5070 - Manthan2.0August2022 - 2022 10 11 - 12 23 25

MONTHLY
MANTHAN 2.O
AUGUST 2022
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Manthan 2.O | August 2022
Contents
1. India, US to carry out mega military Yudh Abhyas exercise in Uttarakhand ......................................... 3
2. Drought in Europe ........................................................................................................................................................... 7
3. CBDC, the ‘digital rupee’ that RBI could introduce this year and how it will help .............................. 9
4. Chief Justice of India .....................................................................................................................................................12
5. Punjab bans sarpanch proxies .................................................................................................................................14
6. ‘Vikrant’ to be re-incarnated: all about India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier ................................17
7. India and Bangladesh signed an interim water sharing agreement for the Kushiyara River ......20
8. What is ‘Arth Ganga’, the govt’s new model for the river’s sustainable development? ..................24
9. Bilkis Bano Case .............................................................................................................................................................26
10. Who was Pandurang Khankhoje, Ghadarite revolutionary and a hero of Mexico?...........................28
11. National emblem unveiled on the roof of the New Parliament Building ...............................................29
12. Haryana’s Cheerag scheme for EWS students ...................................................................................................32
13. Disqualification of MLAs .............................................................................................................................................34
14. What is ‘zombie ice’, how it threatens to raise global sea levels by over 10 inches .........................36
15. India’s policy on the Rohingya Refugees .............................................................................................................38
16. William Ruto and Kenya’s elections ......................................................................................................................40
17. India approves India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution ...................................................43
18. Chile’s proposed new constitution .........................................................................................................................46
19. 2022 Commonwealth Games ....................................................................................................................................48
20. Langya, a new zoonotic virus....................................................................................................................................52
21. Mikhail Gorbachev passed away .............................................................................................................................53
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1. India, US to carry out mega military Yudh
Abhyas exercise in Uttarakhand
What is the News?
 India and the US will hold the 18th edition of the Exercise ―Yudh Abhyas‖ in Uttarakhand‘s Auli.
What is Exercise Yudh Abhyas?
 It is a military exercise between India and the US. It aims to enhance understanding, cooperation and
interoperability between the armies of India and the US with a number of complex drills being planned.
The exercise was started in 2004 under the US Army Pacific Partnership Program. The exercise is
hosted alternately between both countries.
What are the other exercises between India and the US?
 Exercise Tiger Triumph– It is a tri-service military exercise between India and the US.
 Exercise Vajra Prahar: It is a Special Forces joint military training exercise. It has been conducted
alternately in India and the US since 2010.
 Exercise Cope India: It is a series of bilateral Air Force exercises between India and the United States.
Defence Cooperation between India and US
 Relations between India and US have improved since 2016 when the US designated India a
―Major Defence Partner‖. Since 2016 the two countries have signed many major defence and
security pacts such as LEMOA, BECA and COMCASA.
Defence history of two countries:
 The two countries have also inked key defence and security pacts over the past few years, including the
Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016 that allows their militaries to
use each other‘s bases for repair and replenishment of supplies as well as provides for deeper
cooperation.
 The two sides also signed the COMCASA (Communications Compatibility and Security
Agreement) in 2018 which provides for interoperability between the two militaries and provides for
the sale of high-end technology from the US to India.
 In October 2020, India and the US sealed the BECA (Basic Exchange and Cooperation
Agreement) to further boost bilateral defence ties. The pact provides for sharing of high-end military
technology, logistics and geospatial maps between the two countries.
China Claims India-US Exercise Would Violate Border Pacts, India Disagrees
 After China claimed that the scheduled India-US military exercise would violate border pacts,
India on August 25, 2022 disagreed and asserted that the bilateral event would have no bearing on
any such agreements.
 The 18th edition of the India-US exercise, ―Yudh Abhyas‖, will be held over two weeks in October
in Uttarakhand‘s Auli, which is around 50 kilometres from the India-China border as the crow
flies.
 At a press briefing in Beijing, China‘s Ministry of National Defense spokesperson, Senior Colonel
Tan Kefei, said, ―We firmly oppose any third party to meddle in the China-India border issue in
any form.‖ His reply was in answer to a question about the scheduled India-US military exercises. The
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Chinese spokesperson asserted that ―military cooperation of relevant countries, especially on exercises
and training activities, should not be targeted at any third party, but rather serve to help maintain
regional peace and stability.
 He then claimed, ―In light of relevant agreements signed by China and India in 1993 and 1996,
neither side is allowed to conduct military exercise against the other in areas near the Line of
Actual Control.‖ ―It is hoped that the Indian side will strictly abide by the important consensus reached
by the leaders of the two countries and the relevant agreements, uphold its commitment to resolving
border issues through bilateral channels, and maintain peace and tranquility in the border area with
practical actions,‖ said Tan.
 A few hours later, MEA spokesperson Arindam Bagchi expressed puzzlement at the Chinese
spokesperson‘s remarks. ―I don‘t understand the reference to third parties,‖ he said. Bagchi noted
that India had also stated that both neighbours ―should stick to agreements‖, which has not happened.
 India has blamed China‘s violation of bilateral border pacts as the key reason for the military
stand-off in eastern Ladakh in May 2020, which is still ongoing. The scheduled venue of Auli falls
within the middle sector of the Line of Actual Control, while the remaining stand-off points are in
the western sector.
 ―The India-US exercises are something completely different, and I don‘t know what colour has been
given that it is targeting there or violating existing agreements. I have no such information that I would
be able to substantially agree to that,‖ said Bagchi.
India-China Conflict
 The 2020 China–India skirmishes are part of an ongoing military standoff between China and
India. Since 5 May 2020, Chinese and Indian troops have engaged in aggressive face-offs and
skirmishes at locations along the Sino-Indian border.
 This includes Pangong Tso Lake in Ladakh and the Tibet Autonomous Region; near the border
between Sikkim. Additional clashes also took place at locations in eastern Ladakh along the Line of
Actual Control (LAC).
 The 2020 Galwan incident was the first military casualty after 1975 at the LAC between India
and China. The incident represents a watershed in India‘s relations with China and marks the end of
a 45-year chapter which saw no armed confrontation involving loss of lives on the Line of Actual
Control (LAC).
Galwan clash
 In 2020, Indian and Chinese armies were locked in a tense stand-off at three points along the Line
of Actual Control — the Galwan River Valley, Hot Springs area and the Pangong Lake. Even as
India and China were engaged in military-level talks and in controlled engagement, there was a violent
face-off between the army troops of both sides at Galwan Valley in Eastern Ladakh region.
The strategic importance of Galwan River Valley (GRV):
 The Galwan River is the highest ridgeline and it allows the Chinese to dominate the Shyok route
passes, which is close to the river. It lies along the western sector of the LAC and close to Aksai Chin,a
disputed area claimed by India but controlled by China.
Why tensions suddenly rose in this area?
 India is trying to construct a feeder road emanating from Darbuk-Shyok Village – Daulat Beg Odi
road (DS-DBO road). This road runs along the Shyok River and is the most critical line of
communications close to LAC. Hence, Chinese were keen on controlling this area as they fear that
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the Indian side could end up threatening their position on the Aksai Chin plateau by using the
river valley.
What actions has China taken since this event?
 PLA has built additional accommodation in the depth areas along the LAC on its side and is
preparing for establishing a long haul presence in the area. Troops are being rotated in these areas by the
Chinese
 China is also intensifying construction work behind the main confrontation points in the Aksai
China. Small arms exercise was conducted by the PLA in Tibet. In this exercise, PLA soldiers were
trained in anti-tank rocket launchers, grenade launchers, anti-aircraft machine guns and other weapons.
 Reports have also indicated that China has deployed a long-range rocket artillery in the border
region at an altitude of 5200 m.
India- China Border:
 India and China share a 3,488 km long boundary. Unfortunately, the entire boundary is disputed.
The line, which delineates the boundary between the two countries, is popularly called the McMahon
line, after its author Sir Henry McMahon.
 In 1913, the British-India government had called a tripartite conference, in which the boundary
between India and Tibet was formalized after a discussion between the Indian and the Tibetans. A
Convention was adopted, which resulted in the delimitation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. This
boundary is, however, disputed by China which terms it as illegal.
 In 1957, China occupied Aksai Chin and built a road through it. This episode was followed by
intermittent clashes along the border, which finally culminated in the border war of 1962. The boundary,
which came into existence after the war, came to be known as Line of Actual Control (LAC). It is a
military held line.
Attempts to resolve the issue:
 The rapprochement between the two countries in 1976 enabled India and China to initiate High
Level border talks in 1981 to find a solution to the vexed problem. After eight rounds, the talks broke
down in 1987.
 In 1988, following Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi‘s visit to China, the Joint Working Group (JWG)
was set up to look into the border problem.
 In 1993, the Agreement on the Maintenance of Peace and Tranquility along the Line of Actual
Control (LAC) was signed and the India-China Expert Group of Diplomatic and Military Officers
was set up to assist the JWG.
 In 1996, the Agreement on Confidence Building Measures (CBMs) in the Military Field along the
LAC was signed.
 In 2003, two special representatives (one each from India and China) were appointed to find a
political solution to the border dispute.
 Till 2009, these two special representatives had held 17 rounds of talks, but it seems they have not
made much headway. Recently, NSA Ajit Doval was appointed as Special Envoy for talks.
 The Indo-Tibet Border Police (ITBP) of the army is now responsible for patrolling 3,488 km Line
of Actual Control. This is an additional responsibility of ITBP after Galwan clash. Around 10% of
ITBP personnel are to be deployed in patrolling of LAC.
Disengagement efforts:
 The military talks to ease tensions between India and China are still underway. Recently, Five points of
agreementwere set forth after the sixth round of talks between the senior military commanders.
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India-China Five-point Agreement:
 Both sides should take guidance from the series of consensus of the leaders
 Current situation in the border areas is not in the interest of either side.
 Both sides shall abide by all the existing agreements and protocol on china-india boundary affairs,
 Both sides have agreed to continue to have dialogue and communication through the special
representative mechanism on the India-China boundary question.
 Both have decided to conclude new confidence-building measures to maintain peace and
tranquility.
 Though the two sides have inked towards a quick disengagement, there is no clear mention of final
restoration of status quo in the five points.
Issue of concerns in India-China relations:
 Belt Road Initiative: India has objected this, since its inception on grounds of violating its
sovereignty pointing to China Pakistan Economic Corridor.
 India‘s support to China on global issues has not led to Beijing‘s reciprocation for instances:
China opposed India‘s permanent membership to UN Security Council and entry into NSG.
 India faces trade imbalance heavily in some favor of China. In 2017-18, trade deficit has gone wide
to US$62.9 billion in China's favor.
 Two countries failed to resolve their border dispute and steadily established military
infrastructure along border areas Indian media outlets have repeatedly reported Chinese military
incursions into Indian territory
 China has expressed concerns about Indian military and economic activities in the disputed South
China Sea. Same way India is also concerned about rising Chinese activities in Indian Ocean.
 China's strong strategic bilateral relations with Pakistan and other neighboring countries like
Nepal and Bhutan is cause of concern as these countries act as buffer states.
Know More about China:
 China is a country in East Asia and the world‘s most populous country, with a population of
around 1.404 billion. Beijing is the capital of the People‘s Republic of China. Xi Jinping is serving
as president of the People‘s Republic of China. National People‘s Congress is the national legislature
of the People‘s Republic of China. With 2,980 members in 2018, it is the largest parliamentary body
in the world. China‘s currency yuan joins the International Monetary Fund‘s basket of reserve
currencies. China claims sovereignty over all of the South China Sea, a huge source of hydrocarbons.
However, several ASEAN member countries, including Vietnam, Philippines and Brunei, have
made counterclaims. Chinese claims in the South China Sea are described in part by the nine-dash
line.
 China and India are the two neighbouring countries in Asia. India shares 3488 km of border with
China that runs along the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh. The Belt and Road Initiative, known in Chinese and
formerly in English as One Belt One Road or OBOR for short, is a global infrastructure
development strategy adopted by the Chinese government in 2013 to invest in nearly 70 countries
and international organizations.
 China–Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) is a collection of infrastructure projects that are
under construction throughout Islamic Republic of Pakistan beginning in 2013. Originally valued
at $47 billion, the value of CPEC projects is worth $62 billion as of 2020. CPEC is intended to
rapidly upgrade Pakistan's required infrastructure and strengthen its economy by the construction of
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modern transportation networks, numerous energy projects, and special economic zones. On 13
November 2016, CPEC became partly operational when Chinese cargo was transported overland
to Gwadar Port for onward maritime shipment to Africa and West Asia, while some major power
projects were commissioned by late 2017. All the progress for CPEC after COVID-19 pandemic
alert in Pakistan as of 2021 has been haulted due to security concerns of the workers and the
protests being carried out in the Northwest-Frontier Province and Balochistan.
QUESTIONS
1. India and the US will hold the 18th edition of the Exercise ―Yudh Abhyas‖ in _________.
2. The line, which delineates the boundary between the India and China, is popularly called the
_________ line.
3. The Indian army is now responsible for patrolling the Line of Actual Control is _________.
4. In _________, China occupied Aksai Chin and built a road through it.
5. The current President of the People‘s Republic of China is _________.
6. China‘s currency _________ joins the International Monetary Fund‘s basket of reserve currencies.
7. The Belt and Road Initiative, known in Chinese and formerly in English as One Belt One Road or
OBOR for short, is a global _________ development strategy.
8. India and China share a _________ km long boundary.
9. Yudh Abhyas exercise was started in 2004 under the _________ Program.
10. Relations between India and US have improved since 2016 when the US designated India a
―________‖.
2. Drought in Europe
 After the record-breaking summer heat, 2022 may be the worst drought year in Europe in 500 years. Large rivers
have been reduced to shallow streams, hitting power generation.
 China and the US too are facing drought situations.
What is a Drought?
 Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in rainfall /precipitation over an extended period, usually a season
or more, resulting in a water shortage causing adverse impacts on vegetation, animals, and/or people.
Causes:
 Variability in rainfall
 Deviation in the route of monsoon winds
 Early withdrawal of the monsoon
 Forest fires
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 Land degradation in addition to Climate change
Types of droughts:
 Meteorological Drought: It is based on the degree of dryness or rainfall deficit and the length of the dry period.
 Hydrological Drought: It is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply such as stream flow,
reservoir and lake levels, and ground water table decline.
 Agricultural Drought: It refers to the impact on agriculture by factors such as rainfall deficits, soil water deficits,
reduced groundwater, or reservoir levels needed for irrigation.
 Socioeconomic Drought: It considers the impact of drought conditions (meteorological, agricultural, or
hydrological drought) on supply and demand of some economic goods such as fruits, vegetables, grains and meat.
How bad is the Drought Situation in Europe?
 The drought is considered the worst in 500 years. The European summer was this dry last in 1540, when a year-
long drought killed tens of thousands of people.
 However, earlier European droughts such as those in 2003, 2010, and 2018 too were compared to the 1540 event.
 Some of Europe‘s biggest rivers — Rhine, Po, Loire, Danube — which are usually formidable waterways, are
unable to support even mid-sized boats.
 As per an analytical report by the Global Drought Observatory (GDO), an agency of the European Commission,
about 64% of the continent‘s landmass was experiencing drought conditions.
 Nearly 90% of the geographical area in Switzerland and France, about 83% in Germany, and close to 75% in
Italy, was facing agricultural drought.
 Droughts are part of the natural climate system and are not uncommon in Europe. The extraordinary dry spell has
been the result of a prolonged and significant deviation from normal weather patterns.
 It is the record-breaking heat waves that have resulted in temperatures in many countries rising to historic highs.
 Unusually high temperatures have led to increased evaporation of surface water and soil moisture.
 The severity of the current drought can also be attributed, to an extent, to the fact that it occurred so soon after the
2018 drought.
 Many areas in Europe were yet to recover from the last drought, soil moisture had also not been restored to
normal.
Heat Waves
 A heat wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures typically occurring between the months of March and
June, and in some rare cases even extending till July.
 According to India Meteorological Department (IMD), a heat wave is declared when the maximum temperature of
a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
Impacts:
 Transportation: Europe depends heavily on its rivers to move cargo in an economical manner, including coal to
power plants. With water levels down to less than a metre in some stretches, most large ships have been rendered
unusable.
 Power: Power production has been hit, leading to electricity shortages and a further increase in energy prices
which were already high due to the war between Russia and Ukraine.
 Lack of adequate water has affected the operation of nuclear power plants, which use large amounts of water as
coolant.
 Food Security: Food has become sharply more expensive in many countries, and drinking water is being rationed
in some regions. Agriculture has also been affected badly.
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Drought in India
 In India, there is no single, legally accepted definition of drought. The State Government is the final authority
when it comes to declaring a region as drought affected.
 The Government of India has published two important documents in respect of managing a drought.
 The first step is to look at two mandatory indicators - rainfall deviation and dry spell.
 Depending on the extent of the deviation, and whether or not there is a dry spell, the manual specifies various
situations that may or may not be considered a drought trigger.
 The second step is to look at four impact indicators — agriculture, vegetation indices based on remote sensing,
soil moisture, and hydrology.
 The States may consider any three of the four types of the Impact Indicators (one from each) for assessment of
drought, the intensity of the calamity and make a judgement.
 If all three chosen indicators are in the ‗severe‘ category, it amounts to severe drought; and if two of the three
chosen impact indicators are in the ‗moderate‘ class, it amounts to moderate drought.
 The third step comes in after both previous triggers have been set off. In that event, ―States will conduct sample
surveys for ground in order to make a final determination of drought.
 The finding of field verification exercise will be the final basis for judging the intensity of drought as ‗severe‘ or
‗moderate‘.
 Once a drought is determined, the state government needs to issue a notification specifying the geographical
extent. The notification is valid for six months unless de-notified earlier.
QUESTIONS
1. Drought is generally considered as a deficiency in _________ over an extended period, usually a
season or more.
2. Nearly 90% of the geographical area in Switzerland and France, about 83% in Germany, and close to
_________ in Italy, was facing agricultural drought.
3. A heat wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures typically occurring between the months of
_________.
4. According to India Meteorological Department (IMD), a heat wave is declared when the maximum
temperature of a station reaches at least _________ for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
5. The Government of India has published _________ important documents in respect of managing a
drought.
3. CBDC, the ‘digital rupee’ that RBI could

introduce this year and how it will help
 The Reserve Bank of India‘s (RBI) digital rupee — the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) — may be
introduced in phases beginning with wholesale businesses in the current financial year.
 In her Budget speech on February 1, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had said that the central bank would
launch the CBDC in the financial year 2022-23.
 RBI, which has repeatedly voiced its opposition to private digital currencies, had proposed to the government in
October last year to widen the scope of the paper rupee to include currency in a digital form.
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What is Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)?
 According to the RBI, ―CBDC is the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.
 It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.
 Only its form is different.‖ The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by
blockchain.
 Though the concept of CBDCs was directly inspired by Bitcoin, it is different from decentralised virtual
currencies and crypto assets, which are not issued by the state and lack the ‗legal tender‘ status.
 CBDCs enable the user to conduct both domestic and cross-border transactions which do not require a third party
or a bank.
How will CBDC help?
 ―Introduction of CBDC has the potential to provide significant benefits, such as reduced dependency on cash,
higher seigniorage due to lower transaction costs, reduced settlement risk.
 Introduction of CBDC would also possibly lead to a more robust, efficient, trusted, regulated and legal tender-
based payments option.‖
 ―There are also associated risks which need to be carefully evaluated against the potential benefits.‖
 RBI had proposed amendments to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which would enable it to launch a CBDC.
 The government had been planning at the time to introduce a Bill in Parliament that would prohibit ―all private
cryptocurrencies in India‖ with ―certain exceptions‖.
 ―Government has received a proposal from Reserve Bank of India in October 2021 for amendment to the Reserve
Bank of India Act, 1934 to enhance the scope of the definition of ‗bank note‘ to include currency in digital form.
 RBI has been examining use cases and working out a phased implementation strategy for introduction of CBDC
with little or no disruption,‖.
 RBI has repeatedly flagged concerns over money laundering, terror financing, tax evasion, etc with private
cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, Ether, etc. Introducing its own CBDC has been seen as a way to bridge the
advantages and risks of digital currency.
What will the introduction of the digital rupee change for citizens?
 There are several models proposed by technology experts and evangelists on how the digital rupee could be
transacted, and the formal announcement by the RBI will likely provide the details.
 One chief difference could be that a digital rupee transaction would be instantaneous as opposed to the current
digital payment experience.
Digital Currency
 Digital currency (digital money, electronic money or electronic currency) is any currency, money, or money-like
asset that is primarily managed, stored or exchanged on digital computer systems, especially over the internet.
 Types of digital currencies include cryptocurrency, virtual currency and central bank digital currency.
 Digital currency may be recorded on a distributed database on the internet, a centralized electronic computer
database owned by a company or bank, within digital files or even on a stored-value card.
 Digital currencies exhibit properties similar to traditional currencies, but generally do not have a classical physical
form of fiat currency historically that you can directly hold in your hand, like currencies with printed banknotes or
minted coins - however they do have a physical form in an unclassical sense coming from the computer to
computer and computer to human interactions and the information and processing power of the servers that store
and keep track of money.
 This unclassical physical form allows nearly instantaneous transactions over the internet and vastly lowers the
cost associated with distributing notes and coins for example of the types of money in the UK economy 3% are
notes and coins, 79% as electronic money (in the form of bank deposits).
 Usually not issued by a governmental body, virtual currencies are not considered a legal tender and they enable
ownership transfer across governmental borders.
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 This type of currency may be used to buy physical goods and services, but may also be restricted to certain
communities such as for use inside an online game.
In India
 The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system for instant money transfers between any two
bank accounts held in participating banks in India.
 The interface has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India and is regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India.
 This digital payment system is available 24*7*365. UPI is agnostic to the type of user and is used for person to
person, person to business, business to person and business to business transactions.
 Transactions can be initiated by the payer or the payee. To identify a bank account it uses a unique Virtual
Payment Address (VPA) of the type 'accountID@bankID'.
 The VPA can be assigned by the bank, but can also be self specified just like an email address.
 The simplest and most common form of VPA is 'mobilenumber@upi'.
 Money can be transferred from one VPA to another or from one VPA to any bank account in a participating bank
using account number and bank branch details.
 Transfers can be inter-bank or intra-bank.
 UPI has no intermediate holding pond for money.
 It withdraws funds directly from the bank account of the sender and deposits them directly into the recipient's
bank account whenever a transaction is requested.
 A sender can initiate and authorise a transfer using a two step secure process: login using a pass code → initiate
→ verify using a passcode.
 A receiver can initiate a payment request on the system to send the payer a notification or by presenting a QR
code.
 On receiving the request, the payer can decline or confirm the payment using the same two step process: login →
confirm → verify.
 The system is extraordinarily user friendly to the extent that even technophobes and barely literate users are
adopting it in huge numbers.
QUESTIONS
1. Transactions can be initiated by the payer or the payee. To identify a bank account it uses a unique
_________ of the type 'accountID@bankID'.
2. RBI had proposed amendments to the _________, which would enable it to launch a CBDC.
3. The _________ digital rupee — the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) — may be introduced in
phases beginning with wholesale businesses in the current financial year.
4. The types of money in the UK economy 3% are notes and coins, _________ as electronic money (in
the form of bank deposits).
5. Types of digital currencies include cryptocurrency, virtual currency and _________.
6. Transactions can be initiated by the payer or the payee. To identify a bank account it uses a unique
_________.
7. The interface has been developed by the National Payments Corporation of India and is regulated by
the _________.
8. The _________ is a real-time payment system for instant money transfers between any two bank
accounts held in participating banks in India.
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4. Chief Justice of India
 Justice Lalit will have a relatively short tenure of over three months with his retirement scheduled for November
8.
 He will be the second CJI to have been appointed directly from the Bar, without serving as a judge of a high
court.
Who can become the Chief Justice of India?
 Apart from being an Indian citizen, the person must (a) have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court
or of two or more such Courts in succession or (b) have been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or
of two or more such Courts in succession, or (c) be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.
Who appoints the CJI?
 The Chief Justice of India and the other judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause
(2) of Article 124 of the Indian Constitution.
 It is mentioned in Article 124 that appointment by the President is to be done ―after consultation‖ with judges of
the Supreme Court, as the President may ―deem necessary‖.
 Article 217, which deals with the appointment of High Court judges, says the President should consult the CJI,
Governor, and Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. Further, the tenure of a CJI is until they attain the age
of 65 years, while High Court judges retire at 62 years.
What is the system followed for recommending and appointing judges?
 The more than two decades-old collegium system is followed in the appointment of judges, consisting of five
senior most judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
 The government gets a background inquiry done by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) at times from the names first
suggested for appointment by the collegium.
 While the government can also raise objections, usually the collegium‘s will prevails.
 The term ―collegium‖ is not mentioned in the constitution, which only speaks of consultation by the President.
 Given the ambiguity of the word ―consult‖, this method of appointment has often been challenged in the courts,
leading to cases such as the First Judges Case where it was held that recommendation made by the CJI to the
President can be refused for ―cogent reasons‖.
 This meant the President or the executive would be in a more influential position in deciding appointments.
 The Supreme Court laid down guidelines for appointments and transfers — leading to the present form of the
collegium in which decisions are to be taken by a majority of the five senior most judges, a result of the ‗Third
Judges Case‘.
 Usually, the seniormost judge of the court after the chief justice (in terms of the years served) is recommended as
the successor.
 This convention was memorably discarded by former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, who appointed Justice AN
Ray as CJI in 1973 over his seniors for a CJI more favourable to her regime.
 According to the government‘s Memorandum of procedure for the appointment of Supreme Court Judges,
seniority is to be the norm.
 It says the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs seeks the recommendation of the outgoing Chief
Justice of India for the appointment of the next CJI.
 After the collegium‘s recommendations are finalised and received from the CJI, the Law Minister will put up the
recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President on the matter of appointment.
Page 12
What is the criticism of the collegium system?
 The main issue with the collegium system is that it has little transparency.
 A person whose near relation or well-wisher is or had been a judge in the higher courts or is a senior advocate or
is a political higher-up, stands a better chance of elevation.
 It is not necessary that such a person must be competent because sometimes even less competent persons are
inducted.
 There is no dearth of such examples. Such persons should not be appointed, at least in the same HC.‖
 An alternative was proposed in form of the National Judicial Appointments Commission, which suggested a body
for making appointments, comprising the CJI and two seniormost judges, the law minister, and two ―eminent‖
persons selected by a panel including the Prime Minister, the CJI and the leader of the largest Opposition party in
the Lok Sabha.
 While the bill introduced for it was passed by the Parliament, it was ultimately struck down by the Supreme Court
in 2015.
 A Memorandum of Procedure was to be drafted for the appointment procedure, said the court at the time.
What is the procedure for removal of CJI?
 The constitution states: ―A Judge of the Supreme Court shall not be removed from his office except by an order of
the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total
membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and
voting‖, with the address in the same session presented to the President for removal on one of the two grounds –
proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
Supreme court of India
 The Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial authority of India and is the highest court of the Republic of
India under the constitution.
 It is the most senior constitutional court, has the final decision in all legal matters, and also has the power of
judicial review.
 The Chief Justice of India is the Head and Chief Judge of the Supreme Court, which consists of a maximum of 34
judges, and has extensive powers in the form of original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
 As the apex and most powerful constitutional court in India, it takes up appeals primarily against verdicts of the
High Courts of various states of the Union and other courts and tribunals.
 It is required to safeguard the fundamental rights of citizens and settles disputes between various government
authorities as well as the central government vs. state governments or state governments versus another state
government in the country.
 As an advisory court, it hears matters which may specifically be referred to it under the Constitution by the
President of India.
 The law declared by the Supreme Court becomes binding on all courts at all levels within India and also by all of
the Union and State Governments.
 As per the Article 142 of the Constitution, it is the duty of the President of India to enforce the decrees of the
Supreme Court and the court is conferred with the inherent jurisdiction to pass any order deemed necessary in the
interest of justice.
 The Supreme Court has replaced the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council as the highest court of appeal since
28 January 1950.
Presently, the Members of Collegium are:
 Uday Umesh Lalit (Chief Justice of India)
 Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud (Judge)
 Sanjay Kishan Kaul (Judge)
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 S. Abdul Nazeer (Judge)
 Indira Banerjee (Judge)
QUESTIONS
1. Justice UU Lalit is the _________ chief Justice of India.
2. Justice Lalit will have a relatively short tenure of over _________ months with his retirement
scheduled for November 8.
3. He will be the _________ CJI to have been appointed directly from the Bar, without serving as a
judge of a high court.
4. Apart from being an Indian citizen, the person musthave been for at least _________ a Judge of a
High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
5. The Chief Justice of India and the other judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
under clause (2) of _________ of the Indian Constitution.
6. _________ deals with the appointment of High Court judges.
7. The tenure of a CJI is until they attain the age of _________ while High Court judges retire at 62
years.
8. The more than two decades-old collegium system is followed in the appointment of judges,
consisting of _________ senior most judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
5. Punjab bans sarpanch proxies

 The Punjab government has decided to ban Sarpanch proxies in any meeting of Panchayati raj
institutions to empower women instead of paying lip service.
What‘s the issue?
 Most of the women's sarpanches do not attend meetings. Instead, the male family members of
several women's sarpanches were attending official meetings on their behalf. Some male members
even sign documents on their behalf.
What is the history behind the ‗Panchayat‘?
 ‗Panchayat‘, being ―Local government‖, is a state subject and part of the State list of the Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution of India. Panchayati Raj Institution (PRI) is a system of rural local self-
government in India.
 Local Self Government is the management of local affairs by such local bodies who have been
elected by the local people. Lord Ripon is regarded to have been the father of local self-
government in India. He formulated the local self-government and laid the foundations of
representative institutions in India. His scheme of local self-government developed the Municipal
institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since.
 After the Constitution came into force, Article 40 made a mention of panchayats and Article 246
empowers the state legislature to legislate with respect to any subject relating to local self-
government. It was after much discussion among the supporters and opponents of the village panchayat
Page 14
that the panchayats finally got a place for themselves in the Constitution as Article 40 of the
Directive Principles of State Policy.
 Since the Directive Principles are not binding principles, the result was the absence of a uniform
structure of these bodies throughout the country. After independence, as a development initiative,
India had implemented the Community Development Programmes (CDP) on the eve of Gandhi
Jayanti, the 2nd October, 1952 under the major influence of the Etawah Project undertaken by the
American expert, Albert Mayer. It encompassed almost all activities of rural development which were
to be implemented with the help of village panchayats along with the participation of people.
 In 1953, the National Extension Service was also introduced as a prologue to CDP. But the
programme did not yield much result. There were various reasons for the failure of CDP like
bureaucracy and excessive politics, lack of people participation, lack of trained and qualified staff,
and lack of local bodies interest in implementing the CDP especially the village panchayats.
 In 1957, the National Development Council constituted a committee headed by Balwant Rai Mehta
to look into the working of community development programme. The team observed that the major
reason for the failure of the CDP was the lack of people‘s participation. The committee suggested a
three-tier PRIs, namely, Grama Panchayats (GPs) at the village level, Panchayat Samiti (PSs) at
the block level, and Zilla Parishad (ZPs) at the district level.
 As a result of this scheme of democratic decentralization was launched for the first time in
Rajasthan on October 2, 1959. In Andhra Pradesh, the scheme was introduced on 1st November,
1959. The necessary legislation had also been passed and implemented in Assam, Gujarat, Karnataka,
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa, and Punjab etc.
 The appointment of the Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977 did bring new thinking in the concepts and
practice of the Panchayat Raj. The committee recommended a two-tier Panchayat Raj institutional
structure consisting of Zilla Parishad and Mandal Panchayat.
 The most important among them are the Hanumantha Rao Committee (1983), G.V.K. Rao
Committee (1985), L.M.Singhvi Committee (1986) and the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State
relations (1988), P.K. Thungan Committee (1989) and Harlal Singh Kharra Committee (1990).
 The G.V.K. Rao Committee (1985) recommended making the ―district‖ as the basic unit of
planning and also holding regular elections while the L.M.Singhvi committee recommended providing
more financial resources and constitutional status to the panchayats to strengthen them.
 It was during the Prime Ministership of P.V.Narasimha Rao that a comprehensive amendment was
introduced in the form of the Constitution 72nd Amendment Bill in September 1991. 73rd and 74th
Constitutional Amendments were passed by Parliament in December, 1992. Through these
amendments local self-governance was introduced in rural and urban India. The Acts came into
force as the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 on April 24, 1993 and the Constitution (74th
Amendment) Act, 1992 on June 1, 1993.
What are the Salient Features of the Constitution 73rd and 74th Amendments?
 These amendments added two new parts to the Constitution, namely, added Part IX titled ―The
Panchayats‖ (added by 73rd Amendment) and Part IXA titled ―The Municipalities‖ (added by 74th
Amendment). Basic units of democratic system-Gram Sabhas (villages) and Ward Committees
(Municipalities) comprising all the adult members registered as voters.
 Three-tier system of panchayats at village, intermediate block/taluk/mandal and district levels
except in States with population is below 20 lakhs (Article 243B).
 Seats at all levels to be filled by direct elections Article 243C (2).
 Any person who is 21 years or above can contest for the Panchayat elections.
Page 15
 Seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) and the chairpersons of the
Panchayats at all levels also shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their population.
 One-third of the total number of seats to be reserved for women.
 One third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs also reserved for women.
 One-third offices of chairpersons at all levels reserved for women (Article 243D).
 Uniform five year term and elections to constitute new bodies to be completed before the expiry of
the term.
 In the event of dissolution, elections compulsorily within six months (Article 243E).
 Independent Election Commission in each State for superintendence, direction and control of the
electoral rolls (Article 243K).
 Panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice in respect of subjects as
devolved by law to the various levels of Panchayats including the subjects as illustrated in
Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G).
 74th Amendment provides for a District Planning Committee to consolidate the plans prepared by
Panchayats and Municipalities (Article 243ZD).
 Budgetary allocation from State Governments, share of revenue of certain taxes, collection and
retention of the revenue it raises, Central Government programmes and grants, Union Finance
Commission grants (Article 243H).
 Establish a Finance Commission in each State to determine the principles on the basis of which
adequate financial resources would be ensured for panchayats and municipalities (Article 243I).
 The Eleventh Scheduled of the Constitution places as many as 29 functions within the purview of
the Panchayati Raj bodies. Twelfth Schedule of the Indian constitution contains the powers, authority
and responsibilities of Municipalities. This schedule has 18 items.
 India commemorated the 12th National Panchayati Raj day on 24th April 2022. The Prime Minister
Narendra Modi launched the distribution of e-property cards under the SWAMITVA (Survey of
Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme on the Day.
Punjab made provisions of 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions
 Punjab has also made provisions of 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions in
their respective State Panchayati Raj Acts.
 Through the 73rd constitutional amendment, one-third of seats in Panchayats were reserved for
women. Several states raised the quantum of reserved seats to fifty percent. This was aimed at
empowering women and ensuring their participation in the political process and decision-making at the
grass root level.
 Clause (3) of Article 243D of the Constitution ensures the participation of women in Panchayati
Raj Institutions by mandating not less than one-third reservation for women out of the total
number of seats to be filled by direct election and the number of offices of chairpersons of
Panchayats.
 Proxy sarpanchesdiminish women‘s authority and block the election of women keen on bringing
about a change in society through a career in politics. This is not only making a mockery of the
reservation of women in Panchayati Raj institutions but also appears to be a hurdle for other deserving
women candidates.
Reasons for the emergence of ''sarpanch proxies‖:
 Resistance due to Social barriers
Page 16
 Poor social status of women
 poor level of literacy
 confined to domestic spaces
 lack financial independence
 Lack of skills: Lack of efforts for women‘s capacity building, training, or inculcating confidence.
 Failure of government to act appropriately against such malpractice and blatant misuse of power.
Required measures:
 Additional work is needed on the capacity building of women in matters of governance. This can
be done by:
 Raising society‘s awareness about women's rights
 Sensitizing bureaucracy about the relevance of women's participation at the panchayat level.
 Social barriers due to traditional society need to go away.
QUESTIONS
1. India celebrates National Panchayati Raj day on _________.
2. The Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the distribution of e-property cards under the
SWAMITVA scheme. The full form of SWAMITVA scheme is _________.
3. Punjab has also made provisions of _________ % reservation for women in Panchayati Raj
Institutions in their respective State Panchayati Raj Acts.
4. The first state to introduce Panchayati Raj system in India is _________.
5. The Eleventh Scheduled of the Constitution places as many as _________ functions within the
purview of the Panchayati Raj bodies.
6. Twelfth Schedule of the Indian constitution contains the powers, authority and responsibilities of
Municipalities. This schedule has _________ items.
7. The system of urban government was constitutionalised through the 74th constitutional amendment
act of 1992. Twelfth Schedule was added by the _________ Amendment Act of 1992.
8. The appointment of the Ashok Mehta Committee in 1977 did bring new thinking in the concepts and
practice of the Panchayat Raj. The committee recommended a _________ tier Panchayat Raj
institutional structure.
9. In 1957, the National Development Council constituted a committee headed by Balwant Rai Mehta
to look into the working of community development programme. The committee suggested a
_________ tier PRIs.
10. The father of local self-government in India is _________.
6. ‘Vikrant’ to be re-incarnated: all about

India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier
 The nation‘s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-1) will be commissioned on September 2.
INS Vikrant ordered in 2004
Page 17
Moto of Vikranr-"I defeat those who fight against me"
India's 1st indigenous warship-INS Ajay India's first indigenous frigate-INS Nilgiri
 The commissioning of the warship, which will be christened ‗Vikrant‘, will mark a ―historical milestone of
realisation of Nation‘s commitment towards AatmaNirbharta‖ (self-reliance). Prime Minister Narendra Modi will
be the chief guest on the occasion.
 Vikrant is the largest warship to have ever been built in India, and the first indigenously designed and built
aircraft carrier for the Indian Navy.
 It puts India in an elite club of nations that have the capability to design and build these giant, powerful warships.
 The Navy took delivery of the warship, designed by the Warship Design Bureau (WDB), its in-house
organisation, from the manufacturer, Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL), a public sector shipyard under Ministry of
Ports, Shipping & Waterways.
 The ship had successfully completed its fourth and final phase of sea trials three weeks previously.
Why is it important for India to have an aircraft carrier?
 An aircraft carrier is one of the most potent marine assets for any nation, which enhances a Navy‘s capability to
travel far from its home shores to carry out air domination operations.
 Many experts consider having an aircraft carrier as essential to be considered a ―blue water‖ navy — that is, a
navy that has the capacity to project a nation‘s strength and power across the high seas.
 An aircraft carrier generally leads as the capital ship of a carrier strike/ battle group. As the aircraft carrier is a
prized and sometimes vulnerable target, it is usually escorted in the group by destroyers, missile cruisers, frigates,
submarines, and supply ships.
Us,UK,Russia,China,France
Why is it a big deal that this warship has been Made in India?
 Only five or six nations currently have the capability of manufacturing an aircraft carrier, and India has joined this
prestigious club now. Experts and Navy officials have said that India has demonstrated the capacity and self-
reliance to build what is considered to be one of the most advanced and complex battleships in the world.
 India has had aircraft carriers earlier too — but those were built either by the British or the Russians. The ‗INS
Vikramaditya‘, which was commissioned in 2013 and which is currently the Navy‘s only aircraft carrier, started
out as the Soviet-Russian warship ‗Admiral Gorshkov‘.
 India‘s two earlier carriers, the ‗INS Vikrant‘ and the ‗INS Viraat‘, were originally the British-built ‗HMS
Hercules‘ and ‗HMS Hermes‘. These two warships were commissioned into the Navy in 1961 and 1987
respectively.
Why will the new warship IAC-1 be named ‗INS Vikrant‘?
 The name ‗INS Vikrant‘ originally belonged to India‘s much-loved first aircraft carrier, a source of immense
national pride over several decades of service before it was decommissioned in 1997.
 The original ‗Vikrant‘, a Majestic-class 19,500-tonne warship, which was acquired from the UK in 1961, played a
stellar role in the 1971 War with Pakistan. India deployed the ‗Vikrant‘ in the Bay of Bengal, and its two air
squadrons of Sea Hawk fighter jets and Alize surveillance aircraft were used in strikes on ports, merchant ships,
and other targets, and to prevent Pakistani forces from escaping through maritime routes.
 Last year, as the IAC-1 started her first sea trial, the Navy hailed the ―proud and historic day for India as the
reincarnated ‗Vikrant‘ sails for her maiden sea trials…, in the 50 th year of her illustrious predecessor‘s key role in
victory in the 1971 war‖. In its official release on August 25, the Navy said: ―The induction and reincarnation of
‗Vikrant‘ is…not only another step towards strengthening our defence preparedness but also our humble tribute to
the sacrifices made by our freedom fighters for the independence of the nation and our brave soldiers during the
1971 war.‖
What indigenous components does the new ‗Vikrant‘ have?
 The warship-grade steel required for the construction of the IAC-1 was indigenised through Steel Authority of
India Limited (SAIL) in collaboration with Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL) and the Indian
Navy.
 It said that a major spin-off of building the indigenous aircraft carrier has been that the country has become self-
sufficient with respect to warship steel.
Page 18
 The indigenous content of the project is approximately 76%.
 This includes 23,000 tonnes of steel, 2,500 km of electric cables, 150 km of pipes, and 2,000 valves, and a wide
range of finished products including rigid hull boats, galley equipment, air-conditioning and refrigeration plants,
and steering gear.
 Major Indian industrial houses, viz., BEL, BHEL, GRSE, Keltron, Kirloskar, L&T, Wartsila India, etc., as well as
over 100 MSMEs were involved in building of the indigenous equipment and machinery on board.
 The indigenisation efforts led to the development of ancillary industries, and generated employment opportunities
for 2,000 CSL personnel and about 13,000 employees in ancillary industries, thus bolstering the plough-back
effect on the nation‘s economy, the release said.
 The Navy had said earlier that more than 50 Indian manufacturers were directly involved in the project, and about
2,000 Indians received direct employment on board IAC-1 every day. Over 40,000 others were employed
indirectly.
 The Navy had said that about 80-85 per cent of the project cost of approximately Rs 23,000 crore had been
ploughed back into the Indian economy.
What weapons and equipment will the new ‗Vikrant‘ have?
 The new warship is comparable to India‘s existing carrier ‗INS Vikramaditya‘, which is a 44,500-tonne vessel
and can carry up to 34 aircraft, including both fighter jets and helicopters.
 The Navy has said that once commissioned, IAC-1 will be ―the most potent sea-based asset‖.
 The ship will be capable of operating 30 aircraft including MiG-29K fighter jets, Kamov-31 Air Early Warning
Helicopters, MH-60R Seahawk multi-role helicopters, as well as the Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) built by
Bengaluru-based Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd, and the indigenously manufactured Light Combat Aircraft (LCA)
(Navy).
 Using a novel aircraft-operation mode known as Short Take Off But Arrested Recovery (STOBAR), the IAC is
equipped with a ski-jump for launching aircraft, and a set of three ‗arrester wires‘ for their recovery onboard.
 The MiG-29K and Kamov-31 aircraft are already in use on the ‗Vikramaditya‘.
 The MH-60R Seahawks are manufactured by the American aerospace and defence company Lockheed Martin.
 The new warship will offer an ―incomparable military instrument with its ability to project Air Power over long
distances, including Air Interdiction, Anti-Surface Warfare, offensive and defensive Counter-Air, Airborne Anti-
Submarine Warfare and Airborne Early Warning‖.
What else will be there on the new ‗Vikrant‘? 45000
 The 262 m long and 62 m wide ‗Vikrant‘ displaces approximately 43,000 tonnes when fully loaded, and has a
maximum designed speed of 28 knots (about 52 km/h) with an endurance of 7500 NM.
 The ship has around 2,200 compartments designed for a crew of around 1,600, including specialised cabins to
accommodate women officers and sailors.
 The carrier is designed with a very high degree of automation for machinery operations, ship navigation and
survivability.
 The carrier is equipped with the latest state of the art equipment and systems.
 It boasts a fully-fledged state of the art medical complex with the latest medical equipment facilities including
major modular OT, emergency modular OT, physiotherapy clinic, ICU, laboratories, CT scanner, X-Ray
machines, dental complex, isolation ward and telemedicine facilities, the release said.
Now that India has shown the capability, will it build more carriers?
 Since 2015, the Navy has been seeking approval to build a third aircraft carrier for the country, which, if
approved, will become India‘s second Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-2).
 This proposed carrier, to be named ‗INS Vishal‘, is intended to be a giant 65,000-tonne vessel, much bigger than
both IAC-1 and the ‗INS Vikramaditya‘.
Page 19
 To defend the vast Indian Ocean Region, persistent air power is required day and night. A third carrier will
provide the Navy with surge capability, which will be essential in the future, they have argued.
 Also, it is argued that now that India has developed the capability to build such vessels, it should not be whittled
away.
 The expertise gained by the Navy and the country over the past 60 years in the ―art of maritime aviation‖ should
not be wasted either.
 While the United States Navy has 11 aircraft carriers, China too is moving ahead aggressively with its aircraft
carrier programme.
 It has two carriers now, a third is in the making, and another two are likely to be commissioned within a decade.
QUESTIONS
1. The nation‘s first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-1) _________
INS Vikrant will be commissioned on
September 2.
2. The Advanced Light Helicopters (ALH) are built by Bengaluru-based Hindustan
_________.Aeronautics Ltd.
3. The new warship is comparable to India‘s existing carrierINS _________

Vikramadityawhich is a 44,500-tonne vessel
and can carry up to 34 aircraft, including both fighter jets and helicopters.
11
4. United States Navy has _________ aircraft carriers
5. Since 2015, the Navy has been seeking approval to build a third aircraft carrier for the country,
which, if approved, will become India‘s second Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-2) named
_________.
INS Vishal
6. The INS Vikramadityawhich was commissioned in 2013 and which is currently the Navy‘s only aircraft
_________
carrier, started out as the Soviet-Russian warship Admiral
_________.
Gorshkov
7. As the highest ranking officer to serve solely in the Indian Navy, the chief is the professional head of
the naval branch and the principal naval adviser to the _________.
8. The Present Chief of the Naval Staff (India), also known as the Navy Chief is _________.
R.Hari Kumar
CDS-Anil Chauhan
7. India and Bangladesh signed an interim

water sharing agreement for the Kushiyara
River
 In August 2022, During the 38th Ministerial Meeting of the India-Bangladesh Joint Rivers
Commission, the two countries finalized a draft of a Memorandum of Understanding to share the
waters of the Kushiyara River on an interim basis.
 In this meeting, the two countries discussed many issues of mutual interest, including river water
sharing of rivers, sharing of flood data, focus on river pollution, joint study on sedimentation
management, river bank protection between the two countries. All aspects of issues related to Ganga,
Teesta, Manu, Muhuri, Khowai, Gumti, Dharla, Dudhkumar etc. other rivers were also discussed
during this meeting.
Page 20
 Meanwhile, both sides welcomed the finalization of the design of Feni River Water Harvesting Site
and its technical infrastructure to meet the drinking water requirements of Sabroom Town,
Tripura. It is noteworthy that in this regard, an MoU came into existence between the two countries in
October 2019. Feni River is a river in southeastern Bangladesh and Tripura state of India. It is a
trans-boundary river with an ongoing dispute about water rights.
 A bridge is built over the Feni River to link up with Tripura. The bridge was inaugurated on 9
March 2021 by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh
Hasina via video conference. The bridge was named "Maitri Setu" symbolizing the growing
friendship and bilateral ties between India and Bangladesh.
 In September 2022, India and Bangladesh signed an interim water sharing agreement for the
Kushiyara River, the first such pact between them in over 25 years. The two sides also decided to
start negotiations on a comprehensive trade pact and strengthen cooperation against terrorism and
radicalism. Besides the agreement on the Kushiyara water-sharing, the two sides signed pacts on
railways, space, IT and media.
Kushiyara River
 The Kushiyara River is a distributary river in Bangladesh and Assam, India. It forms on the
India-Bangladesh border as a branch of the Barak River, when the Barak separates into the
Kushiyara and Surma. The waters of the Kushiyara originate in the state of Nagaland in India
and pick up tributaries from Manipur, Mizoram and Assam. After forming several braided streams
it is rejoined by the Surma (locally known as the Danu River) and becomes the Meghna River. After
flowing some distance in Bangladesh, it meets again with Surma River and this combined river is now
called Meghna River. Manipur, Mizoram and Assam receive water through this river in India.
India and Bangladesh water sharing
 India and Bangladesh share 54 rivers between them. All the rivers of Bangladesh either have their
source in India or pass through it. The Ganges, the major river system in India, flows through
Bangladesh into the Bay of Bengal. About 35 million people in about one third of Bangladesh‘s area
are directly dependent on the Ganges.
Joint River Commission
 The Joint River Commission between India and Bangladesh was formed in the year 1972 under
the peace treaty, through which issues of mutual interest on the border, Border Rivers can be
resolved. The JRC is headed by the Ministers of Water Resources of both the countries. Under
this commission, meetings are organized to get mutual benefit from the rivers located between the two
countries and to discuss river related issues from time to time.
 Ganges water sharing treaty: Both sides agreed to conduct the feasibility study for optimum
utilization of water received by Bangladesh under the provision of the Ganges Water Sharing
Treaty, 1996.
Ganga Water Treaty 1996:
 It is an agreement to share surface waters at the Farakka Barrage (on the river Ganga) near the
mutual border between India and Bangladesh.
What agreements were signed recently?
 India and Bangladesh signed seven agreements on various fields, including
 Water resources- An interim bilateral agreement on water sharing of the Kushiyara River
 Judiciary- Capacity building of Courts
 Railways- To train personnel of Bangladesh Railways
Page 21
 Other areas- Space technology, scientific and technological cooperation, TV broadcasting
 The two PMs also jointly inaugurated various projects, including a power plant, a railway bridge
and several railway line projects.
Teesta River
 Teesta River, a major transboundary river that begins in India‘s Sikkim state and runs through
the north of West Bengal state before flowing into Bangladesh. India and Bangladesh had signed
the Ganga water treaty in 1996 for sharing waters of Ganga for a period of 30 years. Bangladesh
has sought the early conclusion of the Teesta water sharing agreement, which has been hanging since
2011 due to opposition from West Bengal. The current agreement will benefit southern parts of Assam
state in India and the Sylhet region in Bangladesh.
What are the pending issues?
 Regional geopolitics- Bangladesh had successfully approached China for a mega project to
enhance Teesta river water flow. Bangladesh also requires China‘s support in resolving the
Rohingya refugee crisis. Bangladesh is the second biggest arms market for China after Pakistan.
Although memories of 1971 remain, Bangladesh has expressed its interest in establishing peaceful
relations with Pakistan.
 Border management- In 2019, India enacted the National Register of Citizens and the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, which created an uproar within and beyond the borders.
 Water sharing- For West Bengal, Teesta is important to sustain its impoverished farming districts
which comprise 12.77% of its population.
 For Bangladesh, the Teesta‘s flood plains cover about 14% of the total cropped area of the country
and provide direct livelihood opportunities to approximately 7.3% of the population.
How has the bilateral relationship evolved over the years?
 Trade- Bangladesh is India‘s sixth largest trade partner while India is Bangladesh‘s second
biggest trade partner, and its largest export market in Asia. Bangladesh imports critical industrial raw
material from India on which its exports are reliant.
 Under South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA), Bangladesh extends preferential tariffs to Indian
exports of products outside the sensitive list.
 Connectivity- The Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, and Nepal Motor Vehicle Agreement (BBIN-MVA)
is a key development that can enhance the trade potential of India with Bangladesh.
 Bangladesh has expressed its interest in joining the India-Myanmar-Thailand highway project.
 India-Bangladesh bilateral waterway trade will get boosted as India can now use the Mongla and
Chittagong ports.
 Under Indo-Bangladesh Protocol on Inland Water Transit & Trade involving the Brahmaputra,
inland vessels of one country can transit through the specified routes of the other country.
 Currently, three express trains and international bus services operate between Indian and
Bangladesh.
 Border management- In 2015, India and Bangladesh resolved the decades-long border dispute
through the Land Swap Agreement. Home Minister Amit Shah recently reviewed the security
arrangements in the Assam-Meghalaya-Bangladesh tri-junction, which used to a smugglers‘ route.
Ganga River
 The Ganga originates as Bhagirathi from the Gangotri glacier in Uttar Kashi District of
Uttarakhand at an elevation of 7,010 m. Alaknanda River joins Bhagirathi at Devaprayag. From
Page 22
Devapryag the river is called as Ganga. The total length of the Ganga River from its source to its
mouth (measured along the Hugli) is 2,525 km. The Ganga river system is the largest in India
having a number of perennial and non-perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in the north
and the Peninsula in the south, respectively. The important tributaries are the Yamuna, the
Ramaganga, the Gomti, the Ghagra, the Son, the Gandak, the Burhi Gandak, the Kosi and the
Mahananda. At Farakka in West Bengal, the river divides into two arms namely the Padma which
flows to Bangladesh and the Bhagirathi which flows through West Bengal.
Ganga – Brahmaputra Delta
 Before entering the Bay of Bengal, the Ganga, along with the Brahmaputra, forms the largest
delta of the world between the Bhagirathi/Hugli and the Padma/Meghna covering an area of
58,752 sq km. The coastline of delta is a highly indented area.
Know more about Bangladesh:
 Bangladesh is a country in South Asia. It shares land borders with India and Myanmar (Burma).
Nepal, Bhutan and China are located near Bangladesh but do not share a border with it. Dhaka is
its capital and largest city, followed by Chittagong, which has the country‘s largest port.
Bangladeshi taka is the currency of the People‘s Republic of Bangladesh. Sheikh Mujibur
Rahman often shortened as Sheikh Mujib or Mujib, was a Bangladeshi politician, statesman
and Founding Father of Bangladesh who served as the first President and later as the Prime
Minister of Bangladesh from 17 April 1971 until his assassination on 15 August 1975. Mohammad
Abdul Hamid is the 16th and current President of Bangladesh, in office since April 2013. Sheikh
Hasina is the current Prime Minister of the Bangladesh. India shares its longest international
border with Bangladesh (4,096-kilometer) (2,545-mile).
QUESTIONS
1. Feni River is a river in southeastern Bangladesh and _________ state of India.
2. Teesta River, a major transboundary river that begins in India‘s _________ state and runs through
the north of West Bengal state before flowing into Bangladesh.
3. Bangladesh has sought the early conclusion of the Teesta water sharing agreement, which has been
hanging since 2011 due to opposition from _________.
4. A bridge is built over the Feni River to link up with Tripura. The bridge was inaugurated on 9 March
2021 by the Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina
via video conference. The bridge was named _________.
5. In September 2022, India and Bangladesh signed an interim water sharing agreement for the
_________ River, the first such pact between them in over 25 years.
6. The Kushiyara River is a distributary river in Bangladesh and Assam, India. It forms on the India-
Bangladesh border as a branch of the _________ River.
7. India and Bangladesh share _________ rivers between them.
8. India shares its longest international border with Bangladesh for about _________ kilometer.
9. Bangladesh is India‘s _________ largest trade partner while India is Bangladesh‘s second biggest
trade partner, and its largest export market in Asia.
10. The Joint River Commission between India and Bangladesh was formed in the year _________
under the peace treaty, through which issues of mutual interest on the border.
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8. What is ‘Arth Ganga’, the govt’s new
model for the river’s sustainable
development?
 PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where
he urged for a shift from Namami Gange, the Union Government‘s flagship project to clean the Ganga, to the
model of Arth Ganga.
The concept
 PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in Kanpur in 2019, where
he urged for a shift from Namami Gange, the Union Government‘s flagship project to clean the Ganga, to the
model of Arth Ganga.
 The latter focuses on the sustainable development of the Ganga and its surrounding areas, by focusing on
economic activities related to the river.
 At its core, the Arth Ganga model seeks to use economics to bridge people with the river.
 It ―strives to contribute at least 3% of the GDP from the Ganga Basin itself,‖ and added that the Arth Ganga
project‘s interventions are in accordance with India‘s commitments towards the UN sustainable development
goals.
Features
 Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on six verticals.
 The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, which involves chemical-free farming on 10 km on either side of the
river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertiliser through the GOBARdhan scheme.
 The Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater is the second, which seeks to reuse treated water for
irrigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
 Arth Ganga will also involve Livelihood Generation Opportunities, by creating haats where people can sell local
products, medicinal plants and ayurveda.
 The fourth is to increase public participation by increasing synergies between the stakeholders involved with the
river.
 The model also wants to promote the cultural heritage and tourism of Ganga and its surroundings, through boat
tourism, adventure sports and by conducting yoga activities.
 Lastly, the model seeks to promote institutional building by empowering local administration for improved water
governance.
Ganges
 The Ganges in Bangladesh: Padma is a trans-boundary river of Asia which flows through India and Bangladesh.
 The 2,525 km (1,569 mi) river rises in the western Himalayas in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.
 It flows south and east through the Gangetic plain of North India, receiving the right-bank tributary, the Yamuna,
which also rises in the western Indian Himalayas, and several left-bank tributaries from Nepal that account for the
bulk of its flow.
 In West Bengal state, India, a feeder canal taking off from its right bank diverts 50% of its flow southwards,
artificially connecting it to the Hooghly river.
 The Ganges continues into Bangladesh, its name changing to the Padma.
 It is then joined by the Jamuna, the lower stream of the Brahmaputra, and eventually the Meghna, forming the
major estuary of the Ganges Delta, and emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
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 The Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna system is the third largest river on earth by discharge.
 The main stem of the Ganges begins at the town of Devprayag,at the confluence of the Alaknanda, which is the
source stream in hydrology on account of its greater length, and the Bhagirathi, which is considered the source
stream in Hindu mythology.
 The Ganges is a lifeline to millions of people who live in its basin and depend on it for their daily needs.
 It has been important historically, with many former provincial or imperial capitals such as Pataliputra, Kannauj,
Kara, Munger, Kashi, Patna, Hajipur, Delhi, Bhagalpur, Murshidabad, Baharampur, Kampilya, and Kolkata
located on its banks or the banks of tributaries and connected waterways.
 The river is home to approximately 140 species of fish, 90 species of amphibians, and also reptiles and mammals,
including critically endangered species such as the gharial and South Asian river dolphin.
 The Ganges is the most sacred river to Hindus. It is worshipped as the goddess Ganga in Hinduism.
 The Ganges is threatened by severe pollution. This poses a danger not only to humans but also to animals. The
levels of fecal coliform bacteria from human waste in the river near Varanasi are more than a hundred times the
Indian government's official limit.
 The Ganga Action Plan, an environmental initiative to clean up the river, has been considered a failure which is
variously attributed to corruption, a lack of will in the government, poor technical expertise, environmental
planning and a lack of support from religious authorities.
Kumbh Mela
 Kumbh Mela is a mass Hindu pilgrimage in which Hindus gather at the Ganges River.
 The normal Kumbh Mela is celebrated every 3 years, the Ardh (half) Kumbh is celebrated every six years at
Haridwar and Prayagraj, the Purna (complete) Kumbh takes place every twelve years at four places (Triveni
Sangam (Prayagraj), Haridwar, Ujjain, and Nashik).
 The Maha (great) Kumbh Mela which comes after 12 'Purna Kumbh Melas', or 144 years, is held at Prayagraj.
 The major event of the festival is ritual bathing at the banks of the river. Other activities include religious
discussions, devotional singing, mass feeding of holy men and women and the poor, and religious assemblies
where doctrines are debated and standardized. Kumbh Mela is the most sacred of all the pilgrimages.
 Thousands of holy men and women attend, and the auspiciousness of the festival is in part attributable to this.
 The sadhus are seen clad in saffron sheets with ashes and powder dabbed on their skin per the requirements of
ancient traditions. Some called naga sanyasis, may not wear any clothes.
 The Purna (complete) Kumbh Mela takes place every twelve years, at four places Prayagraj (Allahabad),
Haridwar, Ujjain, and Nashik, based on planetary movements. It was inscribed in the UNESCO List of Intangible
Cultural Heritage in 2017.
QUESTIONS
1. PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in _________
in 2019.
2. The Ganges continues into Bangladesh, its name changing to the _________.
3. The Ganga Action Plan was introduced in year _________.
4. Ganga is _________ kilometers long.
5. The Maha (great) Kumbh Mela which comes after 12 'Purna Kumbh Melas', or 144 years, is held at
_________.
6. The Purna (complete) Kumbh Mela takes place every twelve years, at four places Prayag
(Allahabad), Haridwar, Ujjain, and _________ based on planetary movements.
7. Kumbh Mela is a mass Hindu pilgrimage in which Hindus gather at the _________.
8. The Kumbh Mela was inscribed in the UNESCO List of Intangible Cultural Heritage in_________.
Page 25
9. Bilkis Bano Case
 The 11 convicts in the Bilkis Bano case of the 2002 riots walked out of jail as the Gujarat
government has allowed their release under its remission policy.
What are the laws available on remissions?
 Under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution, the President and Governors have the power to
pardon, and to suspend, remit, or commute a sentence passed by the courts.
 Since prisons is a state subject, state governments have powers under Section 432 of the CrPC to
remit sentences. Prisoners are often released on the birth and death anniversaries of prominent leaders
and other important occasions.
What are the grounds for remission?
 States set up a Sentence Review Board to exercise the powers under Section 432 of the CrPC. The
Supreme Court has held that states cannot exercise the power of remission arbitrarily, and must
follow due process.
 Factors considered for granting remission
 Seriousness of the crime
 The status of the co-accused
 Conduct in jail
 In ‘Laxman Naskar v. Union of India‘ (2000) the SC laid down five grounds on which remission is
considered. 1. Whether the offence is an individual act of crime that does not affect the society, 2.
Whether there is a chance of the crime being repeated in future, 3. Whether the convict has lost the
potentiality to commit crime, 4. Whether any purpose is being served in keeping the convict in prison, 5.
Socio-economic conditions of the convict‘s family
 Jail manuals contain rules that allow certain days of remission in every month for good behaviour
of convicts. However, convicts serving life sentences are entitled to seek remission only after
serving a minimum of 14 years.
 The remission policy of Gujarat, 1992 permitted prisoners to apply for remission on the basis that
life imprisonment is an arbitrary or notional figure of twenty years of imprisonment.
What is the Bilkis Bano case?
 Gujarat had turned violent after the Sabarmati train was burnt in Godhra on 27 February 2002
when 59 karsevaks were killed in the train. Fearing the outbreak of violence, a then five-month
pregnant Bilkis Bano fled from her village with her three-and-a-half-year-old daughter and 15 other
family members. They were attacked by about 20-30 people whereas Bilkis, her mother, and three other
women were raped and brutally assaulted. Only Bilkis, a man, and a three-year-old survived the attack.
Her case was taken up by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and Supreme Court,
which ordered an investigation by the CBI.
What happened in the case?
 The accused in the case were arrested in 2004 and the trial was moved out of Gujarat to
Maharashtra after Bilkis Bano received death threats. In 2008, the Special CBI Court sentenced
11 accused to life imprisonment on the charges of conspiring to rape a pregnant woman, murder
and unlawful assembly under the Indian Penal Code. The court acquitted seven other accused for
lack of evidence.
Page 26
 The Bombay High Court, in 2017, upheld the conviction and life imprisonment of 11 people in the
gang rape case. In 2019, the Supreme Court awarded compensation of Rs 50 lakh to Bilkis — the
first such order in a case related to the 2002 riots.
Why have the convicts been released now?
 One of the convicts had approached the Gujarat High Court seeking remission of the sentence
under sections 432 and 433 of the Code of Criminal Procedure. The high court dismissed his plea
while observing that the ―appropriate government‖ to take a decision about his remission is
Maharashtra, and not Gujarat.
 He then filed a plea in the Supreme Court, pleading that he had been in jail for over 15 years
without remission as of 1 April 2022. The apex court directed the Gujarat government to look into the
issue of remission of his sentence following which the government formed a committee. The committee
took a unanimous decision in favour of remission of all the 11 convicts in the case.
Why is the remission criticized?
 Against treating crimes as heinous- The remission runs contrary to the spirit of contemporary thinking
on treating crimes against women and children as so heinous that the perpetrators should not be
considered for remission.
 No premature release- The Cr.P.C. does permit premature release in the form of remission or
commutation in life sentences, but it should be based on a legal and constitutional scheme, and not on a
ruler‘s whimsy.
 Political considerations- Any decision on remission should be linked to the convict‘s expression of
regret and some promise of reform.
 It would be unjustified if given for political considerations merely because of elapse of the minimum
number of years they have to serve.
Know more about 2002 Gujarat riots:
 The 2002 Gujarat riots, also known as the 2002 Gujarat violence, was a three-day period of inter-
communal violence in the western Indian state of Gujarat. The burning of a train in Godhra on 27
February 2002, which caused the deaths of 58 Hindu pilgrims and karsevaks returning from
Ayodhya, is cited as having instigated the violence. Following the initial riot incidents, there were
further outbreaks of violence in Ahmedabad for three months; statewide, there were further outbreaks
of violence against the minority Muslim population of Gujarat for the next one year.
 According to official figures, the riots ended with 1,044 dead, 223 missing, and 2,500 injured. Of
the dead, 790 were Muslim and 254 Hindu. The Concerned Citizens Tribunal Report, estimated that
as many as 1,926 may have been killed. Other sources estimated death tolls in excess of 2,000. Many
brutal killings and rapes were reported on as well as widespread looting and destruction of property.
Narendra Modi, then Chief Minister of Gujarat and later Prime Minister of India, was accused of
condoning the violence, as were police and government officials who allegedly directed the rioters
and gave lists of Muslim-owned properties to them.
 In 2012, Modi was cleared of complicity in the violence by Special Investigation Team (SIT)
appointed by the Supreme Court of India. The SIT is headed by Raghava Krishnaswami
Raghavan. The SIT also rejected claims that the state government had not done enough to prevent
the riots. The Muslim community was reported to have reacted with anger and disbelief. In July 2013,
allegations were made that the SIT had suppressed evidence. That December, an Indian court upheld
the earlier SIT report and rejected a petition seeking Modi's prosecution. In April 2014, the
Supreme Court expressed satisfaction over the SIT's investigations in nine cases related to the violence,
and rejected a plea contesting the SIT report as "baseless".
Page 27
QUESTIONS
1. Under Articles _________ and _________ of the Constitution, the President and Governors have the
power to pardon, and to suspend, remit, or commute a sentence passed by the courts.
2. The Chief Minister of Gujarat when 2002 Gujarat riots occurred is _________.
3. The head of the Special Investigation Team set up to investigate 2002 Gujarat riots is _________.
4. As per Constitution of India, Prison is a _________.
5. Jail manuals contain rules that allow certain days of remission in every month for good behaviour of
convicts. However, convicts serving life sentences are entitled to seek remission only after serving a
minimum of _________ years.
10. Who was Pandurang Khankhoje,

Ghadarite revolutionary and a hero of
Mexico?
 Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla, who is currently in Canada for the 65 th Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference,
will travel to Mexico where he will unveil statues of Swami Vivekananda and Maharashtra-born freedom fighter
and agriculturalist Pandurang Khankhoje (1883-1967).
 Khankhoje had a close connection with Mexico, the country in which he sought refuge due to his association with
the radical pro-Indian independence Ghadar Party.
 The Speaker‘s visit is part of the government‘s efforts to honour lesser-known Indian-origin leaders outside India.
From Mexico, Birla will travel to Suriname on the northern coast of South America, where he will hold
discussions with the country‘s Indian-origin President, Chandrikapersad Santokhi.
Who was Pandurang Khankhoje?
 Born in Wardha, Maharashtra, in the late 19th century, Pandurang Khankhoje came in contact with other
revolutionaries early on. His daughter Savitri Sawhney, who wrote his biography, wrote of his early years: ―As a
student, Khankhoje was an ardent admirer of the French Revolution and of the American War of Independence.
 Closer to home, the Hindu reformer Swami Dayanand and his Arya Samaj movement, which called for a spirit of
reform and social change, became the hero to a young student group led by Khankhoje.‖
 Khankhoje decided to go abroad for further training in revolutionary methods and militaristic strategy.
 At this time, the British government‘s suspicions of him were also growing due to his anti-government activities.
 Before leaving, he visited Bal Gangadhar Tilak, by whom he was inspired. Tilak advised him to go to Japan,
which was itself a strong, anti-West Asian imperialistic force then.
 After spending time with nationalists from Japan and China, Khankhoje eventually moved to the US, where he
enrolled in college as a student of agriculture. But a year later, he joined the Mount Tamalpais Military Academy
in California to fulfil his original purpose of leaving India.
What was his association with the Indian independence movement?
 Khankhoje was one of the founding members of the Ghadar Party, established by Indians living abroad in 1914,
mostly belonging to Punjab. Its aim was to lead a revolutionary fight against the British in India.
Page 28
 While in the US, Khankhoje met Lala Har Dayal, an Indian intellectual teaching at Stanford University.
 ―Har Dayal had begun a propaganda campaign, publishing a newspaper that featured patriotic songs and articles
in the vernacular languages of India. This was the seed from which the Ghadar Party would emerge‖, wrote
Sawhney.
How did Khankhoje reach Mexico?
 At the military academy, Khankhoje met many people from Mexico.
 The Mexican Revolution of 1910 had led to the overthrow of the dictatorial regime, and this inspired Khankhoje.
 He also reached out to Indians working on farms in the US with the aim of discussing the idea of Indian
independence with them. There, he met with Mexican workers as well.
 Along with the Indian workers, militant action was planned by Khankhoje in India, but the outbreak of the First
World War halted these plans.
 He then reached out to Bhikaji Cama in Paris, and met with Vladimir Lenin in Russia among other leaders,
seeking support for the Indian cause. However, as he was facing possible deportation from Europe and could not
go to India, he sought shelter in Mexico.
 Soon, in part due to his prior friendship with Mexican revolutionaries, he was appointed a professor at the
National School of Agriculture in Chapingo, near Mexico City. He researched corn, wheat, pulses and rubber,
developing frost and drought-resistant varieties, and was part of efforts to bring in the Green Revolution in
Mexico.
 Later on, the American agronomist Dr Norman Borlaug, called the Father of the Green Revolution in India,
brought the Mexican wheat variety to Punjab.
 Khankhoje was revered as an agricultural scientist in Mexico.
 The renowned Mexican artist Diego Rivera painted murals that featured Khankhoje, including one titled ‗Our
Daily Bread‘ that prominently depicted him breaking bread with people seated around a table.
QUESTIONS
th
1. The 65 Commonwealth Parliamentary Conference was held in _________.
2. Pandurang Khankhoje was born in _________.
3. Khankhoje was one of the founding members of the _________ Party.
4. The renowned Mexican artist Diego Rivera painted murals that featured Khankhoje, including one
titled _________.
5. The Mexican Revolution of _________ had led to the overthrow of the dictatorial regime.
11. National emblem unveiled on the roof of

the New Parliament Building
 The National emblem unveiled on the roof of the New Parliament Building by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi. The building is a part of the Central Vista Redevelopment Project which has
already got its share of controversies in the past for harming the environment and being constructed at a
time when the economy was facing a downtrend due to the pandemic. This time the altercation is
around the aggressive expression of the lions on the new cast of the emblem.
Page 29
What is a national emblem and why is it important?
 A national emblem is a symbol of a nation‘s sovereignty. It is a seal that is used by a particular
nation only. India‘s national emblem has been adapted from the Lion Capital of Asoka at Sarnath,
Uttar Pradesh. The use of the emblem is regulated by the State Emblem of India Rules, 2007. It is
majorly used by public authorities of the country. Improper use of the emblem is penalised under the
State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005.
Our National Emblem
 The Lion Capital of Asoka preserved at Sarnath Museum, Varanasi belongs to 250 BC. It was
excavated by Friedrich Oscar Oertel in 1905. The Lion Capital has four Asiatic lions that are
standing on a circular abacus back-to-back facing four cardinal directions representing pride,
courage, confidence and power. Four Dharma Chakras are corresponding to the lion busts
separated by four animals a galloping horse, a bull, an elephant and a lion at the frieze of the
abacus. The abacus is on an inverted bell-shaped lotus which is not included in the national
emblem.
 The state emblem of India displays three lions on the abacus with a Dharma Chakra in the centre,
a galloping horse on the left, a bull on the right and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme
left and right with the motto ‗Satyameva Jayate‘ written in Devanagari script at the bottom of this
profile. The motto has been taken from Mundaka Upanishad which means ‗truth alone triumphs‘.
The state emblem of India was adopted on the first republic day of the nation on 26 th January
1950.
 Badruddin Faiz Tyabji and his wife Surayya Tyabji suggested using the Lion Capital as the
National Emblem. Nandalal Bose designed the illustrations for the constitution, and his mentee
Dinanath Bhargava sketched the Emblem on the Constitution.
Importance of Symbols
 Symbols have been an important tool to communicate an idea or a belief since time immemorial.
There is an entire field of study known as semiotics in which different signs, icons and symbols are
interpreted by scholars. Remember Da Vinci Code starring Tom Hanks? He was a professor of the
history of art in the movie and tried interpreting the symbols to unravel the mysteries. Not just in
popular culture we see symbols everywhere there is a need to communicate or convey a message. Hence
maintaining the originality of a symbol becomes necessary to make sure the message does not
convert into something other than the intended meaning. This is what has fuelled the controversy
around the national emblem installed atop the new parliament building as the national emblem
represents the collective belief of the nation and its people.
Which parties objected it?
 Congress, the largest party in the opposition, has objected to the new design of the lions with
exposed fangs. The party is not pleased with the omission of the motto from the emblem and also has
shown its displeasure with not being invited to the unveiling ceremony like other parties in
opposition.
 Trinamool Congress has called the lions ferocious. According to RJD, the lions seem man-eaters.
 AIMIM leader Asaduddin Owaisi has accused the Prime minister of constitutional impropriety by
unveiling the emblem, he is of the view that it should have been done by the Speaker of Lok Sabha
instead.
Government‘s stand
 The government has clarified that it has not made any change to the original national emblem
which is 1.6 meters high. Whereas the cast on the top of the new parliament building is almost 4 times
higher than the original one. Hence the lions appear dissimilar.
Page 30
Central Vista Redevelopment Project
hardeep singh puri
 In 2019, the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs suggested the Central Vista
Redevelopment Project construct a new Parliament and also other Central Government offices.
The Project aims to build a triangular-shaped Parliament building beside the existing one, as well
as a Common Central Secretariat and a three-kilometre-long Rajpath connecting Rashtrapati
Bhavan and India Gate.
Background of Central Vista
 From Rashtrapati Bhavan to India Gate, the Central Vista Redevelopment Project is in full effect.
The North Block, South Block, the Parliament building, and other central government office
buildings, as well as the pieces of land immediately surrounding them along Rajpath, are all
included.
 King George V announced in the Delhi Durbar (a great assembly) in December 1911 that India's
capital would be moved from Calcutta to Delhi. The Delhi Durbar was held to commemorate King
George V's coronation.
 Edwin Lutyens, recognized for his genuine commitment to European Classicism, and Herbert
Baker, a notable architect in South Africa, were tasked with designing a new city. The building of
the Parliament House was designed by Baker and Lutyens. The Chausath Yogini Mandir in
Madhya Pradesh is the temple that inspired the design of the Indian Parliament. Lutyens designed
the Rashtrapati Bhavan, while Baker designed the Secretariat, which contains both the north and
south blocks.
Objectives of the Central Vista Redevelopment Project
 The Central Vista Redevelopment Project is being proposed to address the Parliament's current
and future space demands, as well as to improve public facilities, amenities, parking, and other
amenities.
 The renovation project is being planned due to concerns about fire safety, acoustics, and the
deteriorating state of the century-old structure. By July 2022, a new Capitol building will be
completed, and by March 2024, a shared Central Secretariat will be in place.
 The parliament's strength is planned to rise from 545 to 900 seats after this project is done. The
project also aims to enhance the attractiveness of Central Vista in order to turn it into a world-class
tourism destination.
 On January 5, 2021, the Supreme Court issued a 2-1 decision allowing the Central Vista
Redevelopment Project to proceed. The Central Vista Project aims to transform Central Vista into a
world-class public area by restoring its magnificence as an architectural monument, providing
contemporary administrative facilities, enhancing cultural institutions, and marking India's 75th year of
independence.
QUESTIONS
1. India‘s national emblem has been adapted from the Lion Capital of Asoka at _________.
sarnath , up
2. The National emblem unveiled on the roof of the New Parliament Building by _________.
pm
STATE EMBLEM INDIA RULE 2007
3. The use of the emblem is regulated by the _________.
4. Improper use of the emblem is penalised under the STATE EMBLEM OF INDIA ACT 2005
_________.
5. The New Parliament Building is a part of the _________.
friedrich oscar
6. The Lion Capital of Asoka to 250 BC. It was excavated by _________ oertel
in 1905.
Page 31
4
7. The Lion Capital has _________ Asiatic lions that are standing on a circular abacus back-to-back
facing four cardinal directions representing pride, courage, confidence and power.
8. The motto Satyameva Jayate‘ has written in devanagri
_________ script at the bottom of the emblem. The
mundaka Upanishad which means ‗truth alone triumphs‘.
motto has been taken from _________
9. The state emblem of India was adopted on the first republic day of the nation on 26 january 1950
_________.
10. Nandalal Bose designed the illustrations for the constitution, and his mentee dinanath
_________bhargav
sketched the
Emblem on the Constitution.
12. Haryana’s Cheerag scheme for EWS

students
 Under the Cheerag scheme, government school students whose parents have an annual verified income of less
than Rs 1.8 lakh can enroll in private schools from Class II to XII.
What is Haryana‘s Cheerag scheme?
 Haryana Chief Minister Manohar Lal Khattar‘s government recently launched the ―Chief Minister Equal
Education Relief, Assistance and Grant (Cheerag)‖ scheme.
 It was introduced in place of a similar scheme launched by Bhupinder Singh Hooda‘s government in 2007 under
Rule 134 A of the Haryana School Education Rules, 2003.
 Under the Cheerag scheme, government school students whose parents have an annual verified income of less
than Rs 1.8 lakh can enroll in private schools from Class II to XII. The government will reimburse Rs 700 per
student from Classes II to V, Rs 900 per student from Classes VI to VIII, and Rs 1,100 per student from Classes
IX to XII.
Response to the Cheerag scheme
 As many as 533 ―budget‖ private schools – mostly in villages and small towns — applied to offer seats to EWS
students under the Cheerag scheme. However, the authorities found only 381 schools eligible due to different
technical reasons.
 These 381 private schools offered 24,987 seats for EWS students from government schools. However, only 1,665
students have preferred to opt for the scheme, which is just 6.66 per cent of the total offered seats.
What are the concerns over Haryana‘s Cheerag scheme?
 The union leaders have apprehensions that the scheme may be aimed at encouraging private schools at the cost of
government schools.
 Many students have chosen against private schools due to the various facilities offered at government schools; the
distance of private schools; and because ‗good‘ private schools have not participated in the scheme.
 As many as 90 per cent of the students of government schools fall under the Cheerag scheme which is meant for
those with parents who have an annual income of Rs 1.8 lakh.
 According to the government, some schools have been developed as ‗Model Sanskriti Schools‘ to bring
qualitative improvement in education.
 Rs 1,100 will not be given to the students for opting for the scheme, but will be reimbursed to the private schools
for offering admission to EWS students.
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What does the government say?
 ―The Cheerag scheme is optional; those who were willing to go to private schools have gone.
 Those who wanted to stay in government schools can continue their studies there.
 The students might have had limited options, since they could only go to those schools that offered the seats. If
the students would like to continue in government schools, it speaks well for the education department too.‖
 ―From Classes I to XII, no fee is charged at government schools.
 From Classes I to VIII, uniforms, textbooks, workbooks, stationery, school bags and lunch are being provided free
of cost.
 In English medium schools, bag-free Model Sanskriti Schools, there is a provision of free education for students
whose parents‘ annual verified income is less than Rs 1.80 lakh.
 Nominal monthly contribution is taken from the children of families having an annual income above Rs 1.80 lakh
in the state.‖
 Experts said the Cheerag scheme is meant only for a few years, till a scheme under the Right to Education (RTE)
Act replaces it.
 The RTE Act has provisions to provide admission up to 25 per cent of private schools‘ strength to EWS families
and Scheduled Castes for Classes I to VIII without any expenses.
 Under the RTI Act, admissions can be done only in Class 1 in private schools to get the relief of free education.
Haryana
 Haryana is an Indian state located in the northern part of the country.
 It was carved out of the former state of East Punjab on 1 November 1966 on a linguistic basis.
 It is ranked 21st in terms of area, with less than 1.4% (44,212 km2 or 17,070 sq mi) of India's land area.
 The state capital is Chandigarh, which it shares with the neighboring state of Punjab, and the most populous city
is Faridabad, which is a part of the National Capital Region.
 The city of Gurugram is among India's largest financial and technology hubs.
 Haryana has 6 administrative divisions, 22 districts, 72 sub-divisions, 93 revenue tehsils, 50 sub-tehsils, 140
community development blocks, 154 cities and towns, 7,356 villages, and 6,222 villages panchayats.
 Haryana contains 32 special economic zones (SEZs), mainly located within the industrial corridor projects
connecting the National Capital Region.
 Gurugram is considered one of the major information technology and automobile hubs of India.
 Haryana ranks 11th among Indian states in human development index.
 The economy of Haryana is the 13th largest in India, with a gross state domestic product (GSDP) of 7.65 trillion
(US$96 billion) and has the country's 5th-highest GSDP per capita of 240,000 (US$3,000).
 Haryana has the highest unemployment rate among Indian states.
 The state is rich in history, monuments, heritage, flora and fauna and tourism, with a well developed economy,
national highways and state roads.
 It is bordered by Punjab and Himachal Pradesh to the north, by Rajasthan to the west and south, while river
Yamuna forms its eastern border with Uttar Pradesh.
 Haryana surrounds the country's capital territory of Delhi on three sides (north, west and south), consequently a
large area of Haryana state is included in the economically important National Capital Region of India for the
purposes of planning and development.
QUESTIONS
1. Under the _________ government school students whose parents have an annual verified income of
less than Rs 1.8 lakh can enroll in private schools from Class II to XII.
Page 33
2. The government will reimburse _________ per student from Classes II to V.
3. As many as _________ of the students of government schools fall under the Cheerag scheme which
is meant for those with parents who have an annual income of _________.
4. A similar scheme launched by Bhupinder Singh Hooda‘s government in _________ under Rule 134
A of the Haryana School Education Rules, 2003.
5. Haryana was carved out of the former state of East Punjab on _________.
6. Haryana ranks _________ among Indian states in human development index.
7. The economy of Haryana is the_________ largest in India.
8. Haryana surrounds the country's capital territory of Delhi on _________ sides.
13. Disqualification of MLAs

 In August 2022, Election Commission (EC) recommended the disqualification of Jharkhand Chief
Minister Hemant Soren as MLA under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. The matter was
referred to the ECI after complaint to the Governor about CM Soren allocating a mining lease to
himself while holding the portfolio of Mines Minister in 2021.
What is an ‗office of profit‘?
 If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is
termed an ―office of profit‖.
 Disqualification: A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or
state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by
Parliament or state legislature.
What are the basic criteria to disqualify an MP or MLA?
 Article 102 and 191: Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the
Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191.
 Grounds for disqualification under Constitution: They can be disqualified for:
 Holding an office of profit under the government of India or state government
 If he/she holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister
or any other office exempted by state legislature),
 If he/she is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court,
 If he/she is an undischarged insolvent,
 If he/she is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is
under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
 If he/she is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
 Article 327 and 328 of the Constitution confers the power on parliament and state legislature
respectively to make rules for election to Parliament and state legislature.
 Apart from these, the Parliament has prescribed several additional disqualifications in the
Representation of People Act (1951). These include,
Page 34
Representation of People‘s Act, 1951
 Section 8 of the Representation of People‘s Act, 1951 deals with Disqualification of representatives
on conviction for certain offences. The various sub-clauses include
 8 (1):A person convicted of an offence punishable under certain acts of Indian Penal Code, Protection of
Civil Rights Act 1955, Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 1967, Prevention of Corruption Act 1988,
Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002 etc. shall be disqualified, where the convicted person is sentenced to
— (i) only fine, for a period of six years from the date of such conviction; (ii) imprisonment, from
the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years
since his release. He/she must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt
practices in the elections.
 8 (2):A person convicted for the contravention of—(a) any law providing for the prevention of
hoarding or profiteering; or (b) any law relating to the adulteration of food or drugs; or (c) any
provisions of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961.
 8 (3):A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years
[other than any offence referred to in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2)] shall be disqualified from
the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years
since his release.
 A fourth subsection, i.e., 8 (4) was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2013 (Lily Thomas case). This
subsection had provisions for convicted lawmakers to retain their seats if they filed an appeal
within 3 months of their conviction. In 2013, the Patna High Court also debarred persons in judicial or
police custody from contesting elections.
 He/she must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more
years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
 He/she must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
 He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works, or services.
 He/she must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the
state.
 In such case of Disqualification, it is decided by the President/ governor for MP and MLA
respectively and his decision is final. However, he/she should obtain the opinion of the Election
Commission and act accordingly.
Anti-Defection Law
 The Tenth Schedule – popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act – was included in the
Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 and sets the provisions for disqualification of
elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.
 It was a response to the toppling of multiple state governments by party-hopping MLAs after the
general elections of 1967.
 However, it allows a group of MP/MLAs to join another political party without inviting the
penalty for defection. And it does not penalise political parties for encouraging or accepting
defecting legislators.
 As per the 1985 Act, a ‗defection‘ by one-third of the elected members of a political party was
considered a ‗merger‘.
 But the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this and now at least two-thirds of the
members of a party have to be in favour of a ―merger‖ for it to have validity in the eyes of the law.
 The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection are referred to the
Chairman or the Speaker of such House, which is subject to ‗Judicial review‘.
Page 35
 However, the law does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a
defection case.
Grounds of Disqualification:
 If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
 If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political
party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
 As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his
party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident.
 If any independently elected member joins any political party.
 If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
QUESTIONS
1. Under the Representation of People‘s Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to
imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and
shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of _________ years since his release.
2. The schedule of the Indian Constitution popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act is _________.
3. The Constitutional amendment act related to the Anti-Defection Act is _________.
4. Under the Anti-Defection Act, if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of
six
_________ months will be disqualified.
voluntarily gives up his membership of a
5. Under the Anti-Defection Act, if an elected member _________
political party will be disqualified.
6. Under the Anti-Defection Act, if an elected member votes or abstains
_________ from voting in such House
contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without
obtaining prior permission
7. The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection are referred to the
_________ or the speaker
chairman of such
_________, house
which is subject to ‗Judicial review‘.
8. Article 327 and _________
328 of the Constitution confers the power on parliament and state legislature
respectively to make rules for election to Parliament and state legislature.
9. Anti-Defection Act came into force in18 march 1985
_________.
rajiv gandhi
10. The Prime Minister when Anti-Defection Act passed is _________.
14. What is ‘zombie ice’, how it threatens to

raise global sea levels by over 10 inches
 The melting of the Greenland ice sheet will unavoidably raise the global sea levels by at least 10.6 inches or 27
centimetres, no matter what climate action the world decides to take right now.
 This is because of ‗zombie ice‘, which is certain to melt away from the ice cap and blend into the ocean.
 The calculation comes from a recent study published in the journal Nature Climate Change where scientists for
the first time calculated minimum ice loss in Greenland, and the corresponding rise in global sea level.
Page 36
What is ‗zombie ice‘?
 Also referred to as dead or doomed ice, zombie ice is one that is not accumulating fresh snow even while
continuing to be part of the parent ice sheet. Such ice is ―committed‖ to melting away and increasing sea levels.
What has led to this?
 This is on account of warming that has already happened.
 The research points to an equilibrium state where snowfall from the higher reaches of the Greenland ice cap flows
down to recharge edges of the glaciers, and thicken them.
 It says that over the last several decades there has been more melting and less replenishment.
What happens next, and by when?
 By calculating minimum committed ice loss based on the ratio of recharge to loss, the scientists have projected
that 3.3% of Greenland‘s total ice volume will melt, and this will happen even if the global temperature is
stabilized at the current level.
 But given that global warming is predicted to get worse, the melting and the corresponding rise in sea level could
be much worse.
 The study says it could reach as much as 30 inches (78 centimetres) if Greenland‘s record melt year (2012)
becomes a routine phenomenon.
What does a 10-inch rise in sea-level mean?
 The inevitable sea-level rise that the study predicts is particularly a bad news for millions that live in coastal
zones.
 According to the UN Atlas of the Oceans, 8 of the world‘s 10 largest cities are near a coast.
 Rising sea levels will make flooding, high tides and storms more frequent and worse as their impact will reach
more inland.
 This, in turn, means a threat to local economies and infrastructure. Also, low lying coastal areas will take a harder
hit
Greenland ice sheet
 The Greenland ice sheet roughly near 80% of the surface of Greenland.
 It is the second largest ice body in the world, after the Antarctic ice sheet.
 The ice sheet is almost 2,900 kilometres (1,800 mi) long in a north–south direction, and its greatest width is 1,100
kilometres (680 mi) at a latitude of 77°N, near its northern margin.
 The average thickness is about 1.5 km (0.9 mi) and over 3 km (1.9 mi) at its thickest point.
 In addition to the large ice sheet, smaller ice caps (such as Maniitsoq and Flade Isblink) as well as glaciers, cover
between 76,000 and 100,000 square kilometres (29,000 and 39,000 sq mi) around the periphery. If the entire
2,850,000 cubic kilometres (684,000 cu mi) of ice were to melt, it would lead to a global sea level rise of 7.2 m
(24 ft).
 The Greenland Ice Sheet is sometimes referred to under the term inland ice, or its Danish equivalent, indlandsis. It
is also sometimes referred to as an ice cap.
 The ice sheet, consisting of layers of compressed snow from more than 100,000 years, contains in its ice today's
most valuable record of past climates.
 In the past decades, scientists have drilled ice cores up to 4 kilometres (2.5 mi) deep.
 Scientists have, using those ice cores, obtained information on (proxies for) temperature, ocean volume,
precipitation, chemistry and gas composition of the lower atmosphere, volcanic eruptions, solar variability, sea-
surface productivity, desert extent and forest fires.
 Subglacial sediment from ~1.4 km (0.87 mi) beneath the ice stored since 1966 indicates that Greenland was
completely ice-free and vegetated at least once within the last million years.
 This was not expected and may show Greenland to be more fragile and sensitive to climate change than
previously thought.
Page 37
QUESTIONS
1. The melting of the _________ ice sheet will unavoidably raise the global sea levels by at least 10.6
inches or 27 centimetres.
2. According to the UN Atlas of the Oceans, _________ of the world‘s 10 largest cities are near a
coast.
3. _________ is the _________ largest ice body in the world, after the Antarctic ice sheet.
4. The Greenland ice sheet roughly near _________ of the surface of Greenland.
5. The Greenland Ice Sheet is sometimes referred to under the term inland ice, or its Danish equivalent,
_________.
6. Melting of ice is because of _________ which is certain to melt away from the ice cap and blend
into the ocean.
15. India’s policy on the Rohingya Refugees

 On August 17, 2022, Union Housing Minister Hardeep Singh Puri tweeted that Rohingya refugees
would be shifted to flats meant for economically weaker sections (EWS), and provided with basic
amenities and police protection. The Minister said ―India respects & follows the UN Refugee
Convention 1951 & provides refuge to all, regardless of their race, religion or creed.‖ The Ministry
of Home Affairs (MHA) under Amit Shah issued a clarification saying that no such direction had been
given to provide EWS flats to ―Rohingya illegal foreigners‖.
Where do the Rohingya live in Delhi?
 The Rohingya live in hutments in the densely populated Kalindi Kunj and Madanpur Khadar
areas in Delhi which are contiguous with Uttar Pradesh. Officially, about 1,200 Rohingya have been
identified as among the first batch to have arrived in Delhi in 2012. After they protested outside the
UNHCR (UN Refugee Agency) office in Delhi, they were provided with refugee cards.
What happened in June last year?
 On June 13, 2021 a fire ravaged one of the Rohingya camps at Kanchan Kunj near Kalindi Kunj
metro station in south Delhi. The land belonged to the irrigation department of the Uttar Pradesh
government. A day before the fire broke out in the hutment, the Rohingya had been served notice by the
U.P. irrigation department to vacate the premises. After the incident, the Sub Divisional Magistrate,
Sarita Vihar, and Delhi Police made arrangements to move the displaced Rohingya to an empty
plot nearby that belonged to the Zakat Foundation of India, an NGO. The Delhi government
pitched tents and provided water and electricity. A mobile toilet was also set up. As the Delhi
government was incurring an expenditure of ₹7 lakh per month, it was decided at a meeting held by the
Delhi chief secretary on July 29 this year, to shift all Rohingya families to EWS flats which were to
be designated as a detention centre and would be put under constant police watch. Residents at the
camps said that currently the police do a daily roll call but they are free to move anywhere. A police post
has been set up near their camp.
Page 38
How is the Delhi government involved?
 The Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO), responsible for tracking foreigners and their
visas, has been requesting space at a new location for the Rohingya from the Delhi government
since 2021. The FRRO is under the administrative control of the MHA. On March 19, 2021, FRRO,
Delhi, wrote a letter to the Delhi government‘s home department seeking another location to house the
Rohingya. The home department sent a letter to another civic authority, the New Delhi Municipal
Council (NDMC), on June 23 the same year that the FRRO is constrained to restrict the movement of
illegal foreigners and immigrants due to acute paucity of space. The department requested the NDMC
chairman to allot a Baraat Ghar along with EWS flats at Bakkarwala village to accommodate the foreign
inmates with ―basic minimum housing facilities.‖ Earlier, in February 2021, a joint team of the social
welfare department and home department of the Delhi government had zeroed in on the EWS flats to
designate it as a restriction centre. On July 29, 2022 Delhi chief secretary Naresh Kumar held a meeting
to find a ―medium to long-term‖ residential solution for Rohingya refugee families. The minutes say that
the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi was apprised of the plan. Since Delhi is a Union Territory, law and
order is under the Central government, in this case, the MHA. The AAP has claimed that the elected
Ministers of Delhi government were kept out of the loop.
When did the Rohingya come here?
 Rohingya, an ethnic group, mostly Muslim, hail from the Rakhine province of west Myanmar, and
speak a Bengali dialect. Myanmar has classified them as ―resident foreigners‖ or ―associate
citizens,‖
 They were forced to leave Myanmar in large numbers after several waves of violence, which first
began in 2012. The Myanmar army revived the attacks in 2017 and lakhs took shelter in Bangladesh.
Around five lakh Rohingya fled to Saudi Arabia in 2012. According to the July 29 minutes of the
meeting, the Rohingya first came to Delhi in 2012.
What is the process of deportation?
 According to the MHA, illegal immigrants are detected, detained and deported under provisions
of the Passport Act, 1920 or the Foreigners Act, 1946. The powers to identify and deport them
have also been delegated to State governments and Union Territories. Once a ‗foreigner‘ has been
apprehended by the police for staying illegally, without any document, he or she is produced before the
local court. If the accused is found guilty, they can be imprisoned for three months to eight years. After
completing their sentence, the court orders deportation. The foreign inmates are moved to detention
centres till the country of origin verifies and accepts them.
 Though there are no separate rules for deportation of the Rohingya, on August 8, 2017, amid fears
of fresh exodus of Rohingya from Myanmar, the MHA wrote to all the States that ―infiltration from
Rakhine State of Myanmar into Indian territory specially in the recent years, besides being [a] burden on
the limited resources of the country also aggravates the security challenges posed to the country.‖ It also
said the rise in terrorism in the last few decades is a cause for concern in most nations and that illegal
migrants are more vulnerable to getting recruited by terrorist organisations.
Have any Rohingya been deported?
 In 2018, seven Rohingya were deported to Myanmar. It was the first time that Myanmar issued a
certificate of identity to the seven Rohingya. They had been picked up in Assam in 2012. After they
were moved to a detention centre from prison, they wrote to the Myanmar Embassy in 2016, expressing
their desire to return to their country and gave an undertaking that they were returning out of their free
will. According to advocacy group Human Rights Watch (HRW), since October 2018, India has
deported 12 Rohingya to Myanmar, ―claiming that they left voluntarily.‖ ―However, the government
denied repeated requests by UNHCR to gain access to them to independently assess whether the
decision was voluntary,‖ HRW said.
Page 39
 In December 2017, the then Minister of State for Home Kiren Rijiju informed Parliament that
there are around 40,000 Rohingya in India, of which around 5,700 are in Jammu and also in
Telangana, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Delhi and Rajasthan. Of these, only 16,000 are said to be
registered with the UN refugee agency. The MHA claimed that the exact number is not known as many
of them enter the country clandestinely. In 2017, the Border Security Force apprehended 87 Rohingya
along the Bangladesh border and 76 were pushed back to Bangladesh.
What is India‘s stand on refugees?
 India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention relating to the Status of Refugees and the 1967
Protocol. All foreign undocumented nationals are governed as per the provisions of The
Foreigners Act, 1946, The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, The Passport (Entry into India)
Act, 1920 and The Citizenship Act, 1955.
 The MHA informed Parliament on April 5 that ―foreign nationals who enter into the country without
valid travel documents are treated as illegal immigrants.‖ In 2016, Mr. Rijiju told the Lok Sabha that
―there is no national law on refugees at present. Only Standard Operating Procedures are issued by the
MHA to deal with foreign nationals in India, who claim to be refugees.‖
 In some instances, such as in the case of Pakistani Hindus who live in camps in Delhi, Rajasthan,
Gujarat, Chattisgarh, Punjab, and Tibetans and Tamils from Sri Lanka, relief assistance is provided by
the Centre that includes monthly cash dole, subsidised ration, clothing materials, utensils, cremation and
shradh (last rites) grants and infrastructure facilities in camps. As on December 31, 2014, the number of
stateless persons in India was 2,89,394 which included over 10,000 Bangladeshis and 10,000 Sri
Lankans.
Kutupalong refugee camp
 Kutupalong refugee camp is the world's largest refugee camp. It is in Ukhia, Cox's Bazar,
Bangladesh, inhabited mostly by Rohingya refugees that fled from ethnic and religious persecution in
neighboring Myanmar. It is one of two government-run refugee camps in Cox's Bazaar, the other being
the Nayapara refugee camp. The UNHCR Camp office at Kutupalong is supported by seven
international entities: the governments of the European Union, the United States, Canada, Japan,
Finland, Sweden and the IKEA Foundation.
QUESTIONS
1. Kutupalong refugee camp is the world's largest refugee camp. It is located in _________.
2. The Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO) is under the administrative control of the
_________.
3. Rohingya, an ethnic group, mostly Muslim, hail from the Rakhine province of _________.
4. According to the MHA, illegal immigrants are detected, detained and deported under provisions of
the Passport Act _________ or the Foreigners Act _________.
5. India is not a signatory to the _________ UN Convention relating to the Status of Refugees and the
1967 Protocol.
16. William Ruto and Kenya’s elections

 William Ruto won the Presidential elections in Kenya earlier this month in an extremely close fight, even as the
chaos continued and parties broke into fights at the election centre amid allegations of irregularities.
Page 40
 His rival candidate Raila Odinga filed a petition in the Supreme Court, claiming a mismatch between the turnout
figures and the result, and that many constituencies did not have their votes counted.
 Ruto, who will seek to be the fifth president of the east African country since it declared independence in 1963.
Who is William Ruto?
 William Ruto was the first elected Deputy President of the Republic of Kenya and was sworn into office in 2013.
 Ruto was born in Sambut village near Eldoret town in Uasin Gishu County and had humble origins – hunting
rabbits, raising sheep and cows and going to school barefoot.
 He comes from the third-largest ethnic group in Kenya, the Kalenjin. After studying botany and zoology at the
university level, he got a doctorate in plant ecology.
 In the 1990s, he began shifting his focus toward politics.
 It was in 1992 that Ruto began his political career through a church leadership for meeting and campaigning for
then president Daniel Arap Moi at the University of Nairobi.
 In 1997, Ruto ran for and won the Eldoret North constituency‘s parliamentary seat and was re-elected in 2002.
 Known as a strong orator with a knack for drawing huge crowds at rallies, Ruto‘s coalition Kenya Kwanza has
won the majority of seats in the country‘s upper house this time. Before being elected Deputy President, he held
ministerial posts including agriculture and education.
Allegations of corruption and irregularities
 In 2013, Ruto was accused of crimes against humanity for allegedly inciting ethnic violence after the 2007
presidential elections.
 The International Court of Justice charged Ruto and then President Uhuru Kenyatta for violence that left about
1,200 people dead and over 6,00,000 people displaced.
 However, the case against Ruto collapsed in 2016 after the Kenyan government allegedly meddled with evidence
and engaged in ―witness interference and political meddling‖, as per the court. Ruto has also been accused of
corruption.
 Ruto has a passion for agriculture and owns huge pieces of land across Kenya.
 The source of Ruto‘s wealth has been questioned at various points and is often speculated on.
 In 2013, Ruto had been asked by a high court to surrender a 100-acre land after a farmer accused him of illegally
taking it after the 2007 election violence.
The election chaos in Kenya
 Ruto bagged 7,176,141 votes against his opponent Raila Odinga‘s 6,942,930 votes, winning with a 50.5 per cent
majority.
 The validity of the election results that led to Ruto‘s win has been questioned by the opposition parties with
videos on social media showing how the election centre saw protests, with chairs thrown after the result‘s
declaration.
Kenya
 Kenya, officially the Republic of Kenya is a country in Eastern Africa.
 At 580,367 square kilometres (224,081 sq mi), Kenya is the world's 48th largest country by area.
 With a population of more than 47.6 million in the 2019 census, Kenya is the 29th most populous country in the
world.
 Kenya's capital and largest city is Nairobi, while it‘s oldest, currently second largest city, and first capital is the
coastal city of Mombasa.
 Kisumu City is the third-largest city and also an inland port on Lake Victoria.
 Other important urban centres include Nakuru and Eldoret.
 As of 2020, Kenya is the third-largest economy in sub-Saharan Africa after Nigeria and South Africa.
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 Kenya is bordered by South Sudan to the northwest, Ethiopia to the north, Somalia to the east, Uganda to the
west, Tanzania to the south, and the Indian Ocean to the southeast.
 Its geography, climate and population vary widely, ranging from cold snow-capped mountaintops with vast
surrounding forests, wildlife and fertile agricultural regions to temperate climates in western and rift valley
counties and dry less fertile arid and semi-arid areas and absolute deserts (Chalbi Desert and Nyiri Desert).
 Kenya's earliest inhabitants were hunter-gatherers, like the present-day Hadza people.
 According to archaeological dating of associated artifacts and skeletal material, Cushitic speakers first settled in
Kenya's lowlands between 3,200 and 1,300 BC, a phase known as the Lowland Savanna Pastoral Neolithic.
 Nilotic-speaking pastoralists (ancestral to Kenya's Nilotic speakers) began migrating from present-day South
Sudan into Kenya around 500 BC.
 Bantu people settled at the coast and the interior between 250 BC and 500 AD.
 European contact began in 1500 AD with the Portuguese Empire, and effective colonisation of Kenya began in
the 19th century during the European exploration of the interior.
 Modern-day Kenya emerged from a protectorate established by the British Empire in 1895 and the subsequent
Kenya Colony, which began in 1920.
 Numerous disputes between the UK and the colony led to the Mau Mau revolution, which began in 1952, and the
declaration of independence in 1963.
 After independence, Kenya remained a member of the Commonwealth of Nations.
 The current constitution was adopted in 2010 and replaced the 1963 independence constitution.
 Kenya is a presidential representative democratic republic, in which elected officials represent the people and the
president is the head of state and government.
 Kenya is a member of the United Nations, Commonwealth of Nations, World Bank, International Monetary Fund,
COMESA, International Criminal Court, as well as other international organisations.
 With a GNI of 1,840,Kenya is a lower-middle-income economy.
 Kenya's economy is the largest in eastern and central Africa,with Nairobi serving as a major regional commercial
hub.
 Agriculture is the largest sector: tea and coffee are traditional cash crops, while fresh flowers are a fast-growing
export.
 The service industry is also a major economic driver, particularly tourism.
 Kenya is a member of the East African Community trade bloc, though some international trade organisations
categorise it as part of the Greater Horn of Africa.
 Africa is Kenya's largest export market, followed by the European Union.
QUESTIONS
1. As of 2020, Kenya is the third-largest economy in sub-Saharan Africa after _________ and
_________.
2. _________ was the first elected Deputy President of the Republic of Kenya and was sworn into
office in 2013.
3. Numerous disputes between the UK and the colony led to the _________, which began in 1952.
4. The currency of Kenya is _________.
5. The Capital city of Kenya is _________.
6. The current constitution of Kenya was adopted in _________ and replaced the 1963 independence
constitution.
7. _________ economy is the largest in eastern and central Africa.
8. Kenya is a member of the East African Community trade bloc, though some international trade
organisations categorise it as part of the _________.
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17. India approves India’s updated
Nationally Determined Contribution
 The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved India‘s
updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to be communicated to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
 The updated NDC seeks to enhance India‘s contributions towards achievement of the
strengthening of global response to the threat of climate change, as agreed under the Paris
Agreement. Such action will also help India usher in low emissions growth pathways. It would
protect the interests of the country and safeguard its future development needs based on the
principles and provisions of the UNFCCC.
 India at the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP26) to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Glasgow, United Kingdom,
expressed to intensify its climate action by presenting to the world five nectar elements
(Panchamrit) of India‘s climate action. These are: 1. India will reach its non-fossil installed
electricity capacity to 500 GW by 2030. 2. India will meet 50% of its electricity requirements from
renewable energy by 2030. 3. India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion
tonnes from now onwards till 2030. 4. By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its
economy by less than 45%. 5. By the year 2070, India will achieve the target of Net-zero.
 This update to India‘s existing NDC translates the ‗Panchamrit‘ announced at COP 26 into
enhanced climate targets. The update is also a step towards achieving India‘s long term goal of
reaching net-zero by 2070.
 Earlier, India submitted its Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) to UNFCCC on
October 2, 2015. The 2015 NDC comprised eight goals; three of these have quantitative targets upto
2030 namely, cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil sources to reach 40%;
reduce the emissions intensity of GDP by 33 to 35 percent compared to 2005 levels and creation of
additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through additional forest and
tree cover.
 As per the updated NDC, India now stands committed to reduce Emissions Intensity of its GDP by
45 percent by 2030, from 2005 level and achieve about 50 percent cumulative electric power
installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. Today‘s approval, also takes
forward the Hon‘ble Prime Minister‘s vision of sustainable lifestyles and climate justice to protect
the poor and vulnerable from adverse impacts of climate change. The updated NDC reads "To put
forward and further propagate a healthy and sustainable way of living based on traditions and values of
conservation and moderation, including through a mass movement for ‗LIFE‘– ‗Lifestyle for
Environment‘ as a key to combating climate change". The decision on enhanced NDCs demonstrates
India‘s commitment at the highest level for decoupling of economic growth from greenhouse gas
emissions.
 India‘s updated NDC has been prepared after carefully considering our national circumstances and
the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities (CBDR-RC).
India‘s updated NDC also reaffirms our commitment to work towards a low carbon emission pathway,
while simultaneously endeavoring to achieve sustainable development goals.
 Recognizing that lifestyle has a big role in climate change, the Hon‘ble Prime Minister of India, at
COP 26, proposed a ‗One-Word Movement‘, to the global community. This one word is LIFE…L,
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I, F, E, i.e. Lifestyle For Environment. The vision of LIFE is to live a lifestyle that is in tune with our
planet and does not harm it. India‘s updated NDC also captures this citizen centric approach to combat
climate change.
 The updated NDC also represents the framework for India‘s transition to cleaner energy for the
period 2021-2030. The updated framework, together with many other initiatives of the Government,
including tax concessions and incentives such as Production Linked Incentive scheme for promotion of
manufacturing and adoption of renewable energy, will provide an opportunity for enhancing India‘s
manufacturing capabilities and enhancing exports. It will lead to an overall increase in green jobs such
as in renewable energy, clean energy industries- in automotives, manufacturing of low emissions
products like Electric Vehicles and super-efficient appliances, and innovative technologies such as green
hydrogen, etc.
 India‘s updated NDC will be implemented over the period 2021-2030 through programs and
schemes of relevant Ministries /departments and with due support from States and Union Territories.
The Government has launched many schemes and programs to scale up India‘s actions on both
adaptation and mitigation. Appropriate measures are being taken under these schemes and programs
across many sectors, including water, agriculture, forest, energy and enterprise, sustainable mobility and
housing, waste management, circular economy and resource efficiency, etc. As a result of the aforesaid
measures, India has progressively continued decoupling of economic growth from greenhouse gas
emissions. The Net Zero target by 2030 by Indian Railways alone will lead to a reduction of emissions
by 60 million tonnes annually. Similarly, India‘s massive LED bulb campaign is reducing emissions by
40 million tonnes annually.
 India's climate actions have so far been largely financed from domestic resources. However,
providing new and additional financial resources as well as transfer of technology to address the global
climate change challenge are among the commitments and responsibilities of the developed countries
under UNFCCC and the Paris Agreement. India will also require its due share from such international
financial resources and technological support.
 India‘s NDC do not bind it to any sector specific mitigation obligation or action. India‘s goal is to
reduce overall emission intensity and improve energy efficiency of its economy over time and at the
same time protecting the vulnerable sectors of economy and segments of our society.
Green Grids Initiative — One Sun, One World, One Grid (GGI — OSOWOG):
 Green Grids Initiative — One Sun, One World, One Grid (GGI — OSOWOG) is an initiative by
International Solar Alliance (ISA), India and United Kingdom to build a global green energy grid,
primarily focusing on solar and wind energy. Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi proposed the One
Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative in the first assembly of ISA in October 2018. United
Kingdom and India agreed to merge their Green Grids Initiative (GGI) and OSOWOG initiatives
respectively, during the UK—India Virtual Summit in May 2021. On the sidelines of COP26 in
November 2021, the merged initiative was launched. About 83 ISA member nations have endorsed the
initiative. The ISA and the World Bank are instrumental in the implementation of initiative.
What are renewable and nonrenewable energy sources?
 A renewable energy source is a resource we can access infinitely; it's one that constantly
replenishes itself without human involvement. Renewable energy sources come from natural elements
such as wind, water, the sun and even plant matter. There will always be wind blowing, sun shining and
water flowing, regardless of how much of each resource we use to produce energy. Some examples of
renewable resources are: Wind, Solar, Hydropower, Tidal power, Geothermal, Biomass and
Hydrogen.
 Nonrenewable energy sources, on the other hand, are only available in fixed amounts. In most
cases, this refers to fossil fuels such as natural gas, oil, and coal. While these resources did originate
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from organic matter, they take hundreds of thousands of years to create and require a hyper-pressurized
environment to become the oil, coal and gas we can use for fuel. Once burned, they are gone forever.
Examples of nonrenewable resources are: Coal, Oil, Natural gas and Nuclear energy.
What is the difference between renewable and nonrenewable resources?
 Renewable energy harnesses natural energy to produce energy that we can consume. For example,
wind's natural kinetic energy is used to turn a generator, which produces electricity. And since the wind
will continue to blow, it cannot be "used up." Nonrenewable resources can only be used once, and we
can't produce more to replace what we use. Aside from the fact that one resource is replenishable and
another is not, the main difference between renewable and nonrenewable energy sources is their
respective financial costs, exhaustion rate and environmental costs.
Know more about United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
 The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) established an
international environmental treaty to combat "dangerous human interference with the climate
system", in part by stabilizing greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere. It was signed by 154
states at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), informally
known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992. It established a
Secretariat headquartered in Bonn, Germany, and entered into force on 21 March 1994. The treaty
called for ongoing scientific research and regular meetings, negotiations, and future policy agreements
designed to allow ecosystems to adapt naturally to climate change, to ensure that food production is not
threatened and to enable economic development to proceed in a sustainable manner.
 The Kyoto Protocol, which was signed in 1997 and ran from 2005 to 2020, was the first
implementation of measures under the UNFCCC. The Kyoto Protocol was superseded by the
Paris Agreement, which entered into force in 2016. By 2022 the UNFCCC had 198 parties. Its
supreme decision-making body, the Conference of the Parties (COP), meets annually to assess
progress in dealing with climate change. Because key signatory states are not adhering to their
individual commitments, the UNFCCC has been criticized as being unsuccessful in reducing the
emission of carbon dioxide since its adoption.
 The treaty established different responsibilities for three categories of signatory states. These
categories are developed countries, developed countries with special financial responsibilities, and
developing countries. The developed countries, also called Annex 1 countries, originally consisted
of 38 states, 13 of which were Eastern European states in transition to democracy and market
economies, and the European Union. All belong to the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and
Development (OECD).
QUESTIONS
1. India will reach its non-fossil installed electricity capacity to _________ GW by 2030.
2. India will meet _________% of its electricity requirements from renewable energy by 2030.
3. India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now onwards till
2030.
4. By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than 45%.
5. By the year 2070, India will achieve the target of Net-zero.
6. Green Grids Initiative — One Sun, One World, One Grid (GGI — OSOWOG) is an initiative by
International Solar Alliance (ISA), India and _________ to build a global green energy grid,
primarily focusing on solar and wind energy.
7. The full form of LIFE is _________.
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8. Recognizing that lifestyle has a big role in climate change, the Hon‘ble Prime Minister of India, at
COP 26, proposed a ‗One-Word Movement‘, to the global community. This one word is _________.
9. The full form of CBDR-RC is _________.
10. The full form of UNFCCC is _________.
18. Chile’s proposed new constitution

 Chileans will vote in a little over a month on a new constitution that would bring the most sweeping changes to
the country since the end of the Augusto Pinochet military dictatorship.
 The proposed text focuses on social rights, the environment and gender parity, representing a sharp shift from the
current 1980 constitution written during Pinochet‘s prime that focuses on private rights and free market
principles.
 The proposed new text was written by a 154-member body elected through a popular vote, the first time in Chile‘s
history a constitution was drafted democratically.
 The process started after violent protests against inequality rocked the world‘s top copper producer in 2019 and
tarnished Chile‘s image as an oasis of stability in Latin America.
Political system and laws
 The president remains the head of the government, but would share the power to submit laws that involve public
spending with legislators, something currently exclusive to the president.
 The president could be re-elected consecutively once. Chile‘s president‘s can currently only be re-elected non-
consecutively.
 Congress, which is a bicameral body with equal powers, would become an ―asymmetric‖ one. The current
Chamber of Deputies would retain its legislative functions while the Senate would be scaled back to a Chamber of
Regions with limited powers and a focus on laws with a regional scope.
 Direct democracy mechanisms like popular law initiatives and citizen consultations would become routine.
 The Chamber of Deputies will need a simple majority to modify or repeal certain laws, down from a maximum of
two-thirds. Changes to autonomous entities like the central bank will still require a supermajority.
Social state
 The proposed constitution would guarantee a wider slate of social rights – a key demand during the violent 2019
protests – including housing, social security, health, work and access to food.
Environment
 The current constitution has one article regarding the environment while the proposal has dedicated an entire
chapter to it, stating that ―nature has rights‖ and that animals are ―subjects of special protection.‖
 Fighting climate change would be a state duty as would be protecting biodiversity, native species and natural
spaces.
 Wetlands are protected and glaciers are not explicitly protected in the current constitution, but would be
―excluded from any mining activity‖ in the new proposal. Chile is the world‘s largest producer of copper and one
of the top lithium producers.
 Water would be classified as a ―non-appropriable‖ in the new text, in contrast with the current constitution, which
allows for private rights.
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Gender parity
 State bodies and public companies, among other entities, must have gender parity.
 The state must take measures to eradicate and punish gender violence.
 The proposal says every person is entitled to sexual and reproductive rights, including the voluntary interruption
of pregnancy, but leaves specifics regarding abortion up to future laws.
 Abortion in Chile is currently legal only in cases that involve rape, unviable pregnancies or when the mother‘s life
is in danger.
Indigenous rights
 The state must ―respect, promote, protect and guarantee‖ self-determination, collective and individual rights, and
participation of indigenous groups.
 The text guarantees ―the right of indigenous peoples and nations to their lands, territories and resources‖, reserves
seats in representative bodies and establishes that groups must be consulted in matters that affect their rights.
 The new constitution would establish parallel justice systems for indigenous groups, but the country‘s Supreme
Court will still have the final say.
Chile
 Chile is a country in the western part of South America.
 It is the southernmost country in the world, and the closest to Antarctica, occupying a long and narrow strip of
land between the Andes to the east and the Pacific Ocean to the west.
 Chile covers an area of 756,096 square kilometers (291,930 sq mi), with a population of 17.5 million as of 2017.
 It shares land borders with Peru to the north, Bolivia to the north-east, Argentina to the east, and the Drake
Passage in the far south.
 Chile also controls the Pacific islands of Juan Fernández, Isla Salas y Gómez, Desventuradas, and Easter Island in
Oceania.
 It also claims about 1,250,000 square kilometers (480,000 sq mi) of Antarctica under the Chilean Antarctic
Territory.
 The country's capital and largest city is Santiago, and its national language is Spanish.
 Chile is among the longest north–south countries in the world. If one considers only mainland territory, Chile is
unique within this group in its narrowness from east to west, with the other long north–south countries (including
Brazil, Russia, Canada, and the United States, among others) all being wider from east to west by a factor of more
than 10.
 Chile also claims 1,250,000 km2 (480,000 sq mi) of Antarctica as part of its territory (Chilean Antarctic
Territory).
 However, this latter claim is suspended under the terms of the Antarctic Treaty, of which Chile is a signatory.
 It is the world's southernmost country that is geographically on the mainland.
 The northern Atacama Desert contains great mineral wealth, primarily copper and nitrates.
 The relatively small Central Valley, which includes Santiago, dominates the country in terms of population and
agricultural resources.
 This area is also the historical center from which Chile expanded in the late 19 th century, when it integrated the
northern and southern regions.
 Southern Chile is rich in forests, grazing lands, and features a string of volcanoes and lakes.
 The southern coast is a labyrinth of fjords, inlets, canals, twisting peninsulas, and islands.
 The Andes Mountains are located on the eastern border.
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QUESTIONS
1. Chile president could be re-elected consecutively _________.
2. The proposed new text was written by a _________ member body elected through a popular vote,
the first time in Chile‘s history a constitution was drafted democratically.
3. The national language of Chile is _________.
4. The country's capital and largest city is _________.
5. Chile is a country in the western part of _________.
6. The northern _________ contains great mineral wealth, primarily copper and nitrates.
7. The _________ Mountains are located on the eastern border of Chile.
8. _________ is the world's southernmost country that is geographically on the mainland.
19. 2022 Commonwealth Games

 The 2022 Commonwealth Games, officially known as the XXII Commonwealth Games and
commonly known as Birmingham 2022, was an international multi-sport event for members of the
Commonwealth of Nations that took place in Birmingham, England between 28 July and 8 August
2022.
 Birmingham was announced as host on 21 December 2017. The Games marked England's third
time hosting the Commonwealth Games after London 1934 and Manchester 2002, and the 7th
Games held in the United Kingdom, with previous events in Wales and Scotland: Cardiff 1958,
Edinburgh 1970 and 1986 and Glasgow 2014.
 The Games was the largest ever held, with 72 participating nations and over 1.3 million ticket sales.
It was also the first to have more events for women than men and the first integrated event, with the para
competition held at the same time. Alongside the Games, a cultural festival was held across the West
Midlands, as well as a number of trade events. An Esports event was also held.
 The relay began on 7 October 2021 at Buckingham Palace in London, and will last for 294 days—
travelling through 72 Commonwealth nations and territories. After placing her message inside the
baton, Queen Elizabeth II presented it to British Paralympic athlete and cyclist Kadeena Cox.
During the opening ceremony, the baton was delivered to Charles, Prince of Wales, who read the
Queen's message to officially open the Games.
 The opening ceremonies of the 2022 Commonwealth Games were held at Alexander Stadium on
28 July 2022. The closing ceremony took place on 8 August 2022 at Alexander Stadium, and
included the formal handover to the Australian state of Victoria, host of the 2026 Commonwealth
Games in a segment headlined by Vanessa Amorosi. All 72 Commonwealth Games Associations sent
athletes to the 2022 Commonwealth Games.
Commonwealth Games Charter
 A new edition of the Commonwealth Games Charter came into effect for these Games. In addition to the ten
core sports that were part of Gold Coast 2018 — athletics, badminton, boxing, hockey, lawn bowls, netball
(for women), rugby sevens, squash, swimming and weightlifting — five new sports will be integrated into
the core sports: road cycling, judo (previously optional), triathlon, table tennis, and wrestling. The charter
also mandates that a number of parasports events (i.e. sports for elite athletes with disabilities) must be integrated
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within four core sports: athletics, lawn bowls, swimming and weightlifting (the lattermost is actually represented
by a variation of powerlifting).
Mascot
 The official mascot for the Birmingham 2022 Commonwealth Games is Perry, a multi-coloured bull. Perry is
named after an area of Birmingham, Perry Barr, within which Perry Park and the main athletics stadium, the
Alexander Stadium, are located. The bull has a long history with being a symbol of Birmingham and was
positively received by the public on launch. Perry was designed by ten-year-old Emma Lou from Bolton.
India at the 2022 Commonwealth Games
 India competed at the 2022 Commonwealth Games at Birmingham, England from 28 July to 8
August 2022. It was India's 18th appearance at the Commonwealth Games.
 In July 2022, the Indian team of 106 men and 104 women competing in 16 sports was named.
India did not compete in 3x3 basketball, beach volleyball, netball and rugby sevens. Indian para-
athletes competed in athletics, para powerlifting, swimming and table tennis.
 Hockey player Manpreet Singh and badminton athlete P. V. Sindhu served as the country's
opening ceremony flagbearers. Squash player Anahat Singh became the youngest Indian athlete to
compete at the Commonwealth Games at just 14 years of age. 45-year old Lawn Bowls player Sunil
Bahadur was the oldest player in the contingent.
 India's first medal of the Games was won by Sanket Sargar with a silver in weightlifting. Saikhom
Mirabai Chanu won the first gold medal for the country, also in weightlifting. India won its first
ever medals in Lawn Bowls after the Women's Fours team won the Gold Medal, and were followed
by the Men's fours team winning a silver medal. Sharath Kamal was India's most successful
player at the Games, having won four (3 gold and 1 silver) medals in table tennis.
 India ended the games as the best nation in 4 sports: badminton, table tennis, wrestling and
weightlifting and second best in boxing.
 At the last edition at Gold Coast 2018, Indian athletes won a total of 66 medals, 26 gold and 20
silver and 20 bronze to finish third overall, behind hosts Australia and England.
 However, shooting, which contributed 16 of the 66 medals at Gold Coast 2018, was cut from the
Commonwealth Games program for Birmingham 2022.
 At CWG 2022, Indian athletes won 61 medals, 22 golds, 16 silvers and 23 bronze, at the
Commonwealth Games 2022. India ranking 4th in the Commonwealth Games 2022 Medal Tally
with 61 medals. Australia is ranking first on the medal tally of Commonwealth Games 2022. The
Australian team is leading with 67 Gold medals, 57 silver medals, and 54 Bronze medals. The total
medal count of Australia is 178.
Commonwealth Games 2022 Medal Tally of India
 Weightlifting women‘s 49 kg: Mirabai Chanu, Gold
 Weightlifting women‘s 55 kg: Bindyarani Devi, Silver
 Weightlifting men‘s 55 kg: Sanket Sargar, Silver
 Weightlifting men‘s 61 kg: Gururaja Poojary, Bronze
 Weightlifting men‘s 73 kg: Anchinta Sheuli, Gold
 Weightlifting men‘s 67 kg: Jeremy Lalrinnunga, Gold
 Weightlifting women‘s 71 kg: Harjinder Kaur, Bronze
 Judo women‘s 48 kg: Shushila Likmabam, Silver
 Judo men‘s 60 kg: Vijay Kumar Yadav, Bronze
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 Weightlifting men‘s 96 kg: Vikas Thakur, Silver
 Women‘s team wins Gold for Lawn Bowls and Para-Lawn Bowls.
 Indian men‘s table tennis team wins the gold medal after defeating Singapore 3-1 in the final. The pair
of G Sathiyan and Harmeet Desai won the opening game.
 Indian badminton team claimed the silver medal in the mixed group match of the Commonwealth
Games 2022.
 Lovepreet Singh has won bronze in the men‘s 109 kg weightlifting final with a total lift of 355 kg,
taking India‘s medal tally in the Commonwealth Games 2022.
 India‘s Gurdeep Singh won a bronze medal in the men‘s 109+kg weightlifting event.
 Judoka, Tulika Maan settle for a silver medal in the women‘s 78 kg category.
 Tejaswin Shankar won India‘s first medal in athletics at the Commonwealth games 2022.
 India‘s Saurav Ghosal has clinched the bronze medal in squash men‘s singles.
 Murali Sreeshankar has clinched a silver in the men‘s long jump.
 Sudhir won India‘s first gold medal in para powerlifting. His best lift was 212 kg and he won by setting
134.4 points.
 Bajrang Punia bags another gold in men‘s 65 kg wrestling defeating Canada‘s Lachlan McNeil
Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Sakshi Malik has won the gold medal in the Women‘s Wrestling Freestyle 62 Kg.
 India‘s wrestler Deepak Punia has won the gold medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Anshu Malik won the silver medal in the Women‘s Freestyle 57 kg category.
 Indian wrestler, Divya Kakran won a bronze medal in the women‘s 68 kg category.
 Indian grappler, Mohit Grewal has clinched the bronze medal in the Men‘s Freestyle 125 kg.
 Priyanka Goswami becomes 1st Indian to win the Silver medal in 10,000m race walk in Commonwealth
Games 2022. She finished second with a record of 43:38:83.
 Avinash Sable claims silver medal at Commonwealth Games 2022, in men‘s 3000m steeplechase,
missed the gold medal by 0.5 seconds.
 Indian men‘s lawn bowls teams win silver.
 Jaismine Lamboria wins first bronze in women‘s 60 kg lightweight boxing.
 Pooja Gehlot wins bronze in women‘s 50 kg wrestling.
 Ravi Kumar Dahiya bags gold for India in the first attempt at Commonwealth Games 2022. Ravi Kumar
Dahiya won by 10-0 in the finals of 57 kg wrestling.
 Vinesh Phogat won her third medal at Commonwealth Games. In Commonwealth Games 2022, Vinesh
Phogat bags gold medal in women‘s wrestling 53 kg.
 Indian wrestler Naveen won the gold medal in the men‘s 74 kg freestyle wrestling at the 2022
Commonwealth Games.
 India‘s Pooja Sihag settled for the bronze medal in the women‘s 76 kg wrestling competition at the 2022
Commonwealth Games.
 Mohammed Hussamuddin secured a bronze medal in the Commonwealth Games (CWG) 2022.
 Indian wrestler Deepak Nehra picked up the bronze medal in the men‘s 97 Kg.
 Indian boxer Rohit Tokas won a bronze medal in the men‘s 67 kg category.
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 India‘s para table tennis player Sonalben Manubhai Patel won the bronze medal.
 Star Indian para table tennis player Bhavina Patel won a gold medal in the women‘s singles.
 Nitu Ghangas wins first gold in women‘s 48 kg minimumweight in Boxing.
 Indian women‘s hockey wins bronze after 16 years in Commonwealth games 2022. India defeats New
Zealand by 2-1 in a penalty shootout.
 Amit Panghal wins India‘s 15th Gold in men‘s 48 kg-51 kg flyweight boxing.
 Eldhose Paul becomes the first Indian to win gold in the triple jump at Commonwealth Games 2022. His
jump record was 17.03 meters.
 Abdulla Aboobacker claims silver in men‘s triple jump at Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Annu Rani creates history by winning India‘s first-ever medal in the Women‘s Javeline throw in
Commonwealth Games 2022. Annu Rani bagged a Bronze medal with a throw of 60 meters.
 Sandeep Kumar wins bronze in men‘s 10000m race walk at Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Nikhat Zareen wins Gold in the 48 kg-50 kg light-fly boxing category. In the finals, she defeated
Northern Ireland Boxer Carly McNaul.
 Sharath Kamal and G. Sathiyan, win silver in men‘s doubles Table Tennis at Commonwealth Games
2022.
 Dipika Pallikal and Saurav Ghosal won Bronze in mixed doubles Squash.
 Kidambi Srikanth won silver in Badminton men‘s single at Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Women‘s cricket team created history by winning silver in the Women‘s T20 cricket.
 Sharath Kamal and Sreeja Akula bagged gold in Mixed doubles Table Tennis.
 Treesa Jolly and Gayatri Gopichand won Bronze in Women‘s doubles badminton.
 Sagar Ahlawat bagged silver in Men‘s 92+kg super heavyweight Boxing.
 PV Sindhu creates history by winning her first ever gold in Commonwealth Games 2022 in Badminton
women‘s singles.
 Lakshya sen claims the 20th gold medal for India in Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Sathiyan Gnanasekaran wins bronze in men‘s singles table tennis.
 The Indian Men‘s doubles badminton team wins Gold for the first time in Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Sharath Kamal wins Gold in men‘s Table Tennis at Commonwealth Games 2022.
 Indian men‘s hockey team claims silver medal at Commonwealth Games 2022 after getting defeated by
Australia with 0-7.
QUESTIONS
1. The 2022 Commonwealth Games took place in _________.
2. Squash player _________ became the youngest Indian athlete to compete at the 2022
Commonwealth Games at just 14 years of age.
3. At the latest edition of CWG 2022, Indian athletes won a total of _________ medals.
4. The closing ceremony took place on 8 August 2022 at Alexander Stadium, and included the formal
handover to the Australian state of _________, host of the 2026 Commonwealth Games.
5. The country which topped the medals list at the CWG 2022 is _________.
6. India's first medal of the Games was won by _________ with a silver in weightlifting.
7. Saikhom Mirabai Chanu won the first gold medal for the country, also in weightlifting.
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8. India's most successful player at the Games, having won four (3 gold and 1 silver) medals in table
tennis is _________.
9. The official mascot for the 2022 Commonwealth Games is _________.
10. At the last edition at Gold Coast 2018, Indian athletes won a total of _________ medals, 26 gold and
20 silver and 20 bronze to finish third overall, behind hosts Australia and England.
20. Langya, a new zoonotic virus

 Langya Henipavirus: Almost three years after the novel coronavirus was detected in China, a new zoonotic virus
has been discovered in the country‘s two eastern provinces with 35 infections identified so far.
 This new type of Henipavirus is also being called Langya Henipavirus or the LayV.
 Henipaviruses are classified as biosafety level 4 (BSL4) pathogens. They can cause severe illness in animals and
humans, and as of now there are no licensed drugs or vaccines meant for humans.
What is Langya virus?
 The types of Henipaviruses that had been identified prior to this included Hendra, Nipah, Cedar, Mojiang and the
Ghanaian bat virus. The Cedar virus, Ghanaian bat virus, and Mojiang virus are not known to cause human
disease. But Hendra and Nipah infect humans and can cause fatal illness.
 The study adds that Langya‘s genome organization is ―identical to that of other Henipaviruses‖, and that it is
closely related to the ―Mojiang Henipavirus, which was discovered in southern China‖.
How was Langya virus discovered?
 Langya was discovered in eastern China during surveillance testing of patients who had fever along with a recent
history of animal exposure. It was identified and isolated from the throat swab sample of one of those patients.
What are the symptoms of Langya virus?
 The study looked at the 26 patients with only LayV infection to identify the associated symptoms.
 While all 26 had fever, 54% reported fatigue, 50% had cough, 38% complained of nausea.
 Also, 35% of the total 26, complained of headache and vomiting.
 The study found that 35% had impaired liver function, while 8% had their kidney function impacted.
 The patients were accompanied by abnormalities of ―thrombocytopenia (35%), leukopenia (54%), impaired liver
(35%) and kidney (8%) function‖, the study noted.
 Thrombocytopenia is low platelet count, while leukopenia means a fall in the white blood cell count, in turn
reducing the body‘s disease-fighting capability.
Where has Langya virus come from?
 In all likelihood, the new virus has jumped from an animal to humans. The LayV virus RNA has been
predominantly found in shrews, which may be its natural hosts.
 The study zeroed in on shrews after conducting a serosurvey of domestic and wild animals. Among domestic
animals, seropositivity was detected in goats and dogs.
What about human-to-human transmission?
 The authors of the study have underlined that the sample size of their investigation is too small to determine
human-to-human transmission.
 However, they point out that among the 35 patients infected by LayV, there was ―no close contact or common
exposure history‖, which suggests that the ―infection in the human population may be sporadic‖.
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 The study further noted that contact tracing of 9 patients with 15 close-contact family members revealed no close-
contact LayV transmission.
Zoonoses
 A zoonosis is an infectious disease that has jumped from a non-human animal to humans.
 Zoonotic pathogens may be bacterial, viral or parasitic, or may involve unconventional agents and can spread to
humans through direct contact or through food, water or the environment.
 They represent a major public health problem around the world due to our close relationship with animals in
agriculture, as companions and in the natural environment.
 Zoonoses can also cause disruptions in the production and trade of animal products for food and other uses.
 Zoonoses comprise a large percentage of all newly identified infectious diseases as well as many existing ones.
 Some diseases, such as HIV, begin as a zoonosis but later mutate into human-only strains.
 Other zoonoses can cause recurring disease outbreaks, such as Ebola virus disease and salmonellosis.
 Still others, such as the novel coronavirus that causes COVID-19, have the potential to cause global pandemics.
 Zoonotic pathogens can spread to humans through any contact point with domestic, agricultural or wild animals.
 Markets selling the meat or by-products of wild animals are particularly high risk due to the large number of new
or undocumented pathogens known to exist in some wild animal populations.
 Agricultural workers in areas with a high use of antibiotics for farm animals may be at increased risk of pathogens
resistant to current antimicrobial drugs.
 People living adjacent to wilderness areas or in semi-urban areas with higher numbers of wild animals are at risk
of disease from animals such as rats, foxes or raccoons.
 Urbanization and the destruction of natural habitats increase the risk of zoonotic diseases by increasing contact
between humans and wild animals.
QUESTIONS
1. Langya Henipavirus was detected in _________.
2. Henipaviruses are classified as biosafety level 4 (BSL4) _________.
3. ―Mojiang Henipavirus, was discovered in _________‖.
4. Thrombocytopenia is _________ platelet count.
5. Among domestic animals, seropositivity was detected in _________.
6. Some diseases, such as _________, begin as a zoonosis but later mutate into human-only strains.
7. A zoonosis is an infectious disease that has jumped from a _________.
8. Zoonotic pathogens may be _________, viral or parasitic.
21. Mikhail Gorbachev passed away

 Mikhail Gorbachev, who ended the Cold War without bloodshed but failed to prevent the collapse
of the Soviet Union, died at the age of 91. Gorbachev, the last Soviet President, forged arms
reduction deals with the United States and partnerships with Western powers to remove the Iron
Curtain that had divided Europe since World War Two and bring about the reunification of
Germany.
 The Soviet Union, officially the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR) was a transcontinental
country that spanned much of Eurasia from 1922 to 1991. A flagship communist state, it was
nominally a federal union of Twenty one republics; in practice, both its government and its economy
Page 53
were highly centralized until its final years. It was a one-party state governed by the Communist
Party of the Soviet Union, with the city of Moscow serving as its capital as well as that of its largest
and most populous republic: the Russian SFSR. Other major cities included, Leningrad (Russian SFSR),
Kiev (Ukrainian SSR), Minsk (Byelorussian SSR), Tashkent (Uzbek SSR), Alma-Ata (Kazakh SSR),
and Novosibirsk (Russian SFSR). It was the largest country in the world, covering over 22,402,200
square kilometres (8,649,500 sq mi) and spanning eleven time zones.
 Soviet Union's roots lay in the October Revolution of 1917, when the Bolsheviks, under the
leadership of Vladimir Lenin, overthrew the Russian Provisional Government that had earlier
replaced the House of Romanov of the Russian Empire. The Bolshevik victory established the
Russian Soviet Republic, the world's first constitutionally guaranteed socialist state. Persisting
internal tensions escalated into the Russian Civil War. By 1922 the Bolsheviks under Vladimir Lenin
had emerged victorious, forming the Soviet Union. Vladimir Lenin served as the first and
founding head of government of Soviet Russia from 1917 to 1924 and of the Soviet Union from
1922 to 1924. Following Lenin's death in 1924, Joseph Stalin came to power. Stalin inaugurated a
period of rapid industrialization and forced collectivization that led to significant economic growth, but
also contributed to a famine in 1930–1933 that killed millions.
 The labour camp system of the Gulag was also expanded in this period. Stalin conducted the Great
Purge from 1936–1938 to remove his actual and perceived political opponents. After the outbreak of
World War II, Germany invaded the Soviet Union. The combined Soviet civilian and military
casualty count—estimated to be around 27 million people—accounted for the majority of losses of
Allied forces. In the aftermath of World War II, the territory taken by the Red Army formed various
Soviet satellite states.
 The beginning of the Cold War saw the Eastern Bloc of the Soviet Union confront the Western
Bloc of the United States, with the latter grouping becoming largely united in 1949 under NATO
and the former grouping becoming largely united in 1955 under the Warsaw Pact. Following
Stalin's death in 1953, a period known as de-Stalinization occurred under the leadership of Nikita
Khrushchev. The Soviets took an early lead in the Space Race with the first artificial satellite
(Sputnik 1), the first human spaceflight (Vostok 1), and the first probe to land on another planet
(Venus) (Venera 7). In the 1970s, there was a brief detente in the Soviet Union's relationship with
the United States, but tensions resumed following the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan in 1979.
 In the mid-1980s, the last Soviet leader, Mikhail Gorbachev, sought to reform the country through
his policies of glasnost and perestroika. In 1989, during the closing stages of the Cold War, various
countries of the Warsaw Pact overthrew their Marxist–Leninist regimes, which was accompanied
by the outbreak of strong nationalist and separatist movements across the entire Soviet Union. In
1991, Gorbachev initiated a national referendum—boycotted by the Soviet republics of Lithuania,
Latvia, Estonia, Armenia, Georgia, and Moldova—that resulted in the majority of participating
citizens voting in favour of preserving the country as a renewed federation. In August 1991,
hardline members of the Communist Party staged a coup d'etat against Gorbachev; the attempt failed,
with Boris Yeltsin playing a high-profile role in facing down the unrest, and the Communist Party was
subsequently banned. All of the republics emerged from the dissolution of the Soviet Union as fully
independent post-Soviet states.
 The Soviet Union produced many significant social and technological achievements and innovations. It
had the world's second-largest economy, and the Soviet Armed Forces comprised the largest
standing military in the world. An NPT-designated state, it possessed the largest arsenal of nuclear
weapons in the world. It was a founding member of the United Nations as well as one of the five
permanent members of the United Nations Security Council. From the end of the World War II until its
dissolution, the country maintained its status as one of the world's two superpowers, alongside the
United States, through its hegemony in Eastern Europe, military and economic strengths, aid to
developing countries, and scientific research.
Page 54
What was the contribution of Mikhail Gorbachev?
 Mikhail Gorbachev joined Communist Party of the Soviet Union as a youth, and after Stalin‘s
death, he became a keen proponent of De-Stalinisation reforms started by Nikita Khrushchev. He was
selected as the First Party Secretary of the Stavropol Regional Committee in 1970.
 In 1985 when he was elected as the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union,
in other words, the de facto ruler of the government. As the country's head of state from 1988 to 1991,
he served as Chairman of the Presidium of the Supreme Soviet from 1988 to 1989, Chairman of
the Supreme Soviet from 1989 to 1990, General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet
Union from 1985 to 1991, and President of the Soviet Union from 1990 until the country's
dissolution in 1991. The recipient of a wide range of awards, including the Nobel Peace Prize, he is
praised for his role in ending the Cold War, introducing new political and economic freedoms in the
Soviet Union, and tolerating both the fall of Marxist–Leninist administrations in eastern and central
Europe and the reunification of Germany.
Achievements:
Major Reforms:
 He introduced the policies of ―glasnost‖ and ―perestroika‖ which helped in freedom of speech and
press and the economic expansion of the economy. Perestroika means ―restructuring,‖ specifically
of the Communist economy and political system, by incorporating some features of a market economy
into the Soviet economy. It also resulted in the decentralization of financial decision-making. Glasnost
means ―openness,‖ particularly openness of information and began the democratization of the Soviet
Union.
Focused on Arms Reduction:
 He forged arms reduction deals with the United States and partnerships with Western powers to
remove the Iron Curtain that had divided Europe since World War Two and reunify Germany.
Iron curtain is the political, military, and ideological barrier erected by the Soviet Union after World
War II to seal off itself and its dependent eastern and central European allies from open contact with the
West and other noncommunist areas.
Ended the Cold War:
 Gorbachev is credited with bringing the Cold War to an end, which resulted in the dissolution of the
USSR into separate countries.
Nobel Peace Prize:
 He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1990 for his efforts to end the Cold War between the US
and USSR.
Indian Connection:
 Gorbachev visited India twice, in 1986 and 1988. His objective was to extend his disarmament
initiatives in Europe to Asia and to secure Indian cooperation.
 It was Gorbachev‘s first visit to a non-Warsaw Pact country after taking over as leader of the Soviet
Union. The then Prime Minister Rajiv hailed Gorbachev as a ―crusader for peace‖. His address to
India‘s Parliament during the visit received hyperbolic coverage in the Indian and Soviet press and was
seen as a high point of Indian diplomacy.
What was the Cold War?
 The Cold War is a term commonly used to refer to a period of geopolitical tension between the
United States and the Soviet Union and their respective allies, the Western Bloc and the Eastern
Bloc. Historians do not fully agree on its starting and ending points, but the period is generally
Page 55
considered to span from the announcement of the Truman Doctrine on 12 March 1947 to the
dissolution of the Soviet Union on 26 December 1991. The term cold war is used because there was
no large-scale fighting directly between the two superpowers, but they each supported major
regional conflicts known as proxy wars. The conflict was based around the ideological and
geopolitical struggle for global influence by these two superpowers, following their temporary
alliance and victory against Nazi Germany and Imperial Japan in 1945. Aside from the nuclear
arsenal development and conventional military deployment, the struggle for dominance was expressed
via indirect means such as psychological warfare, propaganda campaigns, espionage, far-reaching
embargoes, rivalry at sports events, and technological competitions such as the Space Race.
India’s Role:
Non-Alignment Movement:
 The policy of Non Alignment Movement (NAM) did not seek to formally align themselves with
either the United States or the Soviet Union, but sought to remain independent or neutral. The basic
concept for the group originated in 1955 during discussions that took place at the Asia-Africa
Bandung Conference held in Indonesia.
 The first NAM Summit Conference took place in Belgrade, Yugoslavia, in September 1961. Giani
Zail Singh served as the Chairperson of NAM from 1983-86. He was the second Indian to chair the
NAM after Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, who chaired the NAM during 1983.
 The purpose of the organization was enumerated in Havana Declaration of 1979 to ensure "the
national independence, sovereignty, territorial integrity and security of non-aligned countries" in
their struggle against imperialism, colonialism, neo-colonialism, racism, and all forms of foreign
subjugation. During the cold war era the NAM played a vital role in stabilizing the world order and
preserving peace and security.
Neutral Stand:
 India was able to take decisions and stances at the international level serving its own interest rather
than serving the interest of the superpowers.
QUESTIONS
1. The full form of USSR_________.
Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
2. Mikhail Gorbachev, who ended the _________

Cold War without bloodshed but failed to prevent the
collapse of the Soviet Union, died at the age of 91.
1922
3. The USSR was a transcontinental country that spanned much of Eurasia from _________ to
_________.
1991
4. The first artificial satellite is Sputnik-1
_________.
5. The first human spaceflight is _________.
Vostok-1
Venera-7
6. The first probe to land on another planet is _________.
7. The first president of USSR is Vladimir Lenin
_________.
8. Mikhail Gorbachev received the Noble Peace Prize in _________.
1990
9. Mikhail Gorbachev Gorbachev visited India twice, in 1986 and _________.
1988
10. The policy of Non Alignment Movement (NAM) did not seek to formally align themselves with
either the United States or the Soviet Union, but sought to remain independent or neutral. The basic
concept for the group originated in 1955 during discussions that took place at the Asia-Africa
_________
Bandung Conference held in Indonesia.
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MONTHLY

2. Drought in Europe ........................................................................................................................................................... 7

4. Chief Justice of India .....................................................................................................................................................12

5. Punjab bans sarpanch proxies .................................................................................................................................14

9. Bilkis Bano Case .............................................................................................................................................................26

12. Haryana’s Cheerag scheme for EWS students ...................................................................................................32

13. Disqualification of MLAs .............................................................................................................................................34

15. India’s policy on the Rohingya Refugees .............................................................................................................38

16. William Ruto and Kenya’s elections ......................................................................................................................40

17. India approves India’s updated Nationally Determined Contribution ...................................................43

18. Chile’s proposed new constitution .........................................................................................................................46

19. 2022 Commonwealth Games ....................................................................................................................................48

20. Langya, a new zoonotic virus....................................................................................................................................52

21. Mikhail Gorbachev passed away .............................................................................................................................53

3. CBDC, the ‘digital rupee’ that RBI could

5. Punjab bans sarpanch proxies

6. ‘Vikrant’ to be re-incarnated: all about

3. The new warship is comparable to India‘s existing carrierINS _________

7. India and Bangladesh signed an interim

10. Who was Pandurang Khankhoje,

11. National emblem unveiled on the roof of

12. Haryana’s Cheerag scheme for EWS

13. Disqualification of MLAs

14. What is ‘zombie ice’, how it threatens to

15. India’s policy on the Rohingya Refugees

16. William Ruto and Kenya’s elections

18. Chile’s proposed new constitution

19. 2022 Commonwealth Games

20. Langya, a new zoonotic virus

21. Mikhail Gorbachev passed away

2. Mikhail Gorbachev, who ended the _________

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