Professional Documents
Culture Documents
NOTICE JE 2023 26072023-Watermarked
NOTICE JE 2023 26072023-Watermarked
2023)
Last date and time for receipt of online 16.08.2023 (2300 hours)
applications
Date of ‘Window for Application Form 17.08.2023 to 18.08.2023
Correction’ and online payment of Correction (2300 hours)
Charges.
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Examination(Paper-I)
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Board; and
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Abbreviations used:
JE(C)=Junior Engineer (Civil), JE(M)=Junior Engineer (Mechanical),
JE(E)=Junior Engineer (Electrical), JE(E&M)=Junior Engineer
(Electrical & Mechanical)
2.2 As per UGC (Open and Distance Learning) Regulations, 2017 published in official
Gazette on 23-06-2017, under Part-III (8) (v), the programmes in engineering,
medicine, dental, nursing, pharmacy, architecture and physiotherapy etc. are not
permitted to be offered under Open and Distance Learning mode. However,
pursuant to the Hon’ble Supreme Court Order dated 11-03-2019 in MA No.
3092/2018 in W.P. (C) No. 382/2018 titled Mukul Kumar Sharma & others Vs
AICTE and others, B. Tech. degree/ diploma in Engineering awarded by IGNOU to
the students who were enrolled up to academic year 2009-10 shall be treated as
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2.3 All selected candidates called for documents verification by the User Department
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will be required to produce the requisite certificates such as Mark sheets for all
years/semesters of Graduation/ Provisional Certificate/ Degree of Graduation
etc., in original, as proof of having acquired the essential educational qualification
and experience in respective field, wherever required, on or before the cut-off
date, failing which the candidature of such candidates Shall be cancelled by the
User Department.
2.4 The candidates who are able to prove, by documentary evidence, that the result
of the examination of essential educational qualification was declared on or
before the cut-off date and he has been declared passed, will also be deemed to
meet the essential educational qualification. It is reiterated that the result of
essential educational qualification must have been declared by the University/
Institute by the specified date. Mere processing of the result by the University/
Institute by the cut-off date does not fulfill the EQ requirement.
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Farakka JE (M) 0 0 2 0 4 6 0 0 0
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Barrage
Project
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Military JE (C) 4 2 8 3 12 29 0 0 0
Engineer
Services
Military JE (E 3 1 5 2 7 18 0 0 0
Engineer & M)
Services
Ministry of JE (C) 0 0 0 0 7 7 0 0 0
Ports,
Shipping &
Waterways
(Andaman
Lakshadweep
Harbour
Works)
Ministry of JE (M) 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0
Ports,
Shipping &
Waterways
(Andaman
Lakshadweep
Harbour
Works)
National JE(C) 1 0 1 2 4 0 0 0
Technical
Research
Organization
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National JE (E) 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
Technical
Research
Organization
National JE (M) 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0
Technical
Research
Organization
Total 206 96 288 121 613 1324 8 8 11
Abbreviations used:
JE(C)=Junior Engineer (Civil), JE(M)=Junior Engineer (Mechanical),
JE(E)=Junior Engineer (Electrical), JE(E&M)=Junior Engineer (Electrical &
Mechanical)
Organizations/Offices.
4.3 There is no reservation for Ex- Servicemen (ESM) category candidates
since the post of Junior Engineer(s) included in this notice of
examination is classified as Group ‘B’ post. However, benefit of age-
relaxation will be admissible to ESM candidates in accordance with
Government Orders. The guidelines/rules relating to relaxation
admissible to ESM category candidates included in this Notice of
Examination are in accordance with the guidelines issued by DoP&T.
5.1 Except for the Border Roads Organization (BRO), the post of Junior
Engineer (Civil, Mechanical & Electrical) included in this notice of
examination have been identified suitable for following disabilities by
Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(Divyangjan), M/o Social Justice and Empowerment vide Notification
No. 38-16/2020-DDIII dated 04.01.2021 and as amended from time to
time.
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Junior S, ST, W, BN, a) D, HH
Engineer L, KC, MF, b) OA, OL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV, SD(Spinal
(Civil) RW, SE, H, C Deformity) & SI(Spinal Injury) without
neurological/limb dysfunction.
c) SLD, MI
d) MD involving (a) to (c) above
JE (E/M)R S, ST, BN, L, KC, a) D, HH
MF, RW, SE, H,C b) OA, OL, CP, LC, Dw, AAV, SD(Spinal
Deformity) & SI(Spinal Injury) without
neurological/limb dysfunction.
c) SLD, MI,
d) MD involving (a) to (c) above
Abbreviation used:
FUNCTIONAL REQUIREMENT: S=Sitting, ST=Standing, W=Walking,
BN=Bending, L=Lifting, KC=Kneeling & Crouching, MF=Manipulation
with Fingers, RW=Reading & Writing, SE=Seeing, H=Hearing,
C=Communication.
NATURE OF PHYSICAL DISABILITIES: D=Deaf, HH= Hard of
Hearing, OA=One Arm, OL=One Leg, CP=Cerebral Palsy, LC=Leprosy
Cured, Dw=Dwarfism, AAV=Acid Attack Victims, SLD= Specific Learning
Disability, MI= Mental Illness, MD=Multiple Disabilities.
Note:1 The suitability of posts for Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD) indicated in the table above shall be subject to
exemption, if any, obtained by Indenting Organizations/Offices.
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5.2 The Physical Efficiency Test, Physical and Medical Standard for the Posts of Junior
Engineers in Border Roads Organization (BRO) are annexed at Schedule.
Candidates applying for the post(s) of Junior Engineer(s) in BRO will
satisfy themselves that they fulfill aforesaid standards. The candidates
may note that post(s) once allocated as per merit-cum-preference given
by the candidates will not be changed subsequently due to failure of the
candidates to qualify in these Standards. It is reiterated that the
candidates applying for the post(s) of Junior Engineer(s) in Border
Roads Organisation (BRO) should cautiously go through the physical
and medical standards required by BRO. The Staff Selection
Commission shall not make re-allocation for those candidates whose
candidature is cancelled on the ground of non-fulfillment of physical
and medical standards.
5.3 Only male candidates are eligible for the post(s) of Junior
Engineer(s)in the Border Roads Organization (BRO).
6. Nationality/Citizenship:
6.2 Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c) and (d) above
shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been
issued by the Government of India.
7.1 The crucial date for age reckoning is fixed as 01-08-2023 in accordance
with the provisions of DoP&T OM No. 14017/70/87-Estt.(RR) dated
14.07.1988.
Requirement of Age for the Posts is as follows:-
For the posts for which Candidate must have been born not earlier than
age limit is upto 30 years 02-08-1993 and not later than 01-08-2005.
For the posts for which Candidate must have been born not earlier than
age limit is upto 32 years 02-08-1991 and not later than 01-08-2005.
7.2 Permissible relaxation in upper age limit prescribed i n para 2 above
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02 OBC 3 years
7.3 Date of Birth filled by the candidate in the online application form and the same
recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary Examination Certificate will be accepted by
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the Commission for determining the age and no subsequent request for change will
be considered or granted and mismatch of date of birth will be a ground for rejection
of candidature.
7.4 Ex-Servicemen (ESM) who have already secured employment in civil side
under Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts on regular basis
after availing of the benefits of reservation given to ESM for their re-
employment are not eligible for reservation in ESM category and fee
concession. However, he/she can avail of the benefit of reservation as ex-
serviceman for subsequent employment if he/she immediately after
joining civil employment, gives self-declaration/undertaking to the
concerned employer about the date-wise details of applications for
various vacancies for which he/she had applied for before joining the
initial civil employment as mentioned in the OM No. 36034/1/2014-Estt
(Res) dated 14th August 2014 issued by DoP&T.
7.5 The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed Forces
shall also be treated as service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose
of age relaxation, as per rules.
7.6 For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated
as Ex-Serviceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of
reservation, he/she must have already acquired, at the relevant time of
submitting his application for the Post/Service the status of Ex-
Servicemen otherwise than by way of ‘dismissal or discharge on account
of misconduct or inefficiency’ or be in a position to establish his
acquired entitlement by documentary evidence from the competent
authority that he/she would complete specified term of engagement
from the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the
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(a) who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service
whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after
earning his or her pension,
or
(b) who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds
attributable to military service or circumstances beyond his control and
awarded medical or other disability pension:
or
(c) who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in
establishment.
or
(ii) Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period
of engagement, otherwise than at his own request, or by way of dismissal, or
discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a
gratuity, and includes personnel of the Territorial Army, namely pension
holders for continuous embodied service or broken spells of qualifying
service.
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or
(iii) Personnel of the Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and
retired from the Army Postal Service without reversion to their parent
service with pension, or are released from the Army Postal Service on
medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or
circumstances beyond their control and awarded medical or other
disability pension.
or
(iv) Personnel, who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than
six months prior to the 14th April,1987.
or
(v) Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of
Territorial Army.
or
7.8 Age relaxation is not admissible to sons, daughters and dependents of Ex-
Servicemen. Therefore, such candidates should not indicate their
category as Ex-Servicemen.
candidature will be cancelled. The formats of the certificates are annexed with the
Notice of this Examination. The certificate of disability issued under the Persons with
Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act,
1995 (1 of 1996) will also be valid. Certificate(s) in any other format and/or
incomplete Certificate(s) are liable not to be accepted.
8.2 Candidates are cautioned that they must ensure that they belong to the category as
filled up in the application form and are able to prove the same by furnishing the
requisite certificate issued by the competent authority when such certificates are
sought by concerned User Organizations/Offices at the time of document verification
or at any stage, failing which the candidature of the candidate will be cancelled. If the
candidature of a candidate is cancelled by the User Organization/Offices for non-
furnishing of the requisite certificate in support of the category filled up in the
application form, the candidate would be solely responsible for furnishing false
information in the application form and the Commission would not be held
responsible in this regard. Further it should be noted that any grievance received in
this regard in any form like Post, Fax, Email, by hand, etc. shall not be entertained by
the Commission and will be summarily rejected.
For example, a candidate X filled OBC in his application form. If X is unable to produce
the OBC certificate as per the notice of examination at the time of Document verification
or at any stage before the User Organization/Office, in such circumstances, candidature
of X will be cancelled by the User Organization/Office.
8.3 The candidates with benchmark disabilities (PwBD) may note that they
must select the appropriate PwBD category i.e. OH/HH/PwBD-Others,
while filling up the application form as per their certificate of disability
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issued by the competent authority. No subsequent changes of PwBD
category will be allowed under any circumstances. Such candidates shall
have to furnish the requisite certificate issued by the competent authority
when such certificates are sought by concerned User Organizations/Offices at the time
of document verification or at any stage, failing which their candidature will be
cancelled. It may be noted that sub-category/sub-categories of
disability/disabilities (such as OA, OL, BL, Dw, MI, SLD etc.), as indicated in
the Notification No. 38-16/2020-DD-III dated 04.01.2021 issued by
Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, should be
clearly mentioned by the competent authority issuing the disability
certificate. If the candidature of a candidate is cancelled by the User
Organization/Offices for non-furnishing of the requisite certificate in support of the
category filled up in the application form, the candidate would be solely responsible
for furnishing false information in the application form and the Commission would not
be held responsible in this regard. Further it should be noted that any grievance
received in this regard in any form like Post, Fax, Email, by hand, etc. shall not be
entertained by the Commission and will be summarily rejected.
8.4 A person seeking appointment on the basis of reservation to EWS must ensure that
he/she possesses the Income & Asset certificate valid for the financial year 2023-24
issued on the basis of income for the financial year 2022-23 in accordance with the
DoP&T OM No. 36039/1/2019-Estt(Res.) dated 31.01.2019.
8.5 Candidates may also note that their candidature will remain provisional
until the veracity of the certificates/documents relating to the Educational
Qualifications, Caste/Category, etc. is verified and found satisfactory by the
Appointing Authority. Candidates are cautioned that they will be debarred
from the examinations conducted by the Commission in case they
fraudulently claim the status of SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/ESM.
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applications.
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9.5 The candidate will have the discretion of opting for his/ her own scribe or the
facility of scribe provided by the Commission. Appropriate choice in this regard
will have to be given by the candidate in the online application form.
9.6 In case the candidate opts for his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be
one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the examination. The candidates
with benchmark disabilities (PwBD) opting for own scribe shall be required to submit
details of the own scribe at the time of examination as per proforma at Annexure-II.
The candidates with disabilities (PwD) eligible for scribe as per Para 9.3 above and
opting for own scribe shall be required to submit details of the own scribe at the time of
examination as per proforma at Annexure-IIA. In addition, the scribe has to produce a
valid ID proof [(as per list given at para-16.7)] in original at the time of
examination. A photocopy of the ID proof of the scribe signed by the candidate as well as
the scribe will be submitted along with proforma at Annexure-II/ Annexure-IIA. If
subsequently it is found that the qualification of the scribe is not as declared by the
candidate, then the candidate shall forfeit his right to the post and claims relating
thereto.
9.7 If a candidate opts for his own scribe, in that case, that scribe should not be a candidate
of this examination. If a candidate is detected appeared or likely to be appeared as scribe
of PwBD/PwD candidate(s) in this examination then the candidature of both the
candidates will be cancelled.
9.8 A compensatory time of 20 minutes per hour of examination will be provided
to the c a n d i d a t e s who are allowed use of scribe as described at para
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9.9 The candidates referred to at para 9.1, 9.2 and 9.3 above, who are eligible
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for getting scribe but not availing the facility of scribe will also be given
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10.5 Scanned signature in JPEG/JPG format (10 to 20 KB). Image dimension of the
signature should be about 4.0 cm (width) x 2.0 cm (height). Applications with
blurred signature will be rejected.
10.6 Last date and time for submission of online applications is 16.08.2023 (2300
hours).
10.7 Candidates are advised in their own interest to submit online applications
much before the closing date and not to wait till the last date to avoid the
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10.8 The Commission will not be responsible for the candidates not being able to
submit their applications within the last date on account of the aforesaid
reasons or for any other reason beyond the control of the Commission.
10.9 Before submission of the online application, candidates must check through
Preview/Print option that they have filled correct details in each field of
the application form.
10.12 Fee can be paid only through online payment modes, namely BHIM UPI,
Net Banking, or by using Visa, MasterCard, Maestro, or RuPay Credit or
Debit card.
10.13 Candidates must ensure that their online payment has been successfully
made to SSC. If the fee is not received by SSC, status of Application Form is
shown as ‘Incomplete’ and this information is printed on the top of the
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Application Form. Further, status of fee payment can be verified at the
‘Payment Status” link provided in the candidate’s login screen. Such
applications which remain incomplete due to non-receipt of fee will be
SUMMARILY REJECTED and no request for consideration of such
applications and fee payment after the period specified in the Notice of
Examination shall be entertained.
10.14 Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor will it be
adjusted against any other examination or selection.
11.2 After the closing date for receipt of online applications, the Commission will
provide a period of 02 days to enable candidates to correct/modify online
application parameters, wherein candidates will be allowed to re-submit
applications after making requisite corrections/changes in the one-time
registration/online application data as per their requirement.
of requisite fee, have been received by the Commission within the specified
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period.
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11.6 The Commission will levy a uniform correction charges of ₹ 200/- for
making correction and re-submitting modified/corrected application for
the first time and ₹ 500/- for making correction and re-submitting
modified/ corrected application for the second time. The correction
charges will be applicable to all candidates irrespective of their
gender/category.
11.7 If the applicable correction charges are not received by the SSC, status of
Application Form is shown as ‘Incomplete’ and this information is printed on
the top of the Application Form printout. Such application shall not be
accepted and the previously submitted application will remain valid.
11.8 The correction charges can be made only through online payment modes,
namely BHIM UPI, Net Banking, or by using Visa, MasterCard, Maestro, or
RuPay Credit or Debit card.
11.9 The correction charges once paid shall not be refunded under any
circumstances nor will it be adjusted against any other examination or
selection.
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11.10 Before submission of the corrected application, candidates must check that
they have filled correct details in each field of the form. After expiry of
‘Window for Application Form Correction’, no
change/correction/modification will be allowed under any circumstances.
Requests received in this regard in any form like Post, Fax, Email, by hand,
etc. shall not be entertained by the Commission and will be summarily
rejected.
12. Centres of Examination:
12.1 A candidate must indicate the Centre(s) in the online Application from
where he/she desires to take the examination. Details about the
Examination Centres and Regional Offices under whose jurisdiction these
Examination Centres are located are as follows:
S. Examination Centres & Centre Code SSC Region and Address of the Regional
No States/ UTs Offices/ Website
under the
jurisdiction of the
Region
1 Bhagalpur (3201), Darbhanga (3202), Central Region Regional Director
Muzaffarpur (3205), Patna (3206), (CR)/ (CR),
Purnea (3209), Agra (3001), Bareilly Bihar and Uttar Staff Selection
(3005), Gorakhpur (3007), Jhansi Pradesh Commission,
(3008), Kanpur (3009), Lucknow 34-A, Mahatma
(3010), Meerut (3011), Prayagraj Gandhi Marg,
(3003), Varanasi (3013). Sitapur(3019), Civil lines,
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Prayagraj – 211001.
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(http://www.ssc-
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cr.org)
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2 Port Blair (4802), Dhanbad (4206), Eastern Region Regional Director (ER),
Jamshedpur (4207), Ranchi (ER)/ Staff Selection
(4205), Balasore (4601), Andaman & Commission,
Behrampur-Ganjam (4602), Nicobar Islands, 1st MSO Building,(8th
Bhubaneshwar (4604), Cuttack (4605), Jharkhand, Floor), 234/4,
Kalyani (4419), Rourkela (4610), Odisha, Sikkim AcharyaJagadish
Sambalpur (4609), Gangtok (4001), and West Bengal Chandra Bose
Asansol (4417), Kolkata (4410), Road, Kolkata,
Siliguri (4415), Burdwan (4422), West Bengal-700020
Durgapur (4426). (www.sscer.org)
3 Belagavi (9002), Bengaluru (9001), Karnataka, Regional Director
Hubballi (9011), Kalaburagi (Gulbarga) Kerala Region (KKR),
(9005), Mangaluru (9008), Mysuru (KKR)/ Staff Selection
(9009), Shivamogga (9010), Udupi Karnataka, Kerala Commission,
(9012), Ernakulam (9213), and 1st Floor, “E” Wing,
Kollam (9210), Kottayam Lakshadweep. KendriyaSadan,
(9205), Kozhikode (9206), Koramangala,
Thiruvananthapuram (9211), Thrissur Bengaluru,
(9212). Kavaratti(9401) Karnataka-560034
(www.ssckkr.kar.nic.i
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4 Bhopal (6001), Gwalior (6005), Madhya Pradesh Dy. Director (MPR),
Indore(6006), Jabalpur(6007), Region (MPR)/ Staff Selection
Satna(6014) Sagar(6015), Ujjain(6016) Chhattisgarh and Commission,
Bilaspur (6202), Madhya Pradesh 5th Floor, Investment
Raipur (6204), Building, LIC Campus-
Durg-Bhilai (6205) 2, Pandri, Raipur
Chhattisgarh-492004
(www.sscmpr.org)
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9 Panaji (7801), Ahmedabad (7001), Western Region Regional Director (WR),
Anand (7011), Gandhinagar (7012), (WR)/ Staff Selection
Mehsana (7013), Rajkot (7006), Surat Dadra and Nagar Commission,
(7007), Vadodara (7002), Amravati Haveli and 1st Floor, South Wing,
(7201), Aurangabad (7202), Jalgaon Daman and Diu, PratishthaBhawan,
(7214), Kolhapur (7203), Mumbai Goa, Gujarat and 101, MaharshiKarve
(7204), Nagpur (7205), Nanded (7206), Maharashtra Road, Mumbai,
Pune (7208). Maharashtra-400020
(www.sscwr.net)
12.2 A candidate may give option for three centres, in the order of priority,
within the same region. No request for change of Centre of Examination
will be considered later under any circumstances. Hence, the candidates
should select the centers, carefully and indicate the same correctly in their
applications.
12.3 The Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the
candidates of that centre to appear from another centre. Commission also
reserves the right to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre
to take the examination.
12.4 The Regional Office, having jurisdiction over the Examination Centres
opted by the candidate, will issue Admission Certificate to the candidate
for the examinations. All other activities related to this recruitment will be
handled by the said Regional Office.
13. Scheme of Examination:
indicated below:
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13.1.1 Paper-I
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13.1.2 Paper-II
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Paper-II Computer Part-A: General 2 Hours
Based Engineering (Civil & (2 hours and
Examination Structural) 40 minutes for
or the candidates
Part-B: General 100/300 who are
Engineering (Electrical) eligible for
or scribe as per
Part-C: General Para-9.1, 9.2
Engineering (Mechanical) and 9.3)
13.2 The candidates will be required to attempt the General Engineering part
(i.e. Part-A, Part-B or Part-C) in Paper-I and Paper-II, which has been
selected by them, on the basis of their Educational Qualification, in the
online application form. In other words, the candidates appearing for the
post of Junior Engineer (Civil) are required to attempt Part-A (Civil &
Structural) of Paper-I and Paper-II and the candidates appearing for the
post of Junior Engineer (Electrical) are required to attempt Part-B
(Electrical) and the candidates appearing for the post of Junior Engineer
(Mechanical) are required to attempt Part-C (Mechanical) of Paper-I and
Paper-II failing which theircandidature will be rejected.
13.3 The Paper-I & Paper-II will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice
questions only. The questions will be set both in Hindi & English.
13.4 Questions in both papers will be of Objective Multiple Choice Type.
Questions will be set in Hindi and English in Parts-I, II and III of Paper-I
and Paper-II. There will be negative marking equal to one-third of the
marks allotted to the question for each wrong answer in Paper-I &
Paper-II. Candidates are, therefore, advised to keep this in mind while
answering the questions.
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Logarithm Table and Steam Table for Paper-II only. They are not allowed
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13.6 Tentative Answer Keys of Paper-I and Paper-II will be placed on the
website of the Commission after the Examination. Candidates may go
through the Answer Keys and submit online representations, if any,
within the time limit given by the Commission, on payment of Rs. 100/-
per question which is non-refundable. Representations on the matter
received through any other modalities; i.e., letter, application, email, etc.
will not be entertained.
13.7 Marks scored by candidates in Computer Based Examination, if conducted
in multiple shifts, will be normalized by using the formula published by the
Commission through Notice No: 1-1/2018-P&P-I dated 07-02-2019 and
such normalized scores will be used to determine final merit and cut-off
marks.
13.8 The dates of examinations indicated in the Notice are tentative. Any change
in the schedule of examinations will be informed to candidates only
through the website of the Commission.
13.9 There shall be no provision for re-evaluation/ re-checking of scores of any
stage/ paper(s) of the Examination. No correspondence in this regard shall
be entertained.
14 Indicative Syllabus
14.1 The standard of the questions in Engineering subjects will be approximately of
the level of Diploma in Engineering (Civil/Mechanical/Electrical). The details
of the syllabus are given below:
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14.2 Paper-I:
14.2.1 General Intelligence & Reasoning: The Syllabus for General Intelligence
would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test may
include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space
visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making,
visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts,
arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical
number series, etc. The test will also include questions designed to test
the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their
relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.
15.3 Paper II
15.3.1 Part-A (Civil & Structural Engineering):
Building Materials: Physical and Chemical properties, classification,
standard tests, uses and manufacture/quarrying of materials e.g.
building stones, silicate based materials, cement (Portland), asbestos
products, timber and wood based products, laminates, bituminous
materials, paints, varnishes.
Estimating, Costing and Valuation: estimate, glossary of technical
terms, analysis of rates, methods and unit of measurement, Items of work
– earthwork, Brick work (Modular & Traditional bricks), RCC work,
Shuttering, Timber work, Painting, Flooring, Plastering, Boundary wall,
Brick building, Water Tank, Septic tank, Bar bending schedule, Centre
line method, Mid-section formula, Trapezodial formula, Simpson’s rule,
Cost estimate of Septic tank, flexible pavements, Tube well, isolates and
combined footings, Steel Truss, Piles and pile-caps. Valuation – Value and
cost, scrap value, salvage value, assessed value, sinking fund,
depreciation and obsolescence, methods of valuation.
Structural Engineering:
Theory of structures: Elasticity constants, types of beams – determinate
and indeterminate, bending moment and shear force diagrams of simply
supported, cantilever and over hanging beams Moment of area and
moment of inertia for rectangular & circular sections, bending moment
and shear stress for tee, channel and compound sections, chimneys,
dams and retaining walls, eccentric loads, slope deflection of simply
supported and cantilever beams, critical load and columns, Torsion of
circular section
Concrete Technology: Properties, Advantages and uses of concrete,
cement aggregates, importance of water quality, water cement ratio,
workability, mix design, storage, batching, mixing, placement,
compaction, finishing and curing of concrete, quality control of concrete,
hot weather and cold weather concreting, repair and maintenance of
concrete structures
RCC Design: RCC beams-flexural strength, shear strength, bond
strength, design of singly reinforced and double reinforced beams,
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cantilever beams T-beams, lintels One way and two way slabs, isolated
footings Reinforced brick works, columns, staircases, retaining wall, water
tanks (RCC design questions may be based on both Limit State and
Working Stress methods)
Steel Design: Steel design and construction of steel columns, beams roof
trusses plate girders
phase and 3 phase, both active and re-active) and energy, 2 wattmeter
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phase angle Ammeter and voltmeter (both moving oil and moving iron
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Concept of simple machine, Four bar linkage and link motion, Flywheels
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belts, Clutches – Plate and Conical clutch, Gears – Type of gears, gear
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Thermal Engineering:
Fluid Kinematics: Stream line, laminar & turbulent flow, external &
internal flow, continuity equation
Dynamics of ideal fluids: Bernoulli’s equation, Total head; Velocity head;
Pressure head; Application of Bernoulli’s equitation
Measurement of Flow rate Basic Principles: Venturimeter, Pilot tube,
Orifice meter
23
15. Admission to the Examination:
15.1 All candidates who register themselves in response to this Notice by the
closing date and time and whose applications are found to be in order and
are provisionally accepted by the Commission as per the terms and
conditions of this Notice of Examination, will be assigned Roll numbers
and issued Admission Certificate (AC) for appearing in the Computer Based
Examination. Subsequently, qualified candidates will be issued Admission
Certificates for the next stage of the Examination.
15.2 The Commission will not undertake detailed scrutiny of online
applications for the eligibility and other aspects at the time of
examination and, therefore, candidature will be accepted only
provisionally. The candidates are advised to go through the requirements
of educational qualification, experience, age, etc. and satisfy themselves
that they are eligible for the post(s). The certificates/documents in
support of their Educational Qualifications and Caste/Category, etc. shall
be sought at the time of Document Verification by the
Indenting/User Organization/Office. Candidates may also note that they
would be required to submit their certificates/documents of
EQs/caste/category, etc. as and when sought by the Commission or the
Indenting/User Organization/Office. After scrutiny of the
certificates/documents of EQs/caste/category, etc., if any claim made in
the application is not substantiated by certificates/documents, the
candidature of candidate will be cancelled.
15.3 Admission Certificate for the Computer Based Examination will be issued
online by uploading on the website of the concerned Regional Office of
the Commission. Admission Certificate will not be issued by post for any
stage of examination. Candidates are therefore advised to regularly visit
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15.4 Information about the Examination indicating the time table and
City/Centre of examination for the candidates will be uploaded on the
websites of the concerned Regional Office of the Commission about two
weeks before the date of examination. If any candidate does not find
his/her details on the website of the Commission, one week before the
date of examination, he/she must immediately contact the concerned
Regional/Sub-Regional Office of the Commission with proof of having
submitted his/her application. Failure to do so will deprive him/her of
any claim for consideration.
15.5 Candidates must write Registration-ID, registered Email-ID and Mobile
Number along with name, date of birth and name of the examination,
while addressing any communication to the Commission. Communication
from the candidates not furnishing these particulars shall not be
entertained.
15.6 Facility for downloading of Admission Certificates will be available 3-7
days before the examination on the website of concerned Regional/Sub-
Regional Office. Candidates must bring printout of the Admission
Certificate to the Examination Hall.
15.7 In addition to the Admission Certificate, it is mandatory to carry at least
two passport size recent colour photographs, Original valid Photo-ID
proof having the Date of Birth as printed on the Admission
Certificate, such as:
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15.7.1 Aadhaar Card/ Printout of E-Aadhaar,
15.7.2 Voter’s ID Card,
15.7.3 Driving License,
15.7.4 PAN Card,
15.7.5 Passport,
15.7.6 School/ College ID Card,
15.7.7 Employer ID Card (Govt./PSU/Private), etc
15.7.8 Ex-serviceman Discharge Book issued by Ministry of Defence,
Any other photo bearing ID Card issued by the Central/ State
Government.
15.8 If Photo Identity Card does not have the date of birth printed on it then
the candidate must carry an additional original document (e.g.
Matriculation Certificate, Marks Sheet issued only by CBSE/ICSE/State
Boards; Birth Certificate, Category Certificate etc.) as proof of their date of
birth. In case of mismatch in the date of birth mentioned in the Admission
Certificate and photo ID/ Certificate brought in support of date of birth,
the candidate will not be allowed to appear in the examination.
15.9 PwBD/PwD candidates using the facility of scribes as per paras 9.1, 9.2
and 9.3 shall also be required to carry required Medical
Certificate/Undertaking/Photocopy of the Scribe’s Photo ID Proof, as
specified therein. Candidates without these documents will not be allowed
to appear in the examination.
15.10 Any other document mentioned in the Admission Certificate will be
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Organizations/Offices:
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Matriculation/Secondary Certificate.
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17 Post Preferences:
17.1 Preference for various posts and departments will be taken from the candidates
through Online Option Form on the website of the Commission before declaration of
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and will not be changed subsequently under any circumstances. Therefore, candidates
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18 Mode of Selection:
other posts.
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18.5 SC, ST, OBC, EWS and PwBD candidates, who are selected on their own merit
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without relaxed standards, will not be adjusted against the reserved share of
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18.8 Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless the
Government is satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered
necessary that the candidate is suitable in all respects for appointment to
the service/post.
18.9 The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill
all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their
admission at all stages of the examination will be purely provisional,
subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If, on
verification, at any time before or after the written examination, it is found
that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for
the examination will be cancelled.
18.10 Candidates, who are appointed on the basis of this examination, shall be
on probation for a period of two years and during the period of probation,
the candidates would be required to undergo such training or pass such
examinations as prescribed by the Controlling Authority. On successful
completion of the period of probation, the candidates shall, if considered fit
for permanent appointment, be confirmed to their post by the Controlling
Authority.
18.11 Candidates selected for appointment are liable to serve anywhere in India;
i.e., the posts carry All India Service Liability (AISL).
18.12 Candidates on final selection may be allotted a State/UT/Zone by the
concerned User Organization/Office. Such candidates may be required to
acquire the proficiency in local language of the allotted State/UT/Zone for
confirmation of the candidates to the allotted posts by the concerned User
Organization/Office.
18.13 If a candidate scoring more than cut-off marks in any Tier/Stage of the
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any reason, he/she must represent to the concerned Regional Office of the
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earlier.
18.14 If a candidate is finally selected and does not receive any correspondence
from the Commission or the concerned User Organization/Office within a
period of one year from the declaration of final result, he/she must
communicate immediately thereafter with the concerned User Department /
Organization.
18.15 The final allotment of posts is made on the basis of merit-cum-preferences of
Posts/ Departments given by the candidates and once a post is allotted, no
change of posts will be made by the Commission due to non-fulfillment of any
post specific requirements of physical/ medical/ educational standards. In
other words, for example, if a candidate has given higher preference for a post
and is selected for that post; in that case, if he fails to meet the medical/
physical/ educational standards for that post, his candidature will be rejected
and he will not be considered for any other preferences and no
correspondence in this regard will be entertained by the Commission.
18.16 It is reiterated that the final result will be declared only once by the
Commission and no further nomination of candidates would be made in the
event of vacancies left unfilled due to non-availability of suitable candidates,
rejection of candidates during Document Verification by the User
organization, non-joining of candidates, or any other reason. In such cases, the
Ministry/Department/Organization may take further action regarding
carrying forward of vacancies to the next vacancy year in accordance with the
extant rules.
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18.17 There shall not be any Waiting List/ Reserve List after declaration of Final
Result.
19 In accordance with the directions issued by DoP&T vide its OM No:
39020/1/2016- Estt (B) dated 21.06.2016 for increasing access of the
unemployed candidates to job opportunities it has been decided that after
declaration of final result the Commission will make the scores and
rankings of unsuccessful candidates in the said open competitive
examinations conducted by the Commission available on its website in
descending order of ranking. Accordingly, it has been decided that the
following details of the candidates will be made available on its website: (i)
Name of candidate, (ii) Father/Husband’s name, (iii) Date of Birth, (iv)
Category(Gen/SC/ST/OBC/EWS/PwBD/ESM) (v) Gender of the
candidate, (vi) Educational Qualifications, (vii) Total Marks obtained in the
qualifying examination, (viii) Ranking by which the merit is decided, (ix)
Complete address, (x) E-mail address. However, the candidate will have the
option, at the time of filling up of his/her application form, from opting out of
disclosing the above details publicly. Accordingly, the scores and rankings
in respect of only those candidates who have opted for disclosing the above
details or have not exercised their options will be made available on the
website of the Commission.
20 Resolution of tie cases: In cases where more than one candidate secure
the equal aggregates marks in Paper-I and Paper-II, tie will be resolved by
applying the following methods one after another till the tie is resolved:
(i) Total marks in Paper-II.
(ii) Date of birth, with older candidates placed higher.
(iii) Alphabetical order of the names of the candidates.
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21.1 If candidates are found to indulge at any stage in any of the malpractices
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softwares/Apps/LAN/VAN, etc.
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(j) Candidates must carry two passport size recent colour photographs and
one original Photo ID Proof such as Aadhaar Card/ printout of E-
Aadhaar, Driving License, Voter Card, PAN Card, Identity Card issued by
University/ College/ Government, Employer ID Card, ESM Discharge
Book issued by MoD, or any photo bearing ID card issued by Central/
State Government to the Examination Venue, failing which they will not
be allowed to appear for the same. If Photo Identity Card does not
have the Date of Birth then the candidate must carry an additional
original certificate in proof of their Date of Birth. PwBD/PwD
candidates using the facility of scribes shall also be required to carry
required Medical Certificate/Undertaking/Photocopy of the Scribe’s
Photo ID Proof, as specified.
(k) In case of fake/fabricated application/registration by misusing any
dignitaries name/ photo, such candidate/cyber cafe will be held
responsible for the same and liable for suitable legal action under cyber/IT
Act.
(l) All the posts carry All India Service Liability (AISL) i.e. the candidate, on
selection, maybe asked to serve anywhere in the country.
(m) If a candidate scoring more than cut-off marks at any Tier/ stage of the
examination is not qualified for the subsequent stage/ final selection due
to any reason, he/ she must represent to the concerned Regional/ Sub-
Regional Office of the Commission within two months of the declaration
of the result or two week prior to the conduct of next stage of the
examination, whichever is earlier.
(n) If a candidate is finally selected and does not receive any
correspondence from the Commission or the concerned User Department
/ Organization within a period of one year after declaration of result,
he/she must communicate immediately thereafter with the concerned
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(o) Fee payable: Rs 100/- (Rs. one hundred only). Women candidates and
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Under Secretary
Staff Selection Commission (Headquarters)
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ANNEXURE-I
Signature
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution
Name & Designation
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Note:
Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (eg Visual
impairment-Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability Orthopaedic specialist/PMR)
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Annexure-IA
Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2
(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said
Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.
This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ................. (name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of ………………(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged ........................................ yrs,
a person with ……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has
limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she
requires support of scribe for writing the examination.
2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics,
hearing aid (name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the
examination with the assistance of scribe.
3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations
conducted by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto (it is
valid for maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)
PMR / available)
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s nominated
Rehabilitation by the
Psychologist/Psychiatrist
specialist / Special Educator Chairperson (if
any)
(Signature &
Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………Chairperson
Place:
Date
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ANNEXURE-II
I do hereby state that _____ _____ _ ________(name of the scribe) will provide the
service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination
Plac
e:
Date
:
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Annexure-IIA
Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the
definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the
definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40%
disability and having difficulty in writing
Place:
Date:
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Annexure-III
The process of filling online application for the examination consists of two parts:
d. Information about the Board, Roll Number and Year of Passing the
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3. For One-Time Registration, click on ‘Register Now’ link provided in ‘Login’ Section
on https://ssc.nic.in.
4. One-Time Registration process requires filling up of following information:
a. Basic details
b. Additional and contact details
c. Declaration.
5. For filling up the ‘One-Time Registration Form’, please follow the following
steps:
a. Few critical details (e.g. Aadhaar Number, name, father’s name, mother’s
name, date of birth etc.) are required to be entered twice, in the relevant
columns of the Registration Form to avoid any inadvertent mistakes in filling
up of the form. If there is mismatch between the original and verify data
columns, it will not be accepted and an indication to this effect will be given in
red text.
b. S No-1, provide information about Aadhaar Number/ Identity Card and its
Number. Any one of these Numbers is required to be given.
c. S No-2: Fill your name exactly as given in Matriculation (10th Class)
Certificate. In case, you have made any changes in your name after
matriculation, indicate the same at S No-2c and 2d.
d. S No-3: Fill your father’s name exactly as given in Matriculation (10th Class)
Certificate.
e. S No-4: Fill your mother’s name exactly as given in Matriculation (10th Class)
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Certificate.
f. S No-5: Fill your date of birth exactly as given in Matriculation (10th Class)
Certificate.
g. S No-6: Matriculation (10th Class) Examination Details which include:
i. Name of Education Board
ii. Roll Number
iii. Year of passing
h. S No-7: Gender
i. S No-8: Level of Educational Qualification (highest).
j. S No-9: Your Mobile Number which must be a working mobile number as it
will be verified through ‘One Time Password’ (OTP). It may be noted that any
information which the Commission may like to communicate with you, will be
sent on this mobile number only. Your mobile number will also be used for
retrieval of password, if required.
k. S No-10: Your Email ID which must be a working Email ID as it will be verified
through OTP. It may also be noted that any information which the
Commission may like to communicate with you, will be sent on this Email ID
only. Your Email ID will also be used for retrieval of password/ Registration
Number, if required.
l. Provide detail of State/ UT of your Permanent Address.
m. When the Basic Details provided at S No-1 to 10 are saved, you will be
required to confirm your mobile number and email ID. On confirmation, your
data will be saved and your Registration Number will be displayed on the
screen. Your Registration Number and Password will be provided to you on
your mobile number and Email ID.
n. You have to complete the Registration Process within 14 days failing which
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password provided to you on your mobile and email. Change your password,
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field to complete the Registration Process.
6. Though you can edit/ modify your One-time Registration data, you must be very
cautious while filling up details in the One-time Registration. Wrong/ incorrect
information may lead to cancellation of your candidature.
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Annexure-IIIA (1/3)
Screenshots of One-time Registration Form
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Annexure-IIIA (2/3)
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Annexure-IIIA (3/3)
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Annexure-IV
Part-II (Online Application Form)
1. Before proceeding with filling of online application, keep the following data ready:
a. Recent scanned colour passport size photograph (not more than three months
old from the date of publication of the Notice of Examination) in JPEG/JPG
format (20 KB to 50 KB). Image dimension of the photograph should be about
3.5 cm (width) x 4.5 cm (height). In compliance of the Order dated 05.03.2020 of
Hon'ble Supreme Court in the matter of Shantanu Kumar & Ors. [Writ Petition
(C) No.234 of 2018], the photograph of the candidate should not be more
than three months old from the date of publication of notice of the
examination. The Photograph should be without cap and spectacles. The
frontal view of the face should be clearly visible. Applications with blurred
photograph will be rejected. If the proper photograph is not uploaded by a
candidate, his candidature will be cancelled. Specimen of photographs
which are acceptable/not acceptable is given at Annexure-XV.
b. Scanned signature in JPEG/JPG format (10 to 20 KB). Image dimension of the
signature should be about 4.0 cm (width) x 2.0 cm (height). Applications with
blurred signature will be rejected.
c. Details of qualifying educational qualification like passing year, roll number,
percentage/ CGPA, name of Board, etc.
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3.
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17. Upload your signature as specified at S.No.-1b above. Applications with blurred
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from the date of publication of the Notice of Examination. Click ‘Yes’, if the photograph
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uploaded above is not more than three months old from the date of publication of the
Notice of Examination.
19. Go through the declaration carefully and click on “I agree” check box if you accept the
same. Fill up Captcha code.
20. Preview and verify the information provided by you. If you want to modify any entry,
click on ‘Edit/Modify’ button and make requisite corrections before proceeding
further. When you are satisfied that the information is correctly filled, preview and
verify the information and submit the Application. You will not be able to make any
correction in the online application after submission of the application.
21. Proceed to make fee payment if you are not exempted from payment of fee.
22. Fee can be paid only through online payment modes, namely BHIM UPI, Net Banking, or
by using Visa, MasterCard, Maestro, or RuPay, Credit or Debit card.
23. When application is successfully submitted, it will be accepted 'Provisionally' and status
of the application will be indicated as ‘Application Received (Contents Not Verified)’.
Candidate should take printout of the application form for their own records. Printout of
the 'Application Form' is normally not required to be submitted to the Commission at
any stage. However, you may be required to provide printout of the online application
form to address grievances related to online application, if any.
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Annexure-IVA (1/4)
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Annexure-IVA (2/4)
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Annexure-IVA (3/4)
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Annexure-IVA (4/4)
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Annexure - V
Office Seal
Place:
Date:
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Annexure-VI
(d) I have availed the benefit of reservation as ex-serviceman for securing Government
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I hereby declare that the above statements are true, complete and correct to the best of
my knowledge and belief. I understand that in the event of any information being found false
or incorrect at any stage, my candidature/ appointment is liable to be cancelled/ terminated.
Signature: .....................
Name: …………….
Roll Number: ....................
Date: …………….
Date of appointment in Armed Forces: …………….
Date of Discharge: …………….
Last Unit/ Corps: …………….
Mobile Number: …………….
Email ID: …………….
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Annexure-VII
FORMAT FOR SC/ ST CERTIFICATE
A candidate who claims to belong to one of the Scheduled Caste or the Scheduled Tribes
should submit in support of his/ her claim an attested/certified copy of a certificate in the form
given below, from the District Officer or the sub-Divisional Officer or any other officer as indicated
below of the District in which his parents (or surviving parent) ordinarily reside who has been
designated by the State Government concerned as competent to issue such a certificate. If both his
parents are dead, the officer signing the certificate should be of the district in which the candidate
himself ordinarily resides otherwise than for the purpose of his own education. Wherever
photograph is an integral part of the certificate, the Commission would accept only attested
photocopies of such certificates and not any other attested or true copy.
(The format of the certificate to be produced by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
candidates applying for appointment to posts under Government of India)
As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists(Modification) order, 1956,
the Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 & the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, the State of Himachal
Pradesh Act 1970, the North-Eastern Area(Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes Order(Amendment) Act, 1976.
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The Constitution (ST) orders (Amendment) Ordinance 1996@
The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe Orders (Amendment ) Act 2002@
The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Orders(Amendment) Act 2002@
The Constitution(Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe) Orders (Amendment) Act 2002@
The Constitution (Scheduled Caste) Order (Amendment) Act 2007@
%2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes persons who have migrated from
one State/Union Territory Administration.
This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes
certificate issued to Shri/Shrimati Father/mother of
Shri/Shrimati/Kumari* of village/town* in
District/Division* of the State/Union
Territory* who belong to the
Caste/Tribe which is recognized as a Scheduled
Caste/Scheduled Tribe in the State/Union Territory* issued by
the dated .
Signature
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** Designation
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Place
Date
NOTE: The term ordinarily reside(s) used here will have the same meaning as in section 20 of the
Representation of the People Act, 1950.
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(iii) Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar.
(iv) Sub-Divisional Officers of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.
NOTE: ST candidates belonging to Tamil Nadu State should submit caste certificate ONLY FROM THE
REVENUE DIVISIONAL OFFICER.
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Annexure-VIII
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Shri/Smt./Kumari and/or his/her family ordinarily reside(s) in the
District/Division of the
State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does not belong to the persons/sections
(Creamy Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department
of Personnel & Training O.M. No. 36012/22/93-Estt (SCT) dated 8.9.1993**.
District Magistrate:
Dated:
Seal:
* The authority issuing the certificate may have to mention the details of Resolution of
Government of India, in which the caste of the candidate is mentioned as OBC.
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Note: The term ”Ordinarily” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the
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Annexure-IX
Government of ...............
III Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
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IV Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the
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notified municipalities.
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Designation
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*Note 1: Income covered all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc.
** Note 2: The term ‘Family’ for this purpose include the person, who seeks benefit of
reservation, his/ her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse
and children below the age of 18 years.
***Note 3: The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities have
been clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.
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Annexure-X
Form-V
Certificate of Disability
(In cases of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs or dwarfism and in case of
blindness)
[See rule 18(1)]
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)
locomotor disability
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in whose favour certificate of disability is issued
Annexure-XI
Form - VI
Certificate of Disability
(In cases of multiple disabilities)
[See rule 18(1)]
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)
impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (.............. number and date
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of
issue of the guidelines to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and is shown against the
relevant disability in the table below:
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy cured
4. Dwarfism
5. Cerebral Palsy
7. Low vision #
8. Blindness #
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9. Deaf £
19. Haemophilia
20. Thalassemia
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(B) In the light of the above, his/her over all permanent physical impairment as per
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3. Reassessment of disability is :
(i) not
necessary, or
(ii) is recommended/after ............... years ................ months, and therefore this
certificate shall be valid till ----- ----- ------
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Nature of document Date of issue Details of authority issuing
certificate
Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of the
Chairperson
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Annexure-XII
Form – VII
Certificate of Disability
(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms V and VI)
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)
(See rule 18(1))
Shri/Smt./Kum. son/wife/daughter of
Shri Date of Birth (DD/MM/YY)
Age years, male/female Registration No.
permanent resident of House No. Ward/Village/Street
Post Office District
State , whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that he/she
is a case of disability. His/her extent of
percentage physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (
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.............. number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified) and is shown against the
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1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy cured
4. Cerebral Palsy
6. Low vision #
7. Deaf €
8. Hard of Hearing €
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10. Intellectual Disability
17. Haemophilia
18. Thalassemia
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Countersigned
{Countersignature and seal of the
Chief Medical Officer/Medical Superintendent/ Head of
Government Hospital, in case the Certificate is issued
by a medical authority who is not a Government
servant (with seal)}
Note: In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a Government servant, it
shall be valid only if countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District.
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Annexure-XIII
Educational Qualification
Diploma
B.E.
B.Tech.
AMIE (Part A & Part B)
BSc (Engg.)
M.E.
M. Tech.
M. Sc (Engg.)
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Annexure-XIV
Mechanical Engineering
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Annexure-XV
Specimen of Photographs
Acceptable Photograph
Blur Photographs
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Schedule
1 Every recruit must be sufficiently intelligent, free from nervous instability and be in
possession of sound health. He shall have no constitutional or acquired disability as may in the
opinion of Recruiting Medical Officer render him unfit for duties, in the organization, particularly at
high altitude and hard areas.
General examination
2 It is absolutely essential in all cases to have the recruits stripped while carrying out
medical examination. Due regard be paid to privacy and decency. It is not sufficient that the
clothing be only partially removed. An underwear may be permitted except when the examination
is being carried out involving private parts. Every part of the body must be examined and if a
recruit does not submit to this even after persuasion, he will be rejected. Permanent body tattoos
are only permitted on inner face of forearms i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the
reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand. However, in case of an obscene, vulgar or
objectionable tattoo, the DDG (Pers)/Comdt GREF Centre will take a final decision on
acceptability/unacceptability of such tattoo. The decision of the DDG (Pers)/ Comdt GREF
Centre in the matter shall be final. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body is not
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3 The examining Medical Board is responsible for checking the physical fitness of the
recruits, the likelihood of their physical development and for their identification marks. The Board
will also enter on the enrolment form any minor defects insufficient to cause rejection. In the case
of fit recruits the Board will make the necessary entry on the enrolment form, the wording used
being Fit-category GREF-I and return it to the enrolling officer. The signature of the examining
Medical Officer on the enrolment form will be accepted as equivalent to a declaration that he has
personally examined the recruit in question according to the existing instructions and that the
recruit has no blemish or defect except those noted on the enrolment form. Remarks relating to
any defects in the recruit will be endorsed in the medical examiner’s own handwriting. When
there are no distinctive marks this must be stated.
4 This is a document of great importance which is linked to claims for disability pension on
soldier’s discharge from the service Medical items in table No 1 of GREF/MED/2A will be
completed by the Medical Board GREF/MED/2A is placed at Annexure-I to Schedule-III of
Notification.
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5 Any failure of officers concerned to give attention to the preparation and maintenance of
these documents, and inaccuracy in or insufficiency of the entries therein may cause
considerable delay, much expense and grave injustice to the person recruited. Medical Officers
will, therefore, take every care to ensure that all necessary entries are carefully and accurately
made at the time of examination.
6 Marks and small defects are to be noted concisely and clearly in the space allotted for the
purpose in order to facilitate the men’s future identification. Special attention should always be
drawn to any defects which may influence decision on possible claims for pension in the future.
a) That the candidate is sufficiently intelligent (Any defect may be observed during the
examination).
b) That his bearing is good and that there is no sign of disease of ear, nose and throat.
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c) That his vision with either eye is up to the required standard, his eyes are bright, clear
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and with no obvious squint, nystagmus or other abnormality. Movement of eye balls
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f) That his chest is well formed, and that his heart and lungs are sound.
k) That he does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic diseases pointing to an
impaired constitution.
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Ground for permanent rejection
a) General impaired Constitution with frail health (BMI less than 18).
b) Abnormal Gait.
e) Defective Intelligence.
f) Deafness.
g) Pronounced Stammering.
h) Mental and nervous instability includes coarse Digital Tremors, palmar & plantar
Hyperhydrosis and Tachycardia (Pulse rate more than 100/min).
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r) Endocranial Disorder.
t) Gross degree myopia & cases of corneal surgery for refractive error.
w) Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of forearms i.e. from inside
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of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand.
However, in case of an obscene, vulgar or objectionable tattoo, the DDG
(Pers)/Comdt GREF Centre will take a final decision on acceptability/unacceptability
of such tattoo. The decision of the DDG (Pers)/ Comdt GREF Centre in the matter
shall be final. Permanent body tattoos on any other part of the body is not acceptable
and candidate will be barred from further screening.
(r) Hepatospleenomegaly
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(s) BMI above 30 (Should bring down BMI to below 30 within 3 months will be
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accepted)
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conforms to the prescribed standards in all respects. The mild problem if any
must be recorded in the documents.
An undertaking from the candidate be taken that there is no past history of seizure,
leprosy, diabetes, tuberculosis or HIV infection. All cases of past healed
operations carried out will be noted in medical case sheet.
The foregoing relaxation is permissible only in the case of recruit who conform to the
prescribed standards of measurements.
12 In all cases where a recruit is suffering from a minor defect is accepted, the Medical
Board will fully satisfy themselves that the defect will not, in any way, affect the efficiency of the
recruit as a subordinate serving in BRO.
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13 Whenever recruits who are suffering from minor defects as mentioned in Para 10 above
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are accepted, the defects will invariably be noted in the medical history sheet GREF/MED/2A.
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14 Recruits suffering from minor health problems of ordinary nature such as simple sores,
shoe bite, common cold coughs and similar other minor ailments which usually last only a few
days may be accepted. Medical Board before accepting such a recruit must fully satisfy
themselves that the disease is likely to be cured in a few days without indoor treatment.
Normally, unless the recruit is required to meet some urgent demand which cannot be met
readily, he should be advised to get himself treated and come again. If recruit who is suffering
from a minor disease of any nature is accepted, no entry need to be made of the disease in the
medical history sheet GREF/MED/2A.
15 The decision of the Medical Board in all cases of rejection due to not meeting the required
medical standards will be final.
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