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Countdown Mock 10 (CLAT) 2024
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Each set of questions in this section is based on a single passage.
Please answer each question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage.
In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Passage – 1
Climate change is the long-term alteration of the Earth's climate system, driven by human activities
that emit greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCc), the global average temperature has increased by about 1.1°C since the pre-
industrial era, and is likely to reach 1.5°C by 2040 if current emissions continue. This warming has
already caused significant impacts on every region of the world, such as more frequent and intense
extreme weather events, rising sea levels, melting ice caps, biodiversity loss, food insecurity, water
scarcity, health risks, and social conflicts.
While reducing greenhouse gas emissions is essential to limit further warming and avoid the worst
impacts of climate change, it is not enough. Some degree of climate change is inevitable and
irreversible, and we need to adapt to the changing conditions and cope with the consequences.
Climate change adaptation means adjusting our behaviour, infrastructure, policies, and institutions to
reduce the risks and take advantage of the opportunities posed by climate change.
Adaptation can take many forms, depending on the context and needs of different sectors and
regions. For example, adaptation can involve building resilient infrastructure that can withstand
extreme weather events, developing early warning systems and disaster risk management plans to
prepare for and respond to climate hazards, promoting sustainable agriculture and forestry practices
that conserve water, soil, and biodiversity, restoring and protecting natural ecosystems that provide
essential services, supporting vulnerable communities and groups that are most exposed and
sensitive to climate impacts, and enhancing adaptive capacity and resilience through education,
awareness, innovation, technology transfer, finance, and governance.
Adaptation is not only a necessity but also an opportunity to create a more sustainable, equitable, and
prosperous future for all. Adaptation can generate multiple co-benefits for human well-being and
development goals, such as reducing poverty and inequality, improving health and education
outcomes, creating green jobs and economic growth, strengthening social cohesion and
peacebuilding. Adaptation can also foster synergies with mitigation efforts by reducing greenhouse
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gas emissions or enhancing carbon sinks.
However, adaptation is not without challenges. It requires adequate resources, knowledge, skills,
institutions, and coordination at all levels of governance. It also requires addressing the root causes of
vulnerability and inequality that make some people and places more susceptible to climate impacts
than others. Moreover, adaptation has limits and trade-offs that need to be considered and managed.
For instance, some adaptation actions may have negative environmental or social impacts or may
increase emissions or reduce sinks. Furthermore, some climate impacts may be beyond the capacity
of human or natural systems to adapt.
Q 1. 11951465 Which of the following is an example of climate change adaptation?
a) Building resilient infrastructure that can withstand extreme weather events
b) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions by switching to renewable energy sources

c) Restoring and protecting natural ecosystems that provide essential services
d) Promoting sustainable agriculture and forestry practices that conserve water, soil, and biodiversity
Q 2. 11951465 Which of the following are possible positive outcomes of climate change adaptation?
Select the option that contains the correct answer.
(1) Lowering the levels of poverty and disparity
(2) Enhancing the health and education standards
(3) Generating green employment and economic development
(4) Building social harmony and conflict resolution
a) (2), (3) and (4) b) (1), (2), (3) and (4) c) (3) only d) (1), (2) and (3)
Q 3. 11951465 Which of the following is against the idea portrayed in the passage?
a) Human interference has changed the Earth's climate system over a long period of time.
b) Human actions that release gasses that trap heat are the main reason for climate change.
c)
If we keep releasing gasses that trap heat at the same rate, the Earth will warm up by 1.5°C by 2040.
d) Climate change affects every part of the world in a big way.
Q 4. 11951465 Which of the following is a difficulty that adaptation has to overcome?
a)
Dealing with the fundamental causes of why some people and places are more affected by climate
impacts than others
b) Bringing back and safeguarding natural systems that provide important benefits
c) Helping vulnerable people and groups that face the most climate risks
d)
Improving the ability and readiness to adapt through learning, awareness, innovation, technology
transfer, funding, and governance
Q 5. 11951465 What is the meaning of the word "inevitable" occurring in the passage?
a) Unavoidable b) Unpredictable c) Unbelievable d) Unacceptable
Passage – 2
Technology has become an indispensable part of modern life, especially in the workplace. Technology
can help employees perform their tasks more efficiently, communicate more effectively, and
collaborate more creatively. However, technology also has its drawbacks, such as distraction,
dependency, and security risks. Therefore, it is important to harness technology in a balanced and
responsible way to enhance office productivity.
One of the benefits of technology is that it can improve the efficiency of work processes. Technology
can automate repetitive and tedious tasks, such as data entry, accounting, and inventory
management. This can save time and resources and allow employees to focus on more complex and
creative aspects of their work. Technology can also provide access to a vast amount of information
and resources, such as online databases, libraries, and courses. This can help employees learn new
skills, update their knowledge, and solve problems faster.
Another benefit of technology is that it can facilitate communication and collaboration among
employees. Technology can enable instant and seamless communication across different locations
and time zones, such as email, chat, video conferencing, and cloud-based platforms. This can
improve the flow of information and feedback, and reduce misunderstandings and delays. Technology
can also foster collaboration and innovation among employees. This can enhance the quality and
diversity of ideas, and increase the engagement and motivation of employees.
However, technology also has its challenges and limitations that need to be addressed. One of the
challenges of technology is that it can cause distraction and interruption in the workplace. Technology
can expose employees to a constant stream of notifications, messages, and alerts from various
sources, such as social media, news, and entertainment. This can divert their attention from their work
tasks, and reduce their concentration and productivity.
Another challenge of technology is that it can create dependency and vulnerability among employees.
Technology can make employees rely too much on machines and software to perform their work
tasks, and lose their human skills and judgment. This can affect their ability to think critically,
creatively, and independently. Technology can also expose employees to various security risks, such
as hacking, phishing, malware, and data breaches. This can compromise their privacy and
confidentiality, and damage their reputation and credibility.
Q 6. 11951465 Which one of the following words from the passage means "vulnerability"?
a) Dependency b) Compromise c) Exposure d) Damage
Q 7. 11951465 Which of the following best explains what is the passage about?
a) b)
Technology's benefits and drawbacks in the Technology's various functions and features for
workplace employees
c) d)
Technology's challenges and risks for employees Technology's balanced and responsible use for
productivity
Q 8. 11951465 As per the passage, how can technology help employees learn new skills?
a) By doing the boring and simple tasks for them
b) By giving them access to a lot of information and resources
c) By making it easier for them to communicate and work together
d) By encouraging them to be more innovative and engaged
Q 9. 11951465 According to the passage, how can technology affect the creativity of the employees?
a) b)
By making them depend too much on machines By putting them at risk of various security threats
and software c) By distracting them from their work tasks
d)
By giving them access to information and
resources
Q 10. 11951465 What is the meaning of the expression "foster collaboration" used in the passage?
a) To encourage employees to work together b) To monitor employees' work progress
c) To assign employees to different teams d) To reward employees for their work
Passage – 3
William Shakespeare's famous quote, "A jack of all trades is a master of none, but oftentimes better
than a master of one", perhaps epitomises the National Education Policy's thrust on a multidisciplinary
curriculum. Worldwide, some educational systems require students to specialise early by choosing a
major field of study prior to entering university; others allow students to postpone this choice. In a
multidisciplinary approach, different disciplines can interact and overlap with each other to create a
comprehensive understanding. The advantage is that the students can discover their interests in the
course of such learning. NEP 2020 aims to "develop all capacities of human beings viz. intellectual,
aesthetic, social, physical, emotional and moral" by providing a flexible and innovative curriculum,
including credit-based courses. NEP 2020 is optimistic about offering flexibility in choosing subjects
ranging from science and humanities while retaining the scope of learning fine arts and sports. Thus,
even for the best of students, the traditional dependence upon science is bound to reduce if they do
not enjoy studying the subject. The draft National Curriculum Framework, released in early April, has
altered the classification of streams into science, arts and commerce for the newly-classified
secondary school education.
This restructuring of higher education will enable academic collaborations and dualdegree
programmes. Students will be able to complete the first degree at the host institution and an additional
second degree at a partnering institution without going through the admission process again. Further,
the same degree may be completed in the multiple entry and exit mode from more than one institute
with a gap in between course duration. The UGC has allowed universities to conduct up to 40% of the
courses online. According to the policy, by 2025, at least 50% of learners shall have exposure to
vocational education, opening up several professional avenues for them.
NEP 2020 has also recommended the establishment of multidisciplinary higher education institutions
in or near every district by 2030. Humanities and arts are proposed to be introduced in institutes like
the IITs, IIMs, IISER and IISc. In consonance with the said policy, IIT Delhi has chosen to set up a
'School of Public Policy', while IIT Madras is set to offer its students a bachelor's degree in Data
Sciences. IIT Guwahati's initiative to offer courses in medicine, architecture, arts and philosophy are
also worth mentioning in this context. In June 2022, the Union education minister had announced that
the IITs will begin offering a four-year B.Ed course. Will these premier engineering institutes not lose
core competency by getting too diversified? Reading humanities and economics was already present
in the B.Tech courses in engineering colleges. Was there then any need for such experimentation in
these reputed institutions?
Q 11. 11951465 Which of the following can be inferred about the author's views on the National
Education Policy's thrust on a multidisciplinary curriculum?
a)
The author strongly supports the National Education Policy's focus on a multidisciplinary curriculum.
b) The author opposes the National Education Policy's focus on a multidisciplinary curriculum.
c)
The author is neutral and does not express a clear opinion on the National Education Policy's focus
on a multidisciplinary curriculum.
d)
The author acknowledges the National Education Policy's focus on a multidisciplinary curriculum but
raises some concerns or questions about its implementation.
Q 12. 11951465 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) The National Education Policy aims to limit students' choice of subjects and specialization.
b) The restructuring of higher education will lead to a decrease in vocational education opportunities.
c) The National Education Policy promotes flexibility and innovation in the curriculum.
d) The IITs are resistant to introducing humanities and arts courses in their programs.
Q 13. 11951465 Which of the following seems to be the author's main concern in the passage?
a) The lack of vocational education opportunities in the National Education Policy.
b) The potential loss of core competency in premier engineering institutes due to diversification.
c) The limited choice of subjects and specialization in the National Education Policy.
d) The inadequate focus on science and technology in the curriculum.
Q 14. 11951465 Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?
a) Opinion piece b) News article c) d) Personal blog post

Academic research
paper
Q 15. 11951465 All the following statements are 'truisms', except:
a) The National Education Policy aims to develop all capacities of human beings.
b)
The restructuring of higher education will enable academic collaborations and dual-degree programs.
c) The UGC has allowed universities to conduct up to 40% of the courses online.
d) The IITs will begin offering a four-year B.Ed course.
Passage – 4
A man inserted his hands between Gina's legs during the 2017 British Summer Time Festival to take a
snapshot of her crotch.Regardless of the circumstance, this is how most people start their written
accounts of me. This is how interviews frequently begin. This is how the events I'm holding to
celebrate the publication of my new book will start. And I understand why: the campaign I
spearheaded to amend the legislation in 2019 to make upskirting a distinct offense in England and
Wales generated a lot of media attention. Additionally, it had an international influence; as a result,
Gibraltar and France modified their laws, and it was even referenced on Saturday Night Live. When I
was nominated for an OBE, I realized it had significantly altered my life. I've been referred to as "the
upskirting girl" since I was 26 years old. I continue to get thank-you notes from folks who have used
the law and have people stop me on the street. Sometimes they provide me a letter with their tale
quickly scribbled on it because they are afraid that if they retell what occurred, it would seem too
genuine. The relationships I have with politics are complicated, but I value these connections and am
happy that my activism has had a beneficial influence that has endured. My first campaign was the
upskirting one. I regard it as a component of my work, not the entirety of it, and it is closely related to
suffering. Being upskirted was a thrilling origin tale for the general public, but it was trauma for me. I
was attacked in front of everyone, and everyone knows what happened. They want to hear the tale
from my lips so they may rejoice in the victory at the conclusion. the plot's turn. The story stopped
being my own at some point. I recently described it to my therapist and found that I was weeping
throughout. She kindly suggested that it may be that this was the first time someone has come to help
me, rather than just listen to the narrative. The most challenging thing I have ever done was change
the legislation. I had very little money in my pocket, no expertise in politics or law, and a never-ending
email as I worked full-time in an office while conducting a national media campaign, lobbying
parliament, and running campaigns for elections. In parliament, I encountered discrimination and
misogyny, endured persistent underestimation, and came under the focus of the British media. I don't
have happy memories of that time period, but my sentiments about it go beyond my pain or how
difficult the process was. My politics have changed since I last held office eight years ago. I now know
that the criminal "justice" system in the UK is the most privatized in all of Europe. I am aware that
prison management corporations have a financial stake in keeping people behind bars. And that
incarceration is the antithesis of development and recovery.
Q 16. 11951465 What was the author's experience during the campaign to amend the legislation on
upskirting?
a) She received support from various political figures and organizations.
b) She faced obstacles and challenges, including discrimination and media attention.
c) She was celebrated as a national hero for her activism.

d) She became financially successful due to the campaign's media attention.
Q 17. 11951465 What prompted the author's activism in the first place?
a) She wanted to gain popularity and fame.

b) She experienced a traumatic event and wanted to make a positive change.
c) She wanted to challenge the criminal "justice" system in the UK.
d) She sought to improve her career opportunities in politics.
Q 18. 11951465 What emotions does the author associate with her activism and the process of
changing legislation?
a) Joy and excitement due to media attention and public recognition.
b) Trauma, pain, and difficulties faced during the process.
c) Regret for engaging in political campaigns and lobbying efforts.
d) Indifference towards the impact of her activism on society.
Q 19. 11951465 What is the antonym of "beneficial"?
a) Advantageous b) Harmful c) Fruitful d) Rewarding
Q 20. 11951465 Which of the following statements is not true about the campaign to amend
legislation on upskirting?
a)
The campaign led to a change in the law, making upskirting a distinct offense in England and Wales.
b) The author's first campaign was focused on addressing the issue of upskirting.
c) The author received an obe nomination for her activism and its positive impact.
d) The campaign solely influenced the criminal "justice" system to become more privatized in the uk.
Passage – 5
The core of what makes us human is attacked by education. It propels a country's development and
intellectual prowess. It has nurtured the brains that propelled us to the moon and wiped out formerly
fatal illnesses. Additionally, given the unique status of education, generative AI technologies like
ChatGPT are anticipated to significantly disrupt this industry. This isn't a comment on their
intelligence; rather, it's a result of our inability to create educational structures that respect and value
the distinctive human intelligence. These AI technologies are deceiving us into thinking they are
considerably more intelligent than they actually are. ChatGPT is a tool without comprehension or
knowledge. To create meaningful messages, it simply groups word fragments together based on
statistical probability. But it is neither wise nor knowledgeable. It is completely unaware of how any of
the words it generates connect to the outside world. Its ability to pass so many different types of tests
just serves as evidence that such tests were not intended to measure knowledge and comprehension
but only recall facts. AI has the potential to significantly improve education. It may free up instructors
from administrative duties, allowing them to spend more time with pupils. But our ability to take
advantage of the AI that is overtaking the market is appalling. It does not need to be this way. We still
have time to be ready, but we need to move fast and sensibly. Over a decade has passed since AI
was first used to education. Artificial intelligence (AI)-driven systems, like Carnegie Learning or Aleks,
may analyze student replies to questions and modify the content of lessons to suit each student's
requirements. TeachFX and Edthena are two examples of AI systems that help improve teacher
assistance and training.
We need to develop efficient strategies for implementing AI throughout the educational system and
appropriately regulating it if we want to profit from these technologies. It will be necessary to
fundamentally rethink what success is and what education is for if we want to stay ahead of AI.
Human intellect is considerably superior to any AI system we currently observe. Our current
educational system mostly ignores the broad and varied intelligence that we possess. Although the
school curriculum, particularly in England, has a strict approach to learning and prioritizes the
memorization of facts over creative thinking, we are capable of complex, high-level thinking. Students
are encouraged to memorize information rather than think critically. Consider the English curriculum,
which mandates that pupils master quotes and grammatical conventions. Instead of encouraging
students to analyze texts or use language critically, this time-consuming assignment pushes them to
gather information. The distinctive features of human intellect should be acknowledged by our
educational system. This would entail an emphasis on teaching advanced thinking skills in the
classroom and developing a mechanism to boost our intellect. Numeracy and literacy are still
essential, but we now also need to include AI literacy.
Q 21. 11951465 Which term in the passage is used to describe the ability of AI technologies to
understand and interpret information from the outside world?
a) Comprehension b) Recollection c) Intelligence d) Memorization
Q 22. 11951465 Which word best describes the author's tone toward the current state of integrating
AI into education?
a) Optimistic b) Concerned c) Indifferent d) Hostile
Q 23. 11951465 What is the primary focus of the passage?
a) The superior intelligence of human intellect over AI technologies.
b) The need to rethink and adapt the educational system for AI integration.
c) The potential of AI to revolutionize education and improve teaching.
d) The deceptive nature of AI technologies and their impact on education.
Q 24. 11951465 From the passage, it can be inferred that AI technologies have been used in
education for over a decade because:
a) AI technologies were primarily developed for educational purposes.
b) The passage provides specific examples of AI technologies used in education.

c) The passage mentions a decade as a relevant timeframe for AI integration in education.
d) The author discusses the history and timeline of AI development in education.
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
Israel is in the grip of one of the most serious domestic crises in its history, with uproar over the
government's plans to change the way the judicial system works. Since the start of the year, huge
weekly protests have been held by people opposed to the government's reform plans. The scale of
the protests has escalated, with hundreds of thousands of people packing the streets in towns and
cities across the country.
Undeterred, the government passed into law, the first planned change - a so-called "reasonableness"
bill - removing the Supreme Court's power to cancel government decisions it deems unreasonable.
Protesters have called for all the planned reforms to be scrapped and for the Prime Minister, Benjamin
Netanyahu, to resign. They are supported by Mr Netanyahu's political rivals, as well as former top
officials in Israel's military, intelligence and security services, former chief justices, and prominent legal
figures and business leaders amongst others. In a move which has caused deep concern on both
sides, hundreds of military reservists, including air force pilots crucial to Israel's defence, have
threatened to refuse to report for service. This has led to warnings that it could leave the country's
security seriously exposed.
Q 25. 11951465 What recent measure was passed by the Israeli Parliament to limit the Supreme
Court's ability to overturn government decisions?
a) A measure to increase the number of Supreme Court justices.

b) A measure to expand the powers of the President of Israel.
c) A measure to allow the Supreme Court to intervene in legislative matters.
d)
A measure to limit the Supreme Court's ability to overrule decisions made by government ministers.
Q 26. 11951465 What concept was used by the Israeli Supreme Court to strike down decisions made
by lawmakers and ministers before the recent legislative changes?
a) b) Judicial review c) Reasonableness d)

Public order and Constitutional
security supremacy
Q 27. 11951465 What is the main argument put forth by the Israeli government for the judicial
reforms?
a) To strengthen the power of unelected judges in the judicial system.
b) To ensure greater public accountability and transparency.

c) To promote a stronger separation of powers between the executive and the judiciary.
d) To restore power to elected representatives and reduce intervention by judges.
Q 28. 11951465 What was the purpose of the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 and the
National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 in India?
a) To establish a collegium system for appointing judges to the Supreme Court and high courts.
b)
To create an independent commission for appointing judges to the higher judiciary, replacing the
collegium system.
c) To amend certain provisions of the Constitution related to the appointment of judges.
d) To introduce reforms in the functioning of the Supreme Court.
Q 29. 11951465 Why was the Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014 and the National Judicial
Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, 2014 declared unconstitutional and null and void by the
Supreme Court of India in 2015?
a) It violated the fundamental rights of judges. b)

It lacked proper provisions for judicial
appointments.
c) d)
It was not approved by a majority of state It undermined the independence of the judiciary.
governments.
Q 30. 11951465 What is the composition of the Supreme Court Collegium in India?
a) It consists of the Chief Justice of India and all the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
b) It is made up of the Chief Justice of India and the two most senior judges of the Supreme Court.
c) It includes the Chief Justice of India and four other senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.
d) It comprises the Chief Justice of India and the Attorney General of India.
Passage – 2
Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft inched closer to its soft landing on the moon as it successfully underwent a
planned orbit reduction manoeuvre lowering its lunar orbit. The health of India's third lunar mission
craft is normal, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) said.
"The retrofitting of engines brought it closer to the Moon's surface, now to 170 km x 4,313 km. The
next operation to further reduce the orbit is scheduled for August 9, between 13:00 and 14:00 hours
IST. The Chandrayaan-3 mission achieved a crucial milestone with the successful completion of the
Lunar Orbit Insertion (LOI) placing it in the moon orbit and leaving Earth's gravity.
This is the third time in succession that ISRO has successfully inserted its spacecraft into the lunar
orbit, apart from doing so into the Martian orbit. Meanwhile, the space agency put out the first images
of the moon as captured by Chandrayaan-3, India's third lunar mission.
Q 31. 11951465 What is the significance of the Lunar Orbit Insertion (LOI) maneuver performed by
ISRO for Chandrayaan- 3?
a) It marks the spacecraft's exit from Earth's gravitational influence.
b) It initiates the spacecraft's journey towards a distant planet.
c) It confirms the spacecraft's successful landing on the lunar surface.
d) It places the spacecraft into an orbit around the Moon.
Q 32. 11951465 What factors are involved in the Lunar Orbit Insertion (LOI) maneuver for a
spacecraft like Chandrayaan-3?
a) The spacecraft's communication systems and power generation.
b) The spacecraft's scientific instruments and data collection.
c) The spacecraft's propulsion system, the Moon's gravitational pull, and the spacecraft's velocity.
d) The spacecraft's solar panels and thermal control systems.
Q 33. 11951465 How did the Moon form?
a) It formed through volcanic activity on Earth's surface.

b) It was captured by Earth's gravity as it passed by.
c)
The Moon was formed when a Mars-sized object (Theia) collided with Earth about 4.5 billion years
ago.
d) It was formed from the debris left over after the formation of the Sun.
Q 34. 11951465 Luna 25 (Luna-Glob lander) is a planned lunar lander mission by__________.
a) Roscosmos b) NASA c) ESA d) JAXA
Q 35. 11951465 What is the main objective of the Luna 25 (Luna-Glob lander) mission?
a) To study the lunar north pole and its geological features.
b) To search for signs of extraterrestrial life on the Moon.
c) To emphasize the continuity of the Soviet Luna programme from the 1970s.
d) To explore the lunar south pole and study the Boguslavsky crater area.
Q 36. 11951465 Which of the following facilities are involved in monitoring the health of
Chandrayaan-3?
a) ISRO Satellite Integration and Testing Centre (ISITEC)
b) ISRO Space Applications Centre (ISAC)
c)
Indian Deep Space Network (IDSN), European Space Agency (ESA), and Jet Propulsion Laboratory
(JPL) Deep space antenna
d) ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC)
Passage – 3
[1] has unveiled Bard, an AI chatbot designed to compete with OpenAI's ChatGPT and Microsoft's
chatbot in their Bing search engine. In a blog post, [1] describes Bard as an early AI experiment to
enhance productivity, accelerate ideas, and foster curiosity. You can use Bard to get tips,
explanations, or creative assistance in tasks such as outlining blog posts.
With Bard, [1] aims to solidify its presence in the AI chatbot space while maintaining its dominance in
the search engine market. Bard is powered by a research large language model (LLM) - a lightweight
and optimized version of LaMDA.
It will be updated with more advanced models over time. As more people use LLMs, they become
better at predicting helpful responses. Bard is designed as a complementary experience to [1] Search,
allowing users to check its responses or explore sources across the web. Operating as a standalone
webpage, Bard consists of a singular question box instead of being integrated into [1]'s search engine.
This strategic move is to adopt new AI technology while preserving the profitability of its search engine
business.
Q 37. 11951465 What is the name of the company which has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) Apple b) Google c) Alibaba d) Twitter
Q 38. 11951465 What does the term "LaMDA" stand for?
a) Linguistic Model for Data Analysis b) Learning Machine for Deep Algorithms
c) Language Model for Dialogue Applications d) Logical Matrix for Digital Automation
Q 39. 11951465 When was the second generation of LaMDA announced?
a) 2020 b) 2021 c) 2022 d) 2023
Q 40. 11951465 Which of the following technologies is Amazon Alexa largely based on?
a) Siri b) Google Assistant c) Ivona d) Cortana
Q 41. 11951465 What is the significance of "Soundarya" in the media industry?
a) It is the name of a famous actress in the Kannada film industry.
b) It is the debut film of a popular Kannada director.
c) It is the name of a new AI news anchor launched by Power TV.

d) It is a new Kannada language TV channel.
Q 42. 11951465 Which of the following companies is operating the Teres natural language processing
platform for the Indian Supreme Court?
a) Amazon b) Google
c) Nomology Technology Private Limited d) Teres Corporation
Passage – 4
India's AI Supercomputer 'AIRAWAT' has been ranked at No. 75 in the world at the International
Supercomputing Conference (ISC 2023) in Germany. The AI supercomputer 'AIRAWAT' is installed at
C-DAC, [1]. The supercomputer has been named in the 61st edition of Top 500 Global
Supercomputing List released recently. Airawat PSAI, stands as India's largest and fastest AI
supercomputing system, with a remarkable speed of 13,170 teraflops (Rpeak). AIRAWAT's
manufacturer is Netweb Technologies. It's operating system is Ubuntu 20.04.2 LTS. The
supercomputer runs on AMD EPYC 7742 64C 2.25GHz processor with 81,344 cores. The
supercomputer has been installed this year only.
Speaking on this achievement, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) Secretary
Shri Alkesh Sharma said, "Artificial Intelligence is the most promising technology in the digital age.
India has a strong ecosystem and competitive advantage for AI due to its massive data availability,
strong digital economy and skilled workforce. India has been working in the Applied AI with focus on
Natural Language Processing, Image Procession, Pattern Recognition, Agriculture, Medical Imaging,
Education, Health Care, Audio assistance, Robotics and developing solutions for the strategic
sectors." India will pursue AI technology to empower citizens and organisations to solve the most
pressing problems of society and economy to make the world a better place, he added.
Q 43. 11951465 Which of the following Indian cities is home to the AI supercomputer 'AIRAWAT'
which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Mumbai b) New Delhi c) Bangalore d) Pune
Q 44. 11951465 Which of the following supercomputers is considered the first indigenously built
supercomputer in India under the National Supercomputing Mission?
a) AIRAWAT b) Param Shakti c) Param Shivay d) Param Pravega
Q 45. 11951465 What is the primary goal of the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) in India?
a) To establish a network of high-speed data transmission.

b) To promote collaborative research among academic institutions.
c) To indigenously develop and manufacture powerful computers.
d) To rank among the top 10 supercomputing nations.
Q 46. 11951465 What is the purpose of the National Knowledge Network (NKN) in India?
a) To provide supercomputing power to research institutions.
b) To connect academic institutions and R&D labs for collaborative research.
c) To manufacture components for supercomputers.
d) To provide internet connectivity to rural areas.
Q 47. 11951465 Which of the following parameters is used to measure the performance of a
computer's processor in terms of floating-point operations?
a) MIPS b) Mbps c) FLOPS d) GHz
Q 48. 11951465 Which of the following countries holds the top position in the world in terms of the
maximum number of supercomputers?
a) India b) China c) United States d) Japan
Passage – 5
The Rajya Sabha passed the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill in
New Delhi on August 7; four days after the Lok Sabha cleared the Bill. According to the Centre, the
Bill is for the "maintenance of democratic and administrative balance in the governance" of the
National Capital Territory of Delhi.
The Bill was passed with 131 members voting in favour of it and 102 voting against it. Apart from the
NDA constituents, the Bill got the support of the members from BJD and YSRCP. The House also
voted against the amendments moved by the Opposition and a proposal to send it to a select
committee of the Rajya Sabha. Deputy Chairman Harivansh, who presided over the voting, also
ordered a probe into the claims of a few MPs who said that their names had been included without
consent in the proposed select committee.
Q 49. 11951465 What is the main objective of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
(Amendment) Bill, 2023?
a) To redefine the powers of the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
b) To enhance the autonomy of the elected government of Delhi.

c) To strengthen the authority of the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
d) To establish a new administrative structure for Delhi's local governance.
Q 50. 11951465 How does the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill,
2023, aim to balance the interests of the nation and the Union territory of Delhi?
a) By giving more power to the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
b) By strengthening the autonomy of the elected government of Delhi.
c) By granting ultimate authority to the Lieutenant Governor in certain matters.
d) By establishing a new administrative structure for local governance.
Q 51. 11951465 What is the main provision of the Government of National Capital Territory (GNCT) of
Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021?
a) It grants the Legislative Assembly of Delhi the power to make laws on all matters.
b) It enhances the powers of the elected government over the Lieutenant Governor.
c) It gives primacy to the Lieutenant Governor over the elected government.
d) It establishes a new administrative structure for the city of Delhi.
Q 52. 11951465 Under Article 239AA of the Constitution, what powers does the Legislative Assembly
of Delhi have?
a) The power to make laws on all subjects, including public order, land, and police.
b)
The power to make laws on subjects under the State List and Concurrent List except for public order,
land, and police.
c)
The power to make laws on subjects under the State List and Concurrent List without any limitations.
d) The power to make laws only on matters related to public order, land, and police.
Q 53. 11951465 Which of the following constitutional amendment acts introduced special provisions
for the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
a) b) c) d)
44th Amendment Act, 69th Amendment Act, 84th Amendment Act, 92nd Amendment Act,
1978 1992 2002 2003
Q 54. 11951465 What was the key outcome of the Supreme Court's ruling in the 2018 case of
Government of NCT of Delhi vs Union of India?
a) The Lieutenant Governor was granted absolute authority over the elected government of Delhi.
b) The Delhi government was granted the exclusive power to make laws without any interference.
c)
The decision-making authority between the Lieutenant Governor and the Delhi government should be
based on cooperative federalism and the constitutional primacy of representative government.
d) The President of India was given the authority to directly govern Delhi's administrative matters.
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 55 to 86: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Passage – 1
Character evidence is a very tricky issue in the law of evidence. On one hand, a court is supposed to
apply the law impartially to the facts on record and arrive at a decision. On the other hand, evidence
as to the general character and conduct of the accused is often important in explaining the conduct of
the accused and also in deciding the outcome of a case when the case could go either way on the
evidence alone. Section 53 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (IEA) provides that the fact that the
person accused is of a good character is relevant in a criminal trial. The principle behind this section is
that the proving of the good character of the accused provides a presumption against the commission
of a crime. In a doubtful case, it may be used to tilt the balance in favour of the accused but in a case
where there is positive evidence of guilt of the accused then the good character cannot outweigh the
positive evidence. It depends on the discretion of the court on how much weight the evidence of the
good character has to be given while deciding the case. It is of course entirely possible that such a
person may have committed a crime in the throes of a sudden passion or temptation, but such things
are exceptions. The value of a presumption of good character naturally varies depending on the
circumstances of each case. Moreover, character evidence is weak evidence and it cannot outweigh
positive evidence in regard to the guilt of a person. In the case of Bhagwan Swaroop, the appellant
was convicted for a criminal breach of trust under Section 409 of the Indian Penal Code, and for
conspiracy under section 120-B of the IPC. The defence examined two eminent and respected men of
India, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Sri Sreeprakasha, in order to show the good character of the
appellant. Subba Rao, J speaking for the bench, stated that the testimony of the eminent persons as
regards to the character of the appellant established that, in their opinion, the appellant was a man of
integrity, sincerity and simplicity. He further stated that under Section 53 and the Explanation to
Section 55 of the IEA, general evidence of good character and disposition was relevant in a criminal
trial and that evidence could be given of both good character as well as general disposition. The value
of a witness's evidence as to the disposition of the accused will depend on the witness's perspicacity
as well as the opportunities the witness had to observe the accused. This has to be balanced against
the cleverness of the accused to hide his real traits as well as the opportunity the witness had to
observe specific traits of the accused.
Section 54 of the IEA provides that the fact that the accused has a bad character is irrelevant unless
evidence has been given that he has a good character, in which case it becomes relevant. The
Supreme Court has observed that accused is entitled to a presumption of innocence and evidence
about his bad character is not relevant unless he adduces some evidence of his good character, in
which case contrary evidence of his bad character may be advanced by way of rebuttal.
Q 55. 11951465 R was charged for criminal conspiracy and sedition. The prosecution decided to
invoke section 54 of Indian evidence act 1872 to highlight his bad character and to concrete the case
against him. Can the prosecution do so?
a)
The prosecution can give evidence under section 54 if there is necessity to highlight his bad character
which might have a significant bearing on the outcome of the case.
b)
The prosecution cannot invoke section 54 unless the defendant gives evidence on his good character
under section 53 of Indian evidence act 1872.
c)
Section 53 and section 54 of IEA can be materialised to give evidence according to the wishes of
prosecution and defendants.
d) The prosecution can give evidence under section 32 and not under section 54 of IEA 1872.
Q 56. 11951465 R a priest of a local temple was charged for eve teasing and voyeurism. The counsel
for defendants called upon the city mayor who was closely associated with the priest to give evidence
for his good behaviour. Decide.
a)
The counsel cannot do so as it is unfair to involve public officers in criminal cases which shall have
adverse effects.
b)
In cases of voyeurism and eve teasing section 53 of Indian evidence act cannot be used to give
evidence.
c)
The counsel is justified in their act of calling the city mayor to give evidence of the priest's good
behaviour.
d)
The counsel needs to seek clarification from the court judge before involving individuals from public
offices.
Q 57. 11951465 Q was accused in a homicide case. There were overwhelming evidences to show
that Q might have committed the crime. The defendants chose to give evidence on his good
behaviour. Is the evidence on good behaviour admissible in such a scenario?
a)
The evidence of good behaviour is not admissible as there is overwhelming evidence to prove that the
accused might be guilty.
b)
The evidence of good behaviour cannot be given as the defendants have to prove their innocence first
by showing the alibi and countering the prosecution's case.
c)
The judge shall admit the evidence of good behaviour but will definitely dismiss it due to the gravity of
the case
d)
The judge shall admit the evidence of good behaviour, examine it and shall use his discretion to
consider how much weight the evidence of the good character has to be given while deciding the
case.
Q 58. 11951465 The case of Bhagwan Swaroop has been mentioned in the above passage. For what
purpose the author might have used this case in the passage?
a) To explain the relation between section 409 of IPC and section 53 of Indian evidence act.
b) To highlight how section 53 is practically useless
c) It is used as an example to show how section 53 of IEA can be used while deciding a case.
d) To showcase the judicial prowess of Justice Subba Rao, J
Q 59. 11951465 Which of the following statements is wrong in light of the above given passage?
a)
The value of a presumption of good character naturally varies depending on the circumstances of
each case.
b)
Section 53 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (IEA) provides that the fact that the person accused is of
a good character is relevant in a criminal trial.
c) Section 58 of IEA can sometimes be used over section 53 of IEA.
d)
The value of a witness's evidence as to the disposition of the accused will depend on the witness's
perspicacity as well as the opportunities the witness had to observe the accused.
Passage – 2
It is already known that the Indian law of torts is based on the English common law. Thus, the law
relating to negligence is adopted and modified by the courts of India on the principles of justice, equity
and good conscience. The term Negligence is derived from the Latin word negligentia, which means
'failing to pick up'. In the general sense, the term negligence means the act of being careless and in
the legal sense, it signifies the failure to exercise a standard of care which the doer as a reasonable
man should have exercised in a particular situation. In Blyth v. Birmingham WaterWorks Co,
Negligence was defined as the omission to do something which a reasonable man would do or doing
something which a prudent or reasonable man would not do.
It can be characterized in three forms-
Nonfeasance: It means the act of failure to do something which a person should have done. For
example, failure to carry out the repairs of an old building when it should have been done.
Misfeasance: It means the act of not doing an action properly when it should have been done
properly. For example, Doing the repairs of an old building but doing so by using very poor-quality
materials creating a major probability of a collapse which injures people.
Malfeasance: It means the act of doing something which should not have been done in the first place
itself. For example, using products that are not allowed and combustible to carry out the repairs of an
old building, therefore, converting the building into a firetrap leading to an accident.
Essentials of Negligence-
Duty of care- It is one of the essential conditions of negligence in order to make the person liable. It
means that every person owes, a duty of care, to another person while performing an act. IN
negligence, the duty is legal in nature.
Duty must be towards the plaintiff- A duty arises when the law recognizes a relationship between
the defendant and the plaintiff and requires the defendant to act in a certain manner toward the
plaintiff.
Breach of duty to take care- It's not enough for a plaintiff to prove that the defendant owed him a
duty of care but he must also establish that the defendant breached his duty to the plaintiff.
Actual cause or cause in fact- In this scenario, the plaintiff who is suing the defendant for
negligence has the liability to prove is that the defendant's violation of duty was the actual cause of
the damages incurred by him. This is often called the "but-for" causation which means that, but for the
defendant's actions, the plaintiff would not have incurred the damages.
Proximate cause- Proximate cause means "legal cause," or the cause that the law recognizes as the
primary cause of the injury. A defendant in a negligence case is only responsible for those damages
that the defendant could have foreseen through his actions.
Consequential harm to the plaintiff- It should also be proved that the failure of the defendant to
exercise reasonable care resulted in damages to the plaintiff to whom the defendant owed a duty of
care.
Q 60. 11951465 R was pregnant walking in a footpath of a busy road. T a motorcyclist comes
speeding down the path and hits an electric pole. T dies immediately. R witnesses this accident. This
results in she giving birth to a still born child. R sues the family of T for negligence. Decide.
a) The defendants shall be held liable as the negligence of T led to the birth of a still of born child.
b)
The defendants shall be held liable as T had to consider the risk of pedestrians while speeding on a
busy road.
c) The defendants shall not be held liable as the defendants did not have any duty of care towards R.
d) The defendants should pay compensation to R for her loss.
Q 61. 11951465 T a contractor was asked to construct a condo in the best possible manner. T uses
low quality cement due to which cracks appear within 1 year. T was sued for negligence. Has T
committed negligence, If yes what type of negligence?
a)
No, T has not committed negligence as best is a subjective term and the perspective changes from
one person to another.
b) Yes, T has committed negligence. It is an act of misfeasance.
c) Yes, T has committed negligence. It is an act of nonfeasance.
d) Yes, T has committed negligence. It is an act of malfeasance.
Q 62. 11951465 The municipality of Ashunagar was constructing a borewell in a suburban area. The
area was surrounded by lush fields and there were very few houses. After the work the employees left
the mouth of the borewell open and left. Y, a child of 4 years who was playing around fell into the
borewell and died. The kid's family filed suit against the municipality. The defendants pleaded that
there was no breach of duty to take care as reasonable people would not shut the mouths due to the
remoteness of the area. Decide.
a)
The defendants shall be held liable as there was duty of care towards the public at large and
remoteness of the area shall not be a reason for not fulfilling the duty.
b)
The defendants shall not be held liable as the area was remote and they could have not foreseen a
child falling into borewell.
c)
The defendants shall not be held liable as the child's family should have been more responsible while
letting the kid roam. They cannot shift their burden towards someone else.
d)
The defendants shall not be held liable as they are doing the duty of state and the servants of state
shall have immunity against any charges.
Q 63. 11951465 Which of the following is not a correct combination?
a)
R was asked to upgrade B's bike with Sports wheels and brakes while B upgraded the bike with new
commuter brakes and wheel. - Misfeasance
b)
B was asked to close the shutter of his neighbour's cowshed. B does not close the shed due to which
the cows flee. - Nonfeasance
c)
R was smoking a cigarette outside an AC compartment bogey of a train which is prohibited. -
Malfeasance
d)
D was asked to deliver an item in Z's door. The item was boxed but stuck "Handle with care". D didn't
deliver the item. - Misfeasance.
Q 64. 11951465 Which of the following is the right definition of 'Proximate cause'?
a) Proximate cause is the first event in the chain of sequence of events that led to an injury.
b)
Proximate cause means "factual cause," or the cause that the law recognizes as the primary cause of
the injury.
c)
Proximate cause means "legal cause," or the cause that the law recognizes as the primary cause of
the injury
d) Proximate cause is the last event in the chain of sequence of events that led to an injury.
Passage – 3
The Constitution of India gives different Fundamental rights to every one of its residents. In basic
terms, implementation of the Fundamental rights is defended with the assistance of 5 privilege Writs.
So, Article 32 engages the Supreme Court while Article 226 enables the High Courts to issue writs
against any power of the State in order to authorize the Fundamental rights. One of the important
writs for individual freedom is "Habeas Corpus" which signifies "You may have the body". In the event
that any individual is kept in jail or a private care without legitimate legitimization; this writ is issued to
the power limiting such individual, to create him/her under the watchful eye of the Court. The
candidate for this writ can either be the individual in detainment or any individual following up for
his/her benefit to ensure his/her freedom. This writ accommodates quick help if there should arise an
occurrence of unlawful detainment.
Nature of Proceedings: In deciding the inquiry that whether habeas corpus procedures are affable or
criminal in nature, it was held by the court in Narayan v. Ishwarlal that it would rely on upon the way of
the procedures in which the locale has been executed.
Who may apply: Regarding the topic of who may apply for the writ it has been expressed by courts in
different cases that the detainee or the confined, as well as whatever other individual who knows
about the benefits of the case, and is familiar with the actualities and circumstances and has
perceived enthusiasm for moving of such application before the court can apply under Art. 32, and Art.
226 of the Constitution.
Regional ward: Regarding the regional purview, the Supreme Court's locale under Article 32
stretches out over every one of the powers; be it inside the domain of India or outside it, if they should
be under the control of the Government. While, on account of High Courts' purview under Article 226,
it applies to every one of the powers existing in the control of that high court or where the reason for
activity emerges.
Weight of confirmation: with respect to the inquiry relating to upon whom the weight of evidence
falsehoods, it was expressed that it is the obligation of the power which is being addressed for
unlawfully keeping a man to demonstrate that the grounds were sufficiently attractive to capture and
restrict a man behind the bars. Be that as it may, in the event that it is asserted by the detenu (viz. the
individual kept) that the request of confinement is mala fide, the weight of confirmation is on the
detenu and he needs to set it up.
Res Judicata: When the topic of whether standard of res judicata applies if there should arise an
occurrence of writ request of Habeas Corpus, it was held that, "So far as Indian Law is concerned, it is
genuinely all around settled that no second appeal to for a writ of habeas corpus on the same grounds
is viable if a prior appeal is released by the court". But this guideline would not stand where the
gatherings in which consequent recording is there, have autonomous presence from each other and
are altogether separate in competency and locale.
Elective cure: Habeas corpus being a writ obviously or right might be denied if there is no cause
appeared. It, notwithstanding, can't be declined on the ground that an optional cure is accessible to
the applicant.
Acceptance request of detainment: There might be crisp approval requests of confinement being
gone by the administration in situations when an old request experiences a formal deformity or a
defect which is specialized in nature. When in doubt, once a request of detainment has lapsed, denied
or is suppressed and put aside, no crisp request of confinement on the same realities and on the
same grounds can be made. If, as it may, new truths or new or extra grounds have appeared after
repudiation or putting aside the request, new requests can be passed.
Insubordination of this writ: A deliberate and persistent noncompliance of a writ of habeas corpus
adds up to scorn of court. This may draw in discipline of detainment and/or property connection for the
person who conferred the hatred.
Expenses and remuneration: The essential reason behind the issuance of this writ is to secure the
arrival of the detainee/detenu as opposed to rebuff the detainer. Despite the fact that, there might be
pay allowed and costs recompensed in Proper cases at the tact of the court.
Q 65. 11951465 A was walking on a footpath beside which a farmer's rally was going on. As the rally
turned violent police detained everyone including A and was put behind bars. A wanted to invoke his
right of 'Habeas Corpus' In which court can A file the writ of Habeas corpus?
a) A can approach the high court under article 32 of the constitution.
b) A can approach supreme court of Indian under article 32
c)
A can approach high court under article 226 or supreme court under article 32 to file the writ of
habeas corpus.
d) A cannot ask for habeas corpus as he has been detained under UAPA act.
Q 66. 11951465 A approached supreme court under article 32 and filed writ petition of habeas
corpus. The same was rejected by the court. Can A file an appeal against this judgement?
a) Yes, A can file an appeal as his freedom has been curtailed by not allowing him to move freely.
b) Yes, A can take this matter to the Chief Justice of India.
c)
No A cannot file an appeal in the supreme court but approach an alternate dispute redressal forum for
delivery of justice.
d) No. A cannot file an appeal against the judgement of the supreme court.
Q 67. 11951465 D filed a petition habeas corpus in supreme court of India. The supreme court
dismissed the case as they felt there were reasonable grounds for the detention of A. Can the
supreme court so this?
a) Yes, the Supreme court can dismiss a habeas corpus petition.
b) No, the Supreme court has to entertain all the cases of Habeas corpus.
c) D should have approached the high court instead of the supreme court.
d) None of the above.
Q 68. 11951465 Which of the following statement is false in the light of the passage?
a)
Regarding the regional purview, Supreme Court's locale under Article 32 stretches out over every one
of the powers; be it inside the domain of India or outside it, if they should be under the control of the
Government
b)
This writ accommodates quick help if there should arise an occurrence of unlawful detainment. It is
the most significant writ for individual freedom
c)
Regarding the topic of who may apply for the writ it has been expressed by courts in different cases
that the detainee or the confined, as well as whatever other individual who knows about the benefits
of the case.
d) Habeas Corpus can be declined on the ground that an optional cure is accessible to the applicant.
Q 69. 11951465 Upon whom the 'weight of confirmation' lies while trying a writ petition of habeas
corpus?
a)
The 'weight of confirmation' lies on the authority who have detained the accused to show that there
are reasonable grounds to justify the detention.
b)
The 'weight of confirmation' lies upon the accused to prove that there are no reasonable grounds for
the police to detain him in custody.
c)
The 'weight of confirmation' does not fall on one party but both the parties should prove their
arguments for committing the said acts and justifying them.
d) The concept of 'weight of confirmation' is not applied in case of habeas corpus.
Q 70. 11951465 Vijay, a journalist, had been working on an investigative report exposing corruption
within a powerful organization. However, one night he was suddenly taken from his home by
unidentified individuals. His family has not heard from him since and no official arrest record was
made. Vijay's family is considering legal avenues to secure his release.Which of the following is true
in this context under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution?
a)
Vijay's family can approach the Supreme Court directly for the issue of a writ of habeas corpus to
secure Vijay's release.
b)
Vijay's family cannot approach the Supreme Court directly, they should first approach the police and
local authorities.
c) The Supreme Court cannot issue a writ of habeas corpus because Vijay was not officially arrested.
d) The Supreme Court can only issue a writ of habeas corpus if Vijay himself petitions the court.
Passage – 4
Misrepresentation is an untrue or misleading statement of a material fact made by one party to

another party, which affects the other party's decision in agreeing to a contract. Misrepresentation
defined under Cambridge Dictionary as, "something that misrepresents an idea, situation, or opinion,
or the fact of something being misrepresented". As per Sec. 17 of Indian contract act, 1872, if consent
is caused by, fraud, then it is not a free consent. If consent is given under misrepresentation of facts,
the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was caused. If
misrepresentation is identified, the affected party may seek damages or may normally rescind the
contract.
Misrepresentation is defined under Section 18 of Indian Contract Act, 1872.
Misrepresentation means and includes-

(1) The positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of
that which is not true, though he believes it to be true;
(2) Any breach of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage of the person
committing it, or anyone claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the
prejudice of anyone claiming under him;
(3) Causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of
the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
Unwarranted statements- If a person receives information from trustworthy sources, then the
statement made out of that information is said to be a warranted statement. When a statement is
made without any good reason or which is unjustified, then it is said to be an unwarranted statement.
When a person positively asserts that the fact is true without any trustworthy source information, and
believes the statement is true, it is misrepresentation.
Breach of duty- When one contracting party does not act in a reasonable manner to prevent injuries
predictable to others, the duty of care is breached. Any breach of duty, which brings advantage to a
person pledging it by misleading the other to his prejudice, is a misrepresentation.
Inducing mistakes about the subject matter- Sometimes misrepresentation can arise from
suppression of vital facts. Suppression or concealment of facts will fall either under sub section (2),
when there is a breach of duty, or under sub section (3) when it leads one party to make a mistake
about subject matter. Misrepresentation should be of facts material to the contract.
If a person is a victim of fraudulent or negligent misrepresentation, remedies available are rescission

and/or damages. Claimants can claim for damages in case of fraudulent and negligent
misrepresentation. But in case of innocent misrepresentation, the court has discretion to award
damages. To rescind means to cancel. Aggrieved parties can claim for cancellation of contract.
One more remedy available to aggrieved parties is to insist the first party, who has committed
misrepresentation, to perform in a manner as per the terms agreed before the contract was made.
Q 71. 11951465 R ran an antique shop. One day a customer who visited the shop asked R whether
the displayed vase was from the 16th century. R had no knowledge about the same, but answered in
affirmative. The customer bought the pot but later realised that it wasn't from the 16th century. She
filed a suit of misrepresentation against R. Decide.
a)
R shall be held liable for misrepresentation as he made an unwarranted statement regarding the vase.
b) R shall not be held liable for misrepresentation as R answered in good faith.
c) R shall be held liable for fraud as he gave the answer cunningly for his own profit.
d) R shall not be held liable as the principle of caveat emptor applies.
Q 72. 11951465 R went to a jewellery shop and asked for a chain made of 24 carat pure gold. E who
was a new recruit provided a 22-carat gold chain. R realised the mistake only after he brought the
chain. Decide.
a) There is no misrepresentation as R should have been more vigilant while buying the gold chain.
b)
There is misrepresentation as E had no idea regarding the mistake and he positively asserted that it
was a 24-carat gold chain.
c) There is no misrepresentation as it was just a case of simple confusion.

d) This is a case of fraud and not misrepresentation.
Q 73. 11951465 Y owned a goat which he intended to sell. He struck a deal with A to sell the goat for
2000 rupees. Y sold a different goat than the one they had contracted for as this one was old and
weak.
a) It is a case of void contract and shall not be enforceable by law.
b)
This is not a case of misrepresentation as Y intentionally sold a different goat with full knowledge
about the same.
c)
There is a contract in the given case and the buyer should have been aware about the goat he is
buying.
d) The facts in the given case are not sufficient enough to answer.
Q 74. 11951465 Which of the following statements is false in light of the above given passage?
a) Misrepresentation is included under section 18 of Indian contract act 1872.
b)
If a person receives information from trustworthy sources, then the statement made out of that
information is said to be a warranted statement.
c) Misrepresentation is a concept of American law, which has been adopted in India
d)
One of the remedies available to aggrieved parties is to insist the first party, who has committed
misrepresentation, to perform in a manner as per the terms agreed before the contract was made.
Q 75. 11951465 A potential investor approached Rajesh to invest in his startup. While presenting the
financial aspects of the business, Rajesh exaggerated the profit figures by 20% to convince the
investor. The investor, relying on Rajesh's provided figures, decided to invest in the business. Later,
the investor discovered the truth about the exaggerated profit figures. Based on this scenario, which
of the following is true as per the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
a) This is a case of fraud because Rajesh knowingly made a false statement to the investor.
b) This is not a case of misrepresentation or fraud because the exaggeration was less than 25%.
c)
This is a case of misrepresentation because Rajesh made an untrue statement, which made the
investor enter into the contract.
d)
This is not a case of misrepresentation because the investor should have verified the profit figures
independently.
Passage – 5
On August 11, the Supreme Court of India held that daughters, like sons, have an equal right to inherit
ancestral property. The legislation that conferred coparcenary status on women dates back to 2005,
when the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 was amended. The verdict answers the question whether the
coparcenary right of daughters comes into effect only if the father - through whom the right is claimed
- was alive on the day the amendment came into force. The top court ruled that a daughter's right
flows from her birth and not by any other factor. A Hindu joint family consists of lineal descendants of a
common ancestor. In other words, a male head and his descendants, including their wives and
unmarried daughters. A coparcenary is a smaller unit of the family that jointly owns property. A
coparcenary consists of a 'propositus', that is, a person at the top of a line of descent, and his three
lineal descendants - sons, grandsons and great-grandsons. Coparcenary property is named thus
because the co-ownership is marked by "unity of possession, title and interest" The English term itself
is borrowed from common law, but the concept is found in Hindu law. In the Mitakshara school, which
prevails in most parts of India, a male's right to be a coparcener is by birth. But if a newborn male is
the fifth lineal descendant - that is a great-greatgrandson, while the common ancestor, his son,
grandson and great-grandson are alive - the right to be included in the coparcenary will ripen only
when the common ancestor dies. In other words, a coparcenary has succession up to four degrees of
lineal descent. It is believed that this is based on the Hindu tenet that only males up to three degrees
can offer spiritual ministry to ancestors. And only males can be coparceners. In Mitakshara law, on the
death of a coparcener, his interest became merged with that of the surviving coparceners. Sons
inherited property only by virtue of being or becoming coparceners. When the Hindu Succession Act,
1956, was enacted, this position was largely preserved by Section 6. It said that when a male Hindu
died after the Act came into force, his interest in a Mitakshara coparcenary shall go to the surviving
members of the coparcenary and not in accordance with the Act. However, a proviso was added to
preserve the interest of female children. It said if the deceased left behind a Class I female relative
(daughter, widow or mother, etc.) or a male relative claiming through such female kin, his interest
would go to them by testamentary (by will) or intestate (without a will) succession, and not by
survivorship. This meant that even the codified law did not address the conventional discrimination
against women.
Although by separate colonial-era laws, some limited rights of inheritance were conferred on
daughters (in respect of intestate, non-coparcenary property in the Hindu Law of Inheritance
(Amendment) Act, 1929) and widows (whose right to succeed to husband's property was equated to
that of the son in the Hindu Women's Rights to Property Act, 1937), women were denied coparcenary
status. These laws were repealed by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
Hindu Succession (amendment act) 2005- In its statement of objects and reasons for the amendment,
the Union government said the recognition given in the 1956 Act to the rule of devolution by
survivorship and its retention of the Mitakshara coparcenary property without including women in it
meant that women could not inherit ancestral property in the same way as men. It said: "The law by
excluding the daughter from participating in the coparcenary ownership not only contributes to her
discrimination on the ground of gender but also has led to oppression and negation of her
fundamental right of equality guaranteed by the Constitution...." Therefore, it amended Section 6 to
remove the discrimination and confer equal rights on daughters too. It declared that a coparcener's
daughter would become a coparcener in her own right by birth, in the same manner as a son; and
would have the same rights that she would have, had she been a son. The amendment came into
force on September 9, 2005, but it contained a proviso that it would not invalidate any disposition of
property by partition or will that had taken place prior to December 20, 2004 - the day the amendment
was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Q 76. 11951465 A, a 2nd generation coparcener had one son and two daughters. After the Hindu
succession (amendment) act 2005, which of A's children will come under the degree of coparcenary?
a) The son of A will come under the degree of coparcenary.
b) The son and eldest daughter of A will come under the degree of coparcenary.
c) The son and the two daughters of A will come under the degree of coparcenary.
d) The eldest daughter of A will come under the degree of coparcenary.
Q 77. 11951465 S, was born to H who was a 4th generation coparcener of a joint Hindu family. Is S
included within the limit of coparcenary? If not, how can he become a coparcener?
a) S is already included within the limit of coparcenary. Limit extends up to the 5th generation.
b)
S is not included in the limit of coparcenary. He shall become a coparcener after the death of the
eldest surviving coparcener.
c)
S is not included in the limit of coparcenary. He shall come under the degree of coparcener as soon
as the family asks for the permission to include him with the local magistrate.
d) S is not included in the limit of coparcenary. He shall be added only after the death of his father.
Q 78. 11951465 A is a member of a joint family coparcenary. One day A decides to sell certain
property that came under coparcenary shares. Other members were outraged by this and claimed A
could not sell the coparcenary shares. A claimed he has full interest in the property and can do as he
wishes. Decide.
a) A can sell the coparcenary property upon which he has specific interest.
b) A cannot sell the coparcenary shares as it has 'joint and equal interest' of all the coparceners.
c) A cannot sell the coparcenary shares without taking a permission of his wife and children.
d)
A can sell the coparcenary shares but has to write an application to the district magistrate regarding
his wish.
Q 79. 11951465 Which act was amended in order to give rights for daughters to become
coparceners?
a) Hindu succession act 1956, Section 7 b) Hindu succession act 1957, Section 6
c) Hindu succession act 1956, Section 6 d) Hindu succession act 1957, Section 7
Q 80. 11951465 Which of the following statements is false with respect to the above given passage?
a)
In Mitakshara law, on the death of a coparcener, his interest became merged with that of the surviving
coparceners.
b) 'Unity of possession title and interest' is a main feature of coparcenary.
c)
The major reason for introduction of Hindu succession (amendment) act 2005 was to stop
discrimination against women.
d) The Hindu succession (amendment) act 2005 came into force on September 10, 2005.
Passage – 6
The Indian laws prohibit slavery and any act which harms the dignity and freedom of a person. Yet
there are people who still view themselves as superior to others. As a result, many people are forced
to do work against their will at cheap rates and millions of women and children become victims of
human trafficking. In 2016, there were 18.3 million people in modern slavery in India according to the
Global Slavery Index. The 2018 Global slavery survey report stated that there has been a further
addition of forced sexual exploitation and child labour in the country.
The Right against exploitation enshrined in Article 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution guarantees
human dignity and protects people from any such exploitation. Thus, upholding the principles of
human dignity and liberty upon which the Indian Constitution is based.
Clause 1 of Article 23 prohibits the trafficking of human beings, begar any similar form of forced
labour. It also states that any contravention of this provision is punishable by the law. It explicitly
prohibits:
• Human Trafficking: This refers to the sale and purchase of human beings mostly for the purpose of
sexual slavery, forced prostitution or forced labour.
• Begar: This is a form of forced labour which refers to forcing a person to work for no remuneration.
• Other forms of forced labour: This includes other forms of forced labour in which the person works
for a wage less than the minimum wage. This includes bonded labour wherein a person is forced to
work to pay off his debt for inadequate remuneration, prison labour wherein prisoners sent in for
rigorous imprisonment are forced to work without even minimum remuneration etc.
Hence, Article 23 has a very wide scope by ensuring that a person is not forced to do anything
involuntarily. For instance, Article 23 forbids a land-owner to force a landless, poor labourer to render
free services. It also forbids forcing a woman or child into prostitution. The Supreme court has held
that article 23 includes physical force, legal force and other economic factors which force a person to
provide labour at a wage less than the minimum wage. Hence, if a person is forced to provide labour
for less than the minimum wage, just because of poverty, want, destitution or hunger, it would be
accounted for as forced labour.
Article 23, clause 2 of the Constitution states that this article does not prevent the state from imposing
compulsory services for public purposes. It also states that while doing this, the state must not make
any discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, class or any of them. Hence, though article 23
disallows any form of forced labour, it permits the state to engage in conscription (impose compulsory
services upon people for public purposes). However, while imposing services upon people for state
services the state must take care to not discriminate on grounds of religion, race, caste or class.
Child labour is an inhumane practice which takes away the opportunity of having a normal childhood
from the children. It hampers their growth and mental wellbeing of children. It also disables them from
having a normal fun-filled childhood. Article 39 of the Constitution states that it is the duty of the state
to ensure that the tender age of children is not abused and that they are not forced by economic
necessity to enter into fields of work where they are forced to provide labour which is unsuitable to
their age and strength. Article 24 states that any child under the age of fourteen years cannot be
employed as a worker in any factory or be engaged in any other hazardous employment. Hence it
prohibits the employment of children under the age of 14 years in dangerous or unhealthy conditions
which could harm their mental and physical strength.
Q 81. 11951465 In village of A there were two zamindars who were responsible for the salary of daily
wage workers. The two zamindars decided to pay a 100 rupee less than the minimum wage as they
felt that the work done by labourers was not satisfactory. The labourers had no other option due to the
monopoly of the Zamindars. Is it violative of fundamental rights?
a)
It is not violative of fundamental rights, as the labourers are free to leave the job and join somewhere
else.
b)
It is violative of fundamental rights under article 23 of the constitution as the labourers are forced to
work for less than minimum wage.
c)
It is not violative of article 23 as the Zamindars have the authority to decide whether the work of
labourers is satisfactory or not.
d) It is violative of article 25 under the constitution of India.
Q 82. 11951465 There was an extraordinary earthquake followed by a tsunami in the state of TYE.
The government was working round the clock to rescue people. The government enlisted all the
physically fit and healthy people to work as volunteers. One A alleged that it was against his
fundamental rights under article 23 of the constitution. Decide.
a) It is against the fundamental right under article 23 as A has been enlisted against his freewill.
b) It is against fundamental rights, but it is for the welfare of humanity.
c) It is not against the fundamental rights and is in accordance with article 23(2) of the constitution.
d) It is violative of basic human rights and nothing but a forced conscription.
Q 83. 11951465 S a child aged 13 years was employed in a chemical factory which worked with toxic
and dangerous substances. Is it against the principles of the constitution?
a) Yes, it is violative article 24 of the constitution, as S is below the age of 14 years.
b) No, it is not violative of article 23 of the constitution as S is of 13 years.
c) Yes, it is against the fundamental duties that are enshrined in the constitution.
d) No, it is not violative of article 24 of the constitution as S is working under his freewill and consent.
Q 84. 11951465 Which of the statements is false in light of the above given passage?
a)
Article 39 of the Constitution states that it is the duty of the state to ensure that the tender age of
children is not abused and that they are not forced by economic necessity to enter into fields of work
where they are forced to provide labour which is unsuitable to their age and strength.
b)
In 2016, there were 18.3 million people in modern slavery in India according to the Global Slavery
Index.
c)
Article 23 has a very narrow scope by ensuring that a person is not forced to do anything involuntarily.
d) Article 23 forbids a land-owner to force a landless, poor labourer to render free services.
Q 85. 11951465 After many years of hard work and patience, Ms. Lakshmi has managed to set up a
successful handloom enterprise in her village. However, one of the large corporates in the country,
seeing the success of her business, offers her a deal. They promise to provide her with a large sum of
money and other resources to scale her enterprise, but only if she would agree to their condition that
she must employ children in her factory, who would be paid less than the minimum wage. Conflicted
about the proposition, she decides to seek legal advice. Which of the following best represents the
advice she should be given, in accordance with Article 23 of the Indian Constitution?
a)
She should accept the offer as it will help her expand her business, which will eventually benefit the
community as a whole.
b)
She should decline the offer because the use of child labor and payment of less than the minimum
wage is in violation of Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.
c)
She should accept the offer, but ensure that the children are provided with proper education and
healthcare, to compensate for the low wages.
d)
She should negotiate with the corporate for better working conditions for the children, but accept the
use of child labor as a necessary evil for business expansion.
Q 86. 11951465 Maria, a resident of a small town, was offered a job in the city by Mr. X. Eager to help
her family financially, Maria accepted the offer. However, upon arriving in the city, she was forced into
sex work. Mr. X threatened to harm her family if she tried to escape or seek help from the authorities.
Which of the following is true about this scenario?
a) This scenario does not constitute human trafficking as Maria initially accepted the job offer willingly.
b) This scenario constitutes human trafficking as Maria was deceived for the purpose of exploitation.
c)
This scenario is not considered human trafficking because Maria has not been transported across
international borders.
d)
This scenario cannot be classified as human trafficking since Mr. X has not received any financial
benefit yet.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 87 to 110: Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
North Korea's test of a solid-fuel intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is just the latest incident at a
time of heightened nuclear risk across the globe, coming alongside Iran's near weapons-grade
uranium enrichment and Russia's plans to station nuclear weapons in Belarus.
The US has also announced plans to deploy nuclear-armed submarines in the Pacific after requests
for security assurances from the Republic of Korea which is increasingly concerned about the threat
from North Korea. This announcement comes just weeks after Russia announced the deployment of
its own nuclear-armed submarines in the Pacific.
Such an alarming uptick in nuclear-related activities highlights the increasing salience of nuclear
weapons in global politics and the problems in nuclear diplomacy, but the multilateral toolkit can still
provide effective responses.
Putin's announcement of the suspension of Russia's participation in New START marked a hiatus in
strategic arms control between the US and Russia, but international nuclear relations have gradually
deteriorated over several years as tensions between nuclear-armed states escalated and various
nuclear arms control agreements have been breached or abandoned.
The Treaty for Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT) to eventual multilateral nuclear
disarmament, a strong norm of maintaining the ban on testing nuclear weapons, and the principle of
nuclear non-proliferation. But the NPT is under threat as the international political environment
becomes more contested.
The 2015 and 2022 review conferences ended without a consensus document, with Russia walking
away from the document at the last minute in 2022. The number of topics on which states diverge
strongly has increased over time, making progress on the treaty objectives more challenging.
A growing number of states appear unwilling to play by the existing rules. North Korea, Iran, and
Russia are defecting from the values of international cooperation and the rule of international law,
creating paralysis in the multilateral system - particularly in the UN Security Council (UNSc).
In response to such alarming developments, the US has promoted transparency and reduced the
chances of misperception by continuing to share New Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (New START)
movement notifications despite the Russian decision to stop sharing all notifications stipulated by the
Treaty except for ballistic missile launches.
Q 87. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument of the author?
a)
The multilateral responses to nuclear-related issues have been largely ineffective in the past, and
therefore it is unlikely that they will be effective in the future.
b)
The provisions mentioned in the NPT ensure the member states have access to peaceful civilian
nuclear research and development, even to North Korea.
c)
The recent spike in nuclear activities by the rogue nations is in response to the increased levels of the
perceived threats.
d) None of the above
Q 88. 11951465 Which of the following could be the possible assumption in the passage?
a)
But for the United States, nuclear politics remains without a powerful and vocal voice that can lead the
international community.
b)
The United States is an important actor in global nuclear politics and its actions have a significant
impact on the international community.
c)
The United States is an ally in any nuclear proliferation propagated by rogue nations such as North
Korea.
d)
The role of North Korea in nuclear proliferation cannot be ignored and the United States and its allies
must play a proactive role in it.
Q 89. 11951465 Which of the following can be inferred?
a)
The passage suggests that multilateral frameworks are thriving, as states are actively promoting
international cooperation and upholding the rule of international law.
b)
The passage suggests that Nuclear diplomacy is facing challenges due to deteriorating. international
relations, breached agreements, and a lack of consensus in review conferences.
c)
The actions of North Korea, Iran, and Russia are representative of the majority of states in the
international community that are pursuing nuclear proliferation.
d)
The United States exclusively asserts a singular role of possessing the capability to lead the
international community to end nuclear proliferation.
Q 90. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, strengthens the ideas expressed in the passage?
a)
There is a need for a proactive and transparent approach to nuclear politics that can help mitigate
misperceptions and promote trust among nations.
b)
The international community is unified in its support of North Korea's nuclear program and considers it
a legitimate defence strategy.
c)
Nuclear weapons proliferation is an inevitable and acceptable outcome in the current global political
landscape.
d)
The United States has successfully resolved all nuclear conflicts through unilateral actions without the
need for multilateral cooperation or diplomatic negotiations.
follow.
Passage – 2
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) seems to have been overzealous in registering a case
against environmental lawyer Ritwick Dutta and his organisation, Legal Initiative for Forest and
Environment, for violating Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRa) provisions. The gist of the
allegations is their using foreign funds to encourage litigation that will stall existing and prospective
coal-fired plants in India. While sourcing foreign funds and use is certainly something to keep an eye
on, any criminalising of the act of opposition to coal plants, when pursued via legal means, is an
absurd stance for a government to adopt. As a signatory to the UN Framework Convention on Climate
Change and various key agreements, India has undertaken to gradually reduce its reliance on fossil
fuel sources and be 'net zero', or source almost all power from non-fossil fuel sources by 2070. India
has also consistently endorsed reports by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCc) that
speak of the urgency of ensuring global temperatures do not exceed 1.5°C of pre-industrial times,
necessitating that global net anthropogenic CO2 emissions decline by about 45% from 2010 levels by
2030. However, under principles of 'Common and Differentiated Responsibility', India has maintained
its right to rely on coal plants in the interim as it is still a developing economy. The true cost of
renewable sources (solar, wind and nuclear) remains much more than that of fossil-fuel power. The
industrialized West, while slowing its fossil fuel consumption, continues to be reliant on natural gas
and keeps falling short of its commitments to transfer technology and finance to developing countries
to accelerate clean energy adoption. Thus, coal is a necessary evil, but still evil, and seeing it any
other way belies scientific evidence.
India has 28.5 GW of coal power capacity planned and 32 GW of plants are under construction. The
commissioning of many has been delayed due to insufficient environment clearances, land
acquisition, and redevelopment and rehabilitation-related problems. These, however, follow from
rulings by the National Green Tribunal or from a lack of adherence to norms prescribed mainly under
provisions of the Environment Protection and related legislation. Funding for new coal plants is
increasingly difficult with multilateral funding agencies refusing to fund such plants. Many coal plants
run inefficiently and rely on lenient environmental curbs as they are critical to India's power needs.
Using legal remedies to limit the industrial exploitation of nature and ensuring just compensation is at
the core of a civilised democracy; and efforts at undermining such fundamental compact bodes ill for
India.
Q 91. 11951465 If it is true that renewable resources of energy are more efficient than fossil fuels,
which of the following, if true, would strengthen the above claim-
a) The true cost of renewable energy is way higher than that of fossil fuels.
b) The yield per unit of fuel is higher for renewable resources than fossil fuels.
c) The dangers to the environment from using renewable resources are minimum.
d) The subsidies for using renewable resources would offset any cost implications.
Q 92. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, could help offset the high 'true cost' of using
renewable resources of energy?
a)
Increased deployment of renewable energy technologies through improved manufacturing processes
and bulk purchasing.
b) Implementing additional taxes specifically targeting renewable energy-based power production.
c)
Providing subsidies to fossil fuel-based power production to help them implement clean technologies.
d)
Limiting investment in renewable resources of energy and channelling it to fossil fuel-based power
production.
Q 93. 11951465 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a)
Criminalizing the act of opposing coal plants through legal means is an unreasonable stance for the
government to adopt.
b)
It is important to deter individuals and organizations from using foreign funds to obstruct critical
infrastructure projects that contribute to the country's energy security.
c)
Investing in clean coal technologies can mitigate the negative impacts and contribute to a more
sustainable energy future.
d)
Legal remedies should not be used to restrict industrial development and hinder economic progress.
Q 94. 11951465 Which of the following inferences are correct?
a)
In order to maintain transparency, the author supports the influx of foreign funds in environmental
litigation.
b)
The author implicitly supports the idea of increased investments in clean coal technologies to offset
coal-based production.
c)
Certain coal plants in India operate inefficiently and rely on lenient environmental regulations to meet
power demands.
d)
The author highlights, with no doubt, the significance of utilizing legal remedies to restrict industrial
exploitation of nature and ensure just compensation.
follow.
Passage – 3
"The Signora had no business to do it," said Miss Bartlett, "no business at all. She promised us south
rooms with a view close together, instead of which here are north rooms, looking into a courtyard, and
a long way apart. Oh, Lucy!"
"And a Cockney, besides!" said Lucy, who had been further saddened by the Signora's unexpected
accent. "It might be London." She looked at the two rows of English people who were sitting at the
table; at the row of white bottles of water and red bottles of wine that ran between the English people;
at the portraits of the late Queen and the late Poet Laureate that hung behind the English people,
heavily framed; at the notice of the English church (Rev. Cuthbert Eager, M. A. Oxon.), that was the
only other decoration of the wall. "Charlotte, don't you feel, too, that we might be in London? I can
hardly believe that all kinds of other things are just outside. I suppose it is one's being so tired."
"This meat has surely been used for soup," said Miss Bartlett, laying down her fork.
"I want so to see the Arno. The rooms the Signora promised us in her letter would have looked over
the Arno. The Signora had no business to do it at all. Oh, it is a shame!"
"Any nook does for me," Miss Bartlett continued; "but it does seem hard that you shouldn't have a
view."
Lucy felt that she had been selfish. "Charlotte, you mustn't spoil me: of course, you must look over the
Arno, too. I meant that. The first vacant room in the front-" "You must have it," said Miss Bartlett, part
of whose travelling expenses were paid by Lucy's mother-a piece of generosity to which she made
many a tactful allusion.
"No, no. You must have it."
"I insist on it. Your mother would never forgive me, Lucy."
"She would never forgive me."
The ladies' voices grew animated, and-if the sad truth be owned-a little peevish. They were tired, and
under the guise of unselfishness they wrangled. Some of their neighbours interchanged glances, and
one of them-one of the ill-bred people whom one does meet abroad-leant forward over the table and
actually intruded into their argument. He said:
"I have a view, I have a view."
Miss Bartlett was startled. Generally at a pension people looked them over for a day or two before
speaking, and often did not find out that they would "do" till they had gone. She knew that the intruder
was ill-bred, even before she glanced at him.
Q 95. 11951465 Which of the following can be assumed based on the passage?
a) Miss Bartlett is an assertive lady and believes in convincing others to comply with her desires.
b) Miss Bartlett and Lucy maintain a strained relationship because of their differences.
c) Miss Bartlett and Lucy are quick to judge the nature of events and the character of people.
d) Miss Bartlett and Lucy have a shallow view of others.
Q 96. 11951465 Based on the passage, which of the following can be concluded with certainty?
1. Miss Bartlett and Lucy are not in agreement with each other about the allotted room.
2. Miss Bartlett and Lucy are exhausted, and hence exasperated with the situation.
3. Miss Bartlett and Lucy engage in a polite argument but prioritize each other's needs.
4. Miss Bartlett is a perceptive lady, who can pick up cues to gauge people and situations.
a) 2 & 3 b) Only 2 c) Only 3 d) 2,3, & 4
Q 97. 11951465 What could be inferred about the intentions of the ill-mannered intruder?
a) That he wanted to strike up a conversation with them.
b) That his intrusion was disruptive to their conversation.
c) That he wanted to add a humorous element to the otherwise sullen conversation.
d) That he wanted to tease them about their predicament.
Q 98. 11951465 Which of the following, can strengthen Miss Bartlett's opinion about the intruder
being ill-bred?
a) That he decided to say something without an invitation to do so.
b) That she was a sensitive lady and understands the social classes.
c) It's the fact that only ill-bred people eavesdrop on other people's conversation.
d) That Lucy also feels exactly the same way about the intruder.
follow.
Passage – 4
Mathematics is one of the common subjects that we study since our childhood. It is generally used in
our daily life. Every person needs to learn some basics of it. Even counting money also includes math.
Every work is linked with math in some way or the other. A person who does math is called a
Mathematician.
Mathematics can be divided into two parts. The first is Pure mathematics, and the second is Applied
mathematics. In Pure mathematics, we need to study the basic concept and structures of
mathematics. But, on the other side, applied mathematics involves the application of mathematics to
solve problems that arise in various areas, (e.g.), science, engineering, and so on.
One couldn't imagine the world without math. Math makes our life systematic, and every invention
involves math. No matter what action a person is doing, he should know some basic maths. Every
profession involves maths. Our present-day world runs on computers, and even computer runs with
the help of maths. Every development that happens requires math.
Mathematics has a wide range of applications in our daily life. Maths generally deals with numbers.
There are various topics in math, such as trigonometry; integration; differentiation, etc. All the subjects
such as physics; chemistry; economy; commerce involve maths in some way or the other. Math is also
used to find the relation between two numbers, and math is considered to be one of the most
challenging subjects to learn. Math includes various numbers, and many symbols are used to show
the relation between two different numbers.
Math is complicated to learn, and one needs to focus and concentrate more. Math is logical
sometimes, and the logic needs to be derived out. Maths make our life easier and more
straightforward. Math is considered to be challenging because it consists of many formulas that have
to be learned, and many symbols and each symbol generally has its significance.
Q 99. 11951465 Which of the following is the author trying to imply in the passage?
a)
The author addresses how mathematical concepts and teaching methods can be influenced by
cultural factors.
b) Mathematics is indissolubly linked to the march of technological progress in various walks of life.
c)
The author downplays the value of other forms of intelligence not directly related to mathematical
proficiency.
d)
The author talks about disciplines and professions that may rely less on advanced. mathematical
concepts, such as art.
Q 100. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, challenges the author's argument in the passage?
a)
The existential abstractions of mathematics exist in an epistemological void, rendering its practical
applications inconsequential in the multifarious tapestry of human endeavours.
b)
The study of mathematics is a futile endeavour, as it does not contribute to personal growth or societal
progress in any significant way.
c)
Mathematics is an outdated discipline that has little relevance in the contemporary world, and its study
is a waste of time and resources.
d)
There are individuals who have attained considerable accomplishments and made noteworthy
contributions without possessing advanced mathematical knowledge or skills.
Q 101. 11951465 Which of the following could be an assumption can we can draw based on the
passage, EXCEPT-
a)
Mathematics has a wide range of applications in various subjects such as physics, chemistry,
economy, and commerce.
b) Mathematics is a common subject studied by individuals since childhood and has similar concepts.
c)
Mathematics is the only discipline involved in the development of inventions or progress in various
fields.
d)
Users universally acknowledged that mathematics is challenging and requires focus and
concentration to learn.
Q 102. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, would substantiate the author's argument?
a)
Mathematics is universally ingrained in the pedagogical fabric, permeating educational systems
across the globe from the nascent stages of learning, thus attesting to its ubiquitous recognition and
indispensable standing as a foundational discipline.
b)
Mathematics is globally entrenched in the pedagogical fabric, seeping into educational systems
throughout the world since the germinal stages of learning, thus attesting to its all-encompassing
recognition and inescapable standing as a foundational discipline.
c)
Mathematics with its inherent rigidity, provides an all-encompassing recognition and inescapable
standing as a foundational discipline, which can help the students to develop and enhance their
critical thinking skills.
d)
Mathematics is a global language of reason, seeping into educational systems throughout the world,
with a wide impact on various inter-disciplinary subjects that form the core of education fundamentals.
follow.
Passage – 5
The mother could not answer immediately, but when her daughter persisted, she said, "This is for
senior students." But the child could not be cajoled. Later, the mother explained to her, "You have to
pass the first class and then the second and so on and reach Class 10, then you will understand what
'v = u + at' means." The child was not satisfied and wanted to argue. However, when she saw her
mother's stern face, she kept quiet. Why was a child not satisfied? That's because neither was, she
allowed to win the argument nor did she receive an answer from her mother as per her expectations.
As a child, she was supposed to accept what her mother was saying, because she loved her mother
and knew that her mother loved her too. Likewise, her mother adored her daughter but was quite fed
up with persistent questioning, which she probably thought was an irrelevant question.
So, for an instant love vanished and something else took over, which was alien to both. None of them
realised this change in them. We often come across such instances in our daily lives when love,
caring and affection take a backseat and we are driven by some other force, which is satisfied only
when it gets what we want, to win, irrespective of what is lost in the broader aspect.
Our scriptures say that besides the five elements - air, water, earth, space, and fire - we also have
three more, namely, the mind, intelligence and ego. Though we all have considerable experience of
the first seven elements, 'ego' is an element we are usually unable to relate with. Where is this ego
located? What does it do?
Ego is something that makes us selfish, something that makes us want to win by all means,
irrespective of the havoc that our win might create. We are often told, remove this ego, become
egoless. But, how to remove this ego? As per our scriptures, we cannot remove the ego because it is
part of our subtle body which consists of three elements - mind, intelligence and ego. Removal of ego
means removal of the subtle body; removal of the subtle body will lead to death.
We all know how much destruction and tension this ego, also known as false ego, can cause.
Scriptures say that since it is impossible to remove it, the best way is to convert this ego into positive
ego. Instead of relating yourself with the material world, begin to relate yourself with the ever-blissful
Supreme Lord, then you will begin to understand everything. Like that girl who will understand the
equation 'v = u + at' when she reaches Class X, we too can understand the benefits of converting
false ego into positive ego when we become learned in scriptural science. Would you like to try?
Q 103. 11951465 What can be concluded regarding the cause of the child's dissatisfaction?
a) It stemmed from her mother's inability to win the argument.
b) It stemmed from her own inability to provide a satisfactory answer.
c) It stemmed from her mother's insistence to win the argument.
d) It stemmed from her inability to win the argument with her mother.
Q 104. 11951465 What can be assumed from the fact that the girl asked her mother a question?
a) That her mother might not be able to answer the question.
b) That her mother might be able to answer the question.
c) That she can disprove the fact that her mother knew everything.
d) That she was ready to understand the concepts beyond her present knowledge.
Q 105. 11951465 Which of the following, if true, would undermine the argument of the author?
a)
There are rare alternative methodologies that could lead to transformation in humans; however, the
efficacy and consistency of the results produced by these methods are suspect.
b)
Ego, both positive and negative, is detrimental to a homogeneous and symbiotic existence of humans
with one another and with the self-sustaining universe around us.
c)
It is an inconsistent view of transforming the true nature of ego, as it leads to alteration in the human
character and interaction with one another and the universe.
d)
Transforming ego through spirituality may neglect ethics and others' well-being, emphasizing a lack of
focus on empathy and compassion for others alongside personal growth.
Q 106. 11951465 Which of the following accurately captures the summary of the passage?
a)
The passage delves into a child's sporadic questioning, the influence of ego, and the inconsequential
benefits of shifting focus to the Supreme Lord.
b)
The passage explores a child's persistent questioning, the impact of ego, and the transformative
power of shifting focus to the Supreme Lord.
c)
The passage briefly mentions a child's occasional curiosity, the negligible relevance of ego, and the
limited transformative power of shifting focus to the Supreme Lord.
d)
The passage superficially examines a child's questioning, the negligible impact of ego, and the limited
potential of redirecting focus to the Supreme Lord.
follow.
Passage – 6
Due to the high number of college graduates, business careers are very competitive. In the ruthless
corporate world, one needs skills and experience to succeed. More graduates than ever need formal
training to get work experience. Internships let students apply classroom concepts to real-world
situations, boosting professional and personal growth. Thus, students globally require internships for
several reasons.
Internships usually improve student skills and marketability (Maio, 2018). Many companies are
seeking skilled personnel with technical expertise. Thus, interning gives students real-world
experience. Internships also teach soft skills, which may be more valuable than technical skills. Soft
skills like problem-solving, communication, and leadership are more useful than experience.
Leadership and job require these soft skills. Soft skill experience may provide students an edge in real
life.
Internships offer networking opportunities (Maio, 2018). Internships allow students to network with
specialists, increasing their chances of finding jobs at several companies. Interns can also support
one other by networking with professionals who share their interests. Internships allow these through
networking. Internships are essential for career networking. Internships also boost résumés. Most
firms want graduates with some work experience. A graduate with experience increases your chances
of getting a job. Internships improve networking and resumes.
Most graduates start their careers on probation or contracts until they prove their worth. Internships,
on the other hand, give students business training and are more likely to lead to full-time, permanent
jobs that pay more than contract labour (Dreamcat Team, 2018). Internships provide experience, thus
only graduates may benefit. Internships teach students office jargon and small talk, making it easier to
adjust to a new workplace (Dreamcat Team, 2018). Thus, a person's confidence rises, allowing them
to give their all and flourish.
Finally, internships let one identify technical preferences and dislikes (Cosentino, 2016). If a student
hates their internship, it might be disastrous. Thus, students can choose their preferred and
unfavourable careers. Internships also offer learning opportunities. Experts offer career guidance.
Q 107. 11951465 Which of the following best captures the summary of the passage?
a)
Internships offer students valuable real-world experience and networking opportunities, enhancing
their skills and increasing job prospects.
b)
Graduates need internships to gain essential soft skills and technical expertise, improving their
chances of success in competitive business careers.
c)
The corporate world's competitiveness necessitates internships for graduates to develop skills,
network, and transition into full-time jobs with confidence.
d)
The passage discusses the importance of internships in providing graduates with real-world
experience, enhancing their soft skills, and enabling career preference exploration.
Q 108. 11951465 Which of the following inquiries, if true, can further strengthen the argument of the
author?
a)
Emphasize the importance of linking theory and practice by showing how internships provide
practical, hands-on experience that cannot be recreated in a classroom.
b)
Internships are not accessible to all college students due to various reasons such as geographic
limitations, limited availability of internship positions etc.
c)
internships are not the only way for students to gain practical experience or develop necessary skills,
which can be gained through alternative sources.
d)
Putting too much emphasis on internships and work experience could overshadow the value of
academic achievements.
Q 109. 11951465 According to the passage, why are internships considered essential for career
networking and job opportunities?
a)
Internships provide graduates with technical expertise and skills that are highly valued by companies.
b) Internships allow students to identify their preferred and unfavourable career options.
c) Internships offer students the opportunity to network with specialists and professionals in their field.
d) Internships offer learning opportunities and career guidance from experienced experts.
Q 110. 11951465 Which of the following is best in line with the argument presented in the passage?
I. Through internships, students gain exposure to diverse work environments and develop adaptability
skills that are essential in a dynamic and evolving professional landscape.
II. By interning in a particular field, students can develop a complete understanding of the industry's
trends, practices, and challenges.
III. By taking on real-world responsibilities, interns can discover their strengths, areas of improvement,
and potential career paths, which can lead to greater clarity and purpose in their professional journey.
a) Only I b) I & III c) Only III d) I, II, & III
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Three girls - J, K, and L - and five boys - M, N, R, P. and Q - from a sports club qualify for a swimming
competition. They compete under different categories on the basis of their weights. Each child has a
weight that is a distinct natural number. Just to have some fun, the students record their weights in
pairs, the girls make separate pairs and the boys make separate pairs among themselves.
The average weights of different pairs of girls was 40 kg, 44 kg, and 42 kg whereas the average
weights of different pairs of boys was 42 kg, 45 kg, 49 kg, 53 kg, 44 kg, 47 kg, 51 kg, 46 kg, 49 kg,
and 48 kg.
Q 111. 11951465 What is the ratio of the weights of the heaviest girl and the lightest girl respectively?
a) 23 : 21 b) 27 : 19 c) 29 : 23 d) 23 : 19
Q 112. 11951465 What is the average weight of all the 8 children?
a) 45.375 kg b) 46.625 kg c) 47.815 kg d) 44.45 kg
Q 113. 11951465 What is the weight of the boy who is heavier than exactly two other boys?
a) 48 kg b) 47 kg c) 50 kg d) 49 kg
Q 114. 11951465 Which of these could be the weights of the heaviest and second heaviest boys?
a) 52 kg and 56 kg b) 50 kg and 54 kg c) 51 kg and 55 kg d) 49 kg and 53 kg
Q 115. 11951465 How many boys are heavier than the heaviest girl?
a) One b) Two c) Three d)

Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Three companies - TechCore, InnovateX, and NexusSolutions - have been rapidly expanding their
workforce over the years.
TechCore: TechCore started with 100 employees five years ago. In the first year, they hired 50
employees, and in the subsequent years, the number of employees increased by 20%, 20%, 25%,
10% over the previous year respectively.
InnovateX : InnovateX began with 140 employees five years ago. They hired 20 employees in the
first year, and afterward, their number of employees increased by 5%, 25%, 20% and 25% over the
previous year respectively.
NexusSolutions : NexusSolutions had 160 employees five years ago. They hired 40 employees in
the first year and then afterward, their number of employees increased by 5%, 20%, 25% and 20%
over the previous year respectively.
Q 116. 11951465 How much employees did TechOre had by the end of 5th year?
a) 324 b) 297 c) 302 d) 283
Q 117. 11951465 Which company's employee's has increased by the highest percentage over the
five-year period?
a) TechOre b) InnovateX c) NexusSolutions d) Both (b) and (c)
Q 118. 11951465 How many times was the increase in number of employees exactly the same for
InnovateX and NexusSolutions between the same consecutive years?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q 119. 11951465 What is the ratio of the number of employees at InnovateX to the number of
employees at NexusSolutions after three years?
a) 4:5 b) 5:6 c) 6:7 d) 7:8
Q 120. 11951465 What is the average number of employees in these three companies after 4 years?
a) 280 b) 275 c) 283 d) 279

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Countdown Mock 10 (CLAT) 2024

gas emissions or enhancing carbon sinks.

a) Building resilient infrastructure that can withstand extreme weather events

b) Reducing greenhouse gas emissions by switching to renewable energy sources

d) Climate change affects every part of the world in a big way.

Q 4. 11951465 Which of the following is a difficulty that adaptation has to overcome?

a) Unavoidable b) Unpredictable c) Unbelievable d) Unacceptable

a) Dependency b) Compromise c) Exposure d) Damage

a) By doing the boring and simple tasks for them

b) By giving them access to a lot of information and resources

c) By making it easier for them to communicate and work together

d) By encouraging them to be more innovative and engaged

a) To encourage employees to work together b) To monitor employees' work progress

c) To assign employees to different teams d) To reward employees for their work

a) The lack of vocational education opportunities in the National Education Policy.

a) Opinion piece b) News article c) d) Personal blog post

Q 15. 11951465 All the following statements are 'truisms', except:

a) She received support from various political figures and organizations.

c) She was celebrated as a national hero for her activism.

a) She wanted to gain popularity and fame.

c) She wanted to challenge the criminal "justice" system in the UK.

d) She sought to improve her career opportunities in politics.

a) Joy and excitement due to media attention and public recognition.

b) Trauma, pain, and difficulties faced during the process.

c) Regret for engaging in political campaigns and lobbying efforts.

d) Indifference towards the impact of her activism on society.

Q 19. 11951465 What is the antonym of "beneficial"?

a) Advantageous b) Harmful c) Fruitful d) Rewarding

a) Comprehension b) Recollection c) Intelligence d) Memorization

a) Optimistic b) Concerned c) Indifferent d) Hostile

Q 23. 11951465 What is the primary focus of the passage?

a) The superior intelligence of human intellect over AI technologies.

d) The deceptive nature of AI technologies and their impact on education.

a) AI technologies were primarily developed for educational purposes.

b) The passage provides specific examples of AI technologies used in education.

d) The author discusses the history and timeline of AI development in education.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) A measure to increase the number of Supreme Court justices.

c) A measure to allow the Supreme Court to intervene in legislative matters.

a) b) Judicial review c) Reasonableness d)

a) To strengthen the power of unelected judges in the judicial system.

b) To ensure greater public accountability and transparency.

d) To restore power to elected representatives and reduce intervention by judges.

d) To introduce reforms in the functioning of the Supreme Court.

a) It violated the fundamental rights of judges. b)

a) It marks the spacecraft's exit from Earth's gravitational influence.

b) It initiates the spacecraft's journey towards a distant planet.

c) It confirms the spacecraft's successful landing on the lunar surface.

d) It places the spacecraft into an orbit around the Moon.

a) The spacecraft's communication systems and power generation.

b) The spacecraft's scientific instruments and data collection.

d) The spacecraft's solar panels and thermal control systems.

Q 33. 11951465 How did the Moon form?

a) It formed through volcanic activity on Earth's surface.

a) Roscosmos b) NASA c) ESA d) JAXA

a) To study the lunar north pole and its geological features.

b) To search for signs of extraterrestrial life on the Moon.