1.

A sum of questions is called:

(A) Testing

(B) Assessment

(C) Examination

(D) Test

2. In measurement the first step is:

 (A) Marking of the test

(B) Administering the test

(C) Development of the test

(D) Decision of what to measure

3. Which instrument is used for

measuring the sample of Behavior?

(A) Evaluation
 (B) Assessment

(C) Measurement

(D) Test

4. The main purpose of the evaluation is

to make:

(A) Judgment

(B) Opinion
 (C) Prediction

(D) Decision

5. Which type of evaluation is used to

monitor the learning process:

(A) Summative evaluation

(B) Diagnostic evaluation

(C) Formative evaluation

 (D) Placement evaluation

6. The main purpose of the evaluation is

to make judgments about educational:
(A) Age

(B) Time period

(C) Quality

(D) Quantity

7. What is the purpose of evaluation?

(A) To measure the achievement of
students

(B) To test the students in a subject

(C) To assign a mark or score to a

student

(D) To make a judgment about the

quality of something

8. Which has the least scope?

 (A) Assessment

(B) Evaluation

(C) Measurement

(D) Test

9. What is the purpose of formative

evaluation?

(A) Check the final status

 (B) Promotion to next grade

(C) Selecting students

(D) Monitoring progress of students

10. From the following the right

sequence is:

(A) Test, measurement, assessment,

Evaluation

(B) Evaluation, Test, Measurement,

Assessment
 (C) Test, assessment, Evaluation,
Measurement

(D) Assessment, Measurement,

Evaluation, Test

11. From the following in which

question marking will be more reliable:

(A) Multiple choice questions

(B) Essay
 (C) Short answer

(D) Completion

12. Which type of question is difficult to

mark with reliability?

(A) Structured essays

(B) Unstructured essays

(C) Short answer

 (D) Multiple choice questions

13. Projective techniques are basically

used to measure:

(A) Intelligence

(B) Knowledge

(C) Personality

(D) Aptitude
14. In the USA the most widely used
format on standardized tests is:

(A) Matching list

(B) Short answers

(C) Essays type

(D) Multiple choice questions

15. Summative evaluation is basically

used:
 (A) During the program

(B) At all times

(C) At the end of the program

(D) At the start of the program

16. Generally the summative evaluation

is:

(A) Ongoing
 (B) Continuous

(C) Certifying judgment

(D) Diagnostic

17. Which tools of summative

evaluation are frequently used?

(A) Daily assignment

(B) Oral questioning

 (C) Teacher observation

(D) Test

18. The difference between maximum

and minimum values is known as:

(A) Mode

(B) Range

(C) Quartiles
 (D) Mean

19. In a class interval the number of

score lying is:

(A) Frequencies

(B) Class boundaries

(C) Quartiles

(D) Mid-point
 20. What is the main advantage of
essay-type questions?

(A) Can diagnose the learning

difficulties of students

(B) Are essays to mark

(C) The student can guess the answer

(D) They can measure complex learning

outcomes that cannot be measured
with other types of question
21. Which is the most widely applicable
test item?

(A) Matching

(B) M.C.Q

(C) Completion

(D) Short answers

22. In M.C.Qs the statement of the
problem is:

(A) Option

(B) Distracter

(C) Premise

(D) Stem

23. In M.C.Q the correct option is:

 (A) Response

(B) Answer

(C) Distracters

(D) None of the above

24. In M.C.Q the incorrect options are:

(A) Responses

(B) Answers
 (C) Distracters

(D) None of the above

25. In M.C.Qs the list of suggested

answers is:

(A) Options

(B) Alternatives

(C) Choices
 (D) All of the above

26. Which is the supply type test item?

(A) M.C.Q items

(B) Completion items

(C) Matching items

(D) True/False items

27. Which are the alternative response
items?

(A) Right/wrong

(B) Correct/incorrect

(C) True/ false

(D) All of the above

28. Matching items have how many

columns:
 (A) Two columns

(B) One column

(C) Five column

(D) None of the above

29. Who was the founder of the modern

intelligence tests?

(A) Terman
 (B) Stern

(C) Guilford

(D) Alfred Binet

30. Who presented the formula to

determine I.Q?

(A) Stern

(B) Guilford
 (C) Terman

(D) Alfred Binet

31. A student having the same physical

and mental age will have I.Q:

(A) 80

(B) 90

(C) 100
 (D) 110

32. If a student has ten years physical

age and twelve years mental age then it
will have IQ:

(A) 110

(B) 120

(C) 130
 (D) 140

33. From the following which one is not

the type of test by purpose?

(A) Norm-referenced test

(B) Criterion-reference test

(C) Essay type test

(D) Standardized test

 34. Which is the type of the test by
method?

(A) Objective type test

(B) Criterion type test

(C) Norm reference test

(D) Standardized test

35. In which type of test the analysis of

item is necessary:
 (A) Standardized test

(B) Teacher made tests

(C) Both A and B

(D) None of the above

36. In which type of test the students’

performance is compared with other
students:
 (A) Objective referenced test

(B) Norm-referenced test

(C) Criterion-referenced test

(D) None of the above

37. The planned interview is called:

(A) Structural interview

(B) Focused interview

 (C) Panel interview

(D) Group interview

38. In which interview method, the

discussion is concentrated on one
method:

(A) Structural interview

(B) Focused interview

 (C) Panel interview

(D) Group interview

39. When the interviewee is more than

one then the interview is called:

(A) Structural interview

(B) Focused interview

(C) Panel interview

 (D) Group interview

40. When the interviewee is only one

then the interview is called:

(A) Structural interview

(B) Individual interview

(C) Panel interview

(D) Group interview

41. If any item has difficulty index 5%
then it is:

(A) Difficult

(B) Very easy

(C) Easy

(D) Acceptable

42. Generally the type of marking and

reporting system is:
 (A) Letters to the parent

(B) Traditional marking system

(C) Pass-fail system

(D) All above

43. Measurement is basically the:

(A) Numerical value

 (B) Qualitative value

(C) Value judgment

(D) None of the above

44. Basically evaluation is:

(A) Qualitative value

(B) Numerical value

(C) Value judgment

 (D) None of the above

45. In a paper the score of a student is:

(A) Evaluation

(B) Test

(C) Measurement

(D) All of the above

46. A test usually answers the question:

(A) How good

(B) How well

(C) How much

(D) None of the above

47. In the true-false test the most

significant advantage is:
 (A) Elimination of guessing

(B) Wide sampling

(C) Items validity

(D) None of the above

48. Which scale is used for attitude

measurement?

(A) Projective scale

 (B) Likert scale

(C) Ordinal scale

(D) Technical scale

49. An aptitude test is used to measure:

(A) Present attainment

(B) Attained ability

(C) Potential ability

 (D) Overall mental ability

50. Which process is used to know the

worth or value of material?

(A) Evaluation

(B) Knowledge

(C) Application

(D) Analysis
51. Which is the highest level of the
cognitive domain?

(A) Comprehension

(B) Evaluation

(C) Analysis

(D) Synthesis
52. in the cognitive domain the lowest
level of learning:

(A) Synthesis

(B) Knowledge

(C) Application

(D) Comprehension

53. In the cognitive domain the highest

level of learning is:
 (A) Application

(B) Analysis

(C) Synthesis

(D) Evaluation

54. Generally cognitive domain has:

(A) Six subgroups

 (B) Five subgroups

(C) Four subgroups

(D) Three subgroups

55. NRT is usually not used for:

(A) Subjective item

(B) Mastery testing domain

(C) Objective type item

(D) The measure of achievement

56. Which is the example of the

cognitive domain?

(A) Type a letter

(B) Take responsibility for tools

(C) Describe a topic

(D) Develop and X-ray film

57. High and low achievers are mostly
sorted out by:

(A) Effectiveness of distracters

(B) Facility index

(C) Discrimination power

(D) All of the above

 58. Good distracter is basically that
which:

(A) Does not attract

(B) Attracts equally high and low

achievers

(C) Attracts low achievers more than

high achievers

(D) Attracts high achievers more than

low achievers
59. Bad distracter is basically that which

(A) Does not attract at all to any student

(B) Attracts high achievers and low

achievers equally

(C) Attracts, high achievers, more than

low achievers

(D) All of the above

60. from the following which type of

test ends to have the lowest reliability?
 (A) Essay

(B) Matching

(C) Completion

(D) True-false

61. Item analysis generally focuses to

find out:

(A) Effectiveness of distracters

 (B) Facility index

(C) Discrimination power

(D) All of the above

62. In our schools most of the tests used

are:

(A) Aptitude test

(B) Personality test

 (C) Achievement test

(D) Intelligence test

63. What is the main purpose of

classroom testing?

(A) Reporting to parents

(B) Improve instructions

(C) Measure teacher’s effectiveness

(D) Compare student’s performance

64. Diagnostic evaluation is always

done:

(A) In between teaching

(B) Before teaching

(C) After teaching

(D) None of the above

65. from the following in which we use
simulation as a teaching technique:

(A) Performance test

(B) Matching test

(C) Completion test

(D) Short answers

66. What an individual can perform in
the future is basically measured by:

(A) Aptitude test

(B) Personality test

(C) Intelligence test

(D) Achievement test

67. An ability test includes the

following:
 (A) Attitude, interest, and intelligence

(B) Achievement, aptitude, and

intelligence

(C) Aptitude, Attitude, and interest

(D) Achievement, aptitude, and attitude

68. Norm reference tests are basically

designed to rank pupils:
 (A) Effort

(B) Achievement

(C) Knowledge

(D) Learning

69. from the following which is not the

strength of multiple-choice items:

(A) Score reliability

 (B) Allows for educated guessing

(C) Content sampling

(D) Effective testing of higher cognitive

levels

70. In a test the use of many selected

responses can provide good:

(A) Context sampling

(B) Time sampling

 (C) Objectivity

(D) Level of difficulty

71. What is the most significant

advantage of true-false items?

(A) Ease of construction

(B) Elimination of guessing

(C) Item validity

 (D) Wide sampling

72. Construct validity is basically

established through:

(A) Standardized analysis

(B) Logical analysis

(C) Both A and B

(D) Neither A nor B

73. Which is the final product of
measurement?

(A) Interpretation of scores

(B) Performance

(C) Scores

(D) Test items

74. In making a test, the first and most
important step is:

(A) Determining process

(B) Proper planning

(C) Defining objectives

(D) Collecting context

75. In a structured test the best

measure to avoid guessing is to use:
 (A) Matching items

(B) Multiple-choice items

(C) Completion items

(D) true-false items

76. Essay test has a great advantage

over the objective test because they:

(A) Provide adequate representation

 (B) Provide opportunities to organize
knowledge

(C) Have high consistency in marking

(D) Are free from opportunities of

bluffing

77. The basic and main function of

educational measurement is to find out
students:

(A) Habits
 (B) Interests

(C) Attitudes

(D) Achievement

78. The standard error of measurement

is basically a measure of:

(A) Central tendency

(B) Variability
 (C) Association

(D) Location

79. While constructing multiple-choice

items, it is best to:

(A) Use only two options

(B) Repeat keywords of the stem in

options
 (C) Put the main idea in items

(D) Make all options of the same length

80. Basically multiple-choice questions

provide a broad sampling of:

(A) Content

(B) Comprehension

(C) Learning
 (D) Knowledge

81. Affective domain is generally

divided into:

(A) Six subgroups

(B) Seven subgroups

(C) Four subgroups

(D) Five subgroups

82. Who classifies the affective domain?

(A) Krathwhol

(B) Burner

(C) Simpson

(D) Benjamin S. Bloom

83. In the cognitive domain the main

focus is:
 (A) Attitudes and interests

(B) Physical and motor skills

(C) Intellectual skills

(D) None of the above

84. From the following which domain is

concerned with physical and motor
skills?

(A) Affective domain

 (B) Psychomotor domain

(C) Cognitive domain

(D) None of the above

85. Attitudes, values, and interests are

reflected by which domain:

(A) Affective domain

(B) Psychomotor domain

 (C) Cognitive domain

(D) None of the above

86. In the affective domain the lowest

level of learning is:

(A) Attending

(B) Organization

(C) Valuing
 (D) Responding

87. In the affective domain which is

placed at the highest level of learning:

(A) Organization

(B) Attending

(C) Characteristics

(D) Responding
88. The process of determining the
value or worth of anything is called:

(A) Measurement

(B) Assessment

(C) Evaluation

(D) Test
89. The intellectual skills are generally
reflected by:

(A) Affective domain

(B) Psychomotor domain

(C) Cognitive domain

(D) None of the above

90. Knowing/ memorizing and recalling

is basically concerned with:
 (A) Knowledge

(B) Evaluation

(C) Application

(D) Comprehensions

91. In SOLO taxonomy the “deep”

category consists of:

(A) Multi structural and relational

(B) Relational and extended abstract

(C) Uni structural and multi structural

(D) Pre structural and uni structural

92. Synthesis generally requires:

(A) Judge the value of material

(B) Use the material in a new situation

(C) Understanding the structure of the
material

(D) Formulation of new structural

material

93. In SOLO Taxonomy the surface

category consists of:

(A) Two stages

(B) Three stages

(C) Four stages

 (D) Five stages

94. In which year the psychomotor

domain was classified by Simpson:

(A) 1952

(B) 1962

(C) 1972

(D) 1982
95. Krathwhol divided the affective
domain into subgroups in:

(A) 1944

(B) 1954

(C) 1962

(D) 1964
96. Simpson divided the psychomotor
domain into:

(A) Seven subgroups

(B) Six subgroups

(C) Four subgroups

(D) Three subgroups

97. the Main objective related to the

affective domain is:
 (A) Student can write a letter

(B) Student values honesty

(C) Students can draw a graph

(D) Student can paint a picture

98. CRT is basically a clearly defined and

delimited domain of:

(A) Performance
 (B) Learning task

(C) Evaluation

(D) Knowledge

99. Basically the first draft of objectives

needs to be:

(A) Measured

(B) Tested
 (C) Evaluated

(D) Assessed

100. In case of Instructional objectives,

it must include:

(A) Learning activities

(B) Teaching strategies

(C) Learning resources

 (D) Action verb

101. The process of obtaining numerical

value is known as:

(A) Evaluation

(B) Assessment

(C) Measurement

(D) Test
102. A formal and systematic procedure
of getting information is basically
called:

(A) Test

(B) Measurement

(C) Evaluation

(D) Assessment
103. To assess achievement at the end
of instruction is basically:

(A) Summative assessment

(B) Diagnostic assessment

(C) Formative assessment

(D) Placement assessment

104. Generally vast of all in scope?

 (A) Evaluation

(B) Assessment

(C) Measurement

(D) Test

105. Limited to the quantitative

description of pupil performance is
basically:

(A) Test
 (B) Examination

(C) Measurement

(D) Evaluation

106. In which of the following

permanent difficulties in learning are
investigated:

(A) Formative evaluation

 (B) Summative evaluation

(C) Diagnostic evaluation

(D) None of the above

107. Which procedure is used to

determine a person’s abilities?

(A) Criterion-referenced test

(B) Norm-referenced test

(C) Maximum performance test

(D) Typical performance test

108. Broader in meaning is:

(A) Instructional objectives

(B) Specific objectives

(C) Objectives

(D) Aims
109. Generally, in norm-referenced test
the comparison is between:

(A) Areas

(B) Interests

(C) Individuals

(D) Groups
110. A facility value of less than 0.20
basically means:

(A) Item is easy

(B) Item is difficult

(C) Item is too easy

(D) Item is acceptable

111. A discrimination value of more

than 0.4 basically means:
 (A) Item is acceptable

(B) Item is good

(C) Item discriminating negatively

(D) Item is weak

112. The stem of the items in multiple-

choice items should be:

(A) Small
 (B) Meaningful

(C) Large

(D) Relevant

113. From the following which

appropriate verb will you use to make
an objective behavioral?

(A) To appreciate
 (B) To understand

(C) To construct

(D) To know

114. Objective type questions have an

advantage over easy types because of
these questions:

(A) Are easy to mark

(B) Test critical thinking

 (C) Are easy to solve

(D) Are easy to prepare

115. Kuder-Richardson method is

generally used to estimate:

(A) Validity

(B) Usability

(C) Objectivity
 (D) Reliability

116. The value that divides the data

into two equal parts is basically called:

(A) Median

(B) Mean deviation

(C) Mean

(D) Median
117. The test measures what we intend
to measure. This quality of the test is
generally called:

(A) Objectivity

(B) Usability

(C) Reliability

(D) Validity
118. In a test the length is an important
factor in obtaining a representative:

(A) Factor

(B) Group

(C) Sample

(D) Mode

119. What is the median of 1, 6, 4, 5, 2,

and 3?
 (A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2.5

120. The alternative name used for

“table of specification” is:

(A) Test scoring

 (B) Test administration

(C) Test blueprint

(D) Test construction

121. Generally “table of specifications”

helps in:

(A) Test scoring

(B) Test reporting

 (C) Test administration

(D) Test development

122. Which test is used to measure the

learning outcome of students:

(A) Intelligence test

(B) Achievement test

(C) Diagnostic test

 (D) Aptitude test

123. Which test is designed to predict

future performance?

(A) Intelligence test

(B) Achievement test

(C) Diagnostic test

(D) Aptitude test

124. In which test student performance
is compared with clearly defined
learning tasks:

(A) Criterion-referenced test

(B) Objective referenced test

(C) Norm-referenced test

(D) None of the above

125. from the following which quality of
test measures “what it claims to
measure”:

(A) Validity

(B) Differentiability

(C) Reliability

(D) Objectivity
126. The characteristic of a test that
basically discriminates between high
achievers and low achievers is:

(A) Validity

(B) Objectivity

(C) Differentiability

(D) Reliability
 127. If the scoring of the test is not
affected by any factor, the quality of a
test is basically called:

(A) Validity

(B) Objectivity

(C) Differentiability

(D) Reliability

128. The main purpose of the table of

specifications is:
(A) To help the teacher for sampling
questions from all contents

(B) To develop integration between

objectives and contents

(C) To develop a balance test

(D) All of the above

129. Table of specifications is usually

prepared by:
 (A) Preparing the draft of course
contents

(B) Preparing a two-way chart

(C) Developing list of instructional

objectives

(D) All of the above

130. Which test is very popular with

classroom teachers?

(A) Matching items

 (B) Multiple choices

(C) Completion test

(D) True false test

131. From the following which

statement is a criterion-referenced
interpretation?

(A) Ahmad GRE score is 350

 (B) Ahmad got the highest scores

(C) Asif percentile in math tests is 35

(D) Khan can state Newton’s law of

motion

132. A multiple-choice question is

generally composed of questions or
statements referred to as:

(A) Foil

(B) Response
 (C) Distracter

(D) Stem

133. The item in a norm-referenced test

is best whose:

(A) Item difficulty is near 70

(B) Item difficulty is near 50

(C) Item difficulty is near 100

 (D) Item difficulty is near zero

134. From the following which question

has increasing objectivity of marking?

(A) Short answer

(B) Multiple choice questions

(C) Structured essays

(D) Unstructured essays

135. Generally, the test meant for
predication on a certain criterion is
called:

(A) Personality test

(B) Non-standardized test

(C) Aptitude test

(D) Achievement test

136. The test that is made to compare
the performance of students with the
other students is called:

(A) Achievement

(B) Diagnostic

(C) Norm reference

(D) Criterion reference

137. The normal curve appearance

resembles with:
 (A) Bell

(B) V

(C) U

(D) Skewness

138. Basically, the type of essay items in

which contents are limited is

(A) M.C.Q
 (B) True / false

(C) Extended Response question

(D) Restricted response question

139. The ability to select, organize,

integrate and evaluate ideas is
generally demonstrated by:

(A) M.C.Q
 (B) True / false

(C) Extended Response question

(D) Restricted response question

140. A symbol that indicates the

performance of the student is:

(A) Measurement

(B) Report
 (C) Grade

(D) Test

141. Measurement in education

answers the question:

(A) How good

(B) How well

(C) How much

 (D) None of the above

142. Evaluation in education answers

the questions:

(A) How much

(B) How good

(C) How well

(D) None of the above

143. Evaluation techniques are basically
selected on the basis of:

(A) Validity

(B) Objectivity

(C) Reliability

(D) Usability

144. Taxonomy of educational

objectives was presented in the year:
 (A) 1946

(B) 1955

(C) 1956

(D) 1966

145. Who presented the classification of

the cognitive domain?

(A) Simpson
 (B) Krathwhol

(C) Skinner

(D) Benjamin S. Bloom

146. To grasp the meaning of the

material is basically:

(A) Application

(B) Knowledge
 (C) Synthesis

(D) Comprehension

147. To use previously learned material

in a new situation is basically:

(A) Application

(B) Knowledge

(C) Analysis
 (D) Comprehension

148. To put ideas together to form a

new whole is basically:

(A) Application

(B) Knowledge

(C) Evaluation

(D) Synthesis
149. To break down the material into
component parts to know its
organizational structure is known as:

(A) Application

(B) Analysis

(C) Synthesis

(D) Comprehension
 150. Which type of test is used for
obtaining a dependable ranking of the
student?

(A) Prognostic

(B) Criterion reference

(C) Diagnostic

(D) Norm reference

151. Which test is designed to know the

student position in a group?
 (A) Aptitude

(B) Achievement

(C) Norm reference

(D) Criterion reference