THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA

COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION EXAMINATION SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is the stiffening of a certain group of muscles at the moment of

death, usually associated with violent deaths due to extreme nervous
tension or even fatigue?
A. cold stiffening C. cadaveric spasm
B. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis

2. What characteristic of the blood or bloodstain would determine the

direction of the escape of the victim or assailant?
A. none of these C. amount
B. shape D. color

3. What medical evidence can show that a gunshot wound is homicidal?

A. no sign of struggle from the victim
B. site of wound entrance has no point of election
C. wounding firearm found in the hands of the victim
D. no disturbance in the crime scene

4. What would be the crime of a person who applied violence over a dead
person?
A. reckless imprudence C. unintentional
B. murder D. impossible crime

5. Rigor mortis is first observed in the jaws and neck, and moves to the
head front direction. While it starts at the same time, within how
many hours can it be said to have been completed?
A. 6 to 8 C. 8 to 12
B. 12 to 24 D. 6 to 12

6. A laboratory test to determine whether a blood sample is of animal or

human origin.
A. precipitin test C. rigor mortis
B. res gestae D. post mortem lividity

7. If the crime scene was homicide, search for physical evidence will be
centered on which of the following?
A. undercarriage and hood of car
B. tool marks
C. fingernails and clothing
D. weapon an other types of evidence left as a result of
contact between the victim and assailant

8. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental

duty?
A. preserve human life
B. cordon the area
C. summon emergency personnel
D. apprehend the criminal

9. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?

A. study his bones C. study his denture
B. study his skull D. all of these
10. What distinguishes physical injury from frustrated homicide?
A. victim got killed C. none of these
B. perpetrator is known D. absence of intent

11. Rigor mortis is a post- mortem body changes occurring in the ___.
A. color C. blood
B. eye D. muscle

12. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/ exit?

A. the prober C. SOCO
B. the chief D. sleuth

13. What is the official inquiry made by the police on facts and
circumstance surrounding the death of a person which is expected to be
unlawful?
A. special crime investigation
B. criminal investigation
C. custodial investigation
D. homicide investigation

14. B is lees than three days old. He is a child of X by his paramour Y.

B is killed by X to prevent his discovery by X’s legitimate wife, Z.
The crime committed by X is:
A. homicide C. murder
B. infanticide D. parricide

15. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the firing
distance?
A. walkers test
B. firing a series of shots from various distance
C. the amount of concentration and powder residue or metal
traces
D. visual observation

16. Which among the following items are to be gathered as evidence in a

crime scene of criminal abortion?
A. syringe and catheter C. all of these
B. prohibited drugs D. blood on the panties

17. Special crime investigation is more concerned on____.

A. testimonial evidence C. tracing evidence
B. associative evidence D. physical evidence

18. A form of violent death brought by the suspension of the body by a

ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the
weight of the body?
A. asphyxia by suffocation
B. manual strangulation
C. asphyxia by hanging
D. none of these

19. Is it still possible to get DNA to a hair even if without root?

A. yes C. no
B. it depends D. possible

20. A girl was found dead wearing pajama. What is the possible time of the
commission of the crime?
A. daytime C. lunchtime
B. none of these D. nighttime

21. If the sharp edge portion of the wounding instrument is the first to
come in contact, then the wound produced is:
A. punctured C. hematoma
B. lacerated D. stab wound
22. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude:
A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have been a success
D. all available information have been uncovered

23. How can a wound caused by bomb explosion be identified?

A. all of these
B. sharpnels all inner body
C. presence of powder burns in the body
D. severe tearing of clothing

24. Is it possible to have a number of gunshots wound entry less than the
exit wound?
A. maybe C. possible
B. impossible D. none of these

25. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

A. crime scene search and crime sketch
B. removal of the victim’s body
C. photographs, fingerprint left and other evidence taken
D. notes properly taken and witness identified

26. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is

elongated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end of
the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop
of bloods indicates___.
A. route C. fresh blood
B. direction movement D. dried stain

27. Which among the following is an essential element of parricide?

A. by means of treachery
B. relationship of the offender with the victim
C. relationship of the offender with the witness
D. age of the victim

28. Pedro threw a hand grenade at Juan who was killed as a result of the
explosion. What crime was committed?
A. parricide C. murder
B. frustrated murder D. homicide

29. Rose is a despondent mother of Roderick. Due to poverty, Rose has

thought of killing Roderick who is three months old to save the baby from
further suffering. What crime was committed?
A. homicide c. none of these
B. parricide D. infanticide

30. Blood stain evidence analysis can be used to determine a course

and______ of events that occurred during the commission of the crime.
A. time C. sequence
B. severity D. number

31. Which among the following is a primary source of evidence?

A. victim C. crime scene
B. suspect D. all of these

32. Which among the following is NOT one of the types of death that an
investigator will generally encounter?
A. suicide C. accidental
B. homicide D. natural cause

33. What type of blood stain pattern is produce when the blood is thrown
off at great speed or falls a large distance?
A. elliptical C. crenellated
B. circular D. none of these
34. What reagent is used by crime scene investigators to locate occult
blood, even if it has been cleaned or removed?
A. precipitin C. luminol
B. walkers test D. acid phosphatase

35. What branch of forensic science deals with the study of flies and
insects to approximate the time of death?
A. odontology C. entomology
B. ornithology D. orthodontics

36. What is the color of post- mortem lividity if the cause of death of
the victim is cyanide poisoning?
A. dark lividity
B. cherry red to pinkish color
C. dark brown lividity
D. blue specks

37. After death, blood remains fluid in the blood vessel for how many
hours?
A. 8 to 12 C. 12 to 24
B. 6 to 8 D. 24 to 36

38. These are shallow wounds inflicted near the fatal wound to test the
weapon before the actual suicide attempt.
A. defense wound C. signs of struggle
B. hesitation marks D. signs of death

39. Death due to throttling is highly indicative of___.

A. suicidal death C. homicidal death
B. accidental death D. none of these

40. What is the logical assumption when a body is found with wounds which
indicate that much blood has been lost but the amount of blood appears to
be less than what would normally expect to find?
A. the crime committed was murder
B. the suspect fled with the victim
C. the crime was committed elsewhere
D. the crime will never be solve

41. The act of killing of a father by his own child is called?

A. homicide C. murder
B. parricide D. patricide

42. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of VACILLATE?

A. hesitate C. veracity
B. sincere D. none of these

43. Which among the following type of behavior or individuals are most
often NOT associated together?
A. tribadism and men
B. transvertites and homosexual
C. sadism and masochism
D. frotteurs and women

44. Which of the following is NOT part of preliminary investigation?

A. Weighing the evidence
B. Securing the crime scene
C. Documenting the crime scene
D. Arresting the suspect

45. Police usually come in contact with acts of sodomy when it

involves___________.
A. violence and murder C. male and female
B. animals and people D. stomasexuals
46. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of EXONERATE?
A. convict C. acquit
B. guilt D. illicit

47. In order to have a successful interrogation, one of the most important

factors to consider is:
A. subject’s emotion C. knowledge of all facts
B. cooperation D. privacy

48. What is that law which classified Rape as crimes against person?
A. RA 9262 C. RA 8553
B. RA 9165 D. RA 8353

49. In crime of rape, its most likely place of commission cannot be

specified, unless the victim or witness pinpoints the same, what is
considered critical observation to be done by the investigator?
A. Evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim
B. All of these
C. Evidence to show sexual intercourse
D. Look for evidence of struggle

50. All of the following are act of sexual assault constituting the crime
of rape, EXCEPT
A. By inserting his penis into another person’s mouth
B. By inserting any instrument into another person’s genital or
anal orifice
C. By inserting any instrument into another person’s mouth
D. By inserting his penis into another person’s anal orifice

***END***
 THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION EXAMINATION SET B

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A girl was found dead wearing pajama. What is the possible time of the
commission of the crime?
A. daytime C. lunchtime
B. none of these D. nighttime

2. If the sharp edge portion of the wounding instrument is the first to

come in contact, then the wound produced is:
A. punctured C. hematoma
B. lacerated D. stab wound

3. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude:

A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have been a success
D. all available information have been uncovered

4. How can a wound caused by bomb explosion be identified?

A. all of these
B. sharpnels all inner body
C. presence of powder burns in the body
D. severe tearing of clothing

5. Is it possible to have a number of gunshots wound entry less than the

exit wound?
A. maybe C. possible
B. impossible D. none of these

6. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

A. crime scene search and crime sketch
B. removal of the victim’s body
C. photographs, fingerprint left and other evidence taken
D. notes properly taken and witness identified

7. A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elongated

and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end of the stain.
As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of bloods
indicates___.
A. route C. fresh blood
B. direction movement D. dried stain

8. Which among the following is an essential element of parricide?

A. by means of treachery
B. relationship of the offender with the victim
C. relationship of the offender with the witness
D. age of the victim

9. Pedro threw a hand grenade at Juan who was killed as a result of the
explosion. What crime was committed?
A. parricide C. murder
B. frustrated murder D. homicide
10. Rose is a despondent mother of Roderick. Due to poverty, Rose has
thought of killing Roderick who is three months old to save the baby from
further suffering. What crime was committed?
A. homicide c. none of these
B. parricide D. infanticide

11. Blood stain evidence analysis can be used to determine a course

and______ of events that occurred during the commission of the crime.
A. time C. sequence
B. severity D. number

12. Which among the following is a primary source of evidence?

A. victim C. crime scene
B. suspect D. all of these

13. Which among the following is NOT one of the types of death that an
investigator will generally encounter?
A. suicide C. accidental
B. homicide D. natural cause

14. What type of blood stain pattern is produce when the blood is thrown
off at great speed or falls a large distance?
A. elliptical C. crenellated
B. circular D. none of these

15. What reagent is used by crime scene investigators to locate occult

blood, even if it has been cleaned or removed?
A. precipitin C. luminol
B. walkers test D. acid phosphatase

16. What branch of forensic science deals with the study of flies and
insects to approximate the time of death?
A. odontology C. entomology
B. ornithology D. orthodontics

17. What is the color of post- mortem lividity if the cause of death of
the victim is cyanide poisoning?
A. dark lividity
B. cherry red to pinkish color
C. dark brown lividity
D. blue specks

18. After death, blood remains fluid in the blood vessel for how many
hours?
A. 8 to 12 C. 12 to 24
B. 6 to 8 D. 24 to 36

19. These are shallow wounds inflicted near the fatal wound to test the
weapon before the actual suicide attempt.
A. defense wound C. signs of struggle
B. hesitation marks D. signs of death

20. Death due to throttling is highly indicative of___.

A. suicidal death C. homicidal death
B. accidental death D. none of these

21 What is the logical assumption when a body is found with wounds which
indicate that much blood has been lost but the amount of blood appears to
be less than what would normally expect to find?
A. the crime committed was murder
B. the suspect fled with the victim
C. the crime was committed elsewhere
D. the crime will never be solve
22. What is the stiffening of a certain group of muscles at the moment of
death, usually associated with violent deaths due to extreme nervous
tension or even fatigue?
A. cold stiffening C. cadaveric spasm
B. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis

23. What characteristic of the blood or bloodstain would determine the

direction of the escape of the victim or assailant?
A. none of these C. amount
B. shape D. color

24. What medical evidence can show that a gunshot wound is homicidal?
A. no sign of struggle from the victim
B. site of wound entrance has no point of election
C. wounding firearm found in the hands of the victim
D. no disturbance in the crime scene

25. What would be the crime of a person who applied violence over a dead
person?
A. reckless imprudence C. unintentional
B. murder D. impossible crime

26. Rigor mortis is first observed in the jaws and neck, and moves to the
head front direction. While it starts at the same time, within how
many hours can it be said to have been completed?
A. 6 to 8 C. 8 to 12
B. 12 to 24 D. 6 to 12

27. A laboratory test to determine whether a blood sample is of animal or

human origin.
A. precipitin test C. rigor mortis
B. res gestae D. post mortem lividity

28. If the crime scene was homicide, search for physical evidence will be
centered on which of the following?
A. undercarriage and hood of car
B. tool marks
C. fingernails and clothing
D. weapon an other types of evidence left as a result of
contact between the victim and assailant

29. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his

fundamental duty?
A. preserve human life
B. cordon the area
C. summon emergency personnel
D. apprehend the criminal

30. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?

A. study his bones C. study his denture
B. study his skull D. all of these

31. What distinguishes physical injury from frustrated homicide?

A. victim got killed C. none of these
B. perpetrator is known D. absence of intent

32. Rigor mortis is a post- mortem body changes occurring in the ___.
A. color C. blood
B. eye D. muscle

33. In crime scene investigation, who determines its entry/ exit?

A. the prober C. SOCO
B. the chief D. sleuth
34. What is the official inquiry made by the police on facts and
circumstance surrounding the death of a person which is expected to be
unlawful?
A. special crime investigation
B. criminal investigation
C. custodial investigation
D. homicide investigation

35. B is lees than three days old. He is a child of X by his paramour Y.

B is killed by X to prevent his discovery by X’s legitimate wife, Z.
The crime committed by X is:
A. homicide C. murder
B. infanticide D. parricide

36. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the firing
distance?
A. walkers test
B. firing a series of shots from various distance
C. the amount of concentration and powder residue or metal
traces
D. visual observation

37. Which among the following items are to be gathered as evidence in a

crime scene of criminal abortion?
A. syringe and catheter C. all of these
B. prohibited drugs D. blood on the panties

38. Special crime investigation is more concerned on____.

A. testimonial evidence C. tracing evidence
B. associative evidence D. physical evidence

39. A form of violent death brought by the suspension of the body by a

ligature which encircles the neck and the constricting force is the
weight of the body?
A. asphyxia by suffocation
B. manual strangulation
C. asphyxia by hanging
D. none of these

40. Is it still possible to get DNA to a hair even if without root?

A. yes C. no
B. it depends D. possible

41. The act of killing of a father by his own child is called?

A. homicide C. murder
B. parricide D. patricide

42. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of VACILLATE?

A. hesitate C. veracity
B. sincere D. none of these

43. Which among the following type of behavior or individuals are most
often NOT associated together?
A. tribadism and men
B. transvertites and homosexual
C. sadism and masochism
D. frotteurs and women

44. Which of the following is NOT part of preliminary investigation?

A. Weighing the evidence
B. Securing the crime scene
C. Documenting the crime scene
D. Arresting the suspect
45. Police usually come in contact with acts of sodomy when it
involves___________.
A. violence and murder C. male and female
B. animals and people D. stomasexuals

46. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of EXONERATE?

A. convict C. acquit
B. guilt D. illicit

47. In order to have a successful interrogation, one of the most important

factors to consider is:
A. subject’s emotion C. knowledge of all facts
B. cooperation D. privacy

48. What is that law which classified Rape as crimes against person?
A. RA 9262 C. RA 8553
B. RA 9165 D. RA 8353

49. In crime of rape, its most likely place of commission cannot be

specified, unless the victim or witness pinpoints the same, what is
considered critical observation to be done by the investigator?
A. Evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim
B. All of these
C. Evidence to show sexual intercourse
D. Look for evidence of struggle

50. All of the following are act of sexual assault constituting the crime
of rape, EXCEPT
A. By inserting his penis into another person’s mouth
B. By inserting any instrument into another person’s genital or
anal orifice
C. By inserting any instrument into another person’s mouth
D. By inserting his penis into another person’s anal orifice

***END***
 THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
Drug Education & Vice Control EXAMINATION SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is obtained as milky white secretion from unripened seed pods of

the poppy plant?
A. heroin C. morphine
B. codeine D. opium

2. What classification would solvents, points and gasoline which are

examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. depressant C. energizers
B. inhalants D. tranquilizers

3. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness
B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
C. false perception of objects and experiences
D. all of these

4. If amphetamines are known as “uppers’, what drugs are known as

“downers’?
A. hallucinogens C. barbiturates
B. solvents D. cocaine

5. Stimulants are known as “mood elevators’ while heroin and opiates are
known as:
A. the poor man’s cocaine
B. the enslavers
C. the superman
D. the assassin of the youth

6. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?

A. Mindoro, Palawan, Masbate
B. Benguet, Kalinga apayao, Mt Province
C. Ilocos Sur, Benguet, Mt Province
D. Zamboanga, Cotabato, Davao

7. These are drugs capable of provoking changes of sensation, thinking,

self- awareness and emotion.
A. narcotics C. depressants
B. hallucinogens D. stimulants

8. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and
commonly referred to as “uppers”?
A. amphetamines C. naptha
B. barbiturates D. narcotics

9. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke

10. The source of most analgesic narcotic is ____.

A. all of these C. heroin
B. morphine D. opium
11. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space,
sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. opiates C. stimulants
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

12. Marijuana is called damo, grass, hashish or Indian hemp. What is

called snow, C, the leaf, or dust?
A. cocaine C. heroin
B. barbiturates D. hallucinogens

13. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax,
create a feeling of well being and produced sleep to the user?
A. opium C. LSD
B. barbiturates D. marijuana

14. Marijuana treated cubes are known as what?

A. jutes C. snow
B. stuff D. coke

15. Which among the following is perceived to be the major cause of

initial drug use?
A. experimental thrill C. peer pressure
B. unsanitary environment D. domestic violence

16. If cocaine is stimulant, what is LSD?

A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant

17. Statistics among youths show that the use of “gateway drugs” such as
cigarettes, alcohol and marijuana takes place within which of the
following teenage group categories?
A. 14- 15 C. 10- 15
B. 11- 15 D. 10- 12

18. Principal alkaloid of opium constituting as much as 10% of opium.

A. morphine C. codeine
B. heroin D. hashish

19. A drug from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a

central nervous system stimulant. What is it?
A. opiates C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

20. Amphetamine is representative of good class of stimulants known as:

A. stick C. reefer
B. knock- out drops D. pop pills

21. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness

of mind with delusions?
A. stimulants C. depressants
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

22. Drugs produced perceptual alterations, varying emotional change, ego

distortions and thought disruption.
A. stimulants C. tranquilizers
B. depressants D. hallucinogen

23. Papaver is also known as:

A. marijuana C. mescaline
B. cocaine D. opium

24. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. heroin C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu
25. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the
drug, thinking and discussing about it and using it to meet his
problems and to escape from reality, he is _________.
A. socially dependent on drugs
B. mentally abused on drugs
C. psychologically dependent on drugs
D. physically dependent on drugs

26. Marijuana often called grass, Indian hemp or weed is a crude drug made
from cannabis sativa, a plant that contains a mind altering ingredient.
Which one is NOT an immediate effect of marijuana?
A. acute panic anxiety reaction- external fear of losing
control
B. altered sense of time/ distortion
C. impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
D. moderate heart beat and pulse rate

27. The place in Thailand, Burma, Laos borders where opium is cultivated
and processed is known as:
A. drug triangle C. pyramid of Asia
B. golden triangle D. golden crescent

28. The following are the examples of depressant, EXCEPT

A. narcotics C. tranquilizers
B. barbiturates D. amphetamines

29. Cannabis sativa is a plant that contains a mind altering ingredient

called as:
A. Meconic acid C. ephedrine
B. THC D. all of these

30. What is the chemical name of heroin?

A. methamphetamine C. MDMA
B. diacetylmorphine D. ephedrine

31. He is a Swiss chemist who discovered the LSD drug?

A. Alder Wright C. Fredrich Serturner
B. Albert Hoffman D. none of these

32. What narcotic drug contains trademarks and brand names such as “999 or
AAA”?
A. morphine C. heroin
B. codeine D. opium

33. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of LICIT?

A. lawful C. hidden
B. prohibited D. forbidden

34. What law is known as the Dangerous drug act of 2002?

A. RA 6425 C. RA 7659
B. RA 9262 D. RA 9165

35. What drug was discovered by fredrich Serturner?

A. opium C. heroin
B. codeine D. morphine

36. The golden crescent is located and composed by the boundaries of what
country?
A. Iran, Peru, Thailand, India
B. Pakistan, Kuwait, India, Afghanistan
C. Laos, Iran, Burma, Pakistan
D. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran, India
37. Which among the following is the strongest specie of marijuana plant
in terms of THC content?
A. Indian hemp C. Vietnam green
C. Acapulco gold D. Panama red

38. What chemical must be added to morphine to produce heroin?

A. hydrochloric solution C. sodium chloride
B. muriatic acid D. acetic anhydride

39. Which among the following is NOT an example of inhalants?

A. acetone C. rugby
C. paint thinner D. seconal

40. Which of these best describe Lysergic acid diethylamide?

A. the most powerful stimulant
B. the most effective pain reliever
C. the most powerful psychedelic drug
D. all of these

41. Any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs
and/ or controlled precursor and essential chemical.
A. drug syndicate C. manufacture
B. laboratory D. clandestine laboratory

42. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness
B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
C. false perception of objects and experiences
D. all of these

43. What is tendency to increase dosage of drugs to maintain the same

effect in the body?
A. treatment C. tolerance
B. use D. opiate

44. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of CLANDESTINE?

A. secret C. descend
B. illicit D. none of these

45.If LSD is hallucinogen, what is cocaine?

A. stimulant C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant

46. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. heroin C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

47. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as what?

A. Heroin C. cocaine
B. shabu D. ketamine

48. The abbreviation “STP” means:

A. Serendipity- Tranquility- Peace
B. Serenity- Triangle- Piece
C. Serenity- Tranquility- Peace
D. Serendipity- Tranquility- Piece

49. What drug is known as “mood elevators”?

A. solvents C. hallucinogens
B. narcotics D. stimulants

50. What chemical must be added to morphine to produce heroin?

A. hydrochloric solution C. sodium chloride
B. muriatic acid D. acetic anhydride
 THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
Drug Education & Vice Control EXAMINATION SET B

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Amphetamine is representative of good class of stimulants known as:

A. stick C. reefer
B. knock- out drops D. pop pills

2. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness

of mind with delusions?
A. stimulants C. depressants
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

3. Drugs produced perceptual alterations, varying emotional change, ego

distortions and thought disruption.
A. stimulants C. tranquilizers
B. depressants D. hallucinogen

4. Papaver is also known as:

A. marijuana C. mescaline
B. cocaine D. opium

5. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. heroin C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

6. If a person devotes considerable time and effort in obtaining the drug,

thinking and discussing about it and using it to meet his problems and
to escape from reality, he is _________.
A. socially dependent on drugs
B. mentally abused on drugs
C. psychologically dependent on drugs
D. physically dependent on drugs

7. Marijuana often called grass, Indian hemp or weed is a crude drug made
from cannabis sativa, a plant that contains a mind altering ingredient.
Which one is NOT an immediate effect of marijuana?
A. acute panic anxiety reaction- external fear of losing
control
B. altered sense of time/ distortion
C. impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
D. moderate heart beat and pulse rate

8. The place in Thailand, Burma, Laos borders where opium is cultivated

and processed is known as:
A. drug triangle C. pyramid of Asia
B. golden triangle D. golden crescent

9. The following are the examples of depressant, EXCEPT

A. narcotics C. tranquilizers
B. barbiturates D. amphetamines

10. Cannabis sativa is a plant that contains a mind altering ingredient

called as:
A. Meconic acid C. ephedrine
B. THC D. all of these
11. What is the chemical name of heroin?
A. methamphetamine C. MDMA
B. diacetylmorphine D. ephedrine

12. He is a Swiss chemist who discovered the LSD drug?

A. Alder Wright C. Fredrich Serturner
B. Albert Hoffman D. none of these

13. What narcotic drug contains trademarks and brand names such as “999 or
AAA”?
A. morphine C. heroin
B. codeine D. opium

14. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of LICIT?

A. lawful C. hidden
B. prohibited D. forbidden

15. What law is known as the Dangerous drug act of 2002?

A. RA 6425 C. RA 7659
B. RA 9262 D. RA 9165

16. What drug was discovered by fredrich Serturner?

A. opium C. heroin
B. codeine D. morphine

17. The golden crescent is located and composed by the boundaries of what
country?
A. Iran, Peru, Thailand, India
B. Pakistan, Kuwait, India, Afghanistan
C. Laos, Iran, Burma, Pakistan
D. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran, India

18. Which among the following is the strongest specie of marijuana plant
in terms of THC content?
A. Indian hemp C. Vietnam green
C. Acapulco gold D. Panama red

19. What chemical must be added to morphine to produce heroin?

A. hydrochloric solution C. sodium chloride
B. muriatic acid D. acetic anhydride

20. Which among the following is NOT an example of inhalants?

A. acetone C. rugby
C. paint thinner D. seconal

21. Which of these best describe Lysergic acid diethylamide?

A. the most powerful stimulant
B. the most effective pain reliever
C. the most powerful psychedelic drug
D. all of these

22. What is obtained as milky white secretion from unripened seed pods of
the poppy plant?
A. heroin C. morphine
B. codeine D. opium

23. What classification would solvents, points and gasoline which are
examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. depressant C. energizers
B. inhalants D. tranquilizers

24. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness
B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
C. false perception of objects and experiences
D. all of these
25. If amphetamines are known as “uppers’, what drugs are known as
“downers’?
A. hallucinogens C. barbiturates
B. solvents D. cocaine

26. Stimulants are known as “mood elevators’ while heroin and opiates are
known as:
A. the poor man’s cocaine
B. the enslavers
C. the superman
D. the assassin of the youth

27. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?

A. Mindoro, Palawan, Masbate
B. Benguet, Kalinga apayao, Mt Province
C. Ilocos Sur, Benguet, Mt Province
D. Zamboanga, Cotabato, Davao

28. These are drugs capable of provoking changes if sensation, thinking,

self- awareness and emotion.
A. narcotics C. depressants
B. hallucinogens D. stimulants

29. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and
commonly referred to as “uppers”?
A. amphetamines C. naptha
B. barbiturates D. narcotics

30. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke

31. The source of most analgesic narcotic is ____.

A. all of these C. heroin
B. morphine D. opium

32. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space,

sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. opiates C. stimulants
B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

33. Marijuana is called damo, grass, hashish or Indian hemp. What is

called snow, C, the leaf, or dust?
A. cocaine C. heroin
B. barbiturates D. hallucinogens

34. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax,
create a feeling of well being and produced sleep to the user?
A. opium C. LSD
B. barbiturates D. marijuana

35. Marijuana treated cubes are known as what?

A. jutes C. snow
B. stuff D. coke

36. Which among the following is perceived to be the major cause of

initial drug use?
A. experimental thrill C. peer pressure
B. unsanitary environment D. domestic violence

37. If cocaine is stimulant, what is LSD?

A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
38. Statistics among youths show that the use of “gateway drugs” such as
cigarettes, alcohol and marijuana takes place within which of the
following teenage group categories?
A. 14- 15 C. 10- 15
B. 11- 15 D. 10- 12

39. Principal alkaloid of opium constituting as much as 10% of opium.

A. morphine C. codeine
B. heroin D. hashish

30. A drug from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a

central nervous system stimulant. What is it?
A. opiates C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

41. Any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs
and/ or controlled precursor and essential chemical.
A. drug syndicate C. manufacture
B. laboratory D. clandestine laboratory

42. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness
B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
C. false perception of objects and experiences
D. all of these

43. What is tendency to increase dosage of drugs to maintain the same

effect in the body?
A. treatment C. tolerance
B. use D. opiate

44. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of CLANDESTINE?

A. secret C. descend
B. illicit D. none of these

45.If LSD is hallucinogen, what is cocaine?

A. stimulant C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant

46. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?

A. heroin C. cocaine
B. marijuana D. shabu

47. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as what?

A. Heroin C. cocaine
B. shabu D. ketamine

48. The abbreviation “STP” means:

A. Serendipity- Tranquility- Peace
B. Serenity- Triangle- Piece
C. Serenity- Tranquility- Peace
D. Serendipity- Tranquility- Piece

49. What drug is known as “mood elevators”?

A. solvents C. hallucinogens
B. narcotics D. stimulants

50. What chemical must be added to morphine to produce heroin?

A. hydrochloric solution C. sodium chloride
B. muriatic acid D. acetic anhydride

***END***
 THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
Industrial Security Management EXAMINATION SET A

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. What is a portable and detachable lock having a pivoted hasp which

passes through a staple ring and is then made secured?
A. lock C. padlock
B. ward lock D. pin tumbler

2. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the

guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. controlled lighting C. fresnel light
B. emergency lighting D. glare- projection

3. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined

combination code of numbers?
A. card- operated lock C. combination lock
B. electromagnetic lock D. none of these

4. What is called as the management of keys in plant or business

organization to prevent unauthorized access to the keys?
A. key management C. master key
B. key control D. protective lock

5. A special key capable of opening a series of lock. This key is capable

of opening less number of locks than the grand master key.
A. change key C. grand master key
B. master key D. sub- master key

6. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s top cash
drawer and connected to the alarm system, the alarm is usually
activated by removing the currency in the device?
A. foot rail C. bill traps
B. foot button D. double squeeze

7. What is the final line of physical defense?

A. protective barrier C. protective cabinets
B. windows and doors D. protective locks

8. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?

A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp

9. These lighting equipment produce diffused light rather than directional

beam and widely used in parking areas.
A. fresnel light C. floodlight
B. search light D. street light

10.A term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers and penetrators
of restricted areas.
A. peterpan C. peterman
B. safe crackers D. all of these
11. What is known as mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic
device designed to prevent entry and removal of essential items into a
building, room, and container of hiding place?
A. padlock C. master key
B. lock D. change key

12. Type of lock which the underlying principle is the incorporation of

obstruction inside the lock to prohibit a key from operating the bolt
unless the key has corresponding notches cut which pass the wards?
A. pin tumbler lock C. wafer tumbler
B. warded lock D. cylinder lock

13. Which of these best illustrate quartz lamp?

A. a lamp which produce a yellow light
B. a lamp which produce blue- green light
C. a lamp which produce a bright white light
D. a lamp which produce a red light

14. A type of protective alarm system located outside the installation and
the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. local alarm system C. central alarm system
B. dial alarm system D. proprietary alarm system

15. What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside and outside
a facility to compliment and provide additional security measures and
operates to advertise entry into sensitive and protected area?
A. protective lock C. protective cabinet
B. protective barrier D. protective lock

16. Which of the following type of alarm system require pressure on both
side of the device that reduces the probability of false alarm?
A. bill traps C. foot button
B. foot rail D. double squeeze button

17. Type of fixed luminary wherein the intensity is focused on the pile of
items rather than the background:
A. glare- projection C. emergency light
B. controlled lighting D. incandescent lamp

18. The following are the purpose of security lighting, EXCEPT

A. provides illumination during darkness
B. facilitate the intrusion to area
C. improve visibility
D. provides psychological fear

19. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects
predominate?
A. mercury vapor lamp C. sodium vapor lamp
B. quartz lamp D. any of these

20. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the illumination in long,

horizontal strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. fresnel light C. glare projection
B. street light D. controlled lighting

21. Which among the following is NOT included in principles of key

control?
A. key should be counted at the beginning of each working day
B. master key should be in minimum
C. investigation must be done when key is lost
D. keys should be marked to identify door’s of locks they open

22. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small

items in an office or installation.
A. vault C. cabinet
B. file room D. safe
23. Which of the following words below is NOT related to the others?
A. reinstate C. fortify
B. augment D. reinforce

24. Placing acid resistant padlocks on strong metallic doors of warehouses

ensures total protection of the properties within. This statement is:
A. not true from standpoint of security principles
B. true and applicable in all warehouses
C. it depends
D. definitely correct from the standpoint of security
principles

25. Protective lighting, perimeter barriers and ________ system are known
in industrial security as physical security.
A. relieving C. reporting
B. accounting D. guarding

26. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of an

installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure

27. From the standpoint of security, when should locks be changed?

A. atleast three times a week
B. atleast once a week
C. atleast once a year
D. atleast once every 3 years

28. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of VACILLATE?

A. hesitate C. descend
B. illicit D. none of these

29. In an industrial firm or business office, if the safe used weighs less
than 750 lbs, said receptacle should be_______.
A. burglar and fire resistant
B. used only for unclassified documents
C. anchored to building fixed structure
D. guarded at all times

30. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp

31. Type of badge or pass system wherein the authorization to enter

specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization is terminated.
A. Multiple pass system C. all of these
B. Pass exchange system D. Single pass system

32. This is more comprehensive investigation than the LAC or NAC wherein a
thorough investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects
of a person’s life is conducted.
A. Partial inquiry C. Complete inquiry
B. Background investigation D. Personnel security

33. The _________ list includes officials and citizens who are cleared to
attend meetings in Malacanang.
A. white list C. black list
B. target list D. access list
34. What is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion and
loyalty of individual in order to determine a person’s suitability to
be given security clearance?
A. Background investigation
B. Personnel security investigation
C. Personal security
D. All of these

35. Which among the following statement is FALSE?

A. Traffic warning signs should be installed to guide visitors
In their destination
B. Vehicles should be subjected to search and seizure at the
entrance only
C. Privately owned vehicle of personnel or visitor should be
registered and subject to identification procedure
D. All visitors with vehicle should provide the security as to
the complete details of their duration of stay, person to be
visited, et. al.

36. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined

through a process called ______________.
A. security training C. security education
B. security promotion D. security investigation

37. It is the weakest link in the security chain.

A. managers C. personnel
B. barriers D. inspections

38. This provides an extra measure of security by requiring that an

exchange take place at the entrance of each restricted area.
A. Single pass C. Pass exchange
B. all of these D. Multiple pass

39. This is an investigation of an individual made upon the basis of

written information supplied by him in response to official inquiry, and
by reference to appropriate national agencies.
A. National agency check C. Local agency check
B. Security agency check D. Lifestyle check

40. What are the things to look during the conduct of screening process of
an applicant?
A. Signs of instability in personal relations
B. Unexplained gap in employment history
C. All of these
D. Indications of lack of job stability

41. In the market today, there are numerous types and brands of intrusion
alarm, some are suited for external protection and others are for internal
use. These alarm system should be utilize by___________.
A. Study their capabilities weaknesses
B. Relative security desired
C. All of these
D. Cost of the alarm system

42. What is a type of lock that utilizes a set of flat disc to prevent the
lock from opening unless the correct key is inserted?
A. Warded lock C. Pin tumbler lock
B. None of these D. Wafer lock

43. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas which needs
illumination?
A. Pedestrian and vehicle entrance
B. Parking area
C. Perimeter fence
D. All of these
44. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. photoelectric C. audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. all of these

45. The following are the factors to consider in the conduct of background
investigation, EXCEPT
A. integrity C. character
B. position D. reputation

46. The door of a vault should be made of ______ atleast 6 inches in

thickness.
A. concrete C. wood
B. asbestos D. steel

47. In bank security, time delay lock system is usually utilized in____.
A. steel cabinet C. safe
B. vault D. file room

48. What is known as the exterior and interior parallel area near the
perimeter barrier of an industrial complex to afford better observation
and patrol movement?
A. patrol lane zone C. clear zone
B. protective zone D. restricted area

49. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of an

installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure

50. What is an act governing the organization and management of private

security agency, company guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487

***END***
 THE UNIVERSITY OF MANILA
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY

Midterm Examination
--------------------------------------------------------------------------
Industrial Security Management EXAMINATION SET B

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the space
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Lighting equipment primary used to extend the illumination in long,

horizontal strips to protect the approaches to the perimeter barrier.
A. fresnel light C. glare projection
B. street light D. controlled lighting

2. Which among the following is NOT included in principles of key control?

A. key should be counted at the beginning of each working day
B. master key should be in minimum
C. investigation must be done when key is lost
D. keys should be marked to identify door’s of locks they open

3. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small

items in an office or installation.
A. vault C. cabinet
B. file room D. safe

4. Which of the following words below is NOT related to the others?

A. reinstate C. fortify
B. augment D. reinforce

5. Placing acid resistant padlocks on strong metallic doors of warehouses

ensures total protection of the properties within. This statement is:
A. not true from standpoint of security principles
B. true and applicable in all warehouses
C. it depends
D. definitely correct from the standpoint of security
principles

6. Protective lighting, perimeter barriers and ________ system are known

in industrial security as physical security.
A. relieving C. reporting
B. accounting D. guarding

7. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of an

installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure

8. From the standpoint of security, when should locks be changed?

A. atleast three times a week
B. atleast once a week
C. atleast once a year
D. atleast once every 3 years

9. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of VACILLATE?

A. hesitate C. descend
B. illicit D. none of these
10. In an industrial firm or business office, if the safe used weighs less
than 750 lbs, said receptacle should be_______.
A. burglar and fire resistant
B. used only for unclassified documents
C. anchored to building fixed structure
D. guarded at all times

11. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp

12. Type of badge or pass system wherein the authorization to enter

specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization is terminated.
A. Multiple pass system C. all of these
B. Pass exchange system D. Single pass system

13. This is more comprehensive investigation than the LAC or NAC wherein a
thorough investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects
of a person’s life is conducted.
A. Partial inquiry C. Complete inquiry
B. Background investigation D. Personnel security

14. The _________ list includes officials and citizens who are cleared to
attend meetings in Malacanang.
A. white list C. black list
B. target list D. access list

15. What is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion and

loyalty of individual in order to determine a person’s suitability to
be given security clearance?
A. Background investigation
B. Personnel security investigation
C. Personal security
D. All of these

16. Which among the following statement is FALSE?

A. Traffic warning signs should be installed to guide visitors
In their destination
B. Vehicles should be subjected to search and seizure at the
entrance only
C. Privately owned vehicle of personnel or visitor should be
registered and subject to identification procedure
D. All visitors with vehicle should provide the security as to
the complete details of their duration of stay, person to be
visited, et. al.

17. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined

through a process called ______________.
A. security training C. security education
B. security promotion D. security investigation

18. It is the weakest link in the security chain.

A. managers C. personnel
B. barriers D. inspections

19. This provides an extra measure of security by requiring that an

exchange take place at the entrance of each restricted area.
A. Single pass C. Pass exchange
B. all of these D. Multiple pass

20. This is an investigation of an individual made upon the basis of

written information supplied by him in response to official inquiry, and
by reference to appropriate national agencies.
A. National agency check C. Local agency check
B. Security agency check D. Lifestyle check
21. What are the things to look during the conduct of screening process of
an applicant?
A. Signs of instability in personal relations
B. Unexplained gap in employment history
C. All of these
D. Indications of lack of job stability

22. What is a portable and detachable lock having a pivoted hasp which
passes through a staple ring and is then made secured?
A. lock C. padlock
B. ward lock D. pin tumbler

23. What type of security lighting is focused to the intruder while the
guard remains in the comparative darkness?
A. controlled lighting C. fresnel light
B. emergency lighting D. glare- projection

24. What lock requires manipulation of parts according to a predetermined

combination code of numbers?
A. card- operated lock C. combination lock
B. electromagnetic lock D. none of these

25. What is called as the management of keys in plant or business

organization to prevent unauthorized access to the keys?
A. key management C. master key
B. key control D. protective lock

26. A special key capable of opening a series of lock. This key is capable
of opening less number of locks than the grand master key.
A. change key C. grand master key
B. master key D. sub- master key

27. What type of bank alarm is usually place in the teller’s top cash
drawer and connected to the alarm system, the alarm is usually
activated by removing the currency in the device?
A. foot rail C. bill traps
B. foot button D. double squeeze

28. What is the final line of physical defense?

A. protective barrier C. protective cabinets
B. windows and doors D. protective locks

29. What type of gaseous discharge lamp emits a blue- green color?
A. sodium vapor lamp C. mercury vapor lamp
B. incandescent lamp D. quartz lamp

30. These lighting equipment produce diffused light rather than

directional beam and widely used in parking areas.
A. fresnel light C. floodlight
B. search light D. street light

31.A term used in England for lock pickers, safe crackers and penetrators
of restricted areas.
A. peterpan C. peterman
B. safe crackers D. all of these

32. What is known as mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or electronic

device designed to prevent entry and removal of essential items into a
building, room, and container of hiding place?
A. padlock C. master key
B. lock D. change key
33. Type of lock which the underlying principle is the incorporation of
obstruction inside the lock to prohibit a key from operating the bolt
unless the key has corresponding notches cut which pass the wards?
A. pin tumbler lock C. wafer tumbler
B. warded lock D. cylinder lock

34. Which of these best illustrate quartz lamp?

A. a lamp which produce a yellow light
B. a lamp which produce blue- green light
C. a lamp which produce a bright white light
D. a lamp which produce a red light

35. A type of protective alarm system located outside the installation and
the alarm signal is relayed to remote panel.
A. local alarm system C. central alarm system
B. dial alarm system D. proprietary alarm system

36. What is called as devices and contrivance installed inside and outside
a facility to compliment and provide additional security measures and
operates to advertise entry into sensitive and protected area?
A. protective lock C. protective cabinet
B. protective barrier D. protective lock

37. Which of the following type of alarm system require pressure on both
side of the device that reduces the probability of false alarm?
A. bill traps C. foot button
B. foot rail D. double squeeze button

38. Type of fixed luminary wherein the intensity is focused on the pile of
items rather than the background:
A. glare- projection C. emergency light
B. controlled lighting D. incandescent lamp

39. The following are the purpose of security lighting, EXCEPT

A. provides illumination during darkness
B. facilitate the intrusion to area
C. improve visibility
D. provides psychological fear

40. What type of gaseous discharge lamp is useful in areas where insects
predominate?
A. mercury vapor lamp C. sodium vapor lamp
B. quartz lamp D. any of these

41. In the market today, there are numerous types and brands of intrusion
alarm, some are suited for external protection and others are for internal
use. These alarm system should be utilize by___________.
A. Study their capabilities weaknesses
B. Relative security desired
C. All of these
D. Cost of the alarm system

42. What is a type of lock that utilizes a set of flat disc to prevent the
lock from opening unless the correct key is inserted?
A. Warded lock C. Pin tumbler lock
B. None of these D. Wafer lock

43. In installing protective lighting, what are the areas which needs
illumination?
A. Pedestrian and vehicle entrance
B. Parking area
C. Perimeter fence
D. All of these
44. What type of alarm is best suited for doors and windows?
A. photoelectric C. audio detection
B. Metallic foil D. all of these

45. The following are the factors to consider in the conduct of background
investigation, EXCEPT
A. integrity C. character
B. position D. reputation

46. The door of a vault should be made of ______ atleast 6 inches in

thickness.
A. concrete C. wood
B. asbestos D. steel

47. In bank security, time delay lock system is usually utilized in____.
A. steel cabinet C. safe
B. vault D. file room

48. What is known as the exterior and interior parallel area near the
perimeter barrier of an industrial complex to afford better observation
and patrol movement?
A. patrol lane zone C. clear zone
B. protective zone D. restricted area

49. What is the barrier established to protect the surrounding of an

installation?
A. human C. energy
B. animal D. structure

50. What is an act governing the organization and management of private

security agency, company guard force and government security forces?
A. RA 7438 C. RA 4587
B. RA 5478 D. RA 5487

***END***