Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi: VTU-ETR Seat No.: A

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : A
Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) August 2023
Civil Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

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the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. What is the significance of research?

a) Gathering information b) Solving problems
c) Formulating theories d) Analyzing data
2. Which of the following best defines research?

a) Systematic investigation b) A random experiment
c) A personal opinion d) An intuitive guess
3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

a) Exploring new phenomena b) Developing new theories
c) Testing pre conceived notions d) Proving personal beliefs.
4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?

a) Methods are practical techniques, while methodology is the theoretical framework.
b) Methods focus on data analysis, while methodology focuses on data collection.
c) Methods are used in natural sciences, while methodology is used in social sciences.
d) Methods are objective, while methodology is subjective.
5. What are the criteria of good research?

a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability
b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity
d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness
6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

a) To validate the researcher’s hypothesis b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To find short cuts for conducting research d) To plagiarize ideas from previous studies.
7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

a) It provides a structure for organizing the literature review.
b) It establishes the research objectives and hypotheses.
c) It guides the data collection and analysis process.
d) It helps in selecting the appropriate research design.
8. What is the meaning of research design?

a) The overall plan for conducting a research study.
b) The specific research method used in data collection.
c) The Statistical analysis technique used in research.
d) The process of formulating research questions.
9. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?

a) Random sampling of participants b) Use of control groups
c) Longitudinal data collection d) Qualitative data.
Ver – A: CV 1 of 10
10. What is the need for research design?

a) It helps in determining the sample size
b) It ensures the accuracy of data analysis.
c) It provides a structure for conducting research
d) It minimizes the ethical concerns in research.
11. What is the difference between a sample survey and a census survey?
a) Sample survey includes the entire population, while census survey includes a subset.
b) Sample survey is conducted using questionnaires while census surveys use interviews.
c) Sample survey is less accurate than census survey.
d) Sample survey is more expensive than census survey.
12. What are the types of sampling designs?

a) Probability sampling and non probability sampling.
b) Cluster sampling and convenience sampling.
c) Snowball sampling and purposive sampling.
d) Quota sampling and stratified sampling.
13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

a) Normal Scale b) Ordinal scale c) Interval scale d) Hierarchical scale
14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

a) Systematic error and random error b) Measurement bias and sampling error
c) Observer bias and response bias d) Internal validity and external validity.
15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

a) To measure the central tendency of data
b) To determine the reliability of measurements
c) To assign numbers to represent characteristics
d) To calculate statistical significance.
16. What is the process of data preparation in research?

a) Collecting data from primary sources. b) Analyzing data using statistical software.
c) Cleaning and organizing data for analysis. d) Conducting data visualization techniques.
17. Which of the following is NOT a problem in the data preparation process?
a) Handling missing values b) Dealing with outliers
c) Ensuring data privacy d) Checking data accuracy.
18. What are the measures of central tendency?

a) Mean, Median and mode
b) Variance, standard deviation and range
c) Skewness, Kurtosis and correlation
d) Probability, confidence interval and hypothesis testing.
19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

a) The shape of the data distribution b) The spread or variability of the data
c) The central value of the data set d) The relationship between variables.
20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

a) To summarize and describe data b) To test hypotheses and make inferences
c) To establish causal relationships d) To predict future outcomes.
21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

a) Parameters describe populations, while statistics describe samples.
b) Parameters are qualitative, while statistics are quantitative.
c) Parameters are based on theory, while statistics are based on observation.
d) Parameters are mode reliable than statistics.
22. What is the central limit theorem?

a) It states that the sample mean approaches the population mean as the sample size increases.
b) It explains the relationship between the mean and standard deviation of a sample.
c) It ensures that the sampling distribution is normally distributed.
d) It allows for the estimation of population parameters based on sample statistics.
23. What is the standard error?

a) The standard deviation of the population.
b) The standard deviation of the sample.
c) The measure of sampling error.
d) The measure of non-sampling error.
24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

a) To adjust for sampling bias.
b) To account for non-response error.
c) To correct for measurement error.
d) To adjust the standard error for small populations.
25. What does statistical inference involve?

a) Making predictions about the future based on past data.
b) Estimating population parameters from sample statistics.
c) Analyzing the relationship between variables.
d) Describing and summarizing data.
26. If terms such as, ‘positive’, ‘negative’, ‘more than’, ‘less than’ etc are used to make a statement,
then such a hypothesis is called…..
a) Relational hypotheses b) Causal hypothesis
c) Research hypothesis d) Directional hypothesis.
27. The tests of significance or test statistic are classified into…..
a) Parametric test b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests d) None of these.
28. A two-tailed test rejects the null hypothesis if the sample mean is significantly____ than the
hypothesized value of the mean of the population.
a) Higher b) Lower c) Higher or lower d) None of these
29. _________ is a way to test for comparing two related samples, involving small values of ‘n’ that
does not require the variances of the two populations to be equal.
a) Z-test b) Paired t – test c) f-test d) None of these
30. As a test of independence, X2 test enables us to explain _______
a) Whether or not two attributes are associated b) The fit is considered to be a good one
c) Whether test is significant d) None of these
31. The ANOVA technique is important in the context of all those situations where all want to
compare ______
a) Two population b) More than two populations
c) Less than two populations d) Single population.
32. Analysis of variance in which only ______ is used to analyze the difference between more than
two population means is called one way anova.
a) Two criterion (variable)
b) One criterion (variable)
c) Both two criterion (variable) and one criterion (variable)
d) None of these.
33. The basic principle of ANOVA is to test for differences among the ______ by examining the
______ within each of these samples, relative to the amount of variation between the samples.
a) Means of the populations and amount of variation
b) Estimation of the population and amount of variation
c) Means of the samples and amount of variation
d) Samples and amount of variation.
34. While applying the ANOVA techniques, the influence the uncontrolled variable is usually
removed by _______
a) Multiple regression method b) Simple linear regression method
c) One way ANOVA d) All of these
35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

a) Various treatment groups are selected at random from the population.
b) The groups are homogeneous in variability.
c) The regression is linear and is from group to group.
d) All of these.
36. Regression analysis helps to determine ______ to measure the variability or spread of values of
a dependent variable with respect to the regression line.
a) Independent value b) Dependent value
c) Linear regression d) Standard error of estimate.
37. Regression models are used for several purposes, including the following_______
a) Data description
b) Parameter Estimation
c) Linear regression and standard error of estimate
d) All of these.
38. Factor analysis is by for the most often used _______ of research studies, specially pertaining to
social and behavioural sciences.
a) Multi functional technique b) Multi lateral technique
c) Multi linear d) Multivariate technique.
39. _______ , in the context of factor analysis, is something like staining a microscope slide.
a) Flipping b) Factoring
c) Rotation d) Synchronizing.
40. In _______, the correlations are computed between pairs of respondents instead of pairs of
variables.
a) Q-type factor analysis b) P-type factor analysis
c) R-type factor analysis d) S-type factor analysis.
41. If the outcome of an experiment is certain, that is the outcome is always the same, it is then a
______
a) Probabilistic Experiment b) Quasi Experiment
c) Deterministic Experiment d) Random Experiment.
42. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called
______
a) Joint Probability b) A marginal probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Unconditional Probability.
43. When the sample space S is countable, it is known as a ______
a) Discrete sample space b) Continuous sample space
c) Asynchronous sample space d) Synchronous sample space.
44. If two or more events cannot occur simultaneously in a single trail of an experiment, then such
events are called _______
a) Mutually exclusive events or disjoint events b) Collectively exhaustive events
c) Both A and B d) Joint events.
45. The _______ is that value that occurs most often or has the greatest probability of occurring.
a) Mean of a random variable b) Mode of a random variable
c) Median of a random variable d) None of these
46. Two events are mutually exclusive if the occurrence of one of them prevents or rules out the
occurrence of the other is called _______
a) Collectively exhaustive events b) Mutually exclusive events
c) Both A and B d) None of these.
47. Binomial probability distribution is a widely used probability distribution where ______
a) There are only two possible outcomes b) There exists discrete random variable
c) it’s a Bernoulli process d) All of these
48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

a) Normal distribution b) Binomial
c) Bernoulli Process d) Poisson
49. The Poisson process measures the number of occurrences of a particular outcome of a discrete
random variable in a predetermined _______
a) Time interval b) Space
c) Volume d) All of these
50 In the _______ process, the random variable values need counting. Such a count might be
number of telephone calls per hour coming into the switchboard, number of fatal traffic
accidents per week in a city/state etc. and so on.
a) Binomial distribution b) Normal distribution
c) Bayesian d) Poisson

PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
51. Bending moments at joint B and C of the portal frame respectively are
 PL  PL  PL  PL  PL  PL  PL  PL
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
2 2 2 2 4 4 4 4
52. The force in the member DE of the truss shown in figure is
a) 100kN b) Zero c) 35.5 d) 25kN
53. Identify the incorrect statement according to the hinged arches

a) Three hinged arch is statically determinate structure
b) For two hinged parabolic arch subjected to udl over entire span span, the bending moment
is zero throughout the span
c) To analyze three hinged arch, equilibrium equations are sufficient
d) For three hinged parabolic arch subjected to udl over the entire span, the bending moment
is constant throughout the span
54. Modulus of resilience is the ratio of

a) Resilience and unit area b) Proof resilience and unit volume
c) Minimum strain energy and unit volume d) Maximum stress energy and unit volume
55. Find the deflection of beam under the point load
Take : E = 210 × 106kN/m2
I1 = 160 × 10-6m4 I2 = 120 × 10-6 m4
a) 6.31mm b) 8.31mm c) 5.31mm d) 4.31mm

56. In a channel with circular cross section for maximum discharge hydraulic depth is
a) 2 RQ b) 2/3 R c) 2.69 rad d) none of the above
57. The maximum permissible suction lift for centrifugal pump is practice (at sea level and at 30ºC)
is
a) 12m b) 10m c) 6m d) 3m
58. The Froude number of flow in an open channel is more than 1, then the flow is said to be
a) Critical b) Shooting c) Streaming d) Transitional
59. The optimum efficiency of a lifting vane is limited by the

a) onset of stall b) Separation from the trailing edge
c) Separation from the leading edge d) More rapid increase of Cd than of CL
60. The viscosity of water as compared to that of air is about

a) 50 times b) 55 times c) 60 times d) 65 times
61. Flash set in OPC is due to

a) Tri-calcium aluminates b) Tetra calcium aluminoferrite
c) Absence of gypsum d) Di-calcium silicate
62. In cold weather countries cement preferred is

a) ordinary Portland cement b) Puzzolana cement
c) Calcium chloride cement d) Low heat cement
63. The behavior of cement concrete under instantaneous loads is

a) Elastic b) Plastic c) Visco - elastic d) Brittle
64. Re-tempering process is used in

a) Ready mix concrete b) Prolonged mixing
c) Pumped concrete d) Compaction of concrete
65. Stream curing is preferably used for

a) columns b) Beams
c) Mass concreting d) Mass production of precast units
66. The maximum shear stress q max in a rectangular beam is

a) 1.25 time the average b) 1.50 time the average
c) 1.75 time the average d) 2.0 time the average
67. The stress developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25cm width and 70cm
effective depth are 62.5Kg/cm2 and 250Kg/cm2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral
axis is
a) 20cm b) 25cm c) 30cm d) 35cm
68. The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area is
a) 0.10% b) 0.12% c) 0.15% d) 0.18%
69. If the effective length of a 32cm diameter RCC column is 4.40m, its slenderness ratio is
a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55
70. If the sides of slab simply supplied an edges and spanning in two directions are equal, the
maximum bending moment is multiplied by
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5
71. Match the following :

Mineral Particle thickness (mm)
1 Kaolinite [A] 0.005 – 0.05
2 Montmoriuonite [B] 0.05 – 0.1
3 Illite [C] 0.001 – 0.01
a) 1– B, 2 – C, 3 –A b) 1– B, 2 – A, 3 – C
c) 1– A, 2 – B, 3 – C d) 1– C, 2 – B, 3 – A
72. The soil used for conducting liquid limit test should be
a) Air dried, passing 425 m side b) Oven dried, passing 425 m side
c) Air dried, passing 75 m side d) Oven dried, passing 75 m side
73. Textural classification consists of triangular chart on which the % of the following are
represented on each side
a) clay, silt, graver b) silt, sand, graver c) clay, silt, sand d) clay, sand, graver
74. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?

i) Square root time fitting method is based on the relation Tg0 = 1.15 T60
ii) The logarithm of time fitting method is based on time factor corresponding to 50%
consolidation
iii) Time fitting methods are used to determine coefficient of consolidation
The correct answer is
a) i) only b) i) and ii) only c) ii) and iii) only d) i), ii) and iii)
75. The relationship between normal stress and shear stress in a soil mass is called
a) principal plane b) Failure plane c) Failure envelope d) Horizontal plane
76. Which of the following is taken into consideration while determining overtaking sight distance
in four lane highway?
a) Distance covered during reaction time
b) Distance covered during overtaking operation
c) Reaction distance + overtaking distance
d) Distance covered during reaction time + Distance during operation + distance covered by the
opposing traffic
77. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) First decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
d) First increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum values of optimum speed
78. The best binder material to be used with stone aggregate for patch repair work to patch pot holes
on wet pavements during the rainy season when traffic is also heavy, is
a) clay soil b) rapid curing cutback bitumen
c) hot bitumen d) bituminous emulsion
79. In a bituminous pavement, alligator cracking is mainly due to

a) in adequate wearing course
b) in adequate thickness of sub-base course of pavement
c) Use of excessive bituminous material
d) Fatigue arising from repeated stress applications
80. Runway saturation is defined as

a) When runway loaded to full capacity
b) When runway tends to loading of partial capacity
c) Does not depend on loading capacity
d) None of the above
81. Irrigation water having SAR value 20 is called as

a) Very high sodium water b) high sodium water
c) medium sodium water d) Low sodium water
82. The Coefficient of roughness for an earthen canal in excellent condition is

a) 0.01 b) 0.0225 c) 0.025 d) 0.07
83. The silt transporting power of a canal according to kennedy theory is proportional to VK, where
K is
a) 0.55 b) 0.64 c) 1.5 d) 2.5
84 Furrow method of irrigation is most suitable for

a) potatoes b) Rice c) Wheat d) Cotton
85. Barlow’s table are used to estimate

a) Rainfall intensity b)Run off c) infiltration d) floods
86. Slenderness ratio of the splices for compression member is

a) 0 b) 145 c) 180 d) 350
87. Shape factor of circular section is

a) 1.5 b) 1.7 c) 1.182 d) 1.2
88. The ratio of collapse load of propped cantilever of span l carrying udl throughout the span to
that of a simply supported beam carrying the same load is
a) 1.457 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 3
89. Web crippling occurs due to

a) column action of web b) failure of web under concentrated load
c) excessive bending moment d) secondary bending moment
90. Gantry girders are generally designed

a) as laterally supported beams
b) as laterally unsupported beams
c) for a combination of vertical loads and either of lateral and longitudinal force
d) both b and c
91. The suitable method for forecasting population for young and a rapidly developing city is
a) Arithmetic mean method b) Geometric mean method
c) Comparitative graphical method d) None of these
92. A water supply board is responsible for treating 1500m3/day of water the overflow rate of the
settling column is 20m/day. It is required to have two circular settling tanks. Find the diameter
of the settling tank.
a) 37.5 b) 9.77m c) 6.91m d) 13.82m
93. Chlorine is sometimes used in sewage treatment

a) To avoid flocculation b) To increase biological activity of bacteria
c) To avoid bulking of activated sludge d) To help in grease separation
94. The drop manholes are provided in sewage system. when there is
a) Change in alignment of sewer line
b) Change in size of sewers
c) Change in the elevation of ground level
d) Change from gravity system to pressure system.
95. Which of the following unit operations does not generate waste water
a) Brewing b) Fermentation c) Packing d) Malting
96. Which of the following is the quadrantal bearing corresponding to the whole circle bearing to
the whole circle bearing 170º12
a) 59º48W b) 59º48E c) N9º48E d) N9º48W
97. A modern surveying instrument which is a combination of an electronic theodolite and an

electronic distance meter (EDM) is
a) Hand level b) Distomat c) Total station d) Geodimeter
98. Which of the following instrument is used for setting out curves in angular method?
a) Distomat b) Theodolite c) Autolevel d) EDM
99. Which of the following is not a natural error in levelling

a) Error due to earths curvature b) Error due to sluggish bubble
c) Error due to atmospheric refraction d) Error due to settlement of tripod or turning prints.
100. If bearing of AB = 50º, bearing of BC = 310º then angle ABC (ABC) 

a) 100º b) 130º c) 80º d) 180º

VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Civil Engineering

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.


PART – I
[50 Marks]
______
______


Ver – B: CV 1 of 10
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
variables.




















a) Parametric test
b) Non parametric test
c) Both parametric and nonparametric tests
d) None of these.

PART – II
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
a) 37.5 b) 9.77m c) 6.91m d) 13.82m

a) 59º48W b) 59º48E c) N9º48E d) N9º48W


c) Error due to atmospheric refraction d) Error due to settlement of tripod or turning
prints.
a) 100º b) 130º c) 80º d) 180º

a) 0.01 b) 0.0225 c) 0.025 d) 0.07
63. The silt transporting power of a canal according to kennedy theory is proportional to V K,
where K is
a) 0.55 b) 0.64 c) 1.5 d) 2.5
64. Furrow method of irrigation is most suitable for



a) 0 b) 145 c) 180 d) 350

a) 1.5 b) 1.7 c) 1.182 d) 1.2
a) 1.457 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 3


d) both b and c





a) columns b) Beams

axis is
a) 20cm b) 25cm c) 30cm d) 35cm

a) 0.10% b) 0.12% c) 0.15% d) 0.18%
a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
2 2 2 2 4 4 4 4
a) 100kN b) Zero c) 35.5 d) 25kN

d) For three hinged parabolic arch subjected to udl over the entire span, the bending moment
is constant throughout the span



Take : E = 210 × 106kN/m2
I1 = 160 × 10-6m4
I2 = 120 × 10-6m4
a) 6.31mm b) 8.31mm c) 5.31mm d) 4.31mm
a) 2 RQ b) 2/3 R c) 2.69 rad d) none of the above
87. The maximum permissible suction lift for centrifugal pump is practice (at sea level and at
30ºC) is
a) 12m b) 10m c) 6m d) 3m



1 Kaolinite [A] 0.005 – 0.05
3 Illite [C] 0.001 – 0.01
a) 1– B, 2 – C, 3 –A b) 1– B, 2 – A, 3 – C
c) 1– A, 2 – B, 3 – C d) 1– C, 2 – B, 3 – A

a) clay, silt, graver b) silt, sand, graver c) clay, silt, sand d) clay, sand,
graver

(i) Square root time fitting method is based on the relation Tg0 = 1.15 T60
(ii) The logarithm of time fitting method is based on time factor corresponding to 50%
consolidation
(iii) Time fitting methods are used to determine coefficient of consolidation
d) Distance covered during reaction time + Distance during operation + distance covered by
the opposing traffic
a) Increases
b) Decreases
98. The best binder material to be used with stone aggregate for patch repair work to patch pot
holes on wet pavements during the rainy season when traffic is also heavy, is



VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Civil Engineering

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.


PART – I
[50 Marks]






Ver – C : CV 1 of 10
______
______
Ver – C: CV 2 of 10
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
variables.











a) Replicability, Objectivity and Reliability b) Creativity, Subjectivity and Originality
c) Simplicity, brevity, and clarity d) Validity, Complexity and comprehensiveness


PART – II
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]
1 Kaolinite [A] 0.005 – 0.05
3 Illite [C] 0.001 – 0.01
a) 1– B, 2 – C, 3 –A b) 1– B, 2 – A, 3 – C
c) 1– A, 2 – B, 3 – C d) 1– C, 2 – B, 3 – A
a) clay, silt, graver b) silt, sand, graver c) clay, silt, sand d) clay, sand, graver

consolidation
a) Increases
b) Decreases


a) 37.5 b) 9.77m c) 6.91m d) 13.82m

a) 59º48W b) 59º48E c) N9º48E d) N9º48W


prints.

a) 100º b) 130º c) 80º d) 180º

a) 0.01 b) 0.0225 c) 0.025 d) 0.07
where K is
a) 0.55 b) 0.64 c) 1.5 d) 2.5



a) 0 b) 145 c) 180 d) 350

a) 1.5 b) 1.7 c) 1.182 d) 1.2
a) 1.457 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 3

d) both b and c




a) columns b) Beams
axis is
a) 20cm b) 25cm c) 30cm d) 35cm
a) 0.10% b) 0.12% c) 0.15% d) 0.18%
a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
2 2 2 2 4 4 4 4
a) 100kN b) Zero c) 35.5 d) 25kN

d) For three hinged parabolic arch subjected to udl over the entire span, the bending moment is
constant throughout the span


Take : E = 210 × 106kN/m2
I1 = 160 × 10-6m4
I2 = 120 × 10-6m4
a) 6.31mm b) 8.31mm c) 5.31mm d) 4.31mm
a) 2 RQ b) 2/3 R c) 2.69 rad d) none of the
above
30ºC) is
a) 12m b) 10m c) 6m d) 3m



VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Civil Engineering

bubble only.
is prohibited.
evaluation process.


PART – I
[50 Marks]
compare ______
d) None of these.
removed by _______

d) All of these.
a) Data description
d) All of these.
Ver – D: CV 1 of 10
variables.







______
______

















PART – II
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]


a) 0.01 b) 0.0225 c) 0.025 d) 0.07
where K is
a) 0.55 b) 0.64 c) 1.5 d) 2.5



a) 0 b) 145 c) 180 d) 350

a) 1.5 b) 1.7 c) 1.182 d) 1.2
a) 1.457 b) 1.5 c) 2 d) 3


d) both b and c

a) , b) , c) , d) ,
2 2 2 2 4 4 4 4
a) 100kN b) Zero c) 35.5 d) 25kN

d) For three hinged parabolic arch subjected to udl over the entire span, the bending moment is
constant throughout the span


Take : E = 210 × 106kN/m2
I1 = 160 × 10-6m4 I2 = 120 × 10-6 m4
a) 6.31mm b) 8.31mm c) 5.31mm d) 4.31mm
a) 2 RQ b) 2/3 R c) 2.69 rad d) none of the
above

30ºC) is
a) 12m b) 10m c) 6m d) 3m


a) 37.5 b) 9.77m c) 6.91m d) 13.82m

a) 59º48W b) 59º48E c) N9º48E d) N9º48W


prints.

a) 100º b) 130º c) 80º d) 180º
1 Kaolinite [A] 0.005 – 0.05
3 Illite [C] 0.001 – 0.01
a) 1– B, 2 – C, 3 –A b) 1– B, 2 – A, 3 – C
c) 1– A, 2 – B, 3 – C d) 1– C, 2 – B, 3 – A
a) clay, silt, graver b) silt, sand, graver c) clay, silt, sand d) clay, sand,
graver

consolidation
a) Increases
b) Decreases







a) columns b) Beams

axis is
a) 20cm b) 25cm c) 30cm d) 35cm

a) 0.10% b) 0.12% c) 0.15% d) 0.18%
a) 40 b) 45 c) 50 d) 55
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

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1. What is the significance of research?

2. Which of the following best defines research?

3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of research?

4. What is the difference between research methods and research methodology?

5. What are the criteria of good research?

6. What is the purpose of reviewing the literature in research?

7. What is the role of a theoretical framework in research?

8. What is the meaning of research design?

9. Which of the following is an important principle of experimental designs?

10. What is the need for research design?

12. What are the types of sampling designs?

13. Which of the following is NOT a classification of measurement scales?

14. What are the sources of error in measurement?

15. What is the purpose of scaling in research?

16. What is the process of data preparation in research?

18. What are the measures of central tendency?

19. What do measures of dispersion indicate in research?

20. What is the purpose of descriptive statistics?

21. What is the difference between a parameter and a statistic?

22. What is the central limit theorem?

23. What is the standard error?

24. What is the purpose of finite population correction?

25. What does statistical inference involve?

35. What are the other assumptions in ANOVA ______

48. Mean  and standard deviation  are called parameters of ________

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52. The force in the member DE of the truss shown in figure is

a) 100kN b) Zero c) 35.5 d) 25kN

53. Identify the incorrect statement according to the hinged arches

54. Modulus of resilience is the ratio of

a) 6.31mm b) 8.31mm c) 5.31mm d) 4.31mm

59. The optimum efficiency of a lifting vane is limited by the

60. The viscosity of water as compared to that of air is about

61. Flash set in OPC is due to

62. In cold weather countries cement preferred is

63. The behavior of cement concrete under instantaneous loads is

64. Re-tempering process is used in

65. Stream curing is preferably used for

66. The maximum shear stress q max in a rectangular beam is

71. Match the following :

74. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true?

79. In a bituminous pavement, alligator cracking is mainly due to

80. Runway saturation is defined as

81. Irrigation water having SAR value 20 is called as

82. The Coefficient of roughness for an earthen canal in excellent condition is

84 Furrow method of irrigation is most suitable for

85. Barlow’s table are used to estimate

86. Slenderness ratio of the splices for compression member is

87. Shape factor of circular section is

89. Web crippling occurs due to

90. Gantry girders are generally designed