Result of Composite Quiz 102 Questions

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Composite Quiz 102 Questions

June 7th, 2020
Result of Composite Quiz 102 Questions:
Total Questions Full Score Passing Rate Your Score Correct Answer Percentage Elapsed
102 1585 80% 675 42.59% 00:48:31
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Your answers are shown below:
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
A. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

B. The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.
C. The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured
D. The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.
Explanation
A working interface (in an up/up state) can still suffer from issues related to the physical cabling as well. The cabling problems might not be bad enough to cause a
complete failure, but the transmission failures result in some frames failing to pass successfully over the cable. For example, excessive interference on the cable
can cause the various input error counters to keep growing larger, especially the CRC counter. In particular, if the CRC errors grow, but the collisions counters do
not, the problem might simply be interference on the cable. (The switch counts each collided frame as one form of input error as well.)
Reference: CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1 page 168
In this question, only the input errors and CRC errors grow -> "The cable connected between two devices is faulty" is the best choice.
Note: One problem, called late collisions, points to the classic duplex mismatch problem. But there is no late collision errors so duplex mismatch is not an in this
question.
Question 2
https://www.9tut.com/composite-quiz 1/37
What is a characteristic of an SSID in wireless networks?
A. converts electrical current to radio waves
B. broadcasts a beacon signal to announce its presence by default
C. prompts a user for a login ID
D. uses policies to prevent unauthorized users
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the
reason for the problem?
Router2(config)#interface GigabitEthernet1/1
Router1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet1/1
Router2(config-if)#description ***Connection to Router1***
Router1(config-if)#description ***Connection to Router2***
Router2(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.252
Router1(config-if)#ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.252
Router2(config)#router ospf 1001
Router1(config-if)#ip ospf hello-interval 5
Router2(config-router)#router-id 2.2.2.2
Router1(config)#router ospf 1000
Router2(config-router)#network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
Router1(config-router)#router-id 1.1.1.1
Router2(config-router)#passive-interface default
Router1(config-router)#network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
Router2(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitEthernet1/1
A. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured

B. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched
C. Router2 is using the default hello timer
D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched
Question 4
Drag and drop the IPv6 address descriptions from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and sort them in ascending order. For example: 13625 (which means
136 for first group, 25 for second group).
Please type your answer here: 25 (correct answer: 23456)
Explanation
Answer:
Unique Local Addresses

+ IPv6 addresses that begin with FD
+ may be used by multiple organizations at the same time
+ private IPv6 addresses
Link-Local Addresses
+ serve as next-hop addresses
+ unable to serve as destination addresses
Explanation
Unique local address (or Site-local address) are analogous to IPv4’s private address classes. They start with FC00::/7 (for used in private networks) -> The first
octet can be FC or FD. However when you implement this you have to set the L-bit (the right-most bit of the first octet) to 1 which means that the first two digits
will be FD.
FF02::5 is a multicast address (not a link-local address). It only has a link-local scope (an IPv6 router never forwards this type of traffic beyond the local link) so
this IPv6 address does not belong to “link-local addresses”.
You can use either Global Unicast IPv6 address or Link-Local IPv6 address as the next hop address. However, if you provide the Link-Local IPv6 address as the
next hop address, you need to provide the interface number also.
Refefence: https://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/how-to-configure-ipv6-static-routes-in-cisco-routers.php
Question 5
Drag and drop the cloud-computing components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Note: You just need to click on one of the boxes on the right to match it with the corresponding box on the left.
The resource pool can expand quickly to meet demand

The consumer can choose when to start or stop using the service
The provider allocates CPU, memory, and disk from its shared compute resources to multiple customers
The provider can bill the consumer in accordance with the level of usage
The service is available from many types of devices and networks
Explanation
Answer:
+ The resource pool can expand quickly to meet demand: rapid elasticity
+ The consumer can choose when to start or stop using the service: on-demand self-service
+ The provider allocates CPU, memory, and disk from its shared compute resources to multiple customers: resource pooling
+ The provider can bill the consumer in accordance with the level of usage: measured service
+ The service is available from many types of devices and networks: broad network access
On-demand self-service: A consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without
requiring human interaction with each service provider.
Broad network access: Capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick
client platforms (e.g., mobile phones, tablets, laptops, and workstations).
Resource pooling: The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model, with different physical and virtual
resources dynamically assigned and reassigned according to consumer demand. There is a sense of location independence in that the customer generally has no
control or knowledge over the exact location of the provided resources but may be able to specify location at a higher level of abstraction (e.g., country, state, or
datacenter). Examples of resources include storage, processing, memory, and network bandwidth.
Rapid elasticity: Capabilities can be elastically provisioned and released, in some cases automatically, to scale rapidly outward and inward commensurate with
demand. To the consumer, the capabilities available for provisioning often appear to be unlimited and can be appropriated in any quantity at any time.
Measured service: Cloud systems automatically control and optimize resource use by leveraging a metering capability at some level of abstraction appropriate to
the type of service (e.g., storage, processing, bandwidth, and active user accounts). Resource usage can be monitored, controlled, and reported, providing
transparency for both the provider and consumer of the utilized service.
Reference: https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/Legacy/SP/nistspecialpublication800-145.pdf
Question 6
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
A. Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.
B. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.
C. Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.
D. Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.
Explanation
With Leaf-Spine, the network uses Layer 3 routing so STP is no longer required. Spine-leaf architectures rely on protocols such as Equal-Cost Multipath (ECPM)
routing to load balance traffic across all available paths while still preventing network loops. This allows all connections to be utilized at the same time while still
remaining stable and avoiding loops within the network.
-> Answer "Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop" is not correct because spine-and-leaf topology does not "make a loop" because it
does not run STP, it runs ECPM.
Every leaf switch connects to every spine switch in the fabric. The path is randomly chosen so that the traffic load is evenly distributed among the top-tier switches.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white-paper-c11-737022.html
Question 7
An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port. No VLAN tagging can be
used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A. SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access

SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security
SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0050.7966.6800
B. SW1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic auto
SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security violation restrict
C. SW1(config-if)#switchport mode nonegotiate
SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. SW1(config-if)#switchport mode dynamic desirable
SW1(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 0050.7966.6800
SW1 (config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address sticky
Question 8
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
A. to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

B. to configure an interface as a DHCP client
C. to configure an interface as a DHCP server
D. to configure an interface as a DHCP helper
Explanation
Use the ip address dhcp command to obtain IP address information for the configured interface.
Question 9
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
A. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

B. It enables BPDU messages
C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state
Explanation
The purpose of Port Fast is to minimize the time interfaces must wait for spanning-tree to converge, it is effective only when used on interfaces connected to end
stations.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3560/software/release/12-2_55_se/configuration/guide/3560_scg/swstpopt.html
Question 10
Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?
A. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

B. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites
C. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites
D. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location
Explanation
Pure IPSec configuration (no GRE tunnel) does not support multicast or broadcast traffic. Spanning-tree updates use multicast too. -> Answer 'broadcast packets
from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites' , answer 'multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another
location' and answer 'spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites' are not correct.
Question 11
Drag the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Note: Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and arrange them ascendingly. For example: 13524 (which means
Explanation
The three-tier hierarchical design maximizes performance, network availability, and the ability to scale the network design.
However, many small enterprise networks do not grow significantly larger over time. Therefore, a two-tier hierarchical design where the core and distribution
layers are collapsed into one layer is often more practical. A “collapsed core” is when the distribution layer and core layer functions are implemented by a
single device. The primary motivation for the collapsed core design is reducing network cost, while maintaining most of the benefits of the three-tier hierarchical
model.
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2202410&seqNum=4
A collapsed core network is shown below. The collapsed core network may be deployed with redundant core/distribution router, or consolidated core/distribution
router.
Question 12
Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?
A. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

B. can be configured only on Gigabit interface
C. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
D. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses
Comments (17)
Question 13
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
A. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools

B. Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network
C. New devices are onboarded with minimal effort
D. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures
E. Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes
Question 14
What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?
A. 00-07-C0-70-AB-01
B. 00-00-5E-00-01-0a
C. 00-C6-41-93-90-91
D. 00-00-0C-07-AD-89
Explanation
With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.
Note: We are not sure why there is a VRRP question here as it is not in the syllabus of the exam.
Question 15
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and sort them in ascending order. For example: 1324 (which means 13
for first group, 24 for second group).
Explanation
Answer:
Multicast
+ sends packets to a group address rather than a single address
+ has a unicast source sent to a group
Anycast
+ is used exclusively by a non-host device
+ is routed to the nearest interface that has the address
Explanation
An anycast address is an address that is assigned to a set of interfaces that typically belong to different nodes. A packet sent to an anycast address is delivered to the
closest interface (as defined by the routing protocols in use) identified by the anycast address.
Anycast addresses can be used only by a device, not a host, and anycast addresses must not be used as the source address of an IPv6 packet.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/xe-3se/5700/ip6-anycast-add-xe.html
Question 16
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B. a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names
C. a list of statically assigned MAC addresses
D. usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain
Question 17
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
A. Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

B. Maintain network equipment in a secure location
C. Place internal email and file servers in a designated DMZ
D. Disable unused or unnecessary ports, interfaces and services
E. Backup device configurations to encrypted USB drives for secure retrieval
Question 18
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A
network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that
it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10
Explanation
R1 uses R3 as the primary route to the Internet so it may use either of these commands:
R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5

OR
R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/2
The administrative distance (AD) of the first command is 1 while that of the second command is 0. Therefore we have to choose a higher AD for our backup route.
And the exit interface of the backup route is g0/1 or the next-hop is 209.165.200.230.
Question 19
A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server. Which task must be performed to complete
the process?
A. Enable the Management option
B. Enable the Support for CoA option
C. Disable the Server Status option
D. Enable the Network User option
Explanation
If you are configuring a RADIUS authentication server, check the Management check box to enable management authentication (authenticate users who login to
the the WLC). If you enable this feature, this entry is considered the RADIUS authentication server for management users, and authentication requests go to the
RADIUS server.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/aaa_administration.html
The Network User check box to enable network user authentication. So the best answer here should be enable "Network User" as it also authenticates local users.
Note:
+ Support for CoA (change of authorization) is an extension to the RADIUS protocol that allows dynamic changes to a user session.
+ The Server Status checkbox is used to enable/disable this RADIUS server.
Question 20
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two)
A. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer
D. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer
Question 21
The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
A. 192.168.1.254
B. 192.168.1.253
C. 192.168.1.226
D. 192.168.1.100
Explanation
In this question, the Windows PC is trying to resolve the domain name www.cisco.com to an IP address so it will need a DNS server.
From the output we see the line "DNS Servers ...: 192.168.1.253" so this is the IP address the request is sent. Notice that the "Default Gateway" IP address is in the
same subnet of DNS Server so the PC can directly send request to the DNS Server.
Question 22
Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.
Note: Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and sort them in ascending order. For example: 136245 (which
means 136 for first group, 245 for second group).
Explanation
Unlike SDN, traditional networking has two main characteristics. First, traditional networking functions are mainly implemented in dedicated devices. In this case,
“dedicated devices” refer to one or more switches (e.g. 10gb switch), routers, and application delivery controllers. Second, most of the functionality in traditional
networking devices is implemented in dedicated hardware. ASIC (Application Specific Integrated Circuit) is commonly used for this purpose. However, this
traditional hardware-centric networking is accompanied by many limitations.
Reference: https://www.chinacablesbuy.com/sdn-vs-traditional-networking-which-leads-the-way.html
The Inventory function retrieves and saves details, such as host IP addresses, MAC addresses, and network attachment points about devices in its database.
The Inventory feature can also work with the Device Controllability feature to configure the required network settings on devices, if these settings are not already
present on the device.
After the initial discovery, Cisco DNA Center maintains the inventory by polling the devices at regular intervals.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/2-1-
2/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_2_1_2/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_2_1_1_chapter_011.html
Question 23
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the
blank below and sort them in ascending order. For example: 1324 (which means 13 for first group, 24 for second group).
Question 24

R1
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
ip address 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.128
no shutdown
router ospf 1
network 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0 area 1
R2
ip address 192.168.12.2 255.255.255.128
no shutdown
A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that
the two routers become OSPF neighbors?
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1
ip ospf 1 area 1
B. interface GigabitEthernet0/1
ip ospf 1 area 0
C. router ospf 1
network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.127 area 0
D. router ospf 1
network 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0 area 1
Explanation
To establish OSPF neighbor between R1 & R2, interface Gi0/1 of R2 must belong to the same area of interface Gi0/1 of R1 (area 1) and OSPF must be turned on
on this interface via “ip ospf 1 area 1” command or “network 192.168.12.2 0.0.0.0 area 1″ command or “network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.127 area 1” command…
Question 25
Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.
collection of actions to perform on target devices, expressed in YAML format managed node
device with Ansible installed that manages target devices control node
network device, without Ansible installed, upon which commands can be executed playbook
specific action to be performed on one or more target devices task
unit of Python code to be executed module
Ansible file that defines the target devices upon which commands and tasks can be executed inventory
Explanation
Once Ansible is installed, it creates several text files:
+ Playbooks: These files provide actions and logic about what Ansible should do. Ansible playbooks are files that contain tasks to configure hosts. Ansible
playbooks are written in YAML format.
+ Inventory: a file contains a list of the hosts (usually their IP addresses, ports) which you want to configure or manage. Hosts in an inventory can be divided into
smaller groups for easier management and configuration. Each group can run different tasks. An example of a task is to ping all hosts in group [routers].
…
Modules (also referred to as “task plugins” or “library plugins”) are discrete units of code that can be used from the command line or in a playbook task. Ansible
executes each module, usually on the remote managed node, and collects return values.
The control node is a computer that runs Ansible. A managed node is any device being managed by the control node.
Reference: https://opensource.com/resources/what-ansible
Question 26
Refer to exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
SW2
vtp domain cisco
vtp mode transparent
vtp password test
interface fastethernet0/1
description connection to SW1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
A. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports
B. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports
C. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports
D. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports
Explanation
The VTP mode of SW2 is transparent so it only forwards the VTP updates it receives to its trunk links without processing them.
Question 27
Which two server types support domain name to IP address resolution? (Choose two)
A. resolver
B. file transfer
C. ESX host
D. authoritative
E. web
Explanation
All DNS servers fall into one of four categories: Recursive resolvers, root nameservers, TLD nameservers, and authoritative nameservers.
Question 28
Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.
Sw1#show mac-address table
Mac Address Table
-----------------------------
Vlan Mac Address Type Ports
---- ----------- ------- ----
2 000c.859c.bb7b DYNAMIC e0/1
3 000c.85dc.bb7b DYNAMIC e0/1
2 0010.11dc.3e91 DYNAMIC e0/2
3 0010.11dC.3e91 DYNAMIC e0/2
2 0044.42d9.c693 DYNAMIC e0/3
Sw1#
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
A. It creates a broadcast storm.
B. It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.
C. It floods the frame out of every port except the source port.
D. It shuts down the source port and places It in err-disable mode.
Explanation
HostA MAC address and port have not been learned in the switch MAC address table so the switch will flood the frame out of all ports except the source port
where it received the frame.
Question 29
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
A. switch(config-line)#lldp port-description
B. switch(config)#lldp port-description
C. switch(config-if)#lldp port-description
D. switch#lldp port-description
Explanation
Use the switch(config)#lldp port-description option to specify the port description TLV messages.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus6000/sw/layer2/7x/b_6k_Layer2_Config_7x/config_lldp.pdf
Question 30
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
A. Java
B. REST
C. OpenFlow
D. XML
Explanation
OpenFlow and NETCONF are Southbound APIs used for most SDN implementations.
Note: SDN northbound APIs are usually RESTful APIs used to communicate between the SDN Controller and the services and applications running over the
network.
Question 31
A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these
requirements:
* accommodates current configured VLANs
* expands the range to include VLAN 20
* allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs
Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?
A. switchport mode dynamic
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk allowed vlan 5,10,15,20
B. switchport nonnegotiate
no switchport trunk allowed vlan 5,10
switchport trunk allowed vlan 5,10,15,20
C. no switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk encapsulation isl
switchport mode access vlan 20
D. no switchport trunk encapsulation isl
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 20
Question 32
Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
A. internal BGP route

B. statically assigned route
C. route learned through EIGRP
D. /24 route of a locally configured IP
Explanation
Code “D” represents for EIGRP. Code “E” could not be used for EIGRP as it was used for Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP), which is BGP predecessor.
Question 33
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?
A. establishing neighbor adjacencies

B. exchanging link-state advertisements
C. injecting the default route
D. electing the designated router
Question 34
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.139.120.253/29 [110/9443] via G0/20

O 10.139.120.253/29 [110/29560] via G0/16
R 10.139.120.253/29 [120/12] via G0/11
R 10.139120 253/29 [120/6] via G0/9
A. G0/20
B. G0/16
C. G0/11
D. G0/9
Explanation
The first entry has lowest AD (110) and lowest metric (9443) so it is the best route and will be installed into the routing table.
Question 35
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
A. lowest neighbor’s bridge ID

B. lowest neighbor’s port ID
C. local port ID
D. lowest path cost to the root bridge
Question 36
Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.
enables host-to-IP-address translation ip name-server

adds an entry to the host table show hosts
displays address-mapping information ip domain-name
specifies the IP address of the DNS server ip host switch_1 192.168.0.1
completes the FQDN of the DNS server ip domain-lookup
Explanation
Answer:
+ enables host-to-IP-address translation: ip domain-lookup

+ adds an entry to the host table: ip host switch_1 192.168.0.1
+ displays address-mapping information: show hosts
+ specifies the IP address of the DNS server: ip name-server
+ completes the FQDN of the DNS server: ip domain-name
Question 37
What does physical access control regulate?
A. access to networking equipment and facilities

B. access to computer networks and file systems
C. access to specific networks based on business function
D. access to servers to prevent malicious activity
Explanation
Cisco Physical Access Control is a comprehensive IP-based solution that uses the IP network as a platform for integrated security operations.
Question 38
A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two)
A. Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest.
B. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g only.
C. Enable the Broadcast SSID option.
D. Enable the Status option.
E. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a only.
Explanation
First we need to enable this WLAN -> Answer 'Enable the Status option' is correct.
+ 802.11a: Operates in the 5 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps -> Answer 'Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a only' is not correct.
+ 802.11g: Operates in the 2.4 GHz band only and supports a maximum data rate of 54 Mbps
Question 39
Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes
stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)
R2#config t
R2(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.63 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.63 eq smtp
R2(config)#access-list 101 deny tcp 10.0.20.0 0.0.0.63 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.63 eq www
R2(config)#int gi0/2
R2(config-if)#ip access-group 101 in
A. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2
B. Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
C. Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1
E. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101
Question 40
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two)
A. recipe
B. playbook
C. task
D. model
E. cookbook
Question 41
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255

interface Serial0
ip access-list 10 in
A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the
administrator applies the command?
A. The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 – 10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

B. The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.
C. The permit command fails and returns an error code.
D. The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.
Explanation
The last command is not correct. We must use the “ip access-group 10 in” command to apply this ACL to the interface.
Question 42
What is a function of MAC address learning?
A. It increases the potential for MAC address flooding

B. It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks
C. It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces
D. It increases security on the management VLAN
Question 43
CPE1# show protocols e0/1

Ethernet0/1 is up, line protocol is up
Internet address is 10.0.12.2/24
CPE1#show ip access-list LAN

Standard IF access list LAN
10 permit 10.0.12.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255
CPE1# show ip nat translations
CPE1# show ip net statistics
Total active translations: 0 (0 static, 0 dynamic, 0 extended)

Peak translations: 0
Outside interfaces:
Inside interfaces:
Ethernet0/1
Hits: 0 Misses: 0
CEF Translated packets: 0, CEF Funted packets: 0
Expired translations: 0
Dynamic mappings:
-- Inside Source
[Id: 1] access-list LAN pool NATPOOL refcount 0
pool NATPOOL: netmask 255.255.255.0
start 198.51.100.11 end 198.51.100.20
type generic, total addresses 10, allocated 0 (0%), misses 0
Total doors: 0
Appl doors: 0
Normal doors: 0
Queued Packets: 0
What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?
A. Configure the NAT outside interface

B. Reconfigure the static NAT entries that overlap the NAT pool
C. Apply the ACL to the pool configuration
D. Modify the access list for the internal network on e0/1
Explanation
We see the line “Outside interfaces: ” is still empty which means we have not configured an outside interface yet.
Question 44
Switch1: 0C.E0.38.57.24.22
Switch2: 0C.0E.15.22.1A.61
Switch3: 0C.0E.15.1D.3C.9A
Switch4: 0C.E0.19.A1.4D.16
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
A. Switch 4
B. Switch 2
C. Switch 1
D. Switch 3
Question 45
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatically logged out?
A. config sessions timeout 0

B. config serial timeout 0
C. config sessions maxsessions 0
D. config serial timeout 9600
Explanation
The CLI automatically logs you out without saving any changes after 5 minutes of inactivity. You can set the automatic logout from 0 (never log out) to 160
minutes using the config serial timeout command.
To prevent SSH or Telnet sessions from timing out, run the config sessions timeout 0 command.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-0/configuration-guide/b_cg80/b_cg80_chapter_011.html
This question asks about the serial session so the first command is the correct answer.
Question 46
Which plan must be implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
A. Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2
B. Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer
C. As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer
D. As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2, trust all traffic markings
Explanation
“Classify, mark, and police as close to the traffic-sources as possible.” -> Answer 'As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access
layer ' is not correct.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk543/tk759/technologies_white_paper0900aecd80295aa1.pdf
As a rule, it is not recommended to trust markings set by end users leveraging PCs or other endpoint devices. End users can intentionally or unintentionally abuse
QoS policies that trust markings of end devices. If users and unclassified applications take advantage of the configured QoS policy as a result of trusting end
devices, this can result in easily starving priority queues with nonpriority traffic, ruining quality of service for real-time applications.
-> Answer 'As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2, trust all traffic markings ' and answer 'Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings
at the access layer' are not correct.
Question 47
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
A. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
C. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client
Question 48
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on
to the server?
A. DHCP Snooping
B. a DHCP Pool
C. DHCP Binding
D. a DHCP Relay Agent
Explanation
If the DHCP Server is not on the same subnet with the DHCP Client, we need to configure the router on the DHCP client side to act as a DHCP Relay Agent so that
it can forward DHCP messages between the DHCP Client & DHCP Server. To make a router a DHCP Relay Agent, simply put the “ip helper-address <IP-address-
of-DHCP-Server>” command under the interface that receives the DHCP messages from the DHCP Client.
As we know, router does not forward broadcast packets (it drops them instead) so DHCP messages like DHCPDISCOVER message will be dropped. But with the
“ip helper-address …” command, the router will accept that broadcast message and cover it into a unicast packet and forward it to the DHCP Server. The
destination IP address of the unicast packet is taken from the “ip helper-address …” command.
Question 49
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and
the engineer configures IPv6 address 0:0:0:0:0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
A. /128
B. /124
C. /64
D. /96
Explanation
IPv4 Mapped Address – 0:0:0:0:0:FFFF::/96
The format for IPv4 Mapped address has the first 80 bits set to zeros, followed by the next 16 bits set to all ones and finally, the last 32 bits written in dotted
decimal appended to then end forming 128 bit IPv6 address.
An example of an IPv4 Class A address of 12.155.166.101 would look like this in IPv4 Mapped address 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:FFFF:12.155.166.101 or
::FFFF:12.155.166.101 in IPv6’s short form.
But in this question we are migrate a /32 IP address to IPv6 so the IPv6 address should be /128.
We can see a similar conversion at this link: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/waf/latest/developerguide/classic-web-acl-ip-conditions.html
– To specify the IPv4 address 192.0.2.44, enter 192.0.2.44/32.

– To specify the IPv6 address 0:0:0:0:0:ffff:c000:22c, enter 0:0:0:0:0:ffff:c000:22c/128.
Question 50
What is a function of spine-and-leaf architecture?
A. exclusively sends multicast traffic between servers that are directly connected to the spine
B. mitigates oversubscription by adding a layer of leaf switches
C. offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices
D. limits payload size of traffic within the leaf layer
Explanation
A spine-leaf architecture aids this by ensuring traffic is always the same number of hops from its next destination, so latency is lower and predictable.
Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/faq/what-is-spine-leaf-architecture/
Question 51
Drag each route source from the left to the numbers on the right. Beginning with the lowest and ending with the highest administrative distance.
1 EBGP
2
3 OSPF
4 EIGRP
5 static
6 connected
Explanation
1: connected (AD = 0)
2: static (AD = 1)
3: EBGP (AD = 20)
4: EIGRP (AD = 90)
5 :OSPF (AD = 110)
6: RIP (AD = 120)
Answer:
1: connected
2: static
3: EBGP
4: EIGRP
5 :OSPF
6: RIP
Question 52
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work.
Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?
A. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1
B. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW2.
C. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1
D. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.
Explanation
All of the member interfaces of an Etherchannel port must have the same configuration or the Etherchannel interface would not be formed. Therefore we must add
VLAN 300 to the interface Fa0/2 on SW1 to match the configuration on interface Fa0/1 by the command "switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300" on interface
Fa0/2 of SW1. But this command does not exist in the four choices so the best alternative command should be answer "Configure the switchport trunk allowed
vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1". After using this command, two physical interfaces will have the same configuration.
Question 53
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
A. consumption-based billing
B. service limitations
C. user-activity logging
D. identity verification
Question 54
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two)
A. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

B. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.
C. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
D. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
E. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
Explanation
The 802.11 standard defines 23 20MHz wide channels in the 5 GHz spectrum. Each channel is spaced 20MHz apart and separated into three Unlicensed National
Information Infrastructure (UNII) bands.
Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Channel_Planning_Best_Practices
Question 55
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
C. switchport trunk native vlan 10
D. switchport mode trunk
Question 56
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. Port blocking
B. MAC address forwarding
C. Collision avoidance.
D. TTL
Question 57
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured. Drag
and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right. Not all commands are used.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below. For example: 1362 (which means 1 for "first", 3 for "second", 6 for
"third" and 2 for "fourth").
Question 58
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
A. DHCP
B. CDP
C. DNS
D. ARP
Question 59
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and sort them in ascending order. For example: 136245 (which means
Explanation
An autonomous AP is a self-contained device with both wired and wireless hardware so that it can bridge to the wired VLAN infrastructure wireless clients that
belong to SSIDs. Each autonomous AP must be configured with a management IP address so that it can be remotely accessed using Telnet, SSH, or a web interface.
Each AP must be individually managed and maintained unless you use a management platform such as Cisco DNA Center.
The division of labor between the WLC and LAPs is known as split-MAC architecture. The LAP must interact with wireless clients on some low level, known as
the Media Access Control (MAC) layer. These functions must stay with the LAP hardware, closest to the clients. The management functions are not integral to
handling frames but are things that should be centrally administered. Therefore, those functions can be moved to a centrally located platform away from the AP.
Question 60
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
A. Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

B. The incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified if LAG is enabled.
C. C. The management interface must be reassigned if LAG is disabled.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.
D. The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.
E. The management interface must be reassigned if LAG is disabled.
Explanation
When you enable LAG or make any changes to the LAG configuration, you must immediately reboot the controller.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-
4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010100001.html
Question 61
Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?
A. Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons
B. Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management
requires manual analysis
C. Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI
exclusively
D. Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the
data backbone.
Explanation
DNA Center uses many management protocols to provide a single pane of glass for all devices.
Question 62
Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine?
A. physical enclosure
B. hypervisor
C. OS
D. CPU
Explanation
The hypervisor abstracts and isolates the VMs and their programs from the underlying server hardware, enabling a more efficient use of physical resources, simpler
maintenance and operations, and reduced costs.
Reference: https://www.nutanix.com/info/hypervisor
Question 63
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
A. sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

B. sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received
C. broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing
D. adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table
Explanation
If the source MAC address does not exist, the switch adds the source MAC address to the MAC address table along with the incoming port number.
Question 64

Router#conf t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Router(config)#hostname R1
R1(config)#ip domain-name CC-Net.com
R1(config)#enable secret Passfornewuser
R1(config)#line vty 0 15
R1(config-line)#transport input ssh
R1(config-line)#login local
A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration
must meet these requirements:
– Create the username as CCUser.
– Create the password as NA!2$cc.
– Encrypt the user password.
What must be configured to meet the requirements?

A. username CCUser password NA!2$cc
enable password level 5 NA!2$cc
B. username CCUser secret NA!2$cc
C. username CCUser privilege 10 password NA!2$cc
D. username CCUser privilege 15 password NA!2$cc
enable secret 0 NA!2$cc
Explanation
In fact all other answers look good too, but answer 'username CCUser secret NA!2$cc' is the best choice as the password of the username is encrypted with highest
security level.
Question 65
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
A. faster changes with more reliable results

B. reduced hardware footprint
C. fewer network failures
D. reduced operational costs
E. increased network security
Question 66
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route falls?
A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
B. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table
C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
D. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary
Question 67
A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
A. multicast
B. ARP
C. CDP
D. flooding
Question 68
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Explanation
Answer:
Cloud-Based Access Point

+ managed from a Web-based dashboard
+ supports automatic deployment
Lightweight Access Point
+ configured and managed by a WLC
+ supports different operational modes
Question 69

R7#
172.22.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 172.22.49.0 [90/284160] via 10.81.22.2, 04:55:53, FastEthernet0/0
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 26 subnets, 5 masks
D EX 10.10.10.10/32 [170/35840] via 10.3.5.1, 04:55:55, FastEthernet0/1
D 10.9.1.0/30 [90/33280] via 10.3.5.1, 04:55:56, FastEthernet0/1
B 10.111.99.0/24 [20/0] via 10.6.25.2, 03:58:52
C 10.9.4.0/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet1/0
B 10.100.100.0/24 [20/0] via 10.6.25.2, 03:58:53
D EX 10.10.10.70/32 [170/1612801 via 10.3.5.1, 04:55:57, FastEthernet0/1
B 10.90.0.0/16 [200/0] via 0.0.0.0, 03:57:59, Null0
B* 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.6.25.2, 02:22:38
According to the output, which parameter set is validated using the routing table of R7?
A. R7 is missing a gateway of last resort.

R7 is receiving routes that were redistributed in EIGRP
R7 will forward traffic destined to 10.90.8.0/24.
B. R7 has a gateway of last resort available.
R7 is receiving routes that were redistributed in EIGRP
R7 will drop traffic destined to 10.90.8.0/24.
C. R7 is missing a gateway of last resort.
R7 is receiving routes that were redistributed from BGP
R7 will forward traffic destined to 10.90.8.0/24.
D. R7 has a gateway of last resort available.
R7 is receiving routes that were redistributed from BGP
R7 will drop traffic destined to 10.90.8.0/24
Explanation
Traffic destined to 10.90.8.0/24 matches the output line "10.90.0.0/16 [200/0] via 0.0.0.0, 03:57:59, Null0" so it will be forwarded to Null0 interface, which means
it will be dropped.
From "D EX" letter, we learn that R7 is receiving routes that were redistributed in EIGRP (another routing protocol was redistributed into EIGRP).
Question 70
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer
3 routing information?
A. control plane
B. management plane
C. data plane
D. policy plane
Explanation
Control Plane Function

In its simplest form, the control plane provides layer-2 MAC reachability and layer-3 routing information to network devices that require this information to make
packet forwarding decisions. In the case of firewalls, the control plane would include stateful flow information for inspection. Control plane functionality can
implemented as follows:
+ Distributed – Conventional routers and switches operate using distributed protocols for control, i.e. where each device makes its own decisions about what to do,
and communicate relevant information to other devices for input into their decision making process. For example, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), Fabric Path,
and routing protocols such as IS-IS and BGP provide distributed control of packet forwarding functionality to networking devices.
+ Centralized – In this case, a centralized controller provides the necessary information for a network element to make a decision. For example, these controller(s)
instruct networking devices on where to forward packets by explicitly programming their MAC and FIBs.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/SDN/SDN.html
Question 71
What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command?
A. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis

B. displaying OSPF-related interface information
C. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes
D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis
Question 72
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP
address from a DHCP server?
A. Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

B. Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0
C. Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0
D. Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1
Question 73
After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer
sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3, how are the packets routed?
A. They are distributed sent round robin to interfaces S0/0/0 and S0/0/1.
B. They are routed to 10.0.0.2.
C. They are routed to 172.16.20.2.
D. They are routed to 192.168.100.2.
Question 74
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the
connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two)
A. configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides

B. configure the same router ID on both routing processes
C. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides
D. configure both interfaces with the same area ID
E. configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process
Explanation
We don’t need to configure hello and dead timers for OSPF neighbor as OSPF can auto negotiate the network type (with the same hello and dead timers on both
sides). We just have to make sure both interfaces are running OSPF and they are in the same area ID.
Question 75
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
A. REST API
B. northbound API
C. southbound API
D. SOAP API
Question 76
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose two)
A. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
B. encrypts network traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
C. builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations
D. improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
E. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
Explanation
An example of DNS is described below:
When you attempt to go to a domain name such as 9tut.com, your browser will instruct your computer to do a DNS lookup on that domain name. This DNS lookup
will query a DNS resolver (for example Google at 8.8.8.8). Once the resolver responds, the computer will usually choose the first IP in the response and use that
for the connection. In the case of multiple IP addresses, the DNS server will respond with multiple IP addresses and the first IP will usually be used for the request.
Due to how most DNS resolvers work, the order of IP addresses usually changes for each request.
Question 77
A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network. R2 has been configured correctly.
Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?
A. ip route 172.25.25.1 255.255.255.255 g0/1

B. ip route 172.25.25.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
C. ip route 172.25.25.1 255.255.255.255 g0/2
D. ip route 172.25.25.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1
Question 78
Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
A. 38443
B. 110
C. 3184439
D. 0
Explanation
Both the line “O 172.16.0.128/25” and “S 172.16.0.0/24” cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the “longest (prefix) match” rule the router will choose the first
route.
Note: Network 172.16.0.192/29 does not cover host 172.16.0.202. For network 172.16.0.192/29:
Increment: 8
Network address: 172.16.0.192
Broadcast address: 172.16.0.199
Question 79
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
A. The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.
B. The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.
C. Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
D. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
Question 80
In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
A. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide any information for that neighbor.
B. CDP becomes inoperable on that neighbor.
C. CDP uses the IP address of another interface for that neighbor.
D. CDP operates normally, but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor.
Explanation
If a neighbor has no IP address on an interface enabled with Cisco Discovery Protocol, the IP address of another interface will be updated as IP address for the non-
IP address interface.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/cdp/configuration/15-mt/cdp-15-mt-book/nm-cdp-discover.html
Question 81
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A. forwarding remote client/server traffic

B. processing inbound SSH management traffic
C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
D. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
Question 82
Which two QoS tools are used to guarantee minimum bandwidth to certain traffic? (Choose two)
A. FIFO
B. LLC
C. WFQ
D. RSVP
E. CBWFQ
Explanation
First-in, first-out (FIFO): FIFO entails no concept of priority or classes of traffic. With FIFO, transmission of packets out the interface occurs in the order the
packets arrive, which means no QoS
Weighted fair queueing (WFQ): offers dynamic, fair queuing that divides bandwidth across queues of traffic based on weights. In standard WFQ, packets are
classified into flows according to one of four criteria: the source Internet Protocol address (IP address), the destination IP address, the source Transmission Control
Protocol (TCP) or User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port, or the destination TCP or UDP port.
Class-based weighted fair queueing (CBWFQ) extends the standard WFQ functionality to provide support for user-defined traffic classes. For CBWFQ, you
define traffic classes based on match criteria including protocols, access control lists (ACLs), and input interfaces. Packets satisfying the match criteria for a class
constitute the traffic for that class. A queue is reserved for each class, and traffic belonging to a class is directed to the queue for that class.
Once a class has been defined according to its match criteria, you can assign it characteristics. To characterize a class, you assign it bandwidth, weight, and
maximum packet limit. The bandwidth assigned to a class is the guaranteed bandwidth delivered to the class during congestion.
The Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) protocol allows applications to reserve bandwidth for their data flows. It is used by a host, on the behalf of an
application data flow, to request a specific amount of bandwidth from the network. RSVP is also used by the routers to forward bandwidth reservation requests.
Question 83
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Explanation
Answer:
Global Unicast Address

+ provides for one-to-one communication
+ is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 addresses
Unique Local
+ allows sites to be combined without address conflicts
+ is a counterpart of private IPv4 addresses
Explanation
A IPv6 Unique Local Address is an IPv6 address in the block FC00::/7. It is the approximate IPv6 counterpart of the IPv4 private address. It is not routable on the
global Internet.
Question 84
What does traffic shaping do to reduce congestion in a network?
A. drops packets
B. buffers without queuing packets
C. queues without buffering packets
D. buffers and queues packets
Explanation
The following diagram illustrates the key difference between traffic policing and traffic shaping. Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches
the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with
crests and troughs. In contrast to policing, traffic shaping retains excess packets in a queue and then schedules the excess for later transmission over
increments of time. The result of traffic shaping is a smoothed packet output rate.
Note: Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed to by the routing device.
Question 85
What is a zero-day exploit?
A. It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth.
B. It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available.
C. It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.
D. It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SQL server.
Question 86
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
A. explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

B. processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network
C. forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection
D. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks
Question 87
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
A. wireless access point

B. firewall
C. router
D. wireless LAN controller
Explanation
Stateful inspection firewalls keep track of connection status. Ports can be dynamically opened and closed if necessary for completing a transaction. For example,
when you make a connection to a server using HTTP, the server will initiate a new connection back to your system on a random port. A stateful inspection firewall
will automatically open a port for this return connection.
Question 88
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Please type your answer here: 2413
Explanation
Answer:
TCP
+ requires the client and the server to establish a connection before sending the packet
+ supports reliable data transmission
UDP
+ provides best-effort service
+ transmitted based on data contained in the packet without the need for a data channel
Question 89
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
A. allows application developers to interact with the network

B. integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools
C. facilities communication between the controller and the applications
D. facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware
Question 90
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two)
A. Policy-derived provisioning of resources

B. Reducing hardware footprint
C. Providing a single entry point for resource provisioning
D. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing
E. Eliminating training needs
Question 91
A static route must be configured on R86 to forward traffic for the 172.16.34.0/29 network, which resides on R14. Which command must be used to fulfill
the request?
A. ip route 172.16.34.0 255.255.255.224 10.73.65.66

B. ip route 172.16.34.0 255.255.255.248 10.73.65.65
C. ip route 10.73.65.65 255.255.255.248 172.16.34.0
D. ip route 172.16.34.0 0.0.0.7 10.73.65.64
Question 92
What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?
A. 10.165.20.166
B. 10.165.20.226
C. 10.165.20.146
D. 10.165.20.126
Explanation
The static route destined to subnet 10.1.2.112/28 which ranges from 10.1.2.112 to 10.1.2.127 (increment: 16) so it also covers the destination of 10.1.2.126. The
static route also has the lowest AD (of 1) so the router will choose this path.
Question 93
Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP

D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area
N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2
E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2
i - IS-IS, su - IS-IS summary, L1 - IS-IS level-1, L2 - IS-IS level-2
ia - IS-IS inter area, * - candidate default, U - per-user static route
o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route, H - NHRP, l - LISP
+ - replicated route, % - next hop override, p - overrides from PfR
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Null0
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.12.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.0.12.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
D 192.168.0.0/16 [90/130816] via 10.0.13.3, 00:10:09, GigabitEthernet0/2
O 192.168.0.0/23 [110/2] via 10.0.14.4, 00:00:46, GigabitEthernet0/3
S 192.168.0.0/24 [100/0] via 10.0.12.2
Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A. Null0
B. GigabitEthernet0/3
C. GigabitEthernet0/2
D. GigabitEthernet0/1
Explanation
The best match for the destination host 192.168.0.55 is the last statement in the output. But the exit interface of this entry has been hidden so we have to figure it
out. We only know the next hop IP address is 10.0.12.2.
We see only Gi0/1 belongs to this subnet from the entry “C 10.0.12.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1″ so the best answer is Gi0/1.
Question 94
Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.
Explanation
Answer:
Accounting:
+ It records the amount of network resources consumed by the user
+ It tracks the services that a user is using
Authentication:
+ It permits and denies login attempts
+ It supports local, PPP, RADIUS, and TACACS+ options
Explanation
Accounting tracks the services that a user is using. For example, it can log what commands were issued by a user.
Authentication also supports PPP via the “aaa authentication ppp …” command.
Authorization assigns per-user attributes.
Question 95
Which action must be taken so that neighboring devices rapidly discover switch Cat9300?
A. Configure the cdp holdtime 10 command on switch Cat9300

B. Configure the cdp timer 10 command on the neighbors of switch Cat9300
C. Configure the cdp timer 10 command on switch Cat9300
D. Enable portfast on the ports that connect to neighboring devices
Explanation
The "cdp timer seconds" command sets the transmission frequency of CDP updates in seconds so we should reduce it so that CDP updates are sent more often.
Question 96
What is the function of northbound API?
A. It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B. It relies on global provisioning and configuration.
C. It provides a path between an SDN controller and network applications.
D. It upgrades software and restores files.
Explanation
Now, in turn, the networking administrators and SDN applications want to control the controller! So the controller need a northbound interface (NBI) to
communicate with us. The NBI applications included various network services, including network virtualization, dynamic virtual network provisioning, firewall
monitoring, user identity management and access policy control.
Question 97
How does authentication differ from authorization?
A. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.
B. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the
network
C. Authentication is used to verify a person’s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins
D. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access
Question 98
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
A. cost
B. metric
C. administrative distance
D. as-path
Question 99
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
A. router ospf 1
network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
interface e1/1
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252
ip ospf cost 0
B. router ospf 1
network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
interface e1/1
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.55.255.252
ip ospf network point-to-point
C. router ospf 1
network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
interface e1/1
ip address 192.160.1.1 255.255.255.252
ip ospf network broadcast
D. router ospf 1
network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
hello interval 15
interface e1/1
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252
Question 100
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right.
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and arrange them ascendingly. For example: 13524 (which means 135
for first group, 24 for second group)
Question 101
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
A. GRE over IPsec

B. ISATAP
C. GRE
D. IPsec over ISATAP
Question 102
What is the PUT method within HTTP?
A. It replaces data at the destination.

B. It is a nonidempotent operation.
C. It is a read-only operation.
D. It displays a web site.
Explanation
The HTTP PUT request method creates a new resource or replaces a representation of the target resource with the request payload -> Answer 'It replaces data at the
destination. ' is correct.
The difference between PUT and POST is that PUT is idempotent: calling it once or several times successively has the same effect (that is no side effect), whereas
successive identical POST requests may have additional effects, akin to placing an order several times -> Answer 'It is a nonidempotent operation' is not correct.
Reference: https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Methods/PUT
1. ahmed
May 16th, 2020
tnk you
2. JC
May 24th, 2020
Hi, in the question about Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right with connection oriented and connection
less, I put as a connection oriented SMTP, SSH and FTP and connectionless SNMP, VoIP and TFTP, I think its the correct answer but you put as I failed,
could you check it please?
3. op
May 27th, 2020
Hi,
Question 63
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left on to the correct values on the right.
Connection_Oriented_Connectionless.jpg
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and arrange them ascendingly. For example: 136245 (which means 136 for
first group, 245 for second group)
Please type your answer here: 156234 Wrong
What is the correct answer?
4. 9tut
May 27th, 2020
@op, @JC: Thanks for your detection, there was an error with Q.63. We have just updated it so please try again!
5. op
May 28th, 2020
Question 50
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the suitable transport protocols on the right.
TCP_UDP_Protocols_2.jpg
Please type the corresponding numbers of each item on the left to the blank below and arrange them ascendingly. For example: 136245 (which means 136 for
first group, 245 for second group)
Please type your answer here: 156234 Wrong
Sorry, Still no change !
6. op
May 28th, 2020
Sorry, Q63 is ok now.
But Q50 (they are not same) seems to be wrong too.

SMTP, FTP, SSH uses TCP while SNMP, DHCP, TFTP uses UDP .
Am I correct?
7. 9tut
May 28th, 2020
@op: Thanks for your information, we updated Q50 too!
8. op
May 28th, 2020
Thanks.
9. op
June 1st, 2020
Question 72
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
ip arp inspection vlan 2-10

interface fastethernet 0/1
ip arp inspection trust
A. access point
B. DHCP client
C. routercorrect
D. PC
Is this answer correct?

Before I did the same question, PC was correct.
10. 9tut
June 1st, 2020
@op: We have just updated this question. Answer “C. router” is correct.
11. op
June 1st, 2020
Can you pl give some explanation?
12. op
June 3rd, 2020
Question 82
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on R1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any R1 interface and allows all other traffic?
access_list_ssh.jpg
A. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23

access-list 100 permit ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in
B. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
ip access-group 100 in
wrong
C. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
correct
D. line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
ip access-group 100 in
Is this correct?
13. Pawel
June 3rd, 2020
@9tut
There is something wrong with 102q test – I had only 1 mistake but score was only 93% – some of the correct answers doesn’t count or something. (I think
the new ones because I didn’t had any problem before update)
14. JH
June 5th, 2020
@op: yes it is.

Extendend Access List , Port 22 is SSH : So it only blocks SSH traffic witch is tcp from PC-1 with IP 172.16.1.33
15. TheMattMeister
June 6th, 2020
Hey all,
just passed exam with a 963/1000! if you can knock out the 102 composite quiz with an A several times (i think i ended up running through it 10 times), i’m
sure you can pass this test. With the exception of a few questions that i’ve either just seen less or were just new, the test is identical.
good luck!
16. Mah
June 6th, 2020
Hi @9tut,
Im sorry to ask, can you kindly explain Q13 I think the answer is 10.4.4.4 which is C Please?
Why ia the answer is D?
17. 9tut
June 7th, 2020
@Mah: Could you please post that question here as the questions in the Composite Quizzes are shuffled each time you take the quiz?
Comments are closed.
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Composite Quiz 102 Questions

Result of Composite Quiz 102 Questions:

You failed :( but surely you will do it better next time!

Your answers are shown below:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

A. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

Reference: CCNA 200-301 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1 page 168

A. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured

Please type your answer here: 25 (correct answer: 23456)

Unique Local Addresses

The resource pool can expand quickly to meet demand

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Refer to the exhibit.

A. SW1(config-if)#switchport mode access

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A. to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

Which type of traffic is sent with pure IPsec?

A. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?

A. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses

A. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

Please type your answer here: 1324 (correct answer: 2314)

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

A. Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

Refer to the exhibit.

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5

Refer to the exhibit.

A. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit.

Once Ansible is installed, it creates several text files:

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit.

A. internal BGP route

A. establishing neighbor adjacencies

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.139.120.253/29 [110/9443] via G0/20

A. lowest neighbor’s bridge ID

enables host-to-IP-address translation ip name-server

+ enables host-to-IP-address translation: ip domain-lookup

What does physical access control regulate?

A. access to networking equipment and facilities

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit.

access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255

A. The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 – 10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

What is a function of MAC address learning?

A. It increases the potential for MAC address flooding

Refer to the exhibit.

CPE1# show protocols e0/1

CPE1#show ip access-list LAN

CPE1# show ip nat translations

CPE1# show ip net statistics