S

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UNIT-I

lin
1.1 Introduction to profession

On
1. Glassware used to measure 24 hour urine volumes is a:
a. volumetric ask

b.
b. beaker

Clu
c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder

on
2. Glassware used to make 100 mls of a 12% solution is a:

ati
a. volumetric ask
b. beaker

uc
c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder

Ed
3. A suction device used to draw up liquids is a:

rat
a. volumetric ask
b. beaker
c. erlenmeyer cylinde
uja
rG
d. none of the above
tta

4. The pipette with a bulged out portion in the middle is a:

a. mohr pipette
/U

b. pasture pipette
c. serological pipette
ity

d. volumetric pipette
Un

5. Which piece of glassware would not give critical measurement:

a. volumetric ask
nt

b. beaker
de

c. erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
Stu

6. The durable material used to make heat resistant glassware is:

gu

a. polyethylene
b. soda lime
Hn

c. polystyrene
d. borosilicate
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7. Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. What term
would describe the potassium oxalate?

lin
a. solution
b. solvent

On
c. solute
d. reagent

b.
Clu
8. The destruction of all micro-organisms including spores is called:
a. sanitation
b. antisepsis

on
c. sterilization
d. disinfection

ati
uc
9. A ug is a unit to describe:
a. time

Ed
b. volume
c. distance

rat
d. weight

10. A pH of 2 is _____ than a pH of 5: uja

a. 1000 times more acidic
rG

b. 100 times more acidic

c. 2 times less acidic
tta

d. 20 times less acidic

/U

1.2 Body system and Laboratory medicine

ity

11. Cells in a hypertonic solution will:

Un

a. swell and burst

b. dehydrate
nt

c. hemolyze
d. not be affected
de
Stu

12. The solution used to x a pap smear is:

a. wright stain
b. hematoxylin
gu

c. physiological saline
Hn

d. cytospray
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13. Blood for an RBC count must be prepared from:
a. EDTA blood

lin
b. citrated blood
c. heparinized blood

On
d. oxalated blood

b.
14. Which reagent is not routinely used to preserve tissue in a life-like manner:

Clu
a. formic acid
b. zenkers uid
c. 40% formaldehyde dissolved in water

on
d. bouin’s uid

ati
15. Which piece of histology equipment is not temperature dependant:

uc
a. wax
b. tissue proocessor

Ed
c. microtome
d. embedding center

rat
16. A biopsy is:
a. a removal of biological uid uja
b. the removal of an organ
rG

c. a post mortem examination

d. excision of a representative tissue sample
tta
/U

17. During tissue processing, what is the correct sequence of steps:

a. clearing, dehydration, inltration
ity

b. clearing, inltration, dehydration

c. dehydration, inltration, clearing
Un

d. dehydration, clearing, inltration

nt

18. Fixation is important in tissue processing because it:

a. prevents cell morphology changes and shrinkage
de

b. allows tissue to be examined in a life-like condition

Stu

c. facilitates the staining process

d. a, b, & c
gu

19. The liquid portion of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:
Hn

a. the buffy coat

b. serum
c. plasma
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d. lymph

lin
20. Which test cannot be performed on a serum sample?
a. Iron

On
b. Vitamin B12
c. Total lipids

b.
d. Clotting factors

Clu
1.3 & 1.4 Medical terminology
1) The general meaning of "corpus" is best described by which of the following?

on
(A) Abdomen

ati
(B) Body
(C) Chest

uc
(D) Head

Ed
2) Which of the following is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count?
(A) Anemia
(B) Leukemia

rat
(C) Leukocytosis
(D) Leukopenia
uja
3) An area of dead myocardial tissue is best described by which of the following?
rG
(A) Angina pectoris
(B) Hypertrophy
tta

(C) An induration
(D) An infarct
/U

4) The term "lithiasis" is best described by which of the following?

(A) Constriction of tissue
ity

(B) Dissolving
(C) Abnormal condition of stones
Un

(D) Penetrating a cavity

nt

5) Menarche refers to which of the following?

(A) Beginning of menstruation
de

(B) Development of female characteristics

Stu

(C) End of childhood

(D) End of pregnancy
gu

6) Adipose tissue is made of which of the following?

(A) Fat cells
Hn

(B) Lymph nodes

(C) Muscles
(D) Skin
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7) Which of the following terms refers to the ability to breathe comfortably only when in an
upright position?
(A) Apnea

lin
(B) Dyspnea

On
(C) Eupnea
(D) Orthopnea

b.
8) Which of the following is the term for abnormally large breasts in men?

Clu
(A) Gynander
(B) Gynecomania
(C) Gynecomastia

on
(D) Gynephobia

ati
9) Which of the following terms means drainage from the nose?
(A) Rhinolalia

uc
(B) Rhinomycosis
(C) Rhinophyma

Ed
(D) Rhinorrhea

rat
10) The combining form "cephal/o" refers to which of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(B) Head
(C) Neck uja
(D) Ribs
rG

11) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is which of the following terms?

tta

(A) Odont-
(B) Olfact-
/U

(C) Omphal-
(D) Onych-
ity

12) Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as which of the following terms?

Un

(A) Colitis
(B) Fasciitis
(C) Hidradenitis
nt

(D) Pimelitis
de

13) The prefix meaning outside or outer is which of the following?

Stu

(A) Ana-
(B) Dia-
(C) Epi-
gu

(D) Exo-
Hn
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14) The prefix "brady-" means which of the following?
(A) Away from
(B) Downward

lin
(C) Irregular

On
(D) Slow

15) The patient's complaint of painful menstrual periods will be documented in the medical

b.
record as which of the following?

Clu
(A) Amenorrhea
(B) Dysmenorrhea
(C) Menorrhagia

on
(D) Menorrhea

ati
16) Which of the following suffixes refers to eating?
(A) "phagia"

uc
(B) "phasia"
(C) "phonia"

Ed
(D) "plegia"

rat
17) Which of the following terms refers to pain?
(A) Arthralgia
(B) Diplopia
(C) Dysplasia uja
(D) Hemiplegia
rG

18) Which of the following is the definition for aphagia?

tta

(A) Extreme thirst

(B) Inability to hear
/U

(C) Inability to swallow

(D) Loss of hair
ity

19) Which of the following suffixes means "cutting operation"?

Un

(A) -ectomy
(B) -plasty
(C) -scopy
nt

(D) -tomy
de

20) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the plural of bronchus?
Stu

(A) Bronchuses
(B) Bronchii
(C) Bronchi
gu

(D) Bronchae
Hn
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UNIT 4

lin
4.1 Collection and Procedure of blood for transfusion

On
1) Which of the following is the plural form of the medical term that means chest?
(A) Alveoli

b.
(B) Apices
(C) Calyces

Clu
(D) Thoraces

2) Which of the following is the medical term for hair loss?

on
(A) Folliculitis

ati
(B) Eczema
(C) Pediculosis

uc
(D) Alopecia

Ed
3) Which of the following terms is used to describe a lateral curvature of the spine?
(A) Kyphosis
(B) Scoliosis

rat
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Lordosis
uja
4) Which of the following terms is used to describe a condition in which the body produces too
rG
much cortisol?
(A) Gigantism
tta

(B) Myxedema
(C) Cushing's syndrome
/U

(D) Diabetes insipidus

ity

5) "K" is the chemical symbol for which of the following substances?

(A) Barium
Un

(B) Calcium
(C) Iron
(D) Potassium
nt
de

6. Which of the following is the chemical symbol for iron?

(A) F
Stu

(B) Fe
(C) Fr
(D) I
gu

7) Which of the following is the term for reconstruction of the eardrum?

Hn

(A) Myringotomy
(B) Otoplasty
(C) Stapedectomy
(D) Tympanoplasty
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8) Colporrhaphy is the repair of which of the following?
(A) Bladder

lin
(B) Intestines

On
(C) Spleen
(D) Vagina

b.
9) Which of the following terms describes surgical fixation of the uterus in a suspended position?

Clu
(A) Hysterectomy
(B) Hysterodesis
(C) Hysteropexy

on
(D) Hysteroscopy

ati
10) A pyloromyotomy is performed in which of the following body systems?
(A) Cardiovascular

uc
(B) Gastrointestinal
(C) Musculoskeletal

Ed
(D) Nervous

rat
11) Which of the following is a surgical procedure in which a pendulous breast is lifted and fixed
to the chest wall?
(A) Mastostomy
(B) Mastotomy uja
(C) Mastectomy
rG

(D) Mastopexy
tta

12) Which of the following is an incision made to enlarge the opening of the external urethra?
(A) Cystotomy
/U

(B) Meatotomy
(C) Nephrostomy
ity

(D) Pyelostomy
Un

13) Korotkoff sounds are evaluated by which of the following procedures?

(A) Counting the apical heartbeat
(B) Determining the blood pressure
nt

(C) Performing ultrasonography

de

(D) Counting the respirations

Stu

14) Which of the following is a nonsterile procedure?

(A) Amniocentesis
(B) Cystoscopy
gu

(C) Peritoneal dialysis

(D) Proctosigmoidoscopy
Hn

15) Which of the following is a procedure in which synovial fluid is removed for analysis?
 S
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(A) Apheresis
(B) Arthrocentesis
(C) Arthrography

lin
(D) Arthroscopy

On
16) Which of the following procedures is indicated when an abnormal growth is identified on
barium enema X-ray study?

b.
(A) Arthroscopy

Clu
(B) Bronchoscopy
(C) Colonoscopy
(D) Cystoscopy

on
4.2 Routine Laboratory Process in Blood banking

ati
1) A patient scheduled for echoencephalography will undergo a study of which of the following?
(A) Abdomen

uc
(B) Brain
(C) Heart

Ed
(D) Lungs

rat
2) Which of the following physicians specializes in treating patients with diseases of the liver?
(A) Hematologist
(B) Hepatologist
(C) Nephrologist
uja
rG
(D) Oncologist

3) Which of the following branches of medicine specializes in the study of the musculoskeletal
tta

system?
/U

(A) Gynecology
(B) Nephrology
(C) Orthopedics
ity

(D) Pediatrics
Un

4) A patient with encephalitis is most likely to be treated by which of the following specialists?
(A) Endocrinologist
nt

(B) Hematologist
(C) Neurologist
de

(D) Oncologist
Stu

5) A cystoscope is an instrument used most commonly by a specialist in which of the following?

(A) Endocrinology
(B) Gastroenterology
gu

(C) Gynecology
Hn

(D) Urology
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6) A patient who has hypergonadism, prolactinoma, and hirsutism will most likely be referred to
which of the following specialists?
(A) Immunologist

lin
(B) Pathologist

On
(C) Rheumatologist
(D) Endocrinologist

b.
7) Polydipsia, polyuria, good appetite with weight loss, and blurred vision are signs and

Clu
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Gout

on
(C) Hypothyroidism
(D) Marasmus

ati
8) Dysphonia is a common symptom of which of the following conditions?

uc
(A) Iritis
(B) Laryngitis

Ed
(C) Pneumonitis
(D) Rhinitis

rat
9) Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the eye that is known to be hereditary?
(A) Glioblastoma
(B) Neuroblastoma uja
(C) Osteosarcoma
rG

(D) Retinoblastoma
tta

10) Which of the following are round bacteria that grow in pairs?
(A) Streptococci
/U

(B) Diplococci
(C) Bacilli
ity

(D) Spirilla
Un

11) Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?

(A) Adenopathy
(B) Basaphil
nt

(C) Edematous
de

(D) Hemopoiesis
Stu

12) Which of the following medical terms is spelled CORRECTLY?

(A) Albumine
(B) Hemorrhoid
gu

(C) Larinx
(D) Opthalmology
Hn
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13) Which of the following spellings is CORRECT?
(A) Abecess
(B) Abces

lin
(C) Abscess

On
(D) Abscus

14) Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the focusing ability of the eye?

b.
(A) Accomedation

Clu
(B) Accommodation
(C) Acomodation
(D) Acommodation

on
1.3 Hemolytic disease of New born

ati
uc
1. The production of blood cells is known as -
A. Hemolysis

Ed
B. Hematopoiesis
C. Hematoblast
D. Hematocrit

rat
2. The production of red blood cells is known as -
A. Erythrocyte uja
B. Erythroblast
rG
C. Erythropoiesis
D. Erythroblast
tta

3. By 24 weeks gestation, production of RBCs in the __________ surpasses that of the liver.
/U

A. Spleen
B. Kidneys
C. Bone marrow
ity

D. All of the above

Un

4. Sensitization of the mother's immune system to the fetus' RBCs stimulates the production of
the immunoglobulin, _____ , that is transplacentally transferred to the fetus.
nt

A. IgA
de

B. IgM
C. IgG
Stu

D. IgD

5. For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. From the maternal blood
gu

groups listed below, which infant(s) need testing at birth?

A. O negative
Hn

B. O positive
C. AB negative
D. D All of the above
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6. For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Nursing care of the infant
receiving phototherapy includes -
A. Increasing and/or changing feeding frequency, using glycerin suppositories

lin
B. Monitoring temperature every 30 minutes, monitoring blood glucose as needed

On
C. Maintaining bank lights 12 inches above the infant with an intensity of at least 12
D All of the above

b.
7. For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Nursing care during an

Clu
exchange transfusion includes -
A. Verifying parental consent and maintaining all emergency equipment nearby
B. Monitoring vital signs every 10 minutes and blood glucose every 30 minutes during the

on
procedure
C. Constant 1:1 observation and recording blood volume in and out

ati
D. D All of the above

uc
8. For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Considerations when
administering intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) include -

Ed
A. The solution is reconstituted by pharmacy, keep it refrigerated until it is used
B. The solution foams easily and is compatible with all dextrose solutions

rat
C. Monitoring vital signs, glucose, and IV site every 30 minutes during the procedure
D. D All of the above

9. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM®) is - uja

A. Immunoglobulin M
rG

B. Immunoglobulin A
C. Immunoglobulin G
tta

D. None of the above

/U

10. For the following question, please check all answer(s) that apply. Infants with hydrops fetalis
may present with -
ity

A. Pericardial and/or pleural effusions

B. Ascites and/or enlarged liver and spleen
Un

C. Respiratory distress and/or hypotension

D All of the above
nt

1.4 Hematological disease

de

1. Anemia is a common condition. What happens when a person has anemia?

Stu

A. The body produces too much iron

B. The blood does not have enough red blood cells
gu

C. The blood becomes thick

D. Too many white blood cells are produced
Hn
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2. What is the most common cause of anemia?
A. Too little sleep

lin
B. Too much sugar
C. Too little iron in the blood

On
D. Exposure to X-ray radiation

b.
3. Which of these groups is the most likely to have anemia?

Clu
A. Men
B. Women
C. Teenagers

on
D. Older adults

ati
4. How does anemia affect the body?

uc
A. The blood doesn't deliver enough oxygen to the body
B. Blood becomes thin

Ed
C. Tissues retain fluids
D. None of the above

rat
5. A lack of which of these will result in abnormally large red blood cells and a condition called
megaloblastic anemia? uja
A. Oxygen
rG

B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B-12 and folic acid
tta

D. Carbon dioxide
/U

6. Which of these are signs of anemia?

ity

A. Pale gums
B. Dark circles under the eyes
Un

C. Bleeding
D. Numbness in hands and feet
nt

7. How does iron-deficiency anemia affect teenagers?

de

A. More trouble with written expression

Stu

B. Can't concentrate
C. Aggravates hyperactivity
D. A and B
gu
Hn
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8. Iron-deficiency anemia can cause pica, a rare condition in which a person craves eating
nonfood items. Which of these would he or she eat?

lin
A. Ice
B. Soil

On
C. Clay
D. Any of the above

b.
Clu
9. Anemia can contribute to which of these among older adults?
A. More falls

on
B. High blood pressure
C. Diminished eyesight

ati
D. Diabetes atological disease

uc
Hematology

Ed
Q1. Blood synthesis process called are;

rat
a. Erythropoiesis c. leukopoiesis
b. Hematopoiesis uja
d. thrombopoiesis
Q2. Children & adults in formation of blood cell.
rG

a. Yolk sac c. liver

tta

b. Spleen d. bone marrow

/U

Q3. CFU-E full form;

a. Colony forming unit – erythrocyte c. Colony forming unit –

ity

eosinophils
b. Colony formation unit – erythrocyte d. Cell forming unit – erythrocyte
Un

Q4. RBC cell produced ………. Type of cell.

nt

a. Myeloblast c. pro normoblast

de

b. Lymphocytic d. monoblast
Stu

Q5. Erythrocytes cell …..…….. absent of nucleus in the cell.

a. Reticulocytes c. Poly chromatic normoblast

gu

b. Early normoblast d. ortho chromatic normoblast

Hn

Q6. T-cell …………. Maturation site.

a. Thymus c. yellow bone marrow

b. Bone marrow d. a & b
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Q7. RBC life time.

a. 140day c. 130 day

lin
b. 180day d. 120 day

On
Q8. WBC count increase called…….

a. Leukocytosis c. leukopoiesis

b.
b. Leukopenia d. none of them

Clu
Q9. 1 megakaryocyte produced ……… platelets.

on
a. 100 b. 10,000
b. 10 d. 1,000

ati
Q10. Platelets life time.

uc
a. 7 - 14day c. 10-15 day

Ed
b. 5-10day d. 7-12 day
Q11. Platelets are destroyed by …………….cell in spleen.

rat
a. Macrophage cell c. monocyte cell
b. Phagocytic cell uja
d. neutrophilic cell
Q12. Blood color is red present …….
rG

a. Rbc c. plasma
tta

b. Hb d. bilirubin
/U

Q13. Blood sample collection for use needles size.

a. 26 c. 16
ity

b. 22 d. 24
Un

Q14. Lavender tube ………in anticoagulant agent.

a. EDTA c. Sodium citrate

nt

b. Sodium fluoride d. heparin

de

Q15. Blood sample collection …… vein.

Stu

a. Cephalic vein c. median cubital vein

b. Basilic vein d. all of them
gu

Q16. Vein penetrated ……. angle.

Hn

a. 30-45˚ c. 30-50˚
b. 20-35˚ d. 30-40˚
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Q17. Cleaning the sample collection area where located vein .

a. 70% ethanol c. both a & b

lin
b. Isopropanol d. 80% ethanol

On
Q18.blood transport in laboratory.

a. 8hour 2-6˚C c. 37˚hour 25-5˚C

b.
b. 24hour 37˚C d. 2hour 37˚C

Clu
Q19. Separation of serum From centrifuge……RPM…… mint.

on
a. 2500 RPM 5min c. 2000 RPM 15 min
b. 1500 RPM 20 min d. 1500 RPM 10 min

ati
Q20. Separation for serum ……... anticoagulant use.

uc
a. Citrate c. Oxalates

Ed
b. EDTA d. None of them
Q21.Plasma separation for use ……. Color tube.

rat
a. Green c. Both a & c both
b. Gray uja d. Blue
Q22.GOD/POD method use specimen.
rG

a. Serum c. Plasma
tta

b. Blood d. all of them

/U

Q23. EDTA or double oxalate anticoagulant are use for.

a. Hemoglobin c. Erythrocyte
ity

b. Leukocytes d. all of them.

Un

Q24. Hb level in women.

a. 135± 15gm/L c. 130±20gm/L

nt

b. 150±20gm/L d.125±15gm/L
de

Q25. PCV normal ……… value in men.

Stu

a. 0.45±0.08(L/L) c. 0.35±0.05(L/L)
b. 0.41±0.03(L/L) d. 0.45±0.05(L/L)
gu

Q26. Serum vitamin B12 normal value.

Hn

a. 350-710ng/L c. 250-500ng/L
b. 160-760ng/L d.570-800ng/L
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Q27. Bleeding time …. Lvy method 2-7min.

a. 4-8 min c.2-7min

lin
b. 2-10 min d.3-5 min

On
Q28. Blood highest Hb value present in;

a. Men c. women

b.
b. Children d. infant

Clu
Q29.Target cell are found in.

on
a. Thalassemia c. Hb C disease
b. Iron deficiency anemia d. all of them

ati
Q30.Reticulocyte count is decrease called are.

uc
a. Aplastic anemia c. iron deficiency anemia

Ed
b. Sickle cell anemia d. vitamin deficiency anemia
Q31. Determination of Fetal hemoglobin sample at OD. ……

rat
a. 470nm c. 415nm
b. 520nm ujad. 450 nm
Q32.MCF normal rang……
rG

a. 0.60% c. 0.59%
tta

b. 0.37% d. 0. 45%
/U

Q32. SLE in the presence of …………….antibodies.

a. 7s IgG c. 7s IgA
ity

b. 7s lgM d. 7s IgE
Un

Q33. LE smear stain by;

a. Gram stain c. Leishman stain

nt

b. Negative stain d. acid fast stain

de

Q34. HEINZ bodies metabolic defect cause by;

Stu

a. G8PD c. G8CD
b. G6PD d. G6CD
gu

Q35. HEINZ bodies seen in microscope ………..magnification.

Hn

a. 10X c. 40X
b. 100X d. 4x
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Q36. Thick blood smear is stained by ….. for malarial test.

a. Field ‘s stain c. Leishman stain

lin
b. Negative stain d. acid fast stain

On
Q37. Strip test are malaria positive detection show …..

a. Single line c. control line

b.
b. Double line d. both b &c

Clu
Q38. Trypanosomes are found in early stage.

on
a. Lymph node c. blood
b. Serum d. plasma

ati
Q39.Kala Azar disease cause by.

uc
a. Entamoeba histolytica c. Leishmania

Ed
b. Treponema pallidum d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q40. Determination iron & total iron binding capacity in serum reading note on …….OD.

rat
a. 540 c.660
b. 470 ujad. 420
Q41. Hemostasis process of …..
rG

a. Blood synthesis c. blood antigen antibody

tta

reaction
b. Bleeding stop d. none of them
/U

Q42. Which factor role play as Co factor …….

ity

a. VII c. XI
Un

b. VIII d. III
Q43.inactive enzyme or proenzyme called.
nt

a. Isozymes c. zymogen
de

b. Co enzymes d. all of them

Stu

Q44. XII factor.

a. Labile factor c. Stuart factor

gu

b. Prothrombin factor d. Hageman factor

Hn

Q45. Tissue Thromboplastin Factor.

a. IX c. III
b. XI d. V
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Q46. which………. Factor role play in intrinsic pathway correct order.

a. XII,XI,X,IX c. IX,X,XI,XII

lin
b. XII,XI,IX,X d. X,IX,XII,XI

On
Q47. Tissue factor present ……….. pathway.

a. Intrinsic c. a both b

b.
b. Common pathway d. extrinsic pathway

Clu
Q48.HMWK full form.

on
a. High molecular weight kiniogen c. High molecular weight kinin
b. Hyper molecular weight kiniogen d High molecular weight ketone

ati
Q49.which factor help as co factor for Protein C activation ……

uc
a. Calcium c. Protein S

Ed
b. Thrombomodulin d. Von Willebrand factor
Q50. Hemorrhagic disorder due to vascular defect.

rat
a. Cushing syndrome c. hereditary
b. Infection & drug uja d. all of them
Q51. Hemophilia A disease cause by ……. Factor deficiency.
rG

a. XI c. IX
tta

b. V d. VII
/U

Q52. Father of hemophilia patient & mother is not carrier there child are hemophilia chance
cause in son – daughter ……..%.
ity

a. 50-50% c. 100-0%
Un

b. 25-75% d. 0-100%
Q53. Erythrocytes cell on present same antigen called are.
nt

a. Agglutinogen c. Agglutination
de

b. Agglutinin d. none of them

Stu

Q54. Rh system is discovered in……

a. 1960 c.1988
gu

b. 1940 d. 1917
Hn

Q.55. O blood group on present antigen.

a. A c. B
b. O d. none of them
 S
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eB
Q56. Which blood group on not present antibody.

a. AB c. B

lin
b. A d. O

On
Q57. Anti H serum use for ……. Type of blood group system.

a. ABO c. Rh

b.
b. Oh d. all of them

Clu
Q58.Erthroblostosis fetalis disease cause by.

on
a. Rh+ mother c. Rh+ father
b. Rh- father d. Rh-mother

ati
Q59.The apparatus used to measure hemoglobin in blood is known as:

uc
a. Hemocytometer. c. Albuminometer

Ed
b. Haemoglobinometer d. Urinometer
Q60. The reagent used in Hemometer tube is:

rat
a. N/10HCI c. N/15HCI
b. N/20HCl ujad. N/30HCl
Q61.Diluting fluid used for RBC's count:
rG

a. Turk's fluid c. Formol citrate

tta

b. Hayem's fluid d. None of the above.

/U

Q62. The RBC counting on haemoctyometer is done in:

a. Central chamber. c. Both of the above

ity

b. Side chamber. d. None of the above.

Un

Q63.Normal RBC count is:

a. 8-10million c.10-12million
nt

b. 2-3million d.4-2-6million.
de

Q64. Prothrombin time is a screening test for defects of:

Stu

a. Extrinsic and common coaggulațion pathway c. None of the above

b. Intrinsic pathway d. Both of the above.
gu

Q65.The ABO blood system was discovered by:

Hn

a. Karl Correns c. Mayer

b. Karl Land steiner d. Waldayer.
 S
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eB
Q66.A person with one of the following blood groups is considered a universal recipient:

a. AB c. A

lin
b. O d. B

On
Q67.For screening blood the following diseases should be ruled out:

a. Syphilis c. Tuberculosis

b.
b. Hepatitis B d. All of the above.

Clu
Q68.Causes of thrombocytopenia are:

on
a. Polycythemia vera c. Aplastican aemia
b. Dengue Haemorhagic fever d. Both b' and 'e'.

ati
Q69.The method used for blood sugar estimation are:

uc
a. Glucose oxidase method c. Biuret test

Ed
b. Transaminase test d. Ehrlich's method
Q70.Hypoglycemia is found in:

rat
a. Insulinoma c. Hypopitutarism
b. Hypothyroidism uja d. All of the above.
Q71.Normal blood sugar levels are:
rG

a. 60-90mg% c.160-180mg%
tta

b. 30-50mg% d.180-200mg%
/U

Q72.Renal glycosuria is seen when blood sugar levels are:

a. More than 200mg% c. More than 100mg%

ity

b. More than 180 mg% d. Less than100mg%

Un

Q73.Normal blood urea levels are:

a. Between14-40mg% c. More than 40mg%

nt

b. Lessthan14mg% d. None of the above.

de

Q74.Increased creatinine levels are found in:

Stu

a. Renal dysfunction c. Muscular dystrophy

b. Reduced renal blood flow d. Both 'a' and 'b'
gu

Q75.Normal creatinine values are:

Hn

a. 15-30mg-1% c.100-150mg-1%
b. 60-90mg-1% đ.0.6-1.02mg-l%
 S
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eB
Q76.Increased uric acid levels are found in:

a. Gout c. Fanconi syndrome

lin
b. Wilson disease d. Yellow atrophy of liver.

On
Q77.Normal uric acid levels are:

a. 15-30mg/dl c.100-150mg/ dl

b.
b. 3.4-7mg/dl d.60-90mg/dl

Clu
Q78.Elevated bilirubin levels are found in:

on
a. Liver disease c. Obstruction of biliary tract
b. Excessive haemolysis d. All of the above

ati
Q79.Normal blood cholesterol levels are:

uc
a. 15-30mg% c.60-90mg%

Ed
b. 3.4-7mg% d.150-250mg%
Q80.Regarding widal test for typhoid fever:

rat
a. Rising titre of both Hand O agglutinogensis diagnostic.
b.
c.
H antibodies persist for long time. uja
Infection with non-salmonella organisms may give anamenestic response.
rG
d. All of the above.
Q81.Normal blood calcium levels are:
tta

a. 8.4-10.4mg/dl c.2-4mg/dl2
/U

b. 20-30mg/dl d.100-120mg
Q82.The site for bone marrow biopsy are:
ity
Un

a. First piece of body of sternum. c. Lumbur spinous process

b. Posterior iliac crest d. All of the above
nt
de
Stu
gu
Hn