P1 DISASTER LEC

RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY

SAS 1

1. It is a catastrophic event that results in casualties that overwhelm the healthcare resources in that
community and may result in a sudden unanticipated surge of patients, a change in standards of care,
and a need to allocate scarce resources?
a. Disaster Nursing
b. Health Disaster
c. Pandemic
d. Natural disaster
RATIONALE: the question refers to a disaster that primarily affects the healthcare resources.

2. It is a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society at any scale due to hazardous
events interacting with conditions of exposure, vulnerability and capacity, leading to one or more of the
following: human, material, economic and environmental losses and impacts
a. Disaster
b. Health Disaster
c. Pandemic
d. Natural disaster
RATIONALE: Disaster is defined as a serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society at
any scale due to hazardous events interacting with conditions of exposure, vulnerability and capacity,
leading to one or more of the following: human, material, economic and environmental losses and impacts

3. Which of the following is not a category in determining disasters?

a. Man-made
b. Natural
c. Anthropogenic
d. Supernatural
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Man-made or Anthropogenic and Natural disasters are the two categories for classifying
disasters.

4. This is a potential threat to humans and their welfare

a. Risk
b. Disaster
c. Hazard
d. Warning
RATIONALE: Hazards are the cause of a potential threat to humans and their welfare.
5. It is used to determine which events are most likely to affect a community and to make decisions about
whom or what to protect as the basis of establishing measures for prevention, mitigation, and response.
a. Hazard Identification
b. Vulnerability analysis
c. Risk Assessment
d. Disaster Planning

RATIONALE: Hazard identification is a method used to determine which events are most likely to affect a
community, and serves as a guide or basis in establishing counter measures.

SAS 2

1. It is a systematic approach to identifying, assessing and implementing strategies and plans that aims
to reduce,
the probability of a hazard event.
A. Disaster risk reduction management
B. Rehabilitation and recovery
C. Disaster prevention
D. Nursing process
RATIONALE: Disaster Risk Reduction Management is a systematic process of using administrative
decisions, organization and operational skills and capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of
hazards and the possibility of a disaster.

2. The leading agency for Disaster Prevention and Mitigation.

A. DOST
B. DILG
C. DOH
D. DSWD
RATIONALE: Department of Science and Technology is the overall responsible agency to avoid hazards
andmitigate their potential impacts by reducing vulnerabilities and exposure and enhancing capacities o
the community.

3. It is the Government of the Philippines’ “multi-hazard” response plan.

a. National Disaster Response Plan (NDRP)
b. National Disaster Risk Reduction Management Council (NDRRMC)
c. Philippine National Red Cross
d. Philippine Disaster Plan (PDP)
RATIONALE: Emergency management as defined in the NDRRM Act of 2010 (RA10121), is the
organization and
management of resources to address all aspects or phases of the emergency, mitigation of,
preparedness for,
response to and recovery from a disaster or emergency.

4. It is the lead agency of Response.

A. DILG
B. DSWD
C. DOH
D. NEDA
RATIONALE: Department of Social Welfare and Development to provide life preservation and meet the
basic
subsistence needs of affected population.

5. It is a purposeful exchange of information about the existence, nature and severity or acceptability of
health risk
between policymakers, health care providers AND THE MEDIA.
A. Emergency response
B. Incident Action Plan
C. Incident management system
D. Risk Communication
RATIONALE: The process of bringing together various stakeholders to come to a common understanding
about the risks, their acceptability, and actions needed to reduce the risks.

SAS 3

1. It is an act of human malice intended to injure and kill civilians and is associated with higher rate of
psychiatric
morbidity than are ‘Acts of God’”
a. Disaster
b. Bioterrorism
c. Calamity
d. Natural disaster
RATIONALE: Bioterrorism is a man-made disaster that may cause casualties and psychiatric morbidities.

2. They are considered to be more vulnerable and therefore require special consideration both in disaster
planning and response?
a. Special needs population
b. Older people
c. Children and youth
d. Ethnic people
RATIONALE: Children and youth, older people, seriously mentally ill, cultural and ethnic people, and
disaster relief personnel are considered more vulnerable.

3. Who are considered to belong in those who have special needs population?
a. Children and youth
b. Older people
c. Cultural and ethnic people
d. All of the above
RATIONALE: Children and youth, older people, seriously mentally ill, cultural and ethnic people, and
disaster relief personnel are considered more vulnerable.

4. A disaster survivor started to have trouble sleeping at night days after the disaster. What could be the
explanation for this?
a. It is a normal reaction.
b. It is not a normal reaction to the situation
c. Her sleep deprivation is caused by overstimulation
d. She was just not tired.
RATIONALE: a disaster survivor may experience trouble in sleeping at night for the trauma caused by
the disaster.

5. Which of the following may facilitate the process of mourning for the bereaved?
a. Telling them to move on
b. Acting as if nothing happened
c. Facilitate rituals, ceremonies, or memorials
d. Give them all the space they can have
RATIONALE: Community-wide ceremonies can serve to mobilize the supportive network of friends,
neighbors, and caring citizens and provide a sense of belonging, remembrance, and letting go.

SAS 4

1. This refers to the examination of what it means to live a moral life.

a. Law
b. Morality
c. Ethics
d. Confidentiality
RATIONALE: Ethics are the society’s specific rules and actions or behaviors that are acceptable.

2. These are the rules and regulations under which nurses must carry out their professional duties
a. Law
b. Morality
c. Ethics
d. Confidentiality
RATIONALE: Also known as statutes, laws govern nurses by setting rules and regulations which the
nurses must abide.

3. It encompasses the norms people adopt to direct right and wrong conduct?
a. Law
b. Morality
c. Ethics
d. Confidentiality
RATIONALE: Morality is one’s guiding principle on how to live one’s life.

4. This is usually considered to be the restriction of the activities of a healthy person who has been
exposed to a communicable disease?
a. Isolation
b. Quarantine
c. Screening
d. Vaccination
RATIONALE: Quarantine is the restriction of the activities of a healthy person who has been exposed to
a communicable disease, usually for the period of time necessary for the disease to reveal itself through
physical symptoms.
5. A nurse told the physician about the patient’s infidelity to his wife. The nurse violated the patient’s
a. Civil liability
b. Nurse-patient contract
c. Privacy
d. Confidentiality
RATIONALE: Confidentiality is a type of privacy aimed at preserving a special relationship of trust, such
as the relationship between medical care provider and patient, thus, when the nurse told the physician
about what the patient told her, she violated her patient’s confidentiality.

SAS 5

1. During the nursing assessment, which data represent information concerning health beliefs?
a. Family role and relationship patterns
b. Educational level and financial status
c. Promotive, preventive, and restorative health practices
d. Use of prescribed and over-the-counter medications
RATIONALE: promotive, preventive, and restorative health practices contains information about the
patient’s beliefs that would help facilitate with the care plan for the patient.

2. Which assessment data should the nurse include when obtaining a review of body systems
a. Brief statement about what brought the client to the health care provider
b. Client complaints of chest pain, dyspnea, or abdominal pain
c. Information about the client’s sexual performance and preference
d. The client’s name, address, age, and phone number
RATIONALE: Chief complaints of the patient would establish the primary concern for treatment.

3. A male client is admitted to the hospital with blunt chest trauma after a motor vehicle accident. The first
nursing priority for this client would be to:
a. Assess the client’ s airway
b. Provide pain relief
c. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
d. Splint the chest wall with a pillow

RATIONALE: Following the ABC method, airway must first be established to facilitate breathing.

4. Nurse Kelly is acquiring information from a client in the emergency department. Which is an example of
biographic information that may be obtained during a health history?
a. The chief complaint
b. Past health status
c. History immunizations
d. Location of an advance
RATIONALE: The patient’s past health status would show the patient’s health history which may be
needed to manage and address the current health problem of the patient.
5. An anxious 24-year-old college student complains of tingling sensations, palpitations, and chest
tightness. Deep, rapid breathing and carpal spasms are noted. What priority nursing action should you
take?
a. Notify the physician immediately.
b. Administer supplemental oxygen.
c. Have the student breathe into a paper bag.
d. Obtain an order for an anxiolytic medication.
RATIONALE: following the ABC method, the patient is experiencing difficulty in breathing, the nurse must
first address the breathing problem of the patient.

SAS 6

1. You are a nurse in the emergency department and it is during the shift that Mr. CT is admitted in the
area due to a fractured skull from a motor accident. You scheduled him for surgery under which
classification?
a. Urgent
b. Emergent
c. Required
d. Elective
RATIONALE: Fractured skull is categorized under emergent and requires highest priority in intervention.

2. The nurse finds the client unresponsive on the floor of the bathroom. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
a. Check the client for breathing.
b. Assess the carotid artery for a pulse.
c. Shake the client and shout.
d. Call a code via the bathroom call light.
RATIONALE: By shaking and shouting at the client, the nurse would be able to assess the level of
consciousness of the patient before proceeding to the nursing interventions.

3. The nurse is triaging four clients injured in a train derailment. Which client should receive priority
treatment?
a. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest asymmetry.
b. A 17-year-oldwith fractured arm.
c. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations.
d. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
RATIONALE: Patients who have trouble breathing are always prioritized to be treated first.

4. A 56-year-old patient presents in triage with left-sided chest pain, diaphoresis, and dizziness. This
patient should be prioritized into which category?
a. High urgent
b. Urgent
c. Non-urgent
d. Emergent
RATIONALE: a left sided chest pain may be a sign of an impending myocardial infarction, thus, it should
be categorized as emergent.

5. This status is used for any patient who can wait more than 2 hours to be seen without the likelihood of
deterioration in the ED.
a. Emergent
b. Urgent
c. Nonurgent
d. Dead
RATIONALE: These patients do not need immediate treatment; they are seen without the likelihood of
deterioration.

SAS 7

1. It is a process which places the right patient in the right place at the right time to receive the right level
of care” (
a. Assessment
b. Triage
c. History taking
d. Nursing process
RATIONALE: Triage is the process of prioritizing which patients are to be treated first and is the
cornerstone of
good disaster management in terms of judicious use of medical resources.

2. It is performed by nurses on a routine basis in the ED, often utilizing a standardized approach,
augmented by clinical judgment.
a. Daily Triage
b. Incident Triage
c. Disaster Triage
d. Population-based Triage
RATIONALE: Daily triage is the routine triage done by nurses in the ED.

3. It occurs when the ED is stressed by a large number of patients due to an acute incident or an ongoing
medical crisis such as pandemic influenza, but is still able to provide care to all patients utilizing existing
agency resources.
a. Daily Triage
b. Incident Triage
c. Disaster Triage
d. Population-based Triage
RATIONALE: Incident Triage is done when additional resources (on-call staff, alternative care areas)
may be used, but disaster plans are not activated and treatment priorities are not changed.
4. These are those who have difficulty in breathing, uncontrolled hemorrhage, absence of peripheral
pulses, and inability to follow commands.
a. Minimal
b. Delayed
c. Expectant
d. Immediate
RATIONALE: patients who are tagged as immediate are those who are likely to survive given the
available
resources.

5. This status is used for any patient who can wait more than 2 hours to be seen without the likelihood of
deterioration in the ED.
a. Emergent
b. Urgent
c. Nonurgent
d. Dead
RATIONALE: These patients do not need immediate treatment, they are seen without the likelihood of
deterioration.

SAS 8

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a blast injury. Which of the following nursing assessments would be
most appropriate for this client?
a. Assess for vasovagal hypotension
b. Assess the client for confusion
c. Assess for asphyxia
d. Assess for hypervolemia
RATIONALE: vasovagal hypotension occurs when a client faints due because the body overreacts to
certain
triggers such as emotional distress and traumatic incident.

2. The patient has a blasted lung and injury to his tympanic membrane. This classification of blast injury
is:
a. Primary blast injury
b. Secondary blast injury
c. Tertiary blast injury
d. Quarternary blast injury
RATIONALE: primary blast injury is cause by impact of over-pressurization wave with body surfaces.
Commonly involve air-filled organs & air-fluid interfaces.
3. The patient has crushing injuries, fracture, traumatic amputation, and open brain injury This
classification of blast injury is:
a. Primary blast injury
b. Secondary blast injury
c. Tertiary blast injury
d. Quarternary blast injury
RATIONALE: tertiary blast injuries are caused by persons being thrown into fixed objects by wind of
explosions, also due to structural collapse & fragmentation of building & vehicles; structural collapse may
cause extensive blunt trauma.

4. After a blast incident, the primary responsibility of the responders is to:

a. Search and rescue
b. Conduct survey
c. Raise an alarm
d. Provide medications
RATIONALE: after the blast incident, the responders should first search for any survivors, then triage
them accordingly.

5. During initial stabilization, the nurse should keep in mind that

a. Provide first aid in a safe place
b. Alleviate the worries of patients who are panicking
c. Find the patient’s belongings for identification
d. Ask questions to the patient during first aid
RATIONALE: initial stabilization should be done in a place with no hazard to avoid further injuries.

P1 LEADERSHIP
RATIONALIZATION ACTIVITY

SAS 1-NURSING AS A PROFESSION

1. Which of the following defines profession?

a. an occupation or calling
b. not requiring advanced training and experience in some specific body of knowledge
c. completion of basic nursing education program
d. provides service to society in all fields
Answer: A
Profession is defined asan occupation or calling requiring advanced training and experience in some specific or
specialized
body of knowledge which provides service to society in that special field.

2. Which of the following is/are included in the criteria of a profession? SATA.

a. A profession must satisfy an indispensable social need and must be based upon well established and socially
accepted scientific principles.
b. It must demand the possession of a body of specialized and systematized training.
c. A profession has a clear standard of educational preparation for entry into practice.
d. It must have developed a scientific technique which is the result of tested experience.
Answer: A,B,D
Options A,B and D are included in the criteria of a profession. Option C is a quality of a profession cited by Flexner
and other
authors.

3. All are cited as qualities of a profession, except.

a. It utilizes in its practice a well-defined and well-organized body of knowledge that is intellectual in nature and
describes its phenomena of concern.
b. A profession has a clear standard of educational preparation for entry into practice.
c. A profession is distinguished b the presence of specific culture, norms, and other values that are common among
its members.
d. Entrusts the education of its practitioners to institutions of higher education
Answer: D
Option D is one of the definitions of profession according to Genevieve K. and Roy W. Bixler.

4. Who among the following cited and described the qualities of a profession?
a. Roy W. Bixler
b. Genevieve K.
c. Flexner
d. Webster
Answer: C
Flexner and other authors cited and described the qualities of a profession. Genevieve k. and Roy W. Bixler further
described profession.

5. A professional nurse is:

a. A person who has completed a basic nursing education program
b. May or may not be licensed in his/her country
c. Distinguished by the presence of specific culture, norms, and other values
d. A member with lifelong obligations to remain current in order to “do no harm”
Answer: A
A professional nurse is a person who has completed a basic nursing education program and is licensed in his/her
country or
state to practice professional nursing. Options C and D are qualities of a profession

6. The Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 is also known as:

a. R.A. 7164
b. R.A. 7146
c. R.A. 9173
d. R.A. 9137
Answer: C
The Philippine Nursing Act of 1991 (R.A. 7164) has been repealed by the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 (R.A.
9173). Note
the changes in the scope of nursing practice.
7. The scope of nursing can be found in which section of the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002?
a. 6
b. 28
c. 27
d. 26
Answer: B
The scope of nursing can be found on Article VI section 28 of the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002.

8. The professional nurse must: SATA.

a. Have a license to practice nursing in the country;
b. Have a Bachelor of Science degree in Nursing; and
c. Be physically and mentally fit.
d. A warm personality and concern for people
Answer: A
The professional nurse must:
1. Have a license to practice nursing in the country;
2. Have a Bachelor of Science degree in Nursing; and
3. Be physically and mentally fit.

9. The two-year program curriculum is also known as.

a. Bachelor of Science in Nursing
b. Graduate in Nursing
c. Associate in Health Science Education (ASHE)
d. Practical Nursing Program
Answer: C
The two-year program curriculum is known as Associate in Health Science Education (ASHE).

10. The BSN program intends to produce a professional nurse who demonstrates the following behaviors. SATA:
a. Caring behavior (compassionate, competent and committed);
b. Ability to practice legal, ethico-moral, social responsibilities/accountabilities;
c. Critical and creative thinking; and
d. Skill in practicing S-K-A and values for the promotion of health, prevention of illness, restoration of health,
alleviation of suffering; assisting clients to face death with dignity and peace.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Overall, the BSN program intends to produce a professional nurse who demonstrate the following behaviors:
1. Caring behavior (compassionate, competent and committed);
2. Ability to practice legal, ethico-moral, social responsibilities/accountabilities;

3. Critical and creative thinking; and

4. Skill in practicing S-K-A and values for the promotion of health, prevention of illness, restoration of health,
alleviation
of suffering; assisting clients to face death with dignity and peace.

SAS 2-LICENSE TO PRACTICE NURSING

1. Which of the following defines a license?
a. Record of names of persons
b. Recorded in a registry
c. A legal document given by the government
d. Mutuality in the grant and enjoyment of privileges between persons or nations
Answer: C
A license is a legal document given by the government that permits a person to offer to the public his or her skills
and
knowledge in a particular jurisdiction, where such practice would otherwise be unlawful without a license.

2. Who is the appropriate authority to administer, implement, and enforce the regulatory policies of government with
respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions?
a. Congress
b. President of the Philippines
c. Board of Nursing
d. PRC
Answer: A,B,D
The appropriate authority to administer, implement, and enforce the regulatory policies of government with respect
to the
regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations under its jurisdictions is the Professional
Regulation
Commission (PRC)

3. Nurses’ names are recorder in a registry or registration book which contains the following information: SATA
a. Place of business;
b. Post office address;
c. Name of school, college or university from which he or she graduated or in which he or she has studied;
d. Date of such graduation or term of study, together with the time spent in the study of the profession elsewhere,
if any
Answer: A, B, C, D
Nurses’ names are recorder in a registry or registration book which contains the following information:
1. Full name of registrant;
2. Number and date of registration;
3. Age, sex and place of birth;
4. Place of business;
5. Post office address;
6. Name of school, college or university from which he or she graduated or in which he or she has studied;
7. Date of such graduation or term of study, together with the time spent in the study of the profession elsewhere, if
any;
and
8. All other degrees granted to him or her from other institutions of learning.

4. In what section of the RA 9173 was registration by reciprocity defined?

a. 20
b. 21
c. 13
d. 14
Answer: A

REGISTRATION BY RECIPROCITY (R.A. 9173, SEC. 20)

5. In registration by reciprocity, how many years does the applicant needs to reside in the Philippines?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: C
The applicant has resided in the Philippines for at least three consecutive years as provided by R.A. 5181.

6. Which of the following competencies is not included in the integrated comprehensive nursing licensure
examination?
a. Theoretical Foundations of Nursing
b. Maternal and Child Nursing
c. Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing
d. Pharmacology and Therapeutics
Answer: A
It draws knowledge from the five broad areas of nursing - Fundamentals of Nursing; Maternal and Child Nursing;
Community
Health Nursing; Nursing of Adolescents, Adults, and Aged; and Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing, including
Physiology
and Anatomy, Pharmacology and Therapeutics, Microbiology and Diet Therapy.

7. This doctrine states that the nationality of a person is determined by the law of his descent or parentage?
a. Jus soli
b. Jos suli
c. Jus sanguinis
d. Jus sanguinos
Answer: C
In jus sanguinis doctrine, the nationality of a person is determined by the law of his descent or parentage; the child
follows
the citizenship of his father.

8. The schedule of mass oath-taking is within how many days upon the release of the results?
a. 2 years
b. 90 days
c. 15 days
d. 1 year
Answer: C
The schedule of mass oath-taking (date and place) is within fifteen days upon the release of the results of the
licensure
examination, which is included in a press release by the Professional Regulation Commission.

9. What PRC resolutions requires professionals to have a total of 60 CPE credits before renewal of license?
a. Article IV Section 1-5
b. PRC Resolution Number 2004-179 series of 2004
c. PRC Resolution Number 179-2004 series of 2004
d. PRC Resolution Number 2002-179 series of 2002
Answer: B
PRC Resolution Number 20047-179 series of 2004 entitled “Standardized Guidelines and Procedures for the
Implementation of the Continuing Professional Education Professionals” requires that the total CPE credits for
registered
professionals with a Baccalaureate Degree shall be sixty (60) credits for three year.
10. The following are grounds for revocation/suspension of a professional’s license. SATA
a. For any of the causes mentioned in Section 22 of RA 7164;
b. For unprofessional and unethical conduct;
c. For gross incompetence or serious ignorance;
d. For malpractice or negligence in the practice of nursing;
Answer: B, C, D

As provided by the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 R.A. 9173, Section 23, the Nursing Board of the Professional
Regulation
Commission shall have the power to revoke or suspend the certificate or registration/professional license or cancel
the
special/temporary permit of a nurse upon any of the following grounds:
(a) For any of the causes mentioned in Section 22 of RA 9173;
(b) For unprofessional and unethical conduct;
(c) For gross incompetence or serious ignorance;
(d) For malpractice or negligence in the practice of nursing;
(e) For the use of fraud, deceit, or false statements in obtaining a certificate of registration/professional license or a
temporary/special permit;
(f) For violation of this Act, the implementing rules and regulations, Code of Ethics for nurses and Code of
Technical
Standards for nursing practice, policies of the Board and the Commission, or the conditions and limitations for the
issuance
of the temporary/special permit; or
(g) For practicing his/her profession during his/her suspension from such practice;
1. Provided, however, That the suspension of the certificate of registration/professional license shall be for a period
not
exceeding four (4) years.

SAS 3 THE LICENSING BOARD

1. Professional Regulation Commission was created by

a. RA 8189
b. PD 223
c. PD 233
d. RA 8981
Answer: B
THE POWER to regulate the established professions in the Philippines and to examine the applicants to practice the
same
is vested upon the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as created by Presidential Decree 223.

2. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 is also known as

a. RA 7164
b. RA 9173
c. RA 8981
d. RA 8189
Answer: C
PD 223 has been repealed by RA 8981, “The PRC Modernization Act of 2000”.

3. Which of the following is true regarding the composition of the Board of Nursing?
a. Composed of a Chairperson and six (6) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely, nursing
education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
b. Composed of a Chairperson and seven (7) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely, nursing
education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
c. Composed of a Chairperson and five (5) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely, nursing
education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
d. Composed of a Chairperson and nine (9) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely, nursing
education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
Answer: A
Composed of a Chairperson and six (6) members, representing the three (3) areas of nursing, namely, nursing
education,
nursing service, and community health nursing.

4. If the member of the Board was appointed to fill in a vacancy or perform the duties of an office during the
absence of a regular incumbent, he/she was appointed by
a. Regular appointment
b. Ad Interim Appointment
c. Doctrine of Hold-over
d. None of the above
Answer: B
Ad Interim appointment. A board member is appointed in the meantime to fill in a vacancy or perform the duties of
an office
during the absence of the regular incumbent. There is no definite term of appointment.

5. A member of the Nursing Board is permitted to continue to exercise the functions of the office after the end of
his/her lawful term until replaced. This type of appointment is
a. Regular appointment
b. Ad Interim Appointment
c. Doctrine of Hold-over
d. None of the above
Answer: C
Doctrine of Hold-Over. In this instance, a member of the Nursing Board is permitted to continue to exercise the
functions of
the office after the end of his/her lawful term until replaced

6. Who appoints the chairperson and members of the Nursing Board?

a. PRC
b. BON
c. Senators
d. President of the Philippines
Answer: D
The Chairperson and six members shall be appointed by the President of the Republic of the Philippines

7. Reappointment shall be subject to the provisions of

a. PD 223
b. EO No. 469
c. EO No. 496
d. PD 233
Answer: C
Reappointment shall be subject to the provisions of E.O. No. 496.

8. The following are the qualifications of the chairperson and members. SATA
a. a natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines
b. a member of good standing of the accredited professional organization of nurses
c. a registered nurse and holder of a master's degree in nursing, education or other allied medical profession
conferred by a college or university duly recognized by the Government, provided that the Chairperson and
majority of the Members must be holders of a master's degree in nursing
d. must have at least ten (10) years of continuous practice of the profession prior to appointment, the last five (5)
years of which must be in the Philippines
Answer: A, B, C, D
a. a natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines;
b. a member of good standing of the accredited professional organization of nurses;
c. a registered nurse and holder of a master's degree in nursing, education or other allied medical profession
conferred by a college or university duly recognized by the Government, provided that the Chairperson and
majority of the Members must be holders of a master's degree in nursing;
d. must have at least ten (10) years of continuous practice of the profession prior to appointment, the last five (5)
years of which must be in the Philippines; and
e. must not have been convicted of any offense involving moral turpitude.

9. What refers to involvement of husband/wife, children, brothers/sisters, mother/father in any activity that will
conflict with
his/her position in the Board, particularly money matters?
a. Peculiary Interest
b. Pecuniary Interest
c. Peconiary Interest
d. Pecumiary Interest
Answer: B
Pecuniary interest refers to involvement of husband/wife, children, brothers/sisters, mother/father in any activity that
will conflict with his/her position in the Board, particularly money matters.

10. The compensation of the Board members is based on what principle that means “as much as they deserve”?
a. Subpoena ad testificandum
b. Subpoena duces tecum
c. Quantum meruit
d. All of the above
Answer: C
They are paid based on the principle of quantum meruit which means "as much as they deserve".

SAS 4 DIFFERENT FIELDS OF NURSING

1. Nursing in hospitals and related health facilities such as extended care facilities, nursing homes, and
neighbourhood clinics, comprises all of the basic components of comprehensive patient care and family
health. This field of nursing is
a. Hospital or Institutional Nursing
b. Public Health Nursing or Community Health Nursing
c. Industrial or Occupational Health Nursing
d. Nursing Education
Answer: A
INSTITUTIONAL NURSING - Nursing in hospitals and related health facilities such as extended care facilities,
nursing
homes, and neighborhood clinics, comprises all of the basic components of comprehensive patient care and family
health.

2. In what section of the RA 9173 are qualifications of nursing service administrators be found?
a. 28
b. 29
c. 31
d. 33
Answer: B
Qualifications of Nursing Service Administrators - Section 29 of RA 9173 specifies that a person occupying
supervisory or
managerial position requiring knowledge of nursing

3. The beneficiaries of the comprehensive nursing specialty program are obligated to serve for how long in any
Philippine
hospital?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
Answer: B
The beneficiaries of this program are obliged to serve in any Philippine hospital for a period of at least two (2) years
of
continuous service.

4. Public heath nursing refers to

a. the practice of nursing in the 7 local, national and city health departments which include health centers and public
schools
b. nursing practice in a variety of roles, which at times include independent nursing practice
c. Both are correct
d. None are correct
Answer: A
Public Health Nursing refers to the practice of nursing in the 7 local, national and city health departments which
include
health centers and public schools. It is community health nursing practice in the public sector.

5. The following are the qualifications of Nursing Coordinator for Staff Development, except.
a. 2 years clinical experience
b. 4 years clinical experience
c. Master’s Degree
d. None of the above
Answer: A
Nursing Coordinators for Staff Development need to have at least four years of clinical practice and research and a
Master's
Degree in Nursing

6. Private duty nurses uses the following titles. SATA

a. Private Nurse Practitioner
b. Special Duty Nurse
c. Private Duty Nurse Specialist
d. Caregivers
Answer: A, B, C
They use the title Private Duty Nurse, Private Nurse Practitioner, Special Duty Nurse or Private Duty Nurse
Specialist.

7. Private duty nurses should be an IV therapist certified by

a. PRC
b. BON
d. ANSAP
Answer: D
be a certified I.V. Nurse therapist by the ANSAP (Association of Nursing Science Administrators of the Philippines)

8. Which of the following should a dean in a college of nursing have?

a. 1 year of clinical practice in a field of specialization
b. Post-Master’s Degree
c. Doctoral Degree in Nursing
d. 5 years teaching experience
Answer: D
A dean in a college of nursing should possess a Master's Degree in Nursing and must have at least five (5) years of
experience in teaching and supervision as per R.A. 9173

9. Who led the nursing of the sick and wounded Katipunan revolutionaries in 1890?
a. Elipido Quirino
b. Tandang Sora
c. Nurse Corps
d. Manuel Quezon
Answer: B
When the famed Tandang Sora led the nursing of the sick and wounded Katipunan revolutions in 1890

10. The following are the responsibilities of a school nurse. SATA

a. organizing and implementing the school health program;
b. coordinating school health programs;
c. undertaking functions directly related to pupil's health;
d. evaluating school health programs
Answer: A, B, C, D
Some responsibilities of the school nurse are:
1. organizing and implementing the school health program;
2. coordinating school health programs;
3. undertaking functions directly related to pupil's health;
4. evaluating school health programs; and
5. carrying out functions related to the health of school personnel.

SAS 5 -CHOOSING, RETAINING, RESIGNING AND

DISMISSAL FROM A POSITION

1. Which of the following is not a factor to consider in making self-evaluation?

a. Qualifications
b. Years of experience
c. Attitude
d. Age
Answer: C
Factors to consider in making a self-evaluation includes Qualifications, Years of experience and training, Age and
Physical condition and Emotional stability and Goals in life
2. The following are factors selecting a field of nursing. SATA.
a. Kind of work to be performed
b. Availability of work
c. Hours of work
d. Qualifications
Answer: A, B, C, D
FACTORS IN SELECTING A FIELD OF NURSING (Refer to pg. 2 of the module)

3. In writing you application, which of the following is the least helpful?

a. Use clean white paper
b. Use proper salutation
c. Enclose return postage
d. Use pencil in writing
Answer: D
Useful Pointers in Making a Letter of Application (Refer to pg. 2 of the module)

4. An application letter contains the following, except.

a. Source and purpose
b. Expression of gratitude
c. Reference
d. A request for personal interview
Answer: B
A letter of application usually contains the following facts: Source and purpose, Qualifications, Reference, A request
for a
personal interview

5. Which of the following is true about personal interview?

a. Face-to-face conference between two people
b. Interview between an employer and an applicant
c. Give chance to assess each other
d. All of the above
Answer: D
An interview is a face-to-face conference between two people about something. An interview between an applicant
and a
prospective employer gives both a chance to assess each other.

6. Which of the following pointers is the least helpful to give an applicant who will undergo interview?
a. Make a personal appointment
b. Be at the place at the appointed time
c. Be at your best
d. Ask questions about the job
Answer: A
Refer to pg.4 of the module

7. If you are a female, which of the following is the most helpful tip when going for an interview?
a. Moderate to heavy make up
b. Any dress
c. Simple hairdo
d. Wear accessories that can catch the employer’s attention
Answer: C
If you are a female, be neat, have a simple hairdo, moderate make-up, modest dress. Do not appear as if you are
going to a
party.

8. If you are a male, which of the following is the most helpful tip when going for an interview?
a. Make sure your clothes are clean
b. Have a decent haircut
c. Be well shaven
d. All of the above
Answer: D
If you are a male, be sure your clothes are spotless and clean especially at the collar line. Have a decent haircut and
be
well-shaven.

9. Causes of failure in a job may be due to the following, except.

a. Incompetence
b. Dishonesty
c. Balance time for relaxation and recreation
d. None of the above
Answer: C
Refer to pg.5 of the module

10. When writing your resignation letter, observe the following points. SATA
a. Give the date of resignation
b. State the reason for resigning
c. Express gratitude for kindness and consideration given during the period of employment
d. Attach clearance for money

Answer: A, B, C, D
Refer to pgs. 5-6 of the module

SAS 6 -CONTRACTS

1. This is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give
something or to render some service.
a. Agreement
b. Memorandum
c. Contract
d. Law
Answer: C
something or to render some service.

2. A contract that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which the law ascribes an objective
intention to enter into a contract.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: D
An implied contract is one that is concluded as a result of acts of conduct of the parties to which the law ascribes an
objective intention to enter into a contract.' To avoid subsequent problems, nurses are advised to clarify the terms
and
conditions of employment before assumption of work with the prospective employer.

3. This the type of contract in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in writing by the
parties concerned.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: C
An express contract is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in writing by the
parties
concerned.

4. The doctrine “facio ut des” means

a. I do that you may give
b. I give that you may do
c. I receive what I deserve
d. I deserve what I receive
Answer: A
doctrine of facio ut des which means "I do that you may give."

5. What contract is concluded as the result of a written document or correspondence where the law does not require
the same to be in writing?
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: B
An informal contract is one which is concluded as the result of a written document or correspondence where the
law does
not require the same to be in writing,

6. This contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in writing by some special laws.
a. Formal contract
b. Informal contract
c. Express contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: A
A formal contract refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in writing by some special
laws

7. What contract is expressly prohibited by law?

a. Formal contract
b. Illegal contract
c. Void contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: B
An illegal contract is one that is expressly prohibited by law.
8. This contract is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be enforced.
a. Formal contract
b. Illegal contract
c. Void contract
d. Implied contract
Answer: C
A void contract is one that is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be enforced.

9. The following contracts are void or inexistent from the beginning. SATA
a. Those whose cause, object or purpose are contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy.
b. Those whose cause or object did not exist from the time of transaction.
c. Those whose object is outside the commerce of man.
d. Those which contemplate an impossible service.
Answer: A, B, C, D
The following contracts are void or inexistent from the beginning.
1. Those whose cause, object or purpose are contrary to law, morals, good customs, public order or public policy.
2. Those whose cause or object did not exist from the time of transaction.
3. Those whose object is outside the commerce of man.
4. Those which contemplate an impossible service.
5. Those where the intention of the parties relative to the principal object cannot be ascertained.
6. Those expressly prohibited or declared void by law.
7. Those which are absolutely simulated or fictitious.

10. A failure to perform an agreement

a. Inexistent contract
b. Voidable contract
c. Illegal contract
d. Breach of contract
Answer: D
Breach of contract is failure to perform an agreement, whether expressed or implied, without cause.

SAS 7 -NURSING ETHICS

1. Ethics came from this word which means moral duty.

a. Eros
b. Etos
c. Ethos
d. Ehos
Answer: C
ETHICS came from the Greek word ethos which means moral duty.

2. What ethical approach focuses primarily on the heart of the person performing the act?
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
Answer: C
Virtue ethics, known as aretaic ethics (from the Greek word arete), is focused primarily on the heart of the person
performing
the act.

3. During the pandemic, nurses caring for Covid-19 patients despite the risks is an example based on what ethical
approach?
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
Answer: B
Even when individuals do not want to fulfill their duty, Kant believes that they are required to do so.
Suppose a nurse is assigned to care for a patient with AIDS. Could she reasonably refuse to care for the patient on
the
ground that the patient's condition may threaten her health? As practitioners of the art of healing, nurses are to take
care of
the sick even if patients have conditions that threaten their personal health. Nurses, however, must observe the
necessary
precautions to protect their health.

4. This approach is expressed in the maxim, “the right thing to do is the good thing to do”.
a. Teleological approach
b. Deontological approach
c. Virtue Ethics approach
d. Divine Command Ethics
Answer: A
Teleology comes from the Greek word telos or "goal or end." This is expressed in the maxim, "the right thing to do
is the
good thing to do."

5. In healthcare, this refers to the right to demand, to be treated justly, fairly and equally.
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Beneficence
d. Justice
Answer: D
Justice— In healthcare, refers to the right to demand to be treated justly, fairly and equally.

6. This is stated as an admonition in the negative form to remind health practitioners to do no harm.
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
Answer: B
Nonmaleficence is stated as an admonition in the negative form to remind health practitioners to do no harm.

7. This refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.
a. Beneficence
b. Nonmaleficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice
Answer: A
Beneficence — The principle of beneficence refers to acts of kindness and mercy that directly benefit the patient.

8. When the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the truth to maximize the efficiency of healthcare,
this principle is.
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Justice
d. Beneficence
Answer: B
Veracity-To maximize the efficiency of healthcare, the patient and the healthcare providers are bound to tell the
truth.

9. This principle involves self-determination and freedom to choose and implement one's decision, free from deceit,
duress, constraint or coercion.
a. Autonomy
b. Veracity
c. Justice
d. Beneficence
Answer: A
Autonomy comes from the Greek word autos meaning self and nomos meaning governance. It involves self-
determination
and freedom to choose and implement one's decision, free from deceit, duress, constraint or coercion.

10. The Senior Citizens Act is know as

a. RA 7423
b. RA 3274
c. RA 7432
d. RA 4732
Answer: C
Republic Act 7432 called the Senior Citizens Act, gives honor and justice to the elderly by giving 20 percent
discount in
public establishments such as restaurants, and pharmacies

SAS 8-MORAL AND SPIRITUAL

RESPONSIBILITIES OF NURSES

1. “Exception to the general rule” refers to what moral principle?

a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
Answer: A
Epikia."Exception to the general rule." It is a reasonable presumption that the authority making the law will not wish
to bind a
person in some particular case, even though the case is covered by the letter of the law.
2. God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you." This moral principle is
a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
Answer: B
The Golden Rule. God said, "Do unto others what you would like others do unto you."

3. The whole is greater than any of its parts. Refers to

a. Epikia
b. The Golden Rule
c. The two-fold effect
d. The principle of totality
Answer: B
The Principle of Totality. The whole is greater than any of its parts.

4. When a nurse is faced with a situation which may have both good and bad effects, how should she choose which
one to follow? The basis of action may be the following: SATA
a. that the action must be morally good;
b. that the good effect must be merely allowed and willed bad effect ;
c. that the good effect must not come from an evil action but from the initial action itself directly; and
d. that the good effect must be greater than the bad effect
Answer: A, C, D
When a nurse is faced with a situation which may have both good and bad effects, how should she choose which one
to
follow? The basis of action may be the following:
a. that the action must be morally good;
b. that the good effect must be willed and the bad effect merely allowed;
c. that the good effect must not come from an evil action but from the initial action itself directly; and
d. that the good effect must be greater than the bad effect

5. Giving a sleeping tablet to a chronically ill person so he/she can die in peace is morally wrong. This is based on
the principle
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
Answer: C
The end does not justify the means. Giving a sleeping tablet to a chronically ill person so he/she can die in peace is
morally wrong.

6. Patients with a harelip or cleft palate may have their defects corrected by plastic surgery. This is stated in what
moral principle?
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
Answer: D
Defects of nature may be corrected. Patients with a harelip or cleft palate may have their defects corrected by
plastic
surgery.
7. In testifying before a court, no one can force any person to answer a question if such will incriminate him/her.
This is supported by the moral principle.
a. One who acts through an agent is himself/herself responsible.
b. No one is obliged to betray himself/herself.
c. The end does not justify the means.
d. Defects of nature may be corrected.
Answer: B
No one is obliged to betray himself/herself .In testifying before a court, no one can force any person to answer a
question
if such will incriminate him/her.

8. During an epidemic, immunization against communicable diseases is administered to the people. This is based on
the moral principle
a. The greatest good for the greatest number.
b. A little more or less does not change the substance of an act.
c. The morality of cooperation
d. Principle relating to the origin and destruction of life.
Answer: A
The greatest good for the greatest number. During an epidemic, immunization against communicable diseases is
administered to the people.

9. Immoral operations such as abortion shall not be participated upon by a nurse even if the doctor commands it.
This is stated on the moral principle
a. The greatest good for the greatest number.
b. A little more or less does not change the substance of an act.
c. The morality of cooperation
d. Principle relating to the origin and destruction of life.
Answer: C
The morality of cooperation. Immoral operations such as abortion shall not be participated upon by a nurse even if
the
doctor commands it.

10. This is based on the biblical story of a man who aided an injured person who was waylaid by thieves and was
left half-dead.
a. Good Samaritan Act
b. Euthanasia
c. Dying patient’s bill of rights
d. Christian Nurse’s duty
Answer: C
The Good Samaritan Act is based on the biblical story of a man who aided an injured person who was waylaid by
thieves
and was left half-dead.