Questions: 3

1. Which of the following is the most commonly used carbon source in Plant tissue culture
media?
(a) Agar
(b) Sucrose
(c) Kinetin
(d) EDTA

2. Higher concentration of which hormone promotes shoot induction in Plant tissue culture
(a) Sucrose
(b) Inositol
(c) Auxins
(d) Cytokinins

3. The culture of tissues and cells cultured in a liquid nutrient medium produce single cells
and cell clumps, this is called
(a) Callus culture
(b) Meristem culture
(c) Tissue culture
(d) Suspension culture

4. Solidifying agent used in the plant tissue cultures

(a) Agar
(b) Sucrose
(c) Inositol
(d) Glycine

5. Which of the following form the most successful plant transformation system
(a) Particles Bombardment method
(b) Direct gene transfer
(c) Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer
(d) Electroporation

6. Golden rice developed as the transgenic plant is rich in

(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin D
(c) Vitamin A
(d) Vitamin E

7. Bacillus thuringiensis is a
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Mold
(d) Cotton

8. Primary enzyme encoded by nif genes is

(a) Protease complex
(b) Nitrate complex
(c) Nitrogenase complex
(d) Nitrite complex

9. Which of the following is a free-living anaerobic nitrogen-fixing bacterium

(a) Rhodobacter capsulatus
(b) Klebsiella pneumonia
(c) Rhodospirillum rubrum
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis

10. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?

(a) Plasmid
(b) Cosmid
(c) Phasmid
(d) Agrobacterium

11. Which of the following plant cell will show Totipotency?

(a) Xylem vessels
(b) Sieve tube
(c) Meristem
(d) Cork cells

12. Somaclonal variations are the ones

(a) Caused by mutagens
(b) Produce during tissue culture
(c) Caused by gamma rays
(d) Induced during sexual embryogeny

13. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is called

(a) Natural media
(b) Synthetic media
(c) Artificial media
(d) None of these

14. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is

(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Ethylene
(d) Cytokinin

15. Part of plant used for culturing is called

(a) Scion
(b) Explant
(c) Stock
(d) Callus

16. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, is

(a) Mannitol
(b) Sorbitol
(c) Mannol
(d) Polyethyleneglycol (PEG)
17. Who is the father of tissue culture?
(a) Bonner
(b) Haberlandt
(c) Laibach
(d) Gautheret

18. The production of secondary metabolites require the use of

(a) Protoplast
(b) Cell suspension
(c) Meristem
(d) Axillary buds

19. Totipotency means

(a) Flowering in culture medium
(b) Development of fruit from a flower in a culture
(c) Development of an organ from a cell in culture medium
(d) All of these

20. Haploid plants can be obtained from

(a) Bud culture
(b) Leaf culture
(c) Root culture
(d) Anther culture

22. In plant tissue culture, which of the following shows Totipotency?

(a) Meristem
(b) Sieve tube
(c) Xylem vessel
(d) Collenchyma

23. In plant tissue culture, the callus tissues can be regenerated into complete plantlets
primarily by altering the concentration of
(a) Sugars
(b) Vitamins
(c) Amino acids
(d) Hormones

24. A major application of embryo culture is in

(a) Clonal propagation
(b) Production of embryoids
(c) Overcoming hybridization barriers
(d) Induction of Somaclonal variations

25. The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be
overcome by
(a) Spraying auxins
(b) Spraying cytokinins
(c) Suspension culture
(d) Subculture
26. Somaclonal variation appears in plants
(a) Growing in polluted soil or water
(b) Exposed to gamma rays
(c) Raised in tissue culture
(d) Transformed by recombinant DNA technology

27. The ability of the component cells of callus to form a whole plant is known as
(a) Redifferentaition
(b) Dedifferentiation
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

28. An __________ is an excised piece of leaf or stem tissue used in micropropagation.

(a) Microshoot
(b) Medium
(c) Extant
(d) Scion

29. Protoplasts can be produced from suspension cultures, callus tissues or intact tissues by
enzymatic treatment with
(a) Cellulolytic enzymes
(b) Pectolytic enzymes
(c) Both Cellulolytic and Pectolytic enzymes
(d) Proteolytic enzymes

30. Process of using natural bacteria in mining industry is known as

(a) Biodegradation
(b) Biogenomics
(c) Bioremediation
(d) Bioleaching

31. Mold Penicillin was discovered by

(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Chaim Weizmann

32. Most common example of fermented cereal product is

(a) Pickles
(b) Bread
(c) Yogurt
(d) Cheese

33. Production of different products by using mass culture of microorganisms is classified as

(a) Bacillus production
(b) Reproduction
(c) Fermentation
(d) Pollination

34. The mechanism which has the ability to engineer new organisms is known as
(a) Totipotency
(b) Molecular cloning
(c) Genetic Engineering
(d) Splicing

35. Most commonly used method for transformation of plants is

(a) Protoplast method
(b) Agrobacterium mediated
(c) Microinjection
(d) None of these

36. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait.
(a) Insect resistance
(b) High protein content
(c) High vitamin A content
(d) High lysine content

37. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlet by tissue culture method is called
(a) Plantlet culture
(b) Micropropagation
(c) Organ culture
(d) Macro propagation

38. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of
(a) Insulin
(b) Interferons
(c) Edible proteins
(d) Vaccines

39. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are
(a) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(b) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(c) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
(d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

40. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills

is a species of
(a) Trichoderma
(b) Bacillus
(c) Xanthomonas
(d) Pseudomonas

41. First cloned animal

(a) Dolly sheep
(b) Dog
(c) Mule
(d) Cat

42. Transgenic animals are those which are

(a) Foreign RNA in all its cells
(b) Foreign DNA in some of its cells
(c) Foreign DNA in all its cells
(d) Both a and b

43. The first transgenic plant was

(a) Tobacco
(b) Pea
(c) Flax
(d) Cotton

44. Interferons are

(a) Anti-bacterial proteins
(b) Anti-viral proteins
(c) Bacteriostatic proteins
(d) All of these

45. Plant transformation can be obtained by

(a) Combining plant and animal cells in culture
(b) Shooting DNA into plant cells with a gun
(c) Using the E. coli bacterium to infect plant roots
(d) Infecting plants with a tobacco mosaic virus

46. An expression vector

(a) Always contains an origin of replication
(b) Usually contains a gene that confers antibiotic resistance to the bacterial host
(c) Always contains DNA segments for the regulation of mRNA production
(d) All of the above

47. The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to
have
(a) Sticky ends
(b) Single strands
(c) Restriction fragments
(d) Ligases

48. What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments?

(a) DNA primase
(b) DNA helicase
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) DNA ligase

49. The transfer of antibiotic-resistant genes from genetically engineered bacteria to disease-
causing bacteria.
(a) Would be of no concern if it occurred.
(b) Has occurred
(c) Can never occur
(d) Seems unlikely

50. First step of genetic engineering is

(a) Isolation of gene interest
(b) Insertion of gene into vector
(c) Growth of GMO
(d) Expression of gene

51. In first step of genetic engineering, special enzymes that are used to separate identified
gene are called
(a) Expressed nucleases
(b) Inserted nucleases
(c) Restriction end nucleases
(d) Isolated nucleases

52. Particular enzyme produced by genetic engineering which is used to dissolve clots of
blood is called
(a) Interferon
(b) Urokinase
(c) Thymosin
(d) Beta-endorphin

53. Second step of genetic engineering is

(a) Growth of GMO
(b) Expression of gene
(c) Isolation of gene interest
(d) Insertion of gene into vector

54. Cutting certain genes out of molecules of DNA requires the use of special
(a) Degrading nucleases.
(b) Restriction endonucleases.
(c) Eukaryotic enzymes.
(d) Viral enzymes.

55. Which of the following cannot be used as a vector?

(a) Phage
(b) Plasmid
(c) Bacterium
(d) All can be used as vectors.

56. A probe is used in which stage of genetic engineering?

(a) Cleaving DNA
(b) Recombining DNA
(c) Cloning
(d) Screening

57. The enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction is

(a) Restriction endonuclease.
(b) Reverse transcriptase.
(c) DNA polymerase.
(d) RNA polymerase.

58. A method used to distinguish DNA of one individual from another is

(a) Polymerase chain reaction.
(b) cDNA.
(c) Reverse transcriptase.
(d) Restriction fragment length polymorphism

59. Which of the following is not an application of genetic engineering in plants?

(a) Nitrogen fixation
(b) DNA vaccines
(c) Resistance to glyphosate
(d) Production of insecticidal proteins in plants

60. First genetically modified organism generated was

(a) Fish
(b) Bacteria
(c) Mice
(d) Virus

61. Process of manipulating genes usually outside normal reproductive process is known as
(a) Genetic modification
(b) Gene targeting
(c) Genome recombination
(d) Gene linking

62. Which of the following is a plasmid?

(a) Sal I
(b) Bam H1
(c) Eco R1
(d) pBR322

63. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its

(a) Low thermal stability
(b) High fidelity
(c) High speed
(d) High thermal stability

64. Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease?

(a) Eco RI
(b) DNA ligase
(c) Hind III
(d) Bam H1

65. The first successful transformation of rDNA molecule into a bacterium was carried out by
(a) Nathan, Arber and Smith
(b) Watson, Crick and Wilkins
(c) Boyer and Cohen
(d) Paul Berg
66. The DNA molecule to which the gene of insert is integrated for cloning is called
(a) Carrier
(b) Vector
(c) Transformer
(d) None of these

67. The most important discovery that lead to the development of rDNA technology was
(a) Double helix model of Watson and Crick
(b) Discovery of ligase enzyme
(c) Discovery of plasmids
(d) Discovery of restriction enzymes

68. The mechanism of intake of DNA fragments from the surrounding medium by a cell is
called
(a) Transformation
(b) Transduction
(c) both a and b
(d) conjugation

69. The DNA segment to be cloned is called

(a) gene segment
(b) DNA fragment
(c) DNA insert
(d) all of these

70. Which of the following enzyme is used to cut DNA molecule in rDNA technology
(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Ligase
(c) Phosphatase
(d) Ribonuclease

71. A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by

(a) Joining of two DNA fragments
(b) Joining of two or more DNA fragments
(c) Both a and b
(d) Joining of two or more DNA fragments originating from different organisms

72. Which of the technologies listed below is a valuable method for mass-producing drugs
and other useful proteins?
(a) Recombinant DNA technology
(b) Transgenic technology
(c) Biotechnology
(d) Gene targeting

73. Which gene transfer technique involves a tiny needle which is used to inject DNA into a
cell lacking that DNA sequence?
(a) Electroporation
(b) Liposome transfer
(c) Microinjection
(d) Particle bombardment

74. Palindromic sequences in DNA

(a) Reflect the same sequence on two sides
(b) Form "blunt" ends when cut by restriction enzymes
(c) Not useful in recombinant DNA experiments
(d) All of the above

75. A human cDNA library

(a) Contains DNA for specific human proteins
(b) Contains DNA for virtually all of the human proteins in vectors
(c) Cannot be used to obtain human genes because it would be radioactive
(d) None of the above

76. The steps involved during PCR includes

(a) Denaturation
(b) Annealing
(c) Extension
(d) All of above

77. DNA sequencing is used in

(a) Forensic studies
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Diagnostics
(d) All of above

78. Both DNA gel electrophoresis and SDS-PAGE of proteins are similar because
(a) In both cases molecules migrate to the anode
(b) Both techniques rely on a constant charge to mass ratio
(c) Both techniques utilize the sieving properties of gels
(d) All of the above

79. In order to insert a foreign gene into a plasmid, both must __________
(a) Have identical DNA sequences
(b) Originate from the same type of cell
(c) Be cut by the same restriction enzyme
(d) Be of the same length

80. The gene formed by the joining of DNA segments from two different sources are called
as
(a) Recombinant gene
(b) Joined gene
(c) Both a and b
(d) Chimeric gene

81. Ribosomes are the sites of?

(a) Protein Synthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fat metabolism
(d) Photosynthesis

82. Which site of a tRNA molecule binds to an mRNA molecule?

(a) Codon
(b) 5‘end of the tRNA molecule
(c) Anticodon
(d) 3‘end of the tRNA molecule

83. The polypeptide chain is initiated by?

(a) Glycine
(b) Methionine
(c) Lysine
(d) Leucine

84. All the terminator codon begins with the nucleotide of-
(a) Uracil
(b) Adenine
(c) Guanine
(d) Cytosine

85. Which of these is incorrect for translation?

(a) Protein are synthesized from it
(b) It is under operon regulation
(c) It occurs inside the cytoplasm
(d) It occurs inside the nucleus

86. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in-

(a) Formation of formyl-met-t-RNA
(b) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with m-RNA
(c) Association of 30S - mRNA with formyl-met-t-RNA
(d) Association of 50S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex

87. UGA, UAG and UAA are called termination codons because they-
(a) Terminate anticodon
(b) Do not specify any amino acid
(c) Present at the beginning of m-RNA
(d) Indicate initiation of polypeptide chain

89. An amino-acyl synthetase is responsible for-

(a) Joining an amino acid to a t-RNA
(b) Attaching an amino acid group to an organic acid
(c) Formation of a peptide bond
(d) None of the above

90. What will be the correct gene expression pathway?

(a) Gene – mRNA – transcription - translation - protein
(b) Transcription – gene – translation – mRNA - protein
(c) Gene – transcription – mRNA – translation - protein
(d) Gene – translation – mRNA – transcription – protein

91. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is determined by?

(a) m-RNA
(b) t-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) sn-RNA

92. Operon control is a method of gene regulation in-

(a) Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
(b) Eukaryotes only
(c) Prokaryotes only
(d) Plants

93. Which of the following inactivates the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Cycloheximide
(c) Diphtheria toxin
(d) Ricin

94. The role of mRNA in protein synthesis is-

(a) It translates genetic code to a specific amino acid
(b) It modifies mRNA molecules prior to protein synthesis
(c) It provides genetic blueprint for the protein
(d) It catalyzes the process

95. The role of small nuclear RNAs in protein synthesis is-

(a) It translates genetic code to a specific amino acid
(b) It modifies mRNA molecules prior to protein synthesis
(c) It provides genetic blueprint for the protein
(d) It catalyzes the process

96. The eukaryotic mRNA binding to the ribosomes is facilitated by?

(a) T-RNA
(b) Poly-A tail
(c) Shine Dalgarno sequence
(d) 7-methyl guanosine cap

97. Which of the following is not a necessary component of translation?

(a) Anticodon
(b) mRNA
(c) Ligase
(d) Amino acid

98. Amino acids are joined together into a protein chain by which of the following?
(a) Transfer RNA
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Messenger RNA

99. Transcription is initiated when RNA polymerase binds to-

(a) An initiator
(b) A promoter
(c) A transcriptor
(d) A codon

100. The genetic code consists of groups of three nucleotides called?

(a) Codons
(b) Introns
(c) Anticodons
(d) Reading frames

101. The initiation codon of protein synthesis in eukaryotes is-

(a) GUA
(b) GCA
(c) CCA
(d) AUG

102. The pathway of a tRNA during polypeptide elongation on the ribosome is-
(a) A site → P site → E site
(b) P site → entry site → exit site
(c) A site → P site → entry site
(d) P site → A site → E site

103. Which of the following amino acid starts all proteins synthesis?
(a) Glycine
(b) Proline
(c) Thymine
(d) Methionine

104. Peptide bond formation between amino acids of growing polypeptide chain is catalysed
by?
(a) Peptide polymerase
(b) Amino acyl-tRNA synthetase
(c) Peptidyl transferase
(d) Peptidyl synthetase

105. Which of the following elongation factor is called as translocase?

(a) EF2
(b) EFG
(c) EF-Tu and EF-Ts
(d) Both a and b

106-Degeneracy of genetic code is due to:

(a) First member of codons
(b) Second member of codons
(c) Third member of codons
(d) Entire codons

107-Which one is not applicable in respect of genetic code?

(a) Redundancy
(b) Overlapping
(c) Degeneracy
(d) Universality

108-The known number of amino acids used in protein synthesis is?

(a) 20
(b) 35
(c) More than 50
(d) More than 100

109-Ribosomes are the sites of?

(a) Respiration
(b) Fat metabolism
(c) Protein Synthesis
(d) Photosynthesis

110-The process by which mRNA is made by DNA and protein by mRNA are respectively
called?
(a) Translation and Transcription
(b) Transcription and Translation
(c) Synthesis of mRNA and protein
(d) Replication of mRNA and protein

111-Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is decided by:

(a) tRNA
(b) sRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) None of these

112-The codon causing chain termination is?

(a) UAG, UGA, UAA
(b) GAT, AAT, AGT
(c) AGT, TAG, VGA
(d) TAG, TAA, TGA

113-Tryptophan operon is regulated by

(a) Repressor protein only
(b) Attenuator only
(c) Repressor protein and attenuator both
(d) None of the above

114-The polypeptide chain is initiated by:

(a) Lysine
(b) Glycine
(c) Methionine
(d) Leucine

115-Work done by Mendel belongs to:

(a) Neoclassical genetics
(b) Modern genetics
(c) Ultra-modern genetics
(d) Classical genetics

116-The genetic code translates the language of:

(a) RNA into proteins
(b) Protein into DNA
(c) RNA into DNA
(d) Amino acid into RNA

117-Which of the following is not produced by E.coli in the lac operon?

(a) Beta galactosidase
(b) Transacetylase
(c) Lactose dehydrogenase
(d) Lactose permease

118-The lac operon is an example of:

(a) Arabinose operon
(b) Inducible operon
(c) Repressible operon
(d) Overlapping genes

119-In the inducible operon, regulator gene release-

(a) Interferon
(b) Co-repressor
(c) Repressor
(d) Apo-repressor

120- Which of the following conditions leads to maximal expression of the lac operon?
(a) Lactose present, glucose absent
(b) Lactose present, glucose present
(c) Lactose absent, glucose absent
(d) Lactose absent, glucose present

121- Which of the following is a type of regulation of gene expression unique to eukaryotes?
(a) Attenuation
(b) Use of alternate σ factor
(c) Alarmones
(d) Chemical modification of histones

122- Lactose operon of Escherichia coli is-

(a) Monocistronic
(b) Inducible
(c) Repressible
(d) Both B and C

123- There are 64 types of codons in genetic code dictionary because?

(a) There are 64 types of tRNAs found in cell
(b) There are 64 amino acids for coding
(c) Genetic code is triplet
(d) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons for amino acids

124- Genetic code consists of

(a) 4 codons, each with two nucleotides
(b) 16 codons, each with four nucleotides
(c) 64 codons, each with two nucleotides
(d) 64 codons, each with three nucleotides

125 -Who first discovered genetic code

(a) Khorana
(b) Nirenberg and Mathaei
(c) Kornberg
(d) Phil Lader and Barnett

126-Which is not true for Operon Model?

(a) Regulator gene
(b) Promoter gene
(c) Repressor gene
(d) Operator gene

127-Which of the following bases is absent in the coding dictionary

(a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
(c) Cytosine
(d) Adenine

128-When more than one codon code for the same amino acid, this is called as?
(a) Universal nature of genetic code
(b) Redundancy of genetic code
(c) Punctuation in genetic code
(d) Continuous nature of genetic code

129-In Operon concept, regulator gene functions as-

(a) Repressor
(b) Regulator
(c) Inhibitor
(d) All of these

130-Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set of structural genes
are called?
(a) Polymorphic genes
(b) Operator genes
(c) Redundant genes
(d) Regulatory genes

131-Functioning of structural genes is controlled by-

(a) Operator
(b) Promoter
(c) Ligase
(d) Regulatory gene

132-Wobble hypothesis was given by-

(a) R. W. Holley
(b) H. G. Khorana
(c) M. Nirenberg
(d) F. H. C. Crick

133-Which one of the following codons codes for the same information as UGC?
(a) UGU
(b) UGA
(c) UAG
(d) UGG

134- In the lactose operon of Escherichia coli, what is the function of promoter?
(a) Binding of Gyrase enzyme
(b) Binding of RNA polymerase
(c) Codes for RNA polymerase
(d) Processing of messenger RNA

135. Bacteria have single chromosome, called as?

(a) Chromatid
(b) nucleus
(c) Nucleoid
(d) plasmid

136. An estimate measurement of a chromosome in close circle of Escherichia coli is?

(a) 1400 μm
(b) 1100 μm
(c) 1200 μm
(d) 1000 μm

137. How many pair of autosomes is present in human beings?

(a) 22
(b) 23
(c) 01
(d) 04

138. An octamer of 4 histones complexes with DNA forms?

(a) Endosome
(b) Nucleosome
(c) Mesosome
(d) Centromere
139. Nucleosome core is made of?
(a) HI, H2A, H2B and H3
(b) HI, H2A, H2B, H4
(c) HI, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4

140. Most abundant RNA of the cell is?

(a) t-RNA
(b) m-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) Si-RNA

141. Purines of RNA are?

(a) Guanine and adenine
(b) Adenine and cytosine
(c) Uracil and thymine
(d) Uracil and guanine

142. DNA and RNA show similarity in having?

(a) Similar sugars
(b) Double Strands
(c) Similar pyrimidines
(d) Polymers of nucleotides

143. Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a polymer of?

(a) Deoxy ribonucleotides
(b) Ribonucleotides
(c) Ribonucleosides
(d) Deoxyribonucleosides

144- The chloroplast thylakoids are in the form of

(a) Interconnected sacs
(b) Interconnected tubule
(c) Independent discs
(d) Stacked discs

145. Golgi bodies in cell arise from

(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Nuclear membrane
(d) Chloroplast

146. Ribosomes are present in

(a) E.R
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Chloroplast
(d) All of the above

147. Cristae represent

(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(c) Outer membrane of chloroplast
(d) Inner membrane of chloroplast

148. The endoplasmic reticulum arises from

(a) Mitochondria
(b) De novo synthesis
(c) Pre-existing reticulum
(d) Chloroplast

149. Nucleoplasm is found inside

(a) Hemoglobin
(b) Nucleus
(c) Cell membrane
(d) Nucleoli

150. Which of the following pigment is most abundant in green plants

(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Carotene
(d) Xanthophyll

Answer key:
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (d), 4. (a), 5. (c), 6. (c), 7. (a), 8. (c), 9. (b), 10. (d), 11. (c), 12. (b), 13. (b), 14.

(a), 15. (b), 16. (d), 17. (b), 18. (b), 19. (c), 20. (d), 21. (a), 22. (a), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b), 26.

(c), 27. (a), 28. (c), 29. (c), 30. (d), 31. (a), 32. (b), 33. (c), 34. (c), 35. (b), 36. (c), 37. (b), 38.

(d), 39. (d), 40. (d), 41. (a), 42. (c), 43. (a), 44. (b) 45-(b), 46-(d), 47-(a), 48-(d), 49-(d), 50-

(a), 51-(c), 52-(b), 53-(d), 54-(b), 55-(c), 56-(d), 57-(c), 58-(d), 59-(b), 60-(b), 61-(a), 62-(d),

63-(d), 64-(b), 65-(c), 66-(b), 67-(d), 68-(a), 69-(c), 70-(a), 71-(d), 72-(a), 73-(c), 74-(a), 75-

(b), 76-(d), 77-(a), 78-(d), 79-(c), 80-(d), 81-(a), 82-(b), 83-(c), 84-(a), 85-(d), 86-(c), 87-(b),

88-(d),89-(a), 90-(c), 91-(a), 92-(c), 93-(d), 94-(c), 95-(b), 96-(d), 97-(c), 98-(a), 99-(b), 100-

(a), 101-(d), 102-(a), 103-(d), 104-(c), 105-(d), 106-(c), 107-(b), 108-(a), 109-(c), 110-(b),

111-(c), 112-(a), 113-(d), 114-(b), 115-(d), 116-(a), 117-(c), 118-(b), 119-(c), 120-(a), 121-(d),

122-(b), 123-(c), 124-(d), 125-(b), 126-(c), 127-(a), 128-(b), 129-(a), 130-(b), 131-(a), 132-
(d), 133-(a), 134-(b), 135-(c), 136-(b), 137-(a), 138-(b), 139-(d), 140-(b), 141-(a), 142-(d),

143-(b), 144-(d), 145-(d), 146-(d), 147-(b), 148-(c), 149-(b), 150-(a)