1. This is a person or animal, which is another child with rubella.

In what stage of
without signs of illness but harbors infectious process does this child belongs?
pathogen within his body and can be A. Incubation period
transferred to another B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
A. Host D. Convalescent period
B. Agent
C. Environment 7. A 50-year-old mailman carried a mail with
D. Carrier
anthrax powder in it. A minute after
2. Refers to a person or animal, known or exposure, he still hasn’t developed any
believed to have been exposed to a signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what
disease. stage of infectious process does this man
A. Carrier belongs?
B. Contact A. Incubation period
C. Agent B. Prodromal period
D. Host C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
3. A substance usually intended for use on
inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens 8. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in
but not the spores. the chain of infection that nurses can
A. Sterilization manipulate to prevent spread of infection
B. Disinfectant and diseases
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
4. This is a process of removing pathogens C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
but not their spores
A. Sterilization 9. Which of the following is the exact order
B. Auto claving of the infection chain?
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis 1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
5. The third period of infectious processes 3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
characterized by development of specific 5. Reservoir
signs and symptoms 6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
A. Incubation period B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
B. Prodromal period C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
C. Illness period D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
D. Convalescent period
10. Markee, A 15-year-old high school
6. A child with measles developed fever and
student asked you. What is the mode of
general weakness after being exposed to
transmission of primary Encephalitis? You
correctly answered him that primary
Encephalitis is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
11. The client is a chronic carrier of
infection. To prevent the spread of the
infection to the other clients or health care
providers, the nurse emphasizes
interventions that do which of the following?
A. Eliminate the reservoir
B. Block the portal of exit from the reservoir
C. Block the portal of entry in the host
D. Decrease the susceptibility of the host
12. The most effective nursing action for
controlling the spread of infection includes
which of the following:
A. Thorough handwashing
B. Wearing gloves and mask when providing direct
care
C. Implementing the appropriate isolation technique
D. Administering broad spectrum prophylactic
antibiotics
13. Transmission occurs when an infected
person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is
usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
14. When caring for a single client during
one shift, it is appropriate for the nurse to
reuse which of the following personal
protective equipments?
A. Goggles
B. Gown
C. Surgical mask
D. Clean Gloves
15. As a nurse, you are aware that a patient
with leprosy can transmit the disease
through:
A. Prolonged skin to skin contact
B. Droplet
C. A only
D. Both A and B
16. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last
dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization.
Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is
TT Injections? You correctly answer her by
saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
17. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a
psychotic man while she was crossing the
railway. She suffered multiple injuries and
was injected Tetanus toxoid
Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What
immunity does TTIg provides? You best
answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
18. This is the single most important
procedure that prevents cross
contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
19. This is considered as the most MALARIA is a mosquito-borne infection
important aspect of handwashing which continues to be a major health in our
A. Time country.
B. Friction
C. Water 24. Malaria is produced by the
D. Soap intraerythrocytic parasites of the genus
20. To decrease the prevalence rate of plasmodium. The following are the
leprosy, nationwide implementation of this plasmodia which produce malaria in
program is emphasized in our country. humans, EXCEPT.
Since then, the treatment of leprosy has A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
shifted from institutional care to that of C. P. anchylostoma
home treatment. D. P. ovale
A. Anti-drug therapy 25. Preventive measures ideal for malaria
B. Leprosy anti therapy
C. Continual Drug therapy control are the ff.:
D. Multi-Drug therapy
1. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
2. Mosquito repellant especially at 9p-3a
21. Aling Janine was diagnosed of 3. Destruction of breeding places
Paucibacillary leprosy. What is drug of 4. Zooprophylaxis
choice for day 2-28? A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
A. Rifampicin C. 2, 3, 4
B. Dapsone D. All of the above
C. Streptomycin
D. INH 26. The triad symptoms of malaria are the
following, except:
22. Aling Janine is asking for the causative
agent for leprosy. The nurse is correct when a. Fever
B. Sweating
she replied: C. Headache
D. Chills
A. Mycobacterium leprosarium
B. Clostridium leprae
C. Neisseria leprae 27. Malaria is endemic in the following
D. Mycobacterium leprae areas, except:

23. All are early signs of leprosy, except: A. Quezon city

B. Palawan
A. Change in skin color C. Tawi-tawi
B. Loss of sensation D. Kalinga Apayao
C. Madarosis
D. Anhidrosis 28. To confirm the presence of the disease
in a victim, she should be subjected to:
A. Urine exam
B. Stool analysis
C. Blood smear
D. Sputum culture
Option 5
29. Part of malaria control in an endemic
area are the following except:
A. Use of mosquito repellant
B. Propagating tilapia in fish ponds
C. Planting eucalyptus tree
D. Destroy fishes in ponds
Schistosomiasis is a tropical disease with
high prevalence in Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte
and Davao. This is not only a public health
problem; it also has socio-economic effects
in supposedly high productive areas.
30. The parasite, a tiny blood fluke is
transmitted by which of the following hosts?
A. Rat
B. Dog
C. Snail
D. Humans
31. The diagnostic examination done to
detect this disease is?
A. CBC
B. Urine test
C. Bladder ultrasound
D. Fecalysis
32. The PHN should watch for signs and
symptoms of Schistosomiasis. The
following should be observed in an infected
client, except:
A. Aplastic Anemia
B. Diarrhea
C. Abdominal enlargement
D. Body weakness
33. Schistosomiasis can be controlled by
observing the following:
A. Building of foot bridges
B. Wearing of boots by farmers and fishermen
C. Using of sanitary toilets
D. Clearing investigation
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
Option 9
34. A TB patient was discharged in the
hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the
room where he stayed for a week. What
type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
35. Which of the following is not true in
implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
36. Which of the following is true about
masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when
worn for a long time and after each and every patient
care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter
organism as small as 1 micro millimeter
37. Where should you put a wet adult
diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
38. Which of the following should the nurse
AVOID doing in preventing spread of
infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent 44. Which clients are considered targets for
injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part DOTS Category I?
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and
B. Clients returning after a default
vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment
regimens
39. A client has been diagnosed with D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a
RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this positive sputum exam
patient?
45. If tetanus remains localized, signs of
A. Standard precaution onset are:
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution A. Decreased muscle tone in the wound and spasm
D. Contact precaution B. Decreased muscle tone around the wound and
spasm
40. A client has been diagnosed with C. Increased muscle tone and spasm around the
MEASLES. What precaution is used for this wound
D. Increased muscle tone in the wound
patient?
A. Standard precaution 46. Arching and rigidity of the back in
B. Airborne precaution tetanus is:
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution A. Opisthotonus
B. Risus Sardonicus
41. A client has been diagnosed with C. Trismus
D. Bell’s Palsy
IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this
patient? 47. Diazepam is given to the patient with
A. Standard precaution tetanus which acts by:
B. Airborne precaution A. Muscle relaxant
C. Droplet precaution B. Antibiotic
D. Contact precaution C. Antitoxin
D. All of the above
42. Largest worm that can cause
obstruction of the GI Tract? 48. Mode of transmission of Tetanus is:
A. Ascaris A. Droplet
B. Pinworm B. Sexual Contact
C. Hookworm C. Wound Puncture
D. Schistosoma D. All of the above

43. Which of the following signs indicates 49. What is the most effective way of
the need for sputum examination for AFB? controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic
A. Hematemesis area?
B. Fever for 1 week A. Use of molluscicides
C. Cough for 3 weeks B. Building of foot bridges
D. Chest pain for 1 week C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
50. When residents obtain water from an C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
artesian well in the neighborhood, the level
of this approved type of water facility is 55. A client was diagnosed as having
A. I Dengue fever. You will say that there is
B. II slow capillary refill when the color of the
C. III
D. IV nailbed that you pressed does not return
within how many seconds?
51. For prevention of hepatitis A, you
A. 3
decided to conduct health education B. 5
activities. Which of the following is C. 8
D. 10
IRRELEVANT?
A. Use of sterile syringes and needles 56. The Department of Health advocates
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by the CLEAN Program. Which is not included
vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal in the program?
hygiene A. Chemically treated mosquito net using Cetirizine
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and B. Larvivarous fishes such as Tilapia
illegal water connections C. Environmental Sanitation
D. Anti-mosquito soap with Basil or Citronella
52. Which biological used in Expanded
Program on Immunization (EPI) should 57. The pathognomonic sign of measles is
NOT be stored in the freezer? Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by
A. DPT inspecting the _____.
B. Oral polio vaccine A. Nasal mucosa
C. Measles vaccine B. Buccal mucosa
D. MMR C. Skin on the abdomen
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
53. Measles are spread and enters the
body through the: 58. Among the following diseases, which is
A. Upper Genitourinary tract airborne?
B. Lower Respiratory tract A. Viral conjunctivitis
C. Upper Respiratory tract B. Acute poliomyelitis
D. Wound Puncture C. Diphtheria
D. Measles
54. In Integrated Management of Childhood
Illness, severe conditions generally require 59. In the Philippines, the most prevalent
urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the form of meningitis is caused by which
following severe conditions DOES NOT microorganism?
always require urgent referral to a hospital? A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Mycobacterium tubeculosis
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
60. In the Philippines, the most severe form
of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Mycobacterium tubeculosis
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
61. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria
control is the basis for which strategy of
malaria control?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
62. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented
mostly with the use of mosquito control
measures. Which of the following is NOT
appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito
vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those
with basil or citronella
63. A 4-year-old client was brought to the
health center with the chief complaint of
severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice
water” stools. The client is most probably
suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
D. Dysentery
64. In the Philippines, which specie of
Schistosoma is endemic in certain regions?
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
D. S. haematobium
65. A 32-year-old client came for
consultation at the health center with the
chief complaint of fever for a week.
Accompanying symptoms were muscle
pains and body malaise. A week after the
start of fever, the client noted yellowish
discoloration of his sclera. History showed
that he waded in flood waters about 2
weeks before the onset of symptoms.
Based on his history, which disease
condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis
66. MWSS provides water to Manila and
other cities in Metro Manila. This is an
example of which level of water facility?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
67. You are the PHN in the city health
center. A client underwent screening for
AIDS using ELISA. His result was positive.
What is the best course of action that you
may take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on
the practice of high risk behaviors.
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant
person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the
best person to reveal the result to the client.
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as
Western blot, since the ELISA result may be false.
68. Which is the BEST control measure for
AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using of spermicidal during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex
workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not
have signs of AIDS
69. The most frequent causes of death
among clients with AIDS are opportunistic
diseases. This of the following is the
causative organism for AIDS-related
pneumonia.
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Pneumocystis carinii
70. To determine possible sources of
sexually transmitted infections, which is the
BEST method that may be undertaken by
the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview of suspects
71. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are
used in the management of AIDS. Which of
the following is NOT an action expected of
these drugs.
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of
the disease.
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease
condition.
72. A barangay had an outbreak of German
measles. To prevent congenital rubella,
what is the BEST advice that you can give
to women in the first trimester of pregnancy
in the barangay?
A. Advise them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and
moviehouses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine
may be given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella
immunoglobulin.
73. You were invited to be the resource
person in a training class for food handlers.
Which of the following would you
emphasize regarding prevention of food-
borne infections?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be
thoroughly washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy
staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a
negative stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is
the best way of preventing the condition.
74. In a mothers’ class, you discussed
childhood diseases such as chicken pox.
Which of the following statements about
chicken pox is correct?
A. Chicken pox is caused by a bacteria
B. Treatment for chicken pox is Nystatin
C. Treatment includes Zovirax
D. Chicken pox is caused by protozoan
75. Complications to infectious parotitis
(mumps) may be serious in which type of
clients?
A. Pregnant women
B. Elderly clients
C. Young adult males
D. Young infants
76. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever primarily
affects;
A. capillaries 82. Syphilis is not considered contagious in
B. Lymph nodes
C. Lymph Vessels the:
D. RBC
A. tertiary stage
B. primary stage
77. Before discontinuing airborne C. incubation stage
precautions for a client with pulmonary D. secondary stage
tuberculosis, the nurse must determine that:
83. A viral disease caused by one of the
A. The tuberculin skin test is negative smallest human viruses that infect the
B. The client no longer has a disease
C. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum motor cells of the interior horn of the spinal
D. The client’s temperature has returned to normal cord is:
78. A client should be referred to the A. rubella
B. rubeola
pulmonary clinic for suspected tuberculosis C. chickenpox
when the nurse takes a medical history that D. poliomyelitis
includes complaints of:
84. When teaching parents at the school
A. Chest pain, increased cough, and weight gain communicable diseases, the nurse reminds
B. Weight gain, increased cough and Hemoptysis
C. Unexplained weight loss, nausea and vomiting them that these diseases are serious and
D. Increased cough, Hemoptysis, and night sweats that encephalitis can be a complication of:
79. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes: A. pertussis
B. chickenpox
A. Preventing constipation C. tetanus
B. Screening of blood donors D. tuberculosis
C. Avoiding shellfish in the diet
D. Limiting hepatotoxic drug therapy 85. A mother asks the nurse how to tell the
80. When caring for a client with hepatitis difference between measles (rubeola) and
A, the nurse should take special German measles (rubella). The nurse tells
precautions to: the mother that with rubeola, the child has:

A. Prevent droplets spread of infection A. A high fever and Koplik’s spot

B. Use caution when bringing food to the client B. A rash on the trunk with pruritus
C. Use gloves when removing the client’s bed pan C. Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps
D. Wear mask and gown before entering the room D. Symptoms similar to a cold, followed by a rash

81. The oral drug that is most likely to be 86. Chickenpox can sometimes be fatal to
prescribed for treatment of Trichomonas children who are receiving:
vaglnalia is: A. Insulin
B. Steroids
A. Penicillin C. Antibiotics
B. Gentian violet D. Anticonvulsant
C. Nystatin (Mycostatin)
D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
87. A viral infection characterized by red, 92. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis
blotchy rash and Koplik’s spots in the mouth drugs can cause damage to the eight
is: cranial nerves?
A. Mumps A. Streptomycin
B. Rubella B. Isoniazid (INH)
C. Rubeola C. Para-aminosalicylic acid (PAS)
D. Chickenpox D. Ethambutol HCL (Myambutol)

88. A viral disease that begins with 93. The client who experiences eight
respiratory inflammation and skin rash and cranial nerves damage will most likely
may progress to shingles is: report which of the following symptoms?
A. Rubella A. Vertigo
B. Rubeola B. Facial paralysis
C. Yellow fever C. Impaired vision
D. Chickenpox D. Eating utensils

89. Under certain circumstances that virus 94. When caring for a client with an
that causes chickenpox can also cause: impaired immune system, the nurse
A. Athlete’s foot recognizes that the blood protein involved
B. Herpes zoster is:
C. German measles
D. Infectious hepatitis A. Albumin
B. Globulin
90. Which of the following symptoms is C. Thrombin
D. Hemoglobin
common in client with active tuberculosis?
A. Weight loss 95. Antibodies are produced by:
B. Increased appetite A. Eosinophils
C. Anemia B. Plasmacells
D. Mental status changes C. Erythrocytes
D. Lymphocytes
91. The nurse obtains a sputum specimen
from a client with suspected tuberculosis for 96. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid
laboratory study. Which of the following fever is:
laboratory techniques is most commonly A. Risus Sardonicus
used to identify tubercle bacilli sputum? B. Rose spots
C. Forscchiemers’ spots
A. Acid-fast staining D. Koplick’s spots
B. Sensitivity testing
C. Agglutination testing 97. Black water fever occurs in some
D. Dark-field illumination
clients with malaria, therefore, the nurse
should observe a client with chronic malaria
for:
A. Diarrhea
B. Dark red urine
C. Low-grade fever
D. Coffee ground emesis

98. When a trauma victim expresses fear

that AIDS may develop as a result of a
blood transfusion, the nurse should explain
that:
A. Blood is treated with radiation to kill the virus
B. Screening for HIV antibodies has minimized this
risk
C. The ability to directly identify HIV has
eliminated this concern
D. Consideration should be given to donating own
blood for transfusion

99. The PHN’s assessment revealed that

L.Q.’s illness begun with body malaise,
followed by chills then rapidly rising
temperature and diaphoresis. This is a
case of:
A. dengue fever
B. influenza
C. malaria
D. mud fever

100. Risus sardonicus, trismus and rigidity

of the abdominal muscles is pathogenic of:
A. mumps
B. influenza
C. poliomyelitis
D. tetanus