6. With your knowledge on vaccine shelf-life and a. Red, Yellow, Green c.

Cyclical
RECALLS 5 – NP1 storage, which should NOT be stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Pink, Yellow, Green
c. Red, Orange, Green
d. Secular variation
Situation
b. Oral polio vaccine d. Red, Pink, Green
You are a newly hired community nurse in Barangay 17. Around 50% of the affected individuals reported
c. Measles vaccine
Guada. You were tasked to provide vaccination to the
d. MMR 12. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness, vomiting more than once in the past 3 hours. Which is
citizens.
severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a your priority nursing problem for these individuals?
1. You have a role in improving the delivery of
7. When handling, transporting and storing vaccines, hospital. Which of the following severe conditions does a. Risk for electrolyte imbalance
immunization services in the community. As a nurse,
special care must be given to provide quality potent not always require urgent referral to a hospital? b. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
you need to:
vaccines among the targets. What measure is practiced a. Mastoiditis c. Activity intolerance
a. Record the children given with vaccination in the
to ensure that all vaccines are utilized before its b. Severe dehydration d. Impaired comfort
Target Client list and GECD/GMC card or any standard
expiration? c. Severe pneumonia
recording form utilized.
a. FIFO d. Severe febrile disease 18. You gathered data on how many people were
b. Identify cases of EPI target diseases per standard case
b. FEFO affected and presented the trend with the time people
definition
c. Most sensitive to heat to Least sensitive to health 13. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother complained to the health center regarding their
c. Conduct health visits in the community to assess
d. Potency arrangement to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to symptoms. What type of graph will you use?
other health needs of the community and be able to
5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin a. Bar chart
provide package of health services to targets
8. A mother asks you, “Why is BCG needed for my pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI b. Histogram
d. All of the above
newborn?” Your answer would be: guidelines, you will classify this infant in which c. Pie chart
a. “BCG protects the possibility of TB meningitis & other category? d. Line graph
2. The Philippine Expanded Program on Immunization
TB infections.” a. No signs of dehydration
(EPI) has been in existence since 1976, providing Filipino
b. “BCG reduces the chance of severe pertussis.” b. Some dehydration 19. Which of the following traditional medicines may
children access to safe and effective vaccines to protect
c. “BCG prevents liver cirrhosis and liver cancer.” c. Severe dehydration be used for diarrhea and stomach pains?
them from diseases like measles, diphtheria, tetanus,
d. None of the above. d. The data is insufficient. a. Sambong
and whooping cough. Which Republic Act is this?
a. RA 9211 b. Yerba buena
9. What day of the week is designated as 14. Management of a child with measles includes the c. Tsaang gubat
b. RA 9165
immunization day in the Philippines? administration of which of the following? d. Lagundi
c. RA 10152
a. Monday a. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
d. RA 10586
b. Tuesday b. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia 20. You aim to provide health education to the people
c. Wednesday c. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity regarding proper food preparation techniques to
3. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the
d. Friday d. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was prevent food-borne illnesses. Which of the following
infant had:
given recommendations will you not include in your health
a. Seizures a day after DPT 1.
10. Baby Julian is scheduled to have his third doses of teaching plan?
b. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1.
OPV, PCV, and Pentavalent vaccine and first dose of IPV 15. A 6-month old infant was brought to the health i. Wash hands before handling food.
c. Abscess formation after DPT 1.
on August 2, 2023. Today is July 15, 2023. However, his center because of cough. Her respiratory rate is ii. Store raw and prepared food together.
d. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.
mother informed you that they will go to Korea on July 45/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child iii. Do not leave cooked food at room
30 to August 5, 2023. What will you prescribe for Baby Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her breathing is temperature for more than 3 hours.
4. A mother calls the pediatric clinic to ask when her
Julian’s immunization? considered: iv. Reheat cooked food thoroughly.
daughter will receive the Varicella vaccine. Your answer
a. Give the vaccine today a. Fast v. Thaw frozen food at room temperature.
to her question is:
b. Go back to the health center on July 28, 2023 b. Slow a. i, iv
a. at 2, 4, and 6 months
c. Go back to the health center on August 8, 2023. c. Normal b. ii, iii
b. 12 months and 4-6 years
d. Cancel their Korea trip d. Insignificant c. ii, iii, v
c. at 6 and 12 months
d. at 4 months and 4-6 years d. None of the above
Situation Situation
The IMCI or Integrated Management of Childhood Barangay Casita had a health and medical caravan for Situation
5. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose
Illness (IMCI) is a strategy that integrates all available elderly patients. While waiting, they were given a ham You want to be a community health nurse. The
of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have
measures for disease prevention and health problems and cheese sandwich and a bottle of orange juice. The following questions apply in your desired practice.
protection against tetanus for how long?
during childhood, for their early detection and effective caravan ended by lunch time. However, at 3PM, several
a. 1 year
treatment, and for promoting healthy habits within the people went back to the health center and complained 21. Population-focused nursing practice requires
b. 3 years
family and community. The following questions apply. of stomach pain, vomiting, and diarrhea. which of the following processes?
c. 10 years
d. Lifetime 16. What type of epidemic is the situation above? a. Community organizing
11. What colors are being utilized in the color coded a. Point source b. Nursing process
system of the IMCI? b. Propagated c. Community diagnosis
d. Epidemiologic process
22. Which of the following is the mission of the
Department of Health?
a. Health for all Filipinos
b. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care
c. Improve the general health status of the population
d. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year
2020
23. Which of the following is the most prominent
feature of public health nursing?
a. It involves providing home care to sick people who
are not confined in the hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to people within
the catchment area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part of a team
providing public health nursing services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not
curative, services.
24. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health
Board?
a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician
25. It is a means of mobilizing people to solve their
own problems.
a. Community diagnosis
b. Community organizing
c. Community assessment
d. Community participation
26. Which of the following actions show the
supervisory function of a public health nurse?
a. Providing home visits to chronically ill patients in the
community
b. Coordinating care with the members of the RHU
c. Lobbying advocacy for healthier environment and
lifestyle for the citizens
d. Coaching BHWs how to conduct vital signs
assessment
27. To assess the effectiveness of provided care and
services, a public health nurse conducts evaluation in
every nursing activity. What element is being evaluated
is the nurse assessing the changes in the client's health
status that result from nursing intervention?
a. Process
b. Structural
c. Outcome 33. The nurse is teaching a patient taking rifampicin. you can give to women in the first trimester of
d. Impact Which side effect is expected with this drug?
a. Hypertension pregnancy in the barangay?
28. What element is being evaluated is the nurse b. Reddish brown urine a. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
assessing the budget rendered and equipment used in c. Change in hearing abilities b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and cinemas.
the nursing services given? d. Joint pain c. Consult at the health center where a rubella vaccine
a. Process may be given.
b. Structural 34. A patient asks you, “Why do I need to take d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella
c. Outcome multiple drugs at the same time?” Your most immunoglobulin.
d. Impact appropriate answer is:
a. “Multiple drugs help so that you will not need high 39. What is your best advice for the community to
29. What element is being evaluated is the nurse doses of each drug.” prevent transmission of measles?
assessing the nursing care plan formulated and how it is b. “Multiple drugs help prevent drug resistance.” a. Always observe sanitary food preparation techniques.
implemented? c. “Multiple drugs help in avoiding adverse effects.” b. Cover your mouth with tissue paper when coughing.
a. Process d. “Multiple drugs help to maximize the antibacterial c. Avoid sharing utensils with affected individuals.
b. Structural actions of each.” d. Get MMR vaccine.
c. Outcome
d. Impact 35. A pregnant mother came to you with a persistent 40. Paragonimiasis is a chronic parasitic infection. The
cough and fatigue. After necessary tests, she was following are correct about paragonimiasis, except:
30. When evaluating the RHU staff in terms of their diagnosed with TB and the causative agent is a. Paragonimiasis present with PTB symptoms.
performance of job responsibilities, what tool should mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which instruction is b. Paragonimus westermani is the most important
you utilize? included in your teaching plan? causative agent in Asia.
a. Performance evaluation a. Medication will be started once the baby is delivered. c. Paragonimiasis is diagnosed through stool specimen
b. Incident report b. Pregnancy has to be aborted. examination.
c. Nursing audit c. She will take rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and d. Paragonimiasis is transmitted through ingestion of
d. Staff meeting streptomycin for 9 months. raw crabs.
d. She will take rifampicin and isoniazid for 9 months.
Situation 41. What would you expect in patients with
Barangay Gapan has a high incidence of Tuberculosis. Situation Paragonimiasis?
You were asked by the RHU to provide services to help There is an outbreak of communicable diseases a. Hemoptysis
manage, prevent and control the disease in their reported in different provinces across the country. The b. Fever
community. following questions apply. c. Rashes
d. Jaundice
31. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS 36. A 4-year old client was brought to the health
Category I? center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and 42. What is the drug of choice for Paragonimiasis?
a. Sputum negative cavitary cases the passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most a. Bithionol
b. Clients returning after a default probably suffering from which condition? b. Praziquantel
c. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment a. Giardiasis c. Erythromycin
regimens b. Cholera d. Chloroquine
d. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive c. Amebiasis
sputum exam d. Dysentery 43. Cholera is caused by a bacterium called Vibrio
cholerae. The symptoms are produced due to a toxin
32. To improve compliance to treatment, what 37. Several children have measles. The released by the bacteria.
innovation is being implemented in DOTS? pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You a. Bacteria
a. Having the health worker follow up the client at may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the _____. b. Virus
home a. Nasal mucosa c. Protozoa
b. Having the health worker or a responsible family b. Buccal mucosa d. Fungus
member monitor drug intake c. Skin on the abdomen
c. Having the patient come to the health center every d. Skin on the antecubital surface 44. What is the priority nursing intervention should
month to get his medications
you provide to a patient with cholera?
d. Having a target list to check on whether the patient
38. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To a. Give ORESOL
has collected his monthly supply of drugs
b. Weigh the patient daily
prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that c. Obtain stool specimen
d. Ensure adequate food intake
45. In the Philippines, which condition is the most
frequent cause of death associated with
schistosomiasis?
a. Bladder cancer
b. Liver cancer
c. Liver cirrhosis
d. Intestinal perforation
46. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly
with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of
the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?
a. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
b. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
c. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector
d. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with
basil or citronella
47. An important role of the community health nurse
in the prevention and control of Dengue H-fever
includes:
a. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping water
containers covered
b. Conducting strong health education drives/campaign
directed toward proper garbage disposal
c. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups and
community the nature of the disease and its causation.
d. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides
48. Which of these signs may not be regarded as truly
positive signs indicative of Dengue H-fever?
a. Prolonged Bleeding Time
b. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1 cm
square
c. Steadily increasing hematocrit count
d. Fall in the platelet count
49. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to
the health center because of a fever with a 4-day
duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result.
In the absence of other signs, which is the most
appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to
prevent Dengue shock syndrome?
a. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.
b. Start the patient on IV fluid STAT.
c. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
d. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate
management.
50. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever, which started 4 days
prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what
will you do first?
a. Do a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
Situation
You are caring for Family Cruz, which consists of Rey
(father, 46 y/o), Joy (mother, 43 y/o), and 4 kids with
ages 21, 16, 14, 8. The following questions apply.
51. You plan to visit the family in their home. Which
of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
a. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a
greater number of people.
b. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal
of the home situation.
c. It allows sharing of experiences among people with
similar health problems.
d. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for the
health needs of its members.
52. The typology of family nursing problems is used in
the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of
families. Rey is a smoker for 15 years and drinks with his
compadres 4 nights a week. His favorite pulutan is
chicharon. This is classified as a:
a. Health deficit
b. Health threat
c. Foreseeable crisis
d. Stress point
53. You plan on creating a health teaching plan for
Rey. Upon assessment, you learned that he smokes 2
packs per day for 5 years. Slowly, he limits himself to 1
pack per day until today. How many pack years does
Rey smoke?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
54. When you asked Rey regarding smoking cessation,
he answered, “Smoking is bad; I saw it in my
compadres. But I have no problems with it because as
you can see I am still healthy and strong.” What second
level assessment can you apply to this nursing problem?
a. Inability to recognize the presence of the problem
due to denial about its existence as a result of fear of
consequences of a diagnosis
b. Inability to make decisions with respect to taking
appropriate health action due to low salience of the
problem
c. Inability to provide a home environment conducive to
health maintenance and personal development due to
lack of knowledge of preventive measures
d. Inability to provide adequate nursing care to the at
risk member of the family due to lack of knowledge in
carrying out necessary interventions
55. What topic should you teach first to Rey?
a. How smoking can lead to serious diseases
b. Techniques to lessen cravings for smoking
c. Resources for smoking cessation
d. Withdrawal symptoms to expect if he quit smoking
56. Which of the following objectives is most
appropriate for Rey?
a. Rey will stop smoking starting next week.
b. Rey will only smoke ½ pack in the next 4 weeks.
c. Rey will gradually decrease his smoking until he can
completely stop smoking
d. Rey will decrease his smoking by 2 sticks every 3 days
for the next two months.
57. Furthermore, their 16-year old son is about to
start studying in a private university for Senior High
School. The family belongs in the lower middle-income
class and only has enough financial resources to sustain
their needs. This is classified as a:
a. Wellness condition
b. Health deficit
c. Health threat
d. Foreseeable crisis
58. Their 21-year old daughter, Liah, was diagnosed
with Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
(PCOS) 3 years ago. You know that estrogen levels are
elevated in PCOS. This increases her risk of what
disease?
a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Endometrial cancer
c. Hirsutism
d. Hypertension
59. You ask Liah regarding her lifestyle. Which of the
following behaviors need to be addressed?
a. She walks every day at 6 AM for 30 minutes.
b. She sleeps at 11PM every night.
c. She eats 2 pieces of bread with jam for breakfast.
d. She occasionally drinks alcohol at least once a month.
60. Liah asks you what medicine she should take to
manage her PCOS. What would be you most
appropriate response?
a. You are not recommended to take any pills because
of your hormonal imbalances.
b. You may take any brand of progesterone-only pills
(POPs).
c. The health center offers contraceptive pills. You can
ask for their available pills for free.
d. Let us talk to your ob-gyne regarding the medication
you should take.
Situation
Environmental health is also an important aspect when
caring for a community. As a nurse, you are tasked to
address the environmental issues related to health in
Brgy UNO.
61. When caring for the environment in relation to
health, a nurse follows the Man-Disease Agent-
Environment Triad. All but one are preventive strategies
that apply this triad:
a. Measles immunization
b. Treatment of wastewater
c. Food safety practices
d. None of the above
62. If Brgy UNO is an endemic area for
schistosomiasis, what is the most effective way of
controlling schistosomiasis would you suggest?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
63. Bgry UNO gets their water from a communal
faucet, where one faucet is used by 4-6 households.
What level of water supply facility is this?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
64. Food fortification is one of the strategies to
prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976
mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of
the following is among these food items?
a. Sugar
b. Bread
c. Margarine
d. Filled milk
65. Food sanitation is important to prevent food-
borne illnesses. When reheating food before eating, it
should be up to at least what centigrade?
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
Situation
HIV and AIDS has been a serious problem in the
country. To effectively address it, controlling it at
community level through health education and early
screening is important.
66. To determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that
may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
67. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the
management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an
action expected of these drugs?
a. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
b. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
c. They shorten the period of communicability of the
disease.
d. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease
condition.
68. You are the PHN in the city health center. A client
underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result
was positive. What is the best course of action that you
may take?
a. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the
practice of high risk behaviors.
b. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant
person before revealing the result.
c. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best
person to reveal the result to the client.
d. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as
Western blot, since the ELISA result may be false.
69. Kathryn is 19 years old, a first year college
student. She recently confessed to Nurse Jane that she
had sexual intercourse with her classmate. After 1
week, she experienced on and off flu-like symptoms.
She said, “I should have not had sex with him! I think I
have HIV now because he goes to clubs all the time and
engages in sex with people he just met.” What is the
most therapeutic response for Kathryn?
a. “Tell me about it.”
b. “Yes, you should not have sex with him!”
c. “I can see that you are frustrated. Do you think the
intercourse caused your symptoms?”
d. “I can’t believe he does that. Men like him do not
deserve to get near other people.”
70. She asks you to check for his records because she
wants to know if her classmate transmitted the disease
to her. In terms of legalities, which of the following
should Nurse Jane do?
a. Accept Kathryn’s request.
b. Refuse Kathryn’s request.
c. Refer Kathryn to the Informations Department of the
hospital.
d. Advise Kathryn to ask her doctor regarding the
records.
Situation
Public health services are provided to people. The
Philippines currently implements the Universal Health
Care Law.
71. “Public health services are given free of charge.”
Is this statement true or false?
a. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of the
government to provide basic services.
b. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for
public health services.
c. The statement may be true or false, depending on the
specific service required.
d. The statement may be true or false, depending on
policies of the government concerned
72. Which is true of primary facilities?
a. They are usually government-run.
b. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis.
c. They are training facilities for health professionals.
d. A community hospital is an example of this level of
health facilities
73. What is the legal basis for Primary Health Care
approach in the Philippines?
a. Alma Ata Declaration on PHC
b. RA 11223
c. Presidential Decree 996
d. Letter of Instruction No. 949
74. Primary health care is a total approach to
community development. Which of the following is an
indicator of success in the use of the primary health
care approach?
a. Health programs are sustained according to the level
of development of the community.
b. Health services are provided free of charge to
individuals and families.
c. Local officials are empowered as the major decision
makers in matters of health.
d. Health workers are able to provide care based on
identified health needs of the people.
75. Which of the following demonstrates intersectoral
linkages?
a. Two-way referral system
b. Team approach
c. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
d. Cooperation between the PHN and public school
teacher
76. You are planning for a program against
hypertension in a community with 1490 adults. There
are 690 males and 800 females. What is the sex ratio?
a. There are 86 males per 100 females
b. There are 46% males in 1490 adults
c. There are 100 males per 86 females
d. There is equal male to female ratio
77. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will
be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization
outreach activity in a barangay with a population of
about 1,850.
a. 475
b. 550
c. 600
d. 650
78. Estimate the number of children who will be given
pentavalent vaccine during an immunization outreach
activity in a barangay with a population of about
50,000.
a. 1350
b. 1500
c. 1800
d. 2000
79. In a barangay with a total population of about
18,000, there were 94 deaths. Among those who died,
20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were
aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate?
a. 4.2/1,000
b. 5.2/1,000
c. 6.3/1,000
d. 7.3/1,000
80. Which of the following is a natality rate?
a. Crude birth rate
b. Neonatal mortality rate
c. Infant mortality rate
d. General fertility rate
Situation
A new public health nurse intends to improve the
lifestyle of the community by giving health education
through seminars and group discussion in her
barangay.
81. What level of prevention does the nurse plan to
conduct?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. A and B
82. Which refers to a social action process through
which people gain mastery over their lives and their
communities and community members assume greater
power, or expand their power from within, to create
desired changes?
a. Participation
b. Social relevance
c. Critical consciousness
d. Empowerment
83. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services
from the national government to local government
units. Which of the following is the major goal of
devolution?
a. To strengthen local government units
b. To allow greater autonomy to local government units
c. To empower the people and promote their self-
reliance
d. To make basic services more accessible to the people
84. What best signifies that learning is effective?
a. Community members continue to participate in the
Zumba session every morning
b. Community members are able to describe the
important of a healthy lifestyle
c. Community members verbalize that they will apply
their learning
d. Community members put posters on how to eat
healthily in multiple areas around their barangay
85. When assessing the people’s risk for Non-
Communicable Diseases such as hypertension and
diabetes, what protocol can the public health nurse
use?
a. PhilPEN
b. Integrated Management of Adolescent and Adult 92. Nurse Stephanie makes an ocular survey to the b. Create an office in the barangay health center that
Illness barangay. It is appropriate for her to: she can visit everyday
c. IMCI a. Introduce herself to the community members c. Go to the public areas in the community and converse
d. FOURmula One for Health b. Visit the barangay captain with the people
c. Establish the ground of her organization d. Conduct house-to-house surveys
Situation d. Assess the community and its members
The Field Health Services and Information System 100. What is the indication that Nurse Stephanie can
(FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public 93. What activity will Nurse Stephanie conduct first in now phase out of the community?
health care in the Philippines. the pre-entry phase? a. Plans are already in place and implemented
a. Immersion b. The community members already develops trust in
86. What is the fundamental block of FHSIS? b. Social preparation the public health nurse
a. Family treatment record c. Preliminary social investigation c. CHWs are able to assume staff level functions
b. Tally report d. Continuous appraisal d. The LGU have accepted to address the pressing needs
c. Output report of the community
d. Target/client list 94. When will be the best time to work with the
termination phase in a community immersion?
87. To monitor clients registered in long-term a. Pre-Interview Phase
regimens, such as the Multi-Drug Therapy, which b. Orientation Phase
component will be most useful? c. Working Phase
a. Tally report d. Termination Phase
b. Output report
c. Target/client list 95. What is the role of Nurse Stephanie in community
d. Individual health record research?
a. Facilitator
88. Who produces the output report? b. Leader
a. Public Health Office c. Formulator
b. Regional DOH Office d. Officer
c. Rural Health Unit
d. Barangay Health Center 96. Which of the following approaches should Nurse
Stephanie best apply when conducting community
89. When creating a tally report for infectious organization?
diseases, how often is the most ideal? a. Universal Health Care Law
a. Weekly b. Devolution of health services
b. Monthly c. Community Mobilization
c. Quarterly d. Primary Health Care
d. Annually
97. Which step in community organizing involves
90. To ensure a standardized facility database in training of potential leaders in the community?
FHSIS, what is the best approach? a. Integration
a. Conduct tally as often as possible b. Core group formation
b. Create summaries of cases recorded c. Community organization
c. Double check the accuracy of data d. Community study
d. Use the same forms across facilities
98. In which step are plans formulated for solving
Situation community problems?
Nurse Stephanie wants to conduct a community a. Mobilization
participation research in Brgy Viejo. b. Action
c. Core group formation
91. What is the primary goal of COPAR? d. Community organization
a. Community mobilization
b. Community health development 99. What is the best way for Nurse Stephanie to
c. Community organizing imbibe the community way of life in Brgy. Viejo?
d. Community assessment a. Visit the community every 2 days
 10. You are caring for 5 month old Baby John. Which c. Fear of having no privacy
RECALLS 5 - NP2 a. Vitamin K aids in the absorption of calcium and
phosphorus for newborns to develop healthy bones and
developmental milestone, if not performed by the
infant, should be further investigated?
d. Fear of pain
Situation
teeth. a. Rolling over
A nurse should be knowledgeable and skilled in caring 15. According to Kohlberg’s Stages of Moral
b. Vitamin K is a water-soluble nutrient that helps in b. Crawling
for families with a newborn.
repairing red blood cells and boosting the immune c. Pincer grasp Development, what would be the reason for conformity
system. d. Sitting without support to the rules for a 9-year-old child?
1. A newborn’s mouth should be wiped first then the
c. Vitamin K is used to prevent brain damage in a. The child conforms to the rules because of the
nose. What is the most accurate rationale behind this?
newborns because it is essential for brain development, Situation rewards given for good behavior.
a. Newborns breathe through their mouths
neural myelination, and cognitive function. Psychosocial development is crucial throughout the b. The child conforms to the rules because it maintains
b. Newborns breathe through their nose
d. Vitamin K is needed in the production of certain entire lifespan. It emphasizes the social nature of social order.
c. Newborns may inhale outside air
coagulation factors in the intestinal tract to prevent and human beings, develops one’s personality, and c. The child conforms to the rules because it causes
d. Newborns may drink their amniotic fluid
treat bleeding diseases in newborns. influences social relationships. others to view them as being good.
2. When the Moro Reflex is stimulated in an infant, d. The child conforms to the rules because it provides a
Situation 11. The school-age child experiences many physical mutual benefit.
the infant will _____________the arms with the palms
As a nurse, you should have adequate grasp on changes throughout this developmental time period.
of the hands turned ___________ and then move the
developmental milestones in order to effectively assess Which of the following is not a change experienced by 16. Jean Piaget (1896–1980), a Swiss psychologist,
arms ___________ the body.
and care for pediatric patients. this age group? introduced concepts of cognitive development or the
a. flex, upward, away from
b. extend, upward, back to a. The child typically grows about 2.5 inches per year. way children learn and think. According to his theory, all
6. Baby Julie weighed 8 lbs. at birth. How many lbs. b. Most of the child’s 28 permanent teeth will be but one are expected in an infant:
c. flex, downward, back to
should she weigh at 6 months? erupted by the end of this developmental period. a. Infants play peek-a-boo because they realize the
d. extend, downward, away from
a. 24 lbs c. The child’s weight triples from the age of 6 to 12 person playing with them exists behind his or her
b. 10 lbs years. hands.
3. Most newborns experience physiologic jaundice 24
c. 16 lbs d. The child’s gross motor skills allow them to ride a b. Infants can recognize that their toy has broken parts.
hours after delivery, as a result of breakdown of fetal
d. 32 lbs bike without training wheels, swim, and skate. c. Infants learn they are a separate entity from objects.
red blood cells. However, when indirect bilirubin levels
become above normal, this may be potentially d. Infants can recognize that a parent remains the same
7. You noted that Baby Casey is using the pincer grasp 12. Which of the following is the most important person whether dressed in a robe and slippers or pants
dangerous because it can:
at 10-month-old. Which option below best describes achievement in a school age child? and a T-shirt.
a. Interfere with the chemical synthesis of brain cells,
this milestone? a. Being able to control their urges to urinate or
resulting in permanent cell damage called kernicterus
a. She is able to grasp large objects with the palm and defecate 17. According to Piaget's Theory of Cognitive
b. Lead to inadequate levels of red blood cells, resulting
forefingers. b. Being able to learn their sexual identity through Development a 11-year-old child would be in the
in anemia
b. She is able to grasp small objects with the index awareness of genital area _________________ stage:
c. Impair peripheral circulation, leading to decreased
finger and thumb. c. Being able to establish good relationships with people a. Preoperational
tissue perfusion and cyanosis
c. She is able to grasp small and large objects with the of the opposite sex b. Concrete Operational
d. Cause build-up of urea under the skin, resulting in
middle finger and thumb. d. Being able to learn a skill or hobby c. Sensorimotor
uraemic pruritus
d. She is able to grasp large objects with the palm and d. Formal Operational
thumb. 13. What would be your best advice for parents of a
4. Hazel, who just delivered her baby 17 hours ago,
8. Baby Casey’s mother asks you about car school age child? 18. Which of the following cognitive abilities is
asked you: “Why does my baby’s head look weird?”
safety: “What is the best position of a car seat for my a. Allow the child to complete a project and make them expected in an 11-year old child?
What is your most appropriate response?
baby?” Your response is: feel rewarded for the accomplishment a. Centering
a. “Your baby’s head does look weird. Let us ask your
a. Forward-facing and back seat b. Praise the child’s ability to make decisions rather b. Decentering
doctor why.”
b. Forward-facing and front seat than judging the correctness of their decisions c. Abstract thinking
b. “It looks asymmetrical. Was there anything that
c. Rear-facing and front seat c. Allow the child to create bonds and friendship with d. Reversibility
happened to your baby’s head?”
d. Rear-facing and back seat peers of the opposite sex
c. “Your baby’s head was molded during labor and
delivery. This will go back to normal after a few days.” d. Provide visual stimulation for active child 19. Suppose Carl, 5 years old, tells you that his arm is
9. You then note that Baby Casey’s anterior fontanelle involvement asking for a warm blanket to get better. What type of
d. “I don’t know what you are saying. It does not look
is open. How would you document this finding? cognition is he using?
weird.”
a. Abnormal; should be closed at 2 months 14. A 10-year-old is being prepped for heart surgery a. Deductive reasoning
b. Abnormal; should be closed at 6 months to replace a heart valve. What fears or stressors does b. Magical thinking
5. Baby Nicole was delivered 1 hour ago. You are
c. Normal, should be closed at 12 months the nurse anticipate this child could experience during c. Inductive reasoning
tasked to give BCG vaccine, Hepatitis B vaccine, and
d. Normal; should be closed at 18 months this hospitalization? d. Sensorial thought
Vitamin K injection. What is the best rationale in giving
Vitamin K in newborns? a. Fear of strangers
b. Fear of punishment
20. Carl’s mother told you that she is concerned
because she saw her son masturbating while taking a
bath. As a nurse, what would be your most appropriate
response?
a. This is normal behavior for Carl.
b. This behavior should begin by 10 years old.
c. It is recommended that you have him checked with a
psychiatrist.
d. Carl may have a disease in his genitalia.
Situation
Chrisa is an 8-year-old child born with asthma and celiac
disease. She was brought to the hospital with vital signs
of BP 100/70, PR 99, RR 30, and T 36.8 deg C. She has
wheezes, pallor, and rashes on her chest .
21. You asked Chrisa’s mother about her allergies.
She responded that Chrisa is allergic to seafood, which
the child accidentally ate prior to her asthma attack.
What drug should be immediately given to the patient
for her allergic reaction?
a. Epinephrine
b. Albuterol
c. Montelukast
d. Theophylline
22. What are the three processes behind asthma?
a. Increased bronchial secretions, alveolar collapse,
airway constriction
b. Bronchospasm, increased mucus production, upper
airway obstruction
c. Bronchospasm, inflammation of bronchial mucosa,
and increased bronchial secretions
d. Abnormal production of mucus, blockage of exocrine
glands, airway constriction
23. Which of the following breakfast meals should
you give to Chrisa?
a. Oatmeal with banana and peanut butter
b. Whole wheat toast with fried egg and cheese
c. Rice with beef tapa and fried egg
d. Vegetable salad with shrimp and apples
24. Chrisa was prescribed take home medications –
inhaled Salmeterol and Fluticasone – for long-term
management of asthma. Which of the following
responses show that her mother understands the
correct order of taking these medications?
a. Chrisa inhales the Salmeterol first and then waits 5
minutes before inhaling the Fluticasone.
b. Chrisa inhales the Fluticasone first and then waits 5
minutes before inhaling the Salmeterol.
c. Chrisa inhales the Salmeterol first and then waits 1
minute before inhaling the Fluticasone.
d. Chrisa inhales the Fluticasone and immediately
inhales the Salmeterol.
25. All but one are expected signs and symptoms in
patients with gluten sensitivity:
a. Cachexia
b. Steatorrhea
c. Abdominal distention
d. None of the above
Situation
One of the most common congenital diseases are
cardiovascular diseases. Nursing interventions for
pediatric patients with cardiovascular diseases are
crucial to ensure optimal health and recovery.
26. Dan, a 2 month old infant, was born with
tetralogy of fallot. Which statement below is incorrect
concerning how the blood normally flows through the
heart?
a. Unoxygenated blood enters through the superior and
inferior vena cava and travels to the left atrium.
b. The pulmonic valve receives blood from the right
ventricle and allows blood to flow to the lungs via the
pulmonary artery.
c. The left atrium allows blood to flow down through
the bicuspid valve (mitral) into the left ventricle.
d. Oxygenated blood leaves the left ventricle and flows
up through the aortic valve and aorta to be pumped to
the rest of the body.
27. While feeding Dan, you notice the infant’s skin
begins to have a bluish tint and the breathing rate has
increased. Your immediate nursing action is to?
a. Continue feeding the infant and place the infant on
oxygen.
b. Stop feeding the infant and provide suction.
c. Stop feeding the infant and place the infant in the
knee-to-chest position and administer oxygen.
d. Assess the infant’s heart rate and rhythm.
28. Now that Dan has severe cyanosis, you anticipate
which drug to give?
a. Indomethacin
b. Diclofenac
c. Celecoxib
d. Alprostadil
29. You are now caring for Cess, a 3 year-old patient
who has a large atrial septal defect who is waiting for
surgery. She is currently experiencing complications
arising from an abnormal shunting of blood throughout c. Administer lorazepam
the heart. As the nurse, you know that a d. Call for help
_____________ shunt is occurring in the heart due to
the defect: 35. A patient with a history of epilepsy is taking
a. Right-to-left Phenytoin. The patient’s morning labs are back, and the
b. Right patient’s Phenytoin level is 7 mcg/mL. Based on this
c. Left finding, the nurse will?
d. Left-to-right a. Assess the patient for a rash
b. Initiate seizure precautions
30. Cess’s mother comes to you and says, “I am c. Hold the next dose of Phenytoin
feeling scared for my daughter. Why does it need to d. Continue to monitor the patient
happen to her? I don’t want to lose her.” What is your
most therapeutic response? Situation
a. Stay silent. Education on sexuality and reproductive health is
b. “Stop worrying. It will not do you or your daughter important for individuals to have adequate
any good.” understanding about their bodies and relationships,
c. “Why are you feeling that way?” decrease their risk-taking, and decrease the frequency
d. “I can see that you are losing hope and you think your of unprotected sex.
daughter will die.”
36. The Reproductive Health Law of the Philippines
Situation provides universal and free access to modern
5-month-old James was brought by his father to the contraceptive methods, mandates age- and
hospital for insertion of an external ventricular drain to development-appropriate reproductive health
manage his hydrocephalus. The following situations education in government schools, and recognizes a
apply. woman’s right to postabortion care in the Philippines as
part of the right to reproductive healthcare. Which of
31. Which of the following signs and symptoms can the following pertains to the RH Law?
you not expect in James? a. RA 8423
a. Delayed closure of fontanelles b. RA 10354
b. Projectile vomiting c. RA 7305
c. High pitched cry d. RA 9262
d. None of the above
32. James’s father asks you where external 37. 17 year-old Jen came to you to ask about
ventricular drains are inserted. What is the correct contraceptives. She has a history of vascular disease.
answer? Which of the following options should you not
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Lateral Ventricle recommend to her?
c. Epidural space a. Condoms
d. Right Ventricle b. IUD
c. Diaphragm
d. Oral contraceptive pills
33. What is the best position for James
a. Supine 38. Fertility awareness involves detecting when a
b. Prone woman is fertile so she can use periods of abstinence
c. Semi Fowler during that time. If a couple is having coitus, when is it
d. Left sims lying safe to avoid pregnancy?
a. When the woman’s basal body temperature rises a
34. Patients with increased ICP have a high risk of full degree
seizures. If the pediatric patient starts to actively seize. b. When the woman’s cervical mucus becomes copious,
What is the very first thing the nurse should do? thin, watery, and transparent
a. Maintain a patent airway c. When the woman is breastfeeding for 7 months
b. Ensure the surroundings are safe
d. When the woman is two days away from her
menstrual period
39. Hannah, 24 years old and G2P2, has a copper-
based IUD. What do you expect to include in the
teaching plan?
a. Amenorrhea is a common side effect of IUDs.
b. Severe cramping may occur when the IUD is inserted.
c. She needs to have it changed yearly.
d. IUDs are more costly than other forms of
contraception.
40. The Anti-Violence Against Women and their
Children Act of 2004 seeks to address the prevalence of
violence against women and their children (VAWC) by
their intimate partners like their husband or ex-
husband, live-in partner or former live-in
partner, boyfriend/girlfriend or ex-boyfriend/ex-
girlfriend, dating partner or former dating partner.
Which of the following situations is not included in
psychological abuse?
a. When angry, Kim destroys their household property
in front of Casie.
b. Martin threatens Kyla that he will inflict physical
harm on himself if she leaves her.
c. After filing for annulment, Oli deprives Keith of
custody and access to their twins.
d. After their break up, Ben continuously stalks Hailey
everytime she goes out.
Situation
Cognitive delay may be present in some pediatric
patients. Nurses have an important role in ensuring that
they maintain safety and are assisted towards
development.
41. The nurse is evaluating Dennis, a 3-year-old child
with a developmental delay. Which assessment finding
would indicate that this child might have a type of
autistic spectrum disorder?
a. The child does not enjoy playing frequently with the
same toy.
b. The child goes to bed without a nighttime routine.
c. The child is using echolalia.
d. The child enjoys imaginative play.
42. Which of the following statements by Dennis’s
parents determines that a goal of treatment has been
met?
a. Dennis now eats with a fork.
b. Dennis repeats questions asked to him.
c. Dennis sits still for 1 minute this morning.
d. All of the above
a. Purging b. Progesterone
43. The parents then ask the nurse what medications b. Anorexia nervosa c. FSH
will be used to help cure the child. What is the nurse's c. Binge-eating disorder d. LH
best response? d. Bulimia nervosa
a. "The doctor will order methylphenidate (Ritalin)." 54. Sheila typically has a menstrual cycle of 34 days.
b. "Treatment for autism focuses on behavior change, 48. A 17 year old gymnast is admitted to the hospital She tells you she had sexual intercourse on days 8, 10,
not medications." due to weight loss and dehydration secondary to 15, and 20 of her last cycle. Which is the day on which
c. "Dennis will be admitted to a psychiatric facility for starvation. Which of the following nursing diagnoses she most likely conceived?
medications." will be given priority for the client? a. Day 8
d. “Dennis will be given medication at an outpatient a. Altered self-image b. Day 10
clinic." b. Fluid volume deficit c. Day 15
c. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements d. Day 20
44. You are also caring for Karen, 6 years old, who is d. Ineffective coping
being evaluated for attention-deficit/hyperactivity 55. Cleo is already in her menopausal age. Because of
disorder. Which assessment finding (persisting more 49. In the management of patients with bulimia, the the hormonal changes present in women at
than 6 months) is consistent with the DSM-5 diagnostic following nursing interventions will promote a menopause, what condition should you educate her
criteria for hyperactivity and impulsivity? therapeutic relationship, except: about prevention because it is most common?
a. Often has difficulty waiting for turn in line or activity a. Establish an atmosphere of trust a. Breast cancer
b. Often has difficulty organizing tasks and activities b. Discuss their eating behavior. b. Fractures
c. Often loses things necessary for tasks or activities c. Help patients identify feelings associated with binge- c. Diabetes
d. Often fails to finish schoolwork, chores, or duties purge behavior d. Anemia
d. Teach patient about bulimia nervosa
45. If diagnosed with ADHD, which of the following 56. Kara, 35 years old, is currently pregnant with 23
drugs do you expect to be prescribed to improve focus, 50. The client with anorexia nervosa is improving if: weeks AOG. She has 2 children, the first one is 10 years
and decrease impulsivity and hyperactive behavior, a. She eats meals in the dining room. old and the other one is 8 years old. The first one was
which are the three hallmark ADHD symptoms? b. She attends ward activities. delivered at 38 weeks AOG and the second one was
a. Aripiprazole (Abilify) c. She has a more realistic self concept. delivered at 35 weeks AOG. She got pregnant when she
b. Risperidone (Risperdal) d. She gains weight. was 19 years old, but miscarried at 2 months AOG. She
c. Citalopram (Celexa) also had a false pregnancy when she was 23 years old.
d. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) Situation What is her obstetric score?
Caring for Childbearing and Childrearing Families a. G5T1P1A2L2
Situation b. G4T2P0A1L2
Teenagers are one of the most vulnerable groups in 51. A couple went to you to ask regarding conception. c. G5T1P1A1L2
developing eating disorders. The following questions When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception d. G4T1P1A1L2
apply. to occur, which of the following is the most useful
criterion?
46. Who among the following patients has the highest a. Sperm count 57. What is the psychological task of Kara?
risk of developing an eating disorder? b. Sperm motility a. Accept the pregnancy
a. Diana, 3 years old, who is a picky eater. c. Sperm maturity b. Accept the baby
b. Celine, 15 years old, who has been bullied for being d. Semen volume c. Prepare for parenthood
larger than her peers. d. Anticipate baby’s needs
c. Kiana, 18 years old, who is a working student. 52. A woman states that she finds it hard to conceive
d. Carlo, 14 years old, has been training in basketball because she has a condition in which the entire uterus 58. Which of the following physiological changes is
since he was 8 years old. is tipped far forward. What term is applicable to this not expected in Kara?
positional deviation of the uterus? a. Quickening
47. The nurse is assessing a client who is obese and a. Anteversion b. Anemia
reports eating to the point of discomfort at least twice a b. Retroversion c. Urinary frequency
week for the past year. The client denies the use of c. Anteflexion d. Leukorrhea
laxatives, self-induced vomiting, ipecac syrup, or d. Retroflexion
enemas and reports feeling unable to control the 59. Kara then tells you that she is experiencing leg
behavior. The client feels embarrassed and has stopped 53. What hormone is active early in the cycle and is cramps and is awakened by the cramps at night. To
going out with friends. Which eating disorder should the responsible for maturation of the ovum? provide relief from the leg cramps, you advise the client
nurse suspect? a. Estrogen to:
a. Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the
cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the
cramps occur
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the
cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when
the cramps occur.
60. Upon checking Kara’s fundal height, she
complains of feeling dizzy and lightheaded. Her skin is
also pale and moist. What is your initial response?
a. Assess Kara’s blood pressure and pulse
b. Have Kara breathe into a paper bag
c. Raise Kara’s legs
d. Turn Kara on her side.
Situation
Celine arrives at the emergency department (ED) with
abruptio placentae at 34 weeks’ gestation. The
following questions apply.
61. Upon reviewing her history, which of the
following data puts her at most risk for abruptio
placentae?
a. Diagnosis of hypertension 3 years ago
b. 34 weeks AOG
c. Exercising during pregnancy
d. Eating more than recommended caloric intake
62. What should you assess in Celine?
a. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
b. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
c. Palpable fetal outline
d. Soft and nontender abdomen
63. Assessment showed that Celine is experiencing
moderate vaginal bleeding. Based on these findings, you
would prepare the client for:
a. Complete bed rest for the remainder of the
pregnancy
b. Delivery of the fetus
c. Strict monitoring of intake and output
d. The need for weekly monitoring of coagulation
studies until the time of delivery
64. Based on your knowledge regarding abruptio
placentae, Celine is at risk for which of the following
blood dyscrasias?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
d. Heparin-associated thrombosis and
thrombocytopenia (HATT)
65. Because of the blood dyscrasias that may occur in
Celine, which assessment finding is least likely to be
associated with this hematological condition?
a. Swelling of the calf in one leg
b. Prolonged clotting times
c. Decreased platelet count
d. Petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria
Situation
Intrapartum and Postpartum care
66. You are caring for a client in the active phases of
labor. The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and
notes a late deceleration on the monitor strip. The most
appropriate nursing action is to:
a. Place the mother in the supine position
b. Document the findings and continue to monitor the
fetal patterns
c. Administer oxygen via face mask
d. Increase the rate of pitocin IV infusion
67. You are reviewing the record of a client in the
labor room and note that the fetus is at (-1) station. You
document that the fetal presenting part is:
a. 1 cm above ischial spine
b. 1 in below coccyx
c. 1 fingerbreadth below symphysis pubis
d. 1 in below iliac crest
68. During stage 3 of labor, you note a gush of blood
and that the uterus changes shape from an oval shape
to globular shape. This indicates what?
a. Postpartum hemorrhage
b. Imminent delivery of the baby
c. Signs of placental separation
d. Answers B and C
69. Upon assessment, you got the following findings:
2 perineal pads highly saturated with blood within 1.5
hours postpartum, PR = 90 bpm, fundus soft and
boundaries not well defined. The appropriate nursing
diagnosis is:
a. Normal blood loss
b. Blood volume deficiency
c. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
d. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
70. During an internal examination, the nurse
palpated the posterior fontanel to be at the left side of
the mother at the upper quadrant. The interpretation is
that the position of the fetus is:
a. LOA
b. ROP
c. LOP
d. ROA
71. When doing perineal care in preparation for
delivery, you should observe the following, except:
a. Use up-down technique with one stroke
b. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
c. Use mild soap and warm water
d. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area
72. You transported a client in labor to the delivery
room and prepared her for a cesarean delivery. Upon
transferring her to the delivery room table, you place
the client in what position?
a. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups
b. Semi-Fowler position with a pillow under the knees
c. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated
d. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
73. You are instructing a postpartum mother
regarding lochia and the amount of expected lochia
drainage. You instruct the mother that the normal
amount of lochia may vary but should never exceed the
need for:
a. One peripad per day
b. Three peripads per day
c. Eight peripads per day
d. Twelve peripads per day
74. Five hours after a difficult labor and birth, a
primiparous woman refuses to hold and feed her baby,
stating that she is too tired and just wants to sleep. You
should:
a. Tell the woman she can rest after she feeds her baby
b. Recognize this as a behavior of the taking-hold stage
c. Record the behavior as ineffective maternal-newborn
attachment
d. Take the baby back to the nursery, reassuring the
woman that her rest is a priority at this time
75. Methergine or pitocin was prescribed for your
client with postpartum hemorrhage. However, upon
reading the patient’s history, you decided to contact her
healthcare provider before medication administration
because you noted that she has which of the following
conditions?
a. Peripheral vascular disease
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypotension
d. Type 1 diabetes
Situation
Shane, a 35-year-old female, is currently 16 weeks AOG.
She reported the following health history:
G5P4T3P1A0L4, BMI 29, diagnosis of hypertension and
depression, and family history of Type 2 diabetes.
76. Which among the following risk factors increases
Shane’s risk of developing gestational diabetes mellitus?
Select all that apply
a. 35-years-old
b. 16 weeks pregnant
c. G5P4T3P1A0L4
d. BMI 29
e. Hypertension
f. Depression
g. Family history of Type 2 diabetes
a. e,b,c,g
b. a,c,d,g
c. b,d,g
d. a.c.d
77. Which test below is used to diagnose a patient
with this condition?
a. 1 hour glucose tolerance test
b. 24 hour urine collection
c. Hemoglobin A1C
d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test
78. fter being diagnosed with GDM, Shane asks you
how it can affect her baby. As the nurse, you know that
her baby is at risk for? Select all that apply.
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Respiratory distress
d. Hyperbilirubinemia
e. Hyperthermia
79. Fortunately, Shane’s pregnancy was healthy and
she delivered a healthy baby boy. However, upon check
up, you observe several interactions between Shane
and her new son. What statement would you
investigate further to identify a possible maladaptive
behavior regarding parent-infant attachment?
a. “My baby is hungry all the time. He wants to
breastfeed every hour.”
b. “This is my fifth baby. I’m not sure how we can
handle our finances for all of our children, but my
husband will take care of it.”
c. “This will be my last pregnancy. I don’t think it’s
healthy for me to breastfeed and lose more sleep in the
future.”
d. “I don’t like looking at my baby’s eyes. I only
remember the pain of delivering him and now thinking
how he will affect our finances.”
80. depressed at home with my new baby?” What are
the helpful guidelines you may give? Select all that
apply.
i. Plan a balanced program of nutrition, exercise,
and sleep.
ii. Stay with your baby all the time.
iii. Share your feelings with a support person.
iv. Avoid doing other stuff aside from baby care.
v. Do not try to be perfect.
a. i, ii, iv
b. i, iii, v
c. i, iii, iv, v
d. i, ii, iii, iv, v
Situation
Fetal development and pregnancy
81. A prenatal client at 35 weeks gestation is
scheduled for an amniocentesis to determine fetal lung
maturity. The nurse expects the lecithin/sphingomyelin
(L/S) ratio to be:
a. 0.5:1
b. 1:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:1
82. A client states that she had a spontaneous
abortion 12 months ago. The client asks if her hormones
may have contributed to the loss of the pregnancy. The
nurse’s response is based upon her knowledge of which
of the following facts?
a. Implantation occurs when progesterone levels are
low.
b. hCG reaches a maximum level at 4 weeks gestation.
c. Progesterone decreases the contractility of the
uterus.
d. Progesterone is only produced by the corpus luteum
during pregnancy.
83. Amniocentesis was done on a pregnant client 16
weeks AOG. You documented that the fetal urine is a
strong yellow. How would you interpret this?
a. Normal, fetal urine is dark yellow in color.
b. Abnormal, this indicates blood incompatibility
c. Abnormal, this indicates presence of meconium
d. Abnormal, this indicates decreased alpha fetoprotein
84. Upon checking for the amniotic fluid, you noted
that the alpha fetoprotein (AFP) is too high. What can
be investigated further as a possible condition of the determine position, you palpated that the baby lies
fetus? transversely. What landmark is this?
a. Down syndrome a. Occiput
b. Trisomy 21 b. Mentum
c. Open body defect c. Sacrum
d. Decreased lung surfactant d. Acromion
85. During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last Situation
menstrual period was August 28, 2016. Based on the Breastfeeding is an important activity among mothers.
Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated due date of her The following questions apply.
baby?
a. July 4, 2017 91. According to the Philippine Milk Code of 1986 or
b. June 3, 2017 EO 51, which among the following is recommended to
c. June 4, 2017 protect and promote breastfeeding?
d. July 1, 2016 a. Advertisement of breastmilk substitutes
b. Infant formula manufacturers giving mothers free
86. During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last breastmilk substitutes
menstrual period was January 30, 2016. Based on the c. Including infant formula milk in relief goods
Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated due date of her d. Teaching mothers in the community how to collect
baby? breast milk
a. November 6, 2016
b. October 25. 2017 92. The nurse assesses the mother of a newborn who
c. November 4, 2017 is breastfeeding. Which assessment finding indicates
d. October 22, 2016 ineffective breastfeeding of the newborn?
a. The newborn’s mouth grasps the mother’s nipple
87. Your patient is 24 weeks pregnant, and you’re with the tongue down.
measuring the fundal height. Which finding below is a b. The newborn swallows audibly, spontaneously, and
normal measurement for this patient? frequently.
a. 16 cm c. The newborn smacks their lips loudly during
b. 28 cm breastfeeding.
c. 26 cm d. The newborn turns to the breast when its cheek is
d. 12 cm stroked with a nipple.
88. A patient is 40 weeks pregnant, and you find the 93. Which of the following is the primary predisposing
fundal height to be 4 cm below the xiphoid process. factor related to mastitis?
Your next nursing action is to: a. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing
a. Notify the MD immediately in the lactiferous glands and ducts
b. Chart this as a normal finding b. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing
c. Place the patient on continuous fetal monitoring in the peri glandular connective tissue
d. Assess the baby’s heart rate with a Doppler c. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased
perception of the urge to avoid
89. Starting 16 weeks AOG, a pregnant mother may d. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and
secrete colostrum. The hormone _____ is responsible cracking of the nipples
for its production, while the hormone _____ is
responsible for its secretion. 94. You are providing instructions to a mother who
a. Prolactin, oxytocin has been diagnosed with mastitis. Which of the
b. Oxytocin, prolactin following statements, if made by the mother, indicates
c. Estrogen, prolactin a need for further teaching?
d. Progesterone, estrogen a. “I need to take antibiotics, and I should begin to feel
better in 24-48 hours.”
90. You are conducting Leopold’s Maneuver to a b. “I can use analgesics to assist in alleviating some of
pregnant client. While doing the umbilical grip to the discomfort.”
c. “I need to wear a supportive bra to relieve the
discomfort.”
d. “I need to stop breastfeeding until this condition
resolves.”
95. What psychosocial component is developed when
a mother responds to a baby’s need to feed?
a. Trust
b. Love
c. Respect
d. Warmth
Situation
Ethical principles apply in all nursing care. You are
caring for a Sarah, a pregnant mother who belongs to
an Indigenous People group.
96. Cultural awareness is an in-depth self-
examination of one’s:
a. Background, recognizing biases and prejudices
b. Social, cultural, and biophysical factors
c. Engagement in cross-cultural interactions
d. Motivation and commitment to caring
97. Which factor is least significant during assessment
when gathering information about Sarah’s cultural
practices?
a. Language, timing
b. Touch, eye contact
c. Biocultural needs
d. Pain perception, management expectations
98. If an ethical dilemma regarding care for Sarah
arises, the solution to the dilemma requires negotiation
among members of the healthcare team. Your point of
view is valuable because:
a. Nurses have a legal license that encourages their
presence during ethical discussions.
b. The principle of autonomy guides all participants to
respect their own self-worth.
c. Nurses develop a relationship to the client that is
unique among all professional health care providers.
d. The nurse’s code of ethics recommends that a nurse
be present at any ethical discussion about client care.
99. While Sarah is in severe pain, you left her alone
with the side rails down, and the bed in a high position.
She then falls and developed bleeding. What law has
been broken?
a. Assault
b. Battery
c. Negligence
d. Civil tort 5. What do you call situations in which the nurse is
aware of the correct course of action but institutional
100. Despite Sarah being economically
disadvantaged, you provided her quality care and gave
RECALLS 5 – NP3 constraints stand in the way of pursuing the correct
action?
Situation
her resources she needed just like other patients. What a. Moral distress
ursing practice is governed by ethical principles which
ethical principle is applicable in this situation? b. Moral dilemmas
serve as the basis for reasoning, actions, and decisions.
a. Beneficence c. Moral problems
b. Justice d. Moral uncertainty
1. Respect for autonomy requires individuals to honor
c. Non-maleficence
a patient’s right to self determination. This also involves
d. Autonomy 6. Cushing’s Syndrome is most likely to be developed
allowing patients and families to know all the relevant
in which of the following patients?
information and enabling them to weigh their options.
a. A patient with TB infection
What is the most important role that nurses have in
b. A patient with a pituitary gland tumor, causing
such situations?
increased ACTH secretion
a. Advocate
c. A patient who underwent adrenalectomy
b. Caregiver
d. A patient who is medicating with glucocorticoids for 6
c. Educator
weeks
d. Care manager
7. The following, except one, are clinical
2. What principle underlies a trusting relationship
manifestations of Cushing’s Disease?
between nurse and patient?
a. Buffalo hump
a. Beneficence
b. Hyperglycemia
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Skin hyperpigmentation
c. Veracity
d. Hirsutism
d. Justice
3. The principle of double effect may morally justify
8. A patient was admitted to ER, unconscious and
some actions that produce both good and evil effects.
with BP 70/40 mmHg. His wife reported that she has
Which of the following criteria must be fulfilled for an
been complaining about severe pain, increased
action to be considered moral based on the principle of
confusion, and lethargy. He said that he cannot recall
double effect?
when was the last time they bought her medication PO
i. The action itself is good or morally neutral.
Prednisone. What is the patient most likely
ii. The agent sincerely intends the good and not
experiencing?
the evil effect
a. Cushing’s Syndrome
iii. The evil effect is foreseen and intended.
b. Addisonian Crisis
iv. The good effect is not achieved by means of
c. Hashimoto’s Disease
the evil effect.
d. Thyroid Crisis
v. There is a proportionate or favorable balance
of good over evil.
9. What medication is expected to be started for the
a. i, ii, v
patient above?
b. i, iii, v
a. PO Prednisone
c. i, ii, iv, v
b. PO Declomycin
d. i, ii, iii, iv
c. IV Insulin
d. IV Solu-Cortef
4. What do you call situations in which a clear conflict
exists between two or more moral principles or
10. The patient has a take home medication which is
competing moral claims, where the nurse must choose
Prednisone. The following statements suggest effective
the lesser evil?
teaching, except?
a. Moral distress a. I will wear a Medic-Alert bracelet.
b. Moral dilemmas b. I will take this medication religiously at 8am
c. Moral problems everyday.
d. Moral uncertainty c. I will take this medication even when my symptoms
are gone.
d. I will stop taking the medication if I feel more sick.

Situation
Diabetes insipidus affects about 1 in 25,000 people in
the general population. Adults are more likely to
develop the condition, but it can occur at any age.
11. A patient arrives at the ER after a car accident
with the following findings: BP 140/90 mmHg, PR 113
bpm, RR 20 cpm, T 37.5 deg C. After 48 hours, the
patient’s urine output increased to 180mL/hr and she is
extremely thirsty. Which laboratory findings support the
nurse’s suspicion of diabetes insipidus?
a. Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
b. Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels
c. Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal
serum osmolality level
d. Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal
serum osmolality level
12. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by:
a. Decreased vasopressin and decreased kidney water
reabsorption
b. Increased vasopressin and increased kidney water
reabsorption
c. Decreased insulin and increased serum glucose levels
d. Increased insulin and decreased serum glucose levels
13. Which of the following interventions should not
be included in the nursing care plan?
a. IV infusion of hypotonic saline solution
b. Fluid restriction
c. IM administration of ADH
d. Skin care
14. Diabetes insipidus may be nephrogenic in form
when there is failure in the renal tubules’ response to
ADH. All but one may cause this condition:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Intake of declomycin
d. Meningitis
15. The patient with DI is given Desmopressin IV.
Which of the following nurse findings require
intervention?
a. Clear breath sounds
b. Decreased urine output
c. Sodium level of 136 mEq/L
d. Potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L
Situation
Diabetes mellitus is one of the most common lifestyle
diseases worldwide.
16. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with
type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should expect the
following symptoms during an assessment, except:
a. Frequent bruising
b. Dry mouth
c. Moist skin
d. Tachycardia
17. Health teaching is important in nursing care for
patients with diabetes. The following guidelines are
helpful dietary recommendations for patients with DM,
except:
a. Combine starchy foods with protein- and fat-
containing foods
b. Eat whole fruit instead of drinking juice
c. Eat a light high-carbohydrate snack before exercising
d. Avoid eating breakfast
18. Nurse Rico gave an intermediate-acting insulin to
patient A at 7PM. At 3AM, he noticed that the patient
was experiencing night sweats and his skin was cold to
touch. When the patient woke up at 7AM, his glucose
level was 250 mg/dL. What is patient A most likely
experiencing?
a. Dawn phenomenon
b. Somogyi effect
c. Insulin waning
d. Hypoglycemic crisis
19. Nurse Rico gave an intermediate-acting insulin to
patient B at 8PM. At 2AM, his blood glucose is within his
normal range. However, when the patient woke up at
6am, his glucose level increased to 225 mg/dL. What is
patient B most likely experiencing?
a. Dawn phenomenon
b. Somogyi effect
c. Insulin waning
d. Hypoglycemic crisis
20. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention
for patient B?
a. Give a bedtime snack
b. Give the insulin at 10PM
c. Increase insulin dose
d. This is normal in patients with DM
Situation
Thyroid disorders can range from a small, harmless
goiter (enlarged gland) that needs no treatment, to life-
threatening cancer.
21. What is the most common type of b. Occur only in malignant hypertension
hyperthyroidism? c. Appear once the kidney has been irreversibly
a. Grave’s Disease damaged
b. Hyperaldosteronism d. Appear when there is high risk of stroke
c. Hashimoto’s Disease
d. Adrenal Insufficiency 27. The patient was prescribed a new drug. Which
drug inhibits calcium ion influx into vascular smooth
22. All but one may be expected in a patient with muscle?
hyperthyroidism. a. Atenolol
a. Diffuse pruritus b. Verapamil
b. Exophthalmos c. Hydralazine
c. Cold intolerance d. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Atrial fibrillation
28. Non-pharmacological techniques can also help
23. A 40-year old woman returns from a subtotal lower blood pressure. All but one are examples of these
thyroidectomy for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. techniques:
Upon assessment, the immediate priority that the nurse a. Smoking cessation
should assess is: b. Taking multivitamins
a. Pain c. Dietary changes
b. Neurological status d. Caffeine limitation
c. Fluid volume status
d. Respiratory distress 29. The patient is being discharged home on
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for treatment of
24. What intervention for hyperthyroidism may be hypertension. Which of the following statements by the
delegated to the experienced certified nursing patient indicates they understood your discharge
assistant? teaching about this medication?
a. Instruct the patient to report palpitations, dyspnea, a. I will make sure I consume foods high in potassium.
vertigo, or chest pain. b. I understand a dry cough is a common side effect
b. Check the apical pulse, blood pressure, and with this medication.
temperature every 4 hours. c. I will only take this medication if my blood pressure is
c. Draw blood for thyroid-stimulating hormone, T3, and high.
T4 levels. d. I will monitor my glucose levels closely because this
d. Explain the side effects of propylthiouracil (PTU) to medication may mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
the patient.
30. Which of the following patients does not have a
25. Lugol’s solution is given before a patient can risk factor for hypertension?
undergo thyroidectomy. What is the rationale for this? a. A 25 year old male with a BMI of 35.
a. Decrease the total basal metabolic rate. b. A 35 year old female with a total cholesterol level of
b. Maintain the function of the parathyroid glands. 100.
c. Block the formation of thyroxine by the thyroid gland. c. A 68 year old male who reports smoking 2 packs of
d. Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid cigarettes a day.
gland. d. A 40 year old female with a family history of
hypertension and diabetes
Situation
A 36-year old male went to the clinic for a check-up. He Situation
has been diagnosed with hypertension type I 4 years Maria is a 65-year old female diagnosed with Chronic
ago. Kidney Disease, Type 2 diabetes mellitus, uncontrolled
hypertension and acute dermatitis. She was admitted to
26. The patient says to the nurse, “I really don’t know the hospital with chief complaint of “ang lakas ng
why I need to come back regularly. I feel fine and kabog ng dibdib ko.”
haven’t had any symptoms.” The nurse would explain to
the client that symptoms of hypertension:
a. Are often absent
31. Maria’s potassium level was noted to be 5.7
mmol/L. Her doctor ordered an ECG reading. Which of
the following is not expected?
a. Peaked T wave
b. Prominent U wave
c. Prolonged PR interval
d. Wide QRS
32. Maria was also identified to have low serum
sodium level. Nursing intervention for a patient with a
diagnosis of hyponatremia includes all of the following
except:
a. Assessing for symptoms of nausea and malaise.
b. Encouraging the intake of low-sodium liquids such as
coffee or tea.
c. Monitoring neurologic status
d. Restricting tap water intake.
33. Upon assessment, you noticed that Maria has a
pitting edema on both of her lower legs. Her urine
output is 15-20mL/hr, dark amber in color. Her recent
GFR was 23 mL/min. What stage of chronic kidney
disease is this known as?
a. Stage 2
b. Stage 3
c. Stage 4
d. Stage 5
34. Which medication ordered by the physician will
help treat the patient's uncontrolled hypertension along
with providing a protective mechanism to the kidneys?
a. Metoprolol
b. Amlodipine
c. Verapamil
d. Lisinopril
35. Maria is now experiencing extreme pruritus and
has several areas of crystallized white deposits on the
skin. As the nurse, you explain that this is due to
excessive amounts of what substance found in the
blood?
a. Calcium
b. Urea
c. Phosphate
d. Erythropoietin
Situation
The mortality from stroke during the last 10 years has
an average of 63,804 deaths per year. Despite the
COVID pandemic, the recorded annual Philippine stroke
death increased from 64,381 in 2020 to 68,180 in 2021
(Collantes et al., 2022).
36. Denver, 30 year-old male, is admitted with Situation Iran: an experimental study” by Farahani et al. (2021),
decreased level of consciousness and uncontrolled atrial Nursing research plays a big role in upholding and what is the independent variable?
fibrillation. His pulse rate and blood pressure has continuously advancing the nursing practice. Being a a. Supportive home care program
increased. The patient’s medication history includes researcher is an important role of nurses to improve b. Caregiver burden
vitamin D supplements and calcium. What type of their knowledge and skills in patient care and to c. Stroke patients in Iran
stroke is this patient at MOST risk for? contribute in ensuring evidence-based practice. d. An experimental study
a. Ischemic thrombosis
b. Ischemic embolism 41. Nurse Gia is conducting a grounded theory 47. What is the dependent variable in #46?
c. Hemorrhagic research. Which of the following is most accurate a. Supportive home care program
d. Ischemic stenosis regarding the grounded-theory method? b. Caregiver burden
a. An etic perspective is used during data collection. c. Stroke patients in Iran
37. MRI shows damage to the cerebellum. What b. It is a process of constructing human experience. d. An experimental study
assessment findings should you expect to find? c. Secondary sources are sometimes used.
a. Vision problems d. It is an inductive approach. 48. Mamo et al. (2019) conducted the study,
b. Balance impairment “Determinants of poor glycemic control among adult
c. Language difficulty 42. Respondents of a research should always be patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus in Jimma
d. Impaired short-term memory protected. Which of the following rights of individual University Medical Center, Jimma zone, south west
participants must be ensured when the researcher Ethiopia: a case control study”. The aim of this study is
38. Another patient, Tokyo, has been admitted with cannot link the information given by the respondent to identify the determinants of poor glycemic control at
right side brain damage due to stroke. What can you from the source of the information? the diabetes clinic of the Jimma University Medical
expect to observe in the patient? Select all that apply: a. Confidentiality Center from April 01 to June 30/2017. What is the other
i. Right side hemiplegia b. Anonymity term for this case control study?
ii. Confusion on date, time, and place c. Virility a. Retrospective study
iii. Aphasia d. Volunteerism b. Prospective study
iv. Unilateral neglect c. Cohort study
v, Aware of limitations 43. Nurse Via integrates the findings of the multiple d. Cross-sectional study
vi. Impulsive quantitative research studies on nonpharmacological
vii. Short attention span interventions for patients with ischemic stroke. What 49. Sample is regarded as a subset of:
viii. Agraphia type of research method is this? a. Data
a. i, iii, iv, vi, vii a. Meta-synthesis b. Set
b. ii, iii, iv, viii b. Meta-analysis c. Distribution
c. ii, iv, vi, vii c. Secondary analysis d. Population
d. All of the above d. Systematic analysis
50. Nurse Paul suggests for their community research
39. Tokyo was prescribed Mannitol for increased ICP. 44. What process should Nurse Bon use to obtain a to conduct data collection about everyone or everything
Which statement is INCORRECT about this medication? 10-year-old child’s agreement for participation in the in group or population and has the advantage of
a. Mannitol will remove water from the brain and place study, “Eating practices of hospitalized children under accuracy and detail. What is this called?
it in the blood to be removed from the body. 12 years of age”? a. Census
b. Mannitol will cause water and electrolyte a. Assent b. Survey
reabsorption in the renal tubules. b. Consent of a minor c. Probability sampling
c. When a patient receives Mannitol, the nurse must c. Minor agreement d. Cluster sampling
monitor the patient for both fluid volume overload and d. None of the above
depletion. Situation
d. Mannitol is not for patients who are experiencing 45. Once Nurse Bon collected all necessary data via Nurse Lisa, a new registered nurse has been oriented
anuria. interviews, what technique can he use to analyze these about many ethical and moral issues that she may
data? encounter while in practice. The following question
40. What assessment finding requires immediate a. Chi-Square test applies.
intervention if found while Tokyo is receiving Mannitol? b. Measures of variation
a. Crackles c. Content analysis 51. Nurse Lisa was asked by a fourth year nursing
b. BP 110/80 d. Pearson r correlation learner regarding the BEST practical guide they can use
c. ICP of 10 mmHg if confronted with ethical dilemmas. Nurse Lisa should
d. Dry mouth and thirst 46. In the study “The effect of a supportive home care inform the nursing learner about the ________.
program on caregiver burden with stroke patients in a. Florence nightingale oath
b. RA 9173
c. Code of ethics for nurses
d. Deontological theory
52. Nurse Lisa emphasized to the nursing learners that
a nurse should fully support the patient’s rights
throughout their personal stay when working toward
achieving desirable outcomes for them. This ethical
principle is known as?
a. Teleology
b. Accountability
c. Advocacy
d. Beneficence
53. Mr. Mosi has presented in the emergency
department complaining of substernal chest pain. He
has a history of diabetes and hypertension. The
physician considered Mr. Mosi to be at risk of CAD that
needs surgery. What PRIORITY nursing actions should
be done by the members of the health team in this
situation?
a. Inform Mr. Mosi of his health status and discuss
possible interventions, then let him decide.
b. Proceed immediately to surgery after confirming the
presence of clot in his heart’s artery
c. Consult his wife and let her decide on behalf of Mr.
Mosi.
d. Refer the patient to the ethics committee.
54. Which statement would best explain the role of the
nurse when planning care for a culturally diverse
population? The nurse will plan care to:
a. Focus only on the needs of the client, ignoring the
nurse’s beliefs and practices
b. Include care that is culturally congruent with the staff
from predetermined criteria
c. Blend the values of the nurse that are for the good of
the client and minimize the client’s individual values
and beliefs during care
d. Provide care while aware of one’s own bias, focusing
on the client’s individual needs rather than the staff’s
practices
55. Nurses agree to be advocates for their patients.
Practice of advocacy calls for the nurse to:
a. Assess the client’s point of view and prepare to
articulate this point of view.
B. Document all clinical changes in the medical record in
a timely manner.
C. Work to understand the law as it applies to the
client’s clinical condition.
D. Seek out the nursing supervisor in conflicting
situations
Situation
Mr. Ricci Rivero, 25 years old, a college instructor was
admitted to the Mariano Marcos Memorial Hospital and
Medical Center due to difficulty of breathing 30 minutes
prior to admission. He also revealed that he has been
suffering from blood-streaked productive cough
accompanied by dull and aching chest with coughing for
more than four weeks now. He was diagnosed with
pulmonary tuberculosis 2 years ago.
56. Nurse Al is assigned to patient Ricci and should
expect the lungs to be with _______ in the chest x-ray
result?
a. Pulmonary infiltrates
b. Multinodular infiltrates
c. Crackles
d. Stridor
57. Nurse Al administered oxygen and had carried out
all the doctors order. Nurse Al should be aware that
documentation of the care rendered should be done
__?
a. As soon as possible
b. After the shift
c. Every four hours
d. every 8 hours
58. Mr. Rivero was discharged after 5 days in the
hospital. Nurse Al carried out the referral forms to San
NicoIlas Municipal Health Office. Nurse Alwin should
expect that the health information of patient Brent is in
what form of the FHSIS?
a. Target Client List
b. Treatment record
c. Tally or Reporting Forms
d. Output Records
59. Nurse Al has conducted discharge teaching with Mr.
Rivero regarding his medications. Nurse Al determines
that Mr. Rivero has understood the information if he
makes which statement?
a. “Hindi na ako makakapunta ng Sogo para kumain sa
susunod na anim na buwan”
b. “Nararapat na ipagpatuloy ko ang aking gamutan sa
isang buwan”
c. “Makakapagtrabaho na ako kapag ang aking sputum
culture ay negatibo da baktirya”
d. “Hindi na ako makakahawa pagkatapos ng 2-3
linggong gamutan”
60. Another patient was admitted to the MMMH-MC
who was recently diagnosed with pulmonary TB. He is
about to begin a 6-month course of therapy with
isoniazid. Nurse Al should plan to teach the client to
take which action?
a. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheese
b. Drink Gin bilog in small amounts only
c. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.
d. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
Situation
Ms. Cynthia went to the hospital for a follow-up check
up after her hospitalization due to exacerbated
hypothyroidism.
61. Nurse Jen is assigned to patient Cynthia. The nurse
should expect which signs/symptoms Ms. Cynthia may
exhibit?
a. Complains of extreme fatigue and hair loss
b. Exophthalmos and complains of nervousness
c. Complaints of profuuse sweating and flushed skin.
d. Tetany and complaints of stiffness of hands.
62. Nurse Jen should be aware that the preferred
medication for treating hypothyroidism is?
a. Propylthiouracil
b. Propranolol
c. Synthroid
d. Lithium
63. Patient Cynthia had discussed the onset of feelings
of sadness and depression due to her illness to the
nurse, the nurse should inform the client that these
feelings are:
a. normal and part of having a chronic illness.
b. Temporary effects of thyroid replacement therapy
and will diminish once homeostasis is achieved
c. Permanent effects of thyroid replacement therapy
and will not diminish over time
d. Most likely related to low thyroid hormone levels and
will improve with treatment
64. Which findings indicate the presence of side effects
associated with levothyroxine? Select all the apply.
a. Weight loss
b. Bradycardia
c. Mild heat intolerance
d. Constipation
e. Insomnia
a. a,b,c
b. a,c,d,e
c. b,c,d,e
d. a,c,e
65. After several weeks from the follow-up check-up
patient Jen was admitted to the ICU diagnosed with
myxedema coma. Immediate nursing intervention is
warranted with which assessment data?
a. Serum blood glucose level of 60-mg/dl
b. Pulse oximeter reading of 90%
c. Telemetry reading showing sinus bradycardia
d. The client is lethargic and sleeps all the time.
Situation
Mrs. Ehe, 42 years old was diagnosed with Grave’s
disease.
66. The nurse is expected to asses from Mrs. Ehe with
which of the following sign?
a. Anorexia
b. Tachycardia
c. Cold skin
d. Sleep problems
67. Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is prescribed to Mrs. Ehe.
The nurse should inform the client to report ______
immediately.
a. Painful, excessive menstruation
b. Sore throat
c. Constipation
d. Increased urine output
68. Another patient was diagnosed with
hyperthyroidism and was prescribed with methimazole.
Select all nursing considerations that
are NOT associated with this medication.
a. Administer methimazole with food
b. Place the client on a low-calorie, low- protein
diet
c. Assess the client for unexplained bruising and
bleeding
d. Instruct the client to report side and adverse
effects such as sore throat, fever, or headaches
e. Use special radioactive precautions when
handling the client’s urine for the first 24 hours
following initial administration.
a. abcd
b. bcde
c. acd
d. be
69. Which signs/symptoms should make the nurse
suspect the client is experiencing a thyroid storm?
a. Extreme tachycardia and hypothermia
b. Hypotension and tachycardia
c. Decreased respirations and hypoxia
d. Hyperpyrexia and extreme tachycardia
70. In advance cases of hyperthyroidism, the diagnosis 76. Nurse Jeremy prepares the blood to be transfused.
is made on the basis of the symptoms and which of the As a prudent nurse verification of the blood typing and
following laboratory result? cross matching result should be done to prevent any
a. Increase in serum TSH transfusion reaction. Should nurse Jeremy fails to verify
b. Decreased free T4 the blood typing and cross-matching result and has
c. Decrease in radioactive iodine uptake transfused an incompatible ABO- and Rh- blood, what
d. Decreased in serum TSH type of reaction should nurse Jeremy expect?
a. Febrile reaction
Situation b. Hemolytic reaction
Nurse John has just passed the board exam and is c. Allergic reaction
planning to work in a tertiary hospital in his province. d. Overacting reaction
Nurse John should be encouraged to abide with the
laws that govern the nursing practice in the Philippines. 77. In the situation above, nurse Jeremy should assess
the patient with what signs/symptoms?
71. What is the PRC Modernization Act of 2000? a. Fever and chills
a. RA 9881 b. Flushing and urticaria
b. RA 8981 c. Dyspnea and stridor
c. RA 1989 d. Dyspnea and hypotension
d. RA 9198
78. Nurse Jeremy should be well aware of the most
72. All successful candidates in the examination are important nursing considerations when caring for a
required to take an oath of profession before ______. client who is receiving 2 units of packed RBCs. Select all
a. Any PRC Official that apply
b. The chief of hospital a. Verify that the ABO and Rh of the 2 units are
c. The Baranggay tanod of their respective Baranggay the same.
d. Any authorized government official b. Infuse a unit of PRBCs in less than 4 hours
c. Stop the transfusion if a reaction occurs, but
73. The principal basis of the code of ethics for nurses is keep the line open
______. d. Take vitals signs every 15 minutes while the
a. Local Government Code of the Philippines unit is transfusing
b. Code of Good Governance e. Inspect the blood bag for leaks, abnormal
c. RA 9173 color, and clots.
d. ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses f. Use a gauge 22 catheter for optimal flow of a
blood transfusion.
74. According to the Code of ethics for Nurses, the a. a,c,e
hallmark of nursing accountability focuses on _____. b. d,e
a. Accurate documentation c. b,c,e
b. Safe nursing practice d. a,b,c,d,e,f
c. Quality and excellence
d. Welfare of patients 79. Patient Dee had already received 25 ml of packed
RBCs has complained of low back pain and pruritus.
75. As a well-informed registered nurse, nurse John After stopping the infusion, nurse Jeremy should take
should earn ___ CPD units to renew his license every what action next?
three years a. Administer prescribed antihistamine and aspirin
a. 13 b. Administer diuretics
b. 14 c. Administer vasopressors
c. 15 d. Collect blood and urine samples and send to the lab
d. 16
80. Nurse Jeremy has two middle-aged clients who
Situation were prescribed with blood transfusion of PRBCs at the
Patient Dee has been ordered to receive a blood same time. The first client’s blood pressure dropped
transfusion after a hemorrhagic episode. from preoperative value of 120/80 mmHg to a
postoperative value of 100/50. The second client is
dehydrated and is suffering anemia secondary to
pneumonia. After checking the patency of their IV lines
and vital signs, what should the nurse do next
a. Call for both client’s blood transfusions at the same
time.
b. Call for and hang the first client’s blood transfusion
c. Ask another nurse to call for and hang the blood for
the second client
d. Ask another nurse to verify the compatibility of both
units at the same time.
Situation
Ms. Serena, 25 years old, has been recently diagnosed
with HIV. She has been so distressed about her
diagnosis.
81. A year after her diagnosis, she went back to the
laboratory for her follow up CD4 counting. Her CD4
count has been noted to be 120 cell/mm^3. The nurse
should be aware that which symptom/s should be
present aside from the laboratory report would indicate
her condition has already progressed to AIDS?
a. Malaise,fever, anorexia, and weight loss
b. Leukopenia
c. Fatigue
d. Mucopurulent greenish-yellowish cough
82. The nurse is assigned to care for Ms. Serene who
has developed a cutaneous Kaposi’s sarcoma. The nurse
is about to give the patient a bath, change the bed
linens. The lesions are open and drains a small amount
of serous fluid. What PPE should the nurse use to bath
the patient
a. Gloves only
b. Gown and gloves for both procedures
c. Gown, gloves and a mask for both procedures
d. Gown and gloves to change the bed linens,and gloves
only for the bath
83. In the first few months of her diagnosis, Ms. Serena
was encouraged to continue taking zidovudine (AZT).
The expected outcome of AZT is to:
a. Destroy the virus
b. Slow replication of the virus
c. Enhance the body’s antibody reaction
d. Neutralize toxins produced by the virus
84. How long is the window period of HIV?
a. 1-3 months
b. 4-5 months
c. 6-7 months
d. 8-9 months
85. What is the confirmatory test for HIV?
a. ELISA
b. Soberano
c. Western Blot
d. Rumpel Leads test
86. The nurse is admitting a 28-year-old college
instructor with a diagnosis of rule-out anemia. The
client has undergone a gastric bypass surgery for
obesity 3 years ago. Current assessment findings
include height of 5’5”; weight 75 kg; P110, R27, and BP
104/66; pale mucous membranes and dyspnea on
exertion. The nurse should suspect the client to have
which type of anemia?
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Folic acid anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. Vitamin B12 deficiency
87. A client is admitted with full-thickness burns and
may be developing DIC. Which findings would support
the diagnosis of DIC
a. Sudden onset of chest pain and frothy sputum
b. Foul-smelling, concentrated urine
c. Oozing blood from the IV catheter site
d. A reddened, inflamed central line catheter site.
88. A patient asks the primary nurse, “How does
someone get hemophilia A?” Which statement would
be the primary nurse’s best response?
a. “ it is an inherited A-linked recessive disorder
b. “It is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder”
c. “The person is born with hemophilia A”
d. “The mother carries the gene and gives it to the son”
89. The student nurse asks the nurse, “What is sickle
cell anemia?” Which statement by the nurse would be
the best answer to the student’s question?
a. “Bakit nag tatanong ang beshy ko?”
b. “It is a congenital disease of the blood in which the
blood does not clot”
c. “The client has decreased synovial fluid that causes
joint pain.”
d. “The blood becomes thick when the client is deprived
of oxygen”
90. Which is a potential complication that occurs
specifically to a male client diagnosed with sickle cell
anemia during a sickle cell crisis?
a. ejaculation
b. Inflammation of the clitoris`
c. Priapism
d. Hypertensive crisis
Situation
Quality nursing practice impact patient care, patient
outcomes, patient and clinical satisfaction, and resource
utilization. The nursing management plays a vital role in
achieving a quality nursing practice.
91. Nurse Laida is the chief nurse of Mariano Marcos
Memorial Hospital and Medical Center. The ER
Department has been receiving feedback regarding long
waiting times for treatment. Nurse Laida has formed a
committee to resolve the issue. The leader of the
committee should first consider what task to solve the
problem?
a. Reassess the emergency waiting times.
b. Consult the director of operations for possible
solutions
c. Collect baseline data to determine if a problem exists
d. A continuous quality improvement team should be
established to define the desired outcome
92. A staff nurse in the pediatric department had a
medication error and had immediately reported to the
unit supervisor. The pediatric department is known to
promote quality nursing practice. Which response
should the staff expect from the supervisor?
a. "Why are you reporting that to me without
completing an incident report?"
b. "You need to report directly to the Chief Nursing
Officer."
c. "We have a blame-free environment so you can
report errors without fearing punishment."
d. "You have reported this to me, so you do not need to
file an incident report."
93. The nurse has received the assignment for the day
shift. Which client should the nurse plan to care
for first after making initial rounds and assessment
a. A client with a white blood cell count of 14, 000 mm3
(14x109/L) and a temperature of 38.4oC
b. A client who is ambulatory demonstrating steady gait
c. A postoperative client who has just received an opioid
pain medication.
d. A client scheduled for physical therapy for the first
crutch-walking session.
94. The nurse is giving a bed bath to an assigned client
when an assistive personnel (AP) enters the client’s
room and tells the nurse that another assigned client is
in pain and needs pain medication. Which is the most
appropriate nursing action?
a. Ask the AP to find out when the last pain medication
was given to the client
b. Ask the AP to tell the client in pain that medication a. Easy to test data for reliability and validity
will be administered as soon as the bed bath is b. Facilitates data gathering
complete c. Less time consuming than interview and observation
c. Finish the bed bath and then administer the pain d. Respondents may provide socially acceptable
medication to the other client answers
d. Cover the client, raise the side rails, tell the client that
you will come back shortly, and administer the pain
medication to the other client.
95. Nurse Laida is preparing a training program to
introduce quality management. Which information
should Nurse Laida include?
a. Staff satisfaction surveys will be used to track the
effectiveness of changes
b. The purpose is to improve the experience of patient
care, population, and values.
c. Staff will plan in silos
d. Programs will be staff focused.
Situation
Nursing research is considered essential to the
achievement of high-quality patient care and outcomes.
96. Which of the following is a method of non-
probability sampling?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Snowball sampling
c. Simple random sampling
d. stratified random sampling
97.The data on the family’s number of children is
appropriate for what level of measurement?
a. Interval
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Nominal
98. A nurse researcher wants to study the response of
patients who suffer from dysrhythmia to pacemaker.
The appropriate research design would be?
a. Experimental research design
b. Descriptive-correlational
c. Comparative descriptive
d. Correlational
99. Which of the following are qualitative data sources?
a. Interview and observation.
b. Primary sources and secondary sources
c. Books and journals
d. Questionnaires and survey
100. All of the following are advantages of using
questionnaires EXCEPT:
 d. Restore client's cardiac rhythm 12. The type of research design that does not
RECALLS 5 – NP4 7. When preparing the epinephrine injection from an
manipulate independent variable is:
a. Experimental design
19. In an attempt to reduce the cases of typhoid fever in
the community, SDG No. ___ will guide the programs
Situation
ampule, the nurse initially: b. Quasi-experimental design that will be created for this initiative.
Nurse Jairo is admitting a patient with DM type I. In
a. Taps the ampule at the top to allow fluid to flow to c. Non-experimental design a. 4
caring for patients with DM type I, it is imperative that
the base of the ampule d. Quantitative design b. 5
nurses must be knowledgeable about the different
b. Checks expiration date of the medication ampule c. 6
types of insulin and their respective duration to
c. Removes needle cap of syringe and pulls plunger to 13. This research topic has the potential to contribute d. 7
promote safe patient care.
expel air to nursing because it seeks to:
d. Breaks the neck of the ampule with a gauze wrapped a. Include new modalities of care 20. Which assessment finding would warrant the nurse
1. What is the duration of action of Humulin N
around it b. Resolve a clinical problem to report to the physician?
a. 18-24 hours
c. Clarify an ambiguous modality of care a. Bleeding from the rectum
b. 20-22 hours
8. Mrs. Simon is obese. When administering a d. Enhance client care b. Fever
c. 21-23 hours
subcutaneous injection to an obese patient. It is best for c. Greenish stool
d. 16-20 hours
the nurse to: d. Muscle pain
2. What is the duration of action of Lantus? a. Inject needle at a 15 degree angle over the stretched 14. Martha does review of related literature for the
a. >24 hours skin of the client purpose of: 21. The board of nursing is composed of how many
b. 5-12 hours b. Pinch skin at the injection site and use airlock a. Determine statistical treatment of data research members?
c. 5-7 hours technique b. Orientation to what is already known or unknown a. 7
d. 20-24 hours c. Pull skin of patient down to administer the drug in a Z c. To identify if problem can be replicated b. 6
track d. Answering the research question c. 5
3. What is the duration of action of Humulin R? d. Spread skin or pinch at the injection site and inject d. 4
a. 5-7 hours needle at a 45-90 degree angle 15. Client's rights should be protected when doing
b. 6-12 hours research using human subjects. Martha identifies these 22. The __________ is the appointing person of any
c. 8-9 hours 9. When preparing for a subcutaneous injection, the rights as follows EXCEPT: vacancy in the Board of Nursing.
d. 1-2 hours proper size of syringe and needle would be: a. right of self-determination a. PNA
a. Syringe 3ml and needle gauge 21 to 23 b. right to compensation b. President of the Philippines
4. What is the duration of action of Apidra? b. Tuberculin syringe 1 ml with needle gauge 26 or 27 c. right of privacy c. Chairperson
a. 3-5 hours c. Syringe 2ml and needle gauge 22 d. right not to be harmed d. DOH secretary
b. 6-7 hours d. Syringe l-3ml and needle gauge 25 to 27
c. 6-9 hours Situation 23. Who nominates, chooses and ranks the
d. 6-8 hours 10. The rationale for giving medications through the Patient Nicole was admitted to the communicable recommendees for a position in the boars?
subcutaneous route is; disease unit due to typhoid fever. a. MCNAP
5. The nurse is administering the initial dose of a rapid- a. There are many alternative sites for subcutaneous b. PRC
acting insulin to a client with DM type I. The nurse injection 16. What is the usual range of incubation period of c. DOH
should asses the client for hypoglycemia within: b. Absorption time of the medicine is slower typhoid fever? d. Accredited professional organization
a. 3 hours c. There are less pain receptors in this area a. 1-3 weeks
b. 0.5 hours d. The medication can be injected while the client is in b. 7-14 days 24. The “term” of office for the board is ____ years?
c. 1 hours any position c. 2-3 weeks a. 6 years
d. 2 hours d. 4-7 weeks b. 9 years
Situation c. 10 years
Situation The use of massage and meditation to help decrease d. 3 years
Mr. Ibarra is assigned to the triage area and while on stress and pain have been strongly recommended based 17. What are the principal vehicles of typhoid fever?
duty, he assesses the condition of Mrs. Simon who on documented testimonials. a. Food and water 25. The board examination should be in accordance
came in with asthma. She has difficulty breathing and b. Mosquito with RA 8981 or the _____.
her respiratory rate is 40 per minute. Mr. Ibarra is asked 11. Martha wants to do a study on the topic. "Effects of c. Rad a. PRC Modernization Act
to inject the client epinephrine 0.3mg subcutaneously. massage and meditation on stress and pain." The type d. Typhoon b. The Philippine Nursing Law
of research that best suits this topic is: c. CMO 15, series of 2017
6. The indication for epinephrine injection for Mrs. a. Applied research d. None of the above
18. What are the sources of infection?
Simon is to: b. Qualitative research a. Feces and urine
a. Reduce anaphylaxis c. Basic research Situation
b. Blood
b. Relieve hypersensitivity to allergen d. Quantitative research Frenzy, a 42 year old patient, is hospitalized with a
c. Semen
c. Relieve respiratory distress due to bronchial spasm diagnosis of AKI resulting from the administration of
d. Saliva of mosquito
gentamicin sulfate for a Pseudomonas aeruginosa
infection. Frenzy is acutely ill upon admission and
experiencing an altered level of consciousness.
26. The nurse notes that a patient who is retaining fluid
had a 1-kg weight gain. Documentation should indicate
that it is equivalent to about how many ml?
a. 250 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 750 ml
d. 1000 ml
27. In the case of Frenzy, what should the nurse
assigned to her do? Select all the apply.
a. Elevate the head of the bed 30-45 degrees
b. Call the admitting physician for prescriptions
c. Establish an IV access site
d. Contact the hemodialysis unit
a. abcd
b. bcde
c. cdea
d. abce
28. Which of the following is the most common initial
manifestation of acute renal failure?
a. Dysuria
b. Anuria
c. Hematuria
d. Oliguria
29. Patient Frenzy who is in acute renal failure has an
elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). What is the likely
cause of this finding?
a. Fluid retention
b. Reduced renal blood flow
c. Hemolysis of red blood cells
d. Below-normal metabolic rate
30. Patient Frenzy’s serum potassium level is elevated in
acute renal failure, and the nurse administers sodium
polysterene sulfonate (Kayexalate). This drug acts to:
a. Increase potassium excretion from the colon
b. Release hydrogen ions for sodium ions
c. Increase calcium absorption in the colon
d. Exchange sodium for potassium ions in the colon
Situation
Mrs. Simon is admitted to the emergency department
with chest trauma following a car collision.
31. Which signs/symptoms indicate to the nurse the
presence of pneumothorax
a. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea
b. Frothy, bloody sputum and consolidation
c. Barrel chest and polycythemia
d. Bronchovesicular lung sound and bradypnea
32. The client had a right-sided chest tube inserted 1
hour ago for a pneumothorax. The nurse should
implement which action if the water-seal compartment
does not show any fluctuation?
a. Order for a STAT chest x-ray
b. Increase the amount of wall suction
c. Check the tubing for kinks or clots
d. Monitor the client’s pulse oximeter reading
33. Mrs. Simon refuses to take deep breaths because of
pain. She has had a right-sided chest tube for 6 hours
now. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
a. Medicate the client and help the client take deep
breaths
b. Encourage the client to take shallow breaths to help
with the pain
c. Explain deep breaths do not have to be taken at this
time
d. Tell the client that he could die if she refuse to take
deep breaths again
34. The nurse who is caring for Mrs. Simon has seen
that the chest tube is accidentally pulled out of the
pleural space. Which action should the nurse implement
first?
a. Notify the health care provider
b. Instruct the client to take slow shallow breaths until
the tube is reinserted
c. Do nothing
d. Tape a dry occlusive dressing on three sides to the
insertion site
35. The nurse is presenting a class on chest tubes.
Which statement best describes a tension
pneumothorax?
a. A tension pneumothorax develops when an air-filled
bleb on the surface of the lung ruptures
b. When a tension pneumothorax occurs, the air moves
freely between the pleural space and the atmosphere
c. The injury allows air into the pleural space but
prevents it from escaping from the pleural space
d. A tension pneumothorax results from a puncture of
the pleura during a central line placement
Situation
Georgia, a 30 year old woman, is diagnosed as having
essential hypertension when serial blood pressure
recordings show her average reading to be 170/100
mmHg.
36. Which instruction should the nurse provide when
discussing exercise?
a. Walk at least 30 minutes a day on flat surfaces
b. Perform lightweight lifting three times a week
c. Recommend high-level aerobics daily
d. Encourage the client to swim laps once a week
37. The health-care provider prescribes an ACE inhibitor
for the client. Which statement is the best rationale for
administering this medication.
a. ACE inhibitors prevent beta receptor stimulation in
the heart
b. This medication blocks the alpha receptors in the
vascular smooth muscle
c. ACE inhibitors prevent vasoconstriction and sodium
and water retention
d. ACE inhibitors decrease blood pressure by relaxing
vascular smooth muscles
38. Another patient is diagnosed with hypertension. Her
blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. Using the blood
pressure categories of the American Heart Association,
the client is considered to have
a. Elevated
b. Stage 1 hypertension
c. Stage 2 hypertension
d. Stage mom
39. You are to measure the client's initial blood pressure
reading by doing all of the following EXCEPT
a. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for
comparison
b. Listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff's
sounds
c. Pump the cuff up to around 50 mmHg above the
point where the pulse is obliterated
d. Observe procedures for infection control
40. diagnosed with hypertension about following a low-
calorie, low-fat, low-sodium diet. Which of the following
menu selections would best meet the client’s needs?
a. Mixed green salad with blue cheese dressings,
crackers and cold cuts
b. Ham sandwich on rye bread an an orange
c. Baked chicken, an apple, and a slice of white bread
d. Hot dogs, baked beans, and celery and carrot sticks
Situation
Mrs. Seva, 32 years old, asks you about possible
problems regarding her elimination now that she is in
the menopausal stage.
41. Instruction on health promotion regarding urinary
elimination is important. Which would you include?
a. Hold urine, as long as she can before emptying the
bladder to strengthen her sphincters muscles
b. If burning sensation is experienced while voiding,
drink pineapple-juice
c. After urination, wipe from anal area up towards the
pubis
d. Tell client to empty the bladder at each voiding
42. Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often
constipated. Because she is aging, what physical
changes predispose her to constipation?
a. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex
b. weakness of sphincter muscles of the anus
c. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon
d. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower
intestines
43.The nurse understands that one of these factors
contributes to constipation:
a. excessive exercise
b. high fiber diet
c. no regular time for defecation daily
d. prolonged use of laxatives
44.Mrs. Seva asked for instructions for skin care for her
mother who has urinary incontinence and is almost
always in bed. Your instruction would focus on
prevention of skin irritation and breakdown by ____.
a. Using thick diapers to absorb urine well
b. Drying the skin with baby powder to prevent or mask
the smell of ammonia
c. Thorough washing, rinsing and drying of skin area
that get wet with urine
d. Making sure that linen are smooth and dry at all
times
45. Over the years, Mrs. Seva was confined to bed (1).
Upon assessment, the nurse notes that the patient
responds only to painful stimuli (2). The perineal is kept
moist by urine as dampness is detected every time the
patient is moved (1). In addition, she can not make even
a slight change in her body position without assistance
(1) but can maintain a relatively good position in bed
most of the time but occasionally slides down (2). Her
daughter revealed that she rarely eats meal (2). The
nurse scores Mrs. Seva’s risk for pressure sore using the
Braden Scale with?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
Situation
Nurse Rivera witnesses a vehicular accident near the
hospital where she works. She decides to get involved
and help the victims of the accident.
46. Her priority nursing action would be to:
a. Assess damage to property
b. Assist in the police investigation since she is a witness
c. Report the incident immediately to the local police
authorities
d. Assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victims,
of the accident
47. Priority attention should be given to which of these
clients?
a. Linda who shows severe anxiety due to trauma of the
accident
b. Ryan who has chest injury, is pale and with difficulty
of breathing
c. Noel who has lacerations on the arms with mild-
bleeding
d. Andy whose left ankle swelled and has some
abrasions
48. In the emergency room, Nurse Rivera is assigned to
attend to the client with lacerations on the arms, while
assessing the extent of the wound the nurse observes
that the wound is now starting to bleed profusely. The
most immediate nursing action would be to:
a. Apply antiseptic to prevent infection
b. Clean the wound vigorously of contaminants
c. Control and reduce bleeding of the wound
d. Bandage the wound and elevate the arm
49. The nurse applies pressure dressing on the bleeding
site. This intervention is done to:
a. Reduce the need to change dressing frequently
b. Allow the pus to surface faster
c. Protect the wound from micro organisms in the air
d. Promote hemostasis
50. After the treatment, the client is sent home and
asked to come back for follow-up care. Your
responsibilities when the client is to be discharged
include the following EXCEPT
a. Encouraging the client to go to the, outpatient clinic
for follow up care
b. Accurate recording, of treatment done and
instructions given to client
c. Instructing the client to see you after discharge for
further assistance
d. Providing instructions regarding wound care
Situation
Situation Management of nurse practitioners is done by qualified
Nurse George has worked a lot in the slums of Tondo, nursing leaders who have had clinical experience and
Manila and the life there is very... it's poor and it's very management experience.
sad. And he had always taught himself to look for the
beauty in it; to look in the beauty in the faces of the 56. An example of a management function of a nurse is:
children, and to be grateful.Unfortunately, last week, a. Teaching patient do breathing and coughing exercises
Nurse George has witnessed a large fire that consumes b. Preparing for a surprise party for a client
the almost the houses and almost killed thousands of c. Performing nursing procedures for clients
lives in Tondo, Manila. Nurse George was tasked to d. Directing and evaluating the staff nurses
classify the different types of burn according to depth in
the emergency department. 57. Your head nurse in the unit believes that the staff
nurses are not capable of decision making so she
51. A patient who has burned arms characterize as makes the decisions for everyone without consulting
shiny and moist with blisters that are painful. anybody. This type of leadership is:
a. 3rd degree burn a. Laissez faire leadership
b. 2nd degree burn b. Democratic leadership
c. 1st degree burn c. Autocratic leadership
d. 4th degree burn d. Managerial leadership
52. A patient whose burns are located at his back that 58. When the head nurse in your ward plots and
are pink and painful. approves your work schedules and directs your
a. 1st degree burn work, she is demonstrating:
b. 2nd degree burn a. Responsibility
c. . 3rd degree burn b. Delegation
d. 4th degree burn c. Accountability
d. Authority
53. A patient whose burns are located on his right thigh
with blisters and weeps. 59. The following tasks can be safely delegated by a
nurse to a non-nurse health worker EXCEPT:
a. 1st degree burn a. Transfer a client from bed to chair
b. 2nd degree burn b. Change IV infusions
c. 3rd degree burn c. Irrigation of a nasogastric tube
d. 4th degree burn d. Take vital signs
54. A patient whose burns are located on his left arm 60. You made a mistake in giving the medicine to the
complaining of no pain to which the burns are wrong client. You notify the client's doctor and write
characterized as blackish leathery burns. an incident report. You are demonstrating:
a. 1st degree burn a. Responsibility
b. 2nd degree burn b. Accountability
c. 3rd degree burn c. Authority
d. 4th degree burn d. Autocracy
55. The nurse is monitoring a child with burns during Situation
treatment for burn shock. Which assessment provides ediculosis is infestation with the human head-and-body
the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of louse, Pediculus humanus. There are two subspecies,
fluid resuscitation? the head louse (P. h. capitis) and the body louse (P. h.
a. Skin turgor humanus). In the Philippines, head lice picking is one of
b. Level of edema at burn site the most enjoyed activities of many unemployed
c. Adequacy of capillary filling women in the streets. Hence, nurses play a big role in
d. Amount of fluid tolerated in 24 hours ending this health, and at the same time societal
problem.
61. Which of the following is true regarding the
treatment of head lice?
a. All household members and other close contacts
should be checked.
b. Only the affected household member should be
checked for head lice as the host may vary from person
to person.
c. Some experts believe that siblings of the affected
person should be checked as this can be caused by
genetic predisposition.
d. None of the above.
62. Aling Nena, one of the residents of Baranggay
Kababaihan asks the nurse the most appropriate way to
wash the clothes of her daughter with head lice 2 days
just before treatment is started. The best response of
the nurse would be?
a. Machine wash and dried using the hot water and hot
air cycles
b. Do not wash yet because the head lice may fly and go
to her
c. Wash only with bleach and then boil
d. Do nothing
63. Aling Nena was also advised to seal items that can
not be laundered for ___ weeks in a plastic bag to
prevent it from crawling to another person.
a. 3 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 5 weeks
d. 2 weeks
64. A pediculicide is prescribed to the daughter of Aling
Nena. What important instruction should the nurse
impart to her?
a. 1-3 days
b. 1-4 days
c. 1-2 days
d. 1-5 days
65. After 1-2 days of not re-washing the hair, what
instruction should the nurse give to aling nena
regarding the combs and brushes use?
a. Clean the combs and brushes with bleach
b. Soak them in cidex
c. Spray them with alcohol
d. Soak them in hot water for 5-10 minutes
Situation
Philippine nurses are encouraged to be well aware of
the laws that affect their practice regardless of the set-
up and setting they wish to practice with.
66. What is RA 7160? 72. Which of these does NOT occur in a descriptive d. Focusing activity on the correction of identified b. A client with suspected gastric cancer who is on
a. Local Government Code behavior. nothing-by-nouth (NPO) status for tests.
b. PRC Modernization Act study? c. A client with PUD experiencing a sudden onset of
c. Anti-rabies law a. manipulation of variable 77. Nurse Kathlyn should be well aware of that which of acute stomach pain
d. Newborn screening law b. explanation of relationships between two or more the following statements is NOT true about d. A client who is requesting pain medication 2 days
phenomena performance appraisal? after surgery to repair a fracture jaw.
67. What is RA 10354? c. investigation of a phenomena in real life context a. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of
a. Anti-Rabies Law d. exploration of relationships between two or more their work help improve their performance. 82. Nurse Jessa received in her shift a patient who has
b. Newborn screening law phenomena b. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a just had an upper GI endoscopy. The patient’s vital signs
c. The Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health written report are ordered to be taken every 30 minutes for 2 hours
Law 73. A research group studied the trend in junk food c. Patients are the best source of information regarding after the procedure. Nurse Jessa assigned a UAP to take
d. None of the above personnel appraisal. the vital signs. One hour later, the UAP reports the
consumption of a group of females over a 10-year d. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily client, who was previously afebrile, has developed a
68. What is RA 11223? period using data they collected annually. This is an with the staff. temperature of 101.8oF (38.8oC). What should the
a. Universal Health Care Act example of a/an: nurse do in response to these assessment data.
b. Data Privacy Act a. case study 78. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff a. Promptly assess the client for potential perforation.
c. Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health b. evaluative study as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is b. Tell the assistant to change thermometers and retake
Law c. longitudinal study NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal? the temperature
d. None of the above d. cross-sectional study a. The staff member is observed in natural setting. c. Reassess the patient’s temperature
b. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed. d. Asks the UAP to provide the client a tepid sponge
69. What is RA 10152 c. The evaluation is focused on objective data bath as this is just an expected outcome
a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health Act 74. In the research "The effect of listening to a systematically.
b. Responsible Parenthood and Reproductive Health relaxation tape on the anxiety levels of preoperative d. The evaluation may provide valid information for 83. When nurse Jessa is obtaining a nursing history from
Law compilation of a formal report. a client with suspected gastric ulcer, which signs and
c. Civil Registry Law patients," the independent variable is: symptoms should the nurse assess? Select all that
d. None of the above a. anxiety levels 79. She conducts a 6-month performance review apply.
b. preoperative patients session with a staff member. Which of the following a. Epigastric pain at night
c. listening to a relaxation tape actions is appropriate? b. Relief of epigastric pain after eating
70. What is RA 9288? d. relaxation tape a. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a c. Vomiting
a. Mandatory Infants and Children Health Act witness. d. Weight loss
b. Civil Registry Law b. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse e. Melena
c. Data Privacy Act 75. A well written plan would include the following,
to read the appraisal before the session is over. a. acd
d. Newborn Screening Act EXCEPT c. She tells the staff that the session is manager- b. cdb
a .Research problem centered. c. ade
Situation b. Review of Related Literature and d. The session is private between the two members. d. cde
Nursing research develops knowledge about health and Theoretical/Conceptual Framework
the promotion of health over the full lifespan, care of c. Methods and Procedures 80. She checks the documentary requirements for the 84. Nurse Jessa is preparing to teach a client with a
persons with health problems and disabilities, and d. Research Findings applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT peptic ulcer about the diet that should be followed after
nursing actions to enhance the ability of individuals to necessary? discharge. Nurse Jessa should explain that the client
respond effectively to actual or potential health Situation a. Certificate of previous employment should eat which of the following?
problems. Nursing leadership plays a vital role in shaping b. Record of related learning experience (RLE) a. Bland foods
outcomes for healthcare organizations, personnel and c. Membership to accredited professional organization b. High-protein foods
patients. With much of the leadership workforce set to d. Professional identification card c. Any foods that are tolerated
71. With a title "Effects of aromatherapy on the stress retire in the near future, identifying factors that d. A glass of milk
levels of businesswomen in an urban community", the positively contribute to the development of leadership Situation
reader would know that this is a/an: in nurses is of utmost importance. Nurse Jessa has been assigned to provide care for four 85. A client is taking a Magnesium hydroxide for
a. descriptive research clients in her department. treatment of PUD. Which of the following statements
b. quantitative research 76. Kathlyn as a unit manager, knows that performance best indicated that the clients understands how to
c. applied research appraisal consists of all the following activities EXCEPT: 81. Which among the patients will Nurse Jessa prioritize correctly take the antacid?
d. basic research a. Setting specific standards and activities for individual for assessment? a. ”I’ll take my antacids before I take my other
performance. a. A client awaiting surgery for a hiatal hernia repair at medications.”
b. Using agency standards as a guide. 11 AM. b. “I need to decrease my intake of fluids so that the
c. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses effects of the antacid will not be diluted.”
c. “I’ll take my antacid depending on the frequency of Situation
my pain” Mr. Woo is a 58-year-old Asian man who is scheduled
d. “It Is best for me to take my antacid 1 to 3 hours after for permanent pacemaker insertion treatment for a
meal.” tachydysrhythmia that does not respond to medication
therapy. He is scheduled for an endocardial implant.
Situation
Nursing research has been a growing trend in the 21st 91. Nurse Beejay is reading the cardiac monitor and
century nursing practice. notes that the patient’s heart rhythm is extremely
irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The
86. Nurse Jeremy checks if his instruments meet the ventricular rate is 90 beats per minute, and the patient
criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria is hemodynamically stable. The nurse realizes that the
refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same patient is suffering from:
response upon its repeated administration? a. Atrial fibrillation
a. Validity b. Atrial flutter
b. Reliability c. Atrial flutter with rapid ventricular response
c. Sensitivity d. Junctional escape rhythm
d. Objectivity
92. Nurse Jerry should understand that in a third-degree
87. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument AV block:
to detect fine differences among the subjects being a. Every P wave is conducted to the ventricles.
studied? b. Some P waves are conducted to the ventricles
a. Sensitivity c. None of the P waves are conducted to the ventricles
b. Reliability d. The PR interval is prolonged
c. Validity
d. Objectivity 93. The nurse is attempting to determine the ventricular
rate and rhythm of a patient’s telemetry strip. What
88. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to should the nurse examine to determine this part of the
which an instrument measures what it is supposed to analysis?
be measure? a. PP interval
a. Validity b. QT interval
b. Reliability c. RR interval
c. Meaningfulness d. TP interval
d. Sensitivity
94. The nurse notes on the cardiac monitor that the PR
89. Nurse Jeremy is interested to learn more about interval is very irregular and that there are more P
transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the waves than QRS complexes. PP interval and RR interval
family suites where most patients come from different are regular. The nurse should suspect that the patient is
cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is suffereing from:
appropriate for this study? a. Third-degree atrioventricular block
a. Grounded theory b. Second-degree atrioventricular block
b. Ethnography c. Sinus tachycardia
c. Case study d. Sinus bradycardia
d. Phenomenology
95. Which among the following statements correctly
describes cardioversion?
90. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine a. Cardioversion is the immediate and unsynchronized
a. degree of agreement and disagreement delivery of current.
b. compliance to expected standards b. Cardioversion is the delivery of the electrical current
c. level of satisfaction synchronized with the patient’s electrical events
d. degree of acceptance c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
Situation 100. Part of standards of care has to do with the use of
Your director of nursing wants to improve the quality of restraints. Which of the following statements is NOT
health care offered in the hospital. As a staff nurse in true?
that hospital you know that this entails quality a. Doctor's order for restraints should be signed within
assurance programs. 24 hours
b. Remove and reapply restraints every two hours
96. A legislative enactment that serves as a defense to c. Check client's pulse, blood pressure and circulation
malpractice is the Good Samaritan statute. The every four hours
following statements are correct, except: d. Offer food and toileting every two hours
a. It protects health care provides from civil liability that
may be incurred in stopping to render aid at the scene
of an accident.
b. It also applies to hospital care given to a client as long
it is of an emergency nature
c. Health care professionals may still be sued by an
injured victim for gross negligence.
d. Health care provides should not charge the patient
during an emergency if they want to be covered by the
statute.
97. Standards of nursing practice serve as guide for:
a. Nursing practice in the different fields of nursing
b. Proper nursing approaches and techniques
c. Safe nursing care and management
d. Evaluation of nursing cared rendered
98. You are taking care of critically ill client and the
doctor in charge calls to order a DNR (do not
resuscitate) for the client. Which of the following is the
appropriate action when getting DNR order over the
phone?
a. Have the registered nurse, family spokesperson,
nurse supervisor and doctor sign
b. Have two nurses validate the phone order, both
nurses sign the order and the doctor should sign his
order within 24 hours.
c. Have the registered nurse, family and doctor sign the
order
d. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it and have the
doctor sign it within 24 hours
99. To ensure the client safety before starting blood
transfusion the following are needed before the
procedure can be done EXCEPT:
a. take baseline vital signs
b. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30
minutes before blood transfusion is administered
c. have two nurses verify client identification, blood
type, unit number and expiration date of blood
d. get a consent signed for blood transfusion
 d. None of the above a. “Chiz, who? 15. The nurse should be aware that which of the
RECALLS 5 – NP5 5. How long would it take for a diagnosis of manic
b. “Tell me about Chiz”
c. “Tell me about you and Chiz”
following is the priority assessment for crisis?
a. Defense mechanism of the person
Situation
episode or mania be made? d. “That’s a good Chiz-mis” b. Financial stability
Jimot come to the mental health clinic saying that he
a. 4 weeks c. Perception of the patient to the crisis along with the
feels so down and lacking in energy with “loss of
b. 2 weeks 11. Which of the following is a concrete message? presence of support system and coping mechanism
interest in everything.” He tells the nurse that he
c. 3 weeks a. “Get this our of here.” d. None of the above
received some samples of a new medication from his
d. 1 week b. “When is she coming home?”
psychiatrist last week to relieve his depression.
c. “They said it is too early to get in.” 16. A 16-year-old who is being seen by the crisis nurse
6. Which of following described Bipolar type II? d. “Help me put this pile of books on Jeremy’s desk.” after making several superficial cuts on her wrist states
1. Nurse Gemma is aware that Jimot has a history of
a. Recurrent depressive episodes with at least one that all her friends are siding with her ex-boyfriend and
bipolar I disorder with hospitalization for a significant
hypomanic episode. Situation won’t talk to her anymore. She says she knows that the
manic episode. With this knowledge, the nurse would
b. Manic episodes with at least one depressive episode Typhoon Egay has recently struck the northern islands relationship is over, but “If I can’t have him, no one else
draw special concern regarding which category of psych
c. Alternating cycles between periods of mania, normal of the Philippines leaving vast damages to the will.” Which of the following client problems takes the
medications?
mood, depression, normal mood, mania, and so forth. properties. highest priority?
a. Atypical antipsychotics
d. None of the above a. Risk for other-directed violence
b. Mood stabilizers/antimanics
12. The nurse working at the site of a severe flood sees b. Situational low self-esteem
c. Antianxiety agents (benzodiazepines)
Situation Janang, standing in knee-deep water, staring at empty c. Risk for suicide
d. SSRI
Therapeutic communication is an interpersonal lot. Janang told the nurse, “Masamang panaginip lang d. Risk-prone health behavior
interaction between the nurse and the client during lahat ng ito. Bukas magigising akong nandyan pa ang
2. Nurse Gemma has observed Jimot who is hyperactive
which the nurse focuses on the client’s specific needs to bahay ko.” Which of the following crisis intervention Situation
and intrusive sitting very close to Jerlyn, a female
promote an effective exchange of information. strategies are most needed at this time? Select that The nurse is preparing a client with schizophrenia who
patient with his arm around her shoulders. The nurse
apply. has a history of command hallucinations for discharge
hears the male client cracking sexually explicit joke.
7. Client: “I had an accident” a. Ask the client about any physical injuries she may by providing instructions on interventions for managing
Nurse Gemma approaches Jimot and asks him to walk
Nurse: “Tell me about your accident” have. hallucinations and anxiety.
down the hallway. Which of the following statements
This is an example of which therapeutic communication b. Determine if any of her family are injured or missing.
by the nurse Gemma should be beneficial to the
technique? c. Allow the client to talk about her fears, anger, and 17. Which statement in response to these instructions
patient?
a. Making observations other feelings suggests to the nurse that the client has a need for
a. “Ayaw ni Jerlyn na nasa tabi mo siya dahil sa
b. Offering self d. Tell her that groups are being formed at the shelter additional information?
pananalita mo”
c. General lead for flood survivors a. “My medication will help my anxious feelings.”
b. “ Ang pag-sasabi ng mga malalaswang bagay at pag
d. Reflection e. Refer her to the shelter for dry clothes and food b. “I’ll go to support group and talk about what I am
hipo sa iba ay hindi pinahihintulutan dito”
f. Assess her for risk of suicide and other signs of feeling.”
c. “Kailangan mong maging maingat sa mga sinasabi mo
8. “Earlier today you said you were concerned that your decompensation c. “When I have command hallucinations, I’ll call a
sa ibang tao”
son was still upset with you. When I stopped by your a. abcd friend for help.”
d. “Kinakailangan mo ng pumunta sa iyong kwarto”
room about an hour ago, you and your son seemed b. bdef d. “I need to get enough sleep and eat well to help
relaxed and smiling as you spoke to each other. How did c. adef prevent feeling anxious.”
3. Another young adult client is diagnosed with bipolar
things go between the two of you?” This is an example d. abcf
disorder. He has been religiously taking his medications
of which therapeutic communication technique? 18. Which of the following group of symptoms are
and has managed the disorder effectively. One day, the
a. Encouraging comparison 13. Nurse Jan is assessing a client who has just considered positive symptoms?
client suddenly becomes manic. The nurse reviews the
b. Consensual validation experienced a crisis due to typhoon Egay. Nurse Jan a. Hallucination, Delusions, and Apathy
client’s medication record. Which among the following
c. Accepting should first assess this client for which of the following b. Asociality, Catatonia, and Flat affect
medications should the nurse expect to have
d. General lead behaviors? c. Inattention, avolition, and apathy
contributed to the development of his manic state?
a. Effective problem solving d. Perseveration, hallucination, and bizarre behavior
a. Amitriptyline
9. “How does Heart Evangelista make you upset?” is a b. Level of anxiety
b. Prednisone
non-therapeutic communication technique because it c. Attention Span 19. Neurochemical studies have consistently
c. Gabapentin
a. Gives a literal response d. Help-seeking demonstrated alterations in the neurotransmitter
d. Buspirone
b. Indicates an external source of the emotion systems of the brain in people with schizophrenia.
c. Interprets what the client is saying 14. Which of the following typify a situational crisis? Which of the following neurotransmitter is not
4. Which of the following drug is often used in
d. Is just another stereotyped comment a. Natural catastrophe implicated by several studies to have been associated
conjunction with mood stabilizers or anti-depressants
b. Death of a loved one with schizophrenia?
to treat bipolar disorder?
10. what is the best way for the nurse to ask the client c. menarche a. GABA
a. Ziprasidone
to describe her relationship with Chiz? d. Marriage b. Dopamine
b. Aripiprazole
c. Serotonin
c. Either A or B
d. Norepinephrine
20. The primary medical treatment for schizophrenia is
psychopharmacology. The firs-generation antipsychotics
target which manifestation of schizophrenia?
a. Hallucinations
b. Avolition
c. Alogia
d. Alopecia
21. One of the side effects of antipsychotic medication
is neuroleptic malignant syndrome. What should be the
nursing intervention should this occur?
a. Stop all antipsychotic medications; notify the
physician
b. Administer medications as ordered
c. Assess for effectiveness
d. None of the above
Situation
Nurse John is aware that he has a crucial role in
managing clients with anxiety-related disorders.
22. The client reports becoming involved with
legislation that promotes gun safety after the death of
the child by accidental shooting. Which defense
mechanism is the client exhibiting?
a. Denial
b. Sublimation
c. Identification
d. Intellectualization
23. The client reports becoming physically ill with
frequent crying episodes, intense feelings of
worthlessness, and loss of appetite on the anniversary
of the death of the client’s spouse. The client reports
that this has occurred for the last 5 years- What should
be the nurse’s focus when counseling the client?
a. Anticipatory grief
b. Uncomplicated grief
c. Delayed grief reaction
d. Distorted grief reaction
24. The client is being discharged after hospitalization
for a suicide attempt. Which question asked by the
nurse assesses the learned prevention and future
coping strategies of the client?
a. “How did you try to kill yourself?”
b. “Why did you think life wasn’t worth living?”
c. “What skills can you utilize if you experience
problems again?”
d. “Do you have the phone number of the suicide
prevention center?”
25. The nurse is caring for the client with a major
depressive disorder. Which nursing problem should be
priority?
a. Powerlessness
b. Attempted suicide
c. Anticipatory grieving
d. Disturbed sleep pattern
26. The nurse is interviewing the client at a mental
health clinic who recently attempted suicide and
continues to report active suicidal ideation. Which care
setting is most appropriate for this client?
a. An acute care hospital unit
b. An inpatient mental health unit
c. An outpatient mental health clinic
d. A community detoxification center
Situation
The recently discharged veteran who served in active
combat reports symptoms of recurring intrusive
thoughts, insomnia, and hyper vigilance.
27. Which question would be most helpful in
establishing a diagnosis?
a. “Do you find yourself falling asleep while working?”
b. “Are you also having nightmares when you do sleep?"
c. “Your hair seems thin. Are you also pulling at your
hair?”
d. “Have you ever been diagnosed with obsessive
compulsive disorder?”
28. The nurse is caring for a victim of sexual assault
brought to the ED by a roommate. How should the
nurse respond when the client begins to angrily insist
upon reporting the details of the assault?
a. ask the roommate to sit with the client until the
examination can be resumed.
b. Redirect the client to the physical tasks related to
securing any existing evidence.
c. Encourage the client to use deep breathing
techniques to regain emotional control.
d. Listen quietly as the client expresses the anger and
rage currently being experienced
29. The young adult after being robbed is attending
counseling sessions to address anxiety issues. What is
the nurse’s best response when the client asks, “When
will things get better for me?”
a. “These types of crises are self-limiting, and usually
things are better in 4 to 6 weeks.”
b. “Try not to worry; it is best for you to think about the
future and not focus on the past.”
c. “Being assaulted is traumatic; in time the anxiety will
lessen, and you’ll feel more in control.”
d. “By using the skills you’re learning, the goal for you is
to feel better or be back to normal in about 6 weeks.”
30. The client presents to the ED reporting that he was
sexually assaulted by several men he met at a local bar.
Which action should the nurse plan to include when
preparing to assess the client?
a. Ask the client if he had been drinking alcohol
excessively.
b. Call the male nurse on duty to assume the care of this
client.
c. Do the interview in the same way as for other sexual
assaults.
d. Ask whether the client resisted any of the sexual
advancements.
31. The 10—year-old who was sexually abused by a
family member experiences flashbacks of a
disagreement with that adult and the resulting sexual
assault. Which suggestion should the nurse make to the
parents in order to help minimize this reaction?
a. Have the child avoid arguments with adults until this
reaction is unlearned.
b. Ask the HCP to prescribe a medication to minimize
the child’s aggressiveness.
c. Adults in your family should learn to recognize and
diffuse arguments effectively.
d. You and your child should regularly discuss bad
memories to decrease their effect.
Situations
The Philippines is home to many destructive typhoons.
32. The client’s home was destroyed by a major flood.
The client is attending a support group and says, “I will
rebuild my home as good as new and be back in it in a
few months.” What should be the nurse’s initial
response?
a. “That’s a very ambitious plan to undertake at this
time.”
b. “I’m proud of your resiliency and willingness to start
over.”
c. “Have you given thought to what may happen if it
floods again?”
d. “Can you tell me how many months you think
rebuilding will take?”
33. The client is being treated after surviving a major
hurricane that took the lives of many neighbors. Which
statement by the client provides the nurse with the
[best evidence that therapy has been successful?
a. “Therapy has been a very good thing for me since the
hurricane ruined things.”
b. “I’m ready and able to move on with my life in spite
of all that has happened.”
c. “Nothing can happen to me that is worse than what
I’ve been through already.”
d. “I’ve learned a lot about myself since agreeing to
attend crisis therapy sessions.”
34. The nurse in the ED is assessing the client who was
injured in a car accident. The nurse considers that the
client may have psychogenic amnesia when the client is
unable to recall any personal information. Which
statement that reflects the nurse’s critical thinking
about psychogenic amnesia is correct?
a. Psycho genie amnesia is a long—lasting condition.
b. Psychogenic amnesia is seen more often in men than
women.
c. Psycho genie amnesia is categorized with memory
loss and dementia.
d. Psycho genie amnesia symptoms include wandering
and disorientation.
35. Which among the following options correctly
describe debriefing
a. Participants are asked about their emotional
reactions to the incident, what symptoms they may be
experiencing and other psychological medications.
b. Is a process by which the person receives education
about recognition of stress reactions and management
strategies for handling stress.
c. Either A or B
d. None of the above
36. The 10—year-old who was sexually abused by a
family member experiences flashbacks of a
disagreement with that adult and the resulting sexual
assault. Which suggestion should the nurse make to the
parents in order to help minimize this reaction?
a. Have the child avoid arguments with adults until this
reaction is unlearned.
b. Ask the HCP to prescribe a medication to minimize
the child’s aggressiveness.
c. Adults in your family should learn to recognize and
diffuse arguments effectively.
d. You and your child should regularly discuss bad
memories to decrease their effect.
Situation
The client is hospitalized after sustaining a head injury
and a fractured wrist from a fall. The client admits to
drinking alcohol in moderation several times per week.
37. Which assessment finding should the nurse
associate with early alcohol withdrawal?
a. Agitation
b. Somnolence
c. Slightly elevated BP
d. Delirium tremens (DTs)
38. The nurse is caring for the client who is 2 days
postadmission to a medical unit and has a long history
of heavy alcohol abuse. The nurse should monitor for
which acute complications related to alcohol abuse?
Select all that apply
a. Seizures
b. Pancreatitis
c. GI bleeding
d. Exophthalmos
e. Delirium tremens
a. edcb
b. abcd
c. abce
d. bcde
39. The female client tells the nurse, “I usually have a
few drinks after work, but I always limit it to three. I’m
not risking becoming addicted, am I?” What is the
nurse’s best response?
a. “There is no harm in social drinking as long as you
know your limits and you are not driving while
intoxicated.”
b. “As long as you don’t have any social problems
associated with your use of alcohol, you do not need to
be concerned.”
c. “If you are concerned about the frequency and the
number of drinks consumed, then you might be
developing a dependency.”
d. “Three drinks a day or seven drinks in a week is high-
risk drinking for women. You seem concerned that you
might have an alcohol dependency.”
40. The nurse is preparing to administer thiamine
(vitamin B,) to the client receiving treatment for alcohol
dependence. Which statement best describes the
rationale for the use of thiamine?
a. Thiamine improves the absorption of other essential
vitamins and folic acid.
b. Thiamine helps to reverse the malnutrition often
associated with alcohol abuse.
c. Thiamine reduces the risk of seizures occurring during
withdrawal from alcohol.
d. Thiamine prevents neuropathy and confusion
associated with chronic alcohol use.
41. The hospitalized client has a history of weekly d. At the time scheduled b. Drowsy or confused state following a seizure
moderate alcohol use. Which symptoms assessed by c. Severe itching of the eyes from an allergic reaction
the nurse indicate that the client may be experiencing 46. The nurse has asked the nursing assistant to d. Abnormal sensations including tingling of the skin
alcohol withdrawal? Select all that apply. ambulate a client with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse
a. Agitation observes the nursing assistant pulling on the client’s 51. The nurse asks the male client with epilepsy if he
b. Hypotension arms to get the client to walk forward. The nurse has auras with his seizures. The client says, “I don’t
c. Tachycardia should: know what you mean. What are auras?” Which
d. Hallucinations a. Praise the nursing assistant as this is appropriate. statement by the nurse would be the best response?
e. Tongue tremor b. Explain how to overcome a freezing gait by telling the a. “Some people have a warning that the seizure is
a. bcde client to march in place. about to start.”
b. abcd c. Assist the NA with getting the client back in bed. b. “Auras occur when you are physically and
c. abcde d. Give the client a muscle relaxant as studies have psychologically exhausted.”
d. acde proved that this is effective in this situation. c. “You’re concerned that you do not have auras before
your seizures?”
Situation Situation d. “Auras fight for her friend in the bar.”
Nurse Mira is assigned to care for a patient with The male client is sitting in the chair and his entire body
Parkinson’s Disease. is rigid with his arms and legs contracting and relaxing. Situation
The client is not aware of what is going on and is making A nurse is caring for several patients who are suffering
42. Nurse Mira has admitted a patient with PD with a guttural sounds. from meningitis.
fever and patchy infiltrates in the lung fields on the
chest x-ray. Which clinical manifestations of PD would 47. Which action should the nurse implement first? 52. The wife of the client diagnosed with septic
explain these assessment data? a. Push aside any furniture meningitis asks the nurse, “I am so scared. What is
a. Maskliek facies and shuffling gait. b. Place the client on his side meningitis?” Which statement would be the most
b. Difficulty swallowing and immobility. c. Assess the client’s v/s appropriate response by the nurse?
c. Pill rolling of fingers and flat affect d. Ease the client to the floor a. “There is bleeding into his brain causing irritation of
d. Lack of arm swing and bradykinesia the meninges.”
48. The client who just had a three minute seizure has b. “A virus has infected the brain and meninges, causing
43. The client diagnosed with PD is being discharged on no apparent injuries and is oriented to name, place, and inflammation.”
carbidopa/levodopa (Sinemet), an antiparkinsonian time but is lethargic and just wants to sleep. Which c. “This is a bacterial infection of the tissues that cover
drug. Which statement is the scientific rationale for intervention should the nurse implement? the brain and spinal cord.”
combining these medication? d. “This is an inflammation of the brain parenchyma
a. There will be fewer side effects with this combination a. Perform a complete neurological assessment caused by a mosquito bite.”
than with carbidopa alone. b. Awaken the client every 30 minutes
b. Dopamine D requires the presence of both of these c. Turn the client to the side and allow the client to 53. The client is at risk for septic emboli after being
medications to work. sleep diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. Which action
c. Carbidopa makes more levodopa available to the d. Interview the client to find out what caused the by the nurse directly addresses this risk?
brain. seizure a. Monitoring vital signs and oxygen saturation levels
d. Carbidopa crosses the BBB to treat Parkinson’s hourly
disease. 49. The nurse is teaching the client who is scheduled For b. Planning to give meningocoeeal polysaccharide
an outpatient EEG. Which instruction should the nurse vaccine
44. Which is a common cognitive problem associated include? c. Assessing neurological function with the Glasgow
with Parkinson’s disease? a. Remove all hairpins before coming in for the EEG test. Coma Scale q2h
a. Emotional lability b. Avoid eating or drinking at least 6 hours prior to the d. Completing a thorough vascular assessment of all
b. Depression test. extremities q2h
c. Memory deficits c. Some hair will be removed with a razor to place
d. Paranoia electrodes. 54. The nurse is assessing the client with a tentative
d. Have blood drawn for a glucose level 2 hours before diagnosis of meningitis. Which findings should the nurse
45. A new medication regimen is prescribed for a client the test. associate with meningitis? Select all that apply.
with Parkinson’s disease. At which time should the I. Nuchal rigidity
nurse make certain that the medication is taken? 50. The nurse in the ED documents that the newly II. Severe headache
a. At bedtime admitted client is “postictal upon transfer." What did III. Pill-rolling tremor
b. All at one time the nurse observe? IV. Photophobia
c. Two hours before mealtime a. Yellowing of the skin due to a liver condition V. Lethargy
a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV, and V
c. I and III only
d. I, II, IV and V
55. The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with
meningococcal meningitis. Which assessment data
would warrant notifying the HCP?
a. Purpuric lesions on the face
b. Complaints of light hurting the eyes
c. Dull, aching, frontal headache
d. Not remembering the day of the week
56. Which type of precautions should the nurse
implement for the client diagnosed with septic
meningitis?
a. Standard precautions
b. Airborne precautions
c. Contact precautions
d. Droplet precautions
Situation
The Mariano Marcos Memorial Hospital and Medical
Center just opened its new Performance Improvement
Department. Mr. Greg is appointed as the Quality
Control Officer. He commits himself to his new role and
plans his strategies to realize the goals and objectives of
the department.
57. Which of the following is a primary task that they
should perform to have an effective control system?
a. Make an interpretation about strengths and
weaknesses
b. Identify the values of the department
c. Identify structure, process, outcome standards &
criteria
d. Measure actual performances
58. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed.
Among the following standards, which is considered as
a structure standard?
a. The patients verbalized satisfaction of the nursing
care received
b. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all
patient care personnel.
c. All patients shall have their weights taken recorded
d. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before
discharge
59. When she presents the nursing procedures to be
followed, she refers to what type of standards?
a. Process
b. Outcome
c. Structure
d. Criteria
60. The following are basic steps in the controlling
process of the department. Which of the following is
NOT included?
a. Measure actual performance
b. Set nursing standards and criteria
c. Compare results of performance to standards and
objectives
d. Identify possible courses of action
61. Which of the following statements refers to criteria?
a. Agreed on level of nursing care
b. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing
care
c. Step-by-step guidelines
d. Statement which guide the group in decision making
and problem solving
Situation
Using Maslow's need theory, Airway, Breathing and
Circulation are the physiological needs vital to life. The
nurse's knowledge and ability to identify and
immediately intervene to meet these needs is
important to save lives.
62. Which of these clients has a problem with the
transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?
a. Carol with a tumor in the brain
b. Theresa with anemia
c. Sonny Boy with a fracture in the femur
d. Brigette with diarrhea
63. Laboratory tests are prescribed for the client who
has a smooth and reddened tongue and ulcers at the
corners of the mouth. Which result would the nurse
find if the client has iron-deficiency anemia?
a. Low hemoglobin and hematocrit
b. Elevated red blood cells (RBCs)
c. Prolonged prothrombin time (PT)
d. Elevated white blood cells (WBCs)
64. The nurse is teaching the client who is a strict
vegetarian how to decrease the risk of developing
megaloblastic anemia. Which information should the
nurse provide?
a. Undergo an annual Schilling test.
b. Increase intake of foods high in iron.
c. Supplement the diet with vitamin B12
d. Have a hemoglobin level drawn monthly.
65. The nurse assesses that the client with hemolytic
anemia has weakness, fatigue, malaise, and skin and
mucous membrane pallor. Which finding should the
nurse also associate with hemolytic anemia?
a. Scleral jaundice
b. A smooth, red tongue
c. A craving for ice to chew
d. A poor intake of fresh vegetables
66. The client is being admitted with folic acid
deficiency anemia. Which would be the most
appropriate referral?
a. Alcoholics anonymous
b. Leukemia society of the PH
c. A hematologist
d. A social worker
Situation
The nurse's understanding of ethico-legal
responsibilities will guide his/her nursing practice.
67. The principles that -govern right and proper
conducts of a person regarding life, biology and the
health professions is referred to as:
a. Morality
b. Religion
c. Values
d. Bioethics
68. The purpose of having nurses' code of ethics is:
a. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice
b. Identify nursing action recommended for specific
healthcare situations
c. To help the public understand professional conduct,
expected of nurses
69. You inform the patient about his rights which
include the following EXCEPT:
a. Right to expect reasonable continuity of care
b. Right to consent to or decline to participate in
research studies or experiments
c. Right to obtain information about another patient
d. Right to expect that the records about his care will be
treated as confidential
70. The principle states that a person has unconditional
worth and has the capacity to determine his own
destiny.
a. Bioethics
b. Justice
c. Fidelity
d. Autonomy
71. Standards of nursing practice serve as guide for:
a. Nursing practice in the different fields of nursing
b. Proper nursing approaches and techniques
c. Safe nursing care and management
d. Evaluation of nursing cared rendered
Situation
You are taking care of Mrs. Gil, 65 years old, who is
terminally ill with ovarian cancer stage IV.
72. When caring for a dying client you will perform
which of the following activities?
a. Encourage the client to reach optimal health
b. Assist client perform activities of daily living
c. Assist the client towards a peaceful death
d. Motivate client to gain independence
73. The client prepares for eventual death and
discusses with the nurse and her family how she would
like her funeral to look like and what dress she will use.
This client is in the stage of:
a. Acceptance
b. Resolution
c. Denial
d. bargaining
74. The spouse of a client dying from lung cancer states,
“ I don’t understand this death rattle. She has not had
anything to drink in days. Where is the fluid coming
from? Which is the hospice care nurse’s best response?
a. “The body produces about two teaspoons of fluid
every minute on its own.”
b. “Are you sure someone is not putting ice chips in her
mouth?”
c. “There is no reason for this, but it does happen from
time to time.”
d. “I can administer a patch to her skin to dry up the
secretions if you wish.”
75. The hospice care nurse is conducting a spiritual care
assessment. Which statement is the scientific rationale
for this intervention?
a. The client will ask all of his or her spiritual questions
and get answers.
b. The nurse is able to explain to the client how death
will affect the spirit.
c. Spirituality provides a sense of meaning and purpose
for many clients.
d. The nurse is the expert when assisting the client with
spiritual matters.
76. The client who is terminally ill called the significant
others to the room and said good-bye, then dismissed
them and now lies quietly and refuses to eat. The nurse
understands the client is in what stage of the grieving 82. After stabilizing the client’s cervical spine, which
process? action should the nurse take next?
a. Denial a. Carefully remove the driver from the car.
b. Anger b. Assess the client’s pupil for reaction.
c. Bargaining c. Assess the client’s airway.
d. Acceptance d. Attempt to wake the client up by shaking him.
Situation 83. In assessing the client with T12 SCI, which clinical
Nursing research is considered essential to the manifestations would the nurse expect to find to
achievement of high-quality patient care and outcomes. support the diagnosis of spinal shock?
a. No reflex activity below the waist
77. Which of the following is a method of non- b. Inability to move upper extremities
probability sampling? c. Complaints of a pounding headache
a. Cluster sampling d. Hypotension and bradycardia
b. Snowball sampling
c. Simple random sampling 84. The client with a C6 SCI is admitted to the
d. stratified random sampling emergency department complaining of a sever
pounding headache and has BP of 180/110. Which
78. The data on the family’s number of children is intervention should the emergency department nurse
appropriate for what level of measurement? implement?
a. Interval a. Keep the client flat in bed
b. Ordinal b. Dim the lights in the room
c. Ratio c. Assess for bladder distention
d. Nominal d. Administer a narcotic analgesic.
79. A nurse researcher wants to study the response of 85. The nurse assesses the client, who was injured in a
patients who suffer from dysrhythmia to pacemaker. diving accident 2 hours earlier. The client is breathing
The appropriate research design would be? independently but has no movement or muscle tone
a. Experimental research design from below the area of injury. A CT scan reveals a
b. Descriptive-correlational fracture of the C4 cervical vertebra. The nurse should
c. Comparative descriptive plan interventions for which problem?
d. Correlational a. Complete spinal cord transection
b. Spinal shock
c. An upper motor neuron injury
80. Which of the following are qualitative data sources? d. Quadriplegia
a. Interview and observation.
b. Primary sources and secondary sources 86. Spinal precautions are ordered for the client. Who
c. Books and journals sustained a neck injury during an MVA. The client has
d. Questionnaires and survey yet to be cleared that there is no cervical fracture.
Which action is the nurse’s priority when receiving the
81. All of the following are advantages of using client in the ED?
questionnaires EXCEPT: a. Assessing the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale
a. Easy to test data for reliability and validity (GCS)
b. Facilitates data gathering b. Assessing the level of sensation in the client‘s
c. Less time consuming than interview and observation
extremities
d. Respondents may provide socially acceptable c. Checking that the cervical collar was correctly placed
answers by EMS
d. Applying antiembolism hose to the client‘s lower
Situation Extremities
Nurse Jenny arrives at the site of a one-car motor-
vehicle accident and stops to render aid. The driver of Situation
the car is unconscious. Nurse Oni is caring for patients with Multiple Sclerosis.
87. Nurse Oni should conduct a focused assessment
with client with multiple sclerosis for risk of which of
the following?
I. Dehydration
II. Falls
III. Seizures
IV. Skin breakdown
V. Fatigue
a. II, III, IV, V
b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, IV, V
d. I and II
88. Which of the following is not a typical clinical
manifestation of MS?
a. Double vision
b. Sudden bursts of energy
c. Weakness in the extremities
d. Muscle tremors
89. Nurse Oni should know that the primary reason why
she find it difficult to evaluate the effectiveness of the
drugs the client has used for 15 years is?
a. The client exhibits intolerance to many drugs.
b. The client experiences spontaneous remissions from
time to time.
c. The client requires multiple drugs simultaneously.
d. The client endures long periods of exacerbation
before the illness responds to a particular drug.
90. The client with MS tells the nurse about extreme
fatigue. Which assessment findings should the nurse
identify as contributing to the client's fatigue? Select all
that apply.
I. Hemoglobin 9.5 g/dL and hematocrit is 31.8%
II. Taking baclofen 15 mg 3 times per day
III. Working 4 to 8 hours per week in the family
business
IV. Stopped taking amitriptyline 8 weeks earlier
V. Presence of a cardiac murmur at the tricuspid
valve.
VI. Bilateral leg weakness noted when walking
in room
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, III, IV
c. I, II, IV, V, VI
d. I, II, III, IV, V
91. The home-care nurse is counseling the client who
has MS. The client is experiencing weakness, ataxia,
intermittent adductor spasms of the hips, and
occasional incontinence from loss of bladder sensation.
Which self-care measures should the nurse
recommend? Select all that apply.
I. “Adductor spasms can be relieved by taking a
hot bath."
II. “If a muscle is in spasm, stretch and hold it,
and then relax.”
III. “Rest first and then walk as able using a
walker for support.“
IV. “When walking, keep feet close together,
legs slightly bent.”
V. “Set an alarm to remind you to void 30
minutes After fluid intake."
a. II, III, V
b. II, III, IV
c. II, III, I
d. II, III
Situation
Nurse Carla is caring for a patient with Guillain-Barré.
92. The client diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome is
scheduled to receive plasmapheresis treatments. The
client’s spouse asks the nurse about the purpose of
plasmapheresis. Which explanation is correct?
a. “Plasmapheresis removes excess fluid from the
bloodstream.”
b. “Plasmapheresis will increase the protein levels in the
blood.”
c. “Plasmapheresis removes circulating antibodies from
the blood.”
d. “Plasmapheresis infuses lipoproteins to restore the
myelin sheath.”
93. The nurse is caring for the client experiencing
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). It is most important for
the nurse to monitor the client for which complication?
a. Autonomic dysreflexia
b. Septic emboli
c. Cardiac dysrhythmias
d. Respiratory failure
94. Nurse Carla learns that the pathophysiology of
Guillain-Barré syndrome includes segmental
demyelination. The nurse should understand that this
causes what?
a. Delayed afferent nerve impulses
b. Paralysis of affected muscles
c. Paresthesia in upper extremities
d. Slowed nerve impulse transmission
95. Which assessment finding is most indicative of
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
A. Pupillary dilation
B. Expressive aphasia
C. Loss of bowel and bladder control
D. A sudden onset of muscle weakness and pain
96. Which laboratory result is consistent with the
diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
A. Positive rheumatoid factor
B. Decreased serum albumin
C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
D. Increased protein in the cerebrospinal fluid
Situation
Nurse Mira works as a nurse in a rehabilitation center
for individuals who abuse a certain substance.
a. Paranoia
b. Flashbacks
c. Gastric disturbances
d. Conjunctival infection
100. The client states, “I don’t see any problem with
smoking a little weed. It isn’t addictive.”
Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
a. “Marijuana is a natural chemical that has many
therapeutic uses, but it is still illegal to use.”
b. “Marijuana is not addictive. The danger is that. it
often leads to abuse of more illicit drugs.”
c. “Marijuana has effects similar to alcohol,
hallucinogens, and sedatives that are addictive.”
d. “There are no withdrawal symptoms, so it is
controversial whether marijuana is addictive.”

97.The spouse of the client who is currently in inpatient

treatment for substance abuse tells the nurse, “We’ve
done this so many times. I don’t think my spouse is ever
going to change. Do you think it’s time for me to get a
divorce?” Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
a. “You don’t think your spouse is ever going to
change?”
b. “Sounds like you’re feeling discouraged in your
marriage.”
c. “Your spouse will likely continue to use and need
treatment again.”
d. “That’s your decision; I can’t tell you whether you
should get a divorce.”

98. The nurse is in the working phase of a relationship

with the client being treated for substance abuse.
Which intervention would be appropriate during this
phase of treatment?
a. Assessing the client’s readiness to change substance-
abusing behavior
b. Evaluating the effectiveness of the client’s newly
adapted coping skills
c. Confronting the client’s denial that substances have
negatively impacted daily life
d. Determining the extent to which substances have
impaired the client’s functioning

99. The nurse is assessing the college student who

presents with generalized fatigue, dry mouth,
tachycardia, and an increased appetite. Which
additional finding from the client’s history and physical
exam should alert the nurse to explore possible
marijuana abuse?