PCO RED PACOP ANSWER KEY

151. Which of the following are pharmacologic responses elicited by phenothiazine?

I. Antipsychotic effect
II. Antiparkinsonian effect
III. Anti-adrenergic, anticholinergic, antihistaminic and antiserotonin effects
IV. Antiemetic effect
A. I only is correct D. I,II,IV are correct
B. III only is correct E. I,II,III,IV are correct
C. II, III,IV are correct
152. Which of the following drugs is/are a butyrophenone derivative?
I. thioridazine
II. Fluphenazine
III. Droperidol
IV. Haloperidol
A. I only is correct D. III and IV are correct
B. IV only is correct E. I,II,III & IV are correct
C. I and II are correct
For numbers. 153-157, refer to the structure of morphine.
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding modifications at the phenolic function at
position 3?

A. masking the hydroxyl group at position 3 by either esterificationor etherification increases all
morphine type effects and almost always increases convulsant action.
B. Methylmorphine, also known as codeine, is more potent than morphine.
C. Maximal analgesic effects are observed with the free phenolic group at the 3 position.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
154. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding modifications of the alcoholic
function at position 3?
A. Masking the hydroxyl group at position 6 increases all morphine type effects.
B. 6-ethylmorphine and 3,6-diacetylmorphine are more potent than morphine itself.
C. The oxygen function at position 6 is essential for analgesic activity
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
155. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the 7-8 double bond?
A. Reduction of the 7-8 double bonds in morphine results in a decrease in activity.
B. Dihydromorphine and dihydrocodeine is more potent than the parent compound
morphine.
C. Unsaturation is essential for activity
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
156. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tertiary nitrogen?
A. Conversion of the tertiary nitrogen to a quaternary nitrogen results in a decrease of
analgesic activity
B. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
antagonistic properties to morphine effects.
C. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
increased morphine type effects.
D. A and B
E. B and C
157. Which of the following statements correctly describe the cardiac glycosides digoxin and
digitoxin?
A. Digoxin is more toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl group that makes
it more lipophilic.
 B. Digoxin is less toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl grouo that makes it
more hydrophilic.
C. Digoxin has longer duration of action than digitoxin.
D. A and B
E. B and C
158. What is the probable mechanism of action of cardiac agent with the following structure?

O₂NO CH ₂

CH ONO ₂

O ₂ NO CH ₂

A. It is an inotropic agent
B. It relaxes the vascular smooth muscle (vasodilation)
C. It inhibits the calcium ion reflux into myocardial cells
D. It blocks the beta adrenergic receptor
E. None of the above
159. A drug used in the treatment in myocardial insufficiency that is structurally similar to
adenosine, a natural vasodilatory substance released by the myocardium during hypoxic
episodes.
A. Cyclandelate D. Diltiazem
B. Dypirydamole E. Nifedipine
C. Papaverine
160. An antiarrythmic drug composed of a quinoline ring and a bicyclic quinuclidine ring system
connected by a hydroxymethylene bridge that is a member of a family of alkaloids found in
cinchona bark.
A. Disopyridamole D. Tocainide
B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. Quinidine
161. An antiarrythmic drug that is an ᾳ-methyl analog structurally related to
monoethylglycinexylide, the active metabolite of xylocaine.
A. Disopyramide D. Tocainide
 B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. quinidine
162. What is the use the mechanism of action of this antiplatelet drug with the following
structure:

A. It blocks the platelet phosphodiesterase enzyme, therefore leading to higher cyclic

adenosine monophosphate levels.
B. It reversibly inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme
C. It irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation by acetylating cyclooxygenase enzyme
D. A and C only
E. None of the choices
163. Which of the following statement is true regarding agonist at the H1 and H2 receptor
antagonist of histamine?
A. H1 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are more likely to produce cns side
effects
B. H2 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are less likely to produce cns side
effects
C. Both H1 and H2 antagonist are indicated for ulcer theraphy
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
164. Which of the following statements correctly describes the ideal anesthetic agent?
I. it should provide adequate muscular contraction
II. It should produce rapid and uncomplicated induction and emergence
III. It should have no effect on myocardium or respiration at anesthetic doses.
 IV. It should be non-flammable
A. I, II, III, IV D. I,II only
B. II,III,IV only E. III & Iv only
C. II & III only
165. Which f the following statement is true regarding anesthetics?
I. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers increases the anesthetic activity.
II. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers decreases the anesthetic activity.
III. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether increases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
IV. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether decreases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
A. I,IV only D. II,IV only
B. I,III only E. none of the above
C. II,III only
166. Which of the following statements is true regarding halogenated anesthetic agents?
I. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability
II. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often increases anesthetic potency.
III. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability
IV. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often decreases anesthetic potency.
A. I & II only D. none of the above
B. I & IV only
C. II & III only
167. Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of
depressant activity?
A. Oxidation of substituents
B. Desulfuration of 2-thiobarbiturates
C. Hydrolytic cleavage of the barbituric ring
D. All of the above
 E. None of the above
168. Which of the following acids has mycobacteriostatic activity?
A. Propionic acid
B. Chaulmoogric acid
C. Mandelic acid
D. Salicylic acid
E. Amino acid
169. Which of the following alcohols has a local anesthetic property?
A. Benzyl alcohol
B. 2-propanol
C. Ethanol
D. 2-pyridinemethanol
E. choline
170. Which of the following amino ethers has antihistamine property?
A. Dimethisoquin
B. Benzidioxanes
C. Clomiphene
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Methoxyphenamine
171. Which of the following halogenated compounds has hypnotic properties?
A. Ethyl chloride
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Chloral
D. Hexachlorophene
E. Chloroform
For nos 172-175, refer to the structure of cetirizine and clemastine as shown below:

Cetirizine Clemastine
172. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the structural features of cetirizine
and clemastine?
A. Cetirizine and clemastine can cross the blood brain barrier because of the hydrophobic
aromatic rings and aliphatic hydrocarbon chains
B. Cetirizine will more likely cause drowsiness than clemastine
C. clemastine will more likely cause drowsiness than cetirizine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
173. Which of the following functional groups can decrease the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
174. Which of the following functional groups can increase the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
 C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
175. If a truck driver asks you to recommend an antihistamine drug for his seasonal allergies,
which of the two drugs will you recommend?
A. Clemastine
B. Cetirizine
C. Either clemastine and cetirizine
D. None of the choices
176. A 35 year old woman comes to the pharmacy and asks you to recommend an antifungal
cream rather than a spray or powder. You recommended terbinafine, an effective topical
antifungal agent that is sold over the counter. What are the structural features/functional groups
present in terbinafine that makes it an agent that can be used topically?

A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
D. Alkane
B. Alkene
E. All of the above
C. AlkyneAll
177. Which among the following amino
acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target enzyme of terbinafine and form an
ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
A. Valine
B. Isoleucine
C. Alanine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Serine
178. . Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the
target enzyme of terbinafine and form an hydrophobic interaction with the aromatic
hydrocarbons?
A. Phenylalanine
 B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Arginine
179. Wich of the following drugs is an ethylenediamine antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
180. Which of the following drugs in an example of tricyclic antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
181. Which of the following drugs is an example of an ethanolamine ether antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
182. Which of the following drugs has a little or no sedative qualities?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
 E. All of the above
183. According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit
time determines the intensity of the biological response
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
E. Molecular pertubation theory
184. This drug receptor theory suggest that the biological response is directly related to the
number of receptors bound by an agonist.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
E. Molecular pertubation theory
185. This drug receptor theory suggest that the drug approaches the receptor, a conformational
change occurs in the receptor to allow effective binding.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
E. Molecular pertubation theory
186. According to this theory, receptors are always in dynamic equilibrium between active and
inactive states. Agonist function by shifting the equilibrium toward the activated state, whereas
antagonist prevent the activated state.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
 E. Molecular pertubation theory
187. This drug receptor theory suggest that two types of conformational changes exist and the
rate of their existence determines the observed biological response.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
E. Molecular pertubation theory
188. Which of the following statements correctly describes an agonist?
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
B. They may have similar structure to the ligand
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural
ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
189. Which of the following statements correctly describes an antagonist?
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
B. They may have similar structure to the ligand
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural
ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
190. These are exogenous chemical messengers that act as antagonist, but also eliminate any
resting acivity associated with a receptor.
A. Partial agonist
B. Inverse agonist
C. Hormones
D. Neurotransmitters
E. None of the choices
191. This condition may occur when an agonist is bound to its receptor for a long period of time.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. None of the above
192. This condition may occur when an antagonist is bound to a receptor for a long period of
time. The cell synthesize more receptor to counter the antagonist effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. None of the above
193. This is a situation where increases doses of a drug over time to achieve same effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. None of the above
194. This is related to the body’s ability to adapt to the presence of a drug. On stopping the drug,
withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of abnormal levels of target receptor.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
E. None of the above
195. This is a measure of how strongly a drug binds to a receptor.
A. Potency
 B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
196. This is determined by measuring the maximum possible effects resulting from receptor-
ligand binding
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
197. This relates how effective a drug is in producing a cellular effect. It can be determined by
measuring the concentration of drug required to produce 50% of the maximum possible effect.
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
198. These are molecules that act as substrates for a target enzyme, but which are converted into
a highly reactive species as a result of the enzyme catalyzed reaction mechanism. The species
formed then reacts with amino acid residues present in the active site to form covalents bonds,
and act as irreversible inhibitors.
A. Transition state analogue
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
199. This type of inhibition binds to a different site other than the active site and can alter the
shape of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
A. Transition state analogue
 B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
200. These are enzyme inducers that are designed to mimic the transition state of an enzyme-
catalyze reaction mechanism. They bind more strongly than either the substrate or product.
A. Transition state analogue
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
201. The type of inhibitors that bind to the active site and compete with either substrate or
cofactor.
A. Transition state analogue
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
202. Physostigmine inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. 3’,5’-cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
203. sildenafil, a drug for erectile dysfunction, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
 D. 3’,5’-cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
204. ethambutol, a drug for tuberculosis, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. 3’,5’-cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
205.Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-glucosidase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
206. Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-amylase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
207. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. terbinafine: squalene monooxygenase
B. Itraconazole: sterol14a –methylase
C. Caspofungin: 1,3-B-glucan synthase
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
208. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
 A. Alendronate: farnesyl-diphosphate farnesyl transferase
B. Mycophenolate: IMP dehydrogenase
C. Cilastin: renal dehydropeptidase
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
209. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. captopril: peptidyl-dipeptidase A
B. Etodolac: prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase
C. Entacapone: catechol-O-methyl transferase
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
210. Which of the following drugs (inhibitor) enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. atorvastatin: HMG-CoA reductase
B. Oseltamivir: viral neuraminidase
C. Ciprofloxacin: DNA gyrase
D. All of the above
E. None of the choices
211. Which of the following phenolic drugs has an expectorant activity?
A. Amiodaquine
B. Guaiacol
C. Hydroxymorphinans
D. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Hexylresorcinol
212. Which of the following dyes is available as vaginal suppository for the treatment of yeast
infection and has also been used orally as a anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyurias?
A. Methylene blue
B. Phenolpthalein
C. Basic fuchsin
 D. Methylrosaniline chloride
E. None of the choices
213. Which of the following dyes is a mixture of the chlorides of rosaniline and p-
rosaniline? It is an ingredient of castellanis paint which is used topically in the treatment
of fungal infection, such as ringworm and athletes foot?
A. Methylene blue D. Methylrosaniline chloride
B. Phenolpthalein E. None of the choices
C. Basic fuchsin
214. It is a non classical folate antagonist that is structurally similar to methotrexate. It inhibits
the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and has been approved for the treatment of pneumocystis
carinii in patients with aids.
A. Nitoxadine D. Diloxanide furoate
B. Metronidazole E. Suramin
C. Trimetexrate
215. Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesic is an arylacetic derivative that is
comparable to aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, with a lower incidence of side
effects? It has also been approved for used in primary dysmenorrhea.
A. Sodium salicylate D. Acetaminophen
B. Mefenamic acid E. Antipyrine
C. Ibuprofen
216. Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents is an arylanthranilic acid derivative that
has lower incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding than aspirin, and has been approved for use in
the management of primary dysmenorrhea?
A. Sodium salicylate D. Acetaminophen
B. Mefenamic acid E. antipyrine
C. Ibuprofen
217. Which of the following drugs is a derivative of aniline and has an analgesic and antipyretic
properties? The FDA requires a warning label that read as follows: Warning: Do not give to
children under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician.
A. Sodium salicylate C. Ibuprofen
B. Mefenamic acid D. Acetaminophen
 E. antipyrine
218. The following are synthetic estrogens except:
A. Chlorotrianisene D. B and C only
B. Diethylstilbestrol E. None of the choices
C. Benzestrol
219. Which of the following estrogens is an estradiol metabolite originally obtained from the
urine of horses especially pregnant mares?
A. Equilin sodium sulfate D. Diethylstilbestrol
B. Ethinyl estradiol E. Dienestrol
C. Estriol
220. Which of the following progestins is classified as a derivative of testosterone?
A. Megestrol acetate D. Ethinodiol acetate
B. Norgestrel E. Dimethisterone
C. Norethindrone
221. Which of the following progestins are classified as derivative of testosterone?
A. Ethisterone D. A and B only
B. Chlormadinone acetate E. B and C only
C. Medroxyprogesterone
222. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to improve the membrane permeability of its
active metabolite?
A. Enalapril D. A and C only
B. Levodopa E. All of the above
C. Pivampicillin
223. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to prolong the drug activity of its active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
224. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to lower water solubility of the active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
225. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to mask the toxic side effects of its active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
226. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to increase the water solubility of the active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
227. Which of the following prodrug was designed to increase the chemical stability of the active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
228. These are isomer that contain at least one assymetric, or chiral, carbon atom. Each
asymmetric carbon atom can exist in one of two non-superimposable isomeric forms.
A. Optical isomer D. All of the above
B. Geometric isomer E. None of the choices
C. Conformational isomer
229. This type of isomer occurs as a result of restricted rotation about a chemical bond, owing to
double bond or rigid ring system in the molecule.
A. Optical isomer D. All of the above
B. Geometric isomer E. None of the choices
C. Conformational isomer
230. Also known as rotamers, these are non-superimposable orientation of a molecule which
result from the rotation of atoms about single bonds.
A. Optical isomer D. All of the above
B. Geometric isomer E. None of the choices
C. Conformational isomer
231. Which of the following statements is true regarding ester-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
C. Agents include procaine, benzocaine, lidocaine and dibucaine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
232. Which of the following statements is true regarding amide-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
C. Agents include procaine, benzocaine, lidocaine and dibucaine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
233. Which of the following statements is true regarding the antipsychotic agents in the
phenothiazine class?
A. Phenothiazine must have a nitrogen containing side chain substituent on the ring nitrogen
for antipsychotic activity.
B. Phenothiazine in which the rings and side chain nitrogen are separated by a two carbn
chain have only antihistaminic activity.
C. Piperidine derivative confer the greatest potency and the highest pharmacologic
selectivity.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
234. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. butyrophenone, haloperidol
 B. Phenothiazine, chlorprothixene
C. Thioxanthenes, thioridazine
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
235. Which of the following pairs of newer class of antipsychotic is correctly matched?
A. dihydroinolones, molindone
B. Dibenzoxazepines, loxapine
C. Dibenzodiazepines, clozapine
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
236. Which of the following statements is true regarding tricyclic antidepressants?
A. Imipramine and clompramine are derivatives of dibenzazepine
B. Amitriptyline and nortriptyline are derivatives of dibenzocycloheptadiene
C. TCA appear to produce their antidepressant effects by blocking the intraneuronal
oxidative deamination of brain biogenic amines.
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
237. Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure and mechanism of action
of mao inhibitors?
A. Tranylcypromine is an extremely potent phenylcyclopropanolamine derivative
B. Phenelzine isocarboxacid are weakly potent hydralazine derivative
C. MAO inhibitors appear to act principally by reducing cns neuronal re-uptake of biogenic
amines
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
For nos. 238-240, select the most appropriate pharmacologic category for the following
structures:
238. What is the pharmacologic category of structure I?
A. Opioid antagonist D. General anesthetic
B. Anxiolytic E. Local anesthetic
C. Antidepressant
239. Structure II belongs to what pharmacologic category?
A. Opioid antagonist D. General anesthetic
B. Anxiolytic E. Local anesthetic
C. Antidepressant
240. Structure III belongs to what part of pharmacologic class?
A. Opioid antagonist D. General anesthetic
B. Anxiolytic E. Local anesthetic
C. Antidepressant
241. Structure IV belongs to what part of pharmacologic class?
A. Opioid antagonist D. General anesthetic
B. Anxiolytic E. Local anesthetic
C. Antidepressant
242. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.
A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
243. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.

A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
244. Certain metabolites retain the pharmacologic activity of their of their parent compounds to a
greater or lesser degree. Which of the following drugs produce such metabolites?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
245. Which of the following biotransformation produces a metabolite with an activity different
from that of their parent compound?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
 II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
246. Which of the following biotransformation produces a inactive metabolite
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
247. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxidation reaction?
I. It is a most common phase 1 of biotransformation
II. Oxidation reactions can occur in the liver
III. The vast majority of oxidation is catalyze by a group or mixed function oxidases
known as CYP450.
IV. The increased polarity of the oxidized product (metabolites) enhances their water
solubility and increases their tubular reabsorption to some extent, thus favoring their
excretion in the urine
A. I,II,III,IV D. I and III Only
B. I,II only E. II And IV only
C. III, IV only
248. Which of the following statements is true regarding reduction reaction?
I. It has same goal as oxidation reaction to create polar functional groups that can be
easily excreted.
 II. Bacteria resident in the GI tract are also responsible for reductions of azo and nitro
groups
III. Chloramphenicol, sulfasalazine and acetohexamide can undergo reduction reaction
IV. Cytochrome P450 enzymes is not involved in the reduction reaction
A. I, II, III, IV D. II and III only
B. I, II, III E. IV only
C.I, II only
249. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP1A?
A. Acetaminophen D. Theophyliine
B. Fluoroquinolones E. All of the above
C. Imipramide
250. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP4B?
A. prostaglandin D. Hydrocortisone
B. Carbamazepine E. All of the above
C. Dapsone
251. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Phase ll reactions?
l.These are reactions in which the functional groups of the original drug(or metabolite)are
masked by conjugation reaction
ll.These reactions require both a high-energy molecules and an enzyme
lll.High-energy molecules consist of a coenzyme bound to the endogenous substrate,the parent
drug,or the drug’s phase l metabolite.
lV.Most conjugates are highly polar and unable to cross cell membranes,making them almost
almost always pharmacology inactive and of little or no toxicity.
A)l,ll,lll,lV C)land ll only E)lV only
B) l,ll,lll only D)ll and lll only
252. Which of the following statements correctly describes Glucuronidation reaction?
l.It is the most common conjugation pathway because of readiy available supply of
glucuronic acid as well as a large variety of functional groups,which can enzymatically
react with this sugar derivative.
 ll.The high energy form of glucuronic acid is Uridine monophosphate glucuronic acid and
the enzyme involve in these reaction is glucuronyl transferase.
lll.Druds that posses hydroxyl or carboxyl functional groups readily undergo
glucurinidation to form esters and ethers,respectively.
lV.The addition of the glucuronide moiety greatly increases the hydrophilicity of the
molecule which makes it highly reabsorbed by the renal tubes.
A)l,ll,lll,lV C)l,ll only E)lV only
B)l,ll,lll only D)ll,lll only
253. Which of the following conjugation reactions requires 2’-phosphoadenosine-5’-
phosphosulfate molecule?
A) Glutathione conjugation D) Sulfate conjugation
B) Acetylation E) Amino acid conjugation
C) Methylation
254.Which of the following conjugation reactions require the formation of the high-energy
molecule AcetylCoA
A) Glutathione conjugation D) Sulfate conjugation
B) Acetylation E) Amino acid conjugation
C) Methylation
255. Which of the following conditions can greatly affect the metabolism of a certain drug?
A) Congestive heart failure D) Increase drug dosage
B) Deficiency of certain dietary minerals E) All of the above
C) Deficiency of vitamins
256. Which of the following drug administration route bypasses first-pass effect
A) Oral administration
B) Intravenous administration
C) Sublingual administration
D) A and B
E) B and C
257.Which of the following metabolites would be the least likely urinary excretion product of
acetaminophen?

A) Ether glucuronide
B) Sulfate conjugate
C) N-acetyl-p-benziminoqiunoneimine
D) Unchange drug
E) N-acetyl-p-benziminoquinoneimine with glutathione
258. Which of te following statements correctly describes the first and second generation
Sulfonylureas? (See structure below)

l.First and second generation Sulfonylureas have a bulk aliphatic substituent on the nonsufonyl
have relatively simple aromatic
ll.First generation Sulfonylureas have relatively simple aromatic substituents such as
methyl,amino,acetyl,chloro
lll Second generation Sulfonylureas have a larger aromatic substituent
lV.First generation Sulfonylureas are more potent than second generation.
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll,lll only
C)l and ll only
D)ll and lll only
E)lV only
259. Which of the following is not the first generation sulfonylurea
A) Glyburide
B) Glipizide
C) Glimperide
D) All of the choices
E) None of the choices
260. Which of the following is the first generation sulfonylurea
A) Glyburide
B) glipizide
C) Glimperide
D) All of the choices
E) None of the choices
261. This drug has been highly effective against Schistoma mansoni.It is activated via
esterification to a biological ester that spontaneously dissociates to an electrophlie,which
alkylates the helminth DNA,leading to irreversible inhibition of nucleic acid metabolism.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
262.This drug acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts as a depolarizing
neuromuscular blocking agent that activates nicotinic receptors and inhibits
cholinesters,ultimately leading to worm paralysis.It is used as apamoate salt,which is quite
insoluble and,as a result,is not readiy absorbed improving the usefulness of the drug for the
treatment of intestinal helminthes.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
263. A drug that belongs to a class of 16-membered macrocyclic lactones extracted from
Streptomyces avermitilis used in the treatment of various nematode infections.It acts either as a
GABA agonist or as an inducer of chloride ion influx,leading to hyperpolarization and muscle
paralysis.
A)Praziquantel
B)Oxaminiquine
C)Ivermectin
D)Pyrantel
E)Mebendazole
264. It is an isoquinoline derivative with most of the biological activity found in the levo
enantiomer.The compound has no activity against nematodes,but is highly effective against
cestodes abd trematodes.Its mechanism of action appers to involve calcium ion redistribution
either directly or indirectly and inhibition of phosphoinositide metabolism
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
265. Buspirone,a long chain arylpiperazine derivative,is an anxiolytic agent that is a partial
agonist to
A)5HT1A receptor
B)5HT4 receptor
C)5HT3 receptor
D)5HT2A
E)5HT1D
266. Sumatriptan and other indeleaklylamine derivatives used in the treatment of migraine is an
agonist at which of the following receptors.
A) 5HT1A receptor
B) 5HT4 receptor
C) 5HT3 receptor
D) 5HT2A
 E) 5HT1D
For nos. 267-268, refer to the following reaction pathway

A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
268.Which of the givem reactions can be classified as Phase ll metabolism?
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
269.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo nitroreduction?
A)Chloramphenicol
 B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
270.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo azoreduction
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
271.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo ester hydrolysis
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
272.Which of the following drugs would likely undergo amide hydrolysis
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
273.This conjugation pathway is extremely important in preveting toxicity from a variety of
electrophilic agents.It produces a mercaptopuric acid derivative upon reaction with an
electrophile
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
 D)Sulfate conjugation
E)Amino acid conjugation
274.S-adenosylmethionine is required for the conjugation reaction
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
D)Sulfate conjugation
E)Amino acid conjugation
275. Meperidine can undergo which of the following metabolic pathway?

I. Hydroxylation at thr aromatic ring

II. Ester hydrolysis
III. N-oxidation
IV. N-dealkylation
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. I,II
D. I,III
E. II,IV
276. Which of the following selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) and antiestrogens
has a triphenylethylene structure used to treat early and advanced breast carcinoma in post
menopausal women?
 A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
E. None of the above
277. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is a benzothiophene derivative that has
been approved for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in menopausal women? It has
antagonist properties on the endometrium and breast tissue and agonist properties on bone and
cardiovascular system?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
E. None of the above
278. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is an antagonist structurally on the
estradiol structure which is used in the treatment of women who have had disease progression
after prior antiestrogen property?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
E. None of the above
279. Which of the following drugs is not a nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor?
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
280. Which of the following drugs is a nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor?
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
281. An aromatase inhibitor used mainly in the treatment of cushing’s syndrome
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
282. What is the probable mechanism of action of diuretic drug with the following structure?

A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the
tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and
tubular cells to limit the number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
C. It inhibits the Na+/Cl- symportar located in the distal convulated tubule
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
283. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?

A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the
tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and
tubular cells to limit the number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
C. It inhibits the Na+/Cl- symportar located in the distal convulated tubule
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
284. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?

A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the
tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and
tubular cells to limit the number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
C. It inhibits the Na+/Cl- symportar located in the distal convulated tubule
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
285. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?

A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the
tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and
tubular cells to limit the number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
C. It inhibits the Na+/Cl- symportar located in the distal convulated tubule
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
286. Which of the following analgesic agent is 2 to 3 times more potent than morphine as
analgesic and also known as heroin?
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
287. Which of the following drugs represent a fragment of codeine’s structure, consisting of the
phenyl and cyclohexane rings? This drug possesses opioid activity but has other analgesic
activity that is not reversed by naloxone.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
 E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
288. This drug prepared by N-demethylation of morphine and has about one-fourth as active as
morphine in producing analgesia but has a much lower physical dependence capacity
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
289. Also known as N-cyclobutylmethylnoroxymorphone hydrochloride, this drug is analgesia of
the agonist-antagonist type with little or no abuse liability.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
290. This drug has a strong structural relationship to the meperidine type analgesics and has the
ability to inhibit excessive gastrointestinal motility.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
291. Which of the following modifications can affect the onset , degree and duration of insulin
activity?
A. Rearrangement of amino acid residues at the N- and C- terminus at the B chain of insulin
B. Changing the insulin crystal type (ex. From crystalline to amorphous)
C. Addition of modifying protein such as protamine
D. Changing the site of injection
E. All of the above
292. This is the only insulin analogue with a C14 fatty acid attached to an amino residue in the B
chain of insulin
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glulisine
D. Glargine
E. Detemir
293. A highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E. coli
bearing a genetically engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa 2a gene from leucocytes.
This drug is used in patients 18 years or older for treatment of hairy cell leukemia and chronic
myelogenous leukemia.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
294. A highly purified protein produced by E.coli containing a plasmid with alfa 2b gene. This
product is indicated for hairy cell leukemia and also useful in treating malignant melanoma.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
295. It is also known as interleukin 2 or T-cell growth factor. This product when administered
stimulates T-cell growth and regulation, proliferation and immunoglobulin production in B
lymphocytes macrophage activity enhancement
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
 E. Trastuzumab
296. A monoclonal antibody approved for breast cancer which selectively binds with high
affinity to the extracellular domain of human epidermal growth factor 2 protein
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
297. A genetically engineered chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigen on
malignant B lymphocytes
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
298. A type of immunobiological that contains a solution of antibodies derived from the serum of
animals immunized with specific antigens.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
D. Intravenous immune globulin
E. Immune globulin
299. A product derived from blood plasma of a donor pool similar to the IG pool but prepared so
it is suitable for IV use. It is primarily use for replacement therapy in primary Ab deficiency
disorders and for the treatment of kawasaki’s disease.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
D. Intravenous immune globulin
 E. Immune globulin
300. A modified bacterial toxin that has been made non toxic but remains the ability to stimulate
the formation of antitoxin.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
D. Intravenous immune globulin
E. Immune globulin