification c. Green Folder
d. None of these d. Red Folder

1226. Final clearance will remain valid for a period of____ 1236. It is a certification by a responsible authority that the
from the date of issuance. person described is cleared to access and classify
a. 2 years matters at appropriate levels.
b. 5 years a. Security Clearance
c. 4 years b. Document Clearance
d. 1 year c. Interim Clearance
d. Nome of these
1227. It refers to the person who conducts the surveillance.
a.Surveillant 1237. Extreme precautions are taken against losing the
b Subject subject is employed where constant surveillance is
c. Interrogator necessary.
d. Interviewee a. Close tail
b. Loose tail
1228. The "Great Mogul" and wise master of Hindustan c. Rough Shadowing
employed more than 4,000 agents for the sole d. Surveillance
purpose of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it. 1238. M evaluates the information as usually reliable and
a. Joseph Petrosino probably true.
b. Edgar Hoover a. C-4
c. Napoleon Bonaparte b. B-3
d. Akbar c. B-2
d. C-5
1229. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is to determine
if the information is true and-
a Reliable 1239. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
b. Correct _____________.
c. Probably true a. Russia
d. Accurate b. Germany
1230. It refers to those measures, which seek actively to c. Israel
block the enemies’ effort to gain information or d. Pakistan
engage in espionage, subversion, and sabotage. 1240. Law enforcement in China was carried out by _______
which developed in both chu and jin kingdom of the
a. Counter Intelligence Spring and Autumn period.
a. Watch man
b. Passive Counter Intelligence b. Prefect
c. Active Counter Intelligence c. Gendemarie
d. Intelligence d. Constabulary

1231. Chronological records of activities that took place in 1241. She is the first Filipino commissionedofficer in a UN
the establishment under surveillance. integral mission.
a. Memory a. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
b. records b. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
c. Log c. C SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
d. Report d. None of these

1232. It is defined as an art and science of codes and ciphers.

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 1242. New York Police Department (NYPD) have limited a. Northern Ireland
jurisdiction on _______: b. England
a. USA c. China
b. New York d. Japan
c. None of these
d. Los Angeles 1253. Throughout the United Kingdom, the rank structured
of police force is identical up to the rank of?
1243. The Penal Provisions of the electronic Commerce Act: a. Chief Constable
a. RA 5678 b. Chief Inspector
b. RA 9165 c. Chief Superintendent
c. RA 1298 d. Inspector
d. RA 8792
1254. In USA, what state are among the first to hire women
1244. In the etymology of the word police the ancient word and minorities as police officer.
“Polisoos” referred to a person who_____? a. Massachusetts
a. Enforcing Law b. California
b. Civil Policy c. New York
c. Guarding a City d. Washington
d. Citizenship
1255. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the comparable rank
1245. During the middle ages, there were two guard officer to inspector or sub-lieutenant?
of the kingdom of France with police responsibilities a. Police Rank 4
those are the Marshal of France and ________: b. Police Supervisor Rank 4
a. Constable of France c. Police Officer Rank 1
b. Queens Royal Guard d. Police Supervisor Rank 1
c. Scotland Yard
d. Constabulary 1256. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is the lowest
1246. Peace officers are treated as state servants and people possible rank of its police personnel?
have minimal share in their duties or any direct a. Police Rank 1
connection with them. This reflected the: b. Police Officer Rank 1
a. Continental Theory c. Investigator 1
b. Home rule Theory d. Constable
c. Old Concept
d. Modern concept 1257. It is being acknowledge by Federal Bureau
1247. The typical number of Detectives are roughly Investigation and INTERPOL to be the “Asia’s Finest”
________ of a police service personnel: police force and in having, set up the foundation for
a. 75% the social stability of Hong Kong and has won a good
b. 5 to 10% reputation as one of the safety cities in the world.
c. 15 to 25%
d. 7 to 10% a. Philippine National Polic
b. Hong Kong Police Force
1248. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over federal crimes c. Japan Police Department
or those with an interstate components. The d. National Police Agency
statement is:
a. Correct 1258. It is the highest possible rank in Australia Police Force:
b. Partially Correct a. Commissioner General
c. False b. Director General
d. partly False c. Commissioner
d. Director
1249. This pertains to all those forms of policing that, in
some sense transgress national borders: 1259. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
a. International Policing a. Omerta
b. Global Policing b. Morse
c. National Policing c. Nostra Compra
d. Transnational Policing d. Cosa Nostra

1260. The supreme governing body of the INTERPOL is the:

1250. In US, he introduced police reforms to include a. Executive Assembly
educational requirement for police officer: b. Major Assembly
a. James Q. Wilson c. National Assembly
b. Sir Henry Peel d. General Assembly
c. August Volmer
d. O.W. Wilson 1261. The general Secretariat office of the INTERPOL is run
by the:
1251. The motto of Hongkong Police force: a. Director General
a. Law and Order b. Supervisor
b. Safer Communities together c. Inspector General
c. Serve and Protect d. Secretary General
d. We serve with pride and Care
1262. In US, who is responsible in reducing corruption and
1252. Where do you can find the so called Police introduced professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization for Chicago Police Department:
police officer whose are changed of committing any a. August Volmer
form of misconduct: b. Margaret Adams

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 c. William Stewart c. Transnational Organized crime
d. O.W. Wilson d. Terrorist
1263. The police rank in Japan that is called Keishi:
a. Policeman 1274. Is the terrorist group which was founded by Osama Bin
b. Chief Superintendent Laden in 1980?
c. Superintendent a. Al Qaeda
d. Senior Superintendent b. Jihad
c. Mafia
1264. It is the counterpart of Police Community Precinct in d. Nuestra Costra
Japan:
a. Keishi 1275. Is the term which refers to the holy war waged by
b. Koban members of the Islamic religion against the Jews?
c. Omerta a. Al Qaeda
d. Keiban b. Jihad
c. Mafia
1265. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but it is the d. Nuestra Costra
highest position in Japan Police Organization:
1276. It is the category of terrorist organization which is
a. Commissioner Secretariat aimed in achieving political autonomy or religious
b. Commissioner freedom.
c. Chairman a. Revolutionary
d. Commissioner General b. Separalist
1266. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by a c. Ethnocentric
Commissioner General who is appointed by: d. Political
a. Japans Emperor
b. Prime Minister 1277. It is the anchor of the investigation of all crimes
c. National Public Safety Commission committed via the internet:
d. Japan Commission a. Dynamic IP Address
b. Internet Protocol Address
1267. The lowest rank in Singapore Police Force: c. Static IP Address
a. Junsa d. Email Address
b. Constable
c. Sergeant 1278. It is the act of illegally accessing the computer system
d. Police Officer or network of an individual, group or business
enterprise without the consent of the party’s system:
1268. Irish Police are called: a. Computer Fraud
a. Militsiya b. Hacking
b. Constable c. Cracking
c. Police Force d. Theft
d. Garda Socha
1279. It refers to a Code written with the intention of
1269. In 2006 he was tasked to head the UN integral Mission replicating itself.
in Timor-Leste, he is the first Filipino police a. Trojan Horse
commissioner of a United Nation Operation. b. Worm
a. SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas c. Virus
b. Insp. Aurisa I. Mitra d. None of these
c. P/D Rodolfo A. Tor
d. None of these 1280. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to
establish a shared database among concerned
1270. It States that the yardstick of police proficiency relies agencies for information on criminals,
on the absence of crime. methodologies, arrests and convictions on transnational
a. Home rule crime
b. Continental
c. Old police service a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes (PCTC)
d. Modern police service b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
c. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
1271. The first secretary general of the Interpol. d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
a. Oskar Dressler 1281. What is the highest rank of police officer in Japan?
b. Ronald K. Noble a. KEISHI SOKAN
c. Johann Schober b. KEISHI SO
d. Aberdeen Scotland c. KEISHI KAN
d. KEIBU-HO
1272. The first president of the Interpol.
a. Oskar Dressler 1282. The founder of the Texas Rangers and known to be the
b. Ronald K. Noble “Father of Texas”.
c. Johann Schober a. Stephen Austin
d. Aberdeen Scotland b. Vernon Knell
c. Dave Batista
1273. Group of highly specialized a armed man who inflicts d. Johann Schober
fear and uses violence to accomplish
their objectives with a usual international scope of activity.
1283. An order strengthening the operational, administrative
a. Organized Crime
and information support system of the PCTC. Under
b. Transnational Crime
this EO, the centre shall

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 exercise general supervision and control over NACAHT, c. 6 years
ICPO, PNP or DILG d. 2 years
a. EO 100
b. EO 465 1292. Specific Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height,
c. EO 465 Weight and Education, only when the number of
d. EO 789 qualified applicants falls below the minimum annual
quota. Appointment status under a waiver program is
1284. Richard Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She was 29 ________.
years old then. What year will Amado will retire? a. Temporary
a. 2016 b. Probationary
b. 2023 c. Permanent
c. 2012 d. Regular
d. 2031
1293. __________ is given to any PNP member who has
1285. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP exhibited act of conspicuous and gallantry at the risk
commissioned and non-commissioned officer may of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
retire and be paid separation benefits corresponding a. Meritorious Promotion
to a position two ranks higher than his/her rank: b. Special Promotion
a. Retirement in the next higher grad c. Regular Promotion
b. Compulsory retirement d. On-the-Spot Promotion
c. Early retirement program
d. Optional Retirement 1294. Which among the following has no promotional
authority over the members of the PNP?
1286. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an independence a. Deputy Director General
from the PNP. It has an investigative and adjudicatory b. Director General
power over PNP members. c. President of the Philippines
a. Internal Affairs Service d. Regional Director
b. National Police Commission 1295. Any PNP member shall be dismissed immediately from
c. People’s Law Enforcement Board the service after due notice and summary hearings if it
d. National Appellate Board
was proven that he went on AWOL for a continuous
period of:
1287. In police operational planning the use of the wedge,
squad diagonal or deployed line would be probable a. 30 days or more
used for: b. 15 days or more
a. Arm confrontation c. 20 days or more
b. Relief Operation d. 60 days or more
c. Civil Disturbance 1296. Refers to the actual restraint of armed persons
d. VIP Security following a high-risk stop.
a. Dragnet Operation
1288. What is the appropriate training course for POIII to
SPOI? b. Hasty Checkpoint
a. Officers Senior Executive Course c. High-Risk Arrest
b. Officer Basic Course d. High Risk Stop
c. Senior Leadership Course d. Junior
Leadership Course 1297. PO3Maine Mendoza, receives 19, 870.00 base pay
since he was promoted. After five years from
1289. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal of deputation of promotion, what would be his monthly base pay after
local chief executives as representative of the adding his longevity pay?
NAPOLCOM: a. 21, 857.00
Repeated unauthorized absences; b. 19, 970.00
c. 24, 870.00
d. 31, 549.00
1298. It refers to those situations or conditions that may
.II. Abuse of authority; induce incidents for some kind of police action:
III. Habitual tardiness; a. Police Accident
IV. Providing material support to criminals; and b. Police Brutality
V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security. c. Police Hazard
d. Police Operation

A. I, II, III, V 1299. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally means-
B. II, V, IV, I a. The Sword Bearer
C.I, II, IV, III b. The Base
D. I, II, III, IV, V c. Islamic Congregation
1290. Planning for emergencies of a specific nature at known d. Ayman Al Zawahiri
locations.
a. Functional Plan 1300. What kind of force is needed during armed
b. Time Specific Plans confrontation?
c. Tactical Plans a. Reasonable force
d. Operational Plans b. Logical Force
1291. A retired PNP uniformed personnel can get the lump c. Rational Force
sum of his retirement benefits for the period of the d. Evenhanded Force
first _____. 1301. The peace-keeping detail shall not be stationed in the
a. 10 years picket line (or confrontation line) but should be
b. 5 years stationed in such manner that their presence may

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 deter the commission of criminal acts or any untoward c. Truncheon
incident from either side. The members of the peace- d. Shield
keeping detail shall stay outside a _______ radius from 1309. It is the brief stopping of an individual, whether on
the picket line. foot or in a vehicle, based on reasonable
a. 50 feet suspicion/probable cause, for the purpose of
b. 50 meter determining the individual’s identity and resolving the
c. 100 feet officer’s suspicion concerning criminal activity.
d. 100 meter a. Frisking
b. Search
1302. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if transported by a c. Spot Check
patrol jeep, the subject must be- d. Pat-down Search
1310. Refers to a location where the search, which is duly
a. Seated on the left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at authorized by the PNP, is conducted to deter/prevent
the rear on the Right side facing the subject the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for
b. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit other legitimate purposes.
at the rear on the left side facing the subject a. Clear Zone
c. Seated on the Left rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit at b. Public Place
the rear on the left side facing the subject c. Police Checkpoint
d. Seated on the Right rear seat and a PNP escort shall sit d. Pre-Determined Area
at the rear on the Right side facing the subject 1311. Electronic blotter is a computerized system, which was
accepted by the courts, prosecutors’ office and the
public in general. What police office is using this kind
of blotter?
a. Makati
b. Cebu
1303. Female detainees shall not be transported in c. Baguio
handcuffs but only with necessary restraint and proper d. Davao
escort, preferably aided by a police woman. The 1312. It refers to the venue or place established or
statement is- designated by local government units within their
a. Partially True respective jurisdictions where a public assembly could
b. Wholly True be held without securing any permit for such purpose
c. Partially False from the local government unit concerned.
d. Wholly False a. Secured Area
b. Wide Space
1304. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or other public c. Freedom Park
assemblies, employment of tear gas and water d. Clear Zone
cannons shall be made under the control and 1313. The police function in which patrol belong is:
supervision of the- a. Line function
a. Ground Commander b. Administrative function
b. Incident Commander c. Staff function
c. Immediate Commander d. d. Auxiliary function
Superior Officer 1314. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the earrings of
Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is standing near
1305. What should be the action of patrol officers, when Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is not weaken by
responding to Calls for Police Assistance, except? existence of Insp. Gonzales but the ______ for
a. Stop the car at some distance away from the scene. successful robbery is prevented.
b. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals a. Ambition
c. Determine the crime committed. b. Intention
d. None of these c. Motive
d. Opportunity
1306. Where should the patrol officer turnover the 1315. Police personnel whose rank at the time of his
information and pieces of evidence gathered at the retirement is Superintendent shall retire with the rank
crime scene? of __________:
a. SOCO team a. Superintendent
b. Immediate Supervisor b. C/Superintendent
c. Responding unit c. Sr. Superintendent
d. Medico Legal Officer d. C/Inspector
1316. Refers to the immediate, recent chase or follow-up
1307. Request for police assistance in the implementation of without material interval for the purpose of taking into
final decisions or orders of the court in civil cases and custody any person wanted by virtue of a warrant, or
of administrative bodies on controversies within their one suspected to have committed a recent offense
jurisdiction shall be acted upon by the appropriate while fleeing from one police jurisdictional boundary
police office. The request is filed at least _____ prior to to another that will normally require prior official
the actual implementation. inter-unit coordination but which the pursuing unit
a. 3 days cannot, at that moment, comply due to the urgency of
b. 10 days the situation.
c. 5 days a. Hot Pursuit
d. 15 days b. Hasty Checkpoint

1308. It may be utilized to break up formations or groupings c. Dragnet Operation

of demonstrations who continue to be aggressive and d. High Risk Stop
refused to disperse despite earlier efforts. 1317. Which among the following terms is not related to
a. Tear Gas each other?
b. Water Cannon a. Hot Pursuit

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 b. Fresh Pursuit
c. Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit 1327. A new Private security agency that has been issued a
d. Bright Pursuit temporary license to operate is good for how many years?
1318. Refers to the highest degree of restraint that the a. One
police, military and other peace keeping authorities b. Two
shall observe during a public assembly or in the c.Three
dispersal of the same. d.Four
a. Reasonable Force
b. Greatest Lenience 1328. The removal of the security classification from the
c. Maximum Tolerance classified matter.
d. Utmost Patience a.Segregation
1319. Which among the following aspects of a. Security is b. Declassify
the weakest of them all? c. Reclassify
a. Physical security d. Exclusion
b. Personnel security
c. Document and information security 1329.The form of security that employs cryptography to
d. Personal Security protect information refers to:
A. Document and information security
1320. “There is no impenetrable barrier”. The statement b. Operational security
is- c. Communication security
a. Partially Correct d. Industrial security
b. Partially Wrong
c. Absolutely Correct 1330. The type of fence that is primarily designed to allow
d. Absolutely Wrong complete visual access between two areas is:
a. Solid fence
1321.It refers to any structure or physical device capable b. Semi-solid fence
of restriction, deterring or delaying illegal access to an c. Full-view fence
installation. d. Masonry Fence
a. Hazard
b. Perimeter Barrier 1331.The minimum age requirement for Security Manager
c. Barrier or Operator of a security agency is:
d .Energy Barrier a. 40 yrs. Old
b. 25 yrs. Old
1322. It is normally provided at main perimeter entrances c. 30 yrs. Old
to secure areas located out of doors, and manned by d. 35 yrs. Old
guards on a full time basis.
a. Guard Control Stations 1332.The following are the categories of automatic alarm
b. Tower system, except:
c. Tower Guard a. Photoelectric
d. Top Guard b. Electric Eye Device
c. Audio detection
1323 .This lamps have the advantage of providing instant d. Bill Traps
illumination when the switch is open and most commonly 1333. Which of the following is not a false key?
used protective lighting system. a. A picklock or similar tool .
a. Incandescent Lamp b. A duplicate key of the owner.
b.Gaseous Discharge Lamp c. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
c. Mercury Vapor Lamp d.Any key other than those intended by the owner.
d. Quarts Lamp 1334. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:
a. 500 lbs.
1324. The following are the areas to be lighted: b. 750 lbs.
A.Parking Areas; c. 1000 lbs.
b.Thoroughfare; d. 600 lbs.
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and 1335. The minimum number of guards required for a
E.Susceptible Areas. company security force is:
a. a, c, e a. 1000
b. a, b, c, d b. 30
c. a, c, d, e c. 100
d. a, b, c, d, e d. 200

1325. It refers to records that are irreplaceable; 1336. It refers to a system use in big installation whereby
reproduction of this record does not have the same value keys can open a group of locks.
as the original. a. Key Control
a. Vital Documents b. Master Keying
b. Important Documents c. Change Key
c. Useful Documents d. Great Grand Master Key
d. Non- Essential Documents
1337. What is called as devices and contrivance installed
1326. It is the importance of firm with reference to the inside and outside a facility to compliment and provide
natural economy and security. additional security measures and operates to advertise
a.. Relative Operation entry into sensitive and protected area?
b Relative Security a. Protective locks
c. Relative Vulnerability b. Protective cabinet
d. Relative Criticality of Operation c. Protective barrier

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 d. Protective Lighting 1344. Fundamentally, the grand mission and objective of
document examiner is to determine and conclude with
1338. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned scientific basis and technique who is the
for duty:
A. Beneficiaries
a. Post
b. Beat B. Writer or signatory
c. Area C. Master mind
d. Route D. Conspirator
1345. In questioned document, it is where all characteristics
are grouped.
A. Class characteristics
B. Individual characteristics
C. Both A and B
D. Neither
1346. Writing was written by one person when there is a
sufficient number of identical writing habits and the
absence of divergent characteristics. This is in
consonance with;
A. Identification
B. Non-identification
C. Either
D. Niether
1347. Embellishment is an example of
A. Individual Characteristics
B. Class Characteristics
C. Both
D. Neither
1348. Hiatus is a gap between strokes due to
A. Speed in writing
B. Defective writing instrument
C. Unevenness of writing materials
D. All of the choices
1349. Among the following, which is not an element of
movement?
A. Line Quality
1339. The thickness of paper is expressed in thousands of B. Rhythm
inch. C. Speed Freedom
A. Measurement D. emphasis
B. Caliper 1350. Writing, done rapidly, will exhibit no pen lift, except
C. Buffer those at the
D. Calibre A. Middle of the words/strokes
1340. Chemical used to whiten paper pulp. B. End of the stroke
A. Bleach C. Beginning of strokes
B. Alum D. B and C
C. Sufite
D. Pulp 1351. The orientation of the writing instrument is referred to
1341. A form of printing to produce a raised impression or as
pattern on the surface of a sheet of paper. A. Pen position
A. Lithograph printing B. Pen hold
B. Embossing C. Pen emphasis
C. Edge chains D. Pen orientation
D. Reprographing 1352. The relation between the tall and short letters is
1342. The original inventor of Fourdrinier paper machine. referred to as
A. Fourdrinier Brothers A. Ratio
B. Bryan Donkin B. Proportion
C. Nicholas-Louis Robert C. Line quality
D. Milton Reynolds D. All
1343. Quality of a paper related to the amount of light that 1353. In questioned document examination, it is referred to
can be transmitted through its surface. as the flourishing succession of motion which are
A. Thickness recorded in a written record.
B. Opacity A. Line quality
C. Translucent B. Rhythm
D. Texture C. Speed in writing
D. Movement

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 1354. Slant is the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters 1364. During paper manufacture, the following are included
relative to the except
A. Baseline A. Security fiber
B. Slope B. Watermarks
C. Alignment C. Iridescent band
D. Staff D. Serial number
1355. Uncommon and well fixed characteristic that serve as a 1365. Which of the following is not a crime called forgery?
fundamental point of identification. A. Forging the seal of the government
A. Slant B. Counterfeiting of coins
B. Habit C. Mutilation of coins
C. Movement D. Using forged signature or counterfeit seal or
D. All stamp
1356. Baseline is the ruled or imaginary line upon which the 1366. The imitation of a legal or genuine coin.
writing ______ A. Counterfeit
A. Holds B. Mutilation
B. Rests C. Utter
C. Stays D. Import
D. Slants 1367. When a spurious coin is made, there is
1357. Among the following, which is a common defect of A. Counterfeiting
forgery? B. Uttering
C. Mutilation
A. Patching D. Importing
B. Retracing 1368. Mutilation of coins without the intent to defraud is
C. A and B A. Not punishable under the revised penal code
D. None B. Not punishable by any law
1358. Letters that extend a distance vertically above the linear C. Punishable under the revised penal code
letters. D. Punishable under Art. 164 of the RPC.
A. Infra-linear 1369. To make false instrument intended to be passed for the
B. Supra-linear genuine one is a form of
C. Linear A. Falsification
D. None B. Forgery
1359. The only question to tackle in this kind of signature C. Tracing
forgery is the determination of the probable writer of D. Fraud
the forgery. 1370. Which of the following method should be used in order
A. Simple forgery for the naked eye to see a charred document?
B. Simulated forgery A. X-ray
C. Traced forgery B. Spectrograph
D. A and B C. Ultra violet
1360. A kind of signature forgery where the resemblance of D. Infra red
the questioned signature and genuine is apparent. 1371. Which of the following security features of a paper bill
A. Fraudulent does not react to ultra-violet light?
B. Simulated A. Serial Number
C. Simple B. Watermark
D. Traced C. Fluorescent printing
1361. To identify whether simple forgery was committed, D. Invisible security fibers
which of the following should be retrieved? 1372. Paper is for china while papyrus is for
A. Standard signature from the forger A. Sumer
B. Standard of the genuine signature B. Turkey
C. Standard of the person who made the forgery C. Sumeria
D. Identity of the forger D. Egypt
1362. One of the following statements best describe what a 1373. What is gustatory sensation?
collected standard is. A. Smell
A. It has the advantage of easily finding it. B. Taste
B. Attempt to disguise is removed. C. Skin
C. The accused is aware that the specimen will be D. Hearing
used against him. 43. The Bible (Genesis 1:3-5) God created the earth and there
D. None should be light and darkness which is daylight and night. Among
1363. Authenticity of private documents is not necessary these, what is the basic component of photography?
when A. All of these
A. It is 30 years old B. Film
B. More than 30 years old C. Camera
C. Less than 30 years old D. Light
D. More or less 30 years old 1374. Positive result of photography is called –
A. Picture

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 B. Photograph 1385. In questioned document examination, it refers to a
C. Positive stroke which goes back to writing stroke.
D. Negative A. Patching
1375. Other term for lie detector is – B. Retouching
A. GSR C. Retracing
B. Pneumograph D. Restroking
C. Cardiograph 1386. In photography probe, when murder occurred showing
D. Polygraph disarray of cabinets, photography is essential to show
1376. In key classification, is it placed on the leftmost corner defense of the -
on the numerator? A. Suspect
A. Yes B. Witness
B. Maybe C. Victim
C. No D. Kibitzers
D. Sometimes 1387. In the story of crime, with the use of firearm, the
1377. Flash bulb and electronic flash are two examples of light energy coming from the muzzle point is called -
of short duration. Which among of these is popular A. Armor-piercing
today? B. Velocity
A. Flash bulb C. Lead bullet
B. Electronic bulb D. Muzzle energy
C. Lamp 1388. What are the two types of firearms according to the
D. Flash light construction of the interior of the barrel?
1378. Can a strong acid destroy the fingerprint permanently? A. Short and long barreled firearms
A. Yes B. Small arms and artilleries
B. No C. Lands and grooves
C. Maybe D. Smoothbore and rifled bore
D. This time 1389. What is the symbol of tented arch?
1379. In forensic ballistic, the firearm examiner examines the A. Dash
firearm usually involved in a crime or the case_____? B. T
A. In court C. Te
B. In progress D. A and/or B
C. Controversy 1390. It is the centermost part of the fingerprint pattern.
D. Handled A. Inner terminus
1380. In polygraph, it is the process of detecting false B. Delta
statement or signs of - C. Inner shoulder
A. Detection D. Core
B. Deception 1391. Fingerprint patterns like loop and whorl are found in
C. Lie the -
D. Untrue statement A. Pattern area
1381. In typewriting examination which of the following first B. Delta
to be conducted? C. Core
A. Examination of the questioned specimen D. Type lines
B. Collecting of typewriting standards 1392. What is the test in examination of blood if belong to
C. Locate the type writer used human or animal?
D. Examination of the exemplar A. Takayama
1382. Aside from fingerprint, what is the other identification B. Benzidine
in securing NBI clearance? C. Kestle Meyer
A. Thumb mark D. Precipitin
B. Pending case 1393. How many standards in questioned documents is
C. Picture needed to prove?
D. Signature A. 5 standards
1383. Which of the following is a must to be considered in a B. 10 signatures
sketch? C. Sufficient amount
A. Compass direction D. 5 pages
B. Name of placed 1394. In USA, what year photography was used for court
C. Time presentation?
D. Location A. 1909
1384. In addition to medicine, as prober, how can you B. 1859
preserve perishable evidence like injuries, contusions, C. 1890
hematoma and the like? D. 1903
A. Recording 1395. What is the official purpose of conducting post mortem
B. Sketching examination?
C. Photography A. To determine the duration of death
D. Note taking B. To determine the manner of death
C. To determine the deadly weapon

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 D. To determine the cause of death. C. Caliper
1396. What part of the polygraph machine is responsible in D. Hundredth of an inch
detecting pulse rate and heart beat? 1407. In polygraph test, after the subject affirms that he is
A. Kymograph involved in a crime the examiner should report it to the
B. Pneumograph -
C. Polygraph A. Victim
D. Cardiograph B. Investigator
1397. In Dactyloscopy, if we say a person with polydactyl, he C. Object relative
or she has - D. Prosecutor
A. Extra fingerprint 1408. In fingerprint, which of the following is the pattern
B. Extra hand which refers to the rolled fingers onto the rolling
C. Extra finger impression columns?
D. Added finger A. Rolled impression
1398. What year did the colored photography was accepted in B. Indexing impression
US court? C. Palm impression
A. 1956 D. Little finger impression
B. 1978 1409. A complete rotation of a fired bullet in the rifling of a
C. 1946 gun is also termed as –
D. 1960 A. Twist of rifling
1399. Blood stays liquid for how many hours? B. Gyroscopic action
A. 6-8 hours C. Rotating motion
B. 9-10 hours D. Pitch of rifling
C. 8-12 hours 1410. In photography, it is an exhibit shown in court for
D. 3-6 hours scrutiny by litigants and others.
1400. The one who creates his own systolic in polygraph A. Police photography
examination? B. Photograph
A. James MacKenzie C. Forensic photography
B. Angelo Mosso D. Crime scene photography
C. William Marston 1411. In what way to determine the date of a paper was
D. John Larson made?
1401. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity? A. Wiremark
B. Trademark
C. Copyright
A. Blue D. Watermark
B. Violet 1412. Tripod has how many feet?
C. Pink A. It depends
D. Bright red B. Two
1402. In crime laboratory concerning the study of types, C. Three
model of firearm and its bullets is done by - D. Four
A. Ballistician 1413. In robbery case involving force upon things, which
B. Ballistic engineer should be closely photographed?
C. Forensic engineer A. Weapons used
D. Firearm prober B. Victims wounds
1403. What is the type of document which is notarized by a C. Entrance and exit
RTC judge? D. Things stolen
A. Public 1414. What is the advantage of other agencies with other
B. Official agencies when it comes to authenticity?
C. Private A. Signature and photograph
D. None of these B. Thumb mark and photograph
1404. Going back to a defective portion of a writing stroke is C. Thumb mark and signature
called - D. Signature only
A. Slicing 1415. What is the best test in determining the presence of
B. Embracing blood?
C. Retouching A. Benzedine
D. Patching B. Marquis
1405. What is the part of firearm that extract cartridge from C. Takayama
the chamber? D. Teichman
A. Breech 1416. Is taking a tranquilizer and medicine for colds affects
B. Firing pin the result of polygraph examination?
C. Extractor A. Yes
D. Ejector B. No
1406. The caliber of the smoothbore firearm is measured by - C. Depends
A. Gauge D. Maybe
B. Caliber 1417. It is where handwriting rest?

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 A. Feet a. brain
B. Vase line b. stomach
C. Baseline c. lung
D. Alignment 1429. A firearm which has a size of less than 1 inch
1418. Medically speaking, it is the sudden stoppage of the a. small firearm
heart that results to death. b. handgun
A. Instantaneous rigor c. revolver
B. Heart attack d. shotgun
C. Myocardial infarction 1430. What is the measure of the rubber tube in the
D. Death pneumograph?
1419. In polygraph test, it indicates air in system, and is a. 20 inches
measured in millimeter by the - b. 10 inches
A. Kymograph c. 7 inches
B. Sphygmomanometer d. 8 inches
C. Pneumograph 1431. An industrial complex must establish its first line of
D. Galvanograph physical defense. It must have:
1420. In Dactyloscopy, the primary purpose and importance a. the building itself
of fingerprint is for - b. communication barrier
A. Indemnification c. perimeter barrier
B. Comparison d. window barrier
C. Identification 102. If the dead person is laying, where will the blood go
D. Collection during livor mortis?
1421. Photography at the crime scene taken at the crime A. Back
scene which will be used for court presentation is called B. Neck
- C. Head
A. Crime scene photography D. Legs
B. Forensic photography 1432. If there are 6 grooves, is it also the same in lands?
C. Crime photography A. Yes
D. Police photography B. No
1422. The study of projectiles the moment the bullet leaves C. Partly Yes
the muzzle of the gun is a kind of – D. Partly No
A. Interior ballistics 1433. What is the other term for dot?
B. Terminal ballistics A. Islet
C. Forensic ballistics B. Core
D. Exterior ballistics C. Delta
1423. A magistrate and law professor in Austria who is known D. Bifurcation
for introducing the word “Criminalistics.” 1434. In writing, what is being used?
A. Hans Gross A. Finger
B. Alphonse Bertillon B. Forearm
C. Prof. R.A. Riess C. Hands
D. Edmond Locard D. All of the choices
1424. In dactyloscopy, is plain whorl always with two deltas? 1435. There are three types of fingerprint pattern; arch, whorl
a. No and _____.
b. Never A. Ulnar loop
c. Yes B. Radial loop
d. Maybe C. Loop
1425. A light proof box with a means of forming an image, D. Arch
with a means of holding sensitized material and with a 1436. Is your name Eric? What kind of question is this?
means of regulating the amount of light that enters the A. Irrelevant
camera at a given time. a. camera B. Relevant
b. light C. Control
c. film D. Evidence
d. lens 1437. In polygraph examination, what is being detected?
1426. The location of the blood pressure in the chart paper A. Lying
a. Side B. Dying
b. Middle C. Truth
c. Lower D. Response
d. Upper 1438. In pubic hair, what is the best examination to be
1427. What is the most common death caused by asphyxia? conducted in the crime laboratory?
a. strangulation A. DNA
b. drowning B. Microscope examination
c. throttling C. Chemical examination
d. Hanging D. Serology examination
1428. What is being affected in intracranial hemorrhage?

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 1439. If you didn’t clean the fingerprint slab, what will be the 1450. If you are a patrol officer, what type of CS will you
effect to the fingerprint? photograph even though there is no SOCO
A. Blurred photographer?
B. Sticky A. Vehicular accident scene
C. Classified B. Infanticide scene
D. Clear C. Homicide scene
1440. What is found on the left white portion of the portrait? D. Parricide scene
A. Vignette 1451. What is the most common symptom of coma?
B. Watermark A. Unconsciousness
C. Security fiber B. Blackening of lips
D. Fiber C. Dilated eyes
1441. In Henry System how many clasifications of fingerprints D. consciousness
are there? 1452. The dead person is dehydrated. What is lacking?
A. 2 A. H2O
B. 3 B. Blood
C. 8 C. Air
D. 7 D. Anesthesia
1442. Indication of tremor due to old age, illiteracy and 1453. In police laboratory, the one examined by biologist is
sickness is what kind of signature? not limited to ____.
A. Genuine A. Semen
B. Spurious B. Blood
C. Forged C. Riverstone
D. Simulated D. None of these
1443. If in the CS, you found semen and blood, can you 1454. These bullets when fired emit bright red flame from
consider it as rape on minor? their base, thereby showing the gunner the path as well
A. Yes as the striking point of the bullet.
a. Jacketed bullet
B. No
b. Armor-piercing
C. Partly Yes c. Semi-wed cutter bullet
D. Partly No d. Tracer bullet
1444. In polarization film, how long is the developing? 1455. The caliber of the firearms can be determined by the
A. 5 minutes bore diameter measured from:
B. 7 min
C. 3 min a. Land to firearm
D. 8 minutes b. Land to land
c. Land to groves
1445. What do you call the outer cover of the bullet?
d. Groves to land
A. Jacketed 1456. The breech end of the chamber of the firearm is sealed
B. Metallic by a solid flat block of metal against which the barrel
C. Silver comes into position when the weapon is closed for
D. Ogive firing, which is termed as:
1446. In snake, the two snake venum is neorotoxic and _____. a. Extractor
A. Hemotoxic b. Breechface
B. Viral c. Head space
C. Surgical d. Breechblock
D. B or C 1457. The firearms that propelled projectiles more than one
inch in diameter is called.
a. Machine gun
1447. Why is polygraphy in the Philippines not admissible? b. Musket
c. Artillery
A. Under experimental stage
d. Single-shot firearm
B. Under analysis 1458. A Smith & Wesson type of firearm has a class
C. Based on opinion characteristics of:
D. Unskill a. Four lands, four grooves right twist
b. Six lands, six grooves left twist
1448. Phos means light, graphia means _____. c. Seven lands, seven grooves right twist
A. Write d. Five lands, five grooves right twist
B. Study
C. Technology
1459. To impact a motion of rotation to a bullet during its
D. Record
passage inside the barrel to insure gyroscopic stability
1449. In major classification, the right thumb is the numerator
in its flight is called:
while the left is the denominator?
a. Range
A. Yes
b. Gauge
B. No c. Rifling
C. It depends d. Center-fire

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 1460. Most commonly these marks are found on bullets fired b. Left side
from a Revolver due to a poor alignment of the cylinder c. Right side
with the bore: d. The end of the bullet
1469. Discharged shell are initiated at:
a. Shaving marks
b. Skid marks
c. Pivot marks a. Inside or outside of a case near open end
d. landmarks b. Where firing pin strikes
1461. The inventor of gunpowder is credited to: c. On any part of the shell
d. None of the above
a. James Forsythe
1470. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
b. Philip O. Gravelle
c. Van Amberg
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
d. Berthold Scwartz
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
1461. That science dealing with the motion of projectile from
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
the time the firer squeezes the trigger up to the time it d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in the air
reaches the muzzle of the barrel is called:

a. Posterior ballistics 1471. The caliber of the gun is:

b. Interior ballistics
c. Exterior ballistics a. Its barrel length
d. Terminal ballistics b. The circumference of its barrel
1462. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different c. The size of the ammunition used
from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most d. Diameter of the bore
useful in directly identifying the: 1472. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of
the exploded shell have been recovered by the
a. Person who fired the particular gun investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell
b. Direction form which a shot was fired with the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
d.Bullet which caused a fatal wound a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads
1463. A patrolman should fire his pistol: c. The cap and the pellets
d. The shot shell only
a. At no time 1473. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
d. Only as a last resort means of the ballistics is that:
1464. . Which of the following, the best method to use in
a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least eight lands
firing a revolver is to keep:
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be determined by
the angle of lead
a. Both eyes closed
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be differentiated
b. Both eyes open
by the direction of the lead
c. Only the right eye is open
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from the width
d. Only the left eye is open
of the groove
1465. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the
differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling 1474. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different
which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the from those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most
following statement the one which can most accurately useful in directly identifying the:
be inferred is that:
a. Person who fired the particular gun
a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves b. Direction form which a shot was fired
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and right c. Gun from which a bullet was fired
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be either left or d. Bullet which caused a fatal wound
right 1475. A patrolman should fire his pistol:
d. All of the above
1466. The secret of good shooting form is: a. At no time
b. Primarily to stop a quarrel
a. Proper sighting of the target c. To impress upon citizen the need for respect
b. Firing slowly and carefully d. Only as a last resort
c. A relaxed and natural position
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver
1476. Which of the following, the best method to use in firing
1467. The term muzzle velocity refers most a revolver is to keep:
accurately to the:
a. Both eyes closed
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight b. Both eyes open
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight c. Only the right eye is open
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle d. Only the left eye is open
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver 1477. .Pistols with the same number of barrel grooves on the
differentiated by the direction of the twist of the rifling
1468. Discharged bullet are initiated at: which may be either be to the left or to the right. Of the
following statement the one which can most accurately
a. On base or nose
be inferred is that:

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 a. Most pistols have the same number of grooves c. Estimate the approximate time of death of the
b. Same pistols have rifling twisted both left and deceased
right d. Determine whether a suspect has fired a gun
c. The direction of the twist in any pistol can be recently
either left or right
d. All of the above 1487. The term double action with reference to revolver
1478. The secret of good shooting form is: means most nearly that:

a. Proper sighting of the target a. The revolver has both safely and automatic firing action
b. Firing slowly and carefully b. Pressure upon the trigger both cocks and released the
c. A relaxed and natural position hammer
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver c. The revolver can fire with or without automatic shell
1479. The term muzzle velocity refers most ejection
accurately to the: d. The shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge is
pushed from the magazine at the same time
a. Acceleration of the projectile in flight 1488. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a Pistol or Rifle
b. Average speed of the bullet in flight barrels is called:
c. Rate of expansion of the grooves in the muzzle
d. Speed at which the bullet leaves the revolver a. Land
1480. Discharged bullet are initiated at: b. Groove
c. Lead
a. On base or nose d. One complete revolution inside the bore
b. Left side 1489. Identifying markings or imprint are not left on a
c. Right side shell by the:
d. The end of the bullet
a. Firing
1481. Discharged shell are initiated at: b. Ejector
c. Extractor
a. Inside or outside of a case near open end d. Hammer
b. Where firing pin strikes 1490. It is the part of the mechanism in a firearm that
c. On any part of the shell withdrawn the shell or cartridge from the chamber is
d. None of the above
called the:
1482. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to:
a. Ejector
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Primer
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Striker
c. Mark the bullet for purposes of identification
d. extractor
d. Prevent the bullet from turning and over and in
the air
1483. The caliber of the gun is:

a. Its barrel length

b. The circumference of its barrel
c. The size of the ammunition used
d. Diameter of the bore
1484. A homicide was committed by a shotgun, all parts of
the exploded shell have been recovered by the
investigator of the crime. In order to identify the shell
with the gun that fired, the laboratory should be given:
a. The cap, the weds and the pellets
b. The cap and the wads
c. The cap and the pellets
d. The shot shell only
1485. Which of the following, the most accurate statement
concerning the identification of an unknown firearm by
means of the ballistics is that:
1491. A revolver to be tested and used in evidence should be
picked up by:
a. Inserting a pencil or ballpen in the barrel
b. Placing a piece of wire or string through the trigger guard
c. Grasping the handle with the handkerchief
d. Grasping the barrel with clean cloth
1492. The part of a .45 caliber semi-automatic pistol found at
the scene of the crime is normally not individual
marked for identification in the:
a. Trigger
b. Ejector
c. Slide
d. barrel
1493. The type of bore found on sewed-off shotgun is usually
a:

a. Most pistol which have left dead have at least a. Rifled bore
eight lands b. Choke bore
b. The width of the grooves in pistol can be c. Full choke bore
determined by the angle of lead d. Smooth bore
c. Pistols with the same number of land can be 1494. The maximum distance form the muzzle at which a
differentiated by the direction of the lead
firearm discharge will usually produce detectable
d. The angle lead is the angle which the land from
the width of the groove powder pattern on a target is about:
1486. Paraffin test is used to:
a. 6 to 10 inches
a. Detect whether a witness is telling the truth b. 6 to 10 feet
b. Discover whether the deceased person was c. 6 to 10 yards
poisoned d. 6 to 10 meters

Page 76 of 198
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 1495. When a shot is fired from an automatic pistol by a 1505. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger both cocks
criminal: and releases the hammer:

a. The empty shell remain within the chamber a. Single action

b. The empty in most cases will be found at the scene of firing b. Trigger
c. The shell is rarely found at the crime scene c. Hammer
d. The shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator d. Double action
1496. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the 1506. When a barrel of a game guns are almost invariability
index finger should: bored with a slightly constriction near the muzzle end is
known as:
a. Grasp the stock
b. Be straight along the barrel a. Shotgun
c. Touch the outside of the trigger guard b. Choke
d. Be inside of the trigger guard c. Gauge
1497. A member of the police force may properly used his d. Chamber
pistol: 1507. The only sure method of determining the velocity is by
the use of:
a. To disperse a disorder group of people
b. To subdue a maniac a. Micrometer
c. To prevent the escape of a pelon b. Taper Gauge
d. To stop a man suspected of having committed a crime c. Caliber
1498. A policeman arriving at the scene of a crime found a d. Chronograph
revolver, in reference to this he should be most careful: 1508. One of the most important single case in Firearms
Identification History was that involving two men who
a. To see that it is not loaded were supposed to have their employer and his
b. To put on the safety lock housekeeper in upper New York State:
c. Not to handle it unnecessarily
d. To mark it readily on the barrel
a. Castelo Case
b. Timbol Case
1499. The term “MAGNUM” originated in:
c. The Stielow Case
d. Castaneda case
a. United States
b. France 1509. During the seven years of radical agitation that
c. England
followed the arrest of these men , It was apparently
d. Italy
1500. The chemical eating away of the bore of an arm due to forgotten that they had been seized on specific charge
rusting or the action of salts deposited from the cap or of murdering one Parameter, a paymaster and his guard
gunpowder is: Berrdelli. Forensic Ballistics sprange into national
prominence during this last phrase of:
a. Pressure
b. Extractor a. Brownell Case
c. Corrosion b. Sacco-Vanzetti Case
d. Priming Composition c. Mitchell Case
1501. The mechanical wear and fear of the bore of an arm d. Weber Case
due to sliding friction when the bullet passes through is: 1510. He is doctor of medicine in Medical corps in the First
World War who had transferred to the ordinance corps
a. Ejector and considered the Father of modern Ballistics:
b. Single action
c. Erosion a. Lieutenant Van Amberg
d. Potassium nitrate b. Maj. Calvin Goddard
1502. When the mechanism is so arranged that it will fire c. Capt. Edward C. Crossman
continuously while the trigger is depressed is called: d. Philip O. Gravelle
1511. The most important single process in barrel
a. Double action manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
b. Caliber expert is:
c. Automatic
d. Trigger a. Reaming operation
1503. The distance that the rifling advances to make one b. Rifling operation
complete turn inside the gun barrel is called: c. Boring operation
d. Grinding or machining
a. Gauge
b. Breech End 1512. That part of the mechanism in a firearm which causes
c. Pitch of rifling empty shells or cartridge cases to be thrown from the
d. Velocity gun is called:
1504. Weapon in which pressure upon the trigger releases
the hammer that must be manually cocked is called: a. Extractor
b. Ejector
a. Automatic c. Hammer
b. Repeating arms d. trigger
c. Single action 1513. This process of combustion results in the solid powder
d. Ejector being converted into gases rapidly, and at a high
temperature, and it is the expansion of these gases
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 which causes the explosive force which propels the b. 4 lands, 4 grooves, right hand twist
bullet or shot charge along the barrel. This force is c. 6 lands, 6 grooves, right hand twist
known as: d. 7 lands, 7 grooves, right hand twist
1523. A caliber 6.35mm is equivalent to:
a. Energy
b. Pressure a. Caliber .32
c. Velocity b. Caliber .25
d. High Intensity c. Caliber .45
1514. A type of firearm having six lands, six grooves with the d. Caliber .22
1524. How many lead pellets dies a 12 gauge 00 bunch shot
right hand twist is:
shotgun cartridges contains:
a. Smith & Wesson
b. Browning type a. 12 gauge
c. Colt type b. 24 pellets
d. Webley type c. 6 pellets
1515. An instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by d. 9 pellets
1525. Here is a case, when two specimens are examined
the expansive force of gases coming from burning
under the comparison microscopic and was erroneously
powder a:
drawn a conclusion and actually no identity exist, this
a. Helixometer matching is called:
b. Firearm
c. Stereoscopic a. Photomicrograph
d. Comparison microscope b. Pseudomatch
1516. A knurled ring or serrated groove around the body of c. Microphotograph
the bullet which contains lubricant in order to minimize d. striagraph
1526. When the bullet enters the rifled bore from a stationary
friction during the passage of the bullet inside the bore
position and is forced abruptly into the rifling, its
is:
natural tendency is to go straight forward before
a. Jacketed bullet encountering the regular rifling twist is called:
b. Wad cutter bullet
c. Cannelure a. Shaving marks
d. Plated bullet b. Skidmarks
1517. The bouncing off or deflection of a bullet from its c. Individual characteristics
original trajectory is: d. Slippage marks
1527. Those characteristics which are determinable only after
a. Range the manufacture of the firearm. They are characteristics
b. Fouling whose existence is beyond the control of men and
c. Key hole shot which have random distribution. Their existence in a
d. ricochet firearm is brought about through the failure of the tool
1518. Occurs when a cartridge fails to explode on time or in its normal operation through wear and tear, abuse,
there is a delayed in explosion due to faulty functioning mutilation, corrosion, erosion and other fortuitous
of the primer or faulty ignition of the propellant is: causes:

a. Misfire a. Forensic ballistics

b. Recoil b. Class characteristics
c. Hang-fire c. Riflings
d. velocity d. Individual characteristics
1519. type of bullet that contains a mixture, such as 1528. The steel block which closes the rear of the bore
phosphorus or other material, that can set fire upon against the force of the charge is:
impact is called:
a. Breechface
a. Boat tail bullet b. Breechblock
b. Tracer bullet c. Chamber
c. Incendiary bullet d. bore
d. Ball type 1529. Firearms which propel projectile of less than one inch
1520. A short barrel rifle, with its barrel not longer than 22”. in diameter are generally classified as:

a. Gatling guns a. Artillery

b. Pistolized shotgun b. Small arms
c. Carbine c. Cannons
d. muskets d. Recoilless rifle
1521. A type of weapon designed to propel projectile by 1530. It is the study of firearms Identification by means of the
means of compressed air is: ammunition fired through them:

a. Springfield armory a. Ballistics

b. Marlin rifle b. Forensic Ballistics
c. Carbine c. Terminal ballistics
d. Air rifle d. Interior ballistics
1522. The class characteristics of a 9 mm Browning Pistol is: 1531. The class characteristics of a Smith & Wesson, revolver
caliber .38 is:
a. 5 lands, 5 grooves, right hand twist

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 a. Six lands, six grooves, right hand twist d. The length of the cartridge case
b. Five lands, five grooves, right hand twist 1543. A caliber 7.62 mm x 51 is equivalent
c. Six lands, six grooves, left hand twist a. Caliber .32
d. Four lands, four grooves, right hand twist b. Caliber .30
1532. Velocity of the bullet is being measure in: c. Caliber .308
d. Caliber 30.06
a. Foot pound 1544. How many pellets are there in a 00 buckshot shotgun
b. Lbs./sq. inch cartridge 12 gauge?
c. Feet per second a. 12 pellets
d. millimeter b. 9 pellets
1533. How many types of problem are there in Forensic c. 10 pellets
Ballistics? d. 16 pellets
1545. . A firearm which features a movable firearm which is
a. 8 manually actuated in motion parallel to the barrel by
b. 7
the shooter;
c. 6
d. 5 a. Slide action type
1534. What is that part in a cartridge cases where in the b. Lower action type
c. Bolt action type
flame coming from the priming composition passes?
d. Single shot firearm
1546. A device primarily designed for another purposes that
a. Shell head
have a gun mechanism in corporated in them.
b. Vent
c. Primer pocket a. Gas gun
d. anvil b. Liberator
1535. What is the most powerful handgun in the world? c. Freakish device
d. Flare guns
a. Magnum .357 1547. The numerals, letters and symbols stamped into the
b. Magnum .44 head of the cartridge case to shotshell to identify the
c. Magnum .50 manufacturer, caliber or gauge.
d. Magnum .41 a. Headspace
1536. What is the equivalent of a caliber .25 in millimeter? b. Headstamp
c. Proof mark
a. 7.65mm d. ratchet
b. 6.35 mm 1548. The distance from the face of the closed breech of a
c. 9 mm firearm to the surface in the chamber on which the
d. 7.63 mm cartridge seats.
1537. When a cartridge fails to explode on time or delayed in
a. Keyhole
explosion; b. Headspace
c. Gas operator
a. Misfired cartridge d. Silencer
b. Hang-fire 1549. The most important single process in barrel
c. Tapered cartridge
manufacture from the standpoint of the identification
d. Rebated cartridge
1538. What is the equipment in measuring the velocity of the expert.
a. Reaming operation
bullet?
b. Rifling operation
a. Omoscope
c. Boring operation
b. Helixometer
d. Grinding operation
c. Chronograph
1550. The tumbling of the bullet in flight and hitting the
d. micrometer
1539. Riflings located inside the barrel of a gun is a target sideways;
a. Ricochet
combination of:
b. Hang-fire
a. Pitch grifling
c. Key hole shot
b. Twist
d. misfired
c. Lands & grooves
1551. An obsolete barrel designed in which the major length
d. cannelures
of the barrel in smooth and the few inches are rifled.
1540. The sound created at the muzzle of the firearm after a. Gas operated
b. Damascus barrel
explosion is called:
c. Paradox gun
a. Suppressor
d. Cape gun
b. Muzzle blast
1552. A notched wheel on the rear of a revolver cylinder to
c. Compensation
d. choke rotate when force is applied by a level called a hand.
1541. What are muzzle loading firearms? a. Headspace
b. Ratchet
a. Muskets
c. Trigger pull
b. Shotgun
d. Cylinder stop
c. Single sot firearms
1553. A rigid loop which partially surrounds the trigger to
d. Rifled arms
1542. In a caliber 7.62 mm x 51 cartridge. What do you mean prevent accident discharge or damage to it.
by 51? a. Trigger pull
b. Trigger guard
a. The diameter of the cartridge case
c. Trailing edge
b. The shoulder of the cartridge case
d. Thumb rest
c. The diameter of the cartridge

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 1554. Pressure developed after explosion is measured in:
a. feet/second 1565. Lens corrected for astigmatism.
b. Lbs./sq. inch a. Aprochomat lens
c. Foot pound b. Anastigmat lens
d. Millimetre c. Achromatic lens
d. Rapid rectilinear lens
1555. Used in cases such as for sending signals and enabling 1566. A camera used for surveillance must have a lens with
to see enemies in the dark. focal length that is:
a. Wide angle lens
a. Harpoon guns b. Normal lens
b. Gas guns c. Telephoto lens
c. Flare guns d. Narrow angle lens
d. Care guns 1567. When a material does not allow light to pass its
1556. In a caliber .30-30. What do you mean by the second medium it is said to be:
a. Transparent
30?
b. Translucent
c. Opaque
a. Refers to the caliber
d. All of the above
b. Refers to the weight of gunpowder
1568. To separate colors, this homogenous medium absorbs
c. Refers to the weight of the cartridge case
and transmits light rays passing through it.
d. Refers to the weight of the bullet
a. Filter
1557. In a caliber .250-3000.The 3000 refers to the.
b. Stop bath
c. Developer
a. Muzzle energy d. Fixer
b. Diameter of the cartridge 1569. In crime scene photography what is the sufficient lens
c. Muzzle velocity of the bullet type for interior photograph?
d. Pressure developed a. Wide angle lens
1558. In a caliber .45 pistol. What is defective when more b. Normal lens
than one bullets will come out of the barrel in one press c. Telephoto lens
of the trigger? d. Narrow angle lens
1570. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a
a. Slide predetermined time interval.
b. Main spring a. View finder
c. Disconnector b. Shutter
d. Magazine catch c. Light tight box
1559. The amount of force which must be applied to the d. Holder of sensitized material
trigger of a firearm to cause sear to be released. 1571. Its primary use in photography is focus the light to the
subject.
a. Velocity a. Light tight box
b. Muzzle energy b. Shutter
c. Trigger pull c. Lens
d. Shocking power d. View finder
1560. Characteristic of photographic paper usually utilized in 1572. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is
police photography? focused with a given particular diaphragm opening.
a. Single, glossy, white a. Depth of field
b. Single, matte, cream b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Double, glossy, white c. Focal distance
d. Double matte, cream d. Scale bed
1561. When a photograph was developed, the objects in open 1573. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the
space casts a deep and uniform shadow, what was the farthest object.
lighting condition when the shot was taken? a. Depth field
a. Bright b. Hyper-focal distance
b. Dull c. Scale bed
c. Hazy d. Focal distance
d. Cloudy 1574. Which among the following is not a primary color?
a. Red
b. Blue
1562. Refers to the response of film to different wavelength c. Yellow
of light source. d. Green
a. Spectral sensitivity 1575. It is a microscopically small photograph.
b. Color sensitivity a. Microphotograph
c. Light sensitivity b. Photomicrograph
d. Film sensitivity c. Photomacrograph
1563. A film sensitive to ultra violet rays and blue color only. d. Macrophotograph
a. Blue sensitive 1576. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
b. Orthochromatic a. 1 to 1 ½ minutes
c. Panchromatic b. 5 to 10 minutes
d. Infra red c. 20 to 30 minutes
1564. Lighting condition when objects in open space casts no d. 30 to 60 minutes
shadow. 1577. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal
a. Bright paper for printing?
b. Dull a. Chloride paper
c. Hazy b. Bromide paper
d. Cloudy c. Contact paper

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 d. Chloro-bromide paper c. Bird’s eye view
1578. This refers to the absence of all colors. d. Worm’s eye view
a. White 1589. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference
b. Red to visible light is:
c. Blue a. 001 to 100
d. Black b. 300 to 400
1579. A lighting condition wherein subject in open space casts c. 400 to 700
a transparent shadow. d. 700 to 1000
a. Hazy 1590. Photography is defined as drawing with what particular
b. Cloudy Dull element?
c. Cloudy bright a. Light
d. Bright b. Camera
1580. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what c. Film
particular method of photography is utilized? d. Developer
a. Bounce light 1591. It refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker
b. Side light center and thinner sides.
c. Transmitted light a. Positive lens
d. Reflected light b. Negative lens
1581. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of c. Concave lens
two chemical solution in chemical processing in d. Convex lens
photography. 1592. It is the film with the widest range of sensitivity to the
a. Development various energies of the electromagnetic spectrum.
b. Stop-bath a. Infra-red
c. Fixation b. X-ray
d. Bleaching c. Orthochromatic
1582. Which among the following comprises the essential d. Panchromatic
parts of a camera? 1593. The first use of photography in police work is in what
a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized particular field?
material, View finder a. Crime prevention
b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized b. Identification files
material, View finder c. Surveillance work
c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized d. Crime scene investigation
material, Shutter 1594. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image
d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, recorded on the paper or film becomes visible.
holder of sensitized material a. Fixer
1583. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its b. Bleacher
negative material. c. Stop bath
a. Wide angle lens d. Developer
b. Normal lens
c. Long lens
d. Telephoto lens 1595. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of
1584. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of microscope.
convergence of light coming from a subject as seen a. Microphotography
from two apertures. b. Photomicrography
a. Focusing scale c. Macrophotography
b. Scale bed d. Photomacrography
c. View finder 1596. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of
d. Range finder image refers to:
a. Hyper-focal distance
b. Focal distance
c. Focusing
1585. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by d. Focal length
connecting the lens of a camera with the ocular of a 1597. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
compound microscope. a. Laser light
a. Microphotograph b. Coherent light
b. Photomicrograph c. Black light
c. Photomacrograph d. Heat rays
d. Macrophotograph 1598. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in
1586. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true logarithmic values refers to:
photography. a. ISO rating
a. William Henry Fox Talbot b. ASA rating
b. Thomas Wedgewood c. DIN rating
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre d. BSI rating
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce 1599. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing
1587. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright solution.
sunlight with normal subject. a. Hypo or silver halide
a. 1/30 f-8 b. Potassium Alum
b. 1/125 f-11 c. Sodium Sulfate
c. 1/60 f-4 d. Acetic Acid
d. 1/250 f 2-8 1600. Chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
1588. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the a. Hydroquinone
scene we use a camera at what particular level? b. Sodium sulfite
a. Elevated c. Sodium carbonate
b. Eye level d. Potassium bromide

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 1601. Refers to the product of illumination and time. b. All fingers except the thumbs
a. Exposure c. Both thumbs
b. Development d. Both little fingers
c. Sensitized material 1615. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the
d. Photograph fingerprint card are referred to as:
1602. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogging. a. Rolled impressions
a. Potassium Bromide b. Plain impressions
b. Sodium Sulfite c. Fragmentary impressions
c. Sodium Carbonate d. Visible impressions
d. Boric Acid 1616. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals
1603. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits in the world are exactly the same size and that human
differentially light rays passing through it. skeleton does not change after 20 years.
a. Stop bath a. Darwin
b. Fixer b. Mendel
c. Filter c. Galton
d. Dektol d. Bertillon
1604. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at: 1617. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to
a. Fingers view the area:
b. Palms a. Obliquely
c. Soles of the feet b. About half an inch distance
d. All of the choices c. Directly
1605. The fingerprint classification which is used in the US and d. About one inch distance
other English speaking country. 1618. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of
a. Henry System pattern are represented:
b. Batley System a. Accidental Whorl
c. Bertillion System b. Central pocket loop
d. Galton System c. Double loop
1606. Which among the following is considered as a basic d. Whorl
type of ridge characteristics? 1619. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops,
a. Ridge endings with its respective shoulder and deltas.
b. Bifurcation a. Double loop
c. Dots b. Accidental loop
d. All of the choices c. Central pocket loop
1607. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of d. Whorl
papillary ridges as means of identification. 1620. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but it has two
a. Edgeoscopy deltas.
b. Poroscopy a. Accidental loop
c. Podoscopy b. Double loop
d. Chiroscopy c. Whorl
1608. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the d. Central pocket loop
subject’s hand is: 1621. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the
a. Necessary thumb toward the little finger?
b. Unnecessary a. Tented Arch
c. Optional b. Radial loop
d. Excessive c. Ulnar loop
1609. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is: d. Loop
a. Temporary 1622. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on
b. Permanent either side of the impression by a recurve, and
c. Lasting terminate on the same side where the ridge has
d. Stable entered.
1610. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller. a. Tented arch
a. Porelon b. Radial loop
b. Special pad c. Ulnar loop
c. Inkless pad d. Loop
d. None of the foregoing 1623. It is a triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation
1611. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the of a ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
impression are arbitrarily classified as. a. Latent prints
a. Plain whorl with meeting tracing b. Ridge
b. Loops with ridge count c. Core
c. Arches d. Delta
d. Dependent on ridge tracings
1612. Referred to as outer terminus: 1624. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
a. Delta a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
b. Dots b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges and spurs
c. Bifurcation c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
d. None of the foregoing d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving
1613. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces: ridges
a. Impression of false markings 1625. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a
b. Accentuation of patterns single ridge is called:
c. Pattern reversals a. Enclosure ridge
d. Difficulty in photographing b. Dot ridges
1614. In taking fingerprints ______ are rolled away from the c. Short ridges
body of the subject. d. Resembling a loop
a. All fingers

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 c. Fifteen
1626. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges. d. Eighteen
a. Soles of the foot 1639. Study which deals of poisons, their origin, physical and
b. Palm chemical properties, physiological action, treatment
c. Finger and method of detection.
d. Elbow a. Forensic Chemistry
1627. Points often missed in rolling impression. b. Toxicology
a. Bifurcation c. Posology
b. Core d. Forensic Medicine
c. Delta 1640. A substance which when introduced into the body is
d. Ridge absorbed in the blood stream and acting chemically is
1628. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an capable of producing noxious effect.
impression or imprint. a. Drugs
a. Latent print b. Dangerous drugs
b. Pattern c. Poison
c. Loop d. Antidotes
d. Arch 1641. Refers to poisons which produces inflammation of the
1629. Which among the following is not considered as a basic mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain
fingerprint pattern? in the abdomen and purging.
a. Loop a. Corrosives
b. Arch b. Irritants
c. Whorl c. Narcotics
d. Accidental d. Tetanics
1630. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a 1642. When a substance acts directly upon the spinal cord
sequence of spirals around core axes. producing immobility or stiffness to the parts to which
a. Whorl they are attached, it is classified as:
b. Central pocket loop a. Corrosives
c. Double loop b. Irritants
d. Accidental c. Narcotics
1631. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on d. Tetanics
papillary ridges as a means of identification. 1643. In criminal investigation metallurgy plays an important
a. Poroscopy application in:
b. Edgeoscopy a. Counterfeit coins
c. Podoscopy b. Theft and Robbery
d. Dactyloscopy c. Bombs and Explosives
1632. A ridge which forks out into two ridges. d. Restoration of tampered serial numbers
a. Delta 1644. Agents which depress or retard the physiological action
b. Bifurcation of an organ.
c. Core a. Corrosives
d. Pores b. Sedatives
1633. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or c. Tetanics
ridges from the little finger toward the thumb. d. Narcotics
a. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop 1645. According to the methods of isolation, what poison is
c. Arch isolated by means of distillation.
d. Whorl a. Volatile poisons
1634. Basis of fingerprint identification. b. Non volatile poisons
a. Pores c. Metallic poisons
b. Ridges d. Tetanic poisons
c. Friction ridges 1646. When the effect of a poison is marked by disturbance of
d. Latent print function or death within a short time, the poisoning is
1635. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method classified as:
of identification due to following reason; except: a. Acute poisoning
a. Fingerprints are not changeable b. Sub-acute poisoning
b. There are no two identical fingerprints c. Chronic poisoning
c. Wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear d. Suicidal poisoning
d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy 1647. When the action of the poison is marked by disturbance
produced in distant part from the site of application, it
1636. Period of a person’s life wherein papillary ridges are is classified as:
formed and developed? a. Local
a. 3rd month of fetus life b. Remote
b. 6th month of infancy c. Combined
c. At birth d. Acute
d. 3 months after birth
1637. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble 1648. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
a loop, spiral or rod. a. Semen
a. Delta b. Blood
b. Core c. Cells
c. Ridge d. Muscles
d. Whorl 1649. A man of average built would normally have how many
1638. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the quarts of blood?
identity between two points. a. 6 quarts
a. Nine b. 7 quarts
b. Twelve c. 8 quarts

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 d. 9 quarts 1662. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is
1650. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about ineffective.
65% of the blood. a. Carbon
a. Platelets b. Logwood
b. Fibrin c. Nigrosine
c. Leucocytes d. Gallotanic
d. Plasma 1663. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its
1651. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood. effects.
a. Plasma a. Emetics
b. Hemoglobin b. Antidotes
c. Erythrocytes c. Alkaloids
d. Fibrin d. Tetanics
1652. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is 1664. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence
decomposed and stained with contamination. when exposed to u.v. light?
a. Benzidine test a. Blood
b. Van Deen’s Test b. Semen
c. Phenolphthalein test c. Saliva
d. Precipitin test d. Urine
1653. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof 1665. Oldest known explosive.
that subject is definitely blood. a. Black powder
a. Preliminary test b. Smoke powder
b. Confirmatory test c. Dynalite
c. Precipitin test d. TNT
d. Blood typing and grouping 1666. Deals with the study and identification by means of
1654. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or body fluids.
not. a. Immunology
a. Preliminary test b. Serology
b. Confirmatory test c. Posology
c. Precipitin test d. Pharmacology
d. Blood typing and grouping 1667. The process in reproducing physical evidence by plaster
moulds.
1655. Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen a. Casting
in Barberio’s test. b. Cementing
a. Picric acid c. Moulage
b. Spermine picrate d. Pickling
c. Napthol diazonium 1668. Major component of a glass.
d. Anthraquinous chloride a. Lime
1656. Animal fiber may be best described by: b. Silica
a. It is composed of protein c. Soda
b. Gives yellow fluorescence under ultra violet d. Lime
light 1669. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of
c. It burns fast tissues and causes nausea.
d. It has acid like odor when burned a. Corrosives
1657. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the b. Irritants
approximate time of firing the gun? c. Tetanics
a. Soot d. Asthenics
b. Nitrates and nitrites
c. Gases 1670. A super cooled liquid which possess high viscosity and
d. Metallic fragments rigidity.
1658. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal a. Lime
origin what should the chemist examine under the b. Soda
microscope? c. Glass
a. Parts of the shaft d. Gel
b. Parts of the tip 1671. An organic bacterial poison.
c. Parts of the hair a. Strychnine
d. Parts of the root b. Ptomaine
1659. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue c. Brucine
litmus to red, it is: d. Chloroform
a. Cotton 1672. This test is used to detect the presence of semen
b. Silk particularly in stained clothing.
c. Fiber glass a. Microscopic test
d. Steel wool b. Barberio’s test
1660. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race c. Florence test
determinant? d. Ultraviolet test
a. Cortex 1673. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
b. Cuticle a. Chemical examination
c. Medulla b. Density gradient test
d. Shaft c. Ultra-violet light examination
1661. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of d. Microscopic test
human or animal origin 1674. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is
a. Ignition test or burning utilized?
b. Fluorescence analysis a. Accelerated aging test
c. Chemical analysis b. Bursting strength test
d. Microscopic analysis c. Opacity examination

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 d. Microscopic examination
1675. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying 1687. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in
body. respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to
a. Chloride declare a person clinically dead?
b. Ammonia a. 10-15 minutes
c. Carbon dioxide b. 15-30 minutes
d. Hydrogen sulfide c. 30-45 minutes
1676. The application of chemical principles in the d. 45-60 minutes
examination of evidence.
a. Forensics 1688. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration
b. Criminalistics by placing water or mercury in a container on top of the
c. Instrumentation chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed.
d. Forensic Chemistry a. Winslov test
1677. To positively determine the presence of blood in b. Florence test
stained material, what test is used? c. Barberio test
a. Takayama Test d. Castle Meyer test
b. Phenolphtalien test 1689. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the
c. Baberio’s test muscles and in which it no longer responds to
d. Florence test mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution
1678. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons of proteins.
may be isolated by means of what process? a. Stage of primary flaccidity
a. Extraction b. Stage of secondary flaccidity
b. Dilution c. Rigor mortis
c. Distillation d. Livor mortis
d. Dialysis 1690. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a
1679. Which of the following is not an accurate test for the dead body in how many days?
presence of alcohol in the human body? a. 7
a. Saliva test b. 14
b. Harger breath test c. 21
c. Fecal test d. 28
d. Drug test 1691. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm
1680. A disturbance produced by poison on that part with countries within how many days from death?
which the poison came into contact. a. 1
a. Acute b. 2
b. Local c. 3
c. Remote d. 4
d. Combined 1692. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone,
1681. A material which is used to which is used to improve loss of alignment of the affected bones and separation
the quality of the paper. of fragment bones.
a. Sizing material a. Simple fracture
b. Rosin b. Compound fracture
c. Gelatin c. Comminuted fracture
d. Starch d. None of the foregoing
1682. By adding Millon’s reagent, a pink color would be 1693. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
formed if it is pesent. a. Internal hemorrhage
a. Rosin b. Hematoma
b. Starch c. Contusion
c. Casein d. Internal wound
d. Gelatin 1694. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
1683. Oldest ink material known to man. a. Imprint abrasion
a. Logwood b. Pressure abrasion
b. Nigrosine c. Friction abrasion
c. Carbon d. Graze
d. Gallotanic 1695. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with
1684. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined. accompanying movement over the skin.
a. Logwood a. Pressure abrasion
b. Nigrosine b. Imprint abrasion
c. Carbon c. Impact abrasion
d. Gallotanic d. Graze
1685. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing 1696. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion
ink, pencil or other marking material. and loss of consciousness.
a. Erasure a. Epilepsy
b. Obliterated writing b. Apoplexy
c. Indented writing c. Catalepsy
d. Contact writing d. Uremia
1686. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male 1697. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily
pelvis. eliminated in the urine; specifically a toxic condition
a. Greater seen in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo,
b. Equal vomiting, coma and convulsion.
c. Lesser
d. Less significant a. Epilepsy
b. Apoplexy
c. Catalepsy
d. Uremia

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 1698. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how 1710. It is fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is
many hours when the blood has already clotted or evident.
diffused to different parts of the body wherein the a. Simple
discoloration is permanent and darker in color? b. Compound
a. 12 hours c. Comminuted
b. 24 hours d. Dislocation
c. 36 hours 1711. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone
d. 48 hours without external wounds.
1699. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination a. Sprain
with either group A or B what would be the particular b. Fracture
blood group of the sample. c. Hematoma
a. Group A d. Dislocation
b. Group B 1712. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of
c. Group AB tissue and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
d. Group O that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance
1700. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit of the body to the gun is approximately.
changes. a. 6 inches
a. 10 years b. 12 inches
b. 20 years c. 18 inches
c. 30 years d. 24 inches
d. 40 years 1713. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the
1701. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white opposite site of the application of force.
greasy substance in the soft fatty tissue after death. a. Extensive injury
a. Saponification b. Coup injury
b. Rigor mortis c. Contre coup injury
c. Mummification d. Coup and contre coup injury
d. Maceration 1714. A physical injury found at the site of the application of
1702. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood force.
tends to pool in the blood vessels of the most a. Extensive injury
dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 b. Coup injury
minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours. c. Contre coup injury
a. Rigor mortis d. Coup and contre coup injury
b. Primary flaccidity
c. Maceration 1715. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log
d. Livor mortis and stone.
1703. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents a. Punctured wound
after meals. b. Hack wound
a. 2 to 3 hours c. Lacerated wound
b. 3 to 4 hours d. Incised wound
c. 4 to 5 hours
d. 5 to 6 hours 1716. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what
1704. Rate of growth of human hair. wound would be exhibited?
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day a. Punctured wound
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day b. Hack wound
c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day c. Lacerated wound
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day d. Incised wound
1705. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body 1717. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
temperature is about: a. Punctured wound
a. 10 to 15 deg. F b. Hack wound
b. 15 to 20 deg. F c. Lacerated wound
c. 20 to 25 deg. F d. Incised wound
d. 25 to 30 deg. F 1718. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A
1706. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin. stands for what?
a. Wound a. Adenine
b. Trauma b. Adenide
c. Bruise c. Adenum
d. Scratch d. Adenoid
1707. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious 1719. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what
that it will endanger one’s life. sample should be obtained for DNA testing?
a. Non-mortal wound a. Fingerprints
b. Mortal wound b. Hair
c. Trauma c. Skeleton
d. Coup injury d. Teeth
1708. A collection of blood underneath the skin. 1720. It is inherited from the mother found in the
a. Contusion mitochondria which is in the cell body
b. Bruise a. Nuclear DNA
c. Petechiae b. Helix
d. Hematoma c. Mitochondrial DNA
1709. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles d. DNA nucleus
causing skin discoloration and extreme pain. 1721. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit
a. Sprain changes.
b. Contusion a. 10 years
c. Fracture b. 20 years
d. Dislocation c. 30 years

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 d. 40 years 1733. Human being’s tissue attached to the body which may
1722. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of undergo DNA testing.
respiration, circulation and almost all brain function of a. Hair
an organism. b. Bone
a. Somatic death c. Skin
b. Cellular death d. Fingernails
c. Molecular death 1734. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action
d. Apparent death of its bacteria and enzyme.
1723. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural a. Primary flaccidity
a. Mannerism b. Post mortem rigidity
b. Tic c. Cadaveric spasm
c. Gait d. Putrefaction
d. Body language 1735. Conclusive evidence that subject person is a female.
1724. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 a. Possession of vagina
minutes and is characterized by the relaxation of the b. Possession of ovaries
muscles and loss of their natural tone. c. Possession of estrogen
a. Stage of primary flaccidity d. Possession of progesterone
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. Cadaveric spasm 1736. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.
d. Secondary flaccidity a. Hippocratic facie
b. Mongolian facie
c. Myxedema facie
1725. Approximate time for the completion of one case for d. Facies lionine
DNA testing. 1737. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks a. Presence of testis
b. Minimum of 4 weeks b. Presence of androsterone
c. Minimum of six weeks c. Possession of penis
d. Minimum of eight weeks d. Possession of testosterone
1738. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to
1726. Period of time wherein there body would be mucous secretion of the respiratory track after death.
skeletonized, under normal conditions in tropical a. “Cutis anserina”
countries. b. Washerwoman
a. 1 month c. “Champignon d’ ocume”
b. 3 months d. Cadaveric spasm
c. 6 months 1739. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
d. 12 months a. Natural death
1727. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable b. Molecular death
muscular change. c. Somatic death
a. Cold stiffening d. Apparent death
b. Heat stiffening 1740. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming
c. Instantaneous rigor into contact with a moving object.
d. Putrefaction a. Thermal burn
1728. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the b. Friction burn
blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the c. Radiation burn
body. d. Electrical burn
a. Diffusion lividity 1741. A condition of a woman who have had one or more
b. Clotting of the blood sexual experience but not had conceived a child.
c. Rigor mortis a. Moral virginity
d. Hypostatic lividity b. Demi-virginity
1729. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation c. Physical virginity
under normal conditions. d. Virgo intact
a. 2 to 2.5 cc 1742. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
b. 2.5 to 5 cc a. Flaccidity
c. 5 to 10 cc b. Rigidity
d. 1.5 to 3.5 cc c. Lividity
1730. DNA is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded d. Putrefaction
as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for? 1743. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain
a. Deonatural acid parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption
b. Dynamic natural anti-body of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid diminished body temperature.
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid a. Gangrene
1731. A powerful tool in identification which points to the b. Frostbite
source of biological evidence by matching it with c. Trench foot
samples from the victims, suspects and their relatives. d. Immersion foot
a. DNA profiling 1744. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the
b. Serology breakdown of sweating mechanism.
c. Instrumentation a. Heat cramp
d. Forensics b. Heat exhaustion
1732. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good c. Heat stroke
sources of cells. d. Burning
a. Saliva and tears 1745. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which
b. Semen and saliva part is not used?
c. Urine and semen a. Skull
d. Semen and blood b. Pelvis

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 c. Sternum d. 8
d. Tibia
1746. A serious burn involving skin nerves, muscles and 1758. Type of question related to the facts of the case and is
bones, considered as the most severe burn causing answerable by NO.
death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body a. Relevant question
and massive infection. b. Irrelevant question
a. Sunburn c. General question
b. 1st degree burn d. Immaterial question
c. 2nd degree burn 1759. Question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.
d. 3rd degree burn a. Relevant question
1747. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 b. Irrelevant question
minutes would die, the case of death would be? c. General question
a. Stupor d. Immaterial question
b. Stroke 1760. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that
c. Asphyxia something is hidden or obscure.
d. Exhaustion a. Fear
1748. Most effective method in determining sex of an b. Deception
individual. c. Detection
a. Gonodal test d. Reaction
b. Social test 1761. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ
c. Genital test or organism as a result of stimulation.
d. Chromosomal test a. Response
1749. Its medical-legal importance is to approximate the time b. Deception
of death. c. Detection
a. Cadaveric spasm d. Reaction
b. Putrefaction 1762. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger,
c. Mascular contraction which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive
d. Rigor mortis power.
1750. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to: a. Response
a. Masturbation b. Reaction
b. Fingering c. Stimuli
c. Sodomy d. Fear
d. Sexual intercourse 1763. This component drives the chart paper under the
1751. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell recording pen simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12
occurs in: inches per minute.
a. 20 to 30 minutes a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. 3 to 6 hours b. Kymograph
c. 12 to 24 hours c. Galvanograph
d. 24 to 36 hours d. Pneumograph
1752. Most noticeable sign of death. 1764. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of
a. Cessation of respiration the subject.
b. Progressive fall of body temperature a. Finger electrode plate
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move b. Diacritic notch
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation c. Rubber convoluted tube
1753. Most common and scientific method of detecting d. Kymograph
deception. 1765. This component record changes of the subject blood
a. Polygraphy pressure and pulse rate.
b. Polygraph a. Cardiosphygmograph
c. Truth serum b. Sphygmomanometer
d. Interrogation c. Galvanograph
1754. Devised an instrument capable of continuously d. Pneumograph
recording pulse rate, respiration and blood pressure. 1766. It records the subject’s skin resistance to a small
a. William Marston amount of electricity.
b. Angelo Mosso a. Cardisphygmograph
c. John Larson b. Sphygmomanometer
d. Sticker c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
1767. This component records the changes in the breathing of
1755. Psychological response to any demand. the subject.
a. Reaction a. Cardisphygmograph
b. Stress b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Pressure c. Galvanograph
d. All of the above d. Pneumograph
1756. For male subjects, what is the amount of air pressure is 1768. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity
to be utilized in the system of cardio or vent. to deceive others.
a. 30 mm a. Black lie
b. 60 mm b. White lie
c. 90 mm c. Red lie
d. 120 mm d. Yellow lie
1757. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep 1769. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the
considered fit for polygraph examination. relevant question.
a. 5 a. Reaction
b. 6 b. Normal response
c. 7 c. Specific response

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 d. Positive response a. Natural writing
1770. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were b. Disguised writing
answered. c. Cursive writing
a. Reaction d. System of writing
b. Normal response 1783. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
c. Specific response a. Natural writing
d. Positive response b. Disguised writing
1771. Normal time interval for pre-test interview. c. Cursive writing
a. 20 to 30 minutes d. System of writing
b. 30 to 60 minutes 1784. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of
c. 60 to 90 minutes any individual handwriting or in the product of any
d. 90 to 120 minutes typewriter.
1772. The primary objective of post test interview. a. Normal variation
a. To thank the subject b. Natural variation
b. To obtain confession c. Tremor
c. To make the subject calm d. Wrong hand writing
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
1785. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied
1773. The purpose of pretest interview. and assisted produces a:
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test a. Guided signature
b. To obtain confession b. Normal signature
c. To make the subject calm c. Scribble
d. To explain polygraph test procedures d. Handwriting signature
1774. Refers to questions to ascertain the subject’s normal 1786. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital
pattern of response. letters.
a. Relevant questions a. Embellishment
b. Irrelevant questions b. Beard
c. Supplementary questions c. Buckle knot
d. Control questions d. Diacritic
1775. The number of basic tracings in the modern polygraph. 1787. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal
a. 3 strokes.
b. 4 a. Hook
c. 5 b. Spur
d. 6 c. Loop
1776. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for d. Staff
detecting deception. 1788. An oblong curve found in small letters f,g,h and l.
a. William Marston a. Hook
b. Harold Burtt b. Spur
c. John Larson c. Loop
d. Leonarde Keeler d. Staff
1789. The introductory backward stroke added to the staff of
1777. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure many capital letters and which can also be seen
changes were signs of deception. occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.
a. William Marston a. Embellishment
b. Harold Burtt b. Beard
c. Leonard Keeler c. Buckle knot
d. John Larson d. Hitch
1778. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph 1790. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
procedure for accused persons. a. Embellishment
a. Angelo Mosso b. Beard
b. Veraguth c. Buckle knot
c. Lombroso d. Diacritic
d. Vittorio Benussi 1791. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
1779. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex. a. Embellishment
a. Angelo Mosso b. Hump
b. Veraguth c. Diacritic
c. Lombroso d. Knot
d. Vittorio Benussi 1792. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious
1780. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with recurrence of stress of impulse.
measurement, respiration component and blood a. Line quality
pressure. b. Rhythm
a. Harold Burtt c. Baseline
b. Hans Gross d. Writing pressure
c. Leonarde Keeler 1793. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or
d. John Larson intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface
1781. Refers to any specimen or writing executed normally with increase pressure.
without any attempt to change or control its identifying a. Writing pressure
habits and its usual quality of execution. b. Shading
a. Natural writing c. Pen emphasis
b. Disguised writing d. Natural variation
c. Cursive writing 1794. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
d. System of writing a. Line quality
1782. Jose Pidal in trying to fake his own signature to hide his b. Baseline
identity is using: c. Foot

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 d. Hitch 1806. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation
1795. A signature written by the forger in his own style of and pen-lifts difficult.
handwriting without attempting to copy to form of the a. Ball point pen
genuine signature. b. Fountain pen
a. Traced forgery c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Disguised forgery d. Markers
c. Simulated forgery 1807. Disconnection between letters or letter combination
d. Simple forgery due to lack of movement control.
1796. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful a. Pen lift
type of forgery. b. Retouching
a. Traced forgery c. Patching
b. Disguised forgery d. Retracing
c. Simulated forgery 1808. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on
d. Simple forgery the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks
1797. Which among the following is an indication of b. Fiber marks
genuineness of handwriting? c. Paper design
a. Continuity d. Wire marks
b. Smoothness 1809. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what
c. Skillful writing particular condition is manifested?
d. Tremor a. Grainy image
b. Two image
1798. Document which is completely written and signed by c. Overlapping image
the testator. d. Three dimensional image
a. Genuine document 1810. An element which is added to complete another letter.
b. Disputed document a. Spur
c. Holographic document b. Slant
d. Authentic document c. Diacritics
1799. A document which contains some changes either as an d. Arc
addition or deletion. 1811. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place,
a. Altered documents purpose and normal writing conditions.
b. Disputed document a. Complete signature
c. Obliterated document b. Standard signature
d. Inserted document c. Evidential signature
1800. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the d. Model signature
original undecipherable. 1812. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening
a. Decipherment of the ink stroke.
b. Restoration a. Shading
c. Obliteration b. Pen emphasis
d. Interlineation c. Pen lift
1801. A class of signature for routine document or day to day d. Pen pressure
correspondence. 1813. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of
a. Formal paper money.
b. Complete a. Quality of the engraving
c. Cursory b. Color of the seal
d. Careless scribble c. Wet strength of the paper
1802. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important d. Watermarks
documents. 1814. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made
a. Complete inferior or superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine
b. Cursory coin.
c. Informal a. Priceless coin
d. Careless scribble b. Mutilated coin
1803. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a c. False coin
fraudulent document underneath the genuine and d. All of the choices
tracing it with the use of pointed instrument. 1815. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal
a. Carbon process strokes made by the momentum of the hand.
b. Indention process a. Tremor
c. Projection process b. Tremors of fraud
d. Transmitted light process c. Genuine tremor
1804. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier d. Deterioration
than the rest of its outline. 1816. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Off its feet a. Staff
b. Twisted letter b. Slant
c. Clogged type face c. Diacritics
d. Rebound d. Humps

1817. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the

1805. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is horizontal inch.
almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits a. Pica
reacting from fixed mental impressions. b. Elite
a. Handwriting c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Writing d. Adding machine
c. Typewriting 1818. Developed the system of handwriting classification
d. Writing movement utilized by most police departments.

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 a. Lee and Abbey b. Hammer
b. Rolando Wilson c. Sear
c. Levine d. Main spring
d. Landsteiner
1819. A kind of document executed by a person in authority 1831. Applied to a shotgun which indicates bore diameter is
and by private parties but notarized by competent equal to the diameter of the lead ball whose weight in
officials. pound equal to reciprocal gauge index.
a. Official document a. Caliber
b. Public document b. Gauge
c. Commercial document c. Shot
d. Private document d. Charge
1820. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin. 1832. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a
a. False coin single round lead ball.
b. Counterfeit coin a. Shotgun
c. Priceless coin b. Rifle
d. Mutilation of coin c. Musket
1821. It refers to the printing surface of a type block. d. Pistol
a. Character 1833. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of
b. Design lead pellets in one charge.
c. Pitch a. Shotgun
d. Type face b. Rile
1822. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the c. Musket
writing rests. d. Pistol
a. Base 1834. Part of the firearm which closes the rear of the bore
b. Baseline against the force of the charge.
c. Foot a. Breechblock
d. Staff b. Breechface
1823. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what c. Ejector
has been effaced. d. Extractor
a. Decipherment 1835. Firearm mechanism which causes empty shell to be
b. Collation withdrawn from the chamber.
c. Obliteration a. Breechblock
d. Comparison b. Breechface
1824. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their c. Ejector
identifying characteristics. d. Extractor
a. Comparison 1836. Channels cut in the interior surface of the barrel.
b. Collation a. Rifling
c. Conclusion b. Land
d. Examination c. Groove
d. Cannelure
1837. Rearward movement of a firearm from firing.
1825. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with a. Recoil
the source of illumination behind it and the light b. Force
passing through the paper. c. Backfire
a. Transmitted light examination d. Shot force
b. Oblique photography examination 1838. Refers to the mechanical wear and tear of the bore due
c. Infrared examination to sliding friction when the bullet passes through it.
d. Ultraviolet examination a. Erosion
1826. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a b. Rusting
person from his handwriting. c. Corrosion
a. Questioned Document Examination d. Decomposition
b. Polygraphy 1839. Distance that the rifling advances to make one compete
c. Graphology turn.
d. Psychology a. Pitch of rifling
1827. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet. b. Choke
a. Projectile c. Trajectory
b. Ball d. Recoil
c. Shell 1840. Needed for a cartridge to be considered as a complete
d. Missile unfired unit
1828. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at a. Bullet
the same time it leaves the muzzle of the firearm to the b. Primer
time it hits the target. c. Gunpowder
a. Interior ballistics d. All of the choices
b. Exterior ballistics 1841. Most common individual characteristic that are visible
c. Terminal ballistics on the base portion of then fired cartridge.
d. Posterior ballistics a. Firing pin impression
1829. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of b. Ejector marks
the projectile on the target. c. Extractor marks
a. Interior ballistics d. Chamber marks
b. Exterior ballistics 1842. Failure of cartridge to discharge.
c. Terminal ballistics a. Misfire
d. Posterior ballistics b. Hang fire
1830. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin. c. Ricochet
a. Trigger d. Key hole shot

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 1843. Invented the gunpowder. 1856. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from
a. Chinese what particular part?
b. James Forsythe a. From land to land
c. Van Amberg b. From land to groove
d. Berthold Schwartz c. From groove to groove
1844. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed d. From groove to land
into gun chamber.
a. Cartridge
b. Primer 1857. Revolver is distinguished from pistol by:
c. Bullet a. Frame
d. Shell b. Barrel
1845. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to c. Slide assembly
land. d. Rotating cylinder
a. Gauge 1858. The term double action in a firearm means.
b. Mean diameter a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
c. Caliber b. Manually cocks the hammer
d. Riflings c. Autoloads before firing
1846. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the d. Double pressing of trigger
firing of the cartridge. 1859. Regarded as the father of ballistics,
a. Hammer a. Albert Osborne
b. Ejector b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
c. Trigger c. Hans Gross
d. Firing pin d. Charles Waite
1847. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet. 1860. Raised portion between the groove found inside the
a. Breech barrel.
b. Ogive a. Land
c. Rim b. Caliber
d. Pitch c. Gauge
1848. A smooth bore military firearm which has no riflings. d. Rifling
a. Shotgun 1861. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
b. Rifle a. Yaw
c. Pistol b. Trajectory
d. Revolver c. Velocity
1849. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to d. Gyroscopic action
prevent leading. 1862. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular
a. Jacketed bullet firearm?
b. Metal cased bullet a. Rifle
c. Metal point bullet b. Revolver
d. Plated bullet c. Pistol
1850. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting d. Sub-machine gun
the target sideways. 1863. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface
a. Key hole shot of the bore.
b. Ricochet a. Rifling
c. Hang fire b. Breaching
d. Misfire c. Ogive
1851. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification. d. Swaging
a. Interior 1864. A primer with two vents or flash holes.
b. Exterior a. Bordan primer
c. Terminal b. Berdan primer
d. Forensic c. Boxer primer
1852. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in d. Battery primer
forensic ballistics. 1865. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are
a. 3 test bullets/shell usually classified as:
b. 4 test bullets a. Flare guns
c. 5 test bullets/shell b. Zip guns
d. 6 test bullets/shell c. Matchlock
1853. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen d. Freakish device
in side by side position. 1866. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when
a. Drag marks fired cartridges are concerned.
b. Positively matched a. Extractor marks
c. Juxtaposition b. Ejector marks
d. Pseudomatch c. Chamber marks
1854. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight. d. Breech face marks
a. Range 1867. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge’s
b. Trajectory failure to explode on time.
c. Velocity a. Misfire
d. Yaw b. Hang fire
1855. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on c. Ricochet
fire when it is projected. d. Key hole shot
a. Incendiary bullet 1868. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily
b. Ball bullet barrel or its lands have been worn down would produce
c. Tracer bullet what kind of markings?
d. Explosive bullet a. Slippage marks
b. Skid marks

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 c. Rifling marks d. Alphonse Bertillion
d. Shearing marks 1878. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of
1869. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change,
projectiles.
except for some scratches due to old age.
a. Caliper
b. Chronograph a. Herman Welcker
c. Test bullet b. Marcelo Malpighi
d. Bullet recovery box c. J.C.A. Mayer
1870. Refers to the means of recognizing the characteristics of d. Johnnes E. Purkenji
persons so as to differentiate him from others 1879. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for
a. Dactyloscopy signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native.
c. Identification
a. William Herschel
b. Personal
d. Comparison b. Dr. Henry Faulds
1871. Considered to be first scientific method of Identification c. Dr. Francis Galton
in person done by measuring various bony structure of d. Sir Edward Henry
the human body. 1880. Is person considered to be the father of modern
a. Portrait-Parle fingerprint. His system of classification was accepted in
b. Photography almost all English speaking country.
c. Antropometry a. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Anthropometry b. Juan Vucetich
547. The following are principles in personal c. Alphonse Bertillion
Identification, except. d. Dr. Hans Gross
1881. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges
a. Law of individuality and pores of the hand and feet which was read before
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence the Royal Society of London.
b. Law of infallibility a. Nehemiah Grew
d. Law of constancy b. G. Bidloo
1872. Which of the following personal Identification is not c. Hintze
easy to change? d. Albinus
a. Hair 1882. A system of Identification best used in case of burned
b. Speech body.
c. Dress a. Fingerprint
d. personal pharapernalia b. Skeletal Identification
1873. Considered to be one of the most infallible means of c. Odontology
Identification. d. Photography
a. DNA fingerprinting
b. Dactyloscopy
c. Fingerprint Identification 1883. The following are characteristics of man which can
d. Photography easily be changed EXCEPT?
1874. Identification of person can be done either by
Comparison or by____? a. Hair Growth
a. Exclusion b. Body Ornamentation
c. Speech
b. Examination d. Clothing
c. Experimentation 1884. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives
d. Inclusion recognition to the science of fingerprint?
1875. The person credited for the discovery of the two main a. People vs. Medina
layers of the friction skin. b. US vs. Jennings
a. Alphonse Bertillion c. Miranda vs. Arizona
b. Marcelo Malpighe d. West Case
c. Herman Welcker 1885. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first
d. J.C.A. Mayer individual use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using
1876. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent
white jade containing the name and the thumb print of tampering with the pay order he issued.
the owner. a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier
a. Tien Chi b. Gilbert Thompson
b. Tein Chi c. Capt James Parke
c. Tein Shi d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores
d. Tien Shi 1886. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive
1877. He is known to be the father of personal Identification examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New
having devised the first scientific method of personal York Police Dept. and FBI.
Identification. a. Generoso Reyes
a. John Dellinger b. Isabela Bernales
b. Cesare Lombroso c. Patricio Agustin
c. John F. W. Herschel d. Marcelo Bonifacio

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 1887. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is b. Entrance and Exit
possibility for two prints to be the same it is c. Exit
1:63,000,000,000. d. Either a or b
a. Francis Bacon 1898. The development of breast in female commences at
b. Francis Galton the age of.
c. J.C.A. Mayer a. 13 to 14
d. Herman Welker b. 12 to 13
1888. The person who used the system of identification which c. 10-11
was accepted by Spanish countries. d. 11 to 12
a. Juan Vucetich
b. Henry Faulds 1899. In photography, when we say tripod, how many stands
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry are there?
d. William Herschel a. 2
1889. Is the law which states that the greater the number of b. 3.5
the similarity or differences the more probability for the c. 4
conclusion to be correct. d. 5

a. Law of Infallability 1900. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist who
b. Law of Multiplicity of evidence performed the autopsy of Julius Cesar.
c. Law of Permenancy a. Landsteinir
d. Law of Barcelinity b. Zacchias
1890. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word? c. Antistus
a. Greek word d. Hippocrates
b. French word 1901. Used to see stains on clothes that are invisible to a
c. Latin word normal light.
d. English word a. Ultra Violet Photography
1891. If screw driver is for mechanic. What is used by a b. Infra red photograhpy
photographer? c. Macro Photography
A. Filter d. Micro photography
B. Camera 1902. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the
C. Firearm amount of light reaching the film by varying the length
D. Handcuff of time, and it is considered as the door of the camera.
1892. Can exptert in Ballistics testify witout photograph or a. Shutter
demonstration?. b. lens
a. Yes c. obscura
b. Partly Yes d. view finder
c. No 1903. It covers the surface of the dermis with blunt peg-like
d. Partly No formation.
1893. Burned document or charred document is best
examined by. a. dermis
a. Infrared Photography b. Dermal papillae
b. Ultraviolet Photography c. papillae
c. Macro Photography d. dermal
d. Micro Photography 1904. The morphological constituents of human hair are
1894. The average age of menopausal period of women to cuticle, cortex and medulla, is the statement correct?
take place. a. Partly Yes
a. 50 yrs old b. Partly No
b. 45 yrs old c. Yes
c. 35 yrs old d. No
1905. It is the sensitized material that has the primary
d. 42 yrs old function of recording the image that is focused upon it
1895. Mustache and beard begin to appear in male at the age by the lens of the camera.
of. E. Filter
a. 14-16 F. Film
b. 13-15 G. Firearm
c. 16 to 18 H. Handcuff
d. 12-14 1906. Considered to be first scientific method of Identification
1896. Menstruation usually commences at the age of? in person done by measuring various bony structure of
a. 14 the human body.
b. 13 a. Portrait-Parle
c. 16 b. Photography
d. 12 c. Antropometry
1897. In a robbery case, close up photographs must be taken d. Anthropometry
to show: 1907. The person credited for the discovery of the two main
a. Entrance layers of the friction skin.

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 a. Alphonse Bertillion b. Isabela Bernales
b. Marcelo Malpighe c. Patricio Agustin
c. Herman Welcker d. Marcelo Bonifacio
d. J.C.A. Mayer 1917. Father of fingerprint patterns who said that is there is
possibility for two prints to be the same it is
1908. The first Chinese Ruler who devised a seal carved from 1:63,000,000,000.
white jade containing the name and the thumb print of a. Francis Bacon
the owner. b. Francis Galton
a. Tien Chi c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Tein Chi d. Herman Welker
c. Tein Shi 1918. The person who used the system of identification which
d. Tien Shi was accepted by Spanish countries.
1909. He is known to be the father of personal Identification a. Juan Vucetich
having devised the first scientific method of personal b. Henry Faulds
Identification. c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
a. John Dellinger d. William Herschel
b. Cesare Lombroso 1919. The word Dactyloscopy was derived from what word?
c. John F. W. Herschel a. Greek word
d. Alphonse Bertillion b. French word
1910. He took prints of his own palm twice with the lapse of c. Latin word
forty-one years just to prove that prints do not change, d. English word
except for some scratches due to old age. 1920. Is the science of fingerprint study, which deals with the
a. Herman Welcker interpretation of one’s personality?
b. Marcelo Malpighi a. Dactyloscopy
c. J.C.A. Mayer b. Dactylomancy
d. Johnnes E. Purkenji c. Dactylography
1911. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for d. Dactylo-analysis
signature to avoid impersonation among Indian native. 1921. Is an impression designed by the ridges on the inside of
a. William Herschel the last joint of the fingers and thumb on some smooth
b. Dr. Henry Faulds surface with the aid of sweet or ink?
c. Dr. Francis Galton a. Dactyloscopy
d. Sir Edward Henry b. Dactyloanalysis
1912. He is considered to be the father of modern fingerprint. c. Latent Print
His system of classification was accepted in almost all d. Fingerprint
English speaking country. 1922. Which of the following serves the importance of
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry Poroscopy?
b. Juan Vucetich a. For determination of whether the prints belong
c. Alphonse Bertillion to a young or adult person.
d. Dr. Hans Gross b. For Identification of person
1913. Makes a publication of a report describing the ridges c. For determination of whether the prints was
and pores of the hand and feet which was read before taken during the lifetime or after death of a
the Royal Society of London. person
a. Nehemiah Grew d. B and C only
b. G. Bidloo 1923. Is that parts of the friction skin which if damage will
c. Hintze constitute a permanent scar.
d. Albinus a. Epidermis
1914. A system of Identification best used in case of burned b. Stratum corneum
body. c. Dermis
a. Fingerprint d. Stratum mucosum
b. Skeletal Identification 1924. He is considered as the Father of Poroscopy.
c. Odontology a. Francis Galton
d. Photography b. Marcelo Malpighe
1915. Anew Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual c. John Herschel
use of fingerprints in August 8, 1882, by using his own d. Edmond Locard
thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with
the pay order he issued. 1925. Is the scientific study of the tiny opening across the
a. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier ridges.
b. Gilbert Thompson a. Podoscopy
c. Capt James Parke b. Poroscopy
d. Dr. Henry P. De Fores c. Chiroscopy
1916. The Filipino who top the first comprehensive d. Edgeoscopy
examination in fingerprint which was initiated by New 1926. Up to what deep a cut or injury will constitute a
York Police Dept. and FBI. permanent scar in a normal friction skin?
a. Generoso Reyes a. less than 1cm

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 b. less than 1 mm b. tented arch
c. more than 1cm c. plain arch
d. more than 1mm d. exceptional arch
1927. Considered to be one of the most notorious criminal in 1937. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should
U.S who attempt to destroy his friction skin with the use have _______ridge count.
of corrosive acid. a. 1
a. John Derenger b. 2
b. John Dillenger c. at least 1
c. Robert James Pitts d. 3
d. Robert Joworski 1938. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust,
1928. Are the strips of skin without coloring pigment and or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
without hair found on the palm of the hand and soles of a. Plain arch
the feet? b. central pocket loop
a. Epidermal skin c. tented arch
b. Papillary skin d. accidental whorl
c. Friction 1939. What is the type of a pattern in which the looping or
d. All of the choices slanting ridges flows towards the little finger?
1929. Is the outer layer of the Epidermis layer which covers a. loop
the skin? b. radial loop
a. Epidermis c. ulnar loop
b. Stratum corneum d. tented arc
c. Stratum Sangum
d. Stratum musocum 1940. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving
1930. Is the scientific study of the prints of the palm of the ridge and a ridge count of at least one.
hands? a. radial loop
a. Podoscopy b. ulnar loop
b. Chiroscopy c. loop
c. Poroscopy d. tented arch
d. Chairoscopy 1941. What type of a pattern consisting of two ore more
1931. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots (called deltas, one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry
pores) in an inked finger impression? and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to
a. sweat pores right delta it touches or cross the circuiting ridge/s
b. furrows considered as the most common type of whorl.
c. ridges a. plain whorl
d. sweat duct b. central pocket loop whorl
1932. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of c. double loop whorl
the friction skin (found between ridges). d. accidental whorl
a. Pores 1942. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is
b. indentions excluded in the combination?
c. furrows a. ulnar loop
d. duct b. plain whorl
1933. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat c. tented arch
is excreted? d. plain arch
a. duct 1943. The core and delta are also termed as _____?
b. furrows a. inner terminus
c. pores b. outer terminus
d. sweat glands c. focal point
1934. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and d. pattern area
dermis layer which responsible for the ridge formation 1944. A point on a ridge formation, in front or near the center
a. Generating layer of the diverging typelines.
b. Dermal papillae a. Core
c. Sweat glands b. island ridge
d. Dermis Papillary c. delta
1935. Is the principle in the study of fingerprint which states d. convergence
that fingerprint is a reliable and positive means of 1945. What is the rule where there are two or more possible
Identification? bifurcation deltas which conform to the definition of
a. Principle of Individuality delta?
b. Principle of Infallibility a. the one nearest the core should be chosen
c. Principle of Constancy b. the one away from the core should be counted
d. Principle of Permanency c. the one which does not open towards the core
is counted
1936. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side
d. the one towards the core should be counted
of the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise or 1946. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously
wave in the center? running side by side?
a. Loop a. Bifurcation

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 b. convergence c. P
c. divergence d. W
d. enclosure
1947. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
period? 1957. It is the process of counting the ridges which intervene
a. Lake between the delta and core of a loop?
b. ending ridge a. ridge tracing
c. island ridge b. ridge counting
d. incipient ridge c. ridge tracking
1948. What ridge divides itself into or more branches that d. ridge summing
meets to form the original figure? 1958. Is an instrument used for the spreading of the
a. bifurcation fingerprint ink to the slab?
b. island ridge a. Fingerprint brush
c. lake ridge b. Fingerprint lifting tapes
d. convergence c. Fingerprint roller
1949. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the d. fingerprint card
direction from which it started? 1959. The fingerprint card used in recording the subject print
a. diverging ridge has a size of:
b. recurving ridge a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
c. converging ridge b. 8” x 8”
d. bifurcation c. 9” x 9”
1950. Is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge d. 8” x 10”
curves inward? 1960. The fingerprint card used in court exhibit the card has a
a. sufficient recurve size of:
b. appendage a. 8 1/2” x 8 ½”
c. obstruction ridge b. 8” x 8”
d. shoulder of loop c. 9” x 9”
1951. Is a short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge d. 8” x 10”
which has spoiled the inner line of flow from the inner 1961. Is a piece of plane glass or metal where the fingerprint
delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in ink is distributed for fingerprinting?
the second type of central pocket loop. a. Card Holder
a. bar b. Fingerprint roller
b. appendage c. Fingerprint transfer card
c. uptrust d. ink slab
d. obstruction 1962. A chemical compound used in conventional developing
1952. Is the type of pattern in which the course is traced the of latent prints being one of the best methods that can
line flow above the right delta and there are three be utilized by a fingerprint technician.
intervening ridges. a. Fingerprint powder
a. meeting whorl b. Fingerprint Brush
b. outer whorl c. Fingerprint Fuming Device
c. inner whorl d. Inkless Inking Device
d. central pocket loop whorl 1963. Is an instrument used for clipping the fingerprint card to
1953. A ridge that is so thin or fine compare to other regular avoid movement of the card during printing?
ridge which is not included as a ridge count even if it a. Card Holder
has been cross by the imaginary line. b. Forceps
a. ending ridge c. Carrying Case
b. incipient ridge d. Fingerprint card clip
c. intervening ridge 1964. Is a card used in recording and preserving developed
d. enclosure latent print?
1954. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and a. Fingerprint lifting tapes
which resembles a fork structure b. Fingerprint transfer card
a. divergence c. Evidence Identification tags
b. convergence d. Post-mortem fingerprint Equipment
c. bifurcation 1965. Is the type of an impression made or printed on the
d. enclosure card by individually rolling the ten fingers of the
1955. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its subject.
infants stage which usually starts: a. Latent Prints
a. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life b. Rolled Impression
b. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life c. Plain Impression
c. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life d. Molded Impression
d. 5th to 6th months before birth 1966. Is the type of impression taken simultaneously and
1956. Is the symbol used to represent a plain arch. serves as a guide in checking the proper rolling of the
a. T finger in the card?
b. A a. Rolled Impression

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 b. Plain Impression c. primary division
c. Contaminated with colored substance d. final division
d. Molded Prints 1977. In getting the Secondary Division of a given fingerprint
from what finger does the Capital letter is derived.
1967. In taking prints of the subject the technician always a. thumb
instruct the subject to: b. index
a. Stand straight c. little finger
b. Cooperate d. middle finger
c. Relax 1978. The purpose of adding 1/1 to the sum of the numerator
d. Help the technician rolling and the denominator in the primary division is ____.
1968. One of the cardinal rule in taking of fingerprints of the a. so that there will be an equal value
subject is that fingers must be: b. to complete the primary div.
a. Healthy c. to have a complete 32 numerical value
b. Dry d. for formality
c. Moisten 1979. What patterns are included in the small letter
d. Oily classification under the secondary division.
1969. In taking prints of the subject what fingers are rolled a. Radial loop, plain arch and Tented arch
away from the body of the subjects b. Rdial loop, Unar loop and Arch
a. Both thumbs c. Radial loop, Plain Arch and Ulnar loop
b. All eight fingers d. Radial Loop, Arch, and Tented Arch
c. All fingers including thumbs
d. All fingers except the thumbs 1980. In ridge counting a loop on the middle finger what is the
1970. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards classification of 14 ridge count.
in taking fingerprint of a dead person a. Inner Loop
a. Card holder b. Outer Loop
b. Spatula c. Medium
c. Strip holder d. Small
d. Forceps 1981. What patterns are almost always represented by a dash
1971. When taking fingers for the purpose of taking rolled in the classification formula except in the secondary
impression the fingers must be inked from______ to division.
base of the first joint. a. Ulnar loop and Plain Arch
a. a. Base b. Whorl and Arch
b. Tip c. Plain and Tented Arch
c. second joint d. Ulnar and Whorl
d. third joint 1982. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when the tracing
1972. Occupational problems such as acid works, plasters, ridge flows below the right delta and there are five
cement mixer usually causes weak friction skin and such intervening ridges.
is known as: a. Outer Whorl
a. Permanent Disabilities b. Meeting Whorl
b. Temporary Deformities c. Inner Whorl
c. Permanent Destructions d. Accidental Whorl
d. Deformities 1983. In the course of tracing a whorl pattern, once the
1973. Is the term applied to a person whose fingers are more tracing splits into two branches the tracing will proceed
than the usual number in both hands? on the:
a. Polyfinger a. next ridge counting below the bifurcation ridge
b. Deformities
c. Polydactyl b. upper line of the bifurcation
d. Bidactyl c. Lower limb
1974. Is the process of placing under each pattern the letter d. next ridge just below
symbols as a result of the interpretation? 1984. It refers to the number of ridges that appears between
a. Checking the tracing ridge and the right delta of a whorl pattern.
b. Identification a. Ridge Count
c. Classification b. Intervening Ridge
d. Blocking c. Incipient ridge
1975. Three blocks after finger number 4 is what finger. d. Ridge tracing
a. left thumb 1985. A Loop with ridge count of 16 in the right is interpreted
b. index finger as ____, if the left thumb has 17 ridge count.
c. left index a. Small
d. left middle b. Medium
1976. It is the division in the fingerprint classification which is c. Large
always represented by a numerical value depending d. Exceptional
upon a whorl pattern appearing on each finger. 1986. A ridge count of 17 in the left thumb is interpreted as
a. key division ____ when the right thumb reaches 17.
b. major division a. Small

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 b. Large a. Mutilated finger
c. Medium b. Amputated finger
d. Exceptional c. Fragmentary finger
1987. What do you call a loop in the left thumb having a ridge d. Deformities
count of 17 or more. 1997. What will be the primary Division if all fingers are
a. Small amputated.
b. Medium a. 1/1
c. Large b. 31/31
d. Exceptional c. 32/32
1988. What division in the fingerprint classification is derived d. 16/16
by ridge counting a loop and tracing a whorl on the 1998. What division will be left blank in the classification
thumb. formula if all fingers are missing?
a. Key Division a. Major and Final Division
b. Final Division b. Key and Major Division
c. Major Division c. Major and sub-secondary
d. Secondary Division d. key and final Division
1989. What division in the classification is place at extreme 1999. Menstruation usually commences at the age of?
right of the fingerprint card represented by a numerical a. 14
value. b. 13
a. key c. 16
b. final d. 12
c. Major 2000. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust,
d. Primary or two of the three basic characteristics of the loop?
1990. Final Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a a. Plain arch
loop or a whorl appearing on the; b. tented arch
a. Little Finger c. central pocket loop
b. Thumb Finger d. accidental whorl
c. Index Finger 2001. Is the process of counting the ridges which intervene
d. Middle Finger between the delta and core of a loop?
1991. The key Division is derived by getting the ridge count of a. ridge tracing
the b. ridge counting
a. ulnar Loop c. ridge tracking
b. Radial Loop d. ridge summing
c. First Loop 2002. In assigning the numerical value of whorl pattern, what
d. First Radial Loop finger should be given a value of 4 when a whorl
1992. What Fingers are not included in looking for a loop in pattern appears therein:
the key division? a. left little finger and right thumb
a. Both Index b. right thumb and left little finger
b. Both little c. right little finger and left thumb
c. Both thumb d. left thumb and right
d. Both middle 2003. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the
1993. In the case of a missing one digit in the fingerprint card fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the
of a subject, said missing finger will be interpreted as. primary division?
a. Amputated finger a. 25/29
b. Same as the corresponding digit of the other c. 24/28
hand b. 29/25
c. Meeting whorl d. 28/24
d. Outer loop 2004. What would be the secondary division if all the fingers
1994. If in case that there were no loop on all fingers, how will at right hand are plain arches while all the left hand
the key be obtained. fingers are tented arches?
a. Ridge count of the first plain whorl
b. Ridge count of the first whorl a. aA3a/tT3T
c. No key division to derived c. A2a/tT2t
d. Just indicate Dash b. aT3a/aA3t
1995. In the event that same fingers of both hand is missing d. tT3t/aA3a
what will be the pattern interpretation of the two 2005. What division in the formula classification is left blank if
missing fingers. all fingers are amputated?
a. Plain Whorl a. Major and key
b. Plain Whorl With Meeting Tracing b. key and final
c. Dash c. Key and primary
d. Same as the pattern of the next fingers d. final and major
2006. The word Photography was coined by _____?
a. John F. W. Herschel
1996. It is the term applied to cases of missing or cut finger? b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre

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 c. Henry Fox Talbot d. Apolinario Mabini
d. Leonardo Da Venci
2007. What color will produced if r RED and BLUE colors are 2017. The only security features that the BSP was portrait in
combined each other? the new 500 and 1,000 peso bill is.
a. magenta a. optically variable ink
c. yellow b. optical device
b. cyan c. optical ink
d. Green d. optically variable device

2008. Which of the following are NOT considered as the 2018. It is Embossed “1000” denominated value at the lower
primary colors, EXCEPT. right corner of the face of the note changes color from
a. yellow green to blue when viewed at different angles
b. Blue a. optically variable ink
c. Green b. optical device
d. Red c. optical ink
2009. The act of attempting to interpret the character or d. optically variable device
personality of an individual from his handwriting. 2019. What changes of color of the parrot in 500 peso bill and
a. paleography the clam in 1000 peso when the note is rotated at 90
b. collation degrees?
c. graphology a. blue to green
d. cacography b. green to blue
2010. In Q.D it is the term used by some document examiners c. red to green
and attorneys to characterize known material. d. green to red
a. exemplar 2020. The new banknote of the BSP is made of what kind of
b. evidence paper.
c. questioned a. abaca-cotton
d. disputed b. plastic-polymer
2011. In Q.D it is the term used when a person having the c. abaca
ability to write with both left and right. d. cotton
a. cacography 2021. The portrait printed in the 200 peso-bill is
b. calligraphy a. Diosdado P Macapagal
c. calcography b. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. ambidextrous c. Segio Osmena
2012. Which of the following are NOT considered as the d. Apolinario Mabini
secondary colors, EXCEPT. 2022. How many security features are there in the new 500
a. yellow peso bill?
b. Blue a. 8
c. Green b. 9
d. Red c. 7
2013. An interruption in a stroke caused by removing the d. 6
writing instrument from the paper is called.. 2023. How many security features are there in the new 1000
a. pen emphasis peso bill?
b. pen pressure a. 8
c. pen jump b. 9
d. pen lift c. 7
2014. The term document came from latin word d. 6
“documentum”, which means. 2024. The equipment is Forensic Ballistics that measures
a. write the pitch of rifling is:
b. to teach a. Chronograph
c. lesson b. Helixometer
c. Micrometer
d. paper
d. Taper gauge
1463. A magnified photograph of a small object produced
2015. It is the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal by connecting a camera with the ocular of a compound
stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from the microscope is:
paper ( usually applicable to the fountain pen). a. a. Photomacrograph
whirl b. Microphotograph
b. knob c. Photomicrograph
c. sour d. Photography
d. loop 2225. A center-fire cartridge case whose rim diameter is smaller
than the diameter of the body of the case:
2016. The portrait printed in the 20 peso-bill is a. Rimmed cartridge
a. Manuel Quezon b. Rebated cartridge
c. Tapered cartridge
b. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Rimless cartridge
c. Segio Osmena

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2226. If a bullet is fired through a weapon in which the lands have
been worn down or through a bore is slightly oversize or oily, the
marks are called:
a. Skid marks
b. Slippage marks
c. Rifling marks
d. Shearing marks
2227. When two specimens are compared under the comparison
2238. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
microscope at the same direction, the same level, the same a. Lot Lizards
magnification and the same image, they are called: b. Hookers
a. Positively match c. Skeezers
b. Pseudo match d. Hustler
c. Juxtaposition 2239. It is the occasional or selective type of prostitute. She is
d. Drag marks usually a newcomer in the business?
2228. In the United States, crimes are committed by juveniles using a. Door knocker
home-made weapons generally referred to as: b. Street walker
a. Freakish device c. Call girl
b. Zip guns d. skeezers
c. Matchlock 2240. are the real professional type of prostitutes. She works in
d. Flare guns regular houses of prostitution or brothels?
2229. A copper jacketed fired bullet is usually fired from: a. Door knocker
a. Revolver b. Street walker
b. Pistol c. Call Girl
c. Rifle d. Factory Girl
d. Pistol & Revolver 2241. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their own
2230. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of: legitimate work or profession but works as a prostitutes to
supplement their income?
a. 730”
a. Door knocker
b. 728”
b. Street walker
c. 729”
c. Call Girl
d. 724”
d. Factory Girl
2231. A complete unfired unit ammunition is inserted into the
2242. The following countries which comprises the Golden
chamber of firearm for firing is referred to as:
Triangle, EXCEPT.
a. Bullet
b. Shell a. Vietnam
c. Primer b. Thailand
d. Cartridge c. Myanmar
2232. Rifling located inside the barrel of a gun is a combination of: d. Laos
a. Pitch 2243. Is a serial cheater who betrays his spouse or long term
b. Twist partner repeatedly?
c. Lands & grooves
d. Cannelures a. philander
2233 Class characteristics are determinable even: b. prostitution
a. During c. philandering
b. After d. prostitute
c. Before 2244. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to female
d. Never the manufactures of the firearm customers?
2234. The caliber is determined with the aid of:
a. Combined microscope
a. gigolo
b. Micrometer
b. pimps
c. Macrometer
c. callboy
d. Manufacturer of the firearm
d. Johns
2235. An investigator who recovered a fired bullet from the crime
2245. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of
scene will request the ballistician to determine: 0.70 leaves a skid marks of 20.6 meters, what is the
a. Owner of the firearm approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved in
b. Model of the firearm accident. .
c. Caliber and types of the firearm a. 64 kms./hour
d. Manufacture b. 54 kms./hour
2236. That science which deals with the motion of the projectiles at c. 46 km.s/hour
the time it leaves the muzzle of the gun to the time it hits the target d. 45 kms./hour
is known as: 2246. This method of identification depends on the ability of the
a. Terminal ballistics witness to describe the person seen committing the crime.
b. Interior ballistics a. Verbal description
c. Exterior ballistics b. Photographic files
d. Forensic ballistics c. Police line up
2237. That science dealing with the effect of the impact of the d. General photograph
projectile on target is called:

a. Exterior ballistics
b. Interior ballistics 2247. Criminals whose identity may be established background
c. Anterior ballistics identification.
d. Terminal ballistics a. Known criminals
b. Unknown criminals

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 c. Convicted criminals 2260. It is an art which deals with the identity and location
d. Unidentified criminals of the offender and provides evidence of his guilt
2248. Compilation of known criminals available from police files through criminal proceeding.
and records. a. Information
a. Rouge gallery b. Interrogation
b. General photograph c. Instrumentation
c. Police blotter d. Investigation
d. Modus operandi files 2261. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
2249. Type of shadowing where constant surveillance is necessary. a. Physical evidence
a. Loose tail b. Tracing evidence
b. Rough shadowing c. Testimonial evidence
c. Close tail d. Associative evidence
d. None of the foregoing 2262. Is a person who provides an investigator with
2250. The best way to label clothing to be used as evidence is: confidential information concerning a past or
a. Place it in a pill box and label it projected crime and does not wish to be known as a
b. Mark it by an inscription in ink at the lining source of information.
c. Place it in a plastic bag and label it a. Informants
d. Tag it with a label b. Witness
2251. To ensure privacy and avoid distraction an interrogation c. Informers
room must be: d. Confidential informants
a. With no windows or views 2263. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge
b. There should only be one door information.
c. It must be sound proof a. Interview
d. All of the choices b. Interrogation
2252. In this type of interrogation the investigator must have great c. Investigation
knowledge of the case and is preferable when the subject is d. All of the foregoing
not the talkative type. 2264. A compilation of photographs of known criminals, utilized in
a. Narrative type investigation for identifying suspects in a crime.
b. Question and answer type a. Photographic file
c. Stern type b. 201 file
d. Simple interrogation c. Rogue gallery
2253. What should the investigator do to protect while in transport d. Cartographic sketch
those collected evidence from the crime scene? 2265. This is an element of crime commission wherein one is
a. Seal it induced to commit the crime.
b. Mark it a. Motive
c. Pack it properly b. Intent
d. Label it c. Opportunity
2254. Shadowing has the following purposes, except: d. Deceit
a. To detect evidences of criminal activities 2266. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the
b. To establish association of a suspect power of suggestion as a factor in identification as a
c. To locate wanted persons procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
d. None of the foregoing a. 3 to 5
2255. “A” wanted to kill “B” the former pointed his gun to the b. 5 to 7
latter, as “A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “B” c. 7 to 10
managed to escape. This is an example of: d. 10 to 15
a. Attempted felony 2267. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have
b. Frustrated felony committed the crime.
c. Consummated felony a. Motive
d. Consummated felony b. Intent
2256. Kind of recognition whereby the description and c. Opportunity
characteristics maybe vague that identification is difficult. d. Deceit
a. Known fugitives 2268. Motive in giving information wherein the informant
b. Professional criminals delights in giving information to gain favorable
c. Ordinary criminals attention from the police.
d. Unknown fugitives a. Competition
b. Repentance
2257. The methods of determining and finding the best c. Vanity
way to remedy the specific cause or causes of the d. Jealousy
complaint or grievance refers to: 2269. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habits
a. Cross examination and associate are required.
b. Grievance procedures a. Surveillance
c. Investigative procedure b. Loose tail shadowing
d. Criminal procedures c. Rough shadowing
2258. A type of informant reveals information usually of no d. Close tail shadowing
consequence of stuff produced from thin air. 2270. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes
a. False informant of men and less likely to be recognized.
b. Double-crosser informant a. One man shadow
c. Mercenary informant b. Two man shadow
d. Frightened informant c. Three man shadow
2259. Clandestine operation in police parlance. d. ABC method
a. Covert intelligence 2271. In this method of search, the searchers proceed slowly at the
b. Secret activity same pace along the path parallel to one side of the
c. Over intelligence rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the searcher turns
d. Surveillance

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 and proceeds back along new lanes but parallel to the first a. Tracing evidence
movement. b. Corpus delicti
a. Zone method c. Associative evidence
b. Strip method d. Physical or material evidence
c. Spiral method 2284. Instrumental detection of deception
d. Wheel method a. Ballistic test
2272. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into b. Fingerprint test
quadrant and each searcher is assigned in each quadrant. c. Questioned document test
a. Zone method d. Polygraph testing
b. Strip method 2285. When the subject is in prone position what type of search
c. Spiral method should be implemented.
d. Wheel method a. Kneeling search
2273. The surroundings of the crime scene must be photograph to b. Standing search
show the relative location and distances. c. Floor search
a. Environmental photograph d. Wall search
b. Physical reconstruction 2286. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To
c. Overview discover weapons or evidences and determine the identity of
d. Over-all photograph the suspects.
2274. Made by the investigator at the crime scene. No scale, a. Preliminary search of a person
proportion ignored and everything is approximate. b. Wall search
a. Sketch c. Standing search
b. Draft d. Floor search
c. Rough sketch 2287. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an
d. Finished sketch automobile, which has been stolen and abandoned.
2275. Most common reason in discharging informants a. Dashboard
a. Burn out b. Door handles
b. Too expensive to maintain c. Steering wheel
c. Lack of loyalty d. Rear view mirror
d. Reprehensible behavior 2288. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law
2276. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects. enforcers in order to get more information from them than he
a. Stylus gives.
b. Pen a. Double-crosser informants
c. Ink b. Mercenary informants
d. Chalk c. False informants
2277. A form of investigation in which an investigator assumes a d. Self-aggrandizing informants
different and unofficial identity. 2289. That profession and scientific discipline directed to the
a. Tailing recognition, identification, individualization and evaluation of
b. Shadowing physical science by application of natural sciences in matters of
c. Surveillance law and science.
d. Roping a. Chemist
2278. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk. b. Scientist
a. Narrative type c. Criminalistics
b. Interrogation type d. Toxicologist
c. Question and answer type 2290. Is one in which all the ingredients of the offense are
d. Stern type committed in one place.
2279. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty of a a. Local crimes
person taken into custody. b. Local action
a. Protective custody c. Transitory crimes
b. Detaining for questioning d. Transitory action
c. Police restraint 2291. The number of persons who handle the pieces of evidence
d. All of the choices from the scene of the crime and between the times of the
2280. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene commission up to final disposition of cases.
as well as the objects, what naturally occurred and what
were the circumstances of the crime. a. Time custody
a. Crime scene b. Time disposition
b. Physical reconstruction c. Time disposal
c. Mental reconstruction d. Chain of custody
d. Reconstruction of the crime
2292. A declaration made under the consciousness of an
2281. Paid informants impending death.
a. Anonymous informants a. Part of res gestate
b. Rival elimination informants b. Dying Declaration
c. False informants c. Confession
d. Mercenary informants d. admission
2282. Most common type of shadowing. 2293. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
a. One man shadow a. Instrumentation
b. Two man shadow b. Forensic
c. Three man shadow c. Legal medicines
d. Rough shadow d. Criminology
2283. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the 2294. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition
investigation and which aid in establishing the identity of the a. Blood
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was b. Semen
committed or which, in general assist in the prosecution of the c. Saliva
criminal. d. Hair

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 2295. The sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical a. False informant
surroundings. b. Mercenary informant
a. Finished sketch c. Double crosser informant
b. Sketch of details d. Self-aggrandizing informant
c. Sketch of locality 2308. Is one in which the ingredients of the offense are committed
d. Sketch of grounds in many places.
2296. The explanation of any symbols used to identify objects in a a. Local crime
sketch. b. Local action
a. Compass direction c. Transitory crime
b. Title d. Transitory action
c. Legend
d. Scale 2309. The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a
2297. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in crime has been committed, in order to determine such, he
locating the suspect. must have knowledge of the so-called cardinal questions of
a. Physical evidence investigation. How many cardinal questions are there?
b. Material evidence a. Three
c. Associative evidence b. Four
d. Tracing evidence c. Five
2298. Objects or substances which are essential part of the body of d. Six
the crime. 2310. In bank robberies, this person is in charge of transportation by
a. Corpus delicti stealing the vehicle and providing plate on it.
b. Physical evidences a. Drivers
c. Material evidences b. Ripper
d. Associative evidences c. Wheelman
2299. The primary consideration in transporting evidences. d. Rover
a. Markings should be placed 2311. Refers to the standard arrow designating the north to
b. Proper turnover must be observed facilitate proper sketch orientation.
c. Avoid altering contents a. Proper north
d. Proper packing to protect the evidence while in b. True north
transit c. Legend
2300. General rule in handling pieces of evidence d. Compass direction
a. MAC rule 2312. A search method in which the searchers follow each other in
b. Right of way rule the path of the coiled beginning from the outside proceeding
c. Last clear chance rule toward the center.
d. None of the choices a. Zone method
2301. In handling clothing used as evidence, the stained areas are b. Wheel method
usually encircled. What is the primary objective? c. Spiral method
a. To show points of interest d. Strip method
b. To have proper marking 2313. Taking into custody property described in the search warrant
c. To avoid contamination as a result of a search, to be utilized as evidence in a case.
d. To prevent alterations a. Seizure
2302. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the b. Detention
specimen? c. Safekeeping
a. Formaldehyde d. Confiscation
b. Saline solution 2314. A method of criminal identification whereby the
c. Alcohol perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are
d. Distilled water identified by depiction.
2303. It is the surprise invasion of building or an area. a. Verbal description
a. Assault b. General photographs
b. Attack c. Police line up
c. Raid d. Rouge gallery
d. Surveillance 2315. Instrument used to open / close fire hydrants.
2304. Primary requisite for conducting raids. a. Sprinkler
a. Search warrant b. Fire pump
b. Raiding team c. Fire hose
c. Firearms d. Hydrant key
d. Back-up personnel
2305. A public officer when not being authorized by
judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against the will 2316. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of
of the owner thereof is committing: its reaction with other elements promotes a rapid drop in
a. Legal entry temperature of the immediate surroundings.
b. Violation of domicile a. Dust
c. Trespassing b. Oxidizing material
d. Illegal entry c. Pyrolysis
2306. A person undergoing custodial investigation enjoy his d. Cryogenic
constitutional rights namely: 2317. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which
a. The right to oppose whatever accusation on him. vapors are evolved fast enough to support continuous
b. The right to plea guilty and not guilty combustion.
c. The right to remain silent, to counsel and the right a. Ignition temperature
to be informed of such rights. b. Kindling temperature
d. The right to face his accuser in public trial c. Fire point
d. Flash point
2307. A type of informant reveals information usually of no 2318. The temperature at which flammable liquid form a vapor-air
consequences of stuff concocted of thin air. mixture that ignites.

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 a. Ignition temperature b. Pyrolysis
b. Kindling temperature c. Thermal balance
c. Fire point d. Thermal imbalance
d. Flash point 2331. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its
2319. Minimum temperature in which the substance in destructive capabilities is developed.
the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a a. Initial phase
self-contained combustion without the addition of b. Incipient phase
heat from outside sources. c. Free burning phase
a. Boiling point d. Smoldering phase
b. Ignition temperature 2332. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.
c. Fire point a. The fire triangle
d. Flash point b. The fingerprint of the fire
2320. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible c. Flashover
material react with an oxidizing agent. d. Incipient phase of the fire
a. Thermal balance 2333. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible
b. Thermal imbalance portion of the ceiling to their ignition temperature, it is
c. Combustion characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and
d. Oxidation flames.
2321. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light. a. Flashover
a. Pyrolysis b. Backdraft
b. Combustion c. Thermal balance
c. Detonation d. Thermal imbalance
d. All of the foregoing 2334. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a
2322. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
heat. a. Flashover
a. Pyrolysis b. Backdraft
b. Combustion c. Thermal balance
c. Detonation d. Thermal imbalance
d. Oxidation 2335. Which among the following is the primary objective in
2323. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the investigating fires?
material with unit temperature gradient. a. To determine its cause
a. Conduction b. To prevent recurrence
b. Thermal conductivity c. To determine liable persons
c. Radiation d. All of the foregoing
d. Fission 2336. Reason why fire investigation is unique.
2324. A means of heat transfer when energy travels through space a. It does not conform with regular investigative
or materials as waves. procedure
a. Conduction b. Unavailability of witnesses
b. Convection c. Fire destroys evidence
c. Radiation d. All of the foregoing
d. Fission 2337. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.
2325. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a a. Providential
motive. b. Accidental
a. Providential fire c. Intentional
b. Accidental fire d. Incendiarism
c. Intentional fire 2338. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and
d. None of the foregoing oxygen.
2326. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the a. Fire
case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788. b. Origin of fire
a. Arson c. Fire triangle
b. Providential fire d. All of the foregoing
c. Accidental fire 2339. Most important part of fire triangle for it is what burns.
d. None of the foregoing a. Fuel
2327. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless b. Heat
and odorless gas which supports life and fire. c. Oxygen
a. Nitrogen d. Gas
b. Hydrogen 2340. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating
c. Oxygen medium either gas or a liquid.
d. Neon a. Conduction
2328. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a b. Convection
fire. c. Radiation
a. Fuel d. Fission
b. Oxygen 2341. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.
c. Heat a. Specific heat
d. None of the choices b. Latent heat
2329. Refers to gases liberated by heat. c. Heat of Combustion
a. Free radicals d. Heat of fusion
b. Flash point 2342. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or
c. Thermal balance natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
d. Thermal imbalance a. Carbon black
2330. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and b. Lamp black
fire gases within a building or structure under natural c. Soot
conditions. d. Black bone
a. Free radicals

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 2343. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor 2356. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials
as a result of combustion. with sufficient air forms lamp black commonly known as:
a. Fire a. Black bone
b. Flame b. Used petroleum
c. Heat c. Soot
d. Smoke d. Black iron
2344. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation. 2357. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume
a. Fire electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing
b. Flame electrical system.
c. Heat a. Overloading
d. Smoke b. Jumper
2345. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been c. Wire tapping
contained. d. Arcing
a. Backdraft 2358. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the
b. Flashover assessed value of the building:
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning a. Schools
d. Falling debris b. Department stores
2346. Color smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates c. Hospitals
the burning of what material? d. Single family dwellings
a. Rubber 2359. Enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as
b. Nitrogen products well as from the base to top of the building.
c. Asphalt singles a. Standpipe system
d. Chlorine b. Sprinkler system
2347. Which among the following is commonly used in fire c. Vertical shaft
resistant materials? d. Flash point
a. Asbestos 2360. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance
b. Diamond rating of not less than four hours with structural stability to
c. Asphalt remain standing even if the adjacent construction collapses
d. Cotton under fire conditions:
2348. A form of static electricity of great magnitude producing a. Post wall
tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the most common b. Fire trap
cause of providential fires. c. Fire wall
a. Rays of the sun d. Firewood
b. Spontaneous heating 2361. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government
c. Arcing for any particular establishment.
d. Lighting a. Fire service
2349. Most common source of accidental fire is related to: b. Fire safety inspection
a. Smoking c. Fire drill
b. Arcing d. Fire protection assembly
c. Sparkling 2362. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
d. Overloading a. Radiation
2350. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room b. Convection
or throughout the structure. c. Conduction
a. Accelerant d. Fission
b. Plants 2363. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and
c. Trailer light of combustion.
d. Wick a. Oxidation
2351. Usually comes in form of combustible liquid which is a b. Flash point
contrivance to hasten the start of fire. c. Smoldering
a. Accelerant d. Fire
b. Plants 2364. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes
c. Trailer place.
d. Wick a. Endothermic reactions
2352. Most common reason of arson cases. b. Exothermic reactions
a. Revenge c. Oxidation
b. Profit d. Combustion
c. Competition 2365. Product of an incomplete combustion.
d. All of the foregoing a. Soot
2353. Result of slow oxidation of a combustible material. b. Charring
a. Spontaneous heating c. Ashes
b. Combustible gases d. All of foregoing
c. Combustible dust 2366. Color of a luminous flame.
d. None of the choices a. Orange-blue
2354. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start b. Blue
a fire. c. Yellow
a. Plants d. Red
b. Trailers 2367. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete
c. Accelerants oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to water
d. Wick and carbon dioxide.
2355. Act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard. a. Heat of combustion
a. Abatement b. Calorific value
b. Combustion c. Fuel value
c. Allotment d. All of the foregoing
d. Distillation

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 2368. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it a. Disorderly houses
changes state from solid to liquid or liquid to gas. b. Furnished room houses
a. Calorie c. Call houses
b. Latent heat d. Massage clinics
c. Thermal heat 2381. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with
d. Specific heat which to carry on the gambling game.
2369. Refers to gases that remain when the products of a. Maintainer
combustion are cooled to normal temperature. b. Conductor
a. Fire gases c. Banker
b. Combustion gases d. Operator
c. Oxidation gases 2382. Anti gambling law
d. Flame a. PD 1869
2370. Fires caused by human error and negligence. b. PD 1612
a. Providential fires c. PD 1602
b. Intentional fires d. PD 1866
c. Accidental fires 2383. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except
d. Incendiarism a. Broken families
2371. Primary component of wood b. Poverty
a. Fiber c. Anonymity of city life
b. Cellulose d. All of the choices
c. Carbon 2384. Refers to a person having no apparent means of subsistence.
d. Pulp a. Gambler
2372. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or b. Prostitute
fingerprint of fire is developed. c. Vagrants
a. Incipient phase d. None of the foregoing
b. Initial phase 2385. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave
c. Free burning phase trade.
d. Smoldering phase a. Prision correctional
2373. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and b. Prison mayor
carbon monoxide builds up in volume. c. Reclusion temporal
a. Incipient d. Reclusion perpetua
b. Initial phase 2386. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.
c. Free burning phase a. Maintainer
d. Smoldering phase b. Conductor
2374. Most effective way of regulating vices. c. Banker
a. Continued police action by relentless drives in vice d. Operator
control 2387. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement same effect.
c. Both a and b a. Tolerance
d. None of the choices b. Physical dependence
2375. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake c. Poly drug abuse
of alcoholic beverages develops physical and psychological d. Drug experimenter
changes and dependence to alcohol. 2388. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent
a. Alcoholics Cannabis Sativa.
b. Liquor addicts a. Marijuana
c. Drunkard b. Hashish
d. Chronic alcoholics c. Opium
2376. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which d. Morphine
contains alcohol. 2389. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep,
a. Liquor what is the other term given to narcotics?
b. Wine a. Opium
c. Booze b. Opiates
d. Vodka c. Morphine
2377. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill-refute d. Heroin
whereby the business of prostitution is conducted. 2390. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.
a. Operator a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. Banker b. Cannabis sativa
c. Mama c. Papaver somniferum
d. Pimp d. Methamphetamine
2378. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with 2391. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as:
another for hire. a. Pain killer
a. Prostitute b. Cough reliever
b. Whores c. Stimulant
c. Knockers d. Depressant
d. All of the foregoing 2392. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
2379. The procurement and transportation of women from far a. Secretary of Justice
flung places for immoral purposes. b. Secretary of National Defense
a. White slavery c. Secretary of Education
b. Prostitution d. Secretary of Health
c. Organized crimes 2393. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it
d. All of the foregoing was brought to the Philippines by a Japanese tourist.
2380. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or a. Marijuana
professional prostitutes under the control of an organized b. Cocaine
crime ring. c. Shabu

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 d. Opium b. Coca leaf
2394. The most potent derivative from opium. c. Drug
a. Codeine d. Marijuana
b. Cocaine 2407. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotions,
c. Morphine thought disruption and ego distortion.
d. Heroin a. Depressants
2395. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia b. Tranquilizers
and first used by the Incas of Peru. c. Hallucinogens
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Stimulants
b. Papaver somniferum 2408. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads
c. Amphetamine to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and
d. Erythroxylon coca body.
2396. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is a. Abuse
“Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”. b. Vice
a. Chomper c. Addiction
b. Ecstacy d. Gambling
c. Shabu 2409. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners
d. Heroin and other bettors.
2397. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent a. Promoter
legal restrictions. b. “Cristo”
a. Designer drugs c. Banker
b. Hallucinogens d. Gambler
c. Amphetamines 2410. Most common problem encountered by the police in vice
d. Methamphetamines control measures:
2398. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and a. Unwillingness of government officials to work
gamble in Philippine casinos. against vices
a. PD 1602 b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
b. PD 1869 c. Public apathy
c. PD 510 d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts
d. PD 483 2411. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical
2399. Office that controls and regulates gambling. change which later becomes sour or alcoholic.
a. PAGCOR a. Distillation
b. PCGG b. Fermentation
c. PACC c. Ionization
d. PNP d. Purification
2400. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons 2412. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes
who have paid or agreed to pay a valuable consideration for argumentative and over confident.
the chance to obtain a prize. a. Slight inebration
a. Gambling b. Moderate inebration
b. Sport c. Drunk
c. Lottery d. Coma
d. All of the choices 2413. This method of therapy of alcoholics is based on conversion
2401. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games. and fellowship.
a. Wage a. Aversion treatment
b. Wager b. Psychotherapy method
c. Prize c. Withdrawal method
d. Banker d. Program of alcoholic anonymous
2402. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% 2414. Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual
of the substance: indulgement in sexual intercourse for money or profit.
a. Hashish a. Gambling
b. Codeine b. Prostitution
c. Morphine c. Addiction
d. Heroin d. All of the foregoing
2403. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants 2415. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to
known as: supplement their income.
a. Crank a. Call girls
b. Pep pills b. Factory girls
c. Knock-out drops c. Hustler
d. Stick d. Door knocker
2404. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on
prohibited and regulated drugs. 2416. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent
a. DDB legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of
b. NBI responsibility.
c. PACC a. Disorderly houses
d. PNP b. Furnished room houses
2405. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or c. Call houses
dullness of the mind with delusions. d. Massage clinics
a. Narcotics 2417. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world
b. Stimulants originated is located specifically in:
c. Depressants a. Thailand-Burma-China border
d. Hallucinogens b. Laos-Thailand-China border
2406. Chemical substance which effects a person in such a way as c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
to bring out physiological, behavioral or emotional change. d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border
a. Alcohol

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 2418. Grass of marijuana, is a crude drug made from D. Interrogation
Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering 2449. It is a distinct pattern of how a crime is committed
ingredient. Which among the following is not an and is established by a series of crimes under one
immediate effect of weed? classification.
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate A. Modus Operandi
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration B. Modes of Operation
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction – external fear of C. Methods of Operation
losing control D. Pattern of Operation
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation 2450. It refers to a person who gives information relevant
2419. A drug-obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American to a criminal case about the activities of the criminals
shrub. It is a central nervous system stimulant. voluntarily to the investigator and who may even be
a. Marijuana willing to be a witness.
b. Shabu A. Informant
c. Cocaine B. Informer
d. Opiates C. Mercenary
2420. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon D. Women
chance or hazard. 2451. Methods of Search whereby the searchers will
a. Gambling proceed at the same place along the path parallel to
b. Sports one side of the rectangle.
c. Tupada A. Wheel search method
d. All of the above B.Quadrant Search
2421. Study reveal that the reason why “ Marijuana” is difficult to C. Spiral search method
control is that: D. Strip Search
a. The big demand 2452. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence
b. The plant can be easily cultivated in court; it should be taken from ____.
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country A. General View
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously C. Close-up view
2442. The forceful and intelligent questioning of one who is B. Mid-range
reluctant to divulge information? D. General to Specific
A. interview 2453. It is the simplest and most effective way of showing
C. interrogation actual measurements and of identifying significant
B. information items of evidence in their location at the scene.
D. instrumentation A. Sketch
2443. It is what induces the criminal to act and not to be shown B. Rough Sketch
in order to obtain conviction? C. Final Sketch
A. intent D. Finish Sketch
B.desire 2454. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the
C. motive crime and its environs, including neighboring
D. opportunity buildings, roads, etc.?
2444. Information gathered upon initiative of the a. Sketch of Locality
investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab driver, b. Sketch of Environs
GRO, and others. c. Sketch of the Ground
A. Grapevine Sources d. Sketch in Details
B. Cultivated Sources 2455. Elements of the Sketch:
C.Regular Sources a. Measurement and compass direction
D.Cognitive interview b. Essential items and scale of proportion
2445. What interrogation techniques when the investigator c. Legend and title
indicates he does not consider his subject’s d. All of the choices
indiscretion a grave offense. 2456. During a custodial investigation, Jayson was
A. Sympathetic Appeal subjected to physical harm by continuously kicking
B. Mutt and Jeff and punching him in the stomach so that the same
C Extenuation may confess.
D. Emotional Appeal A. Coercion
2446. It is a self-incriminatory statement by the subject B. Physical torture
falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt. C. Duress
D. Verbal threats
a. Confession 2457. A person who killed his spouse but was entitled to
b. Extra-Judicial Confession the benefits of Article 247 of the Revised Penal Code
c. Admission shall suffer the penalty of:
d. Judicial Confession A. Reclusion perpetua
B. Death
2447. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known C. Reclusion temporal
criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and D. Destierro
names of associate criminals. 2458. The Unit now charged with conducting field
a. Physical Line-up operation and technical investigation at the crime
b. Physical Show-up scene is:
c. Geographic Sketch a. PNP Crime Laboratory
d. Rogues Gallery b. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
2448. It is the general questioning of all persons at the c. Scene of the Crime Operation
crime scene/ traffic accident, no need to recite the d. Crime Scene Investigation
Miranda doctrine
A. Custodial Investigation 2459. Police Officer Athan is the first officer to arrive at the
B. Interview scene of a shooting incident. he saw the victim lying
C. Field Inquiry on the pavement sustaining multiple gun shot

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 wounds, but still moving. What is the proper course A. Chief of Police
of action he should take? B. PCP Commander
a. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO team C. Investigator-on-case
to arrive D. owner of the place
b. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the 2469. Are all physical evidence found and collected at the
crime scene and assist him with the situation. crime scene to be transported to the Crime
C. Call the investigator and inquire Laboratory?
about his decision concerning the victim. a. Yes, because they were collected for
D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest examination
hospital. b. Yes, because the Investigator is not allowed
2460. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is ____ to take custody of evidence
a. the property taken c. No, because the SOCO Team has no authority
b. the fact that the crime was committed to bring the evidence to the Crime
c. anything of value Laboratory if the investigator did not request
d. Intent of the suspect d. No, only those which require further
2461. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical laboratory examination will be transported.
representation must indicate the ____ direction for 2470. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly
proper orientation of the scene. documented and locations of evidence was noted,
A. North the collection process begins and will usually start
B. West with –
C. East A. point of exit
D. South B. fragile evidence
2462. The following are the rules to be observed when C. large objects
intervening a witness, EXCEPT: D. removal of cadaver
a. allow implied answer 2471. Who conducts the final survey of the crime scene?
b. saving faces A. Chief Investigator
c. one question at a time B. Team Leader
d. avoid leading questions C. Chief of Police
2463. In case there is no other available means of D. Investigator-on-case
establishing the age of the offender, what should be 2472. This is produced by forcible contact on the body by
done if he claims that he is still a minor? sharp edged instrument like bolos, knives, and
a. Do not listen to his claim because probably broken glasses:
he is already of majority age. A. Incised wound
b. Wait for the court to determine the age of B. Punctured wound
the offender C. Stab wound
c. Resolve the issued in favor of the declarant D. Lacerated wound
d. Ask the social worker to determine the age 2473. What is the means of identifying physical evidence in
of the offender which the investigator inscribe initial date and time
2464. 24. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime directly?
incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT: A. marking
a. Record the date and time the report was B. labeling
made C. tagging
b. Immediately respond to the crime scene D. none of these
c. Made a synopsis of the incident 2474. A knife found at the crime scene to be used as a
d. Inform his superior officer or duty officer evidence should be marked where ____.
regarding the report A. At the tip of the blade
2465. What is the area located adjacent to the crime scene B. At the frame
where the briefing is to be conducted and also the C. At the base
place where the evidence custodian receives the D. At the handle
evidence collected during crime scene investigation? 2475. What may be added to blood to preserve for a week?
A. crime scene A. Sodium Chloride
C. fixed post B. Sodium Fluoride
B. command post C. Sodium Dioxide
D. reception area D. NONE
2466. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the team 2476. What is the most important part of the hair?
leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT: A. Follicle
a. Takes down note to document important B. Medulla
factors C. Root
b. Makes a general assessment of the crime D. All of these
scene 2477. What is the minimum number of hair strands is
c. Photograph the crime scene before walking needed?
through the crime scene A. 10 strands
d. Defines the extent of search area B. 30 to 60 strands
2467. What is the purpose of conducting final survey of the C. 120 strands
crime scene? D. unlimited
a. To determine whether or not the processing 2478. Mummification is a condition of arrested
has been completed. decomposition due to the absence of moisture. It is
b. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police. common in hot dry conditions, usually takes ___ to
c. To check all evidence gathered from the form.
crime scene. A. 3 months
d. To determine whether there is a need to B. 1 month
request for additional personnel C. 6 months
2468. After the conduct of final survey by the team leader D. 1 year
to whom will the crime scene be turned over?

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 2479. A dead body was found and there is already b. Information identifies the perpetrator of the
presence of maggots, it indicates that the dead body crime
was at least ___. c. Information identifies witnesses that will
A. 2 days lead to the suspect
B. 5 days d. None of these
C. 3 days 2489. Paint recovered from the victim at the scene of a hit-
D. 1 week and-run may be particularly useful in the
2480. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the grave investigation process because the year and make of
for the conduct of medical examination: the car involved may be determinable. The paint
A. Inhumation chips evidence collected should be ideally placed on?
B. Exhumation a. Clear plastic envelope
C. Autopsy b. Clear plastic container
D. Interment c. Small plastic bag
2481. The purpose of the autopsy is to determine which of d. Cotton
the following 2490. Which of the following is the primary source of
a. The actual cause of death of the victim evidence?
b. The actual killer of the victim A. victim
c. The modus operandi involved B. crime scene
d. The motive behind killing C. suspect
2482. 41. The method used to support a likely sequence of D. all of these
events by the observation and evaluation of physical 2491. Which among the following is an essential element of
evidence, as well as statement made by those parricide?
involved with the incident: a. by means of treachery
b. relationship of the offender with the victim
a. Crime Scene Reconstruction c. relationship of the offender with the witness
b. Physical reconstruction d. age of the victim
c. Mental reconstruction 2492. In crime scene investigation, who determines its
d. Any of the above entry/exit?
2483. The purposes of a crime scene search are the A. the prober
following, EXCEPT: B. SOCO
a. To identify the method of operation C. COP
b. To analyze physical evidence D. First responded
c. To reduce the number of suspects 2493. After developing the latent print found at the crime
d. To obtain physical evidence scene, it is best to lift it first then take photographs as
2484. In the course of investigating the house where a a back record, is it a correct practice and do you
stabbing took place, police find what to be agree with the prober?
bloodstains on the front door, since the unknown A. yes
perpetrator and the victim who may die were both B. no
cut their identities need to be established through C. maybe
the bloodstains. How will the police collect the D. It depends
stains? 2494. What would be the best camera position in taking
a. moisten a piece a clean cotton with a saline photographs showing a view of what a witness might
solution and rub gently. have seen?
b. remove the door and submit it to the crime a. at 6 foot distance from the camera man
lab b. parallel to the subject witness
c. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean c. overhead
razor blade d. at the eye level
d. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in 2495. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch or
alcohol engraved the initial on a collected hard object is
2485. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a called?
rough sketch is for A. Collection
A. scale and proportion C. Scratcher
B. future use B. Luminous
C. accuracy and clarity D. Stylus
D.courtroom presentation 2496. As regards to the suspect, what will be the purpose
2486. What is the court process requiring a person to bring of interrogation?
documents in his possession to the courts? a. To extract illegally the confession of a
a. summon suspect
b. subpoena ducestecum b. To extract the information he possesses
C.subpoena testificandum c. To extract a confession of admission
D. bill of particulars d. All of the above
2487. What is the best method of collection evidence like 2497. Before going to court, be sure to review the ___?
footprints and tire prints? a. Names of the suspect
A. Casting b. Names of the witness
B. Dental Stone c. Number of the cases
C. Plaster of Paris d. Facts of the cases
D. Photograph
2488. Investigation has 3 I’s, to be precise these are the
information, interview/interrogation and
instrumentation. Among of them information is 2498. In collecting bloodstains at the crime scene, prober
deemed to be the most important because must keep in mind that before placing the specimen
a. Information involves the elements of the in a paper packet it must be allowed first to ____?
crime A. Refrigerate
B. Air dried

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G.S.T. 2019
 C. Moist B. Theft
D. Freeze C. Robbery w/ force upon things
2499. Why is it important for a perishable material to be D. None
preserved by the way or the methods of 2508. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
preservation? A. RA 8484
a. So that the evidence will not be destroyed B. RA 7877
b. In order that this evidence will reach the C. RA 7080
court in the same physical condition as when D. RA 8353
they were collected 2509. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell phones are
c. To avoid the miscarriage of justice by the found in your house by the police, then it is ____.
acquittal of the accused a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
d. All of the above b. Prima facie evidence of theft
2500. In police photography, when one say tripod, the c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
stand has how many legs or vertical support? d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
A. two 2510. The following are the grounds to execute a Lawful
B. four warrantless arrest EXCEPT:
C. one A. Seized in “Plain view”
D. three B. Customs search
2501. Pointed metal instrument is used to mark bullet and C. Search of a moving vehicle
empty shell for D. None of the choices
A. proper and lasting mark 2511. After serving the search warrant, deliver immediately
B. preservation the things or property seized to the ____ together
C. marking it with an inventory duly verified under oath.
D. labeling a. Judge who issued the warrant
2502. Which of the following is not the function of criminal b. Prosecution Counsel
investigation? c. Requesting Party
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who d. Any of these
commits crime 2512. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____.
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal A. 10 days
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence B. No time Limit
d. Bring the offender to justice C. 15 days
2503. Below are serious crimes which leave physical D. NONE
evidence, EXCEPT: 2513. The taking of a person into custody in the manner
a. Homicide authorized by law for the purpose of presenting that
b. Carnapping and arson person before the court to answer for the
c. Sexual assault and robbery commission of a crime.
d. Libel
2504. There are two robbers who broke into a house and
carried away some valuables. After they left such A. Search
house these two robbers decided to cut or divide the B. Arrest
loot already so that they can go of them . So C. Initial Contact
while they are dividing the loot the other robber D. Warrant of Arrest
noticed that the one doing the division is trying to 2514. Who shall issue a Search Warrant?
cheat him and so he immediately boxed him. Now A. Judge
this robber who was boxed then pulled out his gun B. Executive Branch
and fired at the other one killing the latter. What C. Investigator on Case
crime is committed? D. Prober
a. Robbery and Murde 2515. All but one are the instances you can execute a
b. Murder lawful warrantless arrest.
c. Robbery w/ Homicide A. Flagrante Delicto
d. Homicide B. Escaped prisoner
C. Hot pursuit Principle
D. None of these
2505. If a person had an enemy and killed him and after 2516. Physical evidence is generally given weight the
killing him, saw that he had a beautiful ring and took courts because-
this, the crime would be? a. it speaks for itself
a. Robbery and Murder b. it cannot lie
b. Robbery and Theft c. not affected by emotion
c. Robbery w/ Homicide d. all of the choices
d. Murder 2517. Physical or personal appearance is important when
2506. A committed robbery but during the robbery he saw testifying in court because –
B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B. a. it will determine the quality of your
pardoned A, and they get married. What crime is testimony
committed? b. it will determine the quantity of your
A. Robbery testimony
B. Robbery w/ Rape c. it will affect the weight given to your
C. Robbery and Rape testimony by the court
D. NONE d. it will reduce the chances of the defense
2507. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The 2518. What does DNA stand for?
wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
night, a man entered through that opening without b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
breaking the same and gets items there. What crime c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
is committed? d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
A. Robbery

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 2519. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this was
pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
a. Every contact leaves a Mark
b. modus operandi
c. shadowing
d. casing
2520. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the
scene of the crime will most likely mean that –
a. the victim cleaned up before the police
arrived
b. the suspect was professional
c. the suspect was juvenile
d. the police probably did not conduct a
complete search for evidence.
2521. During an interview, planning is important and must
follow the order of time and bring out facts orderly
as they happened, this technique is called –
a. chronological questioning
b. psychological questioning
c. physical questioning
d. None of these
2522. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign
territory” such as the investigator room at the police
station because the place –
a. Is comfortable to the suspect
b. Is familiar to the suspect
c. Provides food and cigarette to the
investigator
d. Intimidates the suspect
2523. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene,
he should first of all –
a. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking
care not to jar
b. wait until the crime scene has been
sketched, photographed and measurements
taken before he collects the evidence
c. immediately collects it and always sends it to
the Crime Laboratory for specific
examination
d. Compare the following edge of the took with
impression to determine if this was the tool
used in crime
2524. All of the following are generally accepted rules of
behavior that should be followed by police officer
first arriving at the crime scene of a murder
committed indoors, EXCEPT –
a. Try to keep witnesses separated
b. Record the time of discovery of the crime
c. Discus the crime with persons who witness
the incident
d. Notify the superior officer as quickly as
possible but do not leave the scene
unguarded while doing so
2525. The primary reason for conducting a search in the
crime scene is to –
a. Obtain obvious physical evidence
b. Ascertain the reasons for the crime
c. Undercover hidden evidence
d. Determine the criminals method of
operation
2526. Marking of evidence, as far as practicable, should be
made on the item itself upon collection, in a place
least likely to affect the appearance of its -
A. Physical Integrity
B. Evidentiary
C. Legal Integrity
D. Integrity and Identity
2527. In pursuing a criminal and when it appears that the
pursuit is not possible, what should you not do?
a. Better use your time and efforts to alert
another unit
b. Forego the pursuit and keep on what you are
formerly doing
c. Inform the dispatched of the unit
G.S.T. 2019
d. Use radio for possible active pursuit in
coordination with other police units
2528. This situation takes place when a police officer
induced a person to commit a crime and arrest him
after the commission of the crime.
A. Instigation
B. Search
C. Recidivism
D. Entrapment
2529. The investigator who collects physical evidence
should take it to the laboratory by himself whenever
this is possible, otherwise, he should obtain a receipt
from each person to whom he gives or receives
evidence. This statement is applicable to –
a. Chain of custody of evidence
b. Cardinal rules in investigation
c. Three tools in investigation
d. To establish the guilt of the accused
2530. It is the duty of the officer who first arrives at the
crime scene.
a. Locate and apprehend the accused
b. Protection of the crime scene
c. Collect evidence
d. Present evidence of guilt
2531. These are some of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, EXCEPT:
a. record the crime scene through notes,
photographs, and sketches
b. recognizes, collect, and preserves all physical
evidences and clue materials
c. establish the cause and the manner of death
of the victim
d. alleged suspicion as they initially appear to
the investigators
2532. Another set of the investigative activities in a
homicide case, are the following, EXCEPT:
a. determine the categories and modes of
death
b. seek additional information by interviewing
witness
c. ascertaining the motive of the suspect
d. questioning the suspect after explaining his
rights
2533. White-collar crimes are generally very difficult to
prevent and when detected or reported, they pose
many ____.
a. investigative difficulties
b. investigative tasks
c. investigative problems
d. investigative burden
2534. To secure conviction of white-collar criminals, the
investigator must develop ___, eh must also
remember that the victim may suddenly lose interest
in aiding prosecution.
a. every phase of the case
b. contingency of case
c. friendly atmosphere
d. rapport with victim
2535. The following are characteristics of organized crime,
EXCEPT:
a. close-knit nature of its membership
b. their elaborate planning and lack of
impulsiveness
c. violence and intimidation are common tools
d. basically a street gang with criminal skills
2536. The following statements, answers the questions
“when” and “how” rape can be committed, EXCEPT:
a. sexual assault by inserting penis into another
person’s mouth
b. inserting any instrument or object into the
genital or anal orifice or another person
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 c. committed under all the elements
enumerated by Art. 324 of the Revised Penal
Code
d. rape case is a crime against chastity
2537. Rape is committed under any of the following
circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or
intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of
reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or
grave abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man
to a woman
2538. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, robbery is
divided into two different classifications, one is
robbery by the use of force upon things, and the
other is:
a. robbery with violence, or intimidation of
person
b. taking of personal property belonging to
another
c. with intent, to gain and to possess the
property
d. pre-conceived plans and unexpected
opportunity
2539. The following are the elements of the crime robbery,
EXCEPT:
a. personal property belonging to another
b. the taking must be with intent to gain
c. there is violence or intimidation of any
person
d. it engender fear and quality of life
2540. The most likely place to look for fingerprints of the
thief in an automobile which has been stolen and
abandoned is on
A. Door handles
C. Steering wheel
B. Rear view mirror
D. Dashboard
2541. If criminal investigation is a process, after identifying
then collecting information and evidences, the next
logical step to do is
a. presents them in court
b. preserves their legal integrity
c. evaluate their strength in establishing proof
d. recognize their importance in the case
2542. During a quarrel on a crowded street of Avenida, one
man, stabs another and flees. PO1 Lim policeman
arriving at the scene a short time later finds the
victim unconscious, calls for an ambulance and
orders the crowd to leave. His action was
a. bad; there may have been witnesses to the
assault among the crowd
b. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give
an injured person room and air
c. bad; the assailant is probably among the
crowd
d. good; a crowd may destroy needed evidence
e. bad; it is poor public relations for the police
to order people about needlessly.
2543. The correct order of a crime scene analysis is:
a. sketch, search, photograph
b. search, sketch, photograph
c. photograph, search, sketch
d. photograph, sketch, search
2544. It is often important to know the time of death. The
reasons offered to this are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. to question individual who last talk with the
victim
b. to look for flaws on a witness’s account of
incident
G.S.T. 2019
c. protect the innocent from malicious
allegations
d. to know what was occur and how did it occur
2545. 1st Driver’s License is a matter of right not only a
privilege, 2nd Driver’s License is issued to a person,
who has all the qualification as provided by law, 3 rd
Driver’s License is a public document
a. The 1st and 2nd statements are incorrect
b. The 1st and 3rd statements are correct
c. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
d. All statements are correct
2546. Which of the following is not a function of warning
symbol?
a. To call the decrease of speed
b. To seek carefulness on the part of motorist
of the approaching danger
c. To direct motorist along the establish
direction
d. To notify traffic units an approaching
hazardous circumstance either on or
adjacent to road
2547. 106. These are the functions of guide signs, EXCEPT:
a. To guide motorist along established routes
b. To inform proper routes
c. To help him along his way to the most simple
and direct method
d. To call the diminution of speed
2548. 107. A number of traffic regulations revolve around
questions of right of way, for practically purposes,
one of the following is the best definition of “Right of
Way”.
a. The personal right to move from one place to
another
b. The privilege of immediate use of particular
section of highway
c. The way or place open to the motorist and
pedestrian
d. The right of a vehicle to occupy a space
which at the time is occupied by another
vehicle
2549. It is intended to inform road user of special
obligation, instruction nor prohibitions which they
must comply.
A. Traffic Signs
B. Informative Signs
C. Regulatory Signs
D. Danger/warning signs
2550. A kind of road according to political subdivision
within town proper Right of Way not less than 10
meters.
A. National Road
B. Municipal Road
C. Barangay Road
D. City Road
2551. It refers to a vehicles covered by certificate of public
convenience or special permit issued by LTFRB
A. Private
B. For Hire
C. Government
D. Diplomatic
2552. Professional and non-professional driver’s license is
valid for ___ from the date of issuance and
renewable every birth month.
A. 18 Months
B.36 Months
C. 24 Months
D.12 Months
2553. It is any accident occurring on a public traffic way
involving persons using vehicle or transportation, but
not involving a motor vehicle in motion:
a. Vehicle Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Non-Traffic Accident
c. Non-Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
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 d. Non-Motor Vehicle Non Traffic Accident
2554. Which of the following law created the Metropolitan
Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
A. RA 8750
B .RA 7924
C. RA 8749
D. PD 96
2555. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement program
is best measured by which of the following:
a. A cutback of traffic accidents and
interruption
b. A amplify in traffic enforcement actions
c. A dwindle in the ratio of convictions to
enforcement manner
d. None of these
2556. 115. In an intersection not controlled by lights or
peace officers, pedestrian have the right of way the
moment he starts to cross.
A. Absolutely true
B. Partly true
C. Absolutely false
D. Partly false
2557. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above
street level for free-flow traffic.
A. Expressway
B. Subway
C. Skyway
D. Tunnel road
2558. City roads inter-link between municipalities and
within the city with a right of way of 15 meters; what
is the minimum width of sidewalk?
A. 1.0 to 1.2 meters
B. 1.5 to 1.8 meters
C. 1.2 to 1.5 meters
D. 2.0 meters
2559. It refers to enforcement actions which consist of
taking a person into custody for the purpose of
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of law
violation before a court.
A. Arrest
B. Traffic Arrest
C. Traffic Citation
D. Traffic Warning
2560. Holder of student driver’s permit for the period of
not less than ___ can apply for non-professional
driver’s license
A. 150 Days
B. 180 Days
C. 60 Days
D. 30 Days
2561. Any motor Vehicle Accident that results in injury
other than serious to one or more persons:
A. Property damage
B. Less Serious Injury
C.Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
2562. When two vehicles approach an intersection at
approximately the same time, which shall give the
right of way:
a. The vehicle coming from the right
b. Vehicle from the center
c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. The vehicle that arrives first
2563. Which of the following consideration does not act as
a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
A. Fear of fine and punishment
B.Loss of driving privileged
C.Possibility involve in an accident
D.Increase of insurance premium
2564. Human errors as one cause of traffic congestion is
best characterized by, EXCEPT:
A.Poor legislation activities
B.Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C.Effective and efficient traffic officers
G.S.T. 2019
D.Slow drivers or bad driving habit
2565 The following are NOT functions of Land
Transportation Office, EXCEPT:
A.Reparation of vehicles
B.Registration and licensing
C.Rental and license
D.Licensing operating
2566. One of the following statements that best indicates
the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is:
A.reduce traffic by punishing B.violators of traffic
rules
C.keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid
bottlenecks
control the speed limited in densely populated
areas
D.prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of
traffic
2567. Most common defect attributed to the human
element in cases of traffic vehicular accidents:
A. Intellectual
B. Perceptual
C. Decision
D. Attitudinal
2568. Statistically it is considered as the most common
reason for public utility vehicular accidents.
A.Not observing the proper distance and
following too close
B.Unnecessary
C.Recklessness
D.Discussion regarding fare
2569. What is the general rule for the movement of
vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “keep to the left”
B. Safety First
C. “keep to the right”
D. “watch out”
2570. What would drivers do when an emergency vehicle
approaches displaying legally authorized red light and
sounding a siren?
A.pull aside and stop the car abruptly
B.continue driving slowly without regard of the
emerging
C.yield at the right of way and wait for the
passage of the vehicle
D.disregard the red light and siren
2571. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, you
approach an intersection with the traffic light with a
“green color” on but a traffic policeman is standing
at the center of intersection conducting the flow
normally. As a driver you will ignore the traffic man
and follow the automatic traffic light-
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes
D. It depends
2572. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which strikes
another vehicle, object or person and left the scene
without stopping to identify himself or render aid
A. hit and run
B. third party liability
C. reckless driving
D. side sweeper
2573. A systematic examination of all the facts relating to
conditions, actions and physical features associated
with motor collision or accident –
A.traffic engineering
B.traffic accident investigation
C.reckless driving
D.hit and run
2574. A public officials, law enforcement officers or
anybody who are not a member of the organization
who can helps the organization
A. Enforcer
B. Capo
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 C. Corrupter B. motivation
D. Corruptee C. leadership
2575. What type of OCG which is manned by semi- D. networking
organized individual with the end view of attaining 2586. This theory refers to those processes by which the
psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs. community influences its members towards
A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime conformity with established norms and behavior.
B.Political Graft A. differential association
C.Predatory Organized Crime B. social control
D.Syndicated Organized Crime C. anomie
2576. A continuing illegal activity of group of person which D. strain
is primarily concerned with the generation of 2587. It is a form of modern day slavery.
profits, irrespective of national boundaries as a A. Human Trafficking
result of globalization. B. Prostitution
A.Transnational Organized Crime C. Drug Trafficking
B.Transnational Crime D. Sex tourism
C.Organized Criminal Group 2588. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
D.NONE when:
2577. What category of terrorist group which is What A.the person trafficked is an elderly
category of terrorist group which is dedicated to B.the person trafficked is a special child
overthrow an established order and replacing it C.the person trafficked is a woman
with a new political or social structure? D.the person trafficked is a child
A. Ethnocentric
B. Revolutionary 2589. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000
C. Separalist provides that an organized criminal group must
D. Political have a membership of at least ___:
2578. ICT in Electronic Commerce Act of 2000 stands for? A. 3 or More
A.InformationConnection Technology B. 2 or More
B.InformationCommunication C. 4 or More
Technology D. 5 or More
C.InternetCommunication 2590. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is formerly
Technology included.
D.Internet Connection Technology A. Al Qaeda
2579. Economic crime is known as: B. MILF
A.Blue Collar Crime C. MNLF
B.Wildlife Smuggling D. JI
C.White Collar Crime 2591. In Arabic, Abu Sayaff means:
D.Wildlife trafficking A.Swords bearer
2580. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten: B.Islamic Congregation
A. Terrorisme C.Father of the Swordsman
B.Terrere D.The Base
C. Rapere 2592. These are the most frequent terrorist acts,
D. Vestigarre accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-related
2581. It refers to the code of silence and secrecy code of violence:
silence that forbids Mafiosi from betraying their A. Bombings
comrades to the authorities: B. Assassinations
A. Capo C. Kidnapping
B. Omerta D. Prostitution
C. Jihad 2593. This is also known as the Human Security Act of
D. Ideology 2007:
2582. It was an event said to be the origin of conflict in A. RA 9372
Mindanao and for the establishment of Moro B. RA 9160
National Liberation Front (MNLF): C. RA 9165
A.Rizal Day Bombing D. RA 8294
B.Ninoy assassination 2594. This is the country which believed to be the origin of
C.Black September Mafia and Cosa Nostra:
D.Jabbidah Massacre A. United States of America
2583. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most wanted B. Italy
terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that calls C. Japan
all Muslims around the world to slay Americans and D. China
their allies. 2595. An Asian organized crime that represents mystical
A. Abu-Abbas symbol in the form of an equilateral triangle
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef representing the heaven, earth and man:
C. Ahmed Yassin A. Yakuza
D. Osama bin-Laden B. Triad
2584. This refers to an attribute of organized crime that C. Tongs
their memberships have limitations based on D. Born to Kill of Vietnam
kinship, criminal record, or similar considerations: 2596. Chain of custody should be observed by the
A.No Political Goals investigating team of cybercrimes:
B.Hierarchical A.The Statement is wrong
C.Constitutes a Unique Subculture B.The statement is true
D.Limited or Exclusive Membership C.None of these
2585. Organized crime differs from terrorism in terms of D.All of these
their: 2597. Internet pornography is punishable under E-
A. membership Commerce Act of 2000:

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G.S.T. 2019
 A.The Statement is correct C.International Criminal Police Organization
B.Statement is wrong (ICPO)
C.either of the above D.Philippine National Police (PNP)
D.neither of the above
2598. Under E-Commerce Act of 2000, internet cafes and
cyber cafes, where majority of cybercrimes are 2608. It is known as IP address that changes every time
perpetuated, are legally required to have the internet accesses his ISP:
permanent logs and records of their clients: A. ISP
A.The statement is true B. Dynamic IP address
B.The statement is false C. Static IP Address
C.Neither of the above D. IP Address
D.Either of the above 2609. It refers to an act sending fraudulent mails or
2599. The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides that website pop-ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive
telecommunication companies are legally bound to financial information such as credit card numbers or
cooperate with the law enforcement agencies in the social security numbers.
course of their investigation: A. Phising
A.The statement is absolutely correct B. Hacking
B.The statement is absolutely wrong C. Cracking
C.The statement is partially correct D. Identity Theft
D.The statement is partially wrong 2610. It refers to a computer program that can copy itself
and infect a computer without permission or
2600. It is the maximum imprisonment for violation of E- knowledge of the user
Commerce Act of 2000. A. Virus
A. 20 years B. Trojan Horse
B. 12 years C. Logic Bomb
C. 6 years D. Worm
D. 3 years 2611. What kind of hacker who breaks into computer
2601. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful systems with malicious intent, usually for some
activity are transacted or attempted to be criminal purpose.
transacted, to make them appear to have originated A. Black Hat Hackers
from legitimate sources: B. Gray Hat Hacker
A. Estafa C. White Hat Hackers
B.Money Laundering D. Any color
C. Anti-Money Laundering 2612. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is
D. Swindling known as “Back to Islam”.
2602. This refers to any distinctive mark, characteristic A. Abu Sayyaf
and/or sound in electronic form, representing the B. MILF
identity of a person and attached to or logically C. Je naah Islamiya
associated with the electronic data message: D. Rajah Solaiman Movement
A. electronic key
B. originator 2613. It is a term used to describe a massive weapon with
C. electronic signature the capacity to indiscriminately kill large numbers of
D. electronic date message people.
2603. Only a computer forensic expert should search for A.Nuclear
any evidence contained in a computer hardware. B.Weapon of mass destruction
A.The statement is absolutely correct C.Anthrax
B.The statement is absolutely wrong D.Chemical weapons
C.The statement is partially correct 2614. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest criminal
D.The statement is partially wrong organization in the world.
2604. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act of 1998: A. Al Qaeda
A. RA 8551 B. Jihad
B. RA 8484 C. Chinese Mafia
C. RA 9160 D. Nuestra Costra
D. RA 9165
2605. What is the name of the operation launched by US 2615. What is the constant temperature at which the
Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden? vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the
A.Operation Geronimo atmospheric pressure?
B.Operation Jabbidah A. vapor density
C.Operation Neptune Spear B. fire point
D.Operation Merdeka B. boiling point
2606. These are Italian Organized Crime, EXCEPT? D. vapor pressure
A. The Neopolitan Camera
B. Sinilian Mafia 2616. It is a combustion product and a manifestation of
C. Cali Cartel fire when it is in its gas-phased combustion.
D. Sacra Corona Unita A. Flames
2607. It is a center created by Executive Order No. 62 to B. Exothermic reaction
establish a shared database among concerned C. Endothermic reaction
agencies for information on criminals, D. NONE
methodologies, arrests and conviction on 2617. What type of Flame is orange-red, deposit soot at
transnational crime. the bottom or a vessel being heated due to
A.Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes incomplete combustion and has a low temperature.
(PCTC) A. Luminous
B.National Commission on Anti Hijacking B. Non-luminous
(NACAH) C. Laminar

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G.S.T. 2019
 D. Turbulent D. sparkling
2618. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ____. 2629. The most common motive for arson is
A. Infection A. jealousy
C. shock B. profit
B. burns C. spite
D. asphyxiation D. revenge
2619. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state 2630. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of
under pressure and at normal atmospheric arson?
temperature inside its container? A.inflammable substance found in the premises
A. cryogenic gas B.simultaneous fire in more than one part of the
B. liquefied gas building
C. compressed gas C.building insurance
D. nuclear gas D.any of the choices
2631. What is the process of raising the temperature to
2620. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the separate the on-volatile from the less volatile parts
method is called ____. and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor
A. radiation so as to produce a nearly purified substance?
B. oxidation A. combustion
C. convection B. evaporation
D. conduction C. distillation
2621. Which of the following does NOT fall under class A D. condensation
fires?
A. none of the choices 2632. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire
B. burning nipa hut hydrant?
C. exploding gas depot A. hydrant key
D. forest fire B. key board
2622. Which of the following best illustrate arson? C. fire hose
A.simultaneous fire D. jumper
B.thick reddish smoke 2633. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam
C.faulty electric wiring where rungs are connected horizontally to the
D.unexplained explosion beam forming ascent or descent?
2623. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires? A. rope
A.water is not capable of extinguishing the fire B. hydrant
B.there is the danger of electrocution C. ladder
C.burning metals are too hot D. nozzle
D.explosion may occur 2634. What are the cross members between the beam
2624. Mechanical device strategically located in an and used in climbing the ladder called?
installation or street where fire hose is connected so A. hangar
that water with pressure will be available to B. beams
extinguish fire. C. rungs
A. fire hose box D. braces
B. fire truck 2635. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson
C. hose reel cases in our midst, which of the following facilities
D. fire hydrant should you check?
2625. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction A.Gift-wrapped packages
is known as ___. B.Electric switch system
A. reducing agent C.Telephones
B. oxidizing agent D.All of these
C. cooling agent 2636. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the
D. chemical agent highest point of the roof is referred to as:
2626. 236. This is the normal/ common behavior of fire in A. vertical ventilation
a building: B. cross ventilation
A.It only moves horizontally C. forced ventilation
B.It has a circular movement D. horizontal ventilation
C.It moves sideways while moving vertically 2637. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire,
D.It has a circular movement while moving the most probable extinguishing method is:
horizontally A. smothering
2627. A sudden introduction of air into a closed space B. fuel removal
containing an oxygen-starved superheated product C. cooling
of incomplete combustion or oxygen-deficient free D. dilution
radicals, may result to an explosion, which is called: 2638. The most important element of Fire?
A. Spontaneous ignition A.Fuel
B. flashover B.Chemical chain reaction
C. Backdraft C.Heat
D. Flash fire D.Oxygen
2639. A complete and detailed checked of the structures
2628. It refers to the increase or rising of amperage while and material involved in the fire to make sure that
electric current is flowing in a transmission line every spark and ember has been extinguished and
resulting to the damage or destruction of insulating to have assurance against
materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or A. Overhaul
external. B. Rescue
A. Arcing C. Salvage
B. Induced Current D. None
C. Over Heating

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G.S.T. 2019
 2640. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose A. Plant
they usually lean forward on the hose. What is the B. Trailer
most likely reason for taking this position? C. Accelerant
A.The stream is projected farther D. Gasoline
B.The surrounding air is cool making the firemen 2651. Eyes and Ears of Fire Prober.
comfortable A. Witness
C.A backward force is developed which must be B. Society
counter acted C. First responder
D.The firemen can see better when the stream D. Owner
strikes 2652. Revised Fire Code of the Philippines.
2641. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the A. RA 9514
crime that you have to file is: B. PD 1185
A. murder with arson C. RA 8294
B. arson with murder D. RA 8484
C. murder 2653. All BUT one are the basis of criminal liability in
D. arson Arson.
2642. This kind of Fire extinguisher contains chemical A.Kind and character of the building burned
powder intended to fight all classes of fires. B.Location of the building
A. H20 C.Extent or value of the damage
B. Liquefied D.Whether inhabited or not
C. Dry Chemical E.None of the choices
D. Soda Acid 2654. The amount of drug that produces untoward effect
2643. All except one are aggravating circumstances in of symptoms of poisoning.
Arson. A. Minimal Dose
A.If committed with intent to gain: B. Abusive Dose
B.If committed with the benefit of another: C. Toxic Dose
C.If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred D. Maximal Dose
towards the owner or occupant of the property
burned: 2655. A kind of Drug users, whose activities revolve almost
D.If committed by a syndicate entirely around the drug experience and securing
E.None of the Above supplies.
2644. What color of smoke is present when the materials A. Situational
burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay? B. Hard-core
A. Black C. Hippies
B. White D. Spree
C. Yellow 2656. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are
D. Blue quickly absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is
2645. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has probably the second most commonly used route of
been declared, what is the first thing that a fire drug administration,
prober must determine? A. Snorting
A.look for survivors B. inhalation
B.search for debris C. oral ingestion
C.locate the point of origin D. Injection
D.established corpus delicti 2657. Among the countries involved in the first important
2646. Any liquid fuel with flash point above 37.80C drug traffic route, which is responsible for
(1000F) is a: preparation for distribution?
A. Combustible liquid A. Middle East
B. Corrosive liquid B. USA
C. Flammable liquid C. Turkey
D. Volatile liquid D. Europe
2647. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy;
however examination of lungs and blood showed no
abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide,
what will be your interpretation under such
circumstance? 2658. Which among the following responsible for
A.The person died because of asphyxia producing almost 60% of Opium in the world.
B.The person died because of the burning A. Golden triangle
C.The person was killed before it was burned B. Golden Crescent
D.The person died not of fire but because of C. Silver Triangle
suffocation D. White Christmas
2648. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting 2659. What countries constitute the Golden Crescent?
operation involving high-rise building? A.Iran, Afghanistan, Pakistan, India
A. attic B.Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
B. extension C.Burma, Laos, Thailand
C. aerial D.Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
D. hook 2660. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in
2649. 257.What type of ground ladder which contains Europe”.
only one section, it ranges between 12 to 16 feet. A. Philippines
A. Straight ladder B. Mexico
B. Attic ladder C. Spain
C. Extension ladder D. Lebanon
D. Wall ladder 2661. It is a kind of abused drugs that relieve pain and
2650. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to often induce sleep.
facilitate flame propagation. A. Sedatives

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G.S.T. 2019
 B. Stimulants A.Its branches which occur at opposite points on
C. Hallucinogen the stalk
D. Narcotics. B.Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
2662. It is the most important alkaloids and constitutes C.Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose
about 10% of the use raw opium. edges are serrated in shape.
A. Morphine D.Its pungent scent when matured or fully
B. Heroin grown.
C. Codeine
D. Opium 2673. What agency of the government supervises drug
2663. The drug taken from the cola bust plant Ertyroxylon rehabilitation centers and drug testing networks
coca. and laboratories?
A. Cocaine A.Department of Interior and Local Government
B. Marijuana B.Department of Health
C. Papayer Somniferum C.Department of Justice
D. claviceps purpurea D.Department of Social Welfare and Development
2664. Opium subjected to Marquis Test will run into ___ 2674. The term of office of the Chairman of the Dangerous
specs. Drug Board:
A. Blue A. 2 years
B. Orange B. 6 years
C. Violet C. 4 years
D. Red D. co-terminus
2665. PDEA is headed by Director General with the rank of 2675. The penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous
___ Drug Paraphernalia shall be:
A. Assistant Secretary
B. Secretary
C. Chairman
D. Undersecretary A.6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50
2666. What is the minimum age required to be able to to 200 thousand pesos.
become a PDEA agent? B.6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 10
A. 16 to 50 thousand pesos.
B. 18 C.4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 to 40
C. 21 thousand pesos.
D. s25 D.6 months rehabilitation
2667. The Academy shall be headed by a ____, with the 2676. It is an act of introducing any dangerous drugs into
rank of Director. He/She shall be appointed by the the body of any person with or without his/her
___. knowledge either by injection inhalation, ingestion
A. Chairman/President or other means.
B. Secretary/PDEA DG A. Administer
C. CSUPT/President B. Use
D. SUPT/PDEA DG C. Dispense
2668. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in D. Deliver
the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control 2677. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
A. PDES secretly that makes it detection quite difficult.
B. DDB Various techniques were made by its operator in
C. PNP Narcotics concealing their activities.
D. NBI Narcotics A. Hide-out operation
2669. They serve as permanent consultant of the B. Safe house
Dangerous Drug Board: C. Clandestine Operation
A.NBI Director and PNP Director General D. Drug Syndicate
B.PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief 2678. Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act took effect on:
C.PNP Director and PDEA Director A. June 7, 2002
D.Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice B. July 4, 2002
2670. If the clandestine laboratory is established in the C. July 30, 2002
following circumstances such will serve as D. June 18, 2003
Aggravating Circumstances: 2679. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
A.Conducted in the presence or with the help of according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT
minor/s A.Officers and Employee of public and private
B.Established within one hundred (100) meters offices.
of a residential, business, church or school B.Applicant for firearms license and for permit to
premises. carry firearms outside residence
C.Secured or protected with booby traps C.Officers and Members of the Military, police
D.Concealed with legitimate business operations and other law enforcement agencies
E.Employment of a practitioner, chemical D.All candidates for public office whether
engineer, public official or foreigner appointed or elected both in national or local
F.all of the choices government units.
2671. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed of E.All persons charged before the prosecutor’s
how many Ex-officio Members? office with a criminal offense having an
A. 2 imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years
C. 2 and one (1) day.
B. 12 2680. Apprehending team having initial custody and
D. 17 control of dangerous drugs or controlled of
2672. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by: chemical, or plant sources of dangerous drugs or
laboratory equipment shall immediately after

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G.S.T. 2019
 seizure, physical inventory and photograph the B.Symptoms of Drug abuse
same in the presence of the following, EXCEPT. C.Visible manifestation that suspect was under
A.To person from whom such items were the influence of drugs
confiscated or his representative or counsel. D.All of the choices
B.A representative from the media. 2689. Within how many minutes after intake of alcoholic
C.A representative from the DOJ. beverage is the absorption is faster?
D.Any elected public official. A. 20 to 30 minutes
E.None of the choices B. 30 to 60 minutes
2681.Apprehending team having initial custody and control of C. 10 to 20 minutes
dangerous drugs or controlled of chemical, or plant sources of D. 50 to 60 minutes
dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment shall immediately after 2690. It is the percentage of alcohol blood which indicates
seizure, physical inventory and photograph the same in the presence that the person is under the influence of the
of the following, EXCEPT. liquor (alcohol)?
A.To person from whom such items were A. 0.05
confiscated or his representative or counsel B. 1.5
B.A representative from the media C. 0.15
C.A representative from the DOJ D. 0.50
D.Any elected public official 2691. The person who manages houses of ill-refute where
E.None of the choices the business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp
2682. In what quantity of specimen should be taken by B. prostitute
forensic examiner of drugs for scientific analysis: C. Knocker
A.Not more than five (5) grams per package/bag D. Maintainer
B.Not more than three (3) tablets for capsules or 2692. The person is argumentative and overconfident.
tables There is slight impairment of mental difficulties.
C.Not more than fifty (50 ml) for liquid solution A. Slight inebriation
D.Not more than ten (10 grams) for dried leaves B. Moderate inebriation
and not more than 2 plants. C. Drunk
E.All of the choices D. Very drunk
2683. The following shall not be subject to Mandatory
Drug Testing EXCEPT: 2693. Persons who were found guilty under the Section 70
A.Students of Secondary and Tertiary Schools of RA 9165 is ____:
B.Persons apprehended or arrested for violation A.Qualified to apply for probation
of the Provision of Comprehensive Dangerous B.Disqualified to apply for probation
Drug Act. C.Allowed to apply for probation
C.Officers and Employee of public and private D.Not allowed to apply if the sentence is more
offices than 6 years and 1 day
D.A and C only 2694. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”.
2684. Preliminary Investigation of cases involving A. Marijuana
dangerous drugs shall be terminated within a period B. Ecstacy
of: C. Shabu
A. 180 days D. None of these
B. 45 days 2695. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more as a
B. 30 days cough reliever?
D. 60 days A. morphine
2685. An analytical test using some tools or device design B. cocaine
to validate or affirm the result of a preliminary or C. opium
screening test. D. codeine
A. Screening test 2696. When drunken person does not know the
B. Confirmatory rest intoxicating strength of the beverage he has taken.
C. Physical test A. involuntary
D. Chemical Test B. Intentional
2686. The ____ shall designate special courts from among C. Habitual
the existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively D. Coma
try and hear cases involving violation of RA 9165. 2697. Immoral conduct or habit, indulgence of which
A. DOJ leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of
B. Supreme Court the mind and body.
C. DDB A. Morality
D. Sandiganbayan B. Vices
C. Prostitutions
D. Gambling
2698. After filling of the criminal cases, the court shall
conduct ocular inspection of the confiscated, seized
2687. The law that penalized the use and possession or and/or surrendered dangerous drugs, and
the unauthorized sale of Solvent Volatile substances controlled precursors within:
is: A. 24 hours
A. P.D. 1519 B. 30 days
B. P.D. 1916 C. 72 hours
C. P.D. 1619 D. 48 hours
D. P.D. 580 2699. That part of the body most affected to by heavy
2688. A laboratory examination is only required to drinking are:
apprehend offender within 24 hours if the person A.digestive system and nervous system
arrested has: B.brain and veins of the body
A.Physical sign of drug abuse C.the lungs and heart

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 D.None of the above C.proof of ownership of the camera
2700. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo D.focal length of the lens
drug test? 2710. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a
A. yes rough sketch is for _____.
B. maybe A.scale and proportion
C. upon circumstances B.future use
D. No C.accuracy and clarity
2701. SPO4 Mabagal intentionally failed to appear as a D.courtroom presentation
prosecution witness during trial of the case against 2711. All except are object evidence that should be taken
the alleged drug dealer caught in buy-bust photograph individually, EXCEPT?
operation. What will be his penalty? A. Knife
A.20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment B. Semen
B. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years C. stone
C. Life imprisonment D. Gun
D. Death penalty 2712. All are considered as emergency vehicle, EXCEPT?
A. Police car on call
2702. PO3 Ingcad planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their B. Ambulance on call
suspect and PO2 Tayson planted 1 gram of shabu. Is C. Fire Truck on call
their penalty the same? D. Physician’s car
A. No 2713. Children who are prohibited to be seated in the
B. False front seat of any running motor vehicle:
C. Yes A.Seven years old
D. True B.six years and old and under
2703. DDB can issue subpoena Testificandum and C.under six years old
subpoena duces tecum relative to the conduct of D.seven years old and under
investigation involving the violations of RA 9165. 2714. Marijuana is also known as?
A. True
B. Partially True A. Coke
C. False B. Poppers
D. Partially False C. Cannabis
D. Morphine
2715. Who will be punished of life imprisonment in illegal
drug cases?
2704. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate A. User
use as a veterinary anesthetic. B. Pusher
A. Ketamine C. Possessor
B. Codeine D. Coddler
C. Anesthesia 2716. Most abuse drugs in the Philippines?
D. Sleeping pills A. Marijuana
2705. What penalty is provided for a Drug user for its 2 nd B. Shabu
violation. C. Cocaine
A.6 Months Rehabilitation D. Morphine
B.12 Months Rehabilitation 2717. Can marijuana causes aggressive criminal behavior?
C.6 Years and 1 Day to 12 Years A. Yes
D.12 Years and 1 Day to 20 Years B. No
2706. It refers to the willful act of any person of C. Sometimes
maliciously and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, D. It depends
or adding directly or indirectly, through any overt or
cover acts: 2718. It is very important to rehabilitate every drug addict to?
A. Entrapment A. Reintegrate him to society
B. Planting of Evidence B. Punish him
C. Instigation C. Give him a lesson
D. Black mailing D. Incapacitate him
2707. It is the Agency of the government that will take
charge and have custody of all dangerous drugs 2719. In investigation, “corpus delicti” means body of the crime
confiscated: scene. Legally, it means
A. Maritime Police A. proof in the commission of crime
B. Dangerous Drug Board B. body of the victim
C. PDEA C. wrongful act
D. NBI D. none of these
E. PNP 2720. Deals with the study of major crimes based on the application
2708. “A” was arrested for possessing seven (7) grams of of special investigative technique.
Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up to what A. background investigation
time and date the arresting officers have to subject B. criminal investigation
“A” to a drug test as required by the law? C. preliminary investigation
A.7:00 P.M., October 25 D. special investigation
B.7:00 P.M., October 24 2721. What is the other name for marijuana?
C.8:00 A.M., October 26 A. rope
D.8:00 A.M., October 25 B. grassland
2709. Which among the following data concerning C. weed
photographs as evidence is LEAST essential? D. leaf
A.date and hour which each photograph was 2722. Purpose of coordination prior to buy-bust operation regarding
taken drug operation.
B.identification of the police photographer A. information

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 B. abuses B. male marijuana plant
C. integrity C. marijuana leaves
D. reliability D. the marijuana resin
2723. The Miranda Law in the Philippine setting is: 2735. What drug is the hydrochloride of an alkaloid obtainable by
A. RA 7438 the action of acetic anhydride or morphine in which the alkaloid
B. RA 8353 base may be made by treating morphine with acetyl chloride,
C. RA 9160 washing the product with a dilute alkaline solution and crystallizing
D. RA 9165 from alcoholic solution?
A. cocaine
2724. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of a B. codeine
prohibited drug? C. heroin
  A. Marijuana D. paregoric
B. Opium 2736. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as
C. Coca bush A. cocaine
D. Peyote B. marijuana
2725. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- C. opium
awareness and emotion? D. shabu
  A. Narcotics 2737. Is any agent which neutralizes, opposes or counteracts poison
B. Stimulants or its effect
C. Depressants A. alkaloid
D. Hallucinogens B. antidote
2726. What is that state arising from repeated administration of a C. emetic
drug on a periodic or on a continuing basis? D. titanic
 A. Habituation
B. Drug dependence 2738. “Shabu” is chemically known as:
C. Drug Addiction A. methamphetamine
D. Physical dependence B. methamphetamine HCL
2727. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which C. methyl amphetamine
are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication D. methyleneamine
fall?
 A. Depressants 2739. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent
B. energizers Cannabis Sativa.
C. inhalants A. hashish
D. tranquilizers B. marijuana
C. morphine
2728. What is the act of injecting or that means of introducing the D. opium
dangerous drug into the physiological system of the body?
A. Consumption 2740. Scientific name for cocaine.
B. Use A. cannabis sativa
C. Administration B. erythroxylon coca
D. Abuse C. methamphetamine hydrochloride
2729. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining D. methyl benzoyl ecgonine
the drug, thinking and discussing about it and using it to meet his
problems and to escape from reality, he is – 2741. Analgesic or pain-killing substance that depresses vital body
A. Socially dependent on drugs functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, and breathing rate. The
B. Mentally dependent on drugs regular administration of narcotics will produce physical
C. Psychologically dependent on drugs dependence.
D. Physically dependent on drugs A. depressants
2730. A derivative of opium 5 times more powerful than morphine. B. hallucinogens
A. amphetamines C. narcotic
B. cocaine D. stimulants
C. heroin 2742. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper
D. iodine layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
A. Topical method
2731. The most important constituent of opium is the drug: B. Injection method
A. cocaine C. Iontophoresis
B. codeine D. Oral method
C. heroin
D. morphine
2732. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the
scene of the crime and between the times of the commission of the 2743. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of
crime up to the final disposition of the case. cocaine?
A. chain of custody A. South East Asia
B. time of custody B. South America
C. time of disposal C. Middle East
D. time of disposition D. South West Asia
2733. The substance known as the “miracle drug” refers to: 2744. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in
A. morphine A. Columbia
B. cocaine B. India
C. heroin C. Mexico
D. codeine D. France
2734. The word hashish is derived from the name of 2745. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind
Hasan/Hashasin, a Muslim leader. Hashish refers to: altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion?
A. female marijuana plant A. Sedatives

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 B. Hallucinogens  
C. Hypnotic A. RA 9165
D. Tranquillizers B. RA 1956
2746. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”? C. RA 9156
A. Heroin D. RA 1965
B. Marijuana 2757. What is the penalty of planting of evidence in drug incidents?
C. Cocaine A. Reclusion Perpetua
D. Shabu B. Life Imprisonment
C. Death
2747. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of D. Fine
drugs that causes serious physical illness? 2758. Who is the primary author of RA 9165?
A. Psychological dependence A. Sen. Ramon Revilla
B. Physical dependence B. Sen. Miriam Defensor Santiago
C. Addiction C. Sen. Joker Arroyo
D. Withdrawal syndrome D. Sen. Tito Sotto
2748. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of
hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to 2759. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-
A. liquid amphetamine bust operations.
B. Shabu   A. poseur buyer
C. Heroin B. marked money
D. freebase cocaine C. all of the choices
D. none of these
2749. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions of 2760. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or
drug use, the more a drug is used the more it tends to underwrites any of the illegal activities prescribed by RA 9165.
A. reduce the need for the drug   A. employee
B. satisfy more than one motive or need B. caretaker
C. increase the satisfaction of use C. financier D.
D. give sense of well being lookout

2750. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood 2761. What do you call a prostitute who offers services to
elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy? female customers?
A. Solvents a. Johns
B. LSD b. Gigolo
C. Shabu c. Pimps
D. Narcotics d. Rentboys
2762. What is the theory of organized crime wherein the
2751. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are penalty of crimes must be severe in order to deter the
known as “downers”? commission of crimes?
A. Hallucinogens a. Anomie
B. Barbiturates b. Deterrence theory
C. solvents c. Rational choice theory
D. cocaine d. None of the above
2763. What type of prostitutes that trade sex for illegal drugs?
A. Lot lizards
2752. Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA C. Hookers
6425, as amended, with a penalty range of reclusion perpetua to B. Skeezers
death and a fine of P500,000 to P10,000,000.00? D. Punters
A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana plants 2764. Globalization refers to the rapid growth and
in a plantation in the Cordillera. development of what culture?
B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession of a. Northern
opium pipes and other paraphernalia. b. Eastern
C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful medical c. Western
prescription d. Southern
D. Pablo who maintains a den for the illegal use of
volatile substances. 2765. Crimes consummated by the use of computers and other
2753. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous highly modern devices.
system and are commonly referred to as “uppers”? a. Transnational crimes
A. Amphetamines b. white collar crimes
B. Naptha c. modern crimes
C. Barbiturates d. cyber crimes
D. Diazepam 2768. The following are transnational crimes, except
2754. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers? a. drug trafficking
A. opiates b. gun smuggling
B. Track c. money laundering
C. Shabu d. illegal recruitment
D. coke 2769. The following countries comprises the Golden Triangle,
2755. What drugs are capable of provoking changes of self- except
awareness and emotion? a. Thailand
  A. Narcotics B. b. Laos
Stimulants c. Myanmar
C. Depressants d. Vietnam
D. Hallucinogens 2770. A term used to describe a place where trafficked person
2756. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs are brought and forced to become prostitutes.
Act of 2002, Providing Funds Therefore and for Other Purposes. a. sweat shops

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G.S.T. 2019
 b. hotels B.follow the path that the vehicle took in leaving
c. brothels the scene
d. motels C.study the objects the vehicle has struck
2771. Founder of the Abu-Sayyaf Group? D.established the identity of the vehicles
a. Khaddafy Janjalani 2783. These are the basic steps in traffic accident-
b. Hashim Salamay investigation, EXCEPT
A.goes to scene as quickly as possible
c. Abdurajack Janjalani B.Gassesses the situation and call for assistance
d. Nur Misuari C.care to the injured and protect their property
2462
2772. It is correct to say that the world’s first traffic light 2784. A general principle of traffic accident, investigation is
came into being before the automobile was in use? to:
A. No A.Look for the key event that causes the accident
B. It depends B.Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
C. Sometimes immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
D. Yes C.Consider violations as primary causes and any
2773. In planning for a traffic control program, which of factors as secondary causes
the following is NOT a factor to consider D.Consider road conditions as limiting conditions
A.model of cars and vehicles rather as causes
B.existing road /highway system 2785. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01%
C.incidence of traffic accidents of the assessed value of a building.
D.traffic congestion hazards A. single family dwellings
B. department store
2774. In interviewing persons involved in a traffic accident C. hospitals
what is the primary consideration to be taken by the police D. schools
investigator. 2786. This marking on the roadway indicates that the lane
A.Conduct each interview separately is for right turn only:
B.Listen only to witnesses because they are not A.Two headed arrow
biased B.Arrow pointing to left
C.Listen to both sides C.Straight arrow on the pavement
D.Conduct the interview jointly D.The arrow is pointing to the right
2775. When two vehicles approach or enter an 2787. In this manner, a traffic enforcer while observing the
intersection at the same time who shall yield the right of flow of traffic tries to attract attention of the motorists by
way as a general rule keeping in full view of traffic:
A. The driver on the left A. Stationary
B.The faster vehicle B. Visible
C.The driver on the right C.Conspicuous
D. The slower vehicle D. Inconspicuous
2776. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow 2788. Licensed person allowing limited number of
moving vehicles should use the: passengers, freight or cargo in public utility truck or buses
A.lanes 2 and 3 A. Operator
B.outer lanes B. Driver
C.inner lanes C.Conductor
D.either the inner or outer lanes D. Pedestrian
2778. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left 2789. It is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an
side, except when- object with which it has collided; the force between the
A.the oncoming traffic is free from an object ceases at this time.
obstruction A. Stopping
B.the opposite traffic is free from oncoming B. Disengagement
motor vehicles C. Maximum Engagement
C.traversing on a two-way two-lane highway D. Initial Contact
D.cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way 2790. A friction mark on a pavement made by a tire that is
2779. The double solid white line: sliding without rotation. Sliding of wheels may be due to
A.doesn’t allow lane changing braking to collision damage, or rarely, to other
B.allows overtaking circumstances.
C.allows lane changing A. Skid Mark
D.allows parking B.Scuff Marks
2780. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking C.Skip skid
for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian, D. Gas Skid
vehicles and roadway condition. 2791. The place and time after or beyond which accident
A. Apprehension cannot be prevented by a particular traffic unit.
B. Adjudication A.point of no escape
C. Defection B.point of Possible Perception
D. Prosecution C.Perception Delay
2781. Traffic arrest can be made when the following are D.Any of the above
present, EXCEPT: 2792. Main cause of human trafficking.
A to avoid continues violation a. lack of employment opportunities
B. offense committed is serious b. poverty
C. the violator will not attend in court c. corruption in government
D. involved in vehicular accident d. organized crimes
2782. The following are the good ways of searching the 2793. Meaning of the phase Abu Sayyaf
scene of hit-and-run accident, EXCEPT: a. Holder of the sword
A.look over the grounds at what seems to be the b. Founder of the sword
point of collision c. Bearer of the sword

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 d. Keeper of the sword 2803. It is referred to as oldest and biggest
2794. The other name given to the UN criminal organization in the world.
Convention Against Transnational Crimes a. Mafia
a. Palerna Convention b. Yakuza
b. Paterno Convention c. Chinese Triad
c. Palermo Convention d. Cali Cartel
d. Paderno Convention 2804. The name given to a person afflicted
2795. A prostitute who solicits customers in with a mental illness wherein he is sexually
public places is called aroused by young children.
a. street walker a. Pedophile
b. Johns. b. pervert
c. call boy. c. Maniac
d. whore. d. Pedophilia
2796. Placement is also called as
a. heavy soaping 2805. The former and original name of the
b. banking Mafia
c. immersion a. Sicilian Clan
d. spin dry. b. Code of Omerta
2797. The Yakuza has the ritual of putting c. Mafiosi
tattoos in almost all parts of their bodies. The d. La Cosa Nostra
reason is 2806. Moslem who participated in the
a. their white bodies are very good materials to Afghan war are referred to as
make drawings. a. Jihadis
b. it one culture of the Japanese to put tattoos on b. Fundamentalists
their bodies. c. Mujaheddins
c. they delight in showing theother members their d. Holy warriors
tattoos. 2807. Founder of the New People’s Army of
d. anybody without tattoos are expelled from the NPA
group. a. Jose Mari Chan
2798. The initiation of the Chinese Triad b. Jose Maria Sison
consists of c. Jose Marie Gonzales
a. placing a drop of blood of the recruit on a d. Jose Maria Sioson
photograph of a saint and then let it burn on his 2808. A member of the Bar refers to this
palm while reciting his oath to the organization. profession
b. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed a. judges
animal mixed with his blood and pass beneath b. investigators
an arch of swords while reciting his oath to the c. lawyers
organization. d. prosecutors
c. the recruit will put body tattoos and lift three
fingers while reciting his oath.
d. the recruit will drink the blood of a sacrificed 2809. The year the UN Convention Against
animal mixed with his blood and a picture of a Transnational Crimes was held.
saint will be burned on his palm while reciting his a. 2000
oath. b. 2002
2799. What do the Yakuza do with their c. 2001
tattoos? d. 2003
a. Cover them as they are sacred. 2810. The founder of the Moro Islamic
b. They undress to show everybody their tattoos. Liberation Front
c. They undress only inside their house. a. Nur Misuari
d. They only undress during oicho kabu. b. Khadaffy Janjalani
c. Hashim Salamat
2800. What OPLAN was created by the PNP d. Abdurajack Janjalani
as their campaign against most wanted persons
and other fugitives? 2811. The founder of the Moro National
a. Oplan Cleansweep Liberation Front
b. Oplan Criminal a. Nur Misuari
c. Oplan Pagtugis b. Khadaffy Janjalani
d. Oplan Batas c. Hashim Salamat
2801. 31. It is a type of anomie wherein a d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
person who accepts the cultural goals to become 2812. In the strategy of terrorist, what is
rich but failed to accept the institutional means of used for the people, government and the world
achieving it. to know their aims?
a. Rebellion a. Television
b. Retreatism b. Newspaper
c. Conformity c. Radio
d. Innovation d. All of the choices
2802. It is a type of anomie wherein an 2813. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers
individual does not accept the cultural goal but of God”.
accepted the institutional means of achieving it? a. Abu Sayaff
a. Innovation b. Hezbollah
b. Retreatism c. Fatah
c. Rebellion d. Hamas
d. Ritualism

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 2814. The most notorious and sought after d. Mohammad Alzawari
terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing 2826. It is entitled as, ”An Act to Secure the
in the USA. State and Protect the People from Terrorism,”
a. Hezbollah a. RA 9372
b. Al Qaeda b. RA 9732
c. Fatah c. RA 9273
d. Hamas d. RA 9237
2815. South America country principal 2827. It can be defined as the use of force of
source of cocaine. the fear of force to achieve a political end.
a. Brazil a. terrorism
b. Spain b. violence
c. Columbia c. felony
d. Chile d. criminal act
2816. Country which is 2/3 controlled by 2828. Who formally organized the Kuratong
Hezbollah Baleleng?
a. Israel a. Francisco Manuel
b. Gaza Strip b. Franco Calanog
c. Lebanon c. Fidel Ramos
d. West bank d. Fajardo Sebastian
2817. The smallest terrorist group in its
hierarchy.
a. organization 2829. An organized crime in the Philippines
b. faction which is made up of former MNLF and MILF
c. cell rebels.
d. station a. A.Lexus Group
2818. Terrorist group responsible for the b. B.Pentagon Group
bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen c. C.Abu Sayyaf
a. Hezbollah d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group
b. Hamas 2830. The largest and most powerful triad.
c. Al Qaeda a. A.Su Yee On
d. Fatah b. B.14K
c. C.Wo Shing Wo
d. Sham Shui Po
2819. One of the most important 2831. What numeric code refer to the
components of terrorist-related investigations is Dragon head of the chinese triads?
the collection and preservation of what? a. A.438
a. physical evidence b. B.49
b. witnesses c. C.489
c. information d. D.426
d. all of these 2832. What do you call the act of lending
2820. It is otherwise known as the “Anti- money in exchange of exorbitant interest?
Wire Tapping Law.” a. Tax evasion
a. RA 4200 b. Revolutionary tax
b. RA 4002 c. Sokaiya
C. RA 2004 d. Loansharking
D. RA 4020 2833. What kind of vices are Lotto and
2821. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. casino?
a. Holy War a. common
b. Holy Mass b. prohibited
c. Holy Cow c. regulated
d. Holy Ghost d. unusual
2822. Founder of the terrorist group Al 2834. What is the penalty of a person using a
Qaeda diplomatic passport in importing prohibited drugs
a. Yasser Arafart inside the country?
b. Osama Bin Laden a. A.8-12 years
c. Abdurajack Janjalani b. B.life imprisonment to death
d. Abu Nidal c. C.40 years to life imprisonment
2823. Standard rifle of socialist and d. all of the above
communist countries 2835. What are the two divisions of
a. M16 Criminalistics?
b. AK47 a. Physiacl and metallurgical
c. M14 b. Scientific and technological
d. Galil c. Biological and physiological
2824. Terrorist group that operates within a d. Biblical and Astrological
single state or country. 2836. What is secreted by the endocrine
a. Transnational glands which trigger and control many kinds of
b. national bodily activities and behavior?
c. international a. A.Tears
d. none of them b. B.Hormone
2825. The most wanted terrorist in the c. C.Blood
world. d. Sweat
a. Yasser Arafat 2837. Who among the following has the
b. Abu Nidal authority to conduct examination of a deceased
c. Osama Bin Laden person?

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G.S.T. 2019
 a. A.Medico Legal prober considered as world’s top supplier for opium.
b. B.Medical Justice Which of the choices does not belong.
c. C.Medico Legal Officer a. Vietnam
d. Medical Scientist b. Iran
c. Afghanistan
d. Pakistan
2838. These are the three fold aims of the 2848. According to PDEA goal that
criminal investigator, EXCEPT: Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in
a. to identify the guilty party year___?
b. to provide evidence of his guilt a. 2035
c. to locate the guilty party b. 2025
d. to file charges at the proper court c. 2030
2839. It is a type of search wherein one d. 2020
searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a 2849. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit
quadrant. Tax evasion drugs with the participation of the community.
a. zone method a. Oplan lambat sibat
b. spiral method b. operation private eye
c. wheel method c. operation public eye
d. strip method d. oplan galugad
2840. It is the simplest way to locate points 2850. In the PNP what campaign was created
on sketch to give the distances from two mutually to fight against drug trafficking.
perpendicular lines. common a. Oplan lambat sibat
a. surveying methods b. operation private eye
b. cross projection c. operation public eye
c. rectangular coordinates d. oplan cleansweep
d. polar coordinate
2841. It is existing between the investigator 2851. A fire just started only a very small or
and the subject, and it is usually determines the insignificant portion of house was being
success of the investigation. damaged.
a. rapport a. Consummated arson
b. personality b. Attempted arson
c. breadth of interest c. Frustrated arson
d. the approach d. No crime
2842. Usually, the conduct of investigation 2852. When a person sets fire to his own
must start with this, purposely to develop rapport property under what circumstances which expose
with the subject, either the victim or suspect. to danger of life or property of another.
a. opening statement
b. inquiry of subject a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
c. narration property
d. sympathetic approach b. Arson
c. malicious mischief
2843. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to d. no crime
increase mental and physical function 2853. Burning of house was due to lightning
a. stimulants as a result of his prayer.
b. Depressants a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
c. Hallucinogens property
d. Narcotics/ Opiates b. Arson
2844. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and c. malicious mischief
medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants d. no crime

a. stimulants 2854. It can effectively assist law

b. Depressants enforcement agencies in combating organized
c. Hallucinogens crime and terrorism.
d. Narcotics/ Opiates a. family
2845. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs b. school
reducing functional nervous activity. c. NGO
a. stimulants d. Community
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens 2855. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989,
d. Narcotics/ Opiates China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was
killed
a. Tiananmen square massacre
b. Beijing square massacre
2846. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs c. Tienanmen massacre
that causes hallucinations and changes our d. Tienanmen square massacre
perception, thought, emotion and consciousness 2856. A case of reckless imprudence
and physical function occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident
a. stimulants from Manila while the victim from Quezon City.
b. Depressants Where the case should be filed?
c. Hallucinogens a. Quezon City
d. Narcotics/ Opiates b. Pasig City
2847. The following countries which c. Manila
considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also d. either of the above choices

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 2857. It is a willfully and maliciously placing c. Legend
any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug d. Compass direction
related crime. 2867. A search method in which the searchers
a. Buy bust operation follow each other in the path of the coiled beginning
b. Instigation from the outside proceeding toward the center.
c. entrapment a. Zone method
d. planting evidence b. Wheel method
2858. September 11, 2001 tragedies is c. Spiral method
known as Intelligence_______. d. Strip method
a. Invalidate 2868. Taking into custody property described
b. unsolved in the search warrant as a result of a search, to be
c. success utilized as evidence in a case.
d. failure a. Seizure
b. Detention
2859. In investigation wherein a Death c. Safekeeping
appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be d. Confiscation
treated as? 2869. A method of criminal
a. Homicide case identification whereby the perceptions of
b. Suicide case witnesses are key and criminals are
c. Murder case identified by depiction.
d. Any of the choices a. Verbal description
2860. What is the penalty when a person b. General photographs
bringing into country of illegal drugs using c. Police line up
diplomatic channel or passport. d. Rouge gallery
2870. Instrument used to open / close fire
a. Life imprisonment hydrants.
b. Life imprisonment-death a. Sprinkler
c. death b. Fire pump
d. no penalty because of immunity c. Fire hose
d. Hydrant key
2871. Descriptive of any material when by its
2861. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to nature or as a result of its reaction with other
corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and elements promotes a rapid drop in temperature of
communication system the immediate surroundings.
a. hacking a. Dust
b. Trojan b. Oxidizing material
c. virus c. Pyrolysis
d. intellectual property d. Cryogenic
2872. Lowest temperature of a liquid in
open container at which vapors are evolved fast
2862. The vehicles should not parked at enough to support continuous combustion.
these area. a. Ignition temperature
a. Private driveway b. Kindling temperature
b. intersection c. Fire point
c. pedestrian lane d. Flash point
d. fire hydrant 2873. The temperature at which flammable
e. all the choices liquid form a vapor-air mixture that ignites.
a. Ignition temperature
2863. What is the penalty when a police b. Kindling temperature
officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug c. Fire point
case without justifiable reason? d. Flash point
a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment 2874. Minimum temperature in
b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment which the substance in the air must be
c. Life imprisonment heated in order to initiate or cause a self-
d. Death contained combustion without the
2864. Most important equipment in traffic addition of heat from outside sources.
accident investigation? a. Boiling point
a. cellphone b. Ignition temperature
b. camera c. Fire point
c. Manila d. Flash point
d. All of the choices 2875. An exothermic chemical change in
2865. What is the penalty when less than 5 which a combustible material react with an
grams shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated. oxidizing agent.
a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k a. Thermal balance
b. Thermal imbalance
b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k c. Combustion
c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k d. Oxidation
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to 2876. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat
400k and light.
2866. Refers to the standard arrow a. Pyrolysis
designating the north to facilitate proper sketch b. Combustion
orientation. c. Detonation
a. Proper north d. All of the foregoing
b. True north

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 2877. A chemical decomposition of matter their ignition temperature, it is characterized by a
through the action of heat. sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Pyrolysis a. Flashover
b. Combustion b. Backdraft
c. Detonation c. Thermal balance
d. Oxidation d. Thermal imbalance
2878. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, 2889. An explosive condition in the
through unit area of the material with unit smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden
temperature gradient. introduction of oxygen.
a. Conduction a. Flashover
b. Thermal conductivity b. Backdraft
c. Radiation c. Thermal balance
d. Fission d. Thermal imbalance
2879. A means of heat transfer when energy 2890. Which among the following is the
travels through space or materials as waves. primary objective in investigating fires?
a. Conduction a. To determine its cause
b. Convection b. To prevent recurrence
c. Radiation c. To determine liable persons
d. Fission d. All of the foregoing
2880. It is legally classified as arson and set 2891. Reason why fire investigation is
on purpose with a motive. unique.
a. Providential fire a. It does not conform with regular investigative
b. Accidental fire procedure
c. Intentional fire b. Unavailability of witnesses
d. None of the foregoing c. Fire destroys evidence
2881. Malicious and willful burning of a d. All of the foregoing
building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 2892. They are fires caused by unforeseen
788. acts of God.
a. Arson a. Providential
b. Providential fire b. Accidental
c. Accidental fire c. Intentional
d. None of the foregoing d. Incendiarism
2882. First element known to man by experience, 2893. A combination of three elements
a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.
life and fire. a. Fire
a. Nitrogen b. Origin of fire
b. Hydrogen c. Fire triangle
c. Oxygen d. All of the foregoing
d. Neon 2894. Most important part of fire triangle for it is
2883. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any what burns.
contrivance to start a fire. a. Fuel
a. Fuel b. Heat
b. Oxygen c. Oxygen
c. Heat d. Gas
d. None of the choices 2895. A means by which heat is transformed
2884. Refers to gases liberated by heat. by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Free radicals a. Conduction
b. Flash point b. Convection
c. Thermal balance c. Radiation
d. Thermal imbalance d. Fission
2885. Refers to the normal pattern or 2896. The amount of heat necessary to convert
movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a solid to liquid.
building or structure under natural conditions. a. Specific heat
a. Free radicals b. Latent heat
b. Pyrolysis c. Heat of Combustion
c. Thermal balance d. Heat of fusion
d. Thermal imbalance 2897. Formed by the incomplete combustion
2886. In this phase of the fire the maximum of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in
heat and its destructive capabilities is developed. the absence of air.
a. Initial phase a. Carbon black
b. Incipient phase b. Lamp black
c. Free burning phase c. Soot
d. Smoldering phase d. Black bone
2887. A burnt pattern of inverted cone 2898. Matter made up of very fine particles
indicates. and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
a. The fire triangle a. Fire
b. The fingerprint of the fire b. Flame
c. Flashover c. Heat
d. Incipient phase of the fire d. Smoke
2899. Incandescent gases accompanied by
oxidation.
a. Fire
2888. An occurrence when the heat has b. Flame
brought the combus-tible portion of the ceiling to c. Heat

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 d. Smoke 2911. It is also called as ‘uppers’ and to
2900. The threat to arson investigators after increase mental and physical function
fire has been contained. a. stimulants
a. Backdraft b. Depressants
b. Flashover c. Hallucinogens
c. Carbon monoxide poisoning d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Falling debris 2912. A drugs that ‘derived from opium’ and
medically potent pain killers/ cough suppressants
2901. Color smoke produced accompanied
by red flames indicates the burning of what a. stimulants
material? b. Depressants
a. Rubber c. Hallucinogens
b. Nitrogen products d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. Asphalt singles 2913. It I also called ‘downers’ drugs
d. Chlorine reducing functional nervous activity.
2902. Which among the following is a. stimulants
commonly used in fire resistant materials? b. Depressants
a. Asbestos c. Hallucinogens
b. Diamond d. Narcotics/ Opiates
c. Asphalt
d. Cotton 2914. It is also called ‘psychedelics’ drugs
2903. A form of static electricity of great that causes hallucinations and changes our
magnitude producing tremendous amperage and perception, thought, emotion and consciousness
voltage, it is the most common cause of and physical function
providential fires. a. stimulants
a. Rays of the sun b. Depressants
b. Spontaneous heating c. Hallucinogens
c. Arcing d. Narcotics/ Opiates
d. Lighting 2915. The following countries which
2904. Most common source of accidental fire considered as GOLDEN CRESCENT, and also
is related to: considered as world’s top supplier for opium.
a. Smoking Which of the choices does not belong.
b. Arcing a. Vietnam
c. Sparkling b. Iran
d. Overloading c. Afghanistan
2905. A device used by arsonists to spread d. Pakistan
the fire within the room or throughout the 2916. According to PDEA goal that
structure. Philippines’ will be a Drug Free Country in
a. Accelerant year___?
b. Plants a. 2035
c. Trailer b. 2025
d. Wick c. 2030
2906. Usually comes in form of combustible d. 2020
liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of 2917. It is the PDEA campaign to fight illicit
fire. drugs with the participation of the community.
a. Accelerant a. Oplan lambat sibat
b. Plants b. operation private eye
c. Trailer c. operation public eye
d. Wick d. oplan galugad
2918. In the PNP what campaign was created
2907. Most common reason of arson cases. to fight against drug trafficking.
a. Revenge a. Oplan lambat sibat
b. Profit b. operation private eye
c. Competition c. operation public eye
d. All of the foregoing d. oplan cleansweep
2908. Result of slow oxidation of a
combustible material. 2919. A fire just started only a very small or
a. Spontaneous heating insignificant portion of house was being
b. Combustible gases damaged.
c. Combustible dust a. Consummated arson
d. None of the choices b. Attempted arson
2909. Refers to the preparation and c. Frustrated arson
gathering of materials to start a fire. d. No crime
a. Plants
b. Trailers 2920. When a person sets fire to his own
c. Accelerants property under what circumstances which expose
d. Wick to danger of life or property of another.
2910. Act that would remove or neutralize a
fire hazard. a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of
a. Abatement property
b. Combustion b. Arson
c. Allotment c. malicious mischief
d. Distillation d. no crime

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 2921. Burning of house was due to lightning a. Private driveway
as a result of his prayer. b. intersection
a. Reckless imprudence resulting to damage of c. pedestrian lane
property d. fire hydrant
b. Arson e. all the choices
c. malicious mischief
d. no crime 2931. What is the penalty when a police
2922. It can effectively assist law officer failed to appear in court to testify in a drug
enforcement agencies in combating organized case without justifiable reason?
crime and terrorism. a. 12 to 20 yrs imprisonment
a. family b. 20 to 40 yrs imprisonment
b. school c. Life imprisonment
c. NGO d. Death
d. Community 2932. Most important equipment in traffic
accident investigation?
2923. A massacre that occurred June 4,1989, a. cellphone
China wherein the pro-democracy protesters was b. camera
killed c. Manila
a. Tiananmen square massacre d. All of the choices
b. Beijing square massacre 2933. What is the penalty when less than 5
c. Tienanmen massacre grams of shabu,heroin,morphine was confiscated.
d. Tienanmen square massacre a. 12 yrs & 1 day to 20 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k

b. 6 yrs & 1 day to 12 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k

c. 20 yrs & 1 day to 40 yrs and fine of 300k to 400k
d. 6months & 1 day to 6 yrs and fine of 300k to
400k
2924. A case of reckless imprudence e.
occurred at Pasig City, the offender is a resident 2934. Refers to the terrorist group “Soldiers
from Manila while the victim from Quezon City. of God”.
Where the case should be filed? a. Abu Sayaff
a. Quezon City b. Hezbollah
b. Pasig City c. Fatah
c. Manila d. Hamas
d. either of the above choices 2935. The most notorious and sought after
2925. It is a willfully and maliciously placing terrorist group responsible for the 9/11 bombing
any dangerous drugs to implicate person to drug in the USA.
related crime. a. Hezbollah
a. Buy bust operation b. Al Qaeda
b. Instigation c. Fatah
c. entrapment d. Hamas
d. planting evidence 2936. South America country principal
source of cocaine.
2926. September 11, 2001 tragedies is a. Brazil
known as Intelligence_______. b. Spain
a. Invalidate c. Columbia
b. unsolved d. Chile
c. success 2937. Country which is 2/3 controlled by
d. failure Hezbollah
a. Israel
2927. In investigation wherein a Death b. Gaza Strip
appearing to be suicidal or accidental it should be c. Lebanon
treated as? d. West bank
a. Homicide case 2938. The smallest terrorist group in its
b. Suicide case hierarchy.
c. Murder case a. organization
d. Any of the choices b. faction
2928. What is the penalty when a person c. cell
bringing into country of illegal drugs using d. station
diplomatic channel or passport. 2939. Terrorist group responsible for the
bombing of the US destroyer USS Cole in Yemen
a. Life imprisonment a. Hezbollah
b. Life imprisonment-death b. Hamas
c. death c. Al Qaeda
d. no penalty because of immunity d. Fatah
2929. In E-crimes it is accessing in order to 2940. One of the most important
corrupt,alter,steal or destroy information and components of terrorist-related investigations is
communication system the collection and preservation of what?
a. hacking a. physical evidence
b. Trojan b. witnesses
c. virus c. information
d. intellectual property d. all of these
2930. The vehicles should not parked at
these area.

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 A.Arrest
2941. Meaning of the term “Jihad”. B.Initialcontact
a. Holy War
C.Childcustody
b. Holy Mass
c. Holy Cow D. All of the above
d. Holy Ghost
2942. Founder of the terrorist group Al 2949. It is the study of human society, its
Qaeda origin structure, functions and direction.
a. Yasser Arafart a. criminology
b. Osama Bin Laden b. sociology
c. Abdurajack Janjalani
c. psychology
d. Abu Nidal
2943. Standard rifle of socialist and d. anthropology
communist countries 2950. The science of classifying the physical
a. M16 characteristics.
b. AK47 a. free will
c. M14 b. positivism
d. Galil c. atavism
2944. Terrorist group that operates within a
d. somatology
single state or country.
a. Transnational 2951. The approach that is using the
b. national perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of
c. international crime.
d. none of them a. geographical approach
2945. The most wanted terrorist in the b. biological approach
world.
c. psychiatric application
a. Yasser Arafat
b. Abu Nidal d. psychological application
c. Osama Bin Laden 2952. The purpose of penalty in the
d. Mohammad Alzawari positivism school of criminology.
2946. It can be defined as the use of force of a. retribution
the fear of force to achieve a political end. b. rejection
a. terrorism c. reformation
b. violence
d. restoration
c. felony
d. criminal act 2953. It is the study of formation of the skull
2947. The largest and most powerful triad. in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
a. Su Yee On a. entomology
b. 14K b. penology
c. Wo Shing Wo c. phrenology
d. Sham Shui Po d. criminology
2954. Children shall be given priority
during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
a. war
b. treatment
c. evacuation
d. education
2955. Science concerned with improving the
quality of offspring.
a. criminology
b. eugenics
c. genetics
d. heredity

2956. Commonly known as victimless crime:

A.occassional crime
B.political crime
C.public order crime
D. conventional crime
2957. A child whose basic needs have been
deliberately unattended.
a. abandoned child
b. dependent child
2948. The apprehension or taking into c. abusive child
custody of a child in conflict with the law by law d. neglected child
enforcement officers or private citizens is termed 2958. The principle that events including
as: criminal behavior that has sufficient causes..
a. atavism

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 b. narassism 2968. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010
c. determinism and 220 in 2011. What was the percent increase?
d. positivism a. + 22.2%
2959. An established and generally accepted b. + 20.2%
moral values refer to. c. + 22.0%
a. integrity d. + 20.1%
b. morality 2969. If the population in municipality A is
c. ethical standard 195, 000 and the crime volume is 2, 540, what is
d. authority the crime rate?
2960. This refers to a significant loss of a. 1230.6
contact with reality. b. 1465.2
a. split mind c. 1302.6
b. psychosis d. 1203.5
c. neurosis 2970. In 2011 there were 90,345 crimes
d. schizoprenia reported to the police. If the 2011 population was
63 million what was the crime rate?
2961. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a. 147.5 b. 145.7
a separate events? c. 143.4
A.mass murder d. 154.7
B. serial killer 2971. In 2000 the police recorded a total of
C.homicidal    84,875 crimes committed. If the population was
D. spree killer 62 million what was the crime rate?
2962. A bank robber who kills some a. 139.6 b. 193.6
individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and c. 136.9
kills a number of people while in flight diving a d. 163.9
chase would be an example of: 2972. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of
the national total crime volume of 84, 875, how
A. Serial Murder many crimes were reported to the police?
B. Spree Murder a. 20, 250
C. Mass Murder b. 32, 644
D. Multiple Murder c. 22, 068
2963. What is the legal term for nighttime? d. 22, 858
A. sanctuary 2973. If the 128 murder cases in City B
represent 40% of the total murder cases in the
B.absurdity province, what is the total value for murder cases
C. ephitomy province wide?
D. nocturnity a. 120
2964. These are the rights of an accused that b. 420
are derived from special laws enacted by c. 430
Congress. d. 340
A. Constitutional rights 2974. This theory views crime and
B. Civil rights delinquency as a result of the frustration and
C.Statutoryrights anger people experience over their inability to
achieve legitimate social and financial success.
D. Natural rights
a. strain theory
2965. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of b. psychological theories
the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How c. differential association theory
many crimes were reported to the police? d. labeling theory
a. 22, 868
b. 22, 068 2975. This theory suggest that stability and
c. 20, 250 changes in criminal and deviant behavior through
d. 32, 644 time and different stages in life.
2966. What is the antonyms of the word A. Self Derogation Theory
B. Anomie Theory
arrest?
C. Life Course Theory
A. Apprehend
D. Routine Activities Theory
B. Search 2976. This theory suggest that females and
C. Set free males are becoming equal in society in terms of
D. Renounce family, politics, and education
2967. How many members composed the A. Feminist Theory
“Pangkat?” B. Paternalism
C. Liberation Theory
A. 1 member C.
D. Life Course Theory
2 members 2977. In the power control theory by Hagan,
B. 3 members which father and mother share similar roles in the
D. 4 members workplace and power in the family
A. Feminist theory
B. Egalitarian family

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 C. Patriarchal family 2988. Criminal ________ refers to the study
D. Matriarchal family of the relationship between criminality and the
2978. These views suggest that males such as inhabitants of a certain locality:
judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to a.Ecology
have traditional views on women thus, they are b) Demography
more lenient to them as compared to their male c) Epidiomology
counterparts. d) Physical anthropology
A. Paternalism 2989. It is the study of human society, Its
B. Chivalry Hypothesis origin, structure, functions and direction.
C. Masculinity a. Sociology
D. Power Control Theory b. Criminology
2979. This new branch in criminology c. Psychology
opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes d. Anthropology
the involvement of all stakeholders in the use of 2990. It deals primarily with the study of
non violent solutions crime causation.
A. Peacemaking Criminology a. Criminology
B. Sociology of Law b. Criminal Etiology
C. Restorative Justice c. Victimology
D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis d. Criminal Sociology
2980. This crimes are those that the lower 2991. An act or omission in violation of the
class commit against the upper class of society in public law commanding or forbidding it.
a capitalist system a. Crime
A. Crimes of Passion b. Felony
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance c. Offense
C. Crimes of domination and Repression d. Infraction of law
D. Crimes of Lower class group 2992. Crimes are committed either by dolo
2981. The ruling class in a capitalist system is or deceit or by _____________.
the a. Culpa
A. Proletariat b. intent
B. Bourgeois c. Fault
C. Capitalist d. both a and c
D. Ruling class 2993. The following are the elements of Dolo
2982. Who proposed the theory of or deceit, EXCEPT:
capitalism and invoked communism as a remedy? a. Intelligence
A. George Vold c. Freedom
B. Karl Marx b. Intent
C. Emile Durkheim d. Negligence
D. Max Weber 2994. Perla, a victim of rape, was able to
2983. This theory believes that society is identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he dies
divided into two groups with competing values on her way to the hospital where she was
the upper class and lower class. declared dead on arrival, This crime is called,
A. Class Theory a. complex crime
B. Differential Opportunity b. simple crime
C. Conflict Theory c) instant crime
D. Consensus Theory d) situational crime
2984. A problem that occurs when offenders 2995. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in
who have been released from the system are making deception through verbal communication.
placed in a program simply because the program She had committed estafa to several persons
exist. through illegal recruitment. What crime according
A. Diversion Movement to result did she committed?
B. Intervention a. acquisitive crime
C. Net widening b. extinctive crime
D. Primary Deviance c) instant crime
2985. The term criminology was originally d) situational crime
derived from Italian word: 2996. It refers to the study of the role of the
a. crimen b. victim in the commission of a crime.
criminologo a. criminal victim
c. criminologia b. criminal psychiatry
d. criminologie c. victimless crime
2986. It is the scientific study of crime and d. victimology
the effort of the society to prevent and repressed 2997. It is the scientific study of human
them? behavior or man’s external manifestation in
a. Crime relation to criminality.
b. Criminology a) Epidiomology
c. Victimology b) Criminal Psychiatry
d. Criminal justice c) Criminal psychology
2987. The study of Criminology involves the d) Physical anthropology
use of knowledge and concept of other sciences 2998. A crime can be classified according to
and field of study which makes the study of its stages of commission. What crime is
criminology: committed when the offender merely commences
a. Dynamic the execution of an offense by overt act but
b. Nationalistic which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
c. Social science execution which would produce the felony by
d. An applied science

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 reason of some cause other than his own c. cyber crime
spontaneous desistance? d. profit crime
a. Attempted crime 3008. This term literally means “little war”.
b. Consummated crime Today, the term is used interchangeably with the
c. Frustrated crime term “terrorism”.
d. Complex crime a. violence
2999. It is the process by which individual b. revolution
reduce the frequency of their offending behavior c. guerilla
as the age increases. d. rebel
a. doing gender 3009. The killing of a large number of people
b. aging out over time by an offender who seeks to escape
c. criminal reduction detection.
d. active precipitation a. road rage
3000. Crimes are classified under the Revised b. hate crime
Penal Code according to their gravity. What crime c. mass murder
to which the law attaches the capital punishment d. serial murder
or afflictive penalties. 3010. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
a. grave felonies a. Margaret Juke b. Ada
b. less grave felonies Kallikak
c. light felonies c. Ada Juke
d. complex felonies d. Ada Edwards
3001. What crimes according to the time or 3011. It refers to an study showing the
period of the commission are those which are relationship between the physical built of a
committed only when the circumstances or person to his personality structure and the type
situation is conducive to its commission like for of offense he is most prone to commit
instance, committing theft in a crowded place. a. physiognomy b)
a. seasonal crimes somatotype
b. instant crimes c. phrenology
c. situational crimes d) psychology
d. continuing crimes 3012. It is a proposal of a double male or
3002. There are crimes that are committed super male syndrome. This theory held that the
within a certain length of time. What crime is possession of an extra Y-chromosome causes
committed by a series of acts in a lengthy space of males to be violent and aggressive.
time? a. XYY syndrome b XXY
a. static crime syndrome
b. instant crime c. YYX syndrome d. YXX
c. situational crime syndrome
d. episoidal crime 3013. A phenomenon that refers to the
3003. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and handling down of delinquent behaviors as socially
others which are committed to maintain one’s learned and transferred from one generation to
livelihood or as a means for living are what the next taking place mostly among disorganized
crimes? urban areas.
a. Rational crimes b. a. Cultural Transmission b) Social
Irrational crimes Phenomenon
c. Blue-collar crimes c. Crime d)
d. White collar crimes Delinquent behavior
3004. It is that element of intentional felony 3014. In this theory of crime causation,
which means that the person who committed the mankind is viewed as manifestations of basically
felony has the capacity to distinguish between evil human nature reflecting either with the
what is right and wrong and fully understands the prince of darkness or an expression of divine
consequences of his actions: wrath.
a. intelligence a. Classical theory
b. imprudence b. positivist theory
c. intent c. Demonological theory
d. freedom d. neo-classical theory
3005. A psychological disorder in which a 3015. An attempt to determine intelligence
child shows developmentally inappropriate and personality on the basis of the size and shape
impulsivity, hyperactivity and lack of attention. of the skull.
a. psychotism a. Physiognomy
b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder b. palmistry
c. neuroticism c. Craniology
d. KSP disorder d. Somatotype
3006. The commission of criminal acts using 3016. It involves the measurement of facial
the instruments of modern technology such as and other body characteristics as indicative of
computers or the internet. human personality.
a. cyber sex a. Physiology
b. cyber crime b. somatotype
c. computer crimes c. Physiognomy
d. computer hacking d. Palmistry
3007. An act in violation of the criminal law 3017. According to Sheldon, the three
that is designed to bring financial gain to the “somatotypes” or body built which have
offender. relationships to personality characteristics are the
a. organized crime b. following, EXCEPT:
economic crime a. Ectomorph

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 b. extomorph gain is greater than the possible negative effect
c. Endomorph he would have to suffer if the gets caught doing
d. Mesomorph the crime:
3018. A type of violent offender who uses a. Cesare Beccaria
violence as a means of perpetrating the criminal b. Cesare Lombroso
act: c. Edwin Sutherland
a. Culturally violent offender d. Jeremy Bentham
b. pathologically violent offender 3028. Who stated that crime is normal in a
c. Criminally violent offender society?
d. d. situationally violent offender a. Cesare Beccaria
3019. One way of classifying criminals is on b. Cesare Lombroso
the basis of etiology. What kind of criminal is that c. Emile Durkheim
whose action arises from the intra-psychic conflict d. Enrico Ferri
between the social and anti-social components of
his personality? 3029. This theory contested the findings of
a. Acute Beccaria’s Free Will Study, stating that its absence
c. Chronic among mentally retardate persons or those with
b. neurotic some psychological imbalances and personality
d. normal disorders or physical disabilities, could likewise
3020. Criminals can also be classified lead to violation of laws thereby citing said theory
according to this behavioral system. What are as one of crime causation.
those criminals who have high degree of a. Classical Criminology
organization that enables them to commit crime b. Positivist Criminology
without being detected and usually operates in a c. Neoclassical Criminology
large scale? d. Social Structure Theory
a. ordinary criminals 3030. This refers to the act of killing a large
b. professional criminals number of people in a single violent outburst.
c. situational criminals a. Road rage
d. organized criminals b. serial killing
3021. A forcible sex in which the offender c. Mass murder
and the victim are acquainted with each other. d. mass destruction
a. statutory rape 3031. A type of sexual deviancy where the
b. date rape person achieves sexual gratification by cruelty,
c. marital rape psychotic desire to often torment torture or
d. acquaintance rape otherwise abuse his victim.
3022. According to Lombroso, these are a. Masochism
physical characteristics that distinguish born b. bestiality
criminals from the general population and are c. Sadism
throwbacks to animals or primitive people. d. Incest
a. physical deviations 3032. A sexual relationship between persons
b. distinguishable traits closely related by blood.
c. atavistic stigmata a. Incest
d. ape-like appearance b. sadism
3023. It is the most essential part of the c. Masochism
definition of the criminal law: d. rape
a. elements 3033. These are violent acts directed toward
b. penalty a particular person or members of group merely
c. degree of evidence because the targets share discernible racial,
d. motive ethnic, religious or gender characteristics.
a. Violent crimes
3024. The concept that conduct norms are b. hate crimes
passed down from one generation to the next so c. Copy-cat crimes
that they become stable within the boundaries of d. victimless crimes
a culture. 3034. A term to denote a premeditated,
a. heredity politically motivated violence perpetrated against
b. inheritance non-combatant targets by subnational groups or
c. cultural transmission clandestine agents, usually intended to influence
d. DNA an audience.
3025. Group of urban sociologists who a. Rebellion
studies the relationship between environmental b. piracy
conditions and crime. c. Terrorism
a. classical school d. little war
b. chicago school 3035. It conceded that certain factors such as
c. neo-classical school insanity might inhibit the exercise of free will.
d. positive school a. Classical theory
3026. He is recognized as the first codifier of b. neo-classical
laws: c. Sociological
a. Drakon d. positivist
b. the Hittites 3036. These are crimes committed by a
c. Solon person of respectability and high social status in
d. Hammurabi the course of occupation.
3027. He said that individuals are like human a. Blue collar crimes
calculators. Before a person commits a crime, he b. crime of the upper world
first analyzes whether the satisfaction he would c. White collar crimes

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 d. crime of the underworld c) Gabriel Tarde
3037. Public order crime is otherwise known d) Enrico Ferri
as: 3046. A term that used to describe motorists
a. Violent crimes who assault each other.
b. economic crimes a. road rage
c. Organized crimes b. predation
d. victimless crimes c. hate crime
3038. The law that provides Board d. serial murder
Examination for Criminologists in the Philippines. 3047. This theory argues that intelligence is
a. R.A. 6975 largely determined genetically; that ancestry
b. R.A. 8551 determines IQ; and, that low intelligence as
c. R.A. 6506 demonstrated by low IQ is linked to behavior
d. R.A. 8353 including criminal behavior:
3039. Criminals who have a high degree of a. Nature Theory
organization to enable them to commit crimes b) Psychological theory
without being detected. c) Strain Theory
a. Professional criminals d) Labeling theory
b. ordinary criminals
c. Organized criminals 3048. The theory which states that
d. expert criminals attachment, connection and link to society will
determine whether a person shall commit a crime
3040. Who among the following are the or not:
“Holy Three in Criminology”? a. social control
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria b) social disorganization
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri c) social bond
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri d) social learning
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso 3049. The philosophy of justice that asserts
3041. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough that those who violate the rights of others
studied by ____ wherein he concluded that the deserve to be punished. The severity of the
main difference between a criminal and a non- punishment should be commensurate with the
criminal is that each is responding to different seriousness of the crime.
sets of conduct norms. a. restorative justice
a) Emile Durkheim b. jus desert
b) Andre Michael Guerry c. utilitarianism d.
c) Thorsten Sellin equality of punishment
d) Abraham Maslow 3050. A condition in which the glucose in the
blood falls below levels necessary for normal and
3042. This school of thought in criminology efficient brain functioning.
states that although individuals have self-rule, a. hyperglycemia
there are other factors that affect the exercise of b. hyperglycomia
their autonomy, which cause them commit c. hypoglycemia
crimes: d. hypoglycomia
a) neo-classical 3051. This school on crime causation
b) utilitarianism emphasized economic determinism and
c) classical concentrated on the need for the quality among
d) positivist all citizens. They provided statistical data which
3043. This theory reflects the way people claimed to show that variations in crime rates are
react to a given situation based on the social associated with variations in economic conditions.
influences they acquired from other people that a. Cartographic School
practically determine their behaviors. This theory b. Socialist School
likewise serves as the learning process of c. Psychiatric School
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of d. Chicago School
the most important theory in crime causation. 3052. “Manie sans delire” (madness without
a) Social Disorganization theory confusion) This was the term used by Philippe
b) Culture Conflict theory Pinel describing the personality that is
c) Differential Association Theory characterized by an inability to learn from
d) Social Reaction Theory experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
3044. It is the breakdown of social order as a better known as:
result of the loss of order in a society. a. psychotic personality
a. synomie b. psychopathic personality
b) anarchy c. neurotic behavior
c) anomie d. dementia praecox
d) chaos

3053. A police officer’s frustration in the

realization of his ambition and goals in life both as
3045. He introduced the “theory of an officer of the law, and as a private citizen,
imitation” which states that individuals copy can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in
behavior patterns of other individuals, and that this particular theory.
those with weaker personalities tend to get
influenced easier by those with stronger a. Disorganization Theory
personalities: b. Culture Conflict Theory
a. Emile Durkheim b) C.Differential Association Theory
Adolphe Quetelet d. Strain Theory

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 d. crime rate
3054. Crimes which occur per 100,000 3064. He invoked that only justified rationale
population per month. It is the theoretical basis for laws and punishment is the principle of the
which determines the peace and order situation. greatest happiness shared by the greatest
a. index crimes number of people.
b. crime rate a. Utilitatrianism
c. non-index crimes d. crime b. Jeremy Bentham
statistics c. Felicific Calculus
3055. The Idea that low female crime and d. Cesare Beccaria
delinquency rates are a reflection of the leniency
which the police treat female offenders. 3065. The beginning to have sexual feelings
a. Doing gender for the mother, which occurs during the third
b. masculinity hypothesis year from birth is known as:
c. Chivalry hypothesis a. Oedipus Complex
d. pre-menstrual syndrome b. Inferiority Complex
3056. A stage of development when girls c. Electra Complex
begin to have sexual feeling for their fathers. d. Incest
a. Oedipus complex 3066. Serious illegal detention is a crime
b. doing gender committed through series of acts or episodes and
c. Electra complex d. in much longer time. This crime is classified as:
chivalry hypothsis a. Instant crime
3057. The legal principle by which the b. episoidal crime
decision or holding in an earlier case becomes the c. Situational crime
standard by which subsequent similar cases are d. seasonal crime
judged. It literally means “to stand by decided 3067. The following are the characteristics of
cases”. the Classical School of Criminology:
a. jus desert I. The basis of criminal liability is human free will
b. stare decisis and the purpose of penalty is retribution
c. story decisis II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an
d. just stare absolute free will to choose between right and
3058. This is a theory by Robert Merton wrong.
which assumes that people are law abiding but III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals
under great pressure, they will resort to crime. because of their physical deviations.
a. strain theory IV. That every man is therefore responsible for his
b. social learning act.
c. cultural deviance
d. anomie a. I, II, III are correct.
3059. The first IQ test was developed by a b. I, III, IV are correct.
French psychologist named: c. II, III, IV are correct.
a. Rafael Garofalo d. I, II, IV are correct.
b. Albert Bandura 3068. It conceded factors such as insanity
c. Walter Reckless might inhibit the exercise of free will.
d. Alfred Binet a. Classical theory
3060. His study focused on the Kallikak b. positivist theory
family tree and he concluded that c. Neo-classical theory
feeblemindedness is inherited and related to d. radical theory
deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first 3069. His great contributions to criminology
person to use the term “moron”. were the principle of utilitarianism and the
a. Robert Dugdale felicific calculus.
b. Henry Goddard a. Cesare Beccaria
c. Eaenest Hooton b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Charles Goring c. Cesare Lombroso
3061. This theory focuses on the d. Emile Durkheim
development of high crime areas associated with 3070. He propounded the theory of
the disintegration of conventional values caused evolution that inspired the now known “Father of
by rapid industrialization, increased migration and Modern Criminology” to develop the theory of
urbanization. atavism.
a. Cultural Deviance Theory a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Differential Association Theory b. Charles Goring
c. Social Disorganization Theory c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Strain Theory d. Charles Darwin
3071. According to him, people with criminal
3062. A societal stage marked by behavior, should be prohibited from having
normlessness in which disintegration and chaos children.
have replaced social cohesion. a. Robert Dugdale
a. Social disorganization b. Henry Goddard
b. Anomie c. Charles Goring
c. Strain d. George Wilker
d. Synomie 3072. It states that individuals are deviant
3063. It is otherwise known as the decline in mainly because they have been labeled as deviant
criminal activities together with the time. by social agencies and others. The notion of
a. Birth cohort deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but
b. aging out phenomenon rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the
c. Criminal aging actor.

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 a. Containment Theory punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan
b. Theory of Imitation Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of loitering?
c. Social Process Theory a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
d. Social Reaction theory b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect
3073. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of of criminal law
criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. c. No, for the act was done prior to the
a. Born-criminal type effectivity of the law.
b. insane d. No, for A did not loiter again.
c. Criminaloid 3082. His theory was that God did not make
d. pseudo-criminal all the various species of animals in two days, as
3074. These are crimes which are wrong what the bible says but rather that the species
from their very nature. Examples of these are had evolved through a process of adoptive
murder, robbery, and other violations of the mutation and natural selection which led to his
Revised Penal Code. conclusion that man was traced to have
a. Heinous crimes originated from the apes.
b. mala in se a. Jeremy Bentham
c. Serious crimes b. Charles Darwin
d. mala prohibita c. Prince Charles
3075. These are crimes which are wrong only d)Charles de Gaulle
because there are laws that prohibit them in 3083. Having spent half of his life in the study
order to regulate an orderly society. Examples of of the causes of crime and true to his dedication
these are the violations of special laws like the to his lifetime works, upon his death he willed his
violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
a. Mala prohibita University of Turin in Italy to be further studied.
b. less grave felonies To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and
c. Mala in se Empirical Criminology”.
d. light felonies a) Cesare Beccaria
3076. The principle of criminal law which is b) Edwin Sutherland
“nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means: c) Cesare Lombroso
a. An act done by me against my will is not my d) Jeremy Bentham
act 3084. Having spent half of his life in the study
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it. of the causes of crime and true to his dedication
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. to his lifetime works, upon his death he willed his
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. brain and body to the Institute of Anatomy at the
3077. He was the one who introduced the University of Turin in Italy to be further studied.
following definition of criminology: “It is the To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and
entire body of knowledge regarding crime as a Empirical Criminology”.
social phenomenon. It includes within its scope a) Cesare Beccaria
the process of making laws, of breaking laws and b) Edwin Sutherland
of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”: c) Cesare Lombroso
a) Raffaelle Garofalo d) Jeremy Bentham
b) Edwin Sutherland 3085. Which of the following is NOT included
c) Cesare Beccaria in the components of criminal justice system of
d) Paul Topinard the United States?
3078. Classical Theory states that individuals a. Law enforcement
have freewill. It is focused on an individual's b. Corrections
choice as to whether or not he will commit a c. Prosecution
crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in d. Courts
giving punishment is________________. 3086. The power of the state to give any
a) Restoration form of charity of public nature. It is the
b) Treatment philosophy behind the view that youthful
c) Retribution offender/child in conflict with the law is the
d) Deterrence victim of improper care and that the state is duty
bound to provide protection.
a. positivism
3079. Refers to the circumstances which b. loco parentis
attendant in the commission of a crime serve to c. patria potestas d. parens
increase the penalty, without however exceeding patriae
the maximum of the penalty provided by law for 3087. Under the law, they are the one
the offense. responsible for preventing the child from
a. Justifying becoming addicted to intoxicating drinks, narcotic
b. Exempting drugs, smoking, gambling or any harmful
c. Mitigating practices.
d. Aggravating a. DSWD b.
3080. Those wherein the acts of the person Parents
are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs c. state
no criminal liability. d. police
a. Exempting 3088. The civil personality of the child is
b. aggravating deemed to have been commenced upon:
c. Justifying a. birth of the child
d. Mitigating b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
3081. Mr. A committed loitering within the c. from the time of his conception
vicinity of Manila City Hall on January 14, 2011. d. upon reaching the age of majority
June 14, 2011, a city ordinance was passed

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 3089. Refers to a person appointed by the 3097. Refers to the totality of the
court to act as the legal guardian of the child even circumstances which are most beneficial for the
though the parents of the child are still alive child.
when the best interest of the said child so a. child as zone of peace b. nation
require. building
a. adopter c. best interest of the child
b. loco parentis d. presumption of minority
c. guardian ad litem 3098. Is the mass obligation which the
d. temporary guardian parents have in relation to the persons and
3090. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 property of their an unemancipated child.
under 18 is exempt from criminal liability unless: a. Paretal authority
a. he is committed a henious crime b. Patria Potestas
b. he is the principal accused c. Parens’ Patriae
c. he acted without discernment d. Parental Responsibility
d. he acted with discernment 3099. A person of such age is automatically
3091. The Child in Conflict with the law exempted from criminal liability but should be
cannot be prosecuted for the commission of the taken to the custody and care of his parents,
following, EXCEPT: DSWD representative or any institution engage in
a. mendicancy child caring.
b. sniffing of rugby a. 15 years and below
c. prostitution b. under 18 years of age
d. theft c. under 15 years of age
3092. A child left by himself without d. under 21 years of age
provisions for his needs/or without proper 3100. Refers to a child raise to the status of
supervision falls under what special category of a legitimate child by subsequent marriage of
child? his/her parents.
a. abandoned child a. illegitimate
b. abused child b. legitimated
c. neglected child c. legitimate
d. dependent child d. adopted
3093. In the absence of death of both 3101. In case of separation between parents
parents of the child who shall continue to of the child, a child of such age is given by the
exercise authority over the child? court the preference to choose between either
I. Surviving grand parents parents.
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of a. under 9 years of age
age b. 7 years of age
III. Surviving parents of child c. 10 years of age
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years d. 5 years of age
of age. 3102. Refers to aggregate of persons working
a. I, II and IV only in commercial, industrial and agricultural
b. I and II only establishments or enterprises whether belonging
c. I, II, III only to the labor or management whose primary duty
d. all of the above is to care for the welfare of the working children.
3094. Is a self-association of peers, bound a. civic association of adult
together by mental interest, who acted in concert b. community
in order to achieve a specific purpose which c. Samahan
includes the conduct of illegal activities and d. youth association
control over a particular territory, facility or type 3103. Parental authority is deemed
of enterprises. terminated upon:
a. Juvenile gang a. death of the parents
b. Organized criminal b. emancipation of the child
c. a bond c. death of the child
d. street corner gang d. All of the choices
3104. Which of the following is the best way
3095. The court can suspend parental for the police to win youth’s trust and
authority if it finds that the parent: confidence?
I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of a. be friendly
cruelty. b. be firm and show them that you are strong
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or c. show to them that your bearing is good and
example stand with pride
III. Compel the child to beg d. let them know that you are an agent of a
IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions. person in authority
a. I and II only 3105. A child born inside a marriage where
c. I and III only either party is suffering from an impediments.
b. I, II, III and IV a. illegitimate child
d. I, II and III only b. legitimated child
3096. Who among the following is c. legitimate child
considered as “Child in Conflict with the Law”? d. adopted child
a. Bryan who is 15 years old. 3106. This refers to the apprehension or
b. Yang who is 10 years old. taking into custody of a child who committed an
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old offense by the law enforcement officer:
d. anyone of them a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation

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 d. inquest proceedings 3114. All records and proceedings involving
3107. This common procedure applied when children in conflict with the law from initial
arresting an offender shall NOT be employed contact until final disposition of the case shall be:
when the person who is the subject of a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of
apprehension is a child. the public record;
a. informing the suspect is a child b. open to the public;
b. stating the reason for the arrest c. considered restricted;
c. employing reasonable force d. considered privileged and confidential
d. use of handcuffs 3115. Mona was charged with vandalism on
3108. It refers to the totality of the her 18th birthday when she painted her neighbor’s
circumstances and conditions which are most walls with greeting to herself. How will you
congenial to the survival, protection and feelings classify Mona as an offender?
of security of the child and most encouraging to a. juvenile offender
the child's physical, psychological and emotional b. habitual offender
development. It also means the least detrimental c. adult offender
available alternative for safeguarding the growth d. none
and development of the child. 3116. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are
a. Child at risk correct:
b. Best Interest of the Child a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency
c. Full development. when parents find it hard to balance their jobs with their
d. Child welfare program parental responsibilities
3109. In case of a child in conflict with the b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency
law his age shall be determine in the absence of c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency
proof what principle shall be observed? d. it is only within the family that a child must learn
a. He is presumed to be minor his life values
b. He should prove his age 3117. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero,
c. The Birth certificate should be produced roams the street 24 hours a day with no place to
pending such issuance he should be hold. go, surviving on foods given by kind-hearted
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to people with no one to supervise him at his young
prove his age. age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a
3110. It is the psychological, emotional and child?
behavioral reactions and deficits of women a. neglected child b.
victims and their inability to respond to repeated independent child
physical and psychological violence? c. Abandoned child
A. Battered Woman Syndrome d. dependent child
B. Battered Wife 3118. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid,
C. Abused Woman was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How
D. Rape trauma syndrome do you classify her as a victim?
3111. Child in conflict with the law may a. an adult
undergo diversion program without necessity of b. an insane
court intervention on the following: c. a child d. an
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime adolescent
committee is not more than six (6) years
imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime 3119. It is the act of buying and selling
committed exceeds six (6) years imprisonment; children:
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime a. exploitation
committed exceeds six (6) years but not more b. prostitution
than 12 years imprisonment; c. abuse
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime d. trafficking
committed does not exceeds 12 years 3120. This refers to the maltreatment of
imprisonment. children, whether habitual or not:
3112. Once the court, after trial finds that a a. exploitation
child in conflict with the law is guilty of the crime b. abuse
charged, the court shall: c. prostitution
A. Pronounce its judgment; d. trafficking
B. Wait for the application for suspension of 3121. Children are declared as
sentence of the child and order his turn over to DSWD. ____________ in situations of armed conflict:
C. Automatically place the child in conflict with a. priorities for evacuation
law under suspension of sentence. b. exemptions
D. Determine the civil liability and order the final c. zones of peace d. shields
discharge of the child in conflict with the law. 3122. This refers to pledging by the debtor of
his or her personal services or those of a person
3113. Once the child in conflict with the law under his or her control as security or payment
reached the age of 18 while under suspended for a debt, when the length and nature of services
sentence the court may: are not clearly defined:
A. Order the execution of sentence; a. debt bondage
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the b. involuntary servitude
law; c. abuse
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period d. slavery
or to its maximum age of 21. 3123. A working child below fifteen years old
D. Any of the above choices may be allowed to work for only _______ hours
per day:
a. eight

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 b. four d. R.A. 8043
c. five
d. six 3134. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is
3124. Publication of photographs of persons qualified when the trafficked person is a child.
or children in various obscene or indecent poses 2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 years
meant to cause sexual excitement to those who of age shall not be employed.
will see them is a form of:
a. adult entertainment a. Both statements are correct.
b. illegal publication b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is
c. obscene material incorrect.
d. pornography c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2 nd is
3125. Employers shall provide an opportunity correct.
for education to all working children up to this d. Both statements are incorrect.
level: 3135. The “Anti-Violence Against Women
a. elementary and their Children Act of 2004”:
b. college a. R.A. 9262
c.secondary b. R.A. 7610
d. vocational c. R.A. 9208
3126. In employing children, the d. R.A. 9344
employment contract must be signed: 3136. It refers to an act of inflicting physical
a) by the Department of Labor and Employment harm upon the woman or her child resulting to
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer the physical and psychological or emotional
c) by the child’s parent or guardian distress.
d) and notarized by a Notary Public a. stalking
3127. In cases of working children, this has b. economic abuse
the duty of securing the permit from the c. battery d. sexual
Department of Labor and Employment: violence
a. parents 3137. This includes the employment, use,
b. working child inducement or coercion of a child to engage in
c. manager sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct; the
d. employer molestation, prostitution and or incest with
3128. This form of violence includes acts children.
causing or likely to cause mental or emotional a. sexual abuse
suffering of the victim such as but not limited to b. physical abuse
intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated b. psychological abuse
verbal abuse: d. cruelty
a. battery
b. psychological 3138. Refers to a program organized by
c. sexual d. travel establishments and individuals which
physical consist of packages or activities, utilizing and
3129. The crime of human trafficking shall be offering escort and sexual services as enticement
qualified when: for tourists.
a) the person trafficked is an elderly a. prostitution
b) the person trafficked is a woman b. exploitation
c) the person trafficked is a special child c. sex tourism
d) the person trafficked is a child d. pornography
3130. This refers to any word or deed which 3139. Refers to an intentional act committed
debases, degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth by a person who knowingly and without lawful
and dignity of the child as human being. justification follows the woman or her child or
a. eglect places the woman or her child under surveillance
b. psychological abuse directly or indirectly.
c. sexual abuse a. stalking
d. cruelty b. economic abuse
c. battery
3131. The following person are liable for d. sexual violence
child prostitution, EXCEPT: 3140. A working child over fifteen but under
a. those who act as procurer of child eighteen may work but his work hours must not
prostitute exceed ____ hours:
b. children recruited as prostitutes a) eight
c. managers or owners of the establishment b) seven
where the prostitution takes place c) ten
d. clients of child prostitute d) six
3132. This refers to the use, hiring, 3141. A working child who is below eighteen
employment and coercing of children as actors or but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work
models in printed pornographic materials: between the hours of:
a. indecent shows a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven
b. child prostitution to eight o’clock p
c. obscene publication c) six to ten o’clock pm
d. child exploitation d) seven to ten o’clock pm
3133. The legislative act that penalizes the 3142. It means failure to provide, for reasons
acts, means and purposes of human trafficking: other than poverty, the basic needs of the child,
a. R.A. 9344 such as food, clothing, medical care, shelter and
b. R.A. 7610 basic education
c. R.A. 9208 a. sexual abuse

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 b. physical abuse c) eighteen
c. psychological abuse d) twelve
d. neglect 3153. A child who has been voluntarily or
3143. Refers to acts that make or attempt to involuntarily committed to the DSWD or to a duly
make a woman financially dependent. licensed child placement agency and is free from
a. stalking parental authority:
b. economic abuse a) child legally available for adoption
c. battery b) legally-free child
d. sexual violence c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
3144. No child shall be employed as a model 3154. This form of violence includes acts
in any advertisement directly or indirectly causing or likely to cause mental or emotional
promoting the following: suffering of the victim such as but not limited to
I. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated
II. pornographic materials verbal abuse:
III. medicines for use of adults a) battery
IV. cigarettes and any form of gambling b) psychological
a. I, II, III are correct c) sexual
b. II, III, IV are correct d) physical
c. I, II, IV are correct 3155. A working child who is below eighteen
d. I, III, IV are correct but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work
3145. The law that provides special between the hours of:
protection of children against child abuse, a) six to eight o’clock pm
exploitation and discrimination. b) seven to eight o’clock p
a. R.A. 7610 c) six to ten o’clock pm
b. R.A. 9208 d) seven to ten o’clock pm
c. R.A. 9231 3156. Emancipation takes place when:
d. P.D. 603 a) the parents decide to emancipate him or her
3146. The law prohibiting the worst forms of b) the child becomes 18 years old
child labor. c) the child is already married
a. R.A. 9262 d) the child applies for it
b. R.A. 7610 d) games and gadgets
c. R.A. 9231 3157. The CICL shall be entitled to the
d. R.A. 9344 automatic suspension of sentence until the
3147. This form of child abuse includes maximum age of __:
lacerations, fractured bones, burns, internal a) twenty-three
injuries and serious bodily harm suffered by a b) eighteen
child: c) twenty-one
a. psychological d) twenty
b. emotional 3158. In case the child has been found guilty
c. physical by the court, he shall be ordered to be
d. cruelty transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
3148. This refers to offenses where there is b) a youth detention home
no private offended party: c) a city or municipal jail
a. Victimology d) an agricultural camp
b. public order crime 3159. Preliminary investigation shall only be
c. Victimless crime conducted when the:
d. d. both a and c a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
3149. This is the Latin term for parental c) CICL acted with discernment
authority: d) victim filed the complaint
a) loco parentis 3160. The law enforcement officer must
b) patria potestas ensure that all statements signed by the child
c) parens patriae during investigation are witnessed and signed by
d) patria adorada the following:
3150. Before any petition for adoption may a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must b) his parents or guardian
first undergo a supervised trial custody for a c) legal counsel
period of: d) social worker
a) at least six months 3161. The body search of the child in conflict
b) not more than six months with the law must be done only by a law
c) at least one year enforcement officer:
d) not less than one year a) who has initial contact
3151. This refers to the document issued by b) assigned to the case
the court signifying the approval of the c) of the opposite sex
application for adoption: d) of the same gender
a) decree of adoption 3162. The first important thing that a law
b) petition for adoption enforcer must do upon initial contact is to ____:
c) annulment a) know the age of the child
d) rescission b) notify the local DSWD
3152. This is the legal age in the Philippines: c) call the parents
a) twenty-one d) make a report
b) seventeen

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 3163. It is the best evidence to prove the age a) nearest police station
of the child in conflict with the law: b) family
a) testimony of the parents of the child c) local DSWSD
b) testimony of the child d) court
c) certificate of birth
d) school records 3173. The diversion proceedings must be
3164. It is the holding in abeyance of the completed within ____ days:
service of the sentence imposed by the court a) thirty
upon a finding of guilt of the child in conflict with b) forty-five
the law, whereby the child undergoes c) sixty
rehabilitation within a fixed period under such d) twenty
terms and conditions as may be ordered by the 3174. If the court finds that the child in
court: conflict with the law is guilty of the crime he is
a) probation accused of doing, the ____________ of the
b) suspension of sentence sentence shall automatically be suspended:
c) parole a) imposition
d) pardon b) determination
3165. It is a disposition under which a c) execution
defendant, after conviction and sentence, is d) discharge
released subject to conditions imposed by the 3175. The ________________ has the right
court and to the supervision of a probation to refuse the diversion program designed for the
officer: child:
a) suspension of sentence a) offended party
b) parole b) parents of the child
c) probation c) victim
d) pardon d) social worker
3166. A child in conflict with the law is 3176. When the court decides to execute the
exempted from _____: suspended sentence, the child must be
a) both criminal and civil liability transferred to a:
b) neither criminal nor civil liability a) youth rehabilitation center
c) criminal liability only b) youth detention home
d) civil liability only c) agricultural farm
3167. If the penalty for the crime committed d) prison
by the CICL is imprisonment of more than six 3177. It shall be the duty of the
years, diversion will be within the jurisdiction of ______________________ to make proper
the ____________: recommendation to the court regarding the
a) barangay disposition of the child who is undergoing
b) DSWD rehabilitation while under suspension of
c) police sentence:
d) court a) prosecutor
3168. Discernment is the determining factor b) social worker
if the CICL is over fifteen years old. The decision c) lawyer
as to whether the child acted with or without d) judge
discernment is made initially by the _______: 3178. All records pertaining to the case of
a) social worker the child in conflict with the law shall remain
c) law enforcer _______ and ______:
b) CICL a) privileged and confidential
d) judge b) classified and confidential
3169. The duty of determining the age of the c) privileged and restricted
child in conflict with the law lies with the d) secret and confidential
_______:
a) social worker 3179. The age of full criminal irresponsibility
b) law enforcer is:
c) CICL a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with
d) judge discernment
b. 18 to 70 years old
3170. The age of full criminal responsibility c. 15 years old and below
is: d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with
a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old discernment
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old 3180. It refers to the sum total of man's
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old reaction to his environment or the way human
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old beings act.
3171. It pertains to the document that must a. Human Beings
be signed by the parents of the child in conflict b. Learning
with the law as part of the conditions of c. Human Behavior
diversion: d. Stimulus
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation 3181. Refers to any behavioral reactions or
c) memorandum of agreement reflexes exhibited by people because of their
d) contract of diversion inherited capabilities or the process of natural
3172. A child in conflict with the law who is selection.
under fifteen years of age shall be turned over to a. Inherited Behavior
the ________________ by the police for the b. Inborn Behavior
determination of appropriate program: c. Learned Behavior

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 d. both a and c emphasizing a desirable type of behavior.
3182. It is a behavior pattern where an
individual return to a state of form adjustment a. rationalization
and attempt to experience them again in b. sublimation
memory. c. compensation
a. phobia d. projection
b. anger 3193. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student,
b. frustration after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This
d. regression sensation is said to be:
3183. Defense mechanisms are used to a. olfactory
shield one’s self from _____. b. Auditory
a. anger c. cutaneous
b. fear d. gustatory
c. pleasure 3194. This is a serious mental and emotional
d. pain disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal
3184. Human behavior is man’s response to from reality.
the interpretation of the ______ from within the a. Neurosis
person or from his environment. b. Depression
a. stimulus c. Psychosis
b. action d. Anxiety
c. perception (respose to sensation) d. 3195. This occurs when goal achievement is
inclination blocked.
3185. This personality system controls the a. frustration
gateway to action. b. conflict
a. alter ego c. anxiety
b. Id d. Depression
c. ego
d. Superego 3196. The aggregate observable responses of
3186. What is the process of interpreting our an organism to internal and external stimuli.
behavior in ways to make it more acceptable to a. human behavior
the self usually with the use of good reasons and b. behavior
alibi to substitute for real cause? c. personality
a. projection d. attribute
b. sublimation 3197. The process by which behavior
c. rationalization changes as a result of experience or practice.
d. Compensation
a. actualization
3187. Conflicts and their behavioral b. learning
outcomes are classified as follows, EXCEPT: c. thinking
a. avoidance-approach d. feeling
b. avoidance-avoidance 3198. This type of conflict occurs when there
c. approach-avoidance are two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
d. approach-approach a. avoidance-avoidance
3188. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a b. approach-approach
nearby tree manifests what particular defense c. approach-avoidance
mechanism? d. multiple
a. repression 3199. This type of conflict when there are
b. sublimation two courses of action, each of which has both
c. displacement pleasant and unpleasant consequences.
d. projection a. avoidance-avoidance
3189. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity b. approach-approach
to steal or pathological stealing. c. approach-avoidance
a. kleptomania d. multiple
b. pyromania 3200. This is an excessive, irrational and
c. phobia uncontrollable fear of a perfectly natural situation
d. Dipsomania or object.
3190. This type of conflict occurs when there a. melancholia
is an attraction to an object or state of affairs at b. phobia
the same time repulsion towards something c. exaltation
associated with it. d. Mania
a. avoidance-avoidance
c. approach-approach 3201. It is characterized by anxiety,
c. approach-avoidance depression and phobia.
d. multiple a. psychoses
3191. This is the process of excluding from b. neuroses
the consciousness a thought or feeling that c. abnormality
causes pain, shame or guilt. d. Psychopathy
a. identification
b. regression 3202. Hydrophobia is fear of ________.
c. repression a. Water
d. fixation b. darkness
3192. This is an attempt to disguise or cover- c. Snakes
up felt deficiencies or undesirable traits by d. deep water

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 3203. A distortion in reality such as delusion, 3213. It can be seen among people who
hallucination and regression. handle their problems in a very objective way.
a. psychosis a. Coping Mechanism
b. neurosis b. Direct Approach
c. abnormality c. Detour
d. psychopathy d. Withdrawal
3204. A transmission of physical 3214. The most tolerated way of handling
characteristics, mental traits, tendency to disease, frustration.
etc. from parents to offspring. a. Defense Mechanism
a. heredity b. Direct Approach
b. environment c. Detour
c. inheritance d. Withdrawal
d. Introvert 3215. A type of defense mechanism whereby
3205. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny a person concentrates in area where he can excel.
that they have problems. This is a manifestation a. Displacement
of what type of defense mechanism? b. compensation
a. Fantasy c. Rationalization
b. sublimation d. fantasy
c. Denial 3216. What type of defense mechanism is
d. displacement manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined the
3206. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of low self-
student in the evening session, blames his poor esteem?
performance in the preliminary examination to a. Identification
his professor rather than his lack of preparation. b. projection
This is an example of what type of defense c. Fantasy
mechanism? d. regression
a. Reaction formation 3217. This refers to an action-producing
b. displacement agent:
c. Sublimation a. Motives
d. rationalization b. Drives
3207. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her c. Stimulus
boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing another d. sensation
girl, cries. This is an example of what defense 3218. Human actions in relation to events
mechanism? taking place inside the body such as the brain and
a. Regression the nervous system is known as:
b. suppression a. Neurological
c. Repression b. psychological
d. displacement c. Cognitive
3208. Texting while driving is an example of d. Humanistic
what classification of human behavior?
a. Habitual 3219. A child who is always brushing his
b. symbolic teeth after eating manifests what particular
c. Instinctive classification of human behavior?
d. complex a. Habitual
b. complex
3209. It c. Instinctive
refers to the person’s knowledge of a given d. symbolic
stimulus which largely helps to determine the 3220. Displaying the diplomas and
actual behavioral response in a given situation. graduation awards signify one’s academic
a. Perception achievement. This classification of human
b. awareness behavior is known as:
c. Sensation a. Habitual
d. Learning b. complex
c. Instinctive
3210. A person who is a balanced introvert d. symbolic
and extrovert is said to be: 3221. Mathematical ability and English
a. Psychotic communication skills are examples of what type
b. ambivert of human behavior?
c. Neurotic a. Learned
d. angry bird b. inborn
3211. He is known as the “Father of c. Operant
Psychoanalysis”. d. both a and c
a. Tom Cruise 3222. Eating when you are hungry is an
b. Gina Ferrero-Lombroso example of _______ behavior.
c. Sigmund Freud a. Habitual
d. Cesare Lombroso b. complex
3212. Coping mechanism is the way people c. Instinctive
react to __________. d. Symbolic
a. Fear 3223. It is the ability to withstand frustration
b. anxiety without developing inadequate modes of
c. Frustration response such as being emotionally depressed or
d. Anger irritated, becoming neurotic, or becoming
aggressive.
a. Frustration Tolerance

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 b. Frustration Shield 3234. When both hostage and hostage taker
c. Frustration Flexibility develop a mutual feeling of sympathy,
d. all of the above understanding, and other shared stand on issues,
3224. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP leading them to become enemies of the State,
applicant, turned up applying into the Armed this turn referred to as,
Forces of the Philippines when he failed in the a. Stockholm Syndrome
initial height and weight measurement stage b. Confrontation
because he was under height. This is an example c. Negotiation
of: d. familiarization
a. Sublimation 3235. Motivation is classified under 28
b. repression needs. The need to assault or injure is:
c. Substitution a. need deference 
d. withdrawal b. need aggression
3225. Which of the following items does not c. need recognition d. need
belong to the group? order
a. prostitution 3236. The need to influence or control others
b. assassination is:
c. sabotage a. need order 
d. bombing b. need dominance
3226. It is characterized by infantile level of c. need achievement
response, lack of conscience, deficient feeling of d. need exhibition
affection to others and aggression to 3237. A person has _____ when he/she has
environment and other people. painful memories associated with some shocking
a. schizophrenic personality experience which are repressed and cannot be
b. psychopathic personality recalled.                       
c. compulsive neurosis a. anxiety
d. neurotic personality b. delusions
3227. Which of the following is not a c. amnesia
common tactic in terrorism? d. phobia
a. robbery 3238. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
c. bombing a. crowd control
b. hijacking c. negotiation
d. kidnapping b. assault
3228. This is an abnormal mental condition d. traffic control
whereby a person performs an act while sleeping. 3239. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant
a. somnambulism takes place pleasure in imagining having sexual
b. mesmerism relations with newly dead young female bodies
c. somnolencia who were victims of suicides or vehicular
d. delirium accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio
3229. Animals are used for the achievement commit?
of sexual excitation and gratification. a. necrophilia
a. voyeurism b. rape
b. fetishism c. incest
c. pedophilia d. none
d. bestiality 3240. The most important person in a
3230. A person suffers from _____ when he hostage situation:
developed a maladaptive behavior in his a. negotiator
childhood as a result of an external influence that b. hostage taker
later on becomes a part of his lifestyle and which c. commander
he uses to relate to the world around him. d. hostage
a. personality disorder 3241. A group of bank robbers barricaded
b. abnormal behavior themselves inside the bank together with their
c. personality behavior hostages; their demand is geared towards:
d. abnormal personality a. revenge
3231. These are priorities in a hostage taking b. economic gain
situation EXCEPT, c. escape
a. Preservation of life d. vindication
b. Arrest of hostage taker 3242. In hostage situation, non-verbal
c. recover and protect property communication which indicates openness and
d. involve the media willingness to listen can be shown by:
3232. Containment in a hostage taking a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
situation refers to: b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
a. police handling of the situation c. by not attempting to trick or lie
b. negotiation d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that
c. contact you are willing to negotiate
d. control of area and people 3243. It is referred to as sexual gratification
3233. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage by watching nude woman or man.
taking situation is, a. exhibitionism
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators b. voyeurism
should not command c. transvestitism
b. open the communication at once d. fetishism
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands

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 3244. It is characterized by infantile level of 3254. A personality disorder characterized by
response, lack of conscience deficient feeling of instability, reflected in dramatic mood shifts and
affection to others and aggression. behavior problems. Such individuals are
a. schizophrenic personality frequently described as impulsive and
b. psychopathic personality unpredictable.
c. compulsive neurosis A. Borderline Personality B.
d. neurotic personality Compulsive Personality
3245. This is a mentally disturbed person C. Passive-aggressive Personality D. Anti-
who is opposed to the principles upon which social Personality
society is based.
a. Anti-social 3255. When the disorder is characterized by
b. Psychopath chronic mental and physical fatigue and by
b. Schizophrenic various aches and pains, it is considered as:
d. Sociopath A. Anxiety Disorder
3246. A morbid insanity characterized by a B. Somatoform Disorder
deep and morbid sense of religious feeling. C. Dissociative Disorder
a. mania D. Amnesia
b. mania fanatica 3256. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage
b. delusion taking situation is,
d. legal insanity a. commanders should not negotiate,
negotiators should not command
3247. This is impairment in desire for sexual b. open the communication at once
gratification in the male or an inability to achieve c. negotiate
it. d. ask for demands
a. masturbation 3257. In general, hostage takers are
b. prostitution emotionally tense, when trapped expand a great
c. exhibitionism deal of emotional physical and psychic energy,
d. frigidity hence:
3248. This is any pattern of behavior a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
including a habitual, preferred, and compelling authorities
need for sexual gratification by any technique, b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
other than willing coitus between man and c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
woman and involving actions that are directly d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
results in genital excite. 3258. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage
a. crime against chastity b. acts of situation.
lasciviousness a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
c. sexual deviation b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
d. sexual offenses c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
3249. The best approach in negotiating with d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true 3259. They serve as stimuli-producing action
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are wrong that satisfies a need:
c. to show them that they are just crazy a. interest
d. to try to bluff or trick them b. perception
3250. The following are reasons, why c. motives
common criminals are easy to negotiate, except: d. drives
a. fears of police assault and punishment 3260. It is an effective planning, formulation
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers of an effective plan, policies, procedures and
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics techniques in dealing with sudden violent act of
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender terrorist.
3251. In the field of terrorism, the most a. Crisis management
common tactic used is_____? b. stress mgt.
A. Kidnapping c. hostage negotiation
C. Bombing d. political analysis
B. Assassination 3261. Last option in hostage crisis:
D. Extortion a. crowd control b.
3252. A personality disorder characterized by negotiation
suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive c. traffic control d. assault
self important, and argumentativeness, plus a 3262. It is any incident in which people are
tendency to blame others for one’s own mistakes being held by another person or persons against
and failure and to ascribe evil motives to others. their will, usually by force or coercion, and
A. Paranoid Personality demands are being made by the perpetrator.
B. Dependent Personality a. kidnapping
C. Schizoid Personality b. crisis management
D. Borderline Personality c. hostage incident
3253. A personality disorder characterized by d. abduction
an inability to form social relationships and can be 3263. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage
classified as “loners”. takers who take hostages:
A. Paranoid Personality a. by reason of mental illness
B. Schizoid Personality b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and
C. Dependent Personality D. problems
Borderline Personality c. for personal reason
d. because of political and ideological belief

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 3264. In psychoanalytic theory, the b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding
unconscious wish for death is called; to the demands of the hostage takers.
A. eros c. Hostage takers desist from his threats.
B. animus d. hostage takers come to the fold of the law by
C. thanatos surrendering or be incapable of causing harm
D. lupus 3274. Which of the following is considered
3265. In a crisis management, there is no least among terroristic tactic?
other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS” , which a. noise barrage
means: b. assassination
a. the truth will prevail c.bombing
b. kill the hostage-taker d.kidnapping
c. to save lives 3275. In dealing with the hostage taker, the
d. save the host negotiator should not:
3266. When a highly trained and motivated a.give his name
group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable b. give his rank and designation
demands, they were left with three options: (1) c.give in to all demands
choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit d.look friendly or accommodating
suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic 3276. The highest ranking field commander
proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose should not also be the chief negotiator because:
martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision a. hostage takers will be afraid
b. withhold the media from the terrorist b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
c. give all their demands c. of conflict of interest as mediator and decision
d. let the hostages killed maker
3267. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage d. hostage takers will not trust him
taker demands an airplane/helicopter, what will 3277. What is known to be the oldest but
you do? commonly used terrorist tactic where target are
a. go to your ground commander often police, military officials or political figures?
b. give it with consent a.Hijacking
c. talk to him and delay the moment b. Ambush
d. assault and kill him immediately c.Assassination
d. Kidnap for Ransom
3268. Considered to be the oldest tactic in 3278. The stage of advance planning,
terrorism: organization and coordination and control in
a. Prostitution response to an anticipated future crisis
b. Bombing occurrence is called
c. Assassination a. Proactive Crisis Management
d. Kidnapping b. Reactive Crisis Management
3269. These are important in a hostage c. Performance Stage
taking situation, EXCEPT: d. Reaction Phase
a. Presence of linguist negotiator
b. Considerable screening of all members 3279. A comprehensive plan which
c. Dry run or constant practice delineates responsibilities and specific action to
d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation be taken when a bomb incident or bomb threat
3270. It is the position from which a unit occurs is called
commander and his staff exercise command over a. Floor plan
the hostage incident. b. Bomb threat plan
a. command post c. Drill
b. outer perimeter d. Contingency plan
c. inner perimeter
d. command headquarters 3280. the crime charged against a child in
3271. It is an assault team responsible in conflict with the law is more than 12 years of
carrying out assault operation whenever imprisonment, which will determine whether
negotiation fails. diversion is necessary?
a. Negotiation Team A. The Police
b. Medical Team B. The Prosecutor
c. Tactical Team C. The Court
d. Response Team
3272. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational D. The Barangay Chairman
Procedures Manual of 2010, this group should 3281. From the moment a child is taken into
immediately be activated in case of hostage custody, the law enforcement officer shall
situation: immediately but not later than hours
a. Hostage Negotiation Team after apprehension, turnover custody of the child
b. Civil Disturbance Management Team to the Social Welfare and Development Office.
c. Crisis Management Task Group A. Nine
d. PNP Command Post B. Eight
3273. P/SSupt. Pablo Job is the highest C. Seven
ranking PNP officer who first arrives in a hostage D. Six
taking incident. As a rule he serves now as a
ground commander on the said crisis. Having 3282. An Act Strengthening the Juvenile
decided to conduct hostage rescue operations, Justice System in the Philippines.
the objectives are as follows, except one: A. RA 9344
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed, B. RA 10630
and set free. C. RA 10627

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 D. RA 8960 A. Culture conflict
3283. It is one of the most important assets of the nation. Thus, B. Persistence
every effort should be exerted to promote his welfare and C. Containment theory
enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life. D. Reflective role taking
A. Teenager 3294. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18 years
B. Kid of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he is often
C. Child referred to as?
D. Youth A. Socialized delinquent
3284. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under what B. Truant
agency of the government? C. Criminal
A. Department of Justice D. Youth offender
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development 3295. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
C. Department of Tourism youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
D. Department of Interior and Local Government behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
3285. It refers to any form of detention or imprisonment, or to appropriate care for them or recommending their permanent
the placement of a child in conflict with the law in a public or treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies?
private custodial setting, from which the child in conflict with A. Rehabilitation Center
the law is not permitted to leave at will by order of any judicial B. Reintegration Center
or administrative authority. C. Reformation Center
A. Apprehension D. Restoration Center
B. Confinement 3296. Which among the following is not part of the rights of a
C. Deprivation of Liberty child in conflict with the law?
D. Incarceration A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital punishment
or life imprisonment, without the possibility of release
3286. It refers to any organization whose members are 21 years B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
or older which is directly or indirectly involved in carrying out inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment
child welfare activities and programs. C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily, of
A. NGO his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
B. Youth association disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the
C. Youth organization shortest appropriate period of time
D. Civic organization D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases
3297. It refers to inherited propensities which cannot be
3287. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict with the considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a
law shall be conducted in the presence of the following, crime will be committed.
EXCEPT. A. Precipitating factor
A. Child’s counsel of choice B. Environmental factor
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer C. Biologic factor
C. Child’s relative D. Predisposing factor
D. Child’s parents 3298. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that give
rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may report the
3288. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the Protection same to what agency?
of Children in the formulation and implementation of juvenile A. School
intervention and diversion programs in the If community. B. Neighborhood Association
A. Women and Children Protection Desk C. Barangay Council
B. Local Government Unit D. Church
C. Sangguniang Kabataan 3299. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
D. Local Social Welfare and Development functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity as to
3289. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence social require professional help or hospitalization?
structures. A. Mentally Ill Children
A. Biogenic approach B. Physically Handicapped Children
B. Sociogenic approach C. Emotional Disturbed Children
C. Psychogenic approach D. Retarded at Maturity
D. All of these 3300. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
3290. It refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
conflict with the law. A. Social delinquent
A. Delinquent B. Accidental delinquent
B. Habitual delinquent C. Asocial delinquent
C. Juvenile D. Neurotic delinquent
D. Recidivist 3301. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or
3291. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or made to
shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon. beg in the streets or public places, or when children are in
A. 3 Months moral danger, or exposed to gambling, prostitution, or other
B. 5 Months vices.
C. 4 Months A. Physically Neglected Child
D. 6 Months B. Emotionally Neglected Child
3292. These are undesirable conditions in the community which C. Psychologically Neglected Child
are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT. D. Sexually Neglected Child
A. Gambling Houses 3302. The implementation of the comprehensive juvenile
B. Recreational Facilities intervention program shall be reviewed and assessed annually
C. Vice Dens by Local Government Unit and its result shall be submitted by
D. Attractive Nuisances the provincial and city governments to the Juvenile Justice and
3293. This view asserts that children who started delinquent Welfare Council not later than of what date of every year?
careers early and committed violent acts throughout their A. February 28
adolescence would likely to continue as adults. B. April 30

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 C. March 30 3313. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an
D. May 30 activity.
3303. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with I.Q.s A. Coercion
from about 75 to about 89. The members of this classification B. Cruelty
are only slightly retarded and they can usually get by in regular C. Molestation
classes if they receive some extra help, guidance and D. Abuse
consideration. 3314. It is otherwise known as Special Protection of Children
A. Trainable group Against Child Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act of
B. Custodial group 1992.
C. Educable group A. RA 6809
D. Borderline or low normal group B. RA 9344
3304. It refers to any club, organization or association of C. RA 9262
individuals below twenty-one years of age which is directly or D. RA 7610
indirectly involved in carrying out child or youth welfare 3315. It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate
programs and activities. opportunity, join gangs and pursue a criminal career to achieve
A. Samahan alternate means universal success goals.
B. Student organization A. Culture conflict
C. Sanguniang Kabataan B. Social development model
D. Youth association C. Containment theory
3305. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to D. Differential opportunity
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments over 3316. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
the life course. which among the following refers to a child who is alleged as,
A. Culture conflict accused of, or adjudged as, having committed an offense under
B. Social development model Philippine laws?
C. Differential opportunity A. Juvenile Delinquent
D. Containment theory B. Child in Conflict with the Law
3306. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75, and C. Minor Offender
the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾ of that
D. Youth Criminal
expected of a normal child of the same chronological age.
A. Trainable group 3317. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
B. Borderline or low normal group delinquency through undertaking preventive programs, policies
C. Educable group and activities.
D. Custodial group A. Philippine National Police
3307. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a result of B. Department of National Defense
factors such as personal problems, ignorance and curiosity. C. Local Government
A. Predisposing factor D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
B. Environmental factor 3318. An Act Prohibiting the Employment of Children Below 15
C. Biologic factor Years of Age in Public and Private Undertakings.
D. Precipitating factor A. RA 7610
3308. This is where the molding of the character of the child B. RA 9262
starts and every member of the family should strive to make it C. RA 7658
a wholesome and a harmonious place. D. RA 9231
A. Family 3319. A type of gang in which vices, consumption of drugs and
B. Home illicit experiences is stressed.
C. Church A. Conflict sub-culture
D. School B. Criminal sub-culture
3309. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning C. Retreatist sub-culture
process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts with D. All of these
governmental and social control agencies and other similar 3320. It refers to one with no proper parental care or
variables. guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at least six
A. Biogenic approach months.
B. Socio-genic approach A. Neglected Child
C. Psychogenic approach B. Deserted Child
D. None of the above C. Unattended Child
3310. What program is required for the child in conflict with the D. Abandoned Child
law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an offense 3321. It refers to the programs provided in a community setting
without resorting to formal court proceedings? developed for purposes of intervention and diversion, as well as
A. Diversion rehabilitation of the child in conflict with the law, for
B. Community Service reintegration into his/her family and/or community.
C. Parole A. Community Juvenile Programs
D. Probation B. Community Rehabilitation Programs
3311. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors and C. Community Outreach Programs
youthful offender through the cooperation of the criminal D. Community - Based Programs
justice system. 3322. Who shall coordinate with the Local Councils for the
A. Child Justice System Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
B. Youth Justice System implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
C. Minor Justice System programs in the community?
D. Juvenile Justice System A. Sangguniang Kabataan
3312. A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer B. Kabataan Partylist
pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young person. C. Commission on Human Right
A. Social D. National Youth Commission
B. Accidental 3323. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends upon
C. Neurotic the quality and type of education they receive as well as on the
D. Asocial

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 treatment at home and in the community, their I.Q range from economic, psychological or educational background without
about 50 to 75. resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Educable A. Diversion
B. Custodial B. Friendly Interview
C. Borderline C. Due Process
D. Trainable D. Preliminary Investigation
3324. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal 3334. Family home type which provide temporary shelter from
pattern of rules and regulations. 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the DSWD.
A. Recidivism A. Receiving homes
B. Juvenile delinquency B. Maternity homes
C. Quasi recidivism C. Nursery
D. Delinquency D. Shelter care institution
3325. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective 3335. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality for
deterrents to crime and delinquency such as police or watchful which the youth feels no remorse.
and concerned neighbors. A. Asocial
A. Clever guardians B. Neurotic
B. Proficient guardians C. Accidental
C. Capable guardians D. Social
D. Qualified guardians 3336. It is known as spontaneous remission, it is the manner by
which an individual reduce the rate of their aberrant behavior
as they age.
A. Aging-out
3326. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and B. Decadence
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by C. Desistance
himself without provision for his needs and/or without proper D. Reduction
supervision. What classification of neglected child is this? 3337. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the
A. Physically Neglected Child status, rights and interests of children are upheld in accordance
B. Psychologically Neglected Child with the Constitution and international instruments on human
C. Emotionally Neglected Child rights?
D. Sexually Neglected Child A. National Youth Commission
3327. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and B. Kabataan Partylist
children in conflict with the law, which provides child- C. Commission on Human Rights
appropriate proceedings, including programs and services for D. Sangguniang Kabataan
prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-integration and 3338. Sellin’s study which asserts that it is a condition which
aftercare to ensure their normal growth and development. results from rules and norms of an individual’s sub-cultural
A. Child Justice and Welfare affiliation disagreement with the role of demands of conformist
B. Youth Justice and Welfare society.
C. Minor Justice and Welfare A. Differential opportunity
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare B. Culture conflict
3328. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard C. Containment theory
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to their D. Social development model
perception or view of how significant others feel about them. 3339. Delinquency is a result of faulty biology or some hereditary
A. Reflective role taking defect.
B. Culture conflict A. Psychogenic approach
C. Persistence B. Biologic approach
D. Containment theory C. Sociogenic approach
3329. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the D. Biogenic approach
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any duly 3340. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
licensed child placement agency or individual. authority.
A. Placement A. Emotional Disorder
B. Commitment B. Vagrancy
C. Consignment C. Truancy
D. Entrustment D. Anti Social Behavior
3330. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child. 3341. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
A. Abuse defective which restricts their means of action on
B. Cruelty communication with others.
C. Exploitation A. Physically Handicapped Children
D. Neglect B. Mentally Subnormal
3331. High moral principles should be instilled in the child by the C. Essentially Incurable
following, EXCEPT. D. Retarded at Maturity
A. Government 3342. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon any
B. School knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered from
C. Home abuse.
D. Church A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery of
3332. A child left by himself without provisions for his needs abuse
and / or without proper supervision. B. Report the incident to the family
A. Unattended Child C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
B. Neglected Child D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
C. Dependent Child 3343. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against any
D. Abandoned Child violation of R.A. 7610?
3333. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of A. Parents or guardians
determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3 rd degree of
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural, consanguinity

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 C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any three may take the form of an individualized treatment program,
responsible citizen which may include counseling, skills training, education, and
D. All of the choices other activities that will enhance his/her psychological,
3344. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result of emotional and psychosocial well-being.
internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own emotion and A. Diversion
mood. B. Rehabilitation
A. Neurotic C. Probation
B. Social D. Intervention
C. Accidental 3355. If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit
D. Asocial or any other consideration or due to the coercion or influence
3345. Forcing an activity on the child without consent. of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual
A. Coercion intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
B. Abuse A. Child Abuse
C. Cruelty B. Child Trafficking
D. Molestation C. Child Prostitution
3346. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency and D. Child Exploitation
that their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both deviant and 3356. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring
conventional values. A. Control
A. Swift B. Recession
B. Drift C. Repression
C. Coast D. Prevention
D. Waft 3357. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it
3347. A term coined by Wolfgang to denote a delinquent refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined in
offender who is arrested more than four times before the age Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay
of majority and stands a good chance of becoming an adult tanod.
criminal. A. Police Officer
A. Acute offender B. Probation Officer
B. Severe offender C. Law Enforcement Officer
C. Chronic offender D. Public Officer
D. Desperate offender 3358. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
3348. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do so unattended or inadequately attended.
with a permit or clearance issued by: A. Abandoned Child
A. The parents B. Abused Child
B. The guardians C. Neglected Child
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development D. Dependent Child
D. Any of the choices 3359. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
3349. This refers to children who are unable to cope with their A. Adolescence
family life and chooses to leave the family home. This is a direct B. Early adolescence
result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable home conditions, C. Juvenile
broken homes and misdirected fancy for adventures. D. None of the above
A. Vagrancy 3360. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates
B. Cheating from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom and
C. Lying culture which society does not accept and which therefore,
D. Stealing justifies some kind of corrective measures in the public interest
3350. What is a child caring institution that provides care for six and it is being committed by minors?
or more children below six years of age twenty-four hours a A. Juvenile Delinquency
day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily medical and B. Minor Delinquency
educational services? C. Child Delinquency
A. Nursery D. Youth Delinquency
B. Detention Home 3361. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
C. Day Care conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated
D. Maternity to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of
3351. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and Social Welfare and Development or any accredited Non-
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival, protection Government Organization immediately but not later than
and feelings of security of the child and most encouraging to hours after apprehension.
the child's physical, psychological and emotional development. A. 8
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure B. 24
B. Special Protection of Minor C. 12
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice D. 36
D. Best Interest of the Child 3362. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
3352. A place of residence whose primary function is to give aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any person
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants. who tries to control his behavior.
A. Maternity home A. Neurotic
B. Hospital B. Accidental
C. Rehabilitation center C. Asocial
D. Foster homes D. Social
3353. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe 3363. If the parents, guardians or nearest relatives of the CICL
anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal behavior. refused to take custody, the child may be release to any of the
A. Psychological injury following, EXCEPT.
B. Mental injury A. Duly registered nongovernmental or religious organization
C. Physical injury B. A barangay official or a member of the Barangay Council
D. Emotional injury for the Protection of Children
3354. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to C. A local social welfare and development officer
address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. It

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 D. Duly authorized Women and Children Protection Desk 3374. The parents of guardian of a working child is obligated by
Officer law to set up a trust fund for the child which shall constitute at
3364. It accounts for individual offender by reference to learning least percent of the earning of the child.
process, which goes on in youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts A. 20
with social control agencies and other variables of that time. B. 40
A. Biogenic C. 30
B. Psychogenic D. 50
C. Phatogenic 3375. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
D. Sociogenic under the law is:
3365. It plays an active role in the promotion of child rights, and A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
delinquency prevention by relaying consistent messages B. The undersecretary of DepEd
through a balanced approach. C. The undersecretary of the DILG
A. The mass media D. The undersecretary of the DSWD
B. The family 3376. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
C. The community resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
D. The educational system victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain
3366. What approach towards delinquency views the lawbreaker reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender, the
as a person whose misconduct is the result of faulty biology? offended and the community; and reassurance to the offender
A. Phatogenic that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It also enhances
B. Biogenic public safety by activating the offender, the victim and the
C. Psychogenic community in prevention strategies.
D. Sociogenic A. Restorative Justice
3367. In determining whether diversion is appropriate and B. Rehabilitative Justice
desirable, the following factors shall be taken into C. Reformative Justice
consideration, EXCEPT. D. Reintegrative Justice
3377. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by
A. The safety of the child the Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD),
B. The nature and circumstances of the offense charged LGUs, licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the
DSWD, which provides care, treatment and rehabilitation
C. The circumstances of the child services for children in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation
D. The best interest of the child services are provided under the guidance of a trained staff
3368. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against a where residents are cared for under a structured therapeutic
child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for committing environment with the end view of reintegrating them into their
similar acts. These shall include curfew violations; truancy, families and communities as socially functioning individuals.
parental disobedience and the like. Physical mobility of residents of said centers may be restricted
A. Delinquency pending court disposition of the charges against them.
B. Exclusive A. Youth Reformation Center
C. Status B. Youth Reintegration Center
D. Grave C. Youth Rehabilitation Center
3369. Children detained pending trial may be released on bail or D. Youth Restoration Center
as provided for under Sections 34 and 35 of RA 3378. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of the
9344. commission of the offense is found guilty of the offense
A. Probation charged, shall place the child under
B. Recognizance .
C. Parole A. Recognizance
D. Bond B. Diversion
3370. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a C. Bail
minor, whether habitual or not? D. Suspended Sentence
A. Caress
B. Abuse 3379. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in the
C. Discrimination Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
D. Exploitation A. Punong Barangay
3371. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or whose B. BCPC Chairman
parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause desire to C. LSWDO
be relieved of his care and custody; and is dependent upon the D. PNP member
public of support.
A. Abandoned Child 3380. This criminal justice model is based on
B. Neglected Child the idea that the most important function of the
C. Abused Child CJS is the protection of the public and the
D. Dependent Child repression of criminal conduct.
3372. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible a. Crime prevention
persons from various sector of the community. b. Crime control
A. Organization c. Law and order
B. Association d. Due process
C. Club 3381. According to this criminal justice
D. Samahan model, the rights of an individual must be co-
3373. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short term equal with the concern for public safety.
resident care for youthful offenders. a. Crime prevention
A. Bahay Pag-asa b. crime control
B. Nursery c. Law and order
C. Child caring institution d. due process
D. Foster home 3382. This concerns to the obligations of the
community to individuals, and requires fair

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 disbursement of common advantages and sharing complaint on a case covered by the Barangay
of common burden. Court.
a. Prosecution a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. justice b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. equality c. Certificate to file action
d. trial d. complaint affidavit
3383. This function of the law enforcement is 3393. It refers to the study of the various
being done through elimination of factors agency of our government in charged of
influencing the occurrence of crimes, good processing law violators to ensure the protection
community relations, educating the citizens about of the society and maintenance of peace and
their role, introduction of delinquency prevention order.
programs, good parenting and others. a. Criminology
a. Maintenance of law and order b. Criminal Justice
b. Reduction of crime c. Victimlogy
c. crime prevention d. Sociology
d. crime control 3394. Refers to the person who is being
3384. This principal character of the criminal implicated to the commission of a crime and
justice process links all components of the CJS. subject of an investigation.
a. Offender a. Convict
b. Victim b. respondent
c. witness c. Accused
d. Crime d. suspect
3385. The frontline defender of democracy in 3395. Is the machinery of the state which
the CJS. enforces the rules of conduct necessary to
a. Prosecution protect life and property and to maintain peace
b. Correction and order?
c. Police a. Criminal Justice System
d. Court b. Criminology
3386. He is responsible in evaluating the c. Criminal law
evidence the police have gathered and deciding d. Criminal jurisprudence
whether it is sufficient to warrant the filing of 3396. It is that degree of proof requires in
charge(s) against the alleged violator. criminal case which would convince a reasonable
a. Investigator mind based on moral certainty but which
b. judge nevertheless does not preclude the possibility of
c. prosecutor error.
d. solicitor genera a. Preponderance of evidence
3387. He is an arbiter in court who ensues b. Clear and convincing evidence
that the defense and the prosecution adhere to c. substantive evidence
the legal requirements of introducing evidences. d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
a. Clerk of court
b. judge 3397. A negotiation between the defense
c. sheriff counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an
d. jury agreement whereby the prosecutor uses
3388. The pillar of the CJS which is not under discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter
the executive branch of the government. sentence in exchange for the defendant’s
a. law enforcement (Excutive) entering a guilty plea.
b. court a. arraignment
c. prosecution (Executive) b. preliminary investigation
d. correction (judiciary) c. pre-trial
3389. This is a governmental body that is d. plea bargaining
charged with the responsibility of administering
justice. 3398. The PNP is the law enforcement
a. Law enforcement agency of the country which is under the
b. correction ________?
c. Prosecution a. DOJ
d. court b. DILG
3390. Any person directly vested with c. NAPOLCOM
jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a d. DSWD
member of some court, Government Corporation, 3399. A person who is under custodial
board or commission. investigation is basically protected by a number of
a. Agent of person in authority rights mandated under the constitution and this
b. Government employee was even expounded in the legislative act known
c. Government officer as _______?
d. person in authority a. Miranda Doctrine
3391. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique b. R.A. 7438
position in the Philippine Criminal Justice System c. Bill of Rights
serving as the lawyer of the State or government d. R.A. 6975
in criminal cases. 3400. A body officially assembled under
a. law enforcement authority of law in which judicial power is vested
b. court or the administration of justice is delegated.
c. prosecution a. court
d. correction b. corrections
3392. This document is required by the c. prosecution
Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a d. law enforcement

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 3401. A body of civil authority tasked to situation without referring to your superior due
maintain peace and order, enforce the law, to the eminence of the situation?
protect life, liberty and property and ensure a. Police resourcefulness b. Police
public safety. discretion
a. police c. Police integrity d. police
b. prosecution prudence
c. court 3411. It refers to the art or science of
d. corrections identifying law violators, locating and tracing
3402. System of taking care of the custody, them in order to affect their arrest and gather
rehabilitation and treatment of persons convicted evidence to prove their guilt in court.
of committing crime. a. Crime prevention
a. police b. criminal investigation
b. prosecution c. Crime control
c. court d. Intelligence work
d. corrections 3412. An attached agency of the Office of the
3403. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices President tasked to implement and undertake
Act”. drug law enforcement.
a. R.A. 8294 a. Narcotics Command
b. R.A. 7080 b. AID-SOTF
c. R.A. 1379 c. PDEA
d. R.A. 3019 d. NBI
3413. Sworn statement, subscribed by
Offended party, any peace officer of public officer
3404. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all in charged of enforcement of the law violated
offenses punishable with imprisonment not filed either to the court or to the office of the
exceeding six years. prosecutor.
a. Supreme Court a. Complaint
c. RTC b. Information
b. Court of Appeals c. Pleadings
d. MTC d. Affidavit
3405. It is otherwise known as the
Department of the Interior and Local Government 3414. Is an inquiry or proceeding to
Act of 1990, enacted on December 13, 1990. determine whether there is sufficient ground to
Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and the PPSC. engender a well-founded belief that a crime has
a. R.A. 6975 been committed and the respondent is probably
b. P.D. 1184 guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.
c. R.A. 8551 a. preliminary investigation b.
d. R.A. 6040 Prejudicial question
c. inquest proceeding
3406. Refers to that sector of society d. custodial investigation
composed of NGO’s, cause oriented groups and
advocacy groups that promote the welfare of the 3415. Preliminary investigation is conducted
people against all forms of abuse and on cases punishable by:
exploitation. a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
a. crime control b. more than four years, two months and one day
b. political parties c. less than four years, two months and one day
c. civil society d. six years, one day and above
d. volunteer 3416. It is the actual restraint of a person
3407. It is the process of reducing if not into custody of the law in order for him to answer
eliminate the existence of a cause from initially for the commission of an offense.
occurring, thus, lessen the police work as a. Arrest
suppressing the spread of criminality. b. investigation
a. Crime Prevention c. invitation
b. Crime control d. seizure
c. Criminal apprehension d. law 3417. It refers to the ways and means of
enforcement trapping and capturing the law breakers in the
3408. Directly under the supervision of the execution of their criminal plan.
Department of Justice, its most important a. Instigation
function in the Criminal Justice System is to b. Entrapment
maintain and recognize the rule of law through c. Investigation
the speedy d2elivery of services particularly in the d. Raid
prosecution and investigation of all crimes. 3418. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or
a. National Prosecution Service interdependent from any branch of government.
b. PNP a. prosecution
c. Ombudsman b. correction
d. Solicitor General c. court
3409. What do you call a court covering two d. community
(2) or more municipalities? 3419. During trial of a criminal case, it is the
a. MTC prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the
b. MeTC offense and he/she did it on the behalf of the
c. MCTC state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court
d. MTC’s such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
3410. What is that term which refers to the State in the prosecution of the offense?
wise use of one’s own judgment in a given

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 a. Chief State Prosecutor b. At day time
b. Solicitor General c. At night time
c. National or provincial prosecutor d. from sun dust till dawn
d. Judge 3430. Under what circumstances arrest can
3420. It refers to the questioning initiated by be made even without a warrant?
law enforcement officer after a person has been a. All of the choices
taken into custody. b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the
a. custodial investigation arresting officer.
b. interview c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is
c. inquest personal knowledge based on probable cause that the
d. interrogation person to be arrest has committed it.
3421. In cases committed by Public officer d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee
with salary grade 27 and above in violation of Act 3431. It is a process directed to a person
3019, R.A. 1379 or Art. 210 to 212 of the Revised requiring him to attend and to testify or to bring
Penal Code a complaint should first be filed to the with him any books or documents under his
office of _______ for the conduct of the required control at the trial of an action.
preliminary investigation. a. subpoena
a. Ombudsman b. subpoena ad testificandum
b. Solicitor General c. subpoena duces tecum
c. Judge of MTC d. warrant of arrest
d. the President
3422. In flagrante delicto means ______? 3432. The “anti-Plunder Act”.
a. caught in the act a. R.A. 7080
b. caught after commission c. R.A. 3019
c. instigation b. R.A. 1379
d. entrapment d. R.A. 6713
3423. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with 3433. This attached agency of the DOJ is
the power or try cases submitted to for tasked to provide free legal assistance to poor
adjudication. What term is use in referring to the members of society:
authority or power to hear and decided cases. a. National Bureau of Investigation
a. Jurisdiction b. National Prosecution Service
b. Venue c. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Jurisprudence d. Public Attorney’s Office
d. Territory 3434. This is the power to apply the law to
3424. It is the authority of the court to contests or disputes concerning legally recognized
try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion rights or duties between the state and private
of other courts. persons, or between individual litigants in cases
a. original jurisdiction properly brought before the judicial tribunal.
b. exclusive jurisdiction a. Judicial Power
c. appellate jurisdiction b. Judicial Review
d. concurrent jurisdiction c. Court
3425. It is the formal reading of the charges d. Court of Justice
against a person accused of a crime and latter 3435. This is the process or method whereby
asking him whether he pleads guilty or not to the accusations are brought before the court of
crime charged. justice to determine the innocence or guilt of the
a. arraignment accused.
b. preliminary investigation a. Prosecutor
c. plea b. Prosecution
d. promulgation of judgment c. Trial
3426. It is a body of men created to settle d. Preliminary Investigation
disputes within Barangay level. 3436. The settlement of a dispute by a
a. barangay tanod person/s chosen to hear both sides and to come
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo to a decision.
c. barangay council a. Mediation
d. lupon tagapamayapa b. Settlement
3427. It is the most common way by which c. Arbitration
the police discovers or it informed that a crime d. Agreement
has been committed: 3437. One who prosecutes another for a
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime in the name of the government?
crime. a. Public Prosecutor
b. When the police discovers the crime b. Private Prosecutor
c. When the victim reports the crime c. Prosecution
d. When the suspect surrenders d. Ombudsman
3428. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be 3438. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
composed of the Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of a. RTC
the Lupon and the Brgy. Secretary as the b. Sandiganbayan
Secretary of the Lupon and other members who c. Supreme Court
shall be: d. MTC
a. more than 10 but less than 20 3439. This court was created under RA 1125,
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20 as amended, which has exclusive appellate
c. more than 10 jurisdiction to review on appeal decisions of the
d. less than 10 Commissioner of the Internal Revenue involving
3429. When arrest may be made? internal revenue taxes and decisions of the
a. At any time of the day and night

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 Commissioner of Customs involving customs
duties.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Court of Tax Appeals

3440. This court has jurisdiction over crimes

committed by high-ranking public officials (with
salary grade of 27 above), which can only be
committed because of their position.
a. Court of Justice
b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan 3442. Is that branch of the criminal justice
d. Court of Tax Appeals system charged with the custody, supervision and
3441. It a writ order of the court bearing its rehabilitation of a convicted offender.
seal and the signature of the judge directing the a. Penology
jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted b. Probation
offender for service of sentence. c. Correction
a. Commitment Order d. Criminology
b. Mittimus 3443. Executive clemencies are acts of grace
c. warrant of arrest exercise by the president. Which of the following
d. habeas corpus is not one of them?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence
d. Parole
3444. Prison is a place for confinement of
convicted prisoners. What classification of
prisoners is sentenced to serve a prison term of
one day to three (3) years or whose fine is less
than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner
b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner
d. municipal prisoner

3445. Prisons are institution for confinement

of convicted offenders sentenced to more than
three (3) years of imprisonment. It is derived from
the Greco-Roman word _____?
a. Presinto
b. Precindio
c. presidio
d. precinto
3446. There are how many members the
composed the Lupon?
a. 3 members
b. 5 to 10 members
c. 10 to 20 members
d. 5 members
3447. It is granted to convicted offenders
who have served a portion of their service
granted by the Board of Pardons and Parole.
a. Pardon
b. Probation
c. Amnesty
d. Parole
3448. It is a security facility, usually operated
by the police stations, for the temporary
detention of persons held for investigation or
awaiting preliminary investigation before the
prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail
b. Ordinary jail
c. workhouses
d. prison
3449. It is a form of motivation granted by
the Director of Prisons whereby a number of days

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 are deducted from the length of years that a person of tender year or one who is in need of
prisoner have been sentenced to serve for his supervision or assistance.
good conduct. a. crime
a. Commutation of sentence b. status offense
b. Parole c. delinquency
c. GCTA d. felonies
d. reprieve 3458. It is the scientific study of crime and
3450. Correctional institutions in the country the effort of the society to prevent and repressed
is divided into National and Local institution. them?
What Department of the Executive Branch is the a. Penology
one in charge of the National Penitentiary? b. Victimology
a. Bureau of Jail Management and c. Criminology
Penology d. Sociology of law
b. Department of Justice
c.Department of Interior and Local 3459. In hostage situation, non-verbal
Government communication which indicates openness and
d. Bureau of Correction willingness to listen can be shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
3451. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the b. calmly repeating words of comfort and
state for the transgression of the law. assurance
a. penalty c. by not attempting to trick or lie
b. self-defense d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
c. exemplarity willing to negotiate
d. punishment 3460. These are priorities in a hostage taking
situation EXCEPT,
3452. City and Municipal is the division of a. Preservation of life
our correctional institution which primarily in b. Arrest of hostage taker
charge of those detention prisoner, awaiting for c. recover and protect property
final judgment of their trial and serving short d. involve the media
sentences and under the Bureau of Jail 3461. A hostage taker is characteristically all
Management and Penology. While it is true that of these, EXCEPT
even the Provincials Jails like the City and a. mental derange
Municipal Jails are under the DILG, it is subject to b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
the control and supervision of the __________? c. sociopath personality
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology b. d. mental balance
Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction 3462. These are not negotiable in a hostage
d. Provincial government taking situation:
3453. This is the process wherein the inmate, a. guns and ammunition
after serving his sentence, is released to be able b. drinks
to mingle with the community. c. foods
a. Reintegration d. all of the choices
b. reincarnation
c. Realization 3463. One of the following is not a terrorist
d. Rehabilitation tactics:
3454. It refers to the examination of an a. bombing
individual’s person, house, papers or effects, or b. assassination
other buildings and premises to discover c. hostage-taking
contraband or some evidence of guilt to be used d. media exposure
in the prosecution of a criminal action: 3464. In general, hostage takers are
a. Search b. seizure emotionally tense when trapped expand a great
c. Raid deal of emotional physical and psychic energy,
d. entrapment hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
3455. This court was established by virtue of authorities
PD1083, otherwise known as “Code of Muslim b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
Personal Laws of the Philippines”. c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
a. Court of Tax Appeals d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender
b. Shari’a Court 3465. When a highly trained and motivated
c. Sandiganbayan group of hostage takers asked non-negotiable
d. Family Court demands , they were left with three options: (1)
3456. Refers to any person below 18 years of choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit
age or those over but unable to fully take care of suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic
themselves from neglect, abuse, cruelty, proportions; and (3) surrender. If they choose
exploitation or discrimination due to some martyrdom and kill hostages, the useful action is:
physical defect or mental disability or condition. a. attack them swiftly with precision
a. child b. withhold the media from the terrorist
b. wards c. give all their demands
c. physically disabled d. let the hostages killed
d. youth 3466. The best approach in negotiating with
3457. Act or omission which may not be a Paranoid Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
punishable if committed by an adult, but becomes a. to accept their beliefs as being true
unlawful when they are committed by a child or a b. to try to commence them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy

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 d. to try to bluff or trick them b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair
3467. The following are reasons, why and problems
common criminals are easy to negotiate, except: c. for personal reason
a. fears of police assault and punishment d. because of political and ideological belief
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers 3477. This is an assault team responsible in
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics carrying out assault operation whenever
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender negotiation fails.
a. medical team
3468. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage b. tactical team
situation. c. negotiation team d. snipers
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker 3478. This asserts that strong self-image
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages protects the youth from the influence and
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker pressure of criminogenic pulls in his environment.
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker A. Rational theory
B. Conflict theory
3469. P/SSupt. is the highest ranking PNP C. Label theory
officer who first arrives in a hostage taking D. Containment theory
incident. As a rule he serves now as a ground 3479. The apprehension or taking into
commander on the said crisis. Having decided to custody of a child in conflict with the law by law
conduct hostage rescue operations, the enforcement officers or private citizens is termed
objectives are as follows, except one:
as:
a. Ensure that the hostages are safe or unharmed and set
free.
b. Ensure that the hostages be set free by yielding to the A.Arrest
demands of the hostage takers. B.Initialcontact
c. Hostage takers desist from his threats. C.Childcustody
d. Hostage takers come to the fold of the law by D. All of the above
surrendering or be incapable of causing harm 3480. It is the study of human society, its
3470. In a hostage negotiation and crisis
origin structure, functions and direction.
management practice, it is a “cardinal rule”:
a. To bear weapon when talking to the hostage-taker face a. criminology
to face b. sociology
b. Seek better alternative than a negotiated agreement c. psychology
c. Not to agitate the hostage-taker d. anthropology
d. Never say “NO” to the demands of the hostage taker 3481. The science of classifying the physical
3471. In a crisis management, there is no characteristics.
other purpose but “SALVARI VITAS”, which
a. free will
means:
a. the truth will prevail b. positivism
b. kill the hostage-taker c. atavism
c. to save lives d. somatology
d. save the hostages 3482. The approach that is using the
perspective of heredity in explaining the cause of
3472. Considered as a “Mortal Sin” in a
crime.
hostage negotiation.
a. Giving all the demands of the hostage-taker a. geographical approach
b. Acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages b. biological approach
c. Deceiving and bluffing the hostage-taker c. psychiatric application
d. Saying “NO” to the demands of the hostage-taker d. psychological application
3483. The purpose of penalty in the
3473. Last option in hostage crisis: positivism school of criminology.
a. crowd control
a. retribution
b. negotiation
c. traffic control b. rejection
d. assault c. reformation
d. restoration
3474. It is any incident in which people are 3484. It is the study of formation of the skull
being held by another person or persons against in relation to the behavior of the criminal.
their will, usually by force or coercion, and a. entomology
demands are being made by the perpetrator.
b. penology
a. kidnapping
b. crisis management c. phrenology
c. hostage incident d. criminology
d. abduction 3485. Children shall be given priority
during_____ as result of armed conflict.?
3475. The following are the priorities in a. war
hostage taking situation, except:
b. treatment
a. preservation of life
b. arrest of the hostage-taker c. evacuation
c. inclusion of the media d. education
d. successfully negotiate 3486. Science concerned with improving the
3476. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage quality of offspring.
takers who take hostages: a. criminology
a. by reason of mental illness b. eugenics

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 c. genetics b. 22, 068
d. heredity c. 20, 250
3487. Commonly known as victimless crime: d. 32, 644
A.occassional crime 3497. What is the antonyms of the word
B.political crime arrest?
C.public order crime A. Apprehend
D. conventional crime B. Search
C. Set free
3488. A child whose basic needs have been D. Renounce
deliberately unattended. 3498. How many members composed the
a. abandoned child “Pangkat?”
b. dependent child A. 1 member
c. abusive child C. 2 members
d. neglected child B. 3 members
D. 5 members
3489. The principle that events including
3499. He founded Sociology and applied
criminal behavior that has sufficient causes.. scientific methods in the study of society, which
a. atavism to him passes through stages divided on the basis
b. narassism of how people try to understand it, leading them
c. determinism to adopt a rational scientific understanding of the
d. positivism world. Comte called this the positive stage and
3490. An established and generally accepted those who followed his writings were called,
a. August Comte
moral values refer to.
b. Positivists
a. integrity c. Positivism
b. morality d. Sociologists
c. ethical standard 3500. Refers to the counsel provided by the
d. authority government to assist destitute litigant?
3491. This refers to a significant loss of a. Counsel de officio
contact with reality. b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
a. split mind
d. volunteer counsel
b. psychosis 3501. He represent the government’s
c. neurosis position in a criminal case during court
d. schizoprenia proceedings from the time of the suspect’s arrest
until the adjudication of his case.
3492. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a. Counsel de officio
a separate events? b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
A.mass murder d. prosecutor
B. serial killer 3502. What is the highest rank in the
national prosecution service SERVICE?
C.homicidal   
a. Prosecutor V
D. spree killer b. Prosecutor IV
3493. A bank robber who kills some c. Prosecutor VI
individual in the bank, flees with hostages, and d. Chief Prosecutor
kills a number of people while in flight diving a
chase would be an example of: 3503. The Office of the
____________represents the Government of the
Philippines, its agencies and instrumentalities and
A. Serial Murder
its officials and agents in any litigation,
B. Spree Murder proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the
C. Mass Murder services of lawyers
D. Multiple Murder a. Solicitor General
3494. What is the legal term for nighttime? b. Public Attorney’s Office
A. sanctuary c. Counsel de officio
B.absurdity b. counsel de parte
3504. An office which Investigate and
C. ephitomy
prosecute on its own or on complaint by any
D. nocturnity person, any act or omission of any public officer
3495. These are the rights of an accused that or employee, office or agency, when such act or
are derived from special laws enacted by omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper
Congress. or inefficient
A. Constitutional rights
a. Solicitor General Office
B. Civil rights
b. Public Attorney’s Office
C.Statutoryrights c. Ombudsman
D. Natural rights b. Sandiganbayan
3496. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of 3505. An office which shall independently
the national total crime volume of 84, 875, How discharge its mandate to render, free of charge,
many crimes were reported to the police? legal representation, assistance, and counselling
a. 22, 868

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 to indigent persons in criminal, civil, labor, c. differential association theory
administrative and other quasi-judicial cases d. labeling theory
a. Solicitor General Office
b. Public Attorney’s Office 3514. This theory suggest that stability and
c. Ombudsman changes in criminal and deviant behavior through
b. Sandiganbayan time and different stages in life.
3506. Is an inquiry or proceeding to a. Self Derogation Theory
determine whether there is sufficient ground to b. Anomie Theory
engender a well-founded belief that a crime has c. Life Course Theory
been committed and the respondent is probably d. Routine Activities Theory
guilty thereof and should be held for trial
a. custodial investigation 3515. This theory suggest that females and
b. inquest proceeding males are becoming equal in society in terms of
c. preliminary investigation family, politics, and education
b. arraignment A.Feminist Theory
3507. Is an inquiry made by the duty B. Paternalism
prosecutor to determine the legality of the arrest C.Liberation Theory
made especially those arrests made without a D. Life Course Theory
warrant 3516. In the power control theory by Hagan,
a. custodial investigation which father and mother share similar roles in the
b. inquest proceeding workplace and power in the family
c. preliminary investigation a. Feminist theory
b. arraignment b. Egalitarian family
3508. It is the power to apply the laws to c. Patriarchal family
contests or disputes concerning legally recognized d. Matriarchal family
rights or duties of and between the state and the 3517. These views suggest that males such as
private persons or between individual litigants in judges, police officers, and prosecutors tend to
cases properly brought before the judicial have traditional views on women thus, they are
tribunals. more lenient to them as compared to their male
counterparts.
a. court power a. Paternalism
b. legal power b. Chivalry Hypothesis
c. judicial power c. Masculinity
b. right power d. Power Control Theory
3509. It has original exclusive jurisdiction 3518. This new branch in criminology
over public officers accused of committing crimes opposes the theoretical perspective and proposes
in relation to their official functions and whose the involvement of all stakeholders in the use of
salary grade is 27 and above. non violent solutions
a. Peacemaking Criminology
a. Solicitor General Office b. Sociology of Law
b. Public Attorney’s Office c. Restorative Justice
c. Ombudsman d. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis
b. Sandiganbayan 3519. This crimes are those that the lower
class commit against the upper class of society in
3510. It is said that the home is the cradle of a capitalist system
human personality, for it where the child a. Crimes of Passion
develops his fundamental attitudes and habits b. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance
that last throughout his life c. Crimes of domination and. Repression
d. Crimes of Lower class group
a. school
3520. The ruling class in a capitalist system is
b. community
the
c. barangay
a. Proletariat
b. family
b. Bourgeois
3511. It is a body of men created to settle
c. Capitalist
disputes within Barangay level. d. Ruling class
a. barangay tanod 3521. Who proposed the theory of capitalism
b. barangay council and invoked communism as a remedy?
c. pangkat tagpagkasundo a. George Vold
b. lupon tagapamayapa b. Karl Marx
c. Emile Durkheim
3512. It refers the process whereby d. Max Weber
disputants are persuaded by the Punong 3522. This theory believes that society is
Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle their divided into two groups with competing values
disputes the upper class and lower class.
a. agreement a. Class Theory
b. conciliation b. Differential Opportunity
c. conference c. Conflict Theory
b. mediation d. Consensus Theory
3513. This theory views crime and 3523. A problem that occurs when offenders
delinquency as a result of the frustration and who have been released from the system are
anger people experience over their inability to placed in a program simply because the program
achieve legitimate social and financial success. exist.
a. strain theory a. Diversion Movement
b. psychological theories b. Intervention

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 c. Net widening social phenomenon. It includes within its scope
d. Primary Deviance the process of making laws, of breaking laws and
3524. It conceded factors such as insanity of reacting towards the breaking of the laws”:
might inhibit the exercise of free will. a) Raffaelle Garofalo
a. Classical theory b) Edwin Sutherland
b. positivist theory c) Cesare Beccaria
c. Neo-classical theory d) Paul Topinard
d. radical theory 3534. Classical Theory states that individuals
have freewill. It is focused on an individual's
3525. His great contributions to criminology choice as to whether or not he will commit a
were the principle of utilitarianism and the crime and the purpose of Classical Theory in
felicific calculus. giving punishment is________________.
a. Cesare Beccaria a) Restoration
b. Jeremy Bentham b) Treatment
c. Cesare Lombroso c) Retribution
d. Emile Durkheim d) Deterrence
3526. He propounded the theory of
evolution that inspired the now known “Father of 3535. Refers to the circumstances which
Modern Criminology” to develop the theory of attendant in the commission of a crime serve to
atavism. increase the penalty, without however exceeding
a. Cesare Lombroso the maximum of the penalty provided by law for
b. Charles Goring the offense.
c. Cesare Beccaria a. Justifying
d. Charles Darwin b. Exempting
3527. According to him, people with criminal c. Mitigating
behavior, should be prohibited from having d. Aggravating
children. 3536. Those wherein the acts of the person
a. Robert Dugdale are in accordance with the law, hence he incurs
b. Henry Goddard no criminal liability.
c. Charles Goring a. Exempting
d. George Wilker b. aggravating
c. Justifying
3528. It states that individuals are deviant d. Mitigating
mainly because they have been labeled as deviant
by social agencies and others. The notion of 3537. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
deviance is not inherent in the act itself, but shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the a. Maternity home
actor. b. Hospital
a. Containment Theory c. Rehabilitation center
b. Theory of Imitation d. Foster homes
c. Social Process Theory 3538. This may be demonstrated by any of the following: severe
d. Social Reaction theory anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal behavior.
3529. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of a. Psychological injury
criminal with five (5) or more atavistic stigmata. b. Mental injury
a. Born-criminal type c. Physical injury
b. insane d. Emotional injury
c. Criminaloid 3539. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
d. pseudo-criminal address issues that caused the child to commit an offense. It
3530. These are crimes which are wrong may take the form of an individualized treatment program,
from their very nature. Examples of these are which may include counseling, skills training, education, and
murder, robbery, and other violations of the other activities that will enhance his/her psychological,
Revised Penal Code. emotional and psychosocial well-being.
a. Heinous crimes a. Diversion
b. mala in se b. Rehabilitation
c. Serious crimes c. Probation
d. mala prohibita d. Intervention
3531. These are crimes which are wrong only 3540. If children, whether male or female, who for money, profit
because there are laws that prohibit them in or any other consideration or due to the coercion or influence
order to regulate an orderly society. Examples of of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in sexual
these are the violations of special laws like the intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
violation of “Anti-Smoking Law”. a. Child Abuse
a. Mala prohibita b. Child Trafficking
b. less grave felonies c. Child Prostitution
c. Mala in se d. Child Exploitation
d. light felonies
3532. The principle of criminal law which is
“nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege” means: 3541. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from occurring
a. An act done by me against my will is not my act a. Control
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it. b. Recession
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. c. Repression
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. d. Prevention
3533. He was the one who introduced the 3542. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, it
following definition of criminology: “It is the refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as defined in
entire body of knowledge regarding crime as a

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 Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including a barangay d. Iwahig penal colony
tanod. 3552. Which is called the finest penal farm in
a. Police Officer the world?
b. Probation Officer
a. Davao penal farm
c. Law Enforcement Officer
d. Public Officer b. Sablayan penal colony
3543. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
unattended or inadequately attended. d. Iwahig penal colony
a. Abandoned Child 3553. . Under the UN Standard Minimum
b. Abused Child Rules for treatment of Prisoners, which of the
c. Neglected Child following are the two basic principles under rules
d. Dependent Child
of general application to prisoners?
3544. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years old.
a. Adolescence 1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race,
b. Early adolescence color, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or
c. Juvenile social origin, birth or other status
d. None of the above 2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief and moral
3545. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates rule of the group to which the prisoner belong
from the normal pattern of rules and regulation, custom and 3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their
culture which society does not accept and which therefore,
exclusion from the community, but their continuing part in it
justifies some kind of corrective measures in the public interest
and it is being committed by minors? 4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent and
a. Juvenile Delinquency shall be treated as such.
b. Minor Delinquency a. 2 and 3
c. Child Delinquency b. 4 and 1
d. Youth Delinquency c. 1 and 2
3546. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
d. 3 and 4
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is mandated
to turn over said child to the custody of the Department of 3554. What does classical theory provides?
Social Welfare and Development or any accredited Non- a. Criminal behavior is inherited and therefore could be
Government Organization immediately but not later than controlled by regulating the reproduction of families
hours after apprehension. b. Criminal behavior is learned in interaction with other
a. 8 persons in the process of communication
b. 24 c. Crime and delinquency are symptoms of social and
c. 12
penalty disorders
d. 36
3547. This concerns to the obligations of the d. The basis for criminal liability is human free will and the
community to individuals, and requires fair purpose of penalty is retribution
disbursement of common advantages and sharing 3555. The theory in criminal causation
of common burden. focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
a. Prosecution irregularity, and abnormal brain activity?
b. justice a. Biological
c. equality
b. Psychological
d. trial
3548. A probationer is allowed to do the c. Sociological
following except? d. Geological
a. Stay away from bad associates 3556. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if
b. Work regularly to support his family his sentence is 6 months or less?
c. Make periodic office report a. National prison
d. Go and play in a gambling den b. Municipal jail
3549. Which of the following are the major c. City jail
goals of correction? d. Provincial jail
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment 3557. Crimes with no private offended party?
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation a. Complex crime
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment b. Status offense
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment c. Simple crime
3550. A judicial action for legal disposition d. Victimless crime
that allows the offender to remain in the 3558. A married prisoner is visited by his wife
community subject to conditions imposed by the and they were granted the time for their marital
court? sexual obligation. What do you call this affair?
a. Reprieve a. Sexual relation
b. Probation b. Conjugal partnership
c. Commutation c. Conjugal privilege
d. Parole d. Conjugal visit
3551. Which of the following is an open 3559. What institution conducts the training
correctional institution known to be the best and program for uniformed personnel of the BJMP?
prison without walls? a. Fire Training Center
a. Davao penal farm b. Philippine National Jail Academy
b. Sablayan penal colony c. PNP Training Center
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm d. Jail Management Training Institute

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 3560. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready 3569. What is the duration should the
to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was probation officer submit his post sentence
he photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic investigation to the court?
Center? a. 60 days
a. He is a actor and photogenic b. 30 days
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph c. within 60 days
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor d. 15 days
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception 3570. A shoemaker and became the father of
procedure probation in the U.S
3561. A penalty having its minimum and a. Mathew Davenport Hill
maximum duration is referred to as b. Edward Savage
a. Determinate sentence c. John Augustus
b. Capital punishment d. Teodolo Natividad
c. Corporal punishment 3571. When does probation started?
d. Indeterminate sentence a. 1938
3562. Which of the following executive b. 1841
clemency needs the concurrence of the congress? c. 1896
a. Pardon d. 1932
b. Amnesty 3572. It is regarded as the most important
c. Probation program that aids in the rehabilitation or
d. Parole prisoners
3563. It is an executive clemency whereby a. Recreational program
the convicted person should serve part of his b. Religious program
sentence? c. Educational program
a. Pardon d. Employment of prisoners
b. Parole 3573. Person who are deemed instrumental
c. Probation on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily
d. Amnesty contact with inmates?
3564. What should the court do where the a. Chaplain
accused violated the terms and conditions of his b. Warden
probation? c. Psychologist
a. Court releases the probationer to the community d. Prison guards
b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence 3574. Person who are deemed instrumental
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole on the reformation of prisoners due to their daily
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his contact with inmates?
probation a. Chaplain
3565. Which of the following is a minor b. Warden
offense in jail? c. Psychologist
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate d. Prison guards
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place 3575. It is given to prisoners who have
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail returned to their places of confinement within 48
where it is off- limits to inmates hours after a calamity.
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official a. Good conduct time allowance
communication, transaction or investigation b. Special time allowance
3566. Failure to assist in putting out fires c. Visitation privileges
inside the jail is a type of offense? d. Good treatment allowance
a. Grave offense 3576. Juan Manalo was convicted by final
b. Less grave offense judgment to serve the term of imprisonment for
c. Not so grave offense 20 years. While serving his sixth year of
d. Minor offense imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison
and several inmates escaped. Roberto returned
3567. How many hours should the jail the following day, how many years would be
disciplinary board hear and decide the case deducted from his sentence?
brought before it? a. 4 years
a. 24 hours b. 8 years
b. 12 hours c. 9 years
c. 48 hours d. 11 years
d. 72 hours 3577. A person convicted to serve 6 years
3568. Minimum number of time in counting imprisonment would be classified as what kind of
the inmates on daily basis? prisoner?
a. Three times a. Municipal prisoner
b. Two times b. Insular prisoner
c. Four times c. Provincial prisoner
d. Five times d. Detention prisoner

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 3578. It is one of the forerunners of modern 3588. Probation shall be denied if the court
correctional system wherein they confine the finds that_.
prisoners in single cell at night but allow them to a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense
work during the day. committed.
a. Auburn system b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment
b. Pennsylvania system c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation
c. Elmira reformatory the offender will commit another crime
d. None of the above d. All of the choices
3579. It is an institution intended to detain or 3589. The probationer and his probation
house political offenders. program shall be under the control and
a. Iwahig Penal farm supervision of ___?
b. Davao Penal Farm a. Probation officer
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm b. Board of pardons and parole
d. Sablayan Prison Farm c. Court
3580. This forerunner whereby he d. All of the above
introduced the theory of atavism? 3590. Is the denial of probation appealable?
a. Lombroso a. It depends on the violation
b. Becarria b. Yes
c. Ferri c. No
d. Garofalo d. Partially No
3581. It is the temporary suspension in the 3591. Who shall have the control over the
execution of sentence? probationer once the latter is permitted to reside
a. Pardon under the jurisdiction of another court?
b. Appeal a. Regional Director
c. Commutation b. Executive judge of the municipal court
d. Reprieve c. Executive Judge of the first instance
3582. It is the deduction of the term of d. Appellate court
imprisonment due to the convict’s good behavior 3592. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an
while serving his sentence? imprisonment of six months, how many years
a. Special time allowance would be the duration of his probation?
b. Parole a. One year
c. Good conduct time allowance b. Two years
d. Probation c. Shall not exceed two years
3583. A writ ordering the confinement of a d. Shall not be more than six years
person in penal institution. 3593. In the hearing for the violation
a. Detention order committed by the probationer, the latter shall
b. Commitment order have the right to be informed of the violation
c. Warrant of arrest charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This
d. None of the above right is in pursuant to his right to ___?
3584. Who grants probation? a. Equal protection
a. Probation officer b. Presumption of innocence
b. Solicitor general c. Miranda rights
c. Court d. Due process of law
d. All of the above 3594. What is the effect of the termination of
3585. Where the application for probation probation?
should be filed? a. Erase criminal records
a. Board of Pardons and Parole b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as a
b. Office of the Solicitor General result of conviction
c. Trial court c. Both A and B
d. Appellate court d. None of the above
3586. The court shall resolve the application 3595. Probation aids shall have the term in
for probation for _. office for ___?
a. Not later than 60 days a. 3 years
b. Within 10 days b. 1 year
c. Within 5 days c. 2 years
d. Within 15 days d. 4 years
3587. Pending the submission of the 3596. Ideal number of days for proper
investigation report, the defendant may be classification of newly convicted offenders at the
allowed on temporary liberty through_. RDC?
a. Release on recognizance a. 45 days
b. Bail b. 30 days
c. Manifestation c. 60 days
d. Cash bond d. 15 days

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 3597. An inherent responsibility of a warden a. Mathew Davenport Hill
in seeing to it that he continually motivates his b. Edward Savage
staff and personnel to perform at their best. c. John Augustus
a. Decision making d. Alexander Rice
b. Control of prison operation and activities 3607. He is the first appointed probation
c. Personnel program officer in the world.
d. Executive leadership a. Hans Gross
3598. Place wherein a newly convicted b. Edward Savage
prisoner is housed for at least a minimum period c. John Augustus
of 5 days to ten days for the conduct of medical d. Benjamin Franklin
examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent 3608. This case paved the way for the
physical contamination abolition of the first probation law?
a. Reception diagnostic center a. People v. De Vera, 376 O.G. 164
b. Medical center b. People v. Vera, 376 O.G. 164
c. Quarantine unit c. Vera v. People, 376 O.G. 164
d. None of the above d. People v. De Vera, 376 O,G. 164
3599. A writ issued by the court to a 3609. It serves as the basis in granting
correctional facility indicating the basis of probation to qualified applicants.
confinement of a prisoner a. Post Investigation Report
a. Mittimus b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
b. Detention order c. Admission report
c. Warrant of arrest d. Post Sentence Investigation
d. Writ of Hebeas Corpus 3610. After receiving the PSIR, within how
3600. A code which provides “an eye for an many days must a judge decide whether to grant
eye, a tooth for a tooth.” or deny the application for probation.
a. Code of Babylon a. 5 days
b. Code of Kalantiaw b. 15 days
c. Hammurabi code c. 30 days
d. Bible d. 60 days
3601. A French word meaning “word of 3611. Under the Indeterminate Sentence
honor” Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board of
a. Pardon Pardons and Parole?
b. Probation a. PNP Chief
c. Parole b. DILG Secretary
d. Amnesty c. DOJ Secretary
3602. Refers to those who are confined in d. Chief Executive
correctional facilities awaiting verdict in their 3612. Operation conducted by the BJMP
cases where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime.
a. Prisoner a. Search and seizure
b. Detainees b. Confiscation
c. Probationer c. Inspection
d. Offender d. Operation greyhound
3603. It is said to be the alternative for jail 3613. These are long, narrow, single decked
confinement in modern penology. ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by
a. Amnesty criminals.
b. Parole a. Hulks
c. Probation b. Ships of criminals
d. Pardon c. Galleys
3604. He advocated the Irish system which is d. none of the above
considered by many as one of the most famous 3614. What is the standard ratio in escorting
contributor to the reformatory movement. a non- bailable inmate?
a. Z.R. Brockway a. One is to one security officer
b. Alexander Macanochie b. One is to three security officers
c. Ceasar Lombroso c. One is to two plus one security officers
d. Walter Crofton d. One is to one plus one security officer
3605. He is the father of probation in the 3615. Offenders who are committed to the
Philippines jail or prison in order to serve their sentence after
a. Ferdinand Marcos final conviction of a competent court is known as
b. Manuel Roxas a. Detention prisoner
c. Teodulo Natividad b. Sentenced prisoner
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr. c. Provincial prisoner
3606. A Boston shoemaker who advocated in d. National prisoner
behalf of alcoholic and youthful offenders and 3616. Penology came from the latin word
known as the father of probation. “poena” which means

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 a. Conviction 3626. The establishment of the usefulness
b. Pain and suffering and responsibility of the offender as a productive
c. Punishment individual is a punishment justified by
d. Deterrence a. Expiation
3617. It is the suffering inflicted by the state b. Rehabilitation
against an offending member of the society for c. Atonement
the transgression of the law d. Retribution
a. Penalty 3627. The penalty of banishing a person from
b. Punishment the place where he committed a crime refers to
c. Suffering what contemporary forms of punishment
d. Any of the above a. Atonement
3618. When different crimes should be b. Destierro
punished with different penalties, punishment c. Exile
should therefore be d. Incapacitation
a. Correctional 3628. The early Roman place of confinement
b. Legal which was built under the main sewer of Rome in
c. Productive of suffering 64 BC refers to
d. Commensurate with the offense a. Town Gates
3619. An institution for the imprisonment of b. Wulnut Street Jail
persons convicted of major offenses refers to c. Bridewell Workhouse
a. Jail d. Mamertime Prison
b. Prison 3629. What was the most popular
c. Penitentiary workhouse in London which was built for the
d. All of the above employment of English prisoners?
3620. Imprisonment for a term of 6 years 1 a. Borstal prison
day to 12 years b. Panoptican prison
a. Prision correccional c. Elmira reformatory
b. Reclusion temporal d. None of the choices
c. Arresto mayor 3630. Which branch takes charge of the
d. Prision mayor preparation of the daily menu, prepares and
3621. A criminal can seek refuge in a church cooks food and serve to inmates?
in order to avoid punishment in a period of ninety a. General Service Branch
days. This refers to b. Mess Service Branch
a. Refuge c. Budget and Finance Brach
b. Securing sanctuary d. Property and Supply Branch
c. Hidden church 3631. The unit where the prisoner is given
d. Claiming penitentiary thorough physical examination including blood
3622. This were the former warships used to test, x-rays, vaccinations and immunity for the
house prisoners in the 18th century and 19th purpose of insuring that the prisoner is not
century as means of relieving congestion of suffering from contagious disease?
prisones refers to a. Rehabilitation Unit
a. Galleys b. Quarantine Cell
b. Hulks c. Medical and Health Center
c. Gaols d. RDC
d. Warships 3632. Who provides the security system of
3623. In the ancient times, who were sound custody, security and control of inamtes
commonly subjected to harsh punishments? and their movements and also responsible to
a. Middle class enforce jail or prison discipline
b. Black people a. Administrative Group
c. Slaves b. Security Group
d. Any of the above. c. Rehabilitation Group
3624. Offenders who were convicted should d. Medical Group
be kept away from the society for its protection.
This is frequently called as
a. Incapacitation 3633. What law was passed during the
b. Deterrence Aquino administration that renamed the Bureau
c. Penalization of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections?
d. Rehabilitation a. E.O. 292
3625. What code specified punishment b. E.O. 229
according to the social class of the offenders? c. A.O 262
a. Greek Code of Draco d. E.O. 292
b. Justinian Code 3634. Who appoints the Director of Prisons
c. Burgundian Code who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
d. Akadian Code a. Chief BJMP

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 b. Sec. of DILG 3643. What governing law of Aklan and
c. Chief Executive Panay based on the beliefs, customs and
d. Sec. of DOJ practices, it is also reflects the level of uprightness
3635. What agency has supervision and and morality of the people?
control over all the national prisons or A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
penitentiaries? B. Law of the Talion
a. Bureau of Prisons C. Kalantiaw Code
b. Bureau of Correction D. Penitentiary Act of 1779
c. Bureau of Jail 3644. It refers to prison which is used to
d. None of the above confine slaves where they were attached to
3636. Which of the following statements is workbenches and forced to do hard labor in the
not true? period of their imprisonment.
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the A. Underground Cistern
jurisdiction of the DOJ B. Ergastalum
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the C. Sing-Sing Prison
provincial government D. Alcatraz Prison
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and 3645. It is known as the “Age of Reason of
supervision of all jails nationwide Age of Enlightment”
d. The BJMP is under the DILG A. 1870 – 1880
3637. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend? B. 18th century
a. Chief Executive C. 19th century
b. DILG Sec D. 21st century
c. Chief BJMP 3646. It refers to a Prison System whereby
d. Chief of BUCOR prisoners are confined in their own cells during
3638. Who appoints the Chief Inspector as the night and congregate work in shops during
warden? the day also known as “Congregate System”.
a. DILG sec A. Auburn Prison System
b. Chief Executive B. Custody Oriented Prison
c. Chief BJMP C. Pennsylvania Prison System
d. Chief of BuCor D. Treatment Oriented Prison
3639. Early forms of Prison Discipline by 3647. The first juvenile reformatory which
means of uttering insulting words or languages was opened in January 1825 and located in New
on the part of prison staff to the prisoners to York City.
degrade or break the confidence of prisoners. A. Borstal Institution
A. Degradation B. Elmira Reformatory
B. Corporal Punishment C. New York House of Refuge
C. Monotony D. Panoptican Prison
D. Mass Movement 3648. One of the juridical conditions of
3640. The public will be protected if the Penalty, The consequence must be in accordance
offender has being held in conditions where he with the law it is a result of a judgment rendered
cannot harm others especially the public. by a court of justice.
Punishment is effected by placing offenders in A. Equal
prison so that society will be ensured from B. Legal
further criminal depredations of criminals. C. Commensurate w/ the offense
A. Deterrence D. Personal
B. Incapacitation & Protection 3649. X was sentenced to serve with a
C. Retribution penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
D. Atonement jurisdiction to detain him?
3641. He is the first leader to prescribe
imprisonment as correctional treatment for major A. BuCor
offenders also responsible for the abolition of C. BJMP
death penalty and torture as a form of B. PNP
punishment. D. AFP
A. John Howard 3650. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve
B.Charles Montesquieu Prison Correctional. What is the duration of his
C. William Penn penalty?
D. Jeremy Bentham A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y
3642. Director of the Prisons of Valencia, C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y
Spain who divided prisoners into companies and B. 6M1D to 6 Y
appointed prisoners as petty officer in charge. D. 1M&1D – 6 M
A. Domets of France 3651. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
C. Manuel Montesimos A. Old Bilibid Prison
B. Zebulon Brockway B. Manila City Jail
D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise C. NBP
D. May Halique Estate

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 3652. Formerly known as the Luhit Penal C. VII, VIII, IX & X
Settlement. D. Either of these
A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm 3661. Convicts committed to BUCOR are
B. San Ramon Prison brought to RDC for a total period of ____ for
C. Sablayan Prison classification and determination of appropriate
D. New Bilibid Prison program.
3653. When an inmate is given a A. 60 days
“shakedown” before admission it meant B. 55 days
A. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and C. 5 days
Photograph D. NONE
B. Examination for Contraband
C. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk 3662. One of the components of RDC which
D. All of These is responsible in the examination of the prisoner’s
3654. ____ is the Chairman of the mental and emotional make-up.
Classification Board in BJMP. A. Medical Center
A. Assistant Warden B. Sociologist
B. Medical Officer C. Psychologist
C. Chief, Security Officer D.Psychiatrist
D. Jail Chaplain 3663. The Bureau of Jail Management and
3655. A general agreed principle that women Penology was created thru ____ as one of the Tri
prisoners should be placed in a special building on Bureau under the Department of Interior and
the same site with the men prison. Local Government .
A. Diversification by Sex
A. Section 13, RA 6975 NAPOLCOM
B. Segregation
B. Section 53, RA 6975
C. Diversification by Age
C. Section 23 of RA 6975
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody
D. Section 60 of RA 6975
3656. What satellite of NBP does RDC is
3664. X was sentenced to serve with a
situated?
penalty of Reclusion Temporal who has the
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
jurisdiction to detain him?
B. Camp Sampaguita
A. BuCor
C. Main building
C. BJMP
D. Chapel
B. PNP
3657. What is the prescribed color of
D. AFP
uniform for Minimum Security Prisoners?
3665. All except one is included in the
A. Blue
command group of BJMP
B. Brown
A. Chief of Staff
C. Tangerine
B. Deputy C/BJMP
D.Gray
C. Chief of BJMP
3658. It is located in Sto. Tomas, Davao Del
D. Chief of Directorial staff
Norte, General Paulino Santos led the first
3666. One of the Administrative groups in
contingent which opened the colony.
BJMP responsible for preparation of the daily
A. Davao Penal Colony
menu, prepare and cook the food and serve it to
B. Tagum
inmates.
C. Panabo
A. Mess Service Branch
D. Kapalong
B. General Service Branch (maintenance)
E. Tanglaw
C. Budget and Finance Branch (financial)
3659. Gov. White E. Dwigth made the
D. Property and Supply Branch (logistics)
suggestion of the construction of this penal
3667. When the offender is in transit, the
institution and it was established on 1904 through
ratio of __ for every offender shall be observed.
the orders of Gov. Forbes. It is considered a one
A. 1:1+1
of the most open penal institutions in the world.
B. 1:2
A. Iwahig
C. 1:7
B. Tagumpay
D. 1:500
C. Sta. Lucia
3668. When the offender is in transit, in case
D. Inagawan
of ___ that demands extra precaution additional
3660. The following are the sub colonies of
guards shall be employed
Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm.
A. High Profile offender
I. Central III. Pusog
B. Female Offender
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang
C. High-risk offender
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong
D. Either of these
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan
3669. If the inmate agrees to abide by the
IX. Montible X. Central
same disciplinary rules imposed upon convicted
A. I, II, III, IV
prisoners, he shall be asked to, manifest his ___ in
B. V and VI
writing.

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 A. Certification 3678. Inmates earnings that may be used to
C. Agreement buy his needs.
B. Manifestation A. ½ of his earnings
D. Affidavit B. ¼ if his earnings
3670. John was sentenced to serve Arresto C. ¾ of his earnings
Mayor, what classification of sentenced prisoner D. Discretion of Warden
is John classified?
A. Municipal Prisoner 3679. GCTA is a kind of ___ that can only be
C. City Prisoner denied if the prisoner breaks the rules and only
B. Provincial Prisoner after due process is observed.
D. Insular Prisoner A. right
3671. Ser Chief is a newly arrived inmate B. Privileges
committed for the first time. He classified as a C. Discretion
____ among the classification of inmates D. liberty
according to privileges. 3680. A colonist when classified by the
A. 1st class inmate director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
B. 3rd class inmate punished with reclusion perpetua will have
C. 2nd class inmate benefit from an automatic reduction from
D. Colonist maximum term of forty years to ___.
3672. What classification of Prisoners A. 20 Years
according to Degree of Security if the prisoner B. 25 Years
cannot be trusted in open conditions and pose C. 30 Years
lesser danger than maximum-security prisoners in D. 35 Years
case they escape. 3681. Duration of viewing of privilege of a
A. Minimum Security Prisoners deceased relative is limited to ___ hours.
B. Medium Security Prisoners A. 3
C. Maximum Security Prisoners B. 9
D. Any of the Above C. 6
3673. What is the lowest authorized D. 12
disciplinary punishment imposable to inmates? 3682. Who among the following inmates may
A. Close Confinement not be allowed to see the remains of a dead
B. Extra-Fatigue Duty immediate family member?
C. Reprimand A. Minimum Security
D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges B.Maximum Security
3674. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP C. Medium Security
shall be between ___ in any calendar month D. None of these
provided that this punishment shall be imposed 3683. Telephone calls are permitted for
only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when inmates for a period not exceeding 5 minutes
other disciplinary measured had been proven every ___ days.
ineffective. A. 30
A. 30-60 days B. 90
C. 1-7 Days C. 60
B. 1 day D. 120
D. NONE 3684. If escorting an inmate a guard shall
3675. All except one are instruments of keep distance of not less than ____ paces from
restraints. his charge.
A. Handcuffs A. 10
B. Whipping Rod B. 30
C. Leg iron C. 15
D. Strait Jackets D. 45
3676. Inmates ____ may be excused from 3685. In mess hall and dining area for
mandatory prison labor. purposes of precaution, the prescribe utensil for
A. 60 years old inmates shall be made of:
B. 56 years old A. Wood
C. 50 years old B. Paper
D. 21 years old C. Plastic
3677. The _____ may grant GCTA to an D. Carton
inmate for good behavior with no record of 3686. It is a continuing state of good order.
disciplinary infraction or violation of prison rules A. Discipline
and regulation. B. Communication
A. Director of BJMP C. Morale
B. Warden D. Loyalty
C. President
D. Director of Corrections

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 3687. Unload as method in searching the A. STA
prisoner for possession of contraband’s inside the B. GCTA
prison cell and compound. C. Commutation
A. Frisking D.Visitation Privilege
B. Shakedown 3696. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal
C. Operation Greyhound and even individuals people conflicts:
D. Body Frisking A. Bodong
3688. It is considered as the highest income C. Capic
earner among the Philippine Correctional B. Korte Supremo
Institution. D. Hito
A. Iwahig Penal Colony 3697. The following are the aims of
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm diversification in prison or jail, except:
C. Davao Penal Colony A. more effective execution of treatment programs
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm B. to prevent physical contamination of one group or another
3689. The most common problem for C. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
national penitentiaries. D. none of the above
A. Excessive number of inmates 3698. It provides some opportunities for
B. Lack of funds inmates of a normal sex life.
C. Sex problems A. Maternal Visit
D. Discipline B. Sodomy
3690. Which of these authorizes the release C. Masturbation
of a detainee who has undergone preventive D. Conjugal Visit
imprisonment equivalent to the maximum 3699. An offender who surrenders from
imposable sentence for the offense he is charged escaping because of calamity immediately 48
with? hours after the pronouncement of the passing
A. B.P 85 away of calamity shall be granted
B. RA 4200 A. 1/5 reduction of sentence
C. B.P. 22 B. 1/2 reduction of sentence
D. PD 968 C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
3691. The act of prisoner trying to convert or D. 4/5 reduction of sentence
induce another to change his religious beliefs sect
or the like to another while under confinement is 3700. Which of these is known as the Release
referred to as on Recognizance Law providers for the release of
A. Proselytizing offender charged with an offense whose penalty
B. Initiation is not more than six (6) months and /or a fine of
C. Fraternization P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible
D. Inducement person in the community, instead of a bail bond-
3692. Who composed of guards trained on A. RA 6036
proper handling and use of firearms who shall be B. PD 603
ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in C. Act 2489
danger on orders of the Officer in Command. D. RA 9262
st
A. 1 group Anti-Riot 3701. If the Warden is taken as the hostage,
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot for all intents and purposes, he ceases to exercise
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot authority and the next in command or the ___
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot officer present shall assume the command.
A. Veteran
3693. Within the radius by road from the B. most senior
confinement facility and the actual stay of the C. assistant
inmates to view the remains. D. custodian
A. 20 kilometer 3702. In case of mass jailbreak, all member
B. 40 Kilometer of the custodial force shall be immediately issued
C. 30 Kilometer firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
D. 50 Kilometer A. plug off the escape routes
3694. Under RA 9344, what happens to the B. protect the other inmates
sentence of a Child in Conflict with the law after C. to shoot the escape
conviction of a trial Court? D. give warning shots
A. His sentence serve 3703. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in
B. His sentence is suspended progress or has just been perpetrated in the jail,
C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family the officer at the control centers shall
D. His sentence is NOT suspended immediately:
3695. One-fifth of the sentence for Loyalty A. sound the alarm
equivalent shall be deducted from the inmates B. notify the nearest police precinct
sentence if, after the inmate abandoned prison C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
due to disorder arising D. call the warden or the director

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 3704. The following are the duties of the 3713. In case if jailbreaks, who will
custodial force in prison, except: immediately sound the alarm?
A. Censor offender’s inmate A. Desk Officer
B. Escort inmates B. Armorer
C. Inspect security devices C. Control Center
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing D. Officer-in-Charge
3705. It served as the cornerstone or 3714. It is designed to improve their
rehabilitation communication and computation skills, such as
A. Religion the ability to read and write in order to enhance
B. Education their individual educational level.
C. Discipline A. Skills Training
D. Recreational B. Adult Education
3706. Maiming; Physical Torture; C. Secondary Education
Electrocution; ____ D. Non-Formal Education for Adults
A. Social degradation 3715. Detention Prisoners are allowed to
B. Exile smoke cigars and cigarettes, except in prohibited
C. Physical torture cases. The statement is –
D. Death Penalty A. Partially true
3707. It refers to those items, though B. Partially false
authorized, is already in excessive quantities to C. Absolute False
become a fire hazard, a threat to security or has D. Absolutely True
become causative in making the place unsanitary. 3716. All persons in custody shall before final
A. Contraband conviction, be entitled to bail as a matter of ____
B. Paraphernalia A. Right
C. Prohibited items B. preference
D.Nuisance Contraband C. Privilege
3708. It refers to the entrusting for D. Discretion
confinement of an inmate to a jail by competent 3717. The visiting room officer shall be
court or authority for investigation, trial and/or responsible for compiling the regular visiting list
service of sentence for each inmate.
A. Commitment A. Special Visitor
B. Safekeeping B. Strange Visitor
C. Entrustment C. Regular Visitor
D. Imprisonment D. Unusual visitor
3709. This was the right in ecclesiastical 3718. ____responsible for handling the keys
court during the middle ages particularly in in Women’s quarter and the keys shall be
England. available all the time.
A. Inquisition A. Key Matron
B. Incapacitation B. .Resident Matron
C. Benefit of Clergy C. Matron
D. Retribution D. Any of these
3710. The inmates may request a review of 3719. Ms. Malou Wang has duration of
the findings of the Disciplinary Board and the penalty of 6 years and one day to 12 years. What
propriety and the penalty to the ____. correctional facility he should be incarcerated?
A. Chairman of Disciplinary Board A. Bureau of Correction
B. BJMP B. Prision Correctional
C. Central office/BJMP C. Prision Mayor
D. Warden D. BJMP
3711. If the inmate fails to claim his letter 3720. Mr. Abdul Salsalani was convicted of
within ____ after it has been posted, the mail the crime murder. After 12 days from the
should be delivered to him. promulgation of the sentence he escaped from
his place of confinement. Abdul Salsalani is:
A. 48 hours A. liable of evasion of service of sentence
B. 24 hours B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
C. 30 days C. considered as an escaped prisoner
D. 60 days D. Either of C
3712. All letters passed by censors should 3721. It should be executed by the
bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of each page interviewer, which will exempt prison authorities
and on the envelope. The letter should be placed from any liability arising from death or injury
back in the same envelope and resealed. sustained while in prison:
A. Back A. Waiver of Liability
B. Conspicuous Area B. Waiver of Responsibility
C. Side C. Waiver of Acceptance
D. Top D. Waiver of Agreement

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 3722. Before the actual date of interview the D. Security Teams
media shall file request within ____ 3731. Who among the following shall be
A. 1 day responsible in the custody of all the properties
B. 3 days seized from the detainee prior to his detention?
C. 2 days A. Custodial Officer
D. 8 days B. Chief of Detention Center
3723. Who should make an immediate C. Evidence Custodian Officer
preparation for the issuance of the necessary D. Court
anti-riot equipment and firearms? 3732. Female detainees shall not be
A. the Warden transported in handcuffs but only with necessary
C. Director for operation restraint and proper escort preferably aided by a
B. Director police woman. The statement is
D. Desk Officer A. Yes
3724. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a B. Wholly True
chief with a rank of Director, and assisted by C. Partially False
Deputy Chief with the rank of Senior D. Wholly False
Superintendent. This sentence is 3733. Ms. Malou Wang, a prisoner, learns
A. partially true that she is already overstaying in jail because her
C. true jail guard, Benny B. Rotcha, who happens to be a
B. partially false law student advised her that there is no more
D. false legal ground for his continued imprisonment, and
3725. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for Benny told her that she can go. Ms. Malou Wang
the treatment of offenders prescribes that penal got out of jail and went home. Was there any
facilities should not exceed _____ inmates. crime committed?
A. 1000 A. Evasion of Service
B. 1500 B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
C. 1200 C. Evasion through Negligence
D. 2000 D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3726. Who among the following inmates may 3734. As far as Benny B. Rotcha, the jail
not be allowed to see the remains of a dead guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang to go, is
immediate family members? concerned, the crime committed is:
A. Minimum security A. Evasion of Service
B. Maximum security B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
C. Medium security C. Evasion through Negligence
D. None of these D. Delay in the Delivery of prison
3727. Minimum number of times in counting 3735. This refers to the one-in-charge of a
the inmates on a daily basis. Prison.
A. Two A. Director
B. Four C. Warden
C. Three B. Superintendent
D. Five D. Wardress
3728. Ideal number of days for an inmate to 3736. What correctional institution houses
be placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception accused persons awaiting investigation?
and Diagnostic Center . A. BUCOR
A. 55 days B. Jail
B. 5 days C. Penitentiary
C. 60 days D. Prison
D. 15 days 3737. Who supervised and control the
3729. In the 13th century, a criminal could Provincial Jail.
avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a church A. DILG
for a period of ___ at the end of which time he B. Governor
has compelled to leave the realm by a road or C. DOJ
path assigned to him. D. LGU

A. 30 days 3738. It is one of the earliest devices for

B. 50 days softening brutal severity of punishment through a
C. 40 days compromise with the church.
D. 60 days A. Benefit of Clergy
3730. In Operation Greyhound, all orders B. None
concerning troop movements will emanate from C. Rehabilitation
him. D. Retribution
A. Assistant team leader 3739. Richard Alden was convicted to serve a
B. Team Leader penalty of 6 years imprisonment for usurpation of
C. Ground Commander a person in authority due to his frequent

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 introduction of himself as NBI agent, what would 3749. If Jail Officer I Masunurin was
be his classification under PD 29? appointed in 2013 at a monthly salary of 19,000,
A. Detention prisoner how much is longevity pay in 2018?
B. Municipal prisoner A. 9000 pesos
C.Provincial prisoner B. 1900 pesos
D. Insular prisoner C. 9500 pesos
3740. Theory which states that criminal D. NONE
behavior is learned in interaction with other 3750. An inmate shall be transferred to a
persons in the process of communication. separation center for adjustment process from
A. Differential Association Theory life in prison to life is free community within –
B. Social Disorganization Theory A. 60 days prior to release
C. Classical Theory B. 30 days prior to release
D. Strain Theory C. 90 days before release
3741. Having a pornographic materials inside D. 15 days prior to release
jail is a? 3751. How many days are given to the
A. Minor offense disciplinary board of BJMP to resolve issue?
B. Moral Turpitude A. 5 working days
C. Grave Offense B. 2 days
D. Less grave offense C. 30 working days
3742. A chemical that is injected to a Death D. 24 hours
Convict that puts him into deep sleep in lethal 3752. How long does an inmate mother who
injection. gave birth inside the jail is allowed to be with his
A. Potassium Chloride (stops heart beat) B. child?
Hydrogen Peroxide (Paralyzes the muscles) C. Sodium A. 6 months
Thiopenthotal B. 1 year
D. Sodium chloride (salt) C. 2 years
3743. If a regular convicted prisoner has 3 D. 7 years
shifting guards, X which is a Death Convict should 3753. A colonist when classified by the
have___. director of the Bureau of Corrections who is
A. 2 Shifting Guards punished with reclusion perpetua will have
B. 3 Shifting Guards benefit from an automatic reduction from a
C. 4 Shifting Guards maximum term of forty years to ____.
D. 5. Shifting Guards A. 20 years
3744. How do inmates know that they have B. 25 years
letters? C. 30 years
A. A list of mails for inmates is posted D. 35 years
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee 3754. Close confinement in Prison shall not
D. Inmate with letters are called to the Jail Warden’ Office exceed –
3745. What is referred to as “hustling” inside A. 45 days
the prison? B. 30 to 60 days
A. Reporting illegal activities C. 7 days
B. Doing prison assignment D. 15 days
C. Using prohibited drugs 3755. Abdul Jackonini was sentenced to
D. Selling illegal commodities imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25,
3746. ____ program employs prisoner in 2013 the judge who promulgated the decision
various product or good-producing tasks. died. What is the effect of the judge’s death to
A. Agricultural the service of Abdul’s sentence?
B. Industrial A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
C. Operational B. He will have to serve his sentence
D. Administrative C. His sentence will be suspended
3747. The 2nd group shall not use riot control D. His sentence will be reduced
gases, except on orders of the –

A. Desk Officer
B. Armorer 3756. It is the national record of a prisoner at
C. Control Center New Bilibid Prison.
D. Officer-in-Charge A. Mittimus
3748. Detention Prisoners are NOT allowed B. Carpeta
to have a Conjugal Visit. The statement is – C. Commitment Order
A. True D. Prison Record
B. Maybe True 3757. How many days before election does
C. Maybe False inmate are prohibited from going out?
D. False A. 30 days

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 B. 90 Days A. To keep away the civilian population from entering the
C. 60 Days institution.
D. 120 Days B. It is designed to prevent escapes.
3758. Maya is in prison for the past 48 C. It is designed for agricultural purposes
months and has never been involved in any D. It is designed to facilitate open view of the surrounding.
trouble, no matter how minor. If you were the 3766. It is the primary objective of custodial
prison director, how many days for each month and security division?
would you approve as Maya’s good conduct time A. To prevent riots
allowance? B. To implement discipline
A. 5 days C. To prevent escapes
B. 8 days D. To help in the reformation of prisoners
C. 10 days 3767. 230. When the death penalty was still
D. 12 days enforced by means of lethal injection, four guards
3759. A powerful earthquake destroyed a keep a death watch, the convict is confined in an
prison where W,X,Y & Z are inmates. All, except Z, individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled
escaped. W surrendered after 24 hours, X b. time of execution which is usually 3:00 in the
surrendered after 24 hours, X surrendered after 2 afternoon.
days and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who among A. 6
them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance B. 24
for Loyalty under Art. 98. C. 12
D. 36
A. X 3768. What is the population of a type A Jail?
C. W A. More than 100
B. Y B. 20 or less
D. Z C. 21 to 99
3760. Which of the following organizations D. 101 to 150
donated the Half-way House inside the 3769. This theory assumes that people are
compound of the Bureau of Corrections? law abiding but under great pressure they will
A. Office of the President resort to crime and that disparity between goals
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office and means provides that pressure.
C. United Nations Security Council A. Differential Association Theory
D. Asia Crime Foundation B. Psychoanalytic Theory
D. Strain Theory
3761. Mail letters of a Death Convict should 3770. This is also known as “Youth Camps”
be documented within ____ before the and is being maintained by Bucor where youth
execution. offenders may serve their sentence in lieu of
A. 24 hours confinement in a prison.
B. 72 hours A. AFP Stockade
C. 48 hours B. Agricultural and Forestry Camps
D. NONE C. Social Camps
3762. Involves the formulation of a tentative D. A or C
treatment program best suited to the needs of 3771. It was established in 1910 under the
the individual prisoner, based on the findings. American Regime.
A. treatment planning A. Philippine Prison System
C. reclassification B. Provincial Jail System
B. Execution of treatment Plan C. Probation
D. Diagnosis D. Parole
3763. An authorization that permits inmate 3772. The following are the requisite of a
to leave place of confinement for emergency valid Commitment Order EXCEPT:
reasons. A. Signature of the Judge
A. Furlough B. Seal of the Court
B. Prisonization C. Valid Identification of Prisoner
C. Diversification D. Signature of the Clerk
D. Counseling 3773. A prisoner having the natural
inclination or tendency to evade custody against
the will of the custodian or from the place where
3764. A warden who limits his role to he is held in lawful custody or confinement.
consider policy matters and major problems, his A. Escape Prone Prisoner
responsibility is centered on:
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
A. Decision Making C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
B. Personnel Program D. Alien Prisoner
C. Public Relations 3774. Where a person commits FELONY
D. Executive Leadership before beginning to serve or while serving his
3765. For minimum security institution, the sentence on a previous conviction
purpose of fencing the surrounding is:
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 A. Quasi-recidivism A. 1 and 2
B. Reiteration B. 3 and 4
C. Habitual Delinquency C. 1 and 3
D. Recidivism D. 2 and 3
3783. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command
3775. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is in BJMP?
found in possession of dangerous drugs can be A. Deputy for Administration
considered a quasi-recidivist? B. Chief, Directorial Staff (4th in command)
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while serving his C. Deputy for Operation (3rd in command)
sentence D. Any of these
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in prison 3784. All original appointments of officers in
C. No. because what he violated is not a Felony the jail bureau shall commence with the rank of
D. A and B ___
A. JO1
3776. What is the legal process that results in B. Jail Inspector
the removal of conviction from the official C. JO11
records? D. Jail Senior Inspector
A. Mitigation 3785. What is the minimum tank required to
B. Expungement be appointed as Chief Bureau of Jail Management
C. Exoneration and Penology?
D. Restriction A. Superintendent
3777. Who advocated the principle that the B. C/Superintendent
basis of all social actions must be the utilitarian C. Senior Superintendent
conception of the greatest happiness for the D. Director
greatest number? 3786. It is a means correcting an offender by
A. John Howard placing him to an institution where he can be
B. Jeremy Bentham treated well until he becomes fully recovered and
C. Cesare Becaria accepted by the community.
D. George Void A. Institutional Corrections
3778. Prison work assignments are usually B. Non Institutional Correction
given to prisoners. C. BJMP
A. After recreational activities D. Parole
B. At early morning hours 3787. This is the basic needs of a convicted
C. Before sleeping hours person under custody.
D. During middle hours of the day a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes
3779. Forced is used only by correctional to, b. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks
A. Exact respect A. a,b,c,d
B. Enforce discipline B. a,c,d,e
C. Show physical strength and power C. c,d,e,f
D. Perform assignments D. a,b,d,f
3780. One of the effects of social stigma 3788. It is a conditional release after the
maintained by an unforgiving society against prisoner’s conviction is final and executory and
criminals is ____. has already served the minimum period of the
A. Worked out good relationship with the community sentence imposed to him.
B. Respond to a rehabilitation program A. Parole
C. Difficulties in securing employment B. Word of Hohor
D. Fostered friendship with co-prisoner B. Parole d’ Honeur
3781. With respect to the UN Standard D.Probare
Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, 3789. He is the Governor/Superintendent in
which of the following should NOT be done to the Norfolk Island, a penal colony in the East of
prisoners? Australia and initiated the famous “Mark
A. Untried prisoners shall be kept separate from convicted System”.
prisoners. A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Young offenders shall be kept separated from adult B. Edward Savage
prisoners. C. Walter Crofton
C. Women prisoners shall be segregated and kept away from D. Edward Savage
male prisoners. 3790. Ex-officio Chairperson of board of
D. Female prisoner shall be allowed to have her children stay Pardons and Parole.
with her. A. Administrator
3782. Which of the following unusual B. Sec. of DOJ
offender should be under the close supervision of C. Sociologist
the jail physician? D. Clergyman
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick 3791. It is known as the Indeterminate
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners Sentence Law that creates the board of

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 Indeterminate Sentence which took effect on B. Search Warrant
December 5, 1933. C. Order of Arrest
A. EO 83 S. 1937 D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
B. EO 94 3800. What is the effect of the
C. Act 4103 recommitment of a Parolee?
D. EO 292 A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
3792. All except one are the requisites to be B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
eligible for review of a Parole cases. C. Minimum sentence impose
A. Final conviction D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one yr 3801. As a general rule, a Parolee may not
C. served the minimum period of said sentence transfer residence stated in the release document
D. None of the above except if the petition for transfer of residence is
3793. All except one are objectives of the approved by ____.
Parole System. A. Regional Director
A. It standardize the penalty B. Probation & Parole Officer
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty C. BOARD
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic D. Administration
usefulness 3802. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without may authorize outside travel his area of
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and protecting jurisdiction for a period of NOT more than ___.
social order A. 30 days
3794. Director of Prisons has the B. 15 days
responsibility to forward the document to the C. 20 days
board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s D. 10 days
minimum sentence. 3803. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30
A. 15 days days shall be approved by the ____.
B. 45 days A. Regional Director
C. 30 days B. Probation & Parole Officer
D. 60 days C. BOARD
3795. The board shall assess and determine D. Administration
whether the petitioner is qualified for Parole, the 3804. A parolee may work or travel abroad if
decision or action must be suspended by ____ of he has NO pending criminal case in any court.
the members of the board. Application for travel and work abroad shall be
A. 4 votes approved by the Administration and confirmed by
B. Majority the ____.
C. 5 members of the Board A. Regional Director
D. at least four (4) votes C. BOARD
3796. If petition for Parole was granted, B. Probation and Parole Officer
BOARD will issue a ____ or specifically known as D. Administration
discharge on parole. 3805. Parole is not claimed as a right but the
A. Release Document Board of Parole grants it as a privilege to a
B. Final Release & Discharge qualified prisoner. This is statement is:
C. Discharge on Parole A. Partially true
D. Summary Report C. True
3797. One of the mandatory conditions B. Partially false
attached to the parolee is to report at least once D. False
a month for those residing outside Metro 3806. The following are disqualifications for
Manila/to report at least twice a month for those Parole to be granted.
who are residing in Metro Manila. a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence;
A. True b. those who have pending criminal case;
B. Partially True c. habitual delinquencies;
C. False d. suffering from any mental disorder; and
D. Partially False e. conviction is on appeal
3798. The Probation and Parole Officer A. a,b,c, and e
submits ___ if parolee commits any violation of B. a,b,c, and d
the terms and conditions stated in the release C. b,c,d, and e
document. D. a,b,c,d, and e
A. Violation Report 3807. It is exercise exclusively within the
B. Progress Report sound discretion of the President for the
C. Infraction Report objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice or
D. Summary Report correcting manifests injustice.
3799. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD A. Parole
may issue an ____ against the parolee. B. Pardon
A. Warrant of Arrest C. Executive

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 D. Reprieve 3816. The power of the Chief Executive to
3808. Who has the authority to assist the grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT:
Chief Executive in his exercise of the power to A. Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment
grant executive clemency? B. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
A. DOJ violation of any election law may be granted without
B. BOARD favourable recommendation of the Commission of Elections
C. Administration C. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
D. Administrator D. Pardon is administered by the Court
3809. Kind of Executive Clemency which 3817. Pardon can be extended to any of the
exempts an individual within certain limits or cases, EXCEPT:
conditions from the punishment that the law A. Carnapping
inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting B. Impeachment
from the partial extinction of his criminal liability. B. Estafa
A. Absolute Pardon D. Parricide
B. Reprieve 3818. Father of Philippine Probation.
C. Commutation of Sentence A. John Augustus
D. Conditional Pardon B. Edward Savage
3810. Pardon by the President shall be C. Matthew Davenport Hill
extended ____. D. Teodulo Natividad
A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action 3819. First juvenile court established in 1899
B. After Conviction of Final Judgment A. Chicago
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information B. Massachusetts
D. Upon the discretion of the President C. England
3811. A pardon violator upon conviction will D. Philippines
be liable for imprisonment of “prision 3820. Federal Probation act signed by
correctional”. President Calvin Coolidge became a Law on
A. Article 95 of RPC _____.
B. Article 59 of RPC A. April 26, 1878
C. Article 159 of RPC B. 1899
D. A and C C. 1887
3812. On Executive Clemency petition filed D. March 4, 1925
by prisoner should be addressed to ____. 3821. Probation in Philippines was first
A. Board introduced by virtue of ___ also known as
B. Administrator Philippine Probation Act of 1935
C. Chairman of BPP A. HB 393
D. President B. PD 968
3813. Who shall endorse to the Board the C. Act 4221
petition for absolute or conditional pardon if the D. RA 4221
crime committed is against the national security? 3822. Celebrated case which paved the way
A. DFA Secretary for declaring unconstitutional of the first
B. COMELEC probation law of November 16, 1937
C. DOJ Secretary A. People vs. Vera
D. DND Secretary B. People vs. De Vera
3814. Any wilful or malicious concealing C. People vs. De Vega
material information made by the client either or D. People vs. Vega
after the grant of Conditional Pardon or Parole is 3823. How long is the period of probation of
a ground for the BOARD to – a defendant sentenced to a term of imprisonment
A. Extend the period of Supervision of not more than one (1) year?
B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document A. Not to exceed 6 years
C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional B. Not to exceed 8 years
Pardon C. Not to exceed 10 years
D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior D. Not to exceed 2 years
has shown by the client 3824. The power of the Chief Executive to
3815. All except one are the instances grant pardon is limited to the following, EXCEPT:
wherein supervision of parole and conditional A. Pardon is administered by the court
pardon case deemed to archive/close. B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
against the client violation of any election law may granted without favourable
B. Certificate of transfer of resident recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and discharge of D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
the client 3825. What court will you apply for
D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the deceased Probation?
client A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below

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 C. Same court, where you had been convicted B. Three days prior to issuance
D. Any of these C. Upon its issuance
3826. Waiting for the decision of the court D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
on the application for probation, the offender 3835. Which of the following cases is
applying for probation – disqualified to apply for probation?
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee A. Infanticide
B. Maybe set free without bail C. Simple Theft
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance B. Malicious Mischief
D. all of these D.Unjust Vexation
3827. When will the court deny application 3836. Who appoints Probation
for probation of a petitioner? Administrator, Regional Probation Officers and
A. Petitioner is a foreigner Assistant Probation Officers?
B. Petitioner is a drug dependent A. DILG Secretary
C. Petitioner violates the condition B. President
D. Petitioner can be treated well in an institution C. DOJ Secretary
3828. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve D. Administrator
a penalty of Prision Correctional. Is he qualified to 3837. How many days are given to the court
apply for probation? to act on application for probation?
A. Yes A. 15 days
B. True B. 60 days
C. No C. 10 days
D. False D. 5 days
3829. Violations of the following Special Laws 3838. Probationer and his Probation Officer
shall disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits will prepare a _____.
of PD 968. A. Associate Plan
A. Omnibus Election Code B. Supervision & Treatment Plan
B. Robbery C. Treatment Program
C. Wage Rationalization Act D. Orientation Plan
D. Videogram Law 3839. One of the mandatory conditions to a
probationer is to present himself to the probation
3830. As a general rule Violation of officer designated to undertake his supervision
Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is within ___ from receipt of said order.
disqualify to apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
A. Section 12 A. 24 hours
B. Section 14 B. 72 hours
C. Section 13 C. 48 hours
D. Section 17 D. 150 hours
E. Section 70 3840. When shall probation order take
3831. This decree mandated the effect?
disqualification of the petitioner’s application for A. Three days after issuance
probation if an appeal is perfected. B. Upon its issuance
A. PD 1357 C. Three Days Prior to Issuance
B. BP 76 D. Upon Reporting to the Probation Officer
C. PD 968 3841. Modifications of conditions for
D.PD 1257 probation is allowed ___.
3832. He is a convicted defendant whose A. 15 days after granting it
application for probation has been given due B. At any time during supervision
course by the court but fails to report to the C. Upon the application of the community
probation officer or cannot be located within a D. Any of these
reasonable period of time.
A. Absconding Petitioner
B. Absconding Probationer
C. Disobedient Petitioner
D. Uncooperative Petitioner
3833. Probation is a privilege granted to 3842. If the Probationer did not comply with
deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it the conditions, if the reasons for non-compliance
become a matter of right? is not meritorious the court will issue a ____.
A. After the submission of the PSIR A. termination order
B. When the convict files a petition for probation B. Warrant of Arrest
C. When the appeal was undertaken C. OAR
D. When his probation is approved D. Revocation Order
3834. When shall probation order take 3843. What is the effect of the
effect? recommitment of a Probationer?
A. Three days after issuance A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence

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 B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence 3853. Volunteer Probation Aides may be
C. Minimum sentence impose appointed from among the citizen’s of ____
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full A. Good religious background
3844. Under rules and methods employed by B. High Educational Level
probation, what is the maximum number of C. Good Repute and Probity
minor violations that would result in the D. High Social Standing
revocation of the probation order? 3854. It refers to the manner or practice of
A. 5 Violations managing or controlling places of confinement as
B. 3 Violations in jails or prisons.
C. 4 Violations A. Penology
D. 2 Violations B. Penal Management
3845. Maximum number of probationers C. Correctional Administration
under supervision of a probation aide D. Correction
A. 3 3855. It refers to a long, low narrow, single
B. 7 decked ships propelled by sails, usually rowed by
C. 5 criminals. A. type of ship used for transportation
D. 9 of criminals in the 16th century.
3846. Probation is a privilege granted to A. Gaols
deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it B. Galleys
become a matter of right? C. Hulks
A. After submission of the PSIR D. D. Mamertine Prison
B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. When the appeal was undertaken 3856. Represented the earliest codification
D. When the probation is approved of Roman Law incorporated into the Justinian
3847. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Code. It is also collection of legal principles
Probation Law? engraved on metal tablets and set up on .
A. Criminal A. Twelve Tablets
B. Society B. Burgundian Code
C. Family C. Hammurabic Code
D. Governor D. Greek code of Draco
3848. It refers to those that handle the
investigation of petitioners for probation, and the 3857. The most popular workhouse in
supervision of probationers, parolees and London which was built for the employment and
conditional pardonees. housing of English prisoners.
A. Parole and Probation Administration A. Bridewell
B. Board of Pardons and Parole B. Hospicio de San Michelle
C. Secretary of Justice C. Saint Bridget” Well
D. Department of Justice D. Walnut Street Jail
3849. Post Sentence Investigation report
must be submitted by the probation officer to the 3858. Who appoints Probation
court within Administrator, Regional Probation Officers and
A. 20 days Assistant Probation Officers?
B. 60 days A. DILG Secretary
C. 30 days C. President
D. 90 days B. DOJ Secretary
3850. Those that have been once on D. Administrator
probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison 3859. It is the branch of criminology which
3851. Maximum term of office for those deals with the management and administration of
appointed as members of the Board of Pardon inmates:
a. Criminal justice
and Parole.
b. Penology
A. 3 years c. Victimology
B. 5 years d. d. Jail Management
C. 4 years
D. 6 years 3860. Any article, thing, or item prohibited
3852. When will you close a probation case? by law/ or forbidden by jail rules is called:
A. When the probationer absconds the place a. Instrument of restraint
b. contraband
B. When he incurred violations
c. Handcuff
C. When there is recommendation for revocation d. leg iron
D. When the termination order is approved 3861. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, city
and municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and sanitary and

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adequately equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping of city, a. Good conduct turning allowance
municipal prisoners, any fugitive from justice or persons detained b. . good conduct time allowance
awaiting for investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National c. Good conduct training allotment
Penitentiary: d. d. none of the foregoing
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Dep’t of Social Welfare and Development 3873. It is a form of bails that the court may release a person in
b. Jail Bureau custody of a responsible person.
c. Department of Justice a. Property bond
3862. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day or as
b. Recognizance
often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for:
a. Two c. Corporate surety
b. Four d. Cash deposit
c. Three 3874. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the
d. d. Five Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the:
3863. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the  a.   Department of Justice
frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that warrants b. Chief Executive
limitations:
c.    Judiciary
a. Media group
b. news team d. Legislative
c.Press pool  338. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend
d. public affairs the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish
3864. An infant born while the mother is serving sentence in CIW criminal liability.
may be allowed to stay with the mother for a period not exceeding:   a. Parole
a. 1 month c. Pardon
b. 1 year
  b. Executive clemency
c. 6 months
d. 6 years d. none of the above
3865. BUCOR has two (2) Assistant Directors, one for 3875. The B.J.M.P. is under
Administration and Rehabilitation and one for: the administration of the:
a. Health and Care services   a.    DILG c. BUCor
b. Prisons and Security   b.    PNP
c. Correction and Rehabilitation d. Custody and Security
d. DOJ
3876. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to 
3866. A representative of the news media may file a written a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
request with the head of prison for a personal interview of an   a.    Amnesty    
inmate that he/she shall file a written request at least: c. Reprieve
a. One day   b.    Commutation
b. two days d. none of the foregoing
c. Three days
3877. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
d. four days
3867. This is the process wherein prison officials try to convert of punishment.
inmates and be affiliated into their religion:   a.   Retribution
a. Conversions b. Punishment
b. agitation   c.   Deterrence
c. Proselytizing d. Rehabilitation
d. Captivation 3878. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called
3868. Prisoner who violated prison rules may be punished by a
  a.    Reprieve
confinement in a disciplinary cell from _ to _ months depending
upon the gravity of the offense committed: c. Amnesty
a. One to two   b.    Pardon
b. one to three d. Communication
c. One to four
d. one to five
3869. During the 11th and successive years of following years of
prisoners imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of __
days for each month of good behaviour:
a. Five 3879. Defined by the BJMP refers to a person who is accused
b. eight before a court or competent authority and is temporarily confined in
c. Ten jail while undergoing or awaiting investigation, trial or final
d. fifteen judgment.
3870. During the following years until the 10 th year, inclusive, of a. Prisoner
inmate’s imprisonment, he shall be allowed to a deduction of:
b. Bail
a. Five
b. eight c. Detainee
c. Ten d. Arrest
d. fifteen 3880. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted
3871. During the first two years of inmates imprisonment, he shall except upon a complaint filed by whom?
be allowed a deduction of: a. Parents
a. Five days b. Offended Spouse
b. ten days
c. Guardians
c. Seven days
d. twelve days d. Godfather
3872. GCTA means: 3881. He is considered as the American Pioneer of Probation

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a. Matthew Davenport Hill a.    1/5 reduction of sentence
b. John Augustus b.   1/2 reduction of sentence 
c. Father Cook c.    2/5 reduction of sentence
d. d. Edward Savage d.    2/6 reduction of sentence                             
3882.   Which of the following is an executive clemency that 3893. He is considered as the father of probation in the Philippines.
requires  the concurrence of congress? a. Ferdinand Marcos
a.   probation     b. Teodulo Natividad
b. Amnesty c. Fidel Ramos
c.   pardon d. Antonio Torres
d. Parole 3894.  The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
3883. Post sentence investigation report must  be submitted by a.    Commutation        
the  probation officer to the court within  b.    Reform model
 a. 20 days   c.    Amnesty
c. 60 days  d.    Pardon     
 b. 30 days  3895. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged
d. none of the above with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those
3884.     Parole is a matter of ___. sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3)
 a.    privilege years
 b.    right  a.   BJMP    
 c.    grace  b.   Bureau of Corrections
 d. requirement                                                 c.   Provincial Government  
3885.    For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.  d.   Parole and Probation Administration
 a.  punishment 3896.  Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what
 b.  treatment government agency
 c.  enjoyment a. Parole and Probation Administration
 d.  incarceration    b. Board of Pardons and Parole
3886. PPA is headed by: c. Probation and Parole Administration
a. Director d. Board of Parole and Pardons
b. Administrator 3897.   It is known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006.
c. Secretary a. R.A. 7610
d. Superior b. P.D. 603
3887.    Is a pecuniary punishment imposed by the law tribunal c. R.A. 9262
upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor. d. R.A. 9344
a. Remission 3898.    The head of the Bureau of Corrections is the:
b. Forfeiture a.    Director
c. Fine b.    Secretary of the dnd
d. All of the above c.    Chief of executive
3888.    Who may grant GCTA to an inmate who displays good d.    Prison inspector                                   
behavior and no record of violation of prisons rules and regulations 3899.  A term means a friend of a court
a. President a. Amicos curae
b. Director of Prisons b. Amigos curae
c. Warden c. Amicus curiae
d. None of the above d. None of the above
3889.   A person who is placed under probation. 3900.  The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she
a. Petitioner may not commit another crime in the future.
b. Probationer a.   Retribution
c. Probationee b.   Deterrence
d. None of the above c.   Incapacitation
d.   Rehabilitation  

3890.      It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of

the individual to whom it is granted without any condition. 3901. He is considered as the father of Probation in England.
a. Special pardon a. Matthew Davenport Hill
b. Absolute pardon b. Father Cook
c. Conditional pardon c. John Augustus
d. General pardon d. Edward Savage
3891. Which is not a form of bail? 3902.  An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
a. Cash deposit provides  a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who
b. Corporate surety are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
c. Recognizance programs.
d. Title bond     a.   BJMP    
3892.   An offender who surrenders  from escaping because  of     b.   Bureau of  Corrections
calamity  immediately  48 hours  after the pronouncement of  the     c.   Provincial Government  
passing  away  of calamity  shall be granted     d.   Parole and Probation Administration

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3903.     Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an c. Probation
ordinary crime. d. None of the above
a. General pardon 3913.  The who investigates  for the  court a referral  for probation
b. Absolute pardon or supervises a probationer or both
c. Conditional pardon a. police officer 
d. Special pardon b. probationer officer
3904.   Refers to incurring of a liability to pay a definite sum of c. intelligence officer
money as the consequence of violating the provisions of some d. law enforcer  
statute or refusal to comply with some requirement of law.                                         
a. Remission 3914.   When does probation revocable before the final discharge
b. Forfeiture of the probationer by the court for the violation of any of the
c. Fine conditions of probation.   
d. All of the above a. any time during probation
3905. The power of the chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
the following, except: c. after 1 year under probation
    a.  Pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment.  d. none of the above
    b. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the 3915. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been
violation  of any election law may be granted without favorable subsequently convicted of another crime;
recommendation of the Commission of Elections.  a. progress report
     c. Pardon is exercised only after conviction b. violation report
     d. Pardon is administered by the court         c. infraction report
3906.  It refers to commission of another crime during service of d. arrest report
sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense. 3916. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one:
      a.   Recidivism     a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
      b.   Delinquency b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty,
      c.   Quasi-recidivism reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment
      d.   City prisoner  c. those who are habitual delinquents
3907. It refers to leniency or mercy. d. none of the above
a. Power 3917. During the 11th and successive years of imprisonment of an
b. Clemency inmate, he shall allowed a deduction of how many days for each
c. Grace month for displaying good behavior?
d. Damages a. 10 days
3908. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a b. 15 days
certain category. c. 8 days
a. Special pardon d. 5 days
b. Absolute pardon 3918. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for
c. Conditional pardon a time after conviction and sentence.
d. General pardon a. Reprieve
3909.   During the 3rd to 5th year inclusive of imprisonment of an b. Amnesty
inmate, He shall allow a deduction of how many days for each c. Probation
month for displaying good behavior? d. Commutation
a. 10 days 3919. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
b. 15 days a. Administrator
c. 8 days b. Warden
d. 5 days c. Director
3910.   The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the d. Commander
state which exempts an individual from the punishment which 3920. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the parole?
President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and  a.    President
Pardon is  called:  b.    Board of Pardons and Parole
a. Amnesty  c.    Director of Prison
b. Parole  d.    Court     
c. Probation
d. Pardon        
3911. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty.                                      
a. Reprieve 3921. The Bureau of Corrections is under the:
b. Amnesty a.    Department of Social Welfare and Development
c. Probation   b.    Department of Justice
  c.    Department of the Interior and Local Government
d. Commutation
  d.    Department of Health
3912. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a 3922. is the redress that the state takes against an offending
correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his member of society that usually involves pain and suffering:
prison sentences. a. incarceration
a. Parole b. floggings
b. Pardon c. ordeal
d. punishment

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 a. Corrections
3923. This code introduced the concept of restitution. But b. Penology
punishments were meted according to the social class of the c. Classical
offender: d. Positivist
a. Justinian code 3934. This school views as crime as social phenomenon:
b. The Greeks a. Classical school
c. Burgundian code b. Neo classical school
d. Code of Hammurabi c. Positivist school
3924. According to this ancient law that was d. Sociology
practice in the areas of Babylon, The killer is 3935. It is the study and practice of a systematic management in jails
answerable not to the family but to the or prisons and other institutions concerned with the custody,
king: treatment and rehabilitation of criminal offenders:
a. Code of Hammurabi a. Penology
b. Roman twelve tables b. Corrections
c. Pharaoh’s law c. Correctional administration
d. Burgundian code d. Penal management
3925. This Roman Catholic tribunal was responsible for the detection 3936. a Latin word which means pain or suffering:
and punishment of unbelievers and heresy: a. Penology
a. Inquisition b. Poena
b. Lateran council c. Peona
c. Ecclesiastical court d. All of the abovementioned
d. Tortio millenio adviniente 3937. It is the field of criminal justice administration which utilizes
3926. borne out of the need to maintain the health of prisoners so the body of knowledge and practices of the government and the
that their profitability can be maximized not out of humanitarian society in handling individuals who have been convicted of an
reasons as the government and the merchants want to make it offense:
appear: a. Penology
a. UN convention for profitability of prisoners b. Corrections
b. US convention for rehabilitation of prisoners c. Criminal justice
c. UN convention for treatment of prisoners d. All of the above
d. US convention for treatment of prisoners 3938. The principle of tit for tat appears throughout this code:
3927. In an attempt to further limit the blood feuds, the feudal lords a. Code of drakon
instituted official methods by which God could indicate who was b. Code of Hammurabi
innocent and who was guilty. One such method was called: c. Justinian code
a. Trial by fighting d. Burgundian code
b. Trial by ordeal 3939. existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before
c. Trial by combat Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient Sumeria:
d. Dei indicum a. king Ur Nammu
3928. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was tied
b. king Herodes
to the crime committed:
a. Banishment c. Emperor Justin
b. Death d. None of the above
c. Torture 3940. Death Penalty awaits slaves who commit murder, assaults on
d. Mutilation noble or middle class women, sexual relations with noble or middle
3929. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the class women and giving aid or comfort to escape offender:
public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the a. Burgundian code
latter to undergo institutional treatment program:
b. Drakonian code
a. Solitary confinement
b. Punishment c. Law of Talion
c. Floggings d. The Greeks
d. Imprisonment 3941. This people love to philosophize that their brand of justice was
3930. It is conditional release after the prisoner has served part of not vengeful and retributive. They maintain that justice should
his sentenced on prison for the purpose of gradually re-introducing reform the offender but must also serve as deterrence to others
them to free life: from committing offense:
a. Probation
a. The Romans
b. Parole
c. Pardon b. The Greeks
d. Executive clemency c. The Jews
3931. This school argues that since children and lunatic cannot d. The Americans
calculate pleasure and pain they should not be prepared as criminals 3942. Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete
and as such that they should not be punished: reversal of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John Paul II who
a. Classical school
reversed this so called:
b. Neo classical school
c. Positivist school a. Eclessiastical court
d. Hedonism b. Inquisition
3932. This approached of penology assessed at the time of French c. Ordeal
Revolution: d. Culture of death
a. Classical school 3943. punishment inflicted by Greek Justice which is also practice of
b. Neo classical school the Israelites in Jesus time:
c. Positivist school
a. stoning to death
d. Hedonism
3933. According to this theory “a criminal is like a sick man who b. breaking on a wheel
needs not to be punished but treated in a hospital so that his illness c. burning alive
which has something to do with the commission of crime may be d. trial by ordeal
cured”:

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3944. the offended party is fastened by metal bands to a board b. Neo classical
made of wood and then had their bones systematically broken:
a. stoning to death
c. Positivist

b. breaking on a wheel 3954. BJMP stands for:

c. burning alive a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
d. trial by ordeal b. The government
3945. like breaking on a wheel, burning alive was once practiced by c. The jail bureau
Romans. The Roman Catholic Church has also been known to resort d. None of the abovementioned
to this form of punishment during the time of inquisition for non 3955. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered and
believers, witches and heretics: controlled by the Provincial Government (Governor).
a. stoning to death STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision of
b. breaking on a wheel the Department of the Interior and Local Government.
c. burning alive a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d. trial by ordeal b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true
3946. The systematic transfer of offenders to colonized land started c. Both statement is true
to intensify in 17th Century. d. Both statement is false
a. Absolutely true 3956. The following institutions are controlled and supervised by our
b. Probably true government EXCEPT:
c. Absolutely false a. New Bilibid Prisons
d. Probably false b. Manila City Jail
c. Iwahig Penal Colony
d. Elmira Reformatory
3957. The confinement of an inmate may be transferred to an AFP
3947. Is the procedure by which prisoner are selected for release on stockade provided the inmate is certified as minimum security risk
the basis of individual response and progress within the correctional and is __ years of old who can no longer perform manual work:
institution and a service by which they are provided with necessary a. More than 60
control of guidance as they served the remainder of their sentence b. more than 50
with in the free community: c. More than 70
a. Probation d. more than 80
b. Parole 3958. As a general rule, viewing the remains of the deceased
c. Imprisonment relative of an inmate may be enjoyed only if the deceased relative is
d. Reprieve in a place within a radius of ___ kilometres by road from prison:
3948. The indeterminate sentence law was approved on: a. 10
a. December 5, 1933 b. 30
b. December 25, 1933
c. 20
c. December 5, 1955
d. d. 40
d. December 25, 1955
3959. An inmate over _ years of age may be excused from
3949. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
mandatory labor:
a. Granted by the court
a. 50
b. He was once on Probation
b. 60
c. Must not have committed any crime against national security
c. 55
d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
d. 65
3950. The following are the unanticipated consequence of
3960. The color of maximum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
punishment; EXCEPT:
a. Tangerine
a. It develops a caution in the parts of criminal committing crime
b. Blue
during night time
c. Brown
b. Generally stops constructive effort (lack of respect to the law)
d. Yellow
c. Punishment elevates the criminal
3961. The color of medium security risk prisoner’s uniform:
d. Develops public attitude of idolizing criminals
a. Tangerine
3951. It assumes that every individual has free will and knows the
b. Blue
penal laws:
c. Brown
a. Classical school d. Yellow
b. Neo classical 3962. The color of minimum security risk prisoner’s uniform:
a. Tangerine
c. Positivist
b. Blue
3952. This school focuses on crimes and on the corresponding
c. Brown
punishment attached to it:
d. Yellow
a. Classical school
b. Neo classical
c. Positivist 3963. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or
3953. This school maintains that criminals must be rehabilitated to custody by an inmate:
institutions provided by the government and should not be punished a. Detention
contrary to other schools ideology: b. emancipation
a. Classical school c. Release of prisoner

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d. escape b. Manuel Montesinos
3964. The following are considered instruments of restraint; c. Sir Walter Crofton
EXCEPT: d. Alexander Macanochie
3975. He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in
a. Leg irons
New York. He introduced a system of grades for prisoners:
b. whipping rod a. Zebulon Brockway
c. Straight jacket b. Alexander Macanochie
d. handcuffs c. Manuel Montesinos
3965. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: d. Domer of France
a. 100 or more 3976. The progressive development of the prison system came
b. 21- 99 to the middle of the __ century:
c. 150 or more a. 18th
d. 20 or less b. 19th
3966. Type B jail has a population of ___ offenders: c. 20th
a. 21 – 99 d. 21st
b. 120 3977. This law brought about extensive reforms in the prison
c. 20 or less and authorized o penitentiary house with 16 cells to be built in the
d. 150 yard of the jail to carry out solitary confinement with labor for
3967. Type C jail has a population of ___ offenders: ``hardened atrocious offenders’’:
a. 21 – 99 a. ACT of 1890
b. 120 b. ACT of 1790
c. 20 or less c. ACT of 1690
d. 150
d. ACT of 1590
3968. This correctional facility introduced individuals housing
in cellblocks, with congregate work in shops during the day:
a. Elmira reformatory
b. Borstal institution
c. Auburn prison system
3978. The new prison had the traditional lay out of large
d. Pennsylvania prison system rooms for the inmates:
3969. His progressive move was noted when the convicts after a. Auburn Prison
good behavior were given marks and after accumulating the
required number, a ticket to leave was issued to deserving convicts: b. Pennsylvania

a. Sir Walter Crofton c. Walnut Street

b. Alexander Macanochie d. Irish Prisons

3979. On the year ___, the Elmira Reformatory is founded:
c. Zebulon Brockway
a. 1875
d. Manuel Montesinos b. 1876
3970. opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to c. 1877
remodel its philosophy away from punitive and retributive practices d. 1888
and veered towards reformation and treatment educational and 3980. He was the Director of Prison in Valencia, Spain which
vocational are imparted to the prisoner as a way to treat his lack of organized prisoners into companies and appointed petty officer in
life skills to survive according to the rules of the outside society: charge:
a. Elmira reformatory a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
b. Manuel Montesinos
b. Sing-sing prisons
c. Alexander Maconochie
c. Alcatraz d. Sir Walter Crofton
d. Walnut street jail 3981. This state prison contained cells in the pits similar to
3971. This is considered as the “institution of silent system” the underground cistern of long ago rome:
due to the imposition of strict code of silence: a. St Michael System
a. Auburn b. Sing-Sing prisons
b. Pennsylvania c. Maine State prisons
c. Walnut street d. Wal nut street
d. Irish prisons 3982. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was
3972. He established an agricultural colony for male youth: established by Domer of France. The boys were confined in cottages
with an appointed ___ to supervise them:
a. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
a. Penal guards
b. Sir Walter Crofton b. Immediate supervisors
c. Manuel Montesinos c. House fathers
d. Big brothers
d. Domer of france
3983. Under the Irish system, a prison who wanted to lessen
3973. assigned as superintendent of the English Penal Colony their period of imprisonment should be confined in a singular cell
located at Norfolk Island in Australia: (Solitary confinement) for a period of ___ months with a reduce
a. Alexander Macanochie diet:
b. Domer of France a. 6 months
b. 7 months
c. 8Sir Walter Crofton
c. 8 months
d. Zebulon Brockway d. 9 months
3974. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also 3984. This system created by Sir Walter Crofton is an
referred to as the Irish System: equivalent to a modern day parole:
a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise a. Progressive stage system

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b. Spanish system A.    The offended party           
c. Criminal justice system        B.    other public officers
d. None of the foregoing        C.    any peace officer
3985. It features consisted solitary confinement of prisoners
       D.    Offender
in their own cell day and night:
a. Auburn system 3994. The President grants
b. Pennsylvania system absolute/conditional pardon based on the
c. St Michael System recommendation of
d. Irish system A.    Bureau of Corrections            
3986. He was a penologist and is sometimes regarded as the        B.    Office of the Executive Secretary
father of prison reform in the United States of America:        C.    Board of Pardon and Parole
a. Alexander Maconochie
       D.    Parole and Probation Administration
b. Zebulon Reed Brockway
c. Sir Walter Crofton
d. Domer of France 3995. A penalty having its minimum and
3987. It is considered the best reform institution for young maximum duration is referred to as
offenders: a. Determinate sentence
a. Borstal Institution b. Capital punishment
b. St. Michael Institution c. Corporal punishment
c. Auburn System
d. Indeterminate sentence
d. Pennsylvania
3988. This is the discipline being implemented in Louisiana 3996. Which of the following executive
state penitentiary. Under this discipline, every inmate is responsible clemency needs the concurrence of the
for the actuations of all the others: congress?
a. Rough Rider Industries a.Pardon
b. I am my Brother’s keeper a. Amnesty
c. Conditional setting
b. Probation
d. collective responsibility
c. Parole
3989. Sweden, a convict may undergo 3997. It is an executive clemency whereby
probation with community service and the convicted person should serve part of
render service to the community for ___ to his sentence?
____ hours depending on the seriousness a.Pardon
of the crime committed: b.Parole
a. 50 – 250
c.Probation
b. 40- 280
c. 40 – 240 d.Amnesty
d. 50 – 260 3998. How many days before election does
3403. what type of questions are allowed to be asked to a inmate are prohibited from going out?
witness who is unwilling to testify? A. 30 days
A.    Intelligent             B. 90 Days
       B.    Misleading C. 60 Days
       C.    Unresponsive D. 120 Days
       D.    Leading 3999. Maya is in prison for the past 48
3990. Which theory of criminal punishment months and has never been involved in any
holds that punishment is imposed on the trouble, no matter how minor. If you were
offender to allow society to vent its anger the prison director, how many days for
toward and exact vengeance upon the each month would you approve as Maya’s
criminal? good conduct time allowance?
A.    Retribution             A. 5 days
       B.    Restoration B. 8 days
       C.    The Executive C. 10 days
       D.    The Quasi-Judiciary D. 12 days
3991. The post-sentence investigation report 4000. The post-sentence investigation report
is submitted to court within___________? is submitted to court within___________?
A.    10-days period            A.    10-days period           
       B.    30-days period        B.    30-days period
       C.    15-days period        C.    15-days period
       D.    60-days period        D.    60-days period
3992. To what agency is an alien parolee 4001. Ideal number of days for an inmate to
turned over for disposition,documentation be placed in the quarantine unit at the
and appropriate order? Reception and Diagnostic Center .
A.    Bureau of Corrections             A. 55 days
       B.    Bureau of Immigration and B. 5 days
Deportation C. 60 days
       C.    Board of Pardons and Parole D. 15 days
       D.   National Bureau of Investigation
3993. A complaint may be filed by any of the
following, EXCEPT:

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 4002. In the 13th century, a criminal could punishment of the offense he may be found
avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a guilty of
church for a period of ___ at the end of 4009. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term
of prision correccional. Will he qualify for
which time he has compelled to leave the
probation?
realm by a road or path assigned to him. a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and
A. 30 days one (1) day
B. 50 days c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and
C. 40 days one (1) day
D. 60 days d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1)
day
4003. Who among the following may be
4010. There are four (4) acknowledged goals
granted conditional pardon?
of _____________ as follows: retribution,
a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government
deterrence, incapacitation and
physician
rehabilitation.
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
a. Criminal intent
c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
b. Criminal mind
d. A prisoner who returned to prison after he broke
c. Criminal sanction
his probation conditions
d. Criminal action
4004. The following are considered minor
4011. The system of key control in a jail
offenses of an inmate, EXCEPT:
includes:
a. Rendering service to fellow inmate
a. An updated system of monitoring and control of
b. Failing to stand at attention and give due respect
keys
when confronted by or reporting to any officer
b. A documented inventory of security personnel
or member of the custodial force
c. A collection of all padlocks and keys
c. Willful waste of food
d. An accurate listing of all keys and receipting
d. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and
them
orderliness in his quarter and/or surroundings
4012. To what agency is an alien parolee
4005. What documents are attached to the
turned over for disposition, documentation
Release Document of the parolee?
and appropriate order?
1. Prison record
a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
b. Bureau of Corrections
3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
4. Order of Court
d. National Bureau of Investigation
a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3 4013. The Post-Sentence Investigation
4006. An advantageous result in the Report is submitted to court within
integration of correctional agencies is: _____________.
a. More physical facilities to maintain a. 10-day period
b. More prisoners to supervise b. 30-day period
c. Divided resources such as manpower and c. 15-day period
finances d. 60-day period
d. Better coordination of services and increased
cost-efficiency
4014. The President grants
absolute/conditional pardon based on the
recommendation of:
4007. A petition for the grant of absolute or a. Board of Pardon and Parole
conditional pardon shall be favorably b. Bureau of Corrections
endorsed to the Board by the _______ if c. Parole and Probation Administration
the crime committed by the petitioner is d. Office of the Executive Secretary
against national security. 4015. Which of the following are classified as
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs detainees?
b. Secretary of Justice 1. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing
c. Secretary of National Defense investigation
d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government 2. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting of
4008. Under which condition can a prisoner undergoing trial
be immediately released provided he is not 3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting final
a recidivist or he had not been previously judgment
convicted 3 or more times of any crime? 4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already
a. If he has been in jail for 60 days and the convicted to serve a prison term
maximum penalty for the offense he may be a. 3, 4 and 1
found guilty of is destierro b. 2, 3 and 4
b. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the c. 4, 1 and 2
maximum penalty of the offense he may be d. 1, 2 and 3
found guilty of is prision correccional
c. If he has been in jail for 30 days and the 4016. Why is probation service analogous to
maximum penalty of the offense he may be parole service?
found guilty of is reclusion perpetua a. Both have similar investigation and supervision
d. If he has been in jail for a period equal to or functions.
more than the possible maximum term of b. Both services are performed by the prosecutors.

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 c. Both services are performed by alcoholics. c. It depends on the outcome of the investigation
d. Both services are under the courts. d. It depends on the violations committed
4025. Which theory of criminal punishment
holds that punishment is imposed on the
4017. The Probation Officer and Volunteer offender to allow society to vent its anger
Probation Aides undertake supervision and toward and exact vengeance upon the
visitation of the probationer. However, criminal?
control over the probationer and probation a. Retribution
program is exercised by: b. Restoration
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she c. Rehabilitation
resides d. Deterrence
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator 4026. What is referred to as the reduction of
c. The Secretary of Justice the duration of a prison sentence?
d. The Court who placed him on probation a. Commutation of sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
4018. Which authorizes the release of a 4027. There are various types of prison
detainee who has undergone preventive programs. For what purpose is a
imprisonment equivalent to the maximum rehabilitative program?
imposable sentence for the offense he is a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence
charged with? b. It employs prisoners in various products or good-
a. Batas Pambansa 95 producing tasks
b. Batas Pambansa 85 c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills or
c. Batas Pambansa 105 educational achievement
d. Batas Pambansa 965 d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like
4019. What is the primary purpose of the laundry and janitorial
presentence investigation? 4028. There are two (2) inmates arguing over
a. To help the judge in selecting the appropriate loss of some items in their cell. You are the
sentence of the offender guard on duty. What will you do?
b. To exonerate the offender a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate
c. To give the offender an opportunity to defend the matter
himself b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the
d. To assist the judge in dismissing the case heated discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
4020. According to the control theory, crime
and delinquency result when an individual’s
bond to ________________ is weak and 4029. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is
broken. ordered by the Court to pay certain
a. Behavior amounts to the victim as part of his civil
b. Police liability. To whom shall he pay the amount
c. Law for remittance of the victim?
d. Society a. Municipal treasurer
b. Cashier of the trial court
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
4021. A drug user who is placed under d. Cashier of the Probation Office
probation may be made to serve his
sentence by the court if he
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined
b. Commits another offense 4030. The ______________ model of
c. He is 21 years old correctional institution focuses in security,
d. Violates any of the conditions of his probation discipline and order:
4022. JOI Jean Sibuto confiscated white a. Rehabilitative
crystalline substance rolled in a transparent b. Reintegration
sachet and she suspected it to be “shabu”. c. Medical
What should he do first? d. Custodial
a. Record the incident in the logbook 4031. Studies are conducted to determine
b. Bring the substance to NBI the experiences of residents with crimes
c. Properly identify the substance which are not usually reported to the
d. Properly preserve the evidence police. What are these studies called?
4023. All data gathered about the probation a. Population surveys
applicant shall be treated b. Police surveys
_________________. c. Victimization surveys
a. Comprehensively d. Information surveys
b. Appropriately 4032. Inmates with heart diseases need to be
c. Confidentially treated with a little more care than other
d. Judiciously inmates. Which of the following should
NOT be done by a jail officer?
a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff
4024. Is the court order revoking the grant of regularly
probation appealable? b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable prescribed diet
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate

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 d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient c. One who is charged with an offense whose
inmate penalty is not more than six (6) months
d. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is six (6) months and above
4033. What is the classification of the 4041. Which of the following is NOT an
prisoner’s offense of possession of lewd or objective in the conduct of interview of
pornographic literature and/or probation applicant?
photographs? a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
a. Minor offense b. To determine how the person shall respond to
b. Less grave offense supervision
c. Victimless offense c. To gather information about the person
d. Grave offense d. To determine his paying capacity
4034. Juveniles are not capable of
committing deviant acts, and what are 4042. Who is the Boston bootmaker who was
considered deviant acts are deviant only by the founder of probation in the United
mainstream standards, not by the States?
offender’s standards. This assumption is a. Sir Walter Crofton
advanced by the ________________ b. Alexander Maconochie
theory. c. John Murray Spear
a. Social d. John Augustus
b. Juvenile 4043. What is meant by the concept of
c. Cultural deviance probation which is from the Latin word
d. Choice “probatio” and had historical roots in the
4035. If people fear being apprehended and practice of judicial reprieve?
punished, they will not risk breaking the a. Live with integrity
law. This view is being held by the b. Testing period
__________ theory. c. Walk with faith
a. Displacement d. Out of the institution
b. General deterrence 4044. Sociologists look at corrections as:
c. Discouragement a. The intervention which documents the
d. Incapacitation attitudinal response of offenders and staff to
4036. One of the following is NOT a gauge in processes of punishment
determining the age of the child and that is: b. The medium through which prisoners change
a. Baptismal certificate their behavior and attitudes
b. Birth certificate c. The consolidation of interactions between
c. Looks correctional officers and the prisoners
d. Warts d. A total institution in which the basic
4037. What do you call the monitoring and physiological needs of prisoners were to be met
support of juveniles who have been away from the outside world
released from custody or supervision by the
juvenile court. 4045. What is the function responsibility of
a. After care prison guards?
b. Welfare a. Inmates’ health
c. Duty b. Prison security
d. Concern c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
d. Prison industry
4046. Level of security facility which is
4038. The scientific approach to the study of usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25
criminal behavior is feet high, on top are catwalks in every
____________________. corner, a tower post is manned by heavily
a. Research armed guards:
b. Survey a. Maximum security facility
c. Criminology b. Medium security facility
d. Study c. Super maximum security facility
4039. To be eligible for the grant of d. Minimum security facility
conditional pardon, what portion of the 4047. Which of the following procedures
sentence must have been served by a should be observed in handling drug addicts
petitioner-prisoner? who are incarcerated?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his 1. They should be segregated especially during the
indeterminate sentence withdrawal period
b. At least one half of the maximum of his 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to
indeterminate sentence commit suicide or self-mutilation
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his 3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants
indeterminate sentence unless prescribed by a physician
d. At least one third of the minimum of his 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of proper
indeterminate sentence psychiatric treatment
4040. Who among the following can apply a. 2, 3 and 4
for release under the Law on Release on b. 3, 4 and 1
Recognizance? c. 4, 1 and 2
a. One who is charged with an offense whose d. 1, 2 and 3
penalty is three (3) years and above
b. One who is charged with an offense whose
penalty is twelve (12) months and above

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 4048. A prisoner who is aggressive, violent, 4055. You are a jail personnel assigned to
quarrelsome and does not cooperate with censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you
other inmates is referred to as found unusual names and sentences. What
a. Squealer shall you do?
b. Sucker a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
c. Hustler b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and give
d. Tough it to the inmate
4049. When does an applicant who was c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the
granted probation report to the assigned contents to determine the real meaning of the
Probation Officer for Interview? names and sentences
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee
probation order 4056. The classical theory of criminology
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of provides that the basis for criminal liability
probation order is ______________________
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his receipt a. Individual’s thinking
of the probation order b. Individual’s mental state
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of c. Human free will
probation order d. Human facilities
4050. What agency issues the Certificate of 4057. He said the “crime must be considered
Final Release and Discharge of a Parolee? an injury to society, and the only rational
a. Bureau of Corrections measure of crime is the extent of injury.”
b. Board of Pardons and Parole a. Jeremy Bentham
c. Parole and Probation Administration b. Cesare Beccaria
d. Department of Justice c. James Wilson
4051. Pedro was arrested by the police for d. John Howard
theft in the amount of P5,000.00. He was 4058. What is the effect of the grant of
brought to the police station and an probation?
administrative record of the arrest was a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house
prepared. He was fingerprinted, b. The execution of sentence is suspended
interrogated and placed in a line-up for c. The probationer is sent to prison
identification by witnesses. What process d. The prison term is doubled
did he undergo?
a. Preliminary hearing 4059. To what programs shall prisoners be
b. Booking assigned so that they can engage in
c. Trial producing goods?
d. Indictment a. Industrial
b. Operational
c. Agricultural
4052. The “Discharge on Parole” issued by d. Administrative
the Board to the parolee, and also issued by 4060. In case of mass jailbreak, all members
the President of the Philippines to a of the custodial force shall proceed to their
pardonee upon the Board’s assigned critical posts armed with their
recommendation. issued firearms to:
a. Release document a. Shoot at the escapees
b. Release folders b. Protect the other inmates
c. Release signatures c. Plug off the escape routes
d. Release notes d. Give warning shots
4061. When shall the prison record and
carpeta of a petitioner for executive
4053. What is called the body of unwritten clemency be forwarded to the Board of
guidelines which expresses the values, Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
attitudes and types of behavior that older a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
inmates demand of younger ones? BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for
a. Code of jail conduct prison record and carpeta
b. Rehabilitation guidelines b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of
c. Code of silence the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate
d. Inmate social code sentence
4054. Which of the following guidelines shall c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the
be followed when the parolee commits an BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison
infraction of the terms and conditions record and carpeta
appearing in his Release Documents? d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an Director of the request made by the BPP for the
Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon and Parole prison record and carpeta
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the
arrest of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds 4062. Which of the following contributes to
that the continuation of his parole is incompatible with prison violence?
public welfare a. Prison industry
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction b. Inhuman prison conditions, including
a. 2, 3 and 4 overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes
b. 4, 1 and 2 c. Conjugal visits
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and
d. 3, 4 and 1 work

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 4063. Which of the following factors makes it c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
difficult for a released prisoner to lead a d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
straight life? 4073. The approval of the application of
a. Scientific advances have made modern living probation is done by the Judge thru the
more pleasant issuance of
b. Police conduct close supervision on released a. Probation Citation Ticket
prisoners b. Probation Order
c. Lasting reformation must come from within and c. Probation Certificate
cannot be imposed d. Probation Clearance
d. Many of his contacts and friends are underworld
characters
4064. Under the plan for riots and violent 4074. According to this theory, social actions
disturbances, what shall be done at the are repeated (or not repeated) as a
sound of the first pre-arranged alarm? consequence of their association in the
a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters actors mind with punishing or rewarding
b. Saturate the area with riot gas experiences.
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their a. Containment
respective cell b. Differential Association
d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders c. Operant Conditioning
4065. Which agency exercises supervision d. Differential Identification
over parolees? 4075. This theory assumes that people are
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole law-abiding but under great pressure they
b. Probation and Parole Administration will resort to crime. . .
c. Bureau of Corrections a. Strain theory
d. Department of Justice b. Differential association theory
4066. The judge approves or denies the grant c. Social learning theory
of probation based on the report of the d. Psychoanalytic theory
a. Social worker 4076. What is referred to as the reduction of
b. Probation officer the duration of a prison sentence?
c. Prosecutor a. Parole
d. Police office b. Commutation of sentence
c. Absolute pardon
4067. What law grants probation to first time d. Conditional pardon
offenders who are sent to prison terms of 4077. It is a report on the background of the
not more than six (6) years? convict, prepared for the judge to decide on
a. Presidential Decree No. 448 the approval or denial of application of
b. Presidential Decree No. 968 probation.
c. Presidential Decree No. 603 a. Probation Report
d. Presidential Decree No. 1184 b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
4068. An offender can apply for Release on c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
Recognizance is he is convicted with an d. Pre-Trial Report
offense whose penalty is: 4078. By what term is selling of illegal
a. Three (3) years and above commodities inside prison or jail known?
b. Not more than six (6) months a. Gleaning
c. Twelve (12) months and above b. Hustling
d. Six (6) months and above c. Benting
4069. Which of the following is the prison d. Vending
administrator’s tool for controlling and
stabilizing prison operation?
a. Leadership
b. Supervision 4079. There are various types of prison
c. Activity programs. What type of program that
d. Recreation secures prisoner from escape or violence?
4070. Mario is soon to be released from a. Maintenance
camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre- b. Rehabilitative
release facility called _______________ for c. Industrial
counseling and therapy. d. Security
a. Recreation Center 4080. The National Record of the prisoner at
b. Congregate Group the New Bilibid Prison is called
c. Half-way House a. Carpeta
d. Diagnostic Center b. Released Document
4071. What is referred to as the concept of c. Commitment Order
the “greatest happiness of the greater d. Mittimus
number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham? 4081. The founder of the Classical School of
a. Utilitarianism Criminological Theory.
b. Rehabilitation a. John Howard
c. Reformation b. Jeremy Bentham
d. Conformance c. Cesare Lombroso
4072. Juanito was convicted and sentenced d. Cesare Beccaria
for the crime of serious physical injuries to 4082. If probation is granted by a court
a prison term of prision correccional. Based judge, who grants pardon?
on his penalty, is he qualified for probation? a. Secretary of Justice
a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day b. President of the Philippines
b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

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 d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy
4083. What guarantees the appearance in d. Milieu therapy
court of a defendant granted release on 4091. Prisoners should not be given corporal
recognizance? punishment nor confined in dark cells or
a. His/her promise to live a new life sweat boxes as these are:
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison a. Somewhat prohibited
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, b. Relatively prohibited
etc. c. Absolutely prohibited
d. His/her capacity to raise bail d. Fairly prohibited
4092. Which does not form part of the basic
principles for riot control?
4084. Prisoners are awarded ________ off a. Preparation of a specific plan of action
from their minimum or maximum term for b. Dissemination of plan to everyone
maintaining good behavior or participating c. Rapid execution of plan
in various types of vocational, educational d. Firmness in executing the plan
and treatment programs. 4093. Prison time is considered a dead time
a. Good time when minutes seem to crawl and the soul
b. Credits grows bitter. Which of the following
c. Days off mitigate the oppressiveness of time?
d. Vacation a. Administrative program
4085. Which of the following requirements b. Security programs
shall qualify a prisoner for parole? c. Rehabilitation programs
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate d. Custodial program
sentence 4094. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final prison term of three (3) years and one (1)
judgment of conviction day to death, is known as:
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the a. Provincial Prisoner
good conduct time allowance earned b. Insular Prisoner
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence c. City Prisoner
a. 4, 1 and 2 d. Municipal Prisoner
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1
d. 1, 2 and 3 4095. How is an offender released from
4086. When an accused is released from prison or jail?
imprisonment on his or her promise to 1. After service of sentence
return to court as required, or upon the 2. Issuance of order of the court
undertaking of a suitable person that he 3. Grant of parole
will guarantee the accused’ appearance in 4. Grant of pardon
court, there is what is called: 5. Grant of amnesty
a. Promise 6. Any lawful order of competent authority
b. Acknowledgment a. 1,3,4,5 and 6
c. Surety b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
d. Recognizance c. All of those listed above
4087. According to the routine activities d. 2,3,4,5, and 6
theory, the volume and distribution of 4096. The institution during the Golden Age
predatory crimes are affected by the of Penology in 1870 to 1880 that used
following, EXCEPT: parole extensively.
a. Presence of motivated offenders a. Irish Prison System
b. Absence of capable guardians b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Availability of suitable targets c. Federal Bureau of Prisons
d. Absence of motivated offenders d. Irish Parole Organization
4088. A group that has a short history, 4097. Strip search should be conducted:
limited size, and little define territory is a a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are
type of gang known as: witnesses
a. Status b. At the warden’s office
b. Sporadic c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail
c. Criminal personnel
d. Collective d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others
4089. The correctional program which to avoid further embarrassment
enables an individual to enhance his 4098. Idea of probation first existed early in
employability, develop his intellectual the 19th century in
faculties, and graduate to a free existence a. Japan
in community living all at the same time is b. U.S.A.
referred to as _______________ c. England
a. Livelihood program d. Ireland
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program
d. Religious program 4099. You are a jail personnel assigned to
4090. What rehabilitation program that censor inmates’ mails. In one mail, you
provides a presocial environment within found unusual names and sentences. What
the prison to help the inmates develop shall you do?
noncriminal ways to coping outside? a. Report the matter to the Jail Warden
a. Psychotherapy

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 b. Put back the letter inside the envelope and give c. Lasting reformation must come from within and
it to the inmate cannot be imposed
c. Study the letter carefully and analyze the d. Many of his contacts and friends are underworld
contents to determine the real meaning of the characters
names and sentences 4108. Under the plan for riots and violent
d. Xerox the letter before giving it to the addressee disturbances, what shall be done at the
4100. The classical theory of criminology sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
provides that the basis for criminal liability a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
is ______________________ b. Saturate the area with riot gas
a. Individual’s thinking c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
b. Individual’s mental state respective cell
c. Human free will d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
d. Human facilities 4109. Which agency exercises supervision
4101. He said the “crime must be considered over parolees?
an injury to society, and the only rational a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
measure of crime is the extent of injury.” b. Probation and Parole Administration
a. Jeremy Bentham c. Bureau of Corrections
b. Cesare Beccaria d. Department of Justice
c. James Wilson 4110. The judge approves or denies the grant
d. John Howard of probation based on the report of the
4102. What is the effect of the grant of a. Social worker
probation? b. Probation officer
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house c. Prosecutor
b. The execution of sentence is suspended d. Police office
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled 4111. What law grants probation to first time
4103. To what programs shall prisoners be offenders who are sent to prison terms of
assigned so that they can engage in not more than six (6) years?
producing goods? a. Presidential Decree No. 448
a. Industrial b. Presidential Decree No. 968
b. Operational c. Presidential Decree No. 603
c. Agricultural d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
d. Administrative 4112. An offender can apply for Release on
4104. In case of mass jailbreak, all members Recognizance is he is convicted with an
of the custodial force shall proceed to their offense whose penalty is:
assigned critical posts armed with their a. Three (3) years and above
issued firearms to: b. Not more than six (6) months
a. Shoot at the escapees c. Twelve (12) months and above
b. Protect the other inmates d. Six (6) months and above
c. Plug off the escape routes 4113. Which of the following is the prison
d. Give warning shots administrator’s tool for controlling and
4105. When shall the prison record and stabilizing prison operation?
carpeta of a petitioner for executive a. Leadership
clemency be forwarded to the Board of b. Supervision
Pardon and Parole (BPP)? c. Activity
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the d. Recreation
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for 4114. Mario is soon to be released from
prison record and carpeta camp Bukang Liwayway. He is sent to a pre-
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of release facility called _______________ for
the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate counseling and therapy.
sentence a. Recreation Center
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the b. Congregate Group
BUCOR Director of the BPP request for prison c. Half-way House
record and carpeta d. Diagnostic Center
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR 4115. What is referred to as the concept of
Director of the request made by the BPP for the the “greatest happiness of the greater
prison record and carpeta number” espoused by Jeremy Bentham?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Rehabilitation
4106. Which of the following contributes to c. Reformation
prison violence? d. Conformance
a. Prison industry 4116. Juanito was convicted and sentenced
b. Inhuman prison conditions, including for the crime of serious physical injuries to
overcrowding and threats of homosexual rapes a prison term of prision correccional. Based
c. Conjugal visits on his penalty, is he qualified for probation?
d. Work furlough allowing inmates to go out and a. Yes, his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
work b. No, his sentence is more than 6 years and 1 day
4107. Which of the following factors makes it c. No, his sentence is 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
difficult for a released prisoner to lead a d. Yes, his sentence is 3 years and 1 day
straight life? 4117. The approval of the application of
a. Scientific advances have made modern living probation is done by the Judge thru the
more pleasant issuance of
b. Police conduct close supervision on released a. Probation Citation Ticket
prisoners b. Probation Order

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 c. Probation Certificate a. His/her promise to live a new life
d. Probation Clearance b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment,
etc.
4118. According to this theory, social actions d. His/her capacity to raise bail
are repeated (or not repeated) as a
consequence of their association in the
actors mind with punishing or rewarding 4128. Prisoners are awarded ________ off
experiences. from their minimum or maximum term for
a. Containment maintaining good behavior or participating
b. Differential Association in various types of vocational, educational
c. Operant Conditioning and treatment programs.
d. Differential Identification a. Good time
4119. This theory assumes that people are b. Credits
law-abiding but under great pressure they c. Days off
will resort to crime. . . d. Vacation
a. Strain theory 4129. Which of the following requirements
b. Differential association theory shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
c. Social learning theory 1. Confinement in jail or
d. Psychoanalytic theory prison to serve an
4120. What is referred to as the reduction of indeterminate sentence
the duration of a prison sentence? 2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a
a. Parole final judgment of conviction
b. Commutation of sentence 3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the
c. Absolute pardon good conduct time allowance earned
d. Conditional pardon 4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
4121. It is a report on the background of the a. 4, 1 and 2
convict, prepared for the judge to decide on b. 2, 3 and 4
the approval or denial of application of c. 3, 4 and 1
probation. d. 1, 2 and 3
a. Probation Report 4130. When an accused is released from
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report imprisonment on his or her promise to
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report return to court as required, or upon the
d. Pre-Trial Report undertaking of a suitable person that he
4122. By what term is selling of illegal will guarantee the accused’ appearance in
commodities inside prison or jail known? court, there is what is called:
a. Gleaning a. Promise
b. Hustling b. Acknowledgment
c. Benting c. Surety
d. Vending d. Recognizance
4131. According to the routine activities
theory, the volume and distribution of
predatory crimes are affected by the
4123. There are various types of prison
following, EXCEPT:
programs. What type of program that
a. Presence of motivated offenders
secures prisoner from escape or violence?
b. Absence of capable guardians
a. Maintenance
c. Availability of suitable targets
b. Rehabilitative
d. Absence of motivated offenders
c. Industrial
d. Security
4132. A group that has a short history,
4124. The National Record of the prisoner at
limited size, and little define territory is a
the New Bilibid Prison is called
type of gang known as:
a. Carpeta
a. Status
b. Released Document
b. Sporadic
c. Commitment Order
c. Criminal
d. Mittimus
d. Collective
4125. The founder of the Classical School of
4133. The correctional program which
Criminological Theory.
enables an individual to enhance his
a. John Howard
employability, develop his intellectual
b. Jeremy Bentham
faculties, and graduate to a free existence
c. Cesare Lombroso
in community living all at the same time is
d. Cesare Beccaria
referred to as _______________
a. Livelihood program
4126. If probation is granted by a court
b. Guidance counseling
judge, who grants pardon?
c. Education program
a. Secretary of Justice
d. Religious program
b. President of the Philippines
4134. What rehabilitation program that
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
provides a presocial environment within
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole
the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to coping outside?
a. Psychotherapy
4127. What guarantees the appearance in
b. Behavior therapy
court of a defendant granted release on
c. Occupational therapy
recognizance?
d. Milieu therapy

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G.S.T. 2019
 4135. Pardon cannot be extended to one of d. commutation of sentence
the following instances:
a. Rape
b. Murder
c. Impeachment
d. Brigandage
4136. It was held as the 1st probation officer
employed by the government:
a. John Augustus
b. Teodolo C Natividad
c. Edward N Savage
d. Mattew Davenport

4137. Which of the following is a prerogative

of the chief executive with concurrence of
congress:
a. probation
b. amnesty
c. pardon
d. parole
4138. What crimes apparently have no
complaining victims such as gambling,
prostitution and drunkenness?
a. Compound crime
b. Complex crime
c. Blue collar crime
d. Victimless crime
4139. An open institution usually a penal
form or camp.
a. Maximum security institution
b. Minimum security institution
c. Medium security institution
d. None of these
4140. They assist probation and parole office
in the supervision of the probationers.
a. Volunteer workers
b. Volunteer probation officers
c. Volunteer community workers
d. Volunteer probation aides

4141. It ensures a more careful selection of

the institution in which the prisoner is to be
confined.
a. Quarantine unit
b. Courts
c. RDC
d. Correction
4142. The continuing relationship between
probation officer and probationer is known
as?
a. Pre-Sentence Investigation
b. None of these
c. supervision
d. affiliation guidance
4143. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison
guard for every____number of inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7

4144. He was the first Superintendent of

Elmira sentence reformatory.
a. John Augustus
b. John Howard
c. Zebulon Brockway
d. Teodulo Natividad

4145. Reducing the degree of Death penalty

inflected upon the council.
a. amnesty
b. commutation
c. pardon

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