Shankar Quantum Mechanics Solution

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8/18/2019 Shankar Quantum Mechanics Solution

SOLUTION MANUAL

COMPILED BY YEMI BUKKY


+234(0)8057474928; +234(0)8064974071
( jjbukky@yahoo.com) 
Department of Physics,
Federal University of Technology,
Minna, NG
Nigeria

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PRINCIPLES OF QUANTUM
MECHANICS
BY R. SHANKAR
SECOND EDITION

SOLUTIONS
COMPILED BY YEMI BUKKY  ( jjbukky@yahoo.com)

Department of Physics,

Federal University of Technology, Minna, NG

Nigeria

+2348057474928

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Physics 710-712 due October 30, 2009


Problem Set 4

Problem 1:   Do exercise 2.5.3 of the text.


Solution:  The problem asks us to get the equations of motion using the Hamiltonian method
for the system shown in Figure 1.5 (p. 46) of the text. Using   x1   and   x2   shown there as
the generalized coordinates, the kinetic energy and potential energy are

 m  m  k  k  k
T   =  ẋ21  +  ẋ22 , V    = x21  + (x1 − x2 )2 + x22 ,
2 2 2 2 2
so the Lagrangian is   L =  T  − V    and thus the generalized momenta are

  ∂ L   ∂T    p1
 p1   = = =  m ẋ1 ,   ⇒   ẋ1  = ,
∂  ẋ1 ∂  ẋ1 m
  ∂ L   ∂T    p2
 p2   = = =  m ẋ2 ,   ⇒   ẋ2  = ,
∂  ẋ2 ∂  ẋ2 m

so the Hamiltonian is
  p21   p2  k  k  k
H  =  T  + V    =  + 2  + x21  + (x1 − x2 )2 + x22 ,
2m 2m 2 2 2
and Hamilton’s equations are

  ∂ H   p1 ∂ H
ẋ1   = = ,    p˙ 1   =   − =  −2kx 1  +  kx 2 ,
∂p 1 m ∂x 1
  ∂ H   p2 ∂ H
ẋ2   = = ,    p˙ 2   =   − =  −2kx 2  +  kx 1 .
∂p 2 m ∂x 2

Problem 2:   Do exercise 2.7.2 of the text.


Solution:   (i):

{q i , q j }   :=
 ∂q i ∂q j
· −
  ∂q i ∂q j
·
 
=
∂q i
·0 − 0·
∂q j

=0
∂q k ∂p k ∂p k ∂q k ∂q k ∂q k
k k

{ pi , pj }   :=
 ∂p i ∂p j   ∂p i ∂p j
· − ·
 
= 0·
∂p j   ∂p i
− ·0

=0
∂q k ∂p k ∂p k ∂q k ∂p k ∂p k
k k

{q i , pj }   :=
 ∂q i ∂p j   ∂q i ∂p j
· − ·
 
= ( δ ik δ jk  − 0·0) =  δ ij ,
∂q k ∂p k ∂p k ∂q k
k k

and
∂q i ∂ H   ∂q i ∂ H ∂ H ∂ H   ∂ H
{q i , H}   :=
k
∂q k · ∂p k − ∂p k · ∂q k
 =  k
δ ik · ∂p k − 0· ∂q k
= ∂p i = q̇ i ,

{ pi , H}   :=
 ∂p i ∂ H   ∂p i ∂ 
· − ·
H
 
= 0·
∂ H
− δ ik ·
∂  H

=  −
∂ H
=  p˙ i ,
∂q k ∂p k ∂p k ∂q k ∂p k ∂q k ∂q i
k k

where in the last steps I used Hamilton’s equations.


(ii): The Hamiltonian given is   H  =  p 2x +  p2y  +  ax2 + by 2 . If   a  =  b,   H   has a

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symmetry under simultaneous rotations in the   x-y   and   px - py   planes, under which   z   (the
generator) is conserved. Therefore   {z , H}  = 0.
We check this as follows:

{z , H}  =
 ∂ z ∂ H   ∂ z ∂ H
· − ·

=
  ∂ z ∂ H  ∂ z ∂ H   ∂ z ∂ H   ∂ z ∂ H
· +  · − ·  − ·  .
∂q k ∂p k ∂p k ∂q k ∂x ∂p x ∂y ∂p y ∂p x ∂x ∂p y ∂y
k

But

∂ H   ∂ H
H ∂    ∂ H

= 2 pk , =  , = (2 ax ,   2by) ,
∂p k ∂x k ∂x ∂y
∂ z   ∂ (xpy  − ypx )
 ∂ z   ∂ z
   ∂ z
 ∂ z   ∂ z

= = , = ( −y , x) , =  , = ( py   ,   − px ) ,
∂p k ∂p k ∂p x ∂p y ∂q k ∂x ∂y
so
{z   ,   H} =  p y ·2 px + (− px )·2 py  − (−y )·2ax − x·2by  = 2xy(a − b)
which vanishes if   a  =  b.

Problem 3:   Do exercise 2.8.1 of the text.


Solution:   Since   g  =  p 1  +  p2 , it generates the infinitesimal transformations

 ∂ g   ∂g
δx1   = + = + , δp1  =  − = 0,
∂p 1 ∂x 1
 ∂ g   ∂g
δx2   = + = + , δp2  =  − = 0.
∂p 2 ∂x 2

So, to order   , these give the canonical transformations   xi  →  x̄i (xj , pj )   and   pi  →  ¯
 pi (xj , pj )
with

x̄1   =   x1  +  ,    p¯1  =  p1 ,


x̄2   =   x2  +  ,    p¯2  =  p2 ,

which is precisely a spatial translation of the whole system by an amount   .

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Physics 710-711-712 November 16, 2009


Problem Set 5

Problem 1:   Do exercise 4.2.1 of the text.


(1)
Solution:   The possible outcomes are   Lz  = 1, 0,  { −1}, which are the eigenvalues of   Lz .

(2)
Solution:   Lz ψ  = 1 ψ   implies
| ·|  
1
|ψ = 0
 .
0
(Note that I have normalized ψ !)  |  Then

0 1 0 1 0
Lx   =    | |  
ψ Lx ψ  = 1 0 0   1
 √      √    
1 0 1 0  =   1 1 0 0 1  = 0.
2 2
0 1 0 0 0

L2x   =   ψ|L2x|ψ =  1 0 0
          
 1
2
0 1
1 0
0
1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1
0  =
 1
2
0 1 0
0
 1
1  = .
2
0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0
     1  1
∆Lx   = L2x  − Lx2 = −
2
√  02 =
2
.

(3)
Solution:   The characteristic equation for   Lx   is
  √ 
1
− λ
 2
  0
1   √ 
1
0 = det(Lx  − λ) = det    − 
√ 
2
λ 2
= λ − λ3,   ⇒   λ
 ∈ {1, 0, −1}.
  1
0  − √ 
2
λ

The corresponding eigenvectors, λ , then satisfy  | 


  √ 
1
λa +  √  b
−λ    − 
2
  0 a 2
1   √ 
1 a
0 = (Lx  − λ)|λ =  √ 
2
 −      − 
λ 2
b  = √ 
2
λb +  √ 
c
2
  1 c √ b
0  − √ 
2
 − λ 2
λa

where we have parameterized the components of λ   by   (a b c).  |  For   λ = 1, we can solve

for   b   and   c   in terms of   a, giving   b = √ 2a   and   c = a. We then determine   a   by normalizing
|λ = 1 : 
√  a   
√ 2a∗   a∗ √ a2a  1
 = 4 a 2 ,
|λ = 1 =   2a ,   ⇒   1 = λ = 1 λ = 1  = a∗
  |   ||   ⇒   a =
2
a a

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(where I have chosen the arbitrary phase to be 1). Thus, and doing the same thing for
λ = 0   and   λ = 1, gives
 −
√  1
  1
 √  1
|λ = 1 =  12 2 ,   |λ = 0 =   12 √  0 ,   |λ = −1 =  12 − 2 .
1 1 1

(4)
  −   
Solution:   The possible outcomes are   Lx   = { 1, 0, −1}, which are the eigenvalues of   Lx .
|ψ   is the normalized eigenstate of   Lz   with eigenvalue   Lz  = −1, which is
0
|ψ = 0 .
1

So (here  P   stands for "probability of"):


2
0
2 1  1
P (Lx  = 1) =   |λ = 1|ψ|   √   
= 2 1 2 1 01 = 4,
     2
0
1  1
P (Lx  = 0) =   |λ = 0|ψ|2 =    −  
2
1 0 1 0 =
2
,
1
  √     2
0
1  1
P (Lx  =  −1) =   |λ = −1|ψ|2 =    −  
2
1 2 1 0 =
4
.
1

(5)
Solution:
 1

L2z  =  0  ,   ⇒   the possible outcomes are   L2z  = 0, 1 .  { }
1

An eigenbasis of the   L2z  = 1   eigenspace is  {|a, |b}   with


 1
 0
|a =  0 ,   |b =  0 .
0 1

Therefore, upon measuring   L2z  = 1, the state collapses to

 (a a + b b)ψ
|ψ −→ |ψ = |(|aa| + |bb|)|ψ| .
But
  
1
 
   0
        
1
1 1
1
0
1  1
1
[ a a + b b ] ψ  =
|  | |  | |   0 1 0 0 + 0 0 0 1  √       √  √  
2
1  = 0
2
+ 0
2
=
2
0 ,
0 1 2 0 1 2

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has norm    
  1 √ 2  1  √   1
3
√ 
 1 0 0  =   ,
2 2 2
2
so
1 1
ψ  =   1 .
|  √ 3/2 12 √  
0  =   1
3
√  
√  
0
2 2
The probability of   L2z  = +1   is
P (L2z  = 1) =   ψ| (|aa| + |bb|) |ψ = |a|ψ|2 + |b|ψ|2
  2 2

=
1
1 0 0
 √  
1
1 +
 
1
0 0 1
 √  
1
1
 1  1  3
=  +  = .
2
  2 4 2 4
2 2
If we measured   Lz   the posible outcomes are the eigenvalues   Lz ,  {0, ±1}, with probabilities
2
1
2 1  1
(Lz  = 1) = 1 0 0 ψ = 1 0 0 0 = .
P    |   √   3
√   2 3
2

P (Lz  = 0) =
 0 1 0 ψ
 |   √  
2
=
1
0 1 0
 √  1
0 = 0.
3
2
2

P (Lz  = −1) =
 0 0 1 ψ
 |   √  
2
=
1
0 0 1
 √  1
0
 2
= .
3 3
2
(6)
Solution:   In the   Lz   eigenbasis

|Lz  = 1 =
 
1
0 ,   |Lz  = 0  =
    0
1 , |Lz  =  −1 =
 
0
0 ,
0 0 1
write the unknown state as  a
|  
ψ  = b .
c
Then
 2

P (Lz  = 1) =  14   =   |Lz  = 1 ψ | | 2


= 1 0 0
    | |
a
b = a 2,
c
2
a
    | |
P (Lz  = 1) =  12   =   |Lz  = 0 ψ | |  2
 = 0 1 0 b = b 2,
 c
   2
a
P (Lz  = 1) =  14   =   |Lz  = 1ψ
 − | |  2
= 0 0 1    | |
b = c 2.
c

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The most general solution to these three equations is then

 1 iδ   1 iδ  1 iδ
a =
2
e , 1
b = √  2
e , 2
c =
2
e , 3

for some arbitrary phases   δ i , which gives the desired answer.
The   phase factors are   not   irrelevant. For example
  δ i
2
eiδ
   √   
1
  1
1

eiδ
1
  eiδ3
2
P (Lx  = 0) =   |λ = 0|ψ|2 =  √    −    √  − √  
2
1 0 1
2
2eiδ 2
=
2 2 2 2
eiδ 3

  1 iδ  −   − −   1 )
eiδ e−iδ e−iδ  = ei(δ −δ e−i(δ −δ ) + 1
= e
 1
− 3 1 3
1 3 1 3 1

8 8
  1
=
4

 (1 cos(δ 3  − δ 1)) ,
so something measurable (a probability) depends on the difference of the phases.

Problem 2:   Do exercise 4.2.2 of the text.


Solution:
   ∞
P    = ψ P  ψ  =
  | |   |  | |  dx ψ x x P  ψ
−∞
 ∞
  −   −    d  ∞ dψ(x)
= dx ψ ∗ (x) i  ψ(x) = i  dx ψ(x)
−∞ dx −∞ dx
i    ∞   d i  2 ∞
=  −
  dx ψ(x)2  =
   −    ψ −∞ = 0
2 −∞ dx 2

if   ψ  0   as x
 →  | | → ∞
.
Alternatively, use the   k-basis:
 ∞  ∞  ∞
P  = ψ|P |ψ =   −∞dk ψ k k P  ψ  = −∞dk  k ψ k k ψ  = −∞dk  k ψ∗ (k)ψ(k).
 |  | |     |  |   
But  ∞  ∞
  1
ψ(k) = k ψ  =
  | 
 
dx k x x ψ  = dx eikx ψ(x),
 |  |  √ 
 
−∞ 2π −∞
therefore    ∞
  1

ψ( k) = √  dx e−ikx ψ(x) =  ψ ∗ (k)
2π −∞
since   ψ(x)   is real. So
   ∞  ∞  
P   =
  dk  kψ ∗ (k)ψ(k) = dk  kψ( k)ψ(k). −
−∞ −∞
and under the change of variables   k  → −k, this becomes
   ∞
P  = −
dk  ( k)ψ(k)ψ( k) = −  −P ,
−∞
  
and so P   = 0.

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Problem 3:   Do exercise 2.4.3 of the text.


Solution:
       ∞       ∞  ∗  d 
ip0 x/ ip0 x/ ip0 x/ ip0 x/
e ψ P  e ψ  = dx e  |  | 
ψ x x P  e ψ  = dx eip 0 x/
ψ(x) −
( i ) eip0 x/
ψ(x)
−∞ −∞ dx
 ∞ ip0
ip0 x/ ip0 x/ ip0 x/ dψ
 
i −∞dx ψ∗ (x)e−
  −       e ψ(x) + e dx
=
 ∞
   ∞


= dx ψ∗ (x) p0 ψ(x) − i  dx ψ∗ (x)
−∞ −∞ dx
 ∞
      ∞ 
=   p0  |  | 
dx ψ x x ψ +  |  | |  | | |
dx ψ x x P  ψ  = p 0 ψ ψ + ψ P  ψ  = p 0 + P  .  
−∞ −∞

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Problem 2

In[3]:=   Psi@x_, t_D  := HPi H∆ ^ 2 + hbar^ 2 t^ 2 ê H m ^ 2 ∆ ^ 2LLL ^ H−1 ê 2L


Exp@H− Hx − H p0 ê  m L tL ^ 2L ê H∆ ^ 2 + hbar^ 2 t^ 2 ê H m ^ 2 ∆ ^ 2LLD;
PlotAEvaluate@Table@Psi@x, tD ê . 8 p0 → 1, ∆ →  1, hbar → 1, m  → 1<,
8t, 0, 14<DD, 8 x, −20, 50<,
 AxesLabel → 9" ", "»ψ H L»2 "=, PlotRange → AllE
x  x 

»yH x L»2

0.5

0.4

Out[4]= 0.3

0.2

0.1

 x 
- 20   - 10 10 20 30 40 50

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Physics 710-711-712 December 4, 2009


Problem Set 7

Problem 1:  Exercise 5.3.1


The Hamiltonian is  1 2
H   =P  + V r (X ) iV i −
2m
where V r  is a real function and V i  a real constant. Therefore
 1
H † =
2m
(P † )2 + V r (X † ) − (i) V   =  2m

i
1
P  2
 
+ V r (X ) + iV i = H,

so H   is   not   Hermitian.


Derivation of the continuity equation. Schrodinger’s equation and its complex con-
 jugate in this case read
2
i ∂ψ   =
∂t
  − 2m
  ∇ ψ + V  ψ − iV  ψ,
2
r i
2
∂ψ ∗   2 ∗ ∗ ∗
− i    =   − 2m ∇ ψ + V  ψ + iV  ψ . r i
∂t
Multiplying the first by ψ ∗ and teh second by ψ and taking the difference, then dividing
by i    gives
∂P   2
  =    j  −∇· −
V i P,
∂t  

|| j =    (ψ∗   ψ ψ   )/(2mi) are the probability density


where, as before, P   = ψ 2 and   ∇ − ∇
and current, respectively. Integrating this over all space, the      j  term vanishes (by
 j
the divergence theorem, since we assume    → 0 at infinity), giving
∇·
dP  2
  = − V  P , i
dt  

where   =  d3 xP  is the total probability. (I can pull  V i  out of the integral since it is
 P   
assumed constant in the problem.) Integrating this differential equation gives
−2V i t/
P (t) = P (0) e .

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Problem 2:  Exercise 5.3.4


With primes denoting derivative with respect to x,
   
 j   :=  [ψ∗ ψ − ψ(ψ ) ] ∗ 
2mi
    ∗ −ixp/ ∗ ixp/ ixp/ −ixp/ 
= 2mi (A e +B e + Be
 )(Ae )
ixp/
+ Be −ixp/)(A∗ e−ixp/ + B ∗ eixp/)
− (Ae 
  1  ∗ −ixp/
= (A e + B ∗eixp/)(ipAeixp/ − ipBe −ixp/
)
2mi
ixp/ −ixp/ ∗ −ixp/ ∗ ixp/
− (Ae + Be )(−ipA e + ipB e )

  p  2 ∗ 2ixp/ ∗ −2ixp/ 2
=
2m
|A| + AB e − A Be − |B|
2 ∗ −2ixp/ ∗ 2ixp/ 2
+ |A| + A Be − AB e − |B| 
  p 2 2
=
m
|A| − |B| .
 
Problem 3:  Exercise 5.4.2
(a)   For x < 0, V  = 0, so the general solution of the energy eigenstate equation is ψ<  =
√ 
Aeikx + Be−ikx where    k  = 2mE . Similarly, for x > 0,  ψ>  = Ceikx + De −ikx .
Scattering boundary conditions means we set D = 0 (no incoming particles from
x = + ).∞
Now we need to figure out the boundary conditions at   x   = 0. Look at the
time-independent Schrodinger equation,
2
 
ψ  + V 0 aδ (x)ψ = Eψ.   (1)
2m −
Since the potential has an infinite jump in it,  ψ will be continuous, but  ψ may
have a finite jump. To see how big the  ψ   jump is, integrate (1) from x =  to −
x = + to get
2  
 
   
2m
 [ψ ( ) − − ψ ()] + V  aψ(0) = E  0 dxψ.
−

In the limit as   0, the right hand side vanishes since  ψ  is continuous, from
 →
which we learn that

ψ> (0) 
ψ< (0) = (2maV 0 / 2 )ψ(0).

Applying this boundary condition along with continuity of  ψ   to  ψ<   and ψ>
gives the two conditions
A + B   =   C 
ikC  − ikA + ikB   = (2maV 0 / 2 )C.

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Dividing through by A, and solving for B/A and C/A gives B/A = maV 0 /(ik 2 −


maV 0 ) and C/A =  ik  2 /(ik 2 maV 0 ). Since R = B/A 2 and T   = C/A 2 , we
−  | |  | |
get
  m2 a2 V 02   k2  4
R = 2 4 , T   = .
k   + m2 a2 V 02 k 2  4 + m2 a2 V 02
−  | |
(b)  Call x < a region I, x < a region II, and x > a  region III. Then solving for the
energy eigenstates,    ψ = 2m(E  V (x))ψ, of energy 0 < E  V 0  in each region
−  ≤
gives   ψI    =   Aeikx + Be−ikx ,   ψII    =   Ce−κx + De κx , and   ψII I    =   Ee ikx + F e−ikx ,
  √ 

with    κ   = 2m(V 0 E ) and    k   = 2mE . Scattering boundary conditions
means we set F  = 0 (no incoming particles from x = + ). The incoming wave ∞
has amplitude A, the reflected has amplitude  B, the transmitted amplitude E .
Therefore R = B/A 2 and T   = E/A 2 , so we only need to solve for  B/A and
 | |  | |
E/A.
The boundary conditions at x = a are that ψ and ψ  are continuous, implying
±
−ika ika κa −κa

Ae Be
− +ikBe =   Ce +κaDe , −κa
ikAe−ika ika
=  −
κCe + κDe ,
Eeika =   Ce−κa + Deκa ,
ikEeika = κCe−κa + κDeκa .
 −
Dividing by A and eliminating C/A and D/A gives

B   e−2iak (e4aκ 1)(k 2 + κ2 ) −


 = ,
A (e4aκ 1)(k 2 κ2 ) + 2i(e4aκ + 1)kκ
− −
E    4ie2a(κ−ik) kκ
 = 4aκ 2 2 4aκ
,
A (e 1)(k− −
κ ) + 2i(e + 1)kκ
so
  (e4aκ 2
− 1) (k + κ ) 2 2 2
R =
(e4aκ − 1)2 (k 2 − κ ) + 4(e + 1) k κ ,
2 2 4aκ 2 2 2

and T   = 1 − R.

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Physics 711 January 15, 2010


Problem Set 8

Problem 1:  Exercise 7.3.1


∞ n  2

Plug
to get the power series expansion ψ =
  n=0 cn y −
into the equation ψ +(2ε y )ψ = 0

 c n(n − 1)y n
n−2
+ (2ε 2 n
− y )y  = 0.
n=0

Shift n → n + 2 in the first term, and  n → n − 2 in the third term to get

 y [(n + 2)(n + 1)c
n
n+2  + 2εcn −c n−2 ] =0
n=0

with the convention that


− −
c 2  = c 1  = 0.
This implies
  cn 2 −   2εc n
cn+2  =
(n + 1)(n + 2)
 − (n + 1)(n + 2)
for all n ≥ 0.

Problem 3:  Exercise7.3.7
In the momentum basis ψ  |  →   ψ( p),   P  →   p, and   X   →   i (d/dp), so the energy
eigenvalue equation  mω 2 2
 1 2

2m
P  +
2
  X  |E  = E |E 
becomes
1 2  mω 2 2 

2m
 p ψ( p)
2

    ψ ( p) = Eψ( p).

Compare this to the position-basis equation

mω 2 2
2
  x ψ(x) −  2m
1 2 
  ψ (x) = Eψ(x).

These are the same equations with the substitutions x ↔  p and  m ↔ 1/(mω ).

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Problem 2:  Exercise 7.3.5

  ∞   ∞
   
n|X |n   = ∗
··
dx ψn (x) x ψn (x) = dx x ψn2 (x) since ψn (x) is real
·
−∞ −∞

= 0 since x is odd and ψ n (x) is even.


  ∞   ∞   ∞
 d i 
     
n|P |n   = ∗

dx ψn (x)( i ) ψn (x) = ( i ) dx ψn ψn   = dx (ψn2 )
− 
 − 

−∞
dx 2 −∞ −∞

i   2 ∞
=   −  ψ  n = 0 since ψn  → 0 as |x| → ∞.
2 −∞

  ∞
    mω     ∞ 2
mω 
2
  ∗
2
1/2
2
1/2
− mωx2 /
1|X  |1   = dx ψ x ψ   =
1 1 dx x 2x e
4π    
−∞ −∞

  2 mω 3/2   ∞
  2 mω 3/2
√ 
3 π mω −5 /2
4 − mωx2 /
= dx x e =
√ π   
   −∞ √ π   
 4
   
  3 
= .
2mω
  ∞   ∞
  2 mω 3/2
      2
 mωx2 /2
 
2
1|P  |1   = −∗
 − √ 
dx ψ1 ( i ) ψ1   =   2 
dxxe mωx /2 xe
2 − −

−∞
π   −∞
  ∞
2 2 mω mω mω 2
 3/
2
      2
=  −   √  dx x2 − x 3 e mωx / −

π       −∞

mω 5/2
√   
3 π mω 3/2
2 2   3mω  −

=  −   √ 
  ·−
( 1) =   .
π   4   2

 mω     ∞  mω  1/2
√ π  mω  −3 /2    
2 2 2 − mωx2 /
  | | 
∆X  = 0 X  0   =
π 
dx x e =
  2  
=
2mω
.
−∞

2 2
 mω  
2
e    ∞
−mωx2 /2 − mωx2 /2


∆P  =  0|P  |0   =   −   dx e


π   −∞

2   ∞
mω 
   
   mω  3/2
2 − mωx2 /
=   − √  dx  x −1 e
π  
2
    mω 3/2
−∞
√ π  mω −1 /2   mω 
= ( 1) =  .
   
  − √ π    · − 2   2
    mω     
∴  ∆X  ∆P    =
2mω
· 2
  = .
2

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Physics 828: Homework Set No. 3

Due date: Friday, January 27, 2011, 1:00pm


in PRB M2043 (Biao Huang’s office)
Total point value of set: 60 points + 10 bonus points

Problem 1 (20 pts.):  Exercise 10.3.5 (Shankar, p. 278)

Problem 2 (10 pts.):  Exercise 10.3.6 (Shankar, p. 278)

Problem 3 (5 pts.):  Exercise 11.2.2 (Shankar, p. 283)

Problem 4 (5 pts.):  Exercise 11.4.1 (Shankar, p. 300)

Problem 5 (5 pts.):   Exercise 11.4.2 (Shankar, p. 300). If you correctly derive in closed
form the explicit expression for [  P̂ ,  Ĥ ] you receive  10 bonus points.

Problem 6 (10 pts.):  Exercise 11.4.3 (Shankar, p. 300)

Problem 7 (5 pts.):  Exercise 11.4.4 (Shankar, p. 300)

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Physics 828 Sketch of Solution to Set 2

Shankar 12.3.7

(1) The two-dimensional harmonic oscillator is obviously invariant under rotations


about the z -axis: the magnitude of the position and momenta are unaltered by rota-
tions around the z -axis. Therefore, the Hamiltonian commutes with the generator of 
rotations about the z -axis, Lz .

(2) So we write ψ(ρ, φ) =   eimφ REm (ρ) where m  is an integer, positive or negative.
In two dimensions since we know the Laplacian we have
h̄2 h̄2 m2   1 2 2

  1
  
− REm   + REm  +   + µω ρ  REm (ρ) =   ER Em  .
2µ ρ 2µρ2 2
For small  ρ   assuming that   REm (ρ)   ∝   ρk (derivatives decrease the power by unity
increasing its importance for small  ρ  etc.) we can neglect the potential energy term
and the constant term on the right-hand side. Thus we have
  R   m2

REm   + Em  ∝ 2  R Em   ⇒   [k(k − 1) + k] =   m2 ⇒   k2 =   m2 .
ρ ρ

   2
For the wave function to be normalizable, for 0   d ρ ρ REm (ρ) to be finite at the lower
  ρ→0
limit k   ≥  0. Thus we have REm (ρ) −→   ρ|m| .

(3) For large ρ, terms with inverse powers of   ρ including the centrifugal term and
also the constant term on the right-hand side can be neglected. So we have
2 2 2
REm
   =   µ ω ρ  REm  ;
h̄2
this is identical to the one-dimensional oscillator equation. See the careful analysis on
page 191. Up to powers of   ρ the solution is1
  ρ→∞ µω 2
REm (ρ) −→   e− 2h̄ ρ .
So we write as instructed
1

µω µω 2   µω   µω 2
 µω
 2

REm   =   −  ρ e− 2h̄ ρ and R Em



 = −1 +   ρ  e− 2h̄ ρ .
h̄ h̄ h̄
Thus we can neglect the constant term in   R and recover the solution. One can use this to check
that terms we have neglected are indeed small compared to the terms we have retained. When you
neglect terms it is a good idea to substitute the solution you have obtained and check that the terms
you have neglected are indeed smaller.

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µω 2
REm (ρ) =   U m(ρ) ρ|m| e− 2h̄ ρ .

(4) Use the dimensionless variable      =   h̄ω



  and   y2 =   µω

 ρ2 . Dividing the radial
equation by h̄ω we have dropping the annoying subscripts

 d2   m2
  1  1 d
 1 2

−   +   −  + y  R(y) =    R(y) .
2 dy2 y dy y2 2

(5) We do the substitution and do elementary calculus and obtain the result given:


 2|m| + 1
 
U  +  − 2y  U  + (2 − 2|m| − 2) U   = 0 .
y

(6) We substitute U (y) = ∞ r r
r=0  C r y and collect the coefficient of   y . The second
 
derivative reduces the power by two and so we use the  C r+2  term etc.

(r + 2)(r + 1)C r+2   + (2|m| + 1)(r + 2)C r+2 − 2rC r   + (2 − 2|m| − 2)C r   = 0

yielding a two-term recursion relation.

(7) We write this as

C r+2   (2( − |m| − r − 1)


= −  .
C r (r + 2)(2|m| + r + 2)
First if  C 0  is given C 2  and the other even terms can be computed. As r → ∞ we have
C r+2  2
→  .
C r r
2 2
This implies that U (y) grows as ey which overwhelms the e−y /2 in R pushing it out
of the Hilbert space. So the series must terminate. Thus the boundary condition at
infinity leads as usual to energy quantization.

What about the odd terms? A series only with odd terms (set C 0  = 0 so that all even
terms vanish) is inconsistent since then U (y)   ∼   y for small y and thus R(ρ)   ∼   ρ|m|+1
inconsistent with our earlier result in (2). This appears to be suggested as an argu-
ment. What if one starts with C 0  and C 1  non-zero? Substituting into the equation for
U  we find that the (1/y)(dU/dy) leads to the term C 1 /y and there is no other source
of  y −1 terms. Thus C 1  = 0 and therefore, all odd terms vanish.

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Therefore, we have r = 2k and the termination of the series condition yields

   = 1 + r   + |m|   =   |m| + 2k   + 1   ≡   (n + 1)

with k  = 0, 1, , 2, · · ·.

(8) Since |m|   =   n − 2k for a given n  (i.e., for a given energy) the maximum value

of  m is n which occurs for k = 0, The azimuthal quantum number m decreases by steps


of 2 until m reaches the value −n. It is easy to se that there are  n + 1 allowed values
of  m  yielding a degeneracy of  n + 1. In Cartesian coordinates the energy is n x + ny + 1
in units of h̄ω. So the degeneracy corresponds to the number of ways in which we can
choose two non-negative integers to add up to n. We can choose nx  to be any integer
from 0 to n and ny  = n − nx . This yields the same degeneracy.

Shankar 12.6.1

(1) Since there is no angular dependence  = 0.

(b) We have R(r)   ∝   e−r/a and for large r (retaining only the dominant terms)
0

h̄2 
− R =   ER(r) .
2m
2
  h̄
Substituting the given form we obtain   E   =   − 2ma . 2
0

(c) Clearly the   R term and the energy term cancel for all  r. If the equation is
valid for all r we must have
h̄2 2 
−  R + V  (r) R(r) = 0 .
2m r
Substituting R(r) =   e−r/a we obtain
0

h̄2   h̄2
  + V  (r) = 0   ⇒   V  (r) =   −  .
ma0r ma0 r
Shankar 13.1.1 and 13.1.3  You should be able to fill in the steps. Here are some

steps dropping some subscripts for notational simplicty.



C k ρk++1 .
v =

k=0

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Substituting into
e2 λ   ( + 1)
 
 
v − 2v +  −  v   = 0 (1)
ρ ρ2
we extract the coefficient of   ρk+l carefully. Since two derivatives reduce the power of 
ρ by two we should start from the term with  ρk++2 with coefficient C k+1  for the first
term and similarly for the last term. For the second and third terms which reduce the
power of   ρ by unity we can start with the  ρk++1 term with coefficient C k . Thus we
have

(k +  + 2)(k +  + 1)C k+1   − 2(k +  + 1)C k   + e2 λC k   − ( + 1)C k+1   = 0 (2)

which yields
C k+1   −q 2λ  + 2(k +  + 1)
=   (3)
C k (k +  + 2)(k +  + 1)  − ( + 1)
  2m
Since λ2 = h̄2 W 
 from 13.1.9. For the numerator to vanish we have
2
e4 λ2 =   − 2me   = 4(k +  + 1) 2 .
h̄2 E 
This yields 13.1.14.
Mathematical aside:  Here is a different representation using classical mathemat-
∞ k
ical physics. Note that the function L(ρ)   ≡ k=0  C k ρ obeys the equation
 
ρL (ρ) + [ 2( + 1)  − 2ρ ]L (ρ) + (q 2 λ − 2( + 1))L(ρ) = 0   .

Substituting q 2 λ   = 2n (where n is an integer eventually) we have

1 ρL + [ ( + 1)  − ρ ]L + (n − ( + 1))L   = 0   .


2
Let z  = 2ρ we have

d2 L dL
z  2   + [2( + 1)  − z ]   − ( + 1 − n)L   = 0 .
dz  dz 
We know (with a good mathematical methods course) that the general solution to

zw  + (c − z ) w − aw   = 0

is given by the confluent hypergeometric function  w   =   1 F 1 (a; c; z ). Thus we find that
the solution L(ρ) is  1 F 1 (+1−n; 2+2; 2ρ) . The particular terminating (for integer n)

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confluent hypergeometric function can be related to the  associated Laguerre polynomial.

Shankar 13.3

We are considering the case n = 2 and  = 1 and thus k = 0 in the notation of the
4
text. So we have W   =   me
8h̄
 from 13.1.4 and form 13.1.6
2

  2mW    me2   r
ρ = 2   r   = 2 r =
h̄ 2h̄ 2a0

using 13.1.24. From 13.1.10 since k = 0 and  = 1 we have v   =   C 0 ρ2 and thus

  U (r) − r
R(r) =   =   C e a  r 2 0

where C   is an overall constant. We know that Y 10   =  4π3


 
 cos θ from 12.5.39 which is
−r/(2a )
normalized. So all we need is that Ce r is notmalized when integrated over the
0

radial coordinate. We have


 ∞
 
2 −  ar
C  dr r2 r 2 e 0   =   C 2 24 a50 .
0
 
Thus C   = 24a 1
× 1/a0  and including the normalization from the spherical harmonic
3
0

yields the quoted answer.

Shankar 13.5

Since we are asked to compute Ω for stationary states |nm its time derivative


vanishes. Thus we have  [Ω, H ]   = 0 by Ehrenfests’ theorem. So we compute the
commutator for Ω =   R
  · P 
   as ordered. We calculate (using the summation convention)
  P i P i
   P i P i
    ·   
P  P 
R j P  j ,   = R j ,  P  j   = 2ih̄   = 2ih̄ T .
2m 2m 2m
We have used
[R j , P i P i ] =   P i [R j , P i ] + [R j , P i ]P i   = 2ih̄ P  j .
We consider the potential energy term next:
  d

[R j P  j , V  (R)] =   R j [P  j , V  (R)] =   R j −ih̄ V  (R)  .
dR j

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Note that [P i , V  (R)] can be evaluated in the coordinate representation (in Cartesian
coordinates) by acting on a function f (r):
  ∂    ∂ 
   ∂    ∇V.
 
[P i , V  (r)]f (r) =   −ih̄ V  (r)f (r) − V  (r) V  (r)f (r)   =   −ih̄ V  (r) =   −ih̄R·
∂r i ∂r i ∂r i

Thus we can write formally [P i , V  (R)] =   −ih̄∂V  (R)/∂R i . So we need to evaluate


  ·   
R ∇V  (R). In the coordinate representation using spherical coordinates for central
potentials this is just rV   (r). For the Coulomb potential we obtain −V  (r) and including
the factor of   −ih̄ we obtain ih̄ V  (r). Substituting into the basic relation we have

2T   + V    = 0

as asserted. If   V  (R)   ∝   Rn, rV   (r) =   nV  and thus we obtain T    =   n2 V .

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Physics 710 March 12, 2010


Problem Set 15

r/a0
Problem 12.6.1:   ψE  = Ae −
.

(1) No (θ, φ)-dependence implies ψ E  ∝ Y 00 , so we must have  = 0 and m = 0.


(2) Therefore ψ E  = R E, =0  =   1r U E,0  which satisfies eqn. (12.6.5) with  = 0:


 2µ
(rψE ) + 2
 [E  − V (r)](rψE ) = 0.   (1)
 

As r   → ∞,   V (r)  →  0, which implies in this limit (rψE ) = A(1 −  ar )e r/a ≈ 

0
− 0

−(A/a0 )re r/a , so (rψE ) ≈   (A/a20 )re r/a . Therefore, eqn. (1) reads in this
− 0  − 0

limit
A 2µE 
2
re r/a = − 2   Are r/a ,− 0 − 0

a0  

from which it follows that    


2

E   = − .
2µa20
(3) Now plug E  into (1) and use (rψE ) = A(− a2 +  ar )e 

0
2
r/a0

to get
0


2  r
A − + 2
 e − r/a0
+
 2µ
 −
   
2

− V (r) Are
 −r/a0
= 0,
a0 a0  2 2µa20
which gives
2
   
V (r) = − .
µa0 r

Problem 12.6.4:

 
(1) δ 3 (r − r ) is defined by the property that  d3 rδ 3 (r − r )f (r) = f (r ). So simply  

check:
    1
  r 2 dr sin θdθdφ 2 
δ (r − r )δ (θ − θ )δ (φ − φ )f (r,θ,φ)  

r sin θ
=
   
  drdθdφδ (r − r )δ (θ − θ )δ (φ − φ )f (r,θ,φ) = f (r , θ , φ ).    

∂ 
= 0 then ∇2 ( 1r ) =   r1 ∂r
(2) If r  (r2  ∂r
2
∂  1 ∂ 
( r ))+(angular parts) =   r1 ∂r ∂ 
(r2 ( r 1 )) =   r1 ∂r (−1) = 2

2 2

0. When   r   = 0 the above calculation breaks down since terms are singu-
lar there. So consider an arbitrary continuous function  f (r) and the integral
     

 d3 x∇2 ( 1r )f (r) = lim 0 0  r2 dr  dΩ∇2 ( 1r )f (r), since   ∇2 ( 1r ) = 0 for   r >   0.

Then, integrating by parts we get


   
  d3 x∇2
1
f (r) = lim
           
 
  1
  f (r)∇
r2 dr   dΩ ∇·   1
  f (r) ·∇
− ∇ .
r  0 →
0 r r

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      ∂ 
     
Now recall that in spherical coordinates   ∇
2
    = r   ∂   + θ 1 ∂   + φ   1 ∂  , implying
∂r r ∂θ r sin θ ∂φ
that ∇(1/r) = r (1/r) = −r/r , so
 
   ∂r
             
3
  d x∇ 2 1
f   = lim
 
  −r  f 
r2 dr   dΩ ∇·   f    1
+ r ·∇ .
r  0 →
0 r2 r2
       f   = (∂f/∂r)|r=0  =
The second term on the right side vanishes, because as  → 0, r ·∇
const., so:
      
lim
        f 
r2 dr   dΩ r·∇
 1
 = const.· lim
 
r 2 dr   dΩ
 1
 = const.· lim 4π = 0.
→0 0 r2  0 →
0 r2 → 0

Therefore,
   3
  d x∇
         
2 1
f    = lim
 
  −r  f 
r 2 dr   dΩ∇·   = lim   dΩr2 r· −r
 f 
r  0 →
0 r2 →0 r2 r=

           
=   − lim   dΩ f |r=   =   −f (0) lim
→0 →0
  dΩ   =   −f (0) lim 4π
→0

=   −4πf (0).
 
In the second step I used the divergence theorem which states R d3 x∇·
      g   =
∂R
d2 a n·g  where R is any region, ∂R is its boundary, n  is the normal unit vector
 
to   ∂R   (pointing out of   R) and   d2 a   is the surface area element. In our case
R =  {r < }, d2 a = dΩ, n  = r, and g   =  −r (f /r2 ). Thus we have shown that
      
∇2 (1/r) = 0 for r   = 0 and for any f (r) that  d3 x∇2 (1/r)f   = −4πf (0). This is
the  definition  of the delta function, so

 ∇2 1  = −4πδ 3 (r).
r

Problem 12.6.9:   Since    = 0,   ψ   =   R(r)Y 00 (θ, φ) =  R(r). So the radial equation


becomes, with ψ(r) = (1/r)U (r),
  d 2
  
2µ(E  + V 0 )
 + k 2 U in  = 0   r ≤ r0 , k  ≡   ,
dr 2 2
 

 d2 −2µE 
2
 − κ2 U out  = 0   r ≥ r0 , κ≡ 2
 ,
dr      
where k and κ are defined to be the positive root. The solutions of these equations are
 
U in   =   A sin kr + A cos kr,
 
U out   =   Be κr + Be +κr .

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Physics 710-712 April 2, 2010


Problem Set 16

5
Problem 13.3.1:   To say the pion has a range of   λ  10 −
angstroms is to say that

a∆X 
single
 ∆P  pion
    ,can
we be localized
then deduceon this
∆P    scale: ∆X  ∼  λ. From the uncertainty principle
   /λ. Since we assume  λ   is the smallest scale
on which we can localize the pion, it is plausible that the inequality is saturated, so
P  ∼   ∆P  ∼    /λ. The relation between the energy and momentum is (from special
relativity)  E 2 =   m2 c4 + c 2 P 2 ∼   m2 c4 + c 2  2 /λ2 . Now, for the notion of a “single
2
pion” to exist, we must have   E      2mc √  . (See discussion in text on p. 363). So
2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2
4m c  m c + c   /λ , or mc  c /( 3λ). Again, since λ is the smallest scale, it is
plausible that the inequality is saturated, giving

mc 2
∼ √ c  ∼ 2000 eV A

∼ 100 MeV.
3λ − 5
1.7 × 10 A
2
(In reality m π c = 140 MeV.)

Problem 13.3.2:   Since the kinetic energy is T   = 200 eV    0.5 MeV    mc2 , the
electron
√  is non-relativistic, so we can use T   = p2 /(2m) = ( p2 c2 )/(2mc2 ) which implies
 pc = 2mc2 T . Then
√  ◦ √ 
 2π   2π c   2π c 2π(2000 eV A) 2π ◦ ◦

λ =  =   = √   = A 1 A  .
 p  pc
 
2mc2 T  (0.5 × 106 eV)(200 eV) 10

Problem 13.3.3:   Recalling E n  = −Ry/n2  −13eV/n2, we have


P (n = 2) (E 2 −E 1 )/kT  [(−1/4)−(−1)]13 eV/(kB T ) 105 /(T /K )
 = 4e −
= 4e −
 4e −

P (n = 1)

where I used (kB /eV) ∼  9 × 10 5 K 1 . So it is clear that we need T     10 5 K so that


− −

the exponent is not very small. For example, if  T  = 6000 K, then

P (n = 2) 105 /(6000) 16


P (n = 1)
  4e −
 4e −
∼ 2 × 10 7  1.

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Physics 710-712 May 14, 2010


Problem Set 21

  1
Problem 17.2.1:   With   H 0 = 2m
P 2 +   12 mω 2 X 2 and   H 1 =   λX 4 , and using that

 
X   = /  (2mω)(a + a ), we have:
(1):
2

E n1   =  n|H  |n   =  4mλ ω n|(a + a ) |n


1
2 2
† 4

2
  λ  2 †2 † † † 2 † †2 † † †2 2
=
4m ω
n|(a a + aa aa + a a a + aa a + a aa a + a a )|n
2 2

2
  λ  2 †2 †
=
4m ω
n|(6a a − 12aa + 3)|n
2 2

2
  λ 
=
4m ω
{6n + 2|(n + 1)(n + 2)|n + 2 − 12n + 1|(n + 1)|n + 1 + 3n|n}
2 2

2 2
=   λ  {6(n + 1)(n + 2) − 12(n + 1) + 3}   =   3  λ (2n + 2n + 1), 2

4m ω 2 2
4m ω 2 2

where in the first line we dropped the zero superscripts from the unperturbed eigen-
states; in the second line we kept only terms with equal numbers of  a’s and a † ’s; in the
third line we used [a, a† ] = 1; and in the fourth line we used  a † n = n + 1 n + 1 . |  √  | 
(2):  For any finite value of  λ, as n gets large
E n1 2
λn2 /(m2 ω 2 )
∆E 
 ∼    
 ω
  ∼ n m   λω   1.
2
2 3

Physically, at large x, no matter how small λ  is,


 mω2 2
V (x) =   x + λx4 ∼ λx 4

2

for λ = 0.

Problem 17.2.2:   H   =   µB    = γ S 


  B     =   H 0 + H 1 with   H 0 = γB 0 S z   and
 − ·  − ·  −
0
H 1 = γBS x . The H 0 eigenvalues are E ±0  = γB 0  /2 with eigenstates
 − , the S z  ∓  |±
eigenstates. Then

E ±1  = ±| H  |± = −γB ±| S  |± = − γB2  ±| (S   + S  )|±
0 1 0 0
x
0 0
+ −
0
= 0,

and
2
E ±  =
 |±| −|  |

=
0
H 1 m 0
E ±0 E m
E  − E 
0
4
2
  |±| H  |∓ | =   γ  B |±| (S   + S  )|∓ |
∓γB  
0

0
1

0
0 2 2 2 0
+

0

0 2

m ± ∓

= ∓
γB
|±|
2

S  |∓ | =  ∓
γB 0 0 2
|±|   (  ∓ (∓ ))(  ± (∓ ))|∓ |
±
2
0
  1
2
1
2
3
2
1
2
0 2
=  ∓ γ B
 
2

,
4B   0 4B   0 4B0

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Problem 17.3.2:   H   = AS z2 + B(S x2 2


 − S  ) on the spin-1 Hilbert space.
y In the S z
 |  ±
basis, m  (m = 1, 0), we have
 1 0

0
 
   
0 1 0
  − 
  i 
0 1 0
S z  =    0 0 0 , S x  = √  2
1 0 1 , S y  = √  2
 − 1 0 1

0 0  1  − 
(see p. 328 of the text). This implies
  0 1 0   0 1 0

 
2
A 0 B
H   =     0 0 0 .   (2)
B 0 A
Clearly  0
m = 0 =
|  | 1
0

is the eigenvector
where H  = H 0 + H 1 with
     
with E  = 0. So we only need to look at the m  =  |   |±1  subspace
0 2 1 0 0 1
H  =    A , H 1 =    2 B   on the m =  |  {|±1}  subspace.
0 1 1 0
H 0 is degenerate:   H 0 m =   2 A m for m =
|  |  ±1. The basis stable under H  1
is the one
which diagonalizes H 1 . Since
    
0 1 1
   −  
=
1
  and
0 1  1
=
 1
,
1 0 1 − 1 − 1 0 1 1
1

the eigenvectors of  H  are


  ≡ √  |  |−  −  ≡ √  | −|− 
 1  1
1 (1 + 1) and 1 (1 1 ).
2 2
To order  O
  − 
(B), the energy shifts of  1 and 1 are
    √       √ 
E 11   = 1 H 1 1   =    2 B
 1
2
1 1
0 1
1 0
1  1
1 2
=    2 B,

E −1 1   =
−  −  √     −   −  √   −
1 H 1 1   =    2 B
 1
2
1 1
0 1
1 0
 1   1
1 2
=  
2
B.

  O
So, the eigenvalues, to (B), are
E 1  =    2 (A + B), − E −1  =    2 (A B), E 0  = 0.
Compare this to the exact eigenvalues of (2) given by 0 = det(H  λ) = λ( 2 (B A) + − −
λ)( 2 (B + A) λ), which implies λ = 0,  2 (A B),  2 (A + B) . So, the (B) results
− { − } O
are exact.

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Physics 710-712 May 26, 2010


Problem Set 22

Problem 18.2.2:   To first order, the amplitude d2m ( ) for the atom to be in the ∞
|n = 2,  , m  state is
i
   ∞

t2 /τ 2 iω21 t
d2m ( ) = ∞ −   2m|(eE Z )|100e −
e dt
−∞

since the potential H 1 (t) =      = eZ  e t /τ  . Here ω21  = (E 2 E 1 )/ , which from
µ E  −· E  −
2 2

now on we’ll just call   ω. So we need to evaluate 2m Z  100 .   Z   is a component   | | 
of a vector irreducible tensor operator,   Z   =   T 10 , so by angular momentum selection
  | | 
rules, only the 210 Z  100   matrix element is non-vanishing. This matrix element is
easily evaluated using the wave functions for the the 210  and 100  states, and that  |   | 
Z   = r cos θ:
  ∞
1/2 1/2
       1   r
2 r/2a0
  1  r/a0
210|Z |100   = r dr   dΩ
2 πa a
e 5 3

cos θ (r cos θ) 3 e

0
   1    2
0
  ∞
0

4
   1 πa
3r/2a0
0

= 2π d(cos θ)cos θ · dr r e −
·2 5/2 πa 4
− 1 0 0
      15
2 2a 0
  ∞

= 2π ·3· dρ ρ4 e − ρ
·2 5/2 πa 4
= 215/2 3 · ·a .
− 5
0
3 0 0

Therefore

d2m ( ) =   δ 1 δ m0


−i e 215/2 3 − 5
a0
  ∞

e
− t2 /τ 2 iωt
e dt
∞   E·
−ieE    · · √    −∞

ω 2 τ 2 /2
=   δ 1 δ m0 215/2 − 5
·3 ·a πτ  e 0
2 −
,
 

and so the probability for the transition is


 |d  eE   2 a  2 15 2
2 0 ω 2 τ 2 /2
P (n=2) = 2m | = πτ 2 e −
.
,m
  310

This answer does not depend on the electron spin: since S z  is conserved by H 0 and
H 1 , there is still only a single final state it can go into.

Problem 18.2.4:   The kinetic energy of the emitted electron is 16 keV =   12 mve2   =
1 2 2  1 2
2 mc (ve /c) = 2 (511keV)(ve /c) , which implies that ve /c  1/4. Therefore the time,  ∼
 ∼
τ , for emission is   τ    a0 /ve   = (a0 /c)/(ve /c)   4a0 /c, since the typical size of the  ∼
1s electron orbit is   r   a0 , the Bohr radius. In comparison, the characteristic time
 ∼
 ∼
scale of the 1s electron,  T , is T   a 0 /vs  = (a0 /c)/(vs /c) = (a0 /c)/α  140a0 /c, since  ∼

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the typical velocity of an electron bound in the hydrogen atom is  vs /c = α, the fine
structure constant. Therefore, T  τ , and the sudden approximation is appropriate.
 
In the sudden approximation, right after emission the 1s electron will be in the same
| 
state, the 100 (Z =1)  state of hydrogen. Therefore, the amplitude for the electron to be
in the 100 (Z =2)  state of (He3 )+ is given by the overlap
 |     ∞
   Z   3 1/2  1  1/2
2 rZ/a0 r/a0
(Z =2) 100|100(Z =1)  = r dr   dΩ
πa 3 e

· πa 3 e−

0 0 0
3/2
2   27/2  a   
    ∞

2 3r/a0 0
3   ∞

= 4π · πa 3 r dre −
= ρ2 dρe − ρ
= 29/2 3 3 ,
· −

0 0 a30 3 0

where in the first line  Z  = 2 and I used the fact that under changing the hydrogen
nucleus charge from 1 to Z , all that changes is a 0 a0 /Z .  →
 | 
Finally,   (Z =2) 16, 3, 0 100 (Z =1)  = 0 since  = 3 states are orthogonal to   = 0 ones
(and the radial part, and therefore  Z , does not affect this).

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Problem S18.4.3 (Shankar, page 494):

(1)  Show that a gauge transformation on potentials φ 0  and  A 0 using


Λ r, t = − c φ (r , t ′)dt ′    (1.1)


0
( ) ∫
−∞

gives φ 1( r , t ) = 0  and  A1( r , t ) = A 0 − ∇Λ 0  


Solution:  This is problem 1 of HW8.

(2)  Show that if we transform once more to φ 2  and  A 2  using

1 ∇  ′i A1(r ′, t ) 3
4π  ∫
Λ 1= − d r ′   (1.2)
r − r ′

 A r t 
then ∇i 2
( , ) = 0.

Solution:  Using equation (18.4.12) from Shankar (  A′ = A − ∇Λ ),we have


1  ⎡ ∇′i A ( r ′, t ) ⎤
= A1 (r , t ) + ∫ ∇ ⎥d r ′  
1 3
 A2 ( r , t ) ⎢ (1.3)
4π  ⎣ r − r ′ ⎦
 Note that the integrand is the gradient of a scalar function, which produces a vector. If
we now take the divergence of this, we get
1 ⎡
2   ∇′i A1 ( r ′, t )
⎤ 3
4π  ∫
∇i A2 (r , t ) = ∇i A1 (r , t ) + ∇   ⎢ ⎥d r ′   (1.4)
⎣ r − r ′ ⎦
Since the only r-dependence in the integrand comes from the denominator, we can use
the identity
∇ 2 (1/ r − r ′ ) = −4  πδ 3 ( r − r ′ )    (1.5)
Substituting this into (1.4) and doing the integrals over d 3r   gives
1
∇i A2 (r , t ) = ∇i A1 (r , t ) + [ −4π ∇′ i A1 (r ′, t )]r′= r  = ∇i A1 (r , t ) − ∇i A1 (r , t ) = 0   (1.6)
4π 

(3)  Verify that φ 2  is also zero using ∇i E 0 = 0 .

Solution:
1 ∂Λ 1 ∂ ⎪⎧ ∇  ′i A1 (r ′, t ) d 3r ′⎪⎫  
φ2 (r , t ) = φ1 + = φ 1 − ⎨∫
  ⎬   (1.7)
c ∂t 4π c ∂t ⎩
⎪ r − r′   ⎭⎪
Incorporating the results of part (1), this becomes

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Physics 215C Homework #1 Solutions


Richard Eager
Department of Physics
University of California; Santa Barbara, CA 93106

Shankar 20.1.1

Derive the continuity equation


∂P 
  + ∇ · j = 0
∂t
where P  = ψ † ψ and j  = cψ † αψ

The Dirac equation takes the equivalent forms

∂ |ψ
  = cα · P  + βmc2 |ψ
i 
 
∂t
∂ψ
  i

 = −cα · ∇ − βmc 2 ψ
∂t  

The conjugate equation is

∂ψ †
∂t
 = −cα · ∇ +   i βmc  ψ
 
2 †

∂P  ∂ψ  ∂ ψ†
  = ψ †   +  ψ
∂t ∂t ∂t
= −c ψ† α · ∇ψ + (α · ∇ψ† )ψ
 
∇ · j =  c ∇ψ† αψ + ψ † α · ∇ψ
 
Adding both equations together yields the desired result
∂P 
  + ∇ · j = 0
∂t
2
Both terms in the Hamiltonian, cα · P   and βmc are Hermitian, so where did
the relative minus sign come from? To show that P  is a Hermitian operator you
need to integrate by parts. If you are working with the L2 inner product you
can drop boundary terms, but when working locally to derive the continuity
equation we don’t integrate by parts and get a relative minus sign.

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Show that the probability current j  of the previous exercise reduces in the non-
relativistic limit to Eq.(5.3.8) [which is the same as Sakurai Eq.(2.4.16)].


 0   σ
The probability current  j   = cψ αψ   and α =  We can write the wave
χ σ   0
function ψ =   in terms of its relativistic and non-relativistic components,
Φ
Φ and χ  respectively.
 

0   σχ

 j =  c χ Φ   (0.1)
σ   0 Φ
† †

= c χ σΦ + Φ σχ
   (0.2)
In the non-relativistic limit (20.2.13)
 σ · π
Φ≈
2mc
  pˆ †   pˆ †
 j =  χ χ+( χ )χ
2m 2m
which is the non-relativistic current (5.3.8)
   
 j =  (ψ ∗ ∇ψ − ψ∇ψ∗ )
2mi
from the identification  p =
ˆ −i ∇.

Shankar 20.2.1

Show that
 
π × π =  iq 
c B
where π  = P  −   qA
c
 .
 qA  qA  qA  qA
π × π = P  × P   −   × P   − P   ×   +   ×
c c c c

= −  (A × P  + P   × A)
c
 iq  
=   (A × ∇ + ∇ × A)
c
The simplest way to manipulate operators is to act on a test function ψ
iq    iq  
  (A × ∇ + ∇ × A) ψ =   (A × ∇ψ + ∇ × (ψA))
c c 
 iq 
=   (A × ∇ψ + (∇ψ)A + (∇ × A)ψ)
c
 iq  
=   (∇ × A) ψ
c
 iq  
=   Bψ
c
Therefore
 iq  
π × π =  B
c

2
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Shankar 20.1.1

Solve for the 4 spinors w that satisfy Shankar Eq. 20.3.3. You may assume that
the 3- momentum    p is along the z-axis. Normalize them to unity, and show that
they are mutually orthogonal.
Equation (20.3.3) is
Ew = (α · p + βm)w
In terms of the relativistic and non-relativistic components,
E − m   −σ · p χ 0
=
−σ · p E  + m Φ 0

The solutions are given in equations (20.3.7) and (20.3.8). Choosing the basis
 
1 0
and for Φ and letting p  be in the z  direction,
0 1

 p/(±E − m)  0 
 0  w  p/(±E − m)
w1,3  = 
 1  2,4  =  
0
 0 
1

Orthogonality of the spinors is easy to see using  E 2 = p 2 + m2 .

The five terms in 20.2.28 are

P 2
  Hermitian
2m
V    Hermitian
  P 4
−   Hermitian
8m3 c2
iσ · P  × [P, V ]
  Hermitian
4m2 c2
P   · [P, V ]
  anti-Hermitian
4m2 c2

Recall that  P̂   is a Hermitian operator, the potential  V   is assumed to be


Hermitian (for conservation of probability) and the Pauli matrices σ  are Her-
mitian. The commutator [X, Y ] of two Hermitian operators is anti-Hermitian
since [X, Y ]† = (XY )† − (Y X )† =   Y † X † − X † Y † =   Y X   − XY   =   −[X, Y ].
The cross product of two Hermitian (vector) operators is again Hermitian since
(X × Y )† = X † × Y † = X  × Y.

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