Module 11 i

Exam no 1

1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the

a) SG reaches 1.180
* b) cells begin to gas freely
c) SG and voltage remain constant for specified period

2. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant

a) voltage
* b) current
c) power

3. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with

a) elevators
b) rudder
* c) ailerons

4. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of external ground locks to
the main control surface
a) is unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced by
the wind
* b) would not prevent movement of the control column
c) would also prevent movement of the control column

5. Air above Mach 0.7 is

* a) Compressible
b) incompressible
c) compressible only when above the speed of sound

6. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the

a) pressure to increase, velocity to increase
* b) pressure to decrease, velocity to increase
c) pressure to increase, velocity to decrease

7. An aircraft flying below the tropo-pause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its Mach. No. will
a) increase
* b) decrease
c) not change

8. Spongy brakes are usually a result of

* a) air in the system
b) internal leakage
c) external leakage

9. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the

a) wheel hub
* b) wheel flange
c) brake drum

10. Blow-out panels are fitted to floors of pressurised aircraft to

a) provide access for pressurising the aircraft
b) relieve pressure if the maximum differential is exceeded
* c) provide venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor

1. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the rudder?
* a) To the left
b) To the right
c) To the centre

2. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron trim tab?
* a) Up
b) Down
c) Moving the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation

3. When a Leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?
a) To increase the lift
* b) To re-energise the boundary layer
c) To allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts

4. A purpose of a cut-out in a hydraulic system

a) is to limitless of fluid in the event of pipe fracture
b) is to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions
* c) is to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator
charged with fluid
5. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by
a) the use of a pressure/heat exchanger
* b) compressing the air charge in an accumulator
c) Compressing the fluid in a Reservoir

6. Auto pilot servo brake is energised

* a) to actuate off
b) at the same time as the clutch
c) to actuate on

7. Hand held mikes are not permissible on

* a) public transport aircraft
b) public transport or aerial work
c) private aircraft only

8. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at

a) 10 000ft radio alt.
* b) 2 500ft radio alt.
c) 1 000ft radio alt.

9. A fuel cross-feed valve is usually in

a) the open position
* b) the closed position
c) its last position

10. Full time yaw damper system detects

a) only low frequencies
b) All frequencies.
* c) band pass frequencies.

1. What is the radio altimeter track altitude?

a) 500ft
* b) 2500 ft
c) 10000ft

2. Which category of hand mikes consider essential?

* a) Light aircraft
b) aerial work aircraft
c) Heavy passenger aircraft

3. Emergency frequency is
* a) 121.5
b) 123.5
c) 125.5

4. Sliding coupling in fuel systems are used on

a) high pressure systems
b) Low pressure systems
* c) air or vapour systems

5. Cargo and baggage compartment fire detection and containment come under
a) Class B
b) Class C
* c) Class D

6. When a current transformer is disconnected what should be done?

* a) Terminals shorted
b) Resistor placed across terminals
c) Left open circuit

7. What does the differential sensing coil sense?

* a) Current
b) Volts
c) Power

8. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?

* a) VHF
b) ILS
c) VOR

9. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?

* a) VOR
b) ILS
c) VHF
10 . Where does the GCU gets its power?
* a) PMG
b) Battery
c) RAT

1. Galley loads are wired in

a) series
* b) parallel so load shedding will lower current consumption
c) either series or parallel depending on the design

2. On a fibre glass aerial, what paint should be used?

a) Cellulose only
* b) Not cellulose
c) Polyurethane

3. A current limiter
a) limits current flow to a load
* b) opens a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded
c) can be used as a radio suppressor

4. When a load is shed from a busbar the

a) busbar voltage increases
* b) current consumption from the bar decreases
c) busbar voltage decreases

5. In unparalleled AC generation systems the phase rotation of one generator in relation to the others
* a) is unimportant
b) must be synchronised prior to paralleling
c) Must be BCA

6. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share is protected
by
a) over current and under current protection circuits
* b) over voltage and under voltage protection circuits
c) over excitation and under excitation protection circuits

7. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by

a) equalising circuits which control the speed of the generators
* b) equalising circuits which control the field excitation of the generators
c) automatic load shedding

8. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by

a) brushes positioned on MNA
* b) weak spring tension
c) rotating field diode failure

9. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft

* a) allow to stabilise for one hour
b) take the temperature of the electrolyte
c) carry out a capacity test

10. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna

a) use cellulose paint
b) use a paint
* c) do not use cellulose paint

1. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins

a) AB
b) CD
* c) EF

2. Over voltage protection circuits are activated

a) before the over voltage limit is exceeded
* b) dependent on the magnitude of the over voltage
c) after a fixed time delay

3. With respect to flight spoilers they

a) only operate on the ground
b) only operate in flight
* c) can operate both on the ground and in flight

4. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with

a) oxygen
* b) CO2
c) helium
5. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude(34,000ft), the cabin altitude must
a) stay the same
= b) increase
*c) decrease.

6. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?

a) Air cycle machine
b) Pneumatic pump
* c) Vapour cycle

7. With aircraft lights -which of the following is true?

a) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light Red
b) Starboard light red, port light green, tail light White
* c) Starboard light green, port light red, tail light white

8. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-

a) Aircraft on the ground with one engine running
* b) Aircraft on the ground with parking brake set/on
c) Aircraft in the air with both engines running

9. With respect Differential Aileron Control, which of the following is true?

a) The up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron
b) The up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle
* c) The down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron

10. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?

a) Two
*b) Three
c) Four.

1. A diode connected across a coil will

a) prevent back EMF and allow faster switching
* b) suppress arching when relay is opening and closing
c) prevent the coil being fitted the wrong way

2. Which fault does not trip the GCR?

a) Under frequency and under volts
b) Over frequency and over volts
* c) Over frequency and under frequency

3. Differential protection in a generating system

a) detects voltage difference between source and load
* b) detects current difference between source and load
c) uses the volts coil to trip the GCR

4. Open phase sensing on a current transformer

a) is detected using all phases
b) is detected using any phase
*) is detected on generator neutral circuit

5. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then

* a) the aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base
b) the aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired
c) the aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only

6. A white light must be

a) of five candela showing from starboard side through an angle of 110 degrees in the horizontal plain
b) of at least three candela showing through an angle of 110 degrees from dead astern in the horizontal
plain
* c) of at least three candela showing through 70 degrees from dead astern to each side in the horizontal
plain

7. If battery is switched off in flight the

* a) battery is disconnected from bus
b) generator voltage falls to zero
c) captain's instruments will be powered from the standby bus

8. To flash a generator field

* a) generator must be stationary
b) rotate but not on line
c) on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage

9. A hydraulic motor generators voltage and current is controlled by

*a) the swash plate
b) the constant speed drive
c) the voltage regulator
10. The ground interlock pins are numbered
a) A and B
b) C and N
* c) E and F

1. A nose down change of trim (tuck under) occurs due to shock induced on
a) tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
b) tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
* c) root stall on a delta wing aircraft

2. Zone 320 under the ATA system is

* a) vertical stabiliser
b) central fuselage
c) horizontal stabiliser

3. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
a) O.OO5 ohms
b) 1/50 ohms
* c) 50 milliohms

4. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pilot static leak check?
* a) Altimeter
b) Air speed indicator
c) vertical speed indicator

5. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
a) only when the rudder is moved
= b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement
c) only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw

6. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit
would be
* a) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
b) moved up causing the left aileron to move up
c) moved down causing the left aileron to move down

7. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is

a) a roller bearing
b) a plain bearing
* c) a ball bearing

8. The real time on a CMC is when

* a) existing faults page is selected on the CDU(control display unit)
b) ground test page is selected on the CDU
c) fault history page is selected on the CDU

9. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
a) the cabin pressure to decrease
* b) the cabin pressure to increase
c) it will not effect on cabin pressure

10. A spill valve opens

a) to control the air from the cabin to outside
* b) to control the flow to the cabin
c) to prevent an excessive pressure difference
1. A nose down change of trim (tuck under) occurs due to shock induced on
a) tip stall on a straight wing aircraft
b) tip stall on a delta wing aircraft
* c) root stall on a delta wing aircraft

2. Zone 320 under the ATA system is

* a) vertical stabiliser
b) central fuselage
c) horizontal stabiliser

3. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and earth is
a) O.OO5 ohms
b) 1/50 ohms
* c) 50 milliohms

4. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure, when carrying out a
pilot static leak check?
* a) Altimeter
b) Air speed indicator
c) vertical speed indicator
5. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a side-load
* a) only when the rudder is moved
= b) if a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement
c) only if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw

6. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron trim tab in the cockpit
would be
* a) moved up causing the left aileron to move down
b) moved up causing the left aileron to move up
c) moved down causing the left aileron to move down

7. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is

a) a roller bearing
b) a plain bearing
* c) a ball bearing

8. The real time on a CMC is when

* a) existing faults page is selected on the CDU
b) ground test page is selected on the CDU
c) fault history page is selected on the CDU

9. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will cause
a) the cabin pressure to decrease
* b) the cabin pressure to increase
c) it will not effect on cabin pressure

10. A spill valve opens

* a) to control the air from the cabin to outside
b) to control the flow to the cabin
c) to prevent an excessive pressure difference

1. An aircraft aerofoil is exposed to supersonic flow. The boundary layer

* a) is subsonic
b) increases in depth
c) is supersonic

2. A brake debooster valve is provided for

a) decreasing the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes
* b) applying brake pressure slowly and releasing the brakes quickly
c) increasing the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly

3. Asymmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of 0°. A shock wave will
form
a) on the upper surface only and moving aft
*b) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber
= c) on the upper and lower surface and will move aft

4. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in
a) volatile memory
* b) non-volatile memory
c) erased only after end of sector

5. The runway heading is

a) QDH
b) QDR
* c) QFU

6. A spar web will take load in

* a) shear
b) tension
c) bending

7. What kind of seal are used on firewall bulkheads?

a) soft rubber
* b) fire-proof grommets
c) None required

8. A fuel cross-feed valve is powered from

a) AC busbar
b) the battery
* c) DC busbar

9. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated

* a) by the fuel
b) by internal cooling
c) by air
10. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13 000ft by
a) bellows in the outflow valve
= b) altitude sensor
* c) cabin overpressure relief valve

1. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning strike?
* a) Bonded Strip
b) Earthing Strap
c) Special paint

2. ILS marker beacon lights are

a) green, blue, amber
* b) blue, amber, white
c) blue, white, green

3. 111.1 MHz is
* a) an ILS frequency(instrument landing system)
b) a VOR frequency
c) a HF frequency

4. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is

a) energised on
* b) energised off
c) energised at the same time as the clutch

5. A florescent tube contains

a) orange coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
* b) phosphor coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour
c) iodine coating and rare gases.

6. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery

* a) when fully charged
b) at any time
c) only in the battery workshop

7. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates

* a) excessive charging current
b) not enough charging current
c) low electrolyte temperature

8. The aviation distress frequency is

a) 122.5MHz
* b) 121.5MHz
c) 121.5KHZ

9. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to

a) 2000 ft
b) 100ft
* c) 2500 ft

10. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by

* a) Under voltage
b) Under frequency
c) Over current

1. 112.1 MHz is
a) an ILS frequency
* b) a VOR frequency(VHF omnidirectional range)
c) an ADF frequency

2. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?

* a) Low Frequency
b) High Frequency
c) Very High Frequency

3. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat or fixed structure?
a) 24 inches
* b) 26 inches
c) 28 inches

4. In an auto land aircraft fitted with a CMC

a) all faults are recorded in Volatile memory
* b) all faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory
c) only Primary Faults are recorded
5. Adhesive Boding is
a) wetting , gripping
* b) Wetting , Setting
c) spreading, setting

6 Tension is the stress of

a) twisting
* b) elongation and stretch
c) crush or compression

7. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201-300 people?
a) 3 BCF
b) 4 Methyl Bromide
* c) 4 Fire Extinguishers

8. On an aircraft with asymmetrical ailerons what happens to induced drag when banking right?
a) Drag on inside aileron goes up but not as much as the outer
b) Drag on the outer aileron increases
* c) Drag on the outer aileron is less

9. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted
* a) a clearance exists at the secondary stops
b) the secondary stops will just be in contact
c) the secondary stops have been over-ridden

10. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of
* a) pulley misalignment
b) cable misalignment
c) excessive cable tension.

1. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed

* a) with the aileron in the neutral position
b) with the aileron in the down position
c) when the aircraft is in level flight attitude

2. A flying control static friction check

a) can only be carried out during flight
b) will demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
* c) demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls

3. Anoxia is due to
a) release of nitrogen bubbles in the blood
* b) lack of oxygen
c) low air pressure on the body

4. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant

a) inlet and outlet
b) outlet and vary the inlet
* c) inlet and vary the outlet

5. The purpose of the differential capsule in the pressure controller is to control

a) the rate of pressurisation
* b) cabin differential pressure
c) cabin air flow.

6. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is

a) more important in descent
b) equally important in ascent and descent
*c) more important in ascent

7. With a pressurised aircraft at max differential pressure and a cabin pressure increase occurs, the
differential capsule in the pressure controller will
a) have a constant mass flow
* b) let all pressurising air to be spilled overboard
c) let pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure

8. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum

* a) a warning light comes on in the cockpit
b) compressor delivery is automatically boosted
c) an inward relief valve opens

9. Fuel cross feed valves are lubricated by

* a) fuel
b) special lubricant
c) no lubrication needed
10. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by
* a) 28 v dc bus
b) battery dc
c) 115 vac

1. What is the colour of

a) white
* b) green
c) yellow

2. Which of the following has hyperbolic curve?

a) VOR
b) DME
* c) Loran C

3. What would you use to neutralise NiCad battery spillage?

* a) Boric acid
b) Bicarbonate of soda
c) Distilled water

4. A GPS satellite will come into view

a) 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
* b) 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer
c) 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer

5. Apparent drift is a function of

a) sin x latitude
* b) cos x latitude
c) tan x latitude

6. What is an aileron balance cable for?

* a) To allow the cable to be tensioned
b) To allow aircraft to fly hands off
c) To correct for wing heaviness

7. With an increase in the Mach number, the boundary airflow

a) remains constant
* b) decreases thickness
= c) increases thickness

8. A comfortable cabin altitude rate of climb is

* a) 500ft per minute
b) 300ft per minute
c) 100ft per minute

9. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to

a) aerial work and transport category aircraft
* b) transport category aircraft only
c) private aircraft

10. A white steady light is required

* a) of at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern
b) of at least 10 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern
c) of at least 10 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern

1. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to prevent

* a) overloading the generator drive and shearing of splines
b) voltage spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU over voltage circuits
c) large circulating currents developing

2. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar

* a) in parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced
b) in series so when loads are shed current is reduced
c) in series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced

3. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for

a) negative sequence protection
b) overload protection
* c) differential current protection

4. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares

* a) generator current to busbar current
b) generator voltage to busbar voltage
c) ambient pressure to cabin pressure
5. When a current transformer is disconnected
* a) a shorting link should be fitted
b) a resistor should be installed
c) no further precautions required

6. In an AC Z the frequency and phase rotation

* a) must be synchronised prior to paralleling^
b) must be out of phase prior to paralleling
c) is of no consequence after paralleling

7. Diodes are placed across a contactor to

* a) speed up operation by reducing back EMF
b) prevent contact bounce
c) ensure smooth contactor operation

8. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will

* a) isolate the battery from the main busbar
b) disconnect all power to the main busbar
c) shut down the APU

9. The purpose of the clutch in an auto throttle servo is

a) to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway
b) to limit the range of control movement
* c) to allow the pilot to override

10. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to maintain generator
outputs at the same voltage
a) to prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs
* b) to prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more
generators
c) to prevent CSD shock loading

1. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field

a) uses a current coil in parallel with generator output
= b) uses a voltage coil in series with generator output
* c) uses a voltage coil in parallel with generator output

2. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate

= a) high oil pressure, low oil temp
* b) low oil pressure, high oil temp
c) low oil pressure, under frequency

3. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled by

* a) a hydraulically actuated swash plate
= b) an IDG
c) a CSD

4. An AC generator used with a CSD

a) does not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant
= b) does not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant
* c) needs a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load

5. Power to a GCU is supplied

a) initially by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output
b) generator output only
* c) battery bus or rectified generator output

6. Trip signals for a GCR are

a) under frequency and over current
* b) differential protection and under voltage
c) over frequency and under voltage

7. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications of

* a) high oil temp / low oil pressure
b) High oil temp / low oil quantity
c) low oil quantity / low oil temp

8. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with

* a) Nomex
b) Teflon
= c) PVC

9. A heat gun should be operated at

a) 100 degrees above the specified
= b) 100 degrees below the specified
* c) at the specified temperature
10. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because
a) it will damage the drive shaft
b) it will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators
* c) it will trip the GCR

1. Over voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU depends on
a) closing of fuel and hydraulic valves
* b) amplitude of voltage
c) time delay circuit

2. Speed of HMG is controlled by a

* a) swash Plate
b) CSD unit
c) ID unit

3. Track mode of RA is operational

a) from 1.0 to 100 feet
* b) from 0 to 2500 feet
c) above 10000 feet

4. Permanent Magnet should have

a) low retentivity, high coercivity
* b) high retentivity, low coercivity
c) low retentivity, low coercivity

5. How many floor path light can you fly with unserviceable?
a) 15%
b) 20%
* c) 25%

6. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?

a) 3
* b) 2
c) 1

7. Wavelength of X band radar is

* a) 3 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 10 m

8. Precipitation static is caused by

a) HF radiation
b) lightning strikes
* c) skin to air particle collisions

9. HF aerials have weak points designed at

a) front end
* b) back end
c) both ends

10. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?

a) By a motor load test
b) Motor test and go-no go gap measurement
* c) Screwdriver torque test

1. What is reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?

= a) 1000MHz
b) 1030MHz
* c) 1090MHz

2. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed

* a) Annually
b) Bi-annually
c) Every 5 years

3. CAT 2 RVR limit is

a) 10,000ft
* b) 1200ft
c) 1000ft

4. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be

* a) 3 inches
b) 4 inches
c) 5 inches
5. Dissimilar Metal Fusion Bonding is best for
a) high strength and high stiffness
b) high strength and toughness
* c) high strength and ductility

6. A Fuselage Station is a
* a) longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage
b) lateral point on aircraft fuse
c) lateral point on aircraft wing

7. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use

a) solvent etch
b) alkaline etch
* c) acid etch

8. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?

a) The hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery
* b) The batter charger will switch to trickle charge mode
c) The power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted

9. The purpose of a slot in awing is to

* a) act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer
b) speed up the airflow and increase lift
c) provide housing for the slat

10. The purpose of primer is to

* a) help bonding of the topcoat
b) provide shiny surface for the topcoat
c) provide flexible surface for the top coat

1. Large flap deployment

a) causes increased span wise flow towards tips on wing upper surface
* b) causes increased span wise flow towards tips on wing lower surface
c) has no effect on span wise flow

2. At speeds greater than mach 1 airflow in the boundary layer is

* a) subsonic
b) supersonic
c) stationary

3. A mach meter works

a) above 10000ft
* b) always
c) always except on the ground

4. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully nmç… range of movement of the elevator is restricted
* a) for "up" travel movement
b) for "down" travel movement
c) would make no difference to the movement

5. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in situ because they have

* a) larger coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
b) smaller coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure
c) slight shrinkage due to age

6. Engine wing fire bottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to

a) 1500psi
b) 1250psi
* c) 600psi

7. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will

a) increase
* b) decrease
c) remain the same

8. Radio marker info is displayed on

* a) HIS(horiz.situation indic.)
= b) ADI(altid.director ind.)
c) EICAS(engine ind.and crew alerting system)

9. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to

a) move probe up
* b) move probe down
c) move probe laterally
10. When does auto trim operates at a lower speed?
a) When flaps down
b) When gears down
* c) When flaps up.

1. A water separator is located

* a) downstream of turbine
b) downstream of heat exchanger
c) upstream of the turbine

2. A cargo bay must have signs stating

a) no hazardous cargo
b) max dimensions
* c) max loadings

3. Where is alpha angle used?

a) Accelerometer
b) IPS
* c) Angle of attack

4. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is a

a) class a
* b) class b
c) class d

5. Spoiler / speed brakes deploy to

a) 15 deg
* b) 30 deg
= c) 60 deg.

6. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have

* a) air spaces interconnected
b) separate venting for each tank
c) no airspace

7. As fuel level increases, system capacitance

a) decreases
* b) increases
c) no change

8. When refuelling
a) the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full
b) it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank
* c) it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank

9. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?

* a) Tip stalls first
b) Root stalls first
c) Both stall together

10. Composite material is bonded by

a) copper wire
* b) special paint
c) aluminium wire

1. Cargo nets are manufactured from

* a) Hessian
b) polypropylene
c) nylon

2. With autopilot engaged which control surface is inhibited?

a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
* c) THS(trimable horizontal stabilizer)

3. When flaps are lowered the automatic trim system will

a) increase the angle of incidence of the THS
* b) decrease the angle of incidence of the THS
c) angle of incidence remains the same

4. During flight an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a tendency to fly
a) left wing low
* b) right wing low
c) nose up
5. In autopilot control column
a) does not move
b) moves in pitch
* c) moves in pitch and roll.

6. Where is the spin up/rundown brake?

a) Inner gimbal
* b) Outer gimbal
c) Rotating vane

7. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would

a) carry out a check swing after fitment
*. b) fit the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed
flux valve was removed from
c) align the Aircraft onto it's Wquotient so that no error is induced

8. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?
a) QFE
b) QNH
* c) 1013.25

9. Zone D Cargo compartment windows

a) are made from fire retardant Perspex
b) must have blinds pulled down
* c) must be blanked off

10. A hyperbolic system is

a) ILS
b) VOR
* c) LORAN C

1. Afire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is

* a) class A
b) class B
c) class E

2. When is 'auto throttle' disengaged?

= a) On selection of thrust reverse
b) After thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TOGA can be selected in case of emergency
* c) On landing

3. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it?
a) In the cockpit on the flight engineers panel
b) OntheGCU
* c) By means of a remote trimmer

4. Tubeless tyres are stored

a) horizontally maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top
* b) vertically
c) at 15 to 20 P.S.I.

5. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is

* a) by angle of swash plate
b) by IDG
c) by CSU.

6. Aircraft with autopilot and auto trim, a pitch command input will cause
* a) column to move and trim system to move
b) column to move and trim system not to move
c) column will not move and trim system will move

7. ATA 100 is
a) upper fuse
* b) lower fuse
c) Left hand wing

8. On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is

a) top of wheels closer together
* b) bottom of wheels closer together
c) front of wheels closer together

9. In regard to aircraft transponder, what is pulse frequency?

a) Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second
b) Number of pulses per signal
* c) Amount of times reply signal is sent per second
10. Weight of extinguisher is stamped
a) on base of body
* b) on head fitting
c) on bracket

1. In a CMC (central mentenance computer) system where would you find a 'real time' fault?
a) In Test
* b) In Fault
c) In Fault History

2. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by

a) cooling fan on timer switch
* b) thermal protection
c) water cooling

3. In a capacitive fire detection system, if

*a) there is a break the system will work but not test satisfactory
b) there is a short to earth the system will work but not test satisfactory
c) there is a break the system will not work

4. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of

a) air
* b) CO2
c) Nitrogen

5. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment

a) it is applied wet and flushed out
b) it is applied dry and left
* c) it is added to the fuel and burnt

6. Microbial growth is
* a) brown black slime
b) red dots.
c) green sludge

7. Vibration monitoring signals are sent

a) direct to the gauge
b) via a 1/2 wave rectifier to the gauge
* c) via a signal conditioner to the gauge

8. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from

* a) ambient and minus
b) zero and minus
c) zero and positive

9. Solid burning oxygen units have a burn time of

* a) 15 min
b) 30 min
c) 45 min

10. A direct reading bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet, this is to
a) prevent FOD ingestion
* b) dampen sudden pressure changes
c) allow for calibration

1. Windshield heating provides

* a) impact resistance enhancement
b) increases strength to resist cabin pressure
c) thermal expansion for a tighter fit

2. CAT 2 RVR limit is

a) 800m
* b) 400m
c) 200m

3. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps

a) the whole system
* b) just the moisture trap
c) the system between compressor and regulator valve

4. The pneumatic system pump is

a) rotor vane
* b) piston
c) centrifugal
5. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will
* a) wear brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced
b) be ok, and provide better grip
c) produce a loss of fluid

6. At what press and temp is anti ice fluid applied?

* a) 70 deg F at 100psi
b) 7 deg F at 100psi
c) 70 deg F at 10psi

7. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by

*a) stringers
b) frames
c) bulkheads

8. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by

a) spar cap
* b) main spar
c) skin

9. The dilutor demand regulator functions

* a) when the user breathes in
b) all the time
c) only when the supply valve is opened by the user

10. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will

* a) allow continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply
b) dampen pressure inputs
c) maintain a high pressure to all systems

1. In a pneumatic system the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to

a) essential equipment
* b) non-essential equipment
c) all equipment

2. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is

* a) 500ft per min
b) 300 ft per min
c) 100 ft per min

3. The hot junction of thermocouple is

a) in the instrument
b) in the combustion chamber
* c) aft of combustion chamber

4. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will

a) lower
* b) rise
c) not be affected

5. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,

* a) check all Pitot and static lines are fitted
b) turn on all instruments
c) set altimeter to QNH.

6. The electrical connector to a remote aircraft component must be

* a) 0.5 in wide
b) 0.25 in wide and 22 AWG
c) 22 AWG

7. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use

a) a glass plate
b) litmus paper
* c) a hygrometer using the dew point method

8. Most large transport aircraft skins are

* a) 2024
b) 7075
c) 5056

9. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?

a) In the pressure line
b) In the suction line
* c) In the case drain.
10. How much oxygen is in a tyre?
* a) 5% by volume
b) 15% by volume
c) 5% by pressure

1. A tyre specification 32 x10.75-14.What does the 10.75 refer to?

a) Bead diameter
* b) Section Width
c) Overall diameter

2. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?

a) Increase in pressure
* b) Increase in temperature
c) Fluid loss

3. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?

a) Increase viscosity
* b) Increase acidity
c) Increase alkalinity

4. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is depressurised?
* a) The leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed
b) Leaking air/oil seals
c) Separator plate stuck open

5. When does auto trim operates at lower speed?

a) When flaps down
b) When gear down.
* c) When flaps up

6. What force is an I-Beam subjected to?

* a) Bending
b) Tension
c) Shear

7. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?

a) Energised Open
* b) Energised Closed for fail-safe
c) Energised both open and closed depending on cockpit selection

8. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?

a) Via tray
b) Vent Reservoir to atmosphere
* c) By pressurising

9. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged

a) the electrolyte level stays the same
* b) the electrolyte level is higher level than normal
c) the electrolyte level is lower than normal

10. How many programs can a FMC store?

a) One current
* b) Two, One active and one standby
c) Two, both active

1. EPR and speed for auto throttle is activated at

a) cruise
* b) take off
c) approach

2. How does an IRS calculate velocity?

* a) Integration of accelerometers
b) Double integration of accelerometers
C) Differentiation of laser gyro

3. What is the arc of a landing light is

* a) 11 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 20 degrees

4. In an autopilot what controls pitch mode?

* a) Glide slope
b) VOR
c) Localizer
5. Glide slope controls autopilot in
* a) Pitch
b) Yaw
c) Roll

6. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere
at
* a) low current levels
b) high voltage levels
c) all voltage levels

7. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by

* a) a GCU
= b) a BPCU
c) an IPS

8. When a rad. alt. reaches 2500 ft what happens to the display?

* a) rad. alt. out of view
b) rad. alt. flag in view
c) error warning in view

9. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by:

a) Bonding strips
b) Special conductive grease
* c) Conductive paint.

10. An aspect ratio of 8 would mean

* a) span 64, mean chord 8
b) mean chord 64, span 8
c) span squared 64, chord 8.

1. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in critical bolted joints?
a) PLI washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints
b) PLI washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication
* c) PLI washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once

2. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of

* a) frame stations, water lines and buttock lines
b) frame stations, vertical lines and lateral lines
c) longitudinal, vertical and lateral lines

3. Windscreen delamination is
a) windscreen peeling away from the airframe
b) bubbling of the glass due to overheat
* c) separation of the glass from the vinyl interlayer

4. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?

* a) 50'°F to 70°F
b) 30'c to 50°C
c) 50°C to 70°C

5. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty aircraft acrylic panels?
* a) 104'F
b) 40'F
c) 125'F

6. Pitot tubes are heated

* a) electrically
b) by compressed bleed air
c) by kinetic heating

7. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems

a) provide additional fluid if leaks occur
b) are only ever used in an emergency
* c) store fluid under pressure

8. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid would be made of

* a) Butyl rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon
b) natural rubber
c) synthetic rubber

9. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in

* a) acidity
b) alkalinity
c) viscosity
10. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is
* a) aerodynamic shape is not disturbed
b) more efficient
c) less of a fire hazard.

1. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon

a) type of fluid most readily available
b) the type of seal material
* c) heat generated in operation of the system

2. A restrictor valve
* a) may be used to slow down undercarriage extension
b) restrict the extent of travel of the undercarriage
c) speed up the flow in one direction

3. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to

= a) damp the rebound
* b) absorb the landing shock
c) ensure the separator does not bottom

4. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to

a) separate the oil from the air
b) restrict the compression of the air
* c) permit free flow of during compression and restriction of oil during compression

5. Oxygen cylinder test dates

a) are painted in white on the cylinder
* b) may be stamped on the neck of the cylinder
c) are variable depending on discharge

6. Fluorescent tubes are made up of

* a) phosphates, rare gases and mercury
b) oxides, rare gases and mercury
c) ionides, rare gases and mercury

7. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms resistance in its
secondary. What is the current drawn?
a) 3A
* b) 1.2A
c) 0.3A

8. What is B-RNAV?
a) Ability to store 6 waypoints
b) Indicates true airspeed
* c) Indicates bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint

9. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based transmitters
a) DME,ILS,ADF
* b) VOR, ILS
c) RA,ADF,ILS

10. After engine start using a NiCad battery, the pilot observes on the battery charger indicator, an initial
high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current
a) there is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines
b) the battery is faulty
* c) no cause for concern

1. Topping up a NiCad battery in situ

* a) is not allowed
b) is only allowed in the shop
c) is permitted

2. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?

a) Frames
* b) Stringers
c) Bulkheads

3. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is

a) 11 degrees
b) 110 degrees
* c) 140 degrees

4. What is the wavelength of C band radar?

a) 3 cm
b) 4m
* c) 7 cm
5. O2 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable cause?
a) Supernumarator regular
b) Temperature Compensator
* c) Breathing Regulator

6. Made up wheels should be stored

* a) vertical at 20/30 PSI charge
b) horizontal no more than 4 high
c) vertical at working pressure

7. High pressure pneumatic source is a

* a) reciprocating pump
b) centrifugal Compressor
c) butterfly pump

8. High pressure pneumatic pump is a

a) spur gear
b) butterfly pump
* c) reciprocating pump

9. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach

a) the nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward
* b) the nose pitches down because the CP moves rear
c) the aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave

10. A cantilever wing is

a) top wing of biplane
* b) normal airliner wing
c) sweep back wing.

1. A horn balance on a control will

*a) increase degree of movement at high speed
b) decrease degree of movement at low speed
c) decrease degree of movement at high speed

2. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is

a) above ambient pressure
*b) below ambient pressure
c) above zero pressure

3. In normal flight if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the elevator will
a) move up
* b) move down
c) remain in line with the elevator

4. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the right wing will
* a) increase the angle of attack of the right hand wing
b) decrease the angle of attack of the right hand wing
c) keep the angle of attack of the right wing constant

5. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward, the elevon will
a) remain stationary
b) both move up
* c) both move down

6. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a wing?
a) increase the angle of attack
* b) decrease the angle of attack
c) no effect on angle of attack

7. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are
a) installed on the wing leading edge at the wing tip
* b) installed on the wing leading edge at the wing root
c) installed at the wing trailing edge at the wing root

8. On a standard day at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?
* a) sea level
b) 10,000ft
c) 20,000 ft

9. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an airfoil?
* a) using a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back
b) increasing the aspect ratio of the wings
c) decreasing the fineness ratio of the wings
10. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region the centre of pressure tends to
a) move forward
* b) move rearward
c) turn into a shockwave

1. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?

a) Spar
* b) Stringer
c) Longeron

2. Damage tolerant design

* a) allows for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled maintenance
b) allows for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure
c) is applied only to secondary structure

3. What is primary radar?

a) Land based
* b) Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
c) Radar that gives height and position

4. Lead acid after numerous checks one cell has low reading.
a) it is defective
* b) it must be replaced
c) it needs toping up.

5. What is ILS frequency?

a) 50MHz
= b) 75 MHz
* c) 100 MHz

6. TCAS is selected
a) automatically
* b) by a switch on by pilot on selector panel
c) not available in cruise.

7. FMC secondary is selected

= a) on the ground by the pilot
b) by calendar date monthly
*c) in the air by the pilot

8. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time duration would the battery
be expected to power essential equipment?
a) forever
= b) 30 minutes
* c) 60 minutes

9. An external power plug has two short pins, these are used for
* a) the interlock circuit
b) ground handling bus
c) a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket

10. What are the primary colours for use in CRT display?
a) Yellow, Cyan, Magenta
b) Red, Blue, Yellow
* c) Red, Blue, Green.

1. Wing navigation lights must be visible from which angle?

* a) 110 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 125 degrees

2. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is

* a) to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
b) to monitor total current load
c) to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised

3. The manual VOR input is for

a) RMI
* b) course deviation bar
c) glide slope

4. In an aircraft where the autopilot is controlling a turn

a) 1 aileron is up, 1 aileron down for the duration of the turn
b) both ailerons down for the duration of the turn
* c) 1 aileron up, 1 aileron down to set the bank angle and then ailerons back to neutral
1. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?
* a) By doorstops
b) By the pressure seal
c) Through the latching mechanism

2. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between them. Under normal flight
conditions which panel(s) take the differential pressure loads?`
a) Both
b) Inner
* c) Outer

3. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?

= a) By the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle
b) By the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
c) By both front and back legs

4. On a monospar wing, what gives the wing it's contour?

a) The position of the spars
b) Milled stringers
* c) Ribs

5. A normal hydraulic system will

* a) show pressure and source of Hydraulics
b) show fluid temperature and quantity
c) illuminate a light in the cockpit when the system is ready

6. Afire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when
* a) the system and the extinguishing system are the same
b) the system is the same but the extinguishant is different
c) the system is different but the extinguishant is the same

7. On touch down of Aircraft

a) the cabin pressure will be Zero
b) the outflow valve will be shut
* c) the outflow valve will be fully open

8. A galley trolley will be designed to

= a) not exceed the floor loading limits
b) not exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour
c) does not matter as the trolleys move

9. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the

a) battery bus
* b) battery bus and ground services bus
c) ground services bus

1. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is

*a) soft rubber
b) aluminium
c) PTFE

2. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed
a) 20 feet per second
b) 40 feet per second
*c) 120 feet per second

3. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with
*a) symmetrical flight control trim
b) integrated fuel monitoring system
c) automatic trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements

4. After MLG down and securely locked a red light is illuminated in the flight deck. The possible causes are

a) shorted sensor
*b) out of adjustment sensor
c) wiring problem

5. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and
a) slots
*b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps
6. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with
*a) increased sensitivity for increased speed
b) decreases sensitivity for decreased speed
c) decreases sensitivity for increased speed

7. To confirm the state of charge of a nicad battery

a) subject the battery to load and check the voltage
*b) measure the discharge time
c) subject the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell

8. Circulating currents are associated with

*a) AC generators in parallel
b) DC generators in parallel
c) AC and DC generators in parallel

9. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between the
control surface and the balance tabs
a) is unnecessary since the system is irreversible
*b) would prevent the movement of the control column
c) would not prevent the movement of the control column

10. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and
a) decrease temperature and increase density
b) increase temperature and decrease density
*c) increase temperature and increase density

1. Wing navigation lights must be visible from which angle?

a) 110 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 125 degrees

2. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is

a) to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
b) to monitor total current load
c) to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised

3. The manual VOR input is for

a) RMI
b) course deviation bar
c) glideslope

4. In an aircraft where the autopilot is controlling a turn

a) 1 aileron is up, 1 aileron down for the duration of the turn
b) both ailerons down for the duration of the turn
c) 1 aileron up, 1 aileron down to set the bank angle and then ailerons back to neutral

5. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of
a) 400
b) 600
c) 800

6. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?

a) Wings
b) Pressure cabin
c) Control surfaces

7. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?

a) Longerons
b) Stringers
c) Skin

8. Which anti corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?

a) Cadmium plating
b) Zinc plating
c) Nickel plating

9. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?

a) Aluminium alloys
b) Magnesium alloys
c) Ferrous alloys
10. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft what method of measurement is normally
used?
a) Steel tape and spring balance
b) Longitudinal alignment method
c) Lateral alignment method

1. Shear stress is described as

a) compressing forces
b) pulling forces
*c) slip away under the action of forces

2. The ground cable must be

a) copper stranded 0.5 mm cross sectional area
*b) single strand copper wire 0.5 mm cross sectional area
c) single strand 18 AWG

3. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?

a) White
b) Blue
*c) Amber

4. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is

*a) independent on each side with different power sources
b) independent on each side but with the same power source
c) one system for both sides but with the same power source

5. Where on the aircraft FS245, RWS45?

a) 245" from the nose of the aircraft and 45" from the centreline of the right wing
b) 245" from the nose of the aircraft and 45" from the tip of the right wing
*c) 245" from the datum line of the aircraft and 45" from the centreline of the right wing

6. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM system, and a quick
release disconnect connection is disturbed
a) a full test of the system should be carried out
*b) a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so
c) the allowances for the system should be halved

7. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be
*a) +/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error
b) +/- 500 feet for the system overall
c) +/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors

8. A from GPS IS?

*a) space, control, user
b) satellites, processing unit, display unit
c) receiver, processing unit, interactive console

9. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it
*a) must be connected to the left side
b) must be connected to the right side
c) can be connected to either side

10. These markings are found on a tyre - 32 x 10,45 - R14. What does the number 32 mean?
a) Inner diameter
*b) Outer diameter
c) width

1. With reference to differential aileron control

*a) drag increases on the inner wing
b) drag decreases on the outer wing
c) drag increases on the outer wing

2. HSI provides information on

a) VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
*b) VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
c) VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude

3. Laser gyros are

*a) aligned to the aircraft structure
b) aligned to the magnetic north
c) aligned to the true north

4. Laser gyros
a) have rotational parts
*b) do not have rotational parts
c) have moveable parts

5. The sensing element of the flux valve

a) aligns itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised
b) aligns itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns
*c) remains in the same position attached to the aircraft structure

6. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres

*a) the 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended
b) the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit
c) the 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel

7. Paint remover substances

*a) are damaging to some aircraft parts
b) are not damaging for aircraft parts
c) should only be used once

8. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?

*a) Diverter strips
b) Special paint
c) Special grease on the hinges

9. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called

a) minimum equipment
b) controlled equipment
*c) uncontrolled equipment

10. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating

a) location, position, flight number
b) maximum weight, position, flight number
*c) Must be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.

1. When inspecting Lavatory installations

a) "No Smoking" sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only
*b) the ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder
c) the ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material

2. Lavatories must have in the disposal container

a) water/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
*b) Freon extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged
c) Freon extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged

3. Fire detection loop must be capable of

a) detecting fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the
condition is no longer present
*b) using master warning visual and aural signals
c) using master warning visual signals only

4. Paralleling is used for

*a) AC and DC electrical generators
b) AC electrical generators only
c) DC electrical generators only

5. When testing emergency slide bottles

*a) all three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body
b) one pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time
c) any pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground
6. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
*b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21

7. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
*b)in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

8. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by
a) transfer of fuel from one wing tank to another
*b) symmetrical application of aileron
c) operation of elevator

9. A green / grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents

*a) breather points
b) the light part of the tyre
c) military reference

10. In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by

a) bolts
*b) a lock ring
c) a retainer plate

1. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by

*a) press type rivets
b) contact adhesive
c) bolts

2. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are

a) for overpressure protection
*b) for over temperature protection
c) to deflate the tyre before removal

3. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is

*a) to provide strength
b) to provide a wear indication
c) to indicate the position for tyre levers

4. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with

*a) pressure and quantity gauge
b)oxygen purity gauge
c) temperature gauge

5. To remove a rivet
a) chisel off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch
*b) Drill the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove
the shank with a metal punch
c) Drill the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove
the shank with a metal punch

6. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for
*a) expansion of the acrylic due to heat
b) expansion of the metal due to heat
c) galvanic corrosion of the metal

7. Most aircraft skins are made of

*a) 2024
b) 7075
c) 2017

8. Dutch role is movement in

*a) yaw and roll
b) pitch and roll
c) yaw and pitch

9. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out by

a) tanks completely empty
b)tanks completely full
*c) tanks empty with unusable fuel amount

10. A radio coupled approach is

*a) localiser first, followed by glideslope
b) glideslope first, followed by localiser
c) in any order

1. Aileron signal is fed to rudder channel

*a) for turn coordination
b) for yaw damping compensation
c) for turn command back-up

2. Yaw damping rate changes with

*a) airspeed
b) altitude
c) flap position

3. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at
*a) engine inlet
b) tank outlet
c) tank shut-off valve point

4. In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place

*a) below the fungal colonies
b) the bottom 2 inches of the tank
c) the top of the tank

5. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error - 2 degrees. The coefficient of C is
*a) 0 degrees
b) +2 degrees
c) -2 degrees

6. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is

*a) caused by a leaky seal
b) normal
c) due to excessive charging pressure

7. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens

a) when 100% selected
*b) when breathing
c) all the time

8. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with

*a) a demand regulator
b) an over temperature indicator
c) an overpressure indicator

9. American made crew oxygen cylinders are

*a) green in colour with a RH thread
b) green in colour with a LH thread
c) black in colour with a RH thread

10. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS

*a) changes with radio altitude
b) changes with barometric altitude
c) does not change

1. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together, what would the gauge
read?
*a) 0
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale

2. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?

a) Help pilot overcome aerodynamic loads
b) Increase drag on the up going wing
*c) Decrease drag on the up going wing

3. What frequency are VOR and ILS?

*a) VHF
b) UHF
c) HF

4. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an overheat how is the
heater reset?
a) On ground only by engineer
*b) After it cools the pilot resets
c) After cooling below 300 degrees C it auto resets

5. Constant pressure hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system when no services are being
used?
a) Pressure relief valve
*b) ACOV
c) Return line back to pump

6. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain
a) all the system
*b) between the compressor and the PRV
c) just the moisture trap

7. Which connector has a left hand thread?

*a) O2
b) N2
c) Freon

8. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is
a) 1 degrees
b) 3 degrees
*c) 5 degrees

9. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is removed?
a) Remain in last position
b) Go to neutral
*c) Droop

10. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

*a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor

1. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by

a) 4%
*b) 7%
c) 10.321%

2. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
*a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level

3. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means

a) breather points
*b) the light part of the tyre
c) military reference

4. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is

a) 71 degrees F
*b)144 degrees F
c) 144 degrees C

5. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by

*a) constant voltage
b)constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage

6. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA

a) Chapter 24 Section 21
*b)Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21

7. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is

a)in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
*b)in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length

8. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

*a) stationary
b)fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating

9. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

a) transformers and transistors
b)diodes and transformers
*c) zeners and transistors

10. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by

a) voltage coil
b)current coil
*c) voltage and current coil

1. Increasing the real load primarily

*a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
c) increases output voltage and increases frequency

2. Inductive reactive load causes

*a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
c) increase in torque only
3. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b)reactive power from the generator that does work
*c) real power from the generator that does work

4. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by

*a) angle of swash plate
b)IDG
c) restriction valve

5. Differential protection in an AC system protects against

a) a reverse current flowing from the battery
*b)short circuits
c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults

6. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be

*a) stationary
b)rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync

7. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

*a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator

8. In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is

*a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energise the bus tie relay

9. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
*a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative

10. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output
voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases
b) increases and amperage output increases
*c) remain constant and amperage output increases

1. When flushing hydraulic systems

*a) flush with same hydraulic oil
b)flush with any hydraulic oil
c) flush with methylated spirit

2. When replenishing a hydraulic system

*a) use the same/correct hydraulic fluid

b)use any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer
c) use any hydraulic fluid

3. When replacing a flexible pipe

*a) use two spanners to stop pipe from twisting
b)do a bonding check
c) tighten only hand tight

4. How is an aircraft battery rated?

*a) Ampere hours
b)Watts
c) Joules

5. Mass balance weights are used for

*a) counteract flutter on control surfaces
b)balance tabs
c) balance trailing edge of flying control surfaces

6. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. must be
a) all closed
*b)all open
c) removed

7. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out

a) every two years
*b)only when equipment items fail random tests
c) every five years
8. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by
*a) breaking tell tale/tamperproof seal then operated by handle
b)one single operation until fire extinguisher is empty
c) turn upside down and squeeze button/trigger

9. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured

a) green
*b)red
c) white

10. When fitting a tyre the red dot should be positioned

*a) adjacent to the charging valve
b)opposite the charging valve
c) on the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve

1. Composite brake units

a) have less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures
*b)have less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures
c) weigh the same as normal brake units and fade away at high temperatures

2. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by

a) the battery bus

b)DC handling bus
*c) AC handling bus

3. A radio altimeter system can be self tested

a) on the ground only
b)in the air only
*c) both

4. A modern aircraft CMC uses

a) magnetic fault indicator
*b)CRT screen
c) LED isplay

5. Ailerons control the aircraft in the

a) longitudinal axis
*b)lateral axis
c) directional axis

6. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be

*a) turned on and safety wirelocked
b)turned off
c) turned on by crew

7. In a fuel system with interconnected vents

a) the expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity
*b)the expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity
c) an expansion space is not required

8. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by

a) the inner pane only
b)the scratch panel
*c) both panes

9. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is

a) thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than Mach 1
*b)stationary
c) supersonic

10. At speeds above Mach 1 shockwaves will form above and below the wing
a) at the leading edge
b)at the trailing edge
*c) at both the leading edge and the trailing edge

1. A cantilever wing is
a) a swept back wing
b)the upper wing of a biplane
*c) a wing without any external struts or bracing

2. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to

a) disconnect the emergency pressure relief valve
b)set QFE
*c) reset/disable the pressure controller
3. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on
a) all the time
b)when in the air
*c) when selected by the cre

4. Ice formation on wings is due to

a) suspended ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing
b)ice crystals forming layers on contact with the wing
*c) supercooled water changing state on contact with the wing

5. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to

a) lubricate the shank and threads
b)lubricate the collar
*c) simply fit the bolt as they are prelubricated

6. The web of an I beam takes mainly which type of load

*a) shear
b)tension
c) bending

7. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is known as

a) bending
b)shear
*c)strain

8. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:

a) according to SB instructions
b)according to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC
*c) according to AMM and SRM chapter 51

9. PTV type entertainment equipment

a) is not the part of maintenance schedule
b)has no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting
*c) is installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques

10. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control surface assembly
a) is meant to trim CG of control surfaces
b)serves as "servo" system of balance
*c) has same effect of the balance tab

1. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is

a) to increase static strength
*b)to improve on brittle behaviour
c) to enable inclusion of heater film

2. Semi-monocoque construction
*a) offers good damage resistance
b)is used only for the fuselage
c) utilizes the safe-life design concept

3. In typical vapour cycle system, the subcooler

*a) is a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour
b)cools the vapour further to prevent slugging
c) delivers extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground

4. The apparent wander for directional gyros is

*a) compensated by applying a constant torque
b)maximum at the pole
c) dependant on longitude

5. Active load control involves

*a) varying lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft
b)limiting the deflection of control surface with airspeed
c Intervention & monitoring the human pilot)

6. The mid-spar is found in large aircraft to

a) support fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount
*b)assist the main spar with operational loads
c) provide redundant design

7. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?

a) Vent to atmosphere
*b)Tray
c) Pass through a restriction
8. A thermal compensator is used in
a) an hydraulic system
*b)an oxygen system
c) a fuel system

9. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed what happens to
*a) Automatically switches off
b)Stays armed for go around in an emergency
c) Advances throttles

10. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers
a) 5
b) 6
*c) 7

1. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned

a) on right side of control wheel
*b)on side of control wheel furthest from throttles
c) on left side of control wheel

2. Active load control use

a) elevator and stab
b)elevator and aileron
*c) aileron and spoiler

3. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for

a) toppling
*b)drift
c) erection

4. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is

*a) energised to the run position
b)de-energised to start the pump
c) used to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure

5. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a

a)
*b) continuity check
c) function check

6. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight deck
a) goes out immediately
b) goes out after one more cycle
*c) goes out after a set period of time

7. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by

a) an electrical heating element
*b)air from the cabin
c) sealed window

8. ILS and VOR operate in which range

a) UHF
b)HF
*c) VHF

9. An anti-balance tab is used

a) for trimming the aircraft
b)to relieve stick loads
*c) to give more feel to the controls

10. The fin helps to give

a) directional stability about the longitudinal axis
*b)directional stability about the normal axis
c) longitudinal stability about the normal axis

1. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will result in
a) reduced torque and increased speed
b)increased torque and reduced speed
*c) increased torque and speed

2. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is

a) passed into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down
*b)passed into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient
c) passed into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature
3. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to
a) damp the system oscillation
b)protect the servo motor
*c) prevent control surface runaway

4. Random drift of a gyro is caused by

a) error in roll when aircraft is turning
*b)gyro friction and unbalance
c)

5. Structural members are designed to carry

a) side loads
b)end loads
c)

6. Most radio aerials are

*a) bonded
b)not bonded
c) insulated from the fuselage

7. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener also acts as a

a) shear tie
b)jury strut
*c) tear stopper

8. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?

a) Charging connection
b)Shut-off valve
*c) Line valve

9. A restrictor valve can be used

a) to increase the speed of the undercarriage extension
*b)to reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension
c) to increase the speed of undercarriage retraction

10. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars), when do they exert the most amount of
influence?
a) When parallel to each other
b)When 45 degrees apart
*c) When 90 degrees apart

1. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when the aircraft is on ground

*a) thrust reversers are deployed

b)brakes are deployed
c) weight on ground switch is activated

2. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by

a) electric flight control unit
*b)Flight Augmentation Computers
c) Flight Guidance and Management Computer

3. FMC secondary flightplan is selected

a) on the ground by the pilot
b)by calendar date monthly
*c) in the air by the pilot

4. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left open for long periods of
time, the system would
a) lose all pressure
b)lose pneumatic pressure partially
*c) lose pressure from the compressor side only

5.What are the faying surfaces of a repair?

a) Edges of repair metal
*b)Material under repair
c) Middle of repair

6. Why is a joggle joint used?

a) So countersunk rivets do not need to be used
*b)Smooth contour of surface
c) Added strength

7. With engine static EPR gauge reads just above 1.

a) This is OK
b)Transmitter is unserviceable
*c) Gauge requires re-calibration

8. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to

a) prevent nose pitching down
*b)prevent adverse yaw in a turn
c) prevent nose pitching up

9. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when

a) 100% selected
b)less than 500psi in bottle
*c) user breathes in

10. When the fire handle is operated it

a) cuts off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power
*b)cuts off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers
c)operates fire extinguisher only
1.Coefficient A is adjusted
a) 270 degrees
b)360 degrees
*c) on any heading

2. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system

a) both are adjusted on each heading
*b)master adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card
c) master and slave adjusted, correction card for master only

3. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give

a) amber warning
*b)red caption and aural "whoop whoop pull up"
c) red caption and aural "pull up undercarriage, flaps, throttle"

4. DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?

*a) So as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass
b)20 inches
c) 24 inches

5. The components of an ILS are

a) a localizer and a glide slope
*b)a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
c)a localizer and the marker beacons

6. In ILS, the glideslope provides

a) lateral steering
*b)vertical steering
c)

7. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver, the deviation indicator will show
a)
*b)fly right
c) fly left

8. Autopilot will operate after

a) 1000 ft
b)750 ft
*c) 500 ft

9. Which pitot probe provides info to the captains instruments?

*a) Upper
b)Lower
c)Both

10. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?

a)Warning
b)Present status
*c) Cautionary info

1. Which instrument shows Decision Height?

a) HSI
*b)Pitot static probes
c) INS

3. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on position?
a) All lights will illuminate
b)Dome lights will illuminate
*c) Rectangular indicator lights will illuminate
4. What is the maximum rad alt track altitude?
a) 500 ft
b)10000 ft
*c) 2500 ft

5. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses

a) VOR
*b)glideslope
c) ADF

6. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in
*a) take off
b)cruise
c) approach

7. Inertial nav unit uses pin programming for

*a) aircraft type
b)location
c) magnetic orientation

8. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?

a) data plate on FMC
b)BITE
*c) FMC via CDU

9. What are the 2 short prongs for on an AC plug?

*a) Using AC current to pull on interlock circuit
b)Prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection
c) Help plug location / fit

10. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a

a) voltage regulating coil in parallel
b)voltage regulating coil in series
*c) current regulation coil in series

1. A de-icer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to

*a) Prevent electrical static build up
b)Smoother airflow over leading edge
c) More efficient de-icer cycles

2. The weak link on a wire aerial is at

a) the front
b)the middle
*c) the rear

3. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:

*a) Radio altimeter
b)Pressure altimeter
c) Air speed indicator

4. What is the contamination monitor for in a Systron Donner fire detection system?
a) Integrity comparitor
*b)Dirty contacts
c) Volts drop

5. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for

a) extra supply in case of emergency
*b)additional flightcrew
c) changes in altitude
6. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by
a) C of G Movement
*b)continued pitch input
c) pitch of aircraft in cruise

7. Jet engines are usually mounted by

a) welded steel tubing
*b)forged mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure
c) aluminium castings

8. In a cockpit window heater system the autotransformer

*a) steps up output for severe weather conditions
b)supplies AC Power for heating
c) supplies DC power for heating
9. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will
*a) warn when Mcrit is reached
b)warn when Mach 1 has been exceeded
c) warn when coming to limits of upper envelope

10. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with

a) servo pressure
*b)regulators
c) gears

1. When power is switched off the gimbal brake

a) stops outer gimbal
*b)restricts outer gimbal
c) restricts inner gimbal

2. In an air conditoning system heat is added to air by

a) restricting compressor inlet
*b)restricting compressor outlet
c) restricting duct outlets

3. Two compressors driven by separate engines use

*a) NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other
b)PRVs
c) Interconnected to share loads

4. Fuel tanks interconnected must have

a) vents to allow overfueling
b)tank where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet
*c) protection against overfill for tanks and fuel system

5. IRS has mercury switches on

a) inner gimbal
b) outer gimbal
*c) all gimbals

6. ACMS
a) provides ATA tech log reference for all faults
*b)provides source of fault
c) supplies CMC with source of fault

7. After successful ditching, use of life rafts must be

a) displayed clearly on leaflet in pouch in front of seat
b)shown how to be deployed by air stewardesses
*c) clear instructions given with ease of use on raft

8. Secondary bonding is usually with

a) stranded copper 0.25 inch
b)single strand 0.25 inch
*c) 18 AWG

9. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?

*a) To prevent backflow of current in the EMF coil
b)To speed up the operation
c) To allow flow in the event of failure of the relay

10. Eddy currents are

a) caused by resistance of the coil
*b) circulating currents
c) caused by heating effect of the coil

1. Differential aileron control will

a) cause a nose down moment
b)cause a nose up moment
*c) prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input

2. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500 people?
a) 5
*b)6
c) 8

3. Toilets must have a smoke detection

*a) light in the cockpit
b)aural and visual warning in the main cabin
c) connected to a pump to pump the smoke out
4. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be
*a) a leaky selector valve
b)a stuck relief valve
c) the emergency system

5. Escape route lighting must not have more than

a) 10% obscured
b)15% obscured
*c) 20% obscured

6. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done

a) every 2 years
*b)when a sample fails
c) every 5 years

7. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?

a) None
b)10%
*c) 25%

8. The angle of a runway turnoff light is

a) 40o
*b)50o
c) 60o

9. The small pins in the power connector plug are

*a) positive
b)negative
c) neutral
10. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with
*a) 115 V AC
b)28 V AC
c) 28 V DC

1. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?

a) SEC
*b)ELAC and SEC
c) ELAC

2. When an overvolt is present on an ac generator system the tripping circuit

a) trips at a set level
b)trips after a time delay
*c) trips after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude

3. In an AC distribution system the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to

*a) provide interconnection between the generator load busbars
b)supply essential services
c) provide a means of monitoring the load

4. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to

*a) soft reversion
b) hard reversion
c) mechanical reversion

5. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is

*a) across the generator output
b)in series with the field windings
c) in parallel with the field windings

6. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for

*a) differential protection
b)phase sequence monitoring
c) load monitoring

7. Zener diodes are for

a) voltage stabilisation
*b)voltage regulation
c) rectification

8. Generator output indications are

a) KW
b)KW & KVAR
*c) KVA & KW
9. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when
*a) the helicopter takes off
b)the helicopters engines are started
c) when power is applied to the helicopter

10. On an EADI the command bars show

a) required flight path compared with horizon
b)required flight path compared to planned flight path
*c) required flight path compared with aircraft position

1. The airdata computer inputs to

a) mach meter, standby altimeter, ASI
*b)cabin rate sensors, machmeters, ASI, altimeter
c) altimeter, FMC, secondary radar

2. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach the aircraft must fly
a)up
*b)down
c) nowhere - this is normal on an ILS approach

3.Load shedding allows

a) more current to the busbar
*b)less current to the busbar
c) more voltage to the busbar

4. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?

*a) Slightly variable DC
b)Pulse width modulated DC
c) Variable AC

5. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation system, how is power
a) By power fed from static inverter only
b)By power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only
*c) By power fed from a battery supplied static inverter

6. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the
*a) Generator control relay
b)Generator line contactor
c) Generator power pilot relay

7. In what units are static inverters rated?

a) kW
*b) kVA
c) kVAR

8. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?

*a) 150 Hz right of runway centreline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline
b)150 Hz left of runway centreline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline
c) 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path

9. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?

a) 2.5o
*b)10o
c) 6o

10. In an automatic flight control system when may yaw damper be applied?
a) During automatic control only
b)During manual control only
*c) During either manual or automatic control

1. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?
a) 108.00 - 117.95 MHz
b)1025 - 1150 KHz
*c) 190 - 1759 KHz

2. In a generator system, a stability winding is used

a) in series with the field to prevent oscillations
*b)to prevent voltage overshoot
c) to control output current

3. On engine shut down what prevents GCR being tripped?

a) undervolt
*b)underfrequency
c) under current
4. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator system?
*a) Real load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields
b)Real and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
c) Real load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives

5. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?

*a) Each one is switched on individually at passenger panel
b)By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel
c) By using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel

6. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency lighting system during
flight?
a) OFF
*b)Armed
c)ON

7. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for other
aircraft?
a) By using an alternate frequency
b)By modulation of an audio tone
*c) By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal

8. from where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-magnetic indicator
*a) From VOR and ADF systems
b)From VOR only
c) From ADF only

9. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?

a) As a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level (1013.25mb)
As a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the ground directly below
the aircraft.   
*
c) As a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction of
an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer

10. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?

*a) VHF and UHF
b)HF
c) VHF

1. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?
a) To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length
b)To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band
*c) To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance

2. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to a weather
*a) To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna
b)To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display
c) To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground

3. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning System
(GPWS)
*a) Flaps/undercarriage
b)Autothrottle
c) Rudder/ailerons

4. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths magnetic field and where is
it
a) Directional gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft
*b)Flux detectors fitted in the wing tips
c) A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft

5. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How does it
*a) Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or
UP and DOWN
b)It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies
c) It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS

6. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system, when is the charger
switched
a) When there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system
*b)When the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting
c) When the alternators are fully loaded
7. The FMS nav data base is updated
a) after a B or C check has been completed
*b)every 28 days
c) daily

8. An RMI has inputs from VOR and(RADIO MAGNETIC INDICATOR)

a) no other sources
*b)a azimuth gyro
c) a remote compass input

9. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is

a) in series with the generator field
b)in parallel with the generator volts coil
*c) in series with the generator volts coil

10. When a field relay trips the generator off line it can be reset
a) on the ground only
*b)by cycling the generator switch
c) after the fault has been cleared

1. An overvoltage condition trips the generator, the time taken to trip is dependant upon
*a) amplitude of voltage
b)time delay circuit
c) closing fuel and hyd valves etc

2. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation and

a) CBA must equal ABC
b)phase rotation does not matter
*c) CBA must equal CBA

3. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically

a) bus bar voltage rises
b)bus bar current rises
*c) bus bar current decreases

4. In a modern HSI,(horizontal lsituation indicator) the displays are

*a) course and direction
b)course and attitude
c) direction and attitude

5. In an IRS(inertial reference system) system you would expect to find

*a) ring laser gyros
b)three strap down accelerometers
c) an azimuth gyro system

6. In an INS(inertieal navigation system) system the accelerometer is a mass

*a) suspended between two springs in a tube
b)a mass suspended in free air
c) a remotely mounted mass on the airframe

7. In a modern aircraft the ACARS(aircraft comunucationadressing and reporting system) system is used
primarily for
a) reporting defects on the aircraft automatically
*b)communications between the aircraft and base
c) as part of the passenger telephone system

8. What controls output from generator

a) BPCU
*b)GCU
c) ELCU

9. The term "empennage" incorporates

a) elevators, stabiliser, rudder
b)elevators, stabiliser, ailerons
c) rudder, ailerons, spoilers

10. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?

a) Elevators, roll spoilers, tabs
*b)Elevators, ailerons, rudder
c) Roll spoilers, elevators, tabs

1. Flutter can be prevented by

*a) mass balance
b)trim tabs
c) balance panels
2. Vents holes are found on
*a) tubeless tyres
b)tubed tyres
c) spilt wheel tyres

3. Which of the following can be used on the ground?

a) Turbo brake
b)Turbo compressor
*c) Turbo fan
4. Pressure refuelling is carried out at
a) 15 PSI
b)20 PSI
*c) 40 PSI

5. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?

*a) must be filtered
b) must be pressure controlled
c)must be temperature controlled

6. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?

a) Bottles are fired
b)Safety ohmmeter is used to check voltage
*c) A continuity check

7. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from

a) tank to tank
b)left tank to right tank
*c) any tank to any engine

8. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?

a) anti corona device
b)nozzle
c) corona device

9. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of

*a) charge
b)electrolyte level
c) electrolyte temperature

10. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14000ft

*a) masks drop automatically
b)attendant must drop masks
c) passenger must get mask from overhead stowage
1. During normal engine shut down the generator
*a) breaker is tripped only
b)breaker and control relay are both tripped
c) control relay is tripped only

2. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?

a) 150 deg C
*b)200 deg C
c) 250 deg C

3. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient

*a) increases
b)decreases
c) remains the same

4. In a CMC(central mentenance comp.) warning signals are generated by

*a) Warning computer
b)CMC
c) FMC

5. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for

*a) high strength high ductility
b) high strength high toughness
c) low strength high toughness

6. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power
a) servos move to neutral and lock
*b)servos remain stationary and provide damping
c) servos lock at last position

7. A variable angled pump starts at

*a) maximum stroke
 b)minimum stroke
c) half way position

8. At what height does the rising runway appear?

a) 500ft
b)300ft
*c) 200ft

9. An H on the EHSI(electronic horizontal situation indicator) indicates

*a) DME(distance measuring equipament) hold
b)VOR hold
c) ILS approach

10. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?
a) Increases
*b)Decreases
c) Depends on altitude

1. What are the main areas of the autopilot?

a) Error, correction, follow up, demand
b)Error, correction , demand, resolved
*c) Error, correction, follow up, command

2. VHF frequency is
a) 108 - 112 MHz
*b)108 - 136 MHz
c) 108 - 118 Mhz

3. The call system for the captain will have the audio
*a) two tone chime
b)horn
c) hi tone chime

4. Channel 3 on a CVR(cokpit voice recorder) records

a) first officer
b)captain
*c) flightdeck

5. DME works on the frequency of

a) VHF
*b)UHF
c) HF

6. A radial is referenced
*a) from a beacon
b)to a VOR
c) on a compass

7. ADF(automatic director finding) works by using

a) loop aerial
b)sense aerial
*c) both loop and sense aerial

8. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are

a) 20oC to 30oC and humidity below 70%
b)15oC to 25oC and humidity below 75%
c) 15oC to 25oC and humidity above 60%

9. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks should be
a) empty
b)full
*c) some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out

10. The generator warning light will come on when

a) voltage too high
b)voltage above battery voltage
*c) voltage below battery voltaj

1. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs

*a) faster
b)slower
c) same speed
2.
2. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures above
*a) 45 degrees C
b)55 degrees C
c) 65 degrees C
 3. Windshield rain repellent is applied
a) before rain and spread on window surface by wipers
*b)when rain is on windows and spread by wipers
c) when in heavy rain so vision is unobscured

3.
4. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat is applied?
a) Capacitance increase
b)Continuity
*c) Pressure

5. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate

*a) autopilot must be engaged
b)autopilot need not be engaged
c) operation of the trim controls is required

6. Fluid viscosity
a) increases with an increase in temperature
*b)decreases with an increase in temperature
c) decreases with a decrease in temperature

7. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents

a) pump cavitation
*b)reverse flow
c) overpressure

8. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from

a) compressor inlet
b)compressor outlet
*c) reservoir

9. What is apparent drift?

*a) earths rotation
b)errors when aircraft banking
c) gyro pivot friction

10. Integral fuel booster pumps

a) require no cooling
b)require ram air cooling
*c) the fuel does cooling

1. Toilet fire detection can be found in

a) CAAIPs
b)AWN 80
*c) AWN 83

2. The outside casing of a firewire has

a) 28vdc potential above ground
b)115vdc potential above ground
*c) same potential as ground

3. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is for

a) the shimmy damper
b)alignment for nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension
*c) align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction

4. An aircraft airspeed indicator has

a) pitot to the capsule
b)static to the capsule
*c) pitot to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule

5. What is tyre creep related to?

*a) Tyre moving around the wheel
b)Horizontal movement of the tyre
c) Vertical movement of the tyre

6. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a

a) horizontal line
*b) vertical line
c) wing line

7. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are

*a) spar, rib, stringers, skin panels
b)spar, rib, longerons, skin panels
c) spar, rib, bulkheads, skin panels
8. The main undercarriage is attached to
a) front main spar
b)rear main spar
*c)aircraft structure

9. In an auto pilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached?

a) both ailerons are down
b)one is up one is down
*c) the ailerons are faired

10. A flat planer radar dish

a) is used for RF transmissions only
b)is a parabolic dish
*c) is a series of wave guides with slots cut in them

1. Above 2500 ft the rad alt

a) pointer goes to zero to show system is being monitored
*b)pointer is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view
c) continues to indicate but with a warning flag

2. When replacing a current transformer

*a) it can only be fitted one way round
b)it can be fitted any way round
c) voltage/current selection must be made prior to fitting

3. How is the next database on the FMC activated?

*a) Manually, on the ground
b)Automatically by due date
c) Manually in the air

4. The economy coil on a relay

a) makes it cheaper to make
*b)reduces current required to hold closed
c) reduces current required to close

5. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single transverse vertical separation
of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency lighting that fails is
a) 10%
b)15%
*c) 25%

6. What is the function of the generator control relay?

a) Control output voltage
*b)Bring the generator on-line
c) Connect the generator to the busbar

7. How is automatic AoA protection provided?

*a) Autothrottle applying more power
b)Fast/Slow indication
c) Reduce flap deployment

8. What is the output angle of a landing light?

*a) 11 degrees
b)15 degrees
c) 20 degrees

9. What sort of etch solution is used on Aluminium alloys

a) Alkaline Etch
*b)Acid Etch
c) Solvent Etch

10. What are the types of true bonded joints?

a) cemented and specific
*b)mechanical and specific
c) mechanical and cemented

1. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?

a) Cabin safety onboard card
*b)Cabin operations manual
c) JARs

2. What GPWS mode gives a "Whoop Whoop, Pull-up" command

*a) Mode 2
b)Mode 3
c) Mode 6
3. How does a mach meter work?
a) True airspeed / indicated airspeed
b)True airspeed and true speed of sound
*?c) Indicated airspeed / temperature

4. A machmeter works
*a) always
b)always except on the ground
c) above 10000 ft

5. On a standard day at which altitude will the speed of sound be the highest?
*a) Sea Level
b)5,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft

6. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to

*a) prevent control surface runaway
b)dampen oscillations
c) provide autopilot

7. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will

a) increase as the engine speed increases
*b)decrease as the engine speed increases
c) remain constant

8. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
a) earthing
b)static wicks
*c) bonding

9. Why is a joggle joint used?

a) To provide a flush fit
b)To add strength
*c) To provide a smooth contour to surface

10. Air conditioning systems

a) Increase the temperature of air
b)increase and decrease the temperature of air
*c) decrease the temperature of air

1. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?

*a) Green rupturing disc
b)Audible warning
c) Red rupturing disc

2. Slats
*a) keep the boundary layer from separating for longer
b)increase the overall surface area and lift effect of wing
c)act as an air brake

3. 'Aquaplaning' can be reduced by?

*a) anti-skid
b)lowering slats
c) increased flaring

4. An air cycle machine turbine

a) drives compressor to pressurise aircraft
*b)drives compressor to increase temperature
c) drives compressor to decrease temperature

5. On passenger aircraft of 2 or more zones

a) seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits
b)there should be at least one exit per zone
*c) emergency exits are to be clearly signed

6. In a pressurised cabin there is a gauge that shows

*a) cabin differential pressure
b)cabin pressure altitude
c) aircraft altitude

7. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight
a) nose should be raised increasing AoA
b)nose should remain in same pos maintaining same AoA
*c) nose should be lowered reducing AoA
 8. Flight spoilers
*a) can be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn
b)can be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing
c) can be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed
2.

9. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy which direction would your move the elevator trim tab?
*a) Down to move elevator up
b)Up to move elevator up
c) Up to move elevator down

10. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings
a) a leak check is not required
*b) a leak check is always required
c) a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer

1. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than
*a) 18 SWG for a single wire
b)22 SWG x 0.5"
c) 22 SWG x 0.25"

2. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is

*a) borax powder
b)citric acid
c) distilled water

3. In a split bus power distribution system

a) generators are paralleled on connection to the tie bus
*b)each generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation
c) power is split between 115V AC and 28V DC

4. Wing tip vortices are strongest when

a) flying high speed straight and level flight
*b)flying slowly at high angles of attack
c) flying into a headwind
3.
5. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM
*a) will have increased pressure and temperature
b)will have decreased pressure and temperature
c) no change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor

6. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is

a) to ensure that all available fuel can be used
*b)to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological
contamination
c) to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently

4. 7. Pneumatic rain removal systems

*a) use engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen
b)use a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers
c) are not permitted on large transport aircraft

8. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be

a) Mode A
b)Mode C
*c) Mode S

9. GPS
*a) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
b)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
c) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits

10. When both sides are not easily reached which type of fastener would you use?
a) Hi lock bolt
b)Pop rivet
*c) Blind rivet

1. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?

a) Cabin safety onboard card
*b)Cabin operations manual
c) JARs

2. What GPWS mode gives a "Whoop Whoop, Pull-up" command?

 *a) Mode 2
b)Mode 3
c) Mode 6

3. Aerodynamic balance
*a) will cause CP to move forward of hinge and cause overbalance
b)will cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability
c) will reduce aerodynamic loading

4. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches
a) on inner gimbal ring
b)on outer gimbal ring
*c) on both gimbal rings

5. The IRS(inertial referice system) laser gyro is a

*a) rate gyro
b)displacement gyro
c) displaced gyro

6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make:

a) TA
*b) RA
c) either RA or TA

7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

*a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circles
b) White squares, red diamonds and amber circles
c) White circles, red diamonds and amber squares

8. The laser ring gyro

a) does not have gimbal
*b)does not have gimbal and rotating parts
c) has a stabilized platform
5.
9. A single failure of fly by wire
*a) has no effect on the aircraft's operation
b)will limit the flight profile
c) will reduce the operational height and speed

10. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result in
a) ailerons moving symmetrically upward
*b)ailerons and spoiler moving symmetrically upward
c) spoiler moving symmetrically upward

1. Battery trays are

a) metal for earthing purposes
*b)metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte

2. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in

a) parallel
b)series
*c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option

3. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?

a) Ground or earth
b)Positive to battery relay
*c) Positive to external power relay

4. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The cause is
*a) a faulty selector valve
b)a faulty actuator
c) gear lowered at too high an airspeed

5. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for

a) weather radar
*b)HF communications
c) marker beacons

6. A wing mounted stall warning vane

*a) moves up at impending stall
b)moves down at impending stall
c) gives a visual indication of impending stall

7. During an autopilot controlled turn

a) ailerons and rudder will move
*b)ailerons, rudder and elevators will move
c) ailerons, rudder and THS will move

8. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses

a) nitrogen gas
*b)helium gas
c) oxygen gas

9. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection

a) to protect against freezing at altitude
*b)to protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat
c) to protect against continuous flushing

10. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by

a) flight augmentation computer
*b)flight control computer
c) flight management and guidance computer

1. In a fly-by-wire aircraft what controls the roll spoilers?

*a) Flight control computer
b)Flight augmentation computer
c) Flight management computer

2. If aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to

*a) shut off fuel before structural damage
b)provide overflow facility to dump fuel
c) stop engine from using tank during transfer

3. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable

a) C of P moves back
b) aircraft becomes too sensitive
*c) aircraft returns to trimmed attitude

4. What is the principle of O2 generator?

a) sodium chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air
*b)sodium chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator
c) sodium chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator

5. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must

*a) remove all paint
b)shave rivet to prevent further abrasion
c) paint the surface

6. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?

*a) AWN 99
b)BCARs
c) ANO

7. A large flap deployment causes

*a) increased spanwise flow from root to tip on the wing lower surface
b)reduced spanwise flow from root to tip on the wing upper surface
c) no effect on spanwise flow

8. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by

a) flight augmentation computer
*b)flight control computer
c) flight management and guidance computer

9. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is

*a) to seal the cabin
b)to provide external streamlining
c) to prevent corrosion

10. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?

a) Prevent toilet freezing
b)Stop motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable
*c) Prevent motor overheating and become fire hazard

1. How is RAT driven?

*a) Airstream
b)Compressor
c) Fan

2. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?

*a) Weighed
b)Check the tell-tale wire
c) Check the pressure

3. What external warning is there for an APU fire?

a) Red light
b)Aural
*c) Both

4. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?

*a) kerosene
b)MEK
c) acetone

5. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?

*a) 1800 PSI
b)3000 PSI
c) 300 PSI

6. Ditching control is used to

a) achieve rapid depressurisation
b)maintain cabin pressure at sea level
*c) close the outflow valves

7. How often are life jackets inspected?

a) In accordance with the AMM
*b)In accordance with the manufacturers specification
c) Every 12 months

8. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?

a)Displacement
*b)Tied down
c) Space

9. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by

a) AC
*b)DC
c) AC or DC

10. Hydraulic systems normally operate at

*a) 3000 PSI
b)300 PSI
c) 1800 PSI

1. The flux detector element

a) changes it position after the aircraft heading is changed
*b)gives heading with respect to magnetic north
c) changes heading with the heading of the aircraft

2. autopilot computers are considered

a) Fail resistant
*b)Fail Passive
*c) Fail Operable ?

3. In autopilot with THS in motion

a) elevator is inhibited
b)Mach trim is inhibited
*c) Auto Trim is inhibited

4. Auto trim will switch to 'slow' when

a) flaps are extended
*b)flaps are retracted
c) landing gear up and locked

5. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will
*a) oscillate
b)go hard over
c) be sluggish

6. Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?

*a) Vibration and Shimmy
b)To centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection
c) To centralise the nose wheel during an up selection

7. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between

a) 8,000ft and standard barometric pressure
b)sea level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin
*c) the pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure

8. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?

*a) Flying Hours
b)Landings
*c) Pressure Cycles

9. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?

a) The material of the leg
*b)The types of seals the leg uses
c) Neither, any oil can be used

10. Flashing a generator field

*a) restores magnetism
b)increases resistance
c) decreases resistance

1. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?

*a) Mach/Speed Trim
b)Electric Trim
c) Pitch Trim

2. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at

*a) the shaft end
b)blade attachment end
c) centre point of the blade

3. Windscreen autotransformers
*a) step up voltage
b)step down voltage
c) are used to supply extra current under difficult conditions

4. Waste water drain masts

*a) are heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only
b)are not heated
**c) are heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground **  la detalii

5. Class D cargo bay windows require

a) double acrylic panels
b)fire proof coatings
*c) the blind down for fligh

6. In a light fixed wing aircraft the fuel warning light indicates

a) pump failure
b)the tank does not pressurise
*c) ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail

7. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from

a) Kevlar
*b)Fibreglass and resin
c) monolithic Nomex

8. If pressure controller is set to 0ft

a) cabin remains at sea level till maximum differential
b)maximum differential is reached immediately after takeoff
*c) cabin will not pressurise

9. During pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shutdown

a) outflow valve opens immediately
*b)cabin ROC Indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency
c) aircraft remains pressurised until the dump valve opens

10. In an anti-skid system

a) brakes release on rising torque
b)brakes release on falling torque
*c) brakes are modulated to give most efficient braking

1. The needle of a resolver is connected to

a) 2 coils and an electromagnet
b)2 coils and a permanent magnet
*c) 2 coils

2. How are tubeless tyres stored?

*a) Vertically between bars
b)Horizontally
c) Horizontally up to 4 in in order of size

3. A Duplex seal consist of

*a) a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings
b)a square section rubber ring within a steel washer
c) a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring

4. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals

a) such as aluminium become brittle
*b)lose their strength due to the kinetic heating effect
c) will shrink due to the extreme pressures involved

5. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is

a) 10 years
*b)5 years
c) 2 years

6. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by

a) a protruding pin
*b)a change in colour
c) a broken tell tale wire

7. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least

a) 5 minutes
*b)15 minutes
c) 30 minutes

8. The line service valve must be

*a) wire locked open
b)wire locked closed
c) only be wire locked with telltale wire

9. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above

a) 4,000 ft
b)8,000ft
*c) 10,000ft

10. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately

a) 4,000 ft
*b)25,000 ft
c) 38,000 ft

1. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a

a) microswitch
b)S.C.M.
*c) R.V.D.T.

2. Rudder "Q" limiting

a) increases rudder movement with increase in airspeed
*b)restricts rudder movement with increase in airspeed
c) increases feel as airspeed increases

3. Mach trim operates

a) to reduce Dutch roll
b)along the lateral axis
*c) along the longitudinal axis

4. An example of a secondary flight control is a

*a) spoiler
b)elevator
c) flap

5. A balance tab
*a) assists the pilot to move the controls
b)effectively increases the area of the control surface
c) is used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft

6. To increase critical mach number

a) tailerons are fitted
b) elevons are fitted
*c) the wings are swept

7. Elevons combine the functions of both

a) rudder and elevator
b)rudder and aileron
*c) elevator and aileron

8. Flutter can be reduced by using

*a) mass balancing
b)a horn balance
c) servo tabs

9. A differential aileron system is designed to

*a) prevent adverse yaw
b)minimise flutter
c) compensate for aileron reversal

10. An artificial feel system is required

a) for power assisted control systems
b)for proportional control systems
*c) for power operated control systems

1. An elevator provides control about the

a) longitudinal axis
*b)lateral axis
c) horizontal stabilizer

2. A tandem P.F.C.U.
a) has the actuator rams co-axial
*b)has the actuator rams parallel
c) has two control surfaces under its control

3. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft

a) are isolated to improve sensitivity
b)are isolated at low speeds
*c) are isolated at high speeds

4. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?

a) By deselecting auto-throttle first
*b)Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers
c) It is not possible

5. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?

a) By a gravity feed pump
*b)By a fuel boost pump
c) By suction from the engine driven fuel pump

6. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?

*a) To increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn
b)To decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn
c) Has no effect on rate of yaw and turn

7. When is a hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?

*a) When selected off
b)When selected on
c) When there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available

8. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?

a) At the inlet of the compressor
b)At the outlet of the compressor
*c) At the inlet of the turbine

9. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids

a) they can be ignored, they provide extra protection
*b)they may be harmful to the aircraft structure
c) they should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft

10. Where is the "fasten seatbelt" sign switch located

a) Within reach of the Captain
b)Within reach of the First Officer
*c) Within reach of both pilots

1. Where is the silencer located in a "blower" air conditioning system?

a) At the inlet of the blower
*b)At the outlet of the blower
c) At the inlet to the cabin

2. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation

a) you can only fit seats facing forward
b)you can fit seats facing forward or rearward
*c) you can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP)

3. When does a "blower" air conditioning system produce the most air?
a) At high altitudes
b)At low altitudes
*c) It is not affected by altitude

4. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts:

a) Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block
*b)Drive Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block
c) Swash Plate & Valve Block

5. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is

a) oil level too high
b)loss of pressure/leakage
*c) air pressure too high

6. What percentage of escape path marking lights may be inoperative after any single transverse
separation
a) Not more than 50 %
*b)Not more than 25 %
c) Not more than 10 %

7. A fuel tank suction valve will open when

*a) the booster pump fails
b)the engine driven pump fails
c) both the engine driven and booster pump fail

8. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing, and which is dense,
tough and sticks closely to the
*a) Glaze Ice
b)Hoar Frost
c) Rime Ice

9. A Maxaret is used in what system?

a) Self centring landing gear
*b)Skid control
c) Tyre inflation

10. Decca navigation use

*a) LF
b)HF
c) VHF

EASA Part 66 : Maintenance Practice

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30 terms · A guide to student and LAE (License

Aircraft Engineer) who want to get the LWTR license
or convert it from BCAR Section L to EASA Part 66..
Including EASA Part 66 Module, EASA part 66
Question Examination, EASA Part 66 Note, EASA Part
66 Tutor and aviation tool.
Question Number. 1. Fore and aft limits of the CG.
Option A. are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data.
*Option B. are specified by the manufacturer.
Option C. are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and
weighing.

Question Number. 2. What angle of turn will double the weight of the
aircraft?.
Option A. 30°.
*Option B. 60°.
Option C. 45°.

Question Number. 3. The basic equipment of an aircraft is.

*Option A. that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft
for which the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.
Option B. all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular
flight.
Option C. the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil
necessary for a particular flight.

Question Number. 4. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are.

Option A. either positive or negative.
*Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.

Question Number. 5. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required

by.
*Option A. all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA.
Option B. all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA.
Option C. all aircraft regardless of weight.

Question Number. 6. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air
transport purposes are required to be reweighed.
Option A. every 2 years.
Option B. every 5 years.
*Option C. as required by the CAA.

Question Number. 7. Variable load is weight of.

*Option A. crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role.
Option B. fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role.
Option C. basic weight plus operating weight.

Question Number. 8. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft

refers to.
Option A. the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only.
*Option B. the individual loads on each landing gear.
Option C. the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear.

Question Number. 9. Aircraft must be reweighed.

Option A. after two years from manufacture only.
*Option B. after two years from manufacture then at periods not
exceeding five years.
Option C. at periods not exceeding five years.

Question Number. 10. For purposes of calculating weight and C of G

position, an adult male (with baggage) is considered to have a mass of.
*Option A. 85 kg.
Option B. 65 kg.
Option C. 75 kg.

Question Number. 11. Points forward of the datum point are.

*Option A. negative.
Option B. neutral.
Option C. positive.

Question Number. 12. Where would you find documented, the fore and aft
limits of the C of G position?.
Option A. In the aircraft Maintenance Manual.
*Option B. In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the
C of A).
Option C. In the technical log.

Question Number. 13. Previous weighing records are.

Option A. retained for 2 yrs only.
*Option B. are kept with aircraft records.
Option C. destroyed after 5 yrs.
Question Number. 14. A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of.
Option A. Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight.
*Option B. Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load.
Option C. Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load.

Question Number. 15. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be

signed by.
Option A. the CAA.
Option B. the pilot.
*Option C. a Licensed aircraft engineer.

Question Number. 16. An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the

Forward Limit.
Option A. the take-off run will not be affected.
Option B. will have a longer take-off run.
Option C. will have a shorter take-off run.

Correct Answer is. will have a longer take-off run.

Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.3.1.

Question Number. 17. The basic weight of an aircraft is.

Option A. the pilot, flight crew and their luggage.
Option B. the passengers, baggage and fuel.
Option C. the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil.

Correct Answer is. the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (b).

Question Number. 18. When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR
OPS, what should be done to the old Weight and Balance Report?.
Option A. Kept in the aircraft logbook.
Option B. Destroyed after 3 months.
Option C. Kept in the weight and balance schedule.

Correct Answer is. Destroyed after 3 months.

Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart P.

Question Number. 19. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement

of fuel is calculated. Then.
Option A. the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits
with full fuel tanks.
Option B. the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will
still be within limits.
Option C. the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is
behind the aircraft C of G position.

Correct Answer is. the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be
within limits.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 20. Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a.
Option A. neutral moment.
Option B. negative moment.
Option C. positive moment.

Correct Answer is. positive moment.

Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 5.4.4 (a).

Question Number. 21. A load sheet.

Option A. need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base.
Option B. is always carried on the aircraft.
Option C. is never carried on the aircraft.

Correct Answer is. is always carried on the aircraft.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 22. The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of

G position could be.
Option A. the front bulkhead.
Option B. anywhere on the aircraft.
Option C. the nose of the aircraft.

Correct Answer is. anywhere on the aircraft.

Explanation. AC43 Page 10-1 para F, and A&P general textbook 6-4 Pg 250 'Datum'.

Question Number. 23. Increasing the weight of an aircraft.

Option A. increases the glide range.
Option B. has no affect on the glide range.
Option C. decreases the glide range.

Correct Answer is. has no affect on the glide range.

Explanation. Mechanics of Flight Kermode Page 194.

Question Number. 24. A load Sheet must be signed by.

Option A. a licensed aircraft engineer.
Option B. the Commander of the aircraft.
Option C. the Loading Officer.

Correct Answer is. the Commander of the aircraft.

Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 25. What is meant by empty weight?.

Option A. Basic weight only.
Option B. Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil.
Option C. Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil.

Correct Answer is. Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 6-2.
Question Number. 26. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be
raised.
Option A. in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance
organisation.
Option B. in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator.
Option C. once only, for the CAA.

Correct Answer is. in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4.

Question Number. 27. Where would you find the information on the
conditions for weighing the aircraft?.
Option A. Maintenance Manual.
Option B. Technical Log.
Option C. Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated
with the CofA.

Correct Answer is. Maintenance Manual.

Explanation. The information is in both Flight Manual and AMM. However the Flight
Manual is for the loaded aircraft, and the AMM is for the Basic Aircraft, the latter being
most relevant to the aircraft engineer.

Question Number. 28. In aeronautical weighing terms.

Option A. all arms for forward of the reference datum are positive (+) and
all arms aft of the reference datum are negative (-).
Option B. all reference datum are as per company procedures.
Option C. all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and
all arms aft of the reference datum are positive (+).

Correct Answer is. all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and all
arms aft of the reference datum are positive (+).
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 29. Details on recording of weight and C of G position

can be found in.
Option A. BCAR section A.
Option B. Air Navigation Order.
Option C. Airworthiness Notices.

Correct Answer is. BCAR section A.

Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.1.

Question Number. 30. If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is

issued, the old one must be retained for.
Option A. one year.
Option B. two years.
Option C. six months.

Correct Answer is. six months.

Explanation. JAR OPS 1.920.