AP Grama Sachivalayam Preparation Materials

AP Grama Sachivalayam Exclusive Part A (8 Chapters) Book
Sl No Subject Name Page Number

1 General Mental ability and reasoning 1
2 Quantitative aptitude including data interpretation 79
3 Comprehension English 118
4 General English 153
5 Basic Computer Knowledge 207
6 Current affairs of Regional, National and International 259
importance
7 General Science and its applications to the day to day life, 282
Contemporary developments in Science and Technology and
information Technology
8 Sustainable Development and Environmental Protection 302
Proudly Presents - Careers Pages Team
If any Queries – support@careerspages.com

0|P a ge
CHAPTER – 1
General Mental Ability &
Reasoning
1|P a ge
1.NUMBER SYSTEM, LCM & HCF
A number is a mathematical object used to count, measure, and label.
Factors and Multiples: All the numbers that divide a number completely, i.e., without leaving
any remainder, are called factors of that number. For example, 24 is completely divisible by 1, 2,
3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24. Each of these numbers is called a factor of 24 and 24 is called a multiple of
each of these numbers.
Divisibility rules for numbers 1 – 20
Divisibility rule for 1

Every integer is divisible by 1, so no rules are needed.

The last digit must be even number, i.e. 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. All even numbers are divisible by 2

The sum of digits in the given number should be divisible by 3. This is easy method to
find numbers divisible by 3.
Divisible by 4 rule:
The number formed by last two digits in given number must be divisible by 4.
Divisibility rules for 5

Last digit must be 0 or 5.
Divisibility by 6
The number must be divisible by 2 and 3. Because 2 and 3 are prime factors of 6.
Divisibility rule 7
Twice the last digit and subtract it from remaining number in given number, result must
be divisible by 7. (You can again apply this to check for divisibility test of 7.)
Divisible by 8
The number formed by last three digits in given number must be divisible by 8.
2|P a ge
Divisible by 9
Same as 3. Sum of digits in given number must be divisible by 9.
Divisible by 10
Last digit must be 0.
Divisible test of 11
Form the alternating sum of digits. The result must be divisible by 11.
Divisibility by 12
The number must be divisible by 3 and 4. Because (3* (2^2)) are prime factors of 12.
Divisibility test for 13

Multiply last digit with 4 and add it to remaining number in given number, result must be
divisible by 13.
Divisibility by 14
The number must be divisible by 2 and 7. Because 2 and 7 are prime factors of 14.
Divisibility rule of 15
The number should be divisible by 3 and 5. Because 3 and 5 are prime factors of 15.
LCM and HCF

Lowest Common Multiple (LCM): The least or smallest common multiple of any two or more
given natural numbers are termed as LCM. For example, LCM of 10, 15, and 20 is 60.
Highest Common Factor (HCF): The largest or greatest factor common to any two or more
given natural numbers is termed as HCF of given numbers. Also known as GCD (Greatest
Common Divisor). For example, Both HCF and LCM of given numbers can be found by using
two methods; they are division method and prime factorization.
HCF and LCM Formulas

Property 1: The product of LCM and HCF of any two given natural numbers is equivalent to the
product of the given numbers.
LCM × HCF = Product of the Numbers
Suppose A and B are two numbers, then.
LCM (A & B) × HCF (A & B) = A × B
3|P a ge
Property 2: HCF of co-prime numbers is 1. Therefore LCM of given co-prime numbers is equal
to the product of the numbers.
LCM of Co-prime Numbers = Product Of The Numbers
Property 3: H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions
LCM of fractions = LCMofnumerators/HCFofdenominators
HCF of fractions = HCFofnumerators/LCMofdenominators
Model Questions Paper – Set 1

(SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
1.The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numebrs are 8 and 48 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24,
then the other number is
(a) 48
(b) 36
(c) 24
(d) 16
2. The greatest number, which when subtracted from 5834, gives a number exactly divisible by
each of 20, 28, 32 and 35, is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) 1120
(b) 4714
(c) 5200
(d) 5600
3. The ninth term of the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35,.... is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) 63
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 99
4|P a ge
4. A number, when divided by 114, leaves remainder 21. If the same number is divided by 19,
then the remainder will be (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 7
(d) 17
5. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 4. Their L.C.M. is 84. The greater number is (SSC CGL 1st
Sit. 2010) (a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 84
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (c)
(SSC CHSL 2014)
1.The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of two numbers are 44 and 264 respectively. If the first number is
divided by 2, the quotient is 44. The other number is
(a) 147
(b) 528
(c) 132
(d) 264
5|P a ge
2. A teacher wants to arrange his students in an equal number of rows and columns. If there are
1369 students, the number of students in the last row are (SSC CHSL 2014)
(a) 37
(b) 33
(c) 63
(d) 47
3. The first term of an Arithmetic Progression is 22 and the last term is –11. If the sum is 66, the
number of terms in the sequence are: (SSC CHSL 2014)
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 8
ANSWER
1. (c) 2 (a) 3 (b)
6|P a ge
2.AVEREGE
Average is mainly defined as the sum of observations divided by the number of observations.
Formula:
Average= (Sum of observations)/(Number of observations)
Average Speed:
If a person travels some distance at a speed of x km/hr and the same distance at a speed of y km/hr,
then the average speed during the whole journey will be calculated by using the formula 2xy/(x+y)
If a person covers A km at x km/hr and B km at y km/hr and C km at z km/hr, then the average
speed in covering the whole distance is (A+B+C)/(A/x+B/y+C/z)
Important Points:
When a person replaces another person then:
If the average is increased, then Age of new person= Age of person who left + (Increase in average *
total number of persons)
If the average is decreased, thenAge of new person= Age of person who left - (Decrease in average *
total number of persons)
When a person joins the group:
In case of an increase in average,

Age of new member= Previous average+ (Increase in average * Number of members including new
member)
In case of decrease in average,

Age of new member= Previous average- (Decrease in average * Number of members including new
member)
In the Arithmetic Progression there are two cases:
7|P a ge
When the number of terms is odd - the average will be the middle term.
When number of terms is even - the average will be the average of two middle terms.
1. The average of the first 100 positive integers is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) 100
(b) 51
(c) 50.5
(d) 49.5
2.2In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the
father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
(a) 12 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 10.5 years
(d) 10 years -
3. The average of odd numbers upto 100 is
(a) 50.5
(b) 50
(c) 49.5
(d) 49
ANSWER
1. (c) 2 (b) 3 (b)
8|P a ge
(SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2016)
1. The average marks obtained by a class of 60 students is 65. The average marks of half of the
students is found to be 85. The average marks of the remaining students is
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 65
2. The average of 9 observations was found to be 35. Later on, it was detected that an
observation 81 was misread as 18. The correct average of the observations is
(a) 28
(b) 42
(c) 32
(d) 45
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (b)
1. A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 63 runs and there by increases his average
scores by 2. What is his average after the 12th innings? (SSC CHSL 2012)
(a) 13
(b) 41
(c) 49
(d) 87
9|P a ge
2. The average of four consecutive even numbers is 9. Find the largest number. (SSC CHSL
2012)
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
3. The average weight of 12 crewmen in a boat is increased by 1/3 kg, when one of the crewmen
whose weight is 55 kg is replaced by a new man. What is the weight of that new men? (SSC
CHSL 2012)
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 57
(d) 59
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (a) 3(d)
10 | P a g e
3.PERCENTAGE
x% = x/100
If the price of a commodity increases by R%, the decrease in consumption in order to keep the
expenditure fixed is [(R*100)/(100+R)] %
If the value of an item increases by x%, the new value is [(100+x)/100]*original value
If the present population of a town is P and it increases at the rate of R% every year, the
population after t years is P*[(1+(R/100))^n]
If the present value of a machine is P and it depreciates by R% annually, the value of the
machine after n years is P*[(1-(R/100))^n]

1. If A's income is 50% less than that of B's, then B's income is what per cent mroe than that of
A?
(a) 125
(b) 100
(c) 75
(d) 50
2. 1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) 6%
(b) 10%
(c) 60%
(d) 90%
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (c)
11 | P a g e
(SSC CHSL 2012)
1. A team played 40 games in a season and won in 24 of them. What percent of games played
did the team win?
(a) 70%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 35%
2. If 125% of x is 100, then x is: (SSC CHSL 2012)
(a) 80
(b) 150
(c) 400
(d) 125
ANSWER:
1.c
2.a
1. A basket contains 300 mangoes. 75 mangoes were distributed among some students. Find the
percentage of mangoes left in the basket (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2016)
(a) 70%
(b) 72%
(c) 76%
(d) 75%
12 | P a g e
2. If 35% of A‘s income is equal to 25% of B‘s income, then the ratio of A‘s income to B‘s
income is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2016)
(a) 7: 5
(b) 5: 7
(c) 4: 7
(d) 4: 3
ANSWER:
1. (d) 2. (b)
13 | P a g e
4. PROFIT & LOSS
C.P is the cost price and S.P is the selling price
CASE-1
If S.P>C.P, Gain or Profit = S.P-C.P
Gain % = (Profit/C.P)*100
S.P = C.P * [(100+gain%)/100]
C.P = (100*S.P)/(100+gain%)
CASE-2:
If C.P>S.P,
Loss = C.P-S.P
Loss % = (Loss/C.P)*100
S.P = C.P * [(100-loss%)/100]
C.P = (100*S.P)/(100-loss%)
If an article is sold at a gain of x%, S.P = (100+x)% of C.P
If an article is sold at a loss of y%, S.P = (100-x)% of C.P
When a person sells two items of the same cost, one at a gain of x% and the other at a loss of x%, he
always incurs a loss. Loss % = x²/100
1. If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be as 10 : 11, the percentage of profit is
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 11
14 | P a g e
(d) 15
2. A manufacturer marked an article at ₹50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was
25% then the cost price of the article was (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
(a) ₹.40
(b) ₹.35
(c) ₹.32
(d) ₹.30
3. A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price.
The ratio fo the cost price and the printed price of the book is
(a) 45: 56
(b) 45: 51
(c) 47: 56
(d) 47: 51
ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a)

(SSC CHSL 2012)
1. A bought an article, paying 5% less than the original price. A sold it with 20% profit on the
price he had paid. What is the percent of profit did A earn on the original price? (SSC CHSL
2012)
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 17 2
2. The printed price of a book is ` 320. A retailer pays ₹.244.80 for it. He gets successive
discounts of 10% and an another rate. His second rate is: (SSC CHSL 2012)
15 | P a g e
(a) 15%
(b) 16%
(c) 14%
(d) 12%
3. A sells an article to B at a gain of 10%, B sells it to C at a gain of 5%. If C pays ₹ 462 for it,
what did it cost to A? (SSC CHSL 2012)
(a) ₹.500
(b) ₹.450
(c) ₹. 600
(d) ₹.400
ANSWER:
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d)
(SSC CHSL 2013)
1. A shopkeeper blends two varieties of tea costing ₹.18 and 13 per 100 gm in the ratio 7:3. He
sells the blended variety at the rate of ₹.18.15 per 100 gm. His percentage gain in the transaction
is
(a) 8%
(b) 10%
(c) 12%
(d) 14%
2. A got 30% concession on the label price of an article sold for ₹ 8,750 with 25% profit on the
price he bought. The label price was (SSC CHSL 2013)
(a) 10,000
16 | P a g e
(b) 13,000
(c) 16,000
(d) 12,000
3. The cost price of a book is ₹.150. At what price should it be sold to gain 20%? (SSC CHSL
2013)
(a)₹.80
(b) ₹.120
(c) ₹.180
(d) ₹.100
4. If books bought at prices ranging from ₹150 to ₹300 are sold at prices ranging from ₹250 to ₹
350, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 15 books? (SSC CHSL
2013)
(a) ₹ 3,000
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) ₹.750
(d) ₹. 4,250
ANSWER:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (a)
17 | P a g e
5. SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND
INTEREST
Let P be the principal, T be the time in years, R the rate of interest
SIMPLE INTEREST:
Simple Interest(S.I) = PTR/100
Amount(A) = P+I
COMPOUND INTEREST:
Let P be the principal, n be the time in years, R the rate of interest per annum
When interest is compounded annually, A = P[1+(R/100)]^n
When interest is compounded half-yearly, A = P[1+(R/200)]^2n
When interest is compounded quarterly, A = P[1+(R/400)]^4n

1. A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. It will become eight times of
itself in
(a) 45 years
(b) 48 years
(c) 54 years
(d) 60 years
2. At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of 1,000 amount to₹.1,102.50 in 2 years at
compound interest?
(a) 5
(b) 5.5
18 | P a g e
(c) 6
(d) 6.5
3. What annual payment will discharge a debt of ₹.6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple
interest?
(a) ₹.1,400
(b) ₹.1,500
(c) ₹.1,550
(d) ₹.1,600
ANSWER:
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b)
1. If ₹.5,000 becomes ₹.5,700 in a year's time, what will ₹.7,000 become at the end of 5 years at
the same rate of simple interest?
(a) ₹.10,500
(b) ₹.11,900
(c) ₹.12,700
(d) ₹.7, 700
2. Prabhat look a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of 8% p.a. simple interest and
gave the same amount to Ashish as a loan at the rate of 12% p.a. If at the end of 12 years, he
made a profit of ₹.96 in the deal, then the original amount was:
(a) ₹.3356
(b) ₹.1000
19 | P a g e
(c) ₹.2000
(d) ₹. 3000
ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (c)
(SSC CHSL 2012)
1. The difference between the interests received from two different banks on 500 for 2 years is
₹.2.50. The difference between their rates is:
(a) 0.5%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 0.25%
(d) 1%
2. A sum becomes ₹. 2,916 in 2 years at 8% per annum compound interest. The simple interest
at 9% per annum for 3 years on the same amount will be (SSC CHSL 2013)
(a) ₹. 625
(b) ₹.600
(c) ₹. 675
(d) ₹.650
ANSWER:
1. (c) 2. (c)
20 | P a g e
1. A sum of money placed at compound interest double itself at 2 years. The year it will take to
amount 4 times itself is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 3
2. A sum of ₹.x was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 3%
higher rate, it would have fetched ₹. 300 more. The value of 4x is
(a) ₹.16, 000
(b) ₹.20,000
(c) ₹. 36, 000
(d) ₹. 24,000
ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (b)
21 | P a g e
6. TIME & WORK
Relations between work, time and person: -
 Work & Person: Directly proportional i.e. more work, more person required.
 Time & Person: Inversely proportional i.e. more people, less time required.
 Work & time: Directly proportional i.e. more work, more time required.
Note: Work done is always considered to be equal to 1
Some Important Formulas:
1. If a person can do a piece of work in ‗n‘ days/ hours then that person‘s one day‘s/ hour‘s
work = 1/n
2. If a person‘s one day‘s/ hour‘s work = 1/n , then he will complete then he will complete
the work in ‗n‘ days/ hours.
3. If first person is ‗n‘ times efficient than second person then work done by first person :
second person = n : 1
4. If the ratio of number of men required to complete a work is m : n then the ratio of time
taken by them will be n : m.
1.If persons can do W1 work in D1 days working T1 hours in a day and M2 Persons can do
W2 work in D2 days working T2 hours in a day then the relationship between them is
2.If A can do a piece of work in days and B can do the same work in days then (A + B)‘s one day
work-
Time taken by (A + B) to complete the work –
If ‗n‘ persons (more than two) are there then their one day‘s work =
Where x1,x2, x3 …………… represents the number of days taken by them to complete the
work.
22 | P a g e
3.f A & B can complete a work in days and A alone can finish that work in days then number of
days required by B to complete the work–
4.If A & B can do a piece of work in days, B & C can the same work in days and A & C can do
it in days, then working together A,B & C can do that work in–
5.If A can do a work in days and B can do faster than A, then B will complete the work in -

1. If 5 men or 7 women can earn ₹.5,250 per day, how much would 7 men and 13 women earn
per day?
(a) ₹.11,600
(b) `₹.11,700
(c) ₹.16,100
(d) ₹. 17,100
2. If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how
many days can A alone complete the work?
(a) 60
(b) 45
(c) 40
(d) 30
23 | P a g e
3. A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days, B and C together
start the work and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken by A alone to complete the
remaining work is
(a) 10 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 16 days
ANSWER:
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c)
(SSC CGL 2013)
1. If 10 men or 20 women or 40 children can do a piece of work in 7 months, then 5 men, 5

women and 5 children together can do half of the work in:
(a) 8 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 5 months
2. A man undertakes to do a certain work in 150 days. He employs 200 men. He finds that only
a quarter of the work is done in 50 days. The number of additional men that should be
appointed so that the whole work will be finished in time is:
(a) 50
(b) 75
(c) 100
(d) 125
24 | P a g e
3. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days
and left the job. In how many days. A alone can finish the remaining work?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 5½
(d) 5
4. A can do a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can do it in 15 days. With the help of C
they can finish it in 5 days. If they are paid ₹. 960 for the whole work how much money A
gets?
(a) ₹.480
(b) ₹.240
(c) ₹.320
(d) ₹.400
5. Ronald and Elan are working on an Assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages on a
computer, While Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they take working
together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
(a) 7 hrs. 30 min.
(b) 8 hrs.
(c) 8 hrs. 15 min.
(d) 8 hrs. 25 min.
ANSWER:
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c)
25 | P a g e
(SSC CHSL 2014)
1. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 9 and 15 days respectively. If they
work for a day alternately, with A beginning, then the work will completed in
(a) 10 days
(b) 11 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 12 days
2. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 36 min. and 45 min. respectively. Another pipe C can
empty the tank in 30 min. First A and B are opened. After 7 minutes, C is also opened. The tank
is filled up in
(a) 39 min.
(b) 46 min.
(c) 40 min.
(d) 45 min.
ANSWER:
1. (b) 2. (a)
26 | P a g e
7. TIME , SPEED & DISTANCE
1. Speed, Time and Distance:
Distance Distance
Speed = , Time = , Distance = (Speed x Time).
Time Speed
2. km/hr to m/sec conversion:

5
x km/hr = x x m/sec.
18
3. m/sec to km/hr conversion:

18
x m/sec = x x km/hr.
5
4. If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a : b, then the ratio of the

1 1
the times taken by then to cover the same distance is : or b : a.
a b
5. Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x km/hr and an equal distance at y km/hr. Then,
the average speed during the whole journey is km/hr.
2xy

1. In a 100m race, Kamal defeats Bimal by 5 seconds. If the speed of Kamal is 18 Kmph, then
the speed of Bimal is (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2010)
(a) 15.4 kmph
(b) 14.5 kmph
(c) 14.4 kmph
(d) 14 kmph
2. A train, 240 m long crosses a man walking along the line in opposite direction at the rate of 3
kmph in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2010)
27 | P a g e
(a) 63 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 83.4 kmph
(d) 86.4 kmph
3. A boatman rows 1 km in 5 minutes, along the stream and 6 km in 1 hour against the stream.
The speed of the stream is
(a) 3 kmph
(b) 6 kmph
(c) 10 kmph
(d) 12 kmph
ANSWER:
1. (c) 2. (c) 3.(a)

(SSC CGL 2012)
1. A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is
running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds
respectively. The length of the train (in metres):
(a) 72
(b) 45
(c) 54
(d) 50
2. With average speed of 40 km/hour, a train reaches its‘ destination in time. If it goes with an
average speed of 35 km/hour, it is late by 15 minutes. The total journey is (SSC CGL 1st Sit.
2012)
(a) 30 km
28 | P a g e
(b) 40 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 80 km
3. A ship is moving at a speed of 30 km/hr. To know the depth of the ocean beneath it, it sends a
radiowave which travels at a speed 200 m/s. The ship receives the signal after it has moved 500
m. The depth of the ocean is (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2012)
(a) 6 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 6 m
(d) 8 km
4. A car covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds of 25 kmph, 50 kmph, 75 kmph and 150
kmph respectively. Its average speed over this distance is (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2012)
(a) 25 kmph
(b) 50 kmph
(c) 75 kmph
(d) 150 kmph
ANSWER:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
29 | P a g e
(SSC Multitasking 2013)
1. Walking at a speed of 5 km/hr, a man reaches his office 6 minutes late. Walking at 6 km/hr,
he reaches there 2 minutes early. The distance of his office is
(a) 2 km
(b) 3 km
(c) 4 km
(d) 3.5 km
2. Two trains 108 m and 112 m in length are running towards each other on the parallel lines at a
speed of 45 km/hr and 54 km/hr respectively. To cross each other after they meet, it will take
(a) 10 sec
(b) 12 sec
(c) 9 sec
(d) 8 sec
ANSWER:
1.c
2.d
30 | P a g e
REASONING
1.ANALOGY
If the relationship between one pair of words is similar to another pair of words then we say
that both the pair of words is analogous to each other. In simple words, the relationship
between two words must be same for other words associated with them too. In this section
candidates have to analyze the relationship between two given pairs and find the
relationship between other two pairs among which one is given in the question and other
one will be present in the options.
Different types of analogy:
 Antonyms: words that have opposite meanings.

 Synonyms: words that have similar meanings, such as Buy – Purchase.
 Descriptive: in which one word describes the other word, such as Blue – Ocean.
 Part to Whole: in which one word is a part or piece of the other, such as Head – Body.
 Steps in a Process: such as Cooking – Serving.
 Cause and Effect: such as Fire – Scorch and Blizzard – Freeze
 Things and Their Functions: such as Scissors – Cut.
 Item to Category: in which one word names something that falls into the group named by
the other, such as Lemonade – Beverage.
 Implied Relationships: such as Clouds – Sun.
 Symbol and What it Represents: such as Heart – Love.
Model Question Paper Set -1

In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given
alternatives.
1.ACEG : SUWY : : BDFH : ?
(a)TVZX
(b)RTZV
31 | P a g e
(c)TVXZ
(d)RTVZ
3.5 : 27 : : 9 : ?
(a)83
(b)81
(c)36
(d)18
4.6 : 11 : : 11 : ?
(a)6
(b)17
(c)21
(d)30
5.ABE : 8 : : KLO : ?
(a)37
(b)39
(c)38
(d)36
ANSWER
1.C
3.A
4.C
5.C
32 | P a g e
In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/numbers from the given
alternatives.
1.Fish : Scales : : Bear : ?
(a)Feathers
(b)Leaves
(c)Fur
(d)Skin
2.Writer : Pen : : ?
(a)Needle :Tailor
(b)Artist : Brush
(c)Painter : Canvas
(d)Teacher : Class
3. NUMERAL : UEALRMN : : ALGEBRA : ?
(a)LRBAGEA
(b)BARLAGE
(c)LERAGBA
(d)LERABGA
4.BDAC : FHEG : : NPMO:?
(a)RQTS
(b)QTRC
(c)TRQS
(d)RTQS
33 | P a g e
ANSWER
1(c)
2(c)
3(d)
4(d)

Select the related word/letter/number from the given alternatives.
1.3 : 7 : : 15 : ?
(a)30
(b)35
(c)45
(d)49
2.Kalidas :Meghdoot : : Kautilya : ?
(a)Ramayana
(b)Arthashastra
(c)Kamayani
(d)Kadambari
3.Water : Ocean : : Sand : ?
(a)Island
(b)Waves
(c)River
(d)Desert
34 | P a g e
4.ABC : XYZ : ; CDE : ?
(a)UVW
(b)WXY
(c)AVW
(d)VWX
ANSWER
1.(b) 2(b) 3(d) 4(d)

SSC MTS 2017
Select the related word/ letters/ number from the given alternatives.
1.RATE : EATR :: SEAT : ? (SSC MTS 2017)
(a)TSEA
(b)TESA
(c)TEAS
(d)TSAE
2.Book : Literature :: ? : ?
(a)Man : Beast
(b)Dancer : Musician
(c)Song : Music
(d)Species : Science
3.21 : 3 :: 574 : ?
(a)97
(b)23
35 | P a g e
(c)82
(d)113
ANSWER
1.(c) 2.(c) 3.(c)

(IBPS Clerk 2012)
1.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence from a group. Which of the
following does not belong to that group ?
(a)Walk
(b)Cry
(c)Play
(d)Study
(e)Alive
2.‗Artificial‘ is related to ‗Natural‘ in the same way as ‗private‘ is related to ‗______‘(IBPS

Clerk 2012) (a)Future
(b)Personal (c)Public
(d)Closed
(e)Confidential
3.Four of the following five are alike on the basis of being divisible by a particular number and
hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?(IBPS Clerk 2012)
(a)21
(b)91
(c)65
(d)77
(e)35
36 | P a g e
ANSWER
1.(e) 2.(c) 3.(c)

(IBPS Clerk 2013)
1.SHOE:NCJZ: :REWA:?
(a)WBJF
(b)CITY (c)CAYR
(d)MZRV
(e)None of these
2.Bud : Flower : : ?
(a)Clay: Mud
(b)Sapling : Tree (c)River : Glacier
(d)Bird : Tree
(e)Paper : Book
3.NEUROTIC : TICRONEU : :PSYCHOTIC : ?
(a)TICCOHPSY
(b)TICOCHPSY (c)TICCHOPSY
(d)TICHCOPSY
(e)None of these
4.Video : Cassette : : Computer : ?
(a)Reels
(b)Recordings
(c)Files
37 | P a g e
(d)Floppy
(e)CPU
5.Nightingale : Warble : : Frog : ?
(a)Yelp
(b)Croak (c)Cackle
(d)Squeak
(e)None of these
ANSWER
1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(b)
38 | P a g e
2.CLASSIFICATION
In classification questions candidates are required to figure out the word that is least like the other
given words. The different types of classification questions are:
1.Identify the odd word
In this type of classification, words signify some things/objects classified on the basis of common
properties and features. The candidates have to find the word that doesn‘t fit in the group.
2.Identify the odd pair of words
In this type of questions, answer options are given in form of pairs, where the pair of words is related
to each other in some way. The candidates are required to identify that pair which doesn‘t share that
common relation/feature.
3.Identify the group of odd letters
In this type of classification, groups of random letters are given which follow a common pattern. The
candidateshave to identify the group that doesn‘t conform to that common pattern.

Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives. (SSC CGL 2nd Sit.
2012)
1.
(a)Pathology
(b)Geology
(c)Cardiology
(d)Radiology
2.
(a)Rivulet
(b)Stream
(c)River
39 | P a g e
(d)Pond
3.
(a)Konark
(b)Madurai
(c)Dilwara
(d)Ellora
4.
(a)RTW
(b)QOM
(c)IKG
(d)IKM
5.
(a)EFH
(b)OPQ
(c)BCE
(d)IJL
ANSWER
1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5 (a).

(SSC Sub. Ins. 2012)
In question, find the odd word/ number/letters from the given alternatives.
1.
(a)Sparrow
40 | P a g e
(b)Kingfisher
(c)Nightingale
(d)Bat
2.
(a)Dive
(b)Trench
(c)Canal
(d)Ditch
3.
(a)206
(b)125
(c)27
(d)8
ANSWER
1.(d) 2.(a) 3.(a)

In each of the following questions, select the one which is different, from other three responses.
1.
(a)Soldier – Barrack
(b)Principal – School
(c)Artist – Troupe
(d)Singer – Chorous
41 | P a g e
2.
(a) Detach
(b)Affix
(c) Append
(d) Fasten
3.
(a)Man = 13114
(b)Ram = 18113
(c)Jug = 10217
(d)Hub = 82110
4.
(a)74, 7
(b)97, 9
(c)41, 4
(d)63, 6
ANSWER
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(b)

(SSC CHSL 2017)
Choose the odd word/letters number/number pair from the given alternatives.
1.
(a)Sirius
(b)Proximacentauri
42 | P a g e
(c)Deimos
(d)Alpha centauri
2.
(a)PON
(b)SRQ
(c)XYZ
(d)VUT
3.
(a)1919
(b)5656
(c)6761
(d)7760
4.
(a)2890
(b)3375
(c)1728
(d)1331
ANSWER
1.(c) 2.(c). 3.(b) 4.(a)
43 | P a g e
3. ALPHAPET TEST
In this type the candidates are asked to find the English letters between two English alphabets
given in the question. The Questions are may vary on the arrangement of alphabets. It is very
important to remember that while solving the questions of alphabetical order candidates need to
keep in mind the forward and backward position of all the alphabets along with its number.
Important Facts Of Alphabet Test:
1. Position number of letters in English Alphabets
2. Position number of letters in English alphabets in reverse
3. A, E , I, O and U are vowels of English alphabet and remaining letters are consonants of
English alphabet
4. A → M (A to M) letters are called first half of English
5. N → Z (N to Z) letters are called second half of English
6. To the left means Z → A (Z to A)
7. To the right means A → Z (A to Z)
8. From A → Z (A to Z) letters are called left to right of English
9. From Z → A (Z to A) letters are called right to left of English alphabets.
44 | P a g e
In questions, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters
of the given word.
1.DISAPPOINTMENT
(a)POINTER
(b)OINTMENT
(c)DISPOINT
(d)NOTPAD
2.
DECOMPOSITION
(a)COMPOSE
(b)ECONOMIST
(c)POSITION
(d)DOCTOR
3.INTELLIGENCE
(a)NEGLECT
(b)GENTLE
(c)INCITE
(d)CANCEL
ANSWER
1.(a) 2.(d) 3.(d)
45 | P a g e
1.How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ' OEHM ' using each letter
only once in each word ?
(a)FOUR
(b)THREE
(c)TWO
(d)ONE
2.From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of
the given word: CUMBERSOME
(a)MOUSE
(b)SOBER
(c)ROME
(d)MERCY
3.Name a single letter, which can be prefixed to the following words in order to obtain entirely
new words ? TILL TABLE PILE TAB PRING
(a)S
(b)B
(c)H
(d)C
ANSWER
1.(d)
2.(d)
3.(a)
46 | P a g e
In questions below, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed
using the letters of the given word:
1.ADMINISTRATION
(a)Station
(b)Mind
(c)Ration
(d)Minister
2. CHARACTER
(a)Tracer
(b)Hearty
(c)Crate
(d)Charter
3.In the following letter series how many Ms are followed by N, but not preceded by N?
NMWVMNMVWNMNMMNWVMN
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4
4.Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?
1. Orange
2. Indigo
3.Red
47 | P a g e
4.Blue
5.Green
6.Yellow
7. Violet)
(a)7, 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3
(b)7, 2, 4, 6, 5, 1, 3
(c)7, 2, 6, 4, 5, 1, 3
(d)7, 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
5.Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.
1. Forecast
2. Forget
3. Foreign
4.Forsook
5. Force
(a)3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(b)5, 1, 3, 2, 4
(c)5, 1, 3, 4, 2
(d)5, 1, 2, 3, 4
ANSWER
1.(d)
2.(b)
3.(c)
4.(a)
5.(b)
48 | P a g e
(SBI Clerk 2010)
1.How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ONFT using each letter
only once in each word?
(a)None
(b)One (c)Two
(d)Three
(e)More than three
2.If each of the vowels in the word HONESTLY is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English
alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left
to right, which of the following will be fifth from the left of the new arrangement thus formed?
(SBI Clerk 2010)
(a)S
(b)R
(c)M
(d)F
(e)P
3.If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters
of the word PYGMALION, which of the following would be the second letter of that word from
the right end? If no such word can be made, give ‗X‘ as your answer and if more than one such
word can be formed, give your answer as ‗Z‘.(SBI Clerk 2010)
(a)X
(b)P
(c)Y
(d)A
(e)Z
49 | P a g e
4.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DUPLICATE each of which has as many
letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have
between them in the English alphabetical order? (SBI Clerk 2010)
(a)None
(b)One
(c)Two
(d)Three
(e)More than three
ANSWER:
1.b
2.e
3.d
4.b

(IBPS Clerk 2011)
1.How many meaningful English words can be formed, starting with S, with the second, the
fourth, the fifth and the eighth letters of the word PERISHED, using each letter only once in each
word? (To be counted from left)
(a)None
(b)One (c)Two
(d)Three
(e)More than three
2.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STREAMING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word, as in the English alphabet ? (In both forward and backward
directions) (IBPS Clerk 2011)
(a)None
50 | P a g e
(b)One (c)Two
(d)Three
(e)More than three
3.How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‗DAREDEVIL‘ each of which has as
many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet series? (in both forward and
backward directions)(IBPS Clerk 2011)
(a)None
(b)One (c)Two
(d)Three
ANSWER:
1.b
2.d
3.e
51 | P a g e
4. SERIES
These questions are based on numerical sequences that follow a logical rule/ pattern based on
elementary arithmetic concepts. A particular series is given from which the pattern must be
analyzed. The candidates are required to predict the next number in the sequence following the
same rule.
Generally, there are three types of questions asked from the number series:
A numerical series is given in which a number is wrongly placed. You are asked to identify that
particular wrong number.
A numerical series is given in which a specific number is missing. You are required to find out
that missing number.
A complete numerical series is followed by an incomplete numerical series. You need to solve
that incomplete numerical series in the same pattern in which the complete numerical series is
given.
Different types of Number Series:
The most common patterns followed by number series are:
1.Series consisting of Perfect Squares:

A series based on Perfect squares is most of the times based on the perfect squares of the
numbers in a specific order & generally one of the numbers is missing in this type of series.
2.Perfect Cube Series:

It is based on the cubes of numbers in a particular order and one of the numbers is missing in the
series.
3.Geometric Series:
It is based on either descending or ascending order of numbers and each successive number is
obtained by dividing or multiplying the previous number by a specific number.
4.Arithmetic Series:
52 | P a g e
It consists of a series in which the next term is obtained by adding/subtracting a constant number
to its previous term. Example: 4, 9, 14, 19, 24, 29, 34 in which the number to be added to get the
new number is 5. Now, we get an arithmetic sequence 2,3,4,5.
5.Two-stage Type Series:

In a two step Arithmetic series, the differences of consecutive numbers themselves form an
arithmetic series.
6.Mixed Series:
This particular type of series may have more than one pattern arranged in a single series or it
may have been created according to any of the unorthodox rules.
7.Arithmetico –Geometric Series :

As the name suggests, Arithmetico –Geometric series is formed by a peculiar combination of
Arithmetic and Geometric series. An important property of Arithmetico- Geometric series is that
the differences of consecutive terms are in Geometric Sequence.

In each of the following questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
1.KJL, ONP, SRT, ?
(a)WVX
(b)VWX
(c)WXV
(d)VUW
2.198, 202, 211, 227, ?
(a) 236
53 | P a g e
(b) 252
(c) 275
(d) 245
3.AN, BO, CP, DQ, ?
(a)E G
(b) E R
(c)E H
(d)E F
4.7, 25, 61, 121, ?
(a)210
(b)211
(c)212
(d)209
ANSWER
1.(a)
2.(b)
3.(b)
4.(b)

(SSC Stenographer 2013)
In questions, Series is given, with one number/letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from
the given ones that will complete the series.
1.112, 124, 156, 208, _?
(a)316
54 | P a g e
(b)280
(c)292
(d)304
2.96, 101, 126, 187, _?
(a)296
(b)306
(c)300
(d)297
3.B A F E J I P O _? U
(a)V
(b)T
(c)S
(d)Q
ANSWER
1.(b)
2.(c)
3.(a)

A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series.
1.AZ, CX, FU, ?
(a)IR
(b)IV
55 | P a g e
(c)JQ
(d)KP
2.1, 2, 6, 24, ?,720
(a)3
(b)5
(c)120
(d)8
3.156, 506, ?, 1806
(a)1056
(b)856
(c)1456
(d)1506
ANSWER
1.(c)
2.(b)
3.(b)

A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series.
1.A , B, D, G, ?
(a)K
(b)J
(c)L
56 | P a g e
(d)I
2.VWR, TUP, RSN, ?
(a)PLQ
(b)PQL
(c)LPQ
(d)PRM
3.3, 10, 31, 94, ?
(a)197
(b)127
(c)283
(d)317
ANSWER
1.(a)
2.(b)
3.(c)
(IBPS Clerk 2011)
1.What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series? ACEGIK MO ?
(a)PR
(b)QS
(c)OR
(d)PS
57 | P a g e
(e)None of these
2.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the
English alphabetical order?(IBPS Clerk 2011) BEGJLO QT ?
(a)UX
(b)VY
(c)SV
(d)RU
(e)WZ
ANSWER
1.b
2.b
58 | P a g e
5.CODING & DECODING
In this type of problems, the candidates should following the below steps
 Observe alphabets or numbers given in the question

 Try to find the pattern or sequence it follows. They could be in ascending or
descending order, arranged in an alternate fashion and other ways as well.
 Figure out the rule followed by the given arrangement of alphabets/numbers/words
points to remember before solving any question of this type of problems.
 Alphabets‘ positions (A=1, B=2,……,Y=25, Z=26)

 Opposite position of alphabet (A=26, B=25,……, Z=1)
 Opposite of each alphabet (A is opposite to Z, B is opposite to Y and so on)
Letter coding:
In this type of questions, the alphabets in a word are replaced by other alphabets according to a
specific rule.
Substitution:
In this type of questions, names/words are substituted with different names/words.The candidates
have to carefully trace the substitution to arrive at the correct answer.
Mixed letter coding:
In this type of question, three-four phrases are given in coded language and the code for a
particular word is asked.To solve such questions, any two phrases with a common word are
picked up. The common code word will refer to that word. Proceeding in a similar manner, all
possible combinations of two phrases are selected and a common code is picked up.
59 | P a g e
Mixed number coding:
In this type of questions, numbers are given corresponding to phrases. Following the same rule
as in the above case, we can easily find out the answer. Selecting two phrases at a time, you have
to find out the number code for each word and then arrive at the correct answer.

1. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, then how can CALICUT be
coded?
(a)5279431
(b)5978013
(c)8251896
(d)8543691
2.If MEKLF is coded as 91782 and LLLJK as 88867, then how can IGHED be coded?
(a)97854
(b)64521
(c)53410
(d)75632
3.If in a certain code, RAMAYANA is written as PYKYWYLY, then how MAHABHARATA

can be written in that code?
(a)NBIBCIBSBUB
(b)LZGZAGZQZSZ
(c)MCJCDJCTCVC
(d)KYFYZFYPYRY
60 | P a g e
ANSWER
1.C
2.C
3.D

(SSC Sub. Ins. 2014
1.Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series increased by one. Which of
the following series observe the rule ?
(a)KORYBGJ
(b)LMEYTPK
(c)KMPTYEL
(d)KPTYELM
2.In a certain code DEPUTATION is written as ONTADEPUTI. How is DERIVATION written

in that code ?
(a)ONVADERITI
(b)ONDEVARITI
(c)ONVAEDIRTI
(d)ONVADEIRIT
3.If MADRAS is coded as 517916 and TENANT is coded as 432124, how would you encode
RMATSN?
(a)851353
(b)951363
(c)951462
(d)941562
ANSWER
61 | P a g e
1.(c)
2.(a)
3.(c )

1.In a certain coding system APPLE stands for ETTPI. What is the code for 'DELHI'?
(a)CQMND
(b)ZAHDE
(c)HIPLM
(d)CQPLM
2.Name a single letter, which can be deleted from the body of the following words to form
entirely new words? HOST POST COST LOST STOP (SSC CGL 1s. Sit. 2015)
(a)T
(b)P
(c)S
(d)O
3.If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT will be written in the same code?
(a)TNERAP
(b)RAPTNE
(c)ERAPTN
(d)APERTN
4.If 'air' is called 'green', green is called 'blue', 'blue' is called 'sky', 'sky' is called 'yellow', 'yellow'
is called 'water' and water is called 'Pink' then what is the colour of clear sky ? (SSC CGL 1st
Sit. 2015)
62 | P a g e
(a)Yellow
(b)Water
(c)Sky
(d)Blue
ANSWER
1.(c)
2.(c)
3.(d)
4.(c)

(SBI PO 2010)
1.In a certain code language ‗how many goals scored‘ is written as ‗5 3 9 7‘; ‗many more
matches‘ is written as ‗9 8 2‘ and ‗he scored five‘ is written as ‗ 1 6 3‘. How is ‗goals‘ written in
that code language ?
(a)5
(b)7
(c)5 or 7
(d)Data inadequate
(e)None of these
2.In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that
code ?(SBI PO 2010)
(a)RMNBSFEJ
(b)BNMRSFEJ
(c)RMNBJEFS
(d)TOPDQDCH
63 | P a g e
(e)None of these
3.In a certain code language, ‗how can you go‘ is written as ‗ja da ka pa,‘ ‗can you come here‘ is
writter as ‗nakasaja‘ and ‗come and go‘ is written as ‗ra pa sa‘. How is ‗here‘ written in that code
language ?(SBI PO 2010)
(a)ja
(b)na (c)pa
(d)Data inadequate
(e)None of these
4.In a certain code DOWN is written as ‗5@9#‘ and NAME is written as ‗#6%3‘. How is MODE
written that code ?(SBI PO 2010)
(a)%653
(b)%@63
(c)%5@3
(d)%@53
(e)None of these
5.In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code ?
(SBI PO 2010)
(a)VPTKKTE
(b)VPTKETK (c)TPVKKTE
(d)TNRKMVG
(e)None of these
ANSWER
1.c
2.a
3.b
64 | P a g e
4.d
5.a

(IBPS RRB 2015)
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Study the following information and answer the questions that follow :
In a certain code language,
‗hope to see you‘ is coded as ‗re so na di‘,
‗please come to see the party‘ is coded as ‗fi gena di kezo‘,
‗hope to come‘ is coded as ‗di so ge‘ and
‗see you the party‘ is coded as ‗re fi zona‘
1.How is ‗please‘ coded in the given code language ?
(a)di
(b)ke
(c)fi
(d)na
(e)None of these
2.What does the code ‗so‘ stand for in the given code language ?
(a)hope
(b)come
(c)see
(d)to
(e)None of these
3.How is ‗party‘ coded in the given code language ?
(a)Either ‗re‘ or ‗fi‘
65 | P a g e
(b)Either ‗zo‘ of ‗na‘
(c)Either ‗zo‘ of ‗fi‘
(d)Either ‗zo‘ or ‗ge‘
(e)‗Either ‗ke‘ or ‗fi‘
4.How will ‗please see you‘ be coded in the given code language ?
(a)renake
(b)so re na
(c)zo re na
(d)na di ke
(e)ke re ge
5.Which one of the following will be coded as ‗so di re‘ in the given code language ?
(a)you see hope
(b)hope you please
(c)hope you come
(d)the hope to
(e)you hope to
ANSWER
1.(b)
2.(a)
3.(c)
4.(a)
5.(e)
66 | P a g e
6. BLOOD RELATIONS
The Blood Relation Questions are most probably based on a family member. The Blood Relation
Concept shows that how a person relates to the other members of the family.
Questions are made by using Blood Relation Tree that means presenting relationship by a tree or
chain in family members like Father, Mother, Brother, Sister, Grandfather, Grandmother, Aunt,
Uncle, Niece, Nephew, Sister in Law, Brother in Law, etc.
So, before start to solving the Blood Relation Problems, learn about different kinds of blood
relations in a family member. And also must know about each relationship in a family to solve
the Blood Relation Problems.
Relation Used Term
Father of Grandfather or Father of Grandmother Great Grandfather
Mother of Grandfather or Mother of Grandmother Great Grandmother
Father‘s Father or Mother‘s Father Grandfather
Father‘s Mother or Mother‘s Mother Grandmother
Uncle‘s Daughter or Aunt‘s Daughter Cousin
Uncle‘s Son or Aunt‘s Son Cousin
Brother‘s Son or Sister‘s Son Nephew
Brother‘s Daughter or Sister‘s Daughter Niece
Father‘s Son or Mother‘s Son Brother
Father‘s Daughter or Mother‘s Daughter Sister
Mother‘s Brother Maternal Uncle
Father‘s Brother Uncle
67 | P a g e
Mother‘s Sister Aunt
Father‘s Sister Aunt
Daughter‘s Husband Son-in-law
Son‘s Wife Daughter-in-law
Husband‘s Brother or Wife‘s Brother Brother-in-law
Husband‘s Sister or Wife‘s Sister Sister-in-law
Husband‘s Father or Wife‘s Father Father-in-law
Husband‘s Mother or Wife‘s Mother Mother-in-law

1.A man showed a boy next to him and said - ―He is the son of my wife‘s sister-in-law, but I am
the only child of my parents.‖ How is my son related to him?(SSC CGL 2013)
(a)Brother
(b)Uncle
(c)Nephew
(d)Cousin
2.Sunil is the son of Kesav. Simran, Kesav‘s sister, has a son Maruti and daughter Sita. Prem is
the maternal uncle of Maruti. How is Sunil related to Maruti?(SSC CGL 2013)
(a)Uncle
(b)Brother
(c)Nephew
(d)Cousin
68 | P a g e
3.Showing a man on the stage , Rita said , " He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my
husband. How is the man on stage related to Rita ?(SSC CGL 2013)
(a)Son
(b)Husband
(c)Cousin
(d)Nephew
ANSWER:
1.d
2.d
3.a

(SSC CGL 2017)
1.If 'P 3 Q' means 'P is daughter of Q', 'P 5 Q' means 'P is father of Q', 'P 7 Q' means 'P is mother
of Q' and 'P 9 Q' means ' P is sister of Q', then how is J related to K in J 3 L 9 N 3 0 5 K?
(a)Mother
(b)Wife
(c)Niece
(d)Daughter
2.P and Q are brothers, P is the father of S, R is the only son of Q and is married to U. How is U
related to S? (SSC CGL 2017)
(a)Sister – in – law
(b)Mother – in – law
(c)Sister
(d)Mother
69 | P a g e
3.Punit said to lady, "The sister of your father's wife is my aunt". How is the lady related to
Punit?(SSC CGL 2017)
(a)Daughter
(b)Grand Daughter
(c)Niece
(d)Cousin sister
ANSWER
1.c
2.a
3.d

(IBPS RRB 2014)
Directions (Qs. 1-3) : Read the following informations carefully to answer the questions given
below. (i)‗A + B‘ means ‗A is the father of B‘. (ii)‗A – B‘ means ‗A is the wife of B‘. (iii)‗A ×
B‘ means ‗A is the brother of B‘. (iv)‗A ’ B‘ means ‗A is the daughter of B‘.
1.If P ÷ R + S + Q, which of the following is true?
(a)P is the daughter of Q
(b)Q is the aunt of P
(c)P is the aunt of Q
(d)P is the mother of Q
(e)None of these
2.If P – R + Q, which of the following statements is true?
(a)P is the mother of Q
(b)Q is the daughter of P
(c)P is the aunt of Q
70 | P a g e
(d)P is the sister of Q
(e)None of these
3.If P × R ÷ Q, which of the following is true?
(a)P is the uncle of Q
(b)P is the father of Q
(c)P is the brother of Q
(d)P is the son of Q
(e)None of these
ANSWER
1.c
2.a
3.d

(SBI Clerk 2014)
Directions (Qs. 1-2) : Study the information given below and answer the questions following it:
Mohan is son of Arun‘s father‘s sister. Prakash is son of Reva, who is mother of Vikash and
grandmother of Arun. Pranab is father of Neela and grandfather of Mohan. Reva is wife of
Pranab.
1.How is Mohan related to Reva ?
(a)Grandson
(b)Son
(c)Nephew
(d)Data inadaequate
(e)None of these
71 | P a g e
2.How is Vikash‘s wife related to Neela ?
(a)Sister
(b)Niece
(c)Sister-in-law
ANSWER:
1.a
2.c
72 | P a g e
7.DIRECTION SENSE TEST
Directions questions asked in the exam are based on two principles
1. Distance
2. Direction
The candidates are asked to calculate the distance or the direction. The foremost thing that
are supposed to do is draw basic direction map.
There are four main directions – East, West, North & South and four cardinal directions –
North-East (N-E), North-West (N-W), South-East (S-E), and South-West (S-W) as shown
below:
The first point you need to remember is that each main direction change undergoes a 90° change
in direction e.g. from North to West/East it will be 90° change. But the change between North
and North-east is only 45°
Important Points To Keep In Mind In Left Right Movement:
1. A person facing north, on taking left will face towards west and on taking the right turn
towards east.
2. A person facing west, on taking left will face towards south and on taking right turn
towards north.
3. A person facing east, on taking left will face towards north and on taking the right turn
towards south.
4. A person facing south, on taking left will face towards east and on taking the right turn
towards west.
73 | P a g e
1.If a man on a moped starts from a point and rides 4 km South, then turns left and rides 2 km to
turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?
(a)North
(b)West
(c)East
(d)South
2. Ganesh cycles towards South–West a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards East a distance
of 20 m. From there he moves towards North–East a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards
West a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards North–East a distance of 2 m. Then he
moves towards West a distance of 4 m and then towards South– West 2 m and stops at that point.
How far is be from the starting point? (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2011)
(a)12 m
(b)10 m
(c)8 m
(d)6 m
3.One evening, Raja started to walk toward the Sun. After walking a while, he turned to his right
and again to his right. After walking a while, he again turned right. In which direction is he
facing? (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2011)
(a)South
(b)East
(c)West
(d)North
4.Vivek and Ashok start from a fixed point. Vivek moves 3 km north and turns right and then
covers 4 km. Ashok moves 5 km west and turns right and walks 3 km. Now how far are they
apart? (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2011)
74 | P a g e
(a)10 km
(b)9 km
(c)8 km
(d)6 km
ANSWER
1.d
2.b
3.a
4.b

1.A person walks towards his house at 8.00 am and observes his shadow to his right. In which
direction he is walking ?
(a)North
(b)South
(c)East
(d)West
2.A boat moves from a jetty towards East. After sailing for 9 nautical miles, she turns towards
right and covers another 12 nautical miles. If she wants to go back to the jetty, what is the
shortest distance now from her present position ? (SSC Sub. Ins. 2014)
(a)21 nautical miles
(b)20 nautical miles
(c)18 nautical miles
(d)15 nautical miles
ANSWER
75 | P a g e
1.b
2.d

(SSC CHSL 2015)
1.Of the 5 towns A, B, C, D and E situated close to each other. A is to the west of B,C is to the
south of A, E is to the north of B and D is to the east of E. Then C is in which direction with
respect to D?
(a)South–West
(b)North–West
(c)North–East
(d)South–East
2.Karthik travelled 3 km east, then took a right and travelled 4 kms. How far is he from starting
point ? (SSC CHSL 2015)
(a)12 kms
(b)3 kms
(c)7 kms
(d)5 kms
ANSWER
1.a
2.d

(IBPS RRB 2015)
1.Town D is 13 km towards the East of townA. A bus starts from town A, travels 8 km towards
West and takes a right turn. After taking the right turn, it travels 5 km and reaches town B. From
town B the bus takes a right turn again, travels 21 km and stops.How far and towards which
direction must the bus travel to reach town D?
76 | P a g e
(a)13 km towards South
(b)5 km towards West
(c)21 km towards South
(d)5 km towards South
(e)None of these
2.While facing East, I turn to my left and walk 10 m, then turn to my left and walk 10 m. Now, I
turn 45 degrees towards my right in North-West direction and cover 25 m. At this point, in which
direction am I from my starting point?(IBPS RRB 2015)
(a)South-East
(b)South-West
(c)North-East
(d)North-West
(e)None of these
ANSWER
1.d
2.d

(IBPS SO 2016)
1.Two Person P and Q are separated by a distance of 20 meter in west-east direction respectively.
Now P and Q start walking in north and south direction respectively and walked for 5 meter.
Now P and Q took a right turn and walked 10m each. Now P and Q took left turn and after
walking 5 meter both of them stopped. Find the distance between them
(a)15
(b)25
(c)30
77 | P a g e
(d)35
(e)None of these
2.Town D is towards East of town F. Town B is towards North of town D. Town H is towards
South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F?(IBPS SO 2016)
(a)East
(b)South-East
(c)North-East
(d)Data inadequate
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.e
2.d
78 | P a g e
Chapter - 2
Quantitative Aptitude
including data interpretation
79 | P a g e
1.MATHEMATICAL OPERATIONS AND
ARITHEMETIC REASONING
The four fundamental operations — addition, subtraction, multiplication and division and also
statements such as less than, ‗greater than‘, ‗equal to‘, ‗not equal to1, etc. are represented by
symbols, different from the usual ones. The questions involving these operations are set using
artificial symbols. The candidate has to substitute the real signs and solve the questions accordingly,
to get the answer.
Types of Questions in Mathematical Operations

1. Making the equation balanced.
2. Substituting the symbols.
3. Interchange of numbers and signs
4. Mathematical operations questions based on tricks.

1.If 841 = 3,633 = 5,425 = 7 then 217 = ?
(a)6
(b)7
(c)8
(d)9
2.After interchanging ÷ and =, 2 and 3 which one of the following statements becomes correct ?
(a)15 = 2 ÷ 3
(b)5 ÷ 15 = 2(a)6 (b)7
(c)8
80 | P a g e
(d)9
3.25 * 2 * 6 = 4 * 11 * 0 Which set of symbols can replace * ? (SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2010)
(a)×, –, ×, +
(b)+, –, ×, +
(c)×, +, ×, –
(d)×, +, +, ×
ANSWER
1.d
2.b
3.a

1.Which of the following interchanges of numbers would make the given equation correct? 8 ×
20 ÷ 3 + 9 – 5 = 38
(a)8, 9
(b)3, 5
(c)3, 9
(d)3, 8
2.Put the correct mathematical signs in the following equation from the given alternatives. 33
?11 ?3 ? 6 = 115 (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2013)
(a)×, ÷, –
(b)÷, ×, ×
(c)–, ×, +
(d)+, –, ×
81 | P a g e
3.Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the
given equation. 15 * 24 * 3 * 6 * 17 (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2013)
(a)+ × = ÷
(b)– × = +
(c)– ÷ + =
(d)+ ÷ – =
4.If ‗–‘ stand for addition, ‗+‘ stands for subtraction, ‗’‘ stands for multiplication and ‗×‘ stands
for division, then which one of the following equations is correct? (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2013)
(a)25 × 5 ÷ 20 – 27 + 7 = 120
(b)25 + 5 × 20 – 27 ÷ 7 = 128
(c)25 + 5 – 20 + 27 × 7 = 95
(d)25 – 5 + 20 × 27 ÷ 7 = 100
5.In the following question, some relationship have been expressed through symbols which are ×
= greater than θ = not less than ÷ = less than β = not greater than + = equal to
φ = not equal to, then A θ B × C implies (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2013)
(a)B θ C
(b)A ÷ C
(c)A φ C
(d)B β C
6.If 63 – 30 = 30, 72 – 10 = 40, then 81 – 60 = ? (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2013)
(a)50
(b)35
(c)15
(d)20
82 | P a g e
ANSWER:
1.(b) 2.(a) 3.(d)15 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(c)

(SSC CHSL 2015)
1.Some equations have been solved on the basis of certain system. Find the correct answer for
the unsolved equations on that basis ? If 72 × 19 = 23, 13 × 48 = 35 and 16 × 43 = 18 then 39 ×
22 = ?
(a)27
(b)51
(c)31
(d)21
2.If + means ÷, ÷ means ×, and × means +, then following will be : 64 + 8 × 32 ÷ 4(SSC CHSL
2015)
(a)128
(b)160
(c)136
(d)144
ANSWER
1. (c)
2. (c).
83 | P a g e
SIMPLIFICATION
The candidates should remember the following points for simplification type problems
 Learn BODMAS.
 Use the concept of digital sum.
 Memorize tables up to 30.
 Memorize cubes and squares of numbers up to 35.
 Learn tricks to find squares and cubes of numbers greater than 35.
 Learn tricks to find cube roots and square roots of large number.
 Learn the concept of percentages (conversion of fractions to percentage & percentage to
fractions)
 Memorize the reciprocals.
Rules of Simplification
V → Vinculum
B → Remove Brackets - in the order ( ) , { }, [ ]
O → Of
D → Division
M → Multiplication
A → Addition
S → Subtraction

Directions (Qs. 1-9) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions
IBPS CLERK 2011
1.14% of 905 + ? = 287
(a)148.7
(b)160.3
(c)163.1
(d)162.5
(e)None of these
2.2073.5 ÷ (22 × 14.5) = ?
(a)7.5
84 | P a g e
(b)6.5
(c)4.5
(d)3.5
(e)None of these
3.6824 + 7864 = ? × 40
(a)376.4
(b)359.2
(c)363.4
(d)367.2
(e)None of these
4.10000 ÷ 100 ÷ 10 = ?
(a)1
(b)0.1
(c)1000
(d)100
(e)None of these
5.16% of 450 ÷ ? % of 250 = 4.8
(a)12
(b)6
(c)4
(d)10
(e)None of these
6.19.5% of 524 = ?
(a)102.18
85 | P a g e
(b)122.81
(c)120.18
(d)112.81
(e)None of these
7.
(a)10
(b)2.5
(c)1.5
(d)20
(e)None of these
8.
(a)168.72
(b)12672
(c)128.27
(d)162.72
(e)None of these
9.
(a)11
(b)10
(c)8.5
(d)10.5
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.(b)
86 | P a g e
2.(b)
3.(d)
4.(e)
5.(b)
6.(a)
7.(d)
8.(b)
9.(e)
(RBI Assistant 2012)
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
1.? ÷ 0.5 × 24 = 5652
(a)171.75
(b)117.25
(c)171.25
(d)117.75
(e)None of these
2.5 × ? = 4808 ÷ 8
(a)122.2
(b)112.2
(c)120.2
(d)102.2
(e)None of these
87 | P a g e
3.65% of 654 - ? % of 860 = 210.1
(a)25
(b)15
(c)20
(d)30
(e)None of these
4.35154 – 20465 – 5201 = ?
(a)9488
(b)9844
(c)9484
(d)9848
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.(d)
2.(c)
3.(a)
4.(a)
(IBPS RRB Officer 2015)
1.8.5 × (80 × 1.5 × 2.5) ÷ 4 = ?
(a)637.5
(b)620.5
(c)544.22
88 | P a g e
(d)647.5
(e)None of these
2.23% of 2500 - 22% of 500 = 930 ÷ ?
(a)2.5
(b)2
(c)3
(d)1.5
(e)None of these
3.5312.15 - 1318.82 - 2321.43 = ?
(a)1681.9
(b)1571.9
(c)2671.7
(d)1671.9
(e)None of these
4.(333.33 + 33.33 + 3333.34) ÷ 50 = ?
(a)74
(b)78
(c)82
(d)84
(e)None of these
5.3% of 3500 + 5% of 700 = ?% of 1400
(a)12%
(b)15%
(c)10%
89 | P a g e
(d)8%
(e)None of these
Answer:
1.(a)
2.(b)
3.(d)
4.(a)
4.(c)
90 | P a g e
2.APPROXIMATION
(SBI Clerk 2011)
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
1.)105.003 + 307.993 + 215.630 = ?
(a)610
(b)650
(c)660
(d)670
(e)630
2.)5223 ÷ 36 × 0.93 = ?
(a)135
(b)125
(c)145
(d)155
(e)115
3.)635 × 455 ÷ 403 = ?
(a)735
(b)795
(c)695
(d)685
(e)715
91 | P a g e
ANSWER:
1.(e)
2.(c)
3.(e)
(IBPS PO/MT 2011)
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions? (Note : You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
1).39.897% of 4331 + 58.779% of 5003 = ?
(a)4300
(b)4500
(c)4700
(d)4900
(e)5100
2.)59.88 ÷ 12.21 × 6.35 = ?
(a)10
(b)50
(c)30
(d)70
(e)90
3.)43931.03 ÷ 2111.02 × 401.04 = ?
(a)8800
(b)7600
92 | P a g e
(c)7400
(d)9000
(e)8300
ANSWER:
1.(c)
2.(c)
3.(e)
IBPS Clerk 2011
1.750.0003 ÷ 19.999 = ?
(a)49
(b)18
(c)22
(d)45
(e)38
2.6888.009 – 487.999 – 87.989 = ?
(a)6000
(b)6570
(c)6430
(d)6200
(e)6310
3.19.003 × 22.998 – 280.010 = ?
(a)220
93 | P a g e
(b)110
(c)160
(d)90
(e)200
4.5454 ÷ 54 ÷ 5 = ?
(a)15
(b)25
(c)30
(d)20
(e)10
ANSWER:
1.(e)
2.(e)
3.(c)
4(d)
94 | P a g e
3.EQUATION AND INEQUALITIES
(IBPS Clerk 2011)
1.Mala‘s monthly income is two-third of Kajal‘s monthly income. Kajal‘s annual income is
₹.4,32,000, What is Mala‘s annual income? (In some cases monthly income and in some cases
annual income is used)
(a)₹.2,92,000
(b)₹.2,63,500
(c)₹.2,48,200
(d)₹.2,88,000
(e)None of these
2.At present Sheetal is three times Surabhi‘s age. After seven years Sheetal will be twice
Surabhi‘s age then. How many times will Sheetal‘s age be in another fourteen years time with
respect to Surabhi‘s age then ?
(a)1
(b)3
(c)2
(d)1.5
(e)None of these
3.On teacher‘s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that
particular day 135 children remained absent, hence each child got 2 sweets extra. How many
sweets was each child originally supposed to get ?
(a)4
(b)8
(c)10
(d)6
95 | P a g e
(e)Cannot be determined
4.At present, Tarun is twice the age of Vishal and half the age of Tanvi. After Four years, Tarun
will be 1.5 times Vishal age and Tanvi will be 2.5 times Vishal age, what is Tanvi present age?
(a)12 years
(b)8 years
(c)20 years
(d)16 years
(e)None of these
5.At present, Aruna‘s age is 1.5 times the age of Pujan and twice the age of Somy. After six
years, Aruna will be 1.4 times the age of Pujan and Somy will be 0.8 times the age of Pujan then,
what is the present age of Somy?
(a)30 years
(b)36 years
(c)24 years
(d)18 years
(e)None of these
6.At present, Anil‘s age is 1.5 times the age of Purvi. Eight years hence, the ratio of the ages of
Anil and Purvi will be 25 : 18. What is Purvi‘s present age?
(a)50 year
(b)28 year
(c)42 year
(d)36 year
(e)None of these
7.At present Kavita is twice Sarita‘s age. Eight years hence, the respective ratio between
Kavita‘s and Sarita‘s ages then will be 22: 13. What is Kavita‘s present age?
(a)26 years
96 | P a g e
(b)18 years
(c)42 years
(d)36 years
(e)None of these
8.The age of the father is 30 years more than the son‘s age. Ten years hence, the father‘s age will
become three times the son‘s age that time. What is the son‘s present age in years?
(a)Eight
(b)Seven
(c)Five
(d)Cannot be determined
(e)None of these
9.The cost of 5 pens and 8 pencils is ₹.31. What would be the cost of 15 pens and 24 pencils ?
(a)₹.93
(b)₹.99
(c)₹.96
(e)None of these
10.‗A‘, ‗B‘ and ‗C‘ are three consecutive even integers such that four times ‗A‘ is equal to three
times ‗C‘. What is the value of B ?
(a)12
(b)10
(c)16
(d)14
(e)None of these
97 | P a g e
ANSWER:
1.d
2.d
3.d
4.d
5.d
6.b
7.d
8.c
9.a
10.d
IBPS PO/MT 2013
1.If the positions of the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number obtained is
smaller than the original number by 27. If the digits of the number are in the ratio of 1 : 2, what
is the original number?
(a)36
(b)63
(c)48
(e)None of these
2.One of the angles of a quadrilateral is thrice the smaller angle of a parallelogram. The
respective ratio between the adjacent angles of the parallelogram is 4:5. Remaining three angles
of the quadrilateral are in ratio 4 : 11: 9 respectively. What is the sum of the largest and the
smallest angles of the quadrilateral?
98 | P a g e
(a)255°
(b)260°
(c)265°
(d)270°
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.b
2.b
(IBPS PO Prelim 2015)
1.The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two digit number is lesser than the
original number by 54. If the sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is the original
number?
(a)28
(b)39
(c)82
(d)Can‘t say
(e)None of these
2.At present Geeta is eight times her daughter‘s age. Eight years from now, the ratio of the ages
of Geeta and her daughter will be 10 : 3 respectively. What is Geeta‘s present age ?
a)32 years
(b)40 years
(c)36 years
(d)Can‘t say
99 | P a g e
(e)None of these
3.The ages of Samir and Tanuj are in the ratio of 8 : 15 years respectively. After 9 years the ratio
of their ages will be 11 : 18. What is the difference in years between their ages ?
(a)24 years
(b)20 years
(c)33 years
(d)21 years
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.(e) 2.(a) 3.(d)
100 | P a g e
4. RATIO & PROPORTION
RATIO:
A ratio is the comparison or simplified form of two quantities of the same kind. This relation
indicates how many times one quantity is equal to the other; or in other words, ratio is a number,
which expresses one quantity as a fraction of the other. E.g. Ratio of 3 to 4 is 3 : 4.
PROPORTION:
 PROPORTION
Proportion is represented by the symbol ‗= ‗or ‗:: ‗
If the ratio a : b is equal to the ratio c : d, then a, b, c, d are said to be in proportion.
Using symbols we write as a : b = c : d or a : b :: c : d
 When 4 terms in proportion, then the product of the two extremes (i.e. the first and the fourth
value) should be equal to the product of two middle values (i.e. the second and the third value)
 FOURTH PROPORTIONAL:
If a : b = c : d, then d is called the fourth proportional to a, b, c.
1.The respective ratio of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7 : 1. Four years ago the
respective ratio of their ages was 19 : 1. What will be the mother‘s age four years from now?
(a)42 years
(b)38 years
(c)46 years
(d)36 years
(e)None of these
2.The ratio of the monthly incomes of Sneha, Tina and Akruti is 95 : 110 : 116. If Sneha‘s annual
income is ₹.3,42,000, what is Akruti‘s annual income?
101 | P a g e
(a)₹.3,96,9000
(b)₹.5,63,500
(c)₹.4,17,600
(d)₹.3,88,000
(e)None of these
3.The ratio of the monthly income of Trupti, Pallavi and Komal is 141 : 172 : 123. If Trupti‘s
annual income is ₹.3,38 400, what is Komal‘s annual income? (In some cases, monthly income
is used, while in others, annual income is used.)
(a)₹. 4,12,800
(b)₹. 3,63,500
(c)₹.3,17,600
(d)₹.2,95,200
(e)None of these
4.The ratio of Sita‘s, Riya‘s and Kunal‘s monthly income is 84 : 76 : 89. If Riya‘s annual income
is ₹.4,56,000, what is the sum of Sita‘s and Kunal‘s annual incomes? (In some cases monthly
income is used while in others annual income is used.)
(a)₹.11,95,000
(b)₹.9,83,50
(c)₹.11,30,000
(d)₹.10,38,000
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.c
2.c
3.d
102 | P a g e
4.d
(SBI Clerk 2014)
1.Number of students studying in colleges A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4 respectively. If 50

more students join college A and there is no change in the number of students in college B, the
respective ratio becomes 5 : 6. What is the number of students in college B ?(SBI Clerk 2014)
(a)450
(b)500
(c)400
(d)600
(e)None of these
2.729 ml of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 7 : 2. How much more water is to be
added to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 7 : 3 ?
(a)60 ml
(b)71 ml
(c)52 ml
(d)81 ml
(e)None of these
3.‗A‘ began business with ₹.45,000 and was later joined by ‗B‘ with ₹.54,000. When did B join
if the profit at the end of the year were divided in the ratio 2 : 1?
(a)5 months after
(b)10 months after
(c)7 months after
(d)12 months after
103 | P a g e
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.d
2.d
3.c
(IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
1.Neeraj‘s age is 1/5th of his father‘s age. Neeraj‘s father‘s age will be twice Vinod‘s age after
10 years. If Vinod‘s eighth birthday was celebrated two years ago, then what is Neeraj‘s present
age?
(a)14 years
(b)6 years
(c)30 years
(d)10 years
(e)None of these
2.Sanjay earned a profit of ` 600 by selling 100 kg of a mixture of A and B types of rice at total
price of ` 2200. What was the proportion of A and B types of rice in the mixture if the cost prices
of A and B types of rice are ` 20 and ` 10 per kg respectively?(IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
(a)4 : 1
(b)2 : 5
(c)3 : 2
(d)5 : 2
(e)2 : 3
104 | P a g e
3.In a pot, the ratio of milk and water is 4 : 1. In another pot, the ratio of milk and water is 7 : 4.
In what ratio mixture should be taken from both mixtures to make final mixture so that in final
mixture the ratio of milk and water be 41 : 14? (IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
(a)3 : 2
(b)2 : 1
(c)4 : 3
(d)5 : 2
(e)None of these
4.P, Q and R enter into partnership. P advances one-fourth of the capital for one-fourth of the
time. Q contributes one-fifth of the capital for half of the time. R contributes the remaining
capital for the whole time. How should they divide a profit of ` 2280? (IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
(a)350, 400, 1560
(b)200, 320, 1760
(c)400, 500, 1600
(d)250, 300, 1730
(e)None of these
5.How much quantity of rice of the price 18 rupees per kg should be mixed with 45 kg of rice
having price 26 rupees per kg so that after selling mixture at 25.2 rupees per kg there is a profit
of 5%?(IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
(a)30 kg
(b)25 kg
(c)20 kg
(d)15 kg
(e)None of these
6.Sum of the present ages of P, Q, R and S is 76 years. After 7 years ratio of their ages is 7 : 6 : 5
: 8. What is R‘s present age?(IBPS PO Pre Exam 2017)
105 | P a g e
(a)14
(b)12
(c)13
(d)8
(e)10
7.A mixture of milk and water in a jar contains 28 L milk and 8 L water. X L milk and X L water
are mixed to form a mixture. If 40% of the new mixture is 20 L, then find the value of X. (IBPS
PO Pre Exam 2017)
(a)7 L
(b)8 L
(c)6 L
(d)5 L
(e)9 L
8.The ten‘s digit of a three digit number is 3. If the digits of x are interchanged and the number
thus formed is 396 more than the previous one. The sum of unit digit and hundred digit is 14,
then what is the number?
(a)480
(b)539
(c)593
(d)935
(e)None of these
ANSWER:
1.b
2.c
3.b
106 | P a g e
4.b
5.d
6.c
7.a
8.b
107 | P a g e
DATA INTERPRETATION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER - SET 1
CBSE UGC NET Paper - I June – 2014
Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions : Net Area under
Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)
Year Governmen Private Tanks Tube Other Total

t
Canals Wells and sources
Canals other wells
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999- 00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000- 01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001- 02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002- 03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003- 04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2004- 05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005- 06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196
Q1.Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of
percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government Canals
108 | P a g e
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube Wels and other wels
(D) Other Sources
Answer: D
Q2. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
Answer: D
Q3.Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth
in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tube Wels and other wels
(D) Other sources
Answer: A
Q4. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net
irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
Answer: C
Q5. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline
in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(B) Private Canals
(C) Tanks
109 | P a g e
(D) Other Sources
Answer: C
MODEL QUESTION PAPERS - SET 2

SBI PO MAIN EXAM 2015
The circle graph given here shows the spending for a country on various sports during a particular year.
Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.
1.What per cent of total expenditure is spent on tennis?
(a) 12.5
(b) 22.5
c)25%
(d)45%
(e)40%
2.How much per cent more is spent on hockey than that on golf?
(a)27%
110 | P a g e
(b)35%
(c)37.5%
(d)75%
(e)None of these
3.If the total amount spend on sports during the year be `18000000, then the amount spent on basketball
exceeds on Tennis by
(a)`250000
(b)`360000
(c)`375000
(d)`410000
(e)`30000
4.How many per cent less is spent on football than that on Cricket?
(a) 22 2/9
(b)27%
(c) 33 1/3
(d) 37 1/7
(e)29%
5.If the total amount spent on sports during the year was `2 crore, the amount spent on cricket and hockey
together was
(a)`800000
(b)`8000000
(c)`12000000
(d)`16000000
(e)None of these
111 | P a g e
ANSWERS:
1.(a) 2.(d)3.(a) 4.(c) 5.(b)

CBSE UGC Paper-I December-2005
Study the following graph carefully and answer Q.No. 1 to 5 given below it:
Q1.In which year the value per tin was minimum?
(A) 1995 (B) 1996
(C) 1998 (D) 1999
Answer: A
Q2.What was the difference between the tins exported in 1997 and 1998?
(A) 10 (B) 1000
(C) 100000 (D) 1000000
Answer: A
Q3.What was the approximate percentage increase in export value from 1995 to 1999?
(A) 350 (B) 330.3
(C) 433.3 (D) None of these
Answer: D (233.3)
112 | P a g e
Q4.What was the percentage drop in export quantity from 1995 to 1996?
(A) 75 (B) 50
(C) 25 (D) None of these
Answer: C
Q5.If in 1998, the tins were exported at the same rate per tin as that in 1997, what would be the
value (in crores of rupees) of export in 1998?
(A) 400 (B) 375
(C) 352 (D) 330
Answer: C

(IBPS RRB OFFICER SCALE 1 EXAM 2013)
Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions :
POPULATIONS OF TWO STATES (IN MILLIONS) OVER THE YEARS
113 | P a g e
1.For state B the per cent rise in population from the previous year was the highest in which of
the following years ?
(a)2008
(b)2006
(c)2005
(d)2004
(e)2007
2.What was the average population of state B (in millions) for all the years together ?
(a)38.5
(b)28.5
(c)35
(d)26
(e)37.5
3.What is the per cent rise in population of state A in 2007 from the previous year ?
(a)25
(b)
(c)33
(d)
(e)None of these
4.What is the ratio between the total populations of states A and B respectively for all the years
together ?
(a)37 : 45
(b)37 : 43
(c)43 : 37
114 | P a g e
(d)45 : 37
(e)None of these
5.Population of state A in 2005 is what per cent of its total population for all the years together ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(e)None of these
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2.(e) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(c)

( CORPORATION BANK SPECIALIST OFFICER EXAM 2014)
In the following bar diagram, the number of passengers carried to different cities in first quarter
of a year by four airlines A, B, C and D has been given. Study the following diagram carefully
and answer the questions.
115 | P a g e
1.What is the difference between the number of passengers travelling to all cities by the airlines
A and C ?
(a)5000
(b)6000
(c)5500
(d)6500
(e)15000
2.The number of passengers travelling to Delhi and Kolkata by airline C is what per cent of the
number of all passengers travelling by the same airline?
(a)32
(b)35
(c)38
(d)42
(e)44
116 | P a g e
3.What is the respective ratio of the number of passengers who travelled to Chennai and
Bangaluru by airline B and that to Mumbai and Ahmedabad by airline D ?
(a)6 : 7
(b)3 : 4
(c)1 : 1
(d)7 : 6
(e)None of these
4.The number of passengers travelling to Chennai by airline A in second quarter is 150% of that
in first quarter by the same airline. The number of passengers in the second quarter by the same
airline is 120% of that in the third quarter. What is the percentage increase in the number of
passengers in third quarter from that in first quarter ?
(a)15%
(b)18%
(c)20%
(d)25%
(e)30%
5.The number of passengers going to Bangaluru and Kolkata in first quarter by airline B is what
per cent of the number of passengers going to the same cities in second quarter if there be an
increase of 30% in the number of passengers going to Bangaluru from first quarter to second
quarter and in that going to Kolkata shows a 40% increase from first to second quarter ? (a)68
(b)60
(c)65
(d)70
(e)74
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(e)
117 | P a g e
CHAPTER - 3
READING
COMPREHENSION
118 | P a g e
READING COMPREHENSION
The main purpose of reading comprehension is to test the reading and understanding capability
of the students.
A comprehension test comprises of a passage which needs to be read well and answer the
questions provided below it. As the base of the answers relies on the passage, it is very important
to craft your answers effectively by analyzing the given passage properly.
When attempting comprehension questions, it is very important to take time and read the passage
carefully. It is a very essential step that you need to follow
1. Try to understand the reading passage:
2. Understand the level of the questions:
3 Try not to rely on your prior knowledge:
Model passage 1
Street theatre in India is a well-established ancient art form. Despite the proliferation of modern
means of entertainment and communication, the street theatre continues to flourish in India.
Street theatre as a channel of communication has for centuries been propagating reforms by
highlighting social, economic and political issues present in the society. Unlike in the olden days,
its performance is no longer restricted to villages or small localities of the city.
Today small groups of performers including students would stage performances to mobilize
public opinion or to help create or raise awareness over a particular issue of public importance.
Themes on substance abuse, AIDS awareness, and domestic violence are some of the areas
highlighted by contemporary street theatre troupe.
Unlike in regular drama, street drama employs very little props and images. The human body
becomes the main tool in which choreography, mime, dialogues, songs, and slogans are
extensively used. Street theatre is one of the most intimate media. Its appeal is to the emotions
leading to the quick psychological impact on audiences. By being local and live they also can
establish not only direct contact with the audience but by being cost-effective and flexible they
are popular among all age groups. (SSC SI 2014)
119 | P a g e
Questions
1. Modern means of entertainment and communication _______ street theatre.
(a) does affect
(b) does not affect
(c) helps popularised
(d) helps establish
2. In the olden days street theatre _______ to villages or small localities of the city.
(a) was restricted
(b) was not restricted
(c) was opened
(d) was entertained
3. Street theatre usually _______ with issues of public importance.
(a) is distanced
(b) is performed
(c) deals
(d) does not deal
4. Street theatre is _______ to stage.
(a) nothing
(b) costly
(c) reasonable
(d) affordable
5. Street theatre creates an/a _______ impact on audiences.
(a) intimate
(b) emotional
120 | P a g e
(c) mystical
(d) physical
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c). 4. (c) 5 (b)
Model Passage 2
The superintendence, direction, and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct
of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and
the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India. It is an independent
constitutional authority.
Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is
ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the Chief Election
Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as
a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his
disadvantage after his appointment.
In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High
Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the
departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone, and
transport, etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information
should be published by the election authorities under the commission. (CBSE UGC NET June –
2006)
Q 1. The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions:
(A) The authority of the commission cannot be challenged.
(B) This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.
(C) This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.
(D) This would ensure fair and free elections.
Answer: D
121 | P a g e
Q 2. According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional
authority. This is under Article No. :
(A) 324 (B) 356
(C) 246 (D) 161
Answer: A
Q 3. Independence of the Commission means:
(A) have a constitutional status.
(B) have legislative powers.
(C) have judicial powers.
(D) have political powers.
Answer: A
Q 4. Fair and free election means:
(A) transparency
(B) to maintain law and order
(C) regional considerations
(D) role for pressure groups
Answer: B
Q 5. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :
(A) 125 (B) 352
(C) 226 (D) 324
Answer: D
122 | P a g e
Model Passage 3
In the history of Britain, the period from 1837 to 1901 is known as the Victorian Age. The
period saw the long and prosperous reign of Queen Victoria in England. Charles Dickens was
the most popular novelist of this period. He became famous for his depiction of the life of the
working class, intricate plots and sense of humor. However, it was the vast galaxy of unusual
characters created by him that made him more popular than any of his contemporaries.
Drawn from everyday life and the world around him, these characters were such that readers
could relate to them. Beginning with The Pickwick Papers in 1836. Dickens wrote numerous
novels, each uniquely filled with believable personalities and vivid physical descriptions.
According to Dickens friend and biographer, John Forster. Dickens made "characters real
existences, not by describing them but letting them describe themselves." (SSC Stenographer
2016)
1. Dickens became famous for depicting the life of
(a) the business class, intricate plots and sense of humor.
(b) the working class, dull plots and sense of humor.
(c) the working class, intricate plots and lack of humor.
(d) the working class, intricate plots and sense of humor.
2. Dickens' characters were drawn from
(a) everyday life and the world around him.
(b) unbelievable personalities.
(c) royal families.
(d) everyday life and the world beyond him.
3. John Forster was Dickens'
(a) friend and editor
(b) friend and biographer
(c) best friend and philosopher
(d) friend and doctor
123 | P a g e
4. The period between 1837-1970 was known as the
(a) the Shakespearian Age
(b) the Victorian Age
(c) the Dark Age
d) the Elizabethan Age
5. The word 'popular' in the passage means
(a) propelling
(b) problematic
(c) successful
(d) poor
Answer:
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c)
Model Passage 4
Freedom has assuredly given us a new status and new opportunities. But it also implies that we
should discard selfishness, laziness and all narrowness of outlook. Our freedom suggests toil and
creation of new values for old ones. We should so discipline ourselves as to be able to discharge
our new responsibilities satisfactorily.
If there is anyone thing that needs to be stressed more, than any other in the new set-up, it is that
we should put into action our full, capacity, each one of us in a productive effort - each one of us
in his sphere, however humble. Work, unceasing work, should now be our watch-word. Work is
wealth, and service is happiness. Nothing else is. The greatest crime in India today is idleness. If
we root out idleness, all our difficulties, including even conflicts, will gradually disappear. (SSC
CHSL 2013)
1. Anyone can free himself from the clutches of difficulties if he
(a) eliminates narrow outlook
(b) fulfills his responsibilities
(c) discards idleness
124 | P a g e
(d) discharges his obligations
2. What has freedom undeniably offered to the citizens of India?
(a) New opportunities
(b) New outlook
(c) New responsibilities
(d) New values
3. One thing needs to be stressed more than anything else in this new set-up. It is that people
should
(a) discard narrowness of outlook
(b) discipline themselves suitably
(c) work to their full capacity
(d) substitute old values with new ones
4. work should be the motto of our citizens.
(a) Resourceful
(b) Incessant
(c) Productive
(d) Ingenious
5. Nothing else can give us joy except
(a) service
(b) idleness
(c) wealth
(d) freedom
Answer
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a)
125 | P a g e
Model Passage 5
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrolled development, consumerist society,
political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the
transcendental ‗second reality‘ of sacred perception that biological transcendence is a part of
human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigor that the ‗first reality‘ of
enlightened rationalism and the ‗second reality‘ of the Beyond have to be harmonized in a
worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‗is‘ of our ethic,
they are est values (Latin est means is).
The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‗ought to be‘). Both
have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever-new science and technology and the
ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to
be, his share in being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that
matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non - materiality of the
universe. The encounter of the ‗two cultures‘, the scientific and the humane, will restore the
normal vision and will be the bedrock of a ‗science of understanding‘ in the new century.
It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value)
coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavors cannot afford to be humanistic ally irresponsible.
(UGC CBSE NET PAPER- 1December- 2011)
Q.1 The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism
(B) Materialism
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
Answer: D
Q.2 The ‗de facto‘ values in the passage mean
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
126 | P a g e
(D) Where it is
Answer: A
Q 3. According to the passage, the ‗first reality‘ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
Answer: D
Q4. An encounter of the ‗two cultures‘, the scientific and the human implies
(A)Restoration of normal vision
(B)The universe is both material and non-material
(C)Man is superior to nature
(D)Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
Answer: A
Q5.The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive
(B) Prescriptive
(C) Axiomatic
(D) Optional
Answer: D
Q6. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
127 | P a g e
(D) humans are irresponsible
Answer: B
Model Passage 6
Every profession or trade, every art, and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function
of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and
partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons are necessary
for technical discussion of any kind.
Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the
precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to
name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included
din every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English
language than actually within its borders.
Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In
trades and handicrafts and other vocations like farming and fishing that have occupied great
numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now
uses these in his own vocabularly. The special dialects of law, medicine, divinity, and
philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons. (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)
1. Special words used in a technical discussion
(a) may become part of common speech
(b) never last long
(c) should resemble the mathematical formula
(d) should be confined to scientific fields
2. The writer of this article is
(a) a scientist
(b) a politician
(c) a linguist
(d) a businessman
128 | P a g e
3. This passage is primarily concerned with
(a) various occupations and professions
(b) technical terminology
(c) scientific undertakings
(d) a new language
4. It is true that
(a) various professions and occupations often interchange words
(b) there is always a non-technical word that may be substituted for the technical word
(c) the average man often uses in his vocabulary what was once technical language not meant
for him
(d) everyone is interested in scientific findings
5. In recent years, there has been a marked increase in the number of technical terms in the
nomenclature of
(a) Farming
(b) Fishing
(c) Sports
(d) Government
Answers:
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d)
Model Passage 7
As I stepped out of the train I felt unusually solitary since I was the only passenger to alight. I
was accustomed to arriving in the summer when holiday-makers throng coastal resorts and this
was my first visit when the season was over. My destination was a little village which was eight
miles by road.
129 | P a g e
It took only a few minutes for me to come to the foot of the cliff path. When I reached the top I
had left all signs of habitation behind me. I was surprised to notice that the sky was already
aflame with the sunset. It seemed to be getting dark amazingly quickly. I was at a loss to account
for the exceptionally early end of daylight since I did not think I had walked unduly slowly.
Then I recollected that on previous visits I had walked in high summer and how it was October.
All at once it was night. The track was grassy and even in daylight showed up hardly at all. I was
terrified of hurtling over the edge of the cliff to the rocks below. I felt my feet squelching and
sticking in something soggy.
Then I bumped into a little clump of trees that loomed up in front of me. I climbed up the nearest
trunk and managed to find a tolerably comfortable fork to sit on. The waiting was spent by my
attempts to identify the little stirrings and noises of animal life that I could hear. I grew colder
and colder and managed to sleep only in uneasy fitful starts. At last, when the moon came up I
was on my way again. (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2014)
1. The writer felt unusually solitary because
(a) he was feeling very lonely without his family.
(b) he was missing the company of other holiday-makers.
(c) his destination was a little village eight miles away.
(d) there was no one to meet him.
2. "I left all signs of habitation behind me." This means that he
(a) came to a place where there were very few houses.
(b) was in front of a large collection of cottages.
(c) had come very far from places where people lived.
(d) had just passed a remote village.
3. I became darker than the writer expected because
(a) the nights are shorter in autumn than in summer.
(b) the nights are longer in October than mid-summer.
(c) the train arrived later than usual.
130 | P a g e
(d) he had walked unduly slowly.
4. The writer found it difficult to keep to the path because of
(a) the darkness and narrowness of the path.
(b) poor visibility and grassy track.
(c) the darkness and his slow pace.
(d) poor visibility and dew on the grass.
5. When he settled himself on the fork of the tree the writer ___________
(a) had a sound sleep.
(b) was disturbed by the noises of animals.
(c) was too afraid to sleep.
(d) tried to sleep but without much success.
Answers:
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d)
Model Passage 8
It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements,
was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development,
and to consider it or to criticize it as a working-class movement is wrong.
Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses concerning that movement to a
supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution
of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he
launched through the National Congress.
Through nation-wide action he sought to mold the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so,
and changing them from a demoralized, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every
dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance,
resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.
131 | P a g e
Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar
hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filed the people. That was an
amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world
conditions worked for this change.
But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was
that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds and none
of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came
over the Indian people.
Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how
to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while
groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in
with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.
It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the
conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and
taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues
vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they
indulge in.
But behind this, personality counts and colors those policies and activities. In the case of a very
exceptional person like Gandhi, the question of personality becomes especially important to
understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honor of India, the yearning
of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the
British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people. (CBSE UGC NET
Paper - I December – 2010)
Q1. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi‘s role in Indian movement for independence.
(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India‘s freedom movement.
(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi‘s role in India‘s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress‘s support to the working-class movement.
Answer: B
Q2. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical
132 | P a g e
(B) Cultural
(C) Technological
(D) Psychological
Answer: D
Q3.To consider the nationalist movement or to criticize it as a working-class movement was

wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people
(C) bourgeois movement
(D) the movement represented by Gandhi
Answer: C
Q4. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality
(B) reach the heart of Indians
(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress
Answer: B
Q5. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with
(A) objective conditions of masses
(B) theGandhian ideology
(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses
Answer: A
Q6.The author concludes the passage by
133 | P a g e
(A) criticizing the Indian masses
(B) theGandhian movement
(C) pointing out the importance of the personality of Gandhi
(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians
Answer: C
Model Passage 9
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into
watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material
to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry.
This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred III a more
primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil
microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the
mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation.
The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus-baseded, from agricultural runoff
(and human sewage) has caused many 'healthy' oligotrophic lakes (low nutrient concentrations,
low plant productivity with abundant water weeds, and clear water) to change to eutrophic
condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity (sometimes
dominated by bloom-forming toxic species).
This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia
and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost,
including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with
recreation.
The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only
recently did scientists notice huge 'dead zones' in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those
draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in
China.
The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers, and lakes, and eventually to the
estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates
and fish in areas up to 70,000 km2 in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now
134 | P a g e
regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by
nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities.
Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off'-
'countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use
more fertilizer.
(UPSC CSAT PAPER – 11, 2013)
1. According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses be
restricted?
1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically.
2. Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of
agricultural slurry.
3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophication of water bodies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The passage refers to the conversion of "a pollutant to fertilizer". What is a pollutant and what
is fertilizer in this context?
(a) The decomposed organic component of slurry is pollutant and microorganisms in soil
constitute fertilizer.
(b) The discharged agricultural slurry is a pollutant and decomposed slurry in the soil is fertilizer.
(c) The sprayed slurry is pollutant and watercourse is fertilizer.
(d) None of the above expressions is correct in this context.
3. According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers?
1. Addition of pollutants to the soil and water.
135 | P a g e
2. Destruction decomposer of microorganisms in the soil.
3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies.
4. Creation of algal blooms.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 arid 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. What is/are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication?
1. Loss of ecosystem services
2. Loss of flora and fauna
3. Loss of mineral nutrients
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. What is the central theme of this passage?
(a) Appropriate legislation is essential to protect the environment.
(b) Modern agriculture is responsible for the destruction of the environment.
(c) Improper waste disposal from agriculture can destroy aquatic ecosystems.
(d) Use of chemical fertilizers is undesirable in agriculture.
Answer:
1).c
136 | P a g e
2).b
3).b
4).b
5).c
Model Passage 10
It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or despised. A
successful businessman does nothing to increase his popularity by being careful with his money.
He is expected to display his success, to have a smart car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with
his hospitality.
If he is not so, he is considered to mean and his reputation in business may even suffer in
consequence. The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first
place, he would never have achieved his present wealth. Among the two income groups, a
different set of values exists.
The young clerk who makes his wife a present of a new dress when the hadn‘t paid his house
rent condemned as extravagant. Carefulness with money to the point of meanness is applauded
as a virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills. The ideal wife for
such a man separates her housekeeping money into joyless little piles- so much for rent, for food,
for the children‘s shoes;
she is able to face the milkman with equanimity and never knows the guilt of buying something
she can‘t able to face the milkman with equanimity and never knows the guilt of buying
something she can‘t really afford. As for myself, I fall into neither of these categories. If I have
money to spare I can be extravagant, but when, as is usually the case, I am hard up, then I am
then meanest man imaginable. (SBI PO PRELIMINARY -2015)
1. In the opinion of the writer, a successful businessman:
(a) is more popular if he appears to be doing nothing.
(b)should not bother about his popularity.
(c)must be extravagant before achieving success.
(d)is expected to have expensive tastes.
137 | P a g e
(e)None of these
2.The phrase lavish with his hospitality signifies
(a)miserliness in dealing with his friends.
(b)considerateness in spending on guests and strangers.
(c)extravagance in entertaining guests.
(d)indifference in treating his friends and relatives.
(e)None of these
3.We understand from the passage that
(a)all mean people are wealthy
(b)wealthy people are invariably successful.
(c)carefulness generally leads to failure.
(d)a thrift may lead to success.
(e)None of these
4.It seems that low paid people should
(a)not pay their bills promptly.
(b)not keep their creditors waiting.
(c)borrow money to meet their essential needs
(d)feel guilty if they overspend
(e)none of these
5.The word paradox means:
(a)statement based on facts.
(b)that which brings out the inner meaning.
(c)that which is contrary to received opinion.
(d)statement based on popular opinion.
138 | P a g e
(e)none of these
6.How does the housewife, described by the writer, feel when she saves money?
(a)is content to be so thrifty.
(b)wishes life were less burdensome.
(c)is still troubled by a sense of guilt.
(d)wishes she could sometimes be extravagant.
(e)None of these
7.Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word applauded in the passage?
(a)Humiliated
(b)Decried
(c)Cherished
(d)Suppressed
(e)None of these
8.The statement she can face the milkman with equanimity implies that:
(a)she is not upset as she has been paying the milkman his dues regularly.
(b)she loses her nerve at the sight of the milkman who always demands his dues.
(c)she manages to keep cool as she has to pay the milkman who always demands his dues.
(d)she remains composed and confident as she knows that she can handle the milkman tactfully.
(e)none of these
9.As far as money is concerned, we get the impression that the writer:
(a)is incapable of saving anything
(b)is never inclined to be extravagant
(c)would like to be considered extravagant
(d)doesn‘t often have any money to save
139 | P a g e
(e)none of these
10.Which of the following would be the most suitable title for the passage?
(a)Extravagance leads to poverty
(b)Miserly habits of the poor.
(c)Extravagance in the life of the rice and the poor.
(d)Extravagance is always condemnable.
(e)None of these
Answers:
1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(b)8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(c)
Model Passage 11
SBI AND ITS ASSOCIATES PO EXAM 2011
Directions (Qs. 1-8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below
it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions.
India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernization, counting on high-tech
industries such as information technology and biotechnology to propel the nation to prosperity.
India‘s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic
pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organization while at the same time
challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms.
Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the Achilles‘ heel of this strategy. Its
systematic disinvestment in higher education in recent years has yielded· neither world-class
research nor very many highly trained scholars, scientists or managers to sustain high-tech
development. India‘s main competitors-especially China, but also Singapore, Taiwan, and South
Korea-are investing in large and differentiated higher education systems.
They are providing access to a large number of students at the bottom of the academic system
while at the same time building some research-based universities that are able to compete with
the world‘s best institutions. The recent London Times Higher Education Supplement ranking of
140 | P a g e
the world‘s top 200 universities included three in China, three in Hong Kong. three in South
Korea, one in Taiwan, and one in India.
These countries are positioning themselves for leadership in the knowledge-based economies of
the coming era. There was a time when countries could achieve economic success with cheap
labour and low-tech manufacturing. Low wages still help, but contemporary large-scale
development requires a sophisticated and at least partly knowledge-based economy.
India has chosen that path, but will find a major stumbling block in its university system. India
has significant advantages in the 21st century knowledge race. It has a large higher education
sector – the third largest in the world in terms of number of students, after China and the United
States. It uses English as a primary language of higher education and research. It has a long
academic tradition. Academic freedom is respected. There are a small number of high-quality
institutions, departments,departments, and centres that can form the basis of quality sector in
higher education.
The fact that the States, rather than the Central Government, exercise major responsibility for
higher education creates a rather cumbersome structure, but the system allows for a variety of
policies and approaches. Yet the weaknesses far outweigh the strengths. India educates
approximately 10 per cent of its young people in higher education compared to more than half in
the major industrialised countries and 15 per cent in China.
Almost all of the world‘s academic systems resemble a pyramid, with a small, high-quality tier at
the top and a massive sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities
occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent
departments and centres, and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges.
The University Grants Commission‘s recent major support to five universities to build on their
recognised strength is a step towards recognising a differentiated academic system and fostering
excellence. These universities, combined, enrol well under one per cent of the student
population.
1.Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(a)The top five universities in India educate more than 10 percent of the Indian student
population.
(b)India‘s higher education sector is the largest in the world.
(c)In the past, countries could progress economically through low manufacturing cost as well as
low wages of laborers.
141 | P a g e
(d)India has recently invested heavy sums in the higher education sector leading to world-class
research.
(e)All are true
2.What does the phrase ‗Achilles‘ heel‘ mean as used in the passage?
(a)Weakness
(b)Quickness
(c)Low quality
(d)Nimbleness
(e)Advantage
3.Which of the following is/are India‘s strength/s in terms of higher education? (1)Its system of
higher education allows variations. (2)Medium of instruction for most higher learning is English.
(3)It has the paraphernalia, albeit small in number, to build a high-quality higher educational
sector.
(a)Only (2)
(b)Only (1) and (2)
(c)Only (3)
(d)Only (2) and (3)
(e)AlI (1), (2) and (3)
4.What are the Asian countries, other than India, doing to head towards a knowledge-based
economy? (1)Building competitive research-based universities (2)Investing in diverse higher
education systems (3)Providing access to higher education to select few students
(a)Only (1)
(b)Only (1) and (2)
(c)Only (2) and (3)
(d)Only (2)
(e)All (1), (2) and (3)
142 | P a g e
5.Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
(a)The Future of Indian Universities
(b)Methods of overcoming the Educational Deficit in India
(c)India and the Hunt for a Knowledge-Based Economy
(d)Indian Economy Versus Chinese Economy
(e)Indian Economy and Its Features
6.What did India agree to do at the behest of the World Trade Organization?
(a)It would stop manufacturing all types of pharmaceuticals.
(b)It would ask its domestic pharmaceutical companies to compete with the international ones.
(c)It would buy licensed drugs only from the USA.
(d)It would not manufacture cheap common medicines without a licence.
(e)None of these
7.Which of the following is/are India‘s weakness/es when it comes to higher education? (1)
Indian universities do not have the requisite teaching faculty to cater to the needs of the higher
education sector. (2)Only five Indian universities occupy the top position very strongly in the
academic pyramid when it comes to higher education. (3)India has the least percentage of young
population taking to higher education as compared to the rest of the comparable countries.
(a)Only (1) and (2)
(b)Only (2)
(c)Only (3)
(d)Only (1) and (3)
(e)All (1), (2) and (3)
8.Which of the following, according to the passage, is/are needed for the economic success of a
country? (1)Cheap labour (2)Educated employees (3)Research institutions to cater to the needs
of development
(a)Only (1) and (2)
143 | P a g e
(b)Only (2)
(c)Only (3)
(d)Only (2) and (3)
(e)All (1), (2) and (3)
ANSWER
1(c) 2(a) 3(d) 4(b) 5(c) 6(d) 7(c) 8(d)
Model Passage 12
IBPS PO EXAM 2015
Directions (Qs. 1-10): Read the following passage based on an Interview to answer the given
questions based on it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering
some of the questions. A spate of farmer sucides linked to harassment by recovery agents
employed by Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) in Andhra Pradesh spurred the state government
to bring in regulation to protect consumer interests.
But, while the Bill has brought into sharp focus the need for consumer protection, it tries to
micro-manage MFI operations and in the process it could scuttle some of the crucial benefits that
MFls bring to farmers, says the author of Microfinance India, State of the Sector Report 2010. In
an interview he points out that prudent regulation can ensure the original goal of the MFIs–social
uplift of the poor. Do you feel the AP Bill to regulate MFIs is well thought out ? Does it ensure
fairness to the borrowers and the long-term health of the sector ? The AP bill has brought into
sharp focus the need for customer protection in four critical areas First is pricing. Second is
tender‘s liability — whether the Lender can give too much loan without assessing the customer‘s
ability to pay.
Third is the structure of loan repayment – whether you can ask money on a weekly basis from
people who don‘t produce weekly incomes. Fourth is the practices that attend to how you deal
with defaults. But the Act should have looked at the positive benefits that institutions could bring
144 | P a g e
in, and where they need to be regulated in the interests of the customers. It should have brought
only those features in.
Say, you want the recovery practices to be consistent with what the customer can really manage.
If the customer is aggrieved and complains that somebody is harassing him, then those
complaints should be investigated by the District Rural Development Authority. Instead what the
Bill says is that MFIs cannot go to the customer‘s premises to ask for recovery and that all
transactions will be done in the Panchayat office.
With great difficulty, MFIs brought services to the door of people. It is such a relief for the
customers not to be spending time out going to banks or Panchayat offices, which could be 10
km away in some cases. A facility which has brought some relief to people is being shut.
Moreover, you are practically telling the MFI where it should do business and how it should do
it. Social responsibilities were in-built when the MFIs were first conceived.
If MFIs go for profit with loose regulations, how are they different from moneylenders? Even
among moneylenders there are very good people who take care of the customer‘s circumstance,
and there are really bad ones. A large number of the MFIs are good and there are some who are
coercive because of the kind of prices and processes they have adopted. But Moneylenders never
got this organised. They did not have such a large footprint. An MFI brought in organisations, it
mobilized the equity, it brought in commercial funding.
It invested in systems. It appointed a large number of people. But some of then exacted a much
higher price than they should have. They wanted to break even very fast and greed did take over
in some cases. Are the for-profit MFIs the only ones harassing people for recoveries ? Some not-
for-profit outfits have also adopted the same kind of recovery methods.
That may be because you have to show that you are very efficient in your recovery methods and
that your portfoilo is of a very high quality if you want to get commercial funding from a bank.
In fact, among for-profits there are many who have sensible recovery practices. Some have
fortnightly recovery, some have monthly recovery. So we have differing practices. We just
describe a few dominant ones and assume every for-profit MFI operates like that. How can you
145 | P a g e
introduce regulations to ensure social upliftment in a sector that is moving towards for -profit
models ? I am not really concerned whether someone wants to make a profit or not.
The bottom-line for me is customer protection. The first area is fair practices. Are you telling
your customers how the loan is structured ? Are you being transparent about your performance ?
There should also be a lender‘s lilability attached to what you do. Suppose you lend excessively
to a customer without assessing their ability to service the loan, you have to take the hit. Then
there‘s the question of limiting returns. You can say that an MFI cannot have a return on assets
more than X, a return on equity of more than Y. Then suppose there is a privately promoted MFI,
there should be a regulation to ensure the MFI cannot access equity markets till a certain amount
of time. MFIs went to markets perhaps because of the need to grow too big too fast. The
government thought they were making profit off the poor, and that‘s an indirect reasons why
they decided to clamp down on MFIs. If you say an MFI won‘t go to capital market, then it will
keep political compulsions under rein.
1.Which of the following best explains ‗Structure of loan repayment‘ in the context of the first
question asked to the author ?
(a)Higher interest rate
(b)Payment on weekly basis
(c)Giving loan without assessing ability to pay
(d)Method of dealing with defaults
(e)Total amount of loan
2.The author is of the view that _____
(a)the bill to regulate MFIs is not needed
(b)the bill neglects the interests of the customers
(c)the positive aspects of MFIs should also be considered.
146 | P a g e
(d)most of the MFIs are not good.
(e)MFIs must be told what and where they should do business
3.One of the distinct positive feature of MFIs is that _____.
(a)they brought services to the door of people
(b)they dealt with defaulters very firmly
(c)they provided adequate customer protection
(d)they are governed by the local people
(e)they have highly flexible repayment plan
4.What is the difference between MFIs and moneylenders ?
(a)There is no difference.
(b)A large number of money lenders are good whereas only a few MFIs are good
(c)Money lenders gave credit at lower rate of interest than that of MFIs
(d)MFIs adopted a structure and put a process in place, which was not the case with
moneylenders
(e)Moneylender appointed large number of local people as against more outside people in MFIs
5.Which of the following is positive outcome of the AP Bill to regulate MFIs ?
(a)The banks have started this service in remote areas
(b)It highlighted some areas of customer protection
(c)It highlighted the bad practices being followed by moneylenders
(d)MFIs is invested in systems and brought in commercial funding.
147 | P a g e
(e)It will help convert MFIs into small banks
6.The author is recommending ____.
(a)Not-for profit MFIs
(b)For-profit MFIs
(c)Stoppage of commercial funding to MFIs
(d)Customer satisfaction irrespective of ‗Not-for profit‘ or ‗for profit‘ MFIs
(e)Public sector promoted MFIs
7.Why did MFIs go to the equity markers ?
(a)To repay the loan
(b)To lower interest rate
(c)There were political compulsions
(d)To become a public sector institution
(e)To grow very fast
8.Which of the following has not been indicated as one of the features of air practices for
customer protection ?
(a)Providing information about loan structuring.
(b)MFIs should also be held liable for some of their actions
(c)Not to raise money from capital market
(d)MFIs should also inform public about their own performance also
(e)To provide credit as per the rational assessment of their ability to service the loan
148 | P a g e
9.Which of the following could possibly be most plausible reason for banning recovery by going
to customer‘s premises ?
(a)To protect the family members
(b)To protect the customer from harassment and coercion
(c)To reduce the undue expenses of MFIs is resulting in lower interest rates.
(d)To account systematically the money recovered in the books of accounts
(e)To keep Panchayat office out of these transactions
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(d) 7.(e) 8.(d) 9.(b) 10.(a)
Model Passage 13
IBPS PO PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering
some of the questions. The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely impoverished
countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption and
mis-rule.
Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow market forces to
operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African governance have it
wrong. Politics simply can‘t explain Africa‘s prolonged economic crisis. The claim that Africa‘s
corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand serious scrutiny.
During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well-governed countries in Africa, such as
Ghana, Malawi, Mali and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in Asia perceived to have
extensive corruption, such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan, enjoyed rapid economic
growth. What is the explanation? Every situation of extreme poverty around the world contains
some of its own unique causes, which need to be diagnosed as a doctor would a patient.
For example, Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the world, simply because it is
unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease; high temperatures, plenty of
149 | P a g e
breeding sites and particular species of malaria-transmitting mosquitoes that prefer to bite
humans rather than cattle. Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid
to the world‘s poor.
Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O‘Neil expressed a common frustration when he
remarked about aid for Africa : ―We‘ve spent trillions of dollars on these problems and we have
damn near nothing to show for it‖. O‘Neil was no foe of foreign aid. Indeed, he wanted to fix the
system so that more U.S. aid could be justified.
But he was wrong to believe that vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President
Bush said in a press conference in April 2004 that as ―the greatest power on the face of the earth,
we have an obligation to help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry‖.
Yet how does the U.S. fulfill its obligation? U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries to help them
grow more food runs at around $200 million per year, far less than $1 per person per year for the
hundreds of millions of people living in subsistence farm households.
From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just $30
per sub-Saharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for consultants
from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went for servicing
Africa‘s debts and $5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went to Africa.
Since the ―money down the drain‖ argument is heard most frequently in the U.S., it‘s worth
looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone. In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per sub- Saharan
African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation, food and other
emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came to grand total of 6
cents.
The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decades, as a signatory to global agreements like the
Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger proportion of its annual output, specifically
upto 0.7% of GNP, to official development assistance. The U.S. failure to follow through has no
political fallout domestically, of course, because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows of
statements like the Monterrey Consensus. But no one should underestimate the salience that it
has around the world. Spin as American might about their nation‘s generosity, the poor countries
are fully aware of what the U.S. is not doing.
1.The passage seems to emphasize that the outside world has
(a)correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor countries
(b)definite information about what is happening in under developed countries
(c)stopped extending any financial aid to under developed countries

150 | P a g e
(d)misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed countries
(e)None of these
2.According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations lies in
(a)corruption
(b)improving their own national behavior
(c)mis-rule
(d)prolonged economic crisis
(e)None of these
3.The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in support of his
argument that
(a)corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity
(b)mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations
(c)despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper
(d)developed nations arrogantly neglect under developed countries.
(e)None of these
4.The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with
(a)reasonably good-governance
(b)corrupt leadership
(c)plenty of natural resources
(d)rapid economic growth
(e)None of these
5.The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to A.high temperature. B.climatic conditions
conducive for breeding. C.malaria carries liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle.
(a)None of these
151 | P a g e
(b)Only B and C
(c)Only A and C
(d)Only A and B
(e)All the three
ANSWERS
1 ). d
2.b
3.c
4.a
5.e
152 | P a g e
CHAPTER – 4
General English
153 | P a g e
1.SPOTTING ERRORS
Spotting Error- This section required adequate knowledge of grammar rules along with
capability to use them with the concept. While solving spotting error questions, candidates
should consider for the subject verb agreement, Adjectives Degree, Tense Rules, Articles,
Compound Conjunctions and Pronoun rules. After reading grammar rules on each topic
separately, solve as many as questions on the same topic‘s exercise for better accuracy.
MODEL QUESTION PAPER SET -1

(SBI Clerk 2014)
In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are
numbered as (a), (b), (c) and (d). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly
spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt
or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in
bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (e) i.e. ‗All
Correct‘ as your answer.
1. Bye (a)/ the summer of 1939, Hitler was ready (b)/ to unleash (c)/ his army on Europe. (d)/
All correct (e).
2. The two national (a)/ emblems (b)/ of India are of (c)/ Buddhist origin. (d)/ All correct (e)
3. Political (a)/ decisions (b)/ ought (c)/ to have a rationale. (d)/ All correct (e)
4. Traditionally, (a)/ sales get a boost (b)/ in the festival (c)/ season. (d)/ All correct (e)
5. Fifteen (a) percent of India‘s land is still (b)/ covered (c)/ by forests. (d)/ All correct (e)
ANSWER
1 (a) 2 (e) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5(d)
154 | P a g e
MODEL QUESTION PAPER SET-2
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error
in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part is the answer. If
there is no error, mark (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any) (SBI PO 2014)
1. In the first two months of this fiscal, tractor sales has seen (a)/a drop of about five percent (b)/
however, the industry is waiting for the monsoon (c)/ to really arrive at a firm conclusion about
growth prospects for the current year. (d)/No error (e)
2. Dolphins are truly out of the ordinary because of their intelligence. (a)/ And among the many
creatures that share the earth form (b)/they come closest to humankind in terms of (c)/familial
traits, emotions and learning. (d)/ No error (e)
3. Corruption indulged in by the high and mighty adversely impacts (a)/ our nation and in the
coming months (b)/ we may see revival of efforts (c)/ to tackle such large scale corruption. (d)/
No error (e)
4. It is notable and welcome that the ministry of (a)/ environmental and forests is to issue
approvals online (b)/ in a time bound manner, with clear timelines (c)/in place for the various
sub-steps along the way. (d)/No error (e)
5. To portray (a)/ what a fairness cream does without (b)/ any sort of comparison or visual (c)/
references are very difficult. (d)/ No error (e)
ANSWER
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (e) 4 (b) 5 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error
in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which
has been printed in bold and has been numbered (a), (b), (c) or (d). The number of that part is
the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e) i.e. ‗No error‘. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.) (IBPS PO Prelim 2015)
1. The convergence of (a)/Indian accounting standards with International Financial Reporting

Standards (IFRS) beginning (b)/in April is expecting to (c)/ see power companies struggling
with (d)/ significant first-time adoption impact. No error (e)
155 | P a g e
2. Researchers at (a)/ the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, are mapping (b)/ India‘s
solar hot spots-where round-the-year (c)/ sunlight makes it viable of (d)/ companies to set up
solar power plants. No error (e).
3. Though their qualifications span a diverse (a)/ range, there is an equal (b)/ number of
graduates and those who have just completed school, each set (c)/ making up (d)/ close to 30%
of these households. No error (e)
4. As if (a)/ the most dangerous moment for any dictatorship is when (b)/ it starts to (c)/ reform,
North Korea looks ready to turn that truism on its head. (d)/ No error (e)
5. It so happens (a)/ that this happy campy ritual is their way of life (b)/ and one into which (c)/
they don‘t particularly welcome (d)/ voyeuristic intrusions. e no error
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4 (a) 5 (e)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are
correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free from error, mark (d)
in your Answer. (SSC CHSL 2013)
1. Hasan plays (a)/ both – cricket and billiards (b) /at the national level. (c)/ No error. (d)
2. My father gave me (a)/ a pair of binocular (b)/ on my birthday. (c)/ No error. (d)
3. Kalidas is (a)/ a Shakespeare (b) /of India. (c)/ No error. (d)
4. The teacher as well as his students, (a)/ all left (b)/ for the trip. (c)/ No error. (d)
5. More you (a)/ think of it, (b)/ the worse it becomes.(c)/ No error. (d)
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a)
156 | P a g e
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In the following Five Questions, some parts of the sentences have
errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error If a sentence is free
from error, mark option (d) as No error. (SSC CGL 2015)
1. I shall look forward to being with you sometime next month.
(a) I shall look forward
(b) to being with you
(c) sometime next month
(d) No error
2. I really do regret not to learn to play the violin when I had so many opportunities to learn the
practice in school.
(a) I really do regret not to learn to play the violin.
(b) when I had so many opportunities
(c) to learn and practice in school.
(d) No error
3. The government granted relief payments of `5,000 each to those who injured in the fire
accident.
(a) The government granted
(b) relief payments of `5,000 each
(c) to those who injured in the fire accident.
(d) No error
4. By May next year I have been working in this college for twenty years.
(a) By May next year
(b) I have been working in this college
(c) for twenty years.
157 | P a g e
(d) No error
5. Everyone of us should realize that any act of negligence will cause a great harm to our
country's security.
(a) Everyone of us should realize that
(b) any act of negligence will cause
(c) a great harm to our country's security
(d) No error
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): In the following Ten Questions, some parts of the sentence shave
errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. If a sentence is free
from error, mark "No error" in your Answer. (SSC Stenographer 2016)
1. She has been complaining about headache from morning.
(a) from morning
(b) No error
(c) She has been
(d) complaining about headache
2. The children left the playground one after one.
(a) one after one
(b) No error
(c) The children left
(d) the playground
3. I knew the town well so I was able to advice him where to go.
158 | P a g e
(a) to advice him where to go.
(b) No error
(c) I knew the town well
(d) sol was able
4. He runs more faster than I.
(a) than I
(b) No error
(c) He runs
(d) more faster
5. The fight for liberation brings out the best and a noblest quality in mankind.
(a) a noblest quality in mankind
(b) No error
(c) The fight for liberation
(d) brings out the best and
6. The baby was clinging with her mother in fear.
(a) mother in fear
(b) No error
(c) The baby was
(d) clinging with her
7. Not much people realize his sincerity.
(a) his sincerity
(b) No error
(c) Not much
(d) people realize
159 | P a g e
8. The government must provide facilities for the upbringing of women.
(a) upbringing of women
(b) No error
(c) The government
(d) must provide facilities for the
9. You will not succeed unless you don't work hard.
(a) don't work hard
(b) No error
(c) You will not
(d) succeed unless you
10. He stated that he prefers tea than coffee.
(a) tea than coffee
(b) No error
(c) He stated that
(d) he prefers
ANSWER
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d)7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
160 | P a g e
2.SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below should replace
the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct?
If the sentence is correct as it is and ‗No correction is required‘, mark (e) as the answer. (RBI
Assistant 2016)
1. That was the record that make me sit up and take notice of Neil Hannon.
(a) made me sit up and take notice
(b) had made me sit up and take notice
(c) has made me sit up and take notice
(d) sit up and take notice
(e) No correction required
2. These mistakes catch up with him when he ran for President.
(a) caught up in
(b) caught up with
(c) caught up on
(d) caught up at
3. When I told her about breaking the window, she goes through the roof.
(a) she went through the roof
(b) she went via the roof
(c) she went through roof
(d) she went with roof
161 | P a g e
4. A preventive programme for the break out of epidemic in quake-hit areas must be introduced.
(a) A preventive programme before the break out of
(b) A preventive programme for the breaking out of
(c) A preventive programme for the out break of
(d) A preventive programme before the out break of
5. Last but not the least, I would like to thank all the workers without whose co-operation, the
rally wouldn‘t be a success.
(a) Last but not least, I would like to thank all the worker without their co-operation.
(b) Last but not the least, I would like to thank all the worker without their co-operation,
(c) Last but not least, I would like to thank all the workers without whose co-operation,
(d) Last but not the least, I would like to thank all those workers without their co-operation,
ANSWER
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (c)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the sentence
to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given, then mark ‗No
correction required‘ as your answer. (IBPS Clerk 2013)
1. We asked her that how she got time to write all these books. (a) that how did she got (b) that
how she was getting (c) how did she get (d) how she got (e) No correction required
2. Studies in the past have shown that those who limit their activity span during the day in
winters are more likely to suffer from depression. (a) more likely for (b) mostly likely to (c)
most likely for (d) most likeliest for (e) No correction required
162 | P a g e
3. In some cases, factors like low salary, lack of growth prospects and lack of motivation compel
all employee to look for a change. (a) compel those employees (b) compelling all employees
(c) compelling the employee (d) compel employees (e) No correction required
4. Living with compassion and contributing to others lives would helping us add happiness to
our lives as well. (a) will helping us (b) will help us (c) would helped them (d) will helped us
5. The easiest way for prevent stress caused by work or home pressures is to indulge in high
levels of physical activity. (a) easily way to (b) easier ways for (c) easiest way to (d) easier way
from (e) No correction required
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (e) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5(c)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Which of the phrases a, b, c and d given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and ‗No correction is required‘, mark (e) as the answer. (IBPS
Clerk 2015)
1. The teacher asked, ―Why you are late?‖
(a) Why you were late
(b) Why late you are
(c) Why are you late
(d) Why late you were
2. The teacher asked the intruder who was he and why was he occupying his chair.
(a) who he was and why he was (b) who he was and why was he (c) who he had been and why
he had been (d) who was he and why he was (e) No correction required
3. ‗Hard Days‘ was his last novel. (a) latter (b) recent (c) latest (d) later (e) No correction
required
163 | P a g e
4. Bad habits must be nipped at the bud (a) nipped off the bud (b) nipped in the bud (c) nipped
on the bud (d) nipped upon the bud (e) No correction required
5. Various practices and norms for bank‘s transactions are laid down by the Reserve Bank of
India. (a) are laid up (b) are led down (c) are lead up (d) are led to (e) No correction required
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (b) 3 (e) 4 (b) 5 (e)
164 | P a g e
3.FILL IN THE BLANKS
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1- 5) :Each sentence below has a blank/s, each blank indicates that
something has been omitted. Choose the word/s that best fit/s the meaning of the sentence as a
whole. (SBI Clerk 2010)
1. Many leading members of the opposition party ________ to justify the party‘s decision.
(a) having tried
(b) has tried
(c) have been trying
(d) tries
(e) is trying
2. The state-of-the-art school is ________ with a medical clinic and fitness centre.
(a) establish
(b) illustrative
(c) having
(d) equipped
(e) compromising
3. The Bhagavad Gita is a part of the Mahabharata, but it stands ________ and is _________
in itself.
(a) dependent, incomplete
(b) together, justified
(c) separate, dignified
(d) apart, complete
(e) united, connected
165 | P a g e
4. The artist‘s work of art is worthy _______ praise.
(a) for (b) of (c) to (d) about (e) to be
5. The charity ________ most of its money through private donations. (a) receives (b) borrows
(c) uses (d) proposes (e) invests
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (a)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicates that something
has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. (SBI
Clerk 2012, 2nd shift)
1. Rajeev was upset because he _____________ forgotten his best friend‘s birthday?
(a) have
(b) shall
(c) will
(d) might
(e) had
2. Raj was _____________ introvert and would prefer to sit in the library rather than go out with
friends.
(a) the
(b) a
(c) like
(d) for
(e) an
3. Shanku was born_____ a silver spoon in his mouth and was very proud of his wealth.
166 | P a g e
(a) with
(b) along
(c) on
(d) within
(e) wishing
4. Laxmi lost an important file and rather than confessing her___ she blamed Sandra for losing
it.
(a) respect
(b) image
(c) attitude
(d) default
(e) mistake
5. Jacob was a rich old man who lived_____ alone in a huge house because his children did not
care about him.
(a) only
(b) all
(c) more
(d) too
(e) little
ANSWER
1 (e) 2 (e) 3 (a) 4 (e) 5 (b)
167 | P a g e
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Five alternative a, b, c, d and e are given under each sentence, you are
required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to make
it meaningful. (SBI PO Prelim 2015)
1. Intelligence is an _____ part of one‘s success.
(a) inseparable
(b) inimitable
(c) indivisible
(d) indispensable
(e) None of these
2. Anjana impressed the interviewer with her concise, ____ answers.
(a) allusive
(b) revealing
(c) pertinent
(d) referential
(e) None of these
3. The coach asked the players to _____ with his ideology or leave the team.
(a) counter
(b) align
(c) favour
(d) separate
(e) None of these
4. The seminar helped _____ the students on the harmful effects of smoking and alcohol.
(a) educate
168 | P a g e
(b) learn
(c) teach
(d) insist
(e) None of these
5. Rajeev was _____ legal aid to fight his extradition.
(a) offered
(b) granted
(c) allowed
(d) awarded
(e) None of these
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (b)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each
sentence has a blank in it. Five words (a),(b),(c),(d) and (e) are suggested. Out of these, only
one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Letter of that word is the answer.
(IBPS Clerk 2011, 4th Shift)
1. I. Boats take more time going against the _____ of the river. II. She keeps herself abreast of
____ events.
(a) low
(b) latest
(c) water
(d) all
(e) current
169 | P a g e
2. I. While trying to open the door' the_____ broke. II. It is not difficult to _____ tricky
situations
(a) handle
(b) knob
(c) bracket
(d) overcome
(e) win
3. I. This course teaches you not to _____ temptations. Il. We hope to increase our _____ of rice
this year.
(a) succumb
(b) produce
(c) yield
(d) share
(e) submit
4. I. When you play your radio at high ______it disturbs other. Il. We have just received a latest
_____ of this encyclopedia.
(a) edition
(b) volume
(c) channel
(d) frequency
(e) pitch
5. I. It helps to rinse one‘s mouth early morning with a _____ of salt and water. Il. You can
always refer to this reference material to find the _____ to these problems.
(a) mixture
(b) answers
170 | P a g e
(c) liquid
(d) fix
(e) solution
ANSWER
1 (e) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (e)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In each of the following sentence there are three blank spaces. Below
each sentence there are five options and each option consists of three words which can be filled
up in the blanks in the sentence to make the sentence grammatically correct. (IBPS Clerk Main
2016)
1. Indian Cricket has seen many ______ captains. But Dhoni was certainly a/an ______ one in
many ways. As skipper, he mainly focused on cultivating team spirit and creating ______ for
young players.
(a) exceptional, diminutive, chances.
(b) sturdy, serendipitous, chances
(c) stout, robust, opportunity
(d) Stalwart, extraordinary, opportunities.
(e) common, exceptional, prospects.
2. Pakistani's Defense Minister Khwaja Muhammad Asif, for all practical purposes,
recently______ Israel with a ______ nuclear attack, in response to a fake news report that the
Israelis had said they would use nuclear ______ against Pakistan if it sent ground troops to
Syria.
(a) threatened, retaliatory, weapons
(b) Jeopardized, reciprocating, armor
(c) admonished, riposte, weapon
(d) rebuked, counter, armament

171 | P a g e
(e) rebuffed, retorted, weapons
3. The line seems to be direct ______ to the establishment of a caliphate. But those who know
the context of Faiz the poet, the man and his work correctly interpret it as a communist vision
of life, with the ______ of the ______ prevailing.
(a) Commendation, democracy, precariat
(b) Invocation, dictatorship, proletariat
(c) Intercession, autonomy, rabble
(d) Citation, anarchism, bourgeoisie
(e) Intervention, despot, common people
4. News and social media companies have a moral ______ to ensure that they do not, directly
or otherwise, deliberately ______ the facts to their audiences and pass them off for news. If it is
a post-truth world we ______, this becomes especially important.
(a) obligation, distort, desire
(b) commitment, tarnish, denounce
(c) responsibility, misrepresent, inhabit
(d) purport, besmirch, stigmatize
(e) implication, enhance, reside
5. Activists in the country have long protested its ______ society that essentially ______
women from travelling, marrying or attending college without permission from a male relative,
who is called their ______ .
(a) benevolent, forbid, steward
(b) Pre- Adamite, prevent, custodian
(c) pre-eminent, restrict, protector
(d) venerable, condemns, manciple.
(e) patriarchal, prohibits, guardian.
172 | P a g e
ANSWER
1 (d) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (e)
173 | P a g e
4.PASSAGE COMPLETION
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 5): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each statement
should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically
correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (e) i.e. 'None of these' as the
answer. [SBI PO 2010]
1. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate States, a recent
report_______.
(a) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(b) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(c) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change
in the past
(d) recommended dividing large States into smaller ones to improve governance (e) None of
these
2. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer ________. (a) the
government issued guide-lines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits (b)
provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone areas (c) the
water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year (d) Many
residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities of water (e) None of
these
3. He has lost most of the life's earning in the stock market but _______. (a) he still seems to be
leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly (b) he could not save enough to repay his
enormous debts (c) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(d) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its
unpredictable nature (e) None of these
4. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal, _______. (a) political reforms are
also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power (b) the
problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it (c) their empowerment is
purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the society (d) it is also
equally difficult to achieve and maintain for long term (e) None of these
174 | P a g e
5. ______ or else they would not keep electing him year after year. (a) The party leader gave a
strong message to the mayor for improving his political style (b) Owing to numerous scandals
against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately (c) The mayor threatened
the residents against filing a complaint against him (d) The residents must really be impressed
with the political style of their mayor (e) None of these
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (e) 5 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each statement
should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically
correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (e) i.e., 'None of the above' as
the answer. (IBPS PO/MT 2013)
1. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer, ………… (a) the
government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits
(b) provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone area
(c) the water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current year
(d) many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities water
(e) None of the above
2. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate states, a recent
report …………
(a) proved that such agitations result in loss of governmental property
(b) indicated that the formation of small states does not necessarily improve the economy
(c) suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change
in the past
(d) recommended dividing large states into smaller ones to improve governance
175 | P a g e
3. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal, ..............
(a) political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and
positions of power
(b) the problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it
(c) their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections
of the society
(d) it is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term
4. he has lost most of his life's earning in the stock market but .....................
(a) he still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly
(b) he could not save enough to repay his enormous debts
(c) stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution
(d) experts have been suggesting to avoid investments in stock market because of its
unpredictable nature
5. ……………..or else they would not keep electing him year after year.
(a) The party leader gave a strong message to the mayor for improving his political style
(b) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post
immediately
(c) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him
(d) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (e) 4. (a) 5. (d)
176 | P a g e
5.PARAJUMBLES
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 5): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below
them. (SBI Clerk 2014)
(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at once truly raise our
productivity or merely help us spin our wheels faster?
(B) More important, they‘re exploring what can be done about it – how we can work smarter,
live smarter and put our beloved gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them, not
the other way around.
(C) The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and communicate so readily also disrupt
our work, our thoughts and what little is left of our private lives.
(D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and the economic costs of the
interrupted life – in dollars, productivity and dysfunction.
(E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and metnalchannel switching taking on our ability to
think clearly work effectively and function as healthy human beings?
(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts and information-technology
researchers have begun to explore those questions in detail.
1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?
(a) A
177 | P a g e
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
ANSWER
1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (e) 4. (b) 5. (c)
178 | P a g e
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): Rearrange the following six sentence (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below.
(IBPS Clerk 2015)
(A) A classroom discussion can be affiliated in order to answer this very question.
(B) An electric current could not be made to traverse distilled water.
(C) Yet when salt and distilled water were mixed, then the solution became liquid through
which electricity could pass with ease.
(D) Neither would solid salt offer free passage to electricity.
(E) How could one explain this change behavior of solution.
(F) And, as the current passed through this solution, a deep seated decomposition took place.
1. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) B
(d) C
(e) F
2. Which of the following will be FIFTH sentence? (a) A
(b) C
(c) B
(d) E
(e) F
3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?
(a) C
(b) D
179 | P a g e
(c) F
(d) A
(e) E
4. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) F
(d) E
(e) D
5. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence? (a) C (b) A (c) B (d) E (e) F
ANSWER
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b)

DIRECTIONS (1–5):Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(RBI Assistant 2013)
(A) Thus rapid development is still unable to meet demand.
(B) Surplus funds from hikes in passenger fares and cuts in staff have made this possible.
(C) This demonstrates that it has been transformed into a modern high standard design and high
service reliable system.
(D) However China‘s railways are not problem free.
(E) China‘s railways have been able to generate the funds needed for the construction of new
railway lines internally.
180 | P a g e
(F) For example at present about 2,80,000 cars are requested daily to transport goods but only
half the requests can be met.
1. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
2. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
3. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
4. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
181 | P a g e
(d) E
(e) F
5. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (e) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c)
182 | P a g e
6.SYNONYMS
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given word as your answer. (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2012)
1. Gaol
(a) Destination
(b) Garden
(c) Jail
(d) Bird
2. Loathing
(a) Warmth
(b) Affectation
(c) Hatred
(d) Affection
3. Pragmatic
(a) Intelligent
(b) Wise
(c) Religious
(d) Practical
4. Notion
(a) Thought
(b) Fact
(c) Truth
183 | P a g e
(d) Hypothesis
5. Vivacious
(a) Poisonous
(b) Energetic
(c) Tricky
(d) Slow
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) 5 (b)

DIRECTIONS (1-5): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one
which best expresses the meaning of the given word. (SSC Sub. Ins. 2013)
1. Abnormal
(a) Unnatural
(b) Aggressive
(c) Unique
(d) Informal
2. Venal
(a) Corrupt
(b) Comprehensible
(c) Legible
(d) Forgivable
3. Conjurer
184 | P a g e
(a) Magician
(b) Jester
(c) Performer
(d) Trickster
4. Invoice
(a) Word
(b) Sound
(c) Statement
(d) Language
5. Ameliorate
(a) Improve
(b) Degrade
(c) Motivate
(d) Agree
ANSWER
1(a) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (a)

DIRECTONS (Qs. 1-4): In questions below, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which
best expresses the meaning of the given word. (SSC CHSL 2015)
1. Pawn
(a) Scrounge
(b) Hire
(c) Pledge
185 | P a g e
(d) Sponge
2. Maestro
(a) Admirer
(b) Employee
(c) Novice
(d) Genius
3. Feeble
(a) Playful
(b) Pretty
(c) Small
(d) Weak
4. Chastise
(a) Upbraid
(b) Monitor
(c) Chase
(d) Praise
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (a)
186 | P a g e
7.ANTONYMS
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5) :In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the
given word. (SSC SI 2013)
1. Debacle
(a) Success
(b) Response
(c) Acceptance
(d) Agreement
2. Abusive
(a) Laudatory
(b) Profuse
(c) Effusive
(d) Noble
3. Amorphous
(a) Amoral
(b) Definite
(c) Perfect
(d) Irregular
4. Unitary
(a) Single
(b) Triple
(c) Multiple
187 | P a g e
(d) Double
5. Adulteration
(a) Purification
(b) Normalization
(c) Rejuvenation
(d) Consternation
ANSWER
1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (a)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4): Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word. (SSC CHSL
2015)
1. Illicit
(a) Legal
(b) Correct
(c) Approved
(d) Noble
2. Demand
(a) Supply
(b) Claim
(c) Request
(d) Petition
3. Descent
(a) Discern
188 | P a g e
(b) Ascent
(c) Dissent
(d) Assent
4. Notorious
(a) Prominent
(b) Infamous
(c) Honourable
(d) Reputed
ANSWER
1. (a)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

DIRECTIONS: In Question no. 1 to 5, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word
and mark it in the Answer Sheet. (SSC Steno. 2016)
1. Inflammable
(a) combustible
(b) non-flammable
(c) flammable
(d) excitable
2. Hasty
(a) harsh
189 | P a g e
(b) unhurried
(c) rapid
(d) cautious
3. Attachment
(a) attraction
(b) rejection
(c) detachment
(d) aversion
4. Uniform
(a) variable
(b) common
(c) unfamiliar
(d) a measure
5. Obscure
(a) hidden
(b) obvious
(c) concealed
(d) zealous
ANSWER
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b)
190 | P a g e
8.ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-4): In questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substitute for the given words/sentences. (SSC CHSL 2015)
1. Art of working with metals.
(a) Metaphysics
(b) Metallurgy
(c) Metalloid
(d) Meteorite
2. A place where birds are kept
(a) Aviary
(b) Sanctuary
(c) Apiary
(d) Aquarium
3. A gathering at a religious place
(a) Spectators
(b) Mob
(c) Audience
(d) Congregation
4. One who compiles a dictionary
(a) Cartographer
(b) Bibliographer
(c) Lapidist
191 | P a g e
(d) Lexicographer
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/ sentence. (SSC Multitasking 2014)
1. A place where money is coined
(a) Press
(b) Mint
(c) Lair
(d) Archive
2. A series of lectures or lessons
(a) Catalogue
(b) Panel
(c) Course
(d) Syllabus
3. A false name adopted by an author for writing
(a) Nomenclature
(b) Title
(c) Nickname
(d) Pseudonym
4. One who possesses many talents
(a) Gifted
192 | P a g e
(b) Talented
(c) Versatile
(d) Exceptional
5. A very accurate form of clock
(a) Galvanometer
(b) Calorimeter
(c) Voltammeter
(d) Chronometer
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In the following Five Questions, out of the alternatives, choose the one
which can substituted for the given words/sentences indicate it by blackening the appropriate
circle the Answer Sheet. (SSC Sub. Ins. 2016)
1. The belief that God is in everything, include nature.
(a) Pantheism
(b) Polytheism
(c) Mysticism
(d) Naturalism
2. The study of growing garden plants
(a) orchard
(b) horticulture
(c) nomenclature
193 | P a g e
(d) nursery
3. One who copies from other writers
(a) Antagonist
(b) Plagiarist
(c) Contender
(d) Offender
4. Scientific study of Earthquakes
(a) Geography
(b) Seismology
(c) Anthropology
(d) Astrology
5. Gradually advanced
(a) evaluated
(b) evolved
(c) evaded
(d) advantaged
ANSWERS
1.(a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a)
194 | P a g e
9.SPELLING TEST
DIRECTIONS: In Question Nos. 1 to 5 four words are given in each question, out of which only
one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer
Sheet. (SSC CHSL 2014)
1. (a) Mountainer
(b) Mountaineer
(c) Mounteener
(d) Mountineer
2. (a) Happened
(b) Happenned
(c) Hapened
(d) Hapenned
3. (a) Sentimantalist
(b) Sentimentelist
(c) Sentimentalist
(d) Santimentalist
4. (a) Laibertarian
(b) Libertarian
(c) Liebertarian
(d) Liberterian
5. (a) Emphetic
(b) Emphattic
(c) Emphatick
195 | P a g e
(d) Emphatic
ANSWER
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (d)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In the following Questions, four words are given in each question, out
of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer
in the Answer Sheet. (SSC Sub. Ins. 2016)
1. (a) Dastitution
(b) Divienation
(c) Dysfunction
(d) Divarsion
2. (a) Hillarious
(b) Congrruous
(c) Audacious
(d) Auspiscious
3. (a) Hyegienic
(d) Hyigeinic
(c) Hygeinic
(d) Hygienic
4. (a) Conceilment
(b) Confinment
(c) Conteinment
(d) Consignment
196 | P a g e
5. (a) Surveillance
(b) Obeisence
(c) Perservarance
(d) Turbulance
ANSWER
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 2. (c)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-6): In the following questions, there are four different words out of which
one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word. (SSC Multitasking 2013)
1. (a) exellence
(b) excellence
(c) excellencce
(d) exillance
2. (a) grammar
(b) grammer
(c) gramer
(d) gramar
3. (a) ommited
(b) ommitted
(c) omitted
(d) omited
4. (a) calender
(b) calandar
197 | P a g e
(c) colendar
(d) calendar
5. (a) objectionable
(b) objectioneble
(c) objecktionable
(d) objectionablle
6. (a) apollogy
(b) appology
(c) apalogy
(d) apology
ANSWERS
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (d)
198 | P a g e
10.IDIOMS & PHRASES
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In question, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/phrase underlined
in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase
and mark it in the Answer sheet. (SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2015)
1. Unless you make amends for the loss, nobody is prepared to excuse you.
(a) improve
(b) pay debt
(c) confess
(d) compensate
2. Instead of keeping his promise of helping me with office work, he just left me high and dry.
(a) left me feeling like a fool
(b) left me in a state of anger
(c) left me without a drop of water
(d) left me alone to do the work
3. Amit said to Rekha, "Don't make a mountain out of a molehill".
(a) attempt an impossible task
(b) start looking for molehills in mountains.
(c) create problems
(d) exaggerate a minor problem
4. Before the report reached the authority, the media spilled the beans.
(a) dropped the charges
(b) hinted at the consequences
(c) revealed the secret information
199 | P a g e
(d) spilled the content of the package
5. His friend turned out to be snake in the grass.
(a) cowardly and brutal
(b) low and mean
(c) a hidden enemy
(d) an unreliable and deceitful person.
ANSWERS
1 (d) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (c)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-5): In questions below, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/phrase
underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the
Idiom/ Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. (SSC Sub. Ins. 2014)
1. We must work with all our might and main, otherwise we cannot succeed.
(a) full force
(b) complete trust
(c) exceptional skill
(d) full unity
2. The sailors nailed their colours to their mast.
(a) put up a colourful mast
(b) refused to climb down
(c) took over the ship
(d) decided to abandon the ship
200 | P a g e
3. We had (had) better batten down the hatches. The weather is unpredictable.
(a) stay in-door
(b) prepare for a difficult situation
(c) go somewhere safe
(d) face the obstacles
4. It is difficult to have a sensible discussion with her as she flies off at a tangent.
(a) gets carried away
(b) starts discussing something irrelevant
(c) loses her temper easily
(d) does not really understand anything
5. The students found it hard to go at equal speed with the professor.
(a) get away from
(b) put up with
(c) keep up with
(d) race against
ANSWER
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5(b)

DIRECTIONS (QS. 1-5): In the following Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the
Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the
meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet. (SSC Stenographer 2016)
1. Who will believe, your cock and bull story?
(a) Absurd story
(b) Common story
201 | P a g e
(c) Ambiguous story
(d) Authentic story
2. For years I could not shake off the trauma of that day:
(a) imagine
(b) None of these
(c) forget
(d) remember
3. Sit on the fence.
(a) halting between two opinions
(b) to be defeated and dejected
(c) to be in a tricky situation
(d) to be relaxed and comfortable
4. The manager is not dismissed, but he is definitely under a cloud.
(a) under scrutiny
(b) warned severely
(c) under suspension
(d) under suspicion
5. Do not pull a long face.
(a) look dejected
(b) look happy
(c) took ugly
(d) look tired
ANSWER
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5 (d)
202 | P a g e
11.SPEECHES \ VOICES
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 & 2): A sentence has been given in Active/ Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active
Voice and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. (SSC CHSL 2015)
1. Please close the door.
(a) Please be the door closed by you
(b) Let the door be closed by you.
(c) You please close the door.
(d) You close the door yourself.
2. We must take care of our parents.
(a) Our parents will be taken care of by us.
(b) Our parents are taken care of by us.
(c) Our parents must be cared for by us.
(d) Our parents had been taken care of by us.
ANSWER
1. (b) 2. (c)

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1-10): In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Direct/
Indirect form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the
same sentence in Indirect/ Direct form and mark your answer in the Answer Sheet. (SSC Steno
2016)
1. He said, "I will return tomorrow."
(a) He said that he will return tomorrow.
203 | P a g e
(b) He said that he would return tomorrow.
(c) He said that he would return the next day.
(d) He said that I would return the next day.
2. "What a wonderful time we had there!" she exclaimed.
(a) She exclaimed that she had quite a wonderful time there.
(b) She exclaimed that she had quite a wonderful time there.
(c) She exclaimed that they had quite a wonderful time there.
(d) She exclaimed that they have quite a wonderful time there.
3. The teacher said to the students, " You should obey your parents. You should be of help to
them."
(a) The teacher advised the students to obey their parents and added that they should be of help
to them.
(b) The teacher commanded the student to obey their parents and further added that they should
be of help to them.
(c) The teacher requested the student to obey their parents and added they should be of help of
them.
(d) The teacher advised the students that they shoulds obey their parents and should be of help to
them.
4. My mother said, "Please go to the shop."
(a) My mother told me to please go to the shop.
(b) My mother requested me to go to the shop.
(c) My mother requested me going to the shop.
(d) My mother asked me to be going to the shop.
5. The reporter said,"We have been following the matter closely for a month." (a) The reporter
said that they had been following the matter closely for a month. (b) The reporter said that we
had been following the matter closely for a month. (c) The reporter said that they have been
204 | P a g e
following the matter closely for a month. (d) The reporter said that they has been following the
matter closely for a month.
6. "What are you doing here?" she asked me.
(a) She asked what I was doing here.
(b) She wants to know what I am doing here.
(c) She wants to know what I was doing here.
(d) She wanted to know what I was doing there.
7. The lawyer said to his client, "We will win the case."
(a) The lawyer told to his client that they would win the case.
(b) The lawyer said that the client would win the case.
(c) The lawyer told the client that they should win the case.
(d) The lawyer told the client that they would win the case.
8. The watchman warned the boys not to go deep into the case.
(a) The watchman said to the boys,"You are not going deep into the sea."
(b) The watchman said,"Boys, don't go deep into the sea.
(c) The watchman said, "Boys didn't go deep into the sea.
(d) The watchman said to the boys, "Why do you go deep into the sea.
9. The shopkeeper told me to be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash.
(a) The shopkeeper said to me, "Will you pay for the tape-recorder kindly in cash."
(b) The shopkeeper said, "Be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash."
(c) The shopkeeper exclaimed to me, "Be kind enough to pay for the tape-recorder in cash!"
(d) The shopkeeper ordered me, "PLease be kind enough to pay for the tape recorder in cash.
10. She asked her brother if he could give her some money them.
(a) She said to her brother, "Could I give you some money now?"
205 | P a g e
(b) She said to her brother, "Can you give me some money then?"
(c) She said to her brother, "Can you give me some money now?"
(d) She asked her brother, "Give me some money now."
ANSWER
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
206 | P a g e
CHAPTER – 5
Basic Computer Knowledge
207 | P a g e
Basic Computer Knowledge:
The computer is an electronic device which accepts data as input, performs processing on the data, and gives
the desired output. A computer may be an analog or digital computer. Speed, accuracy, diligence, storage
capability, and versatility are the main characteristics of the computer.The computing devices have evolved
from simple mechanical machines, like ABACUS, Napier‘s bones, Slide Rule, Pascal‘s Adding and
Subtraction Machine, Leibniz‘s Multiplication and Dividing Machine, Jacquard Punched Card System,
Babbage‘s Analytical Engine and Hollerith‘s Tabulating Machine, to the first electronic computer.Charles
Babbage is called as the father of the computer.
Evolution of Computers:
 The evolution of computers to their present state is divided into five generations of computers, based
on the hardware and software they use, their physical appearance, and their computing
characteristics.First-generation computers were vacuum tubes based machines. These were large in
size, expensive to operate, and instructions were written in machine language. Their computation time
was in milliseconds.
 Second-generation computers were transistor-based machines. They used the stored program concept.
Programs were written in assembly language. They were smaller in size, less expensive and required
less maintenance than the first generation computers. The computation time was in microseconds.
 Third-generation computers were characterized by the use of IC. They consumed less power and
required low maintenance compared to their predecessors. High-level languages were used for
programming. The computation time was in nanoseconds. These computers were produced
commercially.
 Fourth-generation computers used microprocessors which were designed using the LSI and VLSI
technology. The computers became small, portable, reliable and cheap. The computation time is in
picoseconds. They became available both to the home user and for commercial use.
 Fifth-generation computers are capable of learning and self-organization. These computers use SLSI
chips and have large memory requirements. They use parallel processing and are based on AI. The
fifth-generation computers are still being developed.
Classification Of Computers:
 Computers are broadly classified as microcomputers, minicomputers, mainframe computers, and

supercomputers, based on their sizes and types.
 Microcomputers are small, low-cost stand-alone machines. Microcomputers include desktop

computers, notebook computers or laptop, net books, tablet computer, handheld computer, and smart
phones.
208 | P a g e
 Minicomputers are high processing speed machines having more storage capacity than the
microcomputers. Minicomputers can support 4-200 users simultaneously.
 Mainframe computers are multi-user, multi-programming, and high-performance computers. They

have very high speed, very large storage capacity and can handle large workloads. Mainframe
computers are generally used in centralized databases.
 Supercomputers are the most expensive machines, having high processing speed capable of
performing trillions of calculations per second. The speed of a supercomputer is measured in
FLOPS. Supercomputers find applications in computing-intensive tasks.
 The computer is an electronic device based on the input-process-output concept. Input/Output Unit,
CPU, and Memory unit are the three main components of the computer.
 Input/Output Unit consists of the Input unit, which accepts data from the user and the Output unit
that provides the processed data. CPU processes the input data, and, controls, coordinates and
supervises the operations of the computer. CPU consists of ALU, CU, and Registers. The memory
unit stores programs, data, and output, temporarily, during the processing. Additionally, storage unit
or secondary memory is used for the storing of programs, data, and output permanently.
 Computers are used in various areas of our life. Education, entertainment, sports, advertising,
medicine, science and engineering, government, office, and home are some of the application areas
of the computers.
Computer Memory:
 A bit is the smallest unit that is used to represent data in a computer. A byte is a group of 8 bits. One
byte is the smallest unit of data that can be handled by the computer.
 Memory is characterized based on its capacity and access time. The computer organizes its memory
hierarchically to give the fastest speed and largest capacity of memory.
 Memory is fundamental of two types—Internal memory and external memory.
 Internal memory has limited storage capacity, provides temporary storage, has fast access, the data
and instructions stored in it are used by the CPU during execution, and is more expensive than
secondary memory. Registers, cache memory, and primary memory constitute the internal memory.
RAM and ROM are the two kinds of primary memory.
 External memory or Secondary memory have very high storage capacity, are non-volatile unless
erased by the user, have slow access, store the data and instructions that are not currently being used
by CPU, and are cheapest among all memory. Magnetic disk and optical disk are storage devices.
209 | P a g e
 Organization of memory concerning the CPU, is as follows—registers are placed inside CPU, cache
memory is placed inside CPU, primary memory is placed next in the hierarchy, and secondary
memory is the farthest from CPU.
 Registers are very high-speed storage areas located inside the CPU. Registers are manipulated
directly by the control unit of the CPU during instruction execution.
 Cache, the fast memory, is placed between the CPU and the RAM. The contents from the RAM are
stored in the cache.
 RAM stores data and instructions during the operation of the computer. RAM is a random access
volatile memory having limited size due to its high cost. RAM affects the speed and power of the
computer.
 RAM chips are of two types—DRAM and SRAM. DRAM is used as main memory as it is small and
cheap. SRAM chip is used in cache memory due to its high speed.
 ROM is a non-volatile primary memory which stores the data needed for the start-up of the
computer. Instructions to initialize different devices attached to the computer and the bootstrap
loader are stored in ROM. PROM, EPROM, and EEPROM are some of the ROMs.
 Flash memory is a kind of semiconductor-based non-volatile, rewritable computer memory. It is

used in the digital camera, mobile phone, printer, laptop computer, and MP3 players.
 Magnetic tapes are inexpensive, can store a large amount of data, are easy to transport, are slow
access device, and are suitable for back-up storage.
 Magnetic disks are a cheap storage device, can store a large amount of data, are easy to carry, are
suitable for frequently read/write data, and are fast access device. The access time of disk is the sum
of seek time, latency time, and time for data transfer.
 Floppy disk is a flat, round, single disk enclosed in a jacket. It is portable, small, inexpensive and
slower to access than hard disk. It comes in two basic sizes—5-¼ inch and 3-½ inch.
 The hard disk is a fixed disk and can store much more data than floppy disk. The hard disk is the key
secondary storage device of computer.
 Zip disk has the speed and capacity of hard disk and portability of floppy disk.
 The optical disk consists of a single spiral track that starts from the edge to the center of disk. It can
store large amount of data in small space.
 CD-ROM is an optical disk that can only be read and not written on. It has high-storage density and
is a low-cost device compared to a floppy disk and hard disk.
210 | P a g e
 DVD-ROM is a high-density optical storage device which stores data on both sides of the disk. It is
used to store a full-length movie.
 Recordable optical disks are CD-R, CD-RW, and DVD-R.
 The computer uses its memory from the time you switch on the computer until you switch it off.
Computer Hardware:
 A user interacts with the computer via Input-Output (I/O) devices. The peripheral devices are
attached externally to the computer machine.
 Input unit accepts input data from the user via input device, transforms the input data in
acceptable computer form and provides the transformed input data for processing.
 Output unit accepts output data from a computer via output device, transforms the output
information to human-readable form and provides the transformed output to user.
 Some devices are both input and output devices. Hard disk drive, floppy disk drive, optical
disk drives are examples of input-output devices.
 The keyboard is used to enter text data. The standard keyboard contains 101 keys to 110
keys.
 The mouse is a small hand-held pointing input device used to enter data by pointing to a
location on the computer monitor screen.
 Trackball looks like an upside-down mouse and requires the ball to be rotated manually with
a finger.
 The joystick is a stick with its base attached to a flexible rubber sheath inside a plastic cover.
It is used for playing video games.
 The digitizing tablet has a flatbed tablet and a pen with an electronic head which is moved on
the tablet. The digitizing tablet is used for computer-aided design of buildings, maps, etc.
 Light pen contains a photocell in a small tube and is used to select objects directly on the
computer screen.
 The touch screen is a clear glass panel that is placed over the view area of the computer
screen. The user uses the fingertip on the computer screen to select an option. It is used in
ATMs.
 Audio input devices use a microphone to input a person‘s voice, a sound card to translate
analog audio signals from microphone into digital codes and speech recognition to translate
spoken words into text.
211 | P a g e
 Video input is provided using a video camera and a digital camera. Computer vision is an
area of computer science that deals with images.
 The scanner is used to input data directly into the computer from the source document
without copying and typing the data. A scanner can be a hand-held scanner or flatbed
scanner.
 OCR is a technique for the scanning of a printed page, translating it, and then using the OCR
software to recognize the image as ASCII text that is editable.
 MICR is used in banks to process large volumes of cheques. It is used to recognize the
magnetic encoding numbers printed at the bottom of a cheque.
 OMR uses an optical mark reader to detect marks on a paper. OMR is widely used to read
answers of objective type tests, questionnaires, etc.
 Barcodes are adjacent vertical lines of different width that are machine-readable. Barcode
reader reads the barcode. They are used to read labels in departmental stores and in libraries.
 The printer prints the output onto a paper. The plotter is used for drawing maps, blueprints of
ships, buildings, etc.
 Impact printers are those in which the typeface strikes against the paper. Dot-matrix printers,
daisy wheel printers, and drum printers are examples of impact printers.
 Non-Impact printers do not hit or impact a ribbon to print. Ink-jet printers and laser printers
are non-impact printers.
 COM is a high-speed and low-cost process to record computer output directly from the
computer tape on a microfilm. It is used to store manuals and for archiving of records.
 The monitor is attached to the computer on which the output is displayed. The clarity of
image on the computer screen depends on the resolution of screen, the dot pitch, and the
refresh rate.
 Screen image projectors display information from the computer onto a large white screen.
 Audio output device like speakers, headset, or headphone,is used to output sound from the
computer system.
212 | P a g e
IMPORTANT COMPUTER TERMINALOGIES ABBREVIATION
ALU : Arithmetic Logic Unit

AI : Artificial Intelligence
ARP : Address Resolution Protocol
ASCII : American Standard Code for Information Exchange
ASP : Active Server Pages
API : Application Programming Interfaces
ALGOL : Algorithmic Language
AAC – ADVANCED AUDIO CODEC
ARPANET : Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
ATA : Advanced Technology Attachment
AJAX : Asynchronous JavaScript and XML
ADSL : Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
ANSI: American National Standards Institute
ASF: Advanced Streaming Format
BINAC : Binary Automatic Computer

BCC : Blind Carbon Copy
BASIC : Beginner‘s All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code
BIOS : Basic Input Output System
BCD : Binary Coded Decimal
BIS : Business Information System
BPS : Bits Per Record
BMP : Bitmap
BDPS : Business Data Processing System
BHTML : Broadcast Hyper Text Markup Language
213 | P a g e
C
CAD : Computer Aided Design

CPU : Central Processing Unit
CLI : Command Line Interface
CDMA : Code Division Multiple Access
CSI : Common System Interface
CD-R : CD-Recordable
CD-ROM : CD Read-Only Memory
CD-RW : CD Rewritable
CRT : Cathode Ray Tube
CSV – Comma Separated Values
COBOL : Common Business Oriented Language
CGI : Common Gateway Interfaces
CADD: Computer Added Drafting And Design
CAI: Computer Aided Instructuion
CAM: Computer Aided Manufacturing
CAR: Control Address Register
CGM: Computer Graphics Metafile
CIDR: Classless InterDomain Routing
CIM: Computer Integrated Manufacture
CMOS: Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor
CMS: Content Management System
CMYK: Cyan, Magenta, Yellow, Key (Black)
COBOL: Common Business Oriented Language
CORBA: Common Object Request Broker Architecture
CPI: Clock Cycle Per Instruction
CPU: Central Processing Unit
CRC: Cyclic Redundancy Check
CRM: Customer Relationship Management
214 | P a g e
D
DBA : Database Administrator

DBMS : Data Base Management System
DNS : Domain Name System
DPI : Dots Per Inch
DRAM : Dynamic Random Access Memory
DVD : Digital Video Disc/Digital Versatile Disc
DVR : Digital Video Recorder
DOS : Disk Operating System
DTP : Desktop Publishing
DAT – DIGITAL AUDIO TAPE
DMCA – DIGITAL MILLENNIUM COPYRIGHT ACT
DAC : Digital to Analog Convertor
DARPANET: Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency Network
DCL: Data Control Language
DCP: Data Communication Processor
DDL: Data Definition Language
DDP: Distributed Data Processing
DFD: Data Flow Diagram
DFS: Distributed File System
DHCP: Dynamic Host Control Protocol
DHTML: Dynamics Hyper Text Markup Language
DLC: Data Link Control
DLL: Dynamic Link Library
DMA: Direct Memory Access
DSL: Digital Subscriber Line
DSN: Digital Subscriber Network
215 | P a g e
E
EBCDIC : Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

e-Commerce : Electronic Commerce
EDP : Electronic Data Processing
EEPROM : Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
ELM/e-Mail : Electronic Mail
EPROM : Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
EDGE – ENHANCED DATA FOR GSM EVOLUTION.
EAROM: Electrically Alterable Read Only Memory
EDC: Electronic Digital Computer
EULA: End User License Agreement
FAX : Far Away Xerox/ facsimile

FDC : Floppy Disk Controller
FDD : Floppy Disk Drive
FTP : File Transfer Protocol
FM : Frequency Modulation
FDDI: Fiber Distributed Data Interface
FDMA: Frequency Division Multiple Access
FIFO: First In First Out
FPS: Frames Per Second
FRAM: Ferro Electric Random Access Memory
Gb : Gigabit
GB : Gigabyte
GIF : Graphics Interchange Format
GSM : Global System for Mobile Communication
GIGO : Garbage In, Garbage Out
GUI : Graphical User Interface
216 | P a g e
GPRS – GENERAL PACKET RADIO SERVICE.
GIGO: Garbage In Garbage Out
GML: General Markup Language
GPL: General Public License
HDD : Hard Disk Drive

HP : Hewlett Packard
HTML : Hyper Text Markup Language
HTTP : Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
HSDPA – HIGH SPEED DOWNLINK PACKET ACCESS
HP: Hewlett Packard
HSR: Horizontal Scan Rate
HTM : Hierarchical Temporal Memory
Hz : Hertz
IBM : International Business Machine

IMAP : Internet Message Access Protocol
ISP : Internet Service Provider
I/O :Input/Output
ISO : International Standards Organisation.
IP – INTERNET PROTOCOL
IPV4 – INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 4
IPV6 – INTERNET PROTOCOL VERSION 6
IC: Integrated Circuit
ICMP: Internet Control Message Protocol
RISC: Reduce Instruction Set Computer
IDE: Integrated Development Environment
IGMP: Internet Group Management Protocol
IPX: Internetworked Packet Exchange
217 | P a g e
IRAM: Integration RAM
ISAPI: Internet Server Application Program Interface
ISDN: Integrated Services Digital Network
ISR: Interrupt Service Routine
PEG : Joint Photographic Experts Group

JS – JAVA SCRIPT
JCL: Job Control Language
JHTML: Java Within Hyper Text Markup Language
Kb : Kilobit
KB : Kilobyte
KHz : Kilohertz
Kbps : Kilobit Per Second
LCD : Liquid Crystal Display

LED : Light Emitting Diode
LPI : Lines Per Inch
LAN : Local Area Network
LLL – Low Level Language
LDAP: Light Weight Directory Access Control
LIFO: Last In First Out
LIPS: Logical Interfaces Per Second
Mb : Megabit
MB : Megabyte
MPEG : Moving Picture Experts Group
MMS : Multimedia Message Service
218 | P a g e
MICR : Magnetic Ink Character Recongnizer
MIPS : Million Instructions Per Second
MAN : Metropolitan Area Network
MIDI – MUSICAL INSTRUMENT DIGITAL INTERFACE
MIME–MULTIPURPOSE INTERNET MAIL EXTENSIONS
MAC : Media Access Controller
MIMD: Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
MIME: Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
MISD: Multiple Instruction Single Data
MODEM: Modulator And Demodulator
MP3: Motion Pictures Experts Group Layer 3
MOSFET : Metal-Oxide Semiconductor Field Effect Transistor
NIC : Network Interface Card

NOS : Network Operating System
NTFS – NEW TECHNOLOGY FILE SYSTEM
NASSCOM : National Association Of Software & Service Companies
NCP: Network Control Protocol
NNTP: Network News Transfer Protocol
NTP: Network Time Protocol
OMR : Optical Mark Reader

OOP : Object Oriented Programming
OSS : Open Source Software
OS : Operating SystemOCR : Optical character Recognition
OLE: Object Linking And Embedding
OOPS: Object Oriented Programming System
OSI: Open System Interconnection
OOAD : Object Oriented Analysis And Design
219 | P a g e
P
PAN : Personal Area Network

PC : Personal Computer
PDF : Portable Document Format
POS : Point Of Sale
PNG : Portable Network Graphics
PPM : Pages Per Minute
PPP : Point-to-Point Protocol
PROM : Programmable Read Only Memory
PSTN : Public Switched Telephone Network
P2P : Peer-to-Peer
PCB : Printed Circuit Board
PIN : Personal Identification Number
PERL–PRACTICAL EXTRACTION AND REPORT LANGUAGE
PHP–HYPERTEXT PREPROCESSOR
PCI: Peripheral Component Interconnect
PDL: Page Description Language
PLA: Programmable Logic Array
PLC: Programmable Logic Controller
PPTP: Point To Point Tunneling Protocol
PIC : Programming Interrupt Control
QDR—Quad Data Rate
QA—Quality Assurance
QFP—Quad Flat Package
QoS—Quality of Service
QOTD—Quote of the Day
Qt—Quasar Toolkit
220 | P a g e
QTAM—Queued Teleprocessing Access Method
RAM : Random Access Memory

RDBMS : Relational Data Base Management System
RIP : Routing Information Protocol
RTF : Rich Text Format
ROM : Read Only Memory
RAID: Redundant Array Of Independent Disks
RD RAM: Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory
RGB: Red Green Blue
RISC: Reduced Instruction Set Computer
RTC: Real Time Clock
RTOS: Real Time Operating System
RAS : Remote Access Network
RDP : Remote Desktop Protocol
S
SMTP : Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
SQL : Structured Query Language
SRAM : Static Random Access Memory
SNMP : Simple Network Management Protocol
SIM : Subscriber Identification Module
SMPS – Switch Mode Power Supply
SEO – SEARCH ENGINE OPTIMIZATION
SAP: Service Access Point
SD RAM: Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory
SDL: Storage Definition Language
SDSL: Symmetric Digital Subscribes Line
SNAP: Sub Network Access Protocol
SNOBOL: String Oriented Symbolic Language
221 | P a g e
SOAP: Simple Object Access Protocol
SCMP : Software Configuration Management Plan
SDD : Software Design Description
SDL : Storage Definition Language
SGML : Standard Generalized Markup Language
SIMD : Single Instruction Multiple Data
SISD : Single Instruction Single Data
SIU : Serial Interface Unit
SMS : Short Message Service
lSNMP : Simple Network Management Protocol
STP : Shielded Twisted Pair
T
TCP : Transmission Control Protocol
TB : Tera Bytes
TAPI: Telephony Application Program Interface
TDI: Transport Data Interface
TDMA: Time Division Multiple Access
TTF : TrueType Font
TTL : Transistor-Transistor Logic
TCPIP : Transmission Control Protocol Internet Protocol
U
UPS : Uninterrupted Power Supply
URI : Uniform Resource Identifier
URL : Uniform Resource Locator
USB : Universal Serial Bus
ULSI : Ultra 15px Scale Integration
UNIVAC : Universal Automatic Computer
UDP: User Datagram Protocol
UML: Unified Modelling Language
222 | P a g e
UNIX : Uniplexed Information And ComputerSystems
UTP : Unshielded Twisted Pair
V
VGA : Video Graphics Array
VDU : Visual Display Unit
VBS – VISUAL BASIC SCRIPTING LANGUAGE
VCD – VIDEO COMPACT DISK
VIRUS – VITAL INFORMATION RESOURCE UNDER SEIZED.
VDL: View Definition Language
VPN: Virtual Private Network
VRAM: Video Random Access Memory
VPU : Visual Processing Unit
VAN : Virtual Area Network
VAST : Very Small Aperture Terminal
VLIW : Very Long Instruction Words
W
Wi-Fi : Wireless Fidelity
WLAN : Wireless Local Area Network
WPA : Wi-Fi Protected Access
WWW : World Wide Web
WORM : Write Once Read Many
WAN : Wide Area Network
WAV – WAVEFORM PCM AUDIO
WMA – WINDOWS MEDIA AUDIO
WBMP – WIRELESS BITMAP IMAGE
WML – WIRELESS MARKUP LANGUAGE
WAP: Wireless Application Protocol
WMV : Windows Media Video
W3C : World Wide Web Consortium
223 | P a g e
WDM : Wave Division Multiplexing
X
XAML—eXtensible Application Markup Language
XDM—X Window Display Manager
XDMCP—X Display Manager Control Protocol
XCBL—XML Common Business Library
XHTML—eXtensible Hypertext Markup Language
Z
ZCAV—Zone Constant Angular Velocity
ZCS—Zero Code Suppression
ZIF—Zero Insertion Force
ZIFS—Zero Insertion Force Socket
ZIP—ZIP file archive
ZISC—Zero Instruction Set Computer
ZOI—Zero One Infinity
ZOPE—Z Object Publishing Environment
ZMA—Zone Multicast Address
ZPL—Z-level Programming Language
MODL QUESTION PAPER SET-1

(SBI & ITS ASSOCIATES BANK PO EXAM 2010)
1.The standard protocol of the Internet is _______.
(a)TCP/IP
(b)Java
(c)HTML
(d)Flash
(e)None of these
2.Digital photos and scanned images are typically stored as ________ graphics with extension
such as .bmp, .png, .jpg, .tif or .gif.
(a)vector
(b)bitmap
224 | P a g e
(c)either vector or bitmap
(d)neither vector nor bitmap
(e)None of these
3.A ________ is a computer attached to the Internet that runs a special Web server software and
can send Web pages out to other computers over the Internet
(a)web client
(b)web system
c)web page
(d)webserver
(e)None of these
4.After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scattered areas of stored data remain that
are too small to be used efficiency, causing ________.
(a)disorder
(b)turmoil
(c)disarray
(d)fragmentation
(e)None of these
5.Which of the following is the communication protocol that sets the standard used by every
computer that accesses Web-based information?
(a)XML
(b)DML
(c)HTTP
(d)HTML
(e)None of these
225 | P a g e
7.A program that generally has more user-friendly interface than a DBMS is called a ________.
(a)front end
(b)repository
(c)back end
(d)form
(e)None of these
8.When you install a new program on your computer, it is typically added to the ________
menu.
(a)all programs
(b)select programs
(c)start programs
(d)desktop programs
(e)None of these
9.Which of the following contains information about a single "entity" in the database - like a
person, place, event, or thing?
(a)query
(b)form
(c)record
(d)table
(e)None of these
10.Which one of the following is a key function of a firewall?
(a)Monitoring
(b)Deleting
(c)Copying
226 | P a g e
(d)Moving
(e)None of these
ANSWERS:
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (e) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a)

IBPS PO/ MT EXAM 2011
1.To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click
(a)Uppercase
(b)Upper all
(c)Capslock
(d)Lock Upper
(e)Large Size
2.A person who uses his or her expertise to gain access to other people‘s computers to get
information illegally or do damage is a
(a)hacker
(b)analyst
(c)instant messenger
(d)programmer
(e)spammer
3.A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be
(a)distributed
(b)free
(c)centralized
227 | P a g e
(d)open-source
(e)None of these
4.Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym
(a)CD
(b)DVD
(c)ROM
(d)RW
(e)ROS
5.The most common type of storage devices are
(a)persistent
(b)optical
(c)magnetic
(d)flash
(e)steel
6.Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as
(a)an ASCII code
(b)a magnetic tape
(c)a bar code
(d)an OCR scanner
(e)None of these
7.A Web site‘s main page is called its
(a)Homepage
(b)Browser page
(c)Search Page
228 | P a g e
(d)Bookmark
(e)None of these
8.Part number, part description, and number of parts ordered are examples of
(a)control
(b)output
(c)processing
(d)feedback
(e)input
9.To access the properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is
(a)dragging
(b)dropping
(c)right-clicking
(d)shift-clicking
(e)None of these
10.Computers use the ________ number system to store data and perform calculations.
(a)binary
(b)octal
(c)decimal
(d)hexadecimal
(e)None of these
11.________ ‗are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by

falsifying their identity.
(a)Phishing trips
(b)Computer viruses
229 | P a g e
(c)Spyware scams
(d)Viruses
(e)Phishing scams
12.Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?
(a)CTRL+A
(b)ALT+ F5
(c)SHIFT+A
(d)CTRL+K
(e)CTRL+H
13.The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is
(a)multiprogramming
(b)multitasking
(c)time-sharing
(d)multiprocessing
(e)None of these
14.A disk‘s content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or
erased by the user is
(a)memory-only
(b)write-only
(c)once-only
(d)run-only
(e)read-only
ANSWERS
1.a ) 2. a) 3. e) 4.d) 5.c) 6.c) 7.a) 8.c) 9.c )10.a) 11.a) 12.a) 13.d) 14.e)
230 | P a g e
IBPS PO/ MT EXAM 2012
1.__________ allows users to upload files to an online site so they can be viewed and edited
from another location.
(a)General-purpose applications
(b)Microsoft Outlook
(c)Web-hosted technology
(d)Office Live
(e)None of these
2.What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the
printed page?
(a)Vertical justifying
(b)Vertical adjusting
(c)Dual centering
(d)Horizontal centering
(e)Vertical centering
3.Which of these is not a means of personal communication on the Internet?
(a)chat
(b)instant messaging
(c)instances
(d)electronic mail
(e)None of these
4.What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a text
document?
(a)Word processing
231 | P a g e
(b)Spreadsheet design
(c)Web design
(d)Database management
(e)Presentation generation
5.Fourth-generation mobile technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of

both __________ data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and
videoconferencing.
(a)video data and information
(b)voice and nonvoice
(c)music and video
(d)video and audio
(e)None of these
6.__________ is a form of denial of service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends
SYN packets to every port on the server using fake IP addresses.
(a)Cyborgaming crime
(b)Memory shaving
(c)Syn flooding
(d)Software piracy
(e)None of these
7.Which of these is a point-and-draw device?
(a)mouse
(b)scanner
(c)printer
(d)CD-ROM
(e)Keyboard
232 | P a g e
8.The letter and number of the intersecting column and row is the __________.
(a)cell location
(b)cell position
(c)cell address
(d)cell coordinates
(e)cell contents
9.A set of rules for telling the computer what operations to perform is called a __________.
(a)procedural language
(b)structures
(c)natural language
(d)command language
(e)programming language
10.A detailed written description of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test
results and a printout of the program is called __________.
(a)documentation
(b)output
(c)reporting
(d)spec sheets
(e)Directory
11.Forms that are used to organize business data into rows and columns are called __________.
(a)transaction sheets
(b)registers
(c)business forms
(d)sheet-spreads
233 | P a g e
(e)spreadsheets
12.In PowerPoint, the Header and Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?
(a)Illustrations group
(b)Object group
(c)Text group
(d)Tables group
(e)None of these
13.A(n)_________is a set of programs designed to manage the resources of a computer,

including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordinating tasks
between input and output devices.
(a)application suite
(b)compiler
(c)input/output system
(d)interface
(e)operating system (OS)
14.A typical slide in a slide presentation would not include __________.
(a)photo images charts, and graphs
(b)graphs and clip art
(c)clip art and audio clips
(d)full-motion video
(e)content templates
15.The PC productivity tool that manipulates data organized in rows and columns is called a
__________.
(a)spreadsheet
(b)word processing document
234 | P a g e
(c)presentation mechanism
(d)database record manager
(e)EDI creator
ANSWERS
1.b) 2.a) 3.c) 4.a) 5.b) 6.a) 7.a) 8.c) 9.e) 10.a) 11.e) 12.c )13.c )14.c) 15.a)

(INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK PO ONLINE EXAM 2013)
1.Full form of FTP is
(a)File Transfer Protocol
(b)File Transit Protocol
(c)Folder Transfer Protocol
(d)File Transfer Procedure
(e)None of these
2.Which area of the microprocessor is used to temporarily store instructions and data ?
(a)Register
(b)ALU
(c)Accumulator
(d)Cache memory
(e)Interrupt control
3.____ are usually real technology buffs which modify computer hardware or software in a way
that alters the creator‘s original content.
(a)Crackers
(b)Hackers
235 | P a g e
(c)Virus
(d)Software engineer
(e)None of these
4.In computing, ____ is a term that means replacing of hardware, software or firmware with a
new or better version, to bring the system up to date or to improve its characteristics.
(a)Upgrading
(b)Installing
(c)New version
(d)Replacement
(e)None of these
5.What is the blinking symbol on computer screen ?
(a)Mouse
(b)Cursor
(c)Cathode Ray tube
(d)Logo
(e)Palm cursor
6.Which hardware device enables a computer to send and receive information over telephone
lines by converting the digital data used by computer into an analog signal used on phone lines
and then converting it back once received on the other end?
(a)Demodulator
(b)Modulator
(c)Modem
(d)Ethernet
(e)All of the above
236 | P a g e
7.____ is descended from early text formatting tools, and it is the earliest applications for the
personal computer in office productivity.
(a)Word processor
(b)Diskettes
(c)Printer
(d)Plotter
(e)None of these.
8.____ is a concept to abstractly represent all instances of a group of similar things.
(a)Revoke
(b)Data Manipulation language
(c)Data Definition language
(d)Data Control language
(e)Entity
9.How many Gigabytes is equal to 1 petabyte?
(a)104857
(b)1048576
(c)1
(d)10485
(e)None of these
10..xls, .doc, .ppt are extensions of____ respectively.
(a)Word document, Presentation, Excel
(b)Presentation, Excel, Word document
(c)Excel, Word document, Presentation
(d)Excel, Presentation, Word document
237 | P a g e
(e)None of these
11.PIN stands for ____
(a)Password Identification Number
(b)Public Identification Number
(c)Private Identification Number
(d)Public Identification Number
(e)None of the above
12____ refers to the copying and archiving of computer data, where the primary purpose is to
recover data after its loss (due to deletion or corruption).
(a)Reverse data
(b)Extraction of data
(c)Back up of data
(d)Version change
(e)All of the above
13.An email attachment is a computer file, documents, and images sent along with a _______.
(a)email message
(b)email extension
(c)Inbox
(d)Insert file
(e)All of the above
14.TSO stands for
(a)Time-sharing operation
(b)Time-sharing option
(c)Time support option
238 | P a g e
(d)Time synchronous option
(e)None of these
15.Which of the following is known as Network of Networks?
(a)LAN
(b)WAN
(c)MAN
(d)Internet
(e)None of these
16.What refers to how the system can quickly transform to support environmental changes?
(a)Reliability
(b)Scalability
(c)Availability
(d)Maintainability
(e)None of these
17.Booting up of PC depends on factors like so that files function without errors.
(a)the hardware
(b)BIOS
(c)Operating system
(d)All of the above
(e)None of these
18.Which amongst the following is/are pointing devices?
(a)Mouse
(b)Trackball
(c)Joystick
239 | P a g e
(d)Stylus
(e)All of the above
19.What feature adjusts the top and bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the
printed page?
(a)Vertical justifying
(b)Vertical adjusting
(c)Dual centering
(d)Horizontal centering
(e)Vertical centering
20.What is the overall term for creating, editing, formatting, storing, retrieving, and printing a
text document?
(a)Word processing
(b)Spreadsheet design
(c)Web design
(d)Database management
(e)Presentation generation
21.A (n) ____ allows you to access your e-mail from anywhere
(a)Forum
(b)Webmail interface
(c)Message Board
(d)Weblog
(e)None of these
240 | P a g e
22.When you enter text in a cell in Excel, it also appears in the
(a)status bar
(b)formula bar
(c)row heading
(d)name box
(e)None of these
23.Where is the newly received email stored?
(a)Your website
(b)Address-box
(c)Inbox
(d)Your personal laptop
(e)None of these
24.When the mouse is moved, it causes a picture to move on the screen which is referred to as a
(a)menu
(b)icon
(c)pointer
(d)tab
(e)None of these
25.To save a document for the first time, ____ option is used.
(a)Save as
(b)Save first
(c)Save on
(d)Copy
(e)Paste
241 | P a g e
ANSWERS
1.a ) 2.d) 3.b) 4.a) 5.b) 6.c) 7.c) 8.b) 9.b) 10.c) 11.e) 12.c) 13.a) 14.b) 15.d) 16.d) 17.d)
18.e) 19.e) 20.a) 21.b) 22.a) 23.c) 24.c) 25.e

(IBPS RRBS OFFICER SCALE -1 EXAM 2013)
1.To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the ____ key.
(a)pageup
(b)a
(c)home
(d)enter
(e)None of these
2.Computers use the ____ number system to store data and perform calculations.
(a)binary
(b)octal
(c)decimal
(d)hexadecimal
(e)None of these
3.Physical components that make up your computer are known as
(a)Operating System
(b)Software
(c)Hardware
(d)Web Browsers
(e)None of these
242 | P a g e
4.Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
(a)function
(b)space bar
(c)arrow
(d)control
(e)None of these
5.Ctrl, Shift and Alt are called ____ keys.
(a)modifier
(b)function
(c)alphanumeric
(d)adjustment
(e)None of these
6.The pattern of printed lines on most products are called ____.
(a)prices
(b)OCR
(c)scanners
(d)barcodes
(e)None of these
7.What is the permanent memory built into your computer called?
(a)RAM
(b)ROM
(c)CPU
(d)CD–ROM
(e)None of these
243 | P a g e
8.Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by ____.
(a)Symbols
(b)Labels
(c)Graphs
(d)Icons
(e)None of these
9.Passwords enable users to ____.
(a)getinto the system quickly
(b)make efficient use of time
(c)retainthe confidentiality of files
(d)simplify file structures
(e)None of these
10.When sending an e-mail, the ____ line describes the contents of the message.
(a)subject
(b)to
(c)contents
(d)cc
(e)None of these
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
244 | P a g e
(SBI PO EXAM 2013)
1.A joystick is primarily used to/for ___________.
(a)Control sound on the screen
(b)Computer gaming
(c)Enter text
(d)Draw pictures
(e)Print text
2.Which is not a storage device?
(a)A CD
(b)A DVD
(c)A floppy disk
(d)A printer
(e)A Hard disk
3.Which of the following uses a handheld operating system?
(a)A supercomputer
(b)A personal computer
(c)A laptop
(d)A mainframe
(e)A PDA
4.To display the contents of a folder in Windows Explorer you should __________.
(a)click on it
(b)collapse it
(c)name it
245 | P a g e
(d)give a password
(e)rename it
5.The CPU comprises of Control, Memory, and ________ units.
(a)Microprocessor
(b)Arithmetic/Logic
(c)Output
(d)ROM (e)Input
6.__________ is the most important/powerful computer in a typical network.
(a)Desktop
(b)Network client
(c)Network server
(d)Network station
(e)Network switch
7.A(n) ________ appearing on a web page opens another document when clicked.
(a)anchor
(b)URL
(c)hyperlink
(d)reference
(e)heading
8.Which of the following refers to the rectangular area for displaying information and running
programs?
(a)Desktop
(b)Dialog box
(c)Menu.
246 | P a g e
(d)Window
(e)Icon
9.__________ is a Window utility program that locates and eliminates unnecessary fragments
and rearranges files and unused disk space to optimize operations.
(a)Backup
(b)Disk Cleanup
(c)Disk Defragmenter
(d)Restore
(e)Disk Restorer
10.Which of the following refers to too much electricity and may cause a voltage surge?
(a)Anomaly
(b)Shock
(c)Spike
(d)Virus
(e)Splash
ANSWERS
1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(e) 4.(a) 5.(b) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(d) 9.(c) 10.(c)

(IBPS RRBs officer scale _ II & III Common Written Exam – 2013)
1.When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off
_____ .
(a)RAM
(b)motherboard
247 | P a g e
(c)secondary storage device
(d)primary storage device
(e)None of these
2.The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is _____ .
(a)multiprogramming
(b)multitasking
(c)time-sharing
(d)mult processing
(e)None of these
3.What type of device is a computer printer ?
(a)Input
(b)Output
(c)Software
(d)Storage
(e)None of these
4.The contents of _____ are lost when the computer turns off.
(a)storage
(b)input
(c)output
(d)memory
(e)None of these
5.When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test _____ .
248 | P a g e
(a)RAM test
(b)disk drive test
(c)memory test
(d)power-on-self-test
(e)None of these
6.Personal computers can be connected together to form a
(a)server
(b)supercomputer
(c)enterprise
(d)network
(e)None of these
7.Which elements of a Word document can be displayed in colour?
(a)Only graphics
(b)Only text
(c)All elements
(d)All elements, but only if you have a colour printer
(e)None of these
8.A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small
silicon chip is called a (n)
(a)Workstation
(b)CPU
(c)magnetic disk
(d)integrated circuit
249 | P a g e
(e)None of these
9.To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is _____ .
(a)right-clicking
(b)shift-clicking
(c)dragging
(d)dropping
(e)None of these
10.What is the term for unsolicited e-mail ?
(a)newsgroup
(b)Usenet
(c)backbone
(d)flaming
(e)spam
11.You use a(n) _____ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.
(a)output device
(b)input device
(c)storage device
(d)processing device
(e)None of these
12.The term_____ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its
functionality.
(a)digital device
(b)system add-on
250 | P a g e
(c)disk pack
(d)peripheral device
(e)None of these
13.An email account includes a storage area, often called a (n)
(a)attachment
(b)hyperlink
(c)mailbox
(d)IP address
(e)None of these
14.Data becomes _____ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.
(a)processed
(b)graphs
(c)information
(d)presentation
(e)None of these
15.A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently
is a/an _____ .
(a)Windows
(b)System Software
(c)DBMS
(d)Application Software
(e)None of these
16.A ____ is a collection of information saved as a unit.

251 | P a g e
(a)folder
(b)file
(c)path
(d)file extension
(e)None of these
17.Peripheral devices such as printers and monitors are considered to be
(a)hardware
(b)software
(c)data
(d)information
(e)None of these
18.Input, output, and processing devices grouped together represent a(n) _____ .
(a)mobile device
(b)information processing cycle
(c)circuit board
(d)computer system
(e)None of these
19.Most Web sites have a main page, the ____, which acts as doorway to the rest of the Web site
pages.
(a)search engine
(b)home page
(c)browser
(d)URL
252 | P a g e
(e)None of these
20.Which of the the following system components is the brain of the computer ?
(a)Circuit board
(b)CPU
(c)Memory
(d)Network card
(e)None of these
21.Which of the following is not true about computer files?
(a)They are collections of data saved to a storage medium
(b)Every file has a filename
(c)A file extension is established by the user to indicate the file‘s contents
(d)All files contain data
(e)None of these
22.allows voice conversations to travel over the Internet.
(a)Internet telephony
(b)Instant messaging
(c)E-mail
(d)E-commerce
(e)None of these
23.You use a(n) _____ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.
(a)storage device
(b)processing device
253 | P a g e
(c)input device
(d)output device
(e)None of these
24.Which of the following is not true concerning user IDs and passwords ?
(a)When you enter your user ID and password, the computer knows it is you
(b)If your computer asks for a user ID and password, you can create your own
(c)Sometimes you are assigned a user ID and password for security reasons
(d)You should share your user ID and password with at least one other person
(e)None of these
25.One who designs, writes, tests and maintains computer programs is called a
(a)User
(b)Programmer
(c)Designer
(d)Operator
(e)None of these
26.Items such as names and addresses are considered
(a)information
(b)input
(c)records
(d)data
(e)None of these
254 | P a g e
27.Most mail programs automatically complete the following two parts in an e-mail
(a)From : and Body :
(b)From : and Date :
(c)From : and To :
(d)From : and Subject :
(e)None of these
28.Where is the disk put in a computer ?
(a)in the modem
(b)in the hard drive
(c)into the CPU (d)in the disk drive
(e)None of these
29. The name a user assigns to a document is called a(n):
(a)filename
(b)program
(c)record
(d)data
(e)None of these
30.An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the _____ sign and the name of
the e-mail server that manages the user‘s electronic post office box.
(a)@
(b)#
(c)&
(d)*
255 | P a g e
(e)None of these
31.A personal computer is designed to meet the computing needs of a(n)
(a)individual
(b)department
(c)company
(d)city
(e)None of these
32.Devices that enter information and let you communicate with the computer are called
(a)Software
(b)Output devices
(c)Hardware
(d)Input devices
(e)Input /Output devices
33.An electronic device, operating under the control of information, that can accept data, process
the data, produce output and store the results for future use
(a)Input
(b)Computer
(c)Software
(d)Hardware
(e)None of these
34.What is the function of the Central Processing Unit of a Computer ?
(a)Creates invoices
(b)Performs calculations and processing

256 | P a g e
(c)Deletes Data
(d)Corrupts the data
(e)None of these
35. Which of the following is not an integral part of computer?
(a)CPU
(b)Mouse
(c)Monitor
(d)UPS
(e)None of these
36.Which of the following is/are not part of the CPU ?
(a)Primary storage
(b)Registers
(c)Control unit
(d)ALU
(e)None of these
37. The device that reconciles the differences between computers and phones is the—
(a)LAN
(b)wand reader
(c)TCP/IP
(d)scanner
(e)modem
257 | P a g e
38. A combination of hardware and software that allows communication and electronic transfer
of information between computers is a _____.
(a)Network
(b)Backup system
(c)Server
(d)Peripheral
(e)Modem
39.Which of the following represents the fastest data transmission speed ?
(a)bandwidth
(b)gbps
(c)kbps
(d)kbps
(e)mbps
40.What is a major feature of the World Wide Web that makes it simple to learn and use ?
(a)Database interface
(b)Graphical text interface
(c)Graphical user interface
(d)Point-to-Point Protocol
(e)None of these
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d)9. (a) 10. (e) 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 3. (b)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29.
(a) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (e) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40.
258 | P a g e
CHAPTER – 6
Current Affairs of Regional ,
National and International
Importance
259 | P a g e
Current Affairs of Regional , National and
International importance
Full form of some Govt Schemes and Yojanas
1. UDAY :UjwalDiscom Assurance Yojana
2. PMMY :PradhanMantri Mudra Yojana
3. PMJDY: PradhanMantri Jan DhanYojana
4. PMJJBY :PradhanMantriJeevanJyotiBimaYojana
5. PMSBY :PradhanMantriSurakshaBimaYojana
6. APY :Atal Pension Yojana
7. KVP :KisanVikasPatra
8. SBA :Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
9. PMSAGY :PradhanMantriSansadAdarsh Gram Yojana
10. AMRUT :Atal Mission For Rejuvenation & Urban Transformation
11. NGM :Namami Ganga Yojana
12. HRIDAY : Heritage City Development & Augmentation Yojana
13. MUDRA : Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency
14. SETU : Self Employment & Talent Utilization
15. NPS : National Pension Scheme
16. PMKVY :PradhanMantriKaushalVikasYojana
17. PMKSY :PradhanMantriKrishiSinchaiYojana
18. BBBP YOJANA :BetiBachao, BetiPadhaoYojana
19. SSY :SukanyaSamriddhiYojana
20. PMFBY :PradhanMantriFasalBimaYojana
260 | P a g e
21. PMGSY :PradhanMantri Gram SadakYojana
22. PMUY: PradhanMantriUjjwalaYojana
23. PMGKY :PradhanMantriGaribKalyanYojana
24. DICGC : Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
25. TEC INDIA : Transform Energise And Clean India
Telugu poet K Siva Reddy selected for prestigious SaraswatiSamman 2018:
 Telugu poet K Siva Reddy has been selected for the prestigious SaraswatiSamman, 2018
for his collection of poetry titled PakkakiOttigilite.
 The award carries a cash prize of 15 lakh rupees, a citation, and a plaque.
 The award, instituted by the KK Birla Foundation in 1991, is given annually for an
outstanding literary work written in any Indian language and published during the last 10
years.
India-Africa Project Partnership:
 The Ministry of Commerce & Industry will be organizing the 14th CII-EXIM Bank
Conclave on India-Africa Project Partnerships, in association with Confederation of
Indian Industry and EXIM Bank of India in New Delhi from March 17-19, 2019. The
event will mark the deepening of India-Africa economic and business ties and pave the
way for a whole range of cross-border project partnerships.
 The annual Conclave, since its inception in 2005, brings senior Ministers, policy makers,
officials, business leaders, bankers, technologists, start-up entrepreneurs and other
professionals from India and Africa on a common platform in a spirit of partnership.
First female President of Slovakia:
 ZuzanaCaputova, a liberal environmental and an anti-corruption activist, was elected

Slovakia‘s first female president.
 With 58 percent of the vote, Caputova edged out European Commission Vice President
MarosSefcovic, a diplomat backed by the county‘s governing Smer-Social Democracy
party.
Vijaya Bank, Dena Bank to merge with Bank of Baroda:
 Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank will merge with Bank of Baroda (BoB) to create the third-
largest lender of the country.
261 | P a g e
 The government-forced merger, announced in September last year, creates the third
largest bank in the country after State Bank of India and HDFC Bank.
Tiger Woods win his fifth Masters:
 Golfer Tiger Woods clinched his fifth Masters and a 15th major title, ending 11-year wait
for a major title after overcoming career-threatening back problems. There were raucous
celebrations around the 18th green as 43-year-old Woods finished with a two-under-par
70 to win on 13 under, one clear of fellow Americans Dustin Johnson,
UAE confers prestigious Zayed Medal on PM NarendraModi:
 The United Arab Emirates has conferred the prestigious Zayed Medal on Prime Minister
NarendraModi, the highest decoration awarded to kings, presidents and heads of states.
 The award comes in appreciation of Prime Minister Modi‘s role in consolidating the
long-standing friendship and joint strategic cooperation between the two countries.
 Prime Minister NarendraModi has thanked the UAE President Mohamed bin Zayed Al
Nahyan for conferring the prestigious Zayed Medal on him.
First Indian to be elected as member of FIFA Executive Council:
 All India Football Federation presidentPraful Patel has become the first Indian to be
elected as a member of the FIFA Executive Council. He got 38 out of 46 votes.
 Mr Patel was one of the eight candidates vying for the spot in the election which was held
during the 29th Asian Football Confederations Congress in Kuala Lumpur yesterday. The
membership in the council will be for four years, from 2019 to 2023.
India win 7 gold, 3 silver, 2 bronze in Ghana Junior & Cadet Open:
 In table tennis, India‘s young paddlers clinched seven gold, three silver and two bronze
medals in the Ghana Junior & Cadet Open, a ITTF Junior circuit event.
 AnanyaChande and DiyaChitale, both from Maharashtra, proved to be stars of the
weekend, accounting for nine medals – seven gold, one silver, and one bronze. Ananya
also cornered a silver in the junior doubles along with Ruby Chan of England and a
bronze in the junior girl‘s singles.
 MainakNistala and ArnavManojKarnavar added to the rich tally, combining to win two
silver medals in the cadet boy‘s doubles and the team bracket where they went down
fighting to the Nigerian pair of TaiwoMati and JamiuAyanwale.
262 | P a g e
Lewis Hamilton wins Formula One’s 1,000th race:
 In motor racing, Lewis Hamilton won the Chinese Grand Prix for a record sixth time on
Sunday.He seized the overall lead from his Mercedes teammate ValtteriBottas in Formula
One‘s 1,000th world championship race.
 The comfortable win was the 75th of Hamilton‘s career, and second in a row after his
lucky triumph in Bahrain two weeks ago. ValtteriBottas was second for his team‘s third
one-two finish in as many races this season. Ferrari‘s Sebastian Vettel took third place.
This was Vettel‘s first podium appearance of the campaign.
Book on JallianwalaBagh poem ‘KhooniVaisakhi’ released:
 A book containing English translation of the 100-year-old classic Punjabi poem about
JallianwalaBagh massacre, ‗KhooniVaisakhi‘ has been released in Abu Dhabi. India‘s
Ambassador to the UAE Navdeep Singh Suri commended the launch of the book, saying
the ballad is now reaching a global audience.
 The poem was translated by MrSuri whose grandfather, revolutionary poet and novelist
Nanak Singh, a JallianwalaBagh survivor, wrote it after witnessing first-hand the events
of April 13, 1919.On this ill-fated day, British troops fired upon crowds of protesters
peacefully demonstrating against the Rowlatt Act of the British Raj, leading to the loss of
well over a thousand lives.
 The book was also released in New Delhi on April 13, marking 100 years since the
JallianwalaBagh massacre that took place in Amritsar.
Services WIN Santosh Trophy in Football:
 The Services lifted the Santosh Trophy, beating Punjab 1-0 in the final at Ludhiana . In
the first half, both the teams were goal-less. In the second half, Services scored the lone
goal and held on till the final whistle.
 In the semi-finals earlier, eight-time champions Punjab had defeated five-time winners
Goa 2-1 to enter their 15th final. Services beat Karnataka 4-3 in the semis via a penalty
shootout to book a place in the title clash for the 11th time.
SwachhataPakhwada Awards 2019:
 All India Radio, Publication Division and Children‘s Film Society of India were given
SwacchtaPakhwada Awards-2019 in New Delhi today.
 Secretary in the Information and Broadcasting Ministry AmitKhare gave away the
awards. Director General of All India Radio F. Sheheryar and Director General (News)
Ms. Ira Joshi received the Award for All India Radio.
263 | P a g e
 Press Council of India, Press Information Bureau and BECIL were also mentioned during
the award ceremony for their efforts during the SwacchtaPakhwada
SwachhataPakhwada
 SwachhataPakhwada started in April 2016 with the objective of bringing a fortnight of

intense focus on the issues and practices of Swachhata by engaging GOI
Ministries/Departments in their jurisdictions.
 An annual calendar is pre-circulated among the Ministries to help them plan for the
Pakhwada activities.
 The Ministries observing SwachhataPakhwada are monitored closely using online
monitoring system of SwachhataSamiksha where action plans, images, videos related to
Swachhata activities are uploaded and shared.
 After observing SwachhataPakhwada, Ministries/ Departments announce their
achievements through a press conference and other communication tools.
 For the Pakhwada fortnight, observing ministries are considered as Swachhata Ministries
and are expected to bring qualitative Swachhata improvements in their jurisdictions.
The Indian Navy launches Guided missile destroyer ‘Imphal’:
 The Indian Navy launched guided missile destroyer Imphal at Mazagon Dock
Shipbuilders in Mumbai.
 Imphal is the third ship to be launched under a project in which ships are built to carry
and operate two multiple role helicopters.
 It enhanced stealth features have been achieved through the shaping of hull and use of
radar transparent deck fittings which make the ships difficult to detect.
Bengali folk singer Amar Pal passed away:
 Bengali folk singer Amar Pal died in Kolkata after a prolonged illness. He was 96 years
old.
 Pal was suffering from old age diseases and suffered a cerebral attack. He is one of the
legendary figures to popularise Bengali folk songs.
 His playback in Satyajit Ray directed HirakRajarDeshe ‗KotaiRangaDekhiDuniyay‘ was
one of the hit songs among Bengali circles.
 He was an old artist of Akashvani Kolkata and remained closely associated with this
prestigious institution.
 The West Bengal Government conferred SangeetMahasamman on him in 2012 for his
outstanding contribution in the field of music.
264 | P a g e
Indonesia releases special stamp on theme of Ramayana:
 Indonesia has released a special commemorative stamp on the theme of Ramayana to

mark the 70th anniversary of the establishment of its diplomatic ties with India.
 The stamp, designed by renowned Indonesian sculptor PadmashriBapakNyomanNuarta,
featured a scene from Ramayana in which Jatayu valiantly fought to save Sita.
 A specially signed version of the stamp will be on display at the Philately Museum in
Jakarta.
NASA’s Mars InSight lander recorded a ‘Marsquake’ for the very first time:
 NASA‘s Mars InSight lander, which landed on the Red Planet on 26 November, has
successfully measured and recorded a ‗Marsquake‘ for the very first time.
 The seismic signal was recorded on April 6 — Insight‘s 128th day on Mars — and it‘s
the first tremor to have been filed that is coming from inside the planet rather than being
caused by extraneous forces.
 NASA‘s Mars InSight lander just detected its first significant quake on Mars.
 Researchers on the project have analysed that the quake is more moon-like than earth-
like.
 The discovery of quakes on Mars to kick off a new field of study — Martian seismology.
Chandrayaan-2 launch:
 Chandrayaan-2, India‘s second lunar mission, has three modules, namely Orbiter, Lander
(Vikram) & Rover (Pragyan).
 The Orbiter and Lander modules will be interfaced mechanically and stacked together as
an integrated module and accommodated inside the GSLV MK-III launch vehicle.
 The Rover is housed inside the Lander. After launching into earthbound orbit by GSLV
MK-III, the integrated module will reach Moon orbit using Orbiter propulsion module.
 Subsequently, Lander will separate from the Orbiter and soft land at the predetermined
site close to the lunar South Pole. Further, the Rover will roll out for carrying out
scientific experiments on the lunar surface. Instruments are also mounted on Lander and
Orbiter for carrying out scientific experiments.
ISRO plans to send a probe Aditya-L1 to study sun:
 Indian Space Research Organization is planning to send a probe to study the sun early
next year.
 Currently, scientists are exploring possibilities to study more about Sun and the probe
named Aditya-L1 will be sent to observe the solar corona, the outer layers of the Sun.
265 | P a g e
 The satellite would be ed in a halo orbit around the L1 (Lagrangian point 1) of the Sun-
Earth system so that it has the advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any
occultation or eclipses.
 The L1 is 1.5 million km from the Earth. And also the mission to send Indian astronauts
to space by 2022 is well on stream.
King MahaVajiralongkorn crowned in Thailand:
 Thailand has crowned its new King MahaVajiralongkorn, marking the first ascension of a
new monarch in seven decades.
 The key rituals of the elaborate three-day coronation ceremony began in Bangkok today.
King Vajiralongkorn is the tenth monarch of the Chakri dynasty, which has reigned since
1782. The last coronation was held in 1950 for the king‘s father BhumibolAdulyadej.
 Thailand has been run by an arch-royalist junta since 2014. The monarchy takes primacy
in the country but it is buttressed by the army.
CURRENT AFFAIRS- ANDRA PRADESH

New Railway Zone For Andhra Pradesh
Union Railway Minister PiyushGoyal announced a new railway zone for Andhra Pradesh, that is
the Southern Coast Railway and it will be headquartered in Visakhapatnam.
i.It will be the 18th zone in the country.
ii.The new zone will comprise the existing Guntakal, Guntur and Vijayawada divisions that
currently fall under the South Central Railway.
iii. The cost of creating infrastructure for a new zone is around Rs. 205 crore.
Andhra Pradesh’s Polavaram project enters Guinness Book of World Record for concrete
pouring
On 7th Januray 2019, the Polavaram project of Andrapradesh got its place in the Guinness book
of world record.This project entered the guinness by pouring 32,315.5 cubic meters of concrete
non- stop in 24 hours.This project surpassed the leading record of 21,580 cubic metres which
was achieved by Abdul Wahed Bin Shabib project Key Points:
i. The state government invested Rs 15,380.97 crore on the project ; the central government is to
release Rs3,517.84 crore.
266 | P a g e
ii. Polavaram irrigation project,is a multipurpose terminal reservoir will irrigate 38.78 Lac acres
of land iii. It will also set up of 960 mw hydro power plant which will provide drinking water to
540 villages with a population of 28.5 Lac. Andhra Pradesh Minister
DevineniUmamaheswarRao receives award for Polavaram Project On 4th January 2019, the
Water Resources Minister of Andhra Pradesh (AP), DevineniUmamaheswarRao received the
‗Central Board of Irrigation and Power Award-2019‗ for better planning and construction of
Polavaram Irrigation Project on the Godavari River.
Andhra tops ACI’s Ease of Doing Business index
In the latest ranking of Singapore‘s Asia Competitiveness Institute‘s (ACI), Ease of Doing
Business (EDB) index 2018, Andhra Pradesh emerged on top of the 21 states of India that were
considered for the ranking, While Maharashtra and Delhi came in second and third place,
respectively. Key Points:
i. Andhra Pradesh rose from the 5th rank in 2016 to the top spot in 2018.
ii. The ACI‘s EDB index is based upon three parameters called ABC -Attractiveness to
Investors, Business Friendliness and Competitiveness Policies.The index captured the business
environment at the sub-national level on the basis of 72 hard and soft indicators.
iii. The Ease of Doing Business (EDB) list is compiled by a team of researchers led by Tan
KheeGiap, who is the co-director of Asia competitiveness institute (ACI), and associate
professor at Lee Kuan Yew School of Public Policy, National University of Singapore.
Andhra Pradesh-Zurich sign sister state agreement :
Andhra Pradesh State government has entered into a sister-state agreement with the Canton of
Zurich, Switzerland.
i. A letter of intent (LOI) in this regard was signed by Zurich Councilor and Head of the
Department for Economic Affairs, Carmen Walker Späh and Andhra Pradesh Finance Minister
YanamalaRamakrishnudu in the presence of Chief Minister Chandrababu Naidu.
ii. Under this agreement, Andhra Pradesh and Canton of Zurich will collaborate in various areas
through exchange of experience and information, industry-specific programmes and projects,
establishment of joint work groups and regular expert-level consultations.
267 | P a g e
Andhra Pradesh gets its state symbols after 4 years of bifurcation:
On May 30,2018, after 4 years of bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh and Telengana, the state of
Andhra Pradesh gets its own symbol. This was announced by the Principle Secretary of
Environment Forests G .AnanthaRamu.
 Neem and Black Buck have been declared as the state tree and the state animal
respectively.
 Rose-ringed Parakeet will be the State Bird. iii. Jasmine will be the state flower
Walmiki and Malhar: 2 unknown languages discovered:
Prof PanchananMohanty, former dean of the School of Humanities at University of Hyderabad

(UoH) has discovered two new languages: Walmiki and Malhar.
i. These languages were discovered by Prof Mohanty as a part of the research activity of the
Centre for Endangered Languages and Mother Tongue Studies, UoH.
ii.These languages were unknown to linguists so far. Walmiki is spoken in Koraput of Odisha
and in the bordering districts of Andhra Pradesh.
iii.Walmiki is an isolate language (it does not belong to a family of languages). The community
speaking Walmiki claims descent from Indian saint-poet Valmiki.
iv.Malhar is spoken in an isolated region 165 km away from Bhubaneswar in Odisha. Around 75
people from the community that speaks Malhar language.
India elected to Executive Board of first UN-Habitat Assembly:
India has been elected to the Executive Board of the first UN-Habitat Assembly, announced
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
India has been elected to the Executive Board of the first UN-Habitat Assembly at the Plenary
Session of the Assembly started in Nairobi, Kenya. •
The special theme for the UN-Habitat Assembly is "Innovation for Better Quality of Life in
Cities and Communities".
268 | P a g e
UK Becomes First Parliament to Declare Climate Emergency
• The UK Parliament has passed a declaration for Environment and Climate Emergency on May
01, 2019. Hence the Parliament of the UK has become the first parliament, or the UK has
become the first country to pass a declaration on climate emergency.
• This was a lot of pressure from the opposition Labour leaders for ―rapid and dramatic action‖ to
protect the environment for generations to come. The fight for this Climate Emergency was lead
by a group called Extinction Rebellion.
• What does Climate Emergency mean: It means that from now climate and the environment
would be at the very centre of all government policy, rather than being on the fringe of political
decisions. Ireland becomes second country to declare 'climate emergency' • Ireland has
become the second country in the world to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency.
• Ireland followed in the footsteps of the United Kingdom, which declared a climate emergency
earlier this month
• The governments of Wales and Scotland have also declared climate emergencies.
Model Questions For Practice:

1.Which state has topped the survey of Asia Competitiveness Institute (ACI), Singapore's 2018
Ease of Doing Business (EDB) Index ABC Rankings for economies of 21 states of India?
a)Goa
b)Kerala
c)Madhya Pradesh
d)Andhra Pradesh
Answer: d
2. Name the Indian pacer who becomes Highest International Wicket-Taker in 2018?
a)Bhuvaneshwar Kumar
b) JaspritBumrah
c)MohamadShami
269 | P a g e
d)UmeshYadav
Answer: b
3.The Union Cabinet approved what per cent reservation for ‗economically backward‘ upper
castes in government jobs?
a)3%
b)5%
c)10%
d)9%
Answer: c
4. Who is the author of the book ‗A Crusade against Corruption‘ launched by Vice-Chairman of
RajyaSabha, Harivansh Narayan Singh, in New Delhi?
a)Rakesh Sharma
b)Arun Gupta
c)ManoharManoj
d)Nikhil Jain
Answer: C
5. Which country to host to 2019 Africa Cup of Nations?
a)Kenya
b)South Africa
c)Ghana
d)Egypt
Answer: D
6.Country's longest single lane steel cable bridge named Byorung Bridge opened across which
river?
a)Ganges
270 | P a g e
b)Indus River
c)Siang River
d)Meghna River
e)Teesta River
Answer: C
7.Which state will become first state in the country to roll out Universal Basic Income?
a)Sikkim
b)Nagaland
c)Uttar Pradesh
d)Goa
Answer: A
8.Who became first player to win all three top ICC awards in single year?
a)MS Dhoni
b)AB De Villaries
c)ViratKohli
d)Trent Bolt
Answer: C
9.BharatRatna awardee BhupenHazarika is professinally a .
a)Politician
b)Foot-ball player
c)Industrialist
d)Musician
Answer: D
271 | P a g e
10.Which state government declared the endangered Indus river dolphins, one of the world‘s
rarest mammals, as the state‘s aquatic animal?
A.Punjab
B.Manipur
C.Haryana
D.Jharkhand
Answer: A
11.Which country is going to host 13th Conference of Parties (COP) of the Convention on the
conservation of migratory species of wild animals (CMS)?
A.China
B.Germany
C.America
D.India
Answer: D
12.The103rd Constitution Amendment Act amends which article of constitution and it will
provide 10% reservation in government jobs and education to Economically Weaker Sections?
A.Articles 12 and 13
B.Articles 13 and 14
C.Articles 14 and 15
D.Articles 15 and 16
Answer: D
13..Name the dedicated DD channel launched for Arunachal Pradesh?
A.Arunodaya
B.Arunaprabha
C.Arunakirana
272 | P a g e
D.Aurunadarshan
Answer: B
14.Under which Article of the Constitution, the Minister of State for Home notified that National
Awards, such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri cannot be
entitled as titles?
A.Article 18(1)
B.Article 17(1)
C.Article 16(1)
D.Article 15(1)
E.None of these
Answer: A
15.World Sustainable Development Summit 2019 held in which city?
A.Hyderabad
B.Delhi
C.Bangalore
D.Chennai
Answer: B
16.Which Bank had become the first US bank with Cryptocurrency?
A.JP Morgan Chase
B.Bank of America
C.Goldman Sachs
D.Wells Fargo
Answer: A
273 | P a g e
17.Name the digital payment gateway launched by IRCTC?
A.IRCTC mPay
B.IRCTC ePay
C.IRCTC iPay
D.IRCTC sPay
Answer: C
18.Which bank has recently received nod to handle import, exports transactions with Iran?
A.RBL Bank
B.DCB Bank
C.IDBI Bank
D.Axis Bank
Answer: C
19.Name the Bilateral joint exercise between India, Oman that is going to begin from Mar 12.
A.Al Nagah
B.Nomadic Elephant
C.Surya Kiran
D.VajraPrahar
Answer: A
20.Chennai Central station to be named after which former Chief Minister of the state?
A.V. N Janaki
B.M.Karunanidhi
C.O Panneerselvam
D.MG Ramachandran
Answer: D
274 | P a g e
21.Which type ATM allowed to get Source cash directly from RBI?
A.Pink Labeled ATM
B.Green Labeled ATM
C.White Labeled ATM
D.Red Labeled ATM
Answer: C
22.Which company partners with ICC as official sponsor for Cricket World Cup 2019?
A.Vodaphone
B.Redmi
C.Real MI
D.Godaddy
Answer D
23.Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy is related with which sport?
A.Badminton
B.Football
C.Tennis
D.Cricket
Answer: D
24..Which country to host U-17 Women's Football World Cup in 2020?
A.India
B.Brazil
C.Croatia
D.Finland
Answer: A
275 | P a g e
25.Who becomes first Indian athlete to qualify for Tokyo Olympics?
A.K T Irfan
B.Sandeep Kumar
C.Manish Singh Rawat
D.Gurmeet Singh
Answer: A
26.Name the Kazakhstan President who resigns after nearly 30 years in power? A.
NursultanNazarbayev
B.ArifAlvi
C.BarhamSalih
D.Ashraf Ghani
Answer: A
27.KarenUhlenbeck becomes first woman to win Abel Prize for Maths. She belongs to which
country?
A.Germany
B.Canada
C.USA
D.India
Answer: C
28.Which country becomes first G7 nation to join China‘s ‗Belt and Road‘ Initiative?
A.Canada
B.France
C.Germany
D.Italy
276 | P a g e
Answer: D
29.Name the India-Australia Naval Exercise that is going to be held in April 2019?
A.AUSINDEX
B.IBSAMAR
C.MALABAR
D.SIMBEX
Answer: A
30.As per the Multidimensional Poverty Report 2018 by the United Nations Development
Programme, India has reduced the poverty rate to in 10 years.
A. 23%
B. 28%
C. 14%
D. 37%
Answer: B
31.Hopman Cup is related with which sport?
A.Tennis
B.Basket Ball
C.Cricket
D.Golf
Answer: A
32.Which team won Sultan Azlan Shah cup 2019 ?
A.South Korea
B.Pakistan
C.India
277 | P a g e
D.Great Britain
Answer: A
33.Which state is celebrating its foundation on 1st April 2019?
A.Odisha
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Maharashtra
D.Meghalaya
Answer: A
34. Which day is observed on 4th April
A.World Nature Conservation Day
B.National Epilepsy Day
C.International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine action
D.World Zoonoses Day
Answer: C
35. Zayed Medal was recently conferred to prime ministerNarendraModi. This medal is given by
which country?
A.Qatar
B.UAE
C.Saudi Arabia
D.Japan
Answer: B
36. Game Changer is the biography of which cricket player?
A.Shayne Warne
B.MS Dhoni
278 | P a g e
C.Harbhajan Singh
D.ShahidAfridi
Answer: D
37. Who becomes 1st Indian Member of FIFA Executive Council?
A.Praful Patel
B.VineetNayya
C.Bijay Kumar
D.Edappadi K Palanisamy
E.GC Chaturvedi
Answer: A
38. Name the India's first indigenously built long range artillery guninducted by the Army?
A.Glock
B.Vidhwansak
C.Dhanush
D.Satrujit
Answer: C
39. Which among the following body has formed a Central Monitoring Committee to prepare
and enforce national plan to tackle pollution of over 350 river stretches in the country?
A.NITI Aayog
B.Ministry of Environment
C.NGT
D.Central Pollution Control Board
Answer: C The Nation Green Tribunal (NGT) bench
279 | P a g e
40. Which Indian Prime Minister has been conferred with the ―Order of Saint Andrew The
Apostle‖, the highest civilian award of Russia for 2019?
A.NarendraModi
B.Dr.Manmohan Singh
C.IK Gujral
D.DeveGowda
Answer: A
41. Which country has launched the world‘s first and only vaccine for malaria?
A.Malawi
B.Zimbabwe
C.Mali
D.Madagascar
Answer: A.
42. Which country released a special commemorative stamp on the theme of Ramayana to mark
the 70th anniversary of diplomatic ties with India?
A.Nepal
B.Bhutan
C.Indonesia
D.Sri Lanka
Answer: C
43. Indian President RamnathKovind was conferred with The Grand Order of the King of
Tomislav; name the country which bestowed the honour?
a) Bulgaria
b) Bolivia
c) Croatia
280 | P a g e
d) UK
Answer: c
44.Name the Indian state where Kartarpur Sahib Corridor is located ?
a) Punjab
b) Haryana
c) Rajasthan
d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: a
45. Name the state which will be housing the National Sports Stadium for differently abled in
India ?
a) Manipur
b) Meghalaya
c) Assam
d) West Bengal
Answer: b
46.What is the target set by the Indian government to eliminate Tuberculosis?
a) 2025
b) 2020
c) 2022
d) 2024
Answer: a
281 | P a g e
CHAPTER – 7
General Science and its
Applications to the day to day
life, Contemporary
developments in Science and
Technology and Information
Technology
282 | P a g e
General Science and its Applications to the day to
day life :
Science is a systematic and logical study of how the universe works. Science is a
dynamic subject. Science can also be defined as the systematic study of the nature and behavior
of the material and physical world, based on observation, experiment, and measurement, and the
formulation of laws to describe these facts in general terms.
Science is one of the greatest blessings to mankind. It has played a significant role in
improving the quality of living of the man. Science is omnipresent and omnipotent in every walk
of our life. In every inch of our body, science is the protagonist.
Science is important because it is a key for most aspects of daily life, including food,
energy, medicine, transportation, leisure activities, and more. Science improves human life at
every level, from individual comfort to global issues. General disciplinary gives a grand tour of
science with different fields such as computer science, biology, and other psychology studies.
Therefore science as a high concentration in pursuing more advanced other disciplines that are
responsible for changing our day to day lives. The role of science is significant in our daily life.
The various gifts of science have made our life more comfortable. The incredible inventions of
science such as electricity, fans, air-conditioners, television, mobile phones, motor vehicles, etc.
have eased our life, and now it has become almost impossible to live without using them.
To expand their horizon, modern scientists are searching deep into the natural world.
Nuclear physicists peer into the inner workings of the atom, while astrophysicists trace back
billions of years, in an attempt to understand the origin of the universe.
The Importance of Science in Our Life:
The foundation of science is measurement.The two fundamental things to measure in any

scientific investigation are time and size or distance. The clock or calendar, and the yardstick or
tape measure are the essential tools of science.Whenever you measure anything, or count
anything, and study the measurements with an eye towards understanding and explaining
patterns in the sizes, you are practicing science. Science got a big boost when people began
measuring time by noting and measuring the movements of celestial bodies, the sun, moon, and
planets.
Necessity is the mother of invention. Man has read the book of nature and finds how he
can make use of nature for himself respecting all the natural existence. Almost everything that
makes eases our daily life are the wonders of modern science. Science has conferred many gifts
in contemporary life. Indeed, they are far too many to be counted.
Probably the type of knowledge had its accelerated after the 18th century onwards.
History gives lot of facts and reasons. The result is we know how to replace human/animal labor
with machines and produce more, how the water and wind power can be translated into
electricity, the most comfortable portable power now, how we can share our knowledge as many
283 | P a g e
people as possible but as quickly as possible using communication equipment and technology.
The areas of benefits are transport, industrial production, agriculture, shelter, food production,
water management, urbanization, entertainment, and finally managing with the environment
itself. All these are part of our daily living, where science is contributing every second. Indeed
Science is essential, as the Physics, Chemistry, Biology can only help human beings get better
with themselves!
Physics helps with the kinds of stuff related to Mechanics, Atomics, Astronomy, Astrophysics.
Everything from walking to getting any work done. It‘s all physics. The friction, the inertia, the
forces these all are always active. We just don‘t care enough to observe.
Chemistry helps us to understand how the world is formed of various elements and compound.
And helps us to now the world in better way!
Biology is needed to remain healthy. It deals with Bio-mechanics which is needed for knowing
how to the body works mechanically! All the medical stuff is required as there is no point about
Science being vital if we are not discussing about Biology and its importance!
1. We understand things about our origins and where we are more than ever before.
2. Science helps us cure diseases. Scientific advances have made it possible for humans
to understand how cells operate, how diseases spread and what cures the human body.
3. A great example of how science affects our daily lives are vaccinations. Without them,
diseases that belonged to the 19–20th century would still be here and we would still
suffer their nasty consequences.
Computers: Computers is widely used by common people for recording their day-to-day
transactions. It is also used in controlling and processing the activities of factories and plants.
Medical Science: Scientists have invented so many wonder drugs. The effects of these drugs are
so miraculous. By means of these drugs, fatal diseases could be controlled. Many deadly diseases
can be cured by the application of medicine in proper time.
Human heart-transplantation is a significant achievement in the field of surgery. In fact, the

transplantation of human organs is quite possible now to save the lives of men.
Radio: We listen to news and songs through our radio sets.
Television: Television has become a medium of the audio-visual method of learning. It remains
one of the most significant contributions of science to society.
Traveling: We use buses, trams, motor cars, trains, and airplanes to travel from one place to
another. Science has narrowed the vast distance of the world.
Newspaper: We read newspaper to get the news of the world. We stay in touch with the world.
284 | P a g e
Comfort during summer days: Electronic fans and air-conditioners gives us comfort during
summer days.
Mobile Phones: We cannot think of living without our mobile phones. Apart from talking to a
distant friend, we can browse internet on our smart phones.
Camera: When we go out on holidays, we can take photographs through a camera.
Distant images: Television photographs about the movement of astronauts on the moon were
seen on earth. By the device of electromagnetic waves, photographs of Venus and Mars, millions
of miles away, were transmitted by spacecrafts to the planet.
Power and Electricity: Adequate Power (Electricity) is a necessity for every one of us. Most of
our everyday works are dependent upon electricity. The thermal, hydro, and gas power plants are
famous mediums that allow uninterrupted supply of electricity to common people.
Nuclear energy: Nuclear energy is being harnessed by modern science to peaceful purposes to
achieve many more wonders in life. Thus, atom is energy is producing electrical power and the
radioactive isotopes and tracers are doing marvels in the fields of agriculture and industry.
The benefits of science in daily life is classified into two types. They are
Material benefits - Where do I start from? Every goddam material thing you see around
you is a product of technological advance that has science as its backbone. From your
elegant house to the trimmer that shaves your testicles, everything exists the way they do is
because of science. Science is in the sofa you sit in, in the tv you watch, in the pizza you eat
and in the fart you let out after that.
Psychological benefit - Science gives you a perspective, a modern and rational approach
towards stuffs. It gives you doubts and solutions. It makes you learn to question. And that's
the most important contribution to human evolution.
285 | P a g e
RECENT DEVELOPMENT IN INFORMATION
TECHNOLOGY
1.ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (AI):
In computer science, artificial intelligence (AI), sometimes called machine intelligence, is
intelligence demonstrated by machines, in contrast to the natural intelligence displayed by
humans. Colloquially, the term "artificial intelligence" is often used to describe machines (or
computers) that mimic "cognitive" functions that humans associate with the human mind, such as
"learning" and "problem solving".
The term "artificial intelligence" or "AI" was coined at the 1956 Dartmouth conference.
The generally accepted definition is the Turing test, first proposed in 1950, as the ability of a
machine communicating using natural language over a teletype to fool a person into believing it
was a human. "AGI" or "artificial general intelligence" extends this idea to require machines to
do everything that humans can do, such as understand images, navigate a robot, recognize and
respond appropriately to facial expressions, distinguish music genres, and so on.
As machines become increasingly capable, tasks considered to require "intelligence" are

often removed from the definition of AI, a phenomenon known as the AI effect. A quip in
Tesler's Theorem says "AI is whatever hasn't been done yet." For instance, optical character
recognition is frequently excluded from things considered to be AI, having become a routine
technology. Modern machine capabilities generally classified as AI include successfully
understanding human speech, competing at the highest level in strategic game systems (such as
chess and Go), autonomously operating cars, intelligent routing in content delivery networks,
and military simulations.
Artificial intelligence can be classified into three different types of systems: analytical,
human-inspired, and humanized artificial intelligence. Analytical AI has only characteristics
consistent with cognitive intelligence; generating a cognitive representation of the world and
using learning based on past experience to inform future decisions. Human-inspired AI has
elements from cognitive and emotional intelligence; understanding human emotions, in addition
to cognitive elements, and considering them in their decision making. Humanized AI shows
characteristics of all types of competencies (i.e., cognitive, emotional, and social intelligence), is
able to be self-conscious and is self-aware in interactions.
The various use cases for AI and its implementation can be:
Natural Language Processing: The machines and computers are trained in such a way
so that they can identify human speech, convert them to machine commands and give back
the output. NLP has many use cases and can be implemented in Home/Building Automation
devices, etc.
286 | P a g e
1. Computer Games: Its regarding programming machines and computers in such a way
so that they can compete with humans. For e.g. in Chess, based on the moves of a
human, the computer will identify the next move, with AI doing the back end
processing.
2. Smart Toys/Robotics: The Next-Gen Smart Toys can act as a bot to and responds to
the what the kids speak. It can hear and see (image recognition) just as the way a
human can see.
3. Image Recognition: The best use case can be in the newest Connected Car where in the
car can capture all the images surrounding it (a 360 deg view) and identify obstacles
and process it in the back end so that the car avoids collision with these obstacles.
A lot of research and development is going on in the field of AI and the use cases of AI have
been increasing exponentially.
2.CLOUD COMPUTING
Cloud computing is the on-demand availability of computer system resources, especially
data storage and computing power, without direct active management by the user. Traditional
systems of storage and platforms are complicated, expensive and time consuming, where
developers required purchasing the right hardware for the right application and ramping up
servers to scale their software. However, cloud computing revolutionized the way systems
performed making it simpler and cheaper for companies to simply rent system platforms, instead
of creating them from scratch.
The term is generally used to describe data centers available to many users over the
Internet. Large clouds, predominant today, often have functions distributed over multiple
locations from central servers. If the connection to the user is relatively close, it may be
designated an edge server.
Clouds may be limited to a single organization (enterprise clouds), or be available to

many organizations (public cloud).Cloud computing relies on sharing of resources to achieve
coherence and economies of scale.
Cloud Computing has accelerated in the past 20 years because of:
 The creation of the Web as an application platform

 Improvements in Internet speeds
 Moore‘s law has made server hardware almost free
 The rapid adoption of mobile phones as the preferred computing interface by people
 Smart people capable of building and managing applications remain in short supply
287 | P a g e
Here are some other benefits of cloud computing.
Adaptable
Cloud computing allows for adaptable programs and applications that are customizable,
while allowing owners control over the core code.
Multi tenant
Cloud software provides the opportunity to provide personalized applications and portals to a
number of customers or tenants.
Reliable
Because it is hosted by a third party, businesses and other users have greater assurance of
reliability, and when there are problems, easy access to customer support.
Scalable
With the Internet of Things, it is essential that software functions across every device and
integrates with other applications. Cloud applications can provide this.
Secure
Cloud computing can also guarantee a more secure environment, thanks to increased
resources for security and centralization of data.
3. BIG DATA
"Big data" is a field that treats ways to analyze, systematically extract information from,
or otherwise deal with data sets that are too large or complex to be dealt with by traditional data-
processing application software. Data with many cases (rows) offer greater statistical power,
while data with higher complexity (more attributes or columns) may lead to a higher false
discovery rate. Big data challenges include capturing data, data storage, data analysis, search,
sharing, transfer, visualization, querying, updating, information privacy and data source. Big data
was originally associated with three key concepts: volume, variety, and velocity. When we
handle big data, we may not sample but simply observe and track what happens. Therefore, big
data often includes data with sizes that exceed the capacity of traditional usual software to
process within an acceptable time and value.
288 | P a g e
Current usage of the term big data tends to refer to the use of predictive analytics, user
behavior analytics, or certain other advanced data analytics methods that extract value from data,
and seldom to a particular size of data set. "There is little doubt that the quantities of data now
available are indeed large, but that's not the most relevant characteristic of this new data
ecosystem." Analysis of data sets can find new correlations to "spot business trends, prevent
diseases, combat crime and so on." Scientists, business executives, practitioners of medicine,
advertising and governments alike regularly meet difficulties with large data-sets in areas
including Internet searches, fintech, urban informatics, and business informatics. Scientists
encounter limitations in e-Science work, including meteorology, genomics,connectomics,
complex physics simulations, biology and environmental research.
Data sets grow rapidly, in part because they are increasingly gathered by cheap and
numerous information-sensing Internet of things devices such as mobile devices, aerial (remote
sensing), software logs, cameras, microphones, radio-frequency identification (RFID) readers
and wireless sensor networks. The world's technological per-capita capacity to store information
has roughly doubled every 40 months since the 1980s; as of 2012, every day 2.5 exabytes
(2.5×1018) of data are generated. Based on an IDC report prediction, the global data volume will
grow exponentially from 4.4 zettabytes to 44 zettabytes between 2013 and 2020. By 2025, IDC
predicts there will be 163 zettabytes of data. One question for large enterprises is determining
who should own big-data initiatives that affect the entire organization.
The important reasons for adopting big data:
1) Timely - Gain instant insights from diverse data sources
2) Better analytics - Improvement of business performance through real-time analytics
3) Vast amount of data - Big data technologies manage huge amounts of data
4) Insights - Can provide better insights with the help of unstructured and semi-structured data
5) Decision-making - Helps mitigate risk and make smart decision by proper risk analysis
Doug Laney has given Big Data a new definition describing it as the three V‘s: Volume, velocity
and Variety.
 Volume: The name Big Data itself suggest it contains large amount of data. The size of
the data is very important in determining whether the data is ―Big data‖ or not. Hence,
―Volume‖ is an important characteristic when dealing with Big data.
 Velocity: Velocity is the speed at which data is generated. In Big Data the velocity is a
measure of determining the efficiency of the data. The more quickly the data is
generated and processed will determine the data‘s real potential. The flow of data is
huge and Velocity is one of the characteristics of Big Data.
289 | P a g e
 Variety: Data comes in various forms, structured, unstructured, numeric, etc. Earlier
spreadsheets and database were considered as data. But now pdf‘s, emails, audio, etc
are considered for analysis.
Usage of Big Data in various industries
 Health Care
 Detect Frauds
 Social Media Analysis
 Weather
 Public sector.
Contribution of Big Data in Health Care
The contribution of Big Data in Healthcare domain has grown largely. With medical advances
there was need to store large amount of data of the patients. Big data is used extensively to store
the patients health history.
This data can be used to analyse the patients health condition and to prevent health failures in
future.
Detect Fraud
Fraud detection and prevention is one of the many uses of Big Data tody. Credit card companies
face a lot of frauds and big data technologies are used to detect and prevent them.
Earlier credit card companies would keep a track on all the transactions and if any suspicious
transaction is found they would call the buyer and confirm if that transaction was made. But now
the buying patterns are observed and fraud affected areas are analysed using Big Data analytics.
This is very useful in preventing and detecting frauds.
Social Media Analysis
The best use case of big data is the data that keeps flowing on social media networks like,
Facebook, Twitter, etc. The data is collected and observed in the form of comments, images,
social statuses, etc.
Companies use big data techniques to understand the customers requirements and check what
they say on social media. This helps companies to analyse and come up with strategies that will
be beneficial for the companies growth.
Weather
Big Data technologies are used to predict the weather forecast. Large amount of data is feed on
the climate and an average is taken to predict the weather. This can be useful to predict natural
calamities such as floods, etc.
290 | P a g e
Public Sector
Big Data is used in a lot of government as well as public sectors. Big data provides a lot of
facilities such as power investigation, economic promotion, etc.
Big Data is used in many other cases such as Education sector, Insurance services,
Transportation. Security Intelligence, etc. Big data has become an important part for analysis and
is needed in order to understand the growth of the businesses and build strategies to help it grow
further.
4.INTERNET OF THINGS:
The internet of things, or IoT, is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical
and digital machines, objects, animals or people that are provided with unique identifiers (UIDs)
and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-
computer interaction.
The definition of the Internet of things has evolved due to the convergence of multiple
technologies, real-time analytics, machine learning, commodity sensors, and embedded
systems.Traditional fields of embedded systems, wireless sensor networks, control systems,
automation (including home and building automation), and others all contribute to enabling the
Internet of things. In the consumer market, IoT technology is most synonymous with products
pertaining to the concept of the "smart home", covering devices and appliances (such as lighting
fixtures, thermostats, home security systems and cameras, and other home appliances) that
support one or more common ecosystems, and can be controlled via devices associated with that
ecosystem, such as smartphones and smart speakers.
The IoT concept has faced prominent criticism, especially in regards to privacy and
security concerns related to these devices and their intention of pervasive presence.
APPLICATIONS OF IOT:
Smart home:
IoT devices are a part of the larger concept of home automation, which can include
lighting, heating and air conditioning, media and security systems. Long-term benefits could
include energy savings by automatically ensuring lights and electronics are turned off.A smart
home or automated home could be based on a platform or hubs that control smart devices and
appliances.
291 | P a g e
Elder care:
One key application of a smart home is to provide assistance for those with disabilities
and elderly individuals. These home systems use assistive technology to accommodate an
owner's specific disabilities. Voice control can assist users with sight and mobility limitations
while alert systems can be connected directly to cochlear implants worn by hearing-impaired
users. They can also be equipped with additional safety features. These features can include
sensors that monitor for medical emergencies such as falls or seizures. Smart home technology
applied in this way can provide users with more freedom and a higher quality of life.
Transport:
The IoT can assist in the integration of communications, control, and information
processing across various transportation systems. Application of the IoT extends to all aspects of
transportation systems (i.e. the vehicle, the infrastructure, and the driver or user). Dynamic
interaction between these components of a transport system enables inter- and intra-vehicular
communication, smart traffic control, smart parking, electronic toll collection systems, logistics
and fleet management, vehicle control, safety, and road assistance. In Logistics and Fleet
Management, for example, an IoT platform can continuously monitor the location and conditions
of cargo and assets via wireless sensors and send specific alerts when management exceptions
occur (delays, damages, thefts, etc.). This can only be possible with the IoT and its seamless
connectivity among devices. Sensors such as GPS, Humidity, and Temperature send data to the
IoT platform and then the data is analyzed and then sent to the users. This way, users can track
the real-time status of vehicles and can make appropriate decisions. If combined with Machine
Learning, then it also helps in reducing traffic accidents by introducing drowsiness alerts to
drivers and providing self-driven cars too.
3-D PRINTING
The 3-D printing process builds a three-dimensional object from a computer-aided design
(CAD) model, usually by successively adding material layer by layer, which is why it is also
called additive manufacturing, and unlike conventional machining, casting and forging
processes, where material is removed from a stock item or poured into a mold and shaped by
means of dies, presses and hammers.
The term "3D printing" covers a variety of processes in which material is joined or
solidified under computer control to create a three-dimensional object, with material being added
together (such as liquid molecules or powder grains being fused together), typically layer by
layer. In the 1990s, 3D-printing techniques were considered suitable only for the production of
292 | P a g e
functional or aesthetical prototypes and a more appropriate term was rapid prototyping. As of
2019 the precision, repeatability and material range have increased to the point that some 3D-
printing processes are considered viable as an industrial-production technology, whereby the
term additive manufacturing can be used synonymously with "3D printing". One of the key
advantages of 3D printing is the ability to produce very complex shapes or geometries, and a
prerequisite for producing any 3D printed part is a digital 3D model or a CAD file.
The most-commonly used 3D-printing process (46% as of 2018) is a material extrusion

technique called fused deposition modeling (FDM).
Time Line of 3D –Printing:
1974 David E. H. Jones laid out the concept of 3D printing in his regular column Ariadne
in the journal New Scientist.
1981 : Early additive manufacturing equipment and materials were developed in the 1980s.
In 1981, Hideo Kodama of Nagoya Municipal Industrial Research Institute invented two additive
methods for fabricating three-dimensional plastic models with photo-hardening thermoset
polymer, where the UV exposure area is controlled by a mask pattern or a scanning fiber
transmitter.
1984 : On 16 July 1984, Alain Le Méhauté, Olivier de Witte, and Jean Claude André filed their
patent for the stereo lithography process. The application of the French inventors was abandoned
by the French General Electric Company (now Alcatel-Alsthom) and CILAS (The Laser
Consortium). The claimed reason was "for lack of business perspective". Three weeks later in
1984, Chuck Hull of 3D Systems Corporation filed his own patent for a stereo lithography
fabrication system, in which layers are added by curing photopolymers with ultraviolet light
lasers. Hull defined the process as a "system for generating three-dimensional objects by creating
a cross-sectional pattern of the object to be formed,".Hull's contribution was the STL (Stereo
lithography) file format and the digital slicing and infill strategies common to many processes
today.
1988: The technology used by most 3D printers to date—especially hobbyist and consumer-
oriented models—is fused deposition modeling, a special application of plastic extrusion,
developed in 1988 by S. Scott Crump and commercialized by his company Stratasys, which
marketed its first FDM machine in 1992.
AM processes for metal sintering or melting (such as selective laser sintering, direct metal laser
sintering, and selective laser melting) usually went by their own individual names in the 1980s
and 1990s. At the time, all metalworking was done by processes that are now called non-additive
(casting, fabrication, stamping, and machining); although plenty of automation was applied to
those technologies (such as by robot welding and CNC), the idea of a tool or head moving
through a 3D work envelope transforming a mass of raw material into a desired shape with a
293 | P a g e
toolpath was associated in metalworking only with processes that removed metal (rather than
adding it), such as CNC milling, CNC EDM, and many others. But the automated techniques that
added metal, which would later be called additive manufacturing, were beginning to challenge
that assumption. By the mid-1990s, new techniques for material deposition were developed at
Stanford and Carnegie Mellon University, including microcasting and sprayed materials.
Sacrificial and support materials had also become more common, enabling new object
geometries.
1993 : The term 3D printing originally referred to a powder bed process employing standard and
custom inkjet print heads, developed at MIT in 1993 and commercialized by Soligen
Technologies, Extrude Hone Corporation, and Z Corporation. The year 1993 also saw the start of
a company called Solidscape, introducing a high-precision polymer jet fabrication system with
soluble support structures, (categorized as a "dot-on-dot" technique).
1995: In 1995 the Fraunhofer Institute developed the selective laser melting process.
2009: Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM) printing process patents expired in 2009.As the
various additive processes matured, it became clear that soon metal removal would no longer be
the only metalworking process done through a tool or head moving through a 3D work envelope
transforming a mass of raw material into a desired shape layer by layer. The 2010s were the first
decade in which metal end use parts such as engine bracketsand large nuts would be grown
(either before or instead of machining) in job production rather than obligately being machined
from bar stock or plate. It is still the case that casting, fabrication, stamping, and machining are
more prevalent than additive manufacturing in metalworking, but AM is now beginning to make
significant inroads, and with the advantages of design for additive manufacturing, it is clear to
engineers that much more is to come.As technology matured, several authors had begun to
speculate that 3D printing could aid in sustainable development in the developing world.
2012: Filabot develops a system for closing the loop with plastic and allows for any FDM or FFF
3D printer to be able to print with a wider range of plastics.
2014: Georgia Institute of Technology Dr. Benjamin S. Cook, and Dr. Manos M. Tentzeris
demonstrate the first multi-material, vertically integrated printed electronics additive
manufacturing platform (VIPRE) which enabled 3D printing of functional electronics operating
up to 40GHz.
How 3D works??
Firstly, they scan the needed things with a 3D scanner which takes the measurements, shape,
and color and the miscellaneous details and store the required information digitally.
These information feeds to the computer with the help of CAD (computer-aided design)
software.
294 | P a g e
These CAD models saved as a stereolithography file format on the computer.
Next, these files are sent to the slicer software exactly cuts the required shape of the things and
given this information to the 3D printer which prints the required things.
Benefits of 3D Printing:
Personalization: 3D printing processes allows mass customization; it brings in the ability to

personalize products according to individual needs and requirements.
Complexity: With 3D Printing, it is possible to manufacture complex shapes which are

sometimes impossible to be made with traditional manufacturing.
One-shot production: Via traditional manufacturing, the creation of tooling to build that first
product is the most cost, time and labor-intensive of all the processes. Whereas 3D Printing has
the capability to do one-shot production without requiring the tooling.
Environmental friendly: 3D printing manufactures additively, which means that it uses only as
much as raw material that is required to produce the final product. Thereby creating less wastage.
APPLICATIONS OF 3-D PRINTING:
Aerospace:
Engineers in the space & aerospace industries use 3D printing to manufacture high-performance
parts. The ability to create topology optimized structures with high strength-to-weight ratio and
the possibility to consolidate multiple components into a single part is particularly appealing.
For example, Optisys LLC is a provider of micro-antenna products for aerospace and defense
applications. They used metal 3D printing to reduce the number of discrete pieces of their
tracking antenna arrays from 100 to only 1. With this simplification, Optisys managed to reduce
the lead time from 11 to 2 months, while achieving a 95% weight reduction.
Automotive:
The automotive industry has significantly benefited from the fast turnaround and the ease of
customization offered by 3D printing.
Volkswagen traditionally used CNC machining to create custom jigs and fixtures. CNC has
typically longer production times and higher cost. The same jigs and fixtures could be 3D printed
overnight and tested on the assembly line the next day. Feedback from the operators was
incorporated almost immediately, and a new jig was ready to test the next day until the perfect
tool was created.
295 | P a g e
Education:
3-D printing technology has great potential in educational environments. With 3D printing, the
course subjects can be brought to life through scaled replicas. This equips the students with
practical (and very valuable) real-life experience.
Aerospace engineering students from the University of Glasgow worked together with Rolls
Royce to create a functional 3D printed jet engine model. The model gives instant feedback to
the students about changes they make during its operation, helping them gain very valuable
practical experience.
6.VIRTUAL REALITY
Virtual reality (VR) is a simulated experience that can be similar to or completely
different from the real world. Applications of virtual reality can include entertainment (i.e.
gaming) and educational purposes (i.e. medical or military training). Other, distinct types of VR
style technology include augmented reality and mixed reality.
Currently standard virtual reality systems use either virtual reality headsets or multi-projected
environments to generate realistic images, sounds and other sensations that simulate a user's
physical presence in a virtual environment. A person using virtual reality equipment is able to
look around the artificial world, move around in it, and interact with virtual features or items.
The effect is commonly created by VR headsets consisting of a head-mounted display with a
small screen in front of the eyes, but can also be created through specially designed rooms with
multiple large screens. Virtual reality typically incorporates auditory and video feedback, but
may also allow other types of sensory and force feedback through haptic technology.
Virtual reality can be divided into:
 The simulation of a real environment for training and education.

 The development of an imagined environment for a game or interactive story.
All reality-altering technology changes the way we perceive the world in some way, but virtual
reality (VR) completely changes the visual environment around us.
VR is an experience that takes users to a purely synthetic environment, which involves nothing
of the immediate reality that surrounds them. VR involves rendered graphics that fill your entire
vision and is usually complemented by 3D sounds to make the experience more real.
For the moment, gaming remains the main use case of VR. However, it is also being used in
professional work, such as training athletes, or real estate business.
296 | P a g e
Applications of Virtual Reality:
TRAVEL INDUSTRY:
Instead of flying around the world, you could enter the world of Virtual Reality. With VR
headsets advancing so rapidly we are left to think ―What‘s the next thing?‖. Soon we might have
full body VR suits that simulate temperature, wind and a variety of other sensations from the
environment we are transported to.
REAL ESTATE:
Virtual Reality has a prominent role to play in the housing market. This makes it easier for the
potential buyers to view properties at their convenience, reducing the need to travel.
BUSINESS:
A large amount of money will save by attending virtual conferences. Businessmen and women
from all over the world will no longer need to fly, stay in their places and attend the conferences.
Instead, from their home offices they simply put on their virtual reality goggles that are linked to
a real time feed and they are at a conference in the world.
VIRTUAL REALITY IN GAMING:
Virtual Reality, one of the breakthrough developments in technology, has brought about a
revolution in the gaming industry and has picked up momentum in every corner of the world
taking in its fold the interest of every generation. VR provides a commendable gaming
experience because of which there has been a surge in the demand of VR games.
Key Elements of a Virtual Reality Experience

 Virtual World
A virtual world is a three-dimensional environment that is often, but not necessarily, realized
through a medium (i.e. rendering, display, etc.) where one can interact with others and create
objects as part of that interaction. In a virtual world, visual perspectives are responsive to
changes in movement and interactions mimic those experienced in the real world.
 Immersion
Virtual reality immersion is the perception of being physically present in a non-physical world. It
encompasses the sense of presence, which is the point where the human brain believes that is
somewhere it is really not, and is accomplished through purely mental and/or physical means.
297 | P a g e
The state of total immersion exists when enough senses are activated to create the perception of
being present in a non-physical world. Two common types of immersion include:
1. Mental Immersion - A deep mental state of engagement, with suspension of disbelief

that one is in a virtual environment.
2. Physical Immersion - Exhibited physical engagement in a virtual environment, with
suspension of disbelief that one is in a virtual environment.
 Sensory Feedback
Virtual reality requires as many of our senses as possible to be simulated. These senses include
vision (visual), hearing (aural), touch (haptic), and more. Properly stimulating these sense
requires sensory feedback, which is achieved through integrated hardware and software (also
known as inputs). Examples of this hardware and inputs are discussed below as key components
to a virtual reality system, which include head mounted displays (HMD), special gloves or hand
accessories, and hand controls.
 Interactivity
The element of interaction is crucial for virtual reality experiences to provide users with enough
comfort to naturally engage with the virtual environment. If the virtual environment responds to
a user‘s action in a natural manner, excitement and senses of immersion will remain. If the
virtual environment cannot respond quick enough, the human brain will quickly notice and the
sense of immersion will diminish. Virtual environment responses to interaction can include the
way a participant moves around or changes in their viewpoint; generally through movements of
their head.
Types of Virtual Reality:
 Non-immersive simulations are the least immersive implementation of virtual reality

technology. In a non-immersive simulation, only a subset of the user's senses are
stimulated, allowing for peripheral awareness of the reality outside the virtual reality
simulation. Users enter into these three-dimensional virtual environments through a
portal or window by utilising standard high resolution monitors powered by processing
power typically found on conventional desktop workstations.
 Semi-immersive simulations provide a more immersive experience, in which the user

is partly but not fully immersed in a virtual environment. Semi-immersive simulations
closely resemble and utilize many of the same technologies found in flight simulation.
Semi-immersive simulations are powered by high performance graphical computing
systems, which are often then coupled with large screen projector systems or multiple
television projection systems to properly stimulate the user's visuals.
 Fully-immersive simulations provide the most immersive implementation of virtual

reality technology. In a fully-immersive simulation, hardware such as head-mounted
displays and motion detecting devices are used to stimulate all of a user's senses. Fully
298 | P a g e
immersive simulations are able to provide very realistic user experiences by delivering
a wide field of view, high resolutions, increased update rates (also called refresh rate),
and high levels of contrast into a user's head-mounted display (HMD).
7.Augmented Reality (AR)

Augmented reality is the integration of digital information with the user's environment in
real time. Unlike virtual reality, which creates a totally artificial environment, augmented reality
uses the existing environment and overlays new information on top of it.
Boeing researcher Thomas Caudell coined the term augmented reality in 1990, to
describe how the head-mounted displays that electricians used when assembling complicated
wiring harnesses worked. One of the first commercial applications of AR technology was the
yellow "first down" line that began appearing in televised football games sometime in 1998.
Augmented reality apps are written in special 3D programs that allow the developer to tie
animation or contextual digital information in the computer program to an augmented reality
"marker" in the real world. When a computing device's AR app or browser plug-in receives
digital information from a known marker, it begins to execute the marker's code and layer the
correct image or images.
AR applications for smart phones typically include global positioning system (GPS) to
pinpoint the user's location and its compass to detect device orientation. Sophisticated AR
programs used by the military for training may include machine vision, object recognition and
gesture recognition technologies.
Augmented Reality (AR) Categories
Several categories of augmented reality technology exist, each with varying differences
in their objectives and application use cases. Below, we explore the various types of technologies
that make up augmented reality:
Marker-based Augmented reality
Marker-based augmented reality (also called Image Recognition) uses a camera and some
type of visual markers, such as a QR/2D code, to produce a result only when the marker is
sensed by a reader. Marker-based applications use a camera on the device to distinguish a marker
from any other real-world object. Distinct, but simple patterns (such as a QR code) are used as
the markers because they can be easily recognized and do not require a lot of processing power
to read. The position and orientation are also calculated, in which some type of content and/or
information has then overlaid the marker.
299 | P a g e
Markerless Augmented reality
As one of the most widely implemented applications of augmented reality, markerless

(also called location-based, position-based, or GPS) augmented reality, uses a GPS, digital
compass, velocity meter, or accelerometer which is embedded in the device to provide data based
on your location. A strong force behind markerless augmented reality technology is the wide
availability of smartphones and location detection features they provide. It is most commonly
used for mapping directions, finding nearby businesses, and other location-centric mobile
applications.
Projection based Augmented Reality
Projection based augmented reality works by projecting artificial light onto real-world
surfaces. Projection based augmented reality applications allow for human interaction by sending
light onto a real-world surface and then sensing the human interaction (i.e. touch) of that
projected light. Detecting the user‘s interaction is done by differentiating between an expected
(or known) projection and the altered projection (caused by the user‘s interaction). Another
interesting application of projection-based augmented reality utilizes laser plasma technology to
project a three-dimensional (3D) interactive hologram into mid-air.
Superimposition based Augmented Reality
Superimposition based augmented reality either partially or fully replaces the original
view of an object with a newly augmented view of that same object. In superimposition based
augmented reality, object recognition plays a vital role because the application cannot replace the
original view with an augmented one if it cannot determine what the object is. A strong
consumer-facing example of superimposition based augmented reality could be found in the Ikea
augmented reality furniture catalogue. By downloading an app and scanning selected pages in
their printed or digital catalogue, users can place virtual IKEA furniture in their own home with
the help of augmented reality.
Augmented Reality Uses
Not only in gaming, which is ideal use of the AR - we can definitely use this reality in various
fields like:
 Literature
 Archaeology
 Architecture
 Visual art
 Commercial
 Education
 Industrial design
 Medical
 Military
300 | P a g e
 Navigation
 Workplace
 Broadcast and Live Events
 Tourism and sightseeing
 Translation
 Music
Augmented Reality has a wide scope to be adopted as it is combined with real world rather than
just containing digital world technology like Virtual Reality.
Benefits of AR:
1. Increase store visitors with digital marketing: By giving the information in maps
and a better understanding of the products available.
2. Better customer engagement by digital marketing: When customers find some
interesting stuff, they can be engaged by giving them customizing options.
3. Enhance print media: Print media can be made interactive with the help of
Augmented Reality. Have you heard about Porsche‘s Print Campaign? It lets a creature
sitting in the driver‘s seat of the upcoming cars and experience the 360-degree interior
of it, straight from the print ad in digitally.
4. Reduce Product Return Rate with the help of digital marketing:When people will
be able to properly imagine a product in a corner of their home and its size as well,
there will be a huge decrease in the number of returned products.
5. Better UX: User experience will be much better with the help of Augmented Reality
6. Break Language Barriers: When we give a chance for users to interact with a
product, there will be much less need to have a description in multiple languages.
The difference between Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR):
These two terms are used interchangeably, but in reality, there is a vast difference between the
two.
Virtual Reality is a computer-generated simulation of real life. We would be viewed as a

completely different reality than the one in front of you. It simulates your vision and hearing and
thus creates a simulation that you feel you are experiencing simulation in reality. Virtual Reality
is possible through a coding language, which is called VRML (Virtual Reality Modeling
Language).
VRML is a coding language, created to design three dimensional (3D) and web-based
models, textures and illusion. It also is known as Virtual Reality Markup Language. It is
designed to be used in internet, intranet and local client system.
Whereas in AR which is also known as Augmented Reality on top of the real world we
have computer-generated enhancements. Thus, bringing the digital world on top of the real world
it won‘t shut the real world like you have it in the virtual world.
301 | P a g e
CHAPTER – 8
Sustainable Development &
Environmental Protection
302 | P a g e
Sustainable Development:
―Development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of
future generations to meet their own needs.‖
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):

On 1 January 2016, the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of the 2030 Agenda
for Sustainable Development adopted by world leaders in September 2015 at a historic UN
Summit officially came into force. Over the next fifteen years, with these new Goals that
universally apply to all, countries will mobilize efforts to end all forms of poverty, fight
inequalities and tackle climate change, while ensuring that no one is left behind.
The SDGs build on the success of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and aim
to go further to end all forms of poverty. The new Goals are unique in that they call for action by
all countries, poor, rich, and middle-income to promote prosperity while protecting the planet.
They recognize that ending poverty must go hand-in-hand with strategies that build economic
growth and addresses a range of social needs including education, health, social protection, and
job opportunities, while tackling climate change and environmental protection.
Goal 1: End poverty in all its forms everywhere

More than 700 million people, or 10% of the world population, still live in extreme
poverty and is struggling to fulfill the most basic needs like health, education, and access to
water and sanitation, to name a few. The majorityof people living on less than $1.90 a day live in
sub-Saharan Africa. Worldwide, the poverty rate in rural areas is 17.2 percent—more than three
times higher than in urban areas.
Having a job does not guarantee a decent living. In fact, 8 percent of employed workers
and their families worldwide lived in extreme poverty in 2018. Poverty affects children
disproportionately. One out of five children lives in extreme poverty. Ensuring social protection
for all children and other vulnerable groups is critical to reducing poverty.
Poverty has many dimensions, but its causes include unemployment, social exclusion,
and high vulnerability of specific populations to disasters, diseases, and other phenomena which
prevent them from being productive. Growing inequality is detrimental to economic growth and
undermines social cohesion, increasing political and social tensions and, in some circumstances,
driving instability and conflicts.
303 | P a g e
Goal 1 Targets:
1.1 By 2030, eradicate extreme poverty for all people everywhere, currently measured as people
living on less than $1.25 a day
1.2 By 2030, reduce at least by half the proportion of men, women, and children of all ages
living in poverty in all its dimensions according to national definitions
1.3 Implement nationally appropriate social protection systems and measures for all, including
floors, and by 2030 achieve substantial coverage of the poor and the vulnerable
1.4 By 2030, ensure that all men and women, in particular, the poor and the weak, have equal
rights to economic resources, as well as access to essential services, ownership, and control over
land and other forms of property, inheritance, natural resources, appropriate new technology, and
financial services, including microfinance
1.5 By 2030, build the resilience of the poor and those in vulnerable situations and reduce their
exposure and vulnerability to climate-related extreme events and other economic, social and
environmental shocks and disasters
1.A Ensure significant mobilization of resources from a variety of sources, including through
enhanced development cooperation, to provide adequate and predictable means for developing
countries, in particular least developed countries, to implement programs and policies to end
poverty in all its dimensions
1.B Create sound policy frameworks at the national, regional and international levels, based on
pro-poor and gender-sensitive development strategies, to support accelerated investment in
poverty eradication actions
Goal 2: Zero Hunger

Right now, our soils, freshwater, oceans, forests, and biodiversity are being rapidly
degraded. Climate change is putting even more pressure on the resources we depend on,
increasing risks associated with disasters, such as droughts and floods. Many rural women and
men can no longer make ends meet on their land, forcing them to migrate to cities in search of
opportunities. Poor food security is also causing millions of children to be stunted, or too short
for the ages, due to severe malnutrition.
304 | P a g e
A profound change of the global food and agriculture system is needed if we are to
nourish the 815 million people who are hungry today and the additional 2 billion people
expected to be undernourished by 2050. Investments in agriculture are crucial to increasing the
capacity for agricultural productivity, and sustainable food production systems are necessary to
help alleviate the perils of hunger.
Hunger
 An estimated 821 million people were undernourished in 2017.

 The majority of the world‘s hungry people live in developing countries, where 12.9
percent of the population is undernourished.
 Sub-Saharan Africa remains the region with the highest prevalence of hunger, with the
rate increasing from 20.7 percent in 2014 to 23.2 percent in 2017.
 In sub-Saharan Africa, the number of hungry people increased from 195 million in 2014
to 237 million in 2017.
 Poor nutrition causes nearly half (45 percent) of deaths in children under five – 3.1
million children each year.
 One hundred forty-nine million children under five years of age—22 percent of the
global under-5 population—were still chronically hungry in 2018.
Food security
 Agriculture is the single largest employer in the world, providing livelihoods for 40
percent of today‘s global population. It is the largest source of income and jobs for poor
rural households.
 Five hundred million small farms worldwide, most still rainfed, provide up to 80 percent
of food consumed in large part of the developing world. Investing in smallholder women
and men is a crucial way to increase food security and nutrition for the poorest, as well as
food production for local and global markets.
 Since the 1900s, some 75 percent of crop diversity has been lost from farmers‘ fields.
Better use of agricultural biodiversity can contribute to more nutritious diets, enhanced
livelihoods for farming communities, and more resilient and sustainable farming systems.
 If women farmers had the same access to resources as men, the number of hungry in the
world could be reduced by up to 150 million.
 Eight hundred forty million people have no access to electricity worldwide – most of
whom live in rural areas of the developing world. Energy poverty in many regions is a
fundamental barrier to reducing hunger and ensuring that the world can produce enough
food to meet future demand.
305 | P a g e
Goal 2 Targets:
 2.1 By 2030, end hunger and ensure access by all people, in particular, the poor and
people in vulnerable situations, including infants, to safe, nutritious and sufficient food
all year round.
 2.2 By 2030, end all forms of malnutrition, including achieving, by 2025, the
internationally agreed targets on stunting and wasting in children underfive years of age,
and address the nutritional needs of adolescent girls, pregnant and lactating women and
older persons.
 2.3 By 2030, double the agricultural productivity and incomes of small-scale food
producers, in particular women, indigenous peoples, family farmers, pastoralists and
fishers, including through secure and equal access to land, other productive resources,
and inputs, knowledge, financial services, markets and opportunities for value addition
and non-farm employment.
 2.4 By 2030, ensure sustainable food production systems and implement resilient
agricultural practices that increase productivity and production, that help maintain
ecosystems, that strengthen capacity for adaptation to climate change, extreme weather,
drought, flooding, and other disasters and that progressively improve land and soil
quality.
 2.5 By 2020, maintain the genetic diversity of seeds, cultivated plants and farmed and
domesticated animals and their related wild species, including through soundly managed
and diversified seed and plant banks at the national, regional and international levels, and
promote access to and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of
genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge, as internationally agreed.
Goal 3: Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all
ages
Ensuring healthy lives and promoting well-being at all ages is essential to sustainable
development.
Significant strides have been made in increasing life expectancy and reducing some of
the common killers associated with child and maternal mortality, but working towards achieving
the target of less than 70 maternal deaths per 100,000 live births by 2030 would require
improvements in skilled delivery care.
Achieving the target of reducing premature deaths due to incommunicable diseases by

1/3 by the year 2030 would also require more efficient technologies for clean fuel use during
cooking and education on the risks of tobacco.
306 | P a g e
Child health:
 Seventeen thousand fewer children die each day than in 1990, but more than five million
children still die before their fifth birthday each year.
 Since 2000, measles vaccines have averted nearly 15.6 million deaths.
 Despite determined global progress, an increasing proportion of child deaths are in Sub-
Saharan Africa and Southern Asia. Four out of every five deaths of children under age
five occur in these regions.
 Children born into poverty are almost twice as likely to die before the age of five as those
from wealthier families.
 Children of educated mothers—even mothers with only primary schooling—are more
likely to survive than children of mothers with no education.
Maternal health
 Maternal mortality has fallen by 37% since 2000.

 In Eastern Asia, Northern Africa, and Southern Asia, maternal mortality has declined by
around two-thirds.
 But maternal mortality ratio – the proportion of mothers that do not survive childbirth
compared to those who do – in developing regions is still 14 times higher than in the
developed areas.
 More women are receiving antenatal care. In developing regions, prenatal care increased
from 65 percent in 1990 to 83 percent in 2012.
 Only half of women in developing regions receive the recommended amount of health
care they need.
 Fewer teens are having children in most developing regions, but progress has
slowed. The large increase in contraceptive use in the 1990s was not matched in the
2000s.
 The need for family planning is slowly being met for more women, but demand is
increasing at a rapid pace.
HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases
 36.9 million People globally were living with HIV in 2017.

 21.7 million million people were accessing antiretroviral therapy in 2017.
 1.8 million people became newly infected with HIV in 2017.
 940 000 people died from AIDS-related illnesses in 2017.
 77.3 million people have become infected with HIV since the start of the epidemic.
 35.4 million people have died from AIDS-related illnesses since the beginning of the
outbreak.
 Tuberculosis remains the leading cause of death among people living with HIV,
accounting for around one in three AIDS-related deaths.
307 | P a g e
 Globally, adolescent girls and young women face gender-based inequalities, exclusion,
discrimination and violence, which put them at increased risk of acquiring HIV.
 HIV is the leading cause of death for women of reproductive age worldwide.
 AIDS is now the leading cause of death among adolescents (aged 10–19) in Africa and
the second most common cause of death among adolescents globally.
 Over 6.2 million malaria deaths have been averted between 2000 and 2015, primarily of
children under five years of age in sub-Saharan Africa. The global malaria incidence rate
has fallen by an estimated 37 per cent and the mortality rates by 58 per cent.
Goal 3 Targets:
 3.1 By 2030, reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70 per 100,000 live
births.
 3.2 By 2030, end preventable deaths of newborns and children under 5 years of age, with
all countries aiming to reduce neonatal mortality to at least as low as 12 per 1,000 live
births and under-5 mortality to at least as low as 25 per 1,000 live births.
 3.3 By 2030, end the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria and neglected tropical
diseases and combat hepatitis, water-borne diseases and other infectious diseases.
 3.4 By 2030, reduce by one third premature mortality from non-communicable diseases
through prevention and treatment and promote mental health and well-being.
 3.5 Strengthen the prevention and treatment of substance abuse, including narcotic drug
abuse and harmful use of alcohol.
 3.6 By 2020, halve the number of global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents.
 3.7 By 2030, ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health-care services,
including for family planning, information and education, and the integration of
reproductive health into national strategies and programmes.
 3.8 Achieve universal health coverage, including financial risk protection, access to
quality essential health-care services and access to safe, effective, quality and affordable
essential medicines and vaccines for all.
 3.9 By 2030, substantially reduce the number of deaths and illnesses from hazardous
chemicals and air, water and soil pollution and contamination.
Goal 4 Quality Education

Over 265 million children are currently out of school and 22% of them are of primary
school age. Additionally, even the children who are attending schools are lacking necessary
skills in reading and math. In the past decade, significant progress has been made towards
increasing access to education at all levels and increasing enrollment rates in schools particularly
for women and girls. Necessary literacy skills have improved tremendously, yet bolder efforts
are needed to make even more significant strides for achieving universal education goals. For
308 | P a g e
example, the world has achieved equality in primary education between girls and boys, but few
countries have achieved that target at all levels of education.
The reasons for lack of quality education are due to lack of adequately trained teachers, poor
conditions of schools and equity issues related to opportunities provided to rural children. For
quality education to be provided to the children of impoverished families, investment is needed
in educational scholarships, teacher training workshops, school building and improvement of
water and electricity access to schools.
 Enrolment in primary education in developing countries has reached 91 per cent but 57
million prime age children remain out of school.
 More than half of children that have not enrolled in school live in sub-Saharan Africa.
 An estimated 50 per cent of out-of-school children of primary school age live in conflict-
affected areas.
 617 million youth worldwide lack basic mathematics and literacy skills.
Goal 4 Targets:
 4.1 By 2030, ensure that all girls and boys complete free, equitable and quality primary
and secondary education leading to relevant and Goal-4 effective learning outcomes
 4.2 By 2030, ensure that all girls and boys have access to quality early childhood
development, care and preprimary education so that they are ready for primary education
 4.3 By 2030, ensure equal access for all women and men to affordable and quality
technical, vocational and tertiary education, including university
 4.4 By 2030, substantially increase the number of youth and adults who have relevant
skills, including technical and vocational skills, for employment, decent jobs and
entrepreneurship
 4.5 By 2030, eliminate gender disparities in education and ensure equal access to all
levels of education and vocational training for the vulnerable, including persons with
disabilities, indigenous peoples and children in sensitive situations
 4.6 By 2030, ensure that all youth and a substantial proportion of adults, both men and
women, achieve literacy and numeracy
 4.7 By 2030, ensure that all learners acquire the knowledge and skills needed to promote
sustainable development, including, among others, through education for sustainable
development and sustainable lifestyles, human rights, gender equality, promotion of a
culture of peace and non-violence, global citizenship and appreciation of cultural
diversity and of culture‘s contribution to sustainable development.
309 | P a g e
Goal 5: Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls
Gender equality is not only a fundamental human right, but a necessary foundation for a
peaceful, prosperous and sustainable world. Unfortunately, at the current time, 1 in 5 women and
girls between the ages of 15-49 have reported experiencing physical or sexual violence by an
intimate partner within a 12-month period and 49 countries currently have no laws protecting
women from domestic violence. Progress is occurring regarding harmful practices such as child
marriage and FGM (Female Genital Mutilation), which has declined by 30% in the past decade,
but there is still much work to be done to complete eliminate such practices.
Providing women and girls with equal access to education, health care, decent work, and
representation in political and economic decision-making processes will fuel sustainable
economies and benefit societies and humanity at large. Implementing new legal frameworks
regarding female equality in the workplace and the eradication of harmful practices targeted at
women is crucial to ending the gender-based discrimination prevalent in many countries around
the world.
 Globally, 750 million women and girls were married before the age of 18 and at least 200
million women and girls in 30 countries have undergone FGM.
 The rates of girls between 15-19 who are subjected toFGM (female genital mutilation) in
the 30 countries where the practice is concentrated have dropped from 1 in 2 girls in 2000
to 1 in 3 girls by 2017.
 In 18 countries, husbands can legally prevent their wives from working; in 39 countries,
daughters and sons do not have equal inheritance rights; and 49 countries lack laws
protecting women from domestic violence.
 One in five women and girls, including 19 per cent of women and girls aged 15 to 49,
have experienced physical and/or sexual violence by an intimate partner with the last 12
months. Yet, 49 countries have no laws that specifically protect women from such
violence.
 While women have made important inroads into political office across the world, their
representation in national parliaments at 23.7 per cent is still far from parity.
 In 46 countries, women now hold more than 30 per cent of seats in national parliament in
at least one chamber.
 Only 52 per cent of women married or in a union freely make their own decisions about
sexual relations, contraceptive use and health care.
 Globally, women are just 13 per cent of agricultural land holders.
 Women in Northern Africa hold less than one in five paid jobs in the non-agricultural
sector. The proportion of women in paid employment outside the agriculture sector has
increased from 35 per cent in 1990 to 41 per cent in 2015.
 More than 100 countries have taken action to track budget allocations for gender equality.
 In Southern Asia, a girl‘s risk of marrying in childhood has dropped by over 40% since
2000.
310 | P a g e
Goal 5 Targets:
 5.1 End all forms of discrimination against all women and girls everywhere
 5.2 Eliminate all forms of violence against all women and girls in the public and private
spheres, including trafficking and sexual and other types of exploitation
 5.3 Eliminate all harmful practices, such as child, early and forced marriage and female
genital mutilation
 5.4 Recognize and value unpaid care and domestic work through the provision of public
services, infrastructure and social protection policies and the promotion of shared
responsibility within the household and the family as nationally appropriate
 5.5 Ensure women‘s full and effective participation and equal opportunities for leadership
at all levels of decisionmaking in political, economic and public life
 5.6 Ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health and reproductive rights as
agreed in accordance with the Programme of Action of the International Conference on
Population and Development and the Beijing Platform for Action and the outcome
documents of their review conferences
Goal 6: Ensure access to water and sanitation for all

Clean, accessible water for all is an essential part of the world we want to live in and
there is sufficient fresh water on the planet to achieve this. However, due to bad economics or
poor infrastructure, millions of people including children die every year from diseases associated
with inadequate water supply, sanitation and hygiene.
Water scarcity, poor water quality and inadequate sanitation negatively impact food
security, livelihood choices and educational opportunities for poor families across the world. At
the current time, more than 2 billion people are living with the risk of reduced access to
freshwater resources and by 2050, at least one in four people is likely to live in a country
affected by chronic or recurring shortages of fresh water. Drought in specific afflicts some of the
world‘s poorest countries, worsening hunger and malnutrition. Fortunately, there has been great
progress made in the past decade regarding drinking sources and sanitation, whereby over 90%
of the world‘s population now has access to improved sources of drinking water.
To improve sanitation and access to drinking water, there needs to be increased investment in
management of freshwater ecosystems and sanitation facilities on a local level in several
developing countries within Sub-Saharan Africa, Central Asia, Southern Asia, Eastern Asia and
South-Eastern Asia.
 1 in 4 health care facilities lacks basic water services

 3 in 10 people lack access to safely managed drinking water services and 6 in 10 people
lack access to safely managed sanitation facilities.
311 | P a g e
 At least 892 million people continue to practice open defecation.
 Women and girls are responsible for water collection in 80 per cent of households
without access to water on premises.
 Between 1990 and 2015, the proportion of the global population using an improved
drinking water source has increased from 76 per cent to 90 per cent
 Water scarcity affects more than 40 per cent of the global population and is projected to
rise. Over 1.7 billion people are currently living in river basins where water use exceeds
recharge.
 2.4 billion people lack access to basic sanitation services, such as toilets or latrines
 More than 80 per cent of wastewater resulting from human activities is discharged into
rivers or sea without any pollution removal
 Each day, nearly 1,000 children die due to preventable water and sanitation-related
diarrheal diseases
 Approximately 70 per cent of all water abstracted from rivers, lakes and aquifers is used
for irrigation
 Floods and other water-related disasters account for 70 per cent of all deaths related to
natural disasters
Goal 6 Targets:
6.1 By 2030, achieve universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking water for all
6.2 By 2030, achieve access to adequate and equitable sanitation and hygiene for all and end
open defecation, paying special attention to the needs of women and girls and those in vulnerable
situations
6.3 By 2030, improve water quality by reducing pollution, eliminating dumping and minimizing
release of hazardous chemicals and materials, halving the proportion of untreated wastewater and
substantially increasing recycling and safe reuse globally
6.4 By 2030, substantially increase water-use efficiency across all sectors and ensure sustainable
withdrawals and supply of freshwater to address water scarcity and substantially reduce the
number of people suffering from water scarcity
6.5 By 2030, implement integrated water resources management at all levels, including through
trans boundary cooperation as appropriate
6.6 By 2020, protect and restore water-related ecosystems, including mountains, forests,
wetlands, rivers, aquifers and lakes
312 | P a g e
Goal 7Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern
energy
At the current time, there are approximately 3 billion people who lack access to clean-
cooking solutions and are exposed to dangerous levels of air pollution. Additionally, slightly less
than 1 billion people are functioning without electricity and 50% of them are found in Sub-
Saharan Africa alone. Fortunately, progress has been made in the past decade regarding the use
of renewable electricity from water, solar and wind power and the ratio of energy used per unit
of GDP is also declining.
 13% of the global population still lacks access to modern electricity.

 3 billion people rely on wood, coal, charcoal or animal waste for cooking and heating
 Energy is the dominant contributor to climate change, accounting for around 60 per cent
of total global greenhouse gas emissions.
 Indoor air pollution from using combustible fuels for household energy caused 4.3
million deaths in 2012, with women and girls accounting for 6 out of every 10 of these.
 The share of renewable energy in final energy consumption has reached 17.5% in 2015.
Goal 7 Targets:
 7.1 By 2030, ensure universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy services
 7.2 By 2030, increase substantially the share of renewable energy in the global energy
mix
 7.3 By 2030, double the global rate of improvement in energy efficiency
Goal 8 Promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth,

employment and decent work for all
Roughly half the world‘s population still lives on the equivalent of about US$2 a day
with global unemployment rates of 5.7% and having a job doesn‘t guarantee the ability to escape
from poverty in many places. This slow and uneven progress requires us to rethink and retool our
economic and social policies aimed at eradicating poverty.
A continued lack of decent work opportunities, insufficient investments and under-

consumption lead to an erosion of the basic social contract underlying democratic societies: that
all must share in progress. Even though the average annual growth rate of real GDP per capita
worldwide is increasing year on year, there are still many countries in the developing world that
are decelerating in their growth rates and moving farther from the 7% growth rate target set for
2030. As labor productivity decreases and unemployment rates rise, standards of living begin to
decline due to lower wages.
313 | P a g e
 The global unemployment rate in 2017 was 5.6%, down from 6.4% in 2000.
 Globally, 61% of all workers were engaged in informal employment in 2016. Excluding
the agricultural sector, 51% of all workers fell into this employment category.
 Men earn 12.5% more than women in 40 out of 45 countries with data.
 The global gender pay gap stands at 23 per cent globally and without decisive action, it
will take another 68 years to achieve equal pay. Women‘s labour force participation rate
is 63 per cent while that of men is 94 per cent.
 Despite their increasing presence in public life, women continue to do 2.6 times the
unpaid care and domestic work that men do.
 470 million jobs are needed globally for new entrants to the labor market between 2016
and 2030.
Goal 8 Targets:
 8.1 Sustain per capita economic growth in accordance with national circumstances and, in
particular, at least 7 per cent gross domestic product growth per annum in the least
developed countries
 8.2 Achieve higher levels of economic productivity through diversification, technological
upgrading and innovation, including through a focus on high-value added and labour-
intensive sectors
 8.3 Promote development-oriented policies that support productive activities, decent job
creation, entrepreneurship, creativity and innovation, and encourage the formalization
and growth of micro-, small- and medium-sized enterprises, including through access to
financial services
 8.4 Improve progressively, through 2030, global resource efficiency in consumption and
production and endeavour to decouple economic growth from environmental degradation,
in accordance with the 10-year framework of programmes on sustainable consumption
and production, with developed countries taking the lead
 8.5 By 2030, achieve full and productive employment and decent work for all women and
men, including for young people and persons with disabilities, and equal pay for work of
equal value
 8.6 By 2020, substantially reduce the proportion of youth not in employment, education
or training
 8.7 Take immediate and effective measures to eradicate forced labour, end modern
slavery and human trafficking and secure the prohibition and elimination of the worst
forms of child labour, including recruitment and use of child soldiers, and by 2025 end
child labour in all its forms
 8.8 Protect labour rights and promote safe and secure working environments for all
workers, including migrant workers, in particular women migrants, and those in
precarious employment
 8.9 By 2030, devise and implement policies to promote sustainable tourism that creates
jobs and promotes local culture and products
314 | P a g e
Goal 9: Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable
industrialization and foster innovation
Investments in infrastructure – transport, irrigation, energy and information and
communication technology – are crucial to achieving sustainable development and empowering
communities in many countries. It has long been recognized that growth in productivity and
incomes, and improvements in health and education outcomes require investment in
infrastructure
Manufacturing is an important driver of economic development and employment. At the

current time, however, manufacturing value added per capita is only US$100 in the least
developed countries compared to over US$4,500 in Europe and Northern America. Another
important factor to consider is the emission of Carbon Dioxide during manufacturing processes.
Emissions have decreased over the past decade in many countries but the pace of decline has not
been even around the world.
 Basic infrastructure like roads, information and communication technologies, sanitation,

electrical power and water remains scarce in many developing countries
 16% of the global population does not have access to mobile broadband networks.
 For many African countries, particularly the lower-income countries, the existent
constraints regarding infrastructure affect firm productivity by around 40 per cent.
 The global share of manufacturing value added in GDP increased from 15.2% in 2005 to
16.3% in 2017, driven by the fast growth of manufacturing in Asia.
 Industrialization‘s job multiplication effect has a positive impact on society. Every job in
manufacturing creates 2.2 jobs in other sectors.
 Small and medium-sized enterprises that engage in industrial processing and
manufacturing are the most critical for the early stages of industrialization and are
typically the largest job creators. They make up over 90 per cent of business worldwide
and account for between 50-60 per cent of employment.
 Least developed countries have immense potential for industrialization in food and
beverages (agro-industry), and textiles and garments, with good prospects for sustained
employment generation and higher productivity
 Middle-income countries can benefit from entering the basic and fabricated metals
industries, which offer a range of products facing rapidly growing international demand
 In developing countries, barely 30 per cent of agricultural production undergoes
industrial processing. In high-income countries, 98 per cent is processed. This suggests
that there are great opportunities for developing countries in agribusiness.
315 | P a g e
Goal 9 Targets:
 9.1 Develop quality, reliable, sustainable and resilient infrastructure, including regional
and transborder infrastructure, to support economic development and human well-being,
with a focus on affordable and equitable access for all
 9.2 Promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization and, by 2030, significantly raise
industry‘s share of employment and gross domestic product, in line with national
circumstances, and double its share in least developed countries
 9.3 Increase the access of small-scale industrial and other enterprises, in particular in
developing countries, to financial services, including affordable credit, and their
integration into value chains and markets
 9.4 By 2030, upgrade infrastructure and retrofit industries to make them sustainable, with
increased resource-use efficiency and greater adoption of clean and environmentally
sound technologies and industrial processes, with all countries taking action in
accordance with their respective capabilities
 9.5 Enhance scientific research, upgrade the technological capabilities of industrial
sectors in all countries, in particular developing countries, including, by 2030,
encouraging innovation and substantially increasing the number of research and
development workers per 1 million people and public and private research and
development spending
Goal 10: Reduce inequality within and among countries

There is growing consensus that economic growth is not sufﬁcient to reduce poverty if it
is not inclusive and if it does not involve the three dimensions of sustainable development –
economic, social and environmental. Fortunately, income inequality has been reduced both
between and within countries. At the current time, the per capita income of 60 out of 94
countries with data has risen more rapidly than the national average. There has been some
progress regarding creating favorable access conditions for exports from least developing
countries as well.
To reduce inequality, policies should be universal in principle, paying attention to the

needs of disadvantaged and marginalized populations. There needs to be an increase in duty-free
treatment and continuation of favoring exports from developing countries, in addition to
increasing the share of developing countries‘ vote within the IMF. Finally, innovations in
technology can help reduce the cost of transferring money for migrant workers.
 In 2016, over 64.4% of products exported by the least developed countries to world
markets faced zero tariffs, an increase of 20% since 2010.
316 | P a g e
 Evidence from developing countries shows that children in the poorest 20 per cent of the
populations are still up to three times more likely to die before their fifth birthday than
children in the richest quintiles.
 Social protection has been significantly extended globally, yet persons with disabilities
are up to five times more likely than average to incur catastrophic health expenditures.
 Despite overall declines in maternal mortality in most developing countries, women in
rural areas are still up to three times more likely to die while giving birth than women
living in urban centers.
 Up to 30 per cent of income inequality is due to inequality within households, including
between women and men. Women are also more likely than men to live below 50 per
cent of the median income
Goal 10 Targets:
 10.1 By 2030, progressively achieve and sustain income growth of the bottom 40 per cent
of the population at a rate higher than the national average
 10.2 By 2030, empower and promote the social, economic and political inclusion of all,
irrespective of age, sex, disability, race, ethnicity, origin, religion or economic or other
status
 10.3 Ensure equal opportunity and reduce inequalities of outcome, including by
eliminating discriminatory laws, policies and practices and promoting appropriate
legislation, policies and action in this regard
 10.4 Adopt policies, especially fiscal, wage and social protection policies, and
progressively achieve greater equality
 10.5 Improve the regulation and monitoring of global financial markets and institutions
and strengthen the implementation of such regulations
 10.6 Ensure enhanced representation and voice for developing countries in decision-
making in global international economic and financial institutions in order to deliver
more effective, credible, accountable and legitimate institutions
 10.7 Facilitate orderly, safe, regular and responsible migration and mobility of people,
including through the implementation of planned and well-managed migration policies
Goal 11: Make cities inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable

Many challenges exist to maintaining cities in a way that continues to create jobs and
prosperity without straining land and resources. Common urban challenges include congestion,
lack of funds to provide basic services, a shortage of adequate housing, declining infrastructure
and rising air pollution within cities.
Rapid urbanization challenges, such as the safe removal and management of solid waste
within cities, can be overcome in ways that allow them to continue to thrive and grow, while
317 | P a g e
improving resource use and reducing pollution and poverty. One such example is an increase in
municipal waste collection. There needs to be a future in which cities provide opportunities for
all, with access to basic services, energy, housing, transportation and more.
 Half of humanity – 3.5 billion people – lives in cities today and 5 billion people are
projected to live in cities by 2030.
 95 per cent of urban expansion in the next decades will take place in developing world
 883 million people live in slums today and most them are found in Eastern and South-
Eastern Asia.
 The world‘s cities occupy just 3 per cent of the Earth‘s land, but account for 60-80 per
cent of energy consumption and 75 per cent of carbon emissions.
 Rapid urbanization is exerting pressure on fresh water supplies, sewage, the living
environment, and public health
 As of 2016, 90% of urban dwellers have been breathing unsafe air, resulting in 4.2
million deaths due to ambient air pollution. More than half of the global urban population
were exposed to air pollution levels at least 2.5 times higher than the safety standard.
Goal 11 Targets:
 11.1 By 2030, ensure access for all to adequate, safe and affordable housing and basic
services and upgrade slums
 11.2 By 2030, provide access to safe, affordable, accessible and sustainable transport
systems for all, improving road safety, notably by expanding public transport, with
special attention to the needs of those in vulnerable situations, women, children, persons
with disabilities and older persons
 11.3 By 2030, enhance inclusive and sustainable urbanization and capacity for
participatory, integrated and sustainable human settlement planning and management in
all countries
 11.4 Strengthen efforts to protect and safeguard the world‘s cultural and natural heritage
 11.5 By 2030, significantly reduce the number of deaths and the number of people
affected and substantially decrease the direct economic losses relative to global gross
domestic product caused by disasters, including water-related disasters, with a focus on
protecting the poor and people in vulnerable situations
 11.6 By 2030, reduce the adverse per capita environmental impact of cities, including by
paying special attention to air quality and municipal and other waste management
 11.7 By 2030, provide universal access to safe, inclusive and accessible, green and public
spaces, in particular for women and children, older persons and persons with disabilities
318 | P a g e
Goal 12: Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns
Sustainable consumption and production is about promoting resource and energy
efficiency, sustainable infrastructure, and providing access to basic services, green and decent
jobs and a better quality of life for all. Its implementation helps to achieve overall development
plans, reduce future economic, environmental and social costs, strengthen economic
competitiveness and reduce poverty.
At the current time, material consumption of natural resources is increasing, particularly

within Eastern Asia. Countries are also continuing to address challenges regarding air, water and
soil pollution.
Since sustainable consumption and production aims at ―doing more and better with less,‖
net welfare gains from economic activities can increase by reducing resource use, degradation
and pollution along the whole life cycle, while increasing quality of life. There also needs to be
significant focus on operating on supply chain, involving everyone from producer to final
consumer. This includes educating consumers on sustainable consumption and lifestyles,
providing them with adequate information through standards and labels and engaging in
sustainable public procurement, among others.
 Should the global population reach 9.6 billion by 2050, the equivalent of almost three
planets could be required to provide the natural resources needed to sustain current
lifestyles.
 With rises in the use of non-metallic minerals within infrastructure and construction,
there has been significant improvement in the material standard of living. The per capita
―material footprint‖ of developing countries increased from 5 metric tons in 2000 to 9
metric tons in 2017.
 93% of the world‘s 250 largest companies are now reporting on sustainability.
Water
1. Less than 3 per cent of the world‘s water is fresh (drinkable), of which 2.5 per cent is
frozen in the Antarctica, Arctic and glaciers. Humanity must therefore rely on 0.5 per
cent for all of man‘s ecosystem‘s and fresh water needs.
2. Humankind is polluting water in rivers and lakes faster than nature can recycle and purify
3. More than 1 billion people still do not have access to fresh water.
4. Excessive use of water contributes to the global water stress.
5. Water is free from nature but the infrastructure needed to deliver it is expensive.
319 | P a g e
Energy
 If people worldwide switched to energy efficient lightbulbs, the world would save
US$120 billion annually.
 Despite technological advances that have promoted energy efficiency gains, energy use in
OECD countries will continue to grow another 35 per cent by 2020. Commercial and
residential energy use is the second most rapidly growing area of global energy use after
transport.
 In 2002 the motor vehicle stock in OECD countries was 550 million vehicles (75 per cent
of which were personal cars). A 32 per cent increase in vehicle ownership is expected by
2020. At the same time, motor vehicle kilometers are projected to increase by 40 per cent
and global air travel is projected to triple in the same period.
 Households consume 29 per cent of global energy and consequently contribute to 21 per
cent of resultant CO2 emissions.
 The share of renewable energy in final energy consumption has reached 17.5% in 2015.
Food
 While substantial environmental impacts from food occur in the production phase
(agriculture, food processing), households influence these impacts through their dietary
choices and habits. This consequently affects the environment through food-related
energy consumption and waste generation.
 Each year, an estimated 1/3 of all food produced – equivalent to 1.3 billion tons worth
around $1 trillion – ends up rotting in the bins of consumers and retailers, or spoiling due
to poor transportation and harvesting practices
 2 billion people globally are overweight or obese.
 Land degradation, declining soil fertility, unsustainable water use, overfishing and marine
environment degradation are all lessening the ability of the natural resource base to
supply food.
 The food sector accounts for around 30 per cent of the world‘s total energy consumption
and accounts for around 22 per cent of total Greenhouse Gas emissions.
Goal 12 Targets:
 12.1 Implement the 10-year framework of programmes on sustainable consumption and

production, all countries taking action, with developed countries taking the lead, taking
into account the development and capabilities of developing countries
 12.2 By 2030, achieve the sustainable management and efficient use of natural resources
 12.3 By 2030, halve per capita global food waste at the retail and consumer levels and
reduce food losses along production and supply chains, including post-harvest losses
 12.4 By 2020, achieve the environmentally sound management of chemicals and all
wastes throughout their life cycle, in accordance with agreed international frameworks,
320 | P a g e
and significantly reduce their release to air, water and soil in order to minimize their
adverse impacts on human health and the environment
 12.5 By 2030, substantially reduce waste generation through prevention, reduction,
recycling and reuse
 12.6 Encourage companies, especially large and transnational companies, to adopt
sustainable practices and to integrate sustainability information into their reporting cycle
 12.7 Promote public procurement practices that are sustainable, in accordance with
national policies and priorities
 12.8 By 2030, ensure that people everywhere have the relevant information and
awareness for sustainable development and lifestyles in harmony with nature
Goal 13: Take urgent action to combat climate change and its
impacts
Climate change is now affecting every country on every continent. It is disrupting
national economies and affecting lives, costing people, communities and countries dearly today
and even more tomorrow. Weather patterns are changing, sea levels are rising, weather events
are becoming more extreme and greenhouse gas emissions are now at their highest levels in
history. Without action, the world‘s average surface temperature is likely to surpass 3 degrees
centigrade this century. The poorest and most vulnerable people are being affected the most.
To strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change, countries adopted
the Paris Agreement at the COP21 in Paris, which went into force in November of 2016. In the
agreement, all countries agreed to work to limit global temperature rise to well below 2 degrees
centigrade. As of April 2018, 175 parties had ratified the Paris Agreement and 10 developing
countries had submitted their first iteration of their national adaptation plans for responding to
climate change.
 As of April 2018, 175 parties had ratified the Paris Agreement and 168 parties had
communicated their first nationally determined contributions to the UN framework
convention on Climate Change Secretariat.
 As of April 2018, 10 developing countries had successfully completed and submitted
their first iteration of their national adaptation plans for responding to climate change.
 Developed country parties continue to make progress towards the goal of jointly
mobilizing $100 billion annually by 2020 for mitigation actions.
 From 1880 to 2012, average global temperature increased by 0.85°C. To put this into
perspective, for each 1 degree of temperature increase, grain yields decline by about 5 per
cent. Maize, wheat and other major crops have experienced significant yield reductions at
the global level of 40 megatons per year between 1981 and 2002 due to a warmer
climate.
321 | P a g e
 Oceans have warmed, the amounts of snow and ice have diminished and sea level has
risen.From 1901 to 2010, the global average sea level rose by 19 cm as oceans expanded
due to warming and ice melted. The Arctic‘s sea ice extent has shrunk in every
successive decade since 1979, with 1.07 million km² of ice loss every decade
 Given current concentrations and on-going emissions of greenhouse gases, it is likely that
by the end of this century, the increase in global temperature will exceed 1.5°C compared
to 1850 to 1900 for all but one scenario. The world‘s oceans will warm and ice melt will
continue. Average sea level rise is predicted as 24 – 30cm by 2065 and 40-63cm by 2100.
Most aspects of climate change will persist for many centuries even if emissions are
stopped
 Global emissions of carbon dioxide (CO2) have increased by almost 50 per cent since
1990
 Emissions grew more quickly between 2000 and 2010 than in each of the three previous
decades
 It is still possible, using a wide array of technological measures and changes in behavior,
to limit the increase in global mean temperature to two degrees Celsius above pre-
industrial levels
 Major institutional and technological change will give a better than even chance that
global warming will not exceed this threshold
Goal 13 Targets:
13.1 Strengthen resilience and adaptive capacity to climate-related hazards and natural disasters
in all countries
13.2 Integrate climate change measures into national policies, strategies and planning
13.3 Improve education, awareness-raising and human and institutional capacity on climate
change mitigation, adaptation, impact reduction and early warning
Goal 14: Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine
resources
The world‘s oceans – their temperature, chemistry, currents and life – drive global systems that
make the Earth habitable for humankind. Our rainwater, drinking water, weather, climate,
coastlines, much of our food, and even the oxygen in the air we breathe, are all ultimately
provided and regulated by the sea. Throughout history, oceans and seas have been vital conduits
for trade and transportation.
Careful management of this essential global resource is a key feature of a sustainable future.
However, at the current time, there is a continuous deterioration of coastal waters owing to
322 | P a g e
pollution and ocean acidification is having an adversarial effect on the functioning of ecosystems
and biodiversity. This is also negatively impacting small scale fisheries.
Marine protected areas need to be effectively managed and well-resourced and regulations need
to be put in place to reduce overfishing, marine pollution and ocean acidification.
 Oceans cover three quarters of the Earth‘s surface, contain 97 per cent of the Earth‘s
water, and represent 99 per cent of the living space on the planet by volume.
 Over three billion people depend on marine and coastal biodiversity for their livelihoods.
 Globally, the market value of marine and coastal resources and industries is estimated at
$3 trillion per year or about 5 per cent of global GDP.
 Oceans contain nearly 200,000 identified species, but actual numbers may lie in the
millions.
 Oceans absorb about 30 per cent of carbon dioxide produced by humans, buffering the
impacts of global warming.
 Oceans serve as the world‘s largest source of protein, with more than 3 billion people
depending on the oceans as their primary source of protein
 Marine fisheries directly or indirectly employ over 200 million people.
 Subsidies for fishing are contributing to the rapid depletion of many fish species and are
preventing efforts to save and restore global fisheries and related jobs, causing ocean
fisheries to generate US$50 billion less per year than they could.
 Open Ocean sites show current levels of acidity have increased by 26 per cent since the
start of the Industrial Revolution.
 Coastal waters are deteriorating due to pollution and eutrophication. Without concerted
efforts, coastal eutrophication is expected to increase in 20 percent of large marine
ecosystems by 2050.
Goal 14 Targets:
 14.1 By 2025, prevent and significantly reduce marine pollution of all kinds, in particular
from land-based activities, including marine debris and nutrient pollution
 14.2 By 2020, sustainably manage and protect marine and coastal ecosystems to avoid
significant adverse impacts, including by strengthening their resilience, and take action
for their restoration in order to achieve healthy and productive oceans
 14.3 Minimize and address the impacts of ocean acidification, including through
enhanced scientific cooperation at all levels
 14.4 By 2020, effectively regulate harvesting and end overfishing, illegal, unreported and
unregulated fishing and destructive fishing practices and implement science-based
management plans, in order to restore fish stocks in the shortest time feasible, at least to
levels that can produce maximum sustainable yield as determined by their biological
characteristics
323 | P a g e
 14.5 By 2020, conserve at least 10 per cent of coastal and marine areas, consistent with
national and international law and based on the best available scientific information
 14.6 By 2020, prohibit certain forms of fisheries subsidies which contribute to
overcapacity and overfishing, eliminate subsidies that contribute to illegal, unreported
and unregulated fishing and refrain from introducing new such subsidies, recognizing that
appropriate and effective special and differential treatment for developing and least
developed countries should be an integral part of the World Trade Organization fisheries
subsidies negotiation
 14.7 By 2030, increase the economic benefits to Small Island developing States and least
developed countries from the sustainable use of marine resources, including through
sustainable management of fisheries, aquaculture and tourism
Goal 15 Sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, halt

and reverse land degradation, halt biodiversity loss
Forests cover 30.7 per cent of the Earth‘s surface and, in addition to providing food
security and shelter, they are key to combating climate change, protecting biodiversity and the
homes of the indigenous population. By protecting forests, we will also be able to strengthen
natural resource management and increase land productivity.
At the current time, thirteen million hectares of forests are being lost every year while the
persistent degradation of drylands has led to the desertification of 3.6 billion hectares. Even
though up to 15% of land is currently under protection, biodiversity is still at risk. Deforestation
and desertification – caused by human activities and climate change – pose major challenges to
sustainable development and have affected the lives and livelihoods of millions of people in the
fight against poverty.
Efforts are being made to manage forests and combat desertification. There are two
international agreements being implemented currently that promote the use of resources in an
equitable way. Financial investments in support of biodiversity are also being provided.
The Lion’s Share Fund
On 21 June, 2018, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), FINCH and
founding partner Mars, Incorporated, announced the Lion’s Share, an initiative aimed at
transforming the lives of animals across the world by asking advertisers to contribute a
percentage of their media spend to conservation and animal welfare projects. The Lion‘s
Share will see partners contribute 0.5 percent of their media spend to the fund for each
advertisement they use featuring an animal. Those funds will be used to support animals and
their habitats around the world. The Fund is seeking to raise US$100m a year within three years,
324 | P a g e
with the money being invested in a range of wildlife conservation and animal welfare programs
to be implemented by United Nations and civil society organizations.
Forests
 Around 1.6 billion people depend on forests for their livelihood, including 70 million
indigenous people.
 Forests are home to more than 80 per cent of all terrestrial species of animals, plants and
insects.
 Between 2010 and 2015, the world lost 3.3 million hectares of forest areas. Poor rural
women depend on common pool resources and are especially affected by their depletion.
Desertification
 2.6 billion people depend directly on agriculture, but 52 per cent of the land used for
agriculture is moderately or severely affected by soil degradation.
 Arable land loss is estimated at 30 to 35 times the historical rate
 Due to drought and desertification, 12 million hectares are lost each year (23 hectares per
minute). Within one year, 20 million tons of grain could have been grown.
 74 per cent of the poor are directly affected by land degradation globally.
Biodiversity
 Illicit poaching and trafficking of wildlife continues to thwart conservation efforts, with
nearly 7,000 species of animals and plants reported in illegal trade involving 120
countries.
 Of the 8,300 animal breeds known, 8 per cent are extinct and 22 per cent are at risk of
extinction.
 Of the over 80,000 tree species, less than 1 per cent have been studied for potential use.
 Fish provide 20 per cent of animal protein to about 3 billion people. Only ten species
provide about 30 per cent of marine capture fisheries and ten species provide about 50
per cent of aquaculture production.
 Over 80 per cent of the human diet is provided by plants. Only three cereal crops – rice,
maize and wheat – provide 60 per cent of energy intake.
 As many as 80 per cent of people living in rural areas in developing countries rely on trad
itional plant-‐ based medicines for basic healthcare.
 Micro-organisms and invertebrates are key to ecosystem services, but their contributions
are still poorly known and rarely acknowledged.
325 | P a g e
Goal 15 Targets:
 15.1 By 2020, ensure the conservation, restoration and sustainable use of terrestrial and
inland freshwater ecosystems and their services, in particular forests, wetlands,
mountains and drylands, in line with obligations under international agreements
 15.2 By 2020, promote the implementation of sustainable management of all types of
forests, halt deforestation, restore degraded forests and substantially increase
afforestation and reforestation globally
 15.3 By 2030, combat desertification, restore degraded land and soil, including land
affected by desertification, drought and floods, and strive to achieve a land degradation-
neutral world
 15.4 By 2030, ensure the conservation of mountain ecosystems, including their
biodiversity, in order to enhance their capacity to provide benefits that are essential for
sustainable development
 15.5 Take urgent and significant action to reduce the degradation of natural habitats, halt
the loss of biodiversity and, by 2020, protect and prevent the extinction of threatened
species
 15.6 Promote fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the utilization of
genetic resources and promote appropriate access to such resources, as internationally
agreed
 15.7 Take urgent action to end poaching and trafficking of protected species of flora and
fauna and address both demand and supply of illegal wildlife products
 15.8 By 2020, introduce measures to prevent the introduction and significantly reduce the
impact of invasive alien species on land and water ecosystems and control or eradicate
the priority species
 15.9 By 2020, integrate ecosystem and biodiversity values into national and local
planning, development processes, poverty reduction strategies and accounts
Goal 16: Promote just, peaceful and inclusive societies

The threats of international homicide, violence against children, human trafficking and
sexual violence are important to address to promote peaceful and inclusive societies for
sustainable development. They pave the way for the provision of access to justice for all and for
building effective, accountable institutions at all levels.
While homicide and trafficking cases have seen significant progress over the past decade,
there are still thousands of people at greater risk of intentional murder within Latin America,
Sub-Saharan Africa and around Asia. Children‘s rights violations through aggression and sexual
violence continue to plague many countries around the world, especially as under-reporting and
lack of data aggravate the problem.
326 | P a g e
 Among the institutions most affected by corruption are the judiciary and police.
 Corruption, bribery, theft and tax evasion cost some US $1.26 trillion for developing
countries per year; this amount of money could be used to lift those who are living on
less than $1.25 a day above $1.25 for at least six years
 Birth registration has occurred for 73 per cent of children under 5, but only 46% of Sub-
Saharan Africa have had their births registered.
 Approximately 28.5 million primary school age who are out of school live in conflict-
affected areas.
 The rule of law and development have a significant interrelation and are mutually
reinforcing, making it essential for sustainable development at the national and
international level.
 The proportion of prisoners held in detention without sentencing has remained almost
constant in the last decade, at 31% of all prisoners.
Violence against children
 Violence against children affects more than 1 billion children around the world and costs
societies up to US$ 7 trillion a year.
 50% of the world‘s children experience violence every year.
 Every 5 minutes, somewhere in the world, a child is killed by violence
 1 in 10 children is sexually abused before the age of 18.
 9 in 10 children live in countries where corporal punishment is not fully prohibited,
leaving 732 million children without legal protection.
 1 in 3 internet users worldwide is a child and 800 million of them use social media. Any
child can become a victim of online violence.
 Child online sexual abuse reports to NCMEC has grown from 1 million in 2014 to 45
million in 2018.
 246 million children worldwide affected by school-related violence each year.
 1 in 3 students has been bullied by their peers at school in the last month, and at least 1 in
10 children have experienced cyberbullying.
Goal 16 Targets:
 16.1 Significantly reduce all forms of violence and related death rates everywhere
 16.2 End abuse, exploitation, trafficking and all forms of violence against and torture of
children
 16.3 Promote the rule of law at the national and international levels and ensure equal
access to justice for all
 16.4 By 2030, significantly reduce illicit financial and arms flows, strengthen the
recovery and return of stolen assets and combat all forms of organized crime
327 | P a g e
 16.5 Substantially reduce corruption and bribery in all their forms
 16.6 Develop effective, accountable and transparent institutions at all levels
 16.7 Ensure responsive, inclusive, participatory and representative decision-making at all

levels
 16.8 Broaden and strengthen the participation of developing countries in the institutions
of global governance
 16.9 By 2030, provide legal identity for all, including birth registration
 16.10 Ensure public access to information and protect fundamental freedoms, in

accordance with national legislation and international agreements
Goal 17: Revitalize the global partnership for sustainable

development
Urgent action is needed to mobilize, redirect and unlock the transformative power of
trillions of dollars of private resources to deliver on sustainable development objectives. Long-
term investments, including foreign direct investment, are needed in critical sectors, especially in
developing countries. These include sustainable energy, infrastructure and transport, as well as
information and communications technologies. The public sector will need to set a clear
direction. Review and monitoring frameworks, regulations and incentive structures that enable
such investments must be retooled to attract investments and reinforce sustainable development.
National oversight mechanisms such as supreme audit institutions and oversight functions by
legislatures should be strengthened.
 Official development assistance stood at $146.6 billion in 2017. This represents a

decrease of 0.6 per cent in real terms over 2016.
 79 per cent of imports from developing countries enter developed countries duty-free
 The debt burden on developing countries remains stable at about 3 per cent of export
revenue
 The number of Internet users in Africa almost doubled in the past four years
 30 per cent of the world‘s youth are digital natives, active online for at least five years
328 | P a g e
 But more four billion people do not use the Internet, and 90 per cent of them are from the
developing world
Goal 17 Targets:
Finance
17.1 Strengthen domestic resource mobilization, including through international support to

developing countries, to improve domestic capacity for tax and other revenue collection
17.2 Developed countries to implement fully their official development assistance commitments,
including the commitment by many developed countries to achieve the target of 0.7 per cent of
ODA/GNI to developing countries and 0.15 to 0.20 per cent of ODA/GNI to least developed
countries ODA providers are encouraged to consider setting a target to provide at least 0.20 per
cent of ODA/GNI to least developed countries
17.3 Mobilize additional financial resources for developing countries from multiple sources
17.4 Assist developing countries in attaining long-term debt sustainability through coordinated
policies aimed at fostering debt financing, debt relief and debt restructuring, as appropriate, and
address the external debt of highly indebted poor countries to reduce debt distress
17.5 Adopt and implement investment promotion regimes for least developed countries
Technology
17.6 Enhance North-South, South-South and triangular regional and international cooperation on
and access to science, technology and innovation and enhance knowledge sharing on mutually
agreed terms, including through improved coordination among existing mechanisms, in
particular at the United Nations level, and through a global technology facilitation mechanism
17.7 Promote the development, transfer, dissemination and diffusion of environmentally sound
technologies to developing countries on favourable terms, including on concessional and
preferential terms, as mutually agreed
17.8 Fully operationalize the technology bank and science, technology and innovation capacity-
building mechanism for least developed countries by 2017 and enhance the use of enabling
technology, in particular information and communications technology.
329 | P a g e
Capacity building
17.9 Enhance international support for implementing effective and targeted capacity-building in
developing countries to support national plans to implement all the sustainable development
goals, including through North-South, South-South and triangular cooperation
Trade
17.10 Promote a universal, rules-based, open, non-discriminatory and equitable multilateral

trading system under the World Trade Organization, including through the conclusion of
negotiations under its Doha Development Agenda
17.11 Significantly increase the exports of developing countries, in particular with a view to
doubling the least developed countries‘ share of global exports by 2020
17.12 Realize timely implementation of duty-free and quota-free market access on a lasting basis
for all least developed countries, consistent with World Trade Organization decisions, including
by ensuring that preferential rules of origin applicable to imports from least developed countries
are transparent and simple, and contribute to facilitating market access
Systemic issues
Policy and institutional coherence
17.13 Enhance global macroeconomic stability, including through policy coordination and policy
coherence
17.14 Enhance policy coherence for sustainable development
17.15 Respect each country‘s policy space and leadership to establish and implement policies for
poverty eradication and sustainable development
Multi-stakeholder partnerships
17.16 Enhance the global partnership for sustainable development, complemented by multi-
stakeholder partnerships that mobilize and share knowledge, expertise, technology and financial
resources, to support the achievement of the sustainable development goals in all countries, in
particular developing countries
330 | P a g e
17.17 Encourage and promote effective public, public-private and civil society partnerships,
building on the experience and resourcing strategies of partnerships
Data, monitoring and accountability
17.18 By 2020, enhance capacity-building support to developing countries, including for least
developed countries and small island developing States, to increase significantly the availability
of high-quality, timely and reliable data disaggregated by income, gender, age, race, ethnicity,
migratory status, disability, geographic location and other characteristics relevant in national
contexts
17.19 By 2030, build on existing initiatives to develop measurements of progress on sustainable

development that complement gross domestic product, and support statistical capacity-building
in developing countries
( This article is extract from the UN official website for Sustainable Development with minor
modification )
331 | P a g e
ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION
Environmental protection is the practice of protecting the natural environment by
individuals, organizations and governments.. Its objectives are to conserve natural resources and
the existing natural environment and, where possible, to repair damage and reverse trends.Due to
the pressures of overconsumption, population growth and technology, the biophysical
environment is being degraded, sometimes permanently. This has been recognized, and
governments have begun placing restraints on activities that cause environmental degradation.
Environmental protection refers to any activity to maintain or restore the quality of
environmental media through preventing the emission of pollutants or reducing the presence of
polluting substances in environmental media. It is achieved by
(a) changes in characteristics of goods and services,
(b) changes in consumption patterns,
(c) changes in production techniques,
(d) treatment or disposal of residuals in separate environmental protection facilities,
(e) recycling, and
(f) prevention of degradation of the landscape and ecosystems.
Environmental Protection covers three separate areas. (1) Threatened and Endangered
species, (2) Habitat for naturally occurring species, and (3) runoff from construction sites. The
T&E species are animals that have limited ability to sustain native populations on their own.
Each state and each geographical region in these states have their own protected species and
environments. An example of an endangered species is the Bald Eagle.
Habitat for naturally occurring species includes wetlands, marshes, and beach shoreline
and mountain climates. Due to climate change and possible global warming habitat for native
species is disappearing and being replaced with timbered areas, pasture and housing
developments. Environmental permits are needed for man-made improvements to the land.
Finally, most states have regulations that require erosion and sediment control and
placement of control devices prior to any construction taking place. This prevents large scale
erosion and pollution of streams and waterways.
332 | P a g e
Importance of Environmental Protection:
1.Without environmental protection and regulation,
 Industry would have unlimited ability to produce chemicals for use as pesticides,
additives, etc. without being required to measure their effects on people or their
accumulation in water or soils and their impact on the environment, their toxicity, and
potential exposure hazard
 Waste water would be monitored, but there would be no limits or benchmarks for the
levels of contaminants in the water
 Automobile manufacturers would not be required to adhere to achieve a specific
benchmark for noxious gas output, and cars would not be monitored for their output
over time. It is debatable if gas mileage would be a consideration, as the only
motivator for manufacturers to increase fuel economy would be the price of fuel and
consumer willingness to bear the burden of fuel costs
 Industry would not be limited in the amount of noxious gases it produces through
combustion. Smog would not be monitored and there would be no limits on emissions,
leaving people and the environment at risk.
2.The more we exploit and degrade our environment, the more ecological imbalance we create;
ultimately putting the very human existence at risk- after all the world runs with competition, co-
operation and co-existence.Every species is dependent on every other species for survival, be
directly or indirectly. Human beings are the ones who depend on maximum number of species
for not only his survival but also for his development needs. Threat to ecology means a direct
threat to human race due to man induced natural disaster caused by ecological imbalance and
environmental degradation for which we cannot forgive ourselves.
3.Right to Life and Right against Exploitation are Fundamental Rights of all organisms dwelling
on Earth. We (all organism, us included) have the right to demand protection when threatened by
any other organism.
If a terrorist threatens to disrupt social order, demand protection. If a virus threatens to infect
you, demand protection (vaccination).
4.The Environment is the most important resource for life. We get water, power and Oxygen
from the Environment. It helps to clear pollution and is a large habitat for animals. Earth is
getting polluted by poisonous gases and fumes made by cars and factories. A clean environment
is essential for healthy living. Air pollution can cause respiratory diseases and cancer, among
other problems and diseases. Water pollution can lead to typhoid, diarrheal diseases, and other
water-related diseases. Therefore we should keep our environment clean and protected.
5.It helps make the world a beautiful place for one, and it makes populations healthier when the
environment around them is healthy (cleaner air, less pollution, etc). There are also many
333 | P a g e
products that we depend on from the wild that can not be made anywhere else. A healthy
environment produces great wealth in the form of many resources and a healthier population, it
pays to take care of the world around us. A healthy environment is also much less likely to cause
large problems. Lush green land is much less a deadly fire hazard than dry brown clearcutfeilds,
and is much less likely to cause landslides.And the biggest reason of all: because we are part of
the environment. We are not some separate entity to it, what affects the environment affects us
all.
Human Role in Protecting Environment:
Everything from the roots of trees underground to the air we breathe is part of the
environment, and the health of each part affects the health of the whole. There are a lot of threats
to the environment. These include climate change caused by greenhouse gasses, air and water
pollution, deforestation, and more. As a result of so many serious environmental threats, the
earth is changing. Melting glaciers are destroying habitat in the Arctic; plants and animals are
becoming extinct at a staggering rate. It's easy to look at that list and feel small and insignificant.
After all, the earth has over 7 billion people
Individual Role in Environmental Protection:
The idea that individuals can't affect change is a myth. Every person has to make his or
her own choices about protecting the environment. If everyone in a democracy decided their vote
didn't matter, nobody would vote. If democracy can work, then environmental production also
works.
Source reduction- This is way more effective than anything anyone else will suggest.
Yes, recycling is awesome (and reusing even better), but assessing your needs and
avoiding excess consumption is the most environmentally sound way to go about buying
something.
Invest in reusable products- Get a nice, BPA free water bottle. Find a really sturdy
mechanical pencil- my metal one has lasted me about three years now.
Grow your own food- It's quite common in Poland (and much of eastern Europe) to grow
your own vegetables and can them for the winter, but since I moved to the United States,
I've noticed it's less common here. I don't know if that's a cultural thing, but I find it very
interesting!
Invest in local business- By spending your money wisely, not only are you providing
economic stimulus for the community in which you live, but you're also preventing
whatever products/goods you buy from being shipped halfway across the globe. Eat local
foods and buy local things!
334 | P a g e
Make as much of your own stuff as possible- Make your own clothes (maybe a scarf for
the winter or something if you're not that fabric-savvy), make your own toothpaste, soap,
shampoo, etc. from organic, locally sought materials, which reduces carbon emissions and
the use of industrial waste from many huge companies that just pump sludge into the
ocean or into landfills. Gross.
Use cleaner technology/transportation- If you live in a city, you might be able to walk or
ride a bike to work. If not, public transportation is better than driving your own car. If you
do drive your own car (of course, that's often unavoidable) try to keep the driving to a
minimum and buy greener cars. Do your research!
Don't waste water- Turn off the water when you brush your teeth or shampoo your hair.
Only fill up a cup with as much as you're going to reasonably drink. If you carry around a
water bottle, and you have water left at the end of the day that you're not going to drink,
water your plants- just don't mindlessly dump it down the drain when you can use it for
something useful.
Keep up with environmental issues- Science is a field that is constantly changing. New
developments on the environment are an everyday occurrence as this is one of science's
defining characteristics. Have proper environmental intellect!
Last, and most importantly, educate- You seem like the kind of person who believes
that our world is in deep environmental trouble (why else would you be asking this
question). I'm very happy that people are asking this question, and it's important that more
and more people are asking this same question- "What can I do to help?" Spread the word,
be excited and passionate about our natural world, preserve biodiversity, and never stop
doing your part! Convince others that individuals matter!
ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION ACT

The Environment (Protection) Act was enacted in 1986 with the objective of providing for the
protection and improvement of the environment. It empowers the Central Government to
establish authorities [under section 3(3)] charged with the mandate of preventing environmental
pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific environmental problems that are peculiar to
different parts of the country. The Act was last amended in 1991.
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
An Act to provide for the protection and improvement of environment and for matters
connected therewith.
Whereas the decisions were taken at the United Nations Conference on the Human
Environment held at Stockholm in June, 1972, in which India participated, to take appropriate
335 | P a g e
steps for the protection and improvement of human environment;
And Whereas it is considered necessary further to implement the decisions aforesaid in so far
as they relate to the protection and improvement of environment and the prevention of hazards
to human beings, other living creatures, plants and property;
Be it enacted by Parliament in the Thirty-seventh Year of the Republic of India as follows:-
1. Power of Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environment

- (1) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Central Government, shall have the power to
take all such measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and
improving the quality of the environment and preventing controlling and abating
environmental pollution.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of sub- section
(1), such measures may include measures with respect to all or any of the following
matters, namely:-
(i) co-ordination of actions by the State Governments, officers and other
authorities-
(a) under this Act, or the rules made thereunder,or
(b) under any other law for the time being in force which is relatable to the
objects of thisAct;
(ii) planning and execution of a nation-wide programme for the prevention, control
and abatement of environmentalpollution;
(iii) laying down standards for the quality of environment in its variousaspects;
(iv) laying down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants
from various sourceswhatsoever:
Provided that different standards for emission or discharge may be laid down
under this clause from different sources having regard to the quality or
composition of the emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from such
sources;
(v) restriction of areas in which any industries, operations or processes orclass of
industries, operations or processes shall not be carried out or shall be carried
out subject to certainsafeguards;
(vi) laying down procedures and safeguards for the prevention of accidents which
may cause environmental pollution and remedial measures for such accidents;
(vii) laying down procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous
336 | P a g e
substances;
(viii) examination of such manufacturing processes, materials and substances as are
likely to cause environmentalpollution;
(ix) carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of
environmental pollution;
(x) inspection of any premises, plant, equipment, machinery, manufacturing or
other processes, materials or substances and giving, by order, of such directions
to such authorities, officers or persons as it may consider
2. Powers of entry and inspection - (1) Subject to the provisions of this section, any person
empowered by the Central Government in this behalf shall have a right to enter, at all
reasonable times with such assistance as he considers necessary, anyplace-
(a) for the purpose of performing any of the functions of the Central Government
entrusted to him;
(b) for the purpose of determining whether and if so in what manner, any such
functions are to be performed or whether any provisions of this Act or the rules
made there under or any notice, order, direction or authorisation served, made,
given or granted under this Act is being or has been complied with;
(c) for the purpose of examining and testing any equipment, industrial plant,
record, register, document or any other material object or for conducting a
search of any building in which he has reason to believe that an offence under
this Act or the rules made there under has been or is being or is about to be
committed and for seizing any such equipment, industrial plant, record, register,
document or other material object if he has reason to believe that it may furnish
evidence of the commission of an offence punishable under this Act or the rules
made there under or that such seizure is necessary to prevent or mitigate
environmental pollution.
(2) Every person carrying on any industry, operation or process of handling any hazardous
substance shall be bound to render all assistance to the person empowered by the
Central Government under sub-section (1) for carrying out the functions under that
sub-section and if he fails to do so without any reasonable cause or excuse, he shall be
guilty of an offence under this Act.
(3) If any person wilfully delays or obstructs any persons empowered by the Central
Government under sub-section (1) in the performance of his functions, he shall be
guilty of an offence under this Act.
337 | P a g e
(4) The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, or, in relation to the State of
Jammu and Kashmir, or an area in which that Code is not in force, the provisions of
any corresponding law in force in that State or area shall, so far as may be, apply to any
search or seizures under this section as they apply to any search or seizure made under
the authority of a warrant issued under section 94 of the said Code or as the case may
be, under the corresponding provision of the said law.
3. Power to take sample and procedure to be followed in connection there with

- (1) The Central Government or any officer empowered by it in this behalf, shall have power
to take, for the purpose of analysis, samples of air, water, soil or other substance from any
factory, premises or other place in such manner as may be prescribed.
(2) The result of any analysis of a sample taken under sub-section (1) shall not be
admissible in evidence in any legal proceeding unless the provisions of sub- sections
(3) and (4) are complied with.
(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-section (4), the person taking the sample under sub-
section (1)shall-
(a) serve on the occupier or his agent or person in charge of the place, a notice,
then and there, in such form as may be prescribed, of his intention to have it so
analysed;
(b) in the presence of the occupier of his agent or person, collect a sample for
analysis;
(c) cause the sample to be placed in a container or containers which shall be
marked and sealed and shall also be signed both by the person taking the
sample and the occupier or his agent or person;
(d) send without delay, the container or the containers to the laboratory established
or recognised by the Central Government under section12.
(4) When a sample is taken for analysis under sub-section (1) and the person taking
thesampleservesontheoccupierorhisagentorperson,anoticeunderclause
(a) of sub-section (3),then,-
(a) in a case where the occupier, his agent or person wilfully absents himself, the
person taking the sample shall collect the sample for analysis to be placed in a
container or containers which shall be marked and sealed and shall also be
signed by the person taking the sample, and
(b) in a case where the occupier or his agent or person present at the time of taking
the sample refuses to sign the marked and sealed container or containers of the
sample as required under clause (c) of sub-section (3), the marked and sealed
338 | P a g e
container or containers shall be signed by the person taking the samples, and
the container or containers shall be sent without delay by the person taking the
sample for analysis to the laboratory established or recognised under section 12
and such person shall inform the Government Analyst appointed or recognised
under section 12 in writing, about the wilfull absence of the occupier or his
agent or person, or, as the case may be, his refusal to sign the container or
containers.
4. Environmental laboratories - (1) The Central Government may, by notification in the

Official Gazette,-
(a) establish one or more environmental laboratories;
(b) recognise one or more laboratories or institutes as environmental laboratories to
carry out the functions entrusted to an environmental laboratory under thisAct.
(2) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules
specifying-
(a) the functions of the environmental laboratory;
(b) the procedure for the submission to the said laboratory of samples of air, water,
soil or other substance for analysis or tests, the form of the laboratory report
thereon and the fees payable for such report;
(c) such other matters as may be necessary or expedient to enable that laboratory to
carry out its functions.
5. Government analysts - The Central Government may by notification in the Official

Gazette, appoint or recognise such persons as it thinks fit and having the prescribed
qualifications to be Government Analysts for the purpose of analysis of samples of air, water,
soil or other substance sent for analysis to any environmental laboratory established or
recognised under sub-section (1) of section12.
6. Reports of government analysts - Any document purporting to be a report signed by a

Government analyst may be used as evidence of the facts stated therein in any proceeding
under this Act.
7. Penalty for contravention of the provisions of the act and the rules, orders and
directions - (1) Whoever fails to comply with or contravenes any of the provisions of this Act,
or the rules made or orders or directions issued there under, shall, in respect of each such
failure or contravention, be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to five
years with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees, or with both, and in case the failure or
339 | P a g e
contravention continues, with additional fine which may extend to five thousand rupees for
every day during which such failure or contravention continues after the conviction for the
first such failure or contravention.
(2) If the failure or contravention referred to in sub-section (1) continues beyond a
period of one year after the date of conviction, the offender shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which may extend to seven years.
8. Offences by companies - (1) Where any offence under this Act has been committed by a
company, every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was directly in
chargeof,andwasresponsibleto,thecompanyfortheconductofthebusiness of the company, as well
as the company, shall be deemed to be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded
against and punished accordingly:
Provided that nothing contained in this sub-section shall render any such person liable
to any punishment provided in this Act, if he proves that the offence was committed
without his knowledge or that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the commission
of such offence.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an offence under this
Act has been committed by a company and it is proved that the offence has been
committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any neglect on the
part of, any director, manager, secretary or other officer of the company, such director,
manager, secretary or other officer shall also deemed to be guilty of that offence and
shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
Explanation-For the purpose of this section,
(a) ―company‖ means any body corporate and includes a firm or other association of
individuals;
(b) ―director‖, in relation to a firm, means a partner in the firm.
9. Offences by Government Departments - (1) Where an offence under this Act has been
committed by any Department of Government, the Head of the Department shall be deemed to
be guilty of the offence and shall be liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly.
Provided that nothing contained in this section shall render such Head of the
Department liable to any punishment if he proves that the offence was committed
without his knowledge or that he exercise all due diligence to prevent the commission
of such offence.
(2) Notwithstanding anything contained in sub-section (1), where an offence under
this Act has been committed by a Department of Government and it is proved that the
340 | P a g e
offence has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to any
neglect on the part of, any officer, other than the Head of the Department, such officer
shall also be deemed to be guilty of that offence and shall be liable to be proceeded
against and punished accordingly.
necessary to take steps for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental
pollution;
(xi) establishment or recognition of environmental laboratories and institutes to
carry out the functions entrusted to such environmental laboratories and
institutes under this Act;
(xii) collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to
environmental pollution;
(xiii) preparation of manuals, codes or guides relating to the prevention, control and
abatement of environmental pollution;
(xiv) such other matters as the Central Government deems necessary or expedient for
the purpose of securing the effective implementation of the provisions of this
Act.
(3) The Central Government may, if it considers it necessary or expedient so to do for the
purpose of this Act, by order, published in the Official Gazette, constitute an authority
or authorities by such name or names as may be specified in the order for the purpose
of exercising and performing such of the powers and functions (including the power to
issue directions under section 5) of the Central Government under this Act and for
taking measures with respect to such of the matters referred to in sub-section (2) as
may be mentioned in the order and subject to the supervision and control of the Central
Government and the provisions of such order, such authority or authorities may
exercise and powers or perform the functions or take the measures so mentioned in the
order as if such authority or authorities had been empowered by this Act to exercise
those powers or perform those functions or take such measures.
10. Power to make rules - (1) The Central Government may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, make rules for carrying out the purposes of this Act.
(2) In particular, and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power, such rules
may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely-
(a) the standards in excess of which environmental pollutants shall not be
discharged or emitted under section7;
(b) the procedure in accordance with and the safeguards in compliance with which
341 | P a g e
hazardous substances shall be handled or caused to be handled under section8;
(c) the authorities or agencies to which intimation of the fact of occurrence or
apprehensionofoccurrenceofthedischargeofanyenvironmentalpollutant in excess
of the prescribed standards shall be given and to whom all assistance shall be
bound to be rendered under sub-section (1) of section 9;
(d) the manner in which samples of air, water, soil or other substance for the
purpose of analysis shall be taken under sub-section (1) of section11;
(e) the form in which notice of intention to have a sample analysed shall be served
under clause (a) of sub section (3) of section11;
(f) the functions of the environmental laboratories, the procedure for the
submission to such laboratories of samples of air, water, soil and other
substances for analysis or test; the form of laboratory report; the fees payable
for such report and other matters to enable such laboratories to carry out their
functions under sub-section (2) of section12;
(g) the qualifications of Government Analyst appointed or recognised for the
purpose of analysis of samples of air, water, soil or other substances under
section13;
(h) the manner in which notice of the offence and of the intention to make a
complaint to the Central Government shall be given under clause (b) of
section19;
(i) the authority of officer to whom any reports, returns, statistics, accounts and
other information shall be furnished under section20;
(j) any other matter which is required to be, or may be,prescribed.
11. Rulesmadeunderthisacttobelaidbeforeparliament-Everyrulemadeunder this Act shall

be laid, as soon as may be after it is made, before each Hose of Parliament, while it is in
session, for a total period of thirty days which may be comprised in one session or in two or
more successive sessions, and if, before the expiry of the session immediately following the
session or the successive sessions aforesaid, both Houses agree in making any modification in
the rule or both Houses agree that the rule should not be made, the rule shall thereafter have
effect only in such modified form or be of no effect, as the case may be; so, however, that any
such modification or annulment shall be without prejudice to the validity of anything
previously done under thatrule.
342 | P a g e
SOME IMPORTANT ACTS FOR ENVIRONMENTAL
PROTECTION
The Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Biological Diversity Rules

The Biological Diversity Act 2002 and Biological Diversity Rules provide for the conservation
of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the
benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it.
Its key provisions aimed at achieving the above are:
 Prohibition on transfer of Indian genetic material outside the country, without specific
approval of the Indian Government;
 Prohibition on anyone claiming an Intellectual Property Right (IPR), such as a patent,
over biodiversity or related knowledge, without permission of the Indian Government;
 Regulation of collection and use of biodiversity by Indian nationals, while exempting
local communities from such restrictions;
 Measures for sharing of benefits from the use of biodiversity, including transfer of
technology, monetary returns, joint Research & Development, joint IPR ownership, etc.;
 Measures to conserve and sustain-ably use biological resources, including habitat and
species protection, Environmental Impact Assessments (EIAs) of projects, integration of
biodiversity into the plans, programmes, and policies of various departments/sectors;
 Provisions for local communities to have a say in the use of their resources and
knowledge, and to charge fees for this; Protection of indigenous or traditional
knowledge, through appropriate laws or other measures such as registration of such
knowledge;
 Regulation of the use of genetically modified organisms; Setting up of National, State,
and Local Biodiversity Funds, to be used to support conservation and benefit-sharing;
 Setting up of Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) at local village level, State
Biodiversity Boards (SBB) at state level, and a National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
The National Environmental Tribunal Act,1995, Amendment 2010

The Act has been created to award compensation for damages to persons, property, and the
environment arising from any activity involving hazardous substances. The three major
objectives of the Green Tribunal are
343 | P a g e
1. The effective and speedy disposal of the cases relating to environment protection and
conservation of forests and other natural resources. All the previous pending cases will also be
heard by the Tribunal.
2. It aims at enforcing all the legal rights relating to the environment
3. It also accounts for providing compensation and relief to effected people for damage of
property.
The salient features of amendment are as follows:
 Amendment provides an equal opportunity to any citizen of India to approach the

National Green Tribunal.
 It ensures that the tribunal takes into consideration principles of Sustainable
Development, Precautionary principles, Polluter Pays Principles and Inter generational
Equity while hearing any appeal and giving judgements.
National Green Tribunal Act, 2010:

Under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases
relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources
including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and
compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle
environmental disputes involving multidisciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by
the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by
principles of natural justice.
The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy

environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of filing of the same. Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of
sittings and will follow circuit procedure for making itself more accessible. New Delhi is the
Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the
other 4 place of sitting of the Tribunal.
The National Environment Appellate Authority Act,1997

The National Environment Appellate Authority Act has been created to hear appeals with respect
to restrictions of areas in which classes of industries etc. are carried out or prescribed subject to
certain safeguards under the EPA.
344 | P a g e
The Biomedical waste (Management and Handling) Rules,1998
The Biomedical waste (Management and Handling) Rules,1998 is a legal binding on the health
care institutions to streamline the process of proper handling of hospital waste such as
segregation, disposal, collection, and treatment.
The Environment (Siting for Industrial Projects) Rules, 1999

The Environment (Siting for Industrial Projects) Rules, 1999 lay down detailed provisions
relating to areas to be avoided for siting of industries, precautionary measures to be taken for site
selecting as also the aspects of environmental protection which should have been incorporated
during the implementation of the industrial development projects
The Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000

The Rules apply to every municipal authority responsible for the collection, segregation, storage,
transportation, processing, and disposal of municipal solid wastes
The Noise Pollution (Regulation and control) (Amendment) Rules, 2010

These rules lay down such terms and conditions as are necessary to reduce noise pollution,
permit use of loud speakers or public address systems during night hours (between 10:00 p.m. to
12:00 midnight) on or during any cultural or religious festive occasion.
Following are the salient features of the amendment:
 In the heading ‗PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM‘ the words ‗AND SOUND PRODUCING
SYSTEMS‘ shall be inserted.
 A loudspeaker or any sound producing system or a sound amplifier shall not be used at night
time except in closed premises for communication within like auditorium, conference rooms,
community halls, banquet halls or during public emergency.
 The noise level at the boundary of the public place where loudspeaker or public address system
is being used the sound should not exceed 10dB above the ambient noise standards of that area
or 75dB whichever is less.
 No horn shall be used in silence zones or residential areas at night except in emergency
situations.
 Sound emitting construction equipments shall not be operated during night.
345 | P a g e

AP Grama Sachivalayam Preparation Materials

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

AP Grama Sachivalayam Preparation Materials

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

AP Grama Sachivalayam Exclusive Part A (8 Chapters) Book

Sl No Subject Name Page Number

Proudly Presents - Careers Pages Team

If any Queries – support@careerspages.com

Divisibility rules for numbers 1 – 20

Divisibility rule for 1

Divisibility rule for 2

Divisibility rule for 3

Divisibility rules for 5

Divisibility test for 13

LCM and HCF

HCF and LCM Formulas

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

1 (d) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (b) 5 (c)

Model Questions Paper – Set 2

(SSC CHSL 2014)

1. (c) 2 (a) 3 (b)

When a person joins the group:

In case of an increase in average,

In case of decrease in average,

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

(c) 10.5 years

3. The average of odd numbers upto 100 is

1. (c) 2 (b) 3 (b)

(SSC CGL 2nd Sit. 2016)

Model Questions Paper – Set 3

1 (b) 2 (a) 3(d)

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

2. If 125% of x is 100, then x is: (SSC CHSL 2012)

Model Questions Paper – Set 3

If S.P>C.P, Gain or Profit = S.P-C.P

S.P = C.P * [(100+gain%)/100]

S.P = C.P * [(100-loss%)/100]

If an article is sold at a gain of x%, S.P = (100+x)% of C.P

If an article is sold at a loss of y%, S.P = (100-x)% of C.P

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

(SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2010)

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a)

Model Questions Paper – Set 2

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d)

Model Questions Paper – Set 3

(SSC CHSL 2013)

(b) Cannot be determined

Simple Interest(S.I) = PTR/100

When interest is compounded annually, A = P[1+(R/100)]^n

When interest is compounded half-yearly, A = P[1+(R/200)]^2n

When interest is compounded quarterly, A = P[1+(R/400)]^4n

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b)

Model Questions Paper – Set 2

(SSC CGL 1st Sit. 2012)

(d) ₹.7, 700

Model Questions Paper – Set 3

(SSC CHSL 2012)

(a) ₹.16, 000

(c) ₹. 36, 000

Note: Work done is always considered to be equal to 1

Some Important Formulas:

Time taken by (A + B) to complete the work –

Model Questions Paper – Set 1

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c)

Model Questions Paper – Set 2

(SSC CGL 2013)

1. If 10 men or 20 women or 40 children can do a piece of work in 7 months, then 5 men, 5