Class XII BIO Atom Bomb 2024 Exam

CHAPTER 1: DELETED
CHAPTER 2: SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
1 MARK QUESTION
1. Name the parts of an angiosperm flower in which development of male and female
gametophyte takes place.
Ans. Male gametophyte- starts in the anther and later completed on the stigma.
Female gametophyte- inside the ovule.
2. What is meant by a dithecous anther?
Ans. A dithecous anther is the anther which is bilobed with two theca (sporangia) in each
lobe.
3. How many microsporangium are present in an anther?
Ans. Four microsporangium
4. Name the first cell of the male gametophyte of angiosperms.
Ans. Microspore
5. What is exine and intine made up of respectively?
Ans. Exine: Sporopollenin
Intine: cellulose and pectin.
6. Name the two cells, a mature pollen grain has.
Ans. Vegetative cell and generative cell.
7. What is a micropyle in an ovule?
Ans. Micropyle is the opening left by the integuments at the tip of an ovule.
8. What does an embryo sac represent in an ovule?
Ans. Female gametophyte.
9. How many megaspore mother cells appear in the nucleus of an ovule?
Ans. Only one.
10. What is the total number of haploid nuclei formed in the embryo sac of an angiosperm?
Ans. Eight haploid nuclei.
11. What do the tassels of a corn cob represent?
Ans. Styles and stigma.
12. What is meant by emasculation?
Ans. Emasculation is the process of removal of stamen/anthers before the pollen grains
mature from a bisexual flower.
13. What technical term is given to the single cotyledon in the plants of grass family.
Ans. Scutellum.
14. Name two plants where remnants of nucellus persists in the seeds.
Ans. Beetroot, blackpepper.
15. What is perisperm?
Ans. The remnants of nucellus that persists in the seed is called perisperm.
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ASSERTION AND REASONING TYPE QUESTION
16. Assertion: Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils.
Reason: Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion .
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
17. Assertion: Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit.
Reason: Parthenocarpy is development of seeds without fertilization.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion .
Ans. c . Assertion is true but reason is false.
18. Assertion: Apple is a false fruit.
Reason: The thalamus contributes to the formation of apple fruit along with ovary.
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion .
Ans. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion..
19. Assertion: Pollen grains can germinate on the stigma of any species of plants.
Reason: Pollen grains represent the male gamete.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion .
Ans. d. Both assertion and reason are false.
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
20. Read the following and answer any four questions from20(i) to 20(v) given below:
Double Fertilisation
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After pollen germination in flowering plants, the pollen tube penetrates through the stigma
and the tube grows through the style and reaches the ovary. Once it reaches the ovary, the
tube penetrates it and reaches the micropyle of the ovule and enters into the embryo sac.
Here, one of the two male nuclei fuse with the nucleus of the egg cell to form a zygote. This
fusion of the male and female gametes is known as syngamy. The other male gamete fuses
with the two polar nuclei located in the central cell to produce the triploid endosperm
nucleus in a primary endosperm cell(PEC). This fusion of three nuclei is termed as triple
fusion.
Since two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac, the
phenomenon is termed double fertilization.
The zygote develops into an embryo while PEC develops into the endosperm. The cells of
endosperm tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the
developing embryo.
i. Name the diploid cell of the embryo sac.
a) Egg cell
b) Ovary
c) Ovule
d) Central cell
Ans. d) Central cell.
ii. Double fertilization is a phenomenon found in
a) Bryophytes
b) Pteridophytes
c) Angiosperms
d) All of the above.
Ans. c) Angiosperms.
iii. Atleast how many pollen grains are required to fertilise 10 ovules in a carpel?
a) 5
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
Ans. b) 10
iv. The ploidy of a zygote formed as a result of syngamy is
a) Diploid
b) Haploid
c) Triploid
d) None of the above.
Ans. a) Diploid.
v. Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason: Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is
situated.
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
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assertion .
Ans. b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion .
21. Read the following and answer any four questions from21(i) to 21(v) given below:
Pollinating agents
The pollen-pistil interaction begins with pollination, followed by pollen adhesion to the
stigma. After it adheres, it imbibes water and gets hydrated which initiates pollen tube
germination. There are different agents of pollination like wind, insects, birds and water.
Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by the agency of wind. These flowers are small and
inconspicuous.. The pollen grains are very light, non-sticky and sometimes winged.
Entomophilic flowers are pollinated by insects. These flowers are often attractive to look at
with bright petals and are fragrant to attract the insect visitors to them. They often have
broad stigmas or anthers to allow the insect to perch on it. Many of the insect-pollinated
flowers also secrete nectar which attracts bees, butterflies or other similar insects to the
flowers. The pollen grain surface of such flowers produce mucilaginous secretion.
Hydrophilic flowers are pollinated by water. It is commonly found in algae, bryophytes,
pteridophytes and some angiosperms. The pollen grains may have a mucilaginous covering
to protect it from getting wet.
i. The pollinating agent of an inflorescence of small dull coloured flowers with well exposed
stamens and large feathery stigma is
a. Water
b. Wind
c. Insects
d. Birds.
Ans. b. Wind.
ii. An example of biotic agent for pollination is
a. Air
b. Water
c. Honey bee
d. All of the above.
Ans. c. Honey bee.
iii. The pollen grains in the flowers are generally sticky that help them to
a. stick on to the body of the insects
b. float on water
c. float in the air
d. fall on the ground safely.
Ans. a. stick on to the body of the insects
iv. Which of the following statements seem to describe the water-pollinated submerged
plants?
a. The flowers do not produce nectar.
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b. The flower petals are not brightly coloured.
c. The pollen grains have mucilaginous covering.
d. The female flowers have long stalk to reach the surface.
Ans. d. The female flowers have long stalk to reach the surface.
v. Assertion: The pollen grains are easily carried by the wind.
Reason: They are very light and sometimes winged.
assertion.
assertion .
Ans. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
22. Read the following and answer any four questions from 22(i) to 22(v) given below:
Hybrid seeds created by crossing two varieties have superior qualities including high yield,
pest resistance and climate tolerance and have been used by farmers for decades. In a
breakthrough for farmers across the world, especially those from developing countries,
scientists have discovered a way to clone hybrid seeds of rice.
Hybrid seeds created by crossing two varieties have superior qualities including high yield,
pest resistance and climate tolerance and have been used by farmers for decades. However,
a major challenge with such crops so far has been that unlike other crops, their seeds do not
produce plants with same qualities.
So, farmers have had no option but to buy expensive hybrid seeds every year. Asexual
reproduction through seeds, called Apomixis, is known to occur naturally in more than 400
species of wild plants, but not in crops. The embryos can develop directly from a diploid egg
or the nucellus in the ovule without fertilisation. This mechanism of seed production allows
a plant to clone itself through a seed, without fertilization and, thus prevents any loss of
hybrid characters in plants. However, recreating these pathways in crop plants has been a
challenge to science.
i. Which part of the flower form seeds?
a. Ovule
b. Ovary
c. Stigma
d. Pollen grain
Ans. a. Ovule.
ii. There will be variations among the offsprings of a plant which undergoes____.
a. Asexual reproduction
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Apomixis
Ans. b. Sexual reproduction.
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iii. What is the ploidy of nucellus that undergoes apomixis?
a. Haploid
b. Diploid
c. Triploid
d. None of the above.
Ans. b. Diploid.
iv. What are the problems with hybrid seeds?
a. Hybrids seeds has to be produced every year.
b. Seeds obtained from hybrid plants when grown, tend to segregate and loose the
hybrid traits.
c. Cost factor
Ans. d. All of the above.
v. Assertion: Apomixis does not require pollination and fertilization.
Reason: The embryos can develop directly from a diploid egg or the nucellus in the ovule.
assertion.
assertion .
Ans. a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
2 MARKS QUESTION
23. Name the four wall layers of a microsporangium.
Ans. The four wall layers of a microsporangium from outer to inner side are:
-Epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
24. Name the innermost wall layer of a microsporangium. Mention its function.
Ans. Tapetum.
-Its function is to nourish the developing pollen grains.
25. What are germ pores? What is their significance?
Ans. Germ pores are those regions on the surface of a pollen grain, where the exine
(sporopollenin) is absent or is very thin.
Significance: During pollen germination, the intine grows out through one of the germ pores
to form the pollen tube.
26. Name the constituents of egg apparatus. Where is it located in the ovule?
Ans. Egg apparatus consists of an egg cell (or female gamete) and two synergids.
-It is located at the micropylar end of the embryo sac in the ovule.
27. How is geitonogamy different from autogamy?
Ans. Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a
different flower of the same plant. Whereas autogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from
the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
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28. What is triple fusion? Where does it take place?
Ans. Triple fusion is the process of fusion of three nuclei- two polar nuclei and a male
gamete to produce a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
- It occurs in the central cell of the embryo sac.
29. What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Ans. Apomixis is the form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction in which
seeds are formed without fertilization.
Importance: As there is no segregation of characters in the hybrid, so farmers can keep on
using the hybrid seeds to raise new crop every year.
30. How is apomixis different from polyembryony?
Ans. When apomixis is a method of formation of seeds without fertilization, polyembryony
is the occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed.
3 MARKS QUESTION
31. How is a vegetative cell different from a generative cell?
Ans.
Vegetative cell Generative cell

i. It is much larger than the i. It is much smaller and
generative cell. floats in the cytoplasm of
ii. It has abundant food vegetative cell.
reserves and a large ii. It has dense cytoplasm
irregular nucleus. and a prominent round
iii. It does not divide any nucleus.
further. iii. It undergoes mitosis to
form two male gametes.
32. Draw a labeled diagram of a mature embryo sac of an angiosperm.
Ans.
33. What are chasmogamous flowers? How are they different from cleistogamous flowers?
Ans. Chasmogamous flowers are those bisexual flowers, which open at maturity and expose
their stamens and stigmas; cross pollination can occur in them. Whereas cleistogamous
flowers do not open at all; cross pollination cannot occur.
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34. How is pollination effected in Vallisneria?
Ans. In Vallisneria, the female flowers reach the surface of water by the long stalk. The male
flowers are released from the plant and float on the water surface; later they release the
pollen grains. The pollen grains are passively carried by the water currents. Some of them
reach the female flowers and their stigmas resulting pollination. The pollen grains are
protected from getting wet by a mucilaginous coating on them.
35. Differentiate between albuminous and non-albuminous seeds.
Ans.
Albuminous seeds Non-albuminous seeds

- These are the seeds in which - These are the seeds in which
the endosperm is present, as the endosperm is absent as it
it is not completely used up by is completely used up by the
the developing embryo. developing embryo.
- Eg., wheat, maize, sunflower. - Eg., pea, groundnut.
5 MARKS QUESTION
36. List the different types of pollination depending upon the source of the pollen grain. What
are the adaptations flowers possess to ensure self pollination?
Answers: Pollination can be classified into three different types based on the source of
pollen grains. They are:
i) Autogamy: It is defined as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
of the same flower in the same plant.
ii) Geitonogamy: It is defined as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one
flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant.
iii) Xenogamy: It is defined as the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
of a different plant.
Adaptations-
i) The pollen and stigma of a flower mature at the same time.
ii) The anther and the stigma should be close to each other.
37. (a) What are outbreeding devices?
(b) Continuous self-pollination results in inbreeding depression in plants. Describe four
devices by which cross-pollination is encouraged in nature.
Ans. Outbreeding Devices are the mechanisms/processes that the plants adapt to prevent
self-pollination and encourage cross-pollination. They are:
i) Unisexuality: In this case, the plant bears either male or female flowers and is not
bisexual. It is also called as Dioecism.
ii) Dichogamy: In this mechanism, the stigma and anther mature at different times.
iii) Self- incompatibility: It is a mechanism that prevents self-pollen from fertilizing
the ovule either by not allowing the pollen grain to germinate or by retarding the
growth of pollen tube.
iv) Heterostyly: In some plants like the Oxalis, the stigma and the anthers are placed
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at different levels. This prevents the pollen from reaching the stigma and
pollinating it.
38. Mention the similarity between autogamy and geitonogamy. List the advantages and
disadvantages of self-pollination.
Ans. Similarity- In both the cases, pollen grains come from the same plant. So they are
genetically similar.
Advantages of self – pollination:
i) In self- pollination, there is no diversity in the genes and therefore the purity of the
race is maintained.
ii) The plants do not depend on external factors for pollination and even smaller
quantities of pollen grains produce have a good success rate in getting pollinated.
iii) Self- pollination ensures that recessive characters are eliminated.
Disadvantages of self- pollination:
i) Since there is no mixing up of genes, there are no new characters or features that
are introduced into the offspring.
ii) Self- pollination is said to reduce the vigor and vitality of the race as there are no
new features introduced.
iii) Without new characters introduced, the resultant offspring’s immunity to diseases
reduces.
39. Describe megasporogenesis in an angiosperm.
Ans. The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called
megasporogenesis. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell(MMC) in
the micropylar region of the nucellus. The MMC undergoes meiotic division resulting in the
formation of four megaspores.
40. How does a typical dicot embryo differ from a monocot embryo? Explain with the help of
labeled diagram.
Ans.
Monocot embryo(Embryo of grass) Dicot embryo
- There is a single cotyledon -There are two cotyledons.
(scutellum).
- The plumule is protected by -There is no coleoptile for the
coleoptile. plumule.
- The radicle is protected by -The radicle is not protected by any
coleorhiza. covering.
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CHAPTER 3- HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Q1 Which part in the male reproductive system store sperm? 1

Ans. Epididymis
Q2. What harm is caused if testes of the male fail to descend into the scrotum? 1
Ans. This results in sterility because spermatogenesis requires a temperature lower
than the body temperature.
Q3. From which cell organelle is the acrosome of the sperm formed? 1
Ans. Golgi body
Q4. In which organ is corpus luteum formed? 1
Ans. ovary
Q5. Name the category of chemical substances released by sperm that help in penetrating 1
the ovum.
Ans. Sperm lysin
Q6. At what stage is the mammalian embryo implanted in the uterus? 1
Ans. Blastocyst stage
Q7. What is antrum? 1
Ans. Fluid filled cavity of the graafian follicle.
Q8. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a human female? When does the oocyte 1
complete oogenesis?
Ans. Embryonic life. When the sperm enters the egg
Q9. Name the layer of the cells forming the outer wall of the blastocyst. 1
Ans. Trophoblast
Q10 Name the fluid which protects embryo. 1
. Ans. Amniotic fluid
Q11 Name the type of epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubule. 1
. Ans. Germinal epithelium.
Q12 Which cell secrete androgen binding proteins ABP)? 1
. Ans. Sertoli cells
Q13 Which part of the blastula is destined to form the germ layers of the developing 1
. embryo in humans?
Ans. Inner cell mass
Q14 Give a scientific term for the following: 1
. a) Layer of follicle cells that envelops the egg outside the zona pellucida.
Ans corona radiata
b) The finger like projection appearing on the trophoblast after implantation.
Ans. Chorionic villi
Q15 a) How many lobules are found in each testes? 1
. Ans. 250
b) What is the function of Bulbourethral glands?
Ans. Secretion of alkaline fluid. They also secrete mucus that lubricates the
end of the penis and the lining of the urethra
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SECTION-B
Q16 Fertilization performs two functions. What are the function? 2
. Ans. 1. restoration of diploid condition
2. completion of second meiotic division by ovum
Q17 Name the foetal membrane that provides a fluid medium to the developing embryo? 2
. Mention its two functions.
Ans. Amnion. It prevents desiccation of the embryo, act as shock absorber and also
helps in formation of placenta
Q18 What is pregnancy hormone? Why is it so called? Name two sources of this hormone 2
. in a human female.
Ans.Human chorionic gonadotropin(hcG) , chorionic thyrotropin, chorionic
corticotropin and relaxin are secreted by placenta. The hcG stimulates and maintains
the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone. Progesterone maintains endometrium
throughout the pregnancy. These hormones are associated with pregnancy and
therefore known as pregnancy hormone.
Q19 Name the hormones responsible for descent of testes into the scrotum .Why does the 2
. failure of this process result in sterility?
Ans. Testosterone, Failure of descent of testes leads to sterility because
spermatogenesis does not take place. Because spermatogenesis requires lower
temperature.
Q20 Name the hormone which stimulates the secretion of ovarian hormones. What would 2
. happen if the blood concentration of ovarian hormones increases?
Ans. FSH and LH stimulates the ovarian hormones. A feedback system becomes
operative when the level of estrogen increases. The anterior pituitary is inhibited
from secreting FSH and stimulated to secrete LH.
Q21 What structure forms the corpus luteum and at what stage? Name two hormones 2
. secreted by it.
Ans. .From ruptured Graafian follicle. ..The secretory or luteal stage.
Progesterone and relaxin.
Q22 Differentiate between morula and blastula. 2
. Ans. Morula- It is solid sphere of cells formed by the cleave of the zygote.
Blastula-It is a hollow sphere of cells, the blastomere.
Q23 What is umbilical cord? 2
. Ans. Umbilical cord is a tube containing blood vessels, which connects the abdomen
of developing embryo with placenta of the pregnant uterus. Its position is indicated
by the umbilicus(naval).
SECTION-C
Q24 Explain the formation of placenta after implantation in a human female. 3
. Ans.Trophoblast forms finger -like projections called chorionic villi are surrounded by
uterine tissue and maternal blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become
interdigitated with each other to form placenta.
Q25 Make a diagrammatic sketch of the microscopic view of mammalian sperm. Label any 3
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. six parts.
Ans.
Q26 What is the role of following hormones in the female reproductive cycle: 3
1) FSH
2) LH
3) Progesterone
Ans.1.FSH- Stimulates growth of Graafian follicle and maturation of ovum in it.
Stimulates secretion of estrogen from follicle cells.
2.LH- Stimulates ovulation and induces the formation of corpus luteum.
Stimulates secretion of progesterone from corpus luteum.
3.Progesterone- brings about uterine growth, facilites the implantation of
embryo and formation of the placenta. Prevents other Graafian follicles from
maturing.
Q27 a) In which part of human female reproductive system do the following events 3
take place.
I. Release of 1st polar body
II. Release of 2nd polar body
III. Fertilization
IV. Implantation
b) From where do the signals for parturition originate and what does maternal
pituitary release for stimulating uterine contractions for child birth.
Ans. a) I) Ovary
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II) In the isthmus- ampullary junction of fallopian tube
III) Isthmus- ampullary junction of fallopian tube.
IV) In the uterus
b)Fully developed foetus and placenta, oxytocin
SECTION-D
Q28 What is ovulation? Describe the structure of ovum with a labelled diagram. 5
.
Ans.Ovulation is the release of secondary oocyte from the ovary. The wall of the
ovary gets ruptured to release the oocyte. In human , ovulation occurs on the 14 th day
before the onset of the next menstruation. Ovulation is induced by LH.
Q29 Where does fertilization take place in a woman? What helps the sperm to gain entry 5
eventually. What is the significance of the point of entry of sperm?
Ans. Ampullary isthmus junction.The phenomena of sperm activation is called

capacitation. The capacitated sperms undergo acrosomal reaction and release sperm
lysin. Hyaluronidase acts on the ground substances of follicle cells, corona penetrating
enzyme dissolves corona radiata and acrosin helps to digest the zona pellucida. Due
to acrosomal reaction , plasma membrane of the sperm fuses with the plasma
membrane of the secondary oocytes so that the sperm contents enter the zygote.This
fusion is followed by cortical reaction shown by the secondary oocyte which prevents
polyspermy.
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The significance of the point of entry of sperm is that point becomes the animal pole
and the opposite end becomes vegetal pole.
Q30 Draw a flow chart showing hormonal control of human female reproductive system. 5
Highlights the positive and negative feedback mechanism in it.
Ans.
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
In the following questions a statement of assertion and reason is correct explanation for
assertion correct answer out of the following choices.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
c. Assertion is true but reason is false
1. Assertion-The uterus is shaped like an inverted pear.
Reason- The inner glandular layer lining the uterine cavity is called
as myometrium.
Ans. c
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2. Assertion-The middle piece of the sperm is called is powerhouse.
Reason- Numerous mitochondria in the middle piece produce
energy for the movement of the tail.
Ans. a
3. Assertion-All sperms released at a time do not fertilise the ovum.
Reason-Fertilisation occur only when ovum and sperm fuse at the
ampullary-isthmic junction.
Ans.b
4. Assertion-The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.
Reason-The morula continuously divides to transform into
trophoblast.
Ans.c
5. Assertion-The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the
menstrual cycle.
Reason- Perimetrium contracts strongly during delivery of the baby.
Ans. c
6.. Assertion- Signals for parturition originate from placenta and the
developed foetus.
Reason- Relaxin is released by the placenta.
Ans.b
7. Assertion-the female gamete is produced at the time of puberty.
Reason- gonadotropin releasing hormone controls the process of
oogenesis.
Ans.d
8. Assertion- the fertilized egg contains 23 pairs of chromosome
Reason-zygote is formed by the fusion of egg and the sperm.
Ans.a
9. Assertion-Colostrum produced in first 2-3 days after parturition is
rich in nutrients.
Reason-placenta induces the signals for expulsion of the fully
developed.
Ans. b
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CASE -BASED- QUESTION
Q1
.
Study the figure given and answer the questions that follows: ( answer any four)
1x4
i) The function of Sertoli cell is :
a) Nutrition to the sperms
b) Nutrition to the Leydig cell
c) Nutrition to the basal lamina
d) Excretion from sperm
Ans. a
ii) Cross section of testes shows :
a) Seminiferous tubules with different stages of development of
sperm
b) Development of Sertoli cells
c) Many testicular lobules
d) Many spermatogonia
Ans. a
iii) Pick out and name the cells that undergo spermiogenesis.
a) Spermatogonia undergo spermiogenesis
b) Spermatids undergo spermiogenesis
c) Secondary spermatocytes undergo spermiogenesis
d) Primary spermatocytes undergo spermiogenesis.
Ans. b
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iv) How many sperms will be produced from 50 primary
spermatocytes?
a) 400 sperms
b) 1000sperms
c) 200sperms
d) 100sperms
v) Testosterone is secreted which cell:
a) Sertoli cell
b) Spermatids
c) Leydig cells
d) Spermatogonia
Ans c
Q2
Study the graph given and answer any four questions:1x4

i) Name the ovarian and pituitary hormone that are responsible for
development of follicles.
a) Estrogen and LH
b) Estrogen and progesterone
c) FSH and LH
d) Progesterone and FSH
Ans. a
ii) In which phase of menstrual cycle corpus luteum is formed and name
the hormone it secretes.
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a) Ovulatory phase and progesterone
b) Luteal phase and progesterone
c) Follicular phase and progesterone
d) Menstrual phase and progesterone
Ans. b
iii) What are the three phases of oogenesis?
a) Multiplication phase, growth phase and reproductive phase
b) Multiplication phase , growth phase and maturation phase
c) Growth phase, maturation phase and secretory phase
d) Secretory phase, growth phase and maturation phase
Ans. b
iv) The phase in woman’s life when ovulation and menstruation stops is
called:
a) Menarch
b) Puberty
c) Menopause
d) Reproduction
Ans. c
v) Withdrawn of which hormone causes menstruation?
a) Estrogen
b) Progesterone
c) FSH
d) LH
Ans.b
Q3 Study the diagram and answer any four questions:1x4
i) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represents.

a) Gastrula
b) Blastocyst
c) Oocyte
d) Primary oocyte
Ans. b
ii) Where are the stem cells located in this embryo?
a) Inner cell mass
b) Blastocoel
c) Blastomeres
d) Blastocyst
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Ans.a
iii) Write the name of “a”
a) Blastomere
b) Trophoblast
c) Morula
d) Gastrula
Ans.b
iv) Which layer gets attached to the cells of endometrium and name the
part which develops into embryo?
a) Trophoblast and inner cell mass
b) Trophoblast and ectoderm
c) Ectoderm and endoderm
d) Trophoblast and mesoderm
Ans. a
v) How is the placenta connected to the embryo?
a) By chorionic villi
b) By umbilical cord
c) By inner layer
d) By trophoblast
Ans.b
25
Chapter 4: Reproductive Health
One mark each Questions
1. Give the term for rapid population growth.

2. Name the oral contraceptive developed by CDRI, Lucknow.
3. Expand MTP and ICSI.
4. Write the scientific name of causative agents of Syphillis.
5. Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve
reproductive health of the people. (True/False)
6. What is meant by RCH care?
7. What is reproductive health?
8. Contraceptive pills prevent ovulation and implantation. [True/False]
9. Name any two barriers used by human females for birth control.
10. What is MTP?
11. Name two sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria.
12. In population growth curve the early phase is also called as.
13. Name the technique by which found the AIDS.
14. Write the full name of GIFT.
15. Name the technique in which removal of a segment of oviduct.
16. Write the full form of IUCD.
17. Write the full form of HIV and AIDS.
Two mark each question

18. Explain the social causes of human population growth.
19. What do you think about the significance of reproductive health in a society?
20. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option, why?
21. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country. Is this ban necessary?
22. What are implants? How do they help in preventing fertilization?
23. How does Cu- T act as a contraceptive?
24. What are STDs? Mention any two of it.
Three marks questions

25. Give another name for sexually transmitted diseases. Name two sexually transmitted
diseases which are curable and two diseases which are not curable.
26. Explain any one natural method of birth control.
27. Define contraceptive. Mention any four important qualities of a good contraceptive.
28. What is MTP? Mention an advantage & disadvantages of this technique?
Five marks Questions
29. List some important steps for improving the reproductive health standards in India.
26
30. How do the following contraceptives act to prevent unwanted pregnancy in human
females?
(i)Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)
(ii)Saheli
31. A woman has certain queries as listed below, before starting with contraceptive pills.
Answer them.
(i)What do contraceptive pills contain and how do they act as contraceptives?
(ii)What schedule should be followed for taking these pills?
32. Briefly explain the various reproductive technologies to assist an infertile couple to
have children.
Case based questions

33. A pregnant human female was advised to undergo MTP. It was diagnosed by her doctor that
the foetus, she is carrying has developed from a zygote formed by an XX-egg fertilised by Y-
carrying sperm. Why was she advised to undergo MTP?
Answers
1. Population explosion.
2. Saheli
3. MTP: Medical Termination of Pregnancy.
ICSI: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
4. Treponema Pallidum
5. True; Creating awareness about sex related aspects provide complete necessary
information about reproductive health.
6. Reproductive and child health care
7. It refers to the physical, mental and social well-being of an individual in all matters
related to the reproductive system, its functions and processes.
8. True
9. Cervical caps, diaphragms, vaults, (any two)
10. MTP refers to the intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term
under the care of a medical practitioner.
27
11. Syphilis and gonorrhea.
12. Lag period
13. ELISA test
14. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
15. Tubectomy
16. Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device.
17. HIV : Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

AIDS : Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome.
Two marks answers
18. Social causes of human population growth rate are:
1. Illiteracy in society.
2. Low level of society.
3. Various orthodox tradition like son leads to progeny.
4. Social barriers.
5. Early child marriage presuming that after mid-age marriage reproductive capacity
degenerates.
6. Social backwardness.
19. Control over the transmission of STDs.

(a)Less death due to reproduction related diseases, like AIDS, cancer of reproductive
tract.
(b)Control in population explosion.
©Not only this reproductive health of men and women affectsthe health of the next
generation.
28
20. Removal of gonads not only stops the production of gametes but will also stop the
secretions of various important hormones, which are important for bodily functions. This
method is irreversible and thus, can not be considered as a contraceptive method.
21. Yes, the ban is necessary because amniocentesis is misused for determining the sex of
the foetus and then aborting the child if it is a female. This process is illegal as it causes
harm to the foetus as well as mother it can also disturb the sex ratio.
22. The structures which contain hormones like progesterone and estrogen and are placed
under the skin.
23. It is an intrauterine device having ionized copper. The copper diffuses into the uterus
and brings about the release of toxic cytokines. They inhibit sperm motility and therefore
fertilization of ovum.
24. Diseases or infections transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called
Sexually Transmitted Diseases or STDs. Ex: Syphilis and Gonorrhoea.
Three marks answers
25. Veneral disease (VD)/Reproductive tract infection (RTI)

 Curable : Syphilis, Gonorrhoea
 Non Curable : Hepatitis B, AIDS, Genital herpes
26. One of the natural methods of birth control is Periodic abstinence or Rhythm method.
The couple avoids or abstains from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
because ovulation occurs during this period and therefore the period is highly fertile. The
method is based on the facts the ovum remains alive for 1-2 days and the sperm remains
alive for about 3 days. The effectiveness of this method is limited as most of the women
have irregular menstrual cycle.
27. : Contraceptive is the method, which prevents unwanted pregnancies. An ideal

contraceptive should be: ( 1. uses friendly
2. Easily available
3. Effective & reversible with no or least side effects.
4. It also should not interfere with the sexual drive, desire or sexual act of the user.
29
28. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy, before foetus reaches maturity is
called medical termination of pregnancy
Advantages:- 1. MTP’s are essential in cases, where continuation of pregnancy could be

harmful or even fatal either to the mother or to the foetus or both.
Disadvantages:- It is being misused to eliminate illegal & unwanted pregnancies & in

discriminate killing of female foetus.
Five marks answers
29. Following steps can be taken to improve the reproductive health standards in India:
a. Educating people about the birth control measures, prenatal and
postnatal care of the mother, significance of breastfeeding.
b. Educating them about safe and hygienic sexual practices and sexually
transmitted diseases.
c. Educating the school going children about the sex-related aspects.
d. A legal ban on the checking of the gender of the foetus.
e. Create awareness about sex-abuse and drawbacks of population
explosion.
f. Proper infrastructural and professional facilities to attain re[productive
health standards.
30. .(i)Copper and hormone releasing lUDs act as contraceptives because

(a) lUDs (Cu-T, Cu-7) release Cu ions, which suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
capacity of sperms.
(b) Hormone releasing lUDs (progestasert, LNG-20)
 inhibits ovulation.
 make the cervix unreceptive to sperms.
 make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(c) Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

(ii)Reasons to use Saheli pills by women are mainly to prevent conception because it
(a) contains a non-steroidal component.
(b) is once-a-week pill.
(c) has high contraceptive value with fewer side effects than other oral pills.
(d) inhibits ovulation and implantation.
31. (i)Oral contraceptive or pills are either

progestogens or progestogen oestrogen combinations.
30
They function as contraceptives by
(a) inhibiting ovulation.
(b) inhibiting implantation.
(c) altering the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or stop the entry of sperms
(ii)The oral contraceptive pills are to be taken daily for 21 days, preferably within the first
five days of menstrual cycle. After the onset of menstruation cycle, i.e. 5-7 days, the
process is to be repeated in the same pattern (again for 21 days).
This schedule is to be followed till the women want to avoid conception.
32. Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) includes in vitro fertilization-embryo transfer

(IVF-ET), gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT), and
frozen embryo transfer (FET). These techniques also apply to oocyte donation and
gestational carriers. Approximately 99 percent of ART cycles performed are IVF-ET. IVF-
ET has helped many couples conceive successfully. ART may be recommended when
other treatments (such as intrauterine insemination) have not been successful or when
there is severe male factor infertility, severe endometriosis or tubal obstruction.
Case based answers
33. In this case, zygote will be XXY and will develop into a male with Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Such individuals show feminine characters, gynaecomastia and are sterile. Due to these
disorders, the woman was prescribed MTP
Assertion-reason questions
34. A: Hepatitis B is also considered a sexually transmitted disease.

R: It can be spread through sexual contact.
a. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
the assertion ( correct answer)
b. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation
of the assertion
c. If the assertion is true but the reason is false
d. If both the assertion and reason are false
35. A: The term sexually transmitted infection is generally preferred over sexually
transmitted disease or venereal disease.
R: There is often shame and stigma associated with these infections.
the assertion
31
b. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation
of the assertion ( correct answer)
36.. A: Gamete intra-fallopian transfer is actually in vivo fertilization and not in vitro
fertilization.
R: In gamete intra-fallopian transfer, eggs are removed from the woman and placed
in one of the fallopian tubes.
the assertion ( Correct answer)
b. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion
37. A: Coitus interruptus has a high failure rate for a method of contraception.
R: The pre-ejaculate fluid secreted by bulbouerthral glands is known to have sperms.
the assertion ( Correct answer)
b. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion
32
CHAPTER 5-PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
A. Category of Questions (Very Short Answer Type) 1 mark each
1. Name any one plant that shows the phenomenon of incomplete dominance during the
inheritance of its flower colour.
Ans. Dog flower (Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.)
2. Name the base change and the amino acid change, responsible for sickle cell anaemia.
Ans. GAG changes as GUG, Glutamic acid is substituted by valine.
3. Give any two reasons for the selection of pea plants by Mendel for his experiments.
Ans. (i) Many varieties with contrasting forms of characters
(ii) Can easily be cross pollinated as well as self pollinated.
4. What type of allele produces its effects only in homozygous individual . a) dominant, b)
recessive, c) incomplete dominant , d) incomplete recessive.
Ans. b. recessive
5. Write the phenotypic ratio of di hybrid cross.
Ans. 9:3:3:1
6. Name two organisms where males are heterogametic.
Ans. Human and Drosophilla
7. Scientific name of garden pea is ________________
Ans. Pisum sativum
8. Tendency of gene to link together in a same locus is called ___________________
Ans. Linkage
33
9. Name two Mendelian disorder that are sex- linked
Ans. Haemophilia , colour blindness
10. On self pollination of a tall pea plant , it was found that one fourth of the progeny were
dwarf. What is the genotype of the parent and the dwarf progenies?
Ans. Parent - Tt , Dwarf progeny – tt
B. Category of Questions (Short Answer Type-I) 2 marks each
1. Identify the sex of organism as male or female in which the sex chromosome are found as
(i) ZW in bird (ii) XY in Drosophila (iii) ZZ in birds. (iv) XO in grasshopper.
Ans. (i) Female; (ii) Male; (iii) Female (iv) Male
2. Mention two differences between Turner ’s syndrome and Klinefelter's syndome.
Ans. Turners Syndrome : The individual is female and it has 45 chromosomes i.e., one X
chromosome is less.
Klinefelters Syndome : The individual is male and has 47 chromosomes i.e., one extra X
chromosome.
3. The human male never passes on the gene for haemophilia to his son. Why is it so?
Ans. The gene for haemophilia is present on X chromosome. A male has only one X
chromosome which he receives from his mother and Y chromosome from father. The human
male passes the X chromosome to his daughters but not to the male progeny (sons).
4. Mention four reasons why Drosophila was chosen by Morgan for his experiments in genetics.
Ans. (i) Very short life cycle (2-weeks)
(ii) Can be grown easily in laboratory
(iii) In single mating produce a large no. of flies.
(iv) Male and female show many hereditary variations
(v) It has only 4 pairs of chromosomes which are distinct in size and Shape.
5. Differentiate between point mutation and frame shift mutations.
34
Ans. Point Mutations : Arises due to change in a single base pair of DNA e.g., sickle cell anaemia.
Frame shift mutations : Deletion or insertion/duplication/addition of one or two bases in DNA.
C. Category of Questions (Short Answer Type-II) 3 marks each
1. A woman with O blood group marries a man with AB blood group
(i) work out all the possible phenotypes and genotypes of the progeny.
(ii) Discuss the kind of dominance in the parents and the progeny in this case.
Ans. (i) Blood group AB has alleles as IA, IB and O group has ii which on cross gives the both
blood groups A and B while the genotype of progeny will be IAi and IBi.
(ii) IA and IB are equally dominant (co-dominant). In multiple allelism, the gene I exists in 3
allelic forms, IA, IB and i.
2. Explain the cause of Klinefelter’s syndrome. Give any four symptoms shown by sufferer of
this syndrome.
Ans. Cause : Presence of an extra chromosome in male i.e., XXY. Symptoms : Development of
breast, Female type pubic hair pattern, poor beard growth, under developed testes and tall
stature with Feminized physique.
3. In Mendels breeding experiment on garden pea, the offspring of F2 generation are obtained
in the ratio of 25% pure yellow pod, 50% hybrid green pods and 25% green pods State (i) which
pod colour is dominant (ii) The Phenotypes of the individuals of F1 generation. (iii) Workout the
cross.
Ans. (i) Green pod colour is dominant
(ii) Green pod colour
Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1
35
4. In Antirrhinum majus a plant with red flowers was crossed with a plant with white flowers.
Work out all the possible genotypes & phenotypes of F1 & F2 generations comment on the
pattern of inheritance in this case?
Ans. The inheritance of flower colour in snapdragon or Antirrhinum majus is an example of

incomplete dominance. When a cross was made between a red flowered plant & a white
flowered plant, the F1hybrid was pink i-e-an intermediate between red & white which means
that both red & white are incompletely dominant. When F1 individuals was self – pollinated,
the F2 generation consists of red, pink & white flower appears in ratio 1:2:1 respectively.
5. A red eyed male fruitfly is crossed with white eyed female fruitfly. Work out the possible
genotype & phenotype of F1 & F2 generation. Comment on the pattern of inheritance in this
cross?
Ans. When a red eyed is crossed with white eyed female fruitfly, offspring will have both white
eyed male & red eyed female in 1:1 ration in F1 generation. In F2 generation, 50% females will
be red – eyed & 50% will be white eyed, similarly, in males 50% will be red eyed & 50% will be
white eyed. This result indicates that in sex-linked genes, males transmit their sex-linked
36
characters to their grandson through their daughter; such type of inheritance is called criss-
cross inheritance –
D. Category of Questions (Long Answer Type) 5 marks each
1. A dihybrid heterozygous round, yellow seeded garden pea (Pisum sativum) was crossed with
a double recessive plant.
(i) What type of cross is this?
(ii) Work out the genotype and phenotype of the progeny.
(iii) What principle of Mendel is illustrated through the result of this cross?
Ans.(i) It is a dihybrid test cross
(ii)
(iii) It illustrates the Principle of independent assortment.
37
2. In dogs, barking trait is dominant over silent trait & erect ears are dominant over drooping
ears. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of offspring when dogs heterozygous for both the
traits are crossed?
Ans.
Ratio:- Barking & erect = 9
Barking & drooping =3
Silent & erect = 3
Silent & drooping =1
Phenotypic ratio = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3. Differentiate between dominance, co-dominance & Incomplete dominance with one

example each.
38
Ans. (i) Dominance :- When a cross is made between true – breeding tall pea plant & true –
breeding dwarf pea plant, all the plants in F1 generation are tall this sows that tall character is
dominant over dwarf
39
(ii) Co-dominance :- If the two equally dominant genes are present together, both of them will
be equally expressed, this phenomena is called co-dominance eg alleles of blood group IA & IB
ore dominant over IO but when both the alleles are present together, both of them will equally
express & forms a phenotype AB.
(iii) In complete dominance :- When a cross is made between two characters of which none of
them is completely dominant then an intermediate character develops in the progeny eg. when
40
a cross is made between red flower & white flower in snapdragon flower an intermediate pink
colour appears in the progeny
E. Category of Questions (Assertion and Reasoning Type) 1 mark each
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of

reason. Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion : Mendel was successful in his hybridization.
Reason : Garden pea proved ideal experimental material.
Ans: (b) Mendel chose garden pea as plant material for his experiments, since it had the
following advantages:
(i) Well defined characters.
(ii) Bisexual flowers.
(iii) Predominantly self-fertilization.
(iv) Easy hybridization.
Besides these features, garden pea, being self-fertilized, had pure lines due to natural self-
fertilization for a number of years.
Therefore, any variety used was pure for the characters it carried. Mendel’s success was mainly
based on the fact that he considered a single character at one time.
2. Assertion: Mendel used true-breeding pea lines for artificial pollination experiments for his
genetic studies.
Reason: For several generations, a true-breeding line shows the stable trait inheritance and
expression.
41
Ans: (a) On garden pea for many years Mendel carried out hybridization experiments. He
performed various types of cross breeding and then allowed the offspring for self breeding. He
selected varieties and used pure lines of ture breeding lines, i.e., they produce offspring
resembling the parents. these lines show the stable trait inheritance and expression for several
generations making them suitable for genetic studies.
3. Assertion: On true breeding lines, Mendel conducted cross pollination experiments.
Reason: For several generations, true breed lines have stable trait inheritance.
Ans. (a) True breeding lines have inheritance of pure characters for several generations.
4. Assertion : Cross of F1 individual with recessive homozygous parent is test cross.
Reason : No recessive individual are obtained in the monohybrid test cross progeny.
Ans. (c) In the monohybrid test cross progeny both heterozygous and recessive individuals are
obtained in 1 : 1 ratio.
5. Assertion: The progeny produced have both the characters of parents.
Reason: The process by which characters pass from parent to progeny is known as inheritance.
Ans. (b) According to Mendelian inheritance, genes come in different varieties called alleles.
Somatic cells contain 2 alleles with one allele provided by each parent of an organism.
6. Assertion: The progeny in F2-generation traits were identical to their parental type.
Reason: The progeny show no blending of traits.
Ans. (a) Both the characters appear during the formation of F2-generation, so no blending
occurs.
7. Assertion: Genes pass from one generation to another.
Reason: The units of inheritance are genes.
Ans. (b) Chromosomes carry gene that passes on the traits of parents to the offsprings during
genetic recombination.
8. Assertion : In a monohybrid cross, F1 generation indicate dominant characters.
Reason : Dominance occurs only in heterozygous state.
42
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Ans. (c) Monohybrid cross is a cross between two organisms of a species which is made to study
the inheritance of a single pair of alleles or factors of a character. Dominant character is one of
a pair of alleles which can express itself whether present in homozygous or heterozygous state.
In F1, generation, the generation of hybrids produced from a cross between the genetically
different homozygous individuals called parents the progenies are heterozygous dominant.
9. Assertion: In monohybrid cross, at F2 stage, both parental traits are expressed in 3 : 1

proportion.
Reason: At F2 stage, the contrasting parental traits show blending.
Ans. (c) Both the parental traits of a character in F2 generation are expressed in the ratio of
three dominant to one recessive. Whereas, in F1 generation only one of the parental traits is
expressed and the other lies hidden or unexpressed. However, in the hybrid there is no mixing
of two characters. At the time formation of gamete, two factors separate or segregate and
passes into different gametes, that hence have one factor of a pair. During fertilization,
gametes fuse randomly so that factors come together in new generation and freely express
themselves.
10. Assertion: The cross between the F1 progeny and either of the parent types is a test cross.
Reason: The cross between F1 progeny and the double recessive genotype is back cross.
Ans. (d) Back cross is a cross of F1 hybrid with either of the two parents. When F1 offsprings are
crossed with the dominant parents, all the F2 generation offsprings develop dominant
character. On the other hand, when F1 hybrids are crossed with recessive parent, individuals
with both the phenotypes appear in equal proportions. Crossing of F1 individual with dominant
phenotype with its homozygous recessive parent is called test cross. It is used to determine
whether the individuals exhibiting dominant characters are homozygous or heterozygous.
F. Category of Questions (Case study based) 1 mark each
Read the following and answer the questions from 1 to 5 given below:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder where the body produces abnormal hemoglobin called
hemoglobin S. Red blood cells are normally flexible and round, but when the hemoglobin is
defective, blood cells take on a “sickle” or crescent shape. Sickle cell anemia is caused by
mutations in a gene called HBB.
It is an inherited blood disorder that occurs if both the maternal and paternal copies of the
HBB gene are defective. In other words, if an individual receives just one copy of the
defective HBB gene, either from mother or father, then the individual has no sickle cell
anemia but has what is called “sickle cell trait”. People with sickle cell trait usually do not
have any symptoms or problems but they can pass the mutated gene onto their children.
43
There are three inheritance scenarios that can lead to a child having sickle cell anemia:
- Both parents have sickle cell trait
- One parent has sickle cell anemia and the other has sickle cell trait
- Both parents have sickle cell anemia
1. Sickle cell anemia is a/ an disease.

a. X linked
b. autosomal dominant
c. autosomal recessive
d. Y linked
Ans: b. autosomal recessive
2. If one parent has sickle cell trait, then there is of the child having sickle
cell anemia.
a. 25 % risk
b. 50 % risk
c. 75% risk
d. No risk
Ans: d. No risk
3. If both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is of the child having sickle
cell trait.
a. 25 % risk
b. 50 % risk
c. 75% risk
d. No risk
Ans: b. 50% risk
4. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other has sickle cell trait, there is that
their children will have sickle cell anemia and will have sickle cell trait.
a. 25 % risk, 75% risk
b. 50 % risk, 100% risk
c. 75% risk, 25% risk
d. No risk
44
Ans. b. 50 % risk, 100% risk
5.
The following statements are drawn as conclusions from the above data (Kenya).
I. Patients with SCD (Sickle Cell Disease) are less likely to be infected with malaria.
II. Patients with SCD (Sickle Cell Disease) are more likely to be infected with malaria.
III. Over the years the percentage of people infected with malaria has been decreasing.
IV. Year 2000 saw the largest percentage difference between malaria patients with and
without SCD.
Choose from below the correct alternative.
a. only I is true
b. I and IV are true
c. III and II are true
d. I and III are true
Ans. d. I and III are true
45
CHAPTER 6: MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
Q.No. 1 MARK QUESTIONS

Q1. In nucleotide structure name the bond formed between:
Sugar and phosphate group.
Sugar and nitrogenous base.
Ans:
Phosphoester bond.
Glycosidic bond.
Q2. What is central dogma of molecular biology?
Ans: It is a central belief proposed by Francis Crick the DNA forms mRNA (through transcription)
and mRNA forms the protein (by Translation).
Q3. Define:
Nucleosomes
Cistron
Ans:
It is the assembly/wrapping of DNA strand on histone proteins (octamer).
a section of a DNA or RNA molecule that codes for a specific polypeptide in protein synthesis.
Alternative term for gene.
Q4. What is replication fork?
Ans:
The replication fork is a structure that forms within the long helical DNA during DNA
replication. It is created by helicases, which break the hydrogen bonds holding the two DNA
strands together in the helix. The resulting structure has two branching "prongs", each one
made up of a single strand of DNA.
Q5. What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?
Ans:
It acts as an adapter molecule. It possesses anticodon on one side and corresponding amino
acid on 3’ end.
Q6. What is the meaning of “semiconservative nature” of DNA replication?
Ans: It means that after replication each new DNA molecule contains one strand of the parent
and another newly synthesized strand.
Q7. Write the function of:

RNA polymerase
46
Ligase
Ans:
Involved in transcription.
Joins 2 segments of DNA together.
Q8. What is the function of non-histone chromosomal proteins?
Ans:
NHC proteins are involved in the packaging of chromatin fibres at the higher level.
Q9. Write the sequence of mRNA transcribed from the following sequence.
3’-ATGCTTACGTACGTTTCG-5’
Ans:
5’-UACGAAUGCAUGCAAAGC-3’
Q10. What are Okazaki fragments?
Ans:
Fragments of DNA synthesized on lagging strand are called as Okazaki fragments.
For question 11 to 17 two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other
labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d) as given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.

b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) Both A and R are false.
Q11. A: The pitch of the helix is 3.4nm.

R: One helix consists of 10 base pairs.
Ans: b)
Q12. A: The newly formed mRNA has same sequence as the coding strand of transcriptional unit with
uracil present at places of thymine.
R: The rule of complementarity guides the formation of DNA and RNA.
Ans: a)
Q13. A: In splicing, the exons are removed from the mRNA.

R: Exons are non-coding sequences of mRNA.
Ans: d)
47
Q14. A: The tRNA cannot identify 3 codons: UAA, UGA, UAG.
R: These codons cause the process of translation to halt for some time.
Ans: c)
Q15. A: DNA fingerprinting can identify the difference between two closely related individuals as
well.
R: DNA fingerprinting relies on SNPs and VNTRs.
Ans: a)
Transcription
To join 2 fragments of DNA together.
Q16. A: In Griffith’s experiment, the dead R strain bacteria was capable of causing the
transformation of the live S-strain bacteria.
R: The S-strain is non-virulent strain.
Ans: d)
Q17. A: In Hershey and Chase Experiment, radioactive Sulphur was used to label the protein coat of
bacteriophage.
R: Sulphur is a major component of amino acids.
Ans: a)
Q18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v) given
below:
The discovery of nuclein by Meischer and the proposition for principles of inheritance by
Mendel were almost at the same time, but that the DNA acts as a genetic material took long to
be discovered and proven. By 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic
inheritance had reached the molecular level. Previous discoveries by Gregor Mendel, Walter
Sutton, Thomas Hunt Morgan and numerous other scientists had narrowed the search to the
chromosomes located in the nucleus of most cells. But the question of what molecule was
actually the genetic material, had not been answered.
Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44) Worked to determine the
biochemical nature of ‘transforming principle’ in Griffith’s experiment. The diagram given
below is depicting the experiment done by these 3 scientists to establish the biochemical
nature of the transforming principle.
48
18 (i) The first significant effort to identify the genetic material was done by:
a) Avery, MaLeod and McCarty
b) Hershey & Chase
c) Frederik Griffith
d) Meselson and Sthal
Ans: c)
18 (ii) The biochemical nature of the transforming principle was established by:
a) Avery, MaLeod and McCarty
b) Hershey & Chase
c) Frederik Griffith
d) Meselson and Sthal
Ans: a)
18 What is the role of RNase in the experiment given above?

(iii) a) To kill the mice
b) To cause the transformation of R strain into S strain.
c) To degrade proteins in the sample.
d) To degrade RNA in the sample.
Ans: d)
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18 Which among the following case is causing the transformation of R-strain bacteria into
(iv) S-strain bacteria?
a) Homogenate sample + RNase.
b) Homogenate sample + RNase + protease + DNase
c) Homogenate sample + protease
d) Homogenate sample + RNase + protease
Ans: b)
18 (v) A: The experiment will not be successful if the sample is not heated initially after
centrifugation.
R: When the sample is heated it will cause the cell wall and plasma membrane to break
and all the components of the cell to come in the solution.

Ans: a)
below:
RNA was the first genetic material. There is now enough evidence to suggest that
essential life processes (such as metabolism, translation, splicing, etc.), Evolved around
RNA. RNA used to act as a genetic material as well as a catalyst (there are some
important biochemical reactions in living systems that are catalyzed by RNA catalysts
and not by protein enzymes). But RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence
unstable. Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that
make it more stable. DNA being double stranded and having complementary strand
further resists changes by evolving a process of repair.
19 (i) Which nucleic acid is more reactive?

a) Protein
b) RNA
c) DNA
d) Both RNA & Protein.
Ans: b)
19 (ii) Which evidence suggest that RNA used to be the genetic material rather than DNA?
a) That RNA is more ancient that DNA.
b) The major life processes machinery is evolved around RNA.
c) RNA acts as catalyst also.
d) Both a & b
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Ans: d)
19 Which among the following is an example of RNA acting as a catalyst?

(iii) a) mRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) Both b & c
Ans: d)
19 “DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable”.
(iv) Which chemical modification is referred here?
a) DNA contains hexose sugar.
b) DNA has more phosphate groups as compared to RNA.
c) DNA contains deoxyribose sugar and thymine base.
d) DNA follows complementary base pair rule.
Ans: c)
19 (v) A: RNA still acts as genetic material in some organisms such as viruses.
R: Viruses also follow central dogma proposed by Francis Crick.

Ans: c)
below:
Knowledge about the effects of DNA variations among individuals can lead to
revolutionary new ways to diagnose, treat and someday prevent the thousands of
disorders that affect human beings. Besides providing clues to understanding human
biology, learning about non-human organism’s DNA sequences can lead to an
understanding of their natural capabilities that can be applied toward solving
challenges in health care, agriculture, energy production, environmental remediation.
Many non-human model organisms, such as bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (a
free-living non-pathogenic nematode), Drosophila (the fruit fly), plants (rice and
Arabidopsis), etc., have also been sequenced.
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20 (i) The paragraph is referring to which technique developed recently?
a) Sequencing the genome.
b) Sequencing the proteins.
c) Identifying the coding sequences among the genome.
d) All of the above.
20 (ii) The maximum number of genes are found in:

a) Chromosome 5
b) Chromosome 21
c) Chromosome 1
d) Chromosome 10
Ans: c)
20 What percentage of genome codes for proteins?

(iii) a) 3%
b) 8%
c) 10%
d) 2 %
Ans: d)
20 What is the total estimated number of genes in human genome?

(iv) a) 30000
b) 20000
c) 25000
d) 80000
Ans: a)
20 (v) A: Human Genome Project was a mega project coordinated by U.S Department of
Health and Nutrition.
R: The project was Launched in 2001.

Ans: d)
2 MARK QUESTIONS
52
Q21. Describe “beads on string” structure of DNA.
Ans:
 The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone
octamer to form a structure called nucleosome.
 A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
 Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called
chromatin thread like stained (colored) bodies seen in nucleus.
 The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘beads on string’ structure when viewed
under electron microscope (EM)
Q22. What are the criteria to be fulfilled by a molecule to act as a genetic material?
Ans:
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the following criteria:
a) Replication: it should be able to generate its replica (
b) Stability: it should chemically and structurally be
c) Mutation: it should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are
required for evolution.
d) Genetic Expression: it should be able to express itself in the form of 'mendelian
characters’.
Q23. Differentiate between:

a) Polycistronic and monocistronic mRNA
b) DNA and RNA
Ans:
a) Difference:
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54
b) Difference:
Q24. How is polarity of DNA determined?
Ans:
The free phosphate group is attached to the 5’ Carbon of the ribose sugar thus this side
is labelled as 5’ end. The other end has a 3’-OH free group thus is called as 3’ end.
Q25. Why both the strands are not copied during transcription?
Ans:
a) If both strands act as a template, they would code for RNA molecule with different
sequences (Remember complementarity does not mean identical), and in turn, if
they code for proteins, the sequence of amino acids in the proteins would be
different. Hence, one segment of the DNA would be coding for two different
proteins, and this would complicate the genetic information transfer machinery.
b) The two RNA molecules if produced simultaneously would be complementary to
each other, hence would form a double stranded RNA. This would prevent RNA
from being translated into protein and the exercise of transcription would become
a futile one.
Q26. How does mutation in DNA sequence leads to change in protein sequence?
55
Ans:
Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of
insertion or deletion. Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete
one or multiple codon hence one or multiple amino acids, and reading frame remains
unaltered from that point onwards.
Q27. Explain the clover-leaf structure of tRNA.
Ans:
tRNA has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code, and it also has
an amino acid acceptor end to which it binds to amino acids. tRNAs are specific for
each amino acid.
The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a clover -leaf. In actual structure, the tRNA is
a compact molecule which looks like inverted L.
Q28. Which methodology was followed for human genome project?
Ans:
The methods involved two major approaches.
One approach focused on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA (referred
to as Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs).
The other took the blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that
contained all the coding and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions
in the sequence with functions (a term referred to as Sequence Annotation).
3 MARK QUESTIONS
Q29. Explain salient features of DNA.
Ans:
a) It is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by
sugar phosphate, and the bases project inside.
b) The two chains have anti parallel polarity.
c) The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H bonds) forming
base pairs (bp). Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine from opposite
strand and vice versa. Similarly, guanine is bonded with cytosine with three h
bonds. As a result, always a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This
generates approximately uniform distance between the two strands of the
helix.
d) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion. The pitch of the helix is 3.4
nm (a nanometre is one billionth of a metre, that is 10-9 m) and there are
roughly 10 bp in each turn. Consequently, the distance between a bp in a helix is
approximately equal to 0.34 nm.
e) The plane of one base pair stack over the other in double helix. This, in addition
56
to H bonds, confers stability of the helical structure
Q30. What modifications occur in mRNA before translation in eukaryotes.
Ans:
The primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns and are non-functional.
Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing where 3 modifications take place in
hnRNA to make it mature mRNA:
a) Splicing: introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order.
b) hnRNA undergoes additional processing called as capping and tailing. In capping
an unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5’ end of
hnRNA .
c) In tailing, adenylate residues (200 300) are added at 3’ end in a template
independent manner. It is the fully processed hnRNA, now called mRNA, that is
transported out of the nucleus for translation.
Q31. Explain salient features of genetic code.
Ans:
 The codon is triplet. 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do not code
for any amino acids, hence they function as stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA)
 One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence, it is unambiguous and specific.
 Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is
degenerate
 The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion. There are no punctuations
 The code is nearly universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU would
code for phenylalanine (Phe). Some exceptions to this rule have been found in
mitochondrial codons, and in some protozoans.
 AUG has dual functions. It codes for methionine (met) , and it also act as
initiator (start) codon.
Q32. Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription.
Ans:
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Q33. What are the requirements for DNA replication? Mention the role of each requirement
in the process.
Ans:
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Q34. What is DNA polymorphism? Why is it important to study it?
Ans:
Occurrence of different types of repetitive DNA (micro and minisatellites), single
nucleotides and restricted fragment length is called DNA polymorphism.
Importance of DNA Polymorphism:
 It brings about genetic variation.
 It is used for genetic mapping.
 For identification of organisms.
 For resolving criminal Cases.
 For resolving paternity disputes.
Q35. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
Ans:
Q36. How many types of RNA polymerases are found in eukaryotes? Mention function of
each RNA polymerase.
59
Ans:
3 types of RNA polymerases are found in Eukaryotic cells.
a) The RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S, and 5.8S)
b) RNA polymerase II transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA
(hnRNA).
c) RNA polymerase III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5srRNA, and snRNAs
(small nuclear RNAs).
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q37. Explain Hershey and Chase experiment to proof that DNA is the genetic material.
Ans:
60
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Q38. How did Meselson & Sthal proved that DNA replication is semi-conservative?
Ans:
Experimental proof of semiconservative nature of DNA Replication was provided by
Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl (1957-58).
Model Organism: Escherichia coli (E. coli) bacteria.
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed the following experiment in 1958:
1. They grew E. Coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl (15N is the heavy isotope of
nitrogen) as the only nitrogen source for many generations. The result was that
15N was incorporated into newly synthesized DNA (as well as other nitrogen
containing compounds).
2. This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from the normal DNA by
centrifugation in a cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient (please note that 15N
is not a radioactive isotope, and it can be separated from 14N only based on
densities).
3. Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took
samples at various definite time intervals as the cells multiplied, and extracted
the DNA that remained as double-stranded helices. The various samples were
separated independently on CsCl gradients to measure the densities of DNA.
4. Thus, the DNA that was extracted from the culture one generation after the
transfer from 15N to 14N medium [that is after 20 minutes; E. Coli divides in 20
minutes] had a hybrid or intermediate density. DNA extracted from the culture
after another generation [that is after 40 minutes, II generation] was composed
of equal amounts of this hybrid DNA and of ‘light’ DNA.
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Q39. What is Lac operon? How does it operate in the presence and absence of lactose?
Ans:
Lac OPERON: an operon is a cluster of functionally-related genes that are controlled by
a shared operator. Lac Operons consist of multiple genes grouped together with a
promoter and an operator that are involved in the breakdown of lactose in bacteria.
It consists of following parts:

1. Pi: promoter of regulator gene
2. Lac i gene/regulator gene: gene that forms the repressor.
3. Ps: promoter gene for structural genes.
4. Lac o/operator gene: binding site for repressor.
5. Lac z gene: transcribe and form β-galactosidase enzyme. It converts lactose into
glucose and galactose.
6. Lac y gene: transcribe and form permease which increases the permeability of
the cell to beta-gal.
7. Lac a gene: form transacetylase. Function is unclear.
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Q40. Describe the structure of a transcription unit with the help of a diagram. Which strand
of DNA acts as a template for transcription? Diagrammatically explain the process of
prokaryotic transcription.
Ans:
A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by the three regions in the DNA:
1. A promoter
2. The structural gene
3. A terminator
The strand that acts as a template has 3’ to 5’ polarity. It has a promotor sequence
upstream (i.e 5’ end of the coding strand) and a terminator sequence downstream (3’
end of the coding strand)
PROKARYOTIC TRANSCRIPTION
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REQUIREMENTS:
• DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase: enzyme that catalyse formation of mRNA.
• Sigma factor/Initiation Factor: Required for initiating the process of
transcription.
• Rho-factor/Termination Factor: Required for terminating the process of
transcription.
• NTPs: for adding N-bases to growing chain of mRNA.
STEPS:
1. Initiation
2. Elongation
3. Termination
Q41. Explain the process of protein synthesis (translation).
Ans:
Translation includes 5 steps:
a) ACTIVATION OF AMINO ACIDS
AA + Atp Amino acyl synthetase AA-AMP-enzyme complex + pp
b) TRANSFER OF AMINO ACIDS TO tRNA

AA-AMP-enzyme complex + tRNA AA-tRNA + AMP +
enzyme
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c) INITIATION
• The mRNA by its 5’ end binds to smaller subunit of ribosome.

• The initiation of polypeptide chain is always brought about by the codon 5’-
AUG---3’ which codes for methionine amino acid.
• Ribosome has 2 sites for binding amino-acyl tRNA:
a) Amino-acyl or A-site (acceptor site)
b) Peptidyl or P-site (donor site)
• The first amino acid tRNA can bind only with P-site (exception from all other
tRNAs which bind first at A-site).
• After binding of 1st tRNA at P-site, the larger subunit of ribosome is recruited
and initiation complex is ready.
d) ELONGATION
• The next incoming aminoacyl tRNA binds mRNA & ribosomes at A site.
• The peptide bond is created between the amino acids of tRNAs present in P & A
site.
• The tRNA in P-site donate its amino acid to tRNA present in A-site.
• The reaction is catalysed by peptidyl transferase present in large subunit of
ribosome.
• In the next step, the ribosome shifts towards 3’ end of mRNA by one codon.
• Now, the tRNA present in P-site comes to E-site & the one in A-site comes to P-
site, making A-site empty for receiving the next tRNA molecule.
• The tRNA in E site is removed from the ribosome and a new tRNA enters the A-
site having next amino acid.
• The peptide bond is formed again between the dipeptide present in P-site and
the new amino acid present in A-site.
• The ribosome shifts once again.
• This cycle is repeated till the ribosome encounters a stop codon.
e) TERMINATION
• In termination, the release factor binds in A-site as stop codons do not have
their tRNAs.
• The binding of release factor causes the release of peptide chain in the
cytoplasm & dissociation of ribosome into free larger subunit & smaller subunit.
Q42. Explain the process of DNA fingerprinting step by step.
Ans:
 Isolation of DNA
 Amplification of DNA sample by Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
66
 Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases (RE).
-This will produce different sized fragments which are known as restriction
fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs).
 Gel electrophoresis: During gel electrophoresis, an electrical current is applied to a
gel mixture, which includes the samples of the DNA.
-The electric current causes the DNA strands to move through the gel. This
separates the molecules of different sizes.
 Transfer of DNA strands on nylon membrane: The fragments of separated DNA are
sieved out of the gel using a nylon membrane (treated with chemicals that allow
for it to break the hydrogen bonds of DNA so there are single strands).
 The DNA (single stranded) is cross-linked against the nylon using heat or a UV
light.
 The probe shows up on photographic film because the strands of DNA decay and
give off light. In the end it leaves dark spots on the film which are also known as
the DNA bands of a person. What make up the fingerprint are the unique patterns
of bands. The pattern of bands are different because we are all different and
unique (other than identical twins).
 Once the filter is exposed to the x-ray film, the radioactive DNA sequences are
shown and can be seen with the naked eye. This creates a banding pattern or what
we know as DNA fingerprints. This technique is called southern blotting.
Q43. What are the key features of Human Genome Project?
Ans:
1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases.
2. The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly, with the largest
known human gene being dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.
3. The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000–much lower than previous
estimates of 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. Almost all (99.9 per cent) nucleotide bases
are exactly the same in all people.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of the discovered genes.
5. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for proteins.
6. Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
7. Repetitive sequences are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many
times, sometimes hundred to thousand times. They are thought to have no direct
coding functions, but they shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and
evolution.
8. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the y has the fewest (231).
9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA
differences (SNPs – single nucleotide polymorphism, pronounced as ‘snips’) occur
in humans. This information promises to revolutionize the processes of finding
chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences and tracing human
history.
67
CHAPTER 8: HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
One Mark Question
Q1. Write the scientific name of the causative organism of elephantiasis.

Ans. Wuchereria (W. bancrofti, W. malayi)
Q2. What is the test used to confirm typhoid?

Ans. Widal Test
Q3. Smack is common drug which is consumed by many persons. Name the plant from which it
is obtained.
Ans Latex of poppy plant
Q4. Breast fed babies are more immune to diseases than the bottle-fed babies. Why?
Ans. The mother’s milk consists of antibodies (Ig A) such antibodies are not available to
bottle fed babies.
Q5. Name the pathogen of malaria.

Ans. Plasmodium
Q6. Define auto immune disorder.

Ans. Auto-immune disease refers to the disease when body’s immune system due to genetic or
other unknown reasons starts destroying self-cells and molecules, e.g., rheumatoid arthritis
and systemic lupus.
Q7. Name the parasite which causes amoebiasis.

Ans. Entamoeba histolytica
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Q8. Name any two types of cells that act as ‘cellular barriers’ to provide innate immunity in
humans
Ans. Certain type of leucocytes (such as PMNL- neutrophils, monocytes) and natural killer cells
are two types of cells that act as ‘cellular barriers’ to provide innate immunity in humans.
Q9. Name the two intermediate hosts on which the human liver fluke depends to complete its
life cycle so as to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host
Ans. The human liver fluke requires two intermediate hosts, i.e. freshwater snail and fish to
complete their life cycle and facilitate parasitisation of its primary host.
Q10. What is it that prevent a child to suffer from a disease he/she is vaccinated against? Give
one reason.
Ans. Vaccination produce antibodies in large numbers, which protect the child by neutralizing
the pathogenic agents during infection. The vaccine also generates memory B and T-cells.
TWO MARK QUESTION
Q1. Name an allergen and write the response of human body when exposed to it.
Ans the allergen can be pollen grains, spores or dust particles.
When the allergens are inhaled or enter body system, they stimulate body to produce IgE
antibodies and trigger an anti-allergic reaction. The chemical such as histamine and serotonin
are released from mast cells, in response to allergen, thereby causing dilation of blood vessels.
The other symptoms of allergy, i.e. sneezing, watery eyes, running nose, etc.
Q2. Differentiate between active and passive immunity.

Ans.
ACTIVE IMMUNITY PASSIVE IMMUNITY

Develops when body’s own cell Develops when antibody produced in
produces antibodies in response to another organism are injected into a
infection person
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Slow in response but long lasting Provides immediate relief
Q3. Name the parasite that causes filariasis in humans. Mention its two diagnostic symptoms.
How is this transmitted to others? 2
Ans. Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi) are the filarial worms that cause filariasis in
humans.
Diagnostic Symptoms
(i) Collection of fluid causes swelling in arms, breasts, legs and genital region.
(ii) Inflammation in lower limbs, resulting in deformities.
It is transmitted to a healthy person through the bite of the female mosquito vector, Culex.
Q4. (i) Name the group of viruses responsible for causing AIDS in humans. Why are these
viruses so named? 2
(ii)List any two ways of transmission of HIV infection in humans other than sexual contact?
Ans. (i)Retrovirus is the group of viruses causing AIDS in humans. They contain RNA as genetic
material and with the help of enzyme reverse transcriptase they make DNA or RNA template.
Thus, they are called retrovirus.
(ii) (a) By sharing infected needles.
(b) By transfusion of blood contaminated with HIV
Q5. Why is an antibody represented H2L2 ? 2

Ans. Antibody is represented as H2L2 because each antibody molecule has four peptide chains,
i.e., two small light (L) chains and two longer heavy (H) chains.
Q6. What is colostrum? Why is it important to be given to the newborn infants? 2

Ans. Colostrum is the milk produced by mother during initial days of lactation. Colostrum
contains antibody IgA that provides protection against disease, thus protecting the newborn
infants.
Q7. Given below are the pathogens and the diseases caused by them. Which out of these pairs
is
not correct matching pair and why? 2
70
(a) Wuchereria . Filariasis
(b) Microsporum. Ringworm
(c) Salmonella. Common Cold
(d) Plasmodium. Malaria
Ans. Salmonella: Common cold is not a matching pair.
Q8. What would happen to the immune system, if thymus gland is removed from the body of
a person? 2
Ans. T-lymphocytes develop and mature in thymus gland, Immune system will
become weak on removal of thymus gland
THREE MARK QUESTION
Q1. What are Cannabinoids? From which plant Cannabinoids are obtained? Which part of the
body? 3
is affected by consuming these substances?
Ans. Cannabinoids are a group of chemicals which interact with Cannabinoid receptors present
principally in the brain. Cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant
Cannabis sativa.
The substances affect the cardiovascular system adversely.
Q2. (i)Name the causative organisms for the following diseases.

(a)Elephantiasis
(b)Ringworm
(c)Amoebiasis
(ii)How can public hygiene help control such diseases? 3
Ans. (i)The causative agent or organism for following diseases are:
(a)Elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and W. malayi.
These affect lower limbs and genital organs.
(b) Ringworm is caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton.
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They affect the skin, nails and scalp.
(c)Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large intestine of human, which causes
amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery).
(ii) Maintenance of public hygiene such as:
 keeping body and surroundings clean.

 consumption of clean drinking water, fruits and vegetables, etc.
 regular cleaning and disinfection of tanks and other water reservoirs, etc.
Q3. What is innate immunity? List the four types of barriers which protect the body from the
entry 3
of the foreign agents.
Ans. Innate Immunity is non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of
birth.
(i) Physical Barriers: Skin, mucous-coated epithelium or respiratory, digestive
and urino genital tract.
(ii) Physiological Barriers: Acidity of Stomach, lysozyme in saliva, tears, sweat.
(iii) Cellular Barrier: Macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes and natural killer lymphocytes.
(iv)Cytokine Barriers: Interferons produced by Viral infected cells,
protect the non-infected cells from further Viral infection
Q4. (i) Name the causative agent of typhoid in humans.

(ii) Name the test administered to confirm the disease.
(iii)How does the pathogen gain entry into the human body? Write the diagnostic symptoms
and mention the body organ that gets affected in severe cases? 3
Ans. (i) Salmonella typhi.
(ii) Widal test.
(iii) Pathogens enter the human body through contaminated food and water.
Symptoms of typhoid are:
(a) Constant high fever (39-40°C)
(b) Weakness and headache
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Loss of appetite
Intestinal (small intestine) perforation in severe cases which may cause death.
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Causative agent – Salmonella typhi
FIVE MARK QUESTION
Q1. (i) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases. Explain ‘contact inhibition’ and ‘metastasis’
with respect to disease.
(ii)Name the group of genes that have been identified in normal cells that could lead to cancer.
How do these genes cause cancer?
(iii)Name any two techniques that are useful in detecting cancers of internal organs.
(iv)Why are cancer patients after given a-interferon as part of the treatment? 5
Ans. (i)’Contact inhibition’ is the property exhibited by normal cells. It prevents their
uncontrolled proliferation when they are in contact with other neighboring cells. But cancerous
cells seem to have lost this property and continue to divide despite being in contact with other
cells, which leads to masses of cells called tumours. ’Metastasis’ is the property exhibited by
malignant tumours which grows rapidly, invades, neighboring tissues and is capable of reaching
distant sites through blood and lymph thus, spreading malignant tumours to other organs or
parts of body.
These two properties make ‘cancer’ one of the dreaded diseases.
(ii) The group of genes called oncogenes or proto-oncogenes in normal cells could lead to
cancer.
These genes are present in inactivated or suppressed form. Some factors, i.e. physical, chemical
or biological called carcinogens are capable of activating these oncogenes and thus
transforming normal cells into cancerous one.
The two techniques useful jn detecting cancers of internal organs, are CT (Computed
Tomography) and MR1 (Magnetic Resonance Imaging).
(iv) As tumour cells are capable of avoiding recognition and destruction by immune system, the
cancer patients are given a-interferons which are biological response modifiers. It helps activate
the immune system and destroy tumours.
Q2. The immune system of a person is suppressed. He was found positive for a pathogen in
the diagnostic test ELISA. 5
(a) Name the disease, the patient is suffering from.
(b) Which pathogen is identified by ELISA test?
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(c) Which cells of the body are attacked by the pathogen?
(d) Suggest preventive measure of the infection.
Ans. (i) AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)
(ii) HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)
(iii) Helper T-cells, macrophages, B-lymphocytes.
(iv) Preventive measures:
(a) People should be educated about AIDS transmission.
(b) Disposable needles and syringes should be used
(c) Sexual habits should be changed immediately
(d) High-risk groups should be discouraged from donating blood.
(e) Routine screening may be done
Q3. Study the diagram showing replication of HIV in humans and answer the following
questions accordingly. 5
A C
X
B
(i)Write the chemical nature of the coat

(ii)Name the enzyme B acting on X to produce molecule C. Name C.
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(iii)Mention the name of the host cell D the HIV attacks first when it enters into the human
body.
(iv)Name the two different cells the new viruses E subsequently attack.
Ans. (i)A – Protein coat
(ii) B – Reverse transcriptase C – It is viral DNA
(iii) Macrophage (animal or human cell)
(iv)Macrophages and helper T-cells.
CASE BASED QUESTION
Q1. Read the following and answer the following question:
Some of the human diseases are caused by protozoans too. You might have heard about
malaria; a disease man has been fighting since many years. Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan is
responsible for this disease. Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax, P. malaria and P.
falciparum) are responsible for different types of malaria. Of these, malignant malaria caused
by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
In malaria which of the following is released in blood to cause severe chill

(a) hematin
(b) haemozoin
(c) haemoglobin
(d) haemolysin
Ans. Haemozoin
Is the infectious form pf plasmodium

(a) sporozoite
(b) gametocyte
(c) wuchereria
(d) aedes
Ans. Sporozoite
Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
75
(a) Saliva of infected female anopheles’ mosquito
(b) RBC of humans suffering from malaria
(c) Spleen of infected humans
(d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female anopheles’ mosquito
Q2. A patient showed symptoms of sustained high fever, stomach pain and constipation, but no
blood clot in stools. Name the disease and its pathogen. Write the diagnostic test for the
disease. How does the disease get transmitted?
Ans. Typhoid is the disease that show symptoms, i.e. high fever, stomach pain and constipation.
Its causative agent is Salmonella typhi. Widal test is used for its diagnosis. Typhoid is
transmitted through contaminated food and water
Q3. Community service department of your school plans a visit to a slum near the school with
an objective educate the slum dwellers with respect to health and hygiene.
(i)Why is there a need to organise such visits?
(ii)Write the steps you will highlight, as a member of this department, in your interactions with
them to enable them to lead a healthy life
Ans. (i)Slums are generally unauthorised and encroached colonies with no public facilities and
organization. Due to lack of education, cleanliness and other facilities and the poor living
standard in terms of health, hygiene and nutrition such people are always at risk of acquiring
infections. Therefore, there is a need to organise visits to slums so as to educate and crate
awareness among them regarding the importance of hygiene.
(ii) The points to be highlighted while interacting with the slum people may be.
 Importance of cleanliness and hygiene of body as well as surroundings.
 Awareness and prevention of infectious diseases.
 Use of public facilities, i.e. toiletries.
Q3. person with this pathogen suffers with chill and high fever.
(a) Identify the disease.
(b) Name the pathogen.
(c) What is the cause of fever?
(d) Represent the life cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically.
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Ans. (a) Malaria
(b) Different species of Plasmodium viz P. vivax, P. Malariae and Falciparum.
(c) Malaria is caused by the toxins (haemozoin) produced in the human body by the malarial
parasite. This toxin is released by the rupturing of RBCs.
(d) Life cycle of Plasmodium
77
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTION
Read the question and choose any of the following four responses:
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false
Q1. Assertion: tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasite of human intestine
Reason: improperly cooked food is the source of intestinal infection.
Ans B
Q2. Assertion: dope test is used to estimate the level of blood alcohol by analyzing the breath
of person drinking alcohol
Reason: a drunken person usually feels tense and is less talkative.
Ans. D
Q3. There is no chance of transmission of malaria to a men by the bites of a a male anopheles
mosquito.
Reason: it carries a non-virulent strain of plasmodium.
Ans. C
Q4. Minerals are not biologically active substance.

Reason: some individual suffers from anemia due to deficiency of copper
Ans. D
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CHAPTER 10: MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1 Marks Questions
1. How does a small amount of curd added to fresh milk convert it into curd? Mention a
nutritional quality that get added to the curd.
Ans. A large number of lactic acid bacteria are found in small amount of curd which multiply
and convert the milk into curd by producing the lactic acid. The nutritional quality improves by
increasing Vitamin B12.
2. Why is secondary treatment of water in sewage treatment plant called biological treatment?
Ans. In this treatment Organic wastes of sewage water are decomposed bycertain
microorganisms in presence of water.
3. An antibiotic called ‘Wonder Drug’ was used to treat the wounded soldiers of America during
World War-II. Name the drug and the scientist who discovered it.
Ans. Penicillin, Alexander Fleming.
4. You have observed that fruit juice in bottles bought from the market are clearer as compared
to those made at home. Give reason.
Ans. Bottle juices are clarified by the use of pectinase and proteases.
5. Alexander Fleming discovered ‘Penicillin, but its full potential as an effective antibiotic was
established by other scientists. Name the two scientists.
Ans. Ernest chain and Howard Florey.
6. Name the plant whose sap is used in making ‘Toddy’. Mention the process involved in it.
Ans. Palm tree, by fermentation.
7.What is the medical use of cyclosporin A.
Ans. Cyclosporin A is used as an immunosuppressive drug during organ transplantation.
8.Name the pests that lady bird & dragon flies help to get rid off respectively?
Ans. Lady bird beetle is useful to get rid off aphids & dragon – flies control mosquitoes.
9.Give an example to prove that microbes release gases during metabolism?
Ans. The best example of microbes release gases during metabolism are the puffed dough &
bread.
10.What are interferons?
Ans. Proteins released by cells in response to viral infection which they help to combat are
called interferons.
11.Name the enzyme which is used as clot buster” to remove blood clot from blood vessels of
patients.
Ans. Streptokinase.
12.Name the first antibiotic manufactured & also name its source microorganism.
Ans. Penicillin obtained from penicillium notatum.
13.Name any two fungus which are used in production of antibiotics?
Ans. Penicillium notatum, cephalosporium acremonium.
14.Expand LAB?
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Ans. Lactic acid Bacteria
15.Name any two free – living nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Ans. Azotobacter, Azospirillum
16.Name the organism used in the dough for making bread.
Ans. Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
17.Name the fungus used as a biocontrol of plant diseases.
Ans. Trichoderma.
18.Name any two gases produced during secondary treatment of Sewage?
Ans. Methane, Hydrogen sulphide & carbon dioxide
19. Give the scientific name of the source organism from which the first antibiotic
was produced.
Ans. The scientific name of organism, i.e. mould from which first antibiotic was produced is
Penicillium notatum.
20. Which of the following is the baker’s yeast used in fermentation? Saccharum barberi,
Saccharomyces cerevisiae and Sonalika.
Ans. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is the baker’s yeast used in fermentation.
21. Write the scientific name of the microbe used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices.
Ans. Saccharomyces cerevisiae also, commonly called brewer’s yeast is the microbe used for
fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices.]
22. Mention the information that the health workers derive by measuring BOD of a waterbody.
Ans. Higher the BOD of water body, more is its polluting potential and vice-versa. BOD indicates
the presence of organic matter in the water.
23. Why is sewage water treated until the BOD is reduced? Give a reason.
Ans. The greater the BOD of sewage water, more is its polluting potential. So, the sewage water
is treated, till its BOD is reduced to reduce the organic matter present in it.
24. Milk starts to coagulate when Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) is added to warm milk as a starter.
Mention any other two benefits LAB provides.
Ans. Two benefits of LAB:
(i) They improve the nutrient quality of curd by increasing the vitamin-B12 content.
(ii) LAB also check the growth of disease causing microbes in the stomach.
25. BOD of two samples of water A and B were 120 mg/L and 400 mg/L, Which sample is more
polluted?
Ans. Sample B(BOD 400 mg/L) is more polluted as higher the BOD, more is the polluting
potential
26. Given below are a few impurities in urban wastewater. Select two colloidal impurities :
ammonia, faecal matter, silt, bacteria, calcium.
Ans. Faecal matter and silt are the colloidal impurities in urban wastewater.
2 MARKS QUESTIONS
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27. Name two alcoholic drinks produced in each of the following ways.
(i) by distillation and (ii) without distillation.
Ans. (i) Whisky, brandy, rum – by distillation
(ii) Wine, beer – without distillation
28. Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) is commonly used in the conversion of milk into curd. Mention
any two other functions of LAB that are useful to humans.
Ans. (i) LAB in human intestine synthesizes Vitamin B12.
(ii) LAB in human stomach checks the growth of harmful microbes.
29. How do mycorrhizae function as biofertilizers? Explain with example.
Ans. Mycorrhiza are fungi associated with the roots of plants. Many members of genus Glomus
form mycorrhiza. These fungal symbiont absorbs water and minerals like phosphorus from the
soil and provide them to the plant.
30.Name two groups of organisms which constitute ‘floes’. Write their influence on the level of
BOD during biological treatment of sewage.
Ans. The groups of organisms that constitute mesh like structures called ‘floes’ are bacteria and
fungi. These bacterial masses associated with fungal filaments called floes, consume the major
part of organic matter present in effluent, thereby reducing the BOD of the waste significantly
during biological or secondary treatment of sewage.
31. Why is ‘starter’ added to set the milk into curd? Explain.
Ans. When a small amount of curd as starter is added to fresh milk, millions of Lactic Acid
Bacteria (LAB) present in the starter grow in milk and convert it to curd. During this process,
acids are produced by LAB that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins (casein). LAB
increases vitamin-B12 content along with other vitamins in the curd
32. Name the bacterium responsible for the large holes seen in swiss cheese. What are these
holes due to?
Ans. Swiss cheese is produced by the bacterium Propionibacterium shermanii. The large holes
in swiss cheese are due to the large amount of C02 production
33. Name the source of streptokinase. How does this bioactive molecule function in our body.
Or
Name the enzyme produced by Streptococcus bacterium. Explain its importance in medical
sciences.
Ans. Streptokinase enzyme is produced by the bacterium Streptococcus. It is modified by
genetic engineering and is used as a clot buster for removing clots from the blood vessels of
patients who have suffered from myocardial infarction.
34. Mention the importance of lactic acid bacteria to humans other than setting milk into curd.
Ans. (i)Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) are used to produce an acid called lactic acid that is an
important industrial product. It is also used in beverages, meat products, confectionary, dairy
products, etc.
(ii) It also checks disease causing microbes in stomach.
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35. Name the source of cyclosporin-A. How does this bioactive molecule function in our body?
Ans. Cyclosporin-A is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. It is used as an
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients.
36. Name the source of statin and state its action on the human body.
Or
Give the scientific name of the microbes from which cyclosporin-A and statin are obtained.
Write one medical use of each one of these drugs.
Ans. Statin is produced by yeast Monascus purpureus. It is used as blood cholesterol lowering
agent. It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
or Cyclosporin-A is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. It is used as an
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients. Statin is produced by yeast Monascus
purpureus. It is used as blood cholesterol lowering agent. It acts by competitively inhibiting the
enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
37. Why are some molecules called bioactive molecules? Give two examples of such molecules.
Ans. Bioactive molecules are produced from living organisms and are useful in other living
organisms. Examples are streptokinase, cyclosporin-A, statins.
38. How does addition of a small amount of curd to fresh milk help formation of curd? Mention
a nutritional quality that gets added to the curd.
Or
Explain the change fresh milk undergoes when a small amount of curd as starter is added to it
and kept at suitable temperature.
Ans. When a small amount of curd as starter is added to fresh milk, millions of Lactic Acid
Bacteria (LAB) present in the starter grow in milk and convert it to curd. During this process,
acids are produced by LAB that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins (casein). LAB
increases vitamin-B12 content along with other vitamins in the curd
39. During the secondary treatment of the primary effluent. How does the significant decrease
in BOD occur?
Ans. During the secondary treatment, the aeration allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic
microbes into floes (masses of bacterial cells in association with fungal filaments forming mesh-
like structures). As they grow, the microbes consume a major part of the organic matter in the
effluent, so BOD is significantly reduced.
40. Identify A, B, C and D in table given below:
Ans. A- Streptococcus
B- Cyclosporin-A
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C- Immunosuppressive agent
D-Myocardial infarction
41. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D in the table given below:
Ans. A- Penicillium notatum B- Acetic acid

C- Fungus
D- Saccharomyces cerevisiae
42. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D given in following table:
Ans. A- Lactobacillus
B- Trichoderma polysporum
C- Yeast
D-Penicillin
43. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D given in the following table:
Ans. A- Streptococcus
B- Fungus
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C- Cyclosporin-A
D- Clostridium butylicum
44.Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D from the table given below:
Ans. A- Trichoderma polysporum

B- Immunosuppressive agent
C- Yeast
D- Blood cholesterol lowering agent
45. State the use of following enzymes/acids produced by the microbes
(i)lipase (ii) lactic acid
(iii) streptokinase (iv) pectinase
Ans. The use of following products formed by microbes are:
(i) Lipase is used in detergent preparation and in removal of oil stains from clothes.
(ii) Lactic acid produced by Lactobacillus converts milk into curd.
(iii) Streptokinase is used as a ‘clot buster’ for removing blood clots from blood vessels in
patients of myocardial fraction.
(iv) Pectinase is used to clear (bottled) fruit juices.
46. How has fungus Trichoderma polysporum proved to be very essential to organ transplant
patients?
Ans. This fungus produces a bioactive molecule, called cyclosporin-A, which is used as an
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients.
3 MARKS QUESTION
47. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the table given below:
Ans. The codes are identified as

A- Clot buster in patents who underwent myocardial infarction.
B- Trichoderma polysporum
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C- Immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation
D- Statins
E – Blood cholesterol lowering agents
F – Lactic acid
48. Name the two different categories of microbes naturally occurring in sewage water. Explain
their role in cleaning sewage water into usable water.
Ans. Bacteria and fungi are the two categories of naturally occurring microbes in sewage. The
bacteria along with the fungal mycelia form the floes. These floes are utilised during the
secondary treatment of sewage. The primary effluent after separation of the grit and debris is
taken to the secondary treatment.
Here, the effluent is passed to an aeration tank, where it is constantly agitated and air is
pumped into it. This leads to vigorous growth of bacteria and floe formation. The bacteria in
these floes consume organic matter, thus decreasing the BOD of the sewage.
49. Explain the different steps involved in sewage treatment before it can be released into
natural water bodies.
Ans. Sewage treatment includes following steps:
(i) Primary Treatment
 It is a physical process of removal of small and large particles through filtration

and sedimentation.
 The first step is to remove the floating objects (like polythene bags) by letting the
sewage to pass through wire mesh screens of sequential smaller pore sizes.
 Sewage is then passed into the grit chamber, where grit is sedimented.
 Sewage is then allowed to pass into the settling tank, where the suspended
materials settle down to form primary sludge.
Effluent is then taken for the secondary treatment.
(ii)Secondary Treatment
It is a biological process in which bacteria naturally occurring in sewage are used.
Effluent obtained from the primary treatment is passed into large aeration tank. Here, it is constantly
agitated and air is pumped into it.
Due to this, rapid growth of aerobic bacteria occur into floes. These consume the organic matter of the
sewage and reduce the BOD.
Effluent is passed into settling tank, where the floes are allowed to settle forming the activated sludge.
A small amount of activated sludge is pumped back into aeration tank as inoculum.
The remaining major part of the activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digesters, where the
anaerobic bacteria digest the organic matter and produce methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon
dioxide.
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Effluent is then allowed to pass into the water body.
50. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the table given below:
Ans. A-Statins, B-They are used as blood cholesterol lowering agent, C-Penicillium notatum, D-
Penicillin, E-Trichoderma polysporum, F-Used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ
transplant patients.
51. Mention the product and its use produced by each of the microbes listed below:
 Streptococcus
 Lactobacillus
 Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Ans.(i) Streptococcus Product is streptokinase. It is used as a clot-buster for removing the clots
from the blood vessels of patients suffering from myocardial infarction.
(ii) Lactobacillus Product is lactic acid. It is used to convert milk into curd and improves nutrient
quality of curd by enriching it with vitamin-B12.
(iii) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Product is ethanol and also used for bread making and
beverages.
52. Describe how biogas is obtained from the activated sludge?
Ans. Biogas formation from activated sludge:
(i) A small part of activated sludge is pumped into the aeration tank to serve as inoculum. It
grows into floes and consume organic matter to reduce BOD.
(ii) The remaining major part of sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge
digesters.
(iii) Here, anaerobic bacteria digest the organic material of the sludge.
(iv) During this digestion, the bacteria produces a mixture of gases like carbon dioxide, methane
and hydrogen sulphide which form the biogas.
53. (i) How does activated sludge get produced during sewage treatment?
(ii) Explain how this sludge is used in biogas production?
Ans.(i) (a) The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks. Due to the constant
agitation floes formation occur, which are masses of bacteria associated with fungal hyphae.
(b) These microbes consumes sufficient quantity of organic matter and there by reduce BOD.
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(c) Once, the BOD of sewage water gets reduced significantly, the effluent is passed into a
settling tank, where the bacterial floes undergo sedimentation and the sediment is called
activated sludge.
(ii) Biogas formation from activated sludge:
(i) A small part of activated sludge is pumped into the aeration tank to serve as inoculum. It
grows into floes and consume organic matter to reduce BOD.
(ii) The remaining major part of sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge
digesters.
(iii) Here, anaerobic bacteria digest the organic material of the sludge.
(iv) During this digestion, the bacteria produces a mixture of gases like carbon dioxide, methane
and hydrogen sulphide which form the biogas.
54. How are floes produced in the secondary treatment plant of the sewage? Explain their
role.
Ans. The effluent obtained from primary treatment is passed into large aeration tanks, where it
is constantly agitated and air is pumped into it. This allows rapid growth of aerobic microbes
into floes.
Floes consume organic matter of the sewage and reduce the Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD). When BOD of sewage is reduced, the effluent is passed into a settling tank, where the
floes are allowed to form the activated sludge.
55. (i)Expand BOD.
(ii) At a particular segment of a river near a sugar factory, the BOD is much higher than the
normal level. What is it indicative of? What will happen to the living organism in this part of
the river?
(iii) Under what conditions will the BOD be lowered in the river? How will it affect the aquatic
life?
Ans. (i) Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
(ii) The higher BOD indicates high organic matter in river. Microbes involved in the
biodegradation of organic matter in water body consume a lot of oxygen.
Due to this, a sharp decline occur in the amount of dissolved oxygen. This leads to killing of fish
and othe microorganisms in that part of river.
(iii) BOD of water body decreases when the amount of organic matter decreases. Thus,
microbes do not need oxygen for its decomposition.
Due to the decreased BOD, aquatic life will start flourishing.
5 MARKS QUESTION
56. Explain the process of sewage water treatment before it can be discharged into natural
water bodies. Why is this treatment essential?
Ans. The process of sewage water treatment before being discharged into natural water
bodies.
87
Sewage treatment includes following steps:
(i) Primary Treatment
 It is a physical process of removal of small and large particles through filtration

and sedimentation.
 The first step is to remove the floating objects (like polythene bags) by letting the
sewage to pass through wire mesh screens of sequential smaller pore sizes.
 Sewage is then passed into the grit chamber, where grit is sedimented.
 Sewage is then allowed to pass into the settling tank, where the suspended
materials settle down to form primary sludge.
 Effluent is then taken for the secondary treatment.
 (ii)Secondary Treatment
 It is a biological process in which bacteria naturally occurring in sewage are used.
 Effluent obtained from the primary treatment is passed into large aeration tank.
Here, it is constantly agitated and air is pumped into it.
 Due to this, rapid growth of aerobic bacteria occur into floes. These consume the
organic matter of the sewage and reduce the BOD.
 Effluent is passed into settling tank, where the floes are allowed to settle forming
the activated sludge.
 A small amount of activated sludge is pumped back into aeration tank as
inoculum.
 The remaining major part of the activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge
digesters, where the anaerobic bacteria digest the organic matter and produce
methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide.
 Effluent is then allowed to pass into the water body
 This sewage treatment is essential before being released into water bodies as it
leads to water pollution and as a consequence increase in water borne diseases.
57. (i) Name the category of microbes naturally occurring in sewage and making it less polluted
during the treatment.
(ii) Explain the different steps involved in the secondary treatment of sewage.
Ans. (i) The category of microbes naturally occurring in sewage and making it less polluted are
bacteria and fungi, wherein masses of bacteria gets associated with filaments of fungi to form
mesh like structure called floes.
(ii) The different steps involved in secondary or biological treatment of sewage.
Secondary Treatment
 It is a biological process in which bacteria naturally occurring in sewage are used.
88
 Effluent obtained from the primary treatment is passed into large aeration tank.
Here, it is constantly agitated and air is pumped into it.
 Due to this, rapid growth of aerobic bacteria occur into floes. These consume the
organic matter of the sewage and reduce the BOD.
 Effluent is passed into settling tank, where the floes are allowed to settle forming
the activated sludge.
 A small amount of activated sludge is pumped back into aeration tank as
inoculum.
 The remaining major part of the activated sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge
digesters, where the anaerobic bacteria digest the organic matter and produce
methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide.
 Effluent is then allowed to pass into the water body
58. What is Biogas? How is it produced & Name the microbes invaded in Biogas production.
 Ans. The gas produced by anaerobic fermentation of waste biomass is called BIOGAS. It
consists of methane, CO2 hydrogen, nitrogen, Oxygen, H2 S etc. The microbes which are
commonly used for Biogas production-
 i)hydrolytic bacteria eg. Cellulomonas, clostridium
 ii)H2 producing bacteria eg. Syntrophomonas wolfie
 iii)Methanogenic bacteria eg. Methanobacterium
 The Biogas plant consists of concrete tank is fed. A floating cover is placed over slurry,
which keeps on rising as the gas is produced in the tank due to microbial activity. The
Biogas plant has an outlet which is connected to a pipe to supply biogas to nearby
houses. During biogas production, microbes convert the organic fraction of
biodegradable organic solid waste & refuse into energy in the form of biogas & humus.
 CO + H2 O →→ CO2 + H2
 CO2 +4H2 →→ CH4 + 2H2O
 CH3OH →→ CH4 + O2
ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. If the Assertion is true but Reason is false
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false
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1. Assertion: Curd is more nutritious than milk
Reason: LAB present in curd checks growth of disease causing microbes.
ANS B
2. Assertion: After 24 hours toddy become unpalatable.

Reason: Toddy left open for a few hours starts to undergoes oxidation.
ANS A
3. Assertion: Newer antibiotics are required to be produced regularly.

Reason: Pathogens often develop resistance to existing antibiotics.
ANS A
4. Assertion: Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive medicine.

Reason: Cyclosporin A stimulates activation of T cells and prevent rejections.
ANS C
5. Assertion: Baculovirus are species specific.

Reason: It is very common in root ecosystem and effective against several plant pathogens.
ANS C
6. Assertion: Yeast such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are used in baking industry.
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Reason: Carbon dioxide produced during fermentation causes bread dough to rise by thermal
expansion.
ANS A
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1.Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions.
A common example is the production of curd from milk. Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus
and others commonly called lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd.
During growth, the LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins. A
small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as inoculum or starter contain millions of LAB,
which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus converting milk to curd, which also improves its
nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12. In our stomach too, the LAB play very beneficial
role in checking disease causing microbes. The dough, which is used for making foods such as
dosa and idli is also fermented by bacteria. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to the
production of CO2 gas. Can you tell which metabolic pathway is taking place resulting in the
formation of CO2 ? Where do you think the bacteria for these fermentations came from?
Similarly the dough, which is used for making bread, is fermented using baker’s yeast
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae). A number of traditional drinks and foods are also made by
fermentation by the microbes. ‘Toddy’, a traditional drink of some parts of southern India is
made by fermenting sap from palms. Microbes are also used to ferment fish, soyabean and
bamboo shoots to make foods. Cheese, is one of the oldest food items in which microbes were
used. Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste,
the specificity coming from the microbes used. For example, the large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’
are due to production of a large amount of CO2 by a bacterium named Propionibacterium
sharmanii. The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by growing a specific fungi on them, which gives
them a particular flavour.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used primarily for

a. Baking
b. Bleaching
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c. Biofuel
d. None of the above
The gas responsible for puffing-up appearance of dough comes from:
Aerobic respiration
Fermentation
 Photosynthesis
 Photorespiration
o In cheese manufacture, the micro-organisms are used for –
 the souring of milk only
 the ripening only
 development of resistance to spoilage
 Both a and b
o Lactic Acid Bacteria grow in
 Milk
 Curd
 Water
 Juice
2. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions.

Microbes are also used for commercial and industrial production of certain chemicals like
organic acids, alcohols and enzymes. Examples of acid producers are Aspergillus niger (a fungus)
of citric acid, Acetobacter aceti (a bacterium) of acetic acid; Clostridium butylicum (a bacterium)
of butyric acid and Lactobacillus (a bacterium) of lactic acid. Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) is
used for commercial production of ethanol. Microbes are also used for production of enzymes.
Lipases are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from the
laundry. You must have noticed that bottled fruit juices bought from the market are clearer as
compared to those made at home. This is because the bottled juices are clarified by the use of
pectinases and proteases. Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and
modified by genetic engineering is used as a ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood
vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial infaction leading to heart attack. Another
bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ-
transplant patients, is produced by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. Statins produced by
the yeast Monascus purpureus have been commercialised as blood-cholesterol lowering
agents. It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
i) Which of the following bacteria has a role in removing clots from our blood vessels?
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Clostridium butylicum
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c) Streptococcus
d) Lactobacillus
ii) Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of

a) Ethanol
b) streptokinase for removing clots from the blood vessels.
c) citric acid
d) blood cholesterol lowering statins.
iii) Statins used for lowering blood-cholesterol level are extracted from:
a) Algae
b) Bacteria
c) Virus
d) Yeast
iv) A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately

given:
a) Penicillin
b) Streptokinase
c) Cyclosporin-A
d) Statins
3. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions.
We know that large quantities of waste water are generated everyday in cities and towns. A
major component of this waste water is human excreta. This municipal waste-water is also
called sewage. It contains large amounts of organic matter and microbes. Many of which are
pathogenic. This water needs to be treated, The treatment is carried out in two stages:
Primary treatment : These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles – large
and small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. These are removed in
stages; initially, floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. Then the grit (soil and small
pebbles) are removed by sedimentation. All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the
supernatant forms the effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for
secondary treatment.
Secondary treatment or Biological treatment : The primary effluent is passed into large aeration
tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous
growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of bacteria associated with fungal
filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part
of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen
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demand) of the effluent. BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all
the organic matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria. The sewage water is treated
till the BOD is reduced. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-
organisms in a sample of water and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure of the organic matter
present in the water. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting potential. Once
the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a
settling tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called
activated sludge. A small part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to
serve as the inoculum. The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called
anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, digest the
bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases
such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas and can be
used as source of energy as it is inflammable. The effluent from the secondary treatment plant
is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and streams
i) The primary treatment of sewage involves –

a) Digestion
b) Decomposition
c) sedimentation and filtration
d) none of these
ii) What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?

a) Methane and CO2 only
b) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
c) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and O2
d) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
iii) During which stage of sewage treatment microbes are used?

a) Primary treatment
b) Secondary treatment
c) Tertiary treatment
d) All of these
iv) The significance of Flocs in secondary Treatment is not

a) Consumption of organic matter
b) Reduction of BOD
c) Reduction in polluting potential
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d) Reduction of inorganic salts
4. Read the following paragraph and answer the following questions:
In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests that relies on natural predation rather than
introduced chemicals. A key belief of the organic farmer is that biodiversity furthers health. The
more variety a landscape has, the more sustainable it is. The organic farmer, therefore, works
to create a system where the insects that are sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but
instead are kept at manageable levels by a complex system of checks and balances within a
living and vibrant ecosystem.
The very familiar beetle with red and black markings – the Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful
to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively. An example of microbial biocontrol agents
that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus
thuringiensis (often written as Bt). These are available in sachets as dried spores which are
mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit trees, where
these are eaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae
get killed. The bacterial disease will kill the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.
Because of the development of methods of genetic engineering in the last decade or so, the
scientists have introduced B. thuringiensis toxin genes into plants. Such plants are resistant to
attack by insect pests. Bt-cotton is one such example, which is being cultivated in some states
of our country. A biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant disease is
the fungus Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in the
root ecosystems. They are effective biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens. Baculoviruses
are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of baculoviruses used as
biological control agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus. These viruses are excellent
candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications. They have been
shown to have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target
insects. This is especially desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved to aid in an
overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an ecologically sensitive area is
being treated.
i) Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used as:

(a) Insecticide
(b) Weedicides
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(c) Rodenticide
(d) None of the above
ii) The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
(a) killing insects
(b) biological control of plant diseases
(c) controlling butterfly caterpillars
(d) producing antibiotics
iii) The biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chemical control is
(a) Very expensive
(b) Polluting
(c) Self perpetuating
(d) Toxic
iv) Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide?
(a) Trichoderma harzianum
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Xanthomonas campestris
(d) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
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CHAPTER 11: BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES & PROCESSES
One Mark Questions

1. Can exonuclease be used while producing a recombinant DNA molecule?
A. No, an exonuclease cannot be used while producing a recombinant DNA. This is because an
exonuclease degrades the DNA. It cannot produce DNA fragments with sticky ends.
2. What are the features of a plasmid being used as a cloning vector?
A. The characteristics of plasmids being used as a cloning vector are:
 It should have an origin of replication

 It should have a selectable marker
 It should have restriction sites
3. What are competent cells? What does the word “competent” refer to?
A. Competent cells are those that allow the foreign DNA to incorporate into the host by a slight
alteration in the cell walls. “Competent” means the ability of a cell to intake foreign DNA.
4. What do “Eco”, “R” and “I” refer to in the enzyme EcoRI?
A.“Eco” refers to the species from which it is taken, “R” refers to the particular strain, and “I”
states that it was the first enzyme isolated from this strain.
5. Name two commonly used vectors in genetic engineering.
A. Plasmid and Bacteriophage.
6. Some enzymes are considered as molecular scissors. in genetic engenrring. What is the name
assigned to such enzymes?
A. Restriction Enzymes.
7. Why does DNA moves towards anode in gel electrophoresis.
A .Because of presence of phosphate group, DNA is negatively charged & moves towards
anode.
8. Why is it essential to have a selectable marker in a cloning vector?
A.Selectable marker in cloning vector helps in identifying and selecting the recombinants and
eliminating the non-recombinants.
9. Name the technique used for separating DNA fragments in the laboratory
A. Gel electrophoresis is used for separating DNA fragments in the lab.
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10. What is the host called that produce a foreign gene product? What is this product
called?
Ans. The host cells that produce foreign gene product are called transgenic organisms or
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs). The product is called recombinant proteins.
Two Marks Question
Q.1. What do you understand by gene cloning?

A.1. Gene cloning or DNA cloning is the process in which the gene of interest is copied out of
the DNA extracted from an organism. The process of gene cloning is carried out in the following
steps:
Isolation of DNA fragment or gene
↓
Selection of the appropriate vector
↓
The isolated DNA fragment is incorporated into the vector
↓
The recombinant vector is transformed in the host cell
↓
The recombinant host cell is isolated
2. How is a DNA viewed on an agarose gel?
Ans. The DNA is stained with ethidium bromide which intercalates with the DNA strands and
gives orange bands on exposure to ultra-violet light. Thus, one can view the DNA on an agarose
gel.
3. Name the source of the DNA polymerase used in PCR technique. Mention why it is used?
Ans. The DNA polymerase used in PCR is Tag polymerase extracted from Thermus aquaticus. It
is a thermostable enzyme that can withstand high temperature used in the denaturation and
separation of DNA strands. Hence, it can be used for a number of cycles in amplification.
4. Name the type of bioreactor shown. Write the purpose for which it is used?
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Ans.Figure is a simple stirred-tank bioreactor.
Bioreactors are used to produce large quantities of the desired gene products
5. How does a restriction nuclease function? Explain. [All India 2014]
Ans. Restriction nucleases function by inspecting the length of DNA sequence, and then binding
to specific recognition sequences and cutting the strands at sugar phosphate backbones.
These nucleases are of two types depending on their mode of action.
(i) Restriction exonucleases cut sequences at terminal ends of DNA.
(ii) Restriction endonucleases cut between the two bases of recognition sequence.
6. How do Ori and cloning sites facilitate cloning into a vector?
Ans.Ori is a sequence of DNA from where replication starts. Any piece of DNA that needs to
replicate in the host cell has to be linked to it.
Cloning sites refers to the site/sequence of DNA where the alien DNA is linked
7. Explain with the help of a suitable example the naming of a restriction endonuclease.
Ans. Naming of restriction endonuclease are:
(i) The first letter of the name comes from the genus and next two letters from species of the
prokaryotic cell from where enzymes are extracted.
(ii) The Roman numbers following the name show the order in which the enzymes, were
isolated from the bacterial strain. For example, Eco Rl is derived from Escherichia coli RY 13,
Hind II from Haemophilus influenzae Rd, etc.
8. How are sticky ends formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called? Ans.Sticky ends on
DNA are formed by action of enzymes restriction endonucleases. These enzymes cut the strand
of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sequence between the same two bases
on both the strands. This results in single stranded stretches on both the complementary
strands at their ends.
These overhanging stretches are called sticky ends as they form hydrogen bonds with the
complementary base pair sequences.
9. Why is making cells competent essential for biotechnology experiments? List any two ways
by which this can be achieved.
Ans. Since, DNA molecules are hydrophillic, they cannot pass through cell membranes. For
recombinant DNA to be integrated into vector or host genome it is necessary for the DNA to be
inserted in the cell. Therefore, making the host cells competent is necessary in biotechnology
experiments.
The two ways by which cells can be made competent to take up DNA are:
(i) Chemical action By increasing concentration of divalent cation, calcium, thereby increasing
the efficiency of DNA entering through pores in cell, wall.
(ii) Heat shock treatment Incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by brief
treatment of heat at 42 °C and again putting them back on ice.
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10. How are the DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis visualised and separated for
use in constructing recombinant DNA ?
Ans. The separated DNA fragments are stained with ethidium bromide.
(i) By the exposure to UV radiation, the separated DNA fragments become visible as orange-
coloured bands.
(ii) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and DNA is extracted from
these gel pieces, this process is called elution.
Three Marks Question
1. List the three steps involved in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

(ii) Name the source organism of Taq polymerase.
Explain the specific role of this enzyme in PCR.
Ans. (I)Amplification of gene is done using polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). it is carried out in
the following steps:
(i) Denaturation The double stranded DNA is denatured by applying high temperature of 95°C
for 15 seconds. Each separated strand acts as a template.
(ii) Annealing Two sets of primers are added, which anneal to the 3′ end of each separated
strand.
(iii) Extension DNA polymerase extends the primers by adding nucleotides complementary to
the template provided in the reaction. Taq polymerase is used in the reaction, which can
tolerate heat. All these steps are repeated many times to get several copies of the desired DNA.
(II) (i) The DNA polymerase is thermostable and withstands the high temperature treatment
during denaturation of the DNA
C-DNA polymerase or Taq polymerase. Importance in PCR
It extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction medium and the genomic
DNA as the template. Taq polymerase is thermostable and withstands the high temperature
used in denaturation process.
2. (i) What is a bioreactor? How does it work? (ii) Name two commonly used bioreactors.
Ans. (i) Bioreactors are large vessels in which raw materials are biologically converted into
specific products by microbes, plant and animal cells or human cells.
The bioreactors work by providing optimal conditions to process the culture as well as the
production of desired product by maintaining optimum pH, temperature, oxygen and other
growth conditions required.
(ii) The two commonly used bioreactors are:
(a) Simple stirred-tank bioreactors
(ii) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactors.
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3.How is the bacterium Thermus aquaticus employed in recombinant DNA technology?
Ans. Thermus aquaticus, a bacterium yields DNA polymerase used in PCR in recombinant DNA
technology.
(i) This enzyme remains active during the high temperature applied in the denaturation of
double stranded DNA.
(ii) It extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA
as template.
(iii) Repeated amplification is achieved by this enzyme. The amplified fragments, if desired can
be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.
4. Name and describe the technique that helps in separating the DNA fragments formed by
the use of restriction endonuclease.
Ans. DNA fragments formed by the use of restriction endonucleases are separated by gel
electrophoresis.
(i) DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules. Thus, they move towards the anode under
electric field through the medium.
(ii) DNA fragments separate according to their size due to seiving effect of agarose gel.
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be viewed by staining the DNA with ethidium bromide
followed by exposure to UV radiation.
(iv) The separated bands of DNA are cut and extracted from gel piece. This is known as elution.
5. Draw a schematic diagram of the colicloning vector pBR322 and mark the following in it.
 ori
 rop
 ampicillin resistance gene
 tetracycline resistance gene
 restriction site Bam HI
 restriction site EcoRI
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Ans. E coli cloning vector pBR322.
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS
1. In the given figure, one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is shown-
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(a) Name the steps A, B and C.
(b) Give the purpose of each of these steps.
(c) State the contribution of bacteriumThermusaquaticus in this process.
Ans. (a) Denaturation – Heat denatures DNA to separate complementary strands.
(b) Annealing : Primers hybridises to the denatured DNA strands.
(c) Extension : Extension of primers resulting in synthesis of copies of target DNA sequence.
Enzyme Tag polymerase is isolated from the bacterium Thermusaquaticus. This enzyme induces
denaturation of double stranded DNA at high temperature.
2.Describe the various steps involved in Recombinant DNA technology with the help of a well
labeled. Diagram?
Ans. i) Identification of DNA with desirable Genes:- Other molecules in the target cell can
beremovedby appropriate treatment & purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after addition
ofchilled ethanol.
ii) Cutting the DNA at specific location :- After having cut the source DNA as well as vector DNA
with Specific restriction enzyme, the cut out “gene of interest” from the source DNA & the cut
vector with space are mixed & ligase is added.
iii)Insertion of Recombinant DNA into host cell :- Recipient cells after making them competent
to receive takes up DNA in its surrounding. Recombinant DNA is introduced into suitable host
cell by vector – based or vector – less method.
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iv)Selection & Screening :- If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to an antibiotic is
trAns.ferred into E-coli the host – cell become trAns.formed into ampicillin – resistant cells. Due
to this amp gene one is able to select a trAns.formed cell in the presence of ampicillin. This amp
r gene is called selectable marker.
v)Obtaining the foreign Gene product :- After having cloned the gene of interest & having
optimized the conditions to induce expression of the target protein, one has to consider
producing it on large scale.
3. (i) Describe the characteristics a cloning vector must possess.

(ii) Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain. How is a bacterial cell made
competent to take up recombinant DNA from the medium?
Ans.(I) The following features are required tofacilitate cloning into a vector
Features which facilitate cloning of vector are:
(i) Origin of replication (Ori)
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 This is the sequence of DNA from where replication starts.
 Any piece of alien/foreign DNA linked to it is made to replicate within host cell. It also
decides the copy number of the linked[ DNA.
(ii) Selectable marker is a marker gene, which helps in selecting the host cells, which are
transformants/recombinants from the non-recombinant ones.
For example, ampicillin and tetracycline resistant genes in, £. coli.
(iii) Cloning site is a unique recognition site in a vector to link the foreign DNA. The presence of
a particular cloning/recognition site helps the partjcular restriction enzyme to cut the vector
DNA. Single recognition site is commonly preferred.
ASSERTION & REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Direction : In each of the following questions a statement of Assertion is given followed by a

corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer
as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
1. Assertion : Recombinant DNA technology has become successful because of the presence of
restriction endonucleases in eukaryotic cell.
Reason: Restriction endonuleases cut the DNA molecules to form blunt ends.
2. Assertion: The cut pieces of DNA are linked with plasmid DNA.
Reason: Plasmid DNA fails to act as vectors.
3. Assertion: Taq polymerase is used in PCR.
Reason: Taq polymerase is extracted from Thermus aquaticus, which is a thermostable
enzyme.
ANSWERS
1. c
2. c
3. a
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Case-based questions
Q1. A great variety of different types of DNA molecules can serve as vectors, provided that they
have certain properties. The most important property is self replication; once in a cell, a vector
must be capable of replicating. Any DNA that is inserted in the vector will be replicated in the
process. Thus, vectors serve as vehicles for the replication of desired DNA sequences.
Vectors also need to be of a size that allows them to be manipulated outside the cell during
recombinant DNA procedures. Smaller vectors are more easily manipulated than larger DNA
molecules, which tend to be more fragile. Preservation is another important property of vectors.
The circular form of DNA molecules is important in protecting the DNA of the vector from
destruction by the recipient of the vector. DNA of a plasmid is circular. Another preservation
mechanism occurs when the DNA of a virus inserts itself quickly into the chromosome of the
host.
Some plasmids are capable of existing in several different species. They are called shuttle
vectors and can be used to move cloned DNA sequences among organisms, such as among
bacterial, yeast, and mammalian cells, or among bacterial, fungal, and plant cells. Shuttle
vectors can be very useful in the process of genetically modifying multicellular organisms-for
example, by trying to insert herbicide resistance genes into plants.
A different kind of vector is viral DNA. This type of vector can usually accept much larger pieces of
foreign DNA than plasmids can . After the DNA has been inserted into the viral vector,
it can be cloned in the virus's host cells. The choice of a suitable vector depends on many
factors, including the organism that will receive the new gene and the size of the DNA to be
cloned.
Retroviruses, adenoviruses, and herpes viruses are being used to insert corrective genes into
human cells that have defective genes.
The most important feature that a vector must have:
Small size
Presence of Ori
Preservation
Circular
Assertion: viral DNA is used to transfer foreign DNA IN in human cell
Reason: viral DNA accept much larger pieces of foreign DNA than plasmids can
Of the statements, mark the correct answer as
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(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
Shuttles vectors are:

capable of existing in several different species
Viral DNA Vectors
Plasmid vectors
Yeast Vectors
Assertion: Plasmids are widely used vectors.
Reason: The circular form of DNA molecules is important in protecting the DNA of the vector
from destruction by the recipient of the vector.
Q.2. In nature, plasmids are usually transferred between closely related microbes by cell-to-cell
contact, such as in conjugation. In genetic engineering, a plasmid must be inserted into a cell by
transformation, a procedure during which cells can take up DNA from the surrounding
environment Many cell types, including E. coli, yeast, and mammalian cells, do not
naturally transform; however, simple chemical treatments can make all of these cell types
competent, or able to take up external DNA. For E. coli, the procedure for
making cells competent is to soak them in a solution of calcium chloride for a brief period.
Following this treatment, the now-competent cells are mixed with the cloned DNA and given a
mild heat shock. Some of these cells will then take up the DNA.
A remarkable way of introducing foreign DNA into plant cells is to literally shoot it directly
through the thick cellulose walls using a gene gun. Microscopic particles of tungsten or gold are
coated with DNA and propelled by a burst of helium through the plant cell walls. Some of the
cells express the introduced DNA as though it were their own
DNA can be introduced directly into an animal cell by microinjection. This technique requires
the use of a glass micropipette with a diameter that is much smaller than the cell.
The micropipette punctures the plasma membrane, and DNA can be injected through it.
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Thus, there is a great variety of different restriction enzymes, vectors, and methods of inserting
DNA into cells. But foreign DNA will survive only if it is either present on a self-replicating
vector or incorporated into one of the cell's chromosomes by recombination.
I. Which cells are transformed using gene gun method?
a. Bacterial cells
b. Plant cells
c. Animal cell
II. Why calcium chloride is used to make the cell competent?
a. It makes the cell pores larger.
b. Increases the efficiency of DNA entering the cell
c. Promotes the binding of DNA to cell
III. Assertion: foreign DNA is transferred in Plasmid vectors.
Reason : DNA will survive only if it is either present on a self-replicating
vector.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Assertion.
IV. Assertion: Microinjection is a vector less method of gene transfer.

Reason: DNA can be introduced directly into an animal cell by this method.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Assertion.
Q3. The process of selecting for genetically desirable plants has always been a time-consuming
one. Performing conventional plant crosses is laborious and involves waiting for the planted
seed to germinate and for the plant to mature. Plant breeding has been revolutionized by the
use of plant cells grown in culture. Clones of plant cells, including cells that have been
genetically altered by recombinant DNA techniques, can be grown in large numbers. These cells
108
can then be induced to regenerate whole plants, from which seeds can be harvested.
Recombinant DNA can be introduced into plant cells in several ways. Previously we mentioned
protoplast fusion and the use of DNA-coated "bullets." The most elegant method, however,
makes use of a plasmid called the Ti plasmid (Ti stands for tumor-inducing), which occurs
naturally in the bacterium Agrobacterillm tumefaciens This bacterium infects certain plants, in
which the Ti plasmid causes the formation of a tumor like growth called a crown gall . A part of
the Ti plasmid, called T-DNA, integrates into the genome of the infected plant. The T-DNA
stimulates local cellular growth (the crown gall) and simultaneously causes the
production of certain products used by the bacteria as a source of nutritional carbon and
nitrogen. For plant scientists, the attraction of the Ti plasmid is that it provides a vehicle for
introducing rDNA into a plant. A scientist can insert foreign genes into the T-DNA, put the
recombinant plasmid back into the Agrobacterium cell, and use the bacterium to insert the
recombinant Ti plasmid into a plant cell. The plant cell with the foreign gene can then be used
to
generate a new plant. With luck, the new plant will express the foreign gene. Unfortunately,
Agrobacterium does not naturally infect grasses.
I. Name the gene of the Agrobacterium tumefaciens that causes crown gall disease.
a. Ti Plasmid
b. Crown gall gene
c. T DNA
d. Tumour gene
II. Plant breeding has been revolutionized by:
a. The use of hybridization techniques
b. The use of recombinant DNA technology
c. The use of tissue culture technique
Assertion: Ti Plasmid of Agrobacterillm tumefaciens cannot be used to improve potato plants.
Reason: Agrobacterium does not naturally infect grasses.
Assertion: Agrobacterillm tumefaciens cannot be used in animal cells.
Reason: This bacterium infects certain plants only, in which the Ti plasmid causes the formation
of a tumor like growth called a crown gall
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Q4. Under certain circumstances, genes can be made in vitro with the help of DNA synthesis
machines. A keyboard on the machine is used to enter the desired sequence of nucleotides. A
microprocessor controls the synthesis of the DNA from stored supplies of nucleotides and the
other necessary reagents. A chain of over 120 nuclcotides can be synthesized by this method.
Unless the gene is very small, at least several chains must be synthesized separately and linked
together to form an entire gene.
The difficulty of this approach, of course, is that the sequence of the gene must be known before
it can be synthesized. If the gene has not already been isolated, then the only way to predict
the DNA sequence is by knowing the amino acid sequence of the protein product of the gene. If
this amino acid sequence is known in principle one can work backward through the genetic
code to obtain the DNA sequence, Unfortunately, the degeneracy of the code prevents an
unambiguous determination; thus, if the protein contains a leucine, for example, which of the
six codons for leucine is the one in the gene?
For these reasons, it is rare to clone a gene by synthesizing it directly, although some
commercial products such as insulin, interferon, and somatostatin are produced from
chemically
synthesized genes.
“Unfortunately, the degeneracy of the code prevents an unambiguous determination”-what
does degeneracy mean here?
A specific genetic code for a specific amino acid.
Genetic codes are same in all organisms.
An amino acid can be coded by more than one codon.
Genetic codes are continuous.
The maximum number of nucleotide present in one chain synthetically produced DNA:
a.240 b. 120 c.260 d.480
Assertion: It is rare to clone a gene by synthesizing it directly
Reason: The degeneracy of the code prevents an unambiguous determination
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Assertion: Several chains of DNA must be synthesized separately and linked together to form an
entire gene by the method mentioned above.
Reason: This process can make DNAs with 1200 nucleotides only.
ANSWERS:
I. b
II. b
III. a
IV. a
I. b
II. c
III. a
IV. b
I. c
II. c
III. d
IV. b
I. c
II. b
III. a
IV. c
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CHAPTER: 12 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS
SECTION A ( 1 Mark )
1 Who discovered Recombinant DNA technology discovered ?

Ans Sutton and Boveri
2 What is Biopiracy ?
Ans Biopiracy is is a term associated with piracy of Traditional knowledge, Biomolecules and
Bioresources, Isolation of gene from Bioresources and Bioresources
3 How can desired properties be incorporated in plants and Animals ?

Ans Desired properties be incorporated in plants and Animals by Genetic Engineering
4 Name the first Transgenic crop .

Ans Tobacco
5 What types of genes are introduce in a Transgenic crop ?

Ans The types of genes are introduce in a Transgenic crop improve crop production New
protein
Synthesis, Resistance from Antibiotics and in the formation enzyme for Antibiotics
6 Which one of the following is a step of PCR?

(a) Denaturation (b) Annealing (c) Extension (d) All of these
Ans d
7 What is the source of Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering ?

Ans Agrobacterium tumefaciens
8 Name the confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS .

Ans ELISA
9 Mention the property of Bt toxin.

Ans Bt Toxin is Intracellular endotoxin and protoxin.
10 Name a disarmed species used to transfer gene in animal cells .

Ans Retrovirus
11 Name a disarmed species used to transfer gene in plant cells .

Ans Agrobacterim tumefaciens
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12 Name the most effective bioweapon in the field of insect infestation .
Ans Bioinsecticidal plant
13 What use has the genes of Bacillus thruingiensis (Bt) strains have been used in crop?
Ans For developing Bioinsecticidal plants
14 Which of the following is not a benefit of transgenic animals ?

(a) Investigation of new treatments for diseases (b) Early detection of diseases
(c) Testing the safety of vaccines (d) To produce useful biological products
Ans (b) Early detection of diseases
15 What is the full form of GEAC?

Ans Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
16 What is the use of α – 1 – antitrypsin ?

Ans α – 1 – antitrypsin is used to treat emphysema.
17. Where is the site of production of ADA in the body ?

Ans Production of ADA in the body takes place in lymphocytes
18 What is a protoxin?
Ans Protoxin is inactive toxin.
19 For which Indian rice variety was patent filed by a USA company?
Ans Basmati
20 Write full form of ELISA?

Ans Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
21 Name the hormone produced by genetic engineering.

Ans Insulin
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22 Name cry Genes Which control the cotton bollworms.
Ans Cry 1 AC and Cry II AB
23 Which soil bacteria produces Bt-toxins?

Ans Bacillus thuringeninsis
24 Assertion : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering because this

bacterium is associated with the roots of all cereal and pulse crops.
Reason : A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically
transferred to the crop with which the bacterium is associated.
A ) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion
B) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
D) If both the assertion and reason are false
E) If the assertion is false but reason is true
Ans E
25 Assertion : Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene

defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo.
Reason : In gene therapy genes are inserted into a persons cells and tissue to treat a disease.
assertion
assertion
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Ans A
26 Assertion : Insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology is more effective then

the insulin produced by conventional method .
Reason : Insulin produced by recombinant DNA technology is more effectively
absorbed in blood then the insulin produced by conventional method .
assertion
assertion
Ans C
27 Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations

in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune cells.
Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections. The
condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive immune-restoring
treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy, or enzyme therapy. More
than 80 percent of SCID infants do not have a family history of the condition. However, development of a
newborn screening test has made it possible to detect SCID before symptoms appear, helping ensure that
affected infants receive life-saving treatments. Gene therapy is the process of introduction of DNA into an
organism e.g. human beings in order to treat a disease. It is used to replace a missing gene product or to
correct mutant alleles. ADA is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that occurs due to defective
adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme. Please with this enzyme deficiency suffer from severe combined
immunodeficiency (SCID) conditions. Human gene therapy trial can be used for ex vivo introduction of
functional ADA gene in bone marrow cells of the patient, suffering from SCID. For this process, an engineered
retrovirus containing a functional ADA gene is used to transfer the ADA gene into stem cells isolated from the
patient with SCID. The treated cells or modified cells with the good ADA gene are reintroduced into the
patient’s marrow.
i) ADA deficiency is a ________________

a) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder
b) Sex linked recessive inherited disorder
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c) Sex linked dominant inherited disorder
d) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder
ii) Infants with ADA deficiency are

a) healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections
b) healthy at birth but and develop resistant to severe infections later on
c) They are very sick at the time of birth
d) None of the above
iii) Infants with ADA deficiency are also called

a) AIDS
b) SCID
c) HLA Deficient
iv) ADA deficiency may occur in a child if the parents are

a) Both dominant for the ADA gene
b) One is heterozygous and the other parent is dominant for both the genes
c) Both are heterozygous for the genes
d) It is not heritable.
v) The permanent cure of ADA deficiency is by

a) Enzyme replacement therapy
b) Gene therapy after attaining age more then 5 years
c) Gene therapy at embryonic stage
d) Bone marrow transplant
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28 Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is a group of rare disorders caused by mutations
in different genes involved in the development and function of infection-fighting immune
cells. Infants with SCID appear healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections.
The condition is fatal, usually within the first year or two of life, unless infants receive
immune-restoring treatments, such as transplants of blood-forming stem cells, gene therapy,
or enzyme therapy. More than 80 percent of SCID infants do not have a family history of the
condition. However, development of a newborn screening test has made it possible to detect
SCID before symptoms appear, helping ensure that affected infants receive life-saving
treatments. Gene therapy is the process of introduction of DNA into an organism e.g. human
beings in order to treat a disease. It is used to replace a missing gene product or to correct
mutant alleles. ADA is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that occurs due to defective
adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme. Please with this enzyme deficiency suffer from severe
combined immunodeficiency (SCID) conditions. Human gene therapy trial can be used for ex
vivo introduction of functional ADA gene in bone marrow cells of the patient, suffering from
SCID. For this process, an engineered retrovirus containing a functional ADA gene is used to
transfer the ADA gene into stem cells isolated from the patient with SCID. The treated cells or
modified cells with the good ADA gene are reintroduced into the patient’s marrow.
i) ADA deficiency is a ________________

a) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder
b) Sex linked recessive inherited disorder
c) Sex linked dominant inherited disorder
d) Autosomal-recessive inherited disorder
Ans a
ii) Infants with ADA deficiency are

a) healthy at birth but are highly susceptible to severe infections
b) healthy at birth but and develop resistant to severe infections later on
c) They are very sick at the time of birth
Ans a
iii) Infants with ADA deficiency are also called

a) AIDS
b) SCID
c) HLA Deficient
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Ans b
iv) ADA deficiency may occur in a child if the parents are

a) Both dominant for the ADA gene
b) One is heterozygous and the other parent is dominant for both the genes
c) Both are heterozygous for the genes
d) It is not heritable.
Ans c
v) The permanent cure of ADA deficiency is by

a) Enzyme replacement therapy
b) Gene therapy after attaining age more then 5 years
c) Gene therapy at embryonic stage
d) Bone marrow transplant
Ans c
SECTION B ( 2 marks)
29 Which is the first transgenic cow? Which gene was inserted into it?
Ans The first transgenic cow was Rosie. The gene inserted was human alpha-lactalbumin.
30 What are cry proteins ? How has man exploited this protein on his benefits?
Ans Cry proteins are Crystal proteins . Many cry proteins are having narrow spectrum species
specific insecticidal properties and used to develop pest resistant plants.
31 What are the disadvantages of GMO?

Ans GM crops can lead to severe allergies in some and may not be as good in taste as the
natural crop. 3. The pollen of GM crops is also modified and can lead to the development
of resistance and growth of super-weeds. Weeds prove harmful to the environment and
crops.
32 What is unique of transgenic animals ?

Ans Animals have their DNA manipulated to possess and express and express a foreign gene
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known as transgenic animals . Eg rabbit, sheep, cow , pig , monkey etc.
33 List two uses of cloned genes in molecular diagnosis.

Ans Cloned genes are used to produce recombinant proteins .
Cloned genes are also used as probes to detect the presence of its complementary DNA
strand . If mutation takes place hey will not hybridise with probe and will be detected.
State the role of C peptide in human Insulin

34
When insulin is produced in pancreas , it is a pro insulin due to the presence of C Peptide .
Ans
During maturation it is removed and active Insulin is produced.
35
Gene therapy can be used to treat many human disease . Comment
Ans
Through Human Genome project human genome has been sequenced . Genetic disorders
such as SCID , cancer, haemohilia, thalassemia and cystic fibrosis can be identified and
cured by insertion of correct and functional genes into the patients .
SECTION C ( 3 marks )
36 What is gene therapy? Give at least one example of its application.

Ans Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a faulty gene by a
healthy and functional gene.
Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the cells or tissues to
take over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
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37 Explain how biotechnology can be helpful in agriculture.
Ans Biotechnology contributes to agriculture by reducing the dependence on agro-chemicals,
particularly pesticides, through the deployment of genes conferring tolerance or
resistance to biotic and abiotic stresses.
38 A two years old baby is deficient in his immune system since birth. His father was told that 3
this was due to an enzyme deficiency which is crucial for the immune system to function.
A) Name the enzyme B The cause of its deficiency C) The treatment of the disease .
The enzyme is - Adenosine Deaminase ( ADA ) , It is caused due to deficiency of defective
mutations in the ADA gene , Treatment options include enzyme replacement therapy
(ERT),
Ans
stem cell transplant (HSCT), and gene therapy (GT)
List three important features necessary for preparing GMO.

1 Identification of desirable gene 2 Introduction of gene in host
3 Maintenance of gene in host
39
Ans
Mention any six field of application of Biotechnology for human welfare
The six field of application of Biotechnology for human welfare are
1 Therapeutics
40
2 GMO
3 Molecular diagnostics
Ans
4 Processing of food
5 Bioremedition
6 Energy production
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SECTION D ( 5 marks )
41 What is GMO? How does it differ from a hybrid?

Ans GMOs are Genetically Modified Organisms. These are created by inserting the genes
from
The DNA of a species with desired characteristics into the genes of an unrelated plant
or
animal. A hybrid is produced when the pollen of one plant is used to fertilize some
unrelated plant species. Also when the animals of two different species breed, a hybrid is
formed. On the contrary, GMOs are created by incorporating the genes with desired
characteristics from a plant or animal of one species to the DNA of a different species.
42 One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to minimise the use of insecticides on

cultivated crops. Explain with the help of a suitable example, how insect resistant crops have
been developed using techniques of biotechnology.
Ans. The pest that destroys the cotton balls are cotton boll worms and cotton borer. Bt
cotton is created by using some strains of a bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis (Btis short form).
(i) This bacterium produces protein that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans (tobacco
budworm and armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies and mosquitoes).
(ii) Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
(iii) Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins, but once an insect ingests the inactive toxin,
it is converted into an active form due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals.
(iv) The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that
cause cell swelling and lysis leading to death of insect.
(v) Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into
several crop plants.
(vi) Most Bttoxins are insect-group specific.Hence, the toxin is coded by a gene
named cry. For example, the proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry lAb control
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the cotton boll worms and cry lAb controls corn borer.
43 (i) Why is Bacillus thuringiensis considered suitable for developing GM plants?

5
(ii) Explain how it has been used to develop GM crops.
Ans. (i) Bacillus thuringiensis produces a protein, which is toxic to the larvae of insects like
ball worm, budworm, flies, beetle, etc. Bt toxin gene is cloned from the bacteria and has been
expressed in plants to provide resistance against insects without the need for chemical
insecticides.
(ii) The method for developing GM plants involve
(a) crygene coding for proteins has been isolated using restriction enzymes. They are cloned in
the vectors and then introduced into desired crop plants. The different types of crygenes that
code for insect-specific cryproteins are crylAc and cryllAb that control cotton bollworm. crylAb
controls corn borer.
(b) The transgenic plants, i.e. Bt cotton, Bt corn, Bt rice, produce the protein in their cells and
express insect pest resistance.
44 What are the ethical concerns of Biotechnology ? Mention five ethical concerns .
5
Ans The laws governing the functioning of biological world are called bioethics .
1 The common concern of Biotechnology are Biotechnology produces newer
genotypes . Some of them can be harmful due to mutation.
2 It may cause allergies and may be toxic to consumers .
3 The gene may be transferred from the GMO to weeds and make them
dominant and resistant .
4 Animals involved in experiments are subject to suffering which is unethical.
5 Use of human gene in other animals lowers the dignity of human beings and
humanness.
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CHAPTER 13 : ORGANISMS AND POPULATION:
[1 Marks]
Q1. What are the four levels of biological organisation with which ecology basically deals?
Ans: (i) Organisms (ii) Population (iii) Communities and (iv)Biomes
Q2. Write the basis on which an organism occupies a space in its community/natural
surroundings.
Ans: Feeding relationship with other organisms.
Q3. Mention the symptoms of altitude sickness.
Ans: (i) Nausea (ii) fatigue and (ii) Heart palpitations.
Q4. Write the basis on which an organism occupies a space in its community/natural
surroundings.
Ans: Feeding relationship with other organisms.
Q5. Name two organisms (one plant and one animal) which breed only once in their life time.
Ans: Pacific salmon fish and bamboo.
Q6. What is Allen’s rule?
Ans: According to Allen’s rule, mammals in colder climate have shorter ears and shorter limbs
to minimise heat loss.
Q.7. Explain about brood parasitism with an example.
Ans: It is when parasites lay eggs on the nest of the host. For example, The Cuckoo lays its eggs
in the host cell.
Q.8. Why do plants in arid regions have sunken stomata?
Ans: Sunken stomata minimize water loss by transpiration. That is why, plants in arid regions
have sunken stomata.
Q.9. What is a zero population growth rate?
Ans: It is when pre-reproductive age group entities are correspondingly fewer and the post-
reproductive and reproductive phases are in an equivalent stage.
Q10. Name the interaction between a whale and the barnacles growing on its back.
Ans: Commensalism
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SHORT ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS
[2 Marks]
Q1. State Gause’s competitive exclusion principle.

Ans: Gause’s competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing
for same resources, cannot coexist indefinitely, (the inferior will be eliminated) by the superior
one.
Q2. What does nature’s carrying capacity for a species indicate?
Ans: In nature, a given habitat has enough or limited resources to support a maximum possible
number of population and nature’s carrying capacity indicates that how much growth is
possible in a population.
Q3. Why are mammals the most successful animals on earth?
Ans: The mammals are most successful animals on earth because they can maintain a constant
body temperature with high range of tolerance whether in Antarctica or in Sahara desert.
Q.4. Explain of with suitable examples ectoparasites and endoparasites.
Ans: Ectoparasites nourish on the external surface of the host entities. For example, Ticks on
dogs whereas endoparasites dwell in the body of the host at various locations such as lungs,
kidney etc, for example, gut parasites such as tapeworm.
Q5. How is a cactus adapted to survive in its habitat?
Ans: Adaptions in cactus:
(i) The leaves are modified into spines
(ii) The stems are expanded, fleshy, spongy to store waters and food.
(iii) The root system is deep-seated to draw underground water
(iv) They have sunken stomata to reduce transpiration
Q 6. The density of a population in a habitat per unit area is measured in different units.
Write the unit of measurement against the following:
(a) Bacteria (b) Grass
(c)Banyan (d) Deer
Ans:
(a) Numbers/volume (b) Coverage/area
(c) Biomass/area (d) Numbers/area
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Q7. How do seals adapt to their natural habitat? Explain.
Ans: Seals adapt to the cold climate by developing a thick layer of fat (blubber) below their skin
that acts as an insulator and reduce excess loss of body heat.
Q8.How does our body adapt to low oxygen availability at high altitudes?
Ans: Our body adapts to low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production,
decreasing the binding capacity of haemoglobin and by increasing breathing rate.
Q9. Explain brood parasitism with the help of an example.
Ans: Koel is a parasitic bird (which has lost the instinct to make its own nest to lay eggs), has
evolved the technique of laying eggs in the nest of a crow. Its egg bear resemblance to those of
crow.
Q10.Why do clown fish and sea anemone pair up? What is this relationship called?
Ans: The clown fish gets protection from predators which stay away from stinging tentacles of
anemone but anemone does not derive any benefit from the fish. This relationship is called
commensalism.
LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS [3 Marks]
Q1.The following graph represents the organismic response to certain environmental condition
(e.g. temperature)
(i)Which one of these A or B depicts conformers?

(ii)What does the other line graph depict?
(iii)How do these organisms differ from each other with reference to homeostasis?
(iv)Mention the category to which human belong. [All India 2009]
Ans.(i)A depicts conformers.
(ii) The other line B depicts regulators.
(iii) Differences between conformer and regulator are:
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(iv) Humans are regulators.
Q2: How is diapause different from hibernation?
Answer Diapause is a stage of suspended development to cope with unfavourable

conditions. Many species of Zooplankton and insects exhibit diapause to tide over
adverse climatic conditions during their development. Hibernation or winter sleep
is a resting stage where in animals escape winters (cold) by hiding themselves in
their shelters. They escape the winter season by entering a state of inactivity by
slowing their metabolism. The phenomenon of hibernation is exhibited by bats,
squirrels, and other rodents.
Q3.Define phynotypic adaptation .Give one example.
Answer Phenotypic adaptation involves changes in the body of an organism in

response to genetic mutation or certain environmental changes. These responsive
adjustments occur in an organism in order to cope with environmental conditions
present in their natural habitats. For example, desert plants have thick cuticles
and sunken stomata on the surface of their leaves to prevent transpiration.
Similarly, elephants have long ears that act as thermoregulators.
Q4. What is the difference between ectotherms and endotherms?

Ans: The difference between ectotherms and endotherms is as follows:
126
Ectotherms Endotherms
Cold-blooded animals. Warm-blooded animals
Temperature varies with the surrounding Maintains a constant body

temperature. temperature.
For eg., Fish, amphibian, reptiles. For eg., mammals and birds
LONG ANSWERS TYPE QUESTIONS [5Marks]

Q1(i). Explain giving reasons why the tourists visiting Rohtang Pass or Mansarovar are advised
to resume normal active life only after a few days of reaching there.
(ii) It is impossible to find small animals in the polar regions. Give reasons.
Ans.(i)Tourists visiting to Rohtang Pass near Manali (> 3500 m) may suffer from altitude
sickness. They resume normal active life only after a week because in low atmospheric pressure
at high altitudes, the body does not get enough oxygen. Gradually, the body compensates low
oxygen availability by
(a)Increasing red blood cell production.
(b)Decreasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin.
(c)Increasing the breathing rate.
(ii)Small animals have a large surface area relative to their volume. So, they tend to lose body
heat very fast during cold conditions. They need to spend more energy to generate body heat.
Due to this smaller animals are rarely found in polar regions.
Q2. list the different ways by which organisms cope or manage with abiotic stresses in nature.
Explain any three ways.
Ans: Organisms cope up with abiotic stress by:
(i)Regulating Some organisms maintain homeostasis by physiological and behavioural means.
They are called regulators, e.g.
.In summers, when outside temperature is more, we sweat profusely that results in evaporative
cooling to bring down the body temperature.
.In winters, when temperature is low, we shiver (a kind of exercise) that produces heat and
raise the body temperature.
127
(ii) Conformating Organisms that cannot maintain a constant internal environment. Their body
temperature changes with the ambient temperature. Such animals are called conformers. For
example, small animals have larger surface area relative to their volume. They lose body heat
very fast in low temperature. So, they expend energy to generate body heat
through metabolism for adjusting.
(iii) Migrating The temporary movement of organisms from the stressful habitat to a more
hospitable area and return when favourable conditions reappear is called migration. The long
distance migration is very common in birds.
Q3 List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Ans: A population can be defined as a group of individuals of the same species residing in a
particular geographical area at a particular time and functioning as a unit. For example, a
ll human beings living at a particular place at a particular time constitute the
population of humans. The main attributes or characteristics of a population
residing in a given area are:-
(a) Birth rate (Natality): It is the ratio of live births in an area to the population
of an area. It is expressed as the number of individuals added to the population
with respect to the members of the population.
(b) Death rate (Mortality): It is the ratio of deaths in an area to the population
of an area. It is expressed as the loss of individuals with respect to the members
of the populations(c) Sex ratio: It is the number of males or females per
thousand individuals.(d) Age Distribution: It is the percentage of individuals of
different ages in a given population. At any given time, the population is
composed of individuals that are present in various age groups. The age
distribution pattern is commonly represented through age pyramids.
(e) Population density: It is defined as the number of individuals of a population
present per unit area at a given time.
CASE STUDY:
128
(a)Resources are limiting The population growth curve is sigmoid. It is
represented by the equation
where, N = Population density at time t, r – Intrinsic rate of natural increase

K = Carrying capacity
(b)Resources are unlimited The population growth curve is J-shaped. It is represented by the
equation
dN/dt = rN or Nt = N0en
where, Nt = Population density after time t, N0 = Population density at time zero r = Intrinsic
rate of natural increase, e = The base of natural logarithm (2.71828).
(ii) The resources become limited at certain point of time. So, no population can grow
exponentially. Every environment or habitat has limited resources to support a particular
maximum number of individuals. This is called its carrying capacity (K).
Q4.Study the three different age pyramid for human population given below and answer the
questions that follow:
129
(i)
Write the names given to each of these age pyramids.
(ii) Mention the one which is ideal for human population and why.
(iii) What should be the growth rate pattern when the resource are unlimited?
Ans: (i) A – Expanding pyramid
C – Declining pyramid
(ii) Stable pyramid is ideal for human population because it maintains the stability in all
population phases.
(iii) Exponential.
ASSERTION REASONS QUESTIONS:

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1.Assertion: Plant-animal interactions do not generally involve co-evolution of the

mutualist organisms.
Reason : Evolution of plant and animal go side by side.
2.Assertion :Predators are organisms which feed on other individuals.
130
Reason : Prey species have evolved various defences to lessen the impact of
predation.
3.Assertion : Population of pyramid (graphically) depicts the rate at which population
will grow in future.
Reason : A triangular population pyramid depicts population size is stable .
4.Assertion : Epiphytes growing on branches of the tree exhibit commensalism.
Reason : In commensalism on organism benefits from the association while the other
has no effect.
Ans: 5(d), 6(b), 7(c), 8(a)
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
131
CHAPTER 15: BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
ONE MARKS QUESTION / MCQ
Term biodiversity was popularised by

Edward Wilson (b) Homboldt (c) Tilman (d) Paul Ehrlich
ANS : Edward Wilson
Find out the odd one with respect to ‘biodiversity hot spots’-
Western ghats and srilanka (b) Indo-Burma (c) Himalaya (d) Gangatic plains
ANS : Gangatic plains
When we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem , its biodiversity at all levels in its natural
habitat is called
In situ conservation (b) Ex-situ conservation (c) Sacred groves (d) hotspots
ANS : In situ conservation
“Rivet popper hypothesis”was proposed by
Tilman (b) Hombolat (c) Paul Ehrlich (d) Mayer
ANS : Paul Ehrlich
What is the contribution of India in global species diversity –
2.4% (b) 12% (c) 8.1% (d) 7.1%
ANS : 8.1%
The historic convention on Biological Diversity ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in
Rio De Janerio (b) Johannesburg (c) Paris (d) Shanghai
ANS : Rio De Janerio
Ex- situ conservation involves
Zoological parks(b) Pollen Banks (c) Widlife safari (d) all of the above
ANS : All of the above
Sacred groves is also one of the important mean of Biodiversity conservation. In respect of this
find out the odd one –
132
Khasi & Jaintia (b) Aravali hills (c) Himalayas (d) Western Ghats
ANS : Himalayas
Criteria for determination of ‘ Biodiversity hot spot’ is
High degree of endemism
High degree of species richness
Both a and b
High degree of habitat loss and fragmentation
ANS : Both a and b
Name one plant and one animal species that are threat to our Indian native species.
ANS : Carrot Grass/ lantana, Nile perch
Define Sacred Grooves.
ANS : These are forest patches set aside for worship. All the trees and wildlife are given total
protection by tribal people.
What do you mean by ‘The Evil Quartet’
ANS : There are four major causes of biodiversity loss. These are called ‘The Evil Quartet’.
What is mean by alien species?
ANS :Non native powerful species which invade a new area are known as alien species.
Define Offsite conservation/ Ex-situ conservation.
ANS: This approach involves placing threatened animal and plants in special care units for their
protection.
Which region in India has the maximum number of amphibian species?
ANS : Western Ghats
What is Ramsar Convention ?
ANS: It is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilisation of wetlands.
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTION
ASSERTION: Keeping animals in zoological park is a cause for loss of biodiversity.

REASON: Zoological park is an example of in-situ conservation
133
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanationof
the assertion
b..If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
c..If assertion is true but Reason is false
d.If both assertion and Reason is false
ANS : d
2. ASSERTION: Greater biodiversity is observed in tropics
REASON: Tropics have greater solar energy exposure which contributes to higher productivity
and greater diversity.
a. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
b..If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
c..If assertion is true but Reason is false
d.If both assertion and Reason is false
ANS: a
3. ASSERTION: Forest reduce the atmospheric pollution.
REASON : Forest increases rainfall
If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
If assertion is true but Reason is false
If both assertion and Reason is false
ANS : b
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (2 Marks question)
1. List four causes of biodiversity loss.
134
ANS: The four causes of biodiversity loss are :
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) Overexploitation
(c) Alien species invasion
(d) Coextinctions
2. Mention the kind of biodiversity of more than a 1000 varieties of mangoes in India represent.
How is it possible?
ANS: Genetic diversity, It occurs because within tropical latitudes the environment is constant
and predictable. Also, more solar energy is available which leads to higher productivity.
3. Why certain regions have been declared as biodiversity “hot spot” by environmentalists of
the world. Name any two hotspots regions of India.
ANS : Hot spot region is declared by high species richness and high degree of endemism.
4. Differentiate between insitu and exsitu conservation.
ANS: Insitu : conservation of plants and animals in their natural habitat. Example : sacred
grooves, national parks etc.
Ex-situ : In this approach threatened animals and plants are taken out from their natural
habitatand placed in special setting where they can be protected and given special care. Ex:
seed bank, zoological parks, botanical gardens, , wildlife safari
5. Sometimes alien species affect the indigenous organisms leading to their extinction.
Substantiate this statement with the help of any two examples.
ANS: Alien species become invasive compete with the native species and cause extinction of
indigenous species.
(i) introduction of Nile perch into lake Victoria leads to extinction of more than 200 species of
cichlid fish in that lake.
(ii) Carrot grass and Lantana introduced in our country have become invasive and cause
environmental damage. They pose threat to the native species of plants in our forests.
6. Giving two reasons explain why there is more species biodiversity in tropical latitudes than in
temperate ones.
ANS : The reasons are :
(i) speciation is a function of time. The temperate region were subjected to frequent glaciations in
the past, while the tropics have remain undisturbed and so had longer time to evolve more species
diversity.
135
(ii) More solar radiations is available in tropics which lead to more productivity and indirectly to
greater species diversity.
(iii) The environment of tropics is less seasonal and predictable, which encourages to niche
specialisation and species diversity.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (3 Marks Question)
1.. Why should biodiversity be conserved? Explain giving three reasons.
ANS : (a) plays important role in many ecosystem services
(b) humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature and products of
medicinal importance.
(c) conserving biodiversity relates to what we owe to millions of plants ,animal, and
microbe species with whom we share this planet.
2.
Identify the area labelled i,ii,iii,iv in the pie chart given below representing the biodiversity of
plants showing their proportionate number of species of
Major taxa.
ANS (i) Lichens, (ii)algae (iii) Fungi (iv) Mosses

3. Taking one example each of habitat loss and fragmentation, explain how are the two
responsible for biodiversity loss.
ANS : Habitat loss and fragmentation : The main cause of extinction of species is the
destruction of their habitat. For example, tropical rainforests once
136
Covering more than 14% of land area.
Now cover only 6% of land area. Ex: Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon, and many marine
fishes have become extinct in last 500 years.
4. Explain any two most important levels of biological organisation showing biodiversity with
the help of an example each.
ANS: Genetic diversity : A single species shows diversity at the genetic level over its
distributional range. For example : the genetic variation shown by the
Rauwolfia plant grown in the different Himalayan ranges might be due to its potency and
concenteration of reserpine
Species diversity : It is the diversity at species level and it is affected by species richness and
species evenness. For example , the Western Ghats have a
Greater amphibian species than eastern ghats.
CASE BASED QUESTION
The Amazon basin is the largest tropical rainforest in the world, covering a size approximately
equal to the lower 48 United States. 6-8 million square kilometers of forest house
approximately 10% of the world’s biodiversity and 15% of its freshwater. These “lungs of the
world” provide ecological services for the planet, but also a source of livelihood for hundred of
indigenous groups and forest dependent peoples. Brazil is home to approximately 65% of the
Amazon basin .
1. The amazon rain forest harbouring probably millions of species is being cut & cleared for
which purpose
(a) for cultivation of soyabeans
(b) For conservation of grasslands for raising beef purpose
(c) For cultivation of Medicinal plant
(d) Both (a) and (b) covering
ANS : d
2. The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come from tropical rain forests. Once covering
more that 14% present of earth land surface and now cover no more than
(a) 5% (b) 6% (c) 10% (d) 13%
137
ANS : 6%
3. ASSERTION: Dodo , Passenger pigeon, stellar’s sea cow have become extinct.
REASON: Excessive explotation of a species whether animal or plant reduce size of its
population so that it becomes vulnerable to extinction.
a)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
b)If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
c)If assertion is true but Reason is false
d)If both assertion and Reason is false
ANS : a
4. According to IUCN, which of the following is not the purpose of preparation of Red List?
(a) Provide global index about increase of biodiversity .
(b) Prepare conservation priorities and help in conservation action.
(c) identify and document species at high risk of extinction
(d) Provide awareness to the degree of threat to biodiversity.
ANS : a
5. Biodiversity Act of India for not allowing any foreigner to exploit Indian biodiversity was
passed in
(a) 1996 (b) 2006 (c) 2002 (d) 1962
ANS : 2002
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 marks question)
Q.1. Explain how species diversity of an area is reduced by the invasion of an alien species.
A.1. When alien species acquaint a particular habitat either purposely or inadvertently, some of
these species resort to invasion thereby causing declination or extinction of native species. For
instance – Lantana and water hyacinth have turned invasive, Invasion of Nile perch, a large
predator fish, into Lake Victoria in East Africa led to an extinction of an ecologically unique
collection of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish in the lake. As the Cichlid fish became extinct
due to a lack of food, the predatory Nile perch died too.
138
Q.2. How can the loss of biodiversity be prevented?
A.2. The occurrence of different types of habitat, species, ecosystem, gene pool, a gene in a
particular area in biodiversity. It can be conserved with various conservational strategies and
management of abiotic and biotic resources. Listed below are a few conservational strategies:
Natural conservation or protection of useful plants and animals in their natural habitats.
Conserving crucial habitats like breeding and feeding areas, facilitating the growth and
multiplication of endangered species
Regulation or banning hunting activities
Through bilateral or multilateral agreements, habitats of migratory entities should be
conserved
Spreading awareness of the significance of conservation of biodiversity
Avoiding over-exploitation of natural resources
3. (i) Why is there a need to conserve biodiversity?
(ii) Name and explain any two ways that are responsible for the loss of biodiversity.
Ans.(i) The biodiversity needs to be conserved because of three categories: .
 Narrow utilitarian includes most of the resources required for our day-io-day life, e.g.
food, oil, clothes, firewood, drugs and medicines, industrial products all are derived from
nature, thus needs to be conserved to reap more benefits.
 Broadly utilitarian includes most of the ecosystem services provided to us by nature.
Such as release of oxygen and fixation of C02 by photosynthesis in plants, pollination and
dispersal of seeds, etc. Therefore, for the continuation of these services biodiversity
needs to be conserved.
 Ethical reasons as it becomes our moral duty to take care of all living species in our
surroundings irrespective of their economic importance and pass this biological legacy to
our future generations.
(ii) Hot spots are regions exhibiting high degree of endemism and great species richness,
therefore designating these areas as ‘biodiversity hot spots’ allows their maximum protection
and reduce the ongoing extinction by about 30%.
Such hot spot regions in India are Western Ghats and Himalayas.
139
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CHAPTER 1: DELETED

CHAPTER 2: SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Vegetative cell Generative cell

Albuminous seeds Non-albuminous seeds

Q1 Which part in the male reproductive system store sperm? 1

Ans. Ampullary isthmus junction.The phenomena of sperm activation is called

CLICK HERE TO JOIN

Study the graph given and answer any four questions:1x4

i) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represents.

One mark each Questions

1. Give the term for rapid population growth.

Two mark each question

Three marks questions

Five marks Questions

Case based questions

6. Reproductive and child health care

9. Cervical caps, diaphragms, vaults, (any two)

12. Lag period

13. ELISA test

14. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer

16. Intra Uterine Contraceptive Device.

17. HIV : Human Immunodeficiency Virus.

Two marks answers

18. Social causes of human population growth rate are:

19. Control over the transmission of STDs.

Three marks answers

25. Veneral disease (VD)/Reproductive tract infection (RTI)

27. : Contraceptive is the method, which prevents unwanted pregnancies. An ideal

Advantages:- 1. MTP’s are essential in cases, where continuation of pregnancy could be

Disadvantages:- It is being misused to eliminate illegal & unwanted pregnancies & in

Five marks answers

30. .(i)Copper and hormone releasing lUDs act as contraceptives because

(c) Increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.

31. (i)Oral contraceptive or pills are either

32. Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) includes in vitro fertilization-embryo transfer

Case based answers

34. A: Hepatitis B is also considered a sexually transmitted disease.

A. Category of Questions (Very Short Answer Type) 1 mark each

Ans. Dog flower (Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.)

Ans. GAG changes as GUG, Glutamic acid is substituted by valine.

Ans. (i) Many varieties with contrasting forms of characters

(ii) Can easily be cross pollinated as well as self pollinated.

5. Write the phenotypic ratio of di hybrid cross.

6. Name two organisms where males are heterogametic.

Ans. Human and Drosophilla

7. Scientific name of garden pea is ________________

Ans. Pisum sativum

8. Tendency of gene to link together in a same locus is called ___________________

Ans. Haemophilia , colour blindness

Ans. Parent - Tt , Dwarf progeny – tt

B. Category of Questions (Short Answer Type-I) 2 marks each

(i) ZW in bird (ii) XY in Drosophila (iii) ZZ in birds. (iv) XO in grasshopper.

Ans. (i) Female; (ii) Male; (iii) Female (iv) Male

2. Mention two differences between Turner ’s syndrome and Klinefelter's syndome.

Ans. (i) Very short life cycle (2-weeks)

(ii) Can be grown easily in laboratory

(iii) In single mating produce a large no. of flies.

(iv) Male and female show many hereditary variations

5. Differentiate between point mutation and frame shift mutations.

C. Category of Questions (Short Answer Type-II) 3 marks each

1. A woman with O blood group marries a man with AB blood group

Ans. (i) Green pod colour is dominant

(ii) Green pod colour