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13/10/2022 Code-A

Paper-1

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005


Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 198 UNIT TEST For CoE-(XI) Time : 3 Hrs.

JEE (Advanced)-2021-23_Test-5A-(Paper- 2)

Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion

Chemistry : Equilibrium

Mathematics : Permutation and Combination, Straight Lines

Instructions

1. Read each question carefully.


2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and
no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No., Centre
Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet is to be returned to the
invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
has three sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a Single
digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer –1 mark for
wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains 6 Multiple choice questions which have ONE or MORE correct
answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark for wrong answer. +3
If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. +2 If three or more options
are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct. +1 mark if two or more
options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and there is No negative
marking.

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

PART – I: PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a Single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively

1. A uniform solid cylinder of mass M and radius R can rotate freely about a stationary horizontal axis
through its centre. A thin string of total length l and mass M is wound on the cylinder in a single layer.
l
The linear acceleration (in m/s2) of the hanging part of the cord is ‘a’ when its hanging length is . There
2
6a
is no slipping of the cord on the cylinder (g = 10 m/s2). Then find the value of
5

2. A spool of mass M has moment of inertia about an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the
3
plane of the figure is MR 2 . It is released from rest as shown
2

3Mg
The tension in the string is . Find x.
x
3. A uniform solid sphere (M, R) is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface with velocity v0 as shown

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

13Mv 02
The kinetic energy of the lower half sphere is . Find x.
10 x

4. A uniform rod of mass M and length L is suspended with the help of two strings A and B as shown. If the
p
string B is cut, the tension in string A just after the string B is cut is mg where p and q are integers in
q
their lowest possible form. Find q – p

R
5. From a solid sphere (M, R) a sphere of radius has been removed as shown. The moment of inertia of
2

57MR 2
the body about an axis through O and in the plane of figure as shown is . Find x
20 x

6. A uniform ring (M, R) is in combined translation and rotation as shown. The magnitude of angular
p
momentum of the ring about the origin is Mv 0R
q

Where p and q are integers in their lowest forms. Find q – p.

SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONE or MORE is correct.

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

7. Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 3 kg respectively have a spring in its natural length connecting
them and this arrangement is placed over a smooth horizontal surface as shown

Now A and B are simultaneously given velocities as shown. Then choose the correct option(s)

(A) Maximum speed of B during the motion is 2 m/s

(B) Maximum speed of A during the motion is 2.2 m/s

(C) Minimum speed of B during the motion is 1.4 m/s

(D) Minimum speed of B during the motion is 1 m/s

8. A circular disc of radius R is rolling without slipping ever a horizontal surface as shown

Four points have been labelled where O is centre. If speed of point A is v0, then

3 3
(A) Speed of point B is v0 (B) Speed of point B is v
2 2 0

5 5
(C) Speed of point C is v0 (D) Speed of point C is v0
2 2 2

9. A rigid uniform square plate ABCD is placed over a smooth horizontal surface. At a particular instant,

which is shown in the diagram, velocities of points A and B are found to be v A i j m/s and


vB i 2 j m/s


(A) vC 2 j m/s

(B) vD j m/s

(C) Angular velocity of the plate is 2k rad/s

(D) Angular velocity of the plate is k rad/s

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

10. A force F is applied at one end of a uniform rod (M, L) so that it performs pure translational motion as
shown. Then

3Mg 4Mg
(A) F (B) F
2 3

3g 5g
(C) Acceleration of centre of mass = (D) Acceleration of centre of mass =
2 4

11. A uniform disc (M, R) has a point mass (M) attached to its circumference. The disc is rolling over a rough
horizontal surface. At the position shown, a0 is the acceleration of centre of disc, 0 is the angular
velocity and  the angular acceleration. N is normal reaction on the disc from ground

Choose the correct option(s)

2a0
(A) If 0 , direction of frictional force will be forward
R

(B) N > 3 Mg

(C) N = 2 Mg

(D) N < 2 Mg

12. A uniform square lamina has mass M and edge length L. Three axes (all in the plane of lamina) A, B and
C have been shown

Then, regarding the moment of inertia of the lamina about these axes

ML2 ML2
(A) IA (B) IB
24 3

ML2 ML2
(C) IC (D) IC
24 48

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

SECTION-3
Numerical Value Type

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

R
13. A uniform disc (M, R) is rolling without slipping as shown. It encounters a stop of height . The
4

minimum speed v0 so that the disc can clear the step after strinking it, is xgR . Assume that the step’s
corner is rough enough so that no slipping takes place. Find x

14. A uniform rod (M, L) is rotating about an axis (which is in the plane of the figure) as shown

The moment of inertia (in S.I. units) for the situation is

15. A uniform rod (M, L) is released from rest on a smooth horizontal surface from the position shown

Assume the end B never loses contact with the ground. Angular speed (in S.I. units) of the rod just

before end A strikes the ground is take 10 3.16

16. A uniform hollow sphere (m, r) rolls down without slipping in a fixed hemisphere of radius R as shown

The sphere was released from rest. Find the normal reaction (in N) when the sphere is at the bottom.

17. A uniform semicircular ring (M, R) is hinged at one corner. It is kept in equilibrium, in a particular position
1
by applying a force F as shown. This desired force F is Mg x . Find x

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

18. Two particles of masses m and 3m collide with uniform rigid rod (m, l) placed over a smooth horizontal
surface as shown

Both particles collide with the rod simultaneously and stick to the rod after the collision. The angular
96 v 0
speed of the system after the collision is . Find x.
x L

PART – II: CHEMISTRY


SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a Single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively

19. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium

A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g)

Let 0.1 mole each of A2 and B2 is taken in a container and the mixture is allowed to attain equilibrium. It
is given that the moles of AB obtained at equilibrium is 0.04. Now, a gas C2 is introduced in the flask
such that it reacts with A2(g) to form AC(g) and another equilibrium is established. It is given that initially
0.1 moles of C2(g) are taken

A2(g) + C2(g)  2AC(g)

When equilibrium is established, the new moles of AB obtained are 0.02. Calculate the moles of AC(g)
450
obtained at equilibrium. If moles of AC are X, calculate X.
13

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

20. A buffer solution is prepared by adding NaOH to 200 ml of 0.5 M HCN solution. Calculate the mass (in g)
of NaOH that must be added to produce a buffer of maximum capacity.

21. A saturated solution of AgCN is prepared in a buffer solution having pH 3.7. The solubility of AgCN in
x
such a solution is x × 10–8 M. Then is [Given : (Ka)HCN = 2 × 10–6 M, (Ksp)AgCN = 10–16 M2, log 2 = 0.3]
2

22. The solubility product of AgCN is 10–16 and formation constant of [Ag(CN)2]– is 3 × 1016. The
a 8
concentration of [CN–] in the solution when the solubility is minimum is 10 M . Then ‘a’ is
3

[Formation constant is calculated for the reaction : Ag+ + 2CN–  [Ag(CN)2]–]

23. For the equilibrium A.6H2O(s)  A.2H2O(s) + 4H2O(g), KP = 1.6 × 10–7 atm4 at 27°C. If 2.463 L of air

saturated with water vapour at 27°C is exposed to a large quantity of A.2H 2O(s), then mass of water
X
vapour absorbed is X mg. The value of is [Saturated vapour pressure of water at 27°C = 22.8 torr]
2
[Round off to the nearest integer]

24. For the reaction AC3(g)  AC(g) + 2C(g), if  is negligible w.r.t. 1, then degree of dissociation () of

AC3(g) is proportional to Vx and Py, where V represents volume of the container and P represents total
y
pressure inside the container. Find the value of x .
2
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONE or MORE is correct.
25. At 25°C consider a buffer solution prepared by mixing 100 ml of 0.01 M CH3COONa and 100 ml of 0.01
M CH3COOH. Select the correct statement(s) regarding this solution [Given pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.7,
log 3 = 0.48, log 2 = 0.3, log 5 = 0.7]
(A) If 50 ml of 0.01 M HCl is added to the solution, the pH will be 4.22
(B) If 50 ml of 0.02 M KOH is added to the solution, the pH will be 8.3
(C) The volume of 0.01 M HCl which must be added in order to decrease the pH by 1 unit is 81.81 mL
(D) The volume of 0.02 M Ba(OH)2 (Strong base) which must be added in order increase the pH by
1 unit is 40.9 mL
26. An acidic indicator HIn has ionisation constant of 10–9. The acid form of the indicator is orange and
alkaline form is green. Select the correct statement(s) for such an indicator [Given : log 2 = 0.3, log 3 =
0.48]
(A) The pH range of the equivalence point, where the use of indicator is suitable is 8 to 10
(B) Change in pH is 0.36 when 60% acid form of indicator changes to 60% alkaline form
(C) The indicator is suitable for the titration of weak base and strong acid
(D) The indicator is suitable for the titration of strong acid and strong base

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

27. For a reaction under a state of chemical equilibrium, which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(A) Addition of catalyst alters the position of equilibrium
(B) At equilibrium, free energy of the system becomes zero at constant temperature and pressure
(C) At equilibrium, entropy of the system achieves maximum value at constant enthalpy and pressure
(D) At equilibrium, enthalpy of the system achieves minimum value at constant entropy and pressure
28. Consider the following curves representing various equilibrium states

Select the correct statement(s) regarding the above curves.


(A) A reaction A(s)  A(aq) at equilibrium may represent curve (IV)

(B) A reaction AB(s)  A+(aq) + B–(aq) may represent curve (II) at various equilibrium states

(C) A reaction An(g)  nA(g) may represent curve (I) if n > 1 and it may represent curve (V) if 0 < n < 1

at various equilibrium states


(D) A reaction An(g)  nA(g) may represent curve (V) if n > 1 and it may represent curve (I) if 0 < n < 1

29. Which of the following option(s) has/have only amphiprotic species?


(A) H2PO2 , H2O, H2C2 O 4 (B) H2PO3 , H2O, HC2 O4

(C) HPO32 , H2O, HC2 O4 (D) C2O 42 , HPO42 , H2PO4


30. Which of the following is(are) correct by considering given system in figure?

Where q represents heat exchange.


(A) Addition of noble gas in chamber (B) results in observation of cooling of chamber (B) and heating of
chamber (A)
(B) Addition of noble gas in chamber (B) results in observation of heating of chamber (B) and cooling of
chamber (A)
(C) KC for one chamber can be changed by increasing the temperature in another chamber
(D) On removing Cl2 from chamber (A) heating is observed in chamber (B)

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

SECTION-3
Numerical Value Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
31. At 25°C, consider a 0.1 M N2H4 solution having K b1 = 3.6 × 10–6 and Kb2 = 6.4 × 10–12. The pH for such

a solution will be [Given : log 6 = 0.78]


32. Two buffers A and B of pH 3.5 and 5.5 respectively are prepared from acid HX and salt NaX. Both the
buffers are 0.6 M in HX, what would be the pH of the solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of the
two buffers? Ka(HX) = 2 × 10–5 [Take log 101  2, log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48]
33. A volume of 50 ml of 0.06 M solution of the protonated form of amino acid, glycine is titrated with 0.12 M
NaOH. The pH of the resulting solution after adding 12.5 mL of NaOH is ‘X’ and after adding 25 mL of
NaOH is ‘Y’, then (X + Y) is

Given : pKa1 = 3.28 (for carboxyl group)


pKa2 = 8.72 (for ammonium ion)
34. The solubility product (Ksp) of Mg(OH)2 at 25°C is 10.8 × 10–8. A 500 ml of saturated solution of Mg(OH)2
is mixed with equal volume of 0.8 M NaOH. The ratio of molar solubility in pure water and the molar
106 x
solubility in presence of NaOH is , then the value of is____
x 5
35. The acid ionization constant of hydrated aluminium ion is 1 × 10–5.
[Al(H2O)6]+3(aq) + H2O(l)  [Al(H2O)5OH]+2 (aq) + H3O+(aq)

How many milligrams of AlCl3 should be dissolved in sufficient water to get 500 ml of solution of pH = 4?
[Given : Molar mass of Al and Cl are 27 and 35.5 g/mol respectively]
36. At 500 K, PCl5(g) is 70% dissociated at pressure of 1 atm. Sufficient quantity of inert gas is added at
constant pressure to the reaction mixture to produce inert gas partial pressure of 0.8 atm. If the
X
percentage dissociation of PCl5(g) after addition of the inert gas is X, calculate . [Take (0.91)2 = 0.828]
7

PART – III: MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
Integer Value Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a Single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows. Examples- If the
correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 6, 0 and 9 respectively, then mark 6, 0 and 9 in OMR
respectively

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

37. Let A(1, 1), B(2, 2), C(9, 0) be the vertices of ABC. The point R is inside the ABC such that the ABR,
BCR, CAR are of equal area. A straight line L with negative slope passes through the point R and cuts
the positive coordinate axes at P and Q. Then the absolute minimum value of OP + OQ as L varies
where O is the origin, is equal to

38. If x + y + z = 10 where x, y, z  N. Then the number of unordered triplet (x, y, z) satisfying the given
equation such that no two variables are equal

39. A ray of light travelling along the line OP(O-origin) is reflected by the mirror 2x – 3y + 1 = 0, the point of
incident being P(1, 1). The reflected ray, travelling along PQ is again reflected by the line mirror
2x – 3y – 1 = 0. The point of incident being Q, from Q, ray move along QR, where R lies on the line 2x –

ab
3y + 1 = 0. The ordinate of point R is then value of (a + b) is (where ab is two digit number unit
13
digit b and tens digit a)

40. The figures 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 are written in every possible order without repetition. If the number of numbers
greater than 56000 is 10n then the value of n is

41. Consider a variable line L which passes through the point of intersection P of the lines 3x + 4y – 12 = 0
and x + 2y – 5 = 0 meeting the coordinate axes at A and B. Locus of feet of the perpendicular from origin
on the variable line L has the equation a(x2 + y2) + bx + cy = 0. Then 5a + b + c is (where a is even prime
number)

42. If the number of ordered triplets (a, b, c) such that LCM(a, b) = 1000, LCM (b, c) = 2000 and LCM (c, a) =
2000 be N, then sum of digits of N is

SECTION - 2

One or More Options Correct Type

This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONE or MORE is correct.

43. If  = x1 x2 x3 and  = y1 y2 y3 be two three-digits numbers, the number of pairs  and  can be formed so
that  can be subtracted from  without borrowing is

(A) 2 × 10! × 10! (B) (45) (55)2

(C) 32. 53. 112 (D) 136125

44. In an acute ABC, if the coordinates of orthocentre H are (4, b), centroid G are (b, 2b – 8) and
circumcentre S are (–4, 8), then b cannot be

(A) 4 (B) 10

(C) 12 (D) –12

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

45. A contest consists of ranking 10 songs of which 6 are Indian classic and 4 are western songs. Number of
ways of ranking so that
(A) There are exactly 3 Indian classic songs in top 5 is (5!)3
(B) Top rank goes to Indian classic song is 6(9!)
(C) The rank of all western songs are consecutive is 4! 7!
(D) The 6 Indian classic songs are in a specific order is 10C
4

46. A point P is an arbitrary interior point of an equilateral triangle of side 4. If x, y, z are the distances of P
from sides of the triangle, then the value of (x + y + z)2 is not equal to
(A) 8 (B) 11
(C) 9 (D) 10
47. The number of ways of arranging the letters AAAAABBBCCCDEEF in a row if the letters C are separated
from one another is

13 12! 13!
(A) C3 (B)
5! 3! 2! 5! 3! 3! 2!

14! 15! 13! 12! 13


(C) (D) 2
C2
3! 3! 2! 5! 3! 2! 5! 3! 2! 5! 3!

48. Two points P(a, 0) and Q(–a, 0) are given R is a variable point on one side of the line PQ such that
RPQ – RQP is a 2

(A) Locus of R is x2 – y2 + 2xy cot2 – a2 = 0 (B) Locus of R is x2 + y2 + 2xy cot2 – a2 = 0

(C) If , the locus of R is x2 – y2 = a2 (D) If , the locus of R is x2 + y2 = a2


4 4

SECTION-3
Numerical Value Type

This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

49. Let the sides of a triangle ABC are all integers with A as origin. If (2, –1) and (3, 6) are points on the line
AB and AC respectively, (Line AB and AC may be extended to contain these points). If the length of any
two sides are prime, that differ by 50. Compute the smallest possible value of third side.
50. Mr and Mrs Zeta wants to name their baby Zeta so that its monogram (first, middle and last initials) will
be in alphabetical order with no letters repeated. The number of such monograms possible are 10k, then k
is (Assume that babies have their last name same as that of their parents)
51. Let the sides of squares be x = 0, y = 0, x = 2, y = 2. If the ray of light is sent along the line x – y + 1 = 0 it
gets refracted from the line y = 2 when entering the square, such that refracted ray divides the area of
square in the ratio 1 : 2. The absolute value of slope of refracted line is (Assume that the refracted ray
doesn’t deviate more then 45° from its original direction)

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UT-5A_Paper-2 (Code-B) JEE (Advanced) CoE (XI)-2022-24

52. Nine chairs in a row are to be occupied by six students and professors Alpha, Beta and Gamma. These
three professors arrive before the six students and decided to choose their chairs so that each professor
has at least one student sitting on both of his sides. The number of ways in which professor choose their
chairs is

53. If all chords of the curve 3x2 – y2 – 2x + 4y = 0, which subtend a right angle at the origin pass through a
fixed point (a, b), then (a – b) is equal to

54. Two of the squares of 7 × 7 checker board are painted yellow and the rest are painted green. Two colour
schemes are equivalent if one can be obtained from the other by applying a rotation in the plane of
board. Number of non-equivalent colour schemes possible are 30k, then k is



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