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Mathematics For Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions For Class 7 - Nodrm
Mathematics For Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions For Class 7 - Nodrm
Mathematics For Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions For Class 7 - Nodrm
The present world is a competitive one. Over the last decade, competitions
have come to occupy an eminent place in the life of all school students, right
from the primary to the senior school level. This has led to an immense
demand for a proper guidebook to help students prepare for various
competitive examinations held at the school level, especially the Olympiads
and Talent Search Examinations. Keeping this in mind, we have brought
forth this new title.
The salient features of the book are:
1. All important concepts and formulae given in a summarised form at
the beginning of most chapters under the head ‘Important Facts and
Formulae’
2. A large number of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with their
answers, hints and explanatory solutions, giving short-cut tricks to
solve the questions in the least possible time
3. A huge collection of ‘Fill in the blanks’ and ‘True–False’ type
questions to facilitate concept-building
4. Advanced concepts, apart from the usual school curriculum,
included to acquaint students with facts that they should know at
their respective class levels and to impart them the competitive edge
We are thankful to the editorial and production staff of Bharati Bhawan
for working dedicatedly and bringing out the book in an attractive and
compact form.
Suggestions and valuable feedback from the readers for the
improvement of the book are welcome.
Authors
(iii)
CONTENTS
1. Integers 1
2. Fractions 21
3. Decimals 60
4. Rational Numbers 83
5. Factors and Multiples 108
6. Exponents 121
7. Algebraic Expressions 136
8. Linear Equations 153
9. Average 171
10. Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 182
11. Percentage 208
12. Profit and loss 237
13. Simple Interest 261
14. Time and Distance 280
15. Lines and Angles 290
16. Triangles 321
17. Symmetry 363
18. Common Sense and Observation Test 378
19. Area and Perimeter 392
20. Volume and surface Area 451
21. Data Handling 459
22. Probability 481
(v)
1 Integers
(ii) All positive integers lie to the right of 0 and all negative integers lie
to the left of 0 on the number line.
(iii) An integer lying to the right of the other on the number line is
always greater.
So, 2 > 5, as 2 lies to the right of –5 on the number line.
4. SUCCESSOR AND PREDECESSOR
a, if a 0 ,
Thus, |a|
a, if a 0.
So, the absolute value of both 2 and 2 is 2, written as |2| = 2 and
|2| = 2.
(ii) The absolute value of an integer is greater than or equal to the
integer, i.e.,|a| a, where a is an integer.
7. COMPARISON OF INTEGERS
(i) 0 is greater than every negative integer and smaller than every
positive integer.
(ii) Every positive integer is greater than every negative integer.
(iii) If a and b are integers then a < b a > b.
8. ADDITION OF INTEGERS
(i) The sum of two positive integers is a positive integer greater than
each of the addends.
Thus, 3 + 4 = 7 and 7 > 3, 7 > 4.
(ii) The sum of two negative integers is a negative integer smaller than
each of the addends.
Thus, (2) (3) 5 and 5 2, 5 3.
(iii) The sum of a positive and a negative integer may be positive or
negative, depending on the numerical values of the addends.
Thus, 2 + (3) = –1; 6 + (4) = 2.
Integers 3
EXERCISE 1A
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following operations on integers satisfy commutative
property?
(a) Addition and subtraction
(b) Subtraction and multiplication
(c) Addition and multiplication
(d) Subtraction and division
2. The sum of two integers is 32. If one of the integers is 36 then the other
integer is
(a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 68 (d) 72
3. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to integers?
(a) Integers are closed under both addition and subtraction.
(b) Commutative property holds in addition but not in subtraction.
(c) Associative property holds in both addition and subtraction.
(d) 0 is the additive identity.
4. |28||25||39| ?
(a) 14 (b) 14 (c) 42 (d) 42
5. The following figure shows a number line. The value of X Y is
28. The melting point of mercury is –39 °C. The freezing point of alcohol is
–98 °C. How much more is the melting point of mercury as compared to
the freezing point of alcohol?
(a) –137 °C (b) –59 °C (c) 59 °C (d) 137 °C
29. Which of the following does not follow from the mathematical statement
26 × 19 = 494?
(a) (26) (19) 494 (b) 494 (26) 19
(c) (494) (19) 26 (d) All of these follow
30. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) a (b) a b but a|b| a b.
(b) a (b) b a but | a|(b) a b.
(c) ( a) (b) a b but | a||b| a b.
(d) ( a) (b) a b but | a||b| ( a b).
31. 30 52 18 (2) (5) is not the same as
(a) 90 + (–36) – (–12) – 133 (b) 5 – 10 + (–20) – 25 – 17
(c) 153 – 207 – (–13) + 189 + (–218) (d) (–44) + 55 + (–99) + 21
32. Select the correct statement.
(a) The sum of two integers is always greater than both the integers.
(b) The sum of two integers is always less than both the addends.
(c) The sum of two integers can be less than or greater than both the
addends.
(d) The sum of two integers always lies between both the addends.
33. 53245 × 99 – (–53245) = ?
(a) 5324500 (b) 5218010 (c) 5271255 (d) None of these
34. (1)101 (1)53 (1)24 ( 1)48 ?
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
35. If A stands for –1, B for 2, C for –3, D for 4, E for –5, F for 6, G for –7, H for
8 and I for –9 then the sum of numbers in each of the following circles is
a positive integer except
37. If 27 integers are multiplied and the product is negative which of the
following statements can be true about them?
(a) 12 are negative and 15 are positive.
(b) 14 are negative and 13 are positive.
(c) 16 are negative and 11 are positive.
(d) 19 are negative and 8 are positive.
38. Amit multiplied two numbers and got –7 as the product. He then
subtracted the second number from the first and got the answer as 8.
The maximum possible value of the greater number is
(a) –7 (b) –1 (c) 1 (d) 7
39. If a (1) (1) (1) … 50 times and b (1) (1) (1) … 51 times
then b – a is equal to
(a) –2 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) 1
40. (232) 84 (232) 48 (232) ( 32) ?
(a) 23200 (b) –23200 (c) 38048 (d) –38048
41. How many of the following statements is/are correct?
I. (–2) – (–3) – (–4) = –9 II. (4) (5) (6) 120
III. –8 – 9 – 10 = –27 IV. (63) (9) (7 ) 1
V. 1 – (–1) = 0 VI. (25) 5 (5) 1
VII. (–13) – (–6) – (–7) = 0 VIII. (108) (3) (1) 5 1620
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
42. The first 9 positive odd integers are placed in the
D E 3
magic square so that the sum of the numbers in each
5 C 13
row, column and diagonal are equal. The value of
A 1 B
A + E is
(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 32
43. In a shooting game, Rohan has 3 hits more than the number of misses.
If each hit earns him 2 points and each miss earns him (–1) point, how
many times did he shoot in all, if his score is 23?
(a) 17 (b) 20 (c) 37 (d) 40
44. In a multiple-choice question test containing 100 questions, a student is
awarded 2 marks for every correct answer, 0.5 marks are deducted for
every wrong answer and 0 is given for leaving a question unattempted.
If Sachin obtained 88 marks in a test, in which of the following ways
could he have possibly attempted the test?
I. 44 correct answers and 56 unattempted.
II. 50 correct answers, 36 wrong answers and 14 unattempted.
Integers 11
50. Sushant plays the dart game as shown above. If he strikes ring A thrice
and each of ring C and D twice and still attains an overall negative score,
what is the minimum number of times he strikes ring B?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)
5. X – Y = 4 – (–16) = 4 + 16 = 20.
6.
A E 3 (4) 3 4 7.
D – C = – 6 – 5 = – 11.
B + F = 6 + (–2) = 6 – 2 = 4.
C – (E + 1) = 5 – (– 4 + 1) = 5 – (–3) = 5 + 3 = 8.
B – F = 6 – (–2) = 6 + 2 = 8.
So, C – (E + 1 ) = B – F.
7. 3 (4) (2) 6 (12) (12) 12 12 24 0.
(8) (5) 10 4 40 40 80 0.
Integers 13
32. The sum of two positive integers is always greater than both the addends.
The sum of two negative integers is always less than both the addends.
The sum of a positive and a negative integer lies between both the addends.
33. 53245 × 99 – (– 53245) = 53245 × 99 + 53245 × 1 = 53245 × (99 + 1)
= 53245 × 100 = 5324500.
EXERCISE 1B
Direction (Questions 1 to 30): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. There are ...... integers between –3 and 10.
2. There are ...... integers between –30 and 30.
3. There are ...... negative integers between –10 and 10.
4. There are ...... positive integers between –15 and 12.
5. 0 is greater than every ...... integer.
6. Every negative integer is less than every ...... integer.
7. The sum of the greatest negative integer and the smallest positive
integer is ...... .
8. The predecessor of –56 is ...... .
9. The successor of –11 is ...... .
10. The absolute value of an integer can never be ...... than the integer.
11. Integers are closed for ......, ...... and ...... but not for ...... .
12. |3||6||10||20| ...... .
13. 100 less than 50 is ...... .
14. 2 exceeds –3 by ...... .
15. – 4 is less than 3 by ...... .
16. The integer which is equal to its additive inverse is ...... .
17. ||5 11|9| ...... .
18. For any two integers a and b if a b a then b ...... .
19. For any two integers a and b if a b 1 then b ...... .
20. For any two integers a and b if a b a then b …… .
21. For any two integers a and b if a b 0 then b …… .
22. When we divide an integer by its additive inverse, we get …… .
23. The …… of an integer should be added to it to get the additive identity
of integers.
24. Addition and multiplication of integers are both …… and …… .
25. On the number line we move to the right when we add a …… integer or
subtract a …… integer.
26. When the dividend and divisor are of opposite signs the quotient has
a …… sign.
27. The product of three integers is –800. If two of them are –16 and –5 then
the third integer is …… .
28. a > b a c b c if c is …… and a > b a c b c if c is …… .
29. –1 multiplied 2n times, where n is an odd natural number, is equal
to …… .
18 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. 12 2. 59 3. 9 4. 11 5. negative
6. non-negative 7. 0 8. –57 9. –10
10. smaller 11. addition, subtraction, multiplication, division
12. –13 13. –50 14. 5 15. 7 16. 0
1
17. 3 18. 1 19. 20. 0 21. (– a)
a
22. –1 23. additive inverse 24. commutative, associative
25. positive, negative 26. negative 27. –10
28. positive, negative 29. 1 30. –1 31. False
32. False 33. False 34. False 35. False 36. False
37. False 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. False
42. True 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. False
47. False 48. True 49. False 50. False 51. True
52. False 53. True 54. True 55. False 56. False
1. There are 12 integers between –3 and 10, i.e., –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9.
2. Number of integers between –30 and 30 (2 30 1) 60 1 59.
3. There are 9 negative integers between –10 and 10, i.e., from –1 to –9.
4. There are 11 positive integers between –15 and 12, i.e., from 1 to 11.
7. Required sum = greatest negative integer + smallest positive integer
1 1 0.
8. Predecessor of – 56 = –56 – 1 = – 57.
9. Successor of –11 = –11 + 1 = –10.
10. The absolute value of an integer is either equal to or greater than the integer, but never
smaller than it.
12. |3||6||10||20| 3 6 10 20 13 26 13.
13. Required integer 50 100 50.
14. Required difference 2 (3) 2 3 5.
15. Required difference 3 (4) 3 4 7.
17.||5 11|9|||6|9||6 9||3| 3.
18. a b a b = 1.
1
19. a b 1 b .
a
20. a b a b 0.
21. a b 0 b ( a).
22. a ( a) 1.
20 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
23. a ( a) 0.
27. Product of two integers (16) (5) 80.
third integer (800) 80 10.
29. n is odd 2n is even (1)2n 1.
30. n is odd 9n is odd (1)9n 1.
31. The smallest positive integer is 1. 0 is neither positive nor negative.
32. Predecessor of 1 1 1 2.
33. The greatest negative integer is –1.
34. |4||5| 4 5 1.
35. |13||11|| 6| 13 11 6 24 6 18.
36. The absolute value of an integer is greater than or equal to the integer.
37. The sum of two negative integers is always negative.
(2) 2 (2) 2 (2)
38. 2
0 0 0
Clearly, the given series may end in 2 or (–2). If it ends in –2, the sum of the series will
be 0 and if it ends in 2, the sum of the series will be 2.
39. Division by zero is not defined.
40. –2 is greater than –8 by (2) (8), i.e., 2 8, i.e., 6.
41. –1 and 1 are two integers which are equal to their respective multiplicative inverse.
43. 0 has no multiplicative inverse.
44. Commutative property of addition states that a b b a for integers a and b.
45. 16 (18) (13) (15) (16) 18 15 13 (16 18 15 13).
46. (15 4) 9 11 9 2.
15 ( 4 9) 15 (5) 15 5 20.
(15 4) 9 15 ( 4 9).
47. a < b a b.
For Example, 3 < 4 but 3 4.
48. Required difference 2 ( 4) 2 4 2.
49. For the product to be zero, one of the multiplier has to be zero.
50. (10 10) {10 (10 10)} 20 {10 (20)}
20 {10 20} 20 10 2.
52. a (b) ab.
53. a b ab | a||b|.
( a) (b) ab | a||b|.
54. a (b) ab (| a||b|).
55. The difference of two numbers with opposite signs may be positive or negative.
Thus, 5 (7 ) 12 and (7 ) 5 12.
56. a b b a.
2 Fractions
21
22 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 2A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Select the incorrect match of shaded fraction.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
24 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
4 2
(a) (b)
9 5
(c) (d)
4. The shaded part in which of the following figures represents the fraction
1 1 1 1
obtained by the simplification of 4 1 1 1 ... 1 ?
2 3 4 10
9. Sheena bought a 1 litre bottle of cold drink. She drank 320 mL and her
3
sister drank of the remaining. The quantity of cold drink left in the
20
bottle is
(a) 238 mL (b) 640 mL (c) 360 mL (d) 578 mL
2
10. What value of X makes the statement X 3 X true?
5
2 5
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d)
5 17
P Q Q7 5
11. If and , what fraction of P is Q?
15 10 36 12
2 3 2 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 2 5 5
12. The adjoining number line
shows four fractions P, Q, R
and S. If PQ = QR = RS then
the values of Q and R are
respectively
1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) ,
6 5 5 6
1 1 1 1
(c) , (d) ,
6 4 4 6
26 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1 2
13. If we divide the product of 3 and 1 by 1 , we get
2 6 3
9 4 29
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 6
20 5 36
2
14. Tanya has bought a carpet of size 4 m × 6 m. But her room size is
3
1 1
3 m 5 m. What fraction of the area of the carpet should be cut off to
3 3
fit the carpet wall to wall in the room?
1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 6 3
15. Which of the following statements is true?
product of numerators .
(a) The product of fractions is expressed as
product of denominators
(b) The product of two proper fractions is greater than the individual
fractions involved in the operation.
(c) The product of a proper and an improper fraction is less than the
proper fraction.
(d) When dividing a fraction by a whole number, the fraction is
divided by the reciprocal of the whole number.
16. Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks.
The product of two …… fractions is …… each of the two fractions.
(a) proper, greater than
(b) improper, less than
(c) improper, greater than
(d) improper, greater than or equal to
17. The diameter of Earth is 12756000 m. Few years ago, a new planet was
5
discovered whose diameter is of the diameter of Earth. The radius of
43
this planet (in km) is
(a) 428.92 (b) 741.63 (c) 892.99 (d) 925.33
2
18. After travelling 33 km, a man found that of his journey was still left.
3
The length of the total journey is
(a) 66 km (b) 99 km (c) 100 km (d) 132 km
19. Which of the following statements is correct?
271 122 271 .
(a) The product of and is greater than
139 123 139
Fractions 27
19 119 19 .
(b) The product of and is greater than
28 228 28
1935 2934 1935 .
(c) The product of and is greater than
2101 2924 2101
2 5 3 8
(d) of is greater than of .
3 6 4 7
3
20. How many pieces each 3 metres long can be cut from a rope 30 metres
4
long?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
11
21. Between which two numbers does lie?
4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 11 and 12
1
22. Which of the following fractions is less than ?
3
4 15 22 33
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 46 63 98
5 2
23. Ayush had of a cake. He ate of it. What part of the cake did he eat?
6 3
5 5 5 10
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 6 3 3
1 1
24. Ayesha ate of a cake and gave away of the remaining. What fraction
3 8
of the cake is left?
1 7 5 19 .
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12 12 24 24
3 3
25. of a quantity x is equal to of another quatity y. If y = 52 then x + y is
5 4
equal to
3
(a) 93 (b) 99
5
(c) 117 (d) insufficient information
26. Abhay wants to print the title of his project work such that the letters are
1 1
inch tall. But he doesn’t know which point to use. If 1 point inch,
4 72
which point size should he use?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 28
28 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
5 8 13
27. For how many integers ‘p’ between 30 and 40 is it true that , and
p p p
are all in lowest terms?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
1 1
28. Of the total money, Rohan had with him, he spent on books and on
3 4
eatables. What fraction of the money is left with him?
1 2 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 7 12
29. Rohan picks three different digits from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and forms a
2
fractional part of the mixed number must be less than 1, e.g., 3 . What
5
is the difference between the largest and the smallest possible mixed
number that can be formed?
3 3 7 9
(a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 4 (d) 4
5 10 20 20
11
30. A vendor bought kg of onions and packed them into packets each
12
2
containing kg of onions. How many packets of onions did he get and
15
what was the weight of onions left unpacked?
5 8 7 7
(a) 5, kg (b) 5, kg (c) 6, kg (d) 6, kg
18 9 30 60
1 3
31. A lady bought 8 kg of flour. She used 4 kg to bake some cakes and
2 4
packed the remaining into 5 equal packets. The weight of the flour in
each packet is
2 3 4 5
(a) kg (b)
kg (c) kg (d) kg
3 4 5 6
1 1
32. In a vegetable curry, part is composed of water, part is composed
3 6
1
of onions, part is composed of spices and the remaining part is
6
composed of tomatoes. How much part of the curry is tomatoes?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 9 12
Fractions 29
1 1 1
33. In the pattern ... which least fraction makes the sum greater
3 4 5
than 1?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 6 7 8
1 1 1 1 1
34. 1 is equal to
2 4 7 14 28
5 7
(a) 2 (b) (c) 3 (d)
2 2
1 1 1
35. If 4 then x = ?
3 2 x
5 6 18 24
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18 19 5 11
1 5 5 1
36. 1 1 1 6 ?
4 9 8 2
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 27 (d) None of these
1
37. 1 2 1 2 1 is equal to
3
4 1 1 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
5 4 5 4
1 2 4 1 1 3
38. 2 3 5 3 5 4 is simplified to
1 2 4 1 1 4
2 3 3 3 5 5
3 10
(a) (b) –2 (c) (d) 1
10 3
3
39. The difference of 1 and its reciprocal is equal to
16
1 1 15
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) (d) none of these
8 3 16
1 1 1 1 2 5 3 7
40. When is divided by the result is
2 4 5 6 5 9 5 18
1 1 3 1
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 3 (d) 5
18 6 10 10
41. Choose the incorrect statement.
1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) 3 1 1 (b) 3 2 1 6
6 4 4 16 4 3 4 5 3
30 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
4 3 1 3 5 3 5 3 1
(c) 2 1 1 6 (d) 1 2 1 1 8
5 10 2 20 6 4 6 4 4
3 2 1
42. 2 2 1 ?
4 3 12
39 1 169
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d) None of these
48 4 144
2 3 1 7
43. 9 1 of 3 5 of ?
9 11 7 9
5 32
(a) (b) 8 (c) 8 (d) 9
4 81
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
44. Simplify: 3 1 2 of 4
4 4 2 2 4 6 2 3
(a) 18 (b) 36 (c) 39 (d) 78
1 1 1
3 3 2 1 2 of 5 2
45. The value of of is
2 2 1 1 1 of 3 1
2 2 2
56 182 56 28
(a) (b) (c) (d)
99 31 1023 341
1 1
3 1 2 2 3 1 5
46. 2 of 3 ?
4 4 3 1 1 3 6
2 3
1 2 7 49
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 3 18 54
7 1 5
1 of
47. A student was asked to solve the fraction 3 2 3 and his answer
2
21
3
1
was . By how much was his answer wrong?
4
1 1
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d) None of these
55 220
1 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 2
48. If the expression 2 of of is simplified,
2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3
we get
1 7 5 3
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
2 8 8 5
Fractions 31
1 1 1
49. The simplified value of 3 3 3 1 is
1 1 1 9
of
3 3 3
1 1
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d) 1
9 3
1 1 1
of
50. The value of 2 2 2 is
1 1 1
of
2 2 2
1 2
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
3 3
1 4 5
3 of
51. 4 5 6 is equal to
1 1 3 1
4 21
3 5 10 5
1 7 1 1
(a) (b) 2 (c) 15 (d) 21
6 12 2 2
52. Jack and Jill went up the hill to fetch a pail of water. Having filled the
2
pail to the full, Jack fell down, spilling
of the water, before Jill caught
3
1
the pail. She then tumbled down the hill, spilling of the remainder.
5
What fraction of the water fills the pail?
1 1 4 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 15 15 15
a 1 b c 1 d e 1 abc
53. If , 2, , 3 and then what is the value of ?
b 3 c d 2 e f 4 def
1 3 3 27
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 8 4
54. Consider the following statements.
I. If the same nonzero number is added to both the numerator and
denominator of a fraction the value of the fraction increases.
II. If the same nonzero number is subtracted from both the numerator
and denominator of a fraction the value of the fraction decreases.
III. If the numerator of a fraction is decreased keeping the denominator
constant the value of the fraction decreases.
32 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
2 2 2 2 2 2
62. The value of 1 1 1 ... 1 1 1 is
1 2 3 26 27 2 8
(a) 15 (b) 217.5 (c) 435 (d) 870
3 1 2 2 6 12
63. 1 1 1 1 1 ?
4 3 3 5 7 13
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
5 6 7
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
64. Sum of the first 35 terms of the series ...
2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4
is
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
2 4 4
999
65. 999 7 is equal to
1000
7 7 993 7
(a) 6633 (b) 6993 (c) 6999 (d) 7000
1000 1000 1000 1000
995
66. The value of 999 999 is
999
(a) 990809 (b) 998996 (c) 998999 (d) 999824
2 3 5 8 16
67. The value of 998 998 998 998 998 is
17 17 17 17 17
(a) 4990 (b) 4992 (c) 9998 (d) 10000
7 7
68. A candidate was asked to find of a positive number. He found of
8 18
the same by mistake. If his answer was 770 less than the correct one then
the original given number was
(a) 1260 (b) 1584 (c) 6160 (d) none of these
17 .
69. A student was asked to divide a number by Instead, he actually
8
17
multiplied it by and hence got 225 more than the expected answer.
8
What was the expected answer?
(a) 64 (b) 126 (c) 136 (d) None of these
3 4 1 2
70. The difference between of of a number and of of the same
4 5 6 5
number is 648. The number is
(a) 1110 (b) 1215 (c) 1325 (d) 1440
34 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1
71. Which number gives the same result when added to 1 and when
2
1
multiplied by 1 ?
2
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
2
72. In a class, there were an equal number of boys and girls. of the boys
5
wore spectacles, What fraction of the children wore spectacles?
1 2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 10 20
3 1 1
73. of the pupils in a class are boys. If of the boys and of the girls wear
5 3 2
spectacles, what fraction of the pupils in the class wear spectacles?
1 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 6 3
5 3
74. In a basket, of the fruits are apples and the rest are oranges. of the
9 10
apples are green in colour. If there are 15 green apples in all then how
many fruits are there in the basket?
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 90 (d) 135
3 2
75. In a class, of the students are girls and rest are boys. If of the girls
5 9
1
and of the boys are absent, what part of the total number of students
4
is present?
17 18 23 23
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25 49 30 36
1
76. A and B had 60 marbles altogether. After B gave of his marbles to A,
6
A had twice as many marbles as B. How many marbles did A have
at first?
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 36
1
77. The value of 1 is
1
1
1
1
16
15 31 15 16
(a) 1 (b) (c) (d)
31 46 16 15
Fractions 35
1 3
78. The value of is
1 4
1 3
4 1
3 3
1 1
2 2
1 2
3
2
13 15 11 17
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 21 28
1
79. If 2 x then the value of x is
1
1
1
3
4
12 13 18 21
(a) (b) (c) (d)
17 17 17 17
2x x 1
80. If 1 then the value of is
1 4x 2
1
x
1
1 x
3 3 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 4 2 4
81. A garments shop owner sold shirts and trousers. The number of shirts
1 1
was of the number of trousers he had. He sold of his trousers and all
3 2
the shirts. What fraction of the clothes did he sell?
3 4 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 6 8
5 2
82. A has as much money as B. B has as much money as C. If A has ` 63
8 3
less than C then B has
(a) ` 68 (b) ` 70 (c) ` 72 (d) ` 74
2 6
83. Given that string A is of string B and string B is of string C. What
3 5
fraction of string A is string C?
1 2 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 5 2 4
3 4
84. Box P is as heavy as box Q while box Q is as heavy as box R. If the
4 9
total weight of boxes Q and R is 338 kg then the weight of box P is
(a) 64 kg (b) 78 kg (c) 84 kg (d) 96 kg
36 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
85. Three friends had dinner at a restaurant. When the bill was received,
2 1
Ansh paid as much as Parth and Parth paid as much as Rahul paid.
3 2
What fraction of the bill did Parth pay?
1 3 5 12
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 11 8 31
3
86. A drum of kerosene is full. When 30 litres of kerosene is drawn from
4
7
it, it remains full. The capacity of the drum is
12
(a) 120 litres (b) 135 litres (c) 150 litres (d) 180 litres
3 4
87. A boy read of a book on one day and of the remainder on another
8 5
day. If there were 30 pages unread, how many pages did the book
contain?
(a) 240 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) None of these
1
88. Anita read of the pages of a book. If she reads further 40 pages she
5
7
would have read of the pages of the book. How many pages are left
10
to be read?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 28
3
89. A man has some money in the form of ` 100, ` 50 and ` 10 notes. of the
7
2
total number of notes are ` 100 notes, of the remaining are ` 50 notes
3
and the rest are ` 10 notes. If the number of ` 10 notes with him is 12,
how much money does he have in all?
1
91. Four children A, B, C and D divide a bag of sweets. A takes of them,
3
2
B takes of the remainder and the rest is equally shared between C and D.
5
What fraction of the sweets did C or D get?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 5 6 17
3 1
92. After reading of a book on Monday, Sachin read of the remaining
5 3
book on Tuesday. What fraction of the whole book would Sachin have
to read on Wednesday to complete reading the whole book?
1 1 2 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 15 15 15
3 1 1 1 3 3
93. 2 13 5 5 5 13 13 ?
4 4 4 4 4 4
(a) 311 (b) 316 (c) 361 (d) 380
7 7 5 5 7 5
94. What is 8 8 6 6 8 3 equal to?
7 7 5 5
8 8 6 6
1 41
(a) (b) (c) 41 (d) None of these
24 24
2 2
2 1 2 1
3 2 3 2
3 2 3 2
95. ?
2
3 1
2 3 1
4 3
4 3 4 3
4 3
37 74 23
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d) None of these
97 97 74
1
96. Aditya had some marbles. He gave of them to his brother and lost 60 of
5 4
them. Now he has of them left. He put the remaining marbles equally
8
into 4 similar containers. The number of marbles in each container is
(a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 75 (d) 84
1 1 1
97. What is the least fraction that must be added to 1 1 1 to make the
3 2 9
result an integer?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 5 6
38 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (c)
81. (d) 82. (c) 83. (d) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (d) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (c)
2 2 2 1 1 1 3 1
1. (a) Shaded fraction 1 .
4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2
1 2 2 5 2
(b) Shaded fraction 1 .
3 3 3 3 3
2 2 1 1
(c) Shaded fraction 1.
4 4 2 2
1 2 3 1 2 3 6 1
(d) Shaded fraction 1 .
5 5 5 5 5 5
2. Clearly, the given figure has 4 types of regions and 8 regions of each type. Now,
3
3 types of each region are shaded. So, of the whole figure is shaded.
8
3. (a) The figure has 10 squares each of which can be divided into two triangles. Out of
8 2
total 20 triangles, 8 are shaded. So, it represents or .
20 5
(b) The figure has 10 squares, each divided into 4 triangles. Out of total 40 triangles,
15 3
15 are shaded. So, it represents or .
40 8
(c) The figure has 9 squares, each divided into 2 half parts. Out of total 18 half-parts,
10 5
10 are shaded. So, it represents or .
18 9
Fractions 39
(d) The figure has 6 big triangles, each divided into 2 small triangles. Out of total 12
3 1
small triangles, 3 are shaded. So, it represents or .
12 4
1 1 1 1 1 2 3 9 1 2
4. 4 1 1 1 ... 1 4 ... 4 .
2 3 4 10 2 3 4 10 10 5
1
The shaded part in Figure (a) represents .
4
2
The shaded part in Figure (b) represents .
5
3.
The shaded part in Figure (c) represents
8
3 1
The dshaded part in Figure (d) represents or .
6 2
5. Figure P has two types of regions and 8 regions of each type, out of which 3 regions of
3
each type are shaded. So, the shaded region in Figure P represents .
8
Figure Q has 28 squares, of which 8 are shaded. So, the shaded region in Figure Q
8 2
represents or .
28 7
Figure R has two types of regions and 6 regions of each type, out of which 2 regions of
2 1
each type are shaded. So, the shaded region in Figure R represents or .
6 3
Figure S has two types of regions and 8 regions of each type, out of which 2 regions of
2 1
each type are shaded. So, the shaded region in Figure S represents or .
8 4
Now, LCM of 3, 4, 7, 8 = 168.
3 3 21 63 2 2 24 48
; ;
8 8 21 168 7 7 24 168
1 1 56 56 1 1 42 42
; .
3 3 56 168 4 4 42 168
42 48 56 63 1 2 1 3
S < Q < R < P.
168 168 168 168 4 7 3 8
6. Total number of squares = 25.
2
Required number of unshaded squares of 25 = 10.
5
Number of unshaded squares in the figure = 16.
number of squares that must be shaded = 16 – 10 = 6.
2 3 7 4
7. 0.666 ; 0.75 ; 0.7 ; 0.8.
3 4 10 5
Now, 0.666 < 0.7 < 0.75 < 0.8.
2 7 3 4
.
3 10 4 5
1 1 17
8. Required number 8 6 51.
2 6 2
40 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
5
17. Diameter of new planet of 12756000 m
43
= (5 × 296651.16) m = 1483255.8 m.
1483255.8
radius of new planet m = 741627.9 m
2
741627.9
km 741.6279 km 741.63 km.
1000
Fractions 41
1 1 7 5
28. Fraction of money left 1 1 .
3 4 12 12
3 2 23 7 115 28 87 7
29. Required difference 5 1 4 .
4 5 4 5 20 20 20
11 2 11 15 55 7
30. 6 .
12 15 12 2 8 8
Clearly, 6 packets will be formed.
11 2
Weight of onions left unpacked 6 kg
12 15
11 4 55 48 7
kg kg kg.
12 5 60 60
1 3
31. Quantity of flour packed 8 4 kg
2 4
17 19 34 19 15
kg kg kg.
2 4 4 4
15 15 1 3
weight of flour in each packet 5 kg kg kg.
4 4 5 4
1 1 1 2 11
32. Fraction of curry consisting of tomatoes 1 1
3 6 6 6
4 2 1.
1 1
6 3 3
1 1 1 7 1 1 1 47 1 1 1 1 57
33. 1; 1; 1; 1;
3 3 4 12 3 4 5 60 3 4 5 6 60
1 1 1 1 1 459
1.
3 4 5 6 7 420
1 1 1 1 1 28 14 7 4 2 1 56
34. 1 2.
2 4 7 14 28 28 28
1 1 1 1 1 1 23
35. 4 4 4
3 2 x x 3 2 6
1 5 24 5 19 6
4 x .
x 6 6 6 19
1 5 5 1 5 14 13 2 5 7 45 14 59 23
36. 1 1 1 6 1 .
4 9 8 2 4 9 8 13 4 18 36 36 36
1 4 3 3
37. 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
3 3 4 2
5 2 4 4
1 2 1 2 1 1 .
2 5 5 5
2 1 4 1 3 1 1 1 1
1 1
3 3 5 5 4 2 4
38. Given expression 4 4
2 4 1 1 4 1 1 1 2 6 3 5
1
3 3 3 5 5 2 3 2 3 6
1 6 3
.
4 5 10
Fractions 43
7 1 5 7 3 5 7 5 14 15
1 of of
47. 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 6 29 3 29 .
2 5 5 65 6 11 22
21 2 2
3 3 3 3
29 1 58 11 47 3
required difference 1 .
22 4 44 44 44
1 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 2
48. 2 of of
2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3
5 3 1 3 1 3 2 1
of
2 4 2 2 2 2 3 3
15 1 2 1 3 1 5 1 1 5 5 8 13 5
1 1 .
8 2 3 2 2 3 8 2 2 8 8 8 8
1 1 1 1 1 1
3
3 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
49. 0.
1 1 1 9 1 1 9 1
of 9 9 3 3 9 9 9
3 3 3 3 9 3
1 1 1 1 1 1
of 4
2 2 2 2 4 2 4 8 2
50. 2 2 .
1 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 3
of
2 2 2 2 4 4
1 4 5 13 2 39 8
3 of
12 31 31 1
51. 4 5 6 4 3 6 15 .
1 1 3 106 13 3 212 65 215 12 2 2
4 5
3 5 10 5 3 10 3 10
2
52. Fraction of water spilled by Jack .
3
2 1
Fraction of water left in the pail 1 .
3 3
1 1 1
Fraction of water spilled by Jill of .
5 3 15
1 1 5 1 4
Fraction of water now left in the pail .
3 15 15 15
a a b c 1 1 1
53. 2 .
d b c d 3 2 3
b b c d 1
2 3 3.
e c d e 2
c c d e 1 1 3
3 .
f d e f 2 4 8
abc a b c 1 3 3
3 .
def d e f 3 8 8
21 2. 2 1 2 . 2 1 2 . 1 1
54. I. II. III. IV. .
31 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
55.
4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 2 1
4 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 2
Fractions 45
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3
1
4 2 2 2 4 2 2 2
1 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 5
.
4 2 2 3 4 6 12 12
56. For the smallest fraction, the numerator must be the smallest and the denominator
ab
must be the greatest. Thus, is the smallest fraction.
cd
yx x 3
1 1
6 yx 6 y 6 y 6 4 6 1 4 6 1 7
57. 1.
7 yx 7 yx 7 x 7 1 3 7 4 7 7 7 7
1
4
y y
x 6 x 12
58. .
2y 7 y 7
xy x 12
1 1
x y 14 y 14 y 14 7 14
x y 19 x y 19 x 19 12 19
1 1
y y 7
5 7 14 5 14 19
1.
7 19 19 19 19 19
1 1 1 1 1 2 3 m1 1
59. 1 1 1 ... 1 ... .
2 3 4 m 2 3 4 m m
1 1 1 1 4 5 6 n1 n1.
60. 1 1 1 ... 1 ...
3 4 5 n 3 4 5 n 3
1 3 5 997 5 7 9 1001 1001 .
61. 2 2 2 ... 2 ...
3 5 7 999 3 5 7 999 3
2 2 2 2 2 2
62. 1 1 1 ... 1 1 1
1 2 3 26 27 28
1 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 26 2 27 2 28 2
...
1 2 3 4 26 27 28
3 4 5 6 28 29 30 29 30
... 29 15 435.
1 2 3 4 26 27 28 1 2
3 1 2 2 6 12
63. 1 1 1 1 1
4 3 3 5 7 13
3 4 5 3 13 1 1
.
4 3 3 5 7 13 7
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
64. ... up to 35 terms
2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
5
2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
5
2 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 4
1 1
05 0 0 .
4 4
46 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
999 1 7 7
65. 999 7 1000 7 1000 7 7000
1000 1000 1000 1000
7000000 7 6999993 993
6999 .
1000 1000 1000
995 4 4
66. 999 999 1000 999 1000 999 999 999000 4 998996.
999 999 999
2 3 5 8 16
67. 998 998 998 998 998
17 17 17 17 17
2 3 5 8 16
998 998 998 998 9998
17 17 17 17 17
2 3 5 8 16 34
(998 5) 4990 4990 2 4992.
17 17 17 17 17 17
68. Let the given number be x. Then,
7 7 63 x 28 x 35 x 770 72
x x 770 770 770 x 1584.
8 18 72 72 35
69. Let the number be x. Then,
17 8 289 x 64 x 225 x
x x 225 225 225 x = 136.
8 17 136 136
17 8
expected answer 136 136 64.
8 17
70. Let the number be x. Then,
3 4 1 2
of of x of of x 648
4 5 6 5
3x x 8x 648 15
648 648 x 1215.
5 15 15 8
71. Let the required number be x. Then,
1 1 3 3 3 3 x 3
x 1 x 1 x x x x x = 3.
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
72. Let the total number of children be x. Then,
x
Number of boys .
2
2 x x
Number of boys who wear spectacles of .
5 2 5
1
required fraction .
5
73. Let the total number of pupils in the class be x.
3x 2x
Then, number of boys , number of girls .
5 5
1 3x 1 2x x x 2x
Number of pupils who wear spectacles of of .
3 5 2 5 5 5 5
2
required fraction .
5
74. Let the total number of fruits be x. Then,
5x 4x
number of apples ; number of oranges ;
9 9
3 5x x
number of green apples of .
10 9 6
Fractions 47
x
15 or x 15 6 90.
6
75. Let the total number of students be x. Then,
3x 2x
number of girls ; number of boys ;
5 5
2 3x 1 2x 2x x
number of students who are absent of of
9 5 4 5 15 10
4x 3x 7 x
.
30 30
7 x 23 x
number of students who are present x .
30 30
23
Hence, required fraction .
30
1
76. Suppose A had x marbles and B had (60 – x) marbles. Then, after B gives of his
6
marbles to A,
1
number of marbles with A x (60 x )
6
5
number of marbles with B (60 x )
6
1 5
x (60 x ) 2 (60 x )
6 6
1 1 5 5
x 60 x 60 x
6 6 3 3
x 5x
x 10 100
6 3
5x 5x 15 x 90 6
100 10 90 x 36.
6 3 6 15
1 1 1 1 15 46 15
77. 1 1 1 1 1 1 .
1 1 16 31 31 31 31
1 1 1
1 15 15 15
1
16 16
1 3 1 3
78.
1 4 1 4
1 3 1 3
4 1 4 1
3 3 3 3
1 1 1 3
2 2 2
1 2 5 2
3
2 2
1 3 1 3
1 4 4 1
1 3 3 1
4 4 2 11
3 3 3
2 12
3 3
2
5 5
1 3 1 3 1 33
1 12 1 21 3 21
1 3 1 1
3
5 11 4 11 4
3
3
48 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 33 4 33 12 33 45 15
.
7 21 7 21 21 21 7
4
1 1 1 1
79. 2 x x x x
1 1 4 17
1 1 1
1 13 13 13
3
4 4
13 13 34 13 21
2x x 2 .
17 17 17 17
2x 2x 2x 2x
80. .
1 1 1 1 x 2 x
1 1
x 1 x x
1
1 x 1 x
2x 2
1 2x 2 x 3x 2 x .
2x 3
2 5
1
x 1 3 5 3 5
3 .
4x 2 4 2 2 8 3 2 2
3 2
3
81. Let the number of trousers be x.
x
Then, number of shirts .
3
x x 3x 2x 5x .
Number of garments sold
2 3 6 6
5x
5x 3 5
6
required fraction .
x 6 4x 8
x
3
82. Suppose C has `x. Then,
2x 5 2x 5x
B has ` and A has ` of , i.e., ` .
3 8 3 12
5x 7x 63 12
x 63 63 x 108.
12 12 7
2 108 ,
Clearly, B has ` i.e., ` 72.
3
83. Let length of string C be x. Then,
6x
length of string B ;
5
2 6x 4x
length of string A of .
3 5 5
x 5 5
required fraction x .
4x 4x 4
5
Fractions 49
90. 1 out of 5 girls and 1 out of 8 boys participated. Thus, 2 out of 13 students took part in
the fete.
1
91. Fraction of sweets A gets .
3
2 2 4
Fraction of sweets B gets of .
5 3 15
1 4 54 9 3 2
Fraction of sweets remaining 1 1 1 1 .
3 15 15 15 5 5
1 2 1.
fraction of sweets C or D gets
2 5 5
3
92. Fraction of book read on Monday .
5
1 3 1 2 2
Fraction of book read on Tuesday of 1 of .
3 5 3 5 15
3 2 92 11 4 .
Fraction of book to be read on Wednesday 1 1 1
5 15 15 15 15
2 2
1 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 3
93. Given expression 5 5 13 13 2 5 13 5 13 2 5 13
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
2
1 3
5 13 [ ( a b)2 a2 b 2 2 ab]
4 4
2 2
21 55 76
(19)2 361.
4 4 4
Fractions 51
2 2
7 5 7 5
2
8 6 8 6
94. Given expression 2 2
7 5
8 6
2
7 5
8 6 [ ( a b)2 a2 b 2 2 ab ; ( a2 b 2 ) ( a b) ( a b)]
7 57 5
8 68 6
7 5 21 20
8 6 24 41
24 41.
7 5 21 20 24
8 6 24
2 1 2 1 3 1
3 2 3 2 4 3
3 2 3 2 4 3
95. Given expression
3 1 3 1 2 1
4 3 4 3 3 2
4 3 4 3 3 2
2 1 11 5 22 155
3 2
3 2 3 2 6 37 12 74
.
3 1 19 10 57 40 6 97 97
4 3
4 3 4 3 12
96. Let the total number of marbles be x. Then,
3 5 3 5 6x 5x x
x 60 x x x 60 60 60.
4 8 4 8 8 8
x 60 8 480.
5
Remaining marbles 480 300.
8
number of marbles in each container = 300 4 = 75.
1 1 1 4 3 10 4 2 9 4
97. 1 1 1 .
3 2 9 3 2 9 3 3 10 5
4 1
required fraction 1 .
5 5
x
98. Let the original fraction be . Then,
x3
x3 1 x3 1
5 x 15 x 5 4 x 20 x 5.
( x 3) 2 5 x5 5
5
original fraction .
8
52 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 2B
Direction (Questions 1 to 32): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. A fraction acts as an operator …… .
2. There are …… eighths in 24.
1 1
3. The number of kg box of chocolates that can be made with 1 kg
16 2
chocolates is …… .
4. The value of a proper fraction always lies between …… and …… .
2 1
5. The reciprocal of is …… .
9 2
1 1 1
6. 1 2 4 …… .
8 4 3
1 2 3 1
7. of is more than of by …… .
2 3 4 3
4
8. If of the students in a school are boys and there are 775 girls in the
9
school then the number of boys in the school is …… .
2
9. The area of a square with each side of length 6 m is …… .
3
1 2
10. A rectangle is 12 cm long and 10 cm wide. Its perimeter is …… .
2 3
1 2
11. The reciprocal of 3 1 is …… .
5 3
5 2
12. The product of two number is 20 . If one of the numbers is 6 , the
7 3
other number is …… .
3
13. The area of a rectangle is 30 cm 2 . If one of the sides is 6 cm, the other
4
side is …… .
3
14. A ribbon of length 9 m is cut into 6 pieces of equal length. The length
4
of each piece is …… .
5
15. A glass is filled with water. If 120 mL more water is needed to fill it to
8
the brim, the total capacity of the glass is …… .
Fractions 53
3
16. A tank which is full of water can hold 50 more litres of water. The
5
capacity of the tank is …… .
3 2
17. Ananya had of a cake. She ate of it. Then, Ananya has eaten …… of
5 3
the whole cake.
2 4
18. Reena ate of a cake while Sheena ate of the remainder. The fraction
7 5
of the cake left is …… .
3 1 1
19. If a multiplying machine converts 4 to 2 then it will convert 5
to …… . 8 2 4
20. Tanvi planted six saplings in a row in her garden. The distance between
3
two adjacent saplings is m. Then, the distance between the first and
5
the last sapling is …… .
7
21. The equivalent fraction of whose denominator is 4 more than its
numerator, is …… . 8
2 4
22. 6 should be multiplied by …… to get 4 .
9 9
3
23. Kirti reads a book for 1 hours everyday. If her reading speed is 24
4
pages per hour and she finishes reading the book in 6 days then the
number of pages in the book is …… .
1
24. Cooking a certain dish requires 7 cups of water. If the measuring cup
2
1
holds 1 cups of water then it needs to be filled …… times.
4
3 3
25. Ali spent of his money and saved of the remainder in a bank. The
8 4
fraction of the money left is …… .
2 3
26. of Tarun’s money is equal to of Sachin’s money. If both have ` 115
5 4
together then Tarun has …… .
1 1
27. Kunal spent of his money on food and of the remaining on rent. The
5 2
fraction of his money which he spent on the two items is …… .
3 1
28. The height of pole A is of the height of pole B. Pole B is as tall as pole
5 3
C. Then, pole C is …… times as tall as pole A.
54 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
2
29. David had a box of toffees. He sold of them and gave 16 toffees to his
1 5
brother. If he now has of the original number of toffees left then the
3
total number of toffees he had at first was …… .
2 1
30. Pankaj spent of his pocket money on a book and of the remaining
5 6
amount to buy some stickers. If he spent `30 on stickers then his pocket
money was …… .
2 3
31. Michael had ` 1500 with him. He gave to his brother, of the remaining
1 5 8
to his sister and of the remaining to charity. The amount left with him
5
is …… .
3
32. Two boys X and Y have some stamps. X gave away of his stamps and
1 8
Y gave away of his. They then had the same number of stamps left. If
2
they both together had 540 stamps left the total number of stamps the
two boys had at the beginning was …… .
Direction (Questions 33 to 54): State whether each of the following statements is
true or false.
33. Every integer is a fraction. ……
34. Every natural number is a fraction. ……
2 1
35. 2 2 2. ……
5 5
6 6
36. The reciprocal of is . ……
5 5
37. The product of two proper fraction is less than each of the fractions that
are multiplied. ……
38. The product of two improper fractions is less than both the fractions.
……
7 7 7 7.
39. ……
15 12 9 6
3 3
40. and are like fractions. ……
5 10
41. The product of two fractions may be a whole number. ……
42. Two like fractions can never be equivalent. ……
43. If the same nonzero number is added to both the numerator and the
denominator of a fraction the fraction remains the same. ……
Fractions 55
1 1 4
44. is the same as . ……
4 3 3
45. The reciprocal of an improper fraction is always a proper fraction. ……
46. The reciprocal of a proper fraction is always an improper fraction. ……
47. The sum of two fractions can never be a whole number. ……
2 7 26 9
48. 8 5 . ……
3 9 3 68
7 5 7 37
49. 2 2 . ……
15 7 15 19
50. The product of a proper and improper fraction is less than the improper
fraction. ……
3
51. The number of litre jugs needed to empty a bucket containing
3 4
24 litres of water is 24. ……
4
3
52. The perimeter of a square field with each side of length 10 metres is
4
3
40 metres. ……
4
3 2
53. If of the total area of a garden is under flowers and of the area under
4 1 3
flowers is planted with roses then of the total area of the garden has
4
roses. ……
1
54. of a cup is filled with orange juice which is poured into an empty jug
3
of volume four times that of the cup. Then, the fraction of the jug that is
1
filled with juice is . ……
12
3
26. ` 75 27. 28. 5 29. 60 30. ` 300
5
31. ` 450 32. 972 33. False 34. True 35. False
36. False 37. True 38. False 39. False 40. False
41. True 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. False
46. True 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. True
51. False 52. False 53. False 54. True
1
2. Required number 24 24 8 192.
8
1 1 3
3. Required number 1 16 24.
2 16 2
2 1 2 4 9 1
5. 2 , whose reciprocal is or 2 .
9 2 9 9 4 4
1 1 1 9 9 13 9 4 13 13 1
6. 1 2 4 2 .
8 4 3 8 4 3 8 9 3 6 6
1 2 3 1 1 1 43 1
7. Required difference of of .
2 3 4 3 3 4 12 12
8. Let the total number of students be x. Then,
4 5 775 9
1 of x 775 of x 775 x 1395.
9 9 5
number of boys = (1395 – 775) = 620.
2 2 20 20
9. Area of square 6 6 m 2 m 2
3 3 3 3
400 2 4 2
m 44 m .
9 9
1 25 2 32
10. l 12 cm cm; b 10 cm cm.
2 2 3 3
25 32 75 64 139 1
perimeter 2 (l b) 2 cm 2 cm cm 46 cm.
2 3 6 3 3
1 2 16 5 16 3 48 25
11. 3 1 , whose reiprocal is .
5 3 5 3 5 5 25 48
5 2 145 20 145 3 87 3
12. Other number 20 6 3 .
7 3 7 3 7 20 28 28
3 27 4 40 4
13. Other side 30 6 cm 30 cm 30 cm cm 4 cm.
4 4 27 9 9
3 39 1 13 5
14. Length of each piece 9 6 m m m 1 m.
4 4 6 8 8
Fractions 57
1 4
27. Fraction of money spent on food . Remaining .
5 5
1 4 2
Fraction of money spent on rent of .
2 5 5
1 2 3
fraction of money spent on the two items .
5 5 5
28. Let height of pole C be x.
x
Then, height of pole B .
3
3 x x
Height of pole A .
5 3 5
x 5
Required value x 5.
x x
5
29. Let the total number of toffees with David be x. Then,
2x 2x 2x 2x
16 16
5 3 3 5
10 x 6 x 4x 16 15
16 16 x 60.
15 15 4
30. Let Pankaj’s pocket money be ` x. Then,
2x
money spent on book ` ,
5
2x 3x
remaining amount ` x ` ,
5 5
1 3 x x
money spent on stickers ` of ` .
6 5 10
x
30 x 30 10 300.
10
2 2
31. Money given to brother of ` 1500 ` 1500 = ` 600.
5 5
Balance = ` (1500 – 600) = ` 900.
3 3
Money given to sister of ` 900 ` 900 = ` 337.50.
8 8
Balance = ` (900 – 337.50) = ` 562.50.
1 1
Money given to charity of ` 562.50 ` 562.50 ` 112.50 .
5 5
amount left = ` (562.50 – 112.50) = ` 450.
32. Suppose X had m stamps and Y had n stamps in the beginning. Then,
540
number of stamps left with each one of X and Y 270.
2
5 1
of m = 270 and of n = 270
8 2
270 8
m 432 and n 270 2 540.
5
Hence, total number of stamps with the two boys in the beginning = 432 + 540 = 972.
Fractions 59
3 Decimals
1. DECIMAL FRACTIONS Fractions with powers of 10, i.e., 10, 100, 1000, etc.,
as denominators are called decimal fractions.
5 9 13
Examples or 5 tenths, or 9 hundredths, or 13 thousandths.
10 100 1000
2. DECIMALS The numbers expressed in decimal form are called decimal
numbers or simply decimals. All fractions, whether proper or improper,
can be expressed as decimals.
8 6 47
Thus, 0.8 , 0.06 , 0.47 ,
10 100 100
9 73 246
0.009, 0.073 , 0.246 ,
1000 1000 1000
23 3 567 67
2 2.3 , 5 5.67 ,
10 10 100 100
1839 839 17023 7023
1 1.839, 1 1.7023 , and so on.
1000 1000 10000 10000
3. A decimal number has two parts separated by a decimal point:
(i) the whole number part on the left, and
(ii) the decimal part on the right.
So, in 383.29, 383 is the whole number part and .29 is the decimal part.
4. DECIMAL PLACES The number of digits occurring in the decimal part of a
decimal number gives the number of decimal places.
Thus, 18.37 has 2 decimal places while 16.009 has 3 decimal places.
5. LIKE AND UNLIKE DECIMALS Decimals having the same number of decimal
places are called like decimals while decimals having different number
of decimal places are called unlike decimals.
So, 9.75 and 103.24 are like decimals because each of these has two
decimal places.
Since 9.36 has 2 decimal places while 9.036 has 3 decimal places, so 9.36
and 9.036 are unlike decimals.
6. (i) Putting any number of zeros to the extreme right of the decimal part
of a decimal number does not change its value.
Thus, 4.85 = 4.850 = 4.8500 = … .
But 4.85 4.085 4.0085.
60
Decimals 61
1
1 km = 1000 m and 1 m km = 0.001 km;
1000
1
1 m = 100 cm and 1 cm m = 0.01 m;
100
1
1 cm = 10 mm and 1 mm cm = 0.1 cm;
10
1
1 kg = 1000 g and 1 g kg = 0.001 kg;
1000
62 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1
1 g = 1000 mg and 1 mg g = 0.001 g;
1000
1
1 L = 1000 mL and 1 mL L = 0.001 L;
1000
1
` 1 = 100 p and 1 p ` ` 0.01.
100
63
Thus, (i) 9 km 63 m = 9 km km = 9.063 km;
1000
6
25 km 6 m = 25 km km = 25.006 km;
1000
805
109 km 805 m = 109 km km = 109.805 km.
1000
1
(ii) 1 m 1 mm = 1 m m = 1.001 m;
1000
65
77 m 65 cm = 77 m m = 77.65 m.
100
5
(iii) 7 kg 5 g = 7 kg kg = 7.005 kg;
1000
77
29 kg 77 g = 29 kg kg = 29.077 kg;
1000
653
186 kg 653 g = 186 kg kg = 186.653 kg.
1000
53
(iv) 253 L 53 mL = 253 L L = 253.053 L;
1000
8
16 L 8 mL = 16 L L = 16.008 L.
1000
13
(v) 13 p ` ` 0.13 ;
100
8
` 1000 and 8 paise = ` 1000 ` ` 1000.08.
100
9. ADDITION AND SUBTRACTION OF DECIMALS To add or subtract decimals, we
convert them into like decimals first and then add or subtract as in the
case of whole numbers, taking the decimal points in one column.
10. MULTIPLICATION OF DECIMALS BY 10, 100, 1000, etc.
(i) On dividing a decimal by 10, the decimal point is shifted to the left
by one place.
Thus, 23.57 10 = 2.357; 66 10 = 6.6; 0.08 10 = 0.008.
(ii) On dividing a decimal by 100, the decimal point is shifted to the left
by two places.
Thus, 10.08 100 = 0.1008; 7.875 100 = 0.07875.
(iii) On dividing a decimal by 1000, the decimal point is shifted to the
left by three places.
Thus, 43.75 1000 = 0.04375; 7.06 1000 = 0.00706.
12. SOME IMPORTANT FACTS
EXERCISE 3A
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. When 0.36 is written in simplest fractional form, the sum of the
numerator and the denominator is
(a) 15 (b) 34 (c) 114 (d) 135
2. What decimal of an hour is a second?
(a) 0.0025 (b) 0.0256 (c) 0.00027 (d) 0.000126
8 4
3. If 38.1405 3 A C 5E then the value of 4A + 2B + 5C + D + 3E is
B D
(a) 42.5003 (b) 42.5031 (c) 142.5003 (d) 52.5030
64 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
23
22. 0.00625 of when expressed as a fraction, equals
5
23 23 23 125
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80 800 8000 23
23. 9.99 × 9.9 = ?
(a) 99.801 (b) 98.901 (c) 98.091 (d) 99.081
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
8967 505
(a) 0.8967 × 100 (b) 0.000505 × 1000
1000 1000
23.45 3333
(c) 0.0002345 × 10000 (d) 0.1111 × 0.3
100 10000
25. If 1 inch = 2.54 cm, how many centimetres are there in 12.65 inches?
(a) 31.231 (b) 30.131 (c) 32.131 (d) 30.231
26. 0.213 0.00213 = ?
1
(a) 1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d)
1000
25.025
27. is equal to
0.025
(a) 1.01 (b) 10.1 (c) 101 (d) 1001
28. 4.036 0.04 = ?
(a) 1.009 (b) 10.09 (c) 100.9 (d) 10.9
29. Which of the following is closest to zero?
(a) (0.09)2 (b) 0.09 (c) (1 0.9)2 (d) 1 (0.9)2
30. One hundredth of a centimetre, when written in fractions of kilometres,
is equal to
(a) 0.0000001 (b) 0.000001 (c) 0.0001 (d) 0.001
66 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1
53. If 0.16134 then the value of is
6.198 0.0006198
(a) 0.016134 (b) 0.16134 (c) 1613.4 (d) 16134
54. Given 168 × 32 = 5376 then 5.376 16.8 is equal to
(a) 0.032 (b) 0.32 (c) 3.2 (d) 32
55. 54.327 × 357.2 × 0.0057 is the same as
(a) 5.4327 × 3.572 × 5.7 (b) 5.4327 × 3.572 × 0.57
(c) 54327 × 3572 × 0.0000057 (d) none of these
5.3472 324.23
56. is the same as
3.489 5.42
53472 3.2423 53472 32423
(a) (b)
3.489 54.2 3489 542
534.72 324.23 53472 3242.3
(c) (d)
34.89 5.42 3489 542
96.54 89.63 965.4 896.3
57. ?
96.54 89.63 9.654 8.963
1 1
(a) (b) (c) 10 (d) 100
100 10
1
58. 0.6 of the pupils in a class like to play badminton. of the remaining
6
pupils like to play basketball, 2 pupils like soccer and 8 pupils like table
tennis. How many pupils like to play badminton?
(0.011)2 (0.11)2
(c) (d)
(1.1)2 (0.01)2 (11)2 0.01
yx
62. If 1.5x = 0.04y then the value of is
yx
7.3 73 73 730
(a) (b) (c) (d)
77 77 770 77
4.41 0.16
63. is simplified to
2.1 1.6 0.21
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.1 (c) 1 (d) 10
0.625 0.0729 28.9
64. ?
0.0081 0.025 1.7
(a) 382.5 (b) 3625 (c) 3725 (d) 3825
3.6 0.48 2.50
65. The value of is
0.12 0.09 0.5
(a) 80 (b) 800 (c) 8000 (d) 80000
0.2 0.2 0.2 0.02
66. ?
0.044
(a) 0.004 (b) 0.4 (c) 1 (d) 2
67. Which number divided by 520 gives the same quotient as 85 divided by
0.625?
(a) 325 (b) 44200 (c) 3.82 (d) 70720
68. A car covers a distance of 43.2 km in 2.4 litres of petrol. The mileage of
the car in km per litre is
(a) 12 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18
69. The product of two decimal numbers is 42.987. If one of them is 3.45, the
other is
(a) 11.86 (b) 12.26 (c) 12.46 (d) 12.58
70. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) 48.08 400 = 0.1202 (b) 163.44 24 = 6.81
(c) 93.45 1.5 = 0.623 (d) 0.6204 5 = 0.12408
71. A car covers a distance of 89.1 km in 2.2 hours. The average speed of the
car is
(a) 40.5 km/hr (b) 40.05 km/hr (c) 40.55 km/hr (d) 40.15 km/hr
70 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
72. A flask weighs 64.27 g when empty and 150.35 g when full of water.
What will be its weight when it is half full of water?
(a) 43.04 g (b) 86.08 g (c) 107.31 g (d) 118.22 g
73. Ananya has a total of ` 27.50, in the form of 50-paisa and 10-paisa coins.
If there are 13 more 50-paisa coins than 10-paisa coins, how many
50-paisa coins does Ananya have?
(a) 35 (b) 48 (c) 36 (d) 49
1
74. A shopkeeper had 13.6 kg of sugar. He sold of it and repacked the rest
4
into 5 equal packets. What is the weight of each packet?
(a) 0.68 kg (b) 2.04 kg (c) 2.4 kg (d) 1.85 kg
75. A box weighs 0.55 kg. When 7 packets of substance A were placed into
it, the total mass became 3.35 kg. When 3 packets of substance A were
taken out and a packet of substance B was placed into the box, the mass
of the box became 3.65 kg. The mass of a packet of substance B was
(a) 1.35 kg (b) 1.5 kg (c) 1.65 kg (d) 1.75 kg
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (c)
71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (b)
36 9 .
1. 0.36
100 25
1 1 0 .0 0 0 2 7
2. Required decimal 0.00027.
60 60 3600 3 6 0 0 ) 1 .0 0 0 0 (
– 7200
28000
– 25200
2800
Decimals 71
8 4
3. 38.1405 3 A C 5E
B D
1 4 5 8 4
30 8 3 A C 5E
10 100 10000 B D
8 1 4 4 5
3 A 30 , 8, C , , 5E
B 10 D 100 10000
1 1
A = 10, B = 1, C , D = 100, E
10 10000
1 1
4A + 2B + 5C + D + 3E 4 10 2 1 5 100 3
10 10000
5 3
40 2 100 142.5003.
10 10000
0.1 1 100
4. 10.
0.01 10 1
1 1 3 3
5. of 3%
4 4 100 400
3 1 0.75
0.0075.
4 100 100
6. 0.3 7. 555.05 8. 4
3.0 55.5 4.44
3.33 5.55 0.4
3.3 5.0 44.04
3.03 + 0.55 + 444
+ 333.00 621.65 496.88
345.96
9 5 7 9 1 2
12. 0.912
10 1000 m 10 100 1000
5 7 1 2 10 2 12
1000 m 100 1000 1000 1000
7 12 5 7
m 1000.
m 1000 1000 1000
72 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
13. .93 75 .9 5 .9 6 .9 71
1 6 ) 1 5. 0 ( 2 0 ) 1 9. 0 ( 2 5 ) 2 4. 0 ( 3 5 ) 3 4. 0 (
– 14 4 – 18 0 – 22 5 – 31 5
60 1 00 1 50 2 50
– 48 – 1 00 – 1 50 – 2 45
120 × × 50
– 112 –35
80 15
–80
×
15 19 24 34
0.9375 0.95 0.96 0.971
16 20 25 35
3 5
14. 0.75 ; 0.833.
4 6
1 2 4 9
0.5 ; 0.66 ; 0.8 ; 0.9.
2 3 5 10
Clearly, 0.75 < 0.8 < 0.833.
3 4 5.
4 5 6
2 3
15. 0.66 ; 0.6.
3 5
2 1 1 31 62
0.4 ; 0.33 ; 0.066 ; 0.62 .
5 3 15 50 100
Clearly, 0.66 > 0.62 > 0.6.
2 31 3
.
3 50 5
2
16. 0.4.
5
4 21 42
0.8 ; 0.42 ;
5 50 100
20001 40002
0.40002 ;
50000 100000
200001 400002
0.400002.
500000 1000000
2
Clearly, 0.400002 is nearest to 0.4 and hence to .
5
17. 11.71 – 0.86 + 1.78 – 9.20
(11.71 1.78) (0.86 9.20)
13.49 10.06 3.43.
0.5
31. 0.5 × 0.5 + 0.5 5 = 0.25 0.25 0.1 = 0.35.
5
0.000016 0.0016
32. 0.04 × ? = 0.000016 ? 0.0004.
0.04 4
33. 5.5 [6.5 {3.5 (6.5 5.5 2.5)}]
5.5 [6.5 {3.5 (6.5 3)}]
5.5 [6.5 {3.5 3.5}] 5.5 [6.5 1]
5.5 5.5 0.
3
34. 2 2.3.
10
And, 2.3 + 1.5 – 2 = 1.8.
35. 2.9 x y 9 1.8 1.32
x y 9 1.8 1.32 2.9
= 9 – (1.8 + 1.32 + 2.9)
= 9 – 6.02 = 2.98. 1.8
1.32
2.9
6.02
0.175 1.75
0.45 0.45 0.25 0.45 0.2
0.175 0.7 0.45 0.7 7
36. (a) 2.
5.95 8.25 2.40 8.35 8.25 0.1 0.1 0.1
0.001
(b) 0.01 0.1 0.001 10 0.01 0.001 0.01
10
0.001 0.0001 0.01
= 0.011 – 0.0001 = 0.0109.
3.45 6.75 2.05 5.5 6.75 1.25
(c) 1.25.
0.29 0.426 0.6 0.29 4.26 0.29 0.71
6
20 (0.03)2 20 0.0009 10 0.0180
(d) 0.5 2 2.
0.018 0.018 5 0.018
24.2 24.2 1 2.2 1 0.44
37. 24.2 55000 0.00044.
55000 55 1000 5 1000 1000
3.20 3.29 3.32 3.37 3.37
38. Required average time min
5
16.35
min 3.27 min .
5
0.02 0.003 0.004 23 4 1000 2
39. (a) 0.00002.
0.012 100000000 12 100000
0.002 0.03 0.04 2 3 4 100 3
(b) 0.00003.
0.08 10000000 8 100000
0.00002 0.3 0.004 23 4 10000 4
(c) 0.00004.
0.0006 1000000000 6 100000
0.2 0.3 0.004 2 3 4 100000
(d) 1.
0.00024 100000 24
Decimals 75
2
40. 0.002.
1000
(0.2)2 0.2 0.2
0.1 0.2 0.02.
2 2
2 0.02
0.01 0.02 0.01 2.
100 0.01
Clearly, 0.0002 is the least.
32 32
41. 100.
0.05 5
0.32 32 1 32 1 .
50 50 100 5 1000
3.2 32 320 32
10.
0.05 0.5 5 5
3.2 32 32 1 .
50 500 5 100
32 32 32 1 32 1 .
Clearly, 100 10
5 5 5 100 5 1000
32 3.2 3.2 0.32 .
0.05 0.05 50 50
2 2 2
(0.01)2 0.01 1 1
42. 10 (0.1)2 0.01.
(0.1)2 0.1 100 10
0.01 (0.01)2 0.01 0.01 0.01 0.01 0.0001 0.0099
2
1 1 2
(100) 10000.
(0.01)2 0.01
(0.101)2 0.101 0.101 0.010201.
76 76
43. 1000 4 1000 4000.
0.019 19
88 88
1000 11 1000 11000.
0.008 8
7 7000
500.
0.014 14
148 148000 148
1000 2 1000 2000.
0.074 74 74
76.5 7650
44. 510.
0.15 15
2.73 27.3
2.1.
1.3 13
37.8 378
27.
1.4 14
30.94 309.4
44.2
0.7 7
0.23 0.023 0.207 0.207
45. 0.207 10000 2070.
0.0023 23 0.0023 0.0001
23
76 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1
74. Quantity of sugar sold of 13.6 kg 13.6 kg 3.4 kg.
4 4
Quantity of sugar packet = (13.6 – 3.4) kg = 10.2 kg.
10.2
weight of each packet kg 2.04 kg.
5
75. Total mass of 7 packets of substance A = (3.35 – 0.55) kg = 2.8 kg.
2.8
Mass of each packet of substance A kg 0.4 kg.
7
Now, mass of box + mass of 4 packets of substance A
+ mass of 1 packet of substance B = 3.65 kg
mass of 1 packet of substance B
= [3.65 – 0.55 – (4 × 0.4)] kg
= (3.65 – 0.55 – 1.6) kg = 1.5 kg.
EXERCISE 3B
Direction (Questions 1 to 25): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. 0.044 is forty-four …… .
2. …… decimals are obtained by annexing zeros to the extreme right of the
decimal point.
378
3. written as decimal, is equal to …… .
125
4. 8 rupees 8 paise = ` …… .
5. 8.6 1000 = …… .
6. 63 kg = …… tonne.
7. The cost of 27.5 metres of cloth at the rate of ` 54.50 per metre is …… .
0.9 0.16 0.25
8. …… .
0.3 0.4 5
9. 7486 cm is greater than 8597 mm by …… m.
10. If one can of juice contains 330 mL of juice then 6 dozens of such cans
contain, in all, …… litres of juice.
11. 2.001 0.003 = …… .
12. 0.02964 0.004 = …… .
13. A boy earned ` 235.41 in a week. His average earning per day is ` …… .
14. The perimeter of a square is 244.56 cm. The length of each side of the
square is …… .
15. The area of a square with each side of length 15.8 cm is …… cm2 .
16. The product of two decimals is 136.369. If one of them is 2.65, the other
is …… .
80 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
8 8
33. 8 L 8 dL 8 mL 8 L L L = (8 + 0.8 + 0.008) L = 9.808 L.
10 1000
0.0072 72
34. 8.
0.0009 9
43 42
35. 5 m 43 cm 42 mm 5 m m m
100 1000
= (5 + 0.43 + 0.042) m = 5.472 m.
37. Decimal equivalent of a proper fraction is always less than 1.
4 Rational Numbers
a,
(iv) FRACTIONS The numbers of the form where a and b are whole
b
numbers and b 0 are called fractions.
p
2. RATIONAL NUMBERS The numbers of the form , where p and q are integers
q
and q 0, are called rational numbers.
5 2 1 99 6
Thus, each one of –3, , , , , , 0 , etc., are all rational numbers.
4 3 7 100 13
a c
8. COMPARISON OF RATIONAL NUMBERS Let and be two rational numbers.
b d
Then,
a c a c a c
(i) if ad bc ; (ii) if ad bc ; (iii) if ad bc.
b d b d b d
9. (i) There are infinitely many rational numbers.
(ii) The smallest or greatest rational number cannot be determined.
(iii) There exist infinitely many rational numbers between any two
given whole numbers, integers or rational numbers.
(iv) If x and y are two rational numbers then the rational number lying
xy.
midway between them is
2
10. RATIONAL NUMBERS ON THE NUMBER LINE
(i) Rational numbers are closed under addition, i.e., the sum of two
rational numbers is always a rational number.
(ii) Rational numbers are closed under subtraction, i.e., the difference
of two rational numbers is always a rational number.
(iii) Rational numbers are closed under multiplication, i.e., the product
of two or more rational numbers is always a rational number.
(iv) Rational numbers are not closed under division because only the
quotient of two nonzero rational numbers is a rational number.
a c
14. SUBTRACTION OF RATIONAL NUMBERS and Ifare two rational numbers
b d
a c a c
then additive inverse of .
b d b d
15. PRODUCT OF RATIONAL NUMBERS
product of their numerators .
Product of two rational numbers
product of their denominators
a c ac .
Thus,
b d bd
(i) The product of two positive or two negative rational numbers is a
positive rational numbers.
(ii) The product of a positive and a negative rational number is a
negative rational number.
16. EXISTENCE OF MULTIPLICATIVE IDENTITY 1 is the multiplicative identity for
rational numbers.
a a a
Thus, 1 1 .
b b b
A number which when multiplied with
17. EXISTENCE OF MULTIPLICATIVE INVERSE
a given rational number gives 1 as the result is called its multiplicative
inverse or reciprocal.
a b
The reciprocal of is .
b a
a b
Thus, 1.
b a
(i) 1 and –1 are two rational numbers which are their own reciprocals.
(ii) 0 has no reciprocal, as division by zero is not defined.
Rational Numbers 87
a a
(iii) 0 0 0.
b b
(iv) The reciprocal of reciprocal of a number is the number itself.
The sum or
18. COMMUTATIVITY OF ADDITION AND MULTIPLICATION OF RATIONAL NUMBERS
product of two rational numbers remains the same even if their order is
changed.
a c c a a c c a
Thus, and .
b d d b b d d b
This is called commutative property.
The sum
19. ASSOCIATIVITY OF ADDITION AND MULTIPLICATION OF RATIONAL NUMBERS
or product of three rational numbers remains the same even if their
grouping is changed.
a c e a c e a c e a c e
Thus, and .
b d f b d f b d f b d f
EXERCISE 4A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
31
1. The two consecutive integers between which the rational number lies
4
are
(a) 5 and 6 (b) 6 and 8 (c) 7 and 8 (d) 8 and 9
2. Consider the following two statements.
I. Every fraction is a rational number.
II. Every rational number is a fraction.
Which of the following options is correct?
(a) Both I and II are true. (b) Both I and II are false.
(c) I is true but II is false. (d) I is false but II is true.
3. Study the following statements carefully.
I. Every integer and every fraction is a rational number.
p
II. A rational number is positive, if p and q are either both positive or
q
both negative.
88 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
p
III. A rational number is negative, if one of p and q is positive, and the
q
other is negative.
IV. If there are two rational numbers with a common denominator then
the one with greater numerator is greater than the other.
Which of the following options is correct?
(a) Both I and IV are fase. (b) Both II and III are false.
(c) Only I is false. (d) All are true.
4. Choose the correct statement.
6 5 17 22
(a) Each of the rational numbers , , and is a negative
7 9 11 9
rational number.
11 23 63 7
(b) Each of the rational numbers , , and is a positive
10 7 40 9
rational number.
(c) 0 is a rational number which is both positive and negative.
(d) Every positive rational number is a natural number.
5. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Integers are closed under all four operations.
(b) Whole numbers are closed under only two operations.
(c) Rational numbers except 0 are closed under all four operations.
(d) None of these
60
6. The standard form of is
72
60 60 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72 72 6 6
7. How many of the following rational numbers are in standard form?
5 x
15. The value of x such that and are equivalent rational numbers is
9 45
(a) –5 (b) 5 (c) –25 (d) 25
16. Which of the following pairs does not represent the same rational
number?
3 12 7 5
(a) and (b) and
5 20 21 12
16 20 8 24
(c) and (d) and
20 25 5 15
5 7
17. The rational number lying exactly halfway between and is
13 9
68 68 46 46
(a) (b) (c) (d)
117 117 117 117
18. Choose the incorrect statement.
4 5 4 8 7 5 3 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 12 3 7 12 8 7 8
19. Which of the following options contains the rational numbers in correct
descending order?
3 17 4 7 3 4 17 7
(a) , , , (b) , , ,
5 30 15 15 5 15 30 15
4 7 3 17 17 3 4 7
(c) , , , (d) , , ,
15 15 5 30 30 5 15 15
7 5 2
20. If A ,B ,C then
10 8 3
(a) C < A < B (b) B < A < C (c) A < B < C (d) A < C < B
7 5
21. What number should be added to to get ?
10 16
31 131 31 131
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80 80 80 80
7 9 19 11
22. ?
4 5 10 14
149 121 121 149
(a) (b) (c) (d)
140 140 140 140
1 5
23. What should be subtracted from to obtain ?
6 6
2 2
(a) (b) 1 (c) –1 (d)
3 3
Rational Numbers 91
4 5 7
24. Let x , y and z .
9 12 18
Then, the rational number which when subtracted from y gives z is
1 5 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36 6 36 6
4 5 7
25. Let x , y and z .
9 12 18
Then, the rational number which when added to z gives x, is
5 5 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 6 36 36
4 5 7 .
26. Let x , y and z
9 12 18
Then, the rational number which when added to x gives y, is
31 31 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36 36 36 36
27. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) 1 and –1 are reciprocals of themselves.
(b) The product of two rational numbers is always a rational number.
(c) Reciprocal of zero is not defined.
(d) All of these
28. Consider the following two statements.
I. The product of an integer and a rational number can never be a
natural number.
II. The quotient of the division of an integer by a rational number can
never be an integer.
Of these statements,
(a) both I and II are true. (b) both I and II are false.
(c) I is true but II is false. (d) I is false but II is true.
29. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The sum of a rational number and its additive inverse is 0.
(b) The product of a rational number and its reciprocal is 1.
(c) The product of a rational number and its additive inverse is –1.
(d) There is no such rational number which has no additive inverse.
30. Which of the following statements is correct?
11 7 3 4
(a) Reciprocal of is . (b) Reciprocal of is .
7 11 4 3
7 13 . 1 1
(c) Reciprocal of is (d) Reciprocal of is –6.
13 7 3 2
92 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
8 . 4
37. The product of two rational numbers is If one of the numbers is
9 15
then the other number is
9 1 3 1
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d) 3
10 9 10 3
4 .
38. The product of two rational numbers is If half of the first number is
7
5
then one third of the second number is
4
5 6 8 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42 35 35 105
39. Which of the following relations does not hold true?
p m pn mq p m pm
(a) (b)
q n qn q n qn
p m pn p m pm
(c) (d)
q n qm q n qn
40. Which rational number will come in place of B in the following pattern?
2 4 12 48
, , , , A, B , C
3 6 18 72 ...... ...... ......
240 768 960 1440
(a) (b) (c) (d)
360 1152 1440 2160
1 2 1 1 1 1 1
41. 7 6 5 7 7 3 2 ?
2 3 6 5 4 2 4
36 1
(a) 5 (b) (c) 6 (d)
5 6
5 1 1 1
42. Given a 1 , b , c and d 1 , the value of a (b c ) d is
7 4 9 4
4 5 6 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21 27 23 21
43. If x is a positive integer which of the following rational numbers is the
least?
x x x x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 5 6
94 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
4 5 7
44. If A , B and C then which of the following is not true?
9 12 18
13 5
(a) A B C (b) A (B C )
36 4
56 17
(c) A (B C ) (d) ( A B) C
135 36
45. Given that x is a positive integer, if the following rational numbers are
arranged in an ascending order then which of the statements given
below is true?
x x x x x x x x
, , , , , , x, ,
6 6 4 4 2 2 3 3
x x
(a) comes at the first place (b) comes in the middle
6 6
x x
(c) comes at the last (d) comes at the second place
2 4
46. If x is a positive integer which of the following is the least?
x 1 x2 x x
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x x x 1 x2
4 2 3 5 25 6 33
47. If A 2 , B , C and D then
5 9 2 6 3 11 12
(a) A > B > C > D (b) D > A > C > B
(c) D > C > B > A (d) A > C > D > B
1 8 5 1
18 2 4 2
3 11 7 3.
48. Simplify:
3 9 3
5 10 5
6 7 7 4
(a) 12 (b) 23 (c) 67 (d) 63
17 9 9 81
49. If x is a positive integer and y is a negative integer and |x||y| then
which of the following is not true?
x y x x y x x y
(a) (b) (c) (d)
y x y y x y y x
50. What property is shown in the equation given below?
7 2 13 7 2 13
5 11 25 5 11 25
(a) Closure (b) Commutative
(c) Associative (d) Identity element
Rational Numbers 95
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c)
31 3
1. 7 , which clearly lies between 7 and 8.
4 4
17 17
4. (a) , which is a positive rational number.
11 11
11 11 63 63 7 7 .
(b) , ,
10 10 40 40 9 9
(c) 0 is neither positive nor negative.
(d) Every positive rational number is a fraction.
5. (a) Integers are closed under addition, subtraction and multiplication.
(b) Whole numbers are closed under addition and multiplication.
(c) Nonzero rational numbers are closed under addition, subtraction, multiplication
and division.
60 60 (60) 12 5 .
6.
72 72 72 12 6
1 17 51
7. , , are rational numbers in their standard form.
4 30 91
Other rational numbers and their standard form are as shown under:
3 14 8
8. Rational number
5 49 28
3 2 2
Standard form
5 7 7
0 0
9. (b) 0 and 0. Hence, each of them is neither positive nor negative.
5 8
p
(c) In a rational number , denominator cannot be zero, i.e., q 0.
q
6 3
(d) Both and are negative rational numbers and hence lie on the left of 0 on the
5 4
number line.
96 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
18. We first convert the rational numbers into their standard form and then cross-multiply.
4 5 4 8 7 5 3 5
9 12 3 7 12 8 7 8
(–4) × 12 < 9 × (–5) (–4) × 7 < 3 × (–8) (–7) × 8 > 12 × (–5) (–3) × 8 > 7 × (–5)
29. (a) a ( a) 0.
1
(b) a 1.
a
(c) a ( a) a2 1.
(d) Every rational number has its additive inverse.
11 7
30. (a) Reciprocal of is .
7 11
3 3 4
(b) , whose reciprocal is .
4 4 3
7 7 13
(c) , whose reciprocal is .
13 13 7
1 1 23 1 1
(d) , whose reciprocal is 6.
3 2 6 6 6
1 1
31. (a) x y .
y x
1 1
(b) Reciprocal of a rational number x , whose reciprocal is x.
x 1
x
1
(c) Reciprocal of x is .
x
(d) ( a) (b) ab.
8 33 3
32. .
11 40 5
3 5
Reciprocal of .
5 3
1 1 1 6
33. (a) (6) .
5 6 5 5
1 1 1 5.
(b) (5)
6 5 6 6
1 1 1
(c) , whose reciprocal is 30.
6 5 30
1 1 1 1 1 1 6 5 1
(d) taken away from .
6 5 5 6 5 6 30 30
34. (a) Addition of rational numbers is commutative.
A + B = B + A.
3 6 11 41 77 164 241
(b) A B 2 5
4 7 4 7 28 28
6 3 41 11 164 77 241 .
B A 5 2
7 4 7 4 28 28
1 3 49 7 49 4
35. Number of pieces 24 1 14.
2 4 2 4 2 7
33 15 33 22 121 .
36. Other number
78 22 78 15 195
8 4 8 15 10 1
37. Other number 3 .
9 15 9 4 3 3
Rational Numbers 99
5 5
38. First number 2 .
4 2
4 5 4 2 8 .
Second number
7 2 7 5 35
8 1 8
one third of second number .
35 3 105
p m ( p) (m) pm
39. .
q n qn qn
2 2 (2) 4 4 (3) 12 (12) (4) 48 .
40.
3 3 (2) 6 6 (3) 18 18 (4) 72
48 (5) 240
A
72 (5) 360
(240) (6) 1440
and B .
360 (6) 2160
1 2 1 1 1 1 1
41. Given expression 7 6 5 7 7 3 2
2 3 6 5 4 2 4
15 20 31 36 29 7 9
2 3 6 5 4 2 4
45 40 31 36 29 14 9
6 5 4
36 36 24 36 36 30
6 6 6
6 5 4 5 5
6 5
6 6 5.
5 6
5 1 1 1
42. a (b c ) d 1 1
7 4 9 4
12 9 4 5 12 5 4 4
.
7 36 4 7 36 5 21
x
43. Clearly, being positive is the greatest.
5
x x x x x x
Now, .
3 4 6 3 4 6
x
So, is the least.
3
4 5 7 16 15 14 13 .
44. (a) A B C
9 12 18 36 36
4 5 7 4 5 7 16 15 14 45 5 .
(b) A (B C )
9 12 18 9 12 18 36 36 4
4 5 7 4 5 18
(c) A (B C )
9 12 18 9 12 7
4 15 4 14 56 .
9 14 9 15 135
100 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
4 5 7 16 15 7
(d) ( A B) C
9 12 18 36 18
31 7 31 14 17 .
36 18 36 36
x x x x
45. Clearly, x.
6 4 3 2
x x x x .
6 4 3 2
x x x x x x x x
So, x
2 3 4 6 6 4 3 2
x x
comes at the first place; comes at the second place; x comes at the
2 3
x
last place and comes in the middle.
6
x 1 x2 x 2 x 1
46. Both and are improper fractions and 1.
x x x x
x x x x .
Both and are proper fractions and 1
x 1 x2 x 1 x 2
x 2 x 1 x x .
So, 1
x x x 1 x 2
x
Clearly, is the least.
x2
4 4 10 6
47. A 2 ,
5 5 5
2 3 2 3 4 27 23
B ,
9 2 9 2 18 18
5 25 5 3 1 1
C ,
6 3 6 25 10 10
6 33 3 3
D .
11 12 2 2
LCM of 2, 5, 10 = 10.
6 6 2 12 1 3 3 5 15 .
So, A , C , D
5 5 2 10 10 2 2 5 10
23 1 12 15 .
Clearly,
18 10 10 10
B < C < A < D or D > A > C > B.
55 30 33 7
3 11 7 3
48. Given expression
3 9 3
5 10 5
50 11 61 61 61 10 610 7
67 .
69 3 3 3 36 9 9 9
10 5 10 5 10
Rational Numbers 101
EXERCISE 4B
Direction (Questions 1 to 24): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The standard form of –1 is …… .
2. To reduce a rational number to its standard form, we divide its
numerator and denominator by their …… .
3. …… is its own additive inverse.
p a
4. In a rational number both p and q are …… while in a fraction
q b
both a and b are …… .
a
5. The additive inverse of a rational number is …… and its multiplicative
b
inverse is …… .
36
6. The standard form of is …… .
96
1 1
7. is less than by …… .
2 5
13 14 13 7 13 34
8. .
11 5 11 5 11 5
102 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
8 3 8 3 .
43. …….
7 4 7 4
44. The reciprocal of the reciprocal of a rational number is the number itself.
……
45. To multiply two rational numbers, we multiply their numerators and
denominators separately. ……
46. Rational numbers are added like fractions and the sign of the sum is
obtained as we do for integers. ……
2
47. is a rational number. ……
0
48. The quotient of the division of two integers is always a rational number.
……
49. The quotient of the division of two rational numbers is always a rational
number. ……
50. The absolute value of a non-negative rational number is equal to the
number. ……
51. The absolute value of a negative rational number is greater than the
number. ……
11 24 2 .
52. ……
12 33 3
53. Two rational numbers are said to be equal if they have the same standard
form. ……
54. –1 is a rational number whose multiplicative inverse and additive
inverse are identical. ……
3 9 18
55. , and are equivalent rational numbers. ……
5 15 30
56. If x and y are two rational numbers then the reciprocal of (x + y) is equal
to the sum of reciprocals of x and y. ……
57. If x and y are two rational numbers then the reciprocal of xy is equal to
the product of the reciprocals of x and y. ……
58. Every integer is a rational number with denominator 1. ……
0 2 .
59. The multiplicative inverse of is ……
2 0
3 3
60. 2 2 . ……
4 4
p m pn mq .
61. ……
q n qn
a a
62. The rational number exactly halfway between and is 0. ……
b b
Rational Numbers 105
63. Two rational numbers with different numerators are equal if their
numerators are in the same ratio as their denominators. ……
36 36 (36) 12 3 .
6.
96 96 96 12 8
1 1 1 1 25 7
7. Required difference .
5 2 5 2 10 10
13 14 13 7 13 34 13 14 13 7 13 34
8.
11 5 11 5 11 5 11 5 11 5 11 5
13 14 7 34 13 55
13.
11 5 5 5 11 5
9. a ( a) 0.
10. a ( a) a a 2 a.
1
11. a 1.
a
1
12. a a a a2 .
a
106 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
5 5 (11) 55
13. .
8 8 (11) 88
299 299 299 23 13 .
14.
161 161 161 23 7
15. (i) Largest value of a b 50 1 49.
So, a 50, b 1.
a b 50 1 49
largest value of .
a b 50 1 51
(ii) Largest value of a b 50 49 99.
So, a 50, b 49.
a b 50 49 99
largest value of 99.
a b 50 49 1
55 15 55 18 22 .
16. Other number
81 18 81 15 27
17. Let the number to be added be x.
5 5 5 5 40 45 85 .
Then, x x
8 9 9 8 72 72
18. Let the number to be subtracted be x.
3 2 1 9 8 1 1 1 1 2 3 1.
Then, x x x
4 3 6 12 6 12 6 12 12 4
19. Let the required number be x.
3 5 5 14 35
Then, x x .
14 12 12 3 18
65 8 65 8 65 32 65 32 97 33 97 12 97 .
20.
12 3 12 3 12 12 12 12 12 33 33
1
21. Nearest natural number to 1.
2
Let the number to be added be x.
1 1 3
Then, x 1 x 1 .
2 2 2
2
22. Nearest integer to 1.
3
Let the number to be added be x.
2 2 2 3 1 .
Then, x 1 x 1
3 3 3 3
5
23. Nearest integer to 1.
8
Let the number to be multiplied be x.
5 8 8 .
Then, x 1 x 1
8 5 5
24. Greatest negative integer 1.
Let the number be x.
1 1
Then, x 1 2 x 1 x .
2 2
Rational Numbers 107
2 4 6
26. Two rational numbers with different numerators can be equal, e.g., .
3 6 9
3 5 .
27.
5 3
3 5
3 3 5 (5). So, and are not equivalent.
5 3
7 7
28. , which clearly lies to the right of 0 as it is a positive rational number.
12 12
29. There are infinitely many rational numbers.
11 4
30. Both and being negative rational numbers lie to the left of 0 on the number
4 11
line.
32. Between any two distinct rational numbers there are infinitely many rational numbers.
p m p m
33. .
q n q n
34. 0 has no reciprocal.
1
35. The reciprocal of is 2.
2
36. –5 is the opposite (or additive inverse) of 5.
5 117
37. 16 , which is clearly a rational number but not a fraction.
7 7
38. –37 is an integer and a rational number but not a fraction.
39. Every negative integer is a negative rational number with denominator 1.
40. Division by zero is not defined.
2 7 2 7 2 7 9
42. 1.
9 9 9 9 9 9
8 3 8 3 8 3 8 3 .
43. and
7 4 7 4 7 4 7 4
49. The given fact holds true for nonzero rational numbers only.
11 24 11 24 2 .
52.
12 33 12 33 3
54. The additive inverse of –1 is 1.
3 3 (3) 9 (9) (2) 18 .
55.
5 (5) (3) 15 (15) (2) 30
1 1 xy 1 .
56.
x y xy xy
1 1 1.
57.
xy x y
0
59. 0 , whose multiplicative inverse does not exist.
2
3 3 8 5 5 3
60. 2 2.
4 4 4 4 4
5 Factors and Multiples
108
Factors and Multiples 109
EXERCISE 5
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following question, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Every number is a factor of itself.
(b) Number of factors of a given number is finite.
(c) Every multiple of a number is less than or equal to that number.
(d) 4 and 15 are co-prime numbers.
2. How many primes between 1 and 1000 are divisible by 13?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 14 (d) 246
3. A prime number greater than 11 will never end with
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
4. The numbers p, p + 2, p + 4 are all primes if p is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 29 (d) 31
5. How many prime numbers are of the form 10n + 1, where n is a whole
number such that 1 n 10 ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
6. Which one of the following is a true statement?
(a) Two co-primes are always prime.
(b) No even number is prime.
(c) Every odd number is prime.
(d) A prime number may be even or odd.
7. How many numbers between 11 and 111 are multiples of both 2 and 5?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 70
8. Find the number of factors of 75.
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
9. Which of the following has most number of divisors?
(a) 99 (b) 101 (c) 176 (d) 182
Factors and Multiples 111
respectively are
(a) 2 3 3 2 5 ; 2 2 3 3 5 2 7 (b) 2 5 3 4 5 3 ; 2 3 3 3 5 3 7 2 11
(c) 2 3 3 2 5 ; 2 5 3 4 5 3 7 2 11
(d) 2 5 3 4 5 3 7 2 11; 2 3 5 3 7 2 11
112 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
can measure the petrol of any drum while every time the vessel must be
completely filled, is
(a) 19 (b) 27 (c) 31 (d) 41
35. The least number of square tiles required to pave the ceiling of a room
15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad is
(a) 656 (b) 738 (c) 814 (d) 902
36. Four metal rods of lengths 114 cm, 159 cm, 171 cm and 247 cm are to
be cut exactly into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as
possible. The number of pieces obtained is
(a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 43 (d) 480
37. The largest number which divides 77, 147 and 252 to leave the same
remainder in each case is
(a) 9 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 35
38. The greatest number which can divide 1356, 1868 and 2764 leaving the
same remainder 12 in each case is
(a) 64 (b) 124 (c) 156 (d) 260
39. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly
divisible by 12, 18, 21 and 30?
(a) 196 (b) 630 (c) 1260 (d) 2520
40. The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is
exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is
(a) 3 (b) 13 (c) 23 (d) 33
41. The least number of 5 digits which is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18 is
(a) 10010 (b) 10015 (c) 10020 (d) 10080
42. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and
75 is
(a) 9000 (b) 9400 (c) 9600 (d) 9800
43. The least number which when increased by 5 is divisible by each one of
24, 32, 36 and 54 is
(a) 427 (b) 859 (c) 869 (d) 4320
44. The least number which when divided by 12, 15, 20 and 54 leaves in
each case a remainder of 8 is
(a) 504 (b) 536 (c) 544 (d) 548
45. Four persons step off together for a morning walk. Their steps measure
60 cm, 80 cm, 75 cm and 90 cm respectively. At what distance from the
starting point will they again step off together?
(a) 4 m (b) 12 m (c) 36 m (d) 72 m
114 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
46. There are some sweets in a jar. The sweets can be put into boxes of 3 or 7
with no sweets left over. When the sweets are put into boxes of 20, there
are 5 sweets left over. What is the smallest possible number of sweets in
the jar?
(a) 48 (b) 105 (c) 125 (d) 165
47. When Sita made necklaces of either 18 beads, 24 beads or 28 beads, not a
single bead was left over. What could be the least number of beads Sita
had?
(a) 496 (b) 504 (c) 576 (d) 608
48. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10
and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll
together?
(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 16
49. Four different electronic devices make a beep after every 30 minutes,
1
1 hour, 1 hours and 1 hour 45 minutes respectively. All the devices
2
beeped together at 12 noon. They will again beep together at
(a) 12 midnight (b) 3 a.m. (c) 6 a.m. (d) 9 a.m.
50. Three girls start jogging from the same point around a circular track and
each one completes one round in 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 48 seconds
respectively. After how much time will they meet at one point?
(a) 2 minutes 20 seconds (b) 2 minutes 24 seconds
(c) 3 minutes 36 seconds (d) 4 minutes 12 seconds
ANSWERS (EXERCISE 5)
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (b)
3. Clearly, a number greater than 11 and ending with 5 is divisible by 5. So, it will not be
prime.
4. When p = 3, p + 2 = 5 and p + 4 = 7. And, each one of 3, 5 and 7 is prime.
5. Putting n = 1, 2, 3, …, 10, we find that requisite prime numbers are 11, 31, 41, 61, 71.
Clearly, there are 5 such prime numbers.
6. (a) 8 and 9 are co-primes but none of them is prime. So, (a) is false.
(b) 2 is an even prime number. So, (b) is false.
(c) 15 is an odd number which is not prime. So, (c) is false.
(d) 2 is an even prime number and 3 is an odd prime number. So, (d) is true.
7. Numbers which are multiples of both 2 and 5 are those numbers which are multiples
of 10, since 2 and 5 are co-primes.
So, required numbers are 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80, 90, 100 and 110. Clearly, there are 10
such numbers.
1 75
8. 75 3 25 .
5 15
So, factors of 75 are 1, 3, 5, 15, 25 and 75.
Hence, total number of factors of 75 = 6.
9. 99 = 1 × 3 × 3 × 11;
101 = 1 × 101;
176 = 1 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 11;
182 = 1 × 2 × 7 × 13.
So, divisors of 99 are 1, 3, 9, 11, 33 and 99; divisors of 101 are 1 and 101; divisors of 176
are 1, 2, 4, 8, 11, 16, 22, 44, 88 and 176; divisors of 182 are 1, 2, 7, 13, 14, 26, 91 and 182.
Hence, 176 has the most number of divisors.
10. 14 and 15 are both composite. But, 14 + 15 = 29, which is prime. So, I is false.
1 is a natural number which is neither prime nor composite. So, II is false.
11. For n = 1, 2n + 1 = 3, which is prime.
For n = 2, 2n + 1 = 5, which is prime.
For n = 3, 2n + 1 = 7, which is prime.
For n = 4, 2n + 1 = 9, which is not prime.
16 × 81 × 5 × 11 × 49 2 4 3 4 5 11 7 2.
HCF 2 2 3 2 5 180.
20. HCF = product of lowest powers of common factors 2 3 3 2 5.
LCM = product of highest powers of prime factors 2 5 3 4 5 3 7 2 11.
21. 204 2 2 3 17 ;
1190 = 2 × 5 × 7 × 17;
1445 5 (17 )2 .
HCF = 17.
LCM = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 11 × 2 × 5 = 5940.
Factors and Multiples 117
23. Since all the numbes formed are even, so 2 is a common factor.
Also, HCF of two of the numbers, i.e., 48 and 490, is 2.
So, the HCF of all the numbers formed is 2.
x × 4x = 84 × 21 4 x 2 84 21
84 21
x2 21 21 x = 21.
4
larger number = 4x = 4 × 21 = 84.
27. First number = 2 × 50 = 100.
Let the second number be x. Then,
50 250
100 × x = 50 × 250 x 125.
100
28. Product of numbers = HCF × LCM
product of numbers 1320
LCM 220.
HCF 6
118 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
29. Since 120 is not a multiple of 35, so 35 cannot be the HCF of the given numbers.
30. LCM must be a multiple of HCF.
Since 60 is not a multiple of 8, so the LCM of given numbers cannot be 60.
31. Out of the given alternatives, only 11 is a factor of 9570. So, 11 is a possible value of the
HCF.
32. 105) 1001 (9 7) 2436 (348
–945 –21
56) 105 (1 33
–56 –28
49) 56 (1 56
–49 –56
7) 49 (7 ×
–49
×
43. Required number = (LCM of 24, 32, 36, 54) – 5 2 24, 32, 36, 54
= (2 × 2 × 3 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 3) – 5 2 12, 16, 18, 27
3 6, 8, 9, 27
= 864 – 5 = 859. 2 2, 8, 3, 9
3 1, 4, 3, 9
1, 4, 1, 3
44. Required number = (LCM of 12, 15, 20, 54) + 8 2 12, 15, 20, 54
( 2 3 5 2 9) 8 3 6, 15, 10, 27
= 540 + 8 = 548. 5 2, 5, 10, 9
2 2, 1, 2, 9
1, 1, 1, 9
45. Required distance = (LCM of 60, 80, 75, 90) cm 2 60, 80, 75, 90
= (2 × 3 × 5 × 2 × 4 × 5 × 3) cm 3 30, 40, 75, 45
5 10, 40, 25, 15
= 3600 cm = 36 m.
2 2, 8, 5, 3
1, 4, 5, 3
121
122 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 6A
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. The value of (2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 ) is
95 97 98 99
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 8 8
2 2 2
1 1 1
2. The value of is
2 3 4
5 61
(a) 29 (b) (c) 144 (d)
29 144
3. If 5 a 3125 then the value of 5 a 3 is
(a) 25 (b) 125 (c) 625 (d) 1625
1 1
3 1 1
4. ?
4 4
3 3 8 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 8 3 3
5. Which of the following is equal to 1?
(a) 30 40 50 (b) 30 40 50
0 0 0
(c) (3 2 ) 5 (d) ( 40 30 ) (50 20 )
6. Which of the following statements is true?
2
(a) 4 3 ( 4 3 )2
2
(b) 4 3 ( 4 3 )2
2
(c) 4 3 ( 4 3 )2
2
(d) 4 3 and ( 4 3 )2 cannot be compared
7. Which of the following expressions has the greatest value?
(a) [(2 1 )0 ]2 (b) [( 40 )2 ]2 (c) [(2 2 )1 ]2 (d) [(2 1 )2 ]2
8. A boy was asked to write the value of 2 5 92. He wrote it as 2592. The
difference between the obtained value and the actual value is
(a) 0 (b) 2 92 (c) 2 2 93 (d) 2 3 94
2 34 25
9. The value of is
9 42
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 46 (d) 48
10. Which of the following is the largest number?
22
(a) 3 2 (b) {(3 2 )2 }2 (c) 3 2 2 2 (d) 3222
Exponents 123
11. 58 5 9 5 5 5 2 5 3 ?
(a) 510 (b) 511 (c) 512 (d) 513
3 6 1 2x
8 8 5
12. The value of x so that is
5 5 8
(a) –1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 2
5 11 x 8 x 12
5 5 25
13. If then x is equal to
3 3 9
(a) –2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
1
14. If 2 2 n 1 then the value of n is
8n 3
(a) –2 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
15. If 5 x 3 25( 3 x 4 ) then the value of x is
5 11 11 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 5 3 5
3 2 3 ?
16. 9 (81) (27 ) 3
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
250 0 25
17. If a = 25 then a a ?
(a) 0 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 26
18. Compare and put the correct sign (<, >, =) in the box.
9 2
2 3 23
1
1 1
I. (2 ) 2 II. (44 )2 2 4
III. 3 2 81 4
I II III I II III
(a) > < = (b) < = >
(c) = < > (d) < > <
5 x 7 y 5 (10 a3 x 2 )3
19. Simplify:
(2 x 5 y 3 ) (6 a2 y )2
4
25 4 25 2 3 9 2 9 y
(a) xy (b) x y (c) a xy (d)
6 4 100 100 a xa
20. If 8 a 10b and 2 a 5b then the value of a if b 0 is
1
(a) 0 (b) (c) 1 (d) 2
2
21. If ( 3 )7 93 3 y 9 3 then y is equal to
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
9n 3 5 (27 )3
22. If 27 then n is equal to
3 (81)4
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
124 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
2n 1 2n
32. The value of is
2n 4 2n 1
1 2 1 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36 3 13 13
16 2n 1 8 2n
33. when simplified is equal to
16 2n 2 4 2n 1
3 3 9 9
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 14 14
1 1
34. If ab 1 then 1
is
1 a 1 b 1
(a) 0 (b) a b (c) 1 (d) a b
Exponents 125
7 x 3 92 x y (11)x y 3 (63)y 1 5
36. If A then the value of 3 A is
(63)x 1 (77 )y 3 (99)x 3
14 23
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
3 3
37. The weights of four different molecules A, B, C and D was estimated by
a scientist as under
Molecule A 8.689 10 24 units,
Molecule B 1.532 × 10 18 units,
Molecule C 3.674 × 10 22 units,
Molecule D 8.976 × 10 20 units.
Of these the lightest molecule is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
38. Three towns P, Q and R are located in the
same straight line. If the distance between P
and Q is (3.2 106 ) m and the distance between Q and R is (6.4 10 5 ) m
then the distance between P and R in standard form is
(a) 9.6 10 5 m (b) 9.6 106 m (c) 38.4 10 5 m (d) 38.4 106 m
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c)
1 1 1 1 96 2 1 99 .
1. 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 4 8 12
22 23 4 8 8 8
2 2 2
1 1 1
2. 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 9 16 29.
2 3 4
3. 5 a 3125 5 5 a 5.
5 a 3 5( 5 3 ) 5 2 25.
1
3 1 1 1 4
1
4 12
1
8
1
3
4. 4 .
4 4 3 3 3 8
126 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
5. 30 40 50 1 1 1 3.
30 40 50 1 1 1 1.
(30 20 ) 50 (1 1) 1 0 1 0.
( 40 30 ) (50 20 ) (1 1) (1 1) 0 2 0.
2
6. 4 3 4 9 and ( 4 3 )2 4( 3 2 ) 46.
2
Since 4 9 46 , so 4 3 ( 4 3 )2 .
2
1 0
7. [(2 1 )0 ]2 12 1.
2
1 2 2 2
1 1
[(2 1 )2 ]2 .
2 4 16
8. 2 5 92 32 81 2592.
2 3 4 25 2 3 4 25 2 3 4 25
9. 2
9 42 3 (2 2 )2 32 2 4
2(1 5 4 ) 3( 4 2 ) 2 2 3 2 4 9 36.
22 4
10. 3 2 3 2 316.
{(3 2 )2 }2 3( 2 2 2 ) 38 6561.
3 2 2 2 3( 2 2 2 ) 38 6561.
[( 8 9 5 2 ) 3]
11. 58 5 9 5 5 5 2 5 3 5 5(14 3 ) 511.
3 6 1 2x 36 1 2x
8 8 5 8 5
12.
5 5 8 5 8
3 1 2x 3 1 2x
8 5 5 5
5 8 8 8
1 – 2x = 3 2x = 1 – 3 = –2
x = –1.
5 11 x 8 x 12 ( 8 x 12 ) (16 x 24 )
5 5 25 5 2 5
13.
3 3 9 3 3
( 5 11 x ) (16 x 24 )
5 5
3 3
6 + x = 16x – 24 15x = 30 x = 2.
Exponents 127
2n 1 1
14. 2 8 ( n 3 ) 8 3 n
8n 3
2n 1
2 (2 3 )( 3 n) 2 3( 3 n) 2( 9 3 n)
2n – 1 = 9 – 3n 5n = 10 n = 2.
x3
15. 5 25( 3 x 4 ) [5 2 ]( 3 x 4 ) 5 2( 3 x 4 )
x3
5 5(6 x 8 ) x + 3 = 6x – 8
11
5x = 11 x .
5
16. 93 (81)2 (27 )3 3 x
(3 2 )3 (3 4 )2 (3 3 )3 3 x
36 38 3 9 3 x
( 6 8 9)
3 3 x 3 5 3 x x = 5.
0 25
17. a25 a0 a1 a0 a 1 25 1 26.
23 3
18. (2 2 )3 2 26 64 and 2 2 28 256.
3
So, (2 2 )3 2 2 .
1 1
4
( 4 4 ) 2 4 2
4 2 16 and 2 4 16.
1
So, ( 4 4 ) 2 2 4.
1 1 1
9 2 2
(31/3 )9 3 3 3 3 27 and (811/ 4 )2 81 4 811/2 (92 )1/2 9 2
9.
13 14
So, (3 )9 (81 )2 .
5 x7 y 5 (10 a3 x 2 )3 5 x7 y 5 (6 a2 y )2
19. 5 3 2 2
2 x y (6 a y ) 2 x 5 y 3 (10 a3 x 2 )3
5 x7 y 5 36 a 4 y 2
2 x 5 y 3 1000 a9 x 6
9
x(7 5 6 ) y( 5 2 3 ) a( 4 9)
100
9 4 9 y4
x y 4 a5
100 100 x 4 a5
4
9 y
.
100 a xa
20. 5b 2 a 2 5b 2 2 a
a1 ( a 1)
10b 2 8a 2
( a 1) ( a 1)
( 2 3 )a 2 23 a 2 .
1
3a = a + 1 2a = 1 a .
2
21. ( 3 ) 93 3 y 9 3
7
12
(3 )7 (3 2 )3 3 y 3 2 31/2
7 2 12
3 36 3 y 3 2 3
128 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
7 5 19 5
6 y y
3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2
5 19 19 5 14
y y 7.
2 2 2 2 2
9n 3 5 (27 )3 (3 2 )n 3 5 (3 3 )3
22. 4
27 33
3 (81) 3 ( 3 4 )4
32n 35 39
33
3 316
( 5 9 1 16 )
32n 3 33
(2n 3)
3 3 3 2n – 3 = 3 2n = 6 n = 3.
2.4 3.7 1.3
23. 8 2 (16) 2x
(2 3 )2.4 2 3.7 (2 4 )1.3 2 x
27.2 2 3.7 2 5.2 2 x
(7.2 3.7 ) 5.2
2 2 x 2 5.7 2 x x = 5.7.
24. mn 121 (11)2 m = 11, n = 2.
n1
(m 1) (11 1)2 1 (10)3 1000.
xy
25. 3 27 3 3 and 3 x y 243 3 5
x – y = 3 and x + y = 5.
Adding the above two equations, we get 2x = 8 or x = 4.
Putting x = 4 in x – y = 3, we get y = 1.
26. Diameter of the earth = 1,27,56,000 m = 1.2756 × 107 m.
998 (342) (1997 ) (19)97 (19 342) (19)97 361
27. 99
97 2
1.
(19) (19) (19) (19)97 361
96.54 89.63 965.4 896.3
28. 10 3
96.54 89.63 9.654 8 .963
1 96.54 89.63 9.654 8.963
1000 96.54 89.63 965.4 896.3
1
1 96.54 89.63 10 (96.54 89.63)
1000 96.54 89.63 10 (96.54 89.663)
1 1 1 5
10 .
1000 100 100000
29. (1)101 (1)102 (1)103 (1)200
= (–1) + 1 + (–1) + … + 1.
= [(–1) + (–1) + (–1) + … 50 times] + [1 + 1 + … 50 times]
= (–50) + 50 = 0.
n4
30. 2 2n 2 3 2n 2 (2 2 1) 3 2n 2 3 3
n2
2 1 20 n + 2 = 0
n = –2.
Exponents 129
n1
31. 2 2n 1 320 2n 1 (1 2 2 ) 320
n1
2 5 320 2n 1 64 26
n – 1 = 6 n = 7.
2n 1 2n 2n 1 (1 2) 1
32. 2(n 1) (n 1)
2n 4 2n 1 2n 1 (2 3 1) 9
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 .
9 9 2 9 4 36
16 2n 1 8 2n 2n (16 2 8) 2n 24
33. n2 n1
n1
n1
16 2 42 2 (16 2 4) 2 28
24 3
.
2 28 7
34. ab = 1 a1 b and b 1 a.
1 1 1 1 (1 a) (1 b)
1 a1 1 b 1 1 b 1 a (1 a) (1 b)
2ab 2ab
1 [ ab = 1].
1 a b ab 2 a b
35. 21998 21997 21996 21995 k . 21995
k 21995 21995 21996 21997 21998
21995 (1 2 2 2 2 3 )
21995 (1 2 4 8) 3 21995
k = 3.
7 x 3 92 x y (11)x y 3 (63)y 1
36. A
(63)x 1 (77 )y 3 (99)x
x3
7 (3 2 )( 2 x y ) (11)x y 3 (7 3 2 )( y 1)
(7 3 2 )( x 1) (11 7 )y 3 (11 3 2 )x
7 x 3 3( 4 x 2 y ) (11)x y 3 7 y 1 3( 2 y 2 )
7 x 1 3( 2 x 2 ) (11)y 3 7 y 3 (11)x 3 2 x
7 ( x 3 ) ( y 1) ( x 1) ( y 3 ) 3( 4 x 2 y ) ( 2 y 2 ) ( 2 x 2 ) 2 x 11( x y 3 ) ( y 3 ) x
7 0 30 110 1 1 1 1.
5 5 5 9 5 14 .
3A 3 1 3
3 3 3 3 3
B 1.532 × 10–18
38. PR = PQ + QR
[(3.2 106 ) (6.4 10 5 )] m
(32 10 5 6.4 10 5 ) m 38.4 10 5 m.
EXERCISE 6B
Direction (Questions 1 to 20): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. If (8) (8) (8) (2)p then p is equal to …… .
2. (16)2 written as a power of 2 is …… .
3. If 4 x 256 then the value of 6 2 x 8 is …… .
4. If 27 2 x1 (243)3 then the value of 5 2 x 4 is …… .
5 11 8x
5 5 5
5. If then x = …… .
4 4 4
6. [(2)2 ]4 …… .
3 3
1 1
7. …… .
3
2
8. 983 107 when written in the standard form is euqal to …… .
9. If x = 2, y = 3 then the value of
(i) x x y y is …… .
(ii) x y y x is …… .
(iii) x x y y is …… .
(iv) x y y x is …… .
10. (5 3 )2 5 5 5 9 is equal to …… .
11. If 2 x 81 5 21 5 then x is equal to …… .
12. 80.4 41.6 21.6 …… .
x
16 32 2
13. If then x is equal to …… .
9 27 81 3
14. If 2n 4096 then 2n 3 is equal to …… .
4n 2 5 8 3
15. If 8 then the value of n is …… .
2 (16)4
16. If (25)n 1 100 5 2 n 1 then n is equal to …… .
17. If 2n 7 5n 4 1250 then the value of n is …… .
18. If 6 4 (36)3 216 6 x 5 then x is equal to …… .
Exponents 131
31 17
9. (i) 31 (ii) 17 (iii) (iv)
108 72
2
10. 25 11. 12. 64 13. 9
5
14. 512 15. 3 16. 2 17. 8
5 1
18. 6 19. 6 20. 21. False
2
22. False 23. False 24. False 25. False
26. False 27. True 28. False 29. False
30. True 31. False 32. True 33. False
34. True 35. True 36. False 37. True
38. False 39. True 40. True
1 1 1 1 27 4 31
(iii) x x y y 2 2 3 3 .
2 2 3 3 4 27 108 108
1 1 1 1 9 8 17 .
(iv) x y y x 2 3 3 2 3 2
2 3 8 9 72 72
( 6 5 9)
10. (5 3 )2 5 5 5 9 56 5 5 5 9 5 5 2 25.
1 1
11. 2 x 81/5 21/5 2 x (2 3 ) 5 2 5
3 1
x
5
2 25
3 1 1 3 2
x x .
5 5 5 5 5
12. 80.4 41.6 21.6 (2 3 )0.4 (2 2 )1.6 21.6
2( 3 0.4 ) 2( 2 1.6 ) 21.6
21.2 2 3.2 21.6 2(1.2 3.2 1.6 )
26 64.
x x
16 32 2 2 2 4 25 2( 4 5 )
13. 2 3 4 (2 3 4)
9 27 81 3 3 3 3 3 3
x 9
2 29 2
9 x = 9.
3 3 3
14. 2n 4096 212 n = 12.
n3
2 212 3 2 9 512.
4n 2 5 8 3 (2 2 )n 2 5 (2 3 )3 22n 25 29
15. 4
8 4 4
8 8
2 (16) 2 (2 ) 2 216
( 2 n 5 9 1 16 )
2 2 3 2( 2 n 3 ) 2 3
2n – 3 = 3 2n = 6 n = 3.
n1
16. (25) 100 5 2 n 1 5 2 n 1 (5 2 )n 1 100
2n 1
5 5 2 n 2 100
(2n 2)
5 (5 1) 100 5 2 4
(2n 2)
5 4 52 4
(2n 2)
5 5 2 2n – 2 = 2 2n = 4 n = 2.
n7
17. 2 5n 4 1250 2 5 4.
n – 7 = 1 and n – 4 = 4 n = 8.
18. 6 4 (36)3 216 6 x 5
6 4 (6 2 )3 6 3 6 x 5
6 4 66 6 3 6 x 5
( 4 6 3)
6 6x 5 6 6x 5
x – 5 = 1 x = 6.
134 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
32. {( x a )b }c {x ab }c x abc .
{( x c )b }a {x bc }a x abc .
a m p
(m n) p
35. n [a ] a p (m n) a( pm pn) .
a
3 7 x1 37 ( x 1)
2 2 5 2 2
36.
5 5 2 5 5
10 (1 x )
2 2
1 – x = 10
5 5
x = – 9.
Exponents 135
136 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
7 Algebraic Expressions
8. LIKE AND UNLIKE TERMS Terms having the same literal coefficients are
called like terms, otherwise they are called unlike terms.
2
So, 5 x 2 y, x 2 y and 8 x 2 y are like terms, while 6 x 2 y, 5 xy 2 and 3 x 2 y 2 are
3
unlike terms.
9. RULE FOR REMOVAL OF BRACKETS If a bracket is preceded by a ‘+’ sign then
the bracket is removed without changing the sign of the terms inside it.
If a bracket is preceded by a ‘–’ sign then on removing the bracket the
sign of each of the terms inside it is reversed (i.e., ‘+’ changes to ‘–’ and
‘–’ changes to ‘+’).
10. POLYNOMIALS An algebraic expression in which the variables involved
have only non-negative integral powers is called a polynomial.
So, 3 x 2 5 x 2 is a polynomial;
1
x is not a polynomial;
x
y 3 y is not a polynomial.
11. Degree of a polynomial in one variable
= highest power of the variable in that polynomial.
So, degree of the polynomial 8 x 4 2 x 3 5 x 2 7
= highest power of variable x 4.
12. CONSTANT POLYNOMIAL A polynomial having one term consisting of a
constant only is called a constant polynomial. The degree of a constant
polynomial is 0.
13. The product of two factors with like signs is positive and the product of
two factors with unlike signs is negative.
Thus, 6 x 4 y 24 xy ;
(3 a) (5b 2 ) (3) (5) ab 2 15 ab 2 ;
7 p 4q 28 pq.
14. Operation Result
Monomial + monomial Monomial or binomial
Monomial + binomial Monomial, binomial or trinomial
Binomial + binomial Monomial, binomial, trinomial or
quadrinomial
Monomial × monomial Monomial
Monomial × binomial Binomial
Binomial × binomial Binomial, trinomial or quadrinomial
2 2 2
15. (i) ( a b) a 2 ab b .
(ii) ( a b)2 a2 2 ab b 2 .
138 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 7A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following is a pair of like terms?
6 7 7
(a) xyz, x 2 y 2 z2 (b) 9x 2 yz2 , xy 2 z2
7 6 20
3
(c) 3 xy 2 z, 3 xyz2 (d) x 2 y 2 z2 , 7( xyz)2
5
4 2 2 4
2. The sum of x xy 2 y and 2 y xy x is
(a) a monomial and polynomial in x
(b) a monomial and polynomial in y
(c) a binomial and polynomial in x
(d) a binomial and polynomial in y
3. The value of the polynomial a2b 2 b 2c 2 c 2 a2 at a = 1, b = –1 and c = –2 is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) –1 (d) 9
3 2
4. If p = –10 then the value of p 2 p 3 p is
(a) –1230 (b) –830 (c) 830 (d) 1230
5. Choose the incorrect statement.
If a = –1, b = –3, c = –5 then
(a) ab bc ac 23 (b) ab bc ac 17
(c) ab + bc – ac = 13 (d) – ab + bc – ac = 7
6. Aditya spends ` (7x – 4) for a book and ` (2x + 8) for a pen. If he gives the
shopkeeper a 2000-rupee note, how much will he get back?
(a) ` (2012 – 9x) (b) ` (1996 – 9x) (c) ` (1992 – 6x) (d) ` (1996 – 7x)
7. Simplify: a 2b [4 a 6b {3 a c (5 a 2b 3 a c 2b)}]
(a) 2a (b) 3a + b + c (c) 4a – c (d) 5a + b
8. n packets of 6 sweets each are divided equally among 10 children. Then,
each child gets …… sweets.
3n
(a) 3n 5 (b) (c) 6n 10 (d) 6n
5
9. What is the value of ( a3 2 a2 4 a 5) ( a3 8 a 2 a2 5) ?
(a) 2 a3 4 a2 6 a 10 (b) 2 a3 4 a2 12 a 10
3 2
(c) 2 a 7 a 12 a 10 (d) 2 a3 7 a2 6 a 10
1 7 1 1 1 1
10. The value of 3 x 2 x x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 at
5 3 4 3 6 2
x 2 is
215 283 262 243
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 30 15 15
Algebraic Expressions 139
600 5q 600 5q
(a) ` (b) `
12 4
3 (600 5q) 600 5q
(c) ` (d) `
4 16
22. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle each of whose equal sides is
(2 a2 b 2 ) and the base is (b 2 a2 ), is
(a) 3 a2 b 2 (b) 5 a2 3b 2 (c) 5 a2 b 2 (d) 3 ( a2 b 2 )
23. If a b 5, b c 12 and a c 7 then the value of a b c is
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 12 (d) 24
24. What should be subtracted from 7 ab 2 a2 3b 2 to get a2 2 ab b 2 ?
(a) a2 2b 2 9ab (b) a2 2b 2 5 ab
(c) 3 a2 4b 2 9ab (d) 3 a2 4b 2 5 ab
25. On subtracting 7 p 2 13 p 5 from unity, we get
(a) 7 p 2 13 p 6 (b) 7 p 2 13 p 6
(c) 7 p 2 13 p 4 (d) 7 p 2 13 p 4
26. If P ( x 2), Q 2 ( y 1), R x 2 y and P Q R ax then a is equal
to
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) –2
27. A wire is (7 p 3) metres long. A length of (3 p 4) metres is cut out and
the left out wire is shaped into an equilateral triangle. The length of each
side of the triangle so formed (in metres) is
4p 1 4p 1 4p 1 4p 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 3 3
28. What should be subtracted from x 2 xy y 2 to obtain 2 x 2 3 xy?
(a) 3 x 2 2 xy y 2 (b) x 2 2 xy y 2
2 2
(c) x 4 xy y (d) x 2 2 xy y 2
29. If A 2m2 3mn 5n2 , B 5m2 2mn 3n2 and C 3m2 5mn 2n2
then which of the following expressions is equal to 0?
(a) A B C (b) A B C (c) A B C (d) A B C
30. If Tn 6n2 5n 2 then T6 T3 is equal to
(a) 175 (b) 186 (c) 208 (d) 216
xp
31. If B then x is equal to
xq
1 B Bp Bp qB p
(a) (b) (c) (d)
p qB Bq Bq B1
Algebraic Expressions 141
39. If a and b are respectively the sum and product of coefficients of terms
in the expression 2 x 2 3 y 2 z2 xy 4 yz 2 xz then 2a b equals
(a) –54 (b) – 42 (c) 42 (d) 54
2 2
1 1
40. 2 a 2 a on simplification yields the result
3b 3b
4a 4b 8a 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 4 a2 2
3b 3a 3b 9b
41. (3a + 2b – 9) (2a – 6b + 2) – [(4a – 9b – 1) + (–3a + 8b + 7)] = ?
(a) 6 a2 14 ab 12b 2 13 a 59b 24
(b) 6 a2 12 ab 18b 2 17 a 61b 29
(c) 8 a2 14 ab 12b 2 13 a 57 b 24
(d) 8 a2 14 ab 12b 2 17 a 61b 29
42. What are the factors of x ( y z) y ( z x ) z ( x y ) ?
(a) 2x (y – z) (b) 2y (z – x) (c) 2x (z – y) (d) 2z (x – y)
43. If 6 (3x + 2) – 5 (6x – 1) – 12x = 6 (x – 3) – 5 (7x – 6) then the value of
2x 3
is
4x 3
5 2 5
(a) –1 (b) (c) (d)
7 7 7
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d)
1. 7( xyz)2 7 x 2 y 2 z2 .
3
Clearly, x 2 y 2 z2 and 7 x 2 y 2 z2 have the same literal coefficients.
5
Hence, they are like terms.
2. ( x 4 xy 2 y 2 ) (2 y 2 xy x 4 )
x 4 x 4 xy xy 2 y 2 2 y 2
1000 2 100 3 10
1000 200 30 1230.
5. ab bc ac (1) (3) (3) (5) (1) (5)
3 15 5 23.
ab bc ac (1) (3) (3) (5) (1) (5)
3 15 5 3 20 17.
ab bc ac (1) (3) (3) (5) (1) (5)
3 15 5 18 5 13.
ab bc ac (1) (3) (3) (5) (1) (5)
3 15 5 8 15 7.
6. Total money spent ` [(7 x 4) (2 x 8)] = ` (9x + 4).
money returned = ` [2000 – (9x + 4)]
= ` (2000 – 9x – 4) = ` (1996 – 9x).
7. a 2b [4 a 6b {3 a c (5 a 2b 3 a c 2b)}]
= a – 2b – [4a – 6b – {3a – c + 5a – 2b – 3a + c – 2b)}]
= a – 2b – [4a – 6b – {5a – 4b}]
= a – 2b – [4a – 6b – 5a + 4b]
= a – 2b – [– a – 2b] = a – 2b + a + 2b = 2a.
9. ( a3 2 a2 4 a 5) ( a3 8 a 2 a2 5)
a3 2 a2 4 a 5 a3 8 a 2 a2 5
2 a3 4 a2 12 a 10.
1 7 1 1 1 1
10. 3 x 2 x x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5
5 3 4 3 6 2
2 1 7 1 2 1 1 2 1
3x x x x 2x x 5
5 3 4 3 6 2
2 1 2 1 1 1 7 1
3x x 2x2 x x x 5
4 3 5 2 3 6
1 1 1 1 7 1
3 2 x2 x 5
4 3 5 2 3 6
12 1 8 2 10 6 15 14 1 30
x x
4 30 6
3 2 11 43
x x
4 30 6
144 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3 2 11 43
2 2 , when x is equal to 2
4 30 6
11 43 90 22 215 283 .
3
15 6 30 30
1 8 (8) 12 1 8 8 12 13
1.
1 4 4 2 4 2 1 4 4 2 4 2 13
19. X Y Z ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 )
a2 b 2 c 2 .
X Y Z ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 )
a2 b 2 c 2 a2 b 2 c 2 a2 b 2 c 2 3 a2 b 2 c 2 .
X Y Z ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 )
a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 3b 2 c 2 .
Algebraic Expressions 145
X Y Z ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 ) ( a2 b 2 c 2 )
a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 c 2 a 2 b 2 3c 2 .
20. a ( a b) a ( a b) b ( a b)
a2 ab a2 ab ab b 2 ab b 2 b ( a b).
21. Total amount with Rohan = ` 600.
Amount given to son = ` (5q).
Remainder = ` (600 – 5q).
1 600 5q
Amount given to daughters of ` (600 – 5q) `
4 4
600 5q 3
amount used to buy cakes ` (600 5q) ` (600 5q).
4 4
22. Perimeter of the triangle 2 (2 a2 b 2 ) (b 2 a2 )
4 a 2 2b 2 b 2 a 2 3 a 2 b 2 .
23. a + b = 5, b + c = 12, a + c = 7.
Adding the above three equations, we get
24
2 (a + b + c) = 5 + 12 + 7 = 24 a + b + c 12.
2
24. Let the expression to be subtracted be X.
Then, (7 ab 2 a2 3b 2 ) X a2 2 ab b 2
X (7 ab 2 a2 3b 2 ) ( a2 2 ab b 2 )
7 ab 2 a2 3b 2 a2 2 ab b 2 9 ab a2 2b 2 .
25. Required expression 1 (7 p 2 13 p 5) 1 7 p 2 13 p 5 7 p 2 13 p 4.
26. P Q R ( x 2) [2 ( y 1)] ( x 2 y )
x 2 2 y 2 x 2 y 2 x.
P Q R ax 2x ax a 2.
27. Perimeter of the triangle [(7 p 3) (3 p 4)] m (7 p 3 3 p 4) m ( 4 p 1) m.
4p 1
length of each side m.
3
28. Let the required expression be X. Then,
( x 2 xy y 2 ) X 2 x 2 3 xy
X ( x 2 xy y 2 ) (2 x 2 3 xy )
x 2 xy y 2 2 x 2 3 xy x 2 y 2 2 xy.
29. A B C (2m2 3mn 5n2 ) (5m2 2mn 3n2 ) (3m2 5mn 2n2 )
(2m2 5m2 3m2 ) (3mn 2mn 5mn) (5n2 3n2 2n2 )
6m2 10mn 4n2 .
A B C (2m2 3mn 5n2 ) (5m2 2mn 3n2 ) (3m2 5mn 2n2 )
2m2 3mn 5n2 5m2 2mn 3n2 3m2 5mn 2n2
(2m2 5m2 3m2 ) (3mn 2mn 5mn) (5n2 3n2 2n2 )
= 0.
146 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
(c) (2 a2 b 2 ) (2 a 2 b 2 ) 4 a 4 2 a 2 b 2 2 a 2 b 2 b 4 4 a 4 b 4 .
3 1 3 1 3 1
(d) x 2 y 2 z2 x 2 y 2 z2
4 4 4 4 4 4
3 1 1 3 3 1
x 2 y 2 z2
4 4 4 4 4 4
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
x y z ( x y 2 z2 ).
2 2 2 2
33. Sum of natural numbers from 12 to 25 = 12 + 13 + 14 + … + 25
= (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 25) – (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 11)
1 1 1 1
(25)2 25 (11)2 11
2 2 2 2
625 25 121 11 650 132
2 2 2 2 2 2
= 325 – 66 = 259.
1 1
34. n (n 1) (2n 1) (n2 n) (2n 1)
6 6
1
( 2 n 3 n 2 2 n 2 n)
6
1
(2n3 3n2 n).
6
Algebraic Expressions 147
1 4a 1 4a
4 a2 2 4 a2 2
9b 3b 9b 3b
1 4a 1 4a 8a .
4 a2 2 4 a2 2
9b 3b 9b 3b 3b
41. (3 a 2b 9) (2 a 6b 2) [( 4 a 9b 1) (3 a 8b 7 )]
3 a ( 2 a 6 b 2 ) 2 b ( 2 a 6 b 2 ) 9 ( 2 a 6 b 2 ) [ 4 a 9b 1 3 a 8 b 7 ]
6 a2 18 ab 6 a 4 ab 12b 2 4b 18 a 54b 18 ( a b 6)
6 a2 12b 2 14 ab 12 a 58b 18 a b 6
6 a2 14 ab 12b 2 13 a 59b 24.
42. x ( y z) y ( z x ) z ( x y )
xy xz yz xy xz yz
2 xy 2 xz 2 x ( y z).
148 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
43. 6 (3 x 2) 5 (6 x 1) 12 x 6 ( x 3) 5 (7 x 6)
18 x 12 30 x 5 12 x 6 x 18 35 x 30
18 x 30 x 12 x 6 x 35 x 18 30 12 5
5 x 5 x 1.
2 x 3 2 (1) 3 2 3 5 5
.
4 x 3 4 (1) 3 4 3 7 7
EXERCISE 7B
Direction (Questions 1 to 20): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The numerical factor in any term of a polynomial is called the …… of
the term.
2. The terms with different algebraic factors are called …… terms.
3. The expression 3 x 2 y 2 xy 2 5 xy 8 yx 2 has …… terms.
4. The coefficient of x in 5 xy 2 z is …… .
5. 5 a2b and 9ba2 are …… terms.
6. 8m2n and 8n2m are …… terms.
7. p q r is the same as p (……) .
8. Algebraic expressions are formed from …… and …… .
9. On subtracting a2 ab from b 2 ab , we get …… .
10. On subtracting ab bc ca from ab bc ca, we get …… .
11. On subtracting 2 a 3b 4c from 4 a 3b 2c, we get …… .
12. a b c when added to …… will give the sum zero.
13. On subtracting x 2 3 xy 2 y 2 from 2 x 2 4 xy 5 y 2 , we get …… .
14. If x 1 then x 4 11x 3 41x 2 61x 30 …… .
15. 3 ( x y ) 4 (2 x 3 y ) (2 x y ) …… .
16. The product of the coefficients of the terms of the expression
3 1
xy yz 5 xz is …… .
5 3
17. On subtracting x y z from ( x y z), we get …… .
18. (2 x 3 3) (5 x 3 2) 10 x 6 6.
19. The degree of a …… polynomial is zero.
20. The perimeter of a triangle is (3 a2 4 a 2) units. If the lengths of two
of its sides are (5 a 1) units and ( a2 5 a 4) units then the length of its
third side is …… units.
Algebraic Expressions 149
10. ab bc ca
ab bc ca
2 ab 2bc 2ca
11. 4 a 3b 2c
2 a 3b 4c
6 a 6b 6c
18. (2 x 3 3) (5 x 3 2) 10 x 6 4 x 3 15 x 3 6 10 x 6 19 x 3 6.
20. Length of third side
= perimeter of the triangle – sum of lengths of other two sides
(3 a2 4 a 2) [(5 a 1) ( a2 5 a 4)] units
(3 a2 4 a 2) ( a2 3) units
(3 a2 4 a 2 a2 3) units
(2 a2 4 a 5) units.
22. Number of planets in the solar system is 8, which is a constant.
25. In 8 xy 2 , the numerical coefficient of y 2 is –8x.
26. In like terms, the literal coefficients should be the same while the numerical coefficients
may differ.
27. The terms of the expression x 7 y 13 x 2 5 are x , 7 y , 13 x 2 and 5.
1
28. x x x 1 , which is not a polynomial as it has a negative power of x.
x
29. 5 x 2 x 5 x 2 x1/2 , which is not a polynomial as it has a fractional power of x.
5
30. 3 y 8 y 2 3 y 8 y 2 5 y 1 .
y
5
Clearly, it is an algebraic expression having three terms 3 y , 8 y 2 , .
y
So, it is a trinomial. But since it has a negative power of y, so it is not a polynomial.
6 6
32. xy 2 z and xz2 y are unlike terms as their literal coefficients are different.
13 13
33. The highest power of the variable a in the given polynomial is 5. So, the degree of the
polynomial is 5.
34. Degree of zero polynomial is not defined.
152 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
2 7
35. 3 y 2 y y2 8y3
5 11
7 2
8y3 3y2 y2 y
11 5
33 7 2 2 26 2 2
8y3 y y 8y3 y y,
11 5 11 5
which is clearly a trinomial as well as a polynomial.
36. If we add a monomial and a binomial then the answer may be
(i) a monomial, e.g., 7 c (6 a 7 c ) 6 a, which is a monomial.
(ii) a binomial, e.g., 3 x ( 4 x 7 y ) 7 x 7 y , which is a binomial.
(iii) a trinomial, e.g., 7 m (3n 4 p) 7 m 3n 4 p , which is a trinomial.
37. If we subtract a monomial from a binomial then the answer may be
(i) a monomial, e.g., (6m 4n) 4n 6m, which is a monomial.
(ii) a binomial, e.g., (9 x 3 y ) 5 y 9 x 8 y , which is a binomial.
(iii) a trinomial, e.g., (5 a 4b) 3c 5 a 4b 3c , which is a trinomial.
39. When we add a monomial and a trinomial then the answer can be a binomial, trinomial
or quadrinomial.
40. ab
ab
+ 2b
41. ab c
abc
2a + 2b + 2c
42. ( x 2 y 2 ) ( x y ) x 3 x 2 y xy 2 y 3 .
43. 3m2 2mn 8
m2 3mn 2
4m2 mn 6
44. xy + yz + zx
2 xy 2 yz 2 zx
–xy – yz – zx
8 Linear Equations
(i) The same quantity can be added to both sides of an equation without
changing the equality.
(ii) The same quantity can be subtracted from both sides of an equation
without changing the equality.
(iii) Both sides of an equation may be multiplied by the same nonzero
number without changing the equality.
(iv) Both sides of an equation may be divided by the same nonzero
number without changing the equality.
5. TRANSPOSITION Any term of an equation may be taken from one side to
the other with a change in its sign. This does not affect the equality of
the statement. This process is called transposition.
EXERCISE 8
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. The solution of 3 ( x 2) ( x 8) 3 ( x 8) is
(a) –10 (b) –2 (c) 2 (d) 10
2. Solve for t: 15(t – 9) – 2(t – 12) + 5 (t + 6) = 0
1 9
(a) –3 (b) (c) (d) 4
2 2
153
154 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
6x 2 3x 5 1 .
3. Solve for x:
9 18 3
1 2 3 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3 5 3
2y 3 y 3 4y 1
4. Solve for y:
5 4 7
1 1 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11 11 8 8
x 4 2x 1 5x 1
5. Solve for x:
3 6 2
4 3 4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 5 5 6
3 1 x 3
6. Solve for x: (7 x 1) 2 x x
4 2 2
3 3
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) (d)
2 2
3m 2 4m 3 m 1
7. Solve for m: 4
5 7 35
(a) 36 (b) 56 (c) 63 (d) 65
1 4 x x 1 23 x
8. Solve for x: ( x 8) 7
5 4 7 5
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
2x 3 3x 2
9. Solve for x: 3 x.
4 6
5 5 5 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24 24 12 12
10. A car is filled with four and a half gallons of fuel for a round trip. If the
1
amount of fuel consumed while going is more than the amount taken
4
for coming, what is the amount of fuel consumed while coming back?
(a) Less than 2 gallons (b) 2 gallons
1
(c) 2 gallons (d) 3 gallons
2
7 7
11. A student was asked to find of a positive number. He found of the
8 18
same by mistake. If his answer was 770 less than the correct one then the
original given number was
(a) 1260 (b) 1548 (c) 6160 (d) none of these
Linear Equations 155
7 .
12. A number is multiplied and divided by the number The difference
19
between the two results is 312. The given number is
(a) 7 (b) 19 (c) 49 (d) 133
13. The total cost of 3 calculators and 2 pens is ` 745. If one calculator costs
` 40 more than a pen, the price of each calculator is
(a) ` 160 (b) ` 165 (c) ` 120 (d) ` 200
14. Shifting one term from one side of an equation to the other side with a
change of sign is known as
(a) associativity (b) distributivity
(c) transposition (d) commutativity
15. In a test, Ankur scored half as many marks as scored by Puneet. If two
times of Ankur’s marks and three times of Puneet’s marks add up to 320
then the marks obtained by Ankur is
(a) 34 (b) 40 (c) 80 (d) 90
16. When a certain number n is divided by 5 and added to 8, the result is
equal to thrice the number subtracted from 4. Then, n is equal to
1 5 4
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
3 4 3
17. If A has ` 96 and B has ` 63, how much money should B give to A so that
A will have twice as much money as B?
(a) ` 7 (b) ` 9 (c) ` 10 (d) ` 12
18. My younger sister’s age today is 3 times what it will be 3 years from
now minus 3 times what her age was 3 years ago. Her present age is
(a) 15 years (b) 18 years (c) 21 years (d) 24 years
19. In a group of buffaloes and ducks, the number of legs is 24 more than
twice the number of heads. What is the number of buffaloes in the
group?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
20. A farmer has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal
heads is 59 and the total number of feet is 190, how many cows does the
farmer have?
(a) 23 (b) 32
(c) 36 (d) Cannot be determined
21. A, B, C, D and E are five consecutive odd numbers. The sum of A and C
is 146. E is equal to
(a) 71 (b) 75 (c) 79 (d) 81
22. Out of six consecutive natural numbers if the sum of first three is 27, the
sum of the other three is
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 36
156 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
23. The sum of seven consecutive numbers is 175. What is the difference
between thrice the smallest number and twice the largest number?
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
24. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 575. What is the sum of the
next set of five consecutive odd numbers?
(a) 595 (b) 615
(c) 625 (d) Cannot be determined
25. The largest of three consecutive multiples of 7 whose sum is 777, is
(a) 189 (b) 259 (c) 266 (d) 352
26. The sum of two numbers is 25 and their difference is 13. Their product is
(a) 104 (b) 114 (c) 315 (d) 325
27. The sum of the ages of 5 children born at intervals of 3 years each is 50
years. What is the age of the youngest child?
(a) 4 years (b) 6 years (c) 8 years (d) 10 years
28. Anu is 40 years old and Nandini is 60 years old. How many years ago
was the ratio of their ages 3 : 5?
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 20 years (d) 37 years
29. The cost of 6 pens and 3 pencils is ` 84. One third of the cost of one pen
is equal to the cost of one pencil. What is the total cost of 4 pens and 5
pencils?
(a) ` 66 (b) ` 68 (c) ` 72 (d) ` 78
30. A car company sold 150 cars in a special 6-day sale. Each day, the
company sold 6 more cars than the previous day. How many cars were
sold on the sixth day?
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60
31. In a 26-question test, 5 marks were deducted for each wrong answer
and 8 marks were credited for each correct answer. If all the questions
were answered, how many were correct if the score was zero?
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 13
32. In an examination, there are 30 questions. 1 mark is awarded for each
correct answer and 0.25 is deducted for every incorrect answer. Anand
attempted all the questions and scored 13.75. How many incorrect
answers did he have?
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
33. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him ` 2000
and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got
` 200 and a uniform. The price of the uniform was
(a) ` 800 (b) ` 1200 (c) ` 1400 (d) ` 1600
Linear Equations 157
34. A labourer was engaged for 20 days on the condition that he will receive
` 60 for each day he works and he will be fined ` 5 for each day he is
absent. If he received ` 745 in all then the number of days for which he
remained absent is
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
35. The price of item X rises by ` 40 per year and that of item Y by ` 15 per
year. If the prices of items X and Y in the year 2012 were ` 420 and ` 630
respectively, in which year will the price of item X be ` 40 more than the
price of item Y?
(a) 2020 (b) 2021 (c) 2022 (d) 2023
36. Village P has a population of 68000 which is decreasing at the rate of
1200 per year. Village Q has a population of 42000 which is increasing
at the rate of 800 per year. In how many years will the population of the
two villages be equal?
(a) 10 years (b) 12 years (c) 13 years (d) 14 years
37. A man paid ` 85000 to buy 40 garments in all, comprising jeans and
shirts. If each shirt costs ` 1500 and each pair of jeans costs ` 2500 then
the difference between the number of jeans and the number of shirts
purchased is
(a) 0 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 32
38. Kiran had 85 currency notes in all, some of which were of ` 100
denomination and the remaining of ` 50 denomination. The total value
of all these currency notes was ` 5000. How much money did he have in
the denomination of ` 50?
(a) ` 2500 (b) ` 3000 (c) ` 3500 (d) ` 4000
39. The total value of a collection of coins of denominations of ` 1, 50 p, 25 p,
10 p and 5 p is ` 380. If the number of coins of each denomination is the
same then the number of ` 1 coins is
(a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 200 (d) 220
40. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs
and 2 tables together is ` 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is
(a) ` 3500 (b) ` 3750 (c) ` 3840 (d) ` 3900
41. A student is asked to divide half a number by 6 and the other half by
4 and then add the quantities. Instead of doing so, the student divides
the given number by 5. If the answer is 4 short of the correct answer, the
number is
(a) 320 (b) 360 (c) 400 (d) 480
42. 144 sweets were shared equally among some children. If there were
3 children fewer, each child would have got 16 sweets. How many
children shared the sweets?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 11 (d) 12
158 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
52. A certain two-digit number is three times the sum of its digits and if 45
be added to it, the digits are reversed. The number is
(a) 23 (b) 27 (c) 32 (d) 72
53. A number consists of two digits such that the digit in the tens place is
less than that in the units place by 2. Three times the number added to
6
times the number obtained by reversing the digits equals 108. The
7
sum of the digits in the number is
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
54. In a two-digit number, the digit in the units place is more than twice the
digit in the tens place by 1. If the digits of the number are interchanged,
the difference between the newly formed number and the original
number is less than the original number by 1. The original number is
(a) 25 (b) 37 (c) 49 (d) 52
55. Ten years ago, a man was seven times as old as his son. Two years
hence, twice his age will be equal to five times the age of his son. The
present age of the son is
(a) 12 years (b) 13 years (c) 14 years (d) 15 years
56. The age of the mother today is thrice that of her daughter. After 12
years, the age of the mother will be twice that of her daughter. The age
of the daughter today is
(a) 12 years (b) 14 years (c) 16 years (d) 18 years
57. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now
9 years older than B, the present age of B is
(a) 19 years (b) 29 years (c) 39 years (d) 49 years
58. One year ago, Shweta was four times as old as her daughter Parul. Six
years hence, Shweta’s age will exceed her daughter’s age by 9 years. The
ratio of the present ages of Shweta and Parul is
(a) 9 : 2 (b) 11 : 3 (c) 12 : 5 (d) 13 : 4
59. Tanya’s grandfather was 8 times older to her 16 years ago. He would be
3 times of her age 8 years from now. What was the ratio of Tanya’s age
to that of her grandfather 8 years ago?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 5 (c) 3 : 8 (d) None of these
60. 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the
other part are together equal to 454. The difference between the two
parts is
(a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 36 (d) 46
160 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3
61. The highest score in an inning was of the total and the next highest
11
3
was of the remainder. If the scores differed by 9, the total score was
11
(a) 110 (b) 121 (c) 132 (d) 143
62. There are benches in a classroom. If 4 students sit on each bench then
3 benches are left vacant and if 3 students sit on each bench then 3
students are left standing. The total number of students in the class is
(a) 36 (b) 42 (c) 48 (d) 54
63. If ` 370 is divided among 10 men, 12 women and 20 boys such that each
man gets an amount equal to that received by one woman and one boy
together and each woman gets twice the amount received by a boy then
the amount received by 10 men would be
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 120 (c) ` 130 (d) ` 150
64. A train starts full of passengers. At the first station, it drops one third
of the passengers and takes 280 more. At the second station, it drops
half of the new total and takes 12 more. On arriving at the third station,
it is found to have 248 passengers. The number of passengers in the
beginning was
(a) 268 (b) 288 (c) 328 (d) 344
65. Anand has a certain sum of money to buy pens. He can buy n gel pens
at ` 16 each and have ` 8 left. Alternatively he can buy (n + 10) ball pens
at ` 7 each and have ` 1 left. If Anand buys 4 gel pens and uses rest of the
money to buy ball pens then the total number of pens bought by him is
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13
66. The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 m. If the length of the rectangle is 4 m
less than 5 times its breadth then the area of the rectangle is
(a) 64 m 2 (b) 75 m 2 (c) 84 m 2 (d) 96 m 2
67. The area of the square ABCD shown in the
adjoining figure is
(a) 225 sq units
(b) 256 sq units
(c) 289 sq units
(d) 324 sq units
Linear Equations 161
ANSWERS (EXERCISE 8)
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (b)
1. 3(x + 2) – (x – 8) = 3(x + 8)
3x + 6 – x + 8 = 3x + 24 x = 6 + 8 – 24 = 14 – 24 = –10.
2. 15(t – 9) – 2(t – 12) + 5(t + 6) = 0
15t – 135 – 2t + 24 + 5t + 30 = 0
81 9 .
18t – 81 = 0 18t = 81 t
18 2
6x 2 3x 5 1
3.
9 18 3
2 (6 x 2 ) ( 3 x 5 ) 1 12 x 4 3 x 5 1
18 3 18 3
15 x 1 1 15 1 .
45x + 3 = 18 45x = 15 x
18 3 45 3
2y 3 y 3 4y 1
4.
5 4 7
4 ( 2 y 3) 5 ( y 3) 4 y 1 8 y 12 5 y 15 4 y 1
20 7 20 7
13 y 3 4 y 1
7(13y + 3) = 20(4y + 1)
20 7
1 .
91y + 21 = 80y + 20 11y = –1 y
11
x 4 2x 1 5x 1
5.
3 6 2
2 ( x 4) (2 x 1) 5 x 1 2x 8 2x 1 5x 1
6 2 6 2
9 5x 1
6 (5x + 1) = –18
6 2
24 4 .
30x + 6 = –18 30x = –24 x
30 5
162 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3 1 x 3
6. (7 x 1) 2 x x
4 2 2
3 (7 x 1) 4 x 1 x 2 x 3 3 (7 x 1) 5 x 1 2 x 3
4 2 2 4 2 2
3 (7 x 1) 2 (5 x 1) 2 x 3 21x 3 10 x 2 2 x 3
4 2 4 2
11x 1 2 x 3
2 (11x – 1) = 4 (2x + 3)
4 2
22x – 2 = 8x + 12 14x = 14 x = 1.
3m 2 4m 3 m 1
7. 4
5 7 35
7 (3m 2) 5 ( 4m 3) (m 1)
4
35
21m + 14 – 20m + 15 + m – 1 = 35 × 4
2m + 28 = 140 2m = 140 – 28 = 112 m = 56.
1 4 x x 1 23 x
8. ( x 8) 7
5 4 7 5
( x 8) 4 x x 1 35 23 x
5 4 7 5
28 ( x 8) 35 ( 4 x ) 20 ( x 1) 12 x
140 5
28 x 224 140 35 x 20 x 20 12 x
140 5
83 x 104 12 x
415x – 520 = 1680 + 140x
140 5
415x – 140x = 1680 + 520 275x = 2200 x = 8.
2x 3 3x 2 3 ( 2 x 3) 2 ( 3 x 2)
9. 3x 3x
4 6 12
5 .
6x – 9 + 6x + 4 = 36x 24x = – 5 x
24
10. Let the amount of fuel consumed while coming back be x gallons.
x 5x
Then, amount of fuel consumed while going x gallons gallons.
4 4
5x 1 4x 5x 9 9x 9 9 4
x 4 x 2.
4 2 4 2 4 2 2 9
11. Let the given number be x. Then,
7 7 63 x 28 x 35 x 770 72
x x 770 770 770 x 1584.
8 18 72 72 35
12. Let the given number be x. Then,
7 7
x x 312
19 19
Linear Equations 163
19 x 7 x 361x 49 x
312 312
7 19 133
312 x 312 133
312 x 133.
133 312
13. Let the price of each pen be ` x.
Then, price of each calculator = ` (x + 40).
3 (x + 40) + 2x = 745 3x + 120 + 2x = 745 5x = 625 x = 125.
Hence, price of each calculator = ` (125 + 40) = ` 165.
15. Let Puneet’s marks be x.
x
Then, Ankur’s marks .
2
x 320
2 3 x 320 x + 3x = 320 4x = 320 x 80.
2 4
80
Ankur’s marks 40.
2
n n 40
16. 8 4 3n 4 3n
5 5
n + 40 = 5(4 – 3n) n + 40 = 20 – 15n
20 5
16n = –20 n .
16 4
17. Let the required amount be ` x. Then,
96 + x = 2(63 – x) 96 + x = 126 – 2x 3x = 30 x = 10.
18. Let the present age be x years. Then,
age 3 years from now = (x + 3) years,
age 3 years ago = (x – 3) years.
x 3 ( x 3) 3 ( x 3) 3 x 9 3 x 9 18.
19. Let the number of buffaloes be x and the number of ducks be y. Then,
total number of heads = x + y,
total number of legs = 4x + 2y.
(4x + 2y) – 2(x + y) = 24 4x + 2y – 2x – 2y = 24 2x = 24 x = 12.
20. Total number of animals = 59.
Let the number of cows be x.
Then, number of hens = (59 – x).
So, total number of feet = 4x + 2 (59 – x).
4x + 2 (59 – x) = 190 4x + 118 – 2x = 190 2x = 72 x = 36.
21. Let A = x, B ( x 2), C ( x 4), D ( x 6) and E ( x 8). Then,
A C 146 x ( x 4) 146 2 x 142 x 71.
E x 8 71 8 79.
22. Let the six consecutive numbers be x, (x + 1), (x + 2), (x + 3), (x + 4) and (x + 5).
Then, x ( x 1) ( x 2) 27 3x + 3 = 27 3x = 24 x = 8.
164 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
24. Let the five consecutive odd numbers be x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6) and (x + 8).
Then, x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8) = 575
5x + 20 = 575 5x = 575 – 20 = 555
x = 111.
sum of next set of five consecutive odd numbers
( x 10) ( x 12) ( x 14) ( x 16) ( x 18)
5 x 70 5 111 70 555 70 625.
27. Let the ages of the 5 children be x, (x + 3), (x + 6), (x + 9) and (x + 12) years respectively.
Then, x ( x 3) ( x 6) ( x 9) ( x 12) 50
5 x 30 50 5x = 20 x = 4.
age of the youngest child = 4 years.
30. Let the number of cars sold on 6 days be x, (x + 6), (x + 12), (x + 18), (x + 24) and (x + 30).
Then, x ( x 6) ( x 12) ( x 18) ( x 24) ( x 30) 150
6 x 90 150 6x = 60 x = 10.
number of cars sold on the 6th day x 30 10 30 40.
31. Let the number of questions answered correctly be x.
Then, number of incorrect answers (26 x ).
8 x 5 (26 x ) 0 8 x 130 5 x 0 13x = 130 x = 10.
32. Let the number of questions answered incorrectly be x.
Then, number of correct answers = (30 – x).
(30 x ) 0.25 x 13.75 30 1.25 x 13.75
1.25 x 30 13.75 16.25
16.25
x 13.
1.25
So, x = 2, y = 7.
required number = 27.
53. Let the unit’s digit be x. Then, ten’s digit = (x – 2).
6
3 [10( x 2) x] [10 x ( x 2)] 108
7
231x 420 66 x 12 756
297 x 1188 x = 4.
Hence, sum of digits x ( x 2) 2 x 2 2 4 2 6.
54. Let the ten’s digit be x. Then, unit’s digit = 2x + 1.
Number 10 x (2 x 1) (12 x 1).
Number obtained on reversing the order of digits
= 10(2x + 1) + x = 20x + 10 + x = 21x + 10.
(12 x 1) [(21x 10) (12 x 1)] 1
(12x + 1) – (9x + 9) = 1 3x – 8 = 1 3x = 9 x = 3.
So, ten’s digit = 3, unit’s digit = 7.
Hence, original number = 37.
55. Let son’s age 10 years ago = x years.
Then, man’s age 10 years ago = 7x years.
Son’s age 2 years hence = (x + 12) years.
Man’s age 2 years hence = (7x + 12) years.
2 (7 x 12) 5 ( x 12) 14 x 24 5 x 60. 9x = 36 x = 4.
So, son’s present age ( x 10) ( 4 10) years = 14 years.
48
8
x8 48 40 88 11 .
Ratio of their ages 8 years ago 5
8x 8 8 48 384 40 424 53
8
5
60. Let the two parts be x and (74 – x).
Then, 5 (74 x ) 11x 454 370 5 x 11x 454
6x = 84 x = 14.
So, the two parts are 14 and 60.
Required difference = 60 – 14 = 46.
3x .
61. Let the total score be x. Then, highest score
11
3x 8x .
Remainder x
11 11
3 8 x 24 x .
Next highest score of
11 11 121
3 x 24 x 33 x 24 x 9x 9 121
9 9 9 x 121.
11 121 121 121 9
62. Let the number of benches in the class be x.
Then, number of students 4 ( x 3).
Also, number of students 3 x 3.
4 ( x 3) 3 x 3 4 x 12 3 x 3 x = 15.
Hence, number of students in the class = 4 (15 – 3) = 4 × 12 = 48.
63. Suppose each boy gets ` x. Then, each woman gets ` 2x and each man gets ` (x + 2x),
i.e., ` 3x.
So, 10 × 3x + 12 × 2x + 20x = 370
30x + 24x + 20x = 370
74x = 370 x = 5.
amount received by 10 men = 30x = ` (30 × 5) = ` 150.
x 2x
After 1st station, number of passengers x 280 280 .
3 3
1 2x
After 2nd station, number of passengers 280 12.
2 3
1 2x 2x
280 12 248 280 2 236
2 3 3
2x 3
192 x 192 288.
3 2
65. 16n + 8 = 7(n + 10) + 1 16n + 8 = 7n + 70 + 1
16n + 8 = 7n + 71 9n = 63 n = 7.
Total money with Anand = 16n + 8 = ` (16 × 7 + 8) = ` 120.
170 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
9 Average
EXERCISE 9
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. The arithmetic mean of the first 11 natural numbers is
(a) 5 (b) 5.5 (c) 6 (d) 6.5
2. The average of the even numbers from 1 to 30 is
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19
3. The table shows the number of hours Aman studies on different days of
a week.
171
172 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
44. The average age of a group of persons going for picnic is 16 years.
Twenty new persons with an average age of 15 years join the group on
the spot due to which the average age of the group becomes 15.5 years.
The number of persons initially going for picnic is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 30
45. The average score of a class of boys and girls in an examination is A. The
ratio of boys and girls in the class is 3 : 1. If the average score of the boys
is A + 1, the average score of the girls is
(a) A – 1 (b) A + 1 (c) A – 3 (d) A + 3
46. In a coconut grove, (x + 2) trees yield 60 coconuts per year, x trees yield
120 coconuts per year and (x – 2) trees yield 180 coconuts per year. If the
average yield per year per tree is 100 then the value of x is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
ANSWERS (EXERCISE 9)
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d)
5. According to Rohan, his probable weights are 66 kg, 67 kg, 68 kg, 69 kg, 70 kg and
71 kg. According to his brother, his probable weights are 61 kg, 62 kg, 63 kg, 64 kg,
65 kg, 66 kg, 67 kg, 68 kg and 69 kg.
According to his mother, his probable weight is less than or equal to 68 kg.
If all of them are correct then Rohan’s probable weights are 66 kg, 67 kg or 68 kg.
66 67 68 201
required average kg kg 67 kg.
3 3
3 11 7 9 15 13 8 19 17 21 14 x
6. 12
12
137 x 12 12 144
x 144 137 7.
10 9 16 17 13 12 5 14 96
7. Mean marks 12.
8 8
Clearly, any reading equal to the mean or any n readings with sum equal to (n × mean)
may be removed without changing the mean.
Now, 10 + 14 = 24 = 2 × mean.
37 36 34 38 35 180
average daily attendance 36.
5 5
9. Sum of 10 numbers 10 0 0.
Sum of 12 numbers 0 72 (12) 60.
60
new average 5.
12
x1 x2 x3 x4
10. 16 x1 x2 x3 x4 16 4 64.
4
1
( x2 x3 x4 ) 23 x2 x3 x4 23 2 46.
2
x1 64 46 18.
x ( x 2) ( x 4) ( x 6) ( x 8)
11. 11.
5
5x + 20 = 55 5x = 35 x = 7.
( x 4) ( x 6) ( x 8) 3 x 18 3 7 18 39
mean of last 3 observations 13.
3 3 3 3
12. Sum of two numbers = 2XY.
One number = X.
Other number = 2XY – X.
13. Total money paid = ` (78 × 4,500,000,000,000)
= ` (78 × 45 × 1011 )
14. Let the 7 consecutive numbers be x, (x + 1), (x + 2), (x + 3), (x + 4), (x + 5) and (x + 6).
x ( x 1) ( x 2) ( x 3) ( x 4) ( x 5) ( x 6)
Then, 20
7
7x + 21 = 140 7x = 140 – 21 = 119
x = 17.
largest number = x + 6 = 17 + 6 = 23.
15. Total money paid = ` (1050 + 1020) = ` 2070.
Number of books bought = 65 + 50 = 115.
2070
average price per book ` ` 18.
115
16. Sum of marks in 4 subjects = 75 × 4 = 300.
Sum of marks in 5 subjects = 300 + 80 = 380.
380
new average 76.
5
17. Sum of 4 numbers = 25 × 4 = 100.
Sum of first 3 numbers = 22 × 3 = 66.
fourth number = 100 – 66 = 34.
18. Total score in 4 tests = 76 + 83 + 70 + 83 = 312.
Total desired score in 5 tests = 80 × 5 = 400.
desired score in 5th test = 400 – 312 = 88.
19. Sum of heights of 20 students = (105 × 20) cm = 2100 cm.
Sum of heights of 10 new students = (120 × 10) cm = 1200 cm.
Sum of heights of all 30 students = (2100 + 1200) cm = 3300 cm.
3300
new average height of the whole class cm 110 cm.
30
20. Sum of all 30 observations = (60 × 5 + 30 × 10 + 20 × 15)
= (300 + 300 + 300 ) = 900.
900
mean of all 30 observations 30.
30
21. Total quantity of spinach purchased = 4 kg.
1 1 1
Total money paid ` 1
2 3 4
12 6 4 3 25
` ` .
12 12
25 4 12 48
x 4 1.92.
12 25 25
22. Total money spent on milk in 3 years = `(4000 × 3) = `12000.
4000 4000 4000
Total quantity of milk bought in 3 years litres
7 8 8
= (571.43 + 500 + 500) litres = 1571.43 litres.
Average 179
12000
average cost per litre `
1571.43
12000 100
` ` 7.636 ` 7.64.
157143
23. Sum of 6 numbers = 6x.
Sum of first 3 numbers = 3y.
Sum of other 3 numbers = 3z.
6 x 3 y 3 z 6 x 3 ( y z) 2x y z.
24. Let the prices of the three items be ` (3x), ` (5x) and ` (7x) respectively.
3x 5x 7 x
Then, 15000 15x = 45000 x = 3000.
3
price of the cheapest item = ` (3 × 3000) = ` 9000.
25. Sum of ages of A, B, C and D = (4m × 4) years = 16m years.
D’s age = [16m – (2m + m + 14)] years
= (16m – 3m – 14) years = (13m – 14) years.
26. Sum of heights of Naman, Chetan and Ayush = (10x × 3) cm = (30x) cm.
Sum of heights of Chetan and Ayush = (8x × 2) cm = (16x) cm.
Naman’s height = (30x – 16x) cm = (14x) cm.
Sum of heights of Rohan and Naman = (12x × 2) cm = (24x) cm.
Rohan’s height = (24x – 14x) cm = (10x) cm.
27. Let the fourth number be x.
Then, third number = 5x.
1 5x .
Second number of 5 x
3 3
5 x 10 x .
First number 2
3 3
10 x 5 x
5x x
3 3 24.75
4
10 x 5 x 15 x 3 x
24.75 4 99
3
33 x
99 11x 99 x 9.
3
largest number 5 x 5 9 45.
28. Sum of 50 numbers = 38 × 50 = 1900.
Sum of 48 numbers = 1900 – (45 + 55) = 1800.
1800
required average 37.5.
48
29. Sum of 5 numbers = 27 × 5 = 135.
Sum of 4 numbers = 25 × 4 = 100.
excluded number = 135 – 100 = 35.
30. Sum of 6 observations = 45.5 × 6 = 273.
Sum of 7 observations = 47 × 7 = 329.
new observation = 329 – 273 = 56.
180 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
10 Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method
1. RATIO The ratio of two quantities a and b in the same units, is the fraction
a
, written as a : b. In the ratio a : b, a is called the first term or antecedent
b
and b is called the second term or consequent.
2. A ratio remains unchanged if both of its terms are multiplied or divided
by the same nonzero quantity. If m 0 then
a b
(i) a : b = ma : mb and (ii) a : b : .
m m
3. RATIO IN SIMPLEST FORM The ratio a : b is said to be in simplest form if the
HCF of a and b is 1. To express a ratio in its simplest form, we divide
both its terms by their HCF.
4. To express a ratio with fractional terms as a whole number ratio, we
multiply each term by the LCM of their denominators.
1 1 1 1 1 1
Thus, : : 12 : 12 : 12 [LCM of 2, 3, 4 = 12]
2 3 4 2 3 4
= 6 : 4 : 3.
5. PROPORTION The equality of two ratios is called a proportion.
If a : b = c : d, we write a : b : : c : d and we say that a, b, c, d are in
proportion.
Here, a and d are called extremes, while b and c are called means.
In a proportion, product of means = product of extremes.
Thus, a : b : : c : d a d b c.
6. COMPARISON OF RATIOS
a c a c
(i) if ad = bc (ii) if ad > bc
b d b d
a c
(iii) if ad < bc
b d
7. (i) FOURTH PROPORTIONAL If a : b = c : d then d is called the fourth
proportional to a, b, c.
(ii) THIRD PROPORTIONAL If a : b = b : c then c is called the third proportional
to a and b.
182
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 183
9. DIRECT VARIATION (OR DIRECT PROPORTION) Two quantities a and b are said to
vary directly if with the increase (or decrease) in one quantity the other
quantity also increases (or decreases) in the same ratio so that the ratio
a
remains constant. For example,
b
(i) cost of articles varies directly as the number of articles (more articles,
more cost) and
(ii) work done varies directly as number of workers (more workers,
more work done).
10. INVERSE VARIATION (OR INDIRECT PROPORTION) Two quantities a and b are said
to vary inversely if with the increase (or decrease) in one quantity, the
other quantity decreases (or increases) such that the ratio ab remains
constant. For example,
(i) time taken for a journey varies inversely as the speed of the vehicle
(more speed, less time taken) and
(ii) time taken to complete a work varies inversely as the number of
men (more men at work, less time taken).
EXERCISE 10A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. There are 54 green apples and 30 more red than green apples in a
container. The ratio of the number of red apples to the total number of
apples is
(a) 5 : 9 (b) 5 : 14 (c) 14 : 23 (d) 9 : 14
2
2. 16 % expressed as a ratio is
3
(a) 50 : 3 (b) 3 : 8 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 6
3. The ratio of 250 mL to 2 L is
(a) 1 : 125 (b) 125 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 5 : 4
184 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1
4. Express 80 g as a ratio of kg.
2
(a) 1 : 160 (b) 2 : 25 (c) 4 : 25 (d) 9 : 160
5. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) The ratio of the number of consonants to that of vowels in
MATHEMATICS is 7 : 4.
(b) The ratio of the number of prime numbers to that of composite
numbers from 1 to 100 is 1 : 4.
(c) The ratio of the HCF and LCM of the numbers 3, 6 and 9 is 1 : 6.
(d) The ratio of the sum and product of the numbers 10, 20 and 30
is 1 : 100.
3
6. Given p is 63% and q is , which of the following is the closest equivalent
8
of the ratio of p to q?
(a) 0.006 (b) 0.381 (c) 0.595 (d) 1.680
7. The ratio of 2 hours 25 minutes to 3 hours 52 minutes is
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 3 : 8 (c) 4 : 9 (d) 5 : 8
8. 0.5 of a number is equal to 0.07 of another. The ratio of the numbers is
(a) 1 : 14 (b) 5 : 7 (c) 7 : 50 (d) 50 : 7
9. If a carton containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following
cannot be the ratio of the number of broken mirrors to that of unbroken
mirrors?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 3 : 2 (d) 7 : 5
10. The ratio of boys and girls in a class is 3 : 2. Which of the following could
be the actual number of members?
(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 24 (d) 25
11. Which of the following ratios is the greatest?
3 1 1
(a) 5 : 8 (b) :2 (c) : (d) All are equal
2 6 9
12. Which of the following is the lowest ratio?
(a) 7 : 15 (b) 15 : 23 (c) 17 : 25 (d) 21 : 39
13. The ratio of Anant’s income to his savings is 5 : 2. The percentage of
income spent by him is
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 75
14. In what ratio should 750 be increased to obtain 1000?
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 4 : 5
15. 2 hours reduced in the ratio 5 : 4 is
(a) 1 hour 24 minutes (b) 1 hour 36 minutes
(c) 1 hour 40 minutes (d) 1 hour 48 minutes
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 185
42. One fourth of sixty per cent of a number is equal to two fifths of twenty
per cent of another number. What is the respective ratio of the first
number to the second number?
(a) 4 : 7 (b) 5 : 9
(c) 8 : 15 (d) Cannot be determined
43. The total number of boys in a school is 16% more than the total number
of girls in the school. What is the respective ratio of the total number of
boys to the total number of girls in the schools?
(a) 25 : 21 (b) 29 : 35
(c) 29 : 25 (d) Cannot be determined
44. Two equal containers are filled with a mixture of milk and water.
The concentration of milk in each of the containers is 20% and 25%
respectively. What is the ratio of water in the two containers respectively?
(a) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 16 : 15 (d) 15 : 16
45. The ratio of urea and potash in a mixed fertilizer is 7 : 3. Express the
quantity of urea present as percentage of the total amount of fertilizer.
(a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70%
46. The bus fare and train fare of City Y from City X were ` 20 and ` 30
respectively. Train fare has been increased by 20% and the bus fare has
been increased by 10%. The ratio of new train fare to new bus fare is
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3 (c) 11 : 18 (d) 18 : 11
47. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 40 and the measure of which
2
is ?
7
(a) 6 : 56 (b) 14 : 56 (c) 16 : 56 (d) 16 : 72
1 3 5
48. Find the fraction which will bear the same ratio to that does to .
27 11 9
1 15 40
(a) (b) (c) (d) 55
55 99 33
49. ` 16000 are to be distributed between A and B such that B gets ` 4000 less
than A. The ratio of A’s share to B’s share is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 5 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 6 : 1
50. An amount of ` 53 is divided among A, B and C such that A gets ` 7 more
than B and B gets ` 8 more than C. What is the ratio of their shares?
(a) 15 : 8 : 30 (b) 16 : 9 : 18 (d) 18 : 25 : 10 (d) 25 : 18 : 10
51. Of 132 examinees of a certain school, the ratio of successful to
unsuccessful candidates is 9 : 2. If 4 more students passed, what would
have been the ratio of successful to unsuccessful students?
(a) 4 : 25 (b) 3 : 28 (c) 25 : 4 (d) 28 : 5
188 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3
52. Given that 24-carat gold is pure gold; 18-carat gold is gold and 20-carat
4
5
gold is gold, the ratio of pure gold in 18 carat to the pure gold in
6
20-carat gold is
(a) 5 : 8 (b) 8 : 5 (c) 9 : 10 (d) 15 : 22
3 5
53. A sum of ` 6400 is divided among three workers in the ratio : 2 : . The
5 3
share of the second worker (in ` ) is
(a) 2560 (b) 3000 (c) 3200 (d) 3840
54. ` 33630 are divided among A, B and C in such a manner that the ratio of
the amount of A to that of B is 3 : 7 and the ratio of the amount of B to
that of C is 6 : 5. The amount of money received by B is
(a) ` 12390 (b) ` 13290 (c) ` 14868 (d) ` 16257
55. Divide ` 671 among A, B and C such that if their shares be increased by
` 3, ` 7 and ` 9 respectively the remainders shall be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.
(a) ` 105, ` 223, ` 330 (b) ` 110, ` 220, ` 336
(c) ` 112, ` 223, ` 336 (d) None of these
56. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 7 and their sum is 36. Then, the first
number is
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 19
57. The scale of a map is 1 : 3000000. What is the actual distance between the
two towns if they are 4 cm apart on the map?
(a) 1.2 km (b) 12 km (c) 120 km (d) 1200 km
58. The ratio of the incomes of Ram and Shyam is 7 : 17 and that of Shyam
and Tarun is 7 : 17. If Ram’s income is ` 490 then Tarun’s income is
(a) ` 490 (b) ` 1190 (c) ` 2790 (d) ` 2890
59. A man spends a part of his monthly income and saves a part of it. The
ratio of his expenditure to his savings is 26 : 3. If his monthly income is
` 7250, what is the amount of his monthly savings?
(a) ` 290 (b) ` 350 (c) ` 750 (d) ` 780
60. Two numbers are in the ratio 17 : 45. One third of the smaller is less than
1
of the bigger by 15. The smaller number is
5
1 1 1 1
(a) 25 (b) 67 (c) 76 (d) 86
2 2 2 2
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 189
61. Three numbers A, B and C are in the ratio of 12 : 15 : 25. If the sum of
these numbers is 312, the ratio between the difference of B and A and
the difference of C and B is
(a) 3 : 7 (b) 5 : 1 (c) 3 : 10 (d) 10 : 3
62. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5 : 3 and that of their expenditures
is 9 : 5. If they save ` 2600 and ` 1800 respectively, their incomes are
(a) ` 9000, ` 5400 (b) ` 8000, ` 4800 (c) ` 6000, ` 3600 (d) ` 10000, ` 6000
63. The ratio of boys and girls in sections A, B, C and D of a class is
respectively 7 : 5, 5 : 3, 3 : 2 and 2 : 1. If the number of students in each of
the sections is equal then the maximum number of boys are enrolled in
section
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
64. What must be added to each of the numbers 6, 10, 14 and 22 so that they
are in proportion?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
65. When a particular number is subtracted from each of 7, 9, 11 and 15 the
resulting numbers are in proportion. The number to be subtracted is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
66. What number has to be added to the terms of 3 : 5 to make the ratio 5 : 6?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 13
67. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 3. If 10 is subtracted from both the
numbers, their ratio changes to 5 : 7. The sum of numbers initially was
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 15
68. Two numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2. If 7 is added to both their ratio
changes to 3 : 5. The greater number is
(a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 32
69. The ratio of the number of ladies to that of gents at a party was 3 : 2.
When 20 more gents joined the party the ratio was reversed. The number
of ladies present at the party was
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 36
70. Two numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3. If 2 is subtracted from the first and 2
is added to the second the ratio becomes 1 : 2. The sum of the numbers is
(a) 10 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 30
71. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3 : 2. If 20% of the
boys and 25% of the girls are scholarship holders, what percentage of
the students do not get the scholarship?
(a) 56 (b) 70 (c) 78 (d) 80
190 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
72. The present ages of three persons are in the proportion 4 : 7 : 9. Eight
years ago, the sum of their ages was 56 years. The present age of the
eldest person is
(a) 28 years (b) 36 years (c) 45 years (d) none of these
73. The ratio of a man’s age and his son’s age is 7 : 3 and the product of their
ages is 756. The ratio of their ages after 6 years will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 5 : 2 (c) 11 : 7 (d) 13 : 9
74. Soumya is 40 years old and Nisha is 60 years old. How many years ago
was the ratio of their ages 3 : 5?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 37
75. The ratio of the present ages of a mother and her daughter is 7 : 1. Four
years ago the ratio of their ages was 19 : 1. What will be the mother’s age
four years from now?
(a) 36 years (b) 38 years (c) 42 years (d) 46 years
76. The ages of Ananya and Tanya are in the ratio of 8 : 7 respectively. After
10 years, the ratio of their ages will be 13 : 12. What is the difference
between their ages?
(a) 2 years (b) 4 years (c) 6 years (d) 8 years
77. The ratio between the ages of Naman and Chetan is 4 : 5 and that
between the ages of Naman and Rohan is 5 : 6. If the sum of the ages of
the three is 69 years then Chetan’s age is
(a) 20 years (b) 24 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years
78. 6 years ago the ratio of the ages of Kamal and Sachin was 6 : 5. Four
years hence the ratio of their ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sachin’s age at
present?
(a) 16 years (b) 18 years
(c) 20 years (d) Cannot be determined
79. If B gives A ` 7, B will have the same amount of money as A. If A gives B
` 16, ratio of the amount of money A has to the amount of money B has,
will be 5 : 7. How much does A have?
(a) ` 61 (b) ` 91 (c) ` 131 (d) ` 181
80. Samaira, Mahira and Kiara rented a set of DVDs at a rent of ` 578. If they
used it for 8 hours, 12 hours and 14 hours respectively, what is Kiara’s
share of rent to be paid?
(a) ` 192 (b) ` 204 (c) ` 215 (d) ` 238
81. P, Q and R invested ` 45000, ` 70000 and ` 90000 respectively to start a
business. At the end of 2 years, they earned a profit of ` 164000. What
will be Q’s share in the profit?
(a) ` 36000 (b) ` 56000 (c) ` 64000 (d) ` 72000
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 191
4
91. If of a water tank is filled in 1 hour, how much time will be required
5
to fill the rest of it?
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (b) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (b) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (c) 94. (b)
63 3
6. p = 63% and q
100 8
63 3 63 8 168
p:q : 1.68.
100 8 100 3 100
7. 2 hours 25 min = (2 × 60 + 25) min = 145 min.
3 hours 52 min = (3 × 60 + 52) min = 232 min.
required ratio = 145 : 232 = 5 : 8.
1
18. y z.
2
1 1 1 1
x y z z.
3 3 2 6
1 1 1 1 1 1
x:y:z z : z : z : : 1 6 : 6 : (1 6) 1 : 3 : 6.
6 2 6 2 6 2
19. Let 3A = 4B = 5C = k (say). Then,
k k k
A ,B ,C .
3 4 5
k k k 1 1 1 1 1 1
A:B:C : : : : 60 : 60 : 60 [ LCM of 3, 4, 5 = 60]
3 4 5 3 4 5 3 4 5
20 : 15 : 12.
a 2.
28. a : b = 2 : 5
b 5
2 a 3b 2 a 3
2 a 3b b b
b
7 a 5b 7 a 5b a
7 5
b b b
2 4
2 3 3
5 5 19 5 19 .
2 14
7 5 5 5 39 39
5 5
x 2.
29. x : y = 2 : 3
y 3
3x 2y x
3 2 3 2 2
3x 2y y y y 3
2x 5y 2x 5y 2 x 5 2 2 5
y y y 3
22 4 3 12
4 .
4 19 19 19
5
3 3
3
x x x3
30. x : y = 3 : 1 3 3 3 3 27.
y y
y
x3 y3
x3 y3 y3 y3 27 1 26 13 .
x3 y3 x3 y3 27 1 28 14
y3 y3
5 a 3b 23
31. 5 (5a + 3b) = 23(2a – 3b)
2 a 3b 5
25a + 15b = 46a – 69b
46a – 25a = 15b + 69b
a 84
21a = 84b 4
b 21
a : b = 4 : 1.
32. Let a = 3k, b = 5k, c = 7k.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1.
Then, : : : : : :
a b c 3k 5k 7 k 3 5 7
1 1 1
105 : 105 : 105 [ LCM of 3, 5, 7 = 105]
3 5 7
= 35 : 21 : 15.
a b c
33. k (say) a = 3k, b = 4k, c = 7k.
3 4 7
4 4 4
a b c 3 k 4 k 7 k 14 4
2 16.
c 7k 7
196 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
25 k 2 5 k 5 p.
a c
36. Let k. Then, a = bk, c = dk.
b d
ma nc mbk ndk k(mb nd ) a
k .
mb nd mb nd (mb nd ) b
37. Let the third proportional of 12 and 30 be x.
Then, 12 : 30 : : 30 : x 12x = 30 × 30
30 30
x 75.
12
Mean proportional of 9 and 25 9 25 225 15.
required ratio = 75 : 15 = 5 : 1.
38. Let the required number be x. Then,
1 1 1 3 7 13
1 : 2 :: 3 : x : :: : x
2 3 4 2 3 4
3 7 13
x
2 3 4
7 13 2 91 1
x 5 .
3 4 3 18 18
39. Let the required number be x. Then,
0.12 : 0.21 : : 8 : x 0.12x = 0.21 × 8
0.21 8 21 8
x 14.
0.12 12
40. Let the number of boys be 7x and number of girls be 4x. Then,
7x – 4x = 21 3x = 21 x = 7.
total number of children = 7x + 4x = 11x = 11 × 7 = 77.
41. M : W = 5 : 3 = (5 × 2) : (3 × 2) = 10 : 6.
W : C = 2 : 5 = (2 × 3) : (5 × 3) = 6 : 15.
M : W : C = 10 : 6 : 15.
Let the number of men be 10x, number of women be 6x and number of children be 15x.
Then, required ratio = 15x : (10x + 6x)
= 15x : 16x = 15 : 16.
42. Let the first number be x and the second number be y. Then,
1 2
of 60% of x of 20% of y
4 5
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 197
1 60 2 20
x y
4 100 5 100
3x 2y x 2 20 8
.
20 25 y 25 3 15
43. Let the number of girls be x.
116 x .
Then, number of boys = (100 +16)% of x
100
116 x
required ratio : x 116 : 100 29 : 25.
100
44. Concentration of water in first container = (100 – 20)% = 80%.
Concentration of water in second container (100 25)% 75%.
required ratio = 80 : 75 = 16 : 15.
45. Let the quantity of urea be (7x) units and that of potash be (3x) units.
7x 7
required percentage 100 % 100 % 70%.
(7 x 3 x ) 10
120
46. New train fare = (100 + 20)% of ` 30 ` 30 ` 36.
100
110
New bus fare = (100 + 10)% of ` 20 ` 20 ` 22.
100
required ratio = 36 : 22 = 18 : 11.
47. Let the terms of the ratio be x and (x + 40).
x 2
Then, 7x = 2x + 80
x 40 7
5x = 80 x = 16.
required ratio = x : (x + 40) = 16 : 56.
48. Let the required fraction be x. Then,
1 3 5 5 3 1 1 1 9 1
x: :: : x x .
27 11 9 9 11 27 99 99 5 55
49. Let A’s share be ` x. Then, B’s share = ` (x – 4000).
x + (x – 4000) = 16000 2x = 20000 x = 10000.
So, A’s share = ` 10000 and B’s share = ` 6000.
required ratio = 10000 : 6000 = 5 : 3.
50. Let C’s share be ` x. Then,
B’s share = ` (x + 8); A’s share = ` [(x + 8) + 7] = ` (x + 15).
(x + 15) + (x + 8) + x = 53 3x + 23 = 53 3x = 30 x = 10.
So, A’s share = ` 25; B’s share = ` 18 and C’s share = ` 10.
Ratio of their shares = 25 : 18 : 10.
9
51. Initial number of successful candidates 132 108.
11
Initial number of unsuccessful candidates = (132 – 108) = 24.
required ratio = (108 + 4) : (24 – 4) = 112 : 20 = 28 : 5.
198 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3 5 3 5
52. Required ratio : 12 : 12 9 : 10.
4 6 4 6
3 5 3 5
53. Ratio : 2 : 15 : (2 15) : 15 9 : 30 : 25
5 3 5 3
30
share of second workers ` 6400 ` 3000.
64
54. A : B = 3 : 7 = (3 × 6) : (7 × 6) = 18 : 42.
B : C = 6 : 5 = (6 × 7) : (5 × 7) = 42 : 35.
So, A : B : C = 18 : 42 : 35.
42
B’s share ` 33630 ` 14868.
95
55. Remainder = ` [671 + (3 + 7 + 9)] = ` 690.
1
A’s share ` 690 3 ` 112.
6
2
B’s share ` 690 7 ` 223.
6
3
C’s share ` 690 9 ` 336.
6
56. Let the number be 5x and 7x. Then,
5x + 7x = 36 12x = 36 x = 3.
First number = 5x = 5 × 3 = 15.
57. Let the actual distance between the two towns be x cm. Then,
4 1 12000000
x ( 4 3000000) cm = 12000000 cm km 120 km.
x 3000000 100 1000
58. LCM of 17 and 7 = 17 × 7 = 119.
R : S = 7 : 17 = (7 × 7) : (17 × 7) = 49 : 119
S : T = 7 : 17 = (7 × 17) : (17 × 17) = 119 : 289.
R : S : T = 49 : 119 : 289.
Let the incomes of Ram, Shyam and Tarun be 49x, 119x and 289x respectively.
490
Then, 49x = 490 x 10.
49
Tarun’s income = 289x = ` (289 × 10) = ` 2890.
59. Let the man’s expenditure and savings be ` 26x and ` 3x respectively.
Then, his income = ` (26x + 3x) = ` (29x).
7250
29x = 7250 x 250.
29
Hence, monthly savings = 3x = ` (3 × 250) = ` 750.
60. Let the numbers be 17x and 45x.
1 1
Then, of 45 x of 17x = 15.
5 3
17 x 27 x 17 x
9x 15 15
3 3
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 199
45 9
10x = 45 x .
10 2
17 9 153 1
smaller number 17 x 76 .
2 2 2
61. Let A = 12x, B = 15x, C = 25x. Then,
B A 15 x 12 x 3 x
required ratio 3 : 10.
C B 25 x 15 x 10 x
62. Let the incomes of the two persons be ` 5x and ` 3x.
Then, their savings are ` (5x – 2600) and ` (3x – 1800) respectively.
5 x 2600 9
5 (5x – 2600) = 9 (3x – 1800)
3 x 1800 5
25x – 13000 = 27x – 16200
2x = 3200 x = 1600.
So, the income of the two persons are ` (5 × 1600) and ` (3 × 1600), i.e., ` 8000 and ` 4800.
63. Let the number of students in each section be x. Then,
7x
number of boys in section A 0.58 x ;
12
5x
number of boys in section B 0.625 x ;
8
3x
number of boys in section C 0.6 x ;
5
2x
number of boys in section D 0.66 x.
3
Clearly, maximum number of boys are enrolled in section D.
64. Let the number to be added be x. Then,
6 x 14 x
(6 + x) (22 + x) = (14 + x) (10 + x)
10 x 22 x
132 28 x x 2 140 24 x x 2 4x = 8 x = 2.
65. Let the number to be subtracted be x. Then,
7 x 11 x
(7 – x) (15 – x) = (11 – x) (9 – x)
9 x 15 x
105 22 x x 2 99 20 x x 2 2x = 6 x = 3.
66. Let the number to be added be x. Then,
3x 5
6 (3 + x) = 5 (5 + x)
5x 6
18 + 6x = 25 + 5x 6x – 5x = 25 – 18 x = 7.
67. Let the numbers be 5x and 3x. Then,
5 x 10 5
7(5x – 10) = 5(3x – 10)
3 x 10 7
35x – 70 = 15x – 50 20x = 20 x = 1.
So, the numbers are 5 and 3.
required sum = 5 + 3 = 8.
200 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
69. Let the number of ladies be 3x and the number of gents be 2x. Then,
3x 2
9x = 4x + 40 5x = 40 x = 8.
2 x 20 3
Hence, number of ladies at the party = 3x = 3 × 8 = 24.
71. Let the number of boys be 3x and the number of girls be 2x.
Then, total number of students = 3x + 2x = 5x.
Number of students who are not scholarship holder
= (100 – 20)% of 3x + (100 – 25)% of 2x
80 75 12 x 3 x
3x 2x
100 100 5 2
24 x 15 x 39 x .
10 10
39 x 1
required percentage 100 % 78%.
10 5 x
72. Let the present ages of the three persons be (4x) years, (7x) years and (9x) years
respectively. Then,
( 4 x 8) (7 x 8) (9 x 8) 56
20x – 24 = 56 20x = 56 + 24 = 80 x = 4.
present age of eldest person = (9 × 4) years = 36 years.
73. Let the age of the man and his son be (7x) years and (3x) years respectively. Then,
756
7x × 3x = 756 21x 2 756 x 2 36 x 36 6.
21
7 x 6 7 6 6 48 2
ratio of their ages after 6 years 2 : 1.
3 x 6 3 6 6 24 1
74. Let the required number of years be x. Then,
40 x 3
5 ( 40 x ) 3 (60 x )
60 x 5
200 5 x 180 3 x 2 x 20 x = 10.
75. Let the present ages of the mother and daughter be (7x) years and x years respectively.
7 x 4 19
Then, 7x – 4 = 19x – 76
x4 1
12x = 72 x = 6.
mother’s age after 4 years = 7x + 4 = (7 × 6 + 4) years = 46 years.
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 201
76. Let the present ages of Ananya and Tanya be (8x) years and (7x) years respectively.
8 x 10 13
Then, 12 (8x + 10) = 13 (7x + 10)
7 x 10 12
96x + 120 = 91x + 130 5x = 10 x = 2.
difference between ages = 8x – 7x = x = 2 years.
77. N : C = 4 : 5 C : N = 5 : 4 = (5 × 5) : (4 × 5) = 25 : 20.
N : R = 5 : 6 = (5 × 4) : (6 × 4) = 20 : 24.
C : N : R = 25 : 20 : 24.
Let the ages of Chetan, Naman and Rohan be (25x) years, (20x) years and (24x) years
respectively.
Then, 25x + 20x + 24x = 69 69x = 69 x = 1.
Chetan’s age = (25 × 1) years = 25 years.
78. Let Kamals and Sachin’s ages 6 years ago, (6x) years and (5x) years respectively. Then,
their ages 4 years hence will be (6x + 10) years or (5x + 10) years respectively.
6 x 10 11
10 (6x + 10) = 11 (5x + 10)
5 x 10 10
60x + 100 = 55x + 110
5x = 10 x = 2.
Sachin’s present age = 5x + 6 = (5 × 2 + 6) years = 16 years.
79. Suppose A has ` x and B has ` y. Then,
CASE I When B gives ` 7 to A
Now, money with A = ` (x + 7),
money with B = ` (y – 7).
x + 7 = y – 7 y = x + 14.
So, A has ` x and B has ` (x + 14).
CASE II When A gives ` 16 to B
Now, money with A = ` (x – 16),
money with B = ` (x + 14 + 16) = ` (x + 30).
x 16 5
7(x – 16) = 5(x + 30)
x 30 7
7x – 112 = 5x + 150
2x = 262 x = 131.
80. Ratio of shares of rent = ratio of number of hours for which DVDs were used.
= 8 : 12 : 14 = 4 : 6 : 7.
Sum of ratio terms = 4 + 6 + 7 = 17.
7
Kiara’s share of rent ` 578 ` 238.
17
81. Ratio of profits = ratio of capitals = 45000 : 70000 : 90000 = 9 : 14 : 18.
Sum of ratio terms = 9 + 14 + 18 = 41.
14
Q’s share ` 164000 ` 56000.
41
202 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
82. Clearly, Shankar invested ` 120000 for 12 months and Aniket invested ` 190000 for
9 months.
Ratio of profits = ratio of capitals
= (120000 × 12) : (190000 × 9)
= 144 : 171 = 16 : 19.
19
Aniket’s share ` 175000 ` 95000.
35
83. Ratio of profits = ratio of capitals
= 2700 : 8100 : 7200 = 3 : 9 : 8.
Let the total profit be ` x. Then,
9 3600 20
x 3600 x 8000.
20 9
84. Clearly, A invested ` 20000 for 24 months; B invested ` 15000 for 24 months and C
invested ` 20000 for 18 months.
Ratio of profits of A, B and C = ratio of their capitals
= (20000 × 24) : (15000 × 24) : (20000 × 18)
= 480000 : 360000 : 360000 = 4 : 3 : 3.
3
B’s share ` 25000 ` 7500.
10
85. Clearly, Arun invested ` 8000 for 6 months, Bimal invested ` 4000 for 8 months and
Chetan invested ` 8000 for 8 months.
ratio of profits = ratio of capitals
= (8000 × 6) : (4000 × 8) : (8000 × 8)
= 48000 : 32000 : 64000 = 3 : 2 : 4.
2
Hence, Bimal’s share ` 4005 ` 890.
9
86. Let the actual distance between the points be x km. Then,
0.6 : 80.5 : : 6.6 : x 0.6x = 80.5 × 6.6
80.5 6.6
x km (80.5 11) km 885.5 km.
0.6
87. Let the height of the building be x metres. Then,
17.5 : 40.25 : : x : 28.75
17.5 28.75
40.25x = 17.5 × 28.75 x
40.25
17.5 2875
x 12.5 m.
4025
88. Let the height of the minar be x metres. Then,
36 : 24 : : (x + 3) : 50
24 (x + 3) = 36 ×50 = 1800
24x + 72 = 1800 24x = 1728
1728
x 72.
24
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 203
EXERCISE 10B
Direction (Questions 1 to 21): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given
statement true.
1. The ratio of 5 kg to 60 g is …… .
2. The ratio of consonants to vowels in the English alphabet is …… .
204 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. 250 : 3 2. 21 : 5 3. 2 : 3 4. 63 5. 5 : 12
1
6. 37 % 7. 9 : 4 8. 17 : 21 9. 1 : 1 10. 2 : 3
2
11. 25 12. 30 13. 48 14. (i) 1 : 3 (ii) 4 : 3
1
15. 0.0000009 mm 16. 4 17. 18. 2 : 3, 4 : 9
6
19. 252 20. 49 21. 32 days 22. True 23. False
24. False 25. True 26. True 27. True 28. True
29. False 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. False
3. Required ratio = (2 + 2) : (4 + 2) = 4 : 6 = 2 : 3.
4. Let the required quantity be x.
Then, 49 : x : : x : 81 x 2 49 81
x 49 81 7 9 63.
45 45 9
5. 45 : 108 [ HCF of 45 and 108 = 9]
108 108 9
5
5 : 12.
12
3 3 75 1
6. 3 : 8 100 % % 37 %.
8 8 2 2
225 9
7. 225% 9 : 4.
100 4
8. Let the present ages of A and B be 3x and 4x years respectively.
Then, 4x = 16 x = 4.
3 x 5 3 4 5 17
ratio of their ages after 5 years 17 : 21.
4 x 5 4 4 5 21
9. Required ratio = (1 + 2 + 3) : (1 × 2 × 3) = 6 : 6 = 1 : 1.
10. Third side = [15.4 – (4.2 + 4.9)] cm = (15.4 – 9.1) cm = 6.3 cm.
required ratio = 4.2 : 6.3 = 42 : 63 = 2 : 3.
11. Let the third proportional to 9 and 15 be x.
15 15
Then, 9 : 15 : : 15 : x 9x = 15 × 15 x 25.
9
12. Let the required mean proportional be x.
Then, 25 : x : : x : 36 x 2 25 36 x 25 36 5 6 30.
13. Let the fourth proportional to 4, 12 and 16 be x.
12 16
Then, 4 : 12 : : 16 : x 4x = 12 × 16 x 48.
4
14. Let Tanya’s income = ` 4x and her savings = ` x.
Then, her expenditure = ` (4x – x) = ` 3x.
(i) Ratio of savings to expenditure = x : 3x = 1 : 3.
(ii) Ratio of income to expenditure = 4x : 3x = 4 : 3.
15. Let the length of actual chain be x mm. Then,
2 : 18 : : 0.0000001 : x
2 x 18 0.0000001
18 0.0000001
x mm 0.0000009 mm.
2
58
16. x : 5 : : 8 : 10 10x = 5 × 8 x 4.
10
1 1
17. Let the mean proportional between and be x.
3 12
1 1 1 1 1 1 1.
Then, : x :: x : x2 x
3 12 3 12 36 36 6
Ratio, Proportion and Unitary Method 207
2 4
29. and are equivalent although their terms are different. Thus, two ratios are
3 6
equivalent if and only if their corresponding terms are proportional.
10
30. B’s share ` 1100 `1000.
11
1 1 7 11 7 11
32. 3 : 5 : 2 : 2 7 : 11.
2 2 2 2 2 2
33. Let the angles of the triangle be (4x)°, (5x)° and (6x)°.
Then, 4x + 5x + 6x = 180 15x = 180 x = 12.
required difference = 6x – 4x = 2x = (2 × 12)° = 24°.
11 Percentage
x
1. x% = x hundredths .
100
2. In order to convert a fraction or decimal into percentage, we multiply it
by 100.
1 1 25 1
Thus, 100 % % 12 %.
8 8 2 2
0.05 (0.05 100)% 5%.
3. A whole is considered as 100%.
Thus, in a school if 60% of the students are boys then (100 – 60)%,
i.e., 40% are girls. In a test if 45% of the examinees have failed then
(100 – 45)%, i.e., 55% of the examinees have passed.
4. A proper fraction when expressed as percentage is less than 10%.
An improper fraction when expressed as percentage is equal to or
greater than 100%.
5. x% of y = a% of b, if xy = ab.
Thus, 40% of 100 = 20% of 200 = 80% of 50
as 40 100 20 200 80 50.
6. m% of x n% of x (m n)% of x.
Thus, 5% of x 10% of x 15% of x.
50% of x 20% of x 30% of x.
7. (i) If a certain value m increases by p% then increased value of
m (100 p)% of m.
(ii) If a certain value m decreases by p% then decreased value of
m (100 p)% of m.
8. (i) If a quantity is increased by 100%, it gets doubled.
(ii) If a quantity is decreased by 50%, it gets halved.
(iii) A quantity may be increased by any percentage but it cannot be
decreased beyond 100%, because a quantity when decreased by
100% reduces to zero.
208
Percentage 209
EXERCISE 11A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. What percentage of the given
figure is shaded?
(a) 38%
(b) 40%
(c) 42%
(c) 45%
4
4. If the numbers , 81% and 0.801 are arranged in ascending order, the
5
correct order is
4 4
(a) , 0.801, 81% (b) 0.801, , 81%
5 5
4 4
(c) 81%, 0.801, (d) , 81%, 0.801
5 5
210 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
26. Anvi earns ` 50000 per month and spends 80% of it. Due to pay revision,
her monthly income increases by 20% but due to price rise she has to
spend 20% more. Her new savings is
(a) ` 10500 (b) ` 12000 (c) ` 12500 (d) ` 14000
27. When a number is reduced by 4, it becomes 80% of itself. The number is
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40 (d) 50
28. 1100 girls and 700 boys are examined in a test. 42% of the girls and 30%
of the boys failed. The percentage of the total number of students who
passed is
2 4
(a) 58% (b) 60% (c) 62 % (d) 68 %
3 7
29. Ashima spent 45% of her salary on buying a mobile phone. If she had
` 19800 left after buying the phone, her salary was
(a) ` 33000 (b) ` 28400 (c) ` 32800 (d) ` 36000
30. Rohan buys goods worth ` 6650. He gets a rebate of 6% on it. After
getting the rebate, he pays 10% GST. Find the amount he will have to
pay for the goods.
(a) ` 6654 (b) ` 6876.10 (c) ` 6999.20 (d) ` 7000
31. Abhay bought a TV set worth ` 10000. He was supposed to get a discount
of 10% and then charged 8.5% GST. But the office clerk by mistake first
added GST and then took 10% off the total price. Due to this, Abhay
(a) didn’t pay anything extra (b) paid ` 550 extra
(c) paid ` 85 extra (d) paid ` 850 extra
32. It costs ` 1 to photocopy a sheet of paper. However, 2% discount is
allowed on all photocopies done after first 1000 sheets. How much will
it cost to copy 5000 sheets of paper?
(a) ` 3920 (b) ` 3980 (c) ` 4900 (d) ` 4920
33. 40% of 60% of 32% of an amount is ` 432. The amount is
(a) ` 5000 (b) ` 5600 (c) ` 6400 (d) none of these
34. 42% of a number is 892.5. Then, 78% of that number is
(a) 1636.5 (b) 1657.5 (c) 1697.5 (d) 1715.5
2
35. If 40% of 4.5 + x% of 20% of 10 then value of x is
3
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
36. In an examination, 65% of the total examinees passed. If the number of
failures is 420, the total number of examinees is
(a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 1625
Percentage 213
37. 20% of the students were absent in an examination. 15% of those who
appeared, failed. If 340 students passed, what was the total number of
students?
(a) 400 (b) 450 (c) 500 (d) 550
38. The difference between 54% of a number and 26% of the same number
is 22526. What is 66% of that number?
(a) 48372 (b) 49124 (c) 51218 (d) 53097
39. What is the total number of candidates who appeared in an examination,
if 31% have failed and the number of passed candidates is 247 more
than the number of failed candidates?
(a) 650 (b) 750 (c) 800 (d) 900
40. Aditya has just finished reading 204 pages of a storybook. He plans to
finish reading the rest of the book in the next 7 days by reading the
same number of pages each day. If he reads 35% of the book in the next
5 days, how many pages does the book have?
(a) 300 (b) 400 (c) 500 (d) 600
41. In an examination, X secures 58% marks and Y secures 105 marks less
than X. If the maximum marks were 700 then what per cent of marks did
Y secure?
(a) 42% (b) 43% (c) 52% (d) None of these
42. In an examination, it is required to get 36% of the aggregate marks to
pass. A student gets 198 marks and is declared failed by 36 marks. What
is the maximum aggregate marks a student can get?
(a) 480 (b) 550
(c) 650 (d) Cannot be determined
43. In a test, minimum passing percentage of marks is 36% for girls and 40%
for boys. A boy scored 483 marks and failed by 17 marks. What is the
minimum passing marks for girls?
(a) 425 (b) 450 (c) 500 (d) 525
44. A sum of money is shared among three persons A, B and C in the ratio
1 : 2 : 5. What percentage of the total money does B get?
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 40%
45. The price for a pair of cufflinks is ` 100. The price for a 5-pair pack of
cufflinks is ` 340. The 5-pair pack is what per cent cheaper per pair than
5 pairs purchased separately?
(a) 32% (b) 47% (c) 62% (d) 63%
46. In a certain test, Atul answered 18 out of 25 questions correctly. How
many per cent more correct answers than wrong answers did he get?
(a) 11% (b) 44% (c) 157% (d) 280%
214 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
78. While purchasing one item costing ` 400, I had to pay the GST at 7% and
on another costing ` 6400, the GST was 9%. What per cent GST I had to
pay, taking the two items together on an average?
13 15 1
(a) 8% (b) 8 % (c) 8 % (d) 8 %
17 17 2
79. A student secures 90%, 60% and 54% marks in test papers with 100,
150 and 200 respectively as maximum marks. The percentage of his
aggregate is
(a) 64 (b) 68 (c) 70 (d) none of these
80. A and B are two fixed points 5 cm apart and C is a point on AB such that
AC is 3 cm. If the length of AC is increased by 6%, the length of CB is
decreased by
(a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 9%
81. A shopkeeper has a certain number of eggs of which 5% are found to be
broken. He sells 93% of the remainder and still has 266 eggs left. How
many eggs did he originally have?
(a) 3800 (b) 4000 (c) 4200 (d) None of these
82. The contents of a certain box consist of 14 apples and 23 oranges. How
many oranges must be removed from the box so that 70% of the pieces
of fruit in the box will be apples?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 17 (d) 36
83. Gaurav spends 30% of his monthly income on food articles, 40% of the
remaining on conveyance and clothes and saves 50% of the remaining.
If his monthly salary is ` 18400, how much money does he save every
month?
(a) ` 3624 (b) ` 3864 (c) ` 4264 (d) ` 5888
84. In a test consisting of 250 questions, Alok answered 40% of the first
125 questions correctly. What per cent of the other 125 questions does
he need to answer correctly for his grade on the entire examination to
be 60%?
(a) 60 (b) 75 (c) 80 (d) None of these
85. A city has a population of 3,00,000 out of which 1,80,000 are males. 50%
of the population is literate. If 70% of the males are literate then the
percentage of females who are literate is
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 35% (d) 45%
86. If the price of a book is first decreased by 25% and then increased by
20% then the net change in the price will be
(a) no change (b) 5% increase
(c) 5% decrease (d) 10% decrease
218 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
87. The price of a telephone was first increased by 10% and then the new
price was decreased by 25%. The final price was what per cent of the
initial price?
(a) 78% (b) 80% (c) 82.5% (d) 85%
88. The price of an article was first increased by 10% and then again by 20%.
If the last increased price be ` 33, the original price was
(a) ` 25 (b) ` 26.50 (c) ` 27.50 (d) ` 30
89. If the price of a commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption
is increased by 20%, what will be the increase or decrease in the
expenditure on the commodity?
(a) 4% increase (b) 4% decrease
(c) 8% increase (d) 8% decrease
90. A number x exceeds y by 25%. y is less than x by
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 50%
91. If Anand’s income is 10% less than Rohan’s income then Rohan’s income
is more than Anand’s income by
1 1
(a) 9 % (b) 10% (c) 11 % (d) 12%
11 9
92. The price of petrol went up by 25%. In order that the expense on petrol
does not increase, one must reduce its consumption by
(a) 15% (b) 18% (c) 20% (d) 25%
93. The population of a town is 8500. It increases by 20% in the first year
and by another 25% in the second year. What would be the population
of the town after 2 years?
(a) 10950 (b) 11950 (c) 12550 (d) 12750
94. A machine was purchased for ` 80000. Its value depreciates every year
by 20%. The value of the machine at the end of 2 years is
(a) ` 51200 (b) ` 51600 (c) ` 52100 (d) ` 52400
95. Abha deposited 20% of her money in a bank. After spending 20% of
the remainder, she has ` 4800 left with her. How much money did she
originally have?
(a) ` 7200 (b) ` 7500 (c) ` 7800 (d) ` 8000
96. The population of a village is 8000. Out of these, 80% are literate and of
these literate people 40% are women. The ratio of the number of literate
women to the total population is
(a) 4 : 9 (b) 6 : 25 (c) 2 : 9 (d) 8 : 25
Percentage 219
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (d)
2 20 20 1 1
6 % % 1 : 15.
3 3 3 100 15
1.2 (1.2 100)% 120%.
0.05
0.05% 0.0005.
100
1 25 25 1
9. 12 % of 20 quintals % of (20 100) kg 2000 kg 250 kg.
2 2 2 100
10. Required number of marks = (90% of 600 ) – (70% of 600)
(90 70)% of 600
20
= 20% of 600 600 120.
100
11. Quantity of sugar = 200 g.
Total quantity of pudding (200 800 600 200) g 1800 g.
200 1
percentage of sugar 100 % 11 %.
1800 9
12. Total number of small squares = 40.
1 25 1
Required number of shaded squares 12 % of 40 40 5.
2 2 100
1 1 1 0.01
13. of 1% of 0.005.
2 2 100 2
14. 140% of 56 + 56% of 140
140 56 7840 7840
56 140
100 100 100 100
78.4 78.4 156.8.
33 75 1
15. Required percentage 100 % % 37 %.
88 2 2
p 100 10
16. Required percentage 100 % % 200%.
0.5 p 5
1
17. Least fraction .
5
9
Greatest fraction .
5
1 5 100 1
required percentage 100 % % 11 %.
5 9 9 9
3
18. Required percentage 2 100 % 150%.
4
19. Let 40% of 1640 x 35% of 980 150% of 850.
40 35 150
Then, 1640 x 980 850
100 100 100
656 x 343 1275
x 1618 656 962.
20. We know that numbers having 1 or 9 in the unit’s place have squares ending in 1.
So, numbers from 1 to 70 having squares that end in the digit 1 are 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29,
31, 39, 41, 49, 51, 59, 61, 69. Clearly, there are 14 such numbers.
Percentage 221
85 1
Amount paid as GST = 8.5% of ` 9000 ` 9000 ` 765.
10 100
total amount payable = ` (9000 + 765) = ` 9765.
CASE II Worth of TV set = ` 10000.
85 1
Amount paid as GST = 8.5% of ` 10000 ` 10000 ` 850.
10 100
Amount with GST = ` (10000 + 850) = ` 10850.
10
Discount = 10% of ` 10850 ` 10850 ` 1085.
100
final amount payable = ` (10850 – 1085) = ` 9765.
32. Clearly, the person will pay ` 1000 for the first 1000 sheets and get 2% discount on the
remaining ` 4000 (for next 4000 sheets).
2
Discount = 2% of ` 4000 ` 4000 ` 80.
100
total cost = ` (5000 – 80) = ` 4920.
33. Let the amount be ` x.
Then, 40% of 60% of 32% of ` x = ` 432.
40 60 32
x 432
100 100 100
432 100 100 100
x 5625.
40 60 32
Percentage 223
3%
49. Required percentage 100 %
5%
3 100
100 % 60%.
100 5
50. Let David’s annual income be ` x and his wife’s annual income be ` y.
100
Then, 8% of x 800 x 800 10000.
8
100
And, 8% of y 840 x 840 10500.
8
required difference = ` (10500 – 10000) = ` 500.
25 50 100
25% of 50% of 100% 1 1
51. 100 100 100
25 of 100 50% of 100 2500 50 8 2500 50 1000000
100
100
1 1
100 % % 0.0001%.
1000000 10000
4 4
52. of 70 70 56.
5 5
5 5
of 112 112 80.
7 7
Difference (80 56) 24.
24
required percentage 100 % 30%.
80
53. Let Sohan’s salary be ` x.
Then, amount decided by Sohan for donation
5 x
= 5% of ` x ` x ` .
100 20
x 75 x 3x
Amount actually donated by Sohan = 75% of ` ` ` .
20 100 20 80
3x 1687.50 80
1687.50 x 45000.
80 3
54. Since xy yx , so x% of y = y% of x.
20 b
55. 20% of b = a a b .
100 5
b b 1 b
a% of 20 % of 20 20
5 5 100 25
1 1
of b 100 % of b
25 25
= 4% of b.
80 4y
56. x 80% of y y .
100 5
y 5
required percentage 100 % y 100 %
2x 8y
125 1
% 62 %.
2 2
226 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
57. x 6% of x 100% of x 6% of x.
(100 6)% of x 94% of x
94
x 0.94 x.
100
58. x% of x = 10% of ?
x 10 x 2 100 x 2
x ? ? .
100 100 100 10 10
x bx
59. a b x% of b b b b .
100 100
20 30
60. 20% of x 30% of y x y
100 100
x 3
2 x 3 y
y 2
x : y = 3 : 2.
61. Let C’s income be ` 100.
Then, B’s income = ` (100 – 20% of 100) = ` (100 – 20) = ` 80.
A’s income = ` (80 + 10% of 80) = ` (80 + 8) = ` 88.
A : B : C = 88 : 80 : 100 = 22 : 20 : 25.
62. Let the total number of trees in the orchard be x.
2 50 1
Then, 16 % of x 240 x 240
3 3 100
3
x 240 100 1440.
50
number of other trees in the orchard = 1440 – 240 = 1200.
63. (a) When ratio of income to savings is 4 : 1
Let income = ` (4x) and savings = ` x.
x
Then, percentage of money saved 100 % 25%.
4x
(b) When ratio of expenditure to savings is 4 : 1
Let expenditure = ` (4x) and savings = ` x.
Then, income ` ( 4 x x ) ` (5 x ).
x
percentage of money saved 100 % 20%.
5x
(c) When ratio of income to expenditure is 4 : 1
Let income = ` (4x) and expenditure = ` x.
Then, savings ` ( 4 x x ) ` (3 x ).
3x
percentage of money saved 100 % 75%.
4x
64. 3 (2 x 1) 25% of x 97
25 x
6x 3 x 97 6 x 100
100 4
24 x x 400
100 25x = 400 x 16.
4 25
Percentage 227
20
65. Number of sweets that each student got = 20% of 65 65 13.
100
40
Number of sweets that each teacher got = 40% of 65 65 26.
100
total number of sweets 65 13 4 26 845 104 949.
66. Let the monthly salary be ` x.
2 8 1
Then, 2 % of x 72 x 72
3 3 100
72 3 100
x 2700.
8
67. Let the number be x.
1 1
Then, 100 37 % of x = 33 137 % of x = 33
2 2
275 1
x 33
2 100
33 2 100
x 24.
275
68. Let the number be x.
75 225 100
Then, (100 25)% of x 225 x 225 x 300.
100 75
Required increase = 390 – 300 = 90.
90
increase % 100 % 30%.
300
240000
69. Anubhav’s monthly income ` ` 20000.
12
Let Reena’s yearly income be ` x.
Then, 25% of x = 75% of 20000
25 75
x 20000 15000
100 100
100
x 15000 60000.
25
60000
Reena’s monthly income ` ` 5000.
12
70. Let Raman’s expense be ` x.
90 9x
Then, Vimal’s expense (100 10)% of ` x ` x ` .
100 10
9x 130 9 x 117 x .
Aman’s expense = (100 + 30)% of ` ` `
10 100 10 100
9 x 117 x 100 x 90 x 117 x 307 x .
x
10 100 100 100
307 x 6447 100
6447 x 2100.
100 307
117 2100
Hence, Aman’s expense ` ` 2457.
100
228 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
80
Literate population = 80% of 8000 8000 6400.
100
40
Number of literate women = 40% of 6400 6400 2560.
100
required ratio = 2560 : 8000 = 8 : 25.
EXERCISE 11B
Direction (Questions 1 to 20): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. 6.25% expressed as a decimal is equal to …… .
2. Tanya has 16 red bangles, 12 blue bangles, 8 green bangles and 20 yellow
bangles in her collection. The percentage of red bangles in her collection
is …… .
3. 25 mL is …… % of 5 litres.
4. If 33% of the population of a town are females then …… % of the
population are males.
5. A sample of fruit contains 84% water. Then, …… % of the fruit contains
pulp.
6. If 45% of the population of a town are men, 40% are women then the
percentage of children is …… .
Percentage 233
32. A girl who obtains 96 marks out of 200 gets 48% marks. ……
33. If a quantity increases by 100%, it becomes twice of its original value.
……
34. When an improper fraction is converted into percentage then the answer
may be less than, equal to or greater than 100. ……
35. We can increase or decrease a quantity by 150%. ……
36. a% of p + b% of p ( a b)% of p. ……
37. a% of b b% of a. ……
38. 20% of 56 = 40% of 28 = 10% of 112. ……
39. If 50% of x 80% of y then x : y = 5 : 8. ……
40. 1% of 100 100% of 1 0. ……
4
1. 0.0625 2. 28 % 3. 0.5% 4. 67%
7
5. 16% 6. 15% 7. 98% 8. (100 + a)
9. (100 – x) 10. 250% 11. 60% 12. 400
1
13. 25 14. 33 % 15. 400% 16. 400%
3
17. 155 18. 2.5% 19. 28% 20. 21%
21. True 22. True 23. False 24. True
25. True 26. False 27. True 28. False
29. False 30. False 31. False 32. True
33. True 34. False 35. False 36. True
37. True 38. True 39. False 40. True
b b 1
required percentage 100 % 100 % 33 %.
a 3b 3
15. x 5 y.
Difference x y 5 y y 4 y.
4y
required percentage 100 % 400%.
y
16. p 4q.
p 4q
required percentage 100 % 100 % 400%.
q q
17. Let the number be x.
80
Then, x 80% of x 279 x x 279
100
4x
x 279
5
9x 5
279 x 279 155.
5 9
70
18. Percentage of cash discount 100 % 2.5%.
2800
19. 84% of x 56% of x (84 56)% of x = 28% of x.
20. Let the original quantity be 100.
110
Then, value after 10% increase (100 10)% of 100 100 110.
100
110
Final value after second 10% increase (100 10)% of 110 110 121.
100
Overall increase in value (121 100) 21.
236 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
21
Overall increase % 100 % 21%.
100
2 2 200 2
21. 100 % % 66 %.
3 3 3 3
22. 0.08 (0.08 100)% 8%.
23. 0.018 (0.018 100)% 1.8%.
120
24. 120% of 10 10 12.
100
150
25. 50% more than 120 = (100 + 50)% of 120 120 180.
100
1 100 1 500 2.
26. 33 % of 500 500 166
3 3 100 3 3
375 375 1 3 .
27. 0.375% %
1000 1000 100 800
28. Increase in salary = ` (20000 – 18000) = ` 2000.
2000 100 1
increase % 100 % % 11 %.
18000 9 9
250 1
29. Percentage of 250 cm to 1 km 100 % %.
1000 100 4
30. 4 days ( 4 24) hours = 96 hours.
8 25 1
percentage of 8 hours to 4 days 100 % % 8 %.
96 3 3
100
31. 25% of x 600 x 600 2400 km.
25
96
32. Percentage of marks 100 % 48%.
200
35. We cannot decrease a quantity beyond 100%.
38. 20 56 40 28 10 112.
So, 20% of 56 = 40% of 28 = 10% of 112.
50 80
39. 50% of x = 80% of y x y
100 100
x 4y x 8
x : y = 8 : 5.
2 5 y 5
1 100
40. 1% of 100 100% of 1 100 1 1 1 0.
100 100
12 Profit and Loss
1. COST PRICE (CP) The price at which an article is purchased is called its cost
price.
2. SELLING PRICE (SP) The price at which an article is sold is called its selling
price.
3. OVERHEAD EXPENSES Additional expenses made after buying an article
are called overhead expenses. These may include charges on repair,
transportation, etc. Overhead expenses are added to CP.
4. PROFIT OR GAIN If SP > CP then the seller has a profit/gain given by:
Gain = SP – CP.
5. LOSS If SP < CP then the seller incurs a loss given by:
Loss = CP – SP.
6. Loss or gain is always reckoned on the cost price.
Gain
gain % 100 %
CP
Loss
and loss% 100 %.
CP
7. If the profit/gain per cent is x% then
100 x
SP (100 x )% of CP CP.
100
If the loss per cent is y% then
100 y
SP (100 y )% of CP CP.
100
Thus, (i) if an article is sold at a gain of 20% then SP = 120% of CP;
(ii) if an article is sold at a loss of 20% then SP = 80% of CP.
100
8. CP SP.
(100 gain%)
100
CP SP.
(100 loss%)
237
238 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 12A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Select the incorrect match.
SP (in ` ) CP (in ` ) Profit/Loss %
(a) 1526 1400 9% gain
(b) 6786 7812 13% loss
(c) 96 80 20% gain
1
(d) 7000 8000 12 % loss
2
2. A man buys an article for ` 27.50 and sells it for ` 28.60. His gain
per cent is
(a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 12%
3. A vendor purchased 70 kg of potatoes for ` 420 and sold the whole lot at
the rate of ` 6.50 per kg. What will be his gain per cent?
1 1 1
(a) 4 % (b) 6 % (c) 8 % (d) 20%
6 4 3
4. Anant purchased 20 dozen of toys at the rate of ` 375 per dozen. He sold
these toys at the rate of ` 33 per piece. What was his percentage profit?
(a) 3.5% (b) 4.5% (c) 5.6% (d) 6.5%
5. A farmer bought a buffalo for ` 44000 and a cow for ` 18000. He sold
the buffalo at a loss of 5% but made a profit of 10% on the cow. The net
result of the transaction is
(a) loss of ` 200 (b) profit of ` 200
(c) loss of ` 400 (d) profit of ` 400
6. A fruit seller bought 120 apples at ` 4 each. He sold 60% of the apples at
` 5 each and the remaining at ` 3.50 each. His profit or loss per cent is
1 1
(a) 7 % profit (b) 10% profit (c) 7 % loss (d) 10% loss
2 2
7. A trader purchased pens at the rate of ` 42 per dozen. If he earns a profit
2
of 14 %, the selling price of the pens per dozen is
7
(a) ` 45 (b) ` 48 (c) ` 52 (d) ` 54
8. 400 oranges were bought at ` 125 per hundred and were sold at a profit
of ` 100. The SP of the orange per dozen is
(a) ` 12 (b) ` 18 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 24
Profit and Loss 239
9. A trader buys some goods for ` 150. If the overhead expenses be 12% of
cost price then at what price should it be sold to earn 10%?
(a) ` 184.80 (b) ` 185.80 (c) ` 187.80 (d) ` 188.80
10. If an article is sold at 20% profit then the ratio of its cost price to its
selling price is
(a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 4 (c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 6
11. If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be 10 : 11, the
percentage of profit is
1 1
(a) 9 % (b) 10% (c) 11% (d) 11 %
11 9
1
12. A trader sells an article and loses 12 %. The ratio of cost price to the
2
selling price is
(a) 7 : 8 (b) 8 : 7 (c) 8 : 9 (d) 9 : 8
13. A person buys an article for ` p and sells it for ` q thereby gaining r%.
The selling price in terms of cost price may be written as
pr r (100 p)
(a) q (b) q
100 100
p (100 r ) p (100 r )
(c) q (d) q
100 100
14. Sanjay purchased 150 stools and 250 chairs @ ` 450 and ` 550 respectively.
What should be the overall average selling price of stools and chairs so
that 36% profit is earned?
(a) ` 663 (b) ` 697 (c) ` 612 (d) ` 748
15. A man purchased 10 dozen pens at the rate of ` 40 per dozen. On
checking, he found that 20 pens were not working. In order to earn 25%
profit, he should sell the remaining pens each at
(a) ` 4 (b) ` 4.40 (c) ` 5 (d) ` 5.50
16. Abhinav purchased 120 reams of paper at ` 80 per ream. He spent ` 280
on transportation, paid duty at the rate of 40 paise per ream and paid
` 72 to the coolie. If he wants to have a gain of 8%, what must be the
selling price per ream?
(a) ` 86 (b) ` 87.48 (c) ` 89 (d) ` 90
17. A person bought 20 litres of milk at the rate of ` 8 per litre. He got it
churned after spending ` 10 and 5 kg of cream and 20 litres of toned
milk were obtained. If he sold the cream at ` 30 per kg and toned milk at
` 4 per litre, his profit in the transaction is
(a) 25% (b) 35.3% (c) 37.5% (d) 42.5%
240 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
18. Jacob bought a scooter for a certain sum of money. He spent 10% of the
cost on repairs and sold the scooter for a profit of ` 1100. How much did
he spend on repairs if he made a profit of 20%?
(a) ` 400 (b) ` 440 (c) ` 500 (d) ` 550
19. By selling a bicycle for ` 3480, a person loses 25%. The CP of the bicycle is
(a) ` 4200 (b) ` 4320 (c) ` 4500 (d) ` 4640
20. By selling an article for ` 2850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is
reduced to 8% then the selling price will be
(a) ` 2600 (b) ` 2700 (c) ` 2800 (d) ` 3000
21. By selling a shirt for ` 285, a shopkeeper loses 5%. At what price should
he sell the shirt to gain 15%?
(a) ` 295 (b) ` 300 (c) ` 325 (d) ` 345
22. When a television set is sold for ` 18700, the dealer loses 15%. At what
price must it be sold in order to gain 15%?
(a) ` 21000 (b) ` 22500 (c) ` 25300 (d) ` 25800
23. A property dealer sells a plot of land for ` 6,30,000 and in the bargain
makes a profit of 5%. Had he sold it for ` 5,00,000 then what percentage
of loss or gain he would have made?
1 1 2
(a) 2 % gain (b) 10% loss (c) 12 % loss (d) 16 % loss
4 2 3
24. In a furniture shop, 30 tables were bought at the rate of ` 400 per table.
The shopkeeper sold 18 of them at the rate of ` 600 per table and the
remaining at the rate of ` 500 per table. The gain or loss per cent of the
shopkeeper is
(a) 32.33% loss (b) 28.57% loss (c) 40% gain (d) 44% gain
25. A grocer bought 100 eggs for ` 180. Out of these, 16 eggs were found
to be broken and he sold the remaining eggs at the rate of ` 25.20 per
dozen. His gain or loss per cent is
(a) 2% gain (b) 2% loss (c) 4% loss (d) 5% loss
26. A shopkeeper sells one article for ` 840 at a gain of 20% and another for
` 960 at a loss of 4%. His total gain or loss per cent is
15 15 2
(a) 5 % loss (b) 5 % gain (c) 6 % gain (d) none of these
17 17 3
4
27. If the selling price of an article is of its cost price, the profit in the
3
transaction is
2 1 1 1
(a) 16 % (b) 20 % (c) 25 % (d) 33 %
3 2 2 3
Profit and Loss 241
28. The ratio between the SP and the CP of an article is 7 : 5. What is the ratio
between the profit and the CP of the article?
(a) 2 : 7 (b) 7 : 2 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 5 : 2
29. By selling a pen for ` 15, a man loses one sixteenth of what it costs him.
The CP of the pen is
(a) ` 16 (b) ` 18 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 21
30. 10% loss on selling price is what per cent loss on the cost price?
1 2 1
(a) 9 % (b) 9 % (c) 25% (d) 33 %
11 11 3
1
31. If loss is of SP, the loss percentage is
3
2 1
(a) 16 % (b) 20% (c) 25% (d) 33 %
3 3
32. Abhay buys an article at 20% discount on the list price and sells it at 20%
higher price than the list price. His percentage gain is
2
(a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 66 %
3
33. The profit earned after selling an article for ` 1754 is the same as loss
incurred after selling the article for ` 1492. The CP of the article is
(a) ` 1523 (b) ` 1589 (c) ` 1623 (d) ` 1689
34. The profit earned by selling an article for ` 832 is equal to the loss
incurred when the same article is sold for ` 448. What should be the
selling price for making 50% profit?
(a) ` 920 (b) ` 960 (c) ` 1060 (d) ` 1200
35. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books, the
loss per cent is
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 25
36. If the cost price of 10 articles is equal to the selling price of 7 articles then
the gain or loss per cent is
6 6
(a) 35% loss (b) 42 % loss (c) 42 % gain (d) 51% gain
7 7
37. A man sold 18 cots for ` 16800, gaining thereby the cost price of 3 cots.
The cost price of a cot is
(a) ` 650 (b) ` 700 (c) ` 750 (d) ` 800
38. A shopkeeper bought 20 chairs for ` 12000 and sold them at a profit
equal to the selling price of 4 chairs. The selling price of 1 chair is
(a) ` 700 (b) ` 725 (c) ` 750 (d) ` 775
242 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
39. A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. His
loss per cent is
1
(a) 10% (b) 11% (c) 12 % (d) none of these
2
40. Ramlal bought a bicycle for ` 900 and sold it to Sohan at a profit of 5%
who used it for 2 years and later sold it to Madan at a loss of 20%. How
much did Madan pay for it?
(a) ` 684 (b) ` 1026 (c) ` 1134 (d) ` 756
41. A man bought apples at the rate of 8 for ` 34 and sold them at the rate of
12 for ` 57. How many apples should he sell to earn a net profit of ` 45?
(a) 90 (b) 100 (c) 135 (d) 150
42. Anand makes a profit of ` 110 if he sells a certain number of pencils he
has at the price of ` 2.50 per pencil and incurs a loss of ` 55 if he sells the
same number of pencils for ` 1.75 per pencil. How many pencils does
Anand have?
(a) 200 (b) 220
(c) 240 (d) Cannot be determined
43. Vinay bought 1600 clips at ` 3.75 a dozen. He sold 900 of them at 2 for ` 1
and the remaining at 5 for ` 2. His gain per cent is
(a) 40% (b) 42% (c) 45% (d) 46%
44. Lemons are bought at 5 for ` 10 and sold at 6 for ` 15. The profit
per cent is
(a) 25% (b) 35% (c) 40% (d) 50%
45. A man sold 10 eggs for ` 5 and gained 20%. How many eggs did he buy
for ` 5?
25
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 25 (d)
12
46. A fruit seller buys lemons at 2 for a rupee and sells them at 5 for ` 3. His
profit per cent is
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
47. A man bought pencils at the rate of 6 for ` 4 and sold them at the rate of
4 for ` 6. His gain in the transaction is
(a) 75% (b) 80% (c) 100% (d) 125%
48. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he
sell to gain 20%?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
49. Pens are bought at the rate of 8 for ` 100. To make a profit of 60%, these
must be sold at
(a) 5 for ` 100 (b) 6 for ` 100 (c) 9 for ` 200 (d) none of these
Profit and Loss 243
50. By selling 12 toffees for a rupee, a man loses 20%. How many for a rupee
should he sell to get a gain of 20%?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 15
51. If 5% more is gained by selling an article for ` 350 than by selling it for
` 340, the cost of the article is
(a) ` 50 (b) ` 160 (c) ` 200 (d) ` 225
1
52. An increase of ` 3 in the selling price of an article turns a loss of 7 %
2
1
into a gain of 7 %. The cost price of the article is
2
(a) ` 10 (b) ` 15 (c) ` 20 (d) ` 25
1
53. A shopkeeper sells an article at 12 % loss. If he sells it for ` 92.50 more
2
then he gains 6%. The cost price of the article is
(a) ` 500 (b) ` 510 (c) ` 575 (d) ` 600
1
54. A dealer sold an article at a loss of 2 %. Had he sold it for ` 100 more,
2
1 1
he would have gained 7 %. To gain 12 %, he should sell it for
2 2
(a) ` 850 (b) ` 925 (c) ` 1080 (d) ` 1125
55. Rahul purchased 120 tables at a price of ` 110 per table. He sold 30 tables
at a profit of ` 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of ` 14 per table. The
remaining tables were sold at a loss of ` 7 per table. What is the average
profit per table?
(a) ` 10.04 (b) ` 10.875 (c) ` 12.80 (d) ` 12.875
56. Hemant sold 10 articles for a total profit of ` 460 and 12 articles for a total
profit of ` 144. At what profit per article should he sell the remaining 20
articles so that he gets an average profit of ` 18 per article?
(a) ` 7.40 (b) ` 7.60 (c) ` 7.80 (d) ` 8
1
57. I purchased 120 exercise books at the rate of ` 3 each and sold of them
3
1
at the rate of ` 4 each, of them at the rate of ` 5 each and the rest at the
2
cost price. My profit per cent is
2 4
(a) 44% (b) 44 % (c) 44 % (d) 45%
3 9
244 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 55. (d) 55. (b) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (d)
25
For ` , number of eggs bought = 10.
6
6
For ` 5, number of eggs bought 10 5 12.
25
46. LCM of 2 and 5 = 10.
1
CP of 10 lemons ` 10 ` 5.
2
3
SP of 10 lemons ` 10 ` 6.
5
Profit = ` (6 – 5) = ` 1.
1
profit % 100 % 20%.
5
47. LCM of 6 and 4 = 12.
4
CP of 12 pencils ` 12 ` 8.
6
6
SP of 12 pencils ` 12 ` 18.
4
Gain = ` (18 – 8) = ` 10.
10
gain% 100 % 125%.
8
48. CP of 6 toffees = ` 1.
Profit % = 20%.
120 6
SP of 6 toffees ` ` .
100 5
6
For ` , tofffees sold = 6.
5
6 5
For ` 1, toffees sold 6 6 5.
5 6
49. CP of 8 pens = ` 100. Profit = 60%.
160
SP of 8 pens ` 100 ` 160.
100
For ` 160, pens sold = 8.
8
For ` 100, pens sold 100 5.
160
50. SP of 12 toffees = ` 1. Loss % = 20%.
100 5
CP of 12 toffees ` 1 ` .
80 4
5
Now, CP of 12 toffees ` , gain = 20%.
4
120 5 3
SP of 12 toffees ` ` .
100 4 2
Profit and Loss 253
3
For ` , toffees sold = 12.
2
3 2
For ` 1, toffees sold 12 12 8.
2 3
51. Let the CP of the article be ` x.
Then, 5% of x = 350 – 340 5% of x = 10
10 100
x 200.
5
52. Let the CP of the article be ` x.
1 1
Then, 100 7 % of x 100 7 % of x = 3.
2 2
1 1
107 % of x 92 % of x 3
2 2
1 1
107 92 % of x = 3
2 2
3 100
15% of x = 3 x 20.
15
53. Let the CP of the article be ` x. Then,
1
(100 + 6)% of x 100 12 % of x = 92.50
2
1
106% of x 87 % of x = 92.50
2
1
106 87 % of x = 92.50.
2
1
18 % of x = 92.50
2
37 1 92.50 100 2
x 92.50 x 500.
2 100 37
54. Let CP of the article be ` x.
1 1
Then, 100 7 % of x 100 2 % of x = 100
2 2
1 1
107 % of x 97 % of x = 100
2 2
100 100
10% of x = 100 x 1000.
10
1
Now, CP = ` 1000, gain % 12 %.
2
1
SP 100 12 % of ` 1000.
2
225 1
` 1000 ` 1125.
2 100
55. CP of 120 tables = ` (110 × 120) = ` 13200.
SP of 120 tables = ` (122 × 30 + 124 × 75 + 15 × 103)
= ` (3660 + 9300 + 1545) = ` 14505.
254 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1305
average profit per table ` ` 10.875.
120
56. Total number of articles = 10 + 12 + 20 = 42.
Total desired profit = ` (18 × 42) = ` 756.
Total profit earned on 22 articles = ` (460 + 144) = ` 604.
Profit on remaining 20 articles = ` (756 – 604) = ` 152.
152
profit per article ` ` 7.60.
20
57. Total CP of 120 exercise books = ` (120 × 3) = ` 360.
Total SP of 120 exercise books = ` (40 × 4 + 60 × 5 + 20 × 3) = ` (160 + 300 + 60) = ` 520.
Profit = ` (520 – 360) = ` 160.
160 400 4
profit % 100 % % 44 %.
360 9 9
58. Total CP = ` (9.50 × 30 + 8.50 × 40) = ` (285 + 340) = ` 625.
Total SP = ` (8.90 × 70) = ` 623.
Loss = ` (625 – 623) = ` 2.
59. Total CP = ` (32 × 25 + 36 × 15) = ` (800 + 540) = ` 1340.
Total SP = ` (40.20 × 40) = ` 1608.
Profit = ` (1608 – 1340) = ` 268.
268
profit % 100 % 20%.
1340
60. Total CP of mixture = ` (11.50 × 30 + 14.25 × 20) = ` (345 + 285) = ` 630.
Profit % = 40%.
140
Total SP of mixture ` 630 ` 882.
100
882
SP per kg ` ` 17.64.
50
61. Let 5 kg of first variety be mixed with 4 kg of second variety. Then,
CP of 9 kg of mixture = ` (200 × 5 + 300 × 4) = ` (1000 + 1200) = ` 2200.
SP of 9 kg of mixture = ` (275 × 9) = ` 2475.
Profit = ` (2475 – 2200) = ` 275.
275 25 1
profit % 100 % % 12 %.
2200 2 2
EXERCISE 12B
Direction (Questions 1 to 15): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. If I bought an article for ` 100 and sold it at a gain of ` 30 then my gain
per cent is …… .
2. If I sold an article for ` 100 and lost ` 30 then my loss per cent is …… .
3. A bicycle is purchased for ` 1800 and sold at a profit of 12%. Its selling
price is …… .
256 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
4. A cricket bat was purchased for ` 800 and sold for ` 1600. The profit
per cent is …… .
5. An article is sold at a price which is thrice its cost price. The profit earned
is …… %.
6. Abhay sells a toy for ` 75 and suffers a loss of ` 8. The loss per cent
is …… .
7. Anand bought a mobile phone for ` 12500 and sold it at a profit of 13%.
He sold it for …… .
8. If an article bought for ` 100 is sold at a loss of 5% instead of a gain of 5%
then the shopkeeper gets …… less.
9. Anita lost 20% by selling a washing machine for ` 13500. She had bought
the machine for …… .
10. If books bought at prices ranging from ` 300 to ` 450 are sold at prices
ranging from ` 400 to ` 525, the greatest possible profit that might be
made in selling 8 books is …… .
11. An article is sold for a price which is one third of its cost price. The loss
incurred is …… %.
1
12. If a man gains of the cost price of an article, his gain per cent is …… .
6
1
13. If a man gains of the selling price of an article, his gain per cent is …… .
3
14. A shopkeeper purchased 24 books at the rate of ` 450 each. If he sold 16
of them at the rate of ` 600 per book and the rest at the rate of ` 400 per
book, his gain or loss per cent is …… .
15. Rohan purchased a machine for ` 80000 and spent ` 5000 on repairs and
` 1000 on transport. On selling it for ` 107500, he earns a profit of ……
and …… %.
21. By selling a book for ` 50, a shopkeeper suffers a loss of 10%. The cost
price of the book is ` 60. ……
22. If a bicycle was sold for ` 650 and bought for ` 585 then the percentage of
profit is 10. ……
23. Overhead expenses are added to the cost price of the article. ……
24. Profit or loss is always reckoned on the selling price. ……
25. A man sells two articles for ` 100 each. On one he gains 10% and on the
other he loses 10%. Thus, he neither gains nor loses in the deal. ……
26. A man buys two articles for ` 1225 each. On one he gains 18% and on the
other he loses 18%. Thus, he neither gains nor loses in the deal. ……
27. The list price of an article is ` 100. A dealer buys it at 5% less than the list
price and sells it at 5% more than the list price. Then, his gain per cent
is 10%. ……
28. If a vendor buys balloons at 3 for a rupee and sells them at 2 for a rupee
1
then he gains 33 %. ……
3
29. A vendor purchased 720 lemons at ` 120 per hundred. 10% of the
lemons were found rotten which he sold at ` 50 per hundred. If he sells
the remaining lemons at ` 125 per hundred then his profit will be 16%.
……
30. If A buys an article for ` 30 and sells it for ` 45 while B buys it for ` 50 and
sells it for ` 65 then both earn the same percentage of profit. ……
1
1. 30% 2. 23 % 3. ` 2016 4. 100%
13
53
5. 200% 6. 9 % 7. ` 14125 8. ` 10
83
2 2
9. ` 16875 10. ` 1800 11. 66 % 12. 16 %
3 3
14
13. 50% 14. 18 % 15. ` 21500, 25% 16. True
27
17. False 18. False 19. True 20. False
21. False 22. False 23. True 24. False
25. False 26. True 27. False 28. False
29. False 30. False
258 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
x
13. Let SP = ` x. Then, gain = ` .
3
x 2x
CP ` x ` .
3 3
x 3
gain % 100 % 50%.
3 2x
14. Total CP of 24 books = ` (450 × 24) = ` 10800.
Total SP of 24 books = ` (600 × 16 + 400 × 8).
= ` (9600 + 3200) = ` 12800.
Gain = ` (12800 – 10800) = ` 2000.
2000 500 14
gain % 100 % % 18 %.
10800 27 27
15. Total cost of the machine = ` (80000 + 5000 + 1000) = ` 86000.
SP = ` 107500.
Profit = ` (107500 – 86000) = ` 21500.
21500
profit % 100 % 25%.
86000
16. CP = ` 100; loss = ` 30.
30
loss % 100 % 30%.
100
17. SP = ` 100, gain = ` 30.
CP = ` (100 – 30) = ` 70.
30 300 6
gain % 100 % % 42 %.
70 7 7
18. CP = ` 3300, loss = 10%.
90
SP ` 3300 ` 2970.
100
19. Let CP of each pen be ` 1. Then,
CP of 20 pens = ` 20,
SP of 20 pens = CP of 15 pens = ` 15.
Loss = ` (20 – 15) = ` 5.
20. CP = ` 2000, gain% = 10%.
110
SP ` 2000 ` 2200.
100
21. SP = ` 50, loss = 10%.
100 500
CP ` 50 ` ` 55.55.
90 9
22. SP = ` 650, CP = ` 585.
Profit = ` (650 – 585) = ` 65.
65 1
profit % 100 % 11 %.
585 9
260 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
13 Simple Interest
P RT
Then, SI
100
Also, we have
100 SI 100 SI 100 SI
(i) P (ii) R (iii) T
RT P T PR
7. (i) If time is given in months, we convert it into years by using the
formula:
number of months .
Number of years
12
(ii) If time is given in days, we convert it into years by using the formula:
number of days .
Number of years
365
8. In calculating the number of days, we do not count the day on which the
money is deposited but the date of withdrawal is counted.
261
262 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 13A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. The interest on ` 5000 at the rate of 15% per annum for one month is
(a) ` 62.50 (b) ` 75 (c) ` 625 (d) ` 750
2. A farmer borrowed ` 3600 at 15% simple interest per annum. At the end
of 4 years, he cleared this account by paying ` 4000 and a cow. The cost
of the cow is
(a) ` 1000 (b) ` 1200 (c) ` 1550 (d) ` 1760
3. Amit borrows ` 520 from Gagan at a simple interest of 13% per annum.
What amount of money should Amit pay to Gagan after 6 months to
clear the debt?
(a) ` 353.80 (b) ` 453.80 (c) ` 552.80 (d) ` 553.80
4. A shopkeeper borrowed ` 15000 from a bank at 18% p.a. on Jan 8, 2019
and returned the money on June 3, 2019 so as to clear the debt. The
amount that he paid was
(a) ` 16080 (b) ` 16280 (c) ` 16400 (d) none of these
9. The simple interest on ` 10 for 4 months at the rate of 3 paise per rupee
per month is
(a) ` 1.20 (b) ` 1.60 (c) ` 2.40 (d) ` 3.60
3
10. At which sum the simple interest at the rate of 3 % per annum will be
4
1
` 210 in 2 years?
3
(a) ` 1580 (b) ` 2400 (c) ` 2800 (d) None of these
11. The sum of money that amounts to ` 332 in 9 months at the rate of 5%
p.a. is
(a) ` 300 (b) ` 312 (c) ` 315 (d) ` 320
15. How much time will it take for an amount of ` 450 to yield ` 81 as interest
1
at 4 % per annum simple interest?
2
1 1
(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
2 2
1
16. A sum of ` 1600 lent at SI of 12 % per annum will become twice in
2
(a) 8 years (b) 12 years (c) 16 years (d) 20 years
17. A businessman borrowed some money at 1% per month. After some
time, he settled the debt by paying ` 14750. If the total interest was
` 2950, find the time.
(a) 1 year 8 months (b) 2 years 1 month
1
(c) 2 years (d) 3 years
2
264 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
18. Deepak invested an amount of ` 21250 for 6 years. At what rate of simple
interest will he obtain the total amount of ` 26350 at the end of 6 years?
(a) 4% p.a. (b) 6% p.a. (c) 8% p.a. (d) 12% p.a.
19. Find the values of x, y and z.
Principal (in ` ) Rate (% p.a.) Time (in years) Amount (in ` )
1400 14 2 x
y 15 1 2300
54000 z 4 60480
x y z x y z
(a) 2500 1500 3 (b) 2500 2000 2
(c) 1792 2000 3 (d) 1792 2000 2
20. A sum of ` 1600 gives a simple interest of ` 252 in 2 years and 4 months.
The rate of interest per annum is
1 1 3
(a) 6% (b) 6 % (c) 6 % (d) 6 %
4 2 4
1
21. Nandini borrowed ` 8000 which amounts to ` 11640 in 3 years. What
2
1
would be the amount in 5 years?
2
(a) ` 3640 (b) ` 8500 (c) ` 13720 (d) ` 18000
22. If the simple interest on ` 600 for 4 years and on ` 600 for 2 years
combined together is ` 180 then the rate of interest is
1 1
(a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 5 % (d) 6 %
2 4
23. If ` 64 amounts to ` 83.20 in 2 years, what will ` 86 amount to in 4 years
at the same rate per cent per annum?
(a) ` 114.80 (b) ` 124.70 (c) ` 127.40 (d) ` 137.60
24. In 4 years, ` 6000 amounts to ` 8000. In what time at the same rate will
` 525 amount to ` 700?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 4 years (d) 5 years
25. ` 6200 amounts to ` 9176 in 4 years at simple interest. If the interest rate
is increased by 3% it would amount to how much?
(a) ` 8432 (b) ` 9820 (c) ` 9920 (d) ` 10920
26. ` 6000 becomes ` 7200 in 4 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If
the rate becomes 1.5 times of itself the amount of the same principal in
5 years will be
(a) ` 8000 (b) ` 8250 (c) ` 9000 (d) ` 9250
Simple Interest 265
27. Aditya borrowed a sum of money from Jayesh at the rate of 8% per
annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the
next 6 years and 12% per annum for the period beyond 10 years. If he
pays a total of ` 12160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much
money did he borrow?
(a) ` 8000 (b) ` 9000 (c) ` 10000 (d) ` 12000
28. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to ` 720 after 2 years
and to ` 1020 after a further period of 5 years. The sum is
(a) ` 500 (b) ` 600 (c) ` 700 (d) ` 710
29. A sum of money amounts to ` 5200 in 5 years and to ` 5680 in 7 years at
simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is
(a) 3% (b) 4% (c) 5% (d) 6%
30. At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of money double itself in
8 years?
1 1 1
(a) 10% (b) 11 % (c) 11 % (d) 12 %
2 3 2
31. The rate at which a sum becomes four times of itself in 15 years at SI,
will be
1
(a) 15% (b) 17 % (c) 20% (d) 25%
2
32. A sum of money at a simple rate of interest i1 , doubles in 5 years. At
another simple rate of interest i2 it becomes three times in 12 years.
Then, the two rates of interest i1 and i2 respectively are
2
(a) 10%, 16 % (b) 10%, 20%
3
2
(c) 20%, 16 % (d) 20%, 30%
3
33. If a sum of money invested at simple interest doubles in 16 years, how
much will it be in 8 years?
1 1 1 3
(a) 1 times (b) 1 times (c) 1 times (d) 1 times
2 3 4 4
34. A sum of money invested at simple interest triples itself in 8 years. How
many times will it become in 20 years’ time?
(a) 6 times (b) 7 times (c) 8 times (d) None of these
266 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
35. In how many years does a certain sum amount to three times the
2
principal at the rate of 16 %?
3
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
36. At what rate per cent per annum will the simple interest on a sum of
2
money be of the amount in 10 years?
5
2 2
(a) 4% (b) 5 % (c) 6% (d) 6 %
3 3
37. In how much time would the simple interest on a certain sum be 0.125
times the principal at 10% per annum?
1 3 1 3
(a) 1 years (b) 1 years (c) 2 years (d) 2 years
4 4 4 4
38. Aarti took a loan of ` 12000 with simple interest for as many years as the
rate of interest. If she paid ` 4320 as interest at the end of the loan period,
what was the time?
(a) 3.6 years (b) 6 years
(c) 12 years (d) Cannot be determined
1
39. The SI on a sum of money is of the principal and the number of years
9
is numerically equal to the rate per cent per annum. The rate per cent is
1 1 1 1
(a) 2 % (b) 3 % (c) 3 % (d) 4 %
3 3 2 2
9
40. The simple interest on a certain sum is of the principal. If the numbers
16
representing the rate of interest in per cent and time in years be equal
then the time for which the principal is lent out, is
1 1 1
(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) 7 years
2 2 2
4
41. The simple interest on a sum of money is of the principal. Find the rate
9
per cent and time, if both are numerically equal.
2 2
(a) 5 %, 5 years 8 months (b) 6 %, 6 years 8 months
3 3
2
(c) 7 %, 7 years 8 months (d) None of these
3
Simple Interest 267
42. Sachin borrowed ` 15000 at the rate of 12% and another amount at the
rate of 15% p.a. SI for 2 years. The total interest paid by him was ` 9000.
How much did he borrow?
(a) ` 18000 (b) ` 28000 (c) ` 31000 (d) ` 33000
43. What is the least number of years in which the simple interest on ` 2600
2
at 6 % will be an exact number of rupees?
3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
44. A lends ` 2500 to B and a certain sum to C at the same time at 7% p.a.
simple interest. If after 4 years, A altogether receives ` 1120 as interest
from B and C then the sum lent to C is
(a) ` 700 (b) ` 1500 (c) ` 4000 (d) ` 6500
45. Two equal sums of money were lent at simple interest at 11% p.a. for
1 1
3 years and 4 years respectively. If the difference in interests for two
2 2
periods was ` 412.50 then each sum is
(a) ` 3250 (b) ` 3500 (c) ` 3750 (d) ` 4250
1
46. If the simple interest on a certain sum for 15 months at 7 % per annum
2
1
exceeds the simple interest on the same sum for 8 months at 12 % per
2
annum by ` 32.50 then the sum is
(a) ` 3000 (b) ` 3060 (c) ` 3120 (d) ` 3250
47. A man invests a certain sum of money at 6% p.a. simple interest and
another sum at 7% p.a. simple interest. His income from interest after
2 years was ` 354. One fourth of the first sum is equal to one fifth of the
second sum. The total sum invested was
(a) ` 2600 (b) ` 2700 (c) ` 2880 (d) ` 2900
48. Peter invested an amount of ` 12000 at the rate of 10% p.a. simple
interest and another amount at the rate of 20% p.a. simple interest. The
total interest earned at the end of a year on the total amount invested
become 14% p.a. The total amount invested was
(a) ` 20000 (b) ` 22000 (c) ` 24000 (d) ` 25000
49. A money lender finds that due to a fall in the annual rate of interest
3
from 8% to 7 %, his yearly income diminishes by ` 61.50. His capital is
4
(a) ` 22400 (b) ` 23800 (c) ` 24600 (d) ` 26000
268 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (d)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d)
1
1. P = ` 5000, R = 15% p.a., T = 1 month year.
12
5000 15 1 125
SI ` ` ` 62.50.
100 12 2
2. P = ` 3600, R = 15% p.a., T = 4 years.
3600 15 4
SI ` ` 2160.
100
Amount = ` (3600 + 2160) = ` 5760.
Cost of the cow = ` (5760 – 4000) = ` 1760.
1
3. P = ` 520, R = 13% p.a., T = 6 months year.
2
520 13 1 169
SI ` ` ` 33.80.
100 2 5
Amount to be repaid = ` (520 + 33.80) = ` 553.80.
Simple Interest 269
750 100
q = principal ` ` 1000.
15 5
So, q – p = ` (1000 – 260) = ` 740.
9. P = ` 10, R = 3 paise per rupee per month = 3% per month = 36% p.a.
4 1
T = 4 months year year.
12 3
1 1
SI ` 10 36 ` 1.20.
3 100
270 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
3 15 1 7
10. SI = ` 210, R 3 % p.a. % p.a., T 2 years years.
4 4 3 3
210 100 4 3
sum/principal ` ` 210 100 ` 2400.
15 7 15 7
4 3
11. Let sum = ` x.
9 3
R = 5% p.a., T = 9 months year year.
12 4
3 1 3x
SI ` x 5 ` .
4 100 80
3 x 83 x .
Amount ` x `
80 80
83 x 80
332 x 332 320.
80 84
12. Let sum = ` x.
R = 5% p.a., T = 4 years.
x5 4 x
SI ` ` .
100 5
x 6x
Amount ` x ` .
5 5
6x 5
504 x 504 420.
5 6
1 5
Now, P = ` 420, R = 10% p.a., T 2 years years.
2 2
5 1
SI ` 420 10 ` 105.
2 100
amount = ` (420 + 105) = ` 525.
13. P = ` 900, SI = ` 324, R = 12% p.a.
324 100
time years = 3 years.
900 12
1 25
14. P = ` 72, A = ` 81, SI = ` (81 – 72) = ` 9, R 6 % p.a. % p.a.
4 4
9 100 9 100 4
T years years = 2 years.
72 25 72 25
4
1 9
15. P = ` 450, SI = ` 81, R 4 % p.a. % p.a.
2 2
81 100 81 100 2
T years years = 4 years.
450 9 450 9
2
Simple Interest 271
1 25
16. P = ` 1600, A = ` 3200, SI = ` (3200 – 1600) = ` 1600, R 12 % p.a. % p.a.
2 2
1600 100 2
T years 100 years = 8 years.
1600 25 25
2
17. A = ` 14750, SI = ` 2950, P = ` (14750 – 2950) = ` 11800, R = 1% per month = 12% p.a.
2950 100 25 1
T years years 2 years = 2 years 1 month.
11800 2 12 12
1400 14 2
SI ` 392.
100
A = ` (1400 + 392) = ` 1792.
1 11
Now, P = ` 80000, R = 13% p.a., T 5 years years.
2 2
11 1
SI ` 8000 13 ` 5720.
2 100
Hence, amount = ` (8000 + 5720) = ` 13720.
22. Let the rate of interest be R% p.a. Then,
600 R 4 600 R 2
180
100 100
180
24R + 12R = 180 36R = 180 R 5.
36
23. P = ` 64, A = ` 83.20, T = 2 years.
SI = ` (83.20 – 64) = ` 19.20.
19.20 100
R % p.a. = 15% p.a.
64 2
Now, P = ` 86, R = 15% p.a., T = 4 years.
86 15 4
SI ` ` 51.60
100
Amount = ` (86 + 51.60) = ` 137.60.
24. P = ` 6000, A = ` 8000, SI = ` (8000 – 6000) = ` 2000, T = 4 years.
2000 100 25
R % % p.a.
6000 4 3
25
Now, P = ` 525, R % p.a., A = ` 700,
3
SI = ` (700 – 525) = ` 175.
175 100 175 100 3
T years years = 4 years.
525 25 525 25
3
25. P = ` 6200, A = ` 9176, SI = ` (9176 – 6200) = ` 2976,
T = 4 years.
2976 100
R % p.a. = 12% p.a.
6200 4
Now, P = ` 6200, R = (12 + 3)% = 15% p.a., T = 4 years.
6200 15 4
SI ` ` 3720.
100
amount = ` (6200 + 3720) = ` 9920.
15 1
SI ` 6000 5 ` 2250.
2 100
amount = ` (6000 + 2250) = ` 8250.
27. Let the sum borrowed be ` x. Then,
x 8 4 x 10 6 x 12 5
12160
100 100 100
32 x 60 x 60 x
12160
100 100 100
12160 100
152 x 12160 100 x 8000.
152
28. SI for 5 years = ` (1020 – 720) = ` 300.
2
SI for 2 years ` 300 ` 120.
5
principal = ` (720 – 120) = ` 600.
29. SI for 2 years = ` (5680 – 5200) = ` 480.
5
SI for 5 years ` 480 ` 1200.
2
Principal = ` (5200 – 1200) = ` 4000.
Now, P = ` 4000, T = 5 years, SI = ` 1200.
1200 100
R % p.a. = 6% p.a.
4000 5
30. Let sum = ` x. Then,
P = ` x, A = ` 2x, SI = ` (2x – x) = ` x, T = 8 years.
x 100 25 1
R % % 12 % p.a.
x8 2 2
31. Let sum = ` x. Then,
P = ` x, A = ` 4x, SI = ` (4x – x) = ` 3x, T = 15 years.
3 x 100
R % 20% p.a.
x 15
32. CASE I P = ` x, A = ` 2x, SI = ` (2x – x) = ` x, T = 5 years.
x 100
i1 % 20% p.a.
x5
CASE II P = ` x, A = ` 3x, SI = ` (3x – x) = ` 2x, T = 12 years.
2 x 100 50 2
i2 % % 16 % p.a.
x 12 3 3
33. CASE I P = ` x, A = ` 2x, SI = ` (2x – x) = ` x, T = 16 years.
x 100 25
R % % p.a.
x 16 4
25
CASE II P = ` x, R % p.a., T = 8 years.
4
274 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
25 1 x
SI ` x 8 ` .
4 100 2
x 3x 1
Amount ` x ` 1 times.
2 2 2
34. CASE I P = ` x, A = ` 3x, SI = ` (3x – x) = ` 2x, T = 8 years.
2 x 100
R % 25% p.a.
x8
CASE II P = ` x, R = 25% p.a., T = 20 years.
x 25 20
SI ` ` 5 x.
100
amount = ` (x + 5x) = ` 6x = 6 times.
35. Let principal be ` x. Then,
2 50
P = ` x, R 16 % p.a. % p.a., A = ` 3x,
3 3
SI = ` (3x – x) = ` 2x.
2 x 100 2 x 100 3
T years years = 12 years.
x 50 x 50
3
36. Let sum be ` x. Then,
2x
P = ` x, SI ` , T = 10 years.
5
2x
100
40 x
R 5 % % 4% p.a.
x 10 x 10
37. Let principal be ` x. Then,
P = ` x, SI = ` (0.125x), R = 10% p.a.
0.125 x 100 1
T years = 1.25 years 1 years.
x 10 4
4x
41. P = ` x, SI ` , T = n years, R = n% p.a.
9
x n n 4x 400 400 20 2
n2 n 6 .
100 9 9 9 3 3
2 2
So, rate 6 % p.a., Time 6 years = 6 years 8 months.
3 3
42. Let the second amount be ` x. Then,
15000 12 2 x 15 2
9000.
100 100
3x 3x
3600 9000 5400 x = 18000.
10 10
total sum borrowed = ` (15000 + 18000) = ` 33000.
43. Let the required number of years be n.
2 20
Then, P = ` 2600, R 6 % p.a. % p.a., T = n years.
3 3
20 1 520 n .
SI ` 2600 n `
3 100 3
520n
For to be an exact number, it must be multiplied by 3.
3
44. Let the sum lent to C be ` x. Then,
2500 7 4 x 7 4
1120
100 100
28 x 7x
700 1120 420
100 25
25
x 420 1500.
7
45. Let each sum be ` x. Then,
9 1 7 1
x 11 x 11 412.50.
2 100 2 100
99 x 77 x
412.50
200 200
82500
22 x 412.50 200 x 3750.
22
46. Let the sum be ` x. Then,
15 15 1 25 8 1
x x 32.50
2 12 100 2 12 100
225 x 200 x 25 x
32.50 32.50
2400 2400 2400
x
32.50 x 32.50 96 3120.
96
47. Let the two sums be ` x and ` y. Then,
x y 4y
x .
4 5 5
276 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
x62 y72
Now, 354
100 100
4y 6 2 y 7 2 48 y 14 y
354 354
5 100 100 500 100
48 y 70 y 354 500 118 y 354 500
354 500
y 1500.
118
4 1500
x 1200.
5
Hence, total sum invested = ` (1200 + 1500) = ` 2700.
48. Let the amount invested at 20% p.a., SI be ` x.
12000 10 1 x 20 1 (12000 x ) 14 1
Then,
100 100 100
120000 + 20x = (12000 + x) × 14 = 168000 + 14x
20x – 14x = 168000 – 120000
6x = 48000 x = 8000.
total amount invested = ` (12000 + 8000) = ` 20000.
49. Let the total capital be ` x. Then,
3
8% of x 7 % of x 61.50
4
8 31 1
x x 61.50
100 4 100
32 x 31x
61.50 x 61.50 400 24600.
400
50. Let the amount borrowed at 12% p.a. be ` x.
Then, amount borrowed at 10% p.a. = ` (30000 – x).
x 12 2 (30000 x ) 10 2
6480
100 100
24 x 600000 20 x 4x
6480 6480 6000
100 100 100 100
x
480 x 480 25 12000.
25
51. Let the total capital be ` x. Then,
x
capital invested at 7% p.a. ` ,
3
x
capital invested at 8% p.a. ` ,
4
x x 7x 5x
capital invested at 10% ` x ` x ` .
3 4 12 12
x 1 x 1 5x 1
7 8 10 561
3 100 4 100 12 100
7x 8x 50 x
561
300 400 1200
Simple Interest 277
EXERCISE 13B
Direction (Questions 1 to 10): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The total money paid by the borrower to the lender to clear the debt is
called …… .
2. A man who had borrowed ` x on simple interest repaid his interest by
paying ` y and giving his wrist watch worth ` z. The interest paid by him
is ` …… .
1
3. The sum of money which yields ` 126 as interest in 3 years at the rate
of 6% p.a. is …… . 2
4. If a sum of money put at simple interest doubles in 12 years then the rate
of interest is …… .
5. Interest rate of 2 paise per rupee per month is equivalent to …… % p.a.
6. At the rate of 8% p.a. simple interest, the interest on a sum of money
equals half the sum in …… years …… months.
7. The sum on which the simple interest for 5 years 6 months at the rate of
6% p.a. is ` 1320, is …… .
1
8. A sum of ` 3600 yields a simple interest of ` 540 in 2 years at the rate of
2
…… p.a.
1
9. A sum of money put at 13 % SI will get tripled in …… years.
3
10. At 6% p.a. a sum of money put at simple interest becomes four times of
itself in …… years.
Direction (Questions 11 to 18): State whether each of the following statements is
true or false.
11. If a person lends a sum of money on simple interest for 5 years then
he receives the same amount of interest during the first and the fourth
years. ……
278 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
12. Both the day on which a sum is deposited and the day on which the
amount is withdrawn are taken into account for calculation of interest.
……
P RT
13. The amount of ` P at R% p.a. SI after T years is . ……
100
14. A rate of 12% p.a. SI is equivalent to a rate of 1 paise per rupee per
month. ……
15. The interest on ` 350 at 5% per annum for 73 days is ` 35. ……
16. The amount received after depositing ` 800 for a period of 3 years at the
rate of 12% per annum is ` 896. ……
17. A sum of ` 6400 was lent to each of the two persons A and B at 15% p.a.
1
for 3 years and 5 years respectively. The difference in the interests
2
paid by them is ` 150. ……
18. The annual rate of simple interest at which a sum of money gets doubled
in 25 years is 5%. ……
1 7
3. SI = ` 126, T 3 years years, R = 6% p.a.
2 2
126 100 126 100 2
P ` ` ` 600.
7 6 76
2
4. P = ` x, A = ` (2x), SI = ` x, T = 12 years.
x 100 25 1
R % % 8 % p.a.
x 12 3 3
5. 2 paise per rupee per month = 2% per month (2 12)% p.a. = 24% p.a.
x
6. P = ` x, SI ` , R = 8% p.a.
2
x
2 100 25 1
T years years 6 years = 6 years 3 months.
x8 4 4
Simple Interest 279
1 11
7. SI = ` 1320, R = 6% p.a., T = 5 years 6 months 5 years years.
2 2
1320 100 1320 100 2
P ` ` ` 4000.
6 11 6 11
2
1 5
8. P = ` 3600, SI = ` 540, T 2 years years.
2 2
540 100 540 100
R % % 6% p.a.
3600 5 1800 5
2
1 40
9. P = ` x, A = ` 3x, SI = ` (3x – x) = ` 2x, R 13 % % p.a.
3 3
2 x 100 2 3 100
T years years = 15 years.
x 40 40
3
10. P = ` x, A = ` 4x, SI = ` (4x – x) = ` 3x, R = 6% p.a.
3 x 100
T years = 50 years.
x6
11. Since in simple interest the principal remains the same throughout the period so the
interest received for each year also remains constant.
12. For calculation of interest, the day on which the sum is deposited is not counted but
the day on which it is withdrawn is counted.
P RT
13. SI on ` P at R% p.a. SI for T years .
100
P RT
Amount = P + SI P .
100
14. 1 paise per rupee per month = 1% per month (1 12)% p.a. = 12% p.a.
73 1
15. P = ` 350, R = 5% p.a., T 73 days year years.
365 5
1 1
SI ` 350 5 ` 3.50.
5 100
800 12 3
16. SI on ` 800 at 12% p.a. for 3 years ` ` 288.
100
amount = ` (800 + 288) = ` 1088.
6400 15 5 7 1
17. Difference in interests paid by A and B ` 6400 15
100 2 100
= ` (4800 – 3360) = ` 1440.
18. P = ` x, A = ` 2x, SI = ` (2x – x) = ` x, T = 25 years.
x 100
R % 4% p.a.
x 25
.
280 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
distance .
1. Speed
time
distance
So, time ; distance = speed × time.
speed
5
2. To convert a speed given in km/hr to m/sec, we multiply by .
18
5
a km/hr a m/sec.
18
18
3. To convert a speed given in m/sec to km/hr, we multiply by .
5
18
a m/sec a km/hr.
5
total distance travelled
4. Average speed .
total time taken
5. Time taken by a train of length l metres to pass a pole/a tree/a standing
man/a signal post = time taken by the train to cover l metres.
6. Time taken by a train of length l metres to pass a tunnel/bridge/
platform of length b metres = time taken by the train to cover (l + b)
metres.
EXERCISE 14
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. A man riding his bicycle covers 150 metres in 25 seconds. What is his
speed in kilometre per hour?
(a) 20 (b) 21.6 (c) 23 (d) 25
2. A is travelling at 72 km/hr on a highway while B is travelling at a speed
of 25 m/sec. What is the difference between their speeds?
1
(a) 1 m/sec (b) 2 m/sec (c) 3 m/sec (d) 5 m/sec
2
280
Time and Distance 281
13. A multistorey building has 35 floors above the ground level each of
height 7.5 m. It also has 3 floors in the basement each of height 5 m. A
lift in the building moves at a rate of 3 m/s. If a man starts from 20th
floor above the ground, how long will it take to reach at the 3rd floor of
basement?
1
(a) 45 sec (b) 38 sec (c) 55 sec (d) 57.5 sec
3
14. A car is driven at the speed of 100 km/hr and stops for 10 minutes at the
end of every 150 km. To cover a distance of 1000 km, it will take
(a) 9 hours (b) 10 hours (c) 11 hours (d) 12 hours
15. A truck covers a distance of 550 metres in 1 minute whereas a bus covers
a distance of 33 km in 45 minutes. The ratio of their speeds is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 50 : 3
1
16. A train travels at an average of 50 km per hour for 2 hours and then
2
1
travels at a speed of 70 km per hour for 1 hours. How far did the train
2
travel in the entire 4 hours?
(a) 120 km (b) 150 km (c) 200 km (d) 230 km
2 9
17. A man performs of the journey by train, by bus and the remaining
15 20
10 km on cycle. His total journey is
(a) 24 km (b) 31.2 km (c) 32.8 km (d) 38.4 km
18. A boy goes three equal distances, each of length x km, with a speed of
3y 2y
y km/hr, km/hr and km/hr respectively. If the total time taken
5 5
is 1 hour then x : y is equal to
(a) 6 : 13 (b) 6 : 23 (c) 6 : 31 (d) 6 : 37
19. The speed of a car increases by 2 km after every one hour. If the distance
travelled in the first one hour was 35 km, what was the total distance
travelled in 12 hours?
(a) 456 km (b) 482 km (c) 552 km (d) 556 km
20. A bus started its journey from Ramgarh and reached Devgarh in
44 minutes at its average speed of 50 km/hr. If the average speed of the
bus is increased by 5 km/hr, how much time will it take to cover the
same distance?
(a) 31 min (b) 36 min (c) 38 min (d) 40 min
21. Gaurav left for city A from city B at 5.20 a.m. He travelled at the speed
of 80 km/hr for 2 hours 15 minutes. After that the speed was reduced to
Time and Distance 283
60 km/hr. If the distance between two cities is 350 km, at what time did
Gaurav reach city A?
(a) 9.20 a.m. (b) 9.35 a.m. (c) 10.05 a.m. (d) 10.25 a.m.
1
30. A student walks to school at the rate of 2 km/hr and reaches 6 minutes
2
late. If he travels at the speed of 3 km/hr, he is 10 minutes early. The
distance to his school is
1 1
(a) 1 km (b) 3km (c) 3 km (d) 4 km
4 2
31. A car covers 650 km in 12 hours and another 850 km in 18 hours. The
average speed of the car is
(a) 47 km/hr (b) 48 km/hr (c) 50 km/hr (d) 52 km/hr
32. A 100-m-long train is running at the speed of 30 km/hr. The time taken
by it to pass a telegraph pole is
(a) 8 sec (b) 10 sec (c) 12 sec (d) 14 sec
33. A train is moving at a speed of 132 km/hr. If the length of the train is
110 m, how long will it take to cross a railway platform 165 m long?
1
(a) 6 sec (b) 7 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 10 sec
2
34. A man sitting in a train is counting the electricity poles. The distance
between two poles is 60 metres and the speed of the train is 42 km/hr.
In 5 hours, how many poles will he count?
(a) 3501 (b) 3600 (c) 3800 (d) None of these
35. A train 240 m long passed a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to
pass a platform 650 m long?
(a) 65 sec (b) 89 sec (c) 100 sec (d) 150 sec
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b)
150 18
1. Speed m/sec = 6 m/sec 6 km/hr
25 5
108
km/hr = 21.6 km/hr.
5
5
2. 72 km/hr 72 m/sec = 20 m/sec.
18
required difference (25 20) m/sec = 5 m/sec.
Time and Distance 285
31x x 6
1
6y y 31
x : y = 6 : 31.
1 9
21. Distance covered in 2 hr 15 min, i.e., 2 hr 80 km 180 km.
4 4
350 180 17 5
Time taken to cover remaining distance hr hr 2 hr
60 6 6
= 2 hr 50 min.
Total time taken = (2 hr 15 min + 2 hr 50 min) = 5 hr 5 min.
So, Gaurav reached city A 5 hr 5 min after 5.20 a.m., i.e., at 10.25 a.m.
1 5 5 5
23. Time required 2 hr hr
2 6 2 6
15 5 10 5
hr hr hr.
6 6 3
Distance = 50 km.
5 3
Required speed 50 km/hr 50 km/hr = 30 km/hr.
3 5
5 2
Original speed 50 km/hr 50 km/hr = 20 km/hr.
2 5
difference in speed = (30 – 20) km/hr = 10 km/hr.
288 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
x x
km/hr 6 x 3 x x km/hr
x x x
30 60 180 180
180
x km/hr 18 km/hr.
10 x
Time and Distance 289
290 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. Has two end points Has no end point Has one end point
290
Lines and Angles 291
EXERCISE 15A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. In the adjoining figure, if l m and 1 72
then for which of the following pairs of
angles is the sum of measures the least?
(a) 1 and a corresponding angle
(b) 1 and the corresponding co-interior
angle
(c) 1 and its complement
(d) 1 and its supplement
2. Of all the line segments that can be drawn to a given line from a
given point outside it, which angle of inclination among the following
alternatives has the shortest length?
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 75° (d) 90°
296 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
15. In the above figure, how many pairs of adjacent angles are there?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
16. In the adjoining figure, how many pairs of
adjacent angles are there?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
17. In the adjoining figure, l m n and t is a
transversal. How many pairs of
corresponding angles are there in all?
(a) 6 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12
18. If the angles (2 p 10) and ( p 11) are complementary then the value of
p is
(a) 7 (b) 17 (c) 27 (d) 37
19. If two supplementary angles differ by 44° then one of the angles is
(a) 65° (b) 72° (c) 102° (d) 112°
298 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
49. In which of the following cases is the line l not parallel to the line m?
304 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
59. How many pairs of parallel lines can you find in the given figure?
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)
3 p 111 p 37.
308 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
39. Draw l m n.
128° + = 180° [linear pair]
= 52°.
148° + = 180° [linear pair]
= 32°.
l m 1 = = 52°.
l n 2 = = 32°.
x = 1 + 2 = (52° + 32°) = 84°.
Lines and Angles 311
2 2
41. z = 75° (given), x z 75 30.
5 5
AB EF BAF = AFE [alternate interior s]
x + y = z 30 + y = 75 y = 45°.
AB CD y + t = 180°
t (180 y ) (180 45) 135.
t 135
y 45 ( 45 67.5) 112.5.
2 2
42. AB DC p = CAB = 135° [alternate interior s].
p + q + 130° = 360° 135° + q + 130° = 360° q = (360° – 265°) = 95°.
DC FE q + r = 180° r = (180° – 95°) = 85°.
(p + q + r) = (135° + 95° + 85°) = 315°.
43. AB DE 1 = 2 [corresponding s]
BC EF 2 = 3 [corresponding s].
1 = 3 ABC = DEF.
49. In figure (b) alternate interior angles are not equal as shown in the
adjoining figure.
So, l is not parallel to m.
EXERCISE 15B
Direction (Questions 1 to 35): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. A …… has two end points.
2. A …… is a line that intersects two or more lines at distinct points.
3. Two rays meeting at a point form an …… .
4. The arms of PQR are …… and …… .
5. When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, …… pairs of
corresponding angles are formed.
6. When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, …… pairs of alternate
interior angles are formed.
7. When two parallel lines are cut by a transversal …… pairs of co-interior
angles are formed.
8. If two adjacent angles are supplementary, they form a …… .
9. Two lines in a plane are either …… or …… .
10. The non-common arms of the angle of a linear pair are …… rays.
11. If OA is a ray standing on a line BC such that
AOB = AOC then the measure of AOB
is …… .
12. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 1 : 3. The bigger angle
measures …… .
13. Two supplementary angles are in the ratio 5 : 7. The smaller angle
measures …… .
14. When two lines are cut by a transversal, then the angles whose arms
include the line segment of the transversal between the two lines are
called …… angles while those which do not contain the segment of the
transversal between the two lines are called …… angles.
15. The complement of an angle of 65° is …… and its supplement is …… .
16. The supplement of an acute angle is an …… angle.
17. The angles of a linear pair are both …… and …… .
18. Two vertically opposite angles are supplementary. Then, their
magnitudes are …… and …… .
19. Parallel lines are always …… .
20. Two complementary angles are always …… .
21. The sum of all the angles at a point is …… .
316 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
47. Alternate interior angles lie on opposite sides of the transversal while
corresponding lines lie on the same side. ……
48. Angles forming a linear pair are supplementary. ……
49. Vertically opposite angles can form a linear pair. ……
50. If l m and l n, then m n. ……
51. Vertically opposite angles are either both acute angles or both obtuse
angles. ……
x.
28. Let the required angle be x. Then, its supplement
3
x 4x 180 3
x 180 180 x 135.
3 3 4
29. A ( 4 x 2) its complement 90 ( 4 x 2) (88 4 x ).
7 7
30. of a right angle of a straight angle.
8 16
7 9
its supplement 1 of a straight angle of a straight angle.
16 16
4 4
31. of a right angle 90 72.
5 5
its complement (90 72) 18.
32. Let the required angle be x°. Then, its complement ( x 18).
x x 18 90 2 x 108 x 54.
33. Let the required angle be x°. Then, its supplement ( x 30).
x x 30 180 2 x 150 x 75.
34. Let the two angles be x° and ( x 90). Then,
x ( x 90) 180 2 x 90 x 45.
35. Let the required angle be x°. Then, its complement (90 x ).
90 x 90 x 60
Then, x 30 x
2 2
2 x 150 x 3 x 150 x 50.
51. Vertically opposite angles may be both acute or obtuse or right angles.
16 Triangles
(i) EQUILATERAL TRIANGLE A triangle in which all the sides are equal is
called an equilateral triangle.
A triangle in which two sides are equal is called
(ii) ISOSCELES TRIANGLE
an isosceles triangle.
(iii) SCALENE TRIANGLE A triangle in which all the three sides are of
different lengths is called a scalene traingle.
321
322 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
In the given figure AL, BM and CN are the altitudes of CABC. These
altitudes intersect at a point O.
Therefore, O is the orthocentre of CABC.
(ii) The orthocentre of an acute triangle lies in its interior.
(iii) The orthocentre of a right triangle lies on its hypotenuse.
(iv) The orthocentre of an obtuse triangle lies in its exterior.
12. ANGLE BISECTORS OF A TRIANGLE
(ii) Two angles are congruent if they have the same measure.
(iii) Two squares are congruent if they have the same side length.
326 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
(iv) Two rectangles are congruent if their lengths and breadths are equal.
(v) Two circles are congruent if they have equal radii.
(vi) Two triangles are congruent if all the pairs of corresponding sides
and corresponding angles are equal.
Thus, CABC CDEF , if
I. AB DE , BC EF and AC DF and
II. A D, B E and C F.
The matching parts of two congruent triangles are called their
corresponding parts.
22. CONDITIONS FOR CONGRUENCE OF TWO TRIANGLES
(i) SSS-CRITERION Two triangles are congruent if the three sides of one
triangle are respectively equal to the three sides of another triangle.
Two triangles are congruent if the two sides and the
(ii) SAS-CRITERION
included angle of one are respectively equal to the two sides and the
included angle of the other.
(iii) ASA-CRITERIONTwo triangles are congruent if the two angles and the
included side of the one are respectively equal to two angles and the
included side of the other.
Two right triangles are congruent if the hypotenuse
(iv) RHS–CRITERION
and one side of the first triangle are respectively equal to the
hypotenuse and one side of the second.
Note In two triangles, if the three angles of the one are respectively equal to the
three angles of the other then the triangles are not necessarily congruent.
23. Two congruent figures are always equal in area. But, two figures which
are equal in area may not be congruent.
EXERCISE 16A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. In the adjoining figure, (a b c d )
equals
(a) 240° (b) 280°
(c) 290° (d) 360°
Triangles 327
14. The measures of three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Then,
the triangle is
(a) obtuse-angled (b) right-angled
(c) equilateral (d) isosceles
15. How many different triangles do you find in the
adjoining figure?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
32. In a triangle, if one angle is the average of the other two and the
difference between the greatest and least angles is 60° then the angles of
the triangle are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2 : 5 (c) 1 : 4 : 13 (d) 5 : 7 : 11
38. The side QR of CPQR has been produced to a point T such that
PRT 140. If Q 2P then P measures
(a) 100° (b) 60° (c) 80° (d) 90°
55. If x is an integer and 3 < x < 8, how many different triangles are possible
with sides of length 3, 8 and x?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
56. In a CABC, if AB + BC = 12 cm, BC + CA = 14 cm and CA + AB = 18 cm,
what is the sum of the lengths of its sides?
(a) 21 cm (b) 22 cm (c) 23 cm (d) 24 cm
57. In the adjoining figure,
C ABC CPRQ. Then, the values
of x and y are
(a) 67° and 44°
(b) 64° and 47°
(c) 48° and 66°
(d) cannot be determined
58. CABC and CPQR may not be congruent when
(a) AB = PQ, AC = PR and A P
(b) AB = PQ, AC = PR and B Q 90
(c) B Q, AC = PR and C R
(d) A P, B Q and AB = PQ
Triangles 335
65. Which of the following criteria does not hold for congruence of two
triangles?
(a) SSS (b) AAA (c) ASA (d) AAS
66. In CABC and CDEF, if AC = DF and BC = DE then for the two triangles
to be congruent by SAS-congruency criterion, which of the following is
true?
(a) A D (b) B E (c) B F (d) C D
67. In CPQR and CXYZ, if P = Z and R = X, then for the two triangles
to be congruent by ASA-congruence criterion, which of the following is
true?
(a) PR = ZX (b) PR = XY (c) PQ = XZ (d) QR = YZ
68. In CABC and CDEF, B = D = 90° and BC = DF. What additional
information is needed to make CABC CEDF by RHS-congruency
condition?
(a) AB = ED (b) A F (c) C F (d) AC = EF
69. CEFG and CLMN are congruent to each other, if
(a) EFG = LMN, FEG = MLN and FGE = MNL
(b) EF = LM, EG = LN and EFG = LMN
(c) EF = LM, EFG = LMN and FEG = LNM
(d) FG = MN, EG = LN and EGF = LNM
70. Which of the following statements
regarding the congruence relation
between the two triangles is true?
(a) CLMN CPQR by RHS-axiom
(b) CLMN CPQR by ASA-axiom
(c) CLMN CRQP by RHS-axiom
(d) CLMN CRQP by ASA-axiom
Triangles 337
85. Which of the following sets of lengths of sides does not relate to that of
a right triangle?
(a) 3, 4, 5 (b) 5, 12, 13 (c) 7, 24, 25 (d) 9, 12, 16
86. The two legs containing the right angle of a right-angled triangle
measure 16 cm and 30 cm. The length of the hypotenuse is
(a) 34 cm (b) 36 cm (c) 38 cm (d) 42 cm
87. What is the perimeter of the rectangle whose length is 60 cm and a
diagonal is 61 cm?
(a) 120 cm (b) 122 cm (c) 71 cm (d) 142 cm
88. The diagonals of a rhombus measure 16 cm and 30 cm. The perimeter of
the rhombus is
(a) 60 cm (b) 68 cm (c) 72 cm (d) 76 cm
89. A man leaves from his house to go to office. From his house, he goes
west 25 m, then due north 60 m, then due east 80 m and finally due
south 12 m. The distance between his starting and finishing point is
(a) 73 m (b) 77 m (c) 83 m (d) 103 m
90. The distance between the tops of two trees 20 m and 28 m high is 17 m.
The horizontal distance between the trees is
(a) 9 m (b) 11 m (c) 15 m (d) 31 m
91. The lengths of the sides of certain triangles are given below. Which of
the following is a right triangle?
(a) 4 cm, 5.2 cm, 7 cm, (b) 2.4 cm, 3.2 cm, 4 cm
(c) 5 cm, 5.25 cm, 6.25 cm (d) None of these
92. A 10.10-m-long ladder is placed against a wall. The ladder reaches a
window at a height of 9.9 m from the ground. The distance of the foot of
the ladder from the wall is
(a) 1.6 m (b) 2 m (c) 2.4 m (d) 2.7 m
93. In a CABC, B = 60° and C = 30°. Then, which of the following is true?
(a) AC 2 AB2 BC 2 (b) AB2 BC 2 AC 2
2 2 2
(c) BC AB AC (d) Cannot say
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (b)
340 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (c) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (d) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (c) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c)
In CKFC, K F C 180
K 50 35 180
K (180 85) 95.
AKD FKC x 95 [vertically opposite s].
24. Since DBC is a straight line, we have
ABD + ABC = 180° 7x + ABC = 180°
ABC = (180° – 7x) B = (180° – 7x).
Also, BCE is a straight line.
ACE + ACB = 180° 100° + ACB = 180°
ACB = (180° – 100°) = 80° C
ABC 3x + (180 – 7x) + 80 = 180
4x = 80 x = 20.
25. Since CPQR is equilateral, each of its angles is 60°.
PRQ = 60°.
PRQ + PRT = 180° 60° + PRT = 180° PRT = (180° – 60°) = 120°.
PR = RT RTP = RPT = x°.
In CPRT, P + R + T = 180°.
x + 120 + x = 180 2x = 60 x = 30.
26. Clearly, ABE = (150° – x).
ABE + EBC = 180° (150° – x) + 70° = 180° x = (220° – 180°) = 40°.
y = x = 40 [alt. int s as AE BD].
z = ABE = (150° – x) = (150° – 40°) = 110°.
(x + y + z) = (40 + 40 + 110)° = 190°.
27. In CABC, AB = AC ACB = ABC = x°.
CAD = (ABC + ACB) = (x° + x°) = 2x°.
AD = CD ACD = CAD = 2x°.
In CBCD, BC = CD BDC = DBC = x°
ADC = x° [ BDC = ADC].
In CACD, ACD + CAD + ADC = 180°
2x + 2x + x = 180° 5x = 180° x = 36°.
28. In CPTR, 10° + 30° + PTR = 180° PTR = 140°.
PTQ = (180° – 140°) = 40°.
TP = TQ TPQ = TQP = x°.
In CPQT, TPQ + TQP + PTQ = 180°.
x + x + 40 = 180 2x = 140 x = 70°
QP RS and PR is a transversal.
344 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
47. The sides cannot be 3 cm, 3 cm and 8 cm, as (3 3) 6 , which is not greater than 8. So,
the third side is 8 cm.
48. The largest side of CABC is opposite to the largest angle C 70. So, the largest side
is AB.
49. A B C BC > AC > AB.
We know that the sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater
than the third side.
AP + PC > AC and AC > AB
AP + PC > AB.
Also, BP + PC > BC is true.
And, AP + PB > AB is true.
But AP + PB > AB and AB < BC.
So, we cannot conclude that AP + PB < BC.
50. In COAB, OA + OB > AB.
In COBC, OB + OC > BC.
In COAC, OA + OC > AC.
Adding, 2(OA + OB + OC) > (AB + BC + AC)
1
(OA + OB + OC) (AB + BC + AC).
2
65. The criteria AAA does not hold for congruence of triangles.
69. (a) CEFG is not congruent to CLMN as AAA-criterion is not true for congruence.
(b) CEFG is not congruent to CLMN as two corresponding sides are equal but the
included angles are not equal.
(c) CEFG is not congruent to CLMN as EF = LM, EFG LMN. But FEG MLN.
(d) CEFG CLMN by SAS-criterion.
70. L R 30, M Q 90 and LM = RQ.
CLMN CRQP by ASA-axiom.
71. In CADB and CADC, we have
ADB ADC 90,
hypotenuse AB = hypotenuse AC and AD = AD.
C ADB C ADC by RHS-axiom.
72. I. Clearly, P Y , R X , Q Z.
CRPQ CXYZ by ASA.
II. Clearly, Q X , R Z, P Y.
CQPR CXYZ by RHS.
III. Clearly, P X , R Y , Q Z.
CPRQ CXYZ by SAS.
IV. Clearly, P Y , Q X , R Z.
CQPR CXYZ by ASA
I C, II B, III D and IV A.
AB = A’B = 15 m,
AC = 9 m and A’D = 12 m.
BC 144 m 12 m.
In right-angled CADB, we have
BD 2 ( AB)2 ( AD)2 {(15)2 (12)2 } m 2 (225 144) m 2 81 m 2 .
BD 81 m 9 m.
width of the street CD (BC BD) (12 9) m 21 m.
84. Clearly, PQ is the hypotenuse and angle opposite to PQ is the right angle. Therefore,
R is the right angle.
EXERCISE 16B
Direction (Questions 1 to 50): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. A triangle is formed by three …… points.
2. In a CPQR, sides ……, …… and …… lie opposite to P, Q and R
respectively.
3. If the base angle of an isosceles triangle is 55°, the size of the vertical
angle is …… .
Triangles 353
22. If each angle of a triangle is less than the sum of the other two, the
triangle is …… .
23. Each acute angle of an isosceles right-angled triangle equals …… .
24. The incentre of a triangle is determined by the …… .
25. The circumcentre of a triangle is the point of concurrence of the …… of
the sides.
26. Orthocentre of a triangle is determined by the …… of the triangle.
27. Centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its …… .
28. If all the medians of a triangle are equal then the triangle is …… .
29. If H is the orthocentre of CABC then BH is perpendicular to the line
containing the side …… .
30. If CABC is right-angled at B then two of the altitudes of the triangle
are …… and …… and its orthocentre is …… .
31. In the given figure, if ABD ACE
then CABC is …… .
34. CABC is a right-angled triangle with right angle at B and AB = BC. Then,
B : C : A = …… .
35. In a/an …… triangle, the three altitudes are different in length.
36. If AB = 7 cm, BC = 24 cm and AC = 25 cm then the triangle is right-
angled at …… .
37. In a right-angled triangle with sides measuring 1.5 cm, 2 cm and 2.5 cm,
the right angle lies between the sides measuring …… and …… .
38. To examine the congruency of plane figures, the …… method is used.
39. Two line segments are congruent if they have the same …… .
40. Two angles are congruent if they have the same …… .
41. Two circles are congruent if they have equal …… .
Triangles 355
49. If two sides of a triangle are 3 cm and 6 cm then the third side can have
…… possible integral values.
50. The lengths of two sides of a triangle are 6 cm and 9 cm. The length of
the third side can be any value between …… and …… .
Direction (Questions 51 to 99): State whether each of the following statements is true
or false.
51. The interior of a triangle includes its vertices. ……
52. The triangular region includes the vertices of the corresponding
triangle. ……
53. In a right-angled triangle, the two acute angles are complementary.
……
54. A triangle should have at least two acute angles. ……
55. Every equilateral triangle is isosceles. ……
56. Every right triangle is scalene. ……
57. Each acute-angled triangle is equilateral. ……
58. An obtuse-angled triangle can never be an equilateral triangle. ……
59. An isosceles triangle may be acute-angled, right-angled or obtuse-
angled. ……
60. An exterior angle of a triangle is greater than each of the interior opposite
angles. ……
356 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
92. Two circles are said to be congruent if they have the same centre and the
same radius. ……
93. Two triangles having same measures of their sides are congruent while
two quadrilaterals having same measures of their corresponding sides
are not congruent. ……
94. It is possible to draw a traingle whose sides are 5.5 cm, 6.5 cm and
12 cm. ……
95. If CABC CPRQ then CBAC CPQR. ……
96. In a CABC, A = 105°, B = 45°, C = 30°. Then, the largest side of
CABC is AC. ……
97. In a CPQR, P = 110°, Q = 40° and R = 30°. The shortest side of
CPQR is PQ. ……
98. If each angle of a triangle is less than the sum of the other two then the
triangle is acute-angled. ……
99. If one angle of a triangle is greater than the sum of the other two then
the triangle is obtuse-angled. ……
3. Since the base angles of an isosceles triangle are equal and the sum of all angles of a
triangle is 180°, therefore vertical angle (180 2 55) 70.
4. We know that the sides opposite to equal angles are equal.
A C BC AB.
5. A B C 180
( x 30) (3 x 30) ( 4 x 60) 180
8 x 60 180 8 x 240 x 30.
A (30 30) 60, B (3 30 30) 60 and C ( 4 30 60) 60.
Hence, CABC is equilateral.
6. C 180 (70 40) 70.
A C CABC is isosceles.
Triangles 359
7. We know that an exterior angle is equal to the sum of the interior opposite angles.
x (30 45) 75.
Also, y (30 x ) (30 75) 105.
x 75 and y 105.
8. Sum of the exterior angles of a triangle is 360°.
9. Required sum (A B C ) (D E F ) (180 180) 360.
10. All the angles of the given triangle are different and each angle is acute. So, the given
triangle is scalene and acute.
11. A right triangle can never be equilateral.
12. An obtuse-angled triangle is scalene or isosceles.
13. An equilateral triangle is always acute-angled.
14. Let A B C. Then, 2A A B C 180.
A 90.
Hence, the given triangle is right-angled.
15. Let the angles be (2x ), (3x ) and (5x ). Then,
2x + 3x + 5x = 180 10x = 180 x = 18.
So, the angles measure 36°, 54° and 90°.
Hence, the given triangle is right-angled.
16. Let the angles of the given triangle be (2x)°, (2x)° and (5x)°.
Then, 2x + 2x + 5x = 180 9x = 180 x = 20.
So, the angles are 40°, 40° and 100°.
Hence, the given triangle is isosceles and obtuse-angled.
17. Let the angles of the triangle be x°, (2x)° and (2x)°.
Then, x + 2x + 2x = 180 5x = 180 x = 36.
smallest angle of the triangle is 36°.
19. Each interior angle of the triangle = (180° – 120°) = 60°.
Hence, the given triangle is equilateral.
29. Since orthocentre is the point of concurrence of the altitudes of
a triangle, so BH is the altitude drawn to the side AC.
51. The interior of a triangle includes the area enclosed by it. The vertices lie on the
triangle.
52. The triangular region includes all the points on or inside the triangle.
54. A triangle can have at most one right angle or one obtuse angle. In both the cases, the
remaining two angles are acute.
56. A right-angled triangle may be scalene or isosceles.
57. An acute-angled triangle may be scalene, isosceles or equilateral.
58. The measure of each angle of an equilateral triangle is 60°, which is not possible in an
obtuse-angled triangle.
61. P + Q + R = 180°
( x 42) ( 4 x 12) (3 x 6) 180
8 x 36 180 8 x 144 x 18.
P (18 42) 60, Q ( 4 18 12) 60 and R (3 18 6) 60.
Hence, CPQR is equilateral.
62. We know that the sum of the exterior angles of a triangle is 180°. So, if two exterior
angles are given then the third can be determined. Since each exterior angle and
interior adjacent angle are supplementary, so each interior angle can be determined.
63. Third exterior angle 360 (102 76)
(360 178) 182 180, which is not possible.
360
64. Measure of each exterior angle 120.
3
measure of each interior angle (180 120) 60.
So, the triangle is equilateral.
65. If two exterior angles of a triangle are acute then the measure of the third exterior
angle will be greater than 180°, which is not possible.
66. All the three exterior angles of an acute-angled triangle are obtuse.
67. In a right-angled triangle, the sum of two acute angles is equal to the third angle.
In an obtuse-angled triangle, the sum of two acute angles is less than the third angle.
68. Two altitudes of a right-angled triangle lie on the triangle, while the altitudes of an
obtuse-angled triangle lie outside it.
70. With three angle measures, an unlimited number of triangles can be built with varying
side lengths.
71. (3.4 + 5.6) cm = 9 cm.
But the sum of any two sides of a triangle is always greater than the third side.
So, it is not possible to construct a triangle with sides of given lengths.
72. Hypotenuse is the side opposite to the vertex containing the right angle. The side
opposite to C is AB.
74. AAA-criterion does not hold for congruence of triangles.
75. SAS-criterion holds true for congruence of triangles.
76. ASA-criterion or AAS-criterion holds true for congruence of triangles.
77. For two right triangles to be congruent by RHS-criterion, the hypotenuse and one of
the other two sides must be equal.
362 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
.
17 Symmetry
(i) Rotation means turning an object about a fixed point, called the
centre of rotation.
(ii) The angle by which an object is rotated is the angle of rotation.
(iii) Rotation may be clockwise or anticlockwise. Rotating a figure p°
clockwise is the same as rotating it (360 – p)° anticlockwise and
vice versa.
(iv) A half-turn means rotation by 180°, while a quarter-turn means
rotation by 90°.
3. ROTATIONAL SYMMETRY
363
364 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 17A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following is not a symmetrical figure?
(c) T (d) H
12. Match the following two columns and choose the correct combination.
A B C D A B C D
(a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Symmetry 369
16. After rotating by 60° about a centre, a figure looks exactly the same as its
original position. It possesses rotational symmetry of order
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
17. A figure has a rotational symmetry of order more than 1. The angle of
rotation can be
(a) 22° (b) 24° (c) 25° (d) 28°
370 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
1.
3.
4. The given figure has rotational symmetry of order 4 (90°, 180°, 270°, 360°).
5.
4 lines of symmetry
Rotational symmetry of order 4 (90°, 180°, 270°, 360°).
9.
1 line of symmetry; No
rotational symmetry
13. The given card has no line of symmetry but it has rotational
symmetry of order 2 (180°, 360°).
360
16. Order of symmetry 6.
60
17. The angle of rotation must be a factor of 360.
18.
EXERCISE 17B
Direction (Questions 1 to 20): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. A …… triangle has no lines of symmetry.
2. A/an …… triangle has a line of symmetry but lacks rotational symmetry.
3. A …… is a figure which has a rotational symmetry of infinite order.
4. The number of letters in the word MATHS which show rotational
symmetry is …… .
5. An equilateral triangle displays rotational symmetry each time it is
rotated through an angle of …… .
Symmetry 375
28. Every letter in the English alphabet has one or more lines of symmetry.
……
29. A parallelogram possesses neither reflection nor rotational symmetry.
……
40. If the interior angle of a regular polygon is n° then the angle of rotation
for the polygon to display rotational symmetry is (360 n). ……
360
14. Order of rotational symmetry 3.
120
360
15. Required angle 72.
5
18.
EXERCISE 18
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following shapes can tessellate?
A B C D
Pattern 1
4 tiles
Pattern 2
7 tiles
Pattern 3
10 tiles
How many tiles will there be in the 30th pattern?
(a) 119 (b) 118 (c) 99 (d) 91
3. Study the following pattern carefully:
A B C D E F G H
1 2 3 4
8 7 6 5
9 10 11 12
16 15 14 13
If the pattern continues, under which letter would the number 199
appear?
(a) B (b) C (c) F (d) G
378
Common Sense and Observation Test 379
10. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs
added on each successive day is the same as the number already present
in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days.
1
After how many days was the basket full?
4
(a) 22 (b) 26 (c) 8 (d) 12
11. There are 15 lamp posts placed at equal distance apart along a straight
road. The distance between the first and fifth lamp posts is 10 metres.
Then, the distance between the first and 15th lamp posts is
(a) 28 m (b) 30 m (c) 35 m (d) 37.5 m
380 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
12. In a school drill, a number of children are asked to stand in a circle. They
are evenly spaced and the 6th child is diametrically opposite to the 16th
child. How many children are made to stand in the circle?
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) None of these
13. A carpenter takes 6 minutes to saw a wooden plank into 3 equal pieces.
How long would he take to saw the same wooden plank into 12 equal
pieces?
(a) 24 minutes (b) 27 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 33 minutes
14. A restaurant charges ` 65 per person for a meal. For every 4 persons, one
of them dines for free. How much will a group of 17 persons have to pay
for a meal at the restaurant?
(a) ` 810 (b) ` 780 (c) ` 845 (d) ` 910
15. As per the information given in Question 14, each of the following
groups of persons will have the same percentage saving due to the offer,
except
(a) Group A 22 persons (b) Group B 60 persons
(c) Group C 36 persons (d) Group D 44 persons
16. The figure below shows 3 parcels X, Y and Z on a balance scale:
X Z
Y
The mass of parcel X is 12 kg. What is the average mass of the three
parcels?
(a) 6 kg (b) 8 kg (c) 12 kg (d) 18 kg
17. Sumohanty wrote his name repeatedly in the following pattern:
S U M O H A N T Y S U M O H A N T Y S U M ...
Which letter would come at the 103rd position in the above pattern?
(a) M (b) O (c) N (d) T
18. A man weighed himself on the weighing 80
85
scale. What is the reading indicated on 75
the scale?
(a) 82.5 kg (b) 80.5 kg kg
20. 12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each bucket is
13.5 litres. How many buckets will be needed to fill the same tank if
the capacity of each bucket is 9 litres?
(a) 8 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 18
4
21. An engine can run 12 hours when its tank is full. How long will it run
1 5
when the tank is full?
3
(a) Less than 2 hours (b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours (d) 5 hours
22. Arun wants to hang four different pictures in a striaght line on the wall.
In how many different ways can he arrange the pictures?
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 18 (d) 24
1
23. Some trees are planted km apart along a straight road which measures
8
3
3 km. How many trees are there on the road including the one at the
4
start?
(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 31 (d) 32
24. The table given below shows the parking charges at a car park. Shobhit
parked his car from 2.50 p.m. to 5.30 p.m. How much did he have
to pay?
Duration of Parking Charges (`)
1st hour 12
Every additional half hour or part thereof 7
(a) ` 26 (b) ` 33 (c) ` 40 (d) ` 47
3
25. A movie started at 9.15 p.m. and lasted for 2 hours. What time did the
5
movie end?
(a) 12.03 p.m. (b) 11.36 p.m. (c) 11.51 p.m. (d) 12.00 a.m.
26. When it is 12 20 in Country A, it is 10 52 in Country B. At 23 05 in
Country A, a man makes a phone call to his friend in Country B. The
time in Country B then was
(a) 22 03 (b) 21 37 (c) 21 53 (d) 21 47
27. Mr X has 2 pairs of identical blue socks, 3 pairs of identical black socks
and 4 pairs of identical white socks. What is the minimum number of
socks that he must take out in the dark so as to ensure that he gets at
least one matching pair?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) 10
382 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
29. A table can seat 4 students. When joined together, they can seat the
students as shown below.
35. In a garden there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The
distance between the two trees is 2 metres and a distance of 1 metre
is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length of the
garden is
(a) 20 m (b) 22 m (c) 24 m (d) 26 m
36. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed
in the afternoon between 2 o’clock and 3 o’clock, how many men are
required?
(a) 221 (b) 228 (c) 249 (d) 256
37. A man earns ` 20 on the first day and spends ` 15 on the next day. He
again earns ` 20 on the third day and spends ` 15 on the fourth day. If he
continues to save like this, how soon will he have ` 60 in hand?
(a) On 17th day (b) On 27th day (c) On 30th day (d) On 40th day
38. In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has
sisters. Each son has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How
many children are there in the family?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
39. A caterpillar climbed up a pole that is 5 m high. It climbed up 2 m in
every 40 minutes but slid 0.5 m downwards in the next 20 minutes. At
this rate, how long did the caterpillar take to reach the top of the pole?
(a) 2 hr 40 min (b) 2 hr 50 min
(c) 3 hr 05 min (d) 3 hr 20 min
40. The figure given below shows two stacks of identical glasses:
44 cm
32 cm
The height of the first stack of 8 glasses is 44 cm while that of the second
stack of 5 glasses is 32 cm. What is the maximum number of glasses that
you can put in a single stack in a shelf of height 60 cm?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14
384 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
41. 320 muffins were bought by a school from ABC confectioners which
had the following two promotional offers:
Offer 1 Offer 2
ABC STORE
Dated ××××
2 × Toffees ` 2.20
3 × Marbles `
2 × Erasers `
Total ` 17.95
45. The total strength of a school is 1360. For every 15 boys, there is a girl.
The number of girls in the school is
(a) 75 (b) 80 (c) 85 (d) 90
46. When Reena made necklaces of either 16 beads, 30 beads or 36 beads,
not a single bead was left over. What could be the least number of beads
Reena had?
(a) 700 (b) 720 (c) 750 (d) 780
47. Suman paid ` 77 for 6 bananas and 4 apples. With the same amount of
money, she could buy 14 bananas. If she had decided to buy apples
only, how many apples could she buy with ` 198?
(a) 11 (b) 9
(c) 18 (d) Cannot be determined
48. Natasha reads 350 pages of a book in a week. If she reads 5 more pages
than the previous day then the number of pages she reads on the last
day is
(a) 35 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 65
49. Aryan used matchsticks to make the following patterns:
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
386 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1.
B C
3. Number in column A B C D E F G H
Remainder on
0 1 7 2 6 3 5 4
dividing by 8
199 when divided by 8, leaves remainder 7. So, it will appear under letter C.
4. If we paint one pair of adjacent faces with the same colour, we are left with one pair of
opposite faces and one pair of adjacent faces unpainted. The two opposite faces may
be painted with the same colour and the two adjacent faces with 2 different colours.
5. Mrs Rao has 2 options for the starter, 3 options for the main course and 3 options for
the dessert.
total number of combinations 2 3 3 18.
6. We will consider the following matches:
(i) matches of first team with other 4 teams;
(ii) matches of second team with 3 teams other than first;
(iii) matches of third team with 2 teams other than first and second;
(iv) match of fourth team with 1 team other than first three.
total number of matches 4 3 2 1 10.
7. Let the number of oranges be x.
Then, number of apples = 5x
and number of bananas = 6x.
total number of fruits x 5 x 6 x 12 x.
Clearly, the total number of fruits must be a multiple of 12.
8. The image of F is inverted upside down, while all other letters have been rotated
through 180°.
9. 20 = 10 + 10; 23 = 8 + 8 + 7; 29 = 8 + 7 + 7 + 7.
Common Sense and Observation Test 387
10. Clearly, the number of eggs in the basket is doubled each day.
The basket was full in 24 days.
1 1
So, the basket was full in 23 days and it was full in 22 days.
2 4
11. There are 4 gaps between 1st and 5th lamp posts. So, gap between two consecutive
10
lamp posts m 2.5 m.
4
Now, there are 14 gaps between 1st and 15th lamp posts.
So, distance between 1st and 15th lamp posts (14 2.5) m 35 m.
(9) AC CG GH HX
(10) AD DX
So, there are 10 possible paths.
29. Clearly, at each step, 1 table and 2 new seats are added.
So, if there are n tables, there are (2n 2) seats.
required number 2 45 2 90 2 92.
30. The factors of 72 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36 and 72.
Since there must be at least 3 beads in each packet and at least 4 packets, so beads can
be packed in the following ways:
(1) 4 packets of 18 beads each
(2) 6 packets of 12 beads each
(3) 8 packets of 9 beads each
(4) 9 packets of 8 beads each
(5) 12 packets of 6 beads each
(6) 18 packets of 4 beads each
(7) 24 packets of 3 beads each
31. Number of houses after House No. 29 = number of houses after House No. 12 on the
opposite side = 11.
total number of houses 29 11 40.
32. Let the number of buffaloes be x and the number of ducks be y.
Then, number of heads x y; number of legs 4 x 2 y.
4 x 2 y 2 ( x y ) 24 2 x 24 x 12.
33. Total number of poles used (59 4 4) 236 4 232.
1
distance travelled by the ant 20 (1 19) ft
2
= (10 + 19) ft = 29 ft.
44. Let there be n rows in the original arrangement.
Then, number of rows in the final arrangement (n 9).
Total number of chairs in the original arrangement = 15 n.
Total number of chairs in the final arrangement 12 (n 9).
15n 6 12 (n 9) 15n 6 12n 108
3n 114 n 38.
required number of chairs 15n 6 15 38 6
570 6 564.
45. Clearly, out of every 16 students, there is one girl.
1360
So, number of girls 85.
16
46. Least number of beads = LCM of 16, 30 and 36
2 16, 30, 36
223 453
2 8, 15, 18
= 720.
3 4, 15, 9
4, 5, 3
77
47. 14B 77 B 5.50.
14
6B 4 A 77 6 5.5 4 A 77
4 A 77 33 44 A 11.
198
number of apples bought for ` 198 ` ` 18.
11
48. Let the number of pages read on the first day be n. Then,
n (n 5) (n 10) (n 15) (n 20) (n 25) (n 30) 350
7 n 105 350 7 n 245 n 35.
Hence, number of pages read on the last day n 30 35 30 65.
49. Clearly, 7 matchsticks are added at each step.
So, number of matchsticks in nth pattern 7 n 5.
Now, 7 n 5 362 7 n 357 n 51.
So, Pattern 51 will use 362 matchsticks in all.
50. 61 7 8 5 ; 159 7 22 5 ; 635 7 90 5.
415 cannot be expressed in the form 7 n 5.
19 Area and Perimeter
1. RECTANGLE
(iii) Property of rhombus used in finding the length of side and diagonal
from the given data—The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other
at right angles.
7. CIRCLE For a circle of radius r, we have
EXERCISE 19A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. A reactangular field is 80 m long and 60 m wide. If fence posts are placed
at the four corners and are 10 m apart along the four sides of the field,
how many posts are needed to completely fence the field?
(a) 24 (b) 27 (c) 28 (d) 29
2. A rectangular field has length and breadth in the ratio of 16 : 9. If its
perimeter is 750 m, its area is
(a) 14000 m 2 (b) 14400 m 2 (c) 32400 m 2 (d) 75000 m 2
3. A wire in the form of a square of side 18 m is bent in the form of a
rectangle whose length and breadth are in the ratio 3 : 1. The area of the
rectangle is
(a) 81 m 2 (b) 144 m 2 (c) 243 m 2 (d) 324 m 2
4. The breadth of a rectangular field is 60% of its length. If the perimeter of
the field is 800 m then its area is
(a) 18750 m 2 (b) 37500 m 2 (c) 40000 m 2 (d) 48000 m 2
Area and Perimeter 395
5. The length of a rectangular plot is 20 metres more than its breadth. If the
cost of fencing the plot at the rate of ` 26.50 per metre is ` 5300, the length
of the plot is
(a) 60 m (b) 50 m
(c) 120 m (d) data inadequate
6. The area of a square and that of a rectangle are equal. If the side of the
square is 50 cm and the breadth of the rectangle is 30 cm then the length
and perimeter of the rectangle are respectively
(a) 18 cm and 96 cm (b) 18 cm and 136 cm
(c) 83.3 cm and 226.6 cm (d) 83.3 cm and 266.6 cm
7. Ayush cut a rectangle A from a sheet of paper. A smaller rectangle is then
cut off from the large rectangle A to produce Figure B. In comparing A
to B, we can say that
1
24. A room is 12 m long and 7 m wide. The maximum length of a square
4
tile to fill the floor of the room with a whole number of tiles should be
(a) 125 cm (b) 150 cm (c) 175 cm (d) 200 cm
25. If the length of diagonal AC of a square ABCD is 5.2 cm then the area of
the square is
(a) 10.52 sq cm (b) 11.52 sq c m (c) 12.52 sq cm (d) 13.52 sq cm
26. A man walking at the speed of 4 kmph crosses a square field diagonally
in 3 minutes. The area of the field is
(a) 18000 m 2 (b) 19000 m 2 (c) 20000 m 2 (d) 25000 m 2
27. The ratio of the areas of two squares, one having its diagonal double
than the other, is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 4 : 1
28. A rectangular lawn 55 m × 35 m has two roads each 4 m wide running in
the middle of it, one parallel to length and the other parallel to breadth.
The cost of gravelling the roads at ` 75 per square metre is
(a) ` 25450 (b) ` 25800 (c) ` 26250 (d) ` 27000
29. The side of a square plot is 80 m. Two paths of 4 m width, parallel to the
sides of the square, are constructed in the middle of the plot. The area of
the path is
(a) 139 m 2 (b) 264 m 2 (c) 512 m 2 (d) 624 m 2
30. A rectangular grass plot 80 m × 60 m has two roads each 10 m wide
running in the middle of it, one parallel to length and the other parallel
to breadth. The area of the plot, which is not occupied by the roads, is
(a) 3300 m 2 (b) 3400 m 2 (c) 3500 m 2 (d) 3600 m 2
31. A rectangular grassy lawn measuring 30 m by 28 m is to be surrounded
externally by a path 2 m wide. The area of the path is
(a) 246 m 2 (b) 248 m 2 (c) 1088 m 2 (d) 1348 m 2
32. A rectangular park 300 m by 210 m has a path 5 m wide all around it, on
the inside. The cost of constructing the path at ` 75 per 10 m 2 is
(a) ` 18937.50 (b) ` 19312.50 (c) ` 37500 (d) ` 59062.50
33. A path 7 m wide runs along inside a sqaure park of side 92 m. The cost
of cementing it at the rate of ` 260 per 10 m 2 is
(a) ` 59480 (b) ` 61540 (c) ` 61880 (d) ` 65430
34. A park, square in shape, has a 3-m-wide road inside it, running along its
sides. The area occupied by the road is 1764 sq m. What is the perimeter
along the outer edge of the road?
(a) 576 m (b) 600 m (c) 670 m (d) None of these
398 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
48. Rajan folded a square piece of paper two times. The area of the portion
of paper was reduced by half with each fold. At the end of the second
fold the portion of paper had an area of 9 cm 2 . What was the perimeter
of the square paper at first?
(a) 16 cm (b) 24 cm (c) 36 cm (d) 48 cm
49. A rectangular piece of paper
was folded to form the shape
shown in the adjoining figure.
What was the area of the
rectangular piece of paper
before it was folded?
(a) 272 cm 2
(b) 336 cm 2
(c) 400 cm 2
(d) 464 cm 2
50. 36 unit squares are joined to form a rectangle with the least perimeter.
The perimeter of the rectangle is
(a) 12 units (b) 24 units (c) 26 units (d) 36 units
51. The adjoining figure is made up of 8
identical squares and a rectangle. The
total area of the 8 squares is 200 cm 2 .
The perimeter of the whole figure is
(a) 100 cm (b) 110 cm
(c) 115 cm (d) 130 cm
61. Out of a square of side 8 cm, a triangle is drawn with base as one side
of the square and the third vertex at any point on the opposite side of
the square. What is the area of the remaining portion of the square if the
triangle is taken out?
(a) 16 cm 2 (b) 32 cm 2
(c) 64 cm 2 (d) Cannot be determined
62. What will be the ratio between the area of a rectangle and the area of a
triangle with one of the sides of the rectangle as base and a vertex on the
opposite side of the rectangle?
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1 (d) Data inadequate
63. If the area of a square with side a is equal to the area of a triangle with
base a then the altitude of the triangle is
a
(a) (b) a (c) 2a (d) 4a
2
64. In the adjoining figure, if the areas of the
triangles LDC, BMC and AMC are denoted
by x, y and z respectively then
(a) x = y = z (b) x = 2y = 2z
(c) y = 2x = 2z (d) z = 2x = 2y
69. If three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm then the altitude of
the triangle corresponding to the largest side of the triangle, is
(a) 4.4 cm (b) 4.8 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 8 cm
70. The sides of a triangle are 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The area (in cm2) of the
triangle formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of this triangle is
3 3
(a) (b) (c) 3 (d) 6
4 2
71. The sides of a CABC are 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm. If
D, E and F are the midpoints of sides of CABC
then the perimeter of CDEF is
(a) 6 cm (b) 9 cm
(c) 12 cm (d) 18 cm
72. In the adjoining figure, CABC is right-angled at B. If
AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and BD AC then the length
of BD is
(a) 1.2 cm (b) 2.4 cm
(c) 3.6 cm (d) 4.8 cm
73. The hypotenuse of a right-angled isosceles triangle is 5 cm. The area of
the triangle is
(a) 5 cm 2 (b) 6.25 cm 2 (c) 6.5 cm 2 (d) 12.5 cm 2
74. The legs of a right triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 and its area is 1014 sq cm.
The length of its hypotenuse is
(a) 56 cm (b) 63 cm (c) 65 cm (d) 69 cm
75. ABCD is a rectangle. E and F are the
midpoints of AD and BC respectively. If
DP = PQ = QC then the ratio of the areas of
CDFQ, CDEF and CADB is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 3 : 4
(c) 3 : 4 : 5 (d) 2 : 3 : 6
76. The ratio of the bases of two triangles is m : n and that of their areas is
p : q. Then, the ratio of their corresponding altitude will be
p q m q
(a) pm : qn (b) : (c) pn : qm (d) :
m n p n
77. The adjoining figure shows two
squares of side 5 cm and 3 cm
respectively. The area of the
shaded region is
(a) 15 cm 2 (b) 18 cm 2
(c) 22 cm 2 (d) 24 cm 2
404 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
92. The two parallel sides of a trapezium are 1.5 m and 2.5 m respectively.
If the perpendicular distance between them is 6.5 m, the area of the
trapezium is
(a) 10 m 2 (b) 13 m 2 (c) 20 m 2 (d) 26 m 2
93. If the area of the trapezium whose parallel sides are 6 cm and 10 cm is
32 sq cm then the distance between the parallel sides is
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 8 cm
94. The adjoining figure shows a trapezium
ABCD. If the area of the trapezium is
72 cm 2 then x is equal to
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 8
104. A rectangular garden has a circular pond inside it. The area of the
2
circular pond is 224 m 2 which is of the area of the garden. Then, the
9
area of the garden which is not covered by the pond is
(a) 676 m 2 (b) 756 m 2 (c) 784 m 2 (d) 842 m 2
105. What is the maximum number of circles of radius 4 cm each that can
be cut from a piece of cardboard measuring 80 cm by 90 cm?
(a) 110 (b) 120 (c) 132 (d) 144
106. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle with dimensions
14 cm and 11 cm. The radius of the circle is
(a) 7 cm (b) 10.5 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 21 cm
107. A wire is bent to form a square of side 22 cm. If the wire is rebent to
form a circle its radius is
(a) 7 cm (b) 11 cm (c) 14 cm (d) 22 cm
108. The area of a square inscribed in a circle of radius 7 cm is
(a) 84 cm 2 (b) 92 cm 2 (c) 98 cm 2 (d) 108 cm 2
109. The circumference of a circle exceeds the diameter by 30 cm. The
radius of the circle is
(a) 3.5 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 10.5 cm (d) 14 cm
110. If A is the area and C is the circumference of a circle then its radius is
A 2A 3A 4A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
C C C C
111. The area of a circular field is equal to the area of a rectangular field.
The ratio of the length and breadth of the rectangular field is 14 : 11
respectively and perimeter is 100 metres. The diameter of the circular
field is
(a) 14 m (b) 22 m (c) 24 m (d) 28 m
112. The perimeters of a circular field and a square field are equal. If the
area of the square field is 12100 m 2 , the area of the circular field will be
(a) 15200 m 2 (b) 15400 m 2 (c) 15600 m 2 (d) 15800 m 2
408 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
113. If the ratio between the areas of two circles is 4 : 1 then the ratio between
their radii will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 4 : 1
114. The ratio of the circumferences of two circles is 2 : 3. What is the ratio
of their areas?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 4 : 9
(c) 9 : 4 (d) None of these
115. The circumferences of two circles are 44 m and 88 m respectively. The
difference in their areas is
(a) 142 m 2 (b) 426 m 2 (c) 462 m 2 (d) 642 m 2
116. The circumferences of two concentric circles are 88 cm and 66 cm
respectively. The width between the rings is
(a) 1.5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 3.5 cm (d) 4 cm
117. The adjoining figure consists of two
identical circles which just fit inside a
rectangle. P and Q are the centres of
the two circles. The area of the shaded
portion is
(a) 236 cm 2 (b) 300 cm 2
2
(c) 330 cm (d) 336 cm 2
118. If the radius of the circle in the adjoining figure is
7 cm then the area of the shaded portion is
(a) 117 cm 2 (b) 128 cm 2
(c) 129.5 cm 2 (d) 135 cm 2
120. The diameter of a scooter wheel is 56 cm. How much distance will it
cover in 10 revolutions?
(a) 1560 cm (b) 1660 cm (c) 1760 cm (d) 1875 cm
121. The diameter of a wheel of a car is 70 cm. The number of complete
revolutions it will make to travel 8.8 km, is
(a) 3600 (b) 3850 (c) 4000 (d) 4050
Area and Perimeter 409
131. The hour hand of a clock is 4.5 cm long, what distance does its tip
cover in 12 hours?
(a) 28.28 cm (b) 28 cm (c) 336 cm (d) 339.4 cm
132. The ratio of the shaded part of the triangle to
the unshaded part of the triangle is 1 : 3. If the
ratio of the unshaded part of the circle to the
shaded part of the circle is 2 : 1, the total area of
the unshaded part of the figure is
(a) 20 cm 2 (b) 30 cm 2
(c) 36 cm 2 (d) 60 cm 2
The values that will substitute the blanks in (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively
are
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) 42 84 168
(b) 38.5 77 154
(c) 49 98 196
(d) 45.5 91 182
147. In the above question, if rope of any length is available then the
maximum area over which the cow can graze, is
(i) …… m2, if the cow is tied at point A
(ii) …… m2, if the cow is tied at point B
(iii) …… m2, if the cow is tied at point C
The values that will substitute the blanks in (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively
are
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) 154 308 616
(b) 308 616 616
(c) 616 308 616
(d) 616 308 154
149. Each of the figures shown below depicts a triangle and a circle enclosed
in a square.
The difference between the area of the shaded parts in Figure A and
the area of the shaded parts in Figure B is x cm 2 . Then,
(a) 0 < x < 50 (b) 50 < x < 100
(c) 100 < x < 150 (d) 150 < x < 200
150. The following cut-outs have been made from identical paper sheets
with identical cuts.
55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c)
64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (b)
82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (a) 97. (b) 98. (a) 99. (c)
100. (a) 101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (c) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (c) 108. (c)
109. (b) 110. (b) 111. (d) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (c) 116. (c) 117. (d)
118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (c) 121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (d)
127. (b) 128. (c) 129. (d) 130. (a) 131. (a) 132. (b) 133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (b)
136. (b) 137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (b) 140. (a) 141. (d) 142. (a) 143. (c) 144. (d)
145. (c) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (d) 149. (b) 150. (c)
l 2 b 2 ( 40)2 (30)2 cm
2500 cm 50 cm.
15. Length, l = 28 cm.
Let the breadth be b cm.
Diagonal = 35 cm l 2 b 2 35 l 2 b 2 (35)2 1225
b 1225 (28)2 1225 784
2
19. Let the length of each side of the square be a metres. Then,
a2 4 (25)2 a2 4 625 2500 (50)2 a 50.
length of each side of the square = 50 m.
20. Side of the square 1024 cm 32 cm.
Length of the rectangle (2 32) cm 64 cm.
Breadth of the rectangle (32 12) cm 20 cm.
64 16
required ratio 16 : 5.
20 5
21. Let the side of the square be x cm.
3
Then, breadth of the rectangle x cm.
2
418 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1
25. Area of the square (5.2)2 cm 2 5.2 5.2 cm 2 (2.6 5.2) cm 2 13.52 cm 2 .
2 2
26. Length of diagonal = distance covered by the man in 3 minutes
3 1 1
4 km km 1000 m 200 m.
60 5 5
1 2 2 1 2
area of the field (200) m 40000 m 20000 m 2 .
2 2
27. Let the length of diagonal of the second square be x units.
Then, length of diagonal of the first square = (2x) units.
1
(2 x )2
4x2
ratio of areas 2 2 4 : 1.
1 2 x
x
2
28. Total area of the roads [(55 4) (35 4) ( 4 4)] m 2
(220 140 16) m 2 (360 16) m 2 344 m 2 .
cost of gravelling = ` (344 × 75) = ` 25800.
35. Let the length and breadth of the plot be l and b metres respectively.
Then, 2 (l b) 340 l + b = 170 b = (170 – l) m.
Outer length (l 1 2) m (l 2) m.
Outer breadth (170 l 2) m (172 l) m.
Area in which gardening is to be done
[(l 2) (172 l) l (170 l)] m 2
(172 l l 2 344 2 l 170 l l 2 ) m 2 344 m 2 .
cost of gardening = ` (344 × 22) = ` 7568.
36. Length of fence = 2(60 + 40) m = 200 m.
Cost of fencing = ` (200 × 50) = ` 10000.
Area of the road [(64 44) (60 40)] m 2 (2816 2400) m 2 416 m 2 .
Let the cost of tiling the road be ` x per sq m.
416 x 10000 51600 416 x 41600 x = 100.
37. Area of the path [(26 16) (24 14)] m 2 ( 416 336) m 2 80 m 2 .
number of tiles required to cover the path
area of the path 80 100 100
2000.
area of each tile 20 20
38. Let original length = l units and original breadth = b units. Then,
150 3l
new length = (100 + 50)% of l l units
100 2
150 3b
and new breadth = (100 + 50)% of b b units.
100 2
Original area = (lb) sq units.
3l 3b 9lb
New area sq units sq units.
2 2 4
9lb 5lb
Increase in area lb sq units sq units.
4 4
5lb 1
increase % 100 % 125%.
4 lb
39. Let original length = l units and original breadth = b units.
l
New length units, new breadth = (3b) units.
2
Area and Perimeter 421
44. XP ( 9 16 25 ) cm
(3 4 5) cm 12 cm.
PY side of third square
25 cm 5 cm.
XY XP 2 PY 2 (12)2 5 2 cm
169 cm = 13 cm.
45. We divide the given figure into parts and calculate the area of each part as shown
under:
200 2 2
51. Area of each square cm 25 cm .
8
Side of each square 25 cm 5 cm.
Perimeter of the whole figure
(5 10 2.5 2.5 25 20) cm
= 100 cm.
55. Let the shaded area of the rectangle X be (2a) sq units and its unshaded area be
(3a) sq units.
Then, total area of each of the rectangles X, Y and Z = (2a + 3a) sq units = (5a) sq units.
Total shaded area of the whole figure = (2a + 2a) sq units = (4a) sq units.
Total area of the whole figure
= area of the rectangle X + area of the rectangle Z
+ unshaded area of the rectangle Y
= (5a + 5a + a) sq units = (11a) sq units.
required ratio = 4a : 11a = 4 : 11.
56. Area of the square A 9 cm 2 .
Side of the square A 9 cm 3 cm.
PT = RT = 3 cm.
Area of the rectangle B 15 cm 2 , RT = 3 cm.
15
TQ cm 5 cm.
3
Area of rectangle C 40 cm 2 , TQ = 5 cm.
40
TS cm 8 cm.
5
area of the rectangle D PT TS (3 8) cm 2 24 cm 2
58. PQ QR 10 cm,
QR PR 12 cm,
PR PQ 16 cm.
Adding the above three equations, we get
2 (PQ + QR + PR) = 38 cm PQ + QR + PR = 19 cm.
59. Let the lengths of sides be x cm, (x + 1) cm and (x + 2) cm. Then,
x ( x 1) ( x 2) 120 3 x 3 120 3 x 117 x 39.
length of greatest side ( x 2) cm (39 2) cm 41 cm.
426 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
area of the triangle formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of the original
1 3
triangle 6 cm 2 cm 2 .
4 2
71. Perimeter of CABC = (5 + 6 + 7) cm = 18 cm.
1 1
perimeter of CDEF perimeter of CABC 18 cm 9 cm.
2 2
72. By Pythagoras theorem:
AC AB2 BC 2 6 2 8 2 cm 100 cm 10 cm.
1 1
Area of CABC AB BC AC BD
2 2
1 1 68
6 8 cm 2 10 cm BD BD cm 4.8 cm.
2 2 10
73. Let the length of each of the two equal sides of the triangle be
x cm. Then,
25 .
x 2 x 2 5 2 2 x 2 25 x 2
2
1 1 1 25
Area of the triangle x cm x cm x 2 cm 2 cm 2
2 2 2 2
25 2 2
cm 6.25 cm .
4
74. Let the lengths of the legs of the right triangle be 3x and 4x respectively. Then,
1
3 x 4 x 1014 cm 2 6 x 2 1014 cm 2 x 2 169 cm 2 x 13 cm.
2
So, the lengths of the two legs are 39 cm and 52 cm.
length of hypotenuse (39)2 (52)2 cm 1521 2704 cm 4225 cm 65 cm.
428 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1 2 1 1
75. Area of CDFQ DQ FC DC BC DC BC.
2 2 3 2 6
1 1 1 1
Area of CDEF EF DE DC BC DC BC.
2 2 2 4
1 1
Area of CADB AB AD DC BC.
2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
required ratio DC BC : DC BC : DC BC : : 2 : 3 : 6.
6 4 2 6 4 2
76. Let their bases be mx and nx and their altitudes be h1 and h2 respectively. Then,
1
mx h1 p p n pn
2 h .
1
1 q h q m qm
nx h2 2
2
77. Area of the shaded region
= area of CACD – area of CBCE
1 1
AC CD BC CE
2 2
1 1
8 5 5 2 cm 2
2 2
(20 5) cm 2 15 cm 2 .
2
3 2 3 2A 3 4 A2
And, A a 2
4 4 h 4 h
3 A2
A 3 A h2 .
h2
81. UR = RS – SU = (21 – 9) cm = 12 cm.
ST = PS – PT = QR – PT = (10 – 4) cm = 6 cm.
Area of quad. PQUT = area of rectangle PQRS – (area of CUST + area of CQRU)
1 1
(PQ QR) SU ST UR QR
2 2
1 1
(21 10) 9 6 12 10 cm 2
2 2
[210 (27 60)] cm 2 (210 87 ) cm 2 123 cm 2 .
PQ 25
82. Side of each square = side of each triangle cm.
4 4
Length of wire used in forming the figure
PQ 25
20 PQ 20 25 cm (125 25) cm 150 cm.
4 4
length of wire left = [(1.8 × 100) – 150] cm (180 150) cm 30 cm.
83. Let the area of region P be x sq units.
Then, P = x, R = 3x, S = 2R = 2 × 3x = 6x.
Q = 2P = 2x.
QS 2x 6x 8x 2 .
required fraction
P Q R S x 2 x 3 x 6 x 12 x 3
1 1 1 1
84. Area of CDFC + area of CFEB DC BC BE BC
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
AB BC AB BC
4 2 2 2
1 1
AB BC AB BC
4 8
1 1 3
AB BC AB BC.
4 8 8
Area of rect. ABCD = AB × BC.
3 3
Required ratio AB BC : AB BC : 1 3 : 8.
8 8
85. Let the area of each of the 16 small rectangles be a sq
units. Then,
area of shaded portion
= area of CDAB + area of CFEB + area of CPGS
1 1
area of rect. ABCD area of rect. BCFE
2 2
1
area of rect. PQRS
2
430 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1 1 1
8 a 8 a 4 a sq units
2 2 2
= (4a + 4a + 2a) sq units = (10a) sq units.
Area of whole figure = (16a) sq units.
Area of unshaded portion = (16a – 10a) sq units = (6a) sq units.
required ratio = 10a : 6a = 5 : 3.
86. Area of rectangle ABCD = AB × BC.
Area of gm ABFE = AB × BC.
1
99. AB = 13 cm; OA AC 12 cm.
2
Let OB = x cm.
Then, (12)2 x 2 (13)2
x 2 (169 144) 25 x = 5.
So, BD = 2OB = 2x = 10 cm.
1 1
area of the rhombus AC BD 24 10 cm 2 120 cm 2 .
2 2
1 1
100. d1 d2 24 cm 2 6 cm d2 24 cm 2 d2 8 cm.
2 2
Clearly, OA = OC = 4 cm and OB = OD = 3 cm.
In right angled CAOB,
A r 2 r 2A .
110. r
C 2 r 2 C
111. Let the length and breadth of the rectangular field be (14x) and (11x) metres
respectively. Then,
2 (14 x 11x ) 100 50 x 100 x = 2.
So, length (14 2) m 28 m , breadth (11 2) m 22 m.
Let the radius of circular field be r metres.
22 2
Then, r 2 28 22 r 28 22
7
7
r 2 28 22
22
r 28 7 7 2 2 7 14.
diameter (2 r ) m (2 14) m 28 m.
112. Let each side of the square field be x metres and the radius of the circular field be r
metres.
Then, x 2 12100 x 12100 110.
side of the square = 110 m.
Now, Circumference of circular field = perimeter of square field
2 r 4 110
7 1
r 440 70.
22 2
radius of the circular field, r = 70 m.
22
area of circular field 70 70 m 2 15400 m 2 .
7
2 2
r12 4 r 4 2 r 2
113. 2
1 1 r1 : r2 2 : 1.
r2 1 r2 1 1 r2 1
2
2 r1 2 r 2 r2 2 4 r 2 4
114. 1 12 12 .
2 r2 3 r2 3 r2 3 9 r2 9
434 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
42
124. Clearly, R1 m 21 m, R2 (21 3.5) m 24.5 m.
2
Area of the path R22 R12 (R22 R12 )
(R2 R1 ) (R2 R1 )
22
(24.5 21) (24.5 21) m 2
7
22
45.5 3.5 m 2 500.5 m 2 .
7
cost of gravelling = ` (500.5 ×4) = ` 2002.
63
125. Radius of the semicircle cm.
2
Perimeter = diameter + length of the semicircular arc
2 r
2r 2r r
2
63 22 63
2 cm (63 99) cm 162 cm.
2 7 2
126. Let the radius of the semicircle be r cm.
Then, perimeter = 36 2r r 36
436 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
22 36 36 7
r 2 36 r 36 r 7.
7 7 36
So, radius of the semicircle, r = 7 cm.
r 2 22 1
required area 7 7 cm 2 77 cm 2 .
2 7 2
127. Let the radius of the circle be r cm. Then,
7
r 2 154 r 2 154 49 r = 7.
22
radius of the circle = 7 cm.
(i) Length of the wire = circumference of the circle
22
2 r 2 7 cm 44 cm.
7
(ii) Perimeter of the square = length of the wire = 44 cm.
44
length of each side cm 11 cm.
4
So, area of the square (11)2 cm 2 121 cm 2.
(iii) Let the radius of the semicircle be R cm.
22 36
Then, perimeter 2 R R R (2 ) R 2 R cm.
7 7
36 R 44 7 77
44 R 8.56.
7 36 9
So, radius of the semicircle = 8.56 cm.
128. Area of the square 81 cm 2 .
Side of the square 81 cm 9 cm.
Diameter of the inscribed circle = side of the square = 9 cm.
9
Radius of the inscribed circle, r cm.
2
22 9 198 2
Circumference 2 r 2 cm cm 28 cm.
7 2 7 7
129. Side of the square = diameter of circle with centre Q + radius of circle with centre P
= (4 + 1) cm = 5 cm.
area of the square (5 5) cm 2 25 cm 2 .
130. Let the radius of each of the small circles be r units.
Then, radius of big circle = (2r) units.
Area of big circle [ (2r )2 ] sq units ( 4 r 2 ) sq units.
Area of shaded part = area of big circle – 2 × area of each small circle
( 4 r 2 2 r 2 ) sq units (2 r 2 ) sq units.
required ratio 2 r 2 : 4 r 2 1 : 2.
131. Radius, r = 4.5 cm.
Number of rounds covered by hour hand in 12 hours = 1.
Area and Perimeter 437
22
2 7 cm 44 cm.
7
Area of the shaded part
= area of square with side 14 cm – 4 × area of quadrant with radius 7 cm
= area of square with side 14 cm – area of circle with radius 7 cm
22
(14 14) 7 7 cm 2 (196 154) cm 2 42 cm 2 .
7
Area and Perimeter 439
EXERCISE 19B
Direction (Questions 1 to 43): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The number of squares of side 3 cm each required to cover a rectangle
measuring 33 cm by 12 cm is …… .
2. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 3 : 2. If its area is
216 cm 2 then its perimeter is …… .
Area and Perimeter 441
26. The ratio of the area of a square of side a and that of an equilateral
triangle of side a is …… .
27. If each side of the adjoining square is 12 cm then the
shaded area of the figure is …… .
31. Two cross-roads, each of width 10 m, cut at right angles through the
centre of a rectangular park of length 700 m and breadth 300 m and
parallel to its sides. The area of the roads is …… hectares.
32. If a wire in the shape of a square is rebent into a rectangle then the ……
of both shapes remain the same but …… may vary.
33. If the radius of a circle is doubled then its circumference becomes ……
times and its area becomes …… times.
34. A 3-metre-wide path runs around a rectangular park of length 125 m
and breadth 65 m. The area of the path is
(i) …… m 2 , if the path runs outside the park.
(ii) …… m 2 , if the path runs inside the park.
35. If the ratio of the diameters of two circles is 1 : 3 then the ratio of their
perimeters is …… and the ratio of their areas is …… .
36. The adjoining sides of a parallelogram are 36 cm and 27 cm in length. If
the perpendicular distance between the shorter sides is 12 cm then the
distance between the longer sides is …… .
37. A rectangular sheet of paper measures 30 cm by 20 cm. A strip 4 cm
wide is cut from it all around. The area of the strip cut-out is …… .
38. The area of a rectangular field is 0.25 ha. If one side is 12.5 m, the length
of its other side is …… .
39. A circular table cloth with a circumference of 220 cm is laid on a circular
table with diameter 50 cm. The length of tablecloth hanging down on
each side of the table is …… .
Area and Perimeter 443
40. Circular discs of radius 7 cm each are cut-out from a metal sheet of
dimensions 56 cm by 33 cm. Then,
(i) the maximum possible number of discs that can be cut-out is …… .
(ii) the area of the remaining sheet is …… .
41. In the above question, if the radius of each circular disc be 10.5 cm then
(i) the maximum possible number of discs that can be cut-out is …… .
(ii) the area of the remaining sheet is …… .
42. Two congruent circles are draw inside a
rectangle such that they touch each other.
If the sum of the areas of the two circles is
308 cm 2 then the perimeter of the rectangle
is …… .
43. A rope by which a goat is tied is increased in length from 12 m to 23 m.
Then, the additional area over which it can now graze is …… m 2 .
Direction (Questions 44 to 60): State whether each of the following statements is
true or false.
44. Two congruent triangles are equal in area. ……
45. Triangles which are equal in area are congruent to each other. ……
46. The area of any parallelogram ABCD is AB × BC. ……
47. 1 hectare = 10000 m 2 . ……
48. Any increase in the perimeter of a figure always increases the area of the
figure. ……
49. Two figures can have the same area but different perimeters. ……
50. The area of a triangle gets doubled if each of its base and height is
doubled. ……
51. If a circle of a diameter d has a circular path of width m all around it
on the outside then the diameter of the outer circle is (d m). ……
52. If both the length and breadth of a rectangle are doubled then the area
of the rectangle also gets doubled. ……
53. The area of circle A is 25 times the area of circle B. Then, the circumference
of circle A is 5 times the circumference of circle B. ……
C2 .
54. The area of a circle of circumference C is ……
4
55. 10 cm 2 100 mm 2 . ……
56. If the base of a triangle is doubled and the height is halved then the area
of the triangle remains unchanged. ……
57. The area of a circular path d units wide around a circular garden of
radius r units is (d 2 r 2 ). ……
444 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
58. The length of a lane 5 m wide which can be covered by 40000 bricks of
size 22 cm by 15 cm is 264 m. ……
59. If the circumference and area of a circle are numerically equal then the
diameter of the circle is 2 units. ……
60. Two small circular parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m are to be replaced
by a bigger circular park with area equal to the sum of the areas of the
smaller parks. The radius of the bigger park will be 14 m. ……
17. Let the area of each of the circle and square be a sq units. Then,
side of the square a units,
a
radius of the circle units.
a 1
required ratio a : 1: : 1.
22
18. C = 44 cm 2r = 44 cm 2 r 44 cm
7
44 7
r cm 7 cm.
2 22
22
area r 2 7 7 cm 2 154 cm 2 .
7
24
19. Base of the rhombus cm 6 cm.
4
Let the altitude be h cm. Then,
42
6 × h = 42 h 7.
6
altitude of the rhombus = 7 cm.
20. Let the base of the triangle be x units and its height be y units. Then,
area of the triangle = (40x) sq units.
1 y
x y 40 x 40 y = (40 × 2) = 80 units.
2 2
21. Let the length of spoke be r cm. Then,
22 198 7 63 1
2r = 198 2 r 198 r 31 .
7 2 22 2 2
1
length of spoke 31 cm.
2
circumference of the circle
22. Length of arc of the quadrant
4
2 r r .
4 2
r r
perimeter of the quadrant rr 2r
2 2
r 4r r ( 4)
units.
2 2
23. Let the altitude of the triangle be h units. Then,
area of the square = area of the triangle
1 2x2
xx xh h 2 x units.
2 x
24. Let the radius of the circle be r units. Then,
r 2 25 r 2 25 r = 5 units.
Circumference = 2r = (2 × 5) units = 10 units.
Area and Perimeter 447
25. Let diameter of the circle = diagonal of the square = x units. Then,
2
x 1 x 2 x 2
ratio of their areas : x 2 : = : 2.
2 2 4 2
3 2 3
26. Required ratio a2 : a 1: 4 : 3.
4 4
27. Clearly, the square is divided into 8 equal parts, of which 3 parts are shaded.
3
So, shaded area area of the square
8
3
12 12 cm 2 54 cm 2 .
8
28. Let the radius of the circle be r units.
p
Then, 2r = p r .
2
2
p p2 p2
area r 2 2 .
2 4 4
1 1
30. Area of CDAE AE DE 3 cm DE.
2 2
3 9 2
cm DE 9 cm 2 DE cm 6 cm.
2 3
Area of gm ABCD = AB × DE (7 6) cm 2 42 cm 2 .
9900
ha 0.99 ha.
10000
32. The length of the wire and hence the perimeter of the two shapes remains the same but
the areas enclosed by them differ.
33. Let original radius = r.
Then, new radius = 2r.
Original circumference = 2r.
New circumference (2 2r ) 2 2 r = 2 × original cirumference.
Original area r 2 .
New area (2r )2 4r 2 4 r 2 4 original area.
448 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
308 2 2
42. Area of each circle cm 154 cm .
2
Let the radius of each circle be r cm.
22 2 154 7
Then, r 2 154 r 154 r 2 49 r = 7.
7 22
radius of each circle = 7 cm.
Diameter of each circle = (2 × 7) cm = 14 cm.
So, length of rectangle = (2 × 14) cm = 28 cm.
breadth of rectangle = 14 cm.
perimeter of rectangle = 2(28 + 14) cm = (2 × 42) cm = 84 cm.
450 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
50. If each of the base and height are doubled the area of the triangle becomes four times.
d
51. Radius of circle .
2
d
Radius of outer circle m .
2
d
Diameter of outer circle 2 m (d 2m).
2
52. If both the length and breadth of a rectangle are doubled then the area of the rectangle
becomes four times.
2
rA2 25 r 2 25 r 5 2 r 5 2 rA rA 5
53. 2
A2 A A .
rB 1 rB 1 rB 1 rB 1 2 rB rB 1
20 Volume and Surface Area
EXERCISE 20
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. A rectangular water tank is 8 m high, 6 m long and 2.5 m wide. How
many litres of water can it hold?
(a) 120 L (b) 1200 L (c) 12000 L (d) 120000 L
2. The dimensions of a cuboid are 7 cm, 11 cm and 13 cm. The total surface
area is
(a) 311 cm 2 (b) 622 cm 2 (c) 1001 cm 2 (d) 2002 cm 2
451
452 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
13. If the volume of a cube is 1331 cm 3 then the surface area of the cube
will be
(a) 484 cm 2 (b) 616 cm 2 (c) 726 cm 2 (d) 784 cm 2
14. The surface area of a cube is 1176 cm 2 . Its volume is
(a) 1728 cm 3 (b) 2197 cm 3 (c) 2744 cm 3 (d) 4096 cm 3
15. The dimensions of a piece of iron in the shape of a cuboid are
270 cm × 100 cm × 64 cm. If it is melted and recast into a cube then the
surface area of the cube will be
(a) 14400 cm 2 (b) 44200 cm 2 (c) 57600 cm 2 (d) 86400 cm 2
16. The cost of painting the whole surface area of a cube at the rate of `13
per sq cm is ` 34398. The volume of the cube is
(a) 8500 cm 3 (b) 9000 cm 3 (c) 9250 cm 3 (d) 9261 cm 3
17. V1 , V2 , V3 and V4 are the volumes of four cubes of side lengths x cm,
2x cm, 3x cm and 4x cm respectively. Some statements regarding these
volumes are given below:
I. V1 V2 2V3 V4
II. V1 4V2 V3 V4
III. 2 (V1 V3 ) V2 V4
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) I and III (d) I, II and III
18. From a cube of side 8 m, a square hole of 3 m side is hollowed from end
to end. What is the volume of the remaining solid?
(a) 440 m 3 (b) 480 m 3 (c) 508 m 3 (d) 520 m 3
19. How many cubes of 10 cm edge can be put in a cubical box of 1 m edge?
(a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 1000 (d) 10000
20. A 4 cm cube is cut into 1 cm cubes. The total surface area of all the small
cubes is
(a) 24 cm 2 (b) 96 cm 2 (c) 384 cm 2 (c) none of these
3
21. A rectangular block with a volume of 250 cm was sliced into two cubes
of equal volume. How much greater (in sq cm) is the combined surface
area of the two cubes than the original surface area of the rectangular
block?
(a) 48.64 (b) 50 (c) 56.25 (d) 84.67
22. A rectangular box measures internally 1.6 m long, 1 m broad and 60 cm
deep. The number of cubical blocks each of edge 20 cm that can be
packed inside the box is
(a) 30 (b) 53 (c) 60 (d) 120
23. How many cubes of 3 cm edge can be cut out of a cube of 18 cm edge?
(a) 36 (b) 216 (c) 218 (d) 432
454 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
24. How many small cubes, each of 96 cm 2 surface area, can be formed from
the material obtained by melting a larger cube of 384 cm 2 surface area?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 800 (d) 8000
25. The volume of a cuboid is twice that of a cube. If the dimensions of the
cuboid are 9 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm, the total surface area of the cube is
(a) 72 cm 2 (b) 108 cm 2
(c) 216 cm 2 (d) 432 cm 2
26. A cuboidal block of 6 cm × 9 cm × 12 cm is cut up into an exact number
of equal cubes. The least possible number of cubes will be
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 24 (d) 30
27. An iron cube of side 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of
thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of the sheet are in the ratio 1 : 5, the sides are
(a) 10 cm, 50 cm (b) 20 cm, 100 cm
(c) 40 cm, 200 cm (d) none of these
28. There is a cube of volume 216 cm 3 . It is to be moulded into a cuboid
having one edge equal to 6 cm. The number of ways that it can be done
so that the edges have different integral values is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
29. Three solid cubes of sides 1 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm are melted to form a new
cube. The edge of the new cube so formed is
(a) 5 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 10 cm
30. A larger cube is formed from the material obtained by melting three
smaller cubes of side 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of the total surface
areas of the smaller cubes and the larger cube is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 25 : 18 (d) 27 : 20
31. Five equal cubes, each of side 5 cm, are placed adjacent to each other.
The volume of the new solid formed will be
(a) 125 cm 3 (b) 625 cm 3
(c) 15525 cm 3 (d) none of these
32. If each edge of a cube is doubled then its volume
(a) is doubled (b) becomes 4 times
(c) becomes 6 times (d) becomes 8 times
33. 1 litre of water weighs 1 kg. How many cubic millimetres of water will
weigh 0.1 g?
(a) 0.1 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 100
Volume and Surface Area 455
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d)
8. Let the breadth and height of the room be b and h metres respectively.
Then, area of the floor (15b) m 2 .
2.5 60
15b 2.5 60 b 10.
15
Volume of the room (15 10 h) m 3 (150 h) m 3 .
12 60 24
150 h 12 60 h 4.8 m.
150 5
9. Length of the longest pole = length of diagonal
(12)2 92 8 2 m 144 81 64 m 289 m 17 m.
10. Volume of bricks in the wall = 90% of the volume of the wall
90
(2400 800 60) cm 3
100
(54 2400 800) cm 3 .
Volume of 1 brick (24 12 8) cm 3 .
54 2400 800
number of bricks 45000.
24 12 8
11. Length of tray (10 2 2) cm 6 cm.
Breadth of tray (8 2 2) cm 4 cm.
Depth of tray = 2 cm.
volume of tray (6 4 2) cm 3 48 cm 3 .
1 2
2 3 2
12. Surface area of the cube 6 cm cm .
2 2
17. V1 ( x 3 ) cm 3 , V2 (2 x )3 cm 3 (8 x 3 ) cm 3 ,
V3 (3 x )3 cm 3 (27 x 3 ) cm 3 , V4 ( 4 x )3 cm 3 (64 x 3 ) cm 3 .
I. V1 V2 2V3 ( x 3 8 x 3 2 27 x 3 ) 63 x 3 V4 .
II. V1 4V2 V3 ( x 3 4 8 x 3 27 x 3 ) 60 x 3 V4 .
III. 2 (V1 V3 ) V2 2( x 3 27 x 3 ) 8 x 3 56 x 3 8 x 3 64 x 3 V4 .
18. Volume of the remaining solid
= volume of the cube – volume of the cuboid cut-out from it
[(8 8 8) (3 3 8)] m 3 (512 72) m 3 440 m 3 .
volume of cubical box
19. Number of cubes
volume of each small cube
100 100 100
10 10 10 1000.
10 10 10
volume of bigger cube 4 4 4
20. Number of small cubes formed 64.
volume of each small cube 1 1 1
Surface area of each small cube (6 12 ) cm 2 6 cm 2 .
Total surface area of smaller cubes (64 6) cm 2 384 cm 2 .
21. Clearly, when the rectangular block was cut into 2 identical cubes, two new faces were
formed, one on each cube along the line of the cut.
So, the difference in surface areas is equal to the total surface area of the newly formed
faces.
250 3 3
Volume of each cube cm 125 cm .
2
Edge of each cube 3 125 cm 5 cm.
Hence, difference in surface areas (2 5 2 ) cm 2 50 cm 2 .
volume of rectangular box
22. Number of blocks
volume of each cubical block
160 100 60
120.
20 20 20
18 18 18
23. Number of cubes 216.
333
24. Let each edge of the smaller cube be a1 cm and that of the larger cube be a2 cm.
Then, 6 a12 96 a12 16 4 2 a1 4 cm.
And, 6 a2 2 384 a2 2 64 8 2 a2 8 cm.
volume of larger cube 888
number of cubes 8.
volume of each small cube 4 4 4
25. Volume of cuboid (9 8 6) cm 3 432 cm 3 .
1
Volume of cube 432 cm 3 216 cm 3 .
2
Let each edge of the cube be a cm.
Then, a3 216 6 3 a 6.
total surface area 6 a2 (6 6 2 ) cm 2 216 cm 2 .
458 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
21 Data Handling
459
460 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1
value of 2 (n 1)th observation, when n is odd
median
1 n th observation n 1 th observation ,
2 2 2
when n is even.
13. MODE Mode is the value of the variable which occurs most frequency.
EXERCISE 21A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. A footwear dealer wishes to place an order for the size of shoes which
sells the most at his counter. What measure of central tendency would
be most appropriate to consider?
(a) Mean (b) Median (c) Mode (d) Any of these
2. Which measures of central tendency get affected if the extreme
observations on both the ends of the data arranged in descending order
are removed?
(a) Mean and mode (b) Mean and median
(c) Mode and median (d) Mean, mode and median
3. Suppose we are given the data pertaining to the weights of 31 students
of a class, then which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Range of the data gives the difference between the weights of the
heaviest and lightest students.
(b) Mean of the data gives the average weight of the students.
Data Handling 461
(c) Mode of the data gives the weight which most students in the class
have.
(d) Median of the data gives the weight of the student who occupies
the middle position on arranging the students in ascending or
descending order of their weights.
(e) All are correct.
4. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Mean of a data set is the value which divides the data values into
two equal parts.
(b) To find out the most popular sport among the students of a class,
we need to find the mode of the data pertaining to the number of
students playing different sports.
(c) The mode of 36, 31, 33, 31, 37, 31, 35 is 31, because it has the highest
frequency.
(d) The median of a data having even number of observations is the
mean of the two middle observations.
5. Which of the following is a positional measure of central tendency?
(a) Range (b) Mean (c) Median (d) Mode
6. The mean and median of 32, 47, 59, 43, 49, 60, 61, 35, 53 are respectively
(a) 46.87 and 49 (b) 48.69 and 43
(c) 48.77 and 49 (d) 49 and 47
7. The median of the data 98, 77, 182, 226, 95, 104, 91, 100, 197, 78, 488, 84 is
(a) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100
8. The heights of 10 students (in cm) are 145, 156, 164, 153, 167, 150, 137,
136, 140, 148. How many students have height more than the mean
height?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
9. Which of the following sets of data has the same mean, median and
mode?
(a) 4, 6, 4, 3, 4, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 8, 3, 7, 3, 2
(c) 3, 2, 3, 1, 2, 2, 4 (d) 1, 4, 3, 4, 5, 2, 6
10. The table below gives the weights (in kg) of 50 students of class 7.
Weight (in kg) 48 49 50 51 52
Number of students 6 8 9 14 13
Their mean weight is
(a) 48 kg (b) 49 kg (c) 50.4 kg (d) 52 kg
462 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
20. Which value must be deleted from the data 32, 40, 45, 42, 40, 36, 40, 47 to
make the mean, mode and median the same?
(a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 42 (d) 45
21. To change the mode of the following data to 11, what least number of
times do we need to add on the observation 11?
12, 11, 2, 11, 12, 13, 12.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
22. If the mode of the data 8, p, 5, 2, 3, 8, 7, 5, 3, 5 is 5, which of the following
cannot be the value of p?
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 8
23. The mean of 3 numbers a, b and c is 8 and the mean of 5 numbers a, b, c,
d and e is 15. Then, the mean of d and e is
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 25.5 (d) 51
24. The mean of x numbers is p and the mean of another y numbers is q. The
mean of all the numbers taken together is
pq pq xp yq xp yq
(a) (b) (c) (d)
xy xy xy pq
25. A company sells a line of 25 products with a mean retail price of ` 1200.
If none of these products sell for less than ` 420 and exactly 10 of the
products sell for less than `1000 each, then what is the greatest possible
selling price of the most expensive product?
(a) ` 2600 (b) ` 3900 (c) ` 7800 (d) ` 11800
26. The mean of p, q and r is 14. Twice the sum of q and r is 30. Then, p
equals
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 27
27. The mean age of 30 students in a class is 15 years. If 6 students of this
class have the mean age of 16 years then the mean age of the remaining
24 students would be
(a) 14 years (b) 14 years 3 months
(c) 14 years 6 months (d) 14 years 9 months
28. The mean of 10 numbers is 40.2. Later it is found that two numbers have
been wrongly added. The first is 18 greater than the actual number and
the second number added is 13 instead of 33. The correct mean is
(a) 40.2 (b) 40.4 (c) 40.6 (d) 40.8
29. The mean marks obtained by 22 candidates in an examination are 45.
The mean marks of the first ten are 55 and that of the last eleven are 40.
The marks obtained by the 11th candidate are
(a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 47.5 (d) 50
464 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
30. The mean age of the mother and her six children is 12 years which is
reduced by 5 years if the age of the mother is excluded. How old is the
mother?
(a) 40 years (b) 42 years (c) 48 years (d) 50 years
Direction (Questions 31 and 32): Study the following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
The following bar graph shows the number of rotten oranges in 7 boxes
containing 100 oranges each.
33. In how many months was the production of cars more than the average
production of the given months?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
34. The average production of February and March was exactly equal to the
average production of which of the following groups of months?
(a) January, June and July
(b) January, May, June and August
(c) April and July
(d) May, June and July
35. What was the percentage decline in the production of cars from March
to April?
1
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 33 %
3
36. In which month was the percentage increase in production as compared
to the previous month the maximum?
(a) February (b) March (c) May (d) July
37. What was the percentage increase in production of cars in August
compared to that in January?
(a) 150% (b) 200% (c) 220% (d) 300%
Direction (Questions 38 to 42): Study the following bar graph carefully and
answer the given questions.
Number (in lakhs) of students studying in different universities in a year
38. The number of male students in university B is what per cent of the total
number of students in university D?
(a) 62 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) 66
466 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
43. After how much time the effect of the medicine started?
(a) 1 hour (b) 2 hours
(c) 3 hours (d) 4 hours
44. Up to how much time the effect of the medicine lasted?
(a) 2 hours (b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours (d) 6 hours
Data Handling 467
45. If the heart rate of the patient rose by p% from 7 a.m. to 1 p.m. and the
medicine brought down the heart rate at the most by q% then
2 2
(a) p = 20, q 16 (b) p 16 , q = 20
3 3
2 2
(c) p 16 , q 16 (d) p = 20, q = 20
3 3
Direction (Questions 46 to 51): These questions are based on the information
given below.
The following line graph depicts the number of toys produced by
a company during the first 8 months of a certain year. Study the graph
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
52. What per cent of the total marks were obtained by the student in science?
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 35%
53. In which of the following subjects did the student score 100 marks?
(a) Hindi (b) Mathematics (c) Science (d) Social Science
54. The difference between the marks obtained in mathematics and social
science is the same as that between
(a) mathematics and Hindi (b) Hindi and science
(c) English and Hindi (d) science and English
55. The marks scored by the student in social science and science together
exceed the marks obtained by him in Hindi and English together, by
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 60
56. The aggregate marks obtained by the student averaged over the five
subjects is
(a) 72 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 95
1
57. In which subject did the student score 18 % of the total marks?
18
(a) English (b) Mathematics (c) Hindi (d) Social science
58. The marks obtained in three subjects Hindi, English and mathematics
together is what per cent of the total marks?
4 5 2 1
(a) 44 % (b) 55 % (c) 62 % (d) 65 %
9 9 9 9
59. The range of marks obtained by the student in different subjects is
(a) 43.75 (b) 45 (c) 47.5 (d) 42.5
Data Handling 469
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (e) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a)
2. Median, being the middle value, is not affected by the removal of extreme observations
on both the ends of the data.
4. Median of a data set is the value which divides the data values into two equal parts.
6. Number of observations = 9, which is odd.
32 47 59 43 49 60 61 35 53 439
Mean of the data 48.77.
9 9
The observations arranged in ascending order are 32, 35, 43, 47, 49, 53, 59, 60, 61.
median = 5th observation = 49.
7. The observations arranged in ascending order are 77, 78, 84, 91, 95, 98, 100, 104, 182,
197, 226, 488.
Number of observations = 12, which is even.
98 100 198
median = mean of 6th and 7th observations 99.
2 2
145 156 164 153 167 150 137 136 140 148 1496
8. Mean 149.6.
10 10
Clearly, students with heights 156 cm, 164 cm, 153 cm, 167 cm, 150 cm have height
more than the mean height.
9. (a) Arranging in ascending order: 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4, 6.
3 3 4 4 4 4 6 28
Mean 4.
7 7
Median = 4th observation = 4.
Mode = 4.
(b) Arranging in ascending order: 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 7, 8.
2 2 3 3 3 7 8 28
Mean 4.
7 7
Median = 4th observation = 3.
Mode = 3.
(c) Arranging in ascending order: 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 4.
1 2 2 2 3 3 4 17 3
Mean 2 .
7 7 7
Median = 4th observation = 2.
Mode = 2.
470 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
49 8 392
50 9 450
51 14 714
52 13 676
fi 50 fi xi 2520
2520
mean weight kg 50.4 kg.
50
1 4 4
2 3 6
3 2 6
4 1 4
fi 10 p fi xi 20
20 .
Mean marks
10 p
20
1 10 + p = 20 p = 10.
10 p
x1 x2 ... xn
12. Original mean
n
x1 x2 ... xn
m .
n
( x1 m) ( x2 m) ... ( xn m)
New mean
n
x1 x2 ... xn
( x1 x2 ... xn ) n
( x1 x2 ... xn ) nm n
n n
( x x2 ... xn ) ( x1 x2 ... xn ) 2 ( x1 x2 ... xn )
1 2 m.
n n
Data Handling 471
13. The weights in ascending order: 35, 36, 36, 36, 37, 40, 41, 41, 46.
Number of observations = 9, which is odd.
35 36 36 36 37 40 41 41 46 348 116 2
Mean 38 .
9 9 3 3
Median = 5th observation = 37. Mode = 36.
mode < median < mean.
14. The mode of the given data is 19, since it occurs the highest number of times, i.e., 3.
18 occurs 2 times and if 18 is added to the data then 18 will also be the mode of the data.
15. xi fi xi × f i
10 15 150
15 20 300
20 30 600
30 5 150
40 10 400
fi 80 fi xi 1600
1600
mean 20.
80
16. The observation 20 has the highest frequency. So, mode = 20.
17. Median of the data is 95 which is not in the given data. Also, the number of observations
is 8, which is even. So, m occurs before 96. Arranging the given data in ascending
order, we have: 40, 65, 85, m, 96, 98, 100, 104.
m 96 .
median = mean of 4th and 5th observations
2
m 96
So, 95 m + 96 = 190 m = 190 – 96 = 94.
2
18. Arranging the data in ascending order, we have: 75, 75, 75, 75, 80, 94, 96, 98, 98, 100,
100, 102, 180, 200, 200, 270, 610.
Range = highest observation – lowest observation = 610 – 75 = 535.
Number of observations = 17.
75 75 75 75 80 94 96 98 98 100 100
102 180 200 200 270 6100 2528
Mean 148.70.
17 17
Median = 9th observation = 98. Mode = 75.
19. Number of observations = 10, which is even.
2x 2x 4
Median = mean of 5th and 6th observations 2 x 2.
2
2x + 2 = 68 2x = 66 x = 33.
20. Arranging the given data in ascending order, we have: 32, 36, 40, 40, 40, 42, 45, 47.
Mode = 40.
32 36 40 40 40 42 45 47 322
Mean 40.25.
8 8
472 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
40 40 80
Median = mean of 5th and 6th observations 40.
2 2
Let x be removed. Then,
322 x
40 322 – x = 280 x = 322 – 280 = 42.
7
21. Arranging the given data in ascending order, we have: 2, 11, 11, 12, 12, 12, 13.
Mode = 12, which occurs 3 times.
To change the mode to 11, the frequency of 11 must be greater than that of 12.
Thus, 11 must be added 2 more times.
22. In the given data, 5 occurs 3 times while 8 occurs 2 times. So, p 8, since adding
another 8 would result in 8 also becoming the mode of the data.
abc abcde
23. 8 and 15
3 5
a + b + c = 8 × 3 = 24 and a + b + c + d + e = 15 × 5 = 75
d + e = 75 – 24 = 51.
d e 51
mean of d and e 25.5.
2 2
24. Mean of x numbers = p.
Sum of x numbers = xp.
Mean of y numbers = q.
Sum of y numbers = yq.
sum of (x + y) numbers = xp + yq.
xp yq
Required mean .
xy
25. Total SP of all 25 products = ` (1200 × 25) = ` 30000.
For the greatest possible SP of the most expensive product, the SP of all other products
must be minimum, i.e., ` 420 each for 10 products and ` 1000 each for other 14 products.
greatest possible SP of the most expensive product
= ` [30000 – (420 × 10 + 1000 × 14)]
= ` (30000 – 18200) = ` 11800.
pqr
26. 14 p + q + r = 14 × 3 = 42.
3
30
2(q + r) = 30 q r 15.
2
p = 42 – 15 = 27.
27. Sum of the ages of all 30 students = (15 × 30) = 450 years.
Sum of the ages of 6 students = (16 × 6) = 96 years.
Sum of the ages of remaining 24 students = (450 – 96) years = 354 years.
354 59 3
Mean age years years 14 years
24 4 4
3
= 14 years 12 months = 14 years 9 months.
4
Data Handling 473
B 40 30 70
C 42.5 25 67.5
D 25 37.5 62.5
E 27.5 35 62.5
Clearly, the most popular university is that in which the total number of students is
maximum, i.e., B.
40. Required ratio = (37.5 + 30) : (42.5 + 27.5) = 67.5 : 70 = 675 : 700 = 27 : 28.
30 40 42.5 25 27.5
41. Mean number of male students per university
5
165
33 lakhs.
5
37.5 30 25 37.5 35
Mean number of female students per university
5
165
33 lakhs.
5
165 165 330
Mean number of students 66 lakhs.
5 5
42. Required ratio = 67.5 : 62.5 = 675 : 625 = 27 : 25.
43. The medicine was administered at 11 a.m. and the heart rate declined from 1 p.m.
onwards. So, the effect of the medicine started after 2 hours.
44. The heart rate declined from 1 p.m. to 5 p.m. and then again began to rise.
So, the effect of the medicine lasted for 4 hours.
90 75 15
45. p 100 % 100 % 20%.
75 75
90 75 15 50 2
q 100 % 100 % % 16 %.
90 90 3 3
46. Average number of toys produced per month
4000 5000 4500 3500 4000 4000 4500 5500 35000
4375.
8 8
Data Handling 475
90
52. Required percentage 100 % 25%.
360
53. The student scored 100 marks in mathematics.
54. Difference between marks obtained in mathematics and social science
= (100 – 87.5) = 12.5.
Difference between marks obtained in English and Hindi = (81.25 – 68.75) = 12.5.
55. Required difference = (87.5 + 112.5) – (68.75 + 81.25) = 200 – 150 = 50.
total marks 450
56. Required average 90.
number of subjects 5
1 335 1 325
57. 18 % of 450 450 81.25 , which is the students score in English.
18 18 100 4
476 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
EXERCISE 21B
Direction (Questions 1 to 25): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The most common representative value of a group of data is the …… .
2. When the raw data is arranged in ascending or descending order it
forms a/an …… .
3. In a data pertaining to the ages of certain teachers in a school, we are
asked to find out the difference between the ages of the oldest and the
youngest teachers. Thus, we have to determine the …… of the data.
4. The observation which has the highest frequency is the …… .
5. The observation which is exactly in the middle of the observations when
they are arranged in ascending order of their values is the …… .
6. The median of the data 15, 7, 8, 5, 14, 3, 17, 12 is …… .
7. The mean of the first five prime numbers is …… .
8. The mean of the first eight composite numbers is …… .
9. The median is one of the observations in the data if the number of
observations is …… .
10. The number of times an observation occurs in a data is called the ……
and it is represented by …… .
11. The median of first 10 odd natural numbers is …… .
12. The mean of first five multiples of 8 is …… .
13. The range of the numbers from 1 to 8 is …… .
14. The value of x for which the mode of the data 6, 14, 7, 7, 14, 6, 7, x, 14 is
14, is …… .
15. If the mean of 5 consecutive odd numbers is 11 then the mean of first
three of these numbers is …… .
16. If the mean of 5 numbers is 8 and the mean of another 6 numbers is 19
then the mean of all the 11 numbers is …… .
17. If 10 is added to each observation in a given data the range of the data
would increase by …… .
Data Handling 477
40. Mean of the observations can be lesser than each of the observations.
……
41. The mode of the data is usually the central value of the data. ……
42. The median of a data containing 15 observations is equal to the 8th
observation. ……
43. If the mode of the data 5, 3, 7, 2, 4, 5, 7, 2, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7, x, 7 is 7 then the
value of x may be 2 or 5. ……
44. The range of a given data would decrease by 2 if 2 is subtracted from
each of the observations. ……
45. 11 students were made to stand in ascending order of their heights. If no
two students have the same height then the height of the sixth student
from either end gives the mean height of the group. ……
46. The mean of first 6 natural numbers is the same as their median. ……
47. The mean of first 9 natural numbers is the same as their median. ……
48. The mean, mode and median of the data 13, 12, 10, 10, 5 are equal. ……
n 1
9. Median of n observations th observation, when n is odd.
2
11. First 10 odd natural numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19.
Number of observations = 10, which is even
9 11
median = mean of 5th and 6th observations 10.
2
8 (1 2 3 4 5) 8 15
12. Required mean 24.
5 5
13. Range = 8 – 1 = 7.
14. Both 7 and 14 occur 3 times in the given data.
Since mode is 14, so 14 must occur the highest number of times. Hence, x = 14.
15. Let the five consecutive odd numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6 and x + 8. Then,
x ( x 2) ( x 4) ( x 6) ( x 8)
8 5x + 20 = 40 5x = 20 x = 4.
5
x x 2 x 4 3x 6
mean of first 3 numbers x 2 4 2 6.
3 3
16. Sum of 11 numbers = 8 × 5 + 19 × 6 = 40 + 114 = 154.
154
mean of 11 numbers 14.
11
17. Since 10 is added to each observation, so each of the largest and smallest observations
will increase by 10. Thus, the range would remain the same.
12 2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 6 2 7 2
18. Mean of the squares of first 7 natural numbers
7
1 4 9 16 25 36 49 140
20.
7 7
19. Initial sum of m numbers = mp.
New sum of m numbers = mp + mn = m (p + n).
m ( p n)
new mean p n.
m
6 8 18 10 (2 p 10)
20. 6 52 + 2p = 30 2p = –22 p = –11.
5
21. Both 9 and 8 occur 3 times in the given data. Since mode is 9, so 9 must occur the
highest number of times. Hence, x = 9.
22. The mode of the data is 29, since it occurs 3 times in the given data. To change the
mode to 30, it must occur at least 4 times. So, 30 must be added at least 3 times.
91 92 93 95 95 99 100 665
23. Mean of given data 95.
7 7
Arranging the data in ascending order: 91, 92, 93, 95, 95, 99, 100.
So, median = 4th observation = 95. Mode = 95.
Mean, median and mode are already the same. On adding 0, they continue to remain
the same.
24. Mean = 8 sum of 4 numbers = 8 × 4 = 32
sum of remaining 3 numbers = 32 – 7 = 25.
480 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
22 Probability
Number of possible
Experiment Possible outcomes
outcomes
Rolling an
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 6
unbiased die
Tossing a fair H, T
2
coin (H = Head, T = Tail)
Tossing 2 coins
HT, TH, HH, TT 4
simultaneously
Rolling 2 dice (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4),
simultaneously (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 2),
(2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4),
(3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), 36
(4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4),
(5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 2),
(6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)
Tossing 3 coins HHH, HHT, HTH,
simultaneously THH, HTT, THT, 8
TTH, TTT
481
482 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
5. PACK OF CARDS
(ii) It has 13 cards of each of the four suits: spades (), clubs (),
hearts () and diamonds ().
(iii) Cards of spades and clubs are black cards. Cards of hearts and
diamonds are red cards. So, there are 26 black cards and 26 red
cards.
(iv) There are 4 honours of each suit: aces (A), kings (K), queens (Q)
and jacks (J). Kings, queens and jacks are called face cards.
(v) There are 6 black face cards and 6 red face cards, i.e., 12 face cards
in all.
6. Probability of occurrence of an event
number of favourable outcomes .
total number of possible outcomes
7. If P(E) denotes the probability of an event E then 0 P(E) 1.
8. (i) The probability of a sure event is 1.
(ii) The probability of an impossible event is 0.
(iii) The probability of an event can never be negative or greater
than 1.
9. The sum of the probabilities of occurrence of all outcomes of an
experiment is 1.
So, in a throw of a coin,
Probability of getting a head + probability of getting a tail = 1.
10. Events with equal probabilities of occurrence are called equally likely
events.
EXERCISE 22A
Multiple-Choice Questions
Direction: In each of the following questions, choose the correct alternative.
1. Which of the following can happen but not certainly?
(a) The earth revolves around the sun.
(b) A die thrown lands with 8 on the top.
(c) The sun rises in the east.
(d) A tossed coin lands with heads up.
Probability 483
22. A card is drawn from cards numbered 0 to 10. If one card is drawn at
random, the probability that the card bears a natural number is
1 9 10
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
10 10 11
23. A class has 20 girls and 16 boys. One student is selected at random. The
probability that the selected student is a girl, is
1 3 4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 4 9 9
24. The letters of the word MATHEMATICS are written on paper slips and
put in a bag. If one slip is drawn randomly, the probability that it bears
the letter M is
2 3 7 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 11 9 11
25. A letter is chosen at random from the letters of the word ASSOCIATION.
The probability that the chosen letter is a vowel, is
3 5 5 6
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 7 11 11
26. Ajit has 5 red balls and 7 green balls. He chooses a ball randomly. The
probability that the chosen ball is green, is
1 2 5 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 3 12 12
27. A jar contains 3 blue, 2 black, 6 red and 8 white balls. If a ball is drawn
at random, the probability that the ball drawn is not red, is
5 10 12 13
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19 19 19 19
28. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up
randomly. The probability that it is neither red nor green is
1 3 7 8
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 4 19 21
29. In a school, only 2 out of 5 students can participate in a quiz. What is the
chance that a student picked at random makes it to the competition?
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%
30. Which of the following outcomes are not equally likely?
(a) Getting a tail or a head when a coin is tossed.
(b) Getting an even number or an odd number when a die is rolled.
(c) Drawing a white or a black ball from a bag containing 4 white and
6 black balls.
(d) Drawing a slip of Yes or No from a bag containing 5 Yes and 5 No
slips.
486 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
Favourable outcomes for getting at most two heads are TTT, HTT, THT, TTH, HHT,
HTH and THH, i.e., 7 in number.
7
r .
8
17. Number of possible outcomes = 52.
Favourable outcomes are face cards which are 12 in number.
12 3
required probability .
52 13
18. Number of possible outcomes = 52.
Favourable outcomes are queen cards which are 4 in number.
4 1
required probability .
52 13
19. Number of possible outcomes = 52.
Favourable outcomes are diamond cards and king cards of remaining 3 suites,
i.e., (13 3) or 16 in number.
16 4
required probability .
52 13
20. Number of possible outcomes 10 25 35.
Number of favourable outcomes = 10.
10 2
required probability .
35 7
21. Number of possible outcomes = 20.
Favourable outcomes are 3, 6, 9, 12, 15 and 18.
Number of favourable outcomes = 6.
6 3
required probability .
20 10
22. Number of possible outcomes = 11.
Favourable outcomes are numbers from 1 to 10.
Number of favourable outcomes = 10.
10
required probability .
11
23. Number of possible outcomes 20 16 36.
Number of favourable outcomes = 16.
16 4
required probability .
36 9
24. Number of possible outcomes = number of letters in the word = 11.
Number of favourable outcomes = number of times M occurs in the word = 2.
2
required probability .
11
25. Number of possible outcomes = number of letters in the word = 11.
Number of favourable outcomes = number of vowels in the word = 6.
6
required probability .
11
Probability 489
EXERCISE 22B
Direction (Questions 1 to 15): Fill in the blanks so as to make each given statement
true.
1. The probability of an event which is certain to happen is …… .
2. The probability of an event which is impossible to happen is …… .
3. The probability of the sun setting tomorrow is …… .
4. The total number of possible outcomes,
(i) when a single die is rolled, is …… .
(ii) when two dice are rolled together, is …… .
5. The total number of possible outcomes,
(i) when a coin is tossed once, is …… .
(ii) when a coin is tossed twice, is …… .
(iii) when a coin is tossed thrice or three coins are tossed
simultaneously, is …… .
490 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7
12. A bag contains white, black and red balls. The probability of selecting a
3 4
black ball is and that of selecting a red ball is . The probability of
13 13
selecting a white ball is …… .
13. A ball is drawn at random from a box containing 5 black, 6 green and
7 yellow balls. The probability that
(i) the ball drawn is yellow, is …… .
(ii) the ball drawn is either black or yellow, is …… .
(iii) the ball drawn is neither green nor yellow, is …… .
14. In a survey of 115 persons it was found that 92 prefer tea while the
remaining prefer coffee. If one person is chosen at random, the
probability that he prefers coffee is …… .
15. A bag contains red, blue and green marbles. One marble is taken out at
6
random. If the probability of getting a blue marble is and there are
17
102 marbles in the bag in all then the number of blue marbles in the bag
is …… .
Probability 491
1. 1 2. 0 3. 1 4. (i) 6 (ii) 36
5. (i) 2 (ii) 4 (iii) 8 6. (i) 1 (ii) 0
6 5 1
7. 0.3 8. 9. 10.
11 11 8
4 1 2 4 5
11. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
9 3 9 9 9
6 7 2 5 1
12. 13. (i) (ii) (iii) 14.
13 18 3 18 5
492 Mathematics for Olympiads and Talent Search Competitions for Class 7