SEMI CONCTOR THEORY

Q1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.

1. Covalent
2. Electrovalent
3. Co-ordinate
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of
resistance.
1. Positive
2. Zero
3. Negative
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
1. Germanium
2. Silicon
3. Carbon
4. Sulphur
Answer : 2
Q4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence electrons.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4
Answer : 4
Q5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard conditions is
about ……….
1. 6 x 104
2. Ω cm
3. 60
4. Ω cm
5. 3 x 106
6. Ω cm
7. 6 x 10-4
8. Ω cm
Answer : 2
Q6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about ……………
1. 100 Ω cm
2. 6000 Ω cm
3. 3 x 105 Ω m
4. 6 x 10-8 Ω cm
Answer : 2
Q7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance …………..
1. Goes up
2. Goes down
3. Remains the same
4. Can’t say
Answer : 2
Q8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from ……..
1. Forces between nuclei
2. Forces between protons
3. Electron-pair bonds
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure semiconductor,
it becomes ………
1. An insulator
2. An intrinsic semiconductor
3. p-type semiconductor
4. n-type semiconductor
Answer : 4
Q10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor creates
many ……..
1. Free electrons
2. Holes
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : 1
Q11. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons
1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
 4. 6
Answer : 2
A12. An n-type semiconductor is ………
1. Positively charged
2. Negatively charged
3. Electrically neutral
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3
Answer : 4
A14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor creates
many ……..
1. Holes
2. Free electrons
3. Valence electrons
4. Bound electrons
Answer : 1
Q15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
1. A free electron
2. The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
3. A free proton
4. A free neutron
Answer : 2
Q16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is about …..
of pure semiconductor.
1. 10 atoms for 108 atoms
2. 1 atom for 108 atoms
3. 1 atom for 104 atoms
4. 1 atom for 100 atoms
Answer : 2
Q17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the bulk
resistance of the semiconductor ………..
1. Remains the same
 2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to ……….
1. Repel each other
2. Attract each other
3. Have no effect on each other
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
1. Only holes
2. Only free electrons
3. Holes and free electrons
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to thermal
agitation is called ……….
1. Diffusion
2. Pressure
3. Ionisation
4. None of the above
Q21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of the
order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn
junction are ……
1. +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
2. -ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
3. -ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is about
………
 3. 5 V
4. 3 V
5. Zero
6. 3 V
Answer : 4
Q24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a shortage of
……..
1. Acceptor ions
2. Holes and electrons
3. Donor ions
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
1. Very narrow depletion layer
2. Almost no current
3. Very low resistance
4. Large current flow
Answer : 2
Q26. A pn junction acts as a ……….
1. Controlled switch
2. Bidirectional switch
3. Unidirectional switch
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order of
1. Ω
2. kΩ
3. MΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to …………..
1. Minority carriers
2. Majority carriers
3. Junction capacitance
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is
increased, the pronounced effect is on……
1. Junction capacitance
2. Minority carriers
3. Majority carriers
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of depletion
layer ………
1. Decreases
2. Increases
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
1. Aa
2. mA
3. kA
4. µA
Answer : 4
Q32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons
………
1. Equals the number of holes
2. Is greater than the number of holes
3. Is less than the number of holes
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. Many holes only
2. A few free electrons and holes
3. Many free electrons only
4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : 2
Q34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has ……….
1. A few free electrons
2. Many holes
3. Many free electrons
 4. No holes or free electrons
Answer : 4
Q35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts
approximately as ……
1. A battery
2. A conductor
3. An insulator
4. A piece of copper wire
Answer : 3
Q36. Under normal conditions a diode conducts current when it is
……………
1. reverse biased
2. forward biased
3. avalanched
4. saturated
Answer : 2
Q37. The term bias in electronics usually means ……….
1. the value of ac voltage in the signal.
2. the condition of current through a pn junction.
3. the value of dc voltages for the device to operate properly.
4. the status of the diode.
Answer : 3

SEMI CONDUCTOR DIODE

Q1. A crystal diode has ………
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A crystal diode has forward resistance of the order of ……………
1. kΩ
2. Ω
3. MΩ
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. If the arrow of crystal diode symbol is positive w.r.t. bar, then
diode is ………….. biased.
1. forward
2. reverse
3. either forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q4. The reverse current in a diode is of the order of ……………….
1. kA
2. mA
3. μA
4. A
Answer : 3
Q5. The forward voltage drop across a silicon diode is about
…………………
1. 2.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 10 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer : 4
Q6. A crystal diode is used as ……………
1. an amplifier
2. a rectifier
3. an oscillator
4. a voltage regulator
Answer : 2
Q7. The d.c. resistance of a crystal diode is ………….. its a.c. resistance
1. the same as
2. more than
3. less than
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. An ideal crystal diode is one which behaves as a perfect ………..
when forward biased.
1. conductor
2. insulator
3. resistance material
 4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q9. The ratio of reverse resistance and forward resistance of a
germanium crystal diode is about ………….
1. 1 : 1
2. 100 : 1
3. 1000 : 1
4. 40,000 : 1
Answer : 4
Q 10. The leakage current in a crystal diode is due to …………….
1. minority carriers
2. majority carriers
3. junction capacitance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q11. If the temperature of a crystal diode increases, then leakage
current ………..
1. remains the same
2. decreases
3. increases
4. becomes zero
Answer :3
Q12. The PIV rating of a crystal diode is ………….. that of equivalent
vacuum diode
1. the same as
2. lower than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q13. If the doping level of a crystal diode is increased, the
breakdown voltage………….
1. remains the same
2. is increased
3. is decreased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The knee voltage of a crystal diode is approximately equal to
………….
 1. applied voltage
2. breakdown voltage
3. forward voltage
4. barrier potential
Answer :4
Q15. When the graph between current through and voltage across a
device is a straight line, the device is referred to as ……………….
1. linear
2. active
3. nonlinear
4. passive
Answer :1
Q16. When the crystal current diode current is large, the bias is
…………
1. forward
2. inverse
3. poor
4. reverse
Answer :1
Q17. A crystal diode is a …………… device
1. non-linear
2. bilateral
3. linear
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q18. A crystal diode utilises …………….. characteristic for
rectification
1. reverse
2. forward
3. forward or reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q19. When a crystal diode is used as a rectifier, the most important
consideration is ………..
1. forward characteristic
2. doping level
3. reverse characteristic
 4. PIC rating
Answer :4
Q20. If the doping level in a crystal diode is increased, the width of
depletion layer………..
1. remains the same
2. is decreased
3. in increased
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q21. A zener diode has ………..
1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q22. A zener diode is used as …………….
1. an amplifier
2. a voltage regulator
3. a rectifier
4. a multivibrator
Answer :2
Q23. The doping level in a zener diode is …………… that of a crystal
diode
1. the same as
2. less than
3. more than
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q24. A zener diode is always ………… connected.
1. reverse
2. forward
3. either reverse or forward
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q25. A zener diode utilizes ……….. characteristics for its operation.
1. forward
2. reverse
 3. both forward and reverse
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q26. In the breakdown region, a zener didoe behaves like a
…………… source.
1. constant voltage
2. constant current
3. constant resistance
4. none of the above
Answer :1
27. A zener diode is destroyed if it…………..
1. is forward biased
2. is reverse biased
3. carrier more than rated current
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q28. A series resistance is connected in the zener circuit to………..
1. properly reverse bias the zener
2. protect the zener
3. properly forward bias the zener
4. none of the above
Answer :2
A29. A zener diode is …………………. device
1. a non-linear
2. a linear
3. an amplifying
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q30. A zener diode has ………….. breakdown voltage
1. undefined
2. sharp
3. zero
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q31. ……………. rectifier has the lowest forward resistance
1. solid state
2. vacuum tube
 3. gas tube
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q32. Mains a.c. power is converrted into d.c. power for ……………..
1. lighting purposes
2. heaters
3. using in electronic equipment
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q33. The disadvantage of a half-wave rectifier is that the……………….
1. components are expensive
2. diodes must have a higher power rating
3. output is difficult to filter
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q34. If the a.c. input to a half-wave rectifier is an r.m.s value of
400/√2 volts, then diode PIV rating is ………………….
1. 400/√2 V
2. 400 V
3. 400 x √2 V
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q35. The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is …………………
1. 2
2. 1.21
3. 2.5
4. 0.48
Answer :2
Q36. There is a need of transformer for ………………..
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q37. The PIV rating of each diode in a bridge rectifier is ………………
that of the equivalent centre-tap rectifier
1. one-half
 2. the same as
3. twice
4. four times
Answer :1
Q38. For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage from a
centre-tap rectifier is ………… than that of bridge rectifier
1. twice
2. thrice
3. four time
4. one-half
Answer :4
Q39. If the PIV rating of a diode is exceeded, ………………
1. the diode conducts poorly
2. the diode is destroyed
3. the diode behaves like a zener diode
4. none of the above
Answer :2
Q40. A 10 V power supply would use …………………. as filter capacitor.
1. paper capacitor
2. mica capacitor
3. electrolytic capacitor
4. air capacitor
Answer :3
Q41. A 1,000 V power supply would use ……….. as a filter capacitor
1. paper capacitor
2. air capacitor
3. mica capacitor
4. electrolytic capacitor
Answer :1
Q42. The ……………….. filter circuit results in the best voltage
regulation
1. choke input
2. capacitor input
3. resistance input
4. none of the above
Answer :1
Q43. A half-wave rectifier has an input voltage of 240 V r.m.s. If the
step-down transformer has a turns ratio of 8:1, what is the peak
load voltage? Ignore diode drop.
1. 27.5 V
2. 86.5 V
3. 30 V
4. 42.5 V
Answer :4
Q44. The maximum efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ………………..
1. 40.6 %
2. 81.2 %
3. 50 %
4. 25 %
Answer :1
Q45. The most widely used rectifier is ……………….
1. half-wave rectifier
2. centre-tap full-wave rectifier
3. bridge full-wave rectifier
4. none of the above
Answer :3

TRANSISTORS

Q1. A transistor has …………………

1. one pn junction
2. two pn junctions
3. three pn junctions
4. four pn junctions
Answer : 2
Q2. The number of depletion layers in a transistor is …………
1. four
2. three
3. one
4. two
Answer : 4
Q3. The base of a transistor is ………….. doped
1. heavily
 2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. The element that has the biggest size in a transistor is
………………..
1. collector
2. base
3. emitter
4. collector-base-junction
Answer : 1
Q5. In a pnp transistor, the current carriers are ………….
1. acceptor ions
2. donor ions
3. free electrons
4. holes
Answer : 4
Q6. The collector of a transistor is …………. doped
1. heavily
2. moderately
3. lightly
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q7. A transistor is a …………… operated device
1. current
2. voltage
3. both voltage and current
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q8. In a npn transistor, ……………. are the minority carriers
1. free electrons
2. holes
3. donor ions
4. acceptor ions
Answer : 2
Q9. The emitter of a transistor is ………………… doped
1. lightly
 2. heavily
3. moderately
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q10. In a transistor, the base current is about ………….. of emitter
current
1. 25%
2. 20%
3. 35 %
4. 5%
Answer : 4
Q11. At the base-emitter junctions of a transistor, one finds
……………
1. a reverse bias
2. a wide depletion layer
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q12. The input impedance of a transistor is ………….
1. high
2. low
3. very high
4. almost zero
Answer : 2
Q13. Most of the majority carriers from the emitter ………………..
1. recombine in the base
2. recombine in the emitter
3. pass through the base region to the collector
4. none of the above
Answer :3
Q14. The current IB is …………
1. electron current
2. hole current
3. donor ion current
4. acceptor ion current
Answer : 1
Q15. In a transistor ………………..
IC = IE + IB
IB = IC + IE
IE = IC – IB
IE = IC + IB
Answer : 4
Q16. The value of α of a transistor is ……….
▪ more than 1
▪ less than 1
▪ 1
▪ none of the above
Answer : 2
Q17. IC = αIE + ………….
1. IB
2. ICEO
3. ICBO
4. βIB
Answer : 3
Q18. The output impedance of a transistor is ……………..
1. high
2. zero
3. low
4. very low
Answer : 1
Q19. In a tansistor, IC = 100 mA and IE = 100.2 mA. The value of β is
…………
1. 100
2. 50
3. about 1
4. 200
Answer : 4
Q20. In a transistor if β = 100 and collector current is 10 mA,
then IE is …………
1. 100 mA
2. 100.1 mA
3. 110 mA
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q21. The relation between β and α is …………..
1. β = 1 / (1 – α )
2. β = (1 – α ) / α
3. β = α / (1 – α )
4. β = α / (1 + α )
Answer : 3
Q22. The value of β for a transistor is generally ………………..
1. 1
2. less than 1
3. between 20 and 500
4. above 500
Answer : 3
Q23. The most commonly used transistor arrangement is ……………
arrangement
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q24. The input impedance of a transistor connected in ……………..
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q25. The output impedance of a transistor connected in …………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common collector
3. common base
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q26. The phase difference between the input and output voltages in
a common base arrangement is …………….
1. 180o
2. 90o
3. 270o
 4. 0o
Answer : 4
Q27. The power gain in a transistor connected in …………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common emitter
2. common base
3. common collector
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q28. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of
a transistor connected in common emitter arrangement is
………………
1. 0o
2. 180o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q29. The voltage gain in a transistor connected in ……………….
arrangement is the highest
1. common base
2. common collector
3. common emitter
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q30. As the temperature of a transistor goes up, the base-emitter
resistance ……………
1. decreases
2. increases
3. remains the same
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q31. The voltage gain of a transistor connected in common
collector arrangement is ………..
1. equal to 1
2. more than 10
3. more than 100
4. less than 1
Answer : 4
Q32. The phase difference between the input and output voltages of
a transistor connected in common collector arrangement is
………………
1. 180o
2. 0o
3. 90o
4. 270o
Answer : 2
Q33. IC = β IB + ………..
1. ICBO
2. IC
3. ICEO
4. αIE
Answer : 3
Q34. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + ………….
1. ICEO
2. ICBO
3. IC
4. (1 – α ) IB
Answer : 1
Q35. IC = [α / (1 – α )] IB + […….. / (1 – α )]
1. ICBO
2. ICEO
3. IC
4. IE
Answer : 1
Q36. BC 147 transistor indicates that it is made of …………..
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q37. ICEO = (………) ICBO
1. β
2. 1 + α
3. 1 + β
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q38. A transistor is connected in CB mode. If it is not connected in
CE mode with same bias voltages, the values of IE, IB and IC will
…………..
1. remain the same
2. increase
3. decrease
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q39. If the value of α is 0.9, then value of β is ………..
1. 9
2. 0.9
3. 900
4. 90
Answer : 4
Q40. In a transistor, signal is transferred from a …………… circuit
1. high resistance to low resistance
2. low resistance to high resistance
3. high resistance to high resistance
4. low resistance to low resistance
Answer : 2
Q41. The arrow in the symbol of a transistor indicates the direction
of ………….
1. electron current in the emitter
2. electron current in the collector
3. hole current in the emitter
4. donor ion current
Answer : 3
Q42. The leakage current in CE arrangement is ……………. that in CB
arrangement
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same as
4. none of the above
Answer : 1
Q43. A heat sink is generally used with a transistor to …………
1. increase the forward current
2. decrease the forward current
 3. compensate for excessive doping
4. prevent excessive temperature rise
Answer : 4
Q44. The most commonly used semiconductor in the manufacture
of a transistor is ………….
1. germanium
2. silicon
3. carbon
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q45. The collector-base junction in a transistor has ……………..
1. forward bias at all times
2. reverse bias at all times
3. low resistance
4. none of the above
Answer : 2
Q46. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually
operate in the ………….
1. active region
2. breakdown region
3. saturation and cutoff regions
4. linear region
Answer : 3
Q47. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The
upper Q point represents the ………….
1. minimum current gain
2. intermediate current gain
3. maximum current gain
4. cutoff point
Answer : 3
Q48. A transistor has a of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 A.
The collector current, IC, equals to …………….
1. 500 μA
2. 5 mA
3. 50 mA
4. 5 A
Answer : 2
Q49. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called
…………
1. beta
2. theta
3. alpha
4. omega
Answer : 3
Q50. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading
between the other transistor terminals should be ……
1. open
2. infinite
3. low resistance
4. high resistance
Answer : 3
Q51. In a CE configuration, an emitter resistor is used for ……
1. stabilization
2. ac signal bypass
3. collector bias
4. higher gain
Answer : 1
Q52. Voltage-divider bias provides ……….
1. an unstable Q point
2. a stable Q point
3. a Q point that easily varies with changes in the transistor’s
current gain
4. a Q point that is stable and easily varies with changes in the
transistor’s current gain
Answer : 2
Q53. To operate properly, a transistor’s base-emitter junction must
be forward biased with reverse bias applied to which junction?
1. collector-emitter
2. base-collector
3. base-emitter
4. collector-base
Answer : 4
Q54. The ends of a load line drawn on a family of curves determine
……
1. saturation and cutoff
 2. the operating point
3. the power curve
4. the amplification factor
Answer : 1
Q55. If VCC = +18 V, voltage-divider resistor R1 is 4.7 k , and R2 is
1500 , then the base bias voltage is ……….
1. 8.7 V
2. 4.35 V
3. 2.9 V
4. 0.7 V
Answer: 2
Q56. The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?
1. voltage
2. current
3. resistance
4. power
Answer : 1
Q57. The Q point on a load line may be used to determine …………
1. VC
2. VCC
3. VB
4. IC
Answer : 3
Q58. A transistor may be used as a switching device or as a ………….
1. fixed resistor
2. tuning device
3. rectifier
4. variable resistor
Answer : 4
Q59. If an input signal ranges from 20–40 A (microamps), with an
output signal ranging from .5–1.5 mA (milliamps), what is the ac
beta?
1. 0.05
2. 20
3. 50
4. 500
Answer : 3
Q60. Beta’s current ratio is ……..
 1. IC/IB
2. IC/IE
3. IB/IE
4. IE/IB
Answer: 1
Q61. A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing ………..
1. emitter current (IE) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE)
with (VBB) base bias voltage held constant
2. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCE)
with (VBB) base bias voltage held constant
3. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VC)
with (VBB) base bias voltage held constant
4. collector current (IC) versus collector-emitter voltage (VCC)
with (VBB) base bias voltage held constant
Answer: 2
Q62. With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is
usually the ……….
1. tab end
2. middle
3. right end
4. stud mount
Answer: 2
Q63. When a silicon diode is forward biased, VBE for a CE
configuration is ……..
1. voltage-divider bias
2. 0.4 V
3. 0.7 V
4. emitter voltage
Answer: 3
Q64. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration
where IE = 4.2 mA and IC = 4.0 mA?
1. 16.8
2. 1.05
3. 0.2
4. 0.95
Answer: 4
Q65. With a PNP circuit, the most positive voltage is probably
…………
1. ground
2. VC
3. VBE
4. VCC
Answer: 1
Q66. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage
gain?
1. 0.001
2. 0.004
3. 100
4. 1000
Answer: 4
Q67. Most of the electrons in the base of an NPN transistor flow
…………
1. out of the base lead
2. into the collector
3. into the emitter
4. into the base supply
Answer: 2
Q68. In a transistor, collector current is controlled by ………..
1. collector voltage
2. base current
3. collector resistance
4. all of the above
Answer: 2
Q69. Total emitter current is …………
1. IE – IC
2. IC + IE
3. IB + IC
4. IB – IC
Answer: 3
Q70. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the
load; the main function(s) of this stage is to ………….
1. provide voltage gain
2. provide phase inversion
 3. provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency
response
4. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load
and provide impedance matching for maximum power
transfer
Answer: 4

Q71. For a CC configuration to operate properly, the collector-base

junction should be reverse biased, while forward bias should be
applied to …………… junction.
1. collector-emitter
2. base-emitter
3. collector-base
4. cathode-anode
Answer: 1
Q72. The input/output relationship of the common-collector and
common-base amplifiers is ………..
1. 270 degrees
2. 180 degrees
3. 90 degrees
4. 0 degrees
Answer: 4
Q73. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a
decrease in the current gain will move the Q point ………….
1. off the load line
2. nowhere
3. up
4. down
Answer: 4
Q74. Which is the higher gain provided by a CE configuration?
1. voltage
2. current
3. resistance
4. power
Answer: 4
Q75. What is the collector current for a CE configuration with a beta
of 100 and a base current of 30 A?
 1. 30 A
2. 0.3 A
3. 3 mA
4. 3 MA
Answer: 3

OP AMP

Q1. Operational Amplifier consists of the following features ______________.

a. Very High Gain

b. Very High Input Impedance
c. Very Low Output Impedance
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q2. The other name of OP AMP is Directly Coupled Negative Feedback
Voltage Amplifier. True/False

Answer: True
Q3. Initially Operational Amplifiers are with the help of ____________.

a. Discrete devices
b. Integrated Circuits
c. Vacuum Tubes
d. a & c are correct
Answer: d
Q4. The name of OP AMP used because of Mathematical Operations just
like addition, subtraction, multiplication, differentiation and
integration. True/False

Answer: True
Q5. Today OP AMP are made with the help of ___________________.
a. Discrete devices
 b. Integrated Circuits
c. Vacuum Tubes
d. a & c are correct
Answer: b
Q6. To connect the Output of Operational AMP with the input called
Feedback. True/False
Answer: True
Q7. OP AMP is the best example of _____________ IC.

a. Analog
b. Digital
Answer: b
Q8. When the feedback not applied to the OP Amplifier then it works as
_______.

a. Open Loop Mode

b. Closed Loop Mode
c. Variable Loop Mode
d. Negative Loop Mode
Answer: a
Q9. When the feedback is applied to the OP Amplifier then it works as
_______.

a. Open Loop Mode

b. Closed Loop Mode
c. Variable Loop Mode
d. Negative Loop Mode
Answer: b
Q10. Operational AMP is available in the packages of _________________

a. DIP
b. To-5 Case
c. Flat Pack
d. All are correct
Answer: d
Q11. In the most of Operational Amplifier, the output is single
ended. True/False

Answer: True
Q12. The input of Operational Amplifier is _____________.
 a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Differential
d. a & b are correct
Answer: c
Q13. The Operational Amplifier can amplify the signals having
frequencies of _______________.

a. 0 → 1 MHZ
b. 100 → 100 MHZ
c. -100 → 500 HZ
d. 0 → 100 MHZ
Answer: a
Q14. Generally, the value of input impedance of an ideal op-amp is
_______________.
a. 200KΩ
b. 50KΩ
c. 200GΩ
d. 2MΩ
Answer: d
Q15. The difference between the inputs of OP AMP is called ______________
a. Error Voltage
b. Error Resistance
c. Frequency Shift
d. all are incorrect
Answer: a
Q16. With the negative feedback, the total voltage gain of Amplifier
becomes _____________ .

a. Unstable
b. Stable
Answer: b
Q17. An OP Amplifier consists of __________ terminals.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
Answer: d
Q18. Double Ended input is also called Differential. True/False
Answer: True
Q19. What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier ?
a. Low
b. Infinite
c. Zero
d. all are correct
Answer: b
Q20. OPAMP are famous in the industries because it’s external
characteristics can be changed. True/False

Answer: True
Q21. An ideal OP AMP, the open loop gain is _____________

a. High
b. Low
c. Infinite
d. a & b are correct
Answer: b
Q22. Input resistance of OP AMP is infinite thatswhy it’s input current is
Zero. True/False

Answer: True
Q23. An ideal OP AMP, the input resistance is infinite but the output
resistance is _____________

a. High
b. Low
c. Infinite
d. Zero
Answer: d
Q24. The CMRR of an ideal OP AMP is _____________

a. Very Low
b. Infinite
c. Zero
d. a & c are correct
Answer: b
Q25. An Amplifier circuit/Block Diagram consists of _____________ stages.

a. 5
 b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Answer: c
Q26. The ratio between the Open Loop Gain and Common Mode Voltage
is called ____________.

a. Slew Rate
b. CMRR
c. Double Ended
d. Stable
Answer: b
Q27. First stage of OP AMP is __________________.

a. Differential
b. Gain
c. Push Pull Emitter Follower
d. a & b are correct
Answer: a
Q28. An OP Amplifier gives the voltage gain upto ____________.
a. 200,000
b. 2,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000
Answer: a
Q29. CMRR stands for Common Mode Rejection Ratio. True/False

Answer: True
Q30. The difference between the input bias current of OP AMP is
called ____________.

a. Input Offset Current

b. CMRR
c. Slew Rate
d. b & c are correct
Answer: a
Q31. MPP stands for Maximum Peak to Peak Output. True/False

Answer: True
Q32. With the negative feedback of OP AMP, it has effects of reducing
____________.

a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Sensitivity to external changes
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q33. The output of inverting AMP is out of phase respect to input.

a. 1800
b. 3600
c. 2700
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q34. Differential AMP is used in the ___________ICs.

a. Linear
b. Non-Linear
c. BGA
d. all are correct
Answer: a
Q35. An ideal AMP gives __________ output when two inputs having zero
volts.

a. Zero
b. Maximum
c. Negative
d. Positive
Answer: a
Q36. The exact value of open loop gain for OP AMP is ____________.

a. 100,000
b. 2,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000
Answer: a
Q37. Negative Feed Back in OP AMP ____________.
a. increase impedance
b. increase bandwidth
 c. decrease impedance
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q38. The type of OPAMP can be identified through the Printed Number
on it’s body Likewise LM108, CA74IT etc. True/False
Answer: True
Q39. ____________ is defined as maximum rate of voltage change in OP
Amplifier.

a. CMRR
b. Slew Rate
Answer: b
Q40. When Feedback resistor turned open then voltage gain becomes
____________.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. zero
d. all are incorrect
Answer: b
Q41. When the output of OP AMP again gives on it’s input then it is
called Negative
Feedback.
True/False
Answer: True
Q42. An Operational Amplifier can amplify ____________.
a. AC Signal
b. DC Signal
c. AC & DC Signal
d. All are incorrect
Answer: c
Q43. The frequency of DC Signal is ____________.
a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. MHZ
d. GHZ
Answer: b
Q44. Operational Amplifier can be used comparator, integrator,
differentiator, Summer. True/False
Answer: True
Q45. The Output Impedance for an OP AMP is ____________.
 a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Maximum
d. Low
Answer: a
Q46. The most common application of an Operational Amplifier is voltage
follower, filter, converter, integrator, differentiator,
comparator. True/False
Answer: True
Q1. Operational Amplifier consists of the following features ______________.

a. Very High Gain

b. Very High Input Impedance
c. Very Low Output Impedance
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q2. The other name of OP AMP is Directly Coupled Negative Feedback
Voltage Amplifier. True/False

Answer: True
Q3. Initially Operational Amplifiers are with the help of ____________.

a. Discrete devices
b. Integrated Circuits
c. Vacuum Tubes
d. a & c are correct
Answer: d
Q4. The name of OP AMP used because of Mathematical Operations just
like addition, subtraction, multiplication, differentiation and
integration. True/False

Answer: True
Q5. Today OP AMP are made with the help of ___________________.
a. Discrete devices
b. Integrated Circuits
c. Vacuum Tubes
d. a & c are correct
Answer: b
Q6. To connect the Output of Operational AMP with the input called
Feedback. True/False
Answer: True
Q7. OP AMP is the best example of _____________ IC.

a. Analog
b. Digital
Answer: b
Q8. When the feedback not applied to the OP Amplifier then it works as
_______.

a. Open Loop Mode

b. Closed Loop Mode
c. Variable Loop Mode
d. Negative Loop Mode
Answer: a
Q9. When the feedback is applied to the OP Amplifier then it works as
_______.

a. Open Loop Mode

b. Closed Loop Mode
c. Variable Loop Mode
d. Negative Loop Mode
Answer: b
Q10. Operational AMP is available in the packages of _________________

a. DIP
b. To-5 Case
c. Flat Pack
d. All are correct
Answer: d
Q11. In the most of Operational Amplifier, the output is single
ended. True/False

Answer: True
Q12. The input of Operational Amplifier is _____________.

a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Differential
d. a & b are correct
Answer: c
Q13. The Operational Amplifier can amplify the signals having
frequencies of _______________.

a. 0 → 1 MHZ
b. 100 → 100 MHZ
c. -100 → 500 HZ
d. 0 → 100 MHZ
Answer: a
Q14. Generally, the value of input impedance of an ideal op-amp is
_______________.
a. 200KΩ
b. 50KΩ
c. 200GΩ
d. 2MΩ
Answer: d
Q15. The difference between the inputs of OP AMP is called ______________
a. Error Voltage
b. Error Resistance
c. Frequency Shift
d. all are incorrect
Answer: a
Q16. With the negative feedback, the total voltage gain of Amplifier
becomes _____________ .

a. Unstable
b. Stable
Answer: b
Q17. An OP Amplifier consists of __________ terminals.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
Answer: d
Q18. Double Ended input is also called Differential. True/False

Answer: True
Q19. What is the open loop gain of an ideal operational amplifier ?
a. Low
b. Infinite
 c. Zero
d. all are correct
Answer: b
Q20. OPAMP are famous in the industries because it’s external
characteristics can be changed. True/False

Answer: True
Q21. An ideal OP AMP, the open loop gain is _____________

a. High
b. Low
c. Infinite
d. a & b are correct
Answer: b
Q22. Input resistance of OP AMP is infinite thatswhy it’s input current is
Zero. True/False

Answer: True
Q23. An ideal OP AMP, the input resistance is infinite but the output
resistance is _____________

a. High
b. Low
c. Infinite
d. Zero
Answer: d
Q24. The CMRR of an ideal OP AMP is _____________

a. Very Low
b. Infinite
c. Zero
d. a & c are correct
Answer: b
Q25. An Amplifier circuit/Block Diagram consists of _____________ stages.

a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Answer: c
Q26. The ratio between the Open Loop Gain and Common Mode Voltage
is called ____________.

a. Slew Rate
b. CMRR
c. Double Ended
d. Stable
Answer: b
Q27. First stage of OP AMP is __________________.

a. Differential
b. Gain
c. Push Pull Emitter Follower
d. a & b are correct
Answer: a
Q28. An OP Amplifier gives the voltage gain upto ____________.
a. 200,000
b. 2,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000
Answer: a
Q29. CMRR stands for Common Mode Rejection Ratio. True/False

Answer: True
Q30. The difference between the input bias current of OP AMP is
called ____________.

a. Input Offset Current

b. CMRR
c. Slew Rate
d. b & c are correct
Answer: a
Q31. MPP stands for Maximum Peak to Peak Output. True/False

Answer: True
Q32. With the negative feedback of OP AMP, it has effects of reducing
____________.

a. Noise
b. Distortion
 c. Sensitivity to external changes
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q33. The output of inverting AMP is out of phase respect to input.

a. 1800
b. 3600
c. 2700
d. all are correct
Answer: d
Q34. Differential AMP is used in the ___________ICs.

a. Linear
b. Non-Linear
c. BGA
d. all are correct
Answer: a
Q35. An ideal AMP gives __________ output when two inputs having zero
volts.

a. Zero
b. Maximum
c. Negative
d. Positive
Answer: a
Q36. The exact value of open loop gain for OP AMP is ____________.

a. 100,000
b. 2,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000
Answer: a
Q37. Negative Feed Back in OP AMP ____________.
a. increase impedance
b. increase bandwidth
c. decrease impedance
d. a & b are correct
Answer: d
Q38. The type of OPAMP can be identified through the Printed Number
on it’s body Likewise LM108, CA74IT etc. True/False
Answer: True
Q39. ____________ is defined as maximum rate of voltage change in OP
Amplifier.

a. CMRR
b. Slew Rate
Answer: b
Q40. When Feedback resistor turned open then voltage gain becomes
____________.
a. decrease
b. increase
c. zero
d. all are incorrect
Answer: b
Q41. When the output of OP AMP again gives on it’s input then it is
called Negative
Feedback.
True/False
Answer: True
Q42. An Operational Amplifier can amplify ____________.
a. AC Signal
b. DC Signal
c. AC & DC Signal
d. All are incorrect
Answer: c
Q43. The frequency of DC Signal is ____________.
a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. MHZ
d. GHZ
Answer: b
Q44. Operational Amplifier can be used comparator, integrator,
differentiator, Summer. True/False
Answer: True
Q45. The Output Impedance for an OP AMP is ____________.
a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Maximum
d. Low
Answer: a
Q46. The most common application of an Operational Amplifier is voltage
follower, filter, converter, integrator, differentiator,
comparator. True/False
Answer: True

AMPLIFIERS WITH NEGATIVE

FEEDBACK

Q1. When negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier, its

voltage gain ……………….
1. Is increased
2. Is reduced
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q2. The value of negative feedback fraction is always …………….
1. Less than 1
2. More than 1
3. Equal to 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q3. If the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from the output
is fed back to the input, then feedback fraction is ………..
1. 10
2. 1
3. 01
4. 15
Answer : 3
Q4. The gain of an amplifier without feedback is 100 db. If a
negative feedback of 3 db is applied, the gain of the amplifier will
become …………..
1. 5 db
2. 300 db
 3. 103 db
4. 97 db
Answer : 4
Q5. If the feedback fraction of an amplifier is 0.01, then voltage gain
with negative feedback is approximately………..
1. 500
2. 100
3. 1000
4. 5000
Answer : 2
Q6. A feedback circuit usually employs ……………… network
1. Resistive
2. Capacitive
3. Inductive
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q7. The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as ………….. gain
1. Resonant
2. Open loop
3. Closed loop
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q8. When voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its
input impedance ………….
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its
input impedance …………..
1. Is decreased
2. Is increased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. Negative feedback is employed in ……………..
1. Oscillators
 2. Rectifiers
3. Amplifiers
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q11. Emitter follower is used for …………
1. Current gain
2. Impedance matching
3. Voltage gain
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. The voltage gain of an emitter follower is ………..
1. Much less than 1
2. Approximately equal to 1
3. Greater than 1
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q13. When current feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier,
its output impedance ……..
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q14. Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
1. Voltage feedback
2. Current feedback
3. Both voltage and current feedback
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q15. If voltage feedback (negative) is applied to an amplifier, its
output impedance …………..
1. Remains the same
2. Is increased
3. Is decreased
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q16. When a negative voltage feedback is applied to an amplifier,
its bandwidth……….
 1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. Insufficient data
Answer : 1
Q17. An emitter follower has ………… input impedance
1. Zero
2. Low
3. High
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. This question will be available soon

Q19. The output impedance of an emitter follower is ……….

1. High
2. Very high
3. Almost zero
4. Low
Answer : 4

INSTRUMENTATION
Q1. An ammeter is connected in …………….. with the circuit element
whose current we wish to measure
1. Series
2. Parallel
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q2. A galvanometer in series with a high resistance is called
……………
1. An ammeter
2. A voltmeter
3. A wattmeter
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q3. An ammeter should have ………….. resistance
1. Infinite
2. Very large
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q4. A voltmeter is connected in a ………….. with the circuit
component across which potential difference is to be measured
1. Parallel
2. Series
3. Series or parallel
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q5. A voltmeter should have ………. resistance
1. Zero
2. Very high
3. Very low
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q6. The sensitivity of a multimeter is given in ……………..
1. Ω
2. Amperes
3. kΩ/V
4. none of the above
Answer : 3
Q7. If the full-scale deflection current of a multimeter is 50 μA, its
sensitivity is ……..
1. 10 kΩ/V
2. 100 kΩ/V
3. 50 kΩ/V
4. 20 kΩ/V
Answer : 4
Q8. If a multimeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω per volt and reads 50
V full scale, its internal resistance is ………..
1. 20 kΩ
2. 50 kΩ
3. 10 kΩ
 4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q9. A VTVM has ………. input resistance than that of a multimeter
1. More
2. Less
3. Same
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q10. The input resistance of a VTVM is about ………..
1. 1000 Ω
2. 10 kΩ
3. 20 kΩ
4. 10 MΩ
Answer : 4
Q11. If the negative potential on the control grid of CRT is
increased, the intensity of spot ………….
1. Is increased
2. Is decreased
3. Remains the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q12. For display of signal pattern ………… voltage is applied to the
horizontal plates of a CRO
1. Sinusoidal
2. Rectangular
3. Sawtooth
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q13. Two multimeters A and B have sensitivities of 10 kΩ/V and 30
kΩ/V respectively. Then …………..
1. Multimeter A is more sensitive
2. Multimeter B is more sensitive
3. Both are equally sensitive
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q14. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a very small
resistance S. The resistance of the resulting ammeter is ………………
1. GS/(G+S)
 2. G+S
3. G-S
4. None of the above
Answer : 1
Q15. A VTVM is never used to measure …………..
1. Voltage
2. Current
3. Resistance
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q16. The sensitivity of a voltmeter which uses a 100 μA meter
movement is ……………..
1. 1 kΩ/V
2. 10 kΩ/V
3. 5 kΩ/V
4. Data insufficient
Answer : 2
Q17. What is the total resistance of a voltmeter on the 10 V range
when the meter movement is rated for 50 μA of full-scale current?
1. 10 kΩ
2. 20 kΩ
3. 200 kΩ
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q18. The materil used to coat inside the face of CRT is …………..
1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Silicon
4. Phosphorous
Answer : 4
Q19. When an ammeter is inserted in the circuit, the circuit current
will ………..
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain the same
4. None of the above
Answer : 2
Q20. A series ohmmeter circuit uses a 3 V battery and a 1 mA meter
movement. What is the half-scale resistance for this movement?
1. 3 kΩ
▪ kΩ
▪ kΩ
2. 6 kΩ
Answer : 1
Q21. The most accurate device for measuring voltage is ………….
5. Voltmeter
6. Multimeter
7. CRO
8. VTVM
Answer : 3
Q22. The horizontal plates of a CRO are supplied with …………. to
observe the waveform of signal.
1. Sinusoidal wave
2. Cosine wave
3. Sawtooth wave
4. None of the above
Answer : 3
Q23. A CRO is used to measure ………….
1. Voltage
2. Frequency
3. Phase
4. All of above
Answer : 4
Q24. If 2% of the main current is to be passed through a
galvanometer of resistance G, then resistance of the shunt required
is ……….
1. G/50
2. G/49
3. 49 G
4. 50 G
Answer : 2
Q25. Which of the following is likely to have the largest resistance?
1. Voltmeter of range 10 V
2. Moving coil galvanometer
3. Ammeter of range 1 A
 4. A copper wire of length 1 m and diameter 3 mm
Answer : 1
Q26. An ideal ammeter has ………… resistance
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 3
Q27. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is …………
1. Low
2. Infinite
3. Zero
4. High
Answer : 2
Q28. To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil
galvanometer of resistance 99 Ω the shunt required is …………..
1. 11 Ω
2. 9 Ω
3. 100 Ω
4. 9 Ω
Answer : 1
Q29. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohms and range V volts. The
value of resistance required in series to convert it into voltmeter of
range nV is ……………
1. nG
2. G/n
3. G/(n-1)
4. (n-1)G
Answer : 4
Q30. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohms and range of I
amperes. The value of resistance required in parallel to convert it
into an ammeter of range nI is ………….
1. nG
2. (n-1)G
3. G/(n-1)
4. G/n
Answer : 3