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1000+
Practice Questions
For IBPS RRB 2023 Exam
Index
S.No Quant Content
1 Number System Qs
2 Inequalities
3 Ratio and Proportion
4 Missing Number Series
5 Wrong Number Series
6 Profit and Loss
7 Simplification
8 Simple Interest
9 Compound Interest
10 Data Interpretation
11 101 DI Mains Qs
12 Data Sufficiency
13 Quant Practice Qs
English Content
1 Error Detection Qs
2 Error Spotting
3 Direct Indirect Speech Qs
4 Cloze Test
5 Cloze Test
6 Reading Comprehension
English Practice Qs
1 Reasoning
2 Blood Relation
3 Syllogism
4 Inequality
5 Order and Ranking
6 Seating Arrangements Puzzles
7 Alphanumeric and Numeric Series
8 Direct Sense
9 Puzzles
10 New Pattern Puzzles
11 Coding-Decoding
12 Misc
13 Reasoning Practice Qs
Quant
Important Number System Questions Free static GK e-book
Number System Questions

1) The digits of a two-digit number are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and the number
obtained by interchanging the digits is bigger than the original number by
27.What is the original number?
1. 63
2. 48
3. 96
4. 69
Correct Answer: “4”
2) Three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, 3 times the second and 4
times the third together make 182. The numbers in question are
1. 18, 22 and 23
2. 18, 19 and 20
3. 19, 20 and 21
4. 20, 21 and 22
Correct Answer: “”3
3) A two-digit number is such that the sum of the digits is 11. When the number
with the same digits is reversed is subtracted from this number, the difference
is 9.What is the number?
1. 23
2. 24
3. 65
4. 14
4) One-fifth of a number is equal to 5/8th of another number. If 35 is added to the

first number, it becomes four times of the second number. Find the second
number.
1. 39
2. 70
3. 40
4. 25

5) What least number would be subtracted from 427398 so that the remaining
number is divisible by 15?
1. 3
2. 10
3. 16
4. 11
6) A number consists of two digits. If the digits interchange places and the new
number is added to the original number, then the resulting number will be
divisible by:
1. 3
2. 5
3. 9
4. 11
Correct Answer: “D”
7) Find a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the

reciprocal of the number.
1. 3
2. 10
3. 17
4. 20
8) A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 10. The middle digit is equal to the
sum of the other two and the number will be increased by 99 if its digits are
reversed. The number is:
1. 145
2. 253
3. 370
4. 352
Correct Answer: “B”

9) If 2(1/2) is added to a number and the sum multiplied by 4(1/2)and 3 is added to

the product and then divide the sum by 1(1/5), the quotient becomes 25 .What
is the number ?
1. 5(1/2)
2. 4(1/2)
3. 2(1/2)
4. 3(1/2)
10) The product of the 2 consecutive odd number is 6723.What is the greater
number?
1. 80
2. 81
3. 82
4. 83
11) The sum of three consecutive multiple of 4 is 72. What is the largest number ?
1. 26
2. 20
3. 28
4. 14
12) In a bag there are coins of 25 paise and 10 paise in the ratio of 5:16. If the bag
contains Rs.16 then the number of 10 paise coin is
1. 86
2. 87
3. 88
4. 90

13) (a-b) = 1, (b-c) = 2 and (c-a) = 3 then the value of (a3+b3+c3-3abc)/(a+b+c) is
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
14) A hundred-digit number is formed by writing first 54 natural numbers one after
the other as 123456…………….5354. Find the remainder when this number is
divided by 8.
1. 4
2. 7
3. 2
4. 0
15) If 20! is divided by 6, which of the following will be the remainder?
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
16) The ratio between a two-digit number and the sum of the digits of that number
is 4 : 1. If the digits in the unit’s place is 3 more than the digit in the ten’s place,
find the number.
1. 36
2. 63
3. 48
4. 84
17) The product of 2 numbers is the cube of its HCF. If the LCM is 1225, what is the
smaller number?
1. 245
2. 175
3. 343
4. 210

18) If three numbers are added in pairs, the sums equal to 11,16 and 23. Find the
three numbers
1. 8,6,16
2. 9,2,14
3. 9,5,14
4. 7,2,8
19) Which of the following number is divisible by 11?
1. 29435417
2. 29435477
3. 57463822
4. 57648317
20) When a number is subtracted from the number 8,12 and 20, the remainders are
in continued proportion, Find the number?
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 6
21) If a = -2 and b = -5 then find the value of a3 + b3 – a2 + b2 + 2a – 3b
1. -98
2. -100
3. 101
4. -101
22) The average of 7 consecutive number is n, if the next 2 number also included
then the new average will be increased by?
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3

23) The last 3 digits of the multiplication 12345 × 54321 would be
1. 865
2. 745
3. 845
4. 945
24) A number successively divided by 3, 4 and 7 leaves 2, 1 and 4 respectively as

remainders. What will be the remainder if 84, divides the same number?
1. 80
2. 76
3. 41
4. 53
25) If the sum and the product of 2 numbers are 25 and 144 respectively then the
difference of the number should be
1.11
2.9
3.7
4.15
26) A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. If the Same number is
divided by 19, the remainder is
1.18
2.11
3.9
4.13
27) The sum of the two-digit number is 11. The number obtained by reversing the
digit is 27 less than the original number. Then the original number is
1.74
2.47
3.65
4.83

28) A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their
difference as quotient and 30 as the remainder. The number is _________.
1. 1220
2. 1250
3. 220030
4. 22030
29) Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of
the first two is 551 and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three
numbers is:
1. 75
2. 85
3. 65
4. 45
30) N is the largest 3-digit number, which when divided by 3, 4 and 6 leaves the
remainder 1, 2 and 4 respectively. What is the remainder when N is divided by
7?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 0
31) How many five-digit numbers are there such that two left most digits are even
and remaining are odd and digit 4 should not be repeated?
1. 2375
2. 2800
3. 2950
4. 3850
32) Two bells toll at an interval of 42 sec and 5 sec. After how many seconds, will
both the bells ring together?
1. 250
2. 210
3. 630
4. None of these

33) A banana costs Rs.1.25 and Orange costs Rs2.75. What will be the total cost of
10 bananas and 2 dozens Orange?
1. Rs.52.50
2.Rs.61.75
3.Rs.73.25
4.Rs.78.50
34) There are some Crows and Some Tigers in a forest. If the total number of
animals head in forest are 840 and total no of animal legs are 1760.What is the
number of Crows in the forest?
1. 800
2. 740
3. 620
4. 590
35) If the divisor is five times the quotient and six times the remainder, if the
remainder is 5 then the dividend is
1. 225
2. 300
3. 185
4. 412
36) How may odd divisors does the number 1,000,000 have?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
37) In a two-digit, if it is known that its unit's digit exceeds its ten's digit by 2 and
that the product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144,
then the number is:
1. 24
2. 26
3. 48
4. 42

38) Of 128 boxes of apples, each box contains at least 120 and at most 144 apples.
The least number of boxes containing the same number of apples are
1. 5
2. 103
3. 6
4. Data Sufficient
39) N is the smallest number which when added to the 2000 makes the resulting
number divisible by 12, 16, 18 and 21, Then the N is
1. 11
2. 7
3. 9
4. 16
40) If x and y are the two digits of the number 653xy such that this number is
divisible by 80, then x + y = ___?
1. 2 or 6
2. 4 or 8
3. 4
4. 8
41) If x and y are positive integers such that (3x + 7y) is a multiple of 11, then
which of the following will be divisible by 11?
1. 4x+6y
2. X+y+4
3. 4x-9y
4. None of these
42) Dushyant attends 40 questions and get 96 marks. If 3 marks are given for each
correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for each wrong answer, find the
number of questions she attended correct?
1. 15
2. 34
3. 32
4. 36

43) If the number 10*47* is divisible by both 5 and 11, then the missing digits are
respectively
1. 1 and 5
2. 6 and 0
3. 5 and 0
4. 2 and 5
44) Find the least number which must be subtracted from 103876 to make the
obtained number divisible by 16.
1. 5
2. 4
3. 9
4. 7
45) A certain even number K is given, which is not divisible by 3. What will be the
remainder if this number will be divided by 6?
1. 2
2. 4
3. Either 1st or 2nd option
4. Any natural no. < 6
46) If the number 517*324 is completely divisible by 3, then the smallest whole
number in the place of * will be:
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 5
47) When 1 is added to the numerator of a fraction it becomes 1/4 and 1 is

subtracted from the denominator of that fraction it becomes 1/5. Find the
fraction.
1. 4/19
2. 3/16
3. 5/17
4. 2/15

48) Sum of eight consecutive odd numbers is 656. Average of four consecutive
even numbers is 87. What is the sum of the largest even number and largest
odd number?
1. 171
2. 191
3. 101
4. 179
49) In a three-digit number the digit in the unit’s place is twice the digit in the ten’s
place and 1.5 times the digit in the hundred’s place. If the sum of all the three
digits of the number is 13, what is the number?
1. 356
2. 456
3. 436
4. 626
50) Two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice the
second number is 100 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the
second number is 120. Which is larger number?
1. 64
2. 72
3. 65
4. 32

Last 5 Years Wrong Number Series Questions
Asked in SBI Clerk
Watch Video Solution Here
1. 8 36 148 586 2388 5. 3 9 23 99 479 2881 20159
Explanation – Explanation -
1x4+4=8 3x2 +3 =9
8x4+4=36 9x3-4 =23
36x4+4=148 23x4+5 =97
148 x 4+4=596 97x5-6=479
596 x 4+4= 2388
6. 10 10 20 60 240 1200 8400
2. 131 159 189 221 245 291
Explanation -
Explanation -
10x1=10
112 +10=131 10 x 2=20
122 +15 = 159 20 x 3=60
132 + 20 = 189 60 x 4= 240
142 + 25 = 221 240 x 5=1200
152 + 30 = 255 1200 x 6 = 7200
162 + 35 = 291
7. 24 30 48 90 158 294
3. 2 3 6 18 109 1944 209952
Explanation -
Explanation -
24 30 48 90 168 294
2x3=6 +6 +18 +42 +78 +126
3x6=18 +12 +24 +36 +48
6x18=108
18x108=1944 8. 639 657 675 693 712 720
4. 50 51 47 56 42 65 29 Explanation -
Explanation - 639 +(6+3+9)=657

657 +(6+5+7)=675
50+12= 51 675 +(6+7+5)=693
51-22=47 693 +(6+9+3)=711
47+32=56 711 +(7+1+1)=720
56-42=40
9. 36 40 89 284 1157 5821 12. 729 1331 2497 3375 4913
Explanation - Explanation -
93= 729
36 x 1+ 22 = 40 113= 1331
40 x 2 +32 = 89 133= 2197
89 x3 +42 = 283 153= 3375
283 x 4+52=1157 173= 4913
1157 x 5+ 62 = 5821
13. 80 119 166 221 223
10. 84 155 258 399 584 820
Explanation -
Explanation -
92 - 1= 80
443 + 42 +4= 84 112 - 2= 119
543 + 52+5=155 132 - 3= 166
6%3 + 62 +6 = 258 152 - 4= 221
743 + 72 + 7 = 399 172 - 5= 224
843 + 82 + 8 = 584
943 +92 +9=819 14. 7 16 27 40 46
11. 4,7, 13, 25, 49, 97, 153 Explanation -
Explanation - 5x1+2=7
6x2+4=16
7-4= 3 7x3+6=27
13-7=6 8x4+8=40
25-13= 12 9x5+10=55
49-25= 24
97-49= 48 15. 60 67 76 87 99 115
193-97= 96
Explanation -
60+7=67
67+9=76
76+11=87
87+13=100
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40 Most important Profit and Loss Practice Questions for RBI Assistant Exam
Q.1 Selling price of an article is Rs. 2220 and the percent profit earned is 20%. What is the
cost price of the article?
Rs. 1750
Rs. 1876
Rs. 1776
Rs. 1850
None of these
Q.2. A shopkeeper purchased 15 kg of variety “A” rice at Rs. X per kg and 10 kg of variety
“B” rice at Rs. (X + 5) per kg. The shopkeeper sold the whole quantity of variety “A” rice at
10% profit and that of variety “B” rice at 20% profit. The total selling price of variety “A” rice
was Rs. 30 more than that of variety “B” rice. Had the two varieties been mixed and sold at
an overall profit of 20%, what would have been the selling price (per kg)?
Rs. 26.40
Rs. 23.20
Rs. 24.20
Rs. 25.00
None of these
Q.3. The cost price of a calculator is Rs. 5,000 and he loses 25%. Find his selling price.
Rs. 1250
Rs. 1280
Rs. 3750
Rs. 4512
Rs. 3421
Q.4. Find the cost price of an article which is sold at INR 720, at profit of 12.5%.
INR 640
INR 620
INR 650
INR 600
Q.5. Profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1450 is same as the loss incurred by selling
the article for Rs. 1280. What is the cost price of the article?
1385
1405
1355
1365
None of these
Q.6. A company first raises the price of articles by x% and then reduces all the new prices by
x%. After one cycle, the price of an article decreased by Rs. 1,000; and after the second
cycle, the article was sold for Rs. 23,040. What was the original price of the article?
Rs. 15,000
Rs. 20,000
Rs. 25,000
Rs. 30,000
Q.7. A person sells an article for Rs. 884, gaining Rs. 204 of its C.P. Its gain percentage is
20%
25%
30%
35%
Q.8. Tom buys a cycle for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he sells the cycle
for Rs. 5800, his gain in percent is:
(32/7)%
(60/11)%
10%
12%
Q.9. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:
15
16
18
25
Q.10. The profit triples when the selling price is doubled. What is profit percent?
100
120
33.33
66.66
Q.11. When a second-hand bike is sold for Rs. 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price
must that bike be sold in order to gain 15%?
Rs. 21,000
Rs. 22,500
Rs. 25,300
Rs. 25,800
Q.12. Shyam buys 600 laptops at Rs. 40,000 per unit from vendor A and buys 500 laptops at
Rs. 35,000 per unit from vendor B and then sells all the laptops at Rs 50,000 per unit. What
is the profit percentage?
32.5
47.5
57
65
None of these
Q.13. An internet service provider company Century link marks up the cost price of a plan by
60% and offers a discount of 20%. He asks the customer to pay a service tax of 15% on the
selling price. The customer refuses to pay the tax due to which the shopkeeper himself pays
the service tax. Find his profit percentage
8.8%
22.5%
5.6%
10.5%
None of these
Q.14. Two merchants sell an article for Rs.1,000 each. Merchant A computes his profit on
cost price while Merchant B computes his profit on selling price. Both make a profit of 25%
each. By how many rupees is the actual profit made by B more than that made by A?
Rs. 75
Rs. 66
Rs. 60
Rs. 50
None of these
Q.15. If the ratio of cost price to selling price is 10:11, then the rate of profit is?
1.1 %
10%
0.1%
1%
Q.16. If the cost price of 25 chairs is equal to the selling price of 30 chairs, then find the loss
%?
5%
20%
16*2/3 %
25 %
Q.17. Books bought at prices from Rs. 150 to Rs. 300 are sold at a price ranging from Rs.
250 to Rs. 350. What is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 15 books?
Can't be Determined
Rs. 750
Rs. 4250
Rs. 3000
Q.18. A man sold two chairs at Rs. 1200 each, on one he gained 20 % and on the other, he
lost 20%. He gains or loses in the whole transaction is
1% loss
2% loss
4% loss
1% gain
Q.19. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 28% on marked price of article P and selling price of
article Q is 33 1/3% more than the selling price at article P, if shopkeeper made 20% profit
on article Q and selling price of article P was Rs 200 less than cost price of article Q, then
find the cost price of article P, which shopkeeper sold at profit of 20%?
Rs 1500
Rs 2000
Rs 1200
Rs 1000
Rs 1800
Q.20. A person sold an article with 20% loss on the cost price. He bought the article at a
discount of 20% on the labeled price. What would have been the percentage had he bought
it at the labeled price?
32%
36%
45%
27%
40%3
Q.21. P sells an article which cost him Rs. 8000 to Q at a loss of 20%. Q then sells it to R,
making a profit of 30% on the price he paid to A. How much does R pay to Q?
Rs 8440
Rs 8500
Rs 8320
Rs 8800
Rs 8750
Q.22. Mohit bought a laptop at 20% discount on the listed price. Had he not got the discount,
he would have paid Rs. 12400 extra. At what price did he buy the calculator?
36
30
28
42
32
Q.23. Two shopkeepers sell an article for Rs.18000 each. Shopkeeper A calculates his profit
on cost price while shopkeeper B calculates his profit on selling price. Both make a profit of
20% each. By how many rupees is the actual profit made by shopkeeper B more than that
made by shopkeeper A?
Rs 700
Rs 550
Rs 660
Rs 600
Rs 500
Q.24. A shopkeeper purchased 40 kg of variety A Sugar at Rs. X per kg and 25 kg of variety
B sugar at Rs. (X + 10) per kg. The shopkeeper sold the whole quantity of variety A sugar at
20% profit and that of variety B sugar at 10% profit. The total selling price of variety A sugar
was Rs. 135 more than that of variety B sugar. Had the two varieties been mixed and sold at
an overall profit of 17%, what would have been the selling price (per kg)?
Rs 31.2 per kg
Rs 29.9 per kg
Rs 26.9 per kg
Rs 27.9 per kg
Rs 28.8 per kg
Q.25. Mahesh bought a cycle for Rs. 8800 and marked it up by 25% and gave a discount of
10%. After some time His friend came in to buy the cycle and bargained with Mahesh for an
additional discount of 10% on the already discounted price. What is the profit earned by
Mahesh?
Rs 110
Rs 220
Rs 210
Rs 100
Rs 90
Q.26. The cost of a pen is Rs. 10. A shopkeeper sold these pens at Rs. 144 per dozen. If he
gives 10% discount on selling price, find the ratio of the profit % after giving the discount and
profit % without giving the discount?
2:3
5:4
5:2
5:3
4:3
Q.27. A person purchased a laptop and a smartphone for Rs. 3900. He sold the laptop at a
profit of 8% and the Smartphone at a profit of 11%. If his total profit was 9%, find the
difference between the Cost price of the Laptop and Smartphone?
RS 18000
RS 15000
RS 13000
RS 23000
RS 33000
Q.28. The marked price of a Smartphone and a Laptop are in the ratio of 4: 7. The
shopkeeper gives 20% discount on the Laptop. If the total discount on the Smartphone and
the Laptop is 25% then find the discount offered on Smartphone discount?
30.25%
36.75%
35.25%
32.25%
33.75%
Q.29. Arun bought 15 kg of dal at the rate of Rs.14.50 per kg and 10 kg at the rate of Rs.13
per kg. He mixed the two and solid the mixture at the rate of Rs.15 per kg. What was his
total gain in this transaction?
Rs. 11
Rs. 16.50
Rs. 27.50
Rs. 35.50
Q.30. Siva bought 4 dozen oranges at Rs. 12 per dozen and 2 dozen oranges at Rs. 16 per
dozen. He sold them all to earn 20% profit. At what price per dozen did he sell the oranges?
Rs. 16
Rs. 16.80
Rs. 19.20
Rs. 19.80
Q.31. A real estate agent sells two sites for Rs. 18000 each. On one he gains 25% and on
the other, he loses 25 %. What is his loss or gain percent?
6.25 % gain
6.25% loss
No profit no loss
4% loss
4% profit
Q.32. If a retailer marks up his price by 30 % and then allows a 30 % discount, what is his
percentage profit or loss?
9 % gain
8 % gain
8% loss
9 % loss
5% loss
Q.33. By selling an article for Rs 600 more, Karthik would have made 5% profit on his sale
instead of a 11% loss. What was his cost price?
Rs. 3750
Rs. 4000
Rs. 2250
Rs. 6,000
Rs. 4750
Q.34. I make a profit of 20% by selling an article. What would be the profit percent if it were
calculated on the selling price instead of the cost price?
10 %
20%
30%
16.67%
12.5%
Q.35. A tradesman marks his goods 25% above the cost price and allows his customers 12
% reduction on their bills. What percent profit does he make?
14 %
10%
18%
12.5%
12%
Q.36. In order to maintain the price line, a trader allows a discount of 12 % on the marked
price of goods in his ship. However, he still makes a gross profit of 32 % on the cost price.
Find the profit percent he would have made on the selling price had he sold at the marked
price.
28.07 %
50 %
31.21 %
23 %
40%
Q.37. An orange vendor makes a profit of 10% by selling oranges at a certain price. If he
charges Rs. 1.4 higher per orange he would gain 30%. Find the original price at which he
sold an orange.
Rs. 6
Rs. 5.80
Rs. 6.25
Rs. 6.70
Rs 7.70
Q.38. A man bought a horse for a certain sum and sold it, at a loss of 8 % on his outlay. If he
had received Rs. 1800 more, he would have gained 14½ % on his outlay. What did the
horse cost?
Rs. 3,500
Rs. 5,000
Rs. 6,000
Rs. 8,000
Rs. 6500
Q.39. What profit percent is made by selling an article at a certain price if by selling at four-
fifth of that price there may be a loss of 12 %?
10 %
25 %
42 %
20 %
35%
Q.40. A shopkeeper sold jeans for Rs. 950 and made a profit of 25% on CP and sold a shirt
in 575 and made a profit of 15% on CP. If a shopkeeper sold jeans for Rs. 720, then what
price should he sell to make a profit of 20% of both items?
Rs. 792
Rs. 732
Rs. 742
Rs. 752
Rs. 712
Simplification Questions Free Quant e-book
Simplification
1. 1/4 × (4856 × 0.5) × 12 = ?
a) 7624
b) 7425
c) 7512
d) 7284
Correct Answer: option d
2. 6156 ÷ √? × 53 = 4028
a) 6731
b) 6561
c) 6741
d) 6531
Correct Answer: option b
3. 70% of 1680 + ?% of 1750 = 55% of 2820 – 886
a) 5671
b) 5765
c) 5461
d) None of these
4. 326 × 14 – 12 × 88 + (49)^2 = ?
a) 5909
b) 5431
c) 9021
d) 6542
50 Important Simplification Questions Free Quant e-book
Correct Answer: option a
5. (5.25 × 6 × 4) ÷ 7 – 2 = ?^2
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 7
Correct Answer: option c
6. [(√2401+√625) ) – (29 + 5)] ÷ 4 = ?^1/2
a) 100
b) 105
c) 102
d) None of these
7. ?^2 – 18.75 – 11.25 = 9.09% of 396 + 295
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21
8. 36^3 * √4096 * 72 * 18 / (9^3*72^2) = 4^2
a) 9
b) 1
c) 5
d) 7
9. 333.44 + 33.4444 + 3.444 + 3333.4 = ?
a) 3703.245
b) 3709.265
c) 3701.234
d) 3703.7284
Correct Answer: Option c
10. (3469.24 + 1209.53 – 2046.27) = ?^2 + 2551.5
a) - 2
b) 10
c) 4
d) -9
11. (913+ 329 + 522 + 343) / (18 + 24 – X + 18) = 43
a) 3
b) 11
c) 8
d) None of these
12. 323.46 + 23.04 – 43.17 – ? = 303
a) 4.33
b) 1.33
c) 2.33
d) 0.33

13. ? % of (152 ÷ 19 × 45) = 126
a) 35
b) 31
c) 45
d)21
14. (12121 ÷ 100) + (42424 ÷ 50) = ?
a) 965.21
b) 901.23
c) 978.21
d) 969.69
15. 145% of 342 – 684% of 22.5 =?
a) 314
b) 342
c) 213
d) 382
16. (455.678 + 246.895 – 111.87) = ?1/3 + 500.703
a) 80
b) 23008
c) 729000
d) 12

17. (7770 ÷ 70) + (1500 ÷ 25) + (1008 ÷ 28) + 2152 = ?
a) 2378
b) 212
c) 2189
d) 2359
18. (474552)^1/3 – (6084)^1/2 + 68 – 7.8 = ?
a) 60.2
b) 23.90
c) 61.21
d) 60.6
19. 22.5% of 754 – 17.5% of 884 = ? + √676– 19.65
a) 8.6
b) 2.3
c) 7.1
d) None of these
20. 13 2/3 % of 3300 + 25% of 184 = 40% of ?
a) 671
b) 321
c) 1321.4
d) 1242.5

21. 8125 ÷ 13 ÷ 2 1/2 × 102 = ?2
a) 12500
b) 25000
c) 50000
d) None of these
22. 6992 ÷ 19 – ?% of 652 = – 4196
a) 800
b) 320
c) 700
d) 210
23. 20% of 27 + 40% of 64 – ? = 0
a) 25
b) 51.20
c) 21.90
d) 35
24. (4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5 × 4.5) ÷ 225 ÷ 25 + 33 = ?
a) 2707.29
b) 277.29
c) 27.0729
d) 277.092

25. 38.4% of 1450 + 78.2% of 240 – ?2 = 20% of 77.4
a) 27
b) 26
c) 23
d) None of these
26. (2.89)4 ÷ (4913 ÷ 1000)3 × (0.17 × 10)3 = (1.7)?–3
a) 6
b) 10
c) 3
d) 5
27. 47.008 – 20.998 + √256.01 = ? * 2.0001
a) 21
b) 38
c) 40
d) 10
28. 1.980*4.059 + 14.0101*3.009 – 4.003*6.001 = ?
a) 45
b) 26
c) 21
d) 36

29. 396÷33×15+670 = ?(33) + 454
a) 80
b) 341
c) 12
d) None of these
30. 221 ÷ 23.6 × 94.4 ÷ 169 ÷ 17 = ? ÷ 91
a) 241
b) 10
c) 21
d) 28
31. 146% of 950 – 46% of 1850 = 8 × ?
a) 67
b) 21
c) 89
d) 213
32. (550/25) × (2232/17) × (2074/9) = ? × 22
a) 1411
b) 1311
c) 1321
d) 1421

33. 107.5 × 104.5 ÷ 102 = 10?
a) 6
b) 10
c) 8
d) 11
34. (225.3×3)1/2 + (981÷9)2 = 7371 + ?
a) 2134
b) 5689
c) 2365
d) 4536
35. 636 × 5 ÷ 6 + 221 ÷ 17 × 13 = ? + 210
a) 143
b) 489
c) 109
d) 312
36. 412 × 28 ÷ 163 = 16?+3 × 24
a) 14
b) 67
c) 1
d) 32

37. 11.922 + 16.012 = ?2 × 3.852
a) 12
b) 2
c) 0
d) 5
38. 42% of 580 + 3/7 of 2030 – 37% of 670 = ?
a) 865.0
b) 865.7
c) 871.2
d) 862.3
39. (4 × 4)3 ÷ (512 ÷ 8)4 × (32 × 8)4 = (2 + 2)?+4
a) 8
b) 6
c) 12
d) None of these
40. (15.25)2 + (0.50)2 – (65.65)2 + (26.67)2 – (18.98)2 = ?
a) -3726
b) -3298
c) -2134
d) 6751

41. 11.11% of 27.27% of 8.33% of 3564
a) 5
b) 1
c) 2
d) 9
42. 272.5 × ((243)3)? = 322.5
a) 7
b) 4
c) 1
d) 8
43. (5/22) of 2706 + 10 = ?*25
a) 12
b) 25
c) 100
d) None of these
44. [(135)2 ÷ 15 × 39] ÷ ? = 60 × 52
a) 23.4
b) 16.1
c) 13.2
d) 15.19

45. 63 × 34 ÷ 93 + ?2 = 72
a) 5
b) 19
c) 23
d) 31
46. 70% of 1680 + ?% of 1750 = 55% of 2820 – 886
a) 25
b) 34
c) 21
d) None of These
47. (10)2 + (7)3 + (243)1/5 = ?2 + 5
a) 8
b) 45
c) 21
d) 50
48. (0.0625)4 × 0.125 ÷ (0.5)9 = (0.5)? ÷ 0.25
a) 12
b) 32
c) 78
d) 45

49. 0.8 × 888 ÷ 80 × 18 = ?
a) 345
b) 786
c) 231
d) 159.84
50. 87.5×32.4×4.1 = ?×1.6×43.75
a) 178.23
b) 163.63
c) 185
d) 431

Q51. 3.2% of 500 × 2. 4% of ? = 288
(a) 650
(b) 700
(c) 600
(d) 750
(e) 850
Answer: D
Q52. (–251 × 21 × (– 12)) ÷ ? = 158.13

(a) 250
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 15
(e) 18
Answer: B
Q53. [(𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏)𝟐𝟐 ÷ 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏] ÷ 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 = ?

(a) 352
(b) 314
(c) 326
(d) 338
(e) 426
Answer: D
Q54. √√𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + √𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓= ?

(a) 576
(b) 144
(c) 256
(d) 16
(e) 12
Answer: E
Q55. (6.5% of 375) – (0.85% of 230) =?

(a) 23.42
(b) 24.24
(c) 21.64
(d) 25.76
(e) 22.42
Answer: A
Q56. 39.998% of 440.005 +? % of 654.889 = 229.81

(a) 8
(b) 17
(c) 12
(d) 5
(e) 20
Answer: C
Q57. 40.012% of 599.87 – 250.17 =? – 79.88% of 900.11
(a) 700
(b) 705
(c) 710
(d) 730
(e) 740
Answer: D
Q58. 324.996 × 15.98 ÷ 4.004 + 36.876 = ? % of 6699.98

(a) 25
(b) 15
(c) 28
(d) 20
(e) 12
Answer: D
Q59. 63.8% of 8899.78 + ? % of 5300.11 = 6849.889

(a) 22
(b) 36
(c) 15
(d) 12
(e) 30
Answer: A
Q60. 363.72 – 269.21 + 49.987 of 11.89 ÷ (19.9% of 80.1) = ?

(a) 118
(b) 139
(c) 124
(d) 133
(e) 142
Answer: D
Q61. {18.99² – 27.05² + (1399.95 + 59.85)} ÷ ? = 39

(a) 18
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 35
(e) 20
Answer: C
Q62. (21.97% of 899.5) + ? + (39.77% of 309.76) =481

(a) 117
(b) 189
(c) 159
(d) 195
(e) 205
Answer: C
Q63. 9.89% of 650.11 + 32.1 × 2799 ÷ 399.8 – ? = 155
(a) 134
(b) 117
(c) 142
(d) 151
(e) 111
Answer: A
Q64. ?²+114.09-24.06×4.98=163.19
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 11
(e) 13
Answer: E
Q65. 323 × 15 + (?)² = 4989.

(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 14
(e) 17
Answer: A
Q66. 5760 ÷ 45 × 15 =?
(a) 1850
(b) 1875
(c) 1920
(d) 1925
(e) 1970
Answer: C
Q67. 81% of 2300 – 34% of 550 = ?

(a) 1574
(b) 1676
(c) 1624
(d) 1596
(e) 1723
Answer: B
Q68. 25639 – 5252 – 3232 = ?

(a) 17254
(b) 16154
(c) 17155
(d) 16255
(e) 17815
Answer: C
Q69. 27% of 450 – ?% of 375 = 76.5
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 11
(e) 19
Answer: A
Q70. 311 × 17 = ? + 2482

(a) 2605
(b) 2715
(c) 2905
(d) 2805
(e) 2875
Answer: D
Q71. 1615 ÷ (50 × 0.85) = ?

(a) 35
(b) 34
(c) 38
(d) 37
(e) 28
Answer: C
Q72. 4.4 + 14.44 + 41.14 = ? – 14.41 – 1.4

(a) 74.21
(b) 75.79
(c) 76.19
(d) 78.79
(e) 73.79
Answer: B
Q73. 81% of 2300 -? = 34% of 596

(a) 1751.36
(b) 1680.36
(c) 1791.36
(d) 1660.36
(e) 1691.36
Answer: D
Q74. (7921 ÷ 178) – 5.5 = √(?)

(a) 39
(b) 1369
(c) 1521
(d) 1225
(e) 1444
Answer: C
Q75. 5431 + 4687 – 8462 = ?
(a) 1565
(b) 1656
(c) 1645
(d) 1675
(e) 1640
Answer: B
Q76. 31% of 500+ 41% of 1100 – 50% of 790 = ?

(a) 230
(b) 221
(c) 211
(d) 255
(e) 237
Answer: C
Q77. 1107 ÷ 9 × 6 + 236 – 874 = ?

(a) 110
(b) 105
(c) 100
(d) 120
(e) 112
Answer: C
Q78. 5÷50 + 55 ÷ 5500 + 555 ÷ 555000 = ?

(a) 1.111
(b) 0.111
(c) 0.125
(d) 0.134
(e) 0.452
Answer: B
Q79. 276.3 + 343.8 + 545.3 –873.4 = ?

(a) 292
(b) 397
(c) 289
(d) 277
(e) 281
Answer: A
Q80. 15 × 6 + 75 – 95 = ? + 40
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 30
(d) 40
(e) 45
Answer: C
Q81. 36460 + 53750 = ? + 85450
(a) 4190
(b) 4590
(c) 4760
(d) 4390
(e) 4490
Answer: C
Q82. 65% of 500 + ?% of 350 = 500

(a) 40
(b) 55
(c) 45
(d) 50
(e) 60
Answer: D
Q83. 55% of 1400 + ?2 +282= (12)3

(a) 28
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 36
(e) 16
Answer: C
Q.84 20% of 450 + 30% of 300 = ? × 3

1. 58
2. 68
3. 60
4. 54
5. 48
Answer: 3
Q85. × 120% × 50% × 200 = ? × 112.5

1. 4
2. 6
3. 2
4. 5
5. 2
Answer: 5
Q86. 190 + 170 – 219 + ? = 278

1. 112
2. 124
3. 110
4. 108
5. 137
Answer: 5
Q87. (45 × 20÷10 + 21) ÷ 3 =?
1. 900
2. 1369
3. 961
4. 1264
5. 1225
Answer: 2
Q88. 3600 ÷ 72 × 4 + 574 – 378 =?

1. 596
2. 498
3. 496
4. 898
5. 449
Answer: 3
Q89. 0.006 × 0.02 × 0.0036 ÷ (0.06 × 0.004) = x

1. 0.018
2. 0.0018
3. 0.18
4. 1.8
5. 18
Answer: 2
Q90. of (418 – 394) + 762 = x + 247

1. 662
2. 695
3. 643
4. 638
5. 613
Answer: 4
Q91. (3.03 + 7.07)2 – x = 5 × 1.04 × 6.8

1. 66.65
2. 65.66
3. 61.13
4. 72.17
5. 59.15
Answer: 1
Q92. × 20 = x
1. 940
2. 952
3. 960
4. 950
5. 980
Answer: 3
Q93. What approximate value will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
question? 5.997 × 21.659 + 369.2502 = ?
1. 500
2. 655
3. 625
4. 502
5. 575
Answer: 4
question? 39.093% of 304.806 + 51.0025% of 510.357 – 173.76 = ?
1. 326
2. 192
3. 251
4. 203
5. 119
Answer: 4
Q95. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
84368+65466−72009−13964=?
1. 61481
2. 62921
3. 63861
4. 64241
5. None of these
Answer: 3
Q96. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
?/52 9 = 324/ ?
1. 404
2. 408
3. 410
4. 414
5. 416
Answer: 4
Q97. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 33^7.8
× 33^1.2 ÷ 33^5 = 33 × 33?
1. 2.8
2. 3
3. 3.2
4. 4
5. 6
Answer: 2
Q98. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 12% 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
555+15% 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 666=?
1. 166.5
2. 167.5
3. 168.5
4. 169.5
5. None of these
Answer: 1
Q99. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 7/5 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
58 + 3/8 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 139.2=?
1. 133.4
2. 137.2
3. 127.8
4. 131.6
5. None of these
Answer: 1
question? (32.298 × 10.025÷ 15.012 + 31.99) ÷ 2.26 =√?
1. 784
2. 689
3. 676
4. 729
5. 900
Answer: 4
question? (15.0159/ 8.167) × 104.0102% × 49.9025% × 240.0125 = ? × 12.158
1. 14
2. 16
3. 21
4. 15
5. 18
Answer: 5
question? 24.0423% of 449.759 + 31.9025% of 300.0234 = ? × 3.010
1. 58
2. 68
3. 63
4. 54
5. 48
Answer: 2
question? 124.856 ÷ 1.25 +?^2 -42.0156 = 139.0235
1. 7
2. 5
3. 9
4. 11
5. 8
Answer: 3
question? 499.998 + 12.003 × 13.5 – 160.365 = ? + 54.023
1. 438
2. 437
3. 548
4. 448
5. 540
Answer: 4
question? of 5*1/8 of (5471.926 – 5408.002) + 762.985 = x + 246.886
1. 762
2. 795
3. 843
4. 892
5. 913
Answer: 3
question? (20.13)^2 + (12.96)^2 – (19.11)^2 = ?
1. 203
2. 213
3. 208
4. 218
5. 212
Answer: 3
question? ( ?/ 4 )+ 42.01 + 129.99 = 68.09 + 229. 01 + 76.99
1. 860
2. 920
3. 790
4. 808
5. 735
Answer: 4
Simple Interest Practice Questions Free e-book
Simple Interest
Q1) A portion of $6600 is invested at a 5% annual return, while the remainder is

invested at a 3% annual return. If the annual income from the portion earning a 5%
return is twice that of the other portion, what is the total income from the two
investments after one year?
A. 200
B. 270
C. 250
D. 280
Q2) An automobile financier claims to be lending money at the simple interest, but he
includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging
an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
A. 10%
B. 10.25%
C. 10.10%
D. 10.80%
Q3) Ramesh invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and
B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount
of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in
Scheme B?
A. 6400
B. 6500
C. 7200
D. 7500
Correct Answer: “A”

Q4) If simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at 5% per annum is same
as the simple interest on Rs. 560 for 10 years at the rate of 4% per annum then the
sum of money is:
A. 1180
B. 1120
C. 1200
D. 1250
Q5) Rahul invested certain amount in three different schemes A, B and C with the rate
of interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in
one year was Rs. 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150% of the amount
invested in Scheme A and 240% of the amount invested in Scheme B, what was the
amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs 5000
B. Rs 6500
C. Rs 8000
D. Rs 10000
Q6) A sum of money amounts to Rs. 8400 after 3 years and Rs. 12000 after 6 years at
the same rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is
A) 25%
B) 20%
C) 52%
D) 15%
Q7) Sankar borrowed some money at the rate of 4% pa for the first 4 years,6% for the
next 3 years and 7% for the next 10 years. If the total interest paid by him is
Rs.8528,how much money did he borrow?
A) 8200
B) 8328
C) 16728
D) None of these

Q8) Babu takes a loan Rs.2000 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs.1000 at the end of
1 year. How much amount he should pay to clear the due in 2 years.
A) 1000
B) 1150
C) 2150
D) None of these
Q9) A sum of money amounts to Rs. 1500 after 3 years and Rs.2000 after 5 years at
the same rate of SI. Find the rate of interest per annum?
A) 30.3%
B) 33.03%
C) 33.33%
D) 30.30%
Correct Answer: “C”
Q10) A sum of Rs.1500 is lent out into 2 parts, one at 10% and another one at 6%. If
the total annual income is Rs.100, Find the money lent at each rate
A) 550,910
B) 520,1250
C) 1250,250
D) 250,1250
Q11) Yuvraj invested 1/2 of his capital at 4% and the remainder at10%. If his annual
income is Rs.600,Find the capital
A) 8517
B) 8175
C) 8751
D) 8571

Q12) If annual rate is of SI is increased from 8% to 11%, a man’s yearly income

increases by Rs.1500. Find the principal
A) 50,000
B) 5,000
C) 55,000
D) 50,500
Q13) A Principal amount give Rs.12750 as SI for 7 years at the rate of 10% to get the
same amount of interest of 10 years, what will be the rate of interest?
A) 5%
B) 7%
C) 9%
D) 4%
Q14) The difference between CI and SI on the same sum for 2 yrs at the rate of 25% pa
is Rs.1500. What is the principal lent out in each case?
A) Rs.18000
B) Rs.21000
C) Rs.23000
D) Rs.24000
Q15) A sum of money becomes 7/4 of itself in 5years at a certain rate of interest. What
is the rate of interest?
A) 15%
B) 18%
C) 20%
D) 22%

Q16) If the difference between CI and SI earned on a certain amount at 15% pa at the
end of 3 years is Rs.3200, find out the principal.
A) Rs.42560
B) Rs.42560
C) Rs.45000
D) Rs.45150
Q17) A sum of money lent out at SI amount to Rs.7000 after 2 years and Rs.14000 after
a further period of 5yrs. Find the principal?
A) Rs.6300
B) Rs.5100
C) Rs. 4200
D) Rs.3700
Q18) A certain amount of money amounts to Rs. 720 in 2 years and to Rs. 870 in 4(1/2)
years. Find the rate of interest if S.I. is reckoned.
A) 12%
B) 10%
C) 12.50%
D) None of these
Q19) The Simple Interest on a certain sum of money for 3(1/2) years at 16% p.a. is 60
less than the SI on the same sum for 4(1/2) years at 14% p.a. Find the sum.
A) Rs.875.14
B) Rs.785.12
C) Rs.857.14
D) None of these

Q20) A sum was put at S.I. at certain rate for 4 years. Had it been put at 6% higher
rate, it would have fetched Rs.800 more. Find the sum.
A) 1333.33
B) 3333.33
C) 1433.33
D) 3033.33
Q21) The SI on a sum of money will be Rs.2500 after 5 years. In the next 5 years
Principal is trebled, what will be the total interest at the end of the 10th year?
A) Rs.20000
B) Rs.10000
C) Rs.15000
D) None of these
Q22) A sum of money becomes 8 times at SI rate of 5% p.a. At what rate percent will it
become twelve-fold?
A) 6(6/7)%
B) 5(6/7)%
C) 7(6/7)%
D) None of these
Q23) At what percent per annum will be SI on sum of money is equal to 3/5 of the
amount in 5 years.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%

Q24) Priya borrows 1000 rupees at the rate of 11% per annum on SI and rahul borrows
780 rupees at the rate of 15% per annum on SI. In how many years will the amount of
debt of priya and rahul be equal.
A) 31.3/7 yrs
B) 31.2/7 yrs
C) 32.1/7 yrs
D) 32.2/7 yrs
Q25) A sum of 8000 rupees is divided between two people A and B at the rate of
interest of 4% and 5% respectively. The total interest earned after 2 years is equal to
750. Then find the ratio of investment between A and B.
A) 3:11
B) 5:11
C) 6:11
D) 7:11
Q26) Ravi invested 20000 rupee in fixed deposit at the rate of 10% simple interest.
After every 3 rd year he added interest to principal. Find the interest earned at the end
of 6th year.
A) 7800
B) 8000
C) 7600
D) 8200
Q27) A statue is priced at 15000 rupees. But a person wants instalment on the statue.
So, he gave 10000 rupee cash and make an instalment of rupees 650 for 8 months.
Find the rate of interest charged by the shopkeeper.
A) 4%
B) 6%
C) 8%
D) 10%

Q28) A sum was put at a certain rate of interest for four years. Had it been put at a rate
of interest 4% higher than the previous rate of interest, it would have fetched Rs. 80
more. What is the sum?
A) 450
B) 500
C) 700
D) 475
Q29) A certain sum of money at certain rate of interest becomes Rs 3420 after 2 years
and at same rate after two and a half years becomes Rs 3525. Find the rate percent
per annum.
A) 8.5%
B) 8%
C) 7%
D) 10%
Q30) Rs 240 amounts to Rs 259.2 in 2 years, what will Rs 320 amount to in 4 yrs?
A) Rs 454.5
B) Rs 365.2
C) Rs 485.2
D) Rs 371.2
Q31) Ramesh divides Rs 4702 among A, B, and C, so that if the amounts being
invested at 4% simple interest, the amounts received after 2, 3 and 4 yrs by A, B, and
C respectively is equal. Find the share of B?
A) Rs 1,458
B) Rs 1,556
C) Rs 2,358
D) Rs 1,237

Q32) Rs 6200 is lent in two parts, one part at 6% for 5 years and second part at 8% for
4 years. After 5 years and 4 years respectively, the interests received from both parts
is same. Find the amount lend at 6%.
A) Rs 3,100
B) Rs 3,200
C) Rs 3,550
D) Rs 3,250
Q33) Rs 15,000 is to be invested in 2 schemes, one part is invested in scheme A which

offers 9.5% rate of interest and remaining part is invested in scheme B which offers
5% rate on interest. After 3 years, a total of Rs 3600 is received as simple interest.
What is the part invested in scheme A?
A) Rs 10,000
B) Rs 9,000
C) Rs 11,500
D) Rs 10,500
Q34) A certain sum of money invested at 4% for 9 years yields Rs 1980 as simple
interest. At what rate of interest the same amount can be received on the same sum
after 6 years?
A) 8.5%
B) 7%
C) 6.5%
D) 6%
Q35) The simple interest on a sum of money will be rupees 210 after 3 years. In the
next 3 years, principal become 4 times, then the total interest at the end of 6 years.
A) 1020
B) 1050
C) 1080
D) 1100

Q36) A sum of 5000 is invested in which the investor gets 800 as simple interest at the
rate of 4 percent per annum. To get an interest of 2000 rupees on the same sum in the
same number of years, what will be the rate of interest?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
Q37) Rakesh borrowed rupees 5000 from a bank ABC at simple interest. He pays bank
3000 rupees at the end of 3 years and again he pays 2500 at the end of 5 years from
the date of borrowing, Find the rate of interest charged by bank.
A) 50/21 %
B) 50/19 %
C) 50/23 %
D) 50/23 %
Q38) A sum of rupees is divided between three people A, B and C in such a way that
after 2 years, 3 years and 4 years respectively the amount they get is equal. The rate
of interest is 10 percent. Find the ratio in which the amount is divided.
A) 91:43:78
B) 91:84:78
C) 90:43:78
D) 91:47:89
Q39) Mohan invested 20000 rupee in fixed deposit at the rate of 10% simple interest.
After every 3rd year he added interest to principal. Find the interest earned at the end
of 6th year.
A) 7800
B) 8000
C) 7600
D) 8200

Q40) Arya borrows rupees 6000 from a bank at SI. After 4 years she paid Rs 2500 to
the bank and at the end of 5 years from the date of borrowing he paid Rs 4560 to
settle the account. Find the rate of interest (approx)
A) 3.25%
B) 3.50%
C) 3.85%
D) 4%
Q41) A sum of rupees 4800 is lent out in two parts in such a way that the interest on
one part at 10% for 4 years is equal to that on another part at 8% for 7 years. Find the
two sums
A) 2800, 2000
B) 2400, 2400
C) 2600, 2200
D) 2700, 2100
Q42) What annual instalment will discharge a debt of rupees 1060 due in 4 years at 4
% simple interest?
A) 200
B) 250
C) 300
D) 400
Q43) A person makes a fixed deposit of Rs. 20000 in Bank of India for 3 years. If the
rate of interest be 13% SI per annum charged half yearly. What amount will he get
after 42 months?
A. 29100
B. 28100
C. 27100
D. 26100

Q44) Ankita borrowed some money from at the rate of 6% per annum for the first 3
year, @ the rate of 9% per annum for the next 5 year and @ the rate of 13% per annum
for the period beyond 8 year. If she pays a total interest of Rs.8160 at the end of 11
year. How much money did she borrow?
A. 10000
B. 8000
C. 6000
D. 4000
Q45) A portion of Rs.6600 is invested at a 5% per annum, while the remainder is

invested at a 3% per annum. If the annual income from the portion earning a 5% per
annum is twice that of the other portion, what is the total income from the two
investments after one year?
A. Rs.270
B. Rs.370
C. Rs.250
D. Rs.280
Q46) The Principal on which a simple interest of Rs.55 will be obtained after 9 months
at the rate of 11/3% per annum is ___________
A. 2500
B. 1500
C. 1000
D. 2000
Q47) Mr. Raju finds that due to a fall in the rate of interest from 9% to 6%, his yearly
income diminishes by Rs.267. His capital is?
A. Rs.3800
B. Rs.8400
C. Rs.8600
D. Rs.8900

Q48) Out of Rs. 50,000 that a man has, he lends Rs. 8,000 at 11/2 % per annum simple
interest and Rs. 24,000 at 6% per annum simple interest. He lends the remaining
money at a certain rate of interest so that he gets total annual interest of Rs. 3,680.
The rate of interest per annum, at which the remaining money is lent, is?
A. 5%
B. 7%
C. 10%
D. 12%
Q49) Suresh lends 40% of his money at 15% per annum, 50% of the rest at 10% per
annum and the rest at 18% per annum rate of interest. What would be the annual rate
of interest, if the interest is calculated on the whole sum?
A. 18.5%
B. 14.4%
C. 16.5%
D. 19.5%
Q50) Mayank invested a certain sum of money in a simple interest bond, that value
grew to Rs. 300 at the end of 3 year and to Rs. 400 at the end of another 5 year. Then
what was the rate of interest in which he invested his sum?
A. 12%
B. 12.5%
C. 6.67%
D. 8.33%

Data Interpretation
FOR IBPS & SBI MAIN EXAMS

200 Mains Level DI Questions Free PDF for SBI & IBPS PO Mains
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Compound Interest Practice Questions Free e-book
Compound Interest
Q1) The Simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 90. The
corresponding compound interest is:
A. 97
B. 90
C. 94.50
D. 100
Q2) The SI on a certain sum of money for 3 year at 8% pa is half the CI on Rs. 8000 for
2 year at 10% pa. Find the sum placed on simple interest?
A. Rs 3500
B. Rs 3800
C. Rs 4000
D. Rs 4500
Q3) Dheeraj had ₹ 23,000. He invested some amount in scheme A at SI at 20% and the
remaining amount in scheme B at CI at 10%. If Sanjay got the same amount from both
of them at the end of one year, how much (in ₹) did he invest in scheme B?
A. 15000
B. 12000
C. 11500
D. 13000
Q4) What sum invested for 2 years at 12% compounded annually will grow to Rs.
4390.40?
A. 4000
B. 3875
C. 3800
D. 3500

Q5) Divide Rs. 3903 between A and B, so that A’s Share at the end of 7 years may
equal to B’s share at the end of 9 years, compound interest being at 4 percent.
A. 2018 and 1885

B. 2028 and 1875
C. 2008 and 1895
D. 2038 and 1865
Q6) What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹ 9000 at compound interest
compounded annually at 8% per annum in two years?
A. Rs 1497.6
B. Rs 1479.6
C. Rs 1498
D. None of these
Q7) ₹ 6100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% pa compound interest (compounded
annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% pa simple interest for 4 years. Both
the schemes earn equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A?
A. Rs 4000
B. Rs 4500
C. Rs 5000
D. Rs 3250
Q8) What annual payment will discharge a debt of 1025 due in 2 years at the rate of
5% compound interest?
A. 550
B. 551.25
C. 560
D. 560.35

Q9) If the difference between the CI and SI on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 2
years is Rs.16. Find the Simple Interest?
A. 180
B. 460
C. 520
D. 640
Q10) Rahul borrowed Rs. 1200 at 12% PA. He repaid Rs. 500 at the end of 1 year. What
is the amount required to pay at the end of 2nd year to discharge his loan which was
calculated in CI
A. 945.28
B. 1106.00
C. 1107.55
D. 1100.65
Q11) Shivam has some amount of money and he invested the money in two schemes
A and B in the ratio of 2 : 5 for 2 years, scheme A offers 30% pa compound interest
and scheme B offers 15% pa Simple interest. Difference between the interest earned
from both the schemes is Rs.1080. How much was invested in scheme B?
A. Rs 45000
B. Rs 46000
C. Rs 40000
D. Rs 45000
Q12) A sum of Rs.8584 is to be paid back in 3 equal annual installments. How much is
each installment if the interest is compounded annually at 14% per annum?
A. Rs 3700
B. Rs 4500
C. Rs 5500
D. Rs 5400

Q13) Anjali lent Rs. 7000 to Suman for 3 years and Rs. 5000 to Sumit for 5 years on
simple interest at the same rate of interest and she received Rs. 5520 from both of
them as interest. Find the rate of interest.
A. 12 %
B. 13 %
C. 14 %
D. None of these
Q14) The compound interest on Rs 7500 in 2 years when the successive rate of
interest on successive years is 8% and 10% respectively:
A. Rs 1410
B. Rs 7510
C. Rs 1497
D. Rs None of these
Q15) The CI on a certain sum at 10% pa for 2yrs is Rs.6548. What is SI on the sum of
money at 7% pa for 4 years (approx)?
A. 8700
B. 8731
C. 8370
D. 8470
Q16) If 40% increase in an amount in 4 years at SI. What will be the CI of Rs.10,000
after 2 yrs at the same rate?
A. 1000
B. 1100
C. 2000
D. 2100

Q17) A sum of money doubles itself at CI in 10yrs. In how many yrs will it become 4
times?
A. 10yrs
B. 20yrs
C. 15yrs
D. 22yrs
Q18) The difference between the total simple interest and the total compound interest
compounded annually at the same rate of interest on a sum of money at the end of
two years is Rs. 350. What is definitely the rate of interest per cent per annum?
A. 9,300
B. 7600
C. 12000
D. Data inadequate
Q19) Rs.5200 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% pa CI for 2 years and Partly
invested in Scheme B at 10% pa SI for 4 years. Both the schemes earn equal interests.
How much was invested in Scheme A?
A. Rs.1790
B. Rs.2200
C. Rs.3410
D. Rs.2670
Q20) Mr. Binod wins Rs. 120000 on KBC. He has to pay 25% as gift tax to the
government. He places remaining money in fixed deposit @ 10% compounded
annually. However, he has to pay 20% tax on the interest. How much money does Mr.
Binod has after 4 years?
A. Rs 122444
B. Rs 112880
C. Rs 118860
D. None of these

Q21) A lent an amount of Rs. 1100 to B. This is to be paid back to A in two

instalments. If the rate of interest, which A charges to B, be 20% compounded
annually, then what is the value of each installment?
A. Rs 730
B. Rs 720
C. Rs 710
D. Rs 780
Q22) The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 18,500 at the end of three years
is Rs. 7770. What would be the compound interest accrued on the same amount at the
same rate in the same period?
A. Rs 8908.56
B. Rs 8218.27
C. Rs 7754.57
D. None of these
Q23) A man borrows Rs 4000 at 8% compound interest for 3 years. At the end of each
year he paid Rs 500. How much amount should he pay at the end of 3rd year to clear
the debt?
A. Rs 4254.5
B. Rs 3465.2
C. Rs 3485.2
D. Rs 3915.6
Q24) The difference between compound interest earned after 3 years at 5% p.a. and
simple interest earned after 4 years at 4% p.a. is Rs 76. Find the principal amount.
A. Rs 32,000
B. Rs 28,000
C. Rs 31,500
D. Rs 32,500

Q25) A certain amount of money is lent out at compound interest at the rate of 20%
per annum for two years, compounded annually. It would give Rs. 482 more if the
amount is compounded half yearly. Find the principle.
A. Rs 20000
B. Rs 30000
C. Rs 15000
D. Rs 25000
Q26) A sum of Rs. 9960 was borrowed at 15/2% per annum compound interest and
paid back in two years in two equal annual installments. What was the amount of each
installment?
A. Rs 5345
B. Rs 5547
C. Rs 5847
D. None of these
Q27) A sum of rupees 4420 is to be divided between Rakesh and Prakash in such a
way that after 5 years and 7 years respectively the amount they get is equal. The rate
of interest is 10 percent. Find the share of Rakesh and Prakash
A. 2000, 2420
B. 2420, 2000
C. 2480, 2420
D. 2210, 2210
Q28) A sum of rupees 3200 is compounded annually at the rate of 25 paise per rupee
per annum. Find the compound interest payable after 2 years.
A. 1200
B. 1600
C. 1800
D. 2000

Q29) A man lent Rs. 4500 at 30% compound interest per annum for 3 years. What is
the difference between the interest earned by the man in the 2nd year only and the
interest earned by the man in the 3rd year only?
A. Rs 526.5
B. Rs 502
C. Rs 529
D. None of these
Q30) Shubham deposited Rs. 80000 in a bank which pays 10% compound interest for
2 years. Then after 2 years, he started a business with amount (sum + interest) along
with Ramesh, with capital of Rs. 60,000. Shubham invested for 6 months and left.
Ramesh invested for the whole year. What will be the ratio of their profits at the end of
the year?
A. 121:150
B. 150:221
C. 130:121
D. 155:101
Q31) A man borrows 10000 rupees at 20 % compound interest for 3 years. If every
year he pays 2000 rupees as repayment. How much amount is still left to be paid by
the man?
A. 5000
B. 7000
C. 9000
D. 10000
Q32) A man borrows 2000 rupees at 10% compound interest. At the end every year he
pays rupees 1000 back. How much amount should he pay at the end of the third Year
to clear all his debt?
A. 252
B. 352
C. 452
D. 552

Q33) A sum of rupees 4420 is to be divided between Raju and Pawan in such a way
that after 5 years and 7 years respectively the amount they get is equal. The rate of
interest is 10 percent. Find the share of Raju & Pawan.
A. 2000, 2420
B. 2420, 2000
C. 2480, 2420
D. 2210, 2210
Q34) There is 50% increase in an amount in 5 years at simple interest. What will be the
compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at the same rate?
A. Rs. 2255
B. Rs. 2792
C. Rs. 3580
D. Rs. 3972
Q35) A man borrows 3000 rupees at 10% compound interest. At the end every year he
pays rupees 1000 back. How much amount should he pay at the end of the fourth Year
to clear all his debt?
A. Rs. 680.5
B. Rs. 651.3
C. Rs. 751.3
D. Rs. 790.3
Q36) The CI on Rs.6000 for 3 years at 8% for first year, 7% for second year, 6% for the
third year will be
A. Rs.1430
B. Rs.1530
C. Rs.1250
D. Rs.1350

Q37) The compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years is Rs. 786 and S.I. is Rs. 750.
If the sum is invested such that the S.I. is Rs. 1296 and the number of years is equal to
the rate per cent per annum, Find the rate of interest?
A. 4%
B. 5%
C. 6%
D. 8%
Q38) Akhil invests Rs. x in insurance which gives her returns at 21% annually and Rs.
y in mutual funds which gives her returns of 10% compounded half yearly. If Akhil
gets the same returns from both the investments after 1 year, then what is the square
root of the ratio of x to y?
A. 1:2
B. 11:21
C. 21:22
D. 21:25
Q39) If Rs. 7200 amounts to Rs.10368 at compound interest in a certain time, then Rs.
7200 amounts to what in half of the time?
A. 8640
B. 8600
C. 8800
D. 8520
Q40) What is be the compound interest (in Rs.) accrued on an amount of Rs. 15000 at
the rate of 20 per cent annum in two years, if the interest is compounded half-yearly?
A. 6196.5
B. 6916.5
C. 6961.5
D. None of these

Data Sufficiency
Directions for questions: In the following questions each question is followed by
three statements I, II and III. Read the question and the statements carefully and
choose your answer according to which set of statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer
the question.
Q1) What is the distance between city P and city Q?
I. Two persons A and B started simultaneously from P to Q, with their speeds in the
ratio 4 : 5.
II. B reached P one hour earlier than A to Q.
III. The difference between speeds of A and B is 20 kmph
1: I and III only

2: II and III only
3: I and II only
4: All I, II and III together
Q2) What is the rate of interest on a certain sum?
I. The interest earned on the sum at the same rate of simple interest after 3 years is
Rs.4500.
II. If the rate of interest is 2.5% more, the simple interest earned will be Rs.900 more.
III. The amount received on the sum at the end of the 2 years at simple interest is
Rs.15,000
1: I and II only
2: II and III only
3: I and III only
4: Any two statements together
Q3) What is the area of the rectangle?
I. The ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 35 : 12.

II. The perimeter of the rectangle is 188 cm.
III. The length of diagonal of the rectangle is 74 cm
1: I and II only
2: I and III only
3: (I and II) or (II and III)
Data Sufficiency Practice Questions Free Quant e-book
4: Any two of the three
Q4) What is the present age of Rakesh?
I. The ratio of the ages of Ramesh and Rakesh, three years ago, was 4 : 5.
II. The ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Rakesh, after two years, will be 4 : 5.
III. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Ramesh was 12 : 13.
1: I and II only
2: II and III only
3: I and III only
4: All I, II and III
Q5) What is the cost of three kg of rice and two kg of wheat together?
I. The cost of four kg of rice, five kg of wheat and three kg of sugar together is Rs.416.
II. The ratio of prices of one kg of rice to that of wheat is 2 : 3.
III. The cost of seven kg of rice, seven kg of wheat and three kg of sugar, together, is
Rs.608
1: I and II only
2: I and III only
3: II and III only
4: Any two of the three
Q6) How many men watched the show in the auditorium?
I. The ratio of the number of men to the number of women who watched the show is
7:5.
II. Had there been 12 more men, the ratio of the number of the men to the number of
women who watched the show would be 3 : 2.
III. The capacity of the auditorium is 300.
1: I and II only
2: II and III only
3: I and III only

Q7) What is the time taken by pipe A to fill a tank?
I. The pipes A and B together can fill half of the tank in two hours and 24 minutes.
II. Pipe A can fill the tank along with pipe C which can empty the tank in eight hours.
III. The ratio of time taken by pipes A, B to fill the tank and the time taken by the pipe
C to empty the tank is 2 : 3 : 4
1: I and II only
2: II and III only
3: I and III only
4: (I and III) or (II and III)
Q8) What is the rate of interest?
I. The amount of Rs.45,000 yields a simple interest of Rs.13,500 in three years.

II. The amount of Rs.45,000 yields a compound interest of Rs.9,450 in two years.
III. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on
Rs.45,000 when compounded half yearly after one year is Rs.112.50.

2: I or II or III
4: I and III only
Q9) What is the present age of Akhil?
I. Four years ago, the ratio of ages of Arun, Akhil and Alok was 5 : 6 : 7.
II. After one year from now the age of Akhil will be 16% more than the age of Arun.
III. After six years the ratio of the ages of Arun, Akhil and Alok will be 15 : 17 : 19.
1: I and II only
2: II and III only
3: I and III only
4: Any two of I, II and III

Q10) What is the overall profit or loss for the shopkeeper on selling two articles?
I. The two articles are sold for Rs.6,930 each.

II. The difference between the cost prices of the two articles is Rs.1400.
III. There is a loss of 10% on one article and a gain of 10% on the other.
1: Only I and II
2: Only I and III
3: Only II and III
4: Only III
Q11) What is the area of the rectangle ABCD inscribed in a circle?
I. The radius of the circle is 5 cm.

II. The breadth of the rectangle is three – fourth of its length.
III. The area of the region of the rectangle in one – half of the circle is 24 cm^2.
1: Only I and II
2: Only I
3: Only III
4: Only III or I and II
Q12) What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. The boat covers 10km in 2hrs in downstream

II. The boat covers same distance in 5hrs in upstream
III. The speed of stream is one third of that of boat in still water
A) Only I and II together are sufficient

B) Only I and III together are sufficient
C) I, II and III together not sufficient
D) I and either II or III are sufficient

Q13) What is the ratio of investments of P, Q and R?
I. Total investments is Rs.12000 in which P’s contribution is Rs.4500

II. Ratio of investments of P to Q is 4 :3 and Q to R is 3:1
A) Only I is sufficient
B) Both I and III together are sufficient
C) Only II sufficient
D) I and II together are not necessary
Q14) What is the salary of X in a group of X, Y, Z, whose average salary is Rs. 36,700?
I. Total Salaries of Y and Z is Rs.78,650

II. Total salaries of X and Y is Rs. 97,550
A) Only I sufficient
B) Only II sufficient
C) Both I and II are sufficient
D) Either I or II are sufficient
Q15) How many students are there in the class?
I. The average weight of the class is 46kg

II. If 2 students weighting 38kg and 32kg leave the class and are replaced by 48kg and
40kg then the average weight is increased by 2.5kg.
Q16) How many men and women can complete a piece of work in 15 days?
I. If 12 men can complete the same work in 20 days

II. If 10 women and 6 men complete the same work in 12days

Directions (17-21):
(A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(B) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
(D) If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
Q17) What is the time that Kirti took to reach her destination?
I. Shweta took 45 minutes to reach the same destination.

II. The ratio between the speeds of Kirti and Shweta is 9 : 5.
Correct Answer: “E”
Q18) On selling a product, what is the profit % earned?
I. The profit earned on selling the product was Rs 45.

II. Had the product been sold for Rs 555, the profit would have been Rs 50.
Q19) What is the difference between the ages of Y and X?
I. The ratio of the age X to the age of Y is 3 : 2

II. One sixth of X’s age is equal to one fourth of Y’s age.
Q20) What is the rate of interest on a sum of money?
I. The difference between SI and CI obtained on the sum of money at the end of 2 years at
same rate is Rs 80.
II. At the end of 3 years, a total of Rs 3000 is obtained as the CI.
Q21) What is the cost price of the article?
I. The article was bought at 20% discount on the marked price.

II. The article was sold for Rs 2000 with 25% profit on the marked price.

Q22) What was the amount of profit earned?
1) 20% discount is offered on marked price

2) If there is no discount, profit would be 30%.
3) Selling price is more than the cost price by 40 percent.
a) 1 and either 2 or 3
b) Any two of three
c) All 1, 2 and 3
d) Data Insufficient
Correct Answer: “d”
Q23) What is the two-digit number?
1) The number obtained by interchanging the digits is more than the original number
by 27.
2) Sum of the digits is 9.
3) Difference between the digits is 3.
a) only 1 and 2 needed

b) only B and C needed
c) only A and C needed
d) Can’t be determined
Correct Answer: “a”
Q24) Who earns most among A, B, C, D and E?
1) A earns less than C but not less than E

2) D earns more than A but not equal to B
3) B earns more than A and E
a) Can’t be determined
b) Only 1 and 2 needed
c) All three are needed
d) Only 2 and 3 needed

Q25) What is A’s position from the right end in a row of 30 students?
1) A is third to the right of B, who is twelfth from the right end.

2) H is 14th from the right end of the row and there are eight students between H and
A.
a) only 1 is needed
b) only 2 is needed
c) both 1 and 2 needed
d) can’t be determined
Q26) How much time will the train A will take to cross another train B running in
opposite direction?
1) Train A crosses a signal pole in 12 seconds

2) Ratio of speed of train A and B is 2:3
3) Length of two trains together is 500 meters
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) can’t be determined
Directions (27-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three
statements and give answer: –
A. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer
the question.
D. If the data given in both I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question
Q27) A car dealer sold 80% of the cars in its inventory during September. What was
the total revenue from the sales of cars?
I. All but 60 cars in the showroom inventory were sold during September.
II. Cars were sold for an average price of Rs.4.5 lakh during September.

Q28) Did Incumbent P get over 60% of the vote?
I. Challenger M got 39% of the vote

II. Incumbent P got 40000 of the total votes cast
Q29) For a certain bottle and cork, what is the price of the cork?
I. The combined price of the bottle and the cork is Rs.95

II. The price of the bottle is Rs.75 more than the price of the cork.
Q30) What is the weighted average of marks obtained by Deepak?
I. Maths, Science and English have weights 5, 4 and 3 respectively.

II. Simple Arithmetic mean of Maths and science is 140, which is twice the average of
Science and English.
Directions(31-35): Each of the questions below consists of a question and three

statements given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and
give answer: –
Q31) What is the area of the hall?
I. The labour cost of flooring the hall is Rs.3500

II. The material cost of flooring the hall per sq. metre is Rs.250
III. The total cost of flooring the hall is Rs.16500
1.Only I and II
2.Only II and III
3.Any two of three
4.All I, II and III

Q32) What is the circumference of the semi-circle?
I. The difference between the length and the breadth of a parallelogram is 15cm.
II. The area of the semi-circle is half the area of the parallelogram.
III. The length of the parallelogram is 2.5 times the radius of the circle.
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Any two of three
4. All the given statements are Insufficient
Q33) What is the average age of six members Mani, Naveen, Priya, Pavi, Venu and
Ravi?
I. Total age of Naveen and Ravi are 16 years

II. Average age of Mani, Pavi are 12 years
III. The sum of ages of Priya and Venu are 62 years
1. Only I is sufficient
2. Only II is sufficient
3. Only III is sufficient
4. Any two of the three are sufficient
5. All I, II, III are needed
Q34) How many articles were sold?
I. Total profit earned was Rs. 3000

II. Cost-price per article was Rs. 670
III. Selling price per article was Rs. 820
1. II and III only are Sufficient

2. I and II only are Sufficient
3. All I, II and III are Sufficient
4. Any two of the three are Sufficient

Q35) A branch has a manager, a clerk and a sub staff. What is the salary of the sub
staff?
I. The clerk and the sub staff together get Rs.38000 per month.
II. Each Clerk gets Rs.14000 per month more than the Sub Staff.
III. The total salary per month of the manager and the clerk is Rs.65000
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only III
4. Either I or III
Directions(36-42): In each of the questions below consists of a question and two

statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and
Give answer
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question
(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question and
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.
Q36) How is 'No' coded in the code language?
Statements:
'Ne Pa Sic Lo' means 'But No None And' and 'Pa Lo Le Ne' means 'If None And But'.
'Le Se Ne Sic' means 'If No None Will' and 'Le Pi Se Be' means 'Not None If All'.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient

Q37) Who among P, Q, T, V and M is exactly in the middle when they are arranged in
ascending order of their heights?
Statements:
V is taller than Q but shorter than M.

T is taller than Q and M but shorter than P.

D. Both I and II are sufficient
Q38) What is the numerical code for 'water' in a certain code?
Statements:
The code for 'give me water' is '719'.

The code for 'you can bring water for me' is written as '574186'.

Q39) What is the rank of P from the bottom in a class of 30 students?
Statements:
M is third from the top and there are five students between M and P.
The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there are 17 students between K and P.


Q40) Among five friends, who is the tallest?
Statements:
D is taller than A and C.

B is shorter than E but taller than D.

D. Both I and II are sufficient
Q41) Which train did Aman catch to go to the office?
Statements:
Aman missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
Aman did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.

Q42) What does 'nip' stand for in a code language?
Statements:
In the code language, 'that is very beautiful' is written as 'se nip sre num'
In the same code language, 'my house is beautiful' is written as 'nip sto sre tip'.


Directions (43-47): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two/three
statements given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and
give answer:
Q43) If a village is losing 10% of its water supply each day because of a burst water
pipe, then what is the loss in rupees per day?
I. The daily water supply to the village is 600 million gallon.

II. The cost to the village for every 48000 gallons of water lost is Rs.50.
A. Statement I
B. Statement II
C. Both Statement I and II
D. Either Statement I or Statement II
Q44) A and B start walking towards each other simultaneously. What is the distance
between them when they start?
I. 20 min after crossing each other they were 1600 m apart.

II. After crossing each other, A reaches the starting point of B in twice as much time
as B takes to reach the starting point of A.
A. Statement I
B. Statement II
D. Neither Statement I nor Statement II
Q45) What is the ratio of male to female officers in the police force in town P?
I. The number of female officers is 200 less than half the number of male officers.
II. The number of female officers is 1/6 the number of male officers.
A. Statement I
B. Statement II
D. Either Statement I or Statement II

Q46) Is the average of the largest and the smallest of four given numbers greater than
the average of four numbers
I. The difference between the largest and the second largest number is less than the
difference between the second largest and the second smallest number.
II. The difference between the largest and the second largest number is greater than
the difference between the second smallest and the smallest number
III. The difference between the largest and the second smallest number is greater than
the difference between the second largest and the smallest number.
A. Only Statement I
B. Either II or III
C. I and Either II or III
D. Only Statement II
Q47) Mumbai Express leaves Chennai at 3 pm for Mumbai. At what time will it reach
Mumbai?
I. It maintains the average speed of 100 kmph.

II. It has four stoppages of 10 min each between Chennai and Mumbai
III. It covers 300 km before each stoppage
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Either I or II
D. All III
Directions (48-50): Each question below is followed statements I and II. You have to
determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the
questions or not. –
Q48) ‘3xy5’ is a four-digit number then ‘xy’ is?

Statement I: xy is exactly divisible by 23
Statement II: 3xy5 is exactly divisible by 25
1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question

2. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question
3. If the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
4. If the data given in both statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.

Q49) Is 12 is one of the number in 13 consecutive even numbers.
Statement I: Difference between first and least numbers is 24.

Statement II: Average of the set is zero.

question
4. If the data given in Both Statements I & II are not sufficient to answer the question
Q50) What is the rate of interest per annum?
Statement I: A sum becomes doubles to itself at SI in 4 years

Statement II: The difference between CI and SI on an amount of Rs. 10,000 in 2 years
is Rs. 625

question
4. If the data given in Both Statements I & II are not sufficient to answer the question

Missing Number Series
1. 2, 3, 7, 16, 32, ? 4. 3, 10, 22, 39, 61, ?
Ans – 57 Ans – 88
Explanation – Explanation -
2+12 =3 Here, Difference of Difference is 5

3+22=7 10-3= 7
7+32=16 22-10= 12
16+42=32 39-22= 17
32+52=57 61-39= 22
88-61= 27
2. 120, 24, 6, 2, ?, 1
5. 8, 4, 4, 6,12, ?
Ans – 1
Ans – 30
Explanation –
Explanation -
120/5=24
24/4=6 8x 0.5 =4
6/3=2 4x1=4
2/2=1 4x1.5=6
1/1=1 6x 2=12
12x 2.5 = 30
3. 2, 4, 11, 37, 153, ?
6. 9, 14, 21, 32, 45, ?
Ans – 771
Ans – 62
Explanation –
Explanation -
2x1+2= 4
4x2+3=11 Here, Difference is Prime No.
11x3+4= 37 9-14= 5
37x4+5 = 153 14-21=7
153x5+6 = 771 21-32= 11
32-45= 13
45-62= 17
7. 16, 23, 28, 38, ?, 62 10. 113, 118, 128, 139, 152, ?
Ans – 49 Ans – 160
Explanation – Sum of number + sum of Explanation - Sum of number + sum of

digits of the number digits of the number
16+(1+6) = 23 113 +(1+1+3)=118

23+(2+3)=28 118 +(1+1+8)=128
28+(2+8)=38 128 +(1+2+8)=139
38+(3+8)=49 139 +(1+3+9)=152
49 + (4+9) = 62 152 +(1+5+2)=160
8. 23, 39, 71, 119, ? 11. 13, 18, 25, 34, 45, ?
Ans – 183 Ans – 58
Explanation – Previous term + Multiples of Explanation – Previous term + consecutive

16 odd number starting at 5 and so on.
23+16*1 = 39 13+5=18
39+16*2= 71 18+7=25
71 + 16*3 = 119 25+9=34
119 + 16*4 = 183 34+11=45
45+13=58
9. 11, 26, 51, 76, 115, 174, ?
12. 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, ?
Ans – 174
Ans – 252
Explanation -
Explanation – Starting with 12 + 13,
Succeeding Prime No. are multiplied by followed by sum of squares and cube of 2,
1,2,3,4,5,6,7 3, 4, and 5, the last term of this series is
252.
11*1=11
13 *2=26 12 +13 =2
17*3=51 22 + 23 =12
19* 4=76 32 + 33 = 36
23*5=115 42 + 43 = 80
29*6=174 52 +53 = 150
31*7=217 62 + 63 = 252
13. 1, 3, 15, 105, ? 124 - 242 = 120
120 + 342 = 129
Ans – 945 129 - 442 = 113
113 +542 = 138
Explanation - 138 - 642 = 132
1x3=3 15. 192, ? 48, 24, 12, 6

3x5=15
15x7=105 Ans – 96
105x9= 945
Explanation -
14. 123, 124, 120, 129, 113, 138, ?
192/2=96
Ans – 132 96/2=48
48/2=24
Explanation - 24/2=12
12/2=6
123 +142 =124
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Ratio and Proportion
Q1) The salaries of A,B and C are in the ratio 5:3:2.If the increments of 20% ,10% and 20% are
allowed in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their salaries ?
A) 22:11:9
B) 22:10:8
C) 20:11:8
D) 20:10:9
Q2) A sum of money is to be distributed among P, Q, R and S in the proportion 2:5:6:7, If R get
Rs.500 more than S. What is P’s share?
A)500
B)700
C)1000
D)1200
Q3) The sum of the three number is 68. If the ratio of the first to second is 3:2 and that of the
second to the third is 5:3 , then the second number is
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Q4) A Zoo has 66 fishes, some white and rest orange. Which of the following could be the ratio of
white to orange fishes in the zoo?
A) 1:7
B) 2:9
C) 3:7
D) 2:5

Q5) In a bag there are coins of 25p, 10p and 5p in the ratio 1:2:3.If there are Rs.45 in all then find
how many 25p coins are there ?
A) 60
B) 65
C) 70
D) 75
Q6) The ratio of boys and girls in the school is 7:9 when 22 new boys are joined in this school then
the ratio become 9:10. How many girls in this school?
A) 180
B) 200
C) 160
D) 220
Q7) x:y = 7:4 then (4x+7y) : (7x+4y)
A) 65:56
B) 56:65
C) 34:45
D) 13:18
Q8) The ratio of monthly income of A and B in the ratio is 6:5 and the ratio of their expenditure is
9:7.If each saves Rs.1500.Then the sum of their salary is
A) 11,000
B) 9,000
C) 1,0000
D) 12,000
Q9) The ratio of two persons A and B salaries in the ratio 12:7 if 12% increased salary yearly then
what will be the B Salary after 2 yrs.
A) 7808
B) 8700
C) 7,500
D) 8781

Q10) The students in 3 classes are in the ratio 3:4:5.If 20 students added in each class, the ratio
becomes 5:6:7.Find the total no of students in all the 3 classes now ?
A) 160
B) 170
C) 180
D) 200
Q11) A horse takes 8 steps for every 5 steps of a fox, but 6 steps of a fox are equal to the 3 steps of
the horse. What is the ratio of the speed of horse to the fox?
A) 16:5
B) 20:19
C) 18:23
D) 17:21
Q12) A started a business with Rs.32,000 after 4 months B joins with the business by investing
Rs.48,000.At the end of the year, in what ratio should share their profit ?
A) 8:7
B) 7:6
C) 5:7
D) 9:5
Q13) A working partner gets 25% as his commissions after his commissions paid that is equal to
Rs.7500, then what is the total profit ?
A) Rs.32,000
B) Rs.30,000
C) Rs.37,500
D) Rs.40,000

Q14) Equal quantities of 3 mixtures of milk and water are mixed in the ratio 1:3, 2:3 and 3:4.The
ratio of water and milk in the new mixture is
A) 45:76
B) 151:269
C) 123:154
D) 145:245
Q15) The ratio of income of X and Y is 4:3. The sum of their expenditure is Rs.12,000 and the
amount of savings is X is equal to the amount of expenditure of Y. What is the salary of Y?
A) 9000
B) 7000
C) 12000
D) 15000
Q16) When 7 is added to the numerator and denominator of the fraction, then the new ratio of
numerator and denominator becomes 13:19, what is the original ratio?
A) 11:13
B) 7:9
C) 4:7
D) Can’t be determined
Q17) In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the
quantity of water to be further added is:
A) 20 litres
B) 30 litres
C) 40 litres
D) 60 litres
Q18) Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000,
the new ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary?
A) Rs. 17,000
B) Rs. 20,000
C) Rs. 25,500
D) Rs. 38,000

Q19) The ratio of age of Krishna and her mother is 5:12 and difference of their ages is 21. What
will be the ratio of their ages after 3 years?
A) 7:15
B) 11:5
C) 13:7
D) 9:13
Q20) A working partner gets 25% as his commissions after his commissions paid that is equal to
Rs.7500, then what is the total profit ?
A) Rs.32,000
B) Rs.30,000
C) Rs.37,500
D) Rs.40,000
Q21) The ratio of income of X and Y is 4:3. The sum of their expenditure is Rs.12,000 and the
amount of savings is X is equal to the amount of expenditure of Y. What is the salary of Y?
A) 9000
B) 7000
C) 12000
D) 15000
Q22) A school has 4 sections of class 12, such that half the number of students of 1st section, 1/3rd
of 2nd section, 1/4th of 3rd section and 1/5th of the 4th section are equal. If total number of
students in class 12 is 420, find the number of students in sections 1st and 2nd.
A) 180
B) 120
C) 240
D) 150

Q23) A, B and C divide Rs 4200 among themselves in the ratio 7 : 8 : 6. If Rs 200 is added to each of
their shares, what is the new ratio in which they will receive the money?
A) 9 : 8 : 7
B) 8 : 9 : 7
C) 8 : 9 : 8
D) 9 : 10 : 8
Q24) The ratio of the incomes of A and B last year was 9 : 13. Ratio of their incomes of last year to
this year is 9 : 10 and 13 : 15 respectively. The sum of their present incomes is Rs 50,000. What is
the present income of B?
A) Rs 32,000
B) Rs 24,000
C) Rs 20,000
D) Rs 30,000
Q25) Rs 650 was divided among 3 children in the ratio 2 : 4 : 7. Had it been divided in the ratio 1/2
: 1/4 : 1/7. Who would have gained the most and by how much?
A) C, Rs 246
B) C, Rs 264
C) B, Rs 18
D) A, Rs 264
Q26) The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are
allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?
A) 3 : 3 : 10
B) 10 : 11 : 20
C) 23 : 33 : 60
D) Cannot be determined
Q27) The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their expenditures are in the ratio 2 : 5. If A
saves Rs 20,000 and B saves Rs 35,000, what is the total income of A and B?
A) Rs 30,000
B) Rs 90,000
C) Rs 90,000
D) Rs 60,000

Q28) Rs 5750 is divided among A, B, and C such that if their share be reduced by Rs 10, Rs 15 and
Rs 25 respectively, the reminder amounts with them shall be in the ratio 4 : 6 : 9. What was C’s
share then?
A) Rs 2700
B) Rs 2725
C) Rs 2750
D) Rs 2625
Q29) The ratio of income of A and B is 2:3. The sum of their expenditure is Rs.8000 and the
amount of savings of A is equal to the amount of expenditure of B. What is the their ratio of sum
of income to their sum of savings?
A) 5:3
B) 3:2
C) 4:3
D) 3:1
Q30) There are two numbers. When 25% of the first number is added to the second number, the
resultant number is 1.5 times the first number. What is the ratio of 1st number to the 2nd
number?
A) 3:5
B) 5:4
C) 4:5
D) 2:3
Q31) In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30 in all,
how many 5 p coins are there?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200

Q32) 180 sweets are divided among friends A, B, C and D in which B and C are brothers also such
that sweets divided between A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3, between B and C in the ratio 2 : 5 and
between C and D in ratio 3 : 4. What is the number of sweets received by the brothers together?
A) 78
B) 84
C) 92
D) 102
Q33) Consider two alloys A and B. 50 kg of alloy A is mixed with 70 kg of alloy B. A contains brass
and copper in the ratio 3 : 2, and B contains them in the ratio 4 : 3 respectively. What is the ratio
of copper to brass in the mixture?
A) 8 : 5
B) 7 : 5
C) 5 : 11
D) 5 : 7
Q34) The cost of a diamond varies as the square of its weight. A diamond weighing 20 decigrams
costs Rs. 4,800. Find the cost of a diamond of the same kind weighing 8 decigrams.
A) Rs 762
B) Rs 760
C) Rs 764
D) Rs 768
Q35) A bag contains 25p, 50p and 1Re coins in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 5 respectively. If the total money
in the bag is Rs 75, find the number of 50p coins in the bag.
A) 45
B) 50
C) 25
D) 40
Q36) A is directly proportional to B and also inversely proportional to the square of C. When B = 16
and C = 2, A = 36. Find the value of A when B = 32 and C = 4.
A) 25
B) 20
C) 18
D) 32

Q37) Two vessels contains equal quantity of solution contains milk and water in the ratio of 7:2
and 4:5 respectively. Now the solutions are mixed with each other then find the ratio of milk and
water in the final solution?
A) 11:7
B) 11:6
C) 11:5
D) 11:9
Q38) One year ago the ratio between Rahul salary and Rohit salary is 4:5. The ratio between their
individual salary of the last year and current year is 2:3 and 3:5 respectively. If the total current
salary of Rahul and Rohit is 4300. Then find the current salary of Rahul.
A) 1200
B) 1800
C) 1600
D) 2000
Q39) The sum of the squares between three numbers is 5000. The ratio between the first and the
second number is 3:4 and that of second and third number is 4:5. Find the difference between first
and the third number.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q40) A bucket contains liquid A and B in the ratio 4:5. 36 litre of the mixture is taken out and filled
with 36 litre of B. Now the ratio changes to 2:5. Find the quantity of liquid B initially.
A) 55 ltr
B) 56 ltr
C) 57 ltr
D) 58 ltr

Q41) The income of Riya and Priya are in the ratio of 4:5 and their expenditure is in the ratio of
2:3. If each of them saves 2000, then find their income.
A) 4000, 6000
B) 4000, 5000
C) 5000, 4000
D) 5000, 6000
Q42) Two alloys contain platinum and gold in the ratio of 1:2 and 1:3 respectively. A third alloy C is
formed by mixing alloys one and alloy two in the ratio of 3:4. Find the percentage of gold in the
mixture
A) 79.2/7%
B) 71.2/7%
C) 73.2/7%
D) 71.3/7%
Q43) The ratio between number of girls and boys in a school is 5: 6. If 40 percent of the boys and
20 percent of the girls are scholarship holders, what percentage of the students does not get
scholarship?
A) 68%
B) 69%
B) 71%
D) 80%
Q44) An amount is to be divided between A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:5 respectively. If C gives 200
of his share to B the ratio among A, B and C becomes 3:5:4. What is the total sum?
A) 5000
B) 6000
C) 7000
D) 8000

Q45) An amount of money is to be divided between P, Q and R in the ratio of 3:7:12. If the
difference between the shares of P and Q is Rs. X, and the difference between Q and R’s share is
Rs.3000. Find the total amount of money?
A) 11000
B) 12400
C) 13200
D) 14300
Q46) Seats for Mathematics, Science and arts in a school are in the ratio 5:7:8. There is a proposal
to increase these seats by X%, Y% and Z% respectively. And the ratio of increased seats is 2:3:4,
which of the following is true?
A) X = 50; Z = 40
B) Y = 40; Z = 50
C) X = 40; Z = 75
D) X = 50; Z = 40
Correct Answer: ‘”C”
Q47) Two candles of same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 3 hours
and second in 2 hours. Assuming that each candles burns at a constant rate, in how many hours
after being lighted, the ratio between the first and second candles becomes 2:1?
A) 2 hour
B) 2.5 hour
C) 4 hour
D) 4.5 hour
Q48) A bag contains 25p coins, 50p coins and 1 rupee coins whose values are in the ratio of 8:4:2.If
the total values of coins is X and the total amount in rupees is Y, then which of the following is
true
A) X = 840; Y = 260
B) X = 966; Y = 345
C) X = 840; Y = 280
D) X = 740; Y = 260

Q49) In a family, there are ‘n’ persons. The expenditure of rice per month is directly proportional
to 4 times the square of the number of persons of the family. If one of them left the family there
was a decrease in consumption of 28Kg rice per month. Then initially how many persons were in
the family?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Q50) In a horse racing, there are three horses, A, B and C. The Payoffs at A is 3:7, at B, is 4:9, at C,
is 5:11. Sharif bets Rs. 693 on a horse which would fetch maximum amount. Luckily his horse has
won. Then what is the total amount won by him?
A) Rs.990
B) Rs.1001
C) Rs.1008
D) Rs.1011

Quant Practice
Question
IBPS RRB Quant Questions 2023 Free E-book
Ques 1. What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
√1443.98 ÷ 18.98 + 328.1 = ? × 22.01
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 15
(e) 22
29.98% of 880.001 =? + 110.9
(a) 144
(b) 153
(c) 158
(d) 160
(e) 163
(?)^2 + 255.93 = 49.932% of 800.112
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 18
(e) 6
74.91% of? = (17.932)^2
(a) 420
(b) 425
(c) 408
(d) 432
(e) 444
Ques 5. Find the wrong number in the given number series questions.
100, 118, 136, 149, 160, 167, 172
(a) 172
(b) 160
(c) 100
(d) 118
(e) 136
1.5, 2.5, 6, 24, 100, 505, 3036
(a) 1.5
(b) 6
(c) 100
(d) 3036
(e) 2.5
160, 80, 80, 120, 240, 600, 900
(a) 240
(b) 120
(c) 160
(d) 900
(e) 600
5040, 2520, 840, 210, 42, 8, 1
(a) 8
(b) 5040
(c) 840
(d) 1
(e) 42
15, 17, 26, 151, 200, 929, 1050
(a) 17
(b) 1050
(c) 15
(d) 929
(e) 26
Ques 10. What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
?^2 = 4^2 + 8^2 − 31
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
(e) 10
questions?
13 × 6 + ? × 4 = 18 × 7
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
(e) 14
questions?
40% of? = 25% of 320 + 75% of 160
(a) 500
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 200
(e) 100
questions?
112 + 6^2 = ? + 37
(a) 130
(b) 110
(c) 120
(d) 140
(e) 150
questions?
360/? = 12 × 6 − 3^3
(a) 9
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) 8
questions?
√225 + √441 = ?^2
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 8
questions?
16 × 8 − ? = 2^6
(a) 64
(b) 32
(c) 128
(d) 192
(e) 96
questions?
16 × 54 ÷ 36 + 6 = ?
(a) 144/7
(b) 30
(c) 20
(d) 24
(e) 16
Ques 18. The upstream speed of a boat is 18 km/hr which is 500% more than the
speed of the stream. Find how much distance the boat will cover in 3 hours while
traveling in downstream.
(a) 66 km
(b) 63 km
(c) 72 km
(d) 75 km
(e) 78 km
Ques 19. A alone can do a work in 40 days. The ratio of time taken by A and B to do
the same work is 5 : 3. Then, find how many days both will complete the work
together.
(a) 18 days
(b) 12 days
(c) 20 days
(d) 15 days
(e) 10 days
Ques 20. A train having a speed of 72 km/hr crosses a pole in 18 sec and a platform in
33 sec. Find the length of the platform.
(a) 320 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 330 m
(d) 360 m
(e) 350 m
Ques 21. The circumference of a circle is 66 cm. Find the approximate area of a
square if the radius of the circle is two times the side of a square.
(a) 18 cm^2
(b) 32 cm^2
(c) 25 cm^2
(d) 36 cm^2
(e) 28 cm^2
Ques 22. There are a total of five departments in a company. There is a total of 90
employees in the Finance department which is 25% of total employees in the company. 2/9
of the total employees of the company are working in the HR department. Employees
working in the Sales department are 25% more than that in the HR department. The ratio
between employees working in Security and Housing department is 4:5.
Ans.
Ques 23. Find the number of employees working in the HR department is what percent
more than the number of employees working in the Security department?
Sales Finance HR Security Housing Total
100 90 80 40 50 360
(a) 250%
(b) 200%
(c) 150%
(d) 100%
(e) 50%
Ques 24. Find the average number of employees working in the Sales, Finance, and
Housing department.
100 90 80 40 50 360
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 90
(e) 100
Ques 25. The number of employees in the Housing department is how much more
than the number of employees in the Security department?
100 90 80 40 50 360
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
(e) 50
Ques 26. The total age of A, B, and C four years hence will be 98 years. Find the age of
C four years hence if the present age of A and B is 32 years and 23 years respectively.
(a) 31 yr.
(b) 32 yr.
(c) 35 yr.
(d) 37 yr.
(e) 33 yr.
Ques 27. A invests Rs. 12,000 for X months while B invests Rs. 16,000 for 9 months in
a scheme. The profit share of B is Rs. 12,000 out of the total profit of Rs. 21,000. Then
find the value of X.
(a) 6 months
(b) 9 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 7 months
(e) 10 months
Ques 28. A mixture of milk and water contains 60% milk and remaining water. How
much water should be added (in percentage) to the mixture to reverse the proportion
of milk and water?
(a) 25%
(b) 37.5%
(c) 62.5%
(d) 75%
(e) 50%
Ques 29. The simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 8% per annum is Rs.225
less than the compound interest on the same sum for 2 years at 10% per annum. The
sum is:
(a) Rs. 3200
(b) Rs. 4200
(c) Rs. 4000
(d) Rs. 3600
(e) Rs. 4500
Ques 30. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
2048, 768, 384, 240,? 157.5
a) 200
b) 240
c) 210
d) 180
e) 150
15, ?, 38, 371, 4815, 60370
a) 7.5
b) 30
c) 16
d) 31
e) 17
3, 93, 129, 147, 159, 171, ?
a) 180
b) 205
c) 195
d) 245
e) 210
1.25, ?, 640, 5120, 20480, 40960
a) 32
b) 45
c) 50
d) 40
e) 20
Ques 34. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark?
5678.23 ÷ 334.45 - 7818.99 ÷ 1303.33 = ?
a) 11
b) 21
c) 34
d) 53
e) 29
√7382 + √261 - √2199 + √142 = ?
a) 56
b) 67
c) 45
d) 89
e) 30
36.28^2 - 28.83^2 + 78.28^2- 139 = ?^2
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 110
e) 100
√240^2 + 23^2 - √3722 + 41^2 = ?^2
a) 47
b) 22
c) 55
d) 77
e) 62
40% of 399 - 70% of 279 + 229% of 30 = ?
a) 30
b) 27
c) 24
d) 33
e) 36
119% of 89 + 161% of 61 - 79% of 131 = ?
a) 112
b) 96
c) 90
d) 100
e) 116
Ques 40. The height and outer radius of a hollow cylinder are equal. The volume of the
cylinder is 16464π cm3 and its inner radius is half of its outer radius. What is the
height of the cylinder?
a) 21 cm
b) 24 cm
c) 30 cm
d) 28 cm
e) 42 cm
Ques 41. The average present age of three friends Arun, Shaan, and Ravi is 50/3
years. Four years ago, the average age of Arun and Ravi was 11 years. Find Shaan's
age 7 years hence.
a) 22 years
b) 26 years
c) 29 years
d) 27 years
e) 30 years
Ques 42. A train of length 'x + 30' meters running with speed 'x - 75' km/h crosses
another train of length 210 meters running with speed 55 km/h in the opposite
direction as that of the first train in 10.8 seconds. What is the difference between the
speeds of both trains?
a) 20 km/h
b) 24 km/h
c) 28 km/h
d) 16 km/h
e) 18 km/h
The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of charging time (in
minutes) of 5 different mobiles A, B, C, D, and E from 0% to 100%.
Ques 43. If mobile E is charged at the rate of 25 mah per minute, then find the total
battery capacity of mobile E.
(a) 4800 mah
(b) 4000 mah
(c) 3200 mah
(d) 3600 mah
(e) 4400 mah
Ques 44. The time taken to charge mobile B in hours is how much more than that
taken to charge mobile C in hours?
(a) 1.2 hours
(b) 1.4 hours
(c) 0.8 hours
(d) 1.0 hours
(e) 1.6 hours
Ques 45. If 25% battery capacity of mobile D is charged already, then find the time
taken to charge the remaining battery capacity of mobile D.
(a) 150 minutes
(b) 178 minutes
(c) 162 minutes
(d) 160 minutes
(e) 172 minutes
Ques 46. Two persons P and Q enter into a partnership with initial capital in the ratio
7: 5 respectively and after 2 years, Q added approximately Rs.40003 more to his
capital. At the end of 6 years from the start of the partnership, the total profit from the
business is Rs.22000 out of which the share of P is approximately Rs.999 less than
the share of Q. What is the initial capital of P?
a) Rs.63000
b) Rs.70000
c) Rs.84000
d) Rs.49000
e) Rs.35000
Ques 47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number
series ?
190, 94, 46, 22, ? , 4
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 8
(e) None of these
series?
5, 28, 47, 64, 77, ?
(a) 84
(b) 86
(c) 89
(d) 88
(e) None of these
series?
7, 4, 5, 12, 52, ?
(a) 424
(b) 428
(c) 318
(d) 440
(e) None of these
series?
6, 4, 5, 11, 39, ?
(a)159
(b) 169
(c) 189
(d)198
(e) None of these
series?
89, 88, 85, 78, 63, ?
(a) 30
(b) 34
(c) 36
(d) 32
(e) None of these
In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
equations and give an answer.
Ques 52. I. x^2 + 9x + 20 = 0

II. y^2 = 16
Ans.
Ques 53. I. x^2 − 7x + 12 = 0

II. 3y^2 − 11y + 10=0
Ans.
Ques 54. I. x^2 − 8x + 15 = 0

II. y^2 − 12y + 36 = 0
Ans.
Ques 55. I. 2x^2 + 9x + 7 = 0

II. y^2 + 4y + 4 = 0
Ans.
Ques 56. I. 2x^2 + 15x + 28 = 0

II. 2y^2 + 13y + 21=0
Ans.
What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
Ques 57. ? % of (5284.89 ÷ 7.08) = 986.01 – 533. 06

(a) 42
(b) 39
(c) 74
(d) 65
(e) 60
Ques 58. (1041.84 + ?) ÷ 3.02 = 1816.25 ÷ 4.01

(a) 442
(b) 337
(c) 385
(d) 268
(e) 320
Ques 59. 69.3% of 445.12 ÷ 14.06 = 623.08 ÷ ?

(a) 28
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 33
(e) 37
Ques 60. ?^2 + 114.09 – 24.06 × 5.14 = 163.19

(a) 7
(b) 13
(c) 11
(d) 15
(e) 19
Ques 61. 768.16 ÷ 11.87 × √257 – 58.05 = ?

(a) 1033
(b) 1175
(c) 966
(d) 880
(e) 975
Ques 62. Train A completely crosses train B which is 205 m long in 16 seconds. If they
are traveling in the opposite direction and the sum of the speed of both is 25 m/s.
then. find the difference (in meters) between the lengths of both trains.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) 12
Ques 63. The present age of A is 3 years less than the present age of B. Ratio of B’s
age 5 years ago and A’s age 4 years hence is 3: 4 then find the present age (in years)
of A.
(a) 20
(b) 17
(c) 23
(d) 26
(e) 29
Ques 64. A bag contains 6 Red, 5 Green, and 4 Yellow colored balls. 2 balls are drawn
at random after one another without replacement then what is the probability that at
least one ball is Green?
Ans.
Ques 65. The cost price of B is 200 more than the cost price of A. B is sold at 10%
profit and A is sold at 40% loss and the selling price of A and B are in the ratio 4:11. If
A is sold at 20% loss then what will be the selling price of A?
(a) 320
(b) 400
(c) 240
(d) 160
(e) 360
Given below is the pie chart which shows the percentage distribution of a book ‘XYZ’
publishes in 5 different stores.
Ques 66. If the number of females who bought books in store E are 21 more than the
number of males who bought books from the same store then find the number of
females who bought book in-store E.
(a) 75
(b) 78
(c) 71
(d) 68
(e) 73
Ques 67. Find the central angle for the book D.

(a) 117.5°
(b) 115.2°
(c) 112.8°
(d) 108.5°
(e) 118.8°
Ques 68. If the total books of another publisher ‘MNP’ is 20% more than the books of
‘XYZ’ publisher then what will be the total number of books sold by stores A and B for
publisher ‘MNP’ Percentage distribution for different stores for MNP remains the same
as for ‘XYZ’
(a) 200
(b) 178
(c) 181
(d) 186
(e) 198
Ques 69. What is the ratio of total books sold by stores A and C together to the total
books sold by stores D and E together
(a) 17 : 27
(b) 18 : 29
(c) 21 : 28
(d) 22 : 23
(e) 24 : 29
Ques 70. What is the difference between the average of books sold by stores A and E
together and the average number of books sold by stores C and D together?
(a) 33
(b) 11
(c) 22
(d) 44
(e) 20
Ques 71. There are 3 consecutive odd numbers and 3 consecutive even numbers. The
smallest even number is 9 more than the largest odd number. If the square of the
average of all the 3 given odd numbers is 507 less than the square of the average of
all the 3 given even numbers, what is the smallest odd number?
Ans.
Ques 72. A boat can travel 9.6 km downstream in 36 min. If the speed of the water
current is 10% of the speed of the boat downstream. How much time will the boat take
to travel 19.2 km upstream?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 1.25 hours
(d) 1.5 hours
(e) 1 hour
Ques 73. A started a business with an initial investment of Rs. 1200. ‘X’ month after
the start of business, B joined A with an initial investment of Rs. 1500. If total profit
was 1950 at the end of the year and B’s share of profit was 750. Find ‘X’
(a) 5 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 7 months
(d) 8 months
(e) 9 months
Ques 74. The ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a
circular cylinder is 3:5. If the curved surface area is 1848 cm3 then what is the height
of the cylinder?
(a) 28
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 21
(e) 7
Find the next term in the series.
Ques 75. 3, 7, 13, 19, ?

a) 21
b) 24
c) 29
d) 31
e) 39
Ques 76. 50, 72, 98, 128, ?

a) 148
b) 162
c) 172
d) 184
e) 196
Ques 77. 10, 40, 90, 160, ?

a) 200
b) 240
c) 250
d) 260
e) None of these
Ques 78. 20, 20, 30, 60, ?

a) 60
b) 150
c) 100
d) 120
e) None of these
Ques 79. 96, 86, 71, 51, ?

a) 27
b) 26
c) 25
d) 24
e) None of these
What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Ques 80. 60.01% of 4998 + 12.01 * 499 = ?^2

a) 40√10
b) 30√5
c) 20√10
d) 20√5
e) 30√10
Ques 81. (20999 - 11001) ÷ 9.98 = ? + 749

a) 250
b) 500
c) 450
d) 400
e) 200
Ques 82. 1299.99 + 1342.23 - 2421.32 = ? - 1090.21

a) 1440
b) 1330
c) 1290
d) 1310
e) 1220
Ques 83. 149.87% of 870.01 - 89.99% of 120.10 = ?

a) 1098
b) 1197
c) 1234
d) 1056
e) 1112
Ques 84. 1251 * 271 ÷ 134 - 234 * 39 ÷ 187 = ?^2 ÷ 2

a) 90
b) 80
c) 70
d) 60
e) 50
Ques 85. (324.23 * 120.30 - 93.38 * 111.34) ÷ 170.82 = ?

a) 134
b) 123
c) 167
d) 154
e) 189
Ques 86. [781.89 + 679.28 - (183.38 * 23.12 ÷ 68.88)]% of 218.78 = ?

a) 3066
b) 2399
c) 5474
d) 3751
e) 3424
Ques 87. 5656.56 - 7623.18 * 12.89 ÷ 143.29 = ?

a) 6757
b) 4864
c) 4964
d) 4325
e) 4455
Ques 88. ?^2 + 8.22^2 - 12.99^3 = -123.89 * 16.67

a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 3
e) 2
Ques 89. ?% of 36.62 - 19.20 * 10.10 = 214.20% of 67.29

a) 950
b) 800
c) 900
d) 850
e) 780
Ques 90. Quantity I: Alok saves 2/5th of that part he spends from his income. Find the
percentage of his saving.
Quantity II: 13 is what percent of 91?
a) Quantity I < Quantity II
b) Quantity I > Quantity II
c) Quantity I = Quantity II or RCE
d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
e) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Ques 91. Quantity I: It is given that Aman is younger than Malik by 4 years and the
present age of Malik is 5 years. If we subtract 8 years from the present age of Arun
and the remainder is divided by 20, the result is the age of Aman. what is the present
age of Arun?
Quantity II: 25 years
Ques 92. Quantity I: The difference between the simple interest and compound
interest on the same sum at 10% per annum for 2 years is Rs.5, what is the sum?
Quantity II: A sum of Rs.750 amounts to Rs.920 in 4 years at simple interest. If the rate
of
interest increases by 1% then what will be the amount?
Ques 93. The ratio of 3 integers is 3:4:5. The square of the largest integer is greater
than the sum of the smaller 2 integers by 86. What is the sum of the squares of the
three integers?
a) 200
b) 180
c) 220
d) 240
e) 160
Ques 94. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is (2m - 1) cm
and its area is 234 cm2. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 70 cm, then find the value
of 'm’.
a) 7
b) 9
c) 8
d) 6
e) 10
Ques 95. If P, Q, and R invested their money in the ratio 3:5:6 and the sum of P's and
Q's share out of profit is Rs 28,800, what will be R's share out of profit?
a) Rs 40,880
b) Rs 32,420
c) Rs 21,600
d) Rs 18,860
e) Rs 16,040
Ques 96. Ramesh deposited Rs 15000 in PNB bank which offers a 6% interest rate that
is compounded semi-annually. What amount will Ramesh get after 2 years?
a) Rs 17217
b) Rs 16882
c) Rs 17544
d) Rs 16524
e) Rs 18002
Solve the following questions as per the data mentioned in the pie chart
Total Number of Pages in the Book = 720

Ques 97. Which chapter has more pages than other chapters in the book?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
e) Fifth
Ques 98. The ratio between the number of pages the first chapter has and the number
of pages the second chapter has is:
a) 4: 9
b) 4: 5
c) 1: 3
d) 5: 6
e) 3: 4
Ques 99. What is the average number of pages contained by the second, third, and
fourth chapters?
a) 200
b) 180
c) 150
d) 210
e) 240
Ques 100. Chapter fifth has three sections- A, B, and C. Ratio between the number of
pages in sections A, B, and C respectively is 3: 4: 3. Find the number of pages in
section B.
a) 40
b) 50
c) 44
d) 32
e) 48
What value should come in place of a question mark?
Ques 101. ?^2 - 5^2 = 12^3 - 9^3 + 65

a) 37
b) 23
c) 33
d) 45
e) 43
Ques 102. 7826 + 5629 - 4723 = ? + 2371

a) 6214
b) 5432
c) 6361
d) 6733
e) 6333
Ques 103. ?^3 + 6^3 - 74 = 18^2 + 17^2 + 23^2

a) 9
b) 12
c) 11
d) 10
e) 18
Ques 104. 780% of 450 + 900% of 280 = ?

a) 7080
b) 6161
c) 6030
d) 6050
e) 6110
Ques 105. 12.5% of 1088 + 33.33% of 156 = ? ÷ 19

a) 3345
b) 3572
c) 3412
d) 4323
e) 6322
Ques 106. 5652 * 34 ÷ 12 ÷ 51 - ? = 45 * 512 ÷ 576

a) 254
b) 234
c) 274
d) 264
e) 266
Ques 107. After 6 years, the age of P will be 70 years. The sum of the ages of P and Q,
12 years ago was 88 years. P's age 3y years ago was equal to Q's age y years ago.
Find the value of y.
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 5
e) 9
Ques 108. Persons P and Q enter into a partnership in such a way that the initial
capital of P is Rs.300 less than that of Q. After 10 months Q left the business and at
the end of a year from the start of the business profit share of P is Rs.1080 out of total
profit of Rs.2040. What is the initial capital of Q?
a) Rs.4500
b) Rs.4800
c) Rs.4200
d) Rs.5400
e) None of these
Directions: Two persons A and B both read the same novel and end the novel in 5
days. The following bar graph shows the number of pages read by them per day.
Ques 109. The average number of pages read by A in all five days together is
(a) 60
(b) 75
(c) 70
(d) 85
(e) 65
Ques 110. The ratio between the total number of pages read by A and B together on
day1 and that of on day3 is:
(a) 11: 10
(b) 10: 9
(c) 9: 10
(d) 9: 11
(e) 10: 11
Ques 111. The number of pages read by A on day 4 is what percent less than the
number of pages read by B on day 4?
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 25%
(d) 10%
(e) None of these
Directions: The table given below, shows the percentage of marks, received by 5
students in 3 different subjects. It also shows the maximum marks of each subject in
brackets.
Students Subjects (Maximum marks)
Maths (200) English (120) Hindi (160)
A 80% 85% 65%
B 66% 70% 90%
C 85% 66(⅔)% 95%
D 71% 75% 60%
E 78% 80% 70%
Ques 112. Find the average of the marks received by all the 5 students in Maths.
(a) 152
(b) 156
(c) 154
(d) 158
(e) None of these
Ques 113. The marks received by D in Hindi are what percent of the marks received by
C in English?
(a) 115%
(b) 125%
(c) 120%
(d) 110%
(e) None of these
Ques 114. The total marks received by D in all three subjects together is what percent
more or less than that received by B in all the three subjects together?
(a) More by 8.89%
(b) Less by 8.89%
(c) More by 7.56%
(d) Less by 7.56%
(e) Less by 6.69%
Ques 115. The ratio of the amount of work done by a person in 'x' days to that in 'x - 38'
days is 27: 8. What is the value of 'x’?
Ans. 54
Ques 116. Rahul bought 19 kg of rice for Rs. 5700. He sold these at a loss equal to the
selling price of 6 kg of rice. What is the selling price of 1 kg of rice?
a) Rs. 225
b) Rs. 228
c) Rs. 590
d) Rs. 170
e) None of these
Directions: Find the wrong number in the following number series.
Ques 117. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 64, 127

(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 15
(d) 64
(e) 127
Ques 118. 1, 15, 119, 475, 949, 947, 473

(a) 947
(b) 475
(c) 15
(d) 473
(e) 1
Ques 119. 250, 260, 291, 314, 340, 370, 405

(a) 370
(b) 314
(c) 260
(d) 405
(e) 250
Ques 120. 750, 535, 411, 348, 322, 314, 315

(a) 315
(b) 750
(c) 411
(d) 348
(e) 314
Ques 121. 2, 7, 27, 107, 427, 1708, 6827

(a) 107
(b) 1708
(c) 2
(d) 6827
(e) 7
Directions: Solve the given quadratic equations and mark the correct option based on
your answer—
Ques 122. (i) x^2 − 20x + 96 = 0 (ii) y^2 = 64

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 123. (i) 4x^2 − 21x + 20 = 0 (ii) 3y^2 − 19y + 30 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 124. (i) x^2 − 11x + 24 = 0 (ii) y^2 − 12y + 27 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 125. (i) x^2 + 12x + 35 =0 (ii) 5y^2 + 33y + 40 =0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 126. (i) 4x^2 + 9x + 5 =0 (ii) 3y^2 + 5y + 2 =0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 127. 7 men and 6 women together can complete a piece of work in 8 days and
work done by women in one day is half the work done by a man in one day. If 8 men
and 4 women started working and after 3 days 4 men left the work and 4 new women
joined then, in how many more days will the work be completed
(a) 7 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 5.25 days
(d) 6.25 days
(e) 8.14 days
Ques 128. The efficiency of B is two times more than the efficiency of A. Both started
working alternatively, starting with B and completed the work in a total of 37 days. If C
alone completes the same work in 50 days then find in how many days A and C
together will complete the work.
(a) 24 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 36 days
(d) 48 days
(e) 18 days
Ques 129. The ratio of age of Ishu 8 years hence and that of Ahana 6 years hence is 5
: 6. The age of Ishu 10 years hence is equal to the age of Ahana 6 years hence. Then,
find the present age of Ishu.
(a) 1.5 yr
(b) 2 yr
(c) 3 yr
(d) 4 yr
(e) 5 yr
Ques 130. A and B entered into a partnership by investing some amounts. The
investment of A is twice the investment of B. Another person C joined them after 4
months. At the end of a year, the profit share of A and C is equal. Then find the profit
share of B is what percent of the profit share of C.
(a) 50%
(b) 33(1/3)%
(c) 40%
(d) 60%
(e) 75%
Ques 131. The sum of four times an amount ‘x’ and (x – 9.75) is Rs. 442. Find the
approximate value of x.
(a) Rs. 85
(b) Rs. 90
(c) Rs. 100
(d) Rs. 1100
(e) Rs. 75
Ques 132. A person invested two equal amounts in two different schemes. In the first
scheme, the amount is invested at 8% p.a. on SI for T years and SI received is Rs 2000
while in the second scheme, the amount is invested at 10% p.a. for 2 years at CI and
the compound interest received is Rs. 1050. Find the value of T.
(a) 4 yr
(b) 8 yr
(c) 6 yr
(d) 5 yr
(e) 3 yr
Ques 133. A shopkeeper marked his article 50% above the cost price and gives a
discount of 20% on it. If he had marked his article 75% above the cost price and given
a discount of 20% on it then find the earlier profit is what percent of the profit earned
later?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 33(1/3)%
(d) 40%
(e) 75%
Ques 134. A person has purchased two adjacent plots, one rectangular shape and the
other in square shape, and combined them to make a single new plot. The breadth of
the rectangular plot is equal to the side of the square plot and the cost of fencing the
new plot is Rs. 390 (Rs. 5/m). Find the side of the square if the length of the
rectangular plot is 15 m.
(a) 10 m
(b) 8 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 9 m
(e) 6 m
Directions: Solve the following questions as per the data mentioned in the bar graph.
Ques 135. The number of tigers in National Park B and C together in 2018 is how
much less more/less than the number of tigers in National Park A and D together in
1998?
(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 52
(d) 60
(e) 72
Ques 136. Number of tigers in National Park ‘D’ in both years together is what percent
of the Number of tigers in National Park ‘C’ in both years together?
(a) 60%
(b) 160%
(c) 140%
(d) 120%
(e) 180%
Ques 137. Find the ratio between the number of tigers in National Park ‘A’ in 2018 and
to number of tigers in National Park ‘B’ in 1998.
(a) 9 : 10
(b) 10 : 9
(c) 16 : 13
(d) 13 : 16
(e) 3 : 4
Ques 138. The number of tigers in National Park ‘E’ in 2018 is 40% more than a
number of tigers in National Park ‘D’ in 1998 while a number of tigers in National park
‘E’ in 1998 is 25% less than a number of tigers in National Park ‘C’ in 2018. Find a total
number of tigers in National Park ‘E’ in 1998 and 2018 together.
(a) 148
(b) 84
(c) 172
(d) 160
(e) 136
Ques 139. The average number of tigers in all National parks in 2018 is how much
less/more than the average number of tigers in all National parks in 1998?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) 22
What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
Ques 140. ?^2 = 40% of 5/11 of 352

(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 6
(d) 4
(e) 8
Ques 141. ?^2 = (√1444 + √676) ÷ 4

(a) 6
(b) 16
(c) 8
(d) 2
(e) 4
Ques 142. 60% of ?−√324 = 222

(a) 600
(b) 250
(c) 200
(d) 400
(e) 350
Ques 143. 23*32/90 ÷ ? = √64

(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 11
(e) 16
Ques 144. 160/10 = √4 ∗ ?

(a) 64
(b) 60
(c) 68
(d) 56
(e) 72
Ques 145. 80% of (1.5 × 4 + ? ) = 24

(a) 30
(b) 36
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 42
Directions: Find the wrong number in the following number series.
Ques 146. 1, 2, 5, 16, 65, 328, 1957

(a) 5
(b) 328
(c) 16
(d)1957
(e) 65
Ques 147. 4, 11, 25, 46, 74, 129, 151

(a) 129
(b) 11
(c) 151
(d) 4
(e) 46
Ques 148. 84, 96, 83, 95, 80, 94, 81

(a) 95
(b) 81
(c) 83
(d) 80
(e) 84
Ques 149. 3, 5, 8, 17, 33, 58, 94

(a) 8
(b) 94
(c) 58
(d) 3
(e) 5
your answer
Ques 150. I. 2x^2 − 5x + 2 = 0 II. 2y^2 − 9y + 7 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 151. I. 3x^2 + 7x + 4 = 0 II. y^2 + 9y + 20 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 152. I. x^2 − 7x + 10 = 0 II. y^2 − 14y + 45 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 153. I. x^2 – 3x = 4 II. y^2 + 6y + 8 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 154. I. x^2 – 3x = 10 II. y^2 + 7y + 10 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 155. A boat covers 36 km upstream in 2 hours and 66 km downstream in 3

hours. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
(a) 21km/h
(b) 19 km/h
(c) 20.5 km/h
(d) 20 km/h
(e) 19.5 km/h
Ques 156. If the circumference of the first circle is 132 cm and the circumference of
the second circle is 110cm then find the difference between the area of both the circle.
(a) 423.5 cm^2
(b) 412.5 cm^2
(c) 420 cm^2
(d) 422.4 cm^2
(e) 419.8 cm^2
Ques 157. In 64 liters of pure milk, 20 liters of water is mixed, and then 1/4th of the
mixture is taken out. When x liter of water is added again the ratio of water to that of
the milk becomes 1:2. Find the value of x.
(a) 10 liter
(b) 8 liter
(c) 12 liter
(d) 6 liter
(e) 9 liter
Ques 158. The total cost of x pens and (x-2) pencils is Rs 424. If one pencil and one
pen costs Rs 4 and Rs 20 respectively then find x.
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 15
(d) 20
(e) 21
Ques 159. A is 6 years younger than B and the ratio of the present age of B to C is
12:5. If the ratio of the present age of A to C is 2:1 then find the present age of B.
(a) 20 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 24 years
(d) 18 years
(e) None of these
Directions: Following are the details of three shopkeepers and numbers of items sold
by them on three different days
Shopkeepers Monday Tuesday Wednesday
A 160 240 210
B 200 180 320
C 150 330 280
Ques 160. Find the ratio of items sold by A and B on Monday to items sold by B and C
on Wednesday.
(a) 5 : 3
(b) 3 : 5
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 4 : 7
(e) 5 : 8
Ques 161. Find the average number of items sold by all 3 shopkeepers on
Wednesday.
(a) 280
(b) 290
(c) 270
(d) 250
(e) 260
Ques 162. Items sold by A and B together on Tuesday is what percentage of items
sold by B and C on Wednesday?
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 60%
(d) 65%
(e) 80%
Ques 163. Find the difference between the number of items sold by B on Monday and
Tuesday together and items sold by A on Tuesday and Wednesday.
(a) 80
(b) 60
(c) 50
(d) 70
(e) 100
Ques 164. Find the ratio of items sold by B on all 3 days together to the items sold by
C on all 3 days.
(a) 35 : 38
(b) 38 : 35
(c) 30 : 34
(d) 30 : 38
(e) 35 : 41
Ques 165. Marked price of an article is Rs 250 more than the cost price of that article
and it is sold at a discount of 15% on the marked price. Find the cost price of the
article if the profit percent earned is 27.5%.
(a) Rs 600
(b) Rs 550
(c) Rs 500
(d) Rs 750
(e) Rs 900
Ques 166. In the year 2016, the ratio of boys to girls in a school is 36:19. And in the
year 2017, the number of boys increased by 1440 and the number of girls increased
by 15%. If in 2017, there were a total increase in the number of students is 1725 then
find the increased number of boys in the school.
(a) 7240
(b) 5440
(c) 6040
(d) 4440
(e) 5040
Ques 167. If the ratio of salary of A to that of B is 1:3 and each spends 15% of his
salary on house rent. Find the house rent paid by A if remaining amount with A and B
together is Rs 42500.
(a) Rs 1800
(b) Rs 1845
(c) Rs 1785
(d) Rs 1760
(e) Rs 1875
Directions: Find the missing term in the following number series.
Ques 168. 1864, 1521, 1305, ? , 1116, 1089

(a) 1160
(b) 1180
(c) 1095
(d) 1205
(e) 1220
Ques 169. 18, ?, 9, 18, 72, 576

(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 18
(d) 10
(e) 6
Ques 170. 12, 6.5, 7.5, 12.75, 27.5, ?

(a) 66.5
(b) 68.75
(c) 63.75
(d) 71.25
(e) None of these
Ques 171. 5, 15, 50, ?, 1030, 6185

(a) 210
(b) 205
(c) 225
(d) 200
(e) 195
Ques 172. 130, 154, 186 , ? , 274, 330

(a) 216
(b) 220
(c) 240
(d) 226
(e) 230
your answer—
Ques 173. (i) x^2 = 81 (ii) y^2 – 18y + 81 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 174. (i) 4x^2 - 24x + 32 = 0 (ii) y^2 - 8y + 15 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 175. (i) x^2 - 21x + 108 = 0 (ii) y^2 – 17y + 72 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 176. (i) x^2 – 11x + 30 = 0 (ii) y^2 - 15y + 56 = 0

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 177. (i) x^3 = 512 (ii) y^2 = 64

(a) x ≥ y
(b) x ≤ y
(c) x > y
(d) x = y or RCE
(e) x < y
Ques 178. If a boat travels 18 km more in downstream than in upstream in 3 hr. and if
the speed of the Boat in still water is 20 km/hr. find the distance travelled by boat in
downstream in 4 hr. ?
(a) 86
(b) 92
(c) 68
(d) 96
(e) None of these
Ques 179. If A invested Rs. 12000 at some rate of interest of S.I and B joined him after 3
months investing 16000 at the same rate of interest if A leaves before 2 month of
completion, then what will be the share of B’s profit after 1 year if total profit is 22000 Rs. ?
Ans.
Ques 180. If the ratio of ages of P and Q 4 years ago is 5 : 4 and after 12 years sum of
their ages will be 68 years, their what was P’s age 2 years ago?
(a) 24 years
(b) 22 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 26 years
(e) 20 years
Ques 181. If Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 min and 20 mins respectively and pipe
C empties the tank in 12 mins. what will be the time taken by A, B and C together to fill
the tank completely?
(a) 25 min
(b) 30 min
(c) 40 min
(d) 20 min
(e)35 min
Ques 182. If a shopkeeper marks an item 50% above its CP and if 12% discount is
given on the marked price and the shopkeeper makes profit of 256 Rs, then what will
be the actual cost price of the item?
(a) 1000 Rs.
(b) 800 Rs.
(c) 750 Rs.
(d) 1200 Rs.
(e) 900 Rs
Directions: The line graph shows the data of five sellers selling items (in units) on
Monday and Tuesday
Ques 183. The no. of items sold by A and C together is how much more or less than
items sold by B and D together on both days?
(a) 250
(b) 280
(c) 300
(d) 320
(e) 350
Ques 184. What is the average no. of items sold by all five sellers on Monday?
(a) 298
(b) 305
(c) 280
(d) 300
(e) 315
Ques 185. Items sold by B and C on Tuesday together is what % more than same
sellers on Monday together?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
(e) 24%
Ques 186. Find the difference between items sold by B, D, and E on Monday together
and items sold by B and E on Tuesday together
(a) 150
(b) 180
(c) 160
(d) 120
(e) 200
Ques 187. Item sold On Monday by C and E together is approximately what

percentage of total items sold by A and B together on Tuesday?
(a) 71%
(b) 80%
(c) 55%
(d) 85%
(e) 65%
Directions: Find the missing term in the following number series:

Ques 188. 12, 12, 24, 72, ?, 1440

(a) 256
(b) 288
(c) 284
(d) 296
(e) 316
Ques 189. 16, 17.8, 21.4, 28.6, 43, ?

(a) 69.8
(b) 72.8
(c) 73.8
(d) 70.8
(e) 71.8
Ques 190. 12, 7, 8, 13, ?, 68.5

(a) 28
(b) 27
(c) 26
(d) 27.5
(e) 26.5
Ques 191. 72, 79, 65, 93, ?, 149

(a) 36
(b) 31
(c) 33
(d) 37
(e) 35
Ques 192. 8, 9, 19, 58, 233, ?

(a) 1164
(b) 1166
(c) 1156
(d) 1152
(e) 1158
Directions: What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
Ques 193. (48% of 625) ÷ 0.75 = ?

(a) 800
(b) None of these
(c) 40
(d) 4000
(e) 400
Ques 194. 4^3 + 182/7^2 +121 - 73= ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 3
Ques 195.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) None of these
(e) 3
Ques 196. 4 × ( ? + 120 ) = 8^3

(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 4
(e) 16
Ques 197.? + 432 – 205 = 550

(a) 384
(b) 244
(c) 224
(d) 276
(e) 324
Ques 198. 12 × 8 + ?^2 = 14^2

(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 6
(e) 9
Ques 199. 40% of 400 +? % of 300 = 250

(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) 20
Ques 200. √441 ÷ 7 = ? - 180

(a) 40
(b) 36
(c) 25
(d) 30
(e) 20
Ques 201. √576 − √144 + √729 = ? + 36

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) 3
Ques 202. 119 + 41 + 9 = ?^2

(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) 3
Ques 203. 12% (? + 100) = 18

(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 30
(d) 100
(e) 60
Ques 204. If the difference between the present age of P and Q is three years and the
ratio between the age of P and Q after two years will be 5 : 4, then find the age of P
after two years (in years).
(a) 15
(b) 13
(c) 18
(d) 16
(e) 14
Ques 205. A and B both spend 30% of their income together which is equal to Rs.
26400. If the income of A is 20% more than that of B, then find the income of B (in
Rs.).
(a) 52000
(b) 48000
(c) 40000
(d) 36000
(e) 30000
Ques 206. If a man invests an equal sum at the same rate of interest on simple interest
for T and T+4 years and the respective ratio of interest gets by man is 1:2
respectively, then find ‘T’?
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 3
(e) 4
Ques 207. 12 women can complete a work in 64 day, then find how many women will
be required to complete 2/3rd of the same work in 16 days?
(a) 28
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 32
(e) 48
Ques 208. A train running at the speed of 72 kmph crosses a pole in 30 seconds. Find
the time taken by the same train to cross the pole with the speed of 54 kmph (in sec)?
(a) 42
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 45
(e) 40
Ques 209. The upstream speed and downstream speed of a boat is 10 kmph and 14
kmph respectively and the boat travels for T hours & 6 hours in upstream and
downstream respectively. If the distance traveled in downstream is 44 km more than
upstream, then find the value of ‘T’
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 5
(e) 8
Ques 210. An article was marked up by 50% above the cost price and allowed Rs 50
discount on the marked price. If the shopkeeper still made a profit of Rs. 50, then find
the selling price of the article (in Rs.).
(a) 350 Rs.
(b) 300 Rs.
(c) 250 Rs.
(d) 200 Rs.
(e) 150 Rs.
Ques 211. A & B invested Rs. X and Rs. (X + 800) for the same period of time in a
business. If A gets Rs. 3200 as profit share out of a total profit of Rs. 6800, then find
‘X’?
(a) 7800
(b) 6000
(c) 8400
(d) 7200
(e) 6400
Ques 212. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ration of 3 : 1
respectively. If 20 liters mixture is taken out from the vessel and now the difference
between milk and water in the remaining mixture is 70 liters, then find initial mixture in
vessel (in liters).
(a) 240
(b) 160
(c) 120
(d) 80
(e) 180
Directions: The line graph given below shows the number of passengers traveling in
five (A, B, C, D & E) different compartments of trains. Read the data carefully and
answer the questions.
Ques 213. Total passengers in E are what percent less than total passengers in A?
(a) 6 1⁄4 %
(b) 8 1⁄3%
(c) 6 1⁄3%
(d) 6 2⁄3%
(e) 5%
Ques 214. Find an average number of passengers in A, C & E.

(a) 32
(b) 30
(c) 36
(d) 33
(e) 27
Ques 215. Find the ratio of total passengers in B to that of in D?

(a) 7 : 9
(b) 9 : 10
(c) 11 : 9
(d) 9 : 13
(e) 9 : 11
Directions: In each of the following questions, two equations I and II are given. Solve
both the equations carefully and choose the correct option.
Ques 216. I. 3x + 110/x = 2x - 21

II. y^2 + 75 = 156
a) x < y
b) x > y
c) x ≥ y
d) x = y or RCE
e) x ≤ y
Ques 217. I. 6x^2 + 11x - 35 = 0

II. y^2 +3y + 2 = 0
a) x < y
b) x > y
c) x ≥ y
d) x = y or RCE
e) x ≤ y
Ques 218. I. x^2 – 8x + 16 = 0

II. y^2 - y -12 = 0
a) x < y
b) x > y
c) x ≥ y
d) x = y or RCE
e) x ≤ y
Ques 219. I. 9x^2 - 9x + 2 = 0

II. 20y^2 + 1 = 9y
a) x < y
b) x > y
c) x ≥ y
d) x = y or RCE
e) x ≤ y
Ques 220. I: 3x^2 + 34x + 11 = 0

II: 6y^2 – 7y – 3 = 0
a) x < y
b) x > y
c) x ≥ y
d) x = y or RCE
e) x ≤ y
Ques 221. A spends 28% of his income on food and clothing, 12% on transport, 50%
of the remaining on his daughter's education, and saves the remaining Rs.15600.
What is the monthly income of A?
a) Rs.39000
b) Rs.60000
c) Rs.52000
d) Rs.65000
e) Rs.42000
Ques 222. The average present age of three friends A, B, and C is 22 years while the
average present age of A and C is 24 years. If A is 3 years older than B, then A is how
much younger than C?
a) 6 years
b) 5 years
c) 8 years
d) 4 years
e) 7 years
Ques 223. The area of a square and the area of a rectangle is in the ratio 3: 14
respectively. The breadth of the rectangle is 9 cm more than the side of the square. If
the perimeter of a square is 72 cm, then find the length of the rectangle.
a) 42 cm
b) 35 cm
c) 56 cm
d) 48cm
e) 54 cm
Ques 224. Lengths of two trains A and B which are moving in the same direction are
in the ratio 3: 4 respectively. The speed of train A is 3 m/s less than the speed of train
B. If train B crosses train A in 1 minute 24 seconds, then what is the length of train B?
a) 120 m
b) 164 m
c) 144 m
d) 136 m
e) 152 m
Ques 225. The time taken by A to do the five-sixth part of a work is equal to the time
taken by B to do the two-third part of the same work. C is thrice as efficient as B. If A,
B, and C together received Rs.504 to complete the work, then what is the share of B?
a) Rs.84
b) Rs.288
c) Rs.96
d) Rs.120
e) Rs.240
Directions: Below bar graph shows the number of employees who worked in three
companies (A, B, and C) in five years (2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, and 2017):
Ques 226. What is the average number of employees who work in company B in 2014
and 2017 together?
a) 500
b) 510
c) 470
d) 480
e) 490
Ques 227. The number of employees who worked in company A in 2016 is what
percentage more or less than the number of employees who work in company C in
2015?
a) 17.88%
b) 16.66%
c) 12.33%
d) 8.33%
e) 33.33%
Ques 228. A container contains 10 liters of water. 4 litres are removed from the
container, and replaced with acid. 4 liters are then removed from the solution of acid
and water and replaced with acid again. What is the percentage of acid in the
container now?
a) 28%
b) 36%
c) 44%
d) 56%
e) None of these
Ques 229. Srishti started a hotel with some investment. After three months, Preeti
joined her with 20% more investment than Srishti. At the end of 1.5 year, they received
Rs.4880 as profit. What is the share of Srishti in this profit?
a) Rs.3660
b) Rs.1220
c) Rs.1830
d) Rs.3050
e) None of these
Directions: Six players played a football tournament and each player got a different
number of attempts to score goals in the whole tournament. Out of the total number
of attempts made by each player, the respective player scored only some goals. The
line graph given below shows the number of attempts made by a player and the
number of goals scored as a percentage of the total number of attempts made by the
respective player.
Ques 230. Find the difference between the number of attempts in each of which A
didn't score a goal and that in each of which E didn't score goal.
(a) 24
(b) 20
(c) 22
(d) 27
(e) 25
Ques 231. Number of goals scored by D is what percentage of that scored by B and C
together?
(a) 75%
(b) 60%
(c) 85%
(d) 80%
(e) 64%
Ques 232. Find the ratio of the total number of goals scored by D and F together to the
total number of attempts made by both players together.
(a) 13: 25
(b) 11: 15
(c) 8: 15
(d) 11: 25
(e) 8: 25
Ques 233. The cost of painting a rectangular wall at Rs.160 per square meter is
Rs.8320. If side of the wall is 8 meters long, then find the length of its other side.
a) 8.4 m
b) 6.5 m
c) 7.5 m
d) 5.2 m
e) 7.8 m
Ques 234. Monthly income of B is half of monthly income of C whose monthly

expenditure and savings are in the ratio 2: 5 respectively. If B earns Rs.42000 every
month, then find C's monthly savings.
a) Rs.60000
b) Rs.42000
c) Rs.50000
d) Rs.36000
e) Rs.54000
Ques 235. In a river, the time taken by a boy to row up a distance is 3 times the time
taken by him to row down the same distance. If the speed of the current is 3 km/hr,
then find the speed of the boy in still water.
(a) 9 km/hr
(b) 7 km/hr
(c) 8 km/hr
(d) 5 km/hr
(e) 6 km/hr
Ques 236. Prem bought a cycle at Rs.12000. He spent Rs.500 on its maintenance. At
what price should he sell the cycle to earn a profit of 8%?
(a) Rs.12960
(b) Rs.14000
(c) Rs.12420
(d) Rs.14500
(e) Rs.13500
Ques 237. A train that is moving at a speed of 54 km/hr crosses a Y meters long
bridge in 14 seconds. If the length of the train is 116 meters, then find the value of Y.
(a) 98
(b) 102
(c) 94
(d) 88
(e) 104
Ques 238. A tank can be filled by motor A in 12 hours, but pipe A can empty it in 48
hours. When motor A and Pipe A are opened together, how much time they together
will take to fill the empty tank?
(a) 12 hours
(b) 20 hours
(c) 16 hours
(d) 18 hours
(e) 20 hours
Ques 239. Present ages of P, Q, R, and S are in the ratio 1: 3: 6: 4 respectively. Two
years later, the sum of their ages will be 162. Find the difference between the Present
ages of P and R.
(a) 45
(b) 30
(c) 55
(d) 35
(e) 50
Ques 240. There are 400 students in a college of which 40% are females. If 65% of
female students and 45% of male students participated in the badminton league, then
how many students did not participate in the badminton league?
(a) 164
(b) 188
(c) 192
(d) 170
(e) 206
Ques 241. 25 boys can finish a project in 6 hours while 20 girls can finish the same
project in 10 hours. In how many hours will 3 boys and 4 girls together finish the
project?
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 30
(e) 25
Ques 242. If a shopkeeper increases the selling price of an item from Rs.1296 to
Rs.1488, then his profit amount increases by 200%, then what is the cost price of that
item?
(a) Rs.1050
(b) Rs.1200
(c) Rs.720
(d) Rs.990
(e) Rs.1080
Ques 243. Three persons X, Y, and Z invested in the ratio 5: 7: 3,and after the end of
the business they receives profit in the ratio 15: 14: 12. If the time for which Y
invested his capital is 8 years, then find the investment period of X and Z,
respectively.
(a) 10 years and 16 years
(b) 10 years and 12 years
(c) 12 years and 16 years
(d) 8 years and 12 years
(e) 8 years and 10 years
Ques 244. The total amount received on a certain sum of money at the rate of interest
of 15% per annum compound interest after 3 years is Rs. 36501. What was the
principal (in Rs.)?
(a) Rs. 21000
(b) Rs. 20000
(c) Rs. 24000
(d) Rs. 25000
(e) Rs. 22000
Ques 245. Two trains A and B having the same length which is 120 meters, are
moving towards each other. The speed of train A is 4 m/s less than the speed of train
B. If train A crosses train B completely in 6 seconds, then what is the speed of train
A?
(a) 18 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 22 m/s
(d) 16 m/s
(e) 24 m/s
Directions: 4 countries A, B, C and D participated in an Olympic game and each

country won different no. of gold medals, silver medals, and bronze medals. The table
given below shows the total no. of medals, no. of gold medals, and no. of silver
medals as a percentage of the total no. of medals won by each country.
Ques 246. Find the ratio of the number of bronze medals won by country B to that
won by country D.
(a) 7: 5
(b) 12: 7
(c) 15: 11
(d) 10: 7
(e) 5: 3
Ques 247. Find the average number of gold medals and silver medals won by country
A.
(a) 30
(b) 36
(c) 48
(d) 42
(e) 24
Ques 248. The number of bronze medals won by country D is what percentage more
than that won by country C?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 16%
(e) 18%
Directions: The following table shows the marks of three students (A, B and C) in
different subjects in an entrance test.
Subject (Maximum Marks) A B C
General Knowledge (50) 42 46 41
Maths (100) 80 73 67
Reasoning (50) 32 39 44
English (120) 95 98 112
General Science (80) 59 63 68
Ques 249. Considering the percentage of total marks obtained by a student in the
entrance test out of total maximum marks in the entrance test, what is the maximum
difference between the values of these percentages for any two students?
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 12%
(d) 15%
(e) 6%
Ques 250. The difference between the average marks obtained by all the students in
Maths and the average marks obtained by all the students in Reasoning is
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 45
(d) 40
(e) 30
Ques 251. In which subject the combined marks of all three students A, B and C is the
second lowest?
(a) English
(b) General Science
(c) Reasoning
(d) Maths
(e) General Knowledge
Ques 252. What is the average marks obtained by B in subjects General knowledge,
English and General Science?
(a) 68
(b) 70
(c) 72
(d) 69
(e) 67
Ques 253. In an alloy of 480 grams, quantity of copper is 50% more than the quantity
of lead. If 60 grams of lead is added to the mixture, then what is the respective ratio of
quantities of copper and lead in the new mixture?
(a) 5: 4
(b) 12: 11
(c) 9: 8
(d) 15: 14
(e) 8: 7
Ques 254. Two numbers are in the ratio of (3/4): (1/2). Find the ratio of their difference
to their sum.
(a) 2: 7
(b) 1: 4
(c) 1: 5
(d) 3: 7
(e) 2: 5
Ques 255. 10 men and 15 women can finish a work in 6 days. One man alone finished
that work in 100 days. In how many days a woman alone can finish the work?
(a) 150
(b) 225
(c) 125
(d) 90
(e) 175
Directions: Following bar graph shows the total number of workers working in P-
MART grocery store and numbervof female workers working in P-MART grocery store
in four different shifts of 4 hours each.
Ques 256. Total number of female workers working in grocery store in all shifts
together is
(a) 21
(b) 29
(c) 32
(d) 31
(e) 26
Ques 257. Total number of workers working in shift 7pm to 11pm is what percent
more than the total number of workers working in shift 7 am to 11 am?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
Ques 258. Ratio of the number of male workers working in shift 7am to 11am to the
number of male workers working in shift 3pm to 7pm is
(a) 4: 5
(b) 3: 4
(c) 4: 3
(d) 1: 3
(e) 5: 3
Ques 259. Number of male workers working in shift 11am to 3pm is what percent of
the number of male workers working in shift 7pm to 11pm?
(a) 28%
(b) 30%
(c) 21%
(d) 35%
(e) 14%
Ques 260. The difference between the number of male workers and the number of
female workers working in grocery store in all shifts together is
(a) 12
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 10
(e) 15
Ques 261. Present age of Arun is three times the present age of Varun. Sohan is 5
years elder to Varun and 25 years younger to Arun. Find the ratio of the age of Sohan
to that of Arun, after 5 years.
(a) 1: 2
(b) 2: 1
(c) 2: 3
(d) 1: 3
(e) 1: 5
Ques 262. A student calculated loss of 20 % on S.P instead of that on C.P. find the
actual loss percentage.
(a) 16(1/3)%
(b) 16(2/3)%
(c) 17(1/3)%
(d) 17(2/3)%
(e) None of these
Ques 263. Find the respective ratio of heights of two cylinders whose volumes are
equal and diameters are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively.
(a) 25:16
(b) 16:25
(c) 4:9
(d) 9:4
(e) None of these
Ques 264. The average of 80 numbers is 72. If two new numbers are added, then the
average becomes 78. What is the average of the two new numbers?
(a) 234
(b) 318
(c) 324
(d) 354
(e) 348
Ques 265. The average of 80 numbers is 72. If two new numbers are added, then the
average becomes 78. What is the average of the two new numbers?
(a) 234
(b) 318
(c) 324
(d) 354
(e) 348
Ques 266. A tank is normally filled in 10 hours but due to leak at bottom it takes 2
hours more. If the tank is full, the leak will empty it in
(a) 45 hours
(b) 50 hours
(c) 55 hours
(d) 60 hours
(e) 65 hours
Ques 267. If Karan invested Rs 4,000 and Kiran invested Rs 5000 for a period of 'x'
and 'y' months respectively and if Karan receives Rs 32,000 as share from a profit of
Rs 52,000, what is the value of x:y?
(a) 3:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 4:3
(e) 5:2
Ques 268. At simple interest, a sum amounts to Rs.1064 at 11% annual rate of interest
in 3 years and Rs.1104 at R% annual rate of interest in 2 years. The value of R is equal
to
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
(e) 20
Ques 269. When a shopkeeper sells an item at Rs.630, then he has a loss of 25%. At
what price should he sell the item to gain 25%?
(a) Rs.1000
(b) Rs.1050
(c) Rs.1075
(d) Rs.975
(e) Rs.1125
Ques 270. Two years ago, the mother was thrice as old as her son at that time. Eleven
years later, the mother will be twice as old as her son at that time. Presently, son is __
years old.
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 10
(e) 18
Ques 271. Person A can sell a pen on an average of 23 pens per day in a month. If he
sells on an average of 21 pens in the first 10 days and 27 pens in the next 5 days, then
what is the average number of pens sold by him in the remaining days of the month?
(Assume 1 month = 30 days)
(a) 24
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 21
(e) 20
Ques 272. 7 men can do as much work as 5 women can do. If 12 men and 10 women
together can do a certain work in 18 days. How many men can complete the same
work in 39 days?
(a) 12 men
(b) 10 men
(c) 8 men
(d) 15 men
(e) 18 men
Ques 273. The respective ratio of the present ages of Alka and Sushila is 2:3. After n
years, the respective ratio of their ages will be 4:5. Suman is ten years younger than
Alka. If the present age of Suman is 20 years, find the value of n.
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 30
(e) None of these
Ques 274. Alok and Aman enter into a partnership with their initial capital Rs.5400 and
Rs.6300, respectively. If Alok adds Rs.1800 more to his capital after 9 months, then
what is the ratio of profit at the end of a year?
(a) 13: 14
(b) 10: 11
(c) 14: 15
(d) 12: 13
(e) 13: 17
Ques 275. A train travelling with a speed of 64.8 km/hr crosses a pole in 5 seconds.
How much time will it take to pass a bridge 72 m long?
(a) 8 seconds
(b) 7.2 seconds
(c) 9 seconds
(d)10 seconds
(e) 8.4 seconds
Ques 276. Speed of a boat in still water is 5.5 kmph and speed of stream is 0.5 kmph.
The boat covers a certain distance from point A to point B in 2 hours and from point B
to point A back in 2.4 hours. Find the distance between points A and B.
(a) 10 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 8 km
(d) 15 km
(e) None of these
Ques 277. The marked price of an article is Rs.250. Shopkeeper earns Rs. Y less as
profit when he sold the article at 15% discount instead of 10% discount. Find the
value of Y.
(a) 15
(b) 12.5
(c) 10
(d) 16.5
(e) 18
Ques 278. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 1 year at 40% per annum
compounded annually would fetch Rupees 8333 more, if the interest was payable
quarterly, then sum of money is
(a) Rs 130000
(b) Rs 125000
(c) Rs 150000
(d) Rs 90000
(e) Rs 160000
Ques 279. 137 litres of an aerosol contains barium and gas. 20% of the aerosol is
used. The quantity of barium in the aerosol is 20 litres now. What is the quantity of
gas left in the aerosol?
(a) 89.6 litres
(b) 92 litres
(c) 93.6 litres
(d) 90 litres
(e) 85 litres
Ques 280. The ratio of the efficiency of A, B, and C is 3: 5: 4 respectively. If C alone

takes 57.6 days to finish a work then, how many days A and B together will take to
finish the same work?
(a) 30 days
(b) 33.2 days
(c) 36.4 days
(d) 26.8 days
(e) 28.8 days
Ques 281. In a group of singers, number of male singers is 36 more than the number
of female singers. If 40 new male singers join the group, then the ratio of number of
male singers to that of female singers will be 5: 3. Find the number of female singers.
(a) 120
(b) 108
(c) 112
(d) 128
(e) 114
Ques 282. 80% population of a city watch movies out of which 60% people watch
action movies. If 55% action movie watchers are females, then the male population
who watch action movies is what percent of the total population of the city?
(a) 24.8%
(b) 21.6%
(c) 27.2%
(d) 19.8%
(e) 16.6%
Ques 283. Ratio of price of item A to item B on Saturday is 5: 7 and price of items A
and B on Sunday is increased by 50% and 20% respectively from Saturday. Find the
total percent increment in the price of both the items together.
(a) 35%
(b) 27.5%
(c) 32.5%
(d) 25%
(e) 30%
Ques 284. Rajeev goes from Lucknow to Delhi which is 600km away at an average
speed of 60 km/hr. While going from Lucknow to Delhi he has to stop for 30 minutes
due to traffic jam. Now in order to reach Delhi in time he increased his average speed
by 15 km/hr. At what distance from Delhi he faced the traffic jam?
(a) 450 km
(b) 300 km
(c) 150 km
(d) 400 km
(e) 200 km
Ques 285. Four friends Dinesh, Ramesh, Mahesh and Bhawesh entered into a
partnership with investment of Rs.135000, Rs.85000, Rs.175000 and Rs.105000
respectively. After one year, Ramesh doubled his investment amount and Bhawesh
invested Rs.20000 more. After one more year, Mahesh withdrew his investment
amount. At the end of three years, they earned a profit of Rs.1228000. Find the share
of Mahesh in the profit.
(a) Rs.420000
(b) Rs.280000
(c) Rs.240000
(d) Rs.320000
(e) None of these
Ques 286. The respective ratio of present ages of P, Q and R is 2: 3: 5. Two years ago,
the sum of ages of P and Q was 8/9 times the age of R at that time. Four years hence,
what will be the ratio of ages of P and Q respectively?
(a) 3: 4
(b) 10: 11
(c) 6: 7
(d) 4: 5
(e) None of these
Ques 287. Average of A's weight, B's weight and C's weight is 58 kg. If ratio of B's
weight to C's weight is 3: 2 and A's weight is 18 kg less than B's weight, then find the
average of A's weight and B's weight?
(a) 63 kg
(b) 65 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 68 kg
(e) 61 kg
Ques 288. The ratio of length and breadth of the rectangular land is 5: 3 and the cost
of fencing the square land is Rs. 10 per meter. If the area of the rectangular land is 540
m2 and square land whose side is 15 m more than the length of the rectangular land,
then find the total cost of fencing the square land?
(a) Rs. 2000
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 1600
(d) Rs. 1800
(e) Rs. 3600
Ques 289. Cost price of an item is Rs.1200. The item is sold after giving two
successive discounts of 10% and Rs.120 respectively on the marked price and the
profit earned is 25%. What will be the profit amount if successive discounts given are
Rs.120 and 10% respectively?
(a) Rs.324
(b) Rs.288
(c) Rs.312
(d) Rs.360
(e) Rs.292
Ques 290. P can complete a work alone in approximately 1198 hours and Q and R
together can complete the whole work in 24 days. If the ratio of time taken by P alone
to that taken by R alone to complete the whole work is 5: 4, then find the time taken by
Q alone to complete the whole work.
(a) 50 days
(b) 48 days
(c) 52 days
(d) 60 days
(e) 56 days
Ques.291 Train A crosses train B, running in same direction, in 42 seconds. If train B

is 240 m long and train A is 10 m/s faster than train B, then find the length of train A?
(a) 200 m
(b) 210 m
(c) 180 m
(d) 160 m
(e) 220 m
Ques 292. A batsman has an average of 25 runs for 9 innings. He scored 'y' runs in
10th inning and his average after 10 innings is increased by 3. What is the value of
'y'?
(a) 65
(b) 45
(c) 80
(d) 55
(e) 60
Ques 293. A seller marks his goods 45% above cost price and then gives a discount
of 20%. Find the gain percent.
(a) 10%
(b) 16%
(c) 15%
(d) 12%
(e) 83%
Ques 294. P and Q started a business together by investing in the ratio 3:5
respectively. Q left the business after 2 months. At the end of the year, the share out
of the total profit received by P was Rs. 4680. What amount of the profit was received
by Q?
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 1300
(d) Rs. 1600
(e) Rs. 1200
150 IBPS RRB Practice Questions for
Quantitative Aptitude
Q1. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
4, 36, 252, 1260, ?, 3780
1. 4800
2. 4280
3. 3680
4. 2640
5. 3780
Correct Option: 5
Q2. In the given number series, what would come in place of the (?) question mark?
32, 31, 29.5, 27.5, ?
1. 32.5
2. 26.5
3. 24.5
4. 25
5. None of these
Correct Option: 4
Q3. In the following number series, what should come in the place of question mark (?)?
1, 10, 35, 84, ?, 286
1. 125
2. 165
3. 132
4. 216
5. None of these
Correct Option: 2
Q4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
103, 108 , 98, 113 , 93, ?
1. 68
2. 111
3. 108
4. 73
5. 118
Correct Option: 5
Q5. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
7731, ?, 9243, 9459, 9523
1. 8371
2. 8731
3. 9731
4. 9127
5. None of these
Correct Option: 2
Q6.
I. 12x2- 24x +12 = 0
II. y2 +3y + 2 = 0
1. if x < y
2. if x ≤ y
3. if x > y
4. if x ≥ y
5. if x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
Correct Option: 3
Q7.
I. x2 + 11x = 4x - 12
II. 8y2 + 16y = 8y + 16
1. if x < y
2. if x ≤ y
3. if x > y
4. if x ≥ y
5. if x = y or Relationship between x and y cannot be established
Correct Option: 1
Q8.
I: x2 – 11x + 18 = 0
II: y2 - 6y – 27 = 0
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established
Correct Option: 5
Q9. 3.2% of 500 × 2. 4% of ? = 288

(a) 650
(b) 700
(c) 600
(d) 750
(e) 850
Answer: D
Q10. (–251 × 21 × (– 12)) ÷ ? = 158.13

(a) 250
(b) 400
(c) 300
(d) 15
(e) 18
Answer: B
Q11. [(𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏)𝟐𝟐 ÷ 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏] ÷ 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 = ?
(a) 352
(b) 314
(c) 326
(d) 338
(e) 426
Answer: D
Q12. √√𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + √𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓= ?

(a) 576
(b) 144
(c) 256
(d) 16
(e) 12
Answer: E
Q13. (6.5% of 375) – (0.85% of 230) =?

(a) 23.42
(b) 24.24
(c) 21.64
(d) 25.76
(e) 22.42
Answer: A
Q14. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
[(21 + 73) - (√529 + 132)] + 23 =?
1. 129
2. 455
3. 376
4. 232
5. 780
Correct Option: 4
Q15. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given expression?
24% of 4500 + 13% of 600 – 12% of 1800 =?
1. 942
2. 378
3. 671
4. 183
5. 792
Correct Option: 1
Q16. The average of the present age of Ravi and Ranjan is 13.5 years. 3 years ago, Ravi's
age was 75% of the Ranjan's age. What is the difference between their present ages?
1. 3 years
2. 10 years
3. 12 years
4. 6 years
5. 2 years
Correct Option: 1
Q17. Ratio of number of boys to girls in a class is 9: 5. Next year, number of boys will be
increased by 90 while the number of girls will be increased by 80% and the ratio of boys to
girls will be 6: 5, then what is the difference between number of boys and girls initially?
1. 200
2. 100
3. 150
4. 250
5. None of these
Correct Option: 1
Q18. Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You have to determine
whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question.What is the
selling price of a bike if a bike and a scooter is sold by person A to person B if total cost price
of bike and scooter for A is Rs.75000?
I. Ratio of selling price of bike to that of scooter is 7: 5.
II. Total profit per cent earned by A when he sold bike and scooter to B is 21%.
1. I alone is sufficient.
2. II alone is sufficient.
3. Both I and II together are not sufficient.
4. Either I alone or II alone is sufficient.
5. Both I and II together are sufficient.
Correct Option: 5
Q19. A shopkeeper sold 40 Kg of rice and earned a profit equal to cost of 20 Kg of rice. Find
the profit percent earned by the shopkeeper by selling 40 Kg rice.
1. 10%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%
5. None of these
Correct Option: 3
Q20. What will come at the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
4, 37, 103, 202, 334, ?
1. 420
2. 416
3. 499
4. 456
5. None of these
Correct Option: 3
Q21. What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the given number series?
16000, 3200, ?, 320, 160, 32
1. 560
2. 400
3. 1600
4. 640
5. 800
Correct Option: 3
Q22. What would come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?
15, 32, 66, 134, 270, ?
1. 542
2. 540
3. 600
4. 580
5. 450
Correct Option: 1
Q23. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
4, 5, 14, 39, ?, 169
1. 72
2. 78
3. 88
4. 97
5. 103
Correct Option: 3
Q24. What would come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
6, 32, 162, 812, ?
1. 4060
2. 4061
3. 4062
4. 4063
5. 4064
Correct Option: 3
Q25.
I. x2 + 24x +144=0
II.y2 + 15y +56=0
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
Correct Option: 3
Q26.
I. x2 - 10x + 16 = 0
II. y2 - 11y + 30 = 0
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
Correct Option: 5
Q27. In the following question, there are two quadratic equations. Study both the equations
carefully and answer.
I. 2x2 – 15x + 18 = 0
II. 2y2 + 21y – 36 = 0
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or no relation can be established
Correct Option: 2
Q28.
I. x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
II. 6y2 + 19y = -14
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or the relationship cannot be established.
Correct Option: 1
Q29. In the following question, there are two quadratic equations. Study both the equations
carefully and answer accordingly.
I. x2 + 20x + 75 = 0
II. y2 – 25y – 150 = 0
1. x > y
2. x ≥ y
3. x < y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or no relation can be established
Correct Option: 4
Q30. What value should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following questions?
572 ÷ 26 x 12-200 = (2)?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 8
5. None of these
Correct Option: 3
(?)3 ÷ 32 = 73 - 152 + 62 - 102
1. 18
2. 4
3. 17
4. 12
5. 14
Correct Option: 4
Q32. What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
√144 + ? = 4 1/5 of 115
1. 459
2. 452
3. 471
4. 484
5. 465
Correct Option: 3
?/22 of √144 = 96/? of ∛1331
1. 68
2. 47
3. 44
4. 62
5. 56
Correct Option: 3
180/3 - 16 x 10 + √576 = ?
1. -74
2. -76
3. -82
4. -80
5. -62
Correct Option: 2
4 3/7- 8 ¾ + 6 5/6 = ?
1. 1 (71/84)
2. 3 (1/84)
3. 2 (43/84)
4. 2 (29/84)
5. 2 (59/84)
Correct Option: 3
(35)2 ÷ ∛125 + (25)2 + (5)3 =?
1. 1000
2. 995
3. 1975
4. 1375
5. None of these
Correct Option: 2
√529 + ? = 1 1/4 of 88
1. 97
2. 73
3. 91
4. 69
5. 87
Correct Option: 5
√676 + ? = 2 2/7 of 84
1. 149
2. 177
3. 178
4. 166
5. 198
Correct Option: 4
Q39. Ratio of income of A to B is 5: 8 and ratio of their expenditure is 2: 3 respectively. If

savings of persons B is Rs.3000 more than that of A and out of his total income, B spends
75% of it, then what is the total savings of persons A and B together?
1. Rs.8000
2. Rs.6000
3. Rs.9000
4. Rs.12000
5. None of these
Correct Option: 3
Q39. Average age of cricket team of 15 players is 22 years and when the age of two
coaches are also added, then average age is increased by 2 years. What is the present age
of elder coach if the ratio of ages of both the coaches is 8: 5?
1. 42 years
2. 48 years
3. 54 years
4. 36 years
5. None of these
Correct Option: 2
Q40. Sides of a rectangle are in the ratio 3: 2 respectively and its area is 1/2 times more
than the area of a square whose perimeter is 60 cm. What is the longer side of the
rectangle?
1. 22.5 cm
2. 19.5 cm
3. 25.5 cm
4. 28.5 cm
5. 16.5 cm
Correct Option: 1
Q41. An item is purchased at Rs.720, when the item is sold to a customer, 10% profit is
earned, then at what price the item is sold?
1. Rs.756
2. Rs.864
3. Rs.792
4. Rs.828
5. Rs.900
Correct Option: 3
Q42. Mohan invested Rs 5000 in a bank which offers interest at the rate of 10% per year
compounded semiannually. How much amount will he get after 2 years?
1. Rs 6320
2. Rs 7000
3. Rs 6250
4. Rs 6512
5. Rs 6077
Correct Option: 5
Q43. A alone can complete a piece of work in 25 days and A is 40% less efficiency than B,
then in how many days A and B together can complete 80% of the work?
1. 7(1/3) days
2. 9 days
3. 7 days
4. 7.5 days
5. 8 days
Correct Option: 4
Q44. A boat goes 90 km upstream in 4 hours 30 minutes. If the speed of stream is 4 km/h,
then what is the downstream speed of the boat?
1. 30 km/h
2. 32 km/h
3. 28 km/h
4. 24 km/h
5. 18 km/h
Correct Option: 3
Q45. The father was 30 years old when the son was born and 15 years from now, the son
will be as old as the father was when the son was 5 years old. What is the present age of
father?
1. 42 years
2. 48 years
3. 50 years
4. 60 years
5. 45 years
Correct Option: 3
Q46. What percent of a day in 6 hours?

A. 25%
B. 52%
C. 50%
D. 5%
Q47. The population of of a town is 176000. If it increases at the rate of 5% per annum, what
will be it’s population 2 years hence?
A. 194000
B. 194040
C. 190440
D. 194104
Q48. The length and breadth of a rectangle are increased by 20% and 30%. The area of the
resulting rectangle exceeds the area of the original rectangle?
A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 56%
D. 156%
Q49 Sugar contain 5% water. What quantity of pure Sugar should be added to 10 litres of
water to reduce this to 2%.
A. 5 lit
B. 6 lit
C. 10 lit
D. 15 lit
Q50. The price of a fan is decreased by 20%. As a result of which the sale increased by
40%. What will be the effect on the total revenue of the shop?
A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%
Q51. 45% of ? = 25% of 355

A. 195
B. 176
C. 127
D. 197.22
Q52. Out of 500 students of a school 35% students plays football, 25% plays cricket and
20% neither play football nor cricket. How many students play football and cricket ?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 50
D. 94
Q53. Fresh fruits contains 70% of water and dry fruits contain 20% of water. How much dry
fruit can be obtained from 100kg of fresh fruits?
A. 35
B. 37
C. 37.5
D. 40
Q54. If Harish height is 30% less than that of Yogesh. How much percentage Yogesh height
is more than that of Harish?
A. 42.58%
B. 42.8%
C. 42.83%
D. 42.85%
Q55. If the price of wheat is reduced by 2%. How many kilograms of wheat a person can buy
with the same money which was earlier sufficient to buy 49 kg of wheat?
A. 58 kg
B. 60 kg
C. 52 kg
D. 50 kg
Q56. Monthly salary of A is 30% more than B’s monthly salary and B’s monthly salary is 20%
less than C’s. If the difference between the monthly salaries of A and C is Rs 800, then find
the annual salary of B.
A. Rs 14,500
B. Rs 16,800
C. Rs 15,000
D. None of these
Q57. 3 years ago the population of a town was 1,60,000. In the three respective years the
population increased by 3%, 2.5% and 5% respectively. What is the population of town after
3 years?
A. 1,77,366
B. 1,66,733
C. 1,76,736
D. 1,80,766
Q58. There are 2500 students who appeared for an examination. Out of these, 35%
students failed in 1 subject and 42% in other subject and 15% of students failed in both the
subjects. How many of the students passed in either of the 2 subjects but not in both?
A. 1925
B. 1175
C. 1275
D. 1100
Q59. In a class of 60 students, 40% of the students passed in Reasoning, 5% of the

students failed in Quants and Reasoning, and 20% of the students passed in both the
subjects. Find the number of students passed only in Quants?
A.17
B. 33
C. 23
D. 37
Q60. In an examination, 50% of the students passed in science and 75% passed in Social,
while 20% students failed in both the subjects. If 270 students passed in both subjects, find
the total number of students who appeared in the exam?
A. 400
B. 540
C. 600
D. 750
Q61. A, B and C divide Rs 4200 among themselves in the ratio 7 : 8 : 6. If Rs 200 is added
to each of their shares, what is the new ratio in which they will receive the money?
A) 9 : 8 : 7
B) 8 : 9 : 7
C) 8 : 9 : 8
D) 9 : 10 : 8
Q62. The ratio of the incomes of A and B last year was 9 : 13. Ratio of their incomes of last
year to this year is 9 : 10 and 13 : 15 respectively. The sum of their present incomes is Rs
50,000. What is the present income of B?
A) Rs 32,000
B) Rs 24,000
C) Rs 20,000
D) Rs 30,000
Q63. Rs 650 was divided among 3 children in the ratio 2 : 4 : 7. Had it been divided in the
ratio 1/2 : 1/4 : 1/7. Who would have gained the most and by how much?
A) C, Rs 246
B) C, Rs 264
C) B, Rs 18
D) A, Rs 264
Q63. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20%
are allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?
A) 3 : 3 : 10
B) 10 : 11 : 20
C) 23 : 33 : 60
Q64. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2 and their expenditures are in the ratio 2 :
5. If A saves Rs 20,000 and B saves Rs 35,000, what is the total income of A and B?
A) Rs 30,000
B) Rs 90,000
C) Rs 90,000
D) Rs 60,000
Q65. Rs 5750 is divided among A, B, and C such that if their share be reduced by Rs 10, Rs
15 and Rs 25 respectively, the reminder amounts with them shall be in the ratio 4 : 6 : 9.
What was C’s share then?
A) Rs 2700
B) Rs 2725
C) Rs 2750
D) Rs 2625
Q66. The ratio of income of A and B is 2:3. The sum of their expenditure is Rs.8000 and the
amount of savings of A is equal to the amount of expenditure of B. What is their ratio of sum
of income to their sum of savings?
A) 5:3
B) 3:2
C) 4:3
D) 3:1
Q67. There are two numbers. When 25% of the first number is added to the second number,
the resultant number is 1.5 times the first number. What is the ratio of 1st number to the 2nd
number?
A) 3:5
B) 5:4
C) 4:5
D) 2:3
Q68. In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30
in all, how many 5 p coins are there?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Q69. 180 sweets are divided among friends A, B, C and D in which B and C are brothers
also such that sweets divided between A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3, between B and C in the
ratio 2 : 5 and between C and D in ratio 3 : 4. What is the number of sweets received by the
brothers together?
A) 78
B) 84
C) 92
D) 102
Q70. Consider two alloys A and B. 50 kg of alloy A is mixed with 70 kg of alloy B. A contains
brass and copper in the ratio 3 : 2, and B contains them in the ratio 4 : 3 respectively. What
is the ratio of copper to brass in the mixture?
A) 8 : 5
B) 7 : 5
C) 5 : 11
D) 5 : 7
Q71) The cost of a diamond varies as the square of its weight. A diamond weighing 20
decigrams costs Rs. 4,800. Find the cost of a diamond of the same kind weighing 8
decigrams.
A) Rs 762
B) Rs 760
C) Rs 764
D) Rs 768
Q72) A bag contains 25p, 50p and 1Re coins in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 5 respectively. If the total
money in the bag is Rs 75, find the number of 50p coins in the bag.
A) 45
B) 50
C) 25
D) 40
Q73) A is directly proportional to B and also inversely proportional to the square of C. When
B = 16 and C = 2, A = 36. Find the value of A when B = 32 and C = 4.
A) 25
B) 20
C) 18
D) 32
Q74) One year ago the ratio between Rahul salary and Rohit salary is 4:5. The ratio
between their individual salary of the last year and current year is 2:3 and 3:5 respectively. If
the total current salary of Rahul and Rohit is 4300. Then find the current salary of Rahul.
A) 1200
B) 1800
C) 1600
D) 2000
Q75) There are two mixtures of honey and water in which the ratio of honey and water are
as 1:3 and 3:1 respectively. Two litres are drawn from first mixture and 3 litres from second
mixture, are mixed to form another mixture. What is the ratio of honey and water in it ?
a. 111:108
b. 11:9
c. 103:72
d. None
Correct Answer: “b”
Q76) A man pays Rs. 6.40 per litre of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 8 per
litre, thereby making 37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers
is
a. 1:10
b. 10:1
c. 9:11
d. 11:9
Q77) The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In
what ratio the liquids in both the vessels be mixed to obtain a new mixture in vessel c
consisting half milk and half water?
a. 8:3
b. 6:7
c. 7:5
d. 11:7
Correct Answer: “c”
Q78) 8 litres are drawn from a flask containing milk and then filled with water. The operation
is performed 3 more times. The ratio of the quantity of milk left and total solution is 81/625.
How much milk the flask initially holds?
a. 10ltr
b. 20ltr
c. 30ltr
d. 40ltr
Q79) Two vessels contain milk and water in the ratio of 7:3 and 2:3 respectively. Find the
ratio in which the contents of both the vessels must be mixed to get a new mixture
containing milk and water in the ratio 3:2.
a. 2:1
b. 2:3
c. 3:1
d. 3:5
Q80) How many Kgs of rice A costing rupees 20 per kg must be mixed with 20 kg of rice B
costing rupees 32 per kg, so that after selling them at 35 rupees per kg, he gets a profit of
25%.
a. 10 kg
b. 40 kg
c. 24 kg
d. 25 kg
Q81) A sample of x litre is replaced from a container containing milk and water in the ratio
2:3 by pure milk. If the container hold 30 litres of the mixture e, and after the operation
proportion of milk and water is same. Find the value of X?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
Q81) An alloy contains 4 parts bronze and 6 parts copper. How much part of mixture should
be drawn out and replaced with bronze so that the ratio of bronze to copper gets reversed in
new mixture?
a. 2/5
b. 1/3
c. ¼
d. 10/3
Q82) A mixture of milk and water contains 25% water. 12 litres of this mixture is drawn out
and replaced with 5 litres of water. If the new ratio of water to milk becomes 2 : 5, what is the
amount of milk originally present in the mixture?
a. 82 litres
b. 75 litres
c. 95 litres
d. 84 litres
Q83) A container filled with liquid containing 4 parts of water and 6 parts of milk. How much
of mixture must be drawn off and filled with water so that the mixture contains half milk and
half water.
a. ¼
b. 1/3
c. 1/6
d. 1/5
Q84) How much water must be added to 50 litre of milk costing 10 rupees per litre so as to
bring the cost of milk to 8 rupees per litre.
a. 11.5
b. 12.5
c. 13.5
d. 14.5
Q85) A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 100. When
he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 340. If the zoo had either pigeons or
elephants, how many pigeons were there in the zoo?
a. 45
b. 30
c. 70
d. 50
Q89) 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is
performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the
water is 16 : 65. How much wine the cask hold originally?
a. 18 litres
b. 24 litres
c. 32 litres
d. 42 litres
Q90) A mixture of 150 litres of wine and water contains 20% water. How much more water
should be added so that water becomes 25% of the new mixture?
a. 10 litres
b. 20 litres
c. 30 litres
d. 40 litres
Q91) The ratio of petrol and kerosene in the container is 3:2 when 10 liters of the mixture is
taken out and is replaced by the kerosene, the ratio become 2:3. Then total quantity of the
mixture in the container is:
a. 25
b. 30
c. 45
d. cannot be determined
Q92. Find the next term in the series.
38, 51, 66, 83, 102, ?
1. 128
2. 115
3. 138
4. 123 5. 112
Answer key: 4

362, 324, 288, 254, 222, ?
1. 196
2. 208
3. 205
4. 192
5. 203
Answer key: 4

6, 33, 87, 168, 276, ?
1. 411
2. 418
3. 403
4. 354
5. 345
Answer key: 1

1008, 1015, 1026, 1039, 1056, ?
1. 1099
2. 1119
3. 1075
4. 1161
5. 1135
Answer key: 3

342, 214, 122, 60, 22, ?
1. 6
2. 21
3. 8
4. 11
5. 2
Answer key: 5

48.0, 120.0, 420.0, 1890.0, 10395.0, ?
1. 67567.5
2. 67486.5
3. 67427.5
4. 67401.5
5. 67744.5
Answer key: 1
Q97. Find the next term in the series. 11, 23, 43, 73, 115, ?
1. 153
2. 147
3. 149
4. 151
5. 171
Answer key: 5

36, 38, 43, 54, 71, ?
1. 113
2. 94
3. 70
4. 86
5. 90
Answer key: 2

6, 13, 22, 33, 46, ?
1. 2
2. 61
3. 70
4. 41
5. 46
Answer Key: 2

2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ?
1. 360
2. 820
3. 1440
4. 1330
5. 290
Answer Key: 3
1. 17
2. 12
3. 38
4. 24
5. 40
Answer Key: 2
1. 221
2. 230
3. 249
4. 233
5. 248
Answer Key: 1
5799, 5699, 5555, 5359, 5103, ?
1. 4785
2. 4787
3. 4779
4. 4793
5. 4791
Answer key: 3

76, 76, 152, 228, 380, 608, ?
1. 988
2. 894
3. 876
4. 810
5. 888
Answer key: 1

35, 105, 420, 2100, 12600, ?
1. 26159
2. 88200
3. 53781
4. 40319
5. 49689
Answer Key: 2
Q106) A portion of $6600 is invested at a 5% annual return, while the remainder is invested
at a 3% annual return. If the annual income from the portion earning a 5% return is twice that
of the other portion, what is the total income from the two investments after one year?
A. 200
B. 270
C. 250
D. 280
Q107) An automobile financier claims to be lending money at the simple interest, but he
includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an
interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
A. 10%
B. 10.25%
C. 10.10%
D. 10.80%
Q108) Ramesh invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B
at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of
simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. 6400
B. 6500
C. 7200
D. 7500
Q109) If simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at 5% per annum is same as
the simple interest on Rs. 560 for 10 years at the rate of 4% per annum then the sum of
money is:
A. 1180
B. 1120
C. 1200
D. 1250
Q110) Rahul invested certain amount in three different schemes A, B and C with the rate of
interest 10% p.a., 12% p.a. and 15% p.a. respectively. If the total interest accrued in one
year was Rs. 3200 and the amount invested in Scheme C was 150% of the amount invested
in Scheme A and 240% of the amount invested in Scheme B, what was the amount invested
in Scheme B?
A. Rs 5000
B. Rs 6500
C. Rs 8000
D. Rs 10000
Q111) A sum of money amounts to Rs. 8400 after 3 years and Rs. 12000 after 6 years at the
same rate of simple interest. The rate of interest per annum is
A) 25%
B) 20%
C) 52%
D) 15%
Q112) Sankar borrowed some money at the rate of 4% pa for the first 4 years,6% for the
next 3 years and 7% for the next 10 years. If the total interest paid by him is Rs.8528,how
much money did he borrow?
A) 8200
B) 8328
C) 16728
D) None of these
Q113) Babu takes a loan Rs.2000 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs.1000 at the end of 1
year. How much amount he should pay to clear the due in 2 years.
A) 1000
B) 1150
C) 2150
D) None of these
Q114) A sum of money amounts to Rs. 1500 after 3 years and Rs.2000 after 5 years at the
same rate of SI. Find the rate of interest per annum?
A) 30.3%
B) 33.03%
C) 33.33%
D) 30.30%
Q115) A sum of Rs.1500 is lent out into 2 parts, one at 10% and another one at 6%. If the
total annual income is Rs.100, Find the money lent at each rate
A) 550,910
B) 520,1250
C) 1250,250
D) 250,1250
Q116) Yuvraj invested 1/2 of his capital at 4% and the remainder at10%. If his annual
income is Rs.600. Find the capital
A) 8517
B) 8175
C) 8751
D) 8571
Q117) Priya borrows 1000 rupees at the rate of 11% per annum on SI and rahul borrows
780 rupees at the rate of 15% per annum on SI. In how many years will the amount of debt
of priya and rahul be equal.
A) 31.3/7 yrs
B) 31.2/7 yrs
C) 32.1/7 yrs
D) 32.2/7 yrs
Q118) A sum of 8000 rupees is divided between two people A and B at the rate of interest of
4% and 5% respectively. The total interest earned after 2 years is equal to 750. Then find
the ratio of investment between A and B.
A) 3:11
B) 5:11
C) 6:11
D) 7:11
Q119) Ravi invested 20000 rupee in fixed deposit at the rate of 10% simple interest. After
every 3 rd year he added interest to principal. Find the interest earned at the end of 6th
year.
A) 7800
B) 8000
C) 7600
D) 8200
Q120) A statue is priced at 15000 rupees. But a person wants instalment on the statue. So,
he gave 10000-rupee cash and make an instalment of rupees 650 for 8 months. Find the
rate of interest charged by the shopkeeper.
A) 4%
B) 6%
C) 8%
D) 10%
Q121) The Simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 90. The
corresponding compound interest is:
A. 97
B. 90
C. 94.50
D. 100
Q122) The SI on a certain sum of money for 3 year at 8% pa is half the CI on Rs. 8000 for 2
year at 10% pa. Find the sum placed on simple interest?
A. Rs 3500
B. Rs 3800
C. Rs 4000
D. Rs 4500
Q123) Dheeraj had ₹ 23,000. He invested some amount in scheme A at SI at 20% and the
remaining amount in scheme B at CI at 10%. If Sanjay got the same amount from both of
them at the end of one year, how much (in ₹) did he invest in scheme B?
A. 15000
B. 12000
C. 11500
D. 13000
Q124) What sum invested for 2 years at 12% compounded annually will grow to Rs.
4390.40?
A. 4000
B. 3875
C. 3800
D. 3500
Q125) Divide Rs. 3903 between A and B, so that A’s Share at the end of 7 years may equal
to B’s share at the end of 9 years, compound interest being at 4 percent.
A. 2018 and 1885
B. 2028 and 1875
C. 2008 and 1895
D. 2038 and 1865
Q126) What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹ 9000 at compound interest
compounded annually at 8% per annum in two years?
A. Rs 1497.6
B. Rs 1479.6
C. Rs 1498
D. None of these
Q127) ₹ 6100 was partly invested in Scheme A at 10% pa compound interest (compounded
annually) for 2 years and partly in Scheme B at 10% pa simple interest for 4 years. Both the
schemes earn equal interests. How much was invested in Scheme A?
A. Rs 4000
B. Rs 4500
C. Rs 5000
D. Rs 3250
Q128) What annual payment will discharge a debt of 1025 due in 2 years at the rate of 5%
compound interest?
A. 550
B. 551.25
C. 560
D. 560.35
Q128) If the difference between the CI and SI on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 2
years is Rs.16. Find the Simple Interest?
A. 180
B. 460
C. 520
D. 640
Q129) Rahul borrowed Rs. 1200 at 12% PA. He repaid Rs. 500 at the end of 1 year. What is
the amount required to pay at the end of 2nd year to discharge his loan which was
calculated in CI
A. 945.28
B. 1106.00
C. 1107.55
D. 1100.65
Q129) Shivam has some amount of money and he invested the money in two schemes A
and B in the ratio of 2 : 5 for 2 years, scheme A offers 30% pa compound interest and
scheme B offers 15% pa Simple interest. Difference between the interest earned from both
the schemes is Rs.1080. How much was invested in scheme B?
A. Rs 45000
B. Rs 46000
C. Rs 40000
D. Rs 45000
Q130) A sum of Rs.8584 is to be paid back in 3 equal annual installments. How much is
each installment if the interest is compounded annually at 14% per annum?
A. Rs 3700
B. Rs 4500
C. Rs 5500
D. Rs 5400
Q131) Anjali lent Rs. 7000 to Suman for 3 years and Rs. 5000 to Sumit for 5 years on simple
interest at the same rate of interest and she received Rs. 5520 from both of them as interest.
Find the rate of interest.
A. 12 %
B. 13 %
C. 14 %
D. None of these
Q132) The compound interest on Rs 7500 in 2 years when the successive rate of interest on
successive years is 8% and 10% respectively:
A. Rs 1410
B. Rs 7510
C. Rs 1497
D. Rs None of these
Q133) The CI on a certain sum at 10% pa for 2yrs is Rs.6548. What is SI on the sum of
money at 7% pa for 4 years (approx)?
A. 8700
B. 8731
C. 8370
D. 8470
Q134) A lent an amount of Rs. 1100 to B. This is to be paid back to A in two instalments. If
the rate of interest, which A charges to B, be 20% compounded annually, then what is the
value of each installment?
A. Rs 730
B. Rs 720
C. Rs 710
D. Rs 780
135. Working together, Arjun and Ramesh can complete a task in 15 days. Arjun, working
alone, can complete the task in 20 days, while Manoj can complete the same task by himself
in 30 days. How many days will Manoj and Ramesh working together take to complete the
task?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 24 days
d. 25 days
136. The work done by a woman in 6 hours is equal to the work done by a man in 4 hours
and by a boy in 12 hours. A task which normally takes 15 women working 6 hours a day 10
days to complete is given to 6 men and 9 boys working 4 hours a day. On which day will the
task be completed?
a. 16th day
b. 17th day
c. 18th day
d. 19th day
137. The task of planting roses along a stretch on the National highway was assigned to a
group of men to be completed in 12 days. 8 men did not turn up for this task, and the task
now took 20 days. How many men turned up and completed the task?
a. 12
b. 16
c. 20
d. 24
138. 20 students are assigned the task to clean up a local park in 10 days. After 8 days, 12
students leave the work due to a viral infection. How many more days will the remaining
students take to complete the task?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
139. Ram and Laxman are assigned the task to build a wall. Ram can complete the task in
30 days, while laxman can complete the same task in 60 days. When they work together,
their efficiency drops to 80%. How long will they take to complete the task working together?
a. 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 25 days
d. 32 days
140. Daily wage of A is 4/5 of the daily wage of B, and daily wage of C is 3/2 of the daily
wage of A. If the average daily wage of A, B and C is taken together is Rs. 3000, then which
of the following is the daily wages of each of them?
A. Rs. 2200, Rs. 2800, Rs. 4000
B. Rs. 2400, Rs. 3000, Rs. 3600
C. Rs. 2880, Rs. 3600, Rs. 4200
D. Rs. 1200, Rs. 1800, Rs. 6000
E. None of these
141. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days, A, B and C can complete the work in 6
days. Efficiency of B is 0.5 times the efficiency of A. In how many days C can complete the
work alone?
A. 10 days
B. 16 days
C. 24 days
D. 12 days
E. None of these
142. A and B together can complete a piece of work in 12 days, B and C together can
complete a piece of work in 16 days, A and C together can complete a piece of work in 24
days. Find the number of days in which A, B and C together can complete the work.
A. 31/5
B. 32/3
C. 32/5
D. 31/3
E. None of these
143. A can complete a piece of work in 24 days and B can complete the work in 36 days.
Efficiency of C is twice the efficiency of A and B together. Find the number of days in which
C can complete the work alone.
A. 4 1/5 days
B. 7 1/5 days
C. 5 1/5 days
D. 6 1/5 days
E. None of these
144. A can complete a piece of work in 36 days. Efficiencies of B and C are 1.5 times and 2
times respectively the efficiency of A. Find the number of days taken by all of them to
complete the work.
A. 15 days
B. 9 days
C. 12 days
D. 8 days
E. None of these
Q145 A is 150% of B and B is 40% of C. If A+B+C=20, then the value of 2B+3C – 4A is

equal to:
A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 20
Answer: A
Q.146. The population of a town increased by 15% in 2018 and 10% in 2019. Due to a
pandemic, it decreased by 10% in 2020. What was the percentage increase in the
population of the town in 3 years?
A. 17.5%
B. 12.5%
C. 13.85%
D. 15%
Answer: C
Q.147 One-third of 1206 is what percent of 134?

A. 125%
B. 150 %
C. 300%
D. 250%
Answer: C
Q.148 In an examination 80% candidates passed in English and 85% candidates passed in
Mathematics. If 73% candidates passed in both these subjects, then what per cent of
candidates failed in both the subjects?
A. 17
B. 8
C. 15
D. 35
Answer: B
Q.149 The population of a town increases every year by 4%. If its present population is
50,000, then after 2 years it will be:
A. 54900
B. 54080
C. 55000
D. 53900
Answer: B
Q.150. Mr Ajay spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the
remaining he spends 25% on travelling, 30% on entertainment, 15% on shopping and
remaining amount of Rs. 900 is saved. What is Mr Ajay’s monthly income?
A. 9000
B. 12000
C. 6000
D. None of these
Answer: A
100 Quant Questions for All Banking Exams
1. A boat goes 28 km downstream and while A in 3 hours then, find boat B takes how much
returning covered only 75% of the distance that time to cover 120 km distance each in
was covered in upstream. If the boat takes 3 hr downstream and in upstream.
more to cover the upstream than downstream,
then find the speed of the boat in still water A. 16 hours
(km/hr) if the speed of stream is 5/9 m/s. B. 18 hours
C. 20 hours
A. 8 kmph D. 14 hours
B. 2 kmph E. 12 hours
C. 5 kmph
D. 4 kmph Correct Answer: Option A
E. 3 kmph
Correct Answer: Option C 5) A man travels 370 km partly by train and

partly by car. if he covers 250 km by train and
2) There are 3 points P, Q, & R in a straight line rest by car, it takes him 4 hours. But, if he travels
in a river such that point Q is equidistant from 130 km by train and rest by car, he takes 18
point P and point R. Boat traveled from P to R minutes longer. Find the speed of the train?
downstream in 8 hrs and from point Q to P in 12
hours. Find the ratio between speed of boat in A. 100 Km/hr
still water to speed of current? B. 60 km/hr
C. 20 km/hr
A. 3:1 D. 80 km/hr
B. 2:1 E. None of these
C. 1:2
D. 5:2 Correct Answer: Option A
E. 2:3 6) Amar can do a work in 24 days, Bhushan is
20% more efficient than Amar, If Chetan can do
Correct Answer: Option B the work in 10 more days than Bhushan, find the
number of days taken by Amar & Chetan
3) A boat covers 60 km upstream and 60 km together to complete the work.
downstream in 22.5 hr with its usual speed. If
the boat doubles its speed, then new upstream A. 20/3 days
speed is 150% more than usual upstream speed. B. 44/3 days
Find the time taken by boat to cover 80 km C. 40/3 days
downstream with the usual speed. D. 6 days
E. None of these
A. 12 hr
B. 20 hr Correct Answer: Option C
C. 5 hr
D. 16 hr 7) A cistern has 3pipes A, B & C. Pipes A & B can
E. 10 hr fill it in 3 hours and 4 hours respectively, while
pipe C can empty the completely filled cistern in
1 hour. if the pipes are opened in order at 3 pm,
Correct Answer: Option E
4 pm and 5 pm respectively then at what time
4) The speed of 2 boats A & B in the still water is will the cistern be empty?
in the ratio of 3:4 and the speed of current is 4 A. 6:15 pm
km/hr. A starts from point P, 45 minutes earlier
B. 7:12 pm
than B in downstream direction. if B catch boat
C. 8:12 pm
D. 8:35 pm A. 163
E. none of these B. 166
C. 170
Correct Answer: Option B
D. 185
8) If the length of a rectangle is decreased by E. 208
6cm we get a square and the area of the square
formed is 252 cm square less than the area of
the square formed when the breadth of the 12) 250, ?, 190, 167, 148, 13
original rectangle is increased by 6 cm. Find the
A. 160
perimeter of the rectangle.
B. 220
A. 42 cm C. 219
B. 88 cm D. 188
C. 80 cm E. 210
D. 84 cm
Correct Answer: Option C
E. 72 cm
13) 10, 6, 8, 15, 34, ?
Correct Answer: Option D
A. 95
9) There are 3 taps A, B, & C which can fill a tank
B. 90
in 12 hrs, 15 hrs, and 30 hrs respectively. If the
C. 110
tap A is opened first, after one-hour tap B was
D. 75
opened and after 2 hours from the start of A, tap
E. 85
C is also opened. Find the time in which the tank
is full. Correct Answer: Option B
A. 6(2/11) hours 14) 1050, 420, 168, 67.2, 26.88, 10.752, ?
B. 6(3/11) hours
C. 5(3/11) hours A. 4.3012
D. 5(2/11) hours B. 4.3008
E. None of these C. 26.880
D. 10.088
Correct Answer: Option A E. 29.760
10) The ratio of curved surface area and the Correct Answer: Option B
total surface area of the right circular cylinder is
in the ratio of 3:5. The Curved surface area of 15) Which of the following is the wrong term in
the cylinder is 1848 cm square. Find the height the series?
of the cylinder(cm). 32, 18, 10.8, 6.48, 3.888
A. 12 A. 32
B. 28 B. 18
C. 14 C. 10.8
D. 7 D. 6.42
E. 21 E. 3.888
Correct Answer: Option E Correct Answer: Option A
(Directions for Qs 11-14) What will come in the (For Q16-18) What value should come in place
place of question mark (?) of the following of question mark (?) in the following question?
missing series?
16) 345+ √? = 192 + 27 × 8 ÷ 24
11) 2, 11, 36, 85, ?, 287
A. 625 once in 2 shots. When Bhushan has missed 27
B. 365 times, Amir has killed:
C. 246
A. 30 birds
D. 235
B. 60 birds
E. 258
C. 72 birds
Correct Answer: option A D. 90 birds
17) 150% of 460+24% of 650=? Correct Answer: option A
A. 854 22) 1193.987 + 1405.01 – 1324.32 + 147.96 –

B. 846 884.98 + 21.03 – 123.88 =?
C. 895
A. 405
D. 825
B. 415
E. 864
C. 425
Correct Answer: option B D. 435
18) (23 × 8) – (13 × 5) + 67 =? x 6 Correct Answer: option D
A. 21 23) 29.9% of 695 + 24.48% of 179 – 11.1% of

B. 31 899 =?
C. 41
A. 125
D. 33
B. 135
E. None of these
C. 155
Correct Answer: Option B D. 145
19) The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 Correct Answer: Option C

tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables
24) 256.5 × 2512.25 = 2521–?
together is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs
and 3 tables is: A. 2.20
B. 2.25
A. Rs. 3500
C. 2.5
B. Rs. 3750
D. 3
C. Rs. 3840
E. None of These
D. Rs. 3900
25) [(2211 ÷ 67)2 – 21 × √256] ÷ (549 – 213) =?
20) One-third of Rahul’s savings in the Fixed
÷ 1344
Deposit is equal to one-half of his savings in the
Mutual Fund. If he has Rs. 1,50,000 as total A. 3052
savings, how much has he saved in Mutual B. 3032
Fund? C. 3042
D. 3062
A. Rs. 30,000
E. 3012
B. Rs. 50,000
C. Rs. 60,000 Correct Answer: Option E
D. Rs. 90,000
What value should come in the place of question
Correct Answer: Option C mark (?) in the following number series?
21) Amir fires 5 shots to Bhushan’s 3 but Amir 26) 6, 5, 7, 12.5, 27,?
kills only once in 3 shots while Bhushan kills
(A) 68 Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday
(B) 69.5
(C) 74.2 A 35 45 30 70
(D) 72.5
(E) 71 B 45 55 90 35
C 75 35 65 55
27) 11, 29, 65, 137,?, 569
A) 320 D 60 30 45 40
(B) 259
(C) 263 E 85 40 85 65
(D) 300
(E) 281
31) If the sale of Notebooks from E on Friday
Correct Answer: Option E was 60% of that on Wednesday and Thursday
28) 45, 49, 40, 56, 31,? together. Find the number of Notebooks sold by
E on Friday.
(A) 67
(B) 90 A. 20
(C) 35 B. 30
(D) 75 C. 40
(E) 81 D. 50
E. 90
Correct Answer: Option A
29) 1240, 1140, 1019, 875, 706,?
32) What is the approximate percentage
(A) 510
increase in the sale of Notebooks by seller A
(B) 439
from Monday to Tuesday?
(C) 498
(D) 428 A. 19%
(E) None of These B. 29%
C. 39%
D. 49%
30) 9827, 9706, 9606, 9525, 9461,? E. 59%
(A) 9520 Correct Answer: Option B

(B) 9421
33) The number of Notebooks sold by seller B
(C) 9412
on Monday is how much more/less than that on
(D) 9425
Thursday and Wednesday together?
(E) None of these
A. 20
B. 40
Read the following information carefully and C. 60
answer the questions that follow: The data in the D. 80
given table is the number of Notebooks sold by E. 100
five sellers on five different days of the week.
Study the given data carefully and answer the
given questions based on it.
34) What is the ratio of the number of Now 15 liters of mixture taken out, and 7 liters
Notebooks sold by A and D on Monday and C of water added. Water constitutes what % of the
and B on Tuesday? total mixture now?
A. 10:11 A. 26%
B. 11:10 B. 33%
C. 19:18 C. 45%
D. 18:19 D. 38%
E. 20:19 E. 52%
Correct Answer: Option C Correct Answer: Option D
35) The number of Notebooks sold by C on 39) Side of square having perimeter 64 cm is
Tuesday is approximately how much percent less equal to the breadth of rectangle having area
than the number of Notebooks sold by D on 320 sq. cm. Find the perimeter of the rectangle.
Monday.
A. 24 cm
A. 42% B. 48 cm
B. 49% C. 72 cm
C. 54% D. 100 cm
D. 62% E. 115 cm
E. 73%
40) A father said to his son, “I was as old as you
36) 2 pipes can fill a tank in 10 and 20 hours are at the present at the time of your birth”. If
respectively and one leak can empty the same the father’s age is 38 years now, the son’s age
tank in 40 hours. If all these 3 are active/opened, five years back was:
then find the total time needed to fill the tank.
A. 14 years
A. 8 hours B. 19 years
B. 4 hours C. 33 years
C. 6 hours D. 38 years
D. 2 hours
E. 10 hours
41) Q is as much younger than R as he is older
than T. If the sum of the ages of R and T is 50
37) An article was sold at Rs. 1080 after giving years, what is definitely the difference between
two successive discounts of 10% and 20%. The R and Q’s age?
cost price of the article was Rs. 900. Find the
A. 1 year
difference between the Marked price and the
B. 2 years
Cost price of the article.
C. 25 years
A. 200 D. Data inadequate
B. 300 E. None of these
C. 600
D. 500
E. 400 42) A, B, C subscribe Rs. 50,000 for a business. A
subscribes Rs. 4000 more than B and B Rs. 5000
more than C. Out of a total profit of Rs. 35,000,
38) 108 liters pure milk in a can. 36 liters milk A receives:
taken out; the same amount of water added.
A. Rs. 8400 Rs. 25
B. Rs. 11,400 Rs. 22.5
C. Rs. 14,700 Rs. 24
D. Rs. 13,700 Rs. 20
Rs. 26
43) How many workers are required for Correct Answer: Option B
completing the construction work in 10 days?
47) In 10 years time, Ram will be 2 times older
I. 20% of the work can be completed by 8 than his son. 5 years ago, he was 9 times as old
workers in 8 days. as his son. What will be the sum of the ages of
II. 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days. Ram and his son 3 years from now?
III. One-eighth of the work can be completed by
A. 46
8 workers in 5 days.
B. 66
C. 86
A. I only
D. 76
B. II and III only
E. None of these
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. Anyone of the three
48) In what ratio should two varieties of baking
powder at Rs.80/kg and Rs. 120/ kg
44) A train of length 130 m passes a bridge in 30 respectively, be mixed to make the mixture at
seconds. If the speed of the train is 45km/hr, Rs. 100/kg?
then what is the length of the bridge?
A. 1:2
A. 245 m B. 2:1
B. 185 m C. 1:1
C. 225 m D. 2:3
D. 195 m E. None of these
E. 230 m
Answer key: Option C
Correct Answer: Option A 49) A man bought some apples of which 13% of
them were rotten. He sold 75% of the balance
45) The difference between Compound Interest and was left with 261 apples. How many apples
and Simple Interest on a sum of Rs. 3125 for 2 did he have originally?
years at 4% per annum is
A. 1800
A. Rs.10 B. 1500
B. Rs.8 C. 1200
C. Rs.4 D. 1000
D. Rs. 5 E. 800
E. Rs. 7
Correct Answer: Option D 50) A certain number of men complete a piece of
work in 60 days. If there were 8 more men, the
46) A shopkeeper bought 100 kg of rice for Rs.
work could be finished in 10 days less. How
1800 and sold it to make profit which was equal
many men were originally there?
to the selling price of 20 kg of rice. What is the
selling price of rice per kg? A. 30
B. 50 the job, John takes three days more than that
C. 60 taken by three of them working together. In how
D. 80 many days will Jim finish the job working alone?
E. 40
A. 4
Correct Answer: Option E B. 5
C. 6
51) What is the sum of the value of profit shares
D. 7
of A, B, and C if A, B, C and D invested their
E. 8
money in the ratio 1:2:2:1 for a whole year and
the profit at the end of the year is Rs 54,000?
A. Rs. 40,000
B. Rs. 36,000 55) How many 3-digit numbers are there, for
C. Rs. 45,000 which the product of their digits is more than 2
D. Rs. 30.000 but less than 7?
E. Rs. 42,000
A. 19
Correct Answer: Option C B. 20
52) There are 9 sections of grade 10 in a school. C. 21
The average number of students in 1st five D. 22
sections is 46 and the average number of E. 23
students in last five sections is 49 and the
average of all sections is 48, then the number of Correct Answer: Option C
students in 5th section is:
56) Two persons are walking beside a railway
A. 43 track at respective speeds of 2 and 4 km per
B. 44 hour in the same direction. A train came from
C. 45 behind them and crossed them in 90 and 100
D. 46 seconds, respectively. The time, in seconds,
E. 47 taken by the train to cross an electric post is
Correct Answer: Option A nearest to
53) A box contains 300 cards on which number A. 87

from 0 to 299 is written. If a card is picked at B. 82
random, then what is the probability that the C. 78
number on card is divisible by 3 but not divisible D. 75
by 6? E. 72
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
57) A person spent Rs 50000 to purchase a
D. 1/6
desktop computer and a laptop computer. He
E. 1/3
sold the desktop at 20% profit and the laptop at
Correct Answer: Option D 10% loss. If overall he made a 2% profit then the
purchase price, in rupees, of the desktop is:
54) John takes twice as much time as Jack to
finish a job. Jack and Jim together take one- A. 15000
thirds of the time to finish the job than John B. 17000
takes working alone. Moreover, in order to finish C. 20000
D. 22000 D. 50
E. 25000 E. 52
Correct Answer: Option C Correct Answer: Option 2
58) A straight road connects points A and B. Car 61) In a group of people, 28% of the members
1 travels from A to B and Car 2 travels from B to are young while the rest are old. If 65% of the
A, both leaving at the same time. After meeting members are literates, and 25% of the literates
each other, they take 45 minutes and 20 are young, then the percentage of old people
minutes, respectively, to complete their among the illiterates is nearest to
journeys. If Car 1 travels at the speed of 60
km/hr, then the speed of Car 2, in km/hr, is A. 62
B. 55
A. 90 C. 66
B. 100 D. 59
C. 80 E. 70
D. 70
E. 110 Correct Answer: Option C
Correct Answer: Option A 62) A gentleman decided to treat a few children

in the following manner. He gives half of his total
59) Leaving home at the same time, Amal stock of toffees and one extra to the first child,
reaches office at 10: 15 am if he travels at 8 and then the half of the remaining stock along
km/hr, and at 9: 40 am if he travels at 15 km/hr. with one extra to the second and continues
Leaving home at 9: 10 am, at what speed, in giving away in this fashion. His total stock
km/hr, must he travel so as to reach office exhausts after he gives treats to 5 children. How
exactly at 10 am? many toffees were there in his stock initially?
A. 13 A. 56
B. 14 B. 58
C. 12 C. 60
D. 11 D. 62
E. 15 E. 64
Correct Answer: Option C Correct Answer: Option D
60) A train travelled at one-thirds of its usual 63) Let A, B and C be three positive integers
speed, and hence reached the destination 30 such that the sum of A and the mean of B and C
minutes after the scheduled time. On its return is 5. In addition, the sum of B and the mean of A
journey, the train initially travelled at its usual and C is 7. Then the sum of A and B is:
speed for 5 minutes but then stopped for 4
minutes for an emergency. The percentage by A. 6
which the train must now increase its usual B. 5
speed so as to reach the destination at the C. 7
scheduled time, is nearest to D. 4
E. 8
A. 58
B. 67 Correct Answer: Option A
C. 61
64) A solution, of volume 40 litres, has dye and Sunil meet again for the first time at the starting
water in the proportion 2:3. Water is added to point?
the solution to change this proportion to 2:5. If
one-fourths of this diluted solution is taken out, A. 4.2
how many litres of dye must be added to the B. 5.2
remaining solution to bring the proportion back C. 4.8
to 2:3? D. 4.6
E. 5.0
A. 6
B. 8 Correct Answer: Option C
C. 10
D. 12 68) Amala, Bina, and Gouri invest money in the
E. 14 ratio 3: 4: 5 in fixed deposits having
respective annual interest rates in the ratio 6: 5:
Correct Answer: Option B 4. What is their total interest income (in Rs)
after a year, if Bina's interest income exceeds
65) In a car race, car A beats car B by 45 km, car Amala's by Rs 250?
B beats car C by 50 km, and car A beats car C by
90 km. The distance (in km) over which the race A. 6350
has been conducted is B. 7250
C. 7000
A. 500 D. 6000
B. 475 E. 6750
C. 550
D. 450 Correct Answer: Option B
E. 400
69) On selling a pen at 5% loss and a book at
Correct Answer: Option D 15% gain, Karim gains Rs. 7. If he sells the pen at
5% gain and the book at 10% gain, he gains Rs.
66) In the final examination, Bishnu scored 52% 13. What is the cost price of the book in
and Asha scored 64%. The marks obtained by Rupees?
Bishnu is 23 less, and that by Asha is 34 more
than the marks obtained by Ramesh. The marks A. 80
obtained by Geeta, who scored 84%, is B. 85
C. 95
A. 439 D. 100
B. 399 E. 105
C. 357
D. 417 Answer: Option A
E. 499
70) A sum of money doubles itself at CI in
Correct Answer: Option B 10yrs. In how many yrs will it become 4 times?
67) Anil, Sunil, and Ravi run along a circular path A. 10yrs
of length 3 km, starting from the same point at B. 20yrs
the same time, and going in the clockwise C. 15yrs
direction. If they run at speeds of 15 km/hr, 10 D. 22yrs
km/hr, and 8 km/hr, respectively, how much
distance in km will Ravi have run when Anil and Correct Answer: Option B
(Q71 – 74) The table shows the total no. of 73. Total no. of mails received by K is
emails received in inbox by different users and approximately what percentage of inbox emails
the percentage of emails read by the users and read by user X given that mails received in the
the total no. of emails received in a month. inbox by K is thrice of mails received in spam by
K?
Note:
A. 54%
Total no. of mails received = total mails received B. 62%
in inbox + total no. of spam emails received. C. 78%
Spam mails are not read by users. D. 68%
E. 72%
Users Total No. % of Total No. of
of Mails Inbox Spam-Mails Correct Answer: Option E
Received in Mails Received
Inbox Read by 74. No. of inbox emails which are not read by
the user Z is 150% more than emails received in
Users spam by user X. Then, find the average of inbox
X 725 68% 88 emails read by the user Z & Y?
Y 840 65% 82
Z 800 - 152
A. 678
K - 45% 92
B. 618
L 580 - 76
C. 425
D. 563
71. Inbox mails read by user Z is what
E. 589
percentage of total mails received in inbox of Z
given that inbox mails read by user Z is 125% of
Answer: Option D
total spam mails received by user K?
(Q75-76)
A. 14.375%
Upstream Distance = Downstream Distance, if
B. 19.25%
not stated
C. 24.125%
Total time taken = Time (Downstream) + Time
D. None
(Upstream)
E. 11.215%
Days Upstream Speed Speed Total

distance of the of the Time
in km boat stream in
72. Average no. of emails received in inbox by (km/h) (Km/hr) hour
user X, Y & K is 750% of average no. of spam Mon 320 - 4 -
mail received by user X, Y & K. Then find the Tues - - - 75
total no. of mails received by user K? Wed 270 - 6 -
Thur - 11 7 -
A. 492 Fri 324 - - 72
B. 528
C. 426 75. On Friday, if the ratio of the speed of the
D. 482 boat to the speed of the stream is 2:1, what is
E. None of these the difference between the time taken by the
boat to go upstream and the time taken by the
Correct Answer: Option A boat to go downstream?
A. 36 hours Correct Answer: Option A
B. 54 hours
C. 45 hours 78. What was the respective ratio between the
D. 72 hours amount earned by Person-B in the year 2007
E. 65 hours and Person- D in the year 2010?
Correct Answer: Option A A. 32:107

B. 31:105
76. On Thursday, the difference between the C. 29:107
time taken by the boat to cover X km upstream D. 32:105
and (X+120) Km downstream is 26 hours. Had E. None of these
the boat covered same distance upstream as
downstream, what would be the difference in Correct Answer: Option B
time taken then?
79. What is the approximate percent increase in
A. 58 hours the amount earned by Person-D in the year
B. 62 hours 2010 as compared to the previous year?
C. 48 hours
D. 56 hours A. 7
E. 64 hours B. 21
C. 18
Correct Answer: Option D D. 15
E. 12
Directions for Questions (77 - 81): Study the
following table carefully to answer the questions Correct Answer: Option E
that follow: 80. Whose earning increased consistently from
Amount earned (in lacs) by five persons in six the year 2005 to the year 2010?
different years
A. A
Year Person B. B
C. C
A B C D E D. D
2005 2.24 4.33 5.64 3.73 1.69 E. E
2006 1.44 3.34 6.93 5.52 5.52
2007 4.63 2.79 7.52 5.68 4.28 Correct Answer: Option D
2008 6.65 6.63 5.83 6.74 6.83
2009 5.34 4.50 5.94 8.42 5.53 81. Total amount earned by Person A in the year
2010 7.38 5.36 7.84 9.45 9.94 2006 and Person-C in the year 2010 together
was approximately what percent of the amount
77. What was the average of the earning of earned by Person-E in the year 2009?
Person-B in the year 2006, that of person C in
the year 2008 and E in the year 2005 together? A. 151
B. 155
A. Rs. 3.62 lacs C. 168
B. Rs. 2.64 lacs D. 174
C. Rs. 3.64 lacs E. 162
D. Rs.10.86 lacs
E. None of these Correct Answer: Option C
82. Ramesh and Gautam are among 22 students B traveled this distance in 45 minutes, then its
who write an examination. Ramesh scores 82.5. speed, in km per hour, was
The average score of the 21 students other than
Gautam is 62. The average score of all the 22 A. 18π
students is one more than the average score of B. 12π
the 21 students other than Ramesh. The score of C. 16π
Gautam is D. 14π
E. 20π
A. 49
B. 48 Correct Answer: Option B
C. 51
D. 53 86. A solid right circular cone of height 27 cm is
E. 52 cut into two pieces along a plane parallel to its
base at a height of 18 cm from the base. If the
Correct Answer: Option C difference in volume of the two pieces is 225 cc,
the volume, in cc, of the original cone is
83. At their usual efficiency levels, A and B
together finish a task in 12 days. If A had worked 1. 232
half as efficiently as she usually does, and B had 2. 256
worked thrice as efficiently as he usually does, 3. 264
the task would have been completed in 9 days. 4. 243
How many days would A take to finish the task if 5. 275
she works alone at her usual efficiency?
A. 24
B. 18 87. If perimeter of the base of a cylinder is 66
C. 12 cm. Then find volume of cylinder if height of
D. 36 cylinder is 0.04 m
E. 32
A. 1111 cm³
Correct Answer: Option B B. 1386 cm³
C. 2046 cm³
84. The product of two positive numbers is 616. D. 1186 cm³
If the ratio of the difference of their cubes to the E. 2002 cm³
cube of their difference is 157:3, then the sum
of the two numbers is Correct Answer: Option B
A. 58 Direction (88–92): Solve the given quadratic

B. 50 equations and mark the correct option based on
C. 95 your answer.
D. 85
E. 75 A. if x>y
B. if x≥y
Correct Answer: Option B C. if x<y
D. if x≤y
85. The wheels of bicycles A and B have radii 30 E. if x = y or no relationship can be established
cm and 40 cm, respectively. While traveling a between x and y
certain distance, each wheel of A required 5000
more revolutions than each wheel of B. If bicycle
88. below in a school, there are 700 students. All of
I. x2 − 14𝑥𝑥 + 45 = 0 them are divided into five different Batches
II. y2 – 18𝑦𝑦 + 72 = 0 namely viz., Jasmine, Rose, Sunflower, Lotus and
Lily. The number of girls is 12 less than the
Correct answer: Option E number of boys in school. One fourth of the
total number of students in that school are in
89. Sunflower. 16% of the total number of students
I. x2 + 7𝑥𝑥 + 12 = 0 in that school are in Jasmine. Lily have 28 more
II. y2 +9𝑦𝑦 + 20 = 0 students than in Jasmine. The respective ratio
between the number of girls and boys in Jasmine
Correct answer: Option B is 1:3. Number of students in Lotus is 11 more
than the number of students in Jasmine. There
90. are equal number of boys and girls in Lily. 44%
I. 4x2 – 7𝑥𝑥 + 3 = 0 of the number of students in Rose are boys.
II. 7y2− 17y + 6 = 0 Two-third of the students in Lotus are girls.
Correct answer: Option E 94.What is the respective ratio between the

number of students in Rose and the number of
91. students in Lotus?
I. 2x2 - 19x + 45 =0
II. 2y2 -9y + 4 = 0 A. 41:50
B. 50:43
Correct answer: Option A C. 43:50
D. 50:41
E. None of these
92.
I. x2 = 144 Correct Answer: Option D
II. (y +12)2 = 0
95.Total number of girls In Jasmine and Lotus
Correct answer: Option B together are how many more/less than the total
number of boys in Rose and Sunflower together?
93. The perimeter of a triangle is equal to
perimeter of a rectangle. Length of rectangle is A. 50
75% of side of a square and ratio of length to B. 61
breadth of rectangle is 3: 2. If difference C. 48
between perimeter of square and that of D. 71
rectangle is 36 cm, then find perimeter of E. None of these
triangle?
A. 60 cm
B. 48 cm 96.What is the respective ratio between the
C. 72 cm number of girls in Rose and the number of boys
D. 80 cm in Lily?
E. 96 cm
A. 7:6
Correct Answer: Option A B. 6:5
C. 5:6
Directions. Q (94-98) Study the following D. 6:7
information and answer the questions given E. None of these
Quantity I: Difference between C’s age and A’s
Correct Answer: Option B age
Quantity II: B’s present age
97.Number of boys in Sunflower is
approximately what percentage of the total 1. Quantity I > Quantity II
number of girls in the school? 2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
A. 28% 4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
B. 21% 5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be
C. 35% established
D. 72%
E. None of these Correct Answer: Option A
98. What is the total number of students in

Jasmine, Sunflower and Lotus together?
A. 409
B. 420
C. 410
D. 459
E. None of these
99. The perimeter of a square is equal to twice

the perimeter of a rectangle of length 11m and
breadth is 10m
Quantity I: The circumference of a semicircle

whose diameter is equal to the side of the
square.
Quantity II: The circumference of a semicircle
whose radius is 14m
1. Quantity I > Quantity II

2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation can be
established
100. Five years ago, A’s age was three times that
of B. Ten years ago, A’s age was half that of C.
C’s present age is 36 years.
Reasoning
100+ Blood Relations Practice Questions
Directions (1-3): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below
A+B means A is the daughter of B.

A-B means A is the husband of B.
A*B means A is the brother of B.
Q1) If P+Q-R, which of the following is true?
1) R is the mother of P
2) R is the sister in law of P
3) R is the aunt of P
4) None of these
Q2) If P*Q+R, which of the following is true?
1) P is the brother of R
2) P is the uncle of R
3) P is the son of R
4) None of these
Q3) If P+Q*R, which of the following is true?
1) P is the niece of R
2) P is daughter of P
3) P is the cousin of R
4) P is the daughter in law of R
Q4) If A $ B means “A is father of B”, A # B means ‘A is daughter of B’, A @ B means

‘A is sister of B’, then how is K related to M in H @ K $ L # M?
1) Husband
2) Uncle
3) Father
4) Cannot be determined

Q5) Introducing Veena, Kowri said “She is the only daughter of my father’s only
daughter”. How is Kowri related to Veena?
1) Niece
2) Sister
3) Aunt
4) Mother
Q6) A man is said to lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the
lady related to the man?
1) Mother
2) Sister
3) Daughter
4) Aunt
Q7) Pointing to a photograph, Nishant said, “She is the mother of my sons’s wife’s
daughter”. How is Nishant related to lady?
1) Son
2) Uncle
3) Father
4) Father – in – law
Q8) Pointing to a man, Dinesh said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s
father”. How is the man related to Dinesh?
1) Father
2) Grand father
3) Uncle
4) Brother

Q9) Pointing to an old man, Jeeva said, “His son is my Son’s uncle”. How is the old
man related to Jeeva?
1) Father
2) Uncle
3) Brother
4) Grandfather
Q10) A woman introduce a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the
man related to the woman?
1) Son
2) Nephew
3) Uncle
4) Cousin
Directions (11-14) Read the following information and answer the following question:
i) A $ B means A is mother of B
ii) A # B means A is father of B
iii) A @ B means A is husband of B
iv) A % B means A is daughter of B
Q11) P@Q$M#T indicate what relationship of P with T?
1) Paternal grandmother
2) Maternal grandmother
3) Paternal grandfather
4) Maternal grandfather
Q12) If G $ M @ K, how is K related to G?
1) Mother in law
2) Daughter in law
3) Aunt
4) Daughter

Q13) Which of the following indicates H is the brother of N?
1) H#R$D$N
2) N%F@D$H#R
3) N%F@D$H
4) N%F@D%H
Q14) If F@D%K#H then how is F related to H?
1) Sister in law
2) Sister
3) Brother in law
Directions (15-16): Read the following information and answer the following question:
A – B means A is wife of B
A ÷ B means A is mother of Q
A + B means A is son of Q
A × B means A is brother of Q
Q15) What does X+Y-Z mean?
1) Z is the father of X
2) Z is the son of X
3) Z is the uncle of X
4) Z is the brother of X
Q16) What does P×R÷Q mean?
1) P is the brother of Q
2) P is the father of Q
3) P is the uncle of Q
4) P is the sister of Q

Directions (17-21): Read the following information carefully to answer the following
questions:
There are six persons in a family A, B, C, D, E, and F. C is the sister of F. B is the

brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and grandfather of F. there are two
fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group.
Q17) Who is the mother?
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. E
Q18) Who is E’s husband?
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. F
Q19) How any male members are there in the group?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Q20) How is F related to E?
1. Uncle
2. Husband
3. Son
4. Daughter

Q21) Which of the following is the group of brothers?
1. ABF
2. ABD
3. BFC
4. None of these
Directions (22-24): A – B means A is wife of B
A ÷ B means A is brother of B
A + B means A is daughter of B
A × B means A is son of B
Q22) How is A related to D in the given expression?

A+B–C×D
1) Grand son
2) Granddaughter
3) Daughter
4) Mother
Q23) Which of the following symbol will come in place of? to make the expression Q
is daughter-in-law of T true?
P+Q–R?S–T
1) ×
2) +
3) -
4) ÷
Q24) In which of the following expressions N is the father of M?
1) M×N÷O – P
2) N-O×P÷M
3) P÷O×M−N
4) None

Directions (25-27): A is the sister of B. B is married to C. C is the son of D. A is the
mother of E. F is the father of G. F has only 1 son and 1 daughter. G is the daughter of
A. H is the son of B.
Q25) How is H related to D?
1) Granddaughter
2) Daughter
3) Grandson
4) Son
Q26) How is C related to A?
1) Brother
2) Sister
3) Uncle
4) Brother-in-law
Q27) How is E related to B?
1) Uncle
2) Son
3) Niece
4) Nephew
Q28) A persons pointing to a photograph says, ‘This lady is my sister’s son’s

grandmother’. How is the lady related to that person?
1) Mother
2) Father
3) Brother
4) Sister

Directions (29-31): Study the following information carefully to answer the given
questions
X @ Y means x is wife of y
X © Y means x is sister of y
X % Y means x is son of y
X # Y means x is mother of y
X $ Y means x is father of y
Q29) How is J related to K in the given expression: K % H © I @ J $ O
A) Son
B) Father
C) Brother
D) Uncle
Q30) Which of the following expressions represents M is brother of P?
A) M $ O @ N % P
B) M % O © N @ P
C) M % O @ N $ P
D) M @O % N # P
Q31) What will come in the place of? if A is maternal grandfather of B

E@A$C? D©B
A) #
B) @
C) %
D) ©

Directions (32-33): There are 7 family members P, Q, R, S, T, U and V in which there
are 2 married couples. P is sister of Q who is maternal grandson of T. The father of S
has 2 maternal grandchildren. R is sister-in-law of V, who is father of P. U is a Female.
Q32) Who among the following is husband of U?
1. S
2. T
3. R
4. None of these
Q33) What is the relation between S and U?
1. U is brother of S
2. S is sister of U
3. U is mother of S
4. S is son of U
Directions (34-35): If P×Q means P is son of Q

If P+Q means P is daughter of Q
If P÷Q means P is wife of Q
If P-Q means P is father of Q
Q34) What will come in the place of ? to establish that A is mother of D

D+B–C?A
1. +
2. -
3. ×
4. ÷
Q35) Which of the following is true based on the given expression S÷T×V-W+Y
1.S is daughter-in-law of Y
2.S is daughter-in-law of W
3.Y is daughter of V
4.T is brother of V

Q36) If ‘A&B’ stands for ‘A is the son of B’ and ‘A*B’ stands for ‘B is the sister of A’,
then which of the following represents ‘A is the aunt of B’?
A) B*C&A
B) A*C&B
C) B&C*A
D) A&C*B
Q37) A woman walking with a boy meets another woman and on being asked about
her relationship with the boy, she says, “My maternal uncle and his maternal uncle’s
maternal uncle are brothers.” How is the boy related to the woman?
A) Nephew
B) Son
C) Brother-in-law
D) Son or Nephew
Q38) Shalu is the mother-in-law of Rakhi who is the sister-in-law of Sameer. Dinesh is
the father of Yuvraj, the only brother of Sameer. How is Shalu related to Dinesh?
A) Aunt
B) Sister-in-law
C) Mother-in-law
D) Wife
Directions (39-43): Read the following information carefully to answer the following
questions
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the daughter of Q’

‘P © Q’ means ‘Q is the brother of P’
‘P = Q’ means ‘Q is the sister of P’
‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the son of Q’
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the father of Q’
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is the mother of Q’
Q39) What does the expression ‘P @ R = S © T & V’?

1. V is the husband of P
2. R is the son of V
3. R is the daughter of V
4. V is the wife of P

Q40) Which of the following indicates that ‘C is the paternal uncle of D’?
1. C & V # N @ L © D
2. C & V & L @ N © D
3. D & L & N @ V © C
4. D & N # V @ L © C
Q41) Which of the following can be the correct conclusion drawn from the expression
‘L = M # N © P * Q’?
1. Q is the grandson of M
2. L is the uncle of N
3. N is the uncle of Q
4. None of these
Q42) Which of the following can be correct conclusion drawn from the expression
‘Q & N @ S © M = P’?
1. S is the brother of P
2. N has two sons and two daughters
3. S is the sister of Q
4. P is the sister of Q
Q43) Which of the following indicates ‘Q is the daughter of N’?
1. Q * P # C @ N @ V
2. N * P # C @ Q @ V
3. M @ N # R * Q
4. M © Q = V # N

Directions (44-46): In a family there are two fathers, two mothers, one sister, one
brother, two daughter, one mother-in-law, one daughter-in-law, two sister-in-law, one
son, one grandfather, one grand-mother and one grand-daughter.
Q44) How many married couples are there in the family?
1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Four
Q45) How many female members in their family?
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. One
Q46) What is the maximum number of people in the family?
1. 8
2. 7
3. 5
4. 6
Directions (47-48):
M+N means M is Sister of N

M@N means M is Father of N
M÷N means M is Son of N
M%N means M is Mother of N
Q47) If L is grandson of M is to be true in the given expression, what will come in the
place of ?
M%G@L?R
1. +
2. @
3. %
4. ÷

Q48) In which of the following pairs is the first-person daughter of the second person
with regard to the expression
K @ R ÷ M +T ÷ N
1. R, T
2. K, N
3. N, R
4. M, N
Q49) Showing a photograph Rohan says, “My grandmother’s only son’s wife is to the
right side and my brother’s mother’s brother is to left side.” How Rahul’s left, and
right-side persons are related to each other.
1) Father and Daughter

2) Brother and Sister
3) Husband and Wife
4) Mother and Son
Q50) Priya pointed towards a photograph of a man and said, “He is my son’s wife’s
only unmarried sibling’s only nephew’s paternal grandfather”. How is the man related
to Priya?
1) Husband
2) Father
3) Father – in – law
4) Paternal Grandfather

Blood relation Practice Questions Free eBook
Directions:-(51-55) Read the given information carefully and answer the given
questions. There are seven persons in a family namely P, Q, R, S, T, M and N have a
different age. All of them related with each other in an order. The information is given as -
T is older than Q. P is older than Q but younger than T. N and S are married couple. The
third oldest person in the family is 38-year-old. Q is the sister of P. R is the father of P.
The third youngest person of the family is 35-year-old. N is the oldest person of the
family. M is the husband of T. R’s mother is 69-year-old. R is younger than M. Oldest
person of the family is male member. Q is the niece of M.
51.If total age of S and Q is 75 year, then what is age of Q?

A. 40 year
B. 37 year
C. 6 year
D. None of these
E. 10 year
Correct Answer - C
52.How is S related to P?
A. Grandfather
B. Mother
C. Can’t be determined
D. Grandmother
E. Father
Correct Answer - D
53.Who among the following person is 35-year-old?

A. P
B. T
C. M
D. R
E. S
Correct Answer - B
54.How many person/s are older than P?

A. Six
B. Four
C. None of these
D. Three
E. Five
Correct Answer - E
55.What is the possible age of oldest person of the family?

A. 74 year
B. 68 year
C. 62 year
D. 80 year
E. Both A) and D)
Correct Answer - E
Directions (56-58). All the six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are travelling
together. B is the son of C but C is not the mother of B. A and C are a married couple. E is
the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of B.
56.Who is the wife of E?

A. A
B. F
C. B
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these.
Correct Answer - D
57. Which of the following is a pair of females?

A. AE
B. BD
C. DE
D. AD
E. None of these.
Correct Answer - D
58.What is the relationship between B and F?

A. B is the sister of F
B. B is the brother of F
C. B is the cousin sister of F
D. B is the cousin brother of F
E. None of these
Correct Answer - B
59. If ‘B × C’ means ‘B is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C and ‘B –

C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’ then what does ‘M + N – P × Q’ mean?
A. M is the brother-in-law of Q
B. M is the uncle of Q
C. M is the son-in-law of Q
D. Q is the mother-in-law of M
E. None of these
Correct Answer - C
60. Pointing to A and B, C says, “Both are the children of the only son of my
grandfather.” If A says, “I have as many brothers and sisters as C have.” Then how is
B related to D, who is a member of C’s family?
A. Can’t say
B. Brother
C. Sister
D. Either brother or sister
E. None of these
Correct Answer - C
Direction (61-62): Study the following information carefully and answer the
below questions
A family consisting of six members- A, C, P, S, M and T. There are two married couples and
three generations. C is the mother of P’s spouse. M is the only daughter of A who is the
grandparent of T who is not a female member. S is the parent of T who is not the child of
M.
61) Who among the following is the grandfather of S’s child?

A. The one who is the father-in-law of S
B.C
C. The one who is the father of M
D. P
E. None of the above
Correct Answer - C
62) How M is related to T?

A. Mother
B. Father
C. Aunt
D. Uncle
E. None of these
Correct Answer - C
below questions
A family of three generations consists of seven members and two married couples. M is
the only daughter of Y. V is the only son of L who is the daughter-in-law of X. O is a child of
Z. M is unmarried. X and Y are married couples. X and O are of opposite genders.
63) Who among the following is the grandson of X?

A. The one who is the nephew of M
B. V
C. The one who is the brother of O
D. The one who is the son of Z
E. All of the above
Correct Answer - E
64) How is O related to M?

A. Nephew
B. Uncle
C. Aunty
D. Niece
E. Can’t be determined
Correct Answer - D
questions given below:
There are 8 members D, E, F, G, H, I, J, and K in a family which consists of only two married
couples. There is no single parent in the family. I is the married daughter of J, who has two
children. J is the sister-in-law of H. E is the only child of F. G is the sister-in-law of the
grandfather of E. D is younger than K, who doesn’t have a sister.
65) How is E related to the father of D?

A. Granddaughter
B. Daughter
C. Son
D. Nephew
Blood relation Practice questions Free eBook
Correct Answer - E
66) If F doesn’t have a brother-in-law, how is D related to sister in law of H?

A. Sister
B. Daughter
C. Mother
D. Sister in law
Correct Answer - B
67) How many male members are there in the family?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer - D
68. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend,” She is the granddaughter of the elder
brother of my father.” How is the girl in the photograph related to this man?
A. Niece
B. Sister
C. Sister-in-law
D. Aunt
Answer: A
69. Ram’s mother said to Ram, “My mother has a son whose son is Ajit”. How is Ajit related
to ram?
A. Nephew
B. Uncle
C. Cousin
D. Brother
Answer: C
70. Prerna has a son named Anand. Rajiv is Prerna’s brother. Sneha has a daughter named
Rashmi. Sneha is Rajiv’s sister. What is Anand’s relationship to Rashmi?
A. Cousin
B. Nephew
C. Uncle
D. Brother-in-laW
Answer: A
21. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Sunil said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my
mother's mother.” How is Sunil related to the lady?
A. Nephew
B. Brother
C. Son
D. Uncle
Answer: B
71. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my mother.” How is
the woman related to the man?
A. Wife
B. Sister-in-law
C. Aunt
D. Mother-in-law
Answer: A
72. A & B are sister, R & S are brothers, daughter of A is sister of R, then what is the relation
of B with S?
A. Sister
B. Mother
C. Aunt
D. Grandmother
Answer: C
73. If Raj is the brother of the son of Ram’s son, how is Raj related to Ram?
A. Brother
B. Grandson
C. Cousin
D. Son
Answer: B
74. Pointing out to a lady, Rajan said, "She is the daughter of the woman who is the mother
of the husband of my mother.” Who is the lady to Rajan?
A. Aunt
B. Daughter
C. Granddaughter
D. Sister
Answer: A
75. A is the brother of R. C is the mother of B. M is the sister of C. How is M related to B?

A. Niece
B. Aunt
C. Nephew
Answer: B
76. Daya has a brother, Anil. Daya is the son of Chandra. Bimal is Chandra’s father. How is
Anil
related to Bimal?
A. Grandfather
B. Brother
C. Grandson
D. Son
Answer: C
77. Pointing out a man receiving the prize, Malaika said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s
daughter.” Who is the man to Malaika?
A. Son
B. Cousin
C. Nephew
D. Brother-in-law
Answer: B
78. A boy introduced a girl as the daughter of the son of the mother of his aunt. The girl is
the boys:
A. Cousin sister
B. Sister
C. Sister-in-law
D. Aunt
Answer: A
79. Aniket, introducing a girl at a party, said, she is the wife of the grandson of my mother.
How is Aniket related to the girl?
A. Father
B. Father-in-law
C. Husband
D. Grandfather
Answer: B
80. When Anup saw Sandeep, he recalled, “He is the son of the father of my daughter’s
mother.” How is Sandeep related to Anup?
A. Cousin
B. Brother
C. Brother-in-law
D. Uncle
Answer: C
81. Pointing to a photograph Ramya says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather."
How is the man in the photograph related to Ramya?
A. Uncle
B. Cousin
C. Brother
D. Data is inadequate
Answer: C
82. Vinod pointed to Archana & told: “Her father is the son of my mother’s sister.’’ What is
the relation of Archana with Vinod?
A. Cousin
B. Brother
C. Niece
D. Grandfather
Answer: C
83. Pointing to a woman, Raman said, "She is the daughter of the only child of my
grandmother." How is the woman related to Raman?
A. Cousin
B. Niece
C. Sister
D. Data inadequate
Answer: C
84. A man said to a lady, "Your mother's husband's sister is my aunt." How is the lady
related to the man?
A. Sister
B. Granddaughter
C. Mother
D. Daughter
Answer: A
85. Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of
my brother." How Bajpai is related to the man in the photograph?
A. Maternal Uncle
B. Brother
C. Father
D. Nephew
Answer: A
86. Deepak said to Nitin, "That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two
brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to
Deepak?
A. Brother
B. Son
C. Cousin
D. Brother-in-law
Answer: A
87. Vani who is the sister-in-law of Ajay, is the daughter-in-law of Karishma. Dharmendra is
the father of Sudeep who is the only brother of Ajay. How Karishma is related to Ajay?
A. Aunt
B. Mother
C. Wife
D. Mother-in-law
Answer: B
88. Pointing to a woman, Anil said, "Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother."
How is the woman related to Anil?
A. Mother
B. Grandmother
C. Sister
D. Mother-in-law\
Answer: A
89. Pointing to the woman in the photograph, Geeta said, “Her son’s father is the only son-
in-law of my mother.” How is Geeta related to the woman?
A. Mother
B. Cousin
C. Sister
D. None of these
Answer: D
90. Pointing to a photograph, Arun said, ‘She is the mother of my brother’s son’s wife’s
daughter.’ How is Arun related to the lady?
A. Cousin
B. Son-in-law
C. Uncle
D. Brother
Answer: C
Directions (91-93): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A, D, B, C, E, F, H and G are eight persons of a family. There are three married couple and
three generation. A is the only daughter of D, who is the paternal grandfather of E. G is the
only child of C. F is mother in law of B. The number of males in the family is two more than
number of females. E is unmarried. C is the son-in-law of D. H is not married to D.
Q91. How is A related to E?

(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Father
(d) brother
(e) None of these
Answer: D
Q92. How is F related to A?

(a) Son
(b) Father
(c) Daughter
(d) Mother
(e) None of these
Answer:
Q93. Which of the following is the pair of “husband-wife”?

(a) D, B
(b) C, D
(c) A, C
(d) E, B
(e) F, G
Answer: C
Q94. If ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B, ‘A % B’ means

‘A is son-in law of B and ‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’ then in ‘P $ R # M % N’ how
is N related to R?
(a) Daughter
(b) Grandfather
(c) Grandmother
(d) Can’t determined
(e) None of these
Answer: D
Q95. Pointing towards a girl in a Photograph Riya, who is a female said, “she is the only
daughter of the son of my mother’s father’s only sister. How is Riya related to that girl?
(a) Paternal Aunt
(b) Daughter
(c) Cousin
(d) Maternal Aunt
(e) None of these
Answer: C
Directions (96-98): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
In a family of eight members in which five female members. G is son-in-law of A, who is

married to B. B is mother of two daughters. F is brother-in-law of H. D is the mother of M and
N. F is a married member of a family.
Q96. How is M related to B?

(a) Grandson
(b) Granddaughter
(c) Son
(d) Either (a) or (b)
(e) Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q97. How is H related to M?

(a) Grandmother
(b) Mother
(c) Sister
(d) Maternal Aunt
(e) None of these
Answer: D
Q98. How is F related to A?

(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Son-in-law
(d) Brother-in-law
(e) None of these
Answer: C
Directions (99-100): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
In a family D is the son-in-law of W. U is the brother-in-law of E. S is the only child of E. J is

married to U. Q is the granddaughter of W. L is the son of S. W is the wife of E. E has no
sister.
Q99. How is S related to U?

(a) Mother
(b) Niece
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e)None of these
Answer: B
Q100. How is L related to Q?

(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e) None of these
Answer: D
SYllogism practice Questions for RBI Assistant:
A syllogism question contains 2 or more Question statements, and 2 or more conclusions
followed by 4 options.
Statement 1: - - - -
Statement 2: - - - -
Conclusion 1: - - - -
Conclusion 2: - - - -
Answers options:
A: If only conclusion 1 can be drawn from the given statements.
B: If only conclusion 2 can be drawn from the given statements.
C: All conclusions can be drawn from the given statements.
D: None of the conclusions can be drawn from the given statements
1. Statement
Some ketchup is kissan.
Some ketchup is tops.
No jam is ketchup.
Conclusion
I. Some kissans are tops.
ll. Some tops are ketchup.
lIl. Some jams are kissan.
Ans - B
2. Statement
Only a few Noise are Train
All Train are Eye
Only a few Eye are Music
Conclusion
I: All Music can be Train
ll: No Noise is music
Ans - A
3. Statement
Some studio are hall
All hall are room
Only room is bag
Conclusion
I. Some bag are hall
ll. Some studio are room
ill. All Studio can be hall
Ans - D
4. Statement
Some squares are circles.
No circle is a triangle.
No line is a square
Conclusion
I. No triangle is a square.
ll. No line is a circle.
Ans - D
5. Statement
All Petrol is Diesel
No Diesel is CNG
No CNG is LPG
Conclusion
I: All LPG can be Petrol
ll: Some Diesel are not LPG
Ans - A
6. Statement
All songs are poems.
All poems are rhymes.
No rhyme is paragraph.
Conclusion
I. All rhymes are poems.
ll. All Songs are rhymes.
Ans - B
7. Statement
Some boys are Students
Some students are girls
No girl is a boy
Conclusion
I. All boys being girls is a possibility
il. All girls being boys is a possibility
Ill. Some boys are girls
Ans - D
8. Statement
Some A are B
Some B are D
Some Care A
Conclusion
I. Some C are B
ll. Some D are notA
lll. No B is C
Ans - D
9. Statement
Some stools are buns.
No bun is a globe.
All globes are hugs
Conclusion
I. Some hugs are stools.
ll. Some globes are stools.
Ill. No hug is a stool.
Ans – C (Either A and C can be concluded)
10. Statement
Some lakes are swans.
Some swans are wells.
Some wells are screens.
Conclusion
I. Some screens are swans.
ll. Some wells are lakes.
Ill. Some screens are lakes
Ans - D
11. Statement
All flaps are fingers.
All fingers are bails.
All bails are yens
Conclusion
I. Some yens are fingers.
ll. Some bails are flaps.
Ill. Some yens are flaps
Ans - C
12. Statement
All sinks are links.
All links are barns.
Some barns are oranges.
Conclusion
1. Some oranges are links.
ll. Some barns are sinks.
Ill. Some oranges are sinks.
Ans – B
13. Statement
Only a few debits are credits.
A few credits are cash.
Conclusion
I. Some cash are definitely not debits.
Il. All debits being cash is a possibility.
Ill. All debits being credits is a possibility.
Ans - B
14. Statement
Only a few volumes are display.
Only a few screens are volumes
Conclusion
I. Some screens are definitely not display.
ll. All display being screens is a possibility
Ans - B
15. Statement
Only a few corners are nooks.
No nook is an edge.
No edge is a hole.
Conclusion
I. All holes can never be corners.
Il. At least some nooks are holes.
Ill. Some edges can be corners.
Ans - Only III can be concluded
Directions: In each of the questions below, two statements are given followed by
conclusions: I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known
facts
16. Statement
Only a few potteries are clay.
All clay are metals.
Conclusions:
I. All potteries can never be metals.
II. All clay being potteries is a possibility.
III. Some metals are definitely potteries.
(a) Only II and III follow

(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) Only II and III follows
(e) II and either I or III follows
Ans. D
17. Statements:
Only a few courts are fields.
No courts are arenas.
Conclusions:
I. Some arenas are definitely not fields.
II. All fields being arenas is a possibility.
III. All courts can never be fields.
(a) Only III follows

(b) Only II and III follows
(c) All of I, II and III follows
(d) Only I and II follow
(e) III and either I or II follows
Ans. A
18. Statements:
Only a few debits are credits.
A few credits are cash.
Conclusions:
I. Some cash are definitely not debits.
II. All debits being cash is a possibility.
III. All debits being credits is a possibility.
(a) Only III follows

(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) III and either I or II follow
(e) Only II follows
Ans. E
19. Statements:
Only a few volumes are display.
Only a few screens are volumes.
Conclusions:
I. Some screens are definitely not display.
II. All display being screens is a possibility.
(a) Only II follows

(b) Only I follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Both I and II follow
Ans. A
20. Statements:
Only a few hockey is soccer.
Some soccer is rugby.
No rugby is tennis.
Conclusions:
I. All tennis can never be soccer.
II. Some hockey can be tennis.
III. All soccer can never be tennis.
(a) Only II and III follows

(b) Either I or III follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Either I or III and II follows
(e) All the three conclusions follow
Ans. A
21. Statements:
Only a few shouts are screams.
All screams are squeals.
Only a few squeals are shrieks.
Conclusions:
I. Some shrieks can never be squeals.
II. Some screams can never be shrieks.
III. Some shouts can never be screams.
(a) Only II follows

(b) Only III follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Either I or III follows
(e) All the conclusions follow.
Ans. B
22. Statements:
Only a few corners are nooks.
No nook is an edge.
No edge is a hole.
Conclusions:
I. All holes can never be corners.
II. At least some nooks are holes.
III. Some edges can be corners.
(a) Either I or III follows

(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only II and III follows
(e) None of the conclusions follow
Ans. C
23. Statements:
Some sleep are naps.
Only a few naps are dozes.
All dozes are drowses.
Conclusions:
I. All dozes being sleep is a possibility.
II. All drowses being naps is a possibility.
III. All naps being dozes is a possibility.
(a) Only I follow

(b) All the conclusions follow
(e) Either I or III follows
Ans. D
24. Statements:
Only a few cubicles are booths.
No cubicle is a desk.
Only a few desks are bays.
Conclusions:
I. At least some booths are bays.
II. All booths can never be desks.
(a) Both I and II follow

(b) Only I follow
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Either I or II follows
(e) Only II follows
Ans. E
25. Statements:
Only a few rush are hush.
All rush are blush.
Conclusions
I. Some hush are blush.
II. All rush being hush is a possibility.
III. No blush is hush.
(a) Only I follow

(b) Either I or III follows
(c) Either I or III and II follows
(e) Only II follows
Ans. A
Statement 26:
Some ships are yens.
All yens are cats.
All cats are oranges
No orange is a shirt.
Conclusions:
I. No cat is a shirt.
II. Some ships are cats.
III. Some ships are oranges.
(a) Only I and II follow

(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) All follow
(e) None of these
Ans: D
27. Statements :
Some books are onions.
Some onions are gems.
No gem is a mark.
All marks are blocks.
Conclusions:
I. No block is a gem.
II. Some blocks are onions.
III. Some gems are books.
(a) None follows

(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II and III follow
(d) Only III follows,
(e) None of these
Ans: A
28. Statements:
Some clocks are wallets.
Some wallets are trucks.
All trucks are sails.
All sails are cooks.
Conclusions:
I. Some cooks are sails.
II. All sails are trucks.
III. All trucks are cooks.
(a) Only I follows

(b) Only I and II follow
(d) All follow
(e) None of these
Ans: C
29. Statements:
All grapes are rugs.
All rugs are facts.
All facts are heads.
No head is a jaw.
Conclusions:
I. All heads are rugs.
II. Some grapes are jaws.
III. No grape is a jaw.
(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II follows
(d) Only either II or III follows
(e) None of these
Ans: C
30. Statements:
Some lakes are bags.
All bags are hacks.
All hacks are beans.
No bean is a cav.
Conclusions:
I. All lakes are beans.
II. Some bags are cavs.
III. Some beans are cavs.
(a) Only I follows

(b) Only II and III follow
(d) Only II follows
(e) None follows
Ans: E
31. Statements:
Some bills are quakes.
Some quakes are gales.
All gales are hacks.
Conclusions:
I. Some hacks are quakes.
II. Some hacks are bills
(a) If only Conclusion I follows.

(b) If only Conclusion II follows.
(c) If either Conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both Conclusions I and II follow.
Ans: A
32. Statements:
All tens are grapes.
All rivers are grapes.
All pens are grapes.
Conclusions:
I. Some rivers are tens.
II. Some pens are tens.

(e) If both Conclusions I and II follow
Ans: D
33. Statements:
All tvs are carns.
Some carns are dusks.
All dusks are scales.
Conclusions:
I. Some scales are tvs.
II. Some scales are carns.

Ans: B
34. Statements:
Some jets are racks.
Some racks are oceans.
All hugs are jets.
Conclusions:
I. Some hugs are racks.
II. No rack is a hug.

(e) If both Conclusions I and II follow
Ans: C
35. Statements:
All seas are jacks.
No jack is a gate.
All gates are bats.
Conclusions:
I. Some bats are gates
II. No gate is sea.

Ans: E
36. Statements:
All engineers are villagers.
No villager is a nurse.
All nurses are managers.
Conclusions:
No engineer is a manager.
All villagers being managers is a possibility
(a) If only conclusion II follows.

(b) If both conclusions I and II follow.
(c) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(d) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(e) If only I follow.
Ans. A
37. Statements:
Some paints are shoes.
Some shoes are sleepers.
All sleepers are shirts.
Conclusions:
At least some shirts are paints.
No shirt is a paint.

Ans: D
38. Statements:
Some chairs are desks.
No desk is a bench.
Some tables are chairs
Conclusions:
All benches being tables possibility.
At least some desks are tables.

Ans: E
39. Statements:
A few pens are pencils.
Only pencils are glasses.
No persons are pens.
Conclusions:
I. Some pens being glasses is a possibility.
II. No persons are pencils.
a. Only conclusion II follows
b. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
c. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
d. Only conclusion I follows
e. None of these
Ans:C
40. Statements:
Some rivers are oceans.
No oceans are seas.
All seas are lakes.
No lakes are rivers.
Conclusions:
I. Some lakes being oceans is a possibility.
II. Some rivers are not seas.
a. Only conclusion II follows

b. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
c. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
d. Only conclusion I follows
e. None of these
Ans:C
INEQUALITY QUESTIONS FOR BANKING EXAMS
DIRECTIONS (Q.1-5) : In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown
in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.
Question 1. Statements :
L > M, M > N, N > P
Conclusions :
I. L > P
II. M > P
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Only Conclusion II follows
(c) Either Conclusion I or II follows
(d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
(e) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Answer: E
Question 2. Statements:
A > B, B = H, H > G
Conclusions:
I. A > G
II. A > H
Answer: E
H < J, F < H, J = K, I ≤ J
Conclusions :
I. H > I
II. I ≥ F
Answer: D
A<B<C≤D=E
Conclusions :
I. B ≤ E
II. B <E
Answer: B
P > M > Q, Q > Z > N
Conclusions :
I. M ≥ Z
II. N K≤L
Conclusions :
I. K < H
II. L ≥ I
Answer: A
S > C ≥ O, P < C
Conclusions :
I. O P
Answer: B
A = B ≤ C, A > R
Conclusions :
I. B > R
II. R < C
Answer: E
D > E ≤ F, J < F
Conclusions :
I. D > J
II. E < J
Answer: D

P < Q > T, R ≥ Q
Conclusions :
I. R > P
II. T<R
Answer: E
Directions: In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the

statements. Some statements are followed by some conclusions. Choose the correct answer
on the basis of information given below.
Question 11. Statements: B > A ≥ T > F = Y ≤ S < D

Conclusions: F < D, A > S
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Both conclusions follow
E. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Answer: A
Question 12.. Statements: Y < O ≤ G ≤ K = U > L > P

Conclusions: O = U, U > O
Answer: B
Question 13. Statements: M < T < G ≤ J = U > Y > R
Conclusions: G < U, J > R
Answer: B
Question 14. Statement: 3 ≥ 9 < 7 ≤ 10 = 2 ≤ 6

Conclusions: I. 6 > 9 II. 9 ≤ 2
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Answer: A
Question 15. Statement: P ≤ R ≤ C = S > Q > T

Conclusions: I. P < Q II. S ≥ P
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
E. Neither conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Answer:B
Question 16. Statements: L ≥ Y ≥ A < R, S > Q = A ≥ I

Conclusions: I. S > Y, II. R > Q
A. Only conclusion I follows.
B. Only conclusion II follows.
C. Both conclusions follow.
D. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
E. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Answer:B
Question 17 Statements: M < A ≤ P > X, P ≥ B = C < Y, C ≥ D > F = L
Conclusions:
I. P ≥ D,
II. M < C
Answer:A
Question 18. Statements: J = X ≤ U > Z, M = N ≥ U = P, L = O < N ≥ T

Conclusions:
I. J < N,
II. II. O > U
Answer:E
Question 19. Statements: H ≥ V = O > R, X ≤ D > Y > R, Y > N = L < Z

Conclusions:
I. O < D,
II. II. R > N
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
B. Only conclusion I follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Only conclusion II follows.
E. Either conclusion I or II follows.
Answer:A
Question 20. Statements: C < R = X; M = L > O = C; X > L = I

Conclusions:
I. O = X,
II. I < R
A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
B. Only conclusion I follows.
C. Both conclusions I and II follow.
D. Only conclusion II follows.
E. Either conclusion I or II follows.
Answer:D
Question 21. Statements: Y ≥ P = O, P < R ≤ J
Conclusions:
I. R>Y
II. J>O
C. Both conclusion I and II follow.
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Answer:B
Question 22. Statements: T > D ≥ P, F ≥ P = R

Conclusions:
I. T > R
II. D > F
C. Both conclusion I and II follow.
D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
E. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
Answer:A
Question 23. Statements: C < D, E ≥ B, B > D, A = E

Conclusions:
1. B > C
2. A < D
A. Either 1 or 2 follows
B. Only 1 follows
C. Only 2 follows
D. Both 1 and 2 follow
E. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
Answer:B
Question 24. Statement: M = X < Z ≥ W = N ≤ Q < T ≤ V = U

Conclusions:
1. V ≥ W
2. T ≯ U
A. Only 2 follows
B. Only 1 follows
C. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
D. Both 1 and 2 follow
E. Either 1 or 2 follows
Answer:A
Question 25. Statement: P ≤ Q < S = T ≥ U ≥ W < Z
Conclusion:
I. S > W,
II. W=T
A. Only I follows.
B. Only II follows.
C. Both I and II follows.
D. Either I or II follows.
E. Neither I nor II follows.
Answer:D
Question 26. Statements: A ≥ B; C > G; A ≥ H; B ≥ C; I = B

Conclusions:
I. C > H
II. H > B
III. B > G
IV. I > A
A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Either I or II true
D. Neither I nor II is true
E. Only III is true
Answer – E.
Question 27. Statements: A=B; C≤F; G>C; B<F

Conclusions:
I. F G
III. A > G
IV. A > C
A. Only II is true
B. None is true
C. Only I and II are true
D. Only II and III are true
E. Only IV is true
Answer – B.
Question 28. Statements: A≤H, G≥H; G>M; O≤M

Conclusions:
I. G≥A
II. G≥O
III. H>M
IV. H≤G
A. Only I, II and III are true
B. Only II is true
C. Only IV is true
D. Only I and IV are true
E. None is true
Answer – D.
Question 29. Statement : P ≥ Q > R < S ≤ T
Conclusion:
I. T > R
II. T > Q
III. R P
A. Only I is true
B. Only II is true
C. Only I and III are true
D. Only I and IV are true
E. All I, II, III and IV are true
Answer – C.
Question 30. Statement : P < Q ≥ R > S ≤ T

Conclusion:
I. T ≥ R
II. P < R
III. Q > S
IV. S M, ii. Q≤O

A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
C.Either I or II true
D.Neither I nor II is true
E.Both I and II are true
Answer – E.
Question 32. Statements: A>N=I≥W<O≤P; O>S; T<N
Conclusions: i. P>S, ii. A<W
A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – A.
Question 33. Statements: M≥N≥O>P≤Q≤R

Conclusions: i. M>Q, ii. N≤R
A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – D.
Question 34. Statements: M<P≤G = F≥B; H≥F<I; J≥P

Conclusions: P≤B, M<H
A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – B
Question 35. Statements: M<P≤G = F≥B; H≥F<I; J≥P

Conclusions: H≥J, B<I
A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – B.
Question 36. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces
respectively(in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in
such a manner that both ‘N≥Q’ as well as ‘Q≤M’ definitely holds true?
M_N_P_Q_R
A. >, ≥, <, =
B. >, >, ≥, <
C. ≥, ≥, ≤,≤
D. ≥, =, ≥,<
E. Other than those given as options
Answer – D.
Question 37. In Which of the following expressions does the expression ‘D=V’ to definitely
hold true?
A. K ≥ D ≤ R = P < S ≤ V
B. U ≥ V ≥ M = F ≤ A ≥ D
C. D ≥ C > Q ≥ B = N ≤ V
D. G ≥ D = A S>M>=A
is definitely true?
A. A ≤ P
B. S P
D. A V’ and ‘V > B’ be definitely false?
A. S>P≥Q=G≥R>V>B
B. P<A≤S≤T;V≥O>TV≤A≤L=R<S
D. S>C>=F≤H; B>V<F
E. S>T=O≥P; B<V<J=P
Answer – B.
Respectively(in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in
such a manner that both ‘B>S’ as well as ‘E≤F’ definitely holds true?
B_A_S_E_D_F_G
A. >, ≥, <, =, <, <
B. >, >, ≥, <, >, =
C. ≥, ≥, ≥, ≤, >, >
D. >, =, ≥, =, ≤, =
Answer – D.
Question 41. In Which of the following expressions does the expression ‘L=T’ and “E≥W” to
definitely hold true?
A. E ≥ W ≤ R = P < S ≤ T
B. U ≥ T ≥ M = W ≤ E ≥ L
C. L ≥ C > E ≥ W = N ≤ T
D. E ≥ W = A = R ≥
S>M>=W>A = R is definitely true?
A. W ≤ P
B. S Q
E. T ≤ M
Answer – C.
Question 43. In which of these expressions ‘P > R’ and ‘P = R’ be definitely true?
A. S>P≥Q=G≥R>V
B. P<A≤S≤T<R;V≥O>T
C. V≤A≤L=R<S=P
D. P>S>C>=F≤H; V<F<R
E. S>T=O≥P; V<J=P>R
Answer – A
Question 44. In which of these expressions ‘T > P’ and ‘T = P’ be definitely false?

A. T≥S≥P≥Q=G≥R>V
B. P<A≤S≤T;V≥O>T
C. V≤A≤L=R<S
D. S>C>=F≤H=P≤Q=T; V<F
E. S>T=O≥P; V<J=P
Answer – B.
Question 45. In which of these expressions ‘I > K’ be definitely false?

A. I>P≥Q=G≥R>K
B. P<A≤I≤T;K≥O>T
C. K≤A≤L=RC>=F≤H; K<F
E. I>T=O≥P; K<J=P
Answer – B
respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in
such a manner that both ‘F>N’ as well as ‘N≤B’ definitely holds true?
B_A_N_E_F
A. >, ≥, <, =
B. >, >, ≥, <
C. ≥, ≥, ≥,≤
D. ≥, =, ≤,<
Answer – D.
Question 47.In Which of the following expressions does the expression ‘I≥D’ to definitely
hold true?
A. K ≥ I ≤ R = P < S ≤ D
B. U ≥ D ≥ M = F ≤ A ≥ I
C. I ≥ C ≥ Q ≥ B = N ≥ D
D. G ≥ I = A S>M≥E is
definitely true?
A. E ≤ P
B. S P
D. E < S
E. T ≤ M
Answer – D.
Question 49. Statements: Y ≤ K < D = S; D B, ii. Y < Z
A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – B.
Question 50. Statements: H<L≤I=K; L = B Conclusions: i. K>H, ii. B≤I

A.Only I is true
B.Only II is true
Answer – E.
Order & Ranking Practice Qs
Q.1: In a row of certain persons, Pradip is sitting 463 from the left end and 531 from the right
end. Find out the total number of persons in that row?
1) 963
2) 942
3) 993
4) Can’t be determined
5) None of the above
Ans: 3
Q.2. In a row all the persons are facing north, Rahul is 33rd from the left end and in the right
side of Rahul, there are only 16 persons. Find out total number of person in this queue?
1) 49
2) 50
3) 51
5) None of these
Ans: 1
Q.3. In a row of 60 persons, Ganesh is 26th from left end. Find out his position from the right
end.
1) 35
2) 36
3) 34
5) None of the above
Ans: 1
Q.4. Siya is 18th from left end and 12th to the right of Rinku who is 38th from the right end. If
all of them are facing north, Find out total number of persons in the row?
1) 44
2) 43
3) 45
5) None of these
Ans: 2
Q5. In a batch of 100 students Kavya’s rank is 50th from the top and Lucky’s rank is 68th
from the bottom. How many students are there in between Kavya and Lucky (if no two
persons got the same rank)?
1) Less than 10
2) 16
4) 13
5) 14
Ans: 2
Q6. Anuj is ranked 9th from the Top and 38th from the bottom in his class. What is the total
strength of the class?
Options
1. 45
2. 46
3. 47
4. 48
Answer – Option 2
Q7. In a row, Vivek’s is at the 9th position from the front and Sunil is at the 7th position from the
back. There are 6 students standing between Vivek and Sunil. So What is the total number of
students in the row?
Options
1. 20
2. 21
3. 22
4. 23
Answer – Option 3
Q8. Sunaina stays on the 16th floor from the bottom of a 28-floor building. What is the position
of her floor from the Top?
Options
1. 13
2. 14
3. 15
4. 16
Answer – Option 1
Q9. A total of 78 soldiers were standing in a row. Ram Singh was standing at the 25th position
from the left. Shyam Singh was standing at 20th position from the right. How many soldiers
were standing between Ram Singh and Shyam Singh?
Options
1. 31
2. 32
3. 33
4. 34
Answer – Option 3
Q10. In the final list of 60 selected candidates, Aunja’s was rank was 35th from the Top and
Binita’s rank was 39th from the bottom. So how many candidates were between Aunja and
Binita on the list?
Options
1. 11
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
Answer – Option 2
Q11. Akshay is positioned 18th from the left and 43rd from the right. What is the total number of
persons standing in the row?
Options
1. 58
2. 60
3. 62
4. 61
Answer – Option 2
Q12. In a row, Suman is at the 15th position from the left and Raman is at the 19th position from
the back. There are 21 students standing between Suman and Raman. So What is the total
number of students in the row?
Options
1. 55
2. 50
3. 60
4. 52
Answer – Option 1
Q13. Ramandeep is standing at the 9th position from the left in a row of 36 students. What is
Ramandeep’s position from the Right side?
Options
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 28
Answer – Option 4
Q14. A total of 150 people were standing in a row. Sajid was standing at the 55th position from
the left. Wajid was standing at 66th position from the right. How many people were standing
between Sajid and Wajid?
Options
1. 27
2. 28
3. 29
4. 30
Answer – Option 3
Q15. In a row, 75 boys were standing. Param was standing at the 42nd position form the left
and Vikram was standing at 49th position from the right. Find out, how may boys were standing
between Param and Vikram in the row?
Options
1. 11
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
Answer – Option 4
Q17. In a row where all are facing north, Priya is 15th from the left end and Garima is 19th from
the right end. They interchange their positions, and Ram who sits 24th from the left end sits at
the 5th place to the left of Priya's new position. How many persons were there in the row?
1. 36
2. 42
3. 47
4. 56
5. None of these
Q18. During a prize distribution ceremony, Vikram was ninth from the left while Janhvi was
eighth from the right in the front row. If Hariom was thirteenth from the left and was exactly in
the middle of Vikram and Janhvi in the same row then what was the total number of people in
the front row?
1. 18
2. 19
3. 21
4. 24
5. None of these
Directions (Q 19-23): Study the following information and answer the given questions Among
the 6 persons – A, B, C, D and E. Each have different weight. A is heavier than 3 persons, C is
lighter than E, D is lighter than only B. C is not the lightest. The second heaviest person is of
68kg and the second lightest person is of 35kg.
Q19) Which of the following represents the ascending order of the weight of the 6 persons?
1) BDEACF
2) FCEADB
3) DCBAEF
4) ABCDEF
Q20) Who among the following weight 68kg?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Q21) Who among the following weight 35kg?

1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Q22) Who among the following lighter than

A 1)
B 2)
D 3)
E 4) Both E and C
Q23) If they are arranged in the descending order who will be the third from the right?
1) A
2) D
3) B
4) E
Directions (Q24-28): Study the following pattern and answer the questions below: – 1 W E 3 $
R T % M 9 4 L S C & F J 2 @ U P 7 D 5 * 0 Z C?
Q24) How many such numbers are there which are immediately followed by letter and
immediately preceded by symbol?
a) more than three
b) one
c) two
d) three
Q25) How many such symbols are there which are immediately followed by number and
immediately preceded by letter?
a) none
b) one
c) two
d) three
Q26) If all the numbers and vowels are dropped in the above pattern then which is 9th form the
left end?
a) C
b) L
c) S
d) &
Q27) Which among the following is third to the right of ninth from the right end?
a) *
b) D
c) 5
d) 0
Q28) Four of the following are alike in some manner, find the odd one?
a) 1EW
b) 50*
c) M49
d) SCF
Q29) Riya correctly remembers that she has paid an amount less than Rs.15 but more than
Rs. 8 for a ticket from Agra cantt to Sanjay place. Sudha also remembers that she has paid an
amount less than Rs.13 but more than Rs.10 for the same distance. The amount paid is not an
even number. Find the price of the ticket?
A. Rs 12
B. Rs 11
C. Either A or B
Q30) In a row of 68 people, Sonal is 22nd from the left and Rinku is 17th from the right.
Counting from the left end, what will be the position of Pinku who is sitting exactly in the middle
of Sonal and Rinku?
A. 27
B. 31
C. 37
D. 34
Directions (Q31-35): Study the following arrangement to answer the given questions
Y#OU7D$V@BE8©X1AC%P24QIN6M*Z5
Q31) If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be
the ninth from the right end? 1. A
2. C
3. X
4. Y
Q32) Which of the following will be the sixth to the left of the fourteenth from the left end of the
above arrangement?
1. Y
2. O
3. U
4. V
Q33) Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the thirteenth to the left of Q in the given
arrangement?
1. X
2. @
3. U
4. *
Q34) How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
Q35) How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded and also immediately followed by a consonant?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Q36) There are 6 friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T secured the most marks while Q did not
secure the least marks. R had more marks than S. Q had less marks that R. S had more
marks than U. P had more marks than Q. Who scored the least marks?
1. S
2. R
3. P
4. U
Q37) In a class, there are 120 students, where boys are twice that of girls, Ramesh a boy was
ranked 25th from the top if there are 10 girls ahead of Ramesh. How many boys are after him
in his rank?
A. 64
B. 65
C. 66
D. 67
Q38) Arjun is standing seventh from the right end of the line. Gaurav is standing fifth from the
left end of the line. If Arjun is to the left of Gaurav, the maximum number of persons that can
be present in the line is
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Q39) Some people are standing in a queue. Sam is seventh from the beginning and Raghav is
13th from the end in the queue. It is known that are 5 people standing between Sam and
Raghav. What is the total no. of people in the queue?
A. 25
B. 14
C. 21
D. cannot be determined
Directions (Q40-44): Study the following arrangement to answer the given questions
R6J#L@3EDTAC*G©UM2FIV$4Z5Y
Q40) If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be
the seventeenth from the right end?
1. E
2. L
3. I
4. @
Q41) Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of “V”? 1. 3 2. A 3. D 4.
T Correct Answer: “D”
Q42) Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the
above arrangement?
1. V
2. 4
3. $
4. E
Correct Answer: “3
Q43) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. IM$
2. CDG
3. 3#D
4. UGC
Q44) How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. More than three
Directions (Q45-49): Answer the given questions based on the following

English alphabet.
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
Q45) Which letter is fifth to the right of the eighteenth letter from your right?
1) N
2) M
3) E
4) C
Q46) If the above alphabet is arranged in the reverse order. Which letter will be 12th to the left
of the 16th from your left?
1) X
2) W
3) V
4) U
Q47) If all the vowels are removed from the alphabet, which letter will be the 7TH to the right of
the 5TH letter from the left?
1) L
2) V
3) J
4) P
Q48) If A and B written as B and A, C and D is written as D and C and so on. What will be the
position of M from your right ?
1) 11
2) 12
3) 13
4) 14

Q49) If every alternative letter starting with A, is removed from the alphabet. Which letter
among the remaining letters would be the third to the right of the fifth letter from the right?
1) J
2) L
3) V
4) X
Directions (Q50-54): Answer the following questions based on the following series
BS*4M@K%9+AL$R3U5H&#ZV2$W7QX6!FG*
Q50) What should come in place of? In the following series based on the
given arrangement?
BS* 4@K 9L$ ?
1) U#Z
2) 7FG
3) WXD
4) W6G
Q51) If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement then which will be the 8th
from the left end of the given arrangement?
1) %
2) +
3) M
4) $
Q52) Which of the following is 12th to the left of the 6th element from the left end of the given
arrangement?
1) X
2) H
3) 3
4) U
53) How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which
is immediately preceded by a letters and immediately followed by a symbol?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) More than three
Q54) What will be the average of the numbers in the above arrangement (approx)?
1) 4.8
2) 5.7
3) 5.14
4) 5.2
Q55) In a row where all are facing north, Priya is 15th from the left end and
Garima is 19th from the right end. They interchange their positions, and Ram who
sits 24th from the left end sits at the 5th place to the left of Priya's new position.
How many persons were there in the row?
A. 36
B. 42
C. 47
D. 56
Q56) During a prize distribution ceremony, Vikram was ninth from the left while
Jia was eighth from the right in the front row. If Hari was thirteenth from the left
and was exactly in the middle of Vikram and Jia in the same row then what was
the total number of people in the front row?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 21
D. 24
Q57. There are 6 friends P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T secured the most marks while Q
did not secure the least marks. R had more marks than S. Q had less marks that
R. S had more marks than U. P had more marks than Q.
Who scored the least marks?
1. S
2. R
3. P
4. U
RBI Assistant Seating Arrangement Qs
Qs (1-5):
Twelve friends are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people in each in such a way that there is an equal distance
between two adjacent persons. In row-1 Sriram, Tushar, Uma, Vivek, Wasim and Xanil are seated and all of them are facing
south direction. In row-2, Mano, Nirmal, Oviya, Parthiv, Queen and Ranjith are seated and all of them are facing north
direction. Therefore in the given seating each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. No two
persons, whose names start with consecutive letters of English alphabet, are immediate neighbors of each other. For example,
Binu is an immediate neighbor of neither Aman nor Chitra and so on. Each of them also likes different Kollywood actors - Rajni,
Kamal, Vijay, Ajith, Surya, Karthi, Dhanush, Vikram, Prasanth, Jeeva, Arya and Prabhu. All the above information is not
necessarily in the same order.
Nirmal does not like Ajith. Tushar sits at an extreme end of the line. Only two people sit between Tushar and the one who likes
Dhanush. Nirmal sits second to the left of the one who faces the one who likes Dhanush. The one who likes Vijay sits second to
the right of Oviya. Tushar does not face the one who likes Vijay. Only two persons sit between Parthiv and Ranjith. Uma does
not sit at an extreme end of the line. Xanil is not an immediate neighbor of Tushar. Vivek faces the one who likes Prasanth.
Only three people sit between the one who like Prasanth and Rajni. Ranjith likes Karthi. One of the immediate neighbors of
Mano faces the one who likes Arya. The one who likes Kamal sits to the immediate right of Sriram. Parthiv sits second to the
right of the one who likes Jeeva. Only three people sit between the ones who like Vikram and Prabhu respectively. Tushar does
not like Prabhu.
1. Which among the following actors was liked by Wasim?

A. Vikram
B. Ajith
C. Prabhu
D. Arya
E. Cannot be determined
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the
group?
A. Vikram
B. Rajni
C. Surya
D. Arya
E. Vijay
3. Which among the following combination is definitely true?

A. Nirmal-Karthi
B. Parthiv-Rajni
C. Sriram-Dhanush
D. Wasim-Kamal
4. Which among the following statements is definitely true?

A. Wasim and the one who like Dhanush are immediate neighbors.
B. The one who likes Kamal faces the one who sits third to the right of Queen.
C. Only two persons sit between Mano and the one who likes Karthi
D. The one who likes Surya is an immediate neighbor of Ranjith and Oviya
5. Which of the following persons sits immediate right of the person who sits opposite to Ranjith?
A. Uma
B. Wasim
C. Sriram
D. Oviya
E. Queen
Directions (Q. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below;
8 persons – E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L - are sitting around a circle at equidistance but not necessarily in the same order. Some of
them are facing towards the centre while some others are facing outside the centre. L is sitting 3rd to the left of K. Both K and
L are facing towards the outside. H is not an immediate neighbour of K or L. J faces the just opposite direction of H. (It implies
that if H is facing towards the centre, J would face outside the centre). J is sitting 2nd to the left of H. Both the immediate
neighbours of G face just opposite direction of G. E is an immediate neighbour of K. Both the immediate neighbour of H face
just opposite direction of H. E faces towards the centre and he is an immediate n eighbour of both K and I. I faces towards the
centre.
6. Who amongst the following are not facing towards the centre?
a) E, F and I
b) F, G and J
c) H, K and L
d) G, I and J
e) None of these
7. What is the position of G with respect to E?

a) 2nd to the left
b) 3rd to the right
c) 4th to the left
d) 2nd to the right
e) 5th to the right
8. Who among the following is sitting exactly between F and K?

a) J
b) I
c) E
d) G
e) None of these
9. How many persons are sitting between H and K if we move clockwise starting from H?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Two
e) One
10. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the given sitting arrangement?
a) L is sitting exactly between G and I
b) H is sitting 3rd to the right of K
c) F and I are sitting just opposite to each other
d) E is sitting 3rd to the left of G
e) All are true
Directions (10-15): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of them
belongs to a different department viz. Finance, Marketing Sales, HR, Corporate Finance, Investment Banking and Operations
but not necessarily in the same order.
C sits third to the right of G. G faces the centre. Only one person sits between C and the person working in the HR department
immediate neighbours of C face outside. Only one person sits between F and D. Both F and D face the centre. D does not work
in the HR department. A works in Investment Banking Department. A faces the centre. Two people sit between the persons
who work in Investment Banking and Marketing Departments. The person who works in Corporate Finance sits to the
immediate left of E. C faces same direction as E. The person who works in corporate finance sits to the immediate left of the
person who works for Operations Department.
10. For which of the following departments does B work?

a) Finance
b) Marketing
c) HR
d) Corporate Finance
e) Operations
11. What is position of B with respect to the person who works for Sales Department?
a) Immediate right
b) Third to the left
c) Second to the right
d) Second to the left
e) Fourth to the right
12. Who sits to the immediate right of E?

a) The person who works for Marketing Department
b) C
c) B
d) The person who works for HR Department Seating
e) A
13. Who amongst the following sits exactly between C and the person who works for HR Department?
a) B
b) The person who works for Marketing Department
c) The person who works for Operations Department
d)D
e) G
14. Who amongst the following sit between the persons who work for Marketing and Investment Banking departments when
counted for the left hand side of the person working for Marketing Department?
a) F and G
b) E and C
c )C and B
d) F and D
e) B and D
15. How many people sit between the person who workds for Operations Department and A, when counted from the right
hand side of A?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
e) None of these
Directions (16-20): These questions are based on the following directions:
Twelve persons sitting in two parallel rows containing six persons in each row in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent persons. In row –I A, B, C, D and F are seated and all of them are facing north. In row II P, Q, R, S, T & U are
seated and all of them are facing south. Each person in row-I is facing exactly one person in row-II.
(i) Q is sitting third to the right of T. S is not adjacent to T.

(ii) Q & T are neither opposite A nor at any extremes.
(iii) R is adjacent to Q. E is second to the right of A. D is to the left C & to the left of F.
(iv) The no of persons sitting between A & C is the same as the no of persons sitting between R & T.
(v) D is not opposite P.
16. Who is sitting opposite to C?

1. Q
2. T
3. R
4. S
5. P
17. Who is sitting second to the right of P?

1. T
2. U
3. S
4. Q
5. R
18. How many persons are sitting between A & C?

1. Zero
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. Four
19. Based on the given information in a certain way F is related to S & D is related to T, then in the same way E is related to
whom?
1. P
2. U
3. R
4. Q
5. B
20. Four out of the following five are alike based on the given information and hence form a group. Find the one which does
not belong to that group.
1. R
2. A
3. P
4. B
5. U
Directions (21-25) - Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
Some persons are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre of the table. The distance is equal among all the
persons and number of persons was not more than 18 persons. Number of persons between Z and N when counted from left
of Z was thrice as that of the number of persons seated between Z and L when counted from right of Z. L and N are neighbours
of each other. I was seated to the immediate left of J and three persons are sitting between J and K. L was third to the right of
K. M was second to the right of O and second to the left
of I. L is to the immediate left of N.
21. How many persons are present in the above arrangement?

1) Eleven
2) Fifteen
3) Seventeen
4) Thirteen
5) Fourteen
Answer : 2) Fifteen
22. How many persons sit between L and J when counted in anti –clockwise direction from L?
1) Five
2) Seven
3) Six
4) Nine
Answer : 2) Seven
23. Who among the following pairs are immediate neighbours of each other?
1) LO
2) ZK
3) JM
4) JO
5) None of these
Answer : 2) ZK
24. What is the position of L with respect to O?

1) Second to the right
2) Third to the Right
3) Second to the left
4) Third to the left
5) Immediate right
Answer : 4)
25. How many persons sit between Z and O when counted in clockwise direction from Z?
1) Seven
2) Five
3) Six
4) Four
Answer : 1) Seven
Directions (26-30) -Six friends Prakash, Qadir, Rithesh, Surya, Tarini and Umesh are sitting around the square table. All of them
belong to different profession among Engineer, Doctor, Scientist, Banker, Lawyer and Teacher but not necessarily in the same
order. Some of them are facing inside and some of them are facing outside. Four of them are sitting at the corner of the table
and two are sitting on the opposite edges of the table. Not more than two consecutive sitting persons are facing the same
direction.
Tarini, whose profession is Scientist, sits second to the left of Qadir and to the left person whose profession is Lawyer. Qadir
sits at corner and facing away from the centre of the table. The person sitting to the immediate right of Qadir is sitting at the
corner of the table. Umesh, who is not the immediate neighbor of Qadir, is facing the person, whose profession is Doctor.
Surya, whose profession is Teacher, is an immediate neighbor of the person whose, profession is Lawyer. Surya is not the
immediate neighbor of Tarini. Rithesh is not sitting at the edge of the table. The immediate neighbors of Prakash are facing
different directions. The one whose profession is Scientist is not sitting to the immediate right of the person whose profession
is Banker. The person whose profession is Banker does not sit at the edge of the table. The person sitting at the edges are
facing towards each other.
26. Who is sitting to the immediate left of Prakash?

A. The one who is Banker
B. The one who is Scientist
C. Surya
D. Rithesh
E. None of these
27. What is the profession of Rithesh?

A. Banker
B. Lawyer
C. Engineer
D. Doctor
E. None of these
28. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Surya?

A. Umesh
B. The one who is Banker
C. Rithesh
D. The one who is Lawyer
29. Who is Doctor?

A. Qadir
B. Rithesh
C. Prakash
D. Tarini
30. Who is sitting to the immediate right of the person whose profession is Engineer?
A. Qadir
B. Tarini
C. Surya
D. Rithesh
E. None of these

Completion of Number and Alphabetical Series for RRB NTPC Free e-book
1. Find the next term in the following series

D, C, J, G, V
a) M
b) Q
c) Z
d) X
2. Find the missing term in the series

1, 4, 8, 13, 21, _ , 36
a) 30
b) 25
c) 29
d) 27
3. What should come next in the following letter series?

abcdefbcdegcdeh
a) l
b) c
c) d
d) g
4. Find the next term in the series

1, 1, 8, 4, 27, 9
a) 64
b) 16
c) 36
d) 40
5. Complete the series

Z, W, R, K, ?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E

3, 5, 9, 15, ?, 33, 45
a) 20
b) 22
c) 23
d) 28

G, I, M, S, A, ?
a) J
b) L
c) M
d) K
8. Find the missing term in the following series

0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 17, 24, 26, ?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 32
d) 35

A, A, B, C, E, H, ?
a) N
b) M
c) O
d) P

3, 3, 6, 18, 72, ?
a) 288
b) 360
c) 144
d) 254
11. What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following series
HK JM ? NQ PS
a) NL
b) LO
c) KN
d) KO
12. Find the missing term

EV, JQ, OL, ____
a) SH
b) UF
c) SF
d) TG

40, 22, 24, 38, ?
a) 52
b) 70
c) 78
d) 64

13, 21, ?, 69, 133
a) 29
b) 35
c) 47
d) 37
15. Complete the series:

QN, MJ, IF, EB, AX, ?
a) YV
b) WT
c) YT
d) WV
16. Find the missing term (?) in the alphabetical series:

GK, OT, YE, KR, ?
a) HT
b) ZH
c) YG
d) XJ
17. Find the missing number in the following series:

16, 21, ?, 46, 66
a) 30
b) 35
c) 31
d) 40
18. Find the missing number in the series:

11, ?, 29 , 41, 55
a) 14
b) 19
c) 21
d) 25

TU, WY, BE, IM, ?
a) VU
b) TY
c) RW
d) SV

11, 21, 41, 81,?
a) 161
b) 163
c) 165
d) 169

PFA, MGY, JIW, GLU, ?
a) DOS
b) DPT
c) DOT
d) DPS
22. What will come in place of ‘?’ in the following series

XWA, VTC, SPF, OKJ, ?
a) JDN
b) JEO
c) LPN
d) JDP
23. Find the missing term from the following series.

DFC, HJE, LNG, PRI, __.
a) VXL
b) RTL
c) TVK
d) RTJ
6633, 6632, 3315, 1104, _ , 54, 8
a) 273
b) 504
c) 275
d) 320

682, 705, 688, 711, _ , 717, 700
a) 734
b) 687
c) 720
d) 694
26. Which of the following set of letters when sequentially placed will complete the
series
ab_dab_d_b_da_bdabc_
a) cbacbd
b) caacbc
c) acacbd
d) baacbc
27. Find the next two terms of the given series

A, C, E, I, I, O, M, ?, ?
a) S, U
b) S, Q
c) Q, S
d) U, Q
28. Find the missing term of the series?

YXYZYZY, YZXZYZY, YZYXYZY, YZYZXZY, YZYZYXY, ____.
a) YZYZYZX
b) YZXZXZX
c) YZXZYZX
d) YZYZXZX
29. Select the missing term

0, 1, 4, 0.11, 16
a) 25
b) 0.04
c) 0.025
d) 0.09
30. What should come in place of ?

6 42 ? 1260 5040 15120 30240 30240
a) 545
b) 252
c) 444
d) 366
ANSWER KEY
1.a 2. a 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a
21. d 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. a 27. d 28. a 29. b 30.b
SOLUTIONS
1. Consecutive prime numbers 2, 3, 2. To write ‘ONE’ we need three

5, 7, 11, 13. letters hence 2nd term = 1 + 3 =
Series 1: Letters with position 4
value = twice of alternate prime To write ‘FOUR’ we need three
numbers (2,5,11..) letters hence 3rd term = 4 + 4 = 8
2*2 = 4 = D To write ‘EIGHT’ we need three
5*2 = 10 = J letters hence 4th term = 8 + 5 =
11*2 = 22 = V 13
Series 2: Letters with position To write ‘THIRTEEN’ we need
value = alternate prime numbers three letters hence 3rd term = 13
(3, 7, 13,..) + 8 = 21
3=C Hence missing term is 21 + 9 =
7=G 30
13 = M Hence, correct option is (a)
The series is D, C, J, G, V, M
Hence, correct option is (a) 3. The given series can be written as
abcdef
bcdeg
cdeh
The first letter is removed and the 7. The gap between alphabets is
last letter is increased by 1 consecutive odd numbers
position. G_ I___M_____S____
Therefore, ‘d’ is the next letter ___A_________K
Hence, correct option is (c) Therefore the missing term is K
Hence, correct option is (d)
4. Alternate terms forms a series
(13, 23, 33,.... and 12, 22, 32,....) 8. Alternate terms forms a series
Hence the series is 13, 12, 23,22, (whose difference between 2
33, 32 and the next term is 43 = terms are consecutive odd
64 numbers starting from 3)
Hence, correct option is (a) Series 1: 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35
Series 2: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26
5. The reverse position values of Therefore the missing term is 35
alphabets are considered where Hence, correct option is (d)
Z=1, Y=2, X=3 and so on.
The series is of consecutive 9. The position values of 2 alphabets
square values 1, 4, 9, 16, 25. are added to get the position
Therefore, the missing term is B. value of the consequent alphabet.
Hence, correct option is (b) A(1), A(1), B(2), C(3), E(5), H(8),
M(13)
6. Consecutive multiples of 2 are Therefore the missing term is M.
added to the terms to get the next Hence, correct option is (b)
term
3+2=5 10. The successive numbers are
5+4=9 multiplied by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
9 + 6 = 15 Therefore the missing term is
15 + 8 = 23 72*5 = 360
23 + 10 = 33 Hence, correct option is (b)
33 + 12 = 45
Therefore the missing term is 23 11. First letter is increased by 2
Hence, correct option is (c) H+2 →J
J+2 →L 13. 40*0.5+2 = 22
L+2 →N 22*1 + 2 = 24
N+2 →P 24 *1.5 +2 = 38
Second letter is increased by 2 38*2 + 2 = 78
K+2 →M Hence, correct option is (c)
M+2 →O
O+2 →Q 14. 13 + 23= 13 + 8 = 21
Q+2 →S 21 + 24= 21 + 16 = 37
37 + 25= 37 + 32 = 69
Therefore LO will come in place of
69 + 26= 69 + 64 = 133
‘?’
Therefore the missing term is 37.
Hence, correct option is (b)
12. The first letters are at a gap of 4
15. Q _ _ N M _ _ J I _ _ F E _ _ B A _
E____J____O____T
_ X W _ _ T (reverse alphabetical
The second letters are at a gap of
order)
4
G____L____Q____V
Therefore the missing term is TG.
16. G + 4 = K, K + 4 = O Hence, the correct option is (a)

O + 5 = T, T + 5 = Y
Y + 6 = E, E + 6 = K 21. Three series:
K + 7 = R, R + 7 = Y P__M__J__G__D
Y+8=G FG_I__L___P
So, the missing term is YG. A_Y_W_U_S
Hence, correct option is (c) So, the next term is DPS
17. 16+5= 21
21+10= 31 22. Last letter is increased by 2, 3, 4,
31+15= 46 5,....
46+20= 66 A + 2 →C
So, the missing term is 31 C + 3 →F
Hence, correct option is (c) F + 4 →J
J + 5 →O
18. 32 + 2=11 Hence the last letter is O
42 + 3=19 The number of letters between
52 + 4=29 first and second letter increases
62 + 5=41 by 1
72 + 6=55 X–W=0
So, the missing term is 19 V–T=1
Hence, correct option is (b) S–P=2
O–K=3
19. TU _ W _ Y _ _ B _ _ E _ _ _ I _ _ J–E=4
_M____R____W So, JEO will come in place of ‘?’
So, the next term is RW Hence, correct option is (b)
Hence, correct option is (c)
23. D + 2 = F, F/2 = C.
20. (One less than twice the previous F + 2 = H; So, next series starts
term) with H.
11*2-1 = 21 H + 2 = J, J/2 = E.
21*2-1 = 41 J + 2 = L; So, next series starts
41*2 -1 = 81 with L.
81*2 -1 = 161 L + 2 = N, N/2 = G.
N + 2 = P; So, next series starts 25. Alternatively, 23 is added and 17
with P. is subtracted from the series
P + 2 = R, R/2 = I. 682 + 23 = 705
R + 2 = T; So, next series starts 705 – 17 = 688
with T. 688 + 23 = 711
T + 2 = V, V/2 = K. 711 – 17 = 694
TVK is the next term of the series. 694 + 23 = 717
Hence, correct option is (c) 717 – 17 = 700
So, 694 is the missing term
24. The given series is Hence, correct option is (d)
6633/1 – 1 = 6632
26. a b c d/ a b b d/ a b c d/ a b b d /
6632/2 – 1 = 3315
abcd
3315/3 – 1 = 1104
Hence, correct option is (a)
1104/4 – 1 = 275
275/5 – 1 = 54 27. It is a composite series. Terms in
54/6 – 1 = 8 odd positions increases by 4: A, E,
So, the missing term is 275. I, M, Q and the terms in the even
Hence, correct option is (c) positions increase by 6: C, I, O, U.
So, the missing terms are U, Q
28. In the first term, the letter X

replaces the second letter of the
term YZYZYZY. In the consecutive
terms, the letter X replaces the
letters which are at the third,
fourth, fifth and so on of the term
YZYZYZY.
So, in the sixth term, X will
replace the letter at the seventh
position and the term will be
YZYZYZX
Hence, correct option is (a)
29. The series is 02, 1-2, 22, 3-2, 42, 5-2

30. 6*7 = 42
42*6 = 252
252*5 = 1260 and so on
Direction Sense Questions Free ebook
(Directions 1 – 5): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
that follow:
M % N means M is to the right of N at a distance of 1m.

M @ N means M is to the left of N at a distance of 1m.
M $ N means M is to the north of N at a distance of 1m.
M # N means M is to the south of N at a distance of 1m.
The persons are facing the south direction.
1. A % B # C % D, then D is in which direction with respect to A?
1) North
2) South-East
3) South
4) South-West
5) North-West
Answer – 5) North-West
2. A # B % C $ D, then D is in which direction with respect to A?
1) North
2) North-East
3) West
4) South
5) South-West
Answer – 3) West
3. E $ F @ G # H, then H is in which direction with respect to E and what is distance

between H and E?
1) North, 1m
2) South, 1m
3) South-East, 1m
4) West, 1m
5) East, 1m
Answer – 5) East, 1m
4. A # B % C $ D % E, then E is in which direction with respect to B?
1) North
2) South-West
3) North-East
4) South-East
5) West
Answer – 2) South-West
5. P # R @ S @ Q $ T, Then R is in which direction with respect to Q and at what

distance?
1) North, 1m
2) South, 2m
3) West, 2m
4) East, 2m
5) North-East, 1m
Answer – 3) West, 2m
6. A person starts walking in north to his house and walks 50m. Now he took a right
turn and walks 20m and after that he took another right and walks 20m. Now he is
moving towards his house. In which direction he is walking?
a) south east
b) south west
c) north east
d) north west
e) None of these
Answer – b) south west
7. Ramesh starts walking in north direction and after walking some distance he turns
to 45 degree in clockwise direction. After that he turns 180 degree anti clockwise
and again 45 degree in clockwise direction. Now in which direction Ramesh is
walking
a) west
b) east
c) north
d) south
e) None of these
Answer – a) west
8. Raju starts walking in south direction and walks a distance of 7 meters. Now he
tooks a left turn and walk 6m. Again he takes a left turn and walk 15m and reached a
point P. Find the distance between starting point and P and in which direction is the
Raju from the initial point.
a) 10m, south east

b) 10m, north west
c) 10m, north east
d) 10m, south west
e) None of these
Answer – c) 10m, north east
9. Aman goes 6 m North and turns right and walks 8 m. Again, he turns to his right
and walks 4 m. After this, he takes another turn to his right and walks 8 m. So, what
is the distance between his current position and his starting point?
(a) 1m
(b) 3m
(c) 5m
(d) 2m
Correct Answer: Option (d) – 2 m
10. If South-West becomes East, South-East becomes North and so on. What will
North become?
(a) South-West
(b) South-East
(c) North-West
(d) North-East
Correct Answer: Option (a) – South-West
11. Vivek walks 10 m towards the South. From there he takes a U-Turn and walks 6
m. Then, he takes a left walks 3 m. What is the distance and direction of his current
location with respect to his starting point?
(a) 5 km, South-West

(b) 4 km, South-West
(c) 5 km, South-East
(d) 5 km, North-West
Correct Answer: Option (a) – 5 km, South-West
12. Aman is 40 km away from Akhil in the South-West Direction. Anthony is 40 km

away from Akhil in the South-East direction, then what is the direction of Anthony
with respect to Aman?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer: Option (c) – East

13. A ran 15m towards South, took a turn towards east and ran 20m and again he
took a turn towards the north and ran 15m. What is the distance between his current
position and his starting position?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 20
Correct Answer: Option (d) – 20
14. Lakhan left his home for a run and ran 15 km in the Northern direction. Then he
turned left and ran 10 km. Then he turned another left and ran 5 km. Finally, he took
a turn to the East and ran 10 km. In which direction is his current location with
respect to his home?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) Northwest
(d) South-East
Correct Answer: Option (a) – North
15. Arpit walked a distance of 8 km in Eastern direction and then took a U-turn and
walked 13 km, then she turned south and walked 4 km; After which she turned left
and walked 5 km; and finally, she turned north and walked 3 km. How far is she from
the starting point?
(a) 8 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 1 km
(d) 3 km
Correct Answer: Option (c) – 1 km
16. Arun started walking towards North and walked for 5 km, then he turned right
and walked for 3 km, he took another right turn and walked 5 km and finally, he took
a left turn and walked 2 km. What is Arjun’s current direction from his starting point?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer: Option (c) – East

17. Shyam is doing an exercise with his legs up and head down. He is facing west.
In which direction, will his left hand be?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer: Option (A) – North
18. Naman runs 5 km in the east direction from his home. He then takes a left and
runs 15 km. He then takes a right turn and runs 10 km. He then took a turn towards
the south and ran 15 km. What is the distance between his home and his current
location?
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 30 km
Correct Answer: Option (B) – 15 km
19. A postman was returning to the post office which was in front of him to the south.
When the post office is 80m away from him, he turned to the right and walks 50m to
deliver the last letter. He continues walks in the same direction for 20 meter and then
took a left turn and walks 80 meter. How many meters was he away from the post
office
a) 30
b) 40
c) 60
d) 70
e) None of these
Answer – d) 70
Directions (20-24): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions
that follow. The questions are based on following coding formats:
# – North
@ – South
% – East
$ – West
! – Either 4 or 6 m
& – Either 3 or 10 m
Examples: @ means P is South of Q, P#$Q means P is North-West of Q, P$!Q

means P is West of Q at a distance of either 4 or 6 m.
Conditions given are as:
I. A#&B
II. A#$C
III. C%B
IV. C$!D
V. E@&D
VI. F$!E
VII. G#!F
VIII. G@$C
20. Given H$G, HG = 3m, B#H. Find distance between B and C?
1) 4m
2) 5m
3) 6m
4) 7m
Answer – 2) 5m
21. If B#G, then which of the following is true regarding points B and G?
1) G#&B
2) B#&G
3) B@!G
4) G@!B
5) None of these
Answer – 4) G@!B
22. A man starts walking from point A walks for 5m in ‘%’ direction, reaches point J,
turns ‘@’ direction and now walks 7m to reach point G. Given J#G. What is the
distance between points C and A. (Take points from question number 1 also).
1) √38m
2) √34m
3) √42m
4) 4√8m
5) 4√3m
Answer – 2) √34m
23. If distance point G and E is 6√2m, then find distance between points G and C?
1) 2√5m
2) 3√5m
3) 5√6m
4) 4√6m
5) 5√2m
Answer – 1) 2√5m
24. If K@!D and G$K, what is the maximum area of the quadrilateral formed by
joining points K, G,
1) 36
2) 49
3) 64
4) 30
5) 25
Answer – 1) 36
25. A man standing facing north starts walking. After walking for 5 m he took a left
turn and walked for 10m. Now he walked for 20 m after turning to his right and again
he turned right and finally stopped after walking 10 m. What is the distance from the
starting point?
A) 18 m
B) 20 m
C) 15 m
D) 25 m
E) None of these
Correct Answer: D) 25 m
26. From a point Saket starts walking in south-east direction. After walking for 6 m,
he turned to west and walks another 10 m. Now he turned towards north-west and
walks 6 m and then finally stopped after turning to east and walking 2 m. Find the
distance from the starting point.
A) 10 m
B) 8 m
C) 12 m
D) 6 m
E) None of these
Correct Answer: B) 8 m
27. From a point Sohail started walked towards south. After walking for 20 m, he
took a left turn and walked 40 m. Again he took a left turn and walked 15 m. Now he
turned to his right and finally stopped after walking 10 m. How far is he from the
starting point?
A) 42.50 m
B) 50.25 m
C) 30.75 m
D) 45 m
E) None of these
Correct Answer: B) 50.25 m
28. A person started walking in south direction. After walking for 40 m he turned to
his left and then walked 20 m. Now he turned to north and walked 30 m. In which
direction is he now with respect to starting point?
A) South-east
B) North-east
C) North
D) South
E) North-west
Correct Answer: A) South-east
29. Point A is 7 m west of point B. Point C is 5 m north of point B. A point D on AB 2

m away from point A meets BC at point E with DE = √34 m. Find the distance EC.
A) 3 m
B) 2 m
C) 4 m
D) Data inadequate
E) None of these
Correct Answer: B) 2 m
Directions (30-32): Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Eight persons M through T are standing in such a way that O is 20 m apart from N
towards West, N is 30 m South with respect to M. M is 40 m towards West with
respect to Q. P is 50 m towards South with respect to Q. R is 15 m apart from S
towards North. T is 20 m towards East with respect to S. R is 40 m towards West
with respect to P.
30. In which direction is Q standing with respect to R?
A. North-West
B. North
C. North-East
Answer – Option C
31. If one more person U is standing towards South-West with respect to P, then in
which direction is T, standing with respect to U?
A. South-West
B. North-East
C. North-West
Answer – Option D
32. What is the direction of O with respect to S?
A. North-West
B. North
C. West
Answer – Option A
33. Karim facing towards south moved straight 8 km and from there turned to her
right 90° and travelled 7 km. Then she took a 45° turn to her left and travelled 4 km.
Where would she be now with respect to the starting point?
A. South
B. South-east
C. North-east
D. South-west
Answer – Option D
34. A person starts from his home moves 15 m towards east and then turn 45’
towards its left and walk 15m. After that he moves towards west and stop at the point
P after covering 15m. Determine the distance and direction of the point P from his
house.
A. South east and 15

B. north east and 15
C. South west and 15
D. North west and 15
Answer – Option B
35. A boy facing north turns 60’ in clockwise direction and then turns 150’ in anti-
clockwise. In which direction now he is facing.
A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west
Answer – Option D
36. Yashi starts from a point A and moves 3 m straight then take a right turn and
walk 4 m, again take a left turn and walk 5m. Finally he takes a left turn and walk 4m
now he is facing north, so in which direction he starts.
A. north
B. south
C. east
D. west
Answer – Option C
37. A person going 40m to the south of his house.Then he turned left and go 20m
and turn to north and walk 30m then start walking to my house. In which direction he
was walking now ?
A. East South
B. West North
C. North West
D. North East
Answer – Option C
38. If a person walks 3m towards South from point W and reaches point Q, which of
the following 2 points would fall in straight line including Q
A. Q,Y, Z
B. Q,X, Y
C. Q,W, X
D. Q,X, Z
Answer – Option A
Direction(39-43): There are 5 friends A, B, C, D and E standing randomly. B is to the

northeast of E. D is 2km to the east of E, who is 6km to the west of A. C is to the
northwest of D and in the line of EB. D is 4km the south of B.
39. In which direction is C with respect to A ?
A. South west
B. South east
C. Northeast
D. Northwest
E. None of these
40. In which direction is A with respect to B ?
A. Southeast
B. Southwest
C. Northwest
D. Northeast
E. None of these
41. What is the distance between D and A ?D
A. 5km
B. 4km
C. 6km
D. 3km
E. None of these
42. What is the shortest distance between B and A?
A. 57√7 km
B. 42√2 km
C. 62√2 km
D. 35√5 km
E. None of these

43. What is the shortest distance between between B and E?
A. 27√7 km
B. 42√2 km
C. 62√2 km
D. 35√5 km
E. None of these
44. Ankush walked 50 m towards north then turned left and walked 68 m. He then
turned to south and walked 22 m then he took a left turn and walked 44 m. After that
he turned right and walked 18 m and finally he turned left to and walked 48 m.
What is the total distance travelled by Ankush in south direction during the entire
journey?
A. 40 m
B. 54 m
C. 36 m
D. 44 m
Direction (45 – 50): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given beside.
In the following questions, the symbols &, %, * and # are used with the following
meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given
questions:
Note: The directions which are given indicates exact directions.
A&B – A is in the south direction of B.
A*B – A is in the north direction of B.
A%B – A is in the east direction of B.
A#B – A is in the west direction of B.
A@BS - A is the mid-point of BS vertically.
Note– For southeast direction it used to be written as A&%B and so on…
When it is given that the Car honks once then it will be considered as the car taken a
left turn and if it is given as the car honks twice then it will be considered as the car
takes a right turn.
Point A is %15m of point B. Point C is *33m of point A. Point D is *25m of point B.

Point E is #20m of point D. Point F is &40m of point E. Point G is %40m point F.
Point H@IG. Point I is *30m of Point G.
45. What distance the car has to travel from point I to reach the airplane which is
parked at point A?
1) 22m
2) 6√10 m
3) 43 m
4) 35m
5) 5√10m
Correct Answer – 5) 5√10m
46. What could the possible shortest route to reach point D from point C?
1) Started in east till 15km, honks once, cover 8km

2) Started in west till 15km, honks twice, cover 8km
3) Started in south till 25km, honks once, cover 8km
4) Started in north till 5km, honks once, cover 8km
5) Started in west till 15km, honks once, cover 8km
Correct Answer – 5) Started in west till 15km, honks once, cover 8km
47. If Point J is &15m of point B then which of the following is the position of J with
respect to G?
1) *, 24m
2) #, 25 m
3) &, 15 m
4) #, 20m
5) None of these
Correct Answer – 4) #, 20m
48. Point H is in which direction from point B?
1) &
2) *
3) #
4) %
5) &%
Correct Answer – 4) %
49. Point F is in which direction from point I?
1) &#
2) *
3) #
4) %
5) &%
Correct Answer – 1) &#
50. What is the shortest distance between point A and point E?
1) 5√97 m
2) 5√87 m
3) 5√74 m
4) 5√53 m
5) None of these
Correct Answer – 3) 5√74 m

Question 51. If you are facing north-east and move 10 m forward, turn left and move 7.5 m,
then you are
A. north of your initial position
B. south of you initial position
C. 12.5 m from the initial position
D. Both A and C
Answer: D
Question 52. One day Ravi left home and cycled 10 km south wards, turned right and
cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. how many
kilometers will he have to cycle to reach his home straight ?
A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 25 km
Answer: B
Question 53. Kunal walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South.
Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his
starting point?
A. 5 km West
B. 7 km West
C. 7 km East
D. 5 km North-east
Answer: D
Question 54. Tina drives 45 kms towards East, turns right and drives 65 kms, then turns left
and drives 33 kms. In which direction is she facing now?
A. East
B. North
C. West
D. South
Answer: A
Question 55. A man walks 15 metres south. Then turning to his right he walks 15 metres.
Then turning to his left, he walks 10 metres. Again turns to his left and walks 15 metres.
How far is he from his initial position?
A. 10 m
B. 25 m
C. 15 m
D. 60 m
Answer: B
Question 56. One morning, Rita started to walk toward the sun. After walking a while, she
turned to her left and again to her left. After walking a while, she again turned right. Which
direction is she facing now?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
Answer: C
Question 57. One day, Nita left home and cycled 10 km southwards. Turned right and
cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left cycled 10 km. How many
kilometers will she have to cycle to reach her home straight?
A. 10 km
B. 15 km
C. 20 km
D. 25 km
Answer: B
Question 58. A located to the West of B. C is located at North in between A and B. D is

exactly to the South of B and also in line with B. In which direction of C is D located?
A. South
B. Sout-East
C. West
D. South-West
Answer: B
Question 59. Deepak walks 20 m towards North. He then turns left and walks 40 m. He
again turns left and walks 20 m. Further he moves 20 m after turning to the right. How far is
he from his original position?
A. 20 m
B. 60 m
C. 50 m
D. 30 m
Answer: B
Question 60. Asha walks 3 km Southward and then turns right and walks 2 km. She again
turns right and walks 3 km and turns towards her left and starts walking straight. In which
direction is she walking now?
A. East
B. North
C. South
D. West
Answer: D
Directions: Study the following questions carefully and answer the questions given below.
Question 61. Madhuri travels 14 km West wards and then truns left and travels 6 km and
further turns left and travels 26 km. How far is Madhuri now from the starting point?
A. √180 km
B. √80 km
C. √100 km
D. None of these
Answer:A
Question 62. Sohan drove 15 km to the west from his house, then turned left and drove 20
km. He then turned east and drove 25 km and finally turning left covered 20 km. How far he
is from his house?
A. 40 km
B. 80 km
C. 5 km
D. 10 km
Answer:D
Question 63 From the finishing point if you have to reach the point from where you started,
in which direction will you have to run?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
Answer:D
Question64. Shahrukh starts driving from point A and drives 12 km towards north. He takes
a right turn and drive 20 km. He now drives 8 km after taking a left turn. Finally he takes a
left turn; and drives 20 km and stops at point B. How far is point A with respect to point B?
A. 18 km
B. 20 km
C. 35 km
D. 25 km
Answer:B
Question 65. Shahrukh starts driving from point A and drives 12 km towards north. He takes
a right turn and drive 20 km. He now drives 8 km after taking a left turn. Finally he takes a
left turn; and drives 20 km and stops at point B. Towards which direction does Shahrukh
move before stopping at point B?
A. Northwest
B. South
C. Southeast
D. West
Answer:D
Question 66. Sonu walked 25 m towards south and then took a left turn and walked 45 m.
Again he took a left turn and walked 25 m. Finally he turned to his right and walked 20 m
and stopped. How far and in which direction is Sonu from starting point?
A. 45 m, South
B. 50 m, West
C. 65 m, East
D. 20 m, North
Answer:C
Question 67. Salman starts from point A and walks 5 kms to the East. Aamir starts from the
same point and walks 5 kms to the West. Now, Salman takes a left turn and Aamir takes a
right turn, and both walks 5 kms and stop. How far are the two from each other at the point
where they finally stop?
A. 10 kms
B. 15 kms
C. 5 kms
Answer: A
Question 68. If Sita walks 10 km towards West, then turned towards South and walked 10
km, then turned East walked 10 km, and turned North walked 10 km. How far she is from
starting point?
A. 20 km
B. 40 km
C. 10 km
D. 0 km
Answer:D
Questio 69. Laxmi went 10 km to the West from my house, then turned left and walked 20
kms. She then turned East and walked 25 kms & finally turning left covered 20 kms. How far
was she from my house?
A. 10 kms
B. 15 kms
C. 5 kms
D. 40 kms
Answer:B
Question 70. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 m he took a right turn
and walked 30 m. He then took a right turn and walked 100 m. He again took a right turn and
walked 30 m and stopped. How far and in which direction was he from the starting point?
A. 50 m South
B. 150 m North
C. 180 m East
D. 50 m North
Answer:D
Question 71. Sanjeev walks 10 metres towards the South. Turning to the left, he walks 20
metres and then moves to his right. After moving a distance of 20 metres, he turns to the
right and walks 20 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves a distance of 10 metres.
How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
(A) 10 metres North
(B) 10 metres South
(C) 20 metres North
(D) 20 metres South
Ans: D
Question 72. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon its minute hand points towards north-east.
In which direction does its hour hand point at 1.30 p.m.?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
Ans: C
Question 73. The town of Paranda is located on Green Lake. The town of Akram is west of
Paranda. Tokhada is east of Akram but west of Paranda. Kakran is east of Bopri but west of
Tokhada and Akram. If they are all in the same district, which town is the farthest west?
(A) Paranda
(B) Bopri
(C) Akram
(D) Kakran
Ans: B
Question 74. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a
crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
Answer: C
Question 75. If North-east becomes West and South-east becomes North then what will
West becomes?
A. South-east
B. North-east
C. South
D. North-west
E. None of these
Answer: A
Question 76. A man walks 6 km towards the north, then turns towards his left and walks for
4 km. He again turns left and walks for 6 km. At this point he turns to his right and walks for 6
km. How many km and in what direction is he from the starting point?
A. 10 km, West
B. 6 km, South
C. 4 km, South
D. 8 km, West
E. 10 km, East
Answer: A
Question 77. At 12.30 the hour hand of a clock faces North and the ¬minute hand faces
South. At 2.45 the minute hand will be in which direction?
A. North-West
B. West
C. South-East
D. East
E. South
Answer: B
Question 78. If the clock read 6.20 and if the minute hand points North-East in which
direction will the hour hand point?
A. West
B. South-East
C. East
D. North-West
E. North
Answer: C
Question 79. Aman start from his house and walks 2 km east up to his class and turns
southwards and walks 1 km up to his friend’s house. At the friend’s house, he turns to east
and walks 2 km up to his school. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to the garden.
How far is he from his house?
a. 5 km
b. 7 km
c. 4 km
d. 2.5 km
Answer: A
Question 80. Babita runs 8 km to the South. Then she turns to her right and walks 4 km.
Then again, she turns to her right and runs 8 km forward. How far is she from the starting
point?
a. 8 km
b. 6 km
c. 4 km
d. 12 km
Answer: C
Question 81. Kabul is located 2 km away to the north-west Punjab. Rohtak is located 2 km
in the south-west direction from Kabul. Melghat is another place and is located 2 km away in
the north-west of Rohtak. Talu is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from
Melghat. In which direction is Talu from Punjab?
a. West
b. North East
c. North West
d. South
Answer: A
Question 82. Ajay goes 6 m North and turns right and walk 8 m. Again, he turns to his right
and walks 4 m. After this, he takes another turn to his right and walks 8 m. So, what is the
distance between his current position and his starting point?
(a) 1m
(b) 3m
(c) 5m
(d) 2m
Correct Answer: D
Question 83. If South-West becomes East, South-East becomes North and so on. What will
North become?
(a) South-West
(b) South-East
(c) North-West
(d) North-East
Correct Answer: (a)
Question 84. Vijay walks 10 m towards South. From there he takes a U-Turn and walks 6
m. Then, he takes a left walks 3 m. What is the distance and direction of his current location
with respect to his starting point?
(a) 4 km, South-West
(b) 5 km, South-West
(c) 5 km, South-East
(d) 5 km, North-West
Correct Answer: (b)
Question 85. Amar is 40 km away from Akbar in the South-West Direction. Anthony is 40
km away from Akbar in the South-East direction, then what is the direction of Anthony with
respect to Amar?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer:(c)
Question 86. A ran 15m towards South, took a turn towards east and ran 20m and again he
took a turn towards the north and ran 15m. What is the distance between his current position
and his starting position?
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 30
(d) 20
Correct Answer: Option (d)
Question 87. Laxman left his home for a run and ran 15 km in the Northern direction. Then
he turned left and ran 10 km. Then he turned another left and ran 5 km. Finally, he took a
turn to the East and ran 10 km. In which direction is his current location with respect to his
home?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) Northwest
(d) South-East
Correct Answer: Option (a)
Question 88. Apeksha walked a distance of 8 km in Eastern direction and then took a U-turn
and walked 13 km, then she turned south and walked 4 km; After which she turned left and
walked 5 km; and finally, she turned north and walked 3 km. How far is she from the starting
point?
(a) 8 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 1 km
(d) 3 km
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Question 89. Arjun started walking towards North and walked for 5 km, then he turned right
and walked for 3 km, he took another right turn and walked 5 km and finally, he took a left
turn and walked 2 km. What is Arjun’s current direction from his starting point?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer: Option (c)
Question 90. Shaan is doing an exercise with his legs up and head down. He is facing west.
In which direction, will his left hand be?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Correct Answer: Option (A)
Question 91. Narendra runs 5 km in the east direction from his home. He then takes a left
and runs 15 km. He then takes a right turn and runs 10 km. He then took a turn towards the
south and ran 15 km. What is the distance between his home and his current location?
(a) 10 km
(b) 15 km
(c) 20 km
(d) 30 km
Correct Answer: Option (B)
Question 92. Starting from a point, Raju walked 12 m North, he turned right and walked 10
km, he again turned right and walked 12 m, then he turned left and walked 5 m. How far is
he now and in which direction from the starting point?
A. 27 m towards East
B. 5 m towards East
C. 10 m towards West
D. 15 m towards East
E. None of these
Answer: D
Question 93. A man walks 20 m towards South. Then turning to his right he walks 30 m.
Then turning to his left he walks 20 m. Again Turning to his left he walks 30 m. How far is he
from his starting position?
A. 30 m
B. 20 m
C. 80 m
D. 60 m
E. None of these
Answer: E
Question 94. A man goes towards East 5 km, then he takes a turn to South-West and goes
5 km. He again takes a turn towards North-West and goes 5 km with respect to the point
from where he started, where is he now?
A. At the starting point
B. In the West
C. In the East
D. In the North-East
E. In the South-East
Answer: A
Directions: A @ B means A is to the north of B at a distance of either 7m or 12m

A # B means A is to the west direction of B at a distance of either 5m or 14m
A $ B means A is to the south direction of B at a distance of either 7m or 12m
A & B means A is to the east direction of B at a distance of either 5m or 14m
A @& B means A is to the north-east of B
A $& B means A is to the south-east direction of B
Question 95. Statement

A@B, B#C, C$D@&A, D#E@F@&C, F@G$&C, G&H$C
In which direction is B with respect to H?

(A) North
(B) East
(C) North-East
(D) North-West
(E) None of these
Correct option is: D
Question 96. If distance between B and C is same as the distance between D and E and
this distance is less than the distance between A and B. Point X Which is 5m north of point A
then what is the total distance between X and E?
(A)10 m
(B) 28 m
(C) Either a or b
(D) 5 m
(E) 14 m
Correct option is: A
Question 97. What is the total distance between E and G?

(A) 12 m
(B) 17 m
(C) 19 m
(D) 21 m
(E) None of these
Correct option is: C
Question 98. One morning after sunrise, Vikram and Shailaish were standing in a town with
their backs towards each other. Vikram's shadow fell exactly towards left and side. Which
direction was Shailaish facing ?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
E. North south
Answer: D
Question 99. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little
further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometre, he turns to his left again.
In which direction is he moving now?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
Answer: D
Question 100. Ravi wants to go to the university. He starts from his home, which is in the
East and comes to a crossing. The road to the left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the
hospital. In which direction is the university?
(A) North
(B) South
(C) East
(D) West
Answer: A
Directions for Questions 01-05: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information
There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Gagan. Two of them are Doctors,
while other three are Engineer, Architect and Chartered Accountant. A doctor and the
Chartered Accountant own a same car Superb. The other three own different cars viz. City,
Innova and Verna. Two of the five persons stay in Mumbai, while the other three persons live
in three different cities viz. Delhi, Pune and Bangalore. The Chartered Accountant is the
tallest, while the doctor who is an ENT is the shortest. The other doctor is an eye specialist
and lies between the Engineer and Chartered Accountant height wise. Kanika is an eye
specialist and owns Superb while Gagan lives in Delhi and owns a Verna. The engineer lives
in Pune and owns a City. Prachi lives in Bangalore, while Sarthak lives in Mumbai and is an
ENT.
Q1. What is Prachi by profession?
A) Engineer
B) Chartered Accountant
C) Architect
D) Doctor
E) Cannot be determined
===========================
Q2. What is Gagan by profession?
A) Engineer
C) Architect
D) Doctor
===========================
Q3. What is Rohan by profession?
A) Engineer
C) Architect
D) Doctor
===========================
Q4. Height-wise, who among the following lies between Sarthak and Rohan?
A) Chartered Accountant
B) Engineer
C) Eye Specialist
E) None of these
===========================
Q5. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Gagan lives in Mumbai

B) Sarthak owns a Verna
C) Rohan is a Chartered Accountant
D) Kanika lives in Mumbai
E) Prachi is an Engineer
===========================
Correct Answers
Q1 – B
Q2 – C
Q3 – A
Q4 – E
Q5 - D
===========================
Explanation/Solution -:
From the given clues there are five persons with four different professions living in four
different cities owning four different cars. They all have different height. Following table can
be made, in which rank 1 is given to the tallest and 5 to the shortest:
Person Profession Place Car Height

Sarthak Doctor (ENT) Mumbai 5
Prachi Bangalore
Rohan
Kanika Doctor (Eye specialist) Superb
Gagan Delhi Verna
Since, the engineer lives in Pune and owns a city, he must be Rohan. Further, a Chartered
Accountant and a doctor (eye specialist) owns a superb implies Prachi is the Chartered
Accountant and Sarthak owns Innova, Gagan is an Architect and Kanika lives in Mumbai. As
Prachi is the Chartered Accountant, she is the tallest and the eye specialist lies between
Chartered Accountant and Engineer height-wise implies rank in terms of height of Eye
specialist and Engineer is 2 and 3 respectively. Therefore, rank of Gagan, the architect is 4.
Following is the final table:
Person Profession Place Car Height

Sarthak Doctor (ENT) Mumbai Innova 5
Prachi Chartered Accountant Bangalore Superb 1
Rohan Engineer Pune City 3
Kanika Doctor (Eye specialist) Mumbai Superb 2
Gagan Architect Delhi Verna 4
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 06 - 08: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
P and Q are two boys and R and S are two girls. There are four adults, out of which A and B
are two men and C and D are two women. There are two cars - Swift and Jazz - each of
which can accommodate four persons only. Two children and two adults must be in one car.
P and B cannot be in one car. A and S cannot go in one car. C and D cannot go in one car.
There must be two males and two females in each car.
Q6. If A and P go in one car, then who can be the other two members in the car?
A) B and Q
B) D and R
C) B and C
D) D and C
E) None of these
===========================
Q7. Which of the following statements is definitely true?
A) A, D, P and R is not a correct combination

B) B, C, Q and S is not a correct combination
C) A, B, P and R can go in one car
D) A, D, P and R can go in one car
E) None of these
===========================
Q8. Which of the following can be acceptable combinations of the people in Swift and
Jazz cars respectively?
A) A, B, Q, S and D, R, P, C
B) A, D, P, R and B, C, Q, S
C) D, C, P, R and A, B, Q, S
D) A, D, P, Q and B, C, R, S
E) None of these
===========================
Q6) Correct Answer – Option B
Explanation -:
If A and P go in one car, A is a man and P is a boy. So, they should have two females - one
woman and one girl. They can be C or D and R or S. So any of CR, CS, DR and DS can be
with them. Hence, option b.
Q7) Correct Answer – Option D
Explanation -:
A, D, P and R can go in one car, which implies B, C, Q and S can go in the other car. So
options a and b can be eliminated. A, B, P and R cannot go in the same car but A, D, P and R
can go in the same car. Hence, option d.
Explanation -:
A, D, P, R and B, C, Q, S are correct as A is a man. D is a woman. P is a boy and R is a girl.

Similarly B, C, Q, S is correct. Rest all are incorrect. Hence, option b.
==================================================================
Directions for questions 09-13: These questions are based on the following information.
In Neo India Private Limited, a team of six trainers - Mr. Raj, Mr. Neeraj, Mr. Himansh, Mr.
Aniket, Mr. Reddy and Mr. Roy are scheduled to train newly appointed employees. Each of
the trainers train the employees about different functions among - Marketing, Finance,
Production, Distribution, Human Resource and Capital Management in a different month
among January, February, March, April, May and June of a year.
The following information is available about the schedule.
I. Training in Production is scheduled in February but it is not by Mr. Aniket.
II. Mr. Raj’s session is scheduled in March but not in Finance.

III. The session on Human Resource and Capital Management are scheduled in two
consecutive months.
IV. Mr. Aniket’s session is scheduled in the month immediately after the month in which Mr.
Neeraj’s session is scheduled.
V. Mr. Himansh’s session is on Distribution but it is scheduled neither in January nor in June.
---------------------------
Q9. Whose session is scheduled in May?
A) Mr. Reddy
B) Mr. Roy
C) Mr. Aniket
D) Mr. Neeraj
E) Mr. Himansh
===========================
Q10. On which function the training is scheduled in January?
A) Finance
B) Production
C) Capital Management
D) Distribution
E) Human Resource
===========================
Q11. If Mr. Aniket's session is on Human Resource then in which month of the year is
the session on Capital Management scheduled?
A) January
B) March
C) April
D) May
E) June
===========================
Q12. In which month of the year is Mr. Himansh's session scheduled?
A) February
B) May
C) April
D) March
===========================
Q13. Training on how many functions is conducted after Marketing?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 1
D) 5
E) 2
===========================
Q10) Correct Answer – Option A
Q12) Correct Answer – Option C
===========================
From I and II, we have:
Month Department Professor

January
February Production Mr. Aniket
March Finance Mr. Raj
April
May
June
Therefore, from V, Mr. Himansh’s session is in Distribution but it is neither scheduled in

January nor in June. It cannot be in May as well because if it is in May, IV cannot be
satisfied. Hence, Mr. Himansh’s session is scheduled in April. Hence, Mr. Neeraj’s session
and Mr. Aniket’s session are scheduled in May and June respectively.
And from III, the distribution is as follows.
Month Department Professor

January Finance Mr. Reddy/Mr. Roy
February Production Mr. Roy/Mr. Reddy
March Marketing Mr. Raj
April Distribution Mr. Himansh
May Human Resource/Capital Mr. Neeraj
Management
June Capital Management/Human Mr. Aniket
Resource
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 14-18: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Six persons Chetan, Gaurav, Jatin, Karan, Sahil and Tarun who are wearing Black, White,
Red, Green, Blue and Yellow coloured t-shirts are driving different cars - Verna, City, SX4,
Vento, Optra and Civic not necessarily in that order. These persons had participated in a car
racing competition at the end of which each of them secured different ranks. It is also known
that:
(i) Tarun secured 4th position and was driving City
(ii) The person wearing blue coloured t-shirt was driving Vento and didn’t secure 2nd
position
(iii) Karan wearing white coloured t-shirt was not driving Verna or Optra and he was not
ranked 1st
(iv) The person wearing green coloured t-shirt was ranked 6th and he was driving Optra
(v) The person who secured 3rd position was driving Civic
(vi) The person who secured 1st rank was driving SX4 and he was not wearing black or red
coloured t-shirt
(vii) Chetan was wearing yellow coloured t-shirt while Tarun was not wearing red coloured t-
shirt
---------------------------
Q14. What is the colour of Tarun's t-shirt?
A) Blue
B) Black
C) Green
D) Red
===========================
Q15. Who secured the 1st rank?
A) Chetan
B) Jatin
C) Sahil
D) Gaurav
===========================
Q16. If the t-shirts of the persons are arranged in the increasing order of ranks (rank 6
to 1), then which of the following is true?
A) Yellow, Red, White, Black, Blue, Green

B) White, Red, Yellow, Black, Green, Blue
C) Green, Blue, Black, White, Red, Yellow
D) Blue, Green, Black, Yellow, Red, White
E) None of these
===========================
Q17. If Jatin was not driving Vento or Optra, then who was wearing Red coloured t-
shirt?
A) Karan
B) Sahil
C) Tarun
D) Jatin
===========================
Q18. Which car is driven by Chetan?
A) Verna
B) Vento
C) Optra
D) SX4
E) None of these
===========================

===========================
Following table can be made with the given information
Rank Car Person T-shirt Colour

1 SX4 xKaran xBlack
xRed
2 xVento xBlue
3 Civic
4 City Tarun
5
6 Optra xKaran Green
Further, it is given:
Blue - Vento
Karan - White
Chetan - Yellow
Tarun - × Red
From the table drawn and the information above, the following conclusions can be made
Vento - 5th rank
Verna - 2nd rank
Rank Car Person T-shirt Colour

1 SX4 Chetan Yellow
2 Verna Red
3 Civic Karan White
4 City Tarun Black
5 Vento Blue
6 Optra Green
The ranks of Gaurav, Jatin and Sahil cannot be determined with the given information.
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 19 – 22: Use the following information to answer the given
questions:
Ashutosh, Dhanya, Gagan, Manya, Harshit, Pratiksha and Saksham are seven persons who
travel to office everyday by Virar fast local train which stops at five stations - Borivali,
Malad, Andheri, Dadar and Church Gate respectively after it leaves the base station i.e. Virar.
Three among them get in at the base station. Harshit gets down at the next station at which
Pratiksha gets down. Dhanya does not get down with either Ashutosh or Manya. Saksham
alone gets in at Andheri station and gets down with Gagan after one station. Ashutosh travels
between only two stations and gets down at Church Gate station. None of them gets in at
Malad station. Gagan gets in with Pratiksha but does not get in with either Dhanya or Harshit.
Manya gets in with two others and gets down alone after Harshit. Dhanya and Harshit work
in the same office and get down together at Andheri station. None of them gets down at
Borivali station.
---------------------------
Q19. At which station does Manya get down?
A) Malad
B) Andheri
C) Dadar
D) Data Inadequate
E) None of these
===========================
Q20. At which station do Gagan and Pratiksha get in?
A) Borivali
B) Malad
C) Andheri
D) Data Inadequate
E) None of these
===========================
Q21. After how many stations does Manya get down?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
===========================
Q22. Manya gets down after how many stations at which Pratiksha gets down?
A) Next station
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) None of these
===========================
===========================
Since Saksham gets in at Andheri station and gets down with Gagan after one station means
both Saksham and Gagan must have deboarded the train at Church Gate. Ashutosh travels
between only two stations and gets down at Church Gate means he must have boarded the
train at Dadar. Since Manya gets in with two others, it must be Virar i.e. the base station as it
is not possible that 3 people would have boarded the train from some other station. Since
Harshit gets down at Andheri and Manya gets down alone means she must have deboarded
the train at Dadar.
Following table can be made using the above information
Person Boarding Station Deboarding Station

Ashutosh Dadar Church Gate
Dhanya Virar or Borivali Andheri
Gagan Virar or Borivali Church Gate
Harshit Virar or Borivali Andheri
Manya Virar Dadar
Pratiksha Virar or Borivali Malad
Saksham Andheri Church Gate
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 23 - 25: Read the following information to answer the questions
that follow
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are to be allotted a room in a hotel. There are six rooms
numbered 601, 602, 603, 604, 605 and 606 (from left to right) and one person is to be alloted
one room. Moreover, A cannot be in a room immediately to the left or immediately to the
right of that of B. C must be in a room immediately to the left of D’s room. F cannot be in
room no. 606.
---------------------------
Q23. Who among the following cannot be in room no. 601?
A) B
B) A
C) C
D) D
E) None of these
===========================
Q24. If D is in room no. 603, then C should be in which room?
A) 602
B) 601
C) 604
D) 605
E) None of these
===========================
Q25. If A is allotted room no. 605, then who must be in room no. 606?
A) C
B) B
C) D
D) E
E) None of these
===========================
Explanation -:
Since 601 is the leftmost room and C must be in a room immediately to the left of D’s room,
D cannot be in the left most room i.e. 601. Hence, option d
Explanation -:
C is in a room immediately left to the room of D, so it should be room no. 602. Hence, option
a.
Explanation -:
The room no. 606 cannot be allotted to C because D is in a room immediate to that of C. And
since C is not in room no. 605, D cannot be in 606. F cannot be in 606 and B cannot be in a
room immediately left or right of that of A, so this leaves only E. Hence, option d.
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 26 – 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
Five persons: - Anubhav, Rahul, Aniket, Vivek and Saksham joined five banks viz. PNB,
SBI, BoB, OBC and BoI, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them were posted in
different locations among Delhi, Lucknow, Chandigarh, Kolkata and Hyderabad and were
attached to various functions viz. Retail banking, SME banking, Risk management, Forex
business and Treasury operations not necessarily in this order. It is also known that:-
(i) Anubhav was not working in PNB.
(ii) Rahul, Aniket and Vivek were engaged in Retail banking, Treasury operations and SME
banking respectively.
(iii) The persons who joined PNB, OBC and BoB were posted in Hyderabad, Lucknow and
Kolkata respectively.
(iv)The persons who are attached with Risk management and Forex business are working in
PNB and OBC respectively.
(v) Aniket and Rahul were not posted in Kolkata and Chandigarh respectively.
(vi)The person who is attached with Retail banking is not posted in Delhi.
---------------------------
Q26. Who is working in BoB?
A) Anubhav
B) Rahul
C) Vivek
D) Saksham
===========================
Q27. The person who is posted in Delhi is working in which bank?
A) BoI
B) SBI
C) PNB
D) OBC
===========================
Q28. The person attached with Retail banking is posted in which city?
A) Lucknow
B) Chandigarh
C) Kolkata
D) Either b or c
===========================
Q29. Who is posted in Chandigarh?
A) The person working in OBC.

B) The person working in BoI.
C) The person working in SBI.
D) Either b or c.
E) None of these
===========================
Q30. Who is attached with Risk Management?
A) The person working in BoB.

B) The person posted in Lucknow.
C) The person working in OBC.
D) The person posted in Hyderabad.
===========================
Q27) Correct Answer – Option E

===========================
The information given in the question can be tabulated as under:
Person Bank Location Function

Anubhav OBC Lucknow Forex Business
Rahul BoB Kolkata Retail Banking
Aniket BoI/SBI Chandigarh/Delhi Treasury Operations
Vivek SBI/BoI Delhi/Chandigarh SME Banking
Saksham PNB Hyderabad Risk Management
==================================================================
Directions for questions 31-35: Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
Nine friends Amit, Bimal, Charu, Dhiraj, Ena, Farah, Gourav, Harshit and Jay stay in a
building having nine floors. Only one person stays on one floor. All of them are from
different schools i.e. Delhi Public School, GD Goenka World School, KR Manglam World
School, Amity International School, Birla Vidya Niketan, St. Columbus School, Modern
School and Pathways International School, not necessarily in the same order. The ground
floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered 2, and so on and the topmost floor is
numbered 9.
Harshit studies in KR Manglam World School and stays on an even numbered floor. Amit
stays on any even numbered floor below the floor on which Harshit stays. The one, who
studies in Modern School, stays on the fourth floor. Ena stays on the second floor and studies
in GD Goenka World School. The one, who studies in Pathways International School, stays
on the third floor. Amit does not study in Birla Vidya Niketan. There are two floors between
the floors on which children going to St. Columbus School and KR Manglam World School
stay. Charu studies in Delhi Public School. There are three floors between the floors on
which Charu and Gourav stay. Dhiraj stays on a floor immediately above Jay’s floor. There is
one floor between floors on which Farah and Gourav stay. Farah does not go to Pathways
International School. The one who goes to Gyan Bharati School stays on the topmost floor.
Farah does not stay on the ground floor.
---------------------------
Q31. Who amongst the following studies in Birla Vidya Niketan?
A) Dhiraj
B) Jay
C) Gourav
D) Farah
E) None of these
===========================
Q32. Who amongst the following stays on the topmost floor?
A) Farah
B) Gourav
C) Dhiraj
D) Charu
E) None of these
===========================
Q33. Amit studies in which of the following schools?
A) Modern School
B) Pathways International School
C) Amity International School
D) Gyan Bharati School
E) None of these
===========================
Q34. Who stays on the floor which is exactly between the floor on which Harshit stays
and the floor on which Amit stays?
A) Bimal
B) Gourav
C) Charu
D) Farah
E) None of these
===========================
Q35. How many floors are there between the floor on which Jay stays and the floor on
which Charu stays?
A) One
B) Two
C) None
D) Three
E) More than three
===========================

===========================
The given information can be summarized in the table below:
Person Floor Name of School

Amit 6 Amity International School
Bimal 9 Gyan Bharati School
Charu 1 Delhi Public School
Dhiraj 4 Modern School
Ena 2 GD Goenka World School
Farah 7 Birla Vidya Niketan
Gourav 5 St. Columbus School
Harshit 8 KR Manglam World School
Jay 3 Pathways International School
==================================================================
Directions for questions 36 – 40 : These questions are based on the following information.
A family of eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are going to three different places

Shillong, Shimla and Manali in three different airlines Indigo, Jet Airways and Spice
Jet. There are three couples in the family and each couple is going to a different place. Only
those persons who are going to the same place travel by the same airline and at most three
persons are in an airline. U, a male is going with only P and they are not going to Shimla. W
is going to Shillong by Jet Airways. Q is not going with T and W. S, a female and T are going
to the same place. V is not going by Indigo.
---------------------------
Q36. Which of the following group of persons is going to Shimla?
A) U,P
B) Q,R,W
C) Q,R,V
D) T,W,V
Q37. Who among the following is/are not going along with R?
A) Q
B) V
C) T
D) Both Q and V
E) Both V and T
===========================
Q38. Which of the following is true based on the given information?
A) P is a female and going by Spice Jet.

B) S is going by Indigo.
C) V is a male and going to Shimla.
D) U is going to Manali.
E) None of these
===========================
Q39. Who is/are going along with T?
A) W
B) R
C) S
D) Either W or S
E) Both W and S
===========================
Q40. Who are going to the vacation by Spice Jet?
A) Q,R,S
B) Q,V,S
C) T,W,R
D) Q,R,V
E) None of these
===========================

===========================
It is given that there are three couples and each couple is going to a different place. Hence, at
least one female and one male are going to a place. Given that U, a male is going with only P
and they are not going to a Shimla. Hence, U and P is a couple and P is a female and they
may go to either Shillong or Manali. Given that W is going to Manali by Jet Airways. Hence,
U and P are going to Manali by Indigo or Spice Jet. Given that Q is not going with T and W
and S, a female and T are going to the same place. Hence, W is going with S and T and Q is
going with R and V. given that V is not going by Indigo. Hence, V is going by Spice Jet and
U and P are going by Indigo.
Therefore, the final distribution is shown below.
Person Gender Airline Place

P Female Indigo Manali
Q Male/Female Spice Jet Shimla
R Male/Female Spice Jet Shimla
S Female Jet Airways Shillong
T Male/Female Jet Airways Shillong
U Male Indigo Manali
V Male/Female Spice Jet Shimla
W Male/Female Jet Airways Shillong
==================================================================
Directions for questions 41 – 45: Answer the questions on the basis of following
information.
Each of the seven persons, Agamya, Bimal, Chirag, Dhiraj, Eshaan, Farhan and Gourav plays
a different sport among Basketball, Baseball, Cricket, Ice Hockey, Soccer, Badminton and
Tennis. Basketball, Baseball and Soccer are called American sports. Cricket and Ice Hockey
are called European sports and Badminton and Tennis are called Asian sports. Each of these
seven persons won an award among National Award, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and
Arjuna Award. At least two persons won each of these awards.
(i) No two persons who play the same kind of sport won the same award.
(ii) A person who won Arjuna Award plays Cricket and a person who won National Award
plays Tennis.
(iii) Bimal does not play Baseball. Eshaan plays an American sport but it is not Baseball.
(iv) Bimal, Dhiraj and Farhan won the same award. Gourav plays Soccer but did not win
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award.
(v) Chirag won National Award but he does not play a European sport.
(vi) Agamya and a person who plays an American sport won Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Award. Neither Bimal nor Dhiraj plays an Asian sport.
---------------------------
Q41. Who plays Badminton?
A) Chirag
B) Dhiraj
C) Farhan
D) Agamya
E) Bimal
===========================
Q42. What kind of sport does Bimal play?
A) An American sport
B) The kind of sport which Chirag plays
C) A European sport
D) The kind of sport which Eshaan plays.
E) The kind of sport which Dhiraj plays.
===========================
Q43. Which of the following groups of persons won the same award?
A) Agamya, Bimal, Chirag

B) Bimal, Chirag
C) Dhiraj, Eshaan
D) Agamya, Eshaan
E) Chirag, Eshaan
===========================
Q44. Which of the following is the correct combination of the name of the person, the
sport that he plays and the award won by him?
A) Dhiraj-Baseball-Arjuna Award
B) Bimal-Ice Hockey-Arjuna Award
C) Gourav-Soccer-Arjuna Award
D) Chirag-Badminton-National Award
E) None of these
===========================
Q45. Which of the following is a pair of persons who play different kind of sports and
won different awards?
A) Bimal, Dhiraj
B) Agamya, Bimal
C) Agamya, Eshaan
D) Bimal, Chirag
E) Chirag, Gourav
===========================
===========================
The given information can be tabulated as follows:
Name Kind of sport Sport Awards won

Agamya Rajiv Gandhi Khel
Ratna Award
Bimal Not Asian Not Baseball
Chirag Nor European National Award
Dhiraj Not Asian
Eshaan American Not Baseball
Farhan
Gourav Soccer Not Rajiv Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award
Eshaan plays a American sport but not Baseball. It has to be Soccer or Basketball. But
Gourav plays Soccer which means that Eshaan plays Basketball. Bimal, Dhiraj and Farhan
won the same award. It has to be Arjuna Award, since not more than three persons won the
same award and Agamya won Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award and Chirag won National
Award. Since no two persons who won the same award play the same kind of sport, Bimal,
Dhiraj and Farhan play the different kind of sports. Since neither Bimal nor Dhiraj plays
Asian sport. Farhan plays an Asian sport.
From (ii) the spot that Farhan plays is Badminton. One between Bimal and Dhiraj plays a
European sport and the other American. Since at least two persons won each award, it can be
concluded that Gourav won National Award. From (i), Chirag who won National Award
plays an Asian sport. From (ii), Chirag plays Tennis. From (iv), Eshaan won Rajiv Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award. Since, Bimal plays neither Baseball, nor an Asian, it can be concluded
that he plays a European sport. From (ii), the sport that Bimal plays is Cricket. Since, Bimal,
Dhiraj and Farhan play different kinds of sports. Dhiraj plays a American sport, which is
Baseball. This implies that Agamya plays Ice Hockey, which is a European sport.
Name Kind of sport Sport Awards won
Agamya European Ice Hockey Rajiv Gandhi Khel
Ratna Award
Bimal European Cricket Arjuna Award
Chirag Asian Tennis National Award
Dhiraj American Baseball Arjuna Award
Eshaan American Basketball Rajiv Gandhi Khel
Ratna Award
Farhan Asian Badminton Arjuna Award
Gourav American Soccer National Award
==================================================================
Directions for questions 46-48: Answer the questions on the basis of following information.
Six persons Param, Karan, Rohan, Sohan, Taman, and Utkarsh, stay in a building which
consists of six floors. Ground floor is named as the first floor; the floor above the ground
floor is named as the second floor and so on.
Rohan stays neither on the odd numbered floor nor on the second floor. Taman stays either
on the first floor or on the top floor. Sohan and Param do not stay on consecutive floors, and
not above Rohan’s floor. Karan and Utkarsh stay in alternate floors in that order from the top
to the bottom but not on even numbered floors.
---------------------------
Q46. Who stays on the fourth floor?
A) Param
B) Karan
C) Rohan
D) Sohan
===========================
Q47. How many floors are there between Rohan's floor and Taman's floor?
A) Zero
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) Four
===========================
Q48. Who stays immediately above Param's floor?
A) None
B) Utkarsh
C) Rohan
D) Karan
===========================
===========================
Given, Rohan stays neither on the odd numbered floor nor on the second floor. Hence, Rohan
can stay either on the fourth floor or on the sixth floor. Given, Taman stays either on the first
floor or on the last floor. Sohan and Param stay on consecutive floors but not above Rohan’s
floor. Karan and Utkarsh stay in alternate floors in that order, but not on the even numbered
floor. Hence, the final arrangement is as shown below.
Floor Person
6 Rohan
5 Karan
4 Sohan/Param
3 Utkarsh
2 Param/Sohan
1 Taman
==================================================================
given below.
Friends P, Q, R, S, X, Y and Z are travelling to three different places. There are at least two
friends travelling to each place – Goa, Mumbai, Pune – and only one of them is a male. There
are two doctors, two bankers and three teachers among them. Further,
(i) R is a lady banker and she does not travel with the pair of sisters P and Y.
(ii) Q, a male doctor, travels with only Z, a teacher in Goa.
(iii) S is a male banker.

(iv) Two friends from the same profession do not travel to the same place.
(v) P is not a doctor and travels to Mumbai.
---------------------------
Q49. Which of the following is Y?
A) Doctor
B) Banker
C) Teacher
D) Doctor or Banker
E) None of these
===========================
Q50. To which place does R travel?
A) Goa
B) Mumbai
C) Pune
D) Goa or Mumbai
E) Mumbai or Pune
===========================
Q51. Which of the following represents the three teachers?
A) ZXY
B) ZXP
C) ZQY
D) ZPY
E) None of these
===========================
Q52. How many females are among them?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Three or Four
D) Five
E) None of these
===========================
Q53. Which of the following is not correct?
A) X-Male-Teacher
B) Q-Male-Doctor
C) P-Female-Teacher
D) All are correct
E) All are incorrect
===========================
===========================
Explanation/solution -:
Since R and S are bankers and P is not an doctor, thus, P is a teacher. Since P travels to
Mumbai, R will travel to Pune. Also, P and Y will be together. Given P and Y are a pair of
sisters, both are females. In Goa, only two friends Q and Z travel, so Z is a female. Two
friends from the same profession do not travel in the same place, so S travels to Mumbai.
There are two bankers, two doctors and three teachers, so Y is a Doctor and X is a male
teacher.
The following table will emerge:
Friend Sex Profession Place

P Female Teacher Mumbai
Q Male Doctor Goa
R Female Banker Pune
S Male Banker Mumbai
X Male Teacher Pune
Y Female Doctor Mumbai
Z Female Teacher Goa
==================================================================
Directions for Questions 54-59: Answer the questions on the basis of the following
information
Nine people, Suhani, Sohan, Vimal, Kriti, Prina, Punit, Suman, Sumit and Pragati stay in a
building, but not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one
person stays on one floor. All of them work work in different companies, i.e. Google,
Microsoft, IBM, IHM, Samsung, TATA Steel, GAIL, Wipro and LG Electronics, but not
necessarily in the same order. The Ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it is numbered
2, and so on, and the topmost floor is numbered 9. Sumit works in IHM and stays on an even-
numbered floor. Suhani stays on any even-numbered floor below the floor on which Sumit
stays. The one who works in Wipro stays on the fourth floor. Prina stays on the second floor
and works in IBM. The one who works at LG Electronics stays on the third floor. Suhani
does not work at TATA Steel. There are two floors between the floors on which the people
working in GAIL and the IHM stay. Vimal works in Microsoft. There are three floors
between the floors on which Vimal and Suman stay. Kriti stays on a floor immediately above
Pragati's floor. There is one floor between the floors on which Punit and Suman stay. Punit
does not work in LG Electronics. The one who works at Google stays on the topmost floor.
Punit does not stay on the ground floor.
---------------------------
Q54. How many floors are there between the floor on which Pragati stays and the floor
on which Vimal stays?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) More than Four
===========================
Q55. Which of the following is correct as per the given information?
A) Sohan stays on the floor immediately below the floor on which Sumit stays
B) Suman stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which Suhani stays
C) Punit stays on the eighth floor
D) Kriti works at Wipro
E) None of these
===========================
Q56. Who amongst the following stays on the top most floor?
A) Punit
B) Suman
C) Kriti
D) Vimal
E) None of these
===========================
Q57. Which company does Suhani work for?
A) Wipro
B) LG Electronics
C) Samsung
D) Google
E) None of these
===========================
Q58. Sohan is related to Vimal in the same way as Sumit is related to Prina as per the
given information. Following the same pattern Punit is related to which of the
following?
A) Pragati
B) Kriti
C) Suhani
D) Suman
E) None of these
===========================
Q59. Which company does the person who lives on ground floor work for?
A) GAIL
B) TATA Steel
C) Samsung
D) Microsoft
E) None of these
===========================
===========================
From the given clues there are nine persons who live in nine different floors and each one
works in a distinct company, using the given information following table can be made:
Floor Person Company

st
1 (Ground) x Punit
2nd Prina IBM
rd
3 LG Electronics
4th Wipro
th
5
6th
7th
8th
9th Google
Now Sumit stays on an even numbered floor and Suhani stays on an even numbered floor
below Sumit. Since Sumit works at IHM, he cannot be on 4th floor, so the possible floors on
which Suhani and Sumit stay respectively are 4th and 6th or 6th and 8th. There are two floors
between the floors on which the persons working at GAIL and IHM stay. Now, Sumit works
at IHM and he stays on either 6th or 8th floor. If Sumit stays on 6th floor that implies person
working in GAIL should be staying on either 3rd or 9th floor which is not possible, so Sumit
who works at IHM stays on 8th floor and the person working in GAIL stays on 5th floor which
also implies Suhani stays on 6th floor. Vimal works at Microsoft, the only possible floors on
which he can stay is 1st (Ground) or 7th. Further, it is given that there are three floors between
the floors on which Vimal and Suman stay, so if Vimal is on the 1st floor, Suman is on 5th
floor and if Vimal is on 7th floor, Suman is on 3rd floor. Now there is one floor between the
floors on which Punit and Suman stay, the possible combinations of floors where Punit and
Suman respectively stay are 5th and 3rd or 7th and 5th. Kriti stays on one floor above Pragati,
the only possible floors where this is possible is 3rd and 4th or 4th and 5th, So it can be
concluded that Pragati, Kriti, Suman, Punit and Vimal stay on 3rd, 4th, 5th, 7th and 1st floor
respectively. Thus, Sohan stays on the topmost floor (9th). Suhani does not work at TATA
Steel implies Suhani and Punit work at Samsung and TATA Steel respectively. Thus, the
final table is as under:
Floor Person Company

st
1 (Ground) Vimal Microsoft
2nd Prina IBM
rd
3 Pragati LG Electronics
th
4 Kriti Wipro
th
5 Suman GAIL
th
6 Suhani Samsung
th
7 Punit TATA Steel
8th Sumit IHM
th
9 Sohan Google
==================================================================
given below.
Each of the six actors – Meena, Seema, Kiran, Shilpa, Archana and Kavita acts on exactly
one day of a week starting from Monday to Saturday. Each actor acts for different number of
hours in a day up to a maximum of 10 hours. It is also known that:-
(i) Meena & Shilpa act on Tuesday and Thursday respectively.
(ii) The number of hours for which Kiran acts is more than that of Archana, and the number
of hours for which Seema acts is less than that of Kavita.
(iii) The number of hours for which acting is done by any of the actors on every alternate day
starting from Tuesday consists of multiples of three in decreasing order.
(iv) The number of hours for which acting is done on every alternate day starting Monday
consists of three prime numbers in increasing order.
(v) Kiran & Seema act on two consecutive days.
---------------------------
Q60. Which of the following is a correct combination of the day, actor and number of
hours for which acting is done?
A) Tuesday - Archana – 2
B) Saturday - Seema – 7
C) Monday - Archana – 5
D) Tuesday - Meena – 9
E) Saturday - Kiran - 3
===========================
Q61. For how many hours does Seema act?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
E) None of these
===========================
Q62. Which of the following actor acts for more number of hours than Kavita?
A) Only Meena
B) Only Kiran
C) Only Meena & Shilpa
D) Only Meena & Seema
E) Meena, Kiran & Shilpa
===========================
Q63. On which two days of the week do Archana & Seema act respectively?
A) Monday & Friday

B) Monday & Saturday
C) Tuesday & Friday
D) Tuesday & Saturday
E) None of these
===========================
Q64. What is the sum of hours for which acting is done on Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday?
A) 19 hours
B) 16 hours
C) 14 hours
D) 20 hours
E) 18 hours
===========================
===========================
From statement (i)
• Meena → Tuesday
• Shilpa → Thursday
From Statement (ii)
• The duration of acting done by actors, Kiran>Archana and Kavita>Seema
From statement (iii) and (iv)
• Duration of acting on different days

Day Duration (in hours)
Monday 2
Tuesday 9
Wednesday 5
Thursday 6
Friday 7
Saturday 3
From (v): Possible combination of actor and the day on which they act is
• Kiran → Friday/Saturday
• Seema →Saturday/Friday
Now using the indirect clues
The only combination for Kiran and Seema is Friday and Saturday if Seema acts on Friday,
that means she would be acting for 7 hours, but that would nullify statement (ii) as Kavita
would not be able to act more than Seema. So Kiran → Friday → 7 hours and Seema →
Saturday → 3 hours and the rest of the table can be tabulated as under
Day Actor Duration (in hours)

Monday Archana 2
Tuesday Meena 9
Wednesday Kavita 5
Thursday Shilpa 6
Friday Kiran 7
Saturday Seema 3
==================================================================
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are studying in three different colleges among Glory
College, Elite College and Imperial College of Arts and using three different brands of
mobile phones among Samsung, Blackberry and Apple but not necessarily in the same order.
The maximum number of persons using any brand of mobile phone is three. For each brand
of mobile phone there are at least one male and one female user. Each brand of mobile phone
user studies in only one college.
Only V and U’s sister are studying in Imperial College of Arts. Q and T are using the same
brand of mobile phone but it is not Samsung. R who is a female and P are studying in the
same college, but not in Glory College. P and P’s brother W are using different brand of
mobile phones. Two females are using Blackberry. S does not use Samsung. P is a female.
---------------------------
Q65. How many females are there among the eight persons?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) Either 3 or 4
E) Either 4 or 5
===========================
Q66. Which of the following group of persons is using Samsung mobile phone?
A) RU
B) UV
C) PRU
D) PUV
E) None of these
===========================
Q67. In which college is U studying?
A) Glory College
B) Elite College
C) Imperial College of Arts
D) Either (a) or (b)
E) Either (b) or (c)
===========================
Q68. Four of the following five are alike based on the given information in the
arrangement and hence form a group. Find the one which does not belong to that
group.
A) P
B) Q
C) R
D) S
E) U
===========================
Q69. Which of the following is true based on the given information?
A) P is studying in Glory College and using Samsung mobile phone.

B) Q is studying in Elite College and using Blackberry mobile phone.
C) Two females use Samsung mobile phone.
D) S is studying in Elite College and using Apple mobile phone.
E) None of these
===========================
===========================
From the information, the maximum number of persons using any brand of mobile phone is
three, for each brand of mobile phone there are at least one male and one female.
From the information only V and U’s sister are studying in Imperial College of Arts. We can
say that V is male and U is not studying in Imperial College of Arts and only two persons are
studying in Imperial College of Arts. From the above information Q and T are using the same
brand of mobile phone, but it is not Samsung, we can say that Q and T are not studying in
Imperial College of Arts, i.e. either Elite College or Glory College.
From the information, R who is a female, and P are studying in same college but not in Glory
College, and P is a female. We can say that they must be studying in Elite College.
Therefore, Q and T are studying in Glory College.
From the information, P and P’s brother W are using two different brands of mobile phone,
we can say that W is studying in Glory College since W is a male.
Therefore, S is studying in Imperial College of Arts and U in Elite College.
From the information, two females are using Blackberry and S is not using Samsung, we can
say that the persons studying in Imperial College of Arts are not using Samsung and
Blackberry.
Therefore, S and V are using Apple.
From the information Q and T are not using Samsung, we can say that they are using
Blackberry.
Therefore, Q, T and W are using Blackberry.
Thus P, R and U are using Samsung.
Since two females use Blackberry, Q and T must be females.

Since at least one male is using each brand of mobile phone, we can say that U is a male.
Name of the person Brand of mobile College Gender

phone
P Samsung Elite College Female
Q Blackberry Glory College Female
R Samsung Elite College Female
S Apple Imperial College of Female
Arts
T Blackberry Glory College Female
U Samsung Elite College Male
V Apple Imperial College of Male
Arts
W Blackberry Glory College Male
==================================================================
Directions for questions 70-74: Study the following information carefully to answer the
given questions.
Five friends Farzan, Manish, Karan, Neha and Yogesh are working in 5 different companies
Cement Ltd., Paragon Ltd., Oswald and Company, Street Art Ltd. and Universal Studios and
they earn different salaries i.e. Rs. 9000, Rs. 13000, Rs. 16000, Rs. 18000 and Rs. 22000 and
they all are of different ages i.e. 24, 25, 28, 31 and 33 years. All this information is not
necessarily in same order.
Person who is 31-year-old earns highest salary but does not work in Cement Ltd. or Paragon
Ltd. Company. Yogesh does not work in Street Art Ltd. or Universal Studios Company and
his age is not 33. The salary of Neha is less than Rs. 16000. The person who is 25 years old
earns Rs. 18000 per month. Farzan earns Rs. 13000 per month but does not work in Paragon
Ltd. or Street Art Ltd. Manish works in Cement Ltd. and earns more than Rs. 16000. Person
who is 28 years old works in Universal Studio. The 33-year-old person earns at least Rs.
16000.
---------------------------
Q70. In which company does Farzan work?
A) Universal Studios
B) Cement Ltd.
C) Paragon Ltd.
D) Street Art Ltd.
E) Oswald and Company
===========================
Q71. Who works in Paragon Ltd.?
A) Manish
B) Karan
C) Neha
D) Yogesh
===========================
Q72. If the name of the person represents his/her salary then which of the following is
true?
A) Farzan Manish = Karan

B) Karan Neha = Manish
C) Neha Yogesh = Manish
D) Farzan Neha = Yogesh
E) None of these
===========================
Q73. The person whose age is a prime number works in company
A) Cement Ltd.
B) Paragon Ltd.
C) Oswald and Company
D) Street Art Ltd.
===========================
Q74. Which of the following combinations is definitely true?
A) Manish – 31 years – Cement Ltd. – 22000

B) Neha – 24 years – Paragon Ltd. – 9000
C) Farzan – 24 years – Street Art Ltd – 13000
D) Yogesh – 31 years – Oswald and Company – 22000
E) None of these
===========================

===========================
Explanation/Solution
Person Salary Company Age

Farzan 13000 Universal Studios 28
Manish 18000 Cement Ltd 25
Karan 16000 Paragon Ltd./Street Art 33
Ltd.
Neha 9000 Street Art Ltd./Paragon 24
Ltd.
Yogesh 22000 Oswald and Company 31
===========================
Seven persons – Param, Qarim, Rishi, Shiv, Tony, Ujjwal, Viren – live on seven different
floors of an apartment block (Ground floor is parking and they live on first floor, second floor
and so on till seventh floor).Each of them belongs to a different city among Delhi, Chennai,
Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Mumbai and Kolkata, not necessarily in the same order. The
following information is known about them.
Param lives on an even numbered floor, but it is not the second floor. Only two persons live
below the floor on which the person who belongs to Hyderabad lives. Exactly two persons
live between the floors on which the person who belongs to Hyderabad and Viren live. Rishi
does not belong to Hyderabad, but lives below Param’s floor. The person, who belongs to
Mumbai, lives just above the floor on which the person who belongs to Kolkata lives; none of
them is Viren. There are only two floors above the floor on which Qarim lives. Rishi lives
immediately above the floor on which the person who belongs to Bangalore lives. There are
only two floors between the floors on which Tony and the person who belongs to Delhi lives.
Shiv belongs to Kolkata.
---------------------------
Q75. Who lives just below the floor on which Viren lives?
A) Param
B) The person who belongs to Mumbai.
C) Tony
D) The person who belongs to Chennai.
E) None of these
===========================
Q76. Who lives on the first floor?
A) The person who belongs to Bangalore.

B) Rishi
C) The person who belongs to Chennai
D) Shiv
E) The person who belongs to Kolkata
===========================
Q77. Who belongs to Chennai?
A) Viren
B) Qarim
C) Param
D) Rishi
===========================
Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information
and so form a group. Find the one which does not belong to the group.
A) Viren-Delhi
B) Qarim- Kolkata
C) Tony- Hyderabad
D) Rishi- Chennai
E) Utkarsh- Bangalore
===========================
Q79. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Shiv lives on the seventh floor.

B) Viren lives just above Qarim's floor.
C) Rishi lives just below Tony's floor.
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
===========================

===========================
Given, Param lives on an even numbered floor, but is not the second floor. Hence, Param
lives on either the fourth or on the sixth floor. Given only two persons live below the floor on
which the person who belongs to Hyderabad lives and exactly two persons live between the
floors on which the person who belongs to Hyderabad lives and Viren. Hence, Param lives on
the 4th floor. Given Rishi does not belong to Hyderabad but lives below Param’s floor and
Rishi lives above the floor on which the person who belongs to Bangalore lives. Hence, Rishi
lives on the second floor and the person who belongs to Bangalore lives on the first floor.
Given the person who belongs to Mumbai lives just above the floor on which the person who
belongs to Kolkata lives, none of them is Viren. Hence, the person who belongs to Mumbai
lives on the fifth floor. Given there are only two floors above the floor on which Qarim lives.
Hence, Qarim lives on the fifth floor. Given there are only two floors between the floors on
which Tony and the person who belongs to Delhi lives. Hence, Tony lives on the third floor
and Viren belongs to Delhi. As Shiv belongs to Kolkata, Shiv lives on the seventh floor and
hence Rishi belongs to Chennai and Utkarsh lives in the first floor. The final arrangement and
distribution are as follows.
Floor Person City

7 Shiv Kolkata
6 Viren Delhi
5 Qarim Mumbai
4 Param Kolkata
3 Tony Hyderabad
2 Rishi Chennai
1 Utkarsh Bangalore
==================================================================
Directions for questions 80 to 84: Read the following information and answer the questions
given below it.
I. There are six persons- Minisha, Shahid, Teresa, Priyanka, Saif and Abhishek living in a
triple story building with six flats. The floors are Ground, Middle and Top, each having two
flats.
II. Those who have four or more cars occupy the top floor and have a mobile phone.
III. The one who belongs to Himachal has Apple mobile phone while the one who belongs to
Varanasi has Blackberry mobile.
IV. The ground floor occupants have cheerful disposition.
V. Shahid who belongs to Delhi has three cars.
VI. Teresa, an unmarried woman, does not own a car, occupies the middle floor.
VII. Saif and Abhishek have gloomy dispositions while the rest are cheerful
VIII. Priyanka, a middle floor occupant, owns a Micromax mobile phone.
IX. One of the two persons having two cars owns a Samsung mobile phone and belongs to
Punjab.
X. Two persons, of whom one belongs to Uttar Pradesh, do not own a mobile phone.
---------------------------
Q80. Which mobile phone does Teresa own?
A) Blackberry
B) Apple
C) Blackberry or Apple
D) No mobile phone
===========================
Q81. Where does Priyanka belong to?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Himachal
C) Punjab
D) Varanasi
E) Can't be determined
===========================
Q82. Who among the following occupies the top floor?
A) Minisha
B) Saif
C) Teresa
D) Priyanka
E) None of these
===========================
Q83. How many cars does Minisha have?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) Three
E) None of these
===========================
Q84. What is the least number of cars owned by all the persons in the entire building?
A) 9
B) 12
C) 15
D) 18
E) Can't be determined
===========================
===========================
According to the given data in the question we can create the following table:
Person Number of Native Place Floor Mobile phone Disposition

cars owned
Minisha 2 Punjab Ground Samsung Cheer
Shahid 3 Delhi Ground None Cheer
Teresa 0 Uttar Pradesh Middle None Cheer
Priyanka 2 -- Middle Micromax Cheer
Saif 4 or more Himachal or Top Apple/Blackberry Gloomy
Varanasi
Abhishek 4 or more Himachal or Top Apple/Blackberry Gloomy
Varanasi
==================================================================
Directions for questions 85-90: Read the given information and answer the following
questions.
There are six Engineers, Namit, Manish, Roshan, Riya, Pankit and Punit from six different
companies, Wipro, Infosys, Google, IBM, Forex and Grant Thornton were going to attend a
seminar in Delhi. On their way, they met with an accident and were admitted in three
different hospitals. At least two Engineers’ were admitted in the same hospitals. Each of them
is a specialist in different fields Civil, Chemical, Geotechnical, Aeronautics, Computer
Science and Mechanical. Namit was admitted in Fortis hospital and he is from Infosys but he
is neither Chemical nor Geotechnical Engineer. Pankit is from Wipro and he is a Mechanical
engineer. He was not admitted with Roshan. Riya was admitted with the engineer from IBM.
One of the engineers who were admitted in Max Healthcare hospital is a Chemical engineer.
Manish is not from Google and Grant Thornton and he is an Aeronautics Engineer. One of
the engineers who were admitted in Saket City hospital is a Computer Science engineer.
Punit is neither from Forex nor from Grant Thornton. Geotechnical engineer and Mechanical
engineer were not admitted in Fortis hospital. Engineers from Wipro and Google were
admitted together. The Aeronautics engineer was admitted in Fortis hospital. The engineer
whose field is Mechanical was admitted at Max Healthcare hospital.
Q85. Who were admitted in Saket City hospital?
A) Namit-Roshan
B) Riya-Punit
C) Roshan-Riya
D) Pankit-Roshan
E) None of these
===========================
Q86. Who is the Civil Engineer?
A) Rajiv
B) Pankit
C) Manish
D) Namit
E) None of these
===========================
Q87. Who was admitted to a hospital with Punit?
A) Namit
B) Roshan
C) Riya
D) Manish
E) Pankit
===========================
Q88. In which company does Roshan work?
A) IBM
B) Forex
C) Wipro
D) Grant Thornton
E) Infosys
===========================
Q89. In which hospital is Manish admitted?
A) Fortis
B) Max Healthcare
C) Saket City
E) None of these
===========================
Q90. Who is a Computer Science engineer?
A) Roshan
B) Manish
C) Pankit
D) Riya
E) Either Roshan or Riya
===========================
===========================
Names of the Hospitals to which Companies they Field of Engineering

Engineer admitted work in
Namit Fortis Infosys Civil
Pankit Max Healthcare Wipro Mechanical
Punit Max Healthcare Google Chemical
Manish Fortis Forex Aeronautics
Roshan Saket City IBM Computer
Science/Geotechnical
Riya Saket City Grant Thornton Computer Science
/Geotechnical
==================================================================
Aryan, Bimla, Charu, David, Ellie, Farhan, Garvit and Harsh are eight persons working in
three different colleges Elite College, Humanities College and Imperial College and not more
than three persons are working in the same college. Each of them has different designations
among Accountant, Trainee, Principal, Physics Professor, Lab Assistant, Accountancy
Professor, Librarian and Hindi Professor, not necessarily in the same order.
David works neither at Elite College nor works in the same college as Farhan works at. Charu
and Farhan work in the same college and Charu is not a Lab Assistant. Bimla an Accountant
works at Humanities College and Ellie is the only other person who works in Humanities
College. Neither the Librarian nor the Lab Assistant works in Imperial College. Aryan is a
Physics Professor but does not work in Imperial College. Neither Garvit nor Harsh is a
Principal. Farhan is a Hindi Professor and Garvit is not a Trainee.
---------------------------
Q91. Which among the following groups works in Imperial College?
A) David, Farhan and Harsh

B) Charu, Farhan and Harsh
C) David, Garvit and Harsh
D) Charu, Farhan and Garvit
E) None of these
===========================
Q92. Among the Following, Whose Designation is Librarian?
A) David
B) Charu
C) Farhan
D) Cannot be Determined
E) None of these
===========================
Q93. Which among the following groups of Designations are from Elite College?
A) Physics Professor, Hindi Professor and Accountancy Professor

B) Accountancy Professor-Librarian and Lab Assistant
C) Lab-Assistant, Principal and Physics Professor
D) Accountant, Librarian and Lab Assistant
E) None of these
===========================
Q94. our of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information
and so form a group. Find the one which does not belong to the group.
A) Aryan-Physics Professor
B) Ellie-Principal
C) Harsh-Trainee
D) Garvit-Accountancy Professor
E) Bimla-Accountant
===========================
Q95. Which among the following is True as per Given Information?
A) Farhan-Elite College-Hindi Professor

B) David- Imperial College-Trainee
C) Farhan-Elite College-Accountant
D) Bimla-Humanities College-Lab Assistant
E) None of these
===========================
===========================
Explanation/solution
From the given information, we can say that two persons are working in exactly one college.
Also we can say that Bimla and Ellie are the only two persons working in Humanities
College.
Therefore, in each Elite College and Imperial College, exactly three persons are working.
David works in Imperial College as it is given that David does not work in Elite College and
Farhan works at Elite College as David and Farhan do not work in the same college. Charu
works at Humanities College as it is given that Charu and Farhan work in the same colleges.
Aryan works in Elite College, as he does not work in Imperial College.
We can say that Ellie is a Lab Assistant, as it is given that Charu is not Lab Assistant and
Charu is a Librarian, as it is given that the persons who are working in Imperial College are
neither Librarian nor a Lab Assistant.
David is a Principal, as we know that neither Garvit nor Harsh is the Principal. Also we can
say that Harsh is a trainee, as Garvit is not a trainee.
Therefore, Garvit is an Accountancy Professor.
Therefore, the final distribution is shown below.
Name College Designation

Aryan Elite College Physics Professor
Bimla Humanities College Accountant
Charu Elite College Librarian
David Imperial College Principal
Ellie Humanities College Lab Assistant
Farhan Elite College Hindi Professor
Garvit Imperial College Accountancy Professor
Harsh Imperial College Trainee
==================================================================
Eight people P,Q,R,S,T,U,V,W work in different organizations at different posts. Each of

them had experience in their field of certain number of years, which was different for each of
them. These years were among 27, 24, 20, 16, 14, 10, 8 and 3. Also it is known that they
lived in an eight floored apartment numbered from 1-8 , where 8 is the top-most floor, 7 is
just below it and so on. Further it is known that V who had an experience more than Q but
less than R lived on the 2nd floor. There were 3 people living between T and Q, where T
lived above Q. W lived below T but not adjacent to Q or on the 7th floor. U had an
experience more than the person living on the 1st floor and lived above Q but below R. R
who had 16 years of experience lived on the 6th floor. P had an experience less than S but
more than V and T. The difference between the years of experience of person living on the
7th floor and the floor number of P is not 0. W had an experience of more than 20 years but
not the highest. The person living on the 4th floor had an experience of 20 years. Q had an
experience of odd number of years. W and U are not living in adjacent floors.
---------------------------
Q96. What is the experience of the person living on the 8th floor?
A) 14
B) 10
C) 8
D) 20
E) None of these
===========================
Q97. What is the difference in the years of experience of the person living on 5th and
4th floor?
A) 7
B) 4
C) 13
D) 11
E) None of these
===========================
Q98. In which floor did T live?
A) 8th
B) 7th
C) 5th
D) 4th
E) Cannot Be Determined
===========================
Q99. Who lived on the 4th floor?
A) P
B) T
C) Q
D) S
===========================
Q100. Which among the following pair is odd from the rest?
A) R,27
B) T,24
C) Q,8
D) U,20
E) P,10
===========================

===========================
Explanation/solution
R who had 16 years of experience lived on the 6th floor. V who had an experience more than
Q but less than R lived on the 2nd floor. So, V had an experience of 14/10/8 years. The person
living on the 4th floor had an experience of 20 years.
FLOOR PERSON EXPERIENCE IN YEARS

8
7
6 R 16
5
4 20
3
2 V 14/10/8
1
There were 3 people living between T and Q, where T lived above Q.
Case 1:

8 T
7
6 R 16
5
4 Q 20
3
2 V 14/10/8
1
But we are given that Q had an experience of odd number of years. So, this case is invalid.
Case 2:

8
7
6 R 16
5 T
4 20
3
2 V 14/10/8
1 Q
Case 3:

8
7 T
6 R 16
5
4 20
3 Q
2 V 14/10/8
1
Now,
W lived below T but not adjacent to Q or on the 7th floor. U had an experience more than the
person living on the 1st floor and lived above Q but below R. W and U are not living in adjacent
floors.
Case 2:

8
7
6 R 16
5 T
4 20
3 W 24
2 V 14/10/8
1 Q
Case 3:

8
7 T
6 R 16
5 U 27
4 20
3 Q
2 V 14/10/8
1 W 24
But we are given that Q had odd number of years of experience. So, Q had an experience of 3
years. So, case 2 is also not possible. Moving ahead with case 3:
Case 3:

8
7 T
6 R 16
5 U 27
4 20
3 Q 3
2 V 14/10/8
1 W 24
P had an experience less than S but more than V and T. This means that S had 20 years of
experience and P had 14 years of experience. So, P lived on 8th floor.
The difference between the years of experience of person living on the 7th floor and the floor
number of P is not 0.
So finally, we have:
8 P 14
7 T 10
6 R 16
5 U 27
4 S 20
3 Q 3
2 V 8
1 W 24
New Pattern Reasoning Puzzles Free e-book
(Directions 1 – 5) Eight persons – Jabal, Sumer, Dinesh, Alka, Sudeep, Kapil, Ramesh and
Gaur went for picnic in different months – September, October, November and December
on two different dates 5th or 25th. Only one person went for picnic on one date. Each of the
persons went to different place – Jaipur, Agra, Ooty, Raxaul, Manali, Goa, Shimla, and
Mumbai but not necessarily in the same order.
Jabal went for picnic in October. Only one person went for picnic between Jabal and the one
who went to Shimla, who did not go for picnic in September. One person went for picnic
between the ones who went to Shimla and Goa. Five persons went for picnic between
Sumer and Kapil, who went for picnic after Sumer. Kapil was not the last to go for picnic.
Alka went for picnic before Ramesh and both went for picnic in the same month. No one
went for picnic before the one who went to Ooty. The number of persons went for picnic
before Sudeep is same as the number of persons went for picnic after the one who went to
Shimla. No one went for picnic between Jabal and the one who went to Agra. Dinesh did not
go to Agra. Dinesh went for picnic before Gaur but not immediately before. Four persons
went for picnic between the Gaur, who went to Manali and the one who went to Raxaul.
Gaur went for picnic after the one who went to Raxaul. One of the persons went for picnic
in November went to Jaipur.
1. Who among the following went to Goa?
a) Jabal
b) Sudeep
c) Ramesh
d) Kapil
Answer: option d
2. How many person(s) went to picnic after Ramesh?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Answer: option c
3. Which of the following combinations person and place is /are correct?
a) Sumer – Mumbai
b) Ramesh – Goa
c) Gaur – Shimla
d) Jabal – Raxaul
Answer: option d
4. Who among the following visited Shimla?
a) Alka
b) Dinesh
c) Sumer
d) Gaur
Answer: option a
5. Who among the following was the first to go to picnic?
a) Sudeep
b) Sumer
c) Ramesh
d) Kapil
Answer: option b
Direction (6 – 10) There are nine persons namely Ashwin, Babli, Choti, Deeksha, Etti,
Farheen, Gopal, Harish, and Ramu, living in a same building of nine floors. Ground floor is
numbered 1; first floor is numbered 2 and so on. They all are studying in different colleges
i.e. BIT, PSG, VIT, Nirma, St. Xavier’s, Fergusson, Hans Raj, XLRI, and FMS but not necessarily
in the same order.
There are three floors between Ashwin and Ramu, who studies in St. Xavier’s College. Harish
studies in VIT College and lives immediately above the floor on which Ashwin lives. There is
only one floor between Harish and Gopal, who studies in Nirma College. Farheen studies in
PSG College and lives below the floor on which Gopal lives. Farheen does not live on even
number floor. There are only two floors between Farheen and Etti, who studies in BIT
College. Babli studies in XLRI College and lives below the floor on which Farheen lives. Gopal
does not live on ninth floor. Babli lives on even number floor. Ramu lives on the floor below
Ashwin’s floor. There is as many as floor between Babli and one, who studies in Fergusson
College as between Ashwin and Choti. Ashwin does not study in the Hans Raj college.
6. Ashwin studies in which of the following college?
a) VIT
b) FMS
c) Nirma
d) BIT
Answer: option b
7. Deeksha lives on which of the following floors?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Answer: option a
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus forms a group. Which
of the following does not belong to that group?
a) Harish and Ashwin

b) Etti and Choti
c) Farheen and Babli
d) Choti and Gopal
Answer: option d
9. Who among the following lives on the floor which is immediately above the floor
on which Etti lives?
a) Gopal
b) Harish
c) Etti
d) Ashwin
Answer: option a
10. How many floors are there between the Etti’s floor and the floor on which Babli
lives?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
Answer: option b
(Directions 11- 15) Eight friends from L to S are living on eight different floors of a building
but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor is numbered as one; the floor
above is numbered two and so on.
N lives on an even numbered floor. No one lives between R and Q. Two persons live
between S and L. Number of persons living between R and N is same as between S and M. N
doesn’t live on topmost floor. Q lives on the second floor from the top. M lives on the odd
numbered floor. R and M are not immediate neighbours. P lives exactly between Q and S. L
lives two floors below N.
11. How many person(s) live between P and S?
a) One
b) Two
c) None
d) Three
Answer: option c
12. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which
of the following does not belong to the group?
a) L
b) M
c) O
d) S
Answer: option a
13. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom, then how
many persons retain their original position?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) None
Answer: option d
14. Which of the following persons lives on 4th floor?
a) L
b) R
c) N
d) Q
Answer: option c
15. Which of the following persons lives between N and L?
a) S
b) P
c) M
d) O
Answer: option d
Directions (16 – 20) Six friends Pant, Quan, Raah, Saaz, Taju and Udey are having different
chocolates among Cadbury, Five Star, Kit Kat, Munch, Perk and Temptation but not
necessarily in the same order. The cost of each chocolate is multiple of 5 in Rupees and no
two chocolates have same price. All friends like different colors among Black, Blue, Green,
Pink, Red and White but not necessarily in the same order. A person can have only one
brand of chocolates. Raah has Five-Star chocolate and its cost is Rs.10 and he doesn’t like
White color. Udey likes Green color. Quan did not have Cadbury or Munch chocolate. Taju
has a chocolate which costs Rs.20. The one person who likes Black color has Munch
chocolate. Pant has Kit Kat chocolate which costs Rs.25 and he likes Blue color. The cost of
chocolate that Saaz have is less than that of Five-Star chocolate. The costliest chocolate is
Perk and its cost is thrice the cost of Five-Star chocolate and Quan doesn’t have Perk. The
cost of Cadbury chocolate is 10 Rupees less than the cost of Perk chocolate. The one who
likes Pink color has Temptation chocolate. One of the persons have a chocolate which costs
thrice the amount of the one who likes Back color.
16. Which among the following colors was liked by the one who has Cadbury
chocolate?
a) Red
b) Green
c) White
d) Cannot be determine
Answer: option c
17. What is the cost of the Udey’s chocolate?
a) Rs.30
b) Rs.15
c) Rs.5
d) Rs.50
Answer: option a
18. Which of the following combinations is correct?
a) Temptation-Rs-20
b) Cadbury-White
c) Saaz-Cadbury
d) Green-Five star
Answer: option b
19. What is the cost of Temptation chocolate?
a) Rs.10
b) Rs.20
c) Rs.15
d) Rs.30
Answer: option c
20. Who has the Chocolate which costs 30 rupees?
a) Raah
b) Saaz
c) Taju
d) Udey
Answer: option d
Directions (21 – 25) Seven students – Arav, Roma, Bhavy, Kaka, Pran, Nair and Manav were
ranked one above the other. Each of these students scored different number of marks in
mathematics ranging from 10-90. The rank of these students was determined on the basis
of total marks therefore it might be possible that the student to have less marks in
mathematics but was ranked above the student who scored better marks than him.
Not more than four students were ranked above Arav. Two students were ranked between
Arav and the student who scored 41 marks, who was ranked below Box Arav. Marks scored
by Kaka were thrice the number of marks scored by Roma. Bhavy scored 50 marks and was
not ranked at the top. The number of marks scored by Manav was a perfect cube of a
number. Only one student was ranked between the students who scored 41 marks and 39
marks. Kaka has scored less number of marks than Arav. One of the students scored 78
marks. Five students were ranked between student who scored 64 marks and Bhavy. Manav
was ranked immediately above Pran and but scored fewer marks than Pran. Kaka was not
ranked immediately above or below Roma. Three students were ranked between Kaka and
Nair. Kaka was ranked above Nair.
21. Which of the following combinations represents the correct order of maximum and
minimum marks obtained by a person?
a) Arav, Roma
b) Kaka, Manav
c) Arav, Manav
d) Nair, Roma
Answer: option d
22. Which of the following combinations of person and marks is/are correct?
a) Manav – 64
b) Kaka – 39
c) Arav – 78
d) Pran – 41
Answer: option b
23. Who among the following is/are ranked between Manav and Roma?
a) No one
b) Pran, Nair
c) Kaka
d) None of These
Answer: option d
24. How many student(s) were ranked above Pran?
a) None
b) One
c) Three
d) Two
Answer: option c
25. What is the sum of the marks of Bhavy and Arav?
a) 114
b) 89
c) 128
d) 91
Answer: option a
Directions (26 – 30) There are seven teachers Gaurav, Rajesh, Vasant, Sanjay, Daneil,
Mahadev and Jaipriya taking class on different subjects Tamil, English, Zoology, Botany,
Physics, Chemistry and Social Science on different days starting from Monday to Sunday. All
the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
Rajesh takes Botany class on Tuesday. There are more than two classes between the classes
of Botany and Zoology. Sanjay and Gaurav are not taking either Tamil class or Social Science
class. There is a gap of one day between Tamil class and Social Science class. Two persons
take class between Mahadev and Sanjay. Neither Mahadev nor Sanjay takes class on either
Sunday or Monday. Number of classes above and below is same for the subjects of English
and Chemistry respectively. Jaipriya does not take Tamil class. Daniel and Gaurav are not
taking classes immediately before or immediately after Sanjay. Gaurav and Jaipriya are
taking class on adjacent days. English class was held on last day.
26. How many persons take class between Gaurav and Daniel?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Answer: option c
27. Who amongst the following takes class exactly between Daniel and Jaipriya?
a) The one who takes class on Thursday

b) The one who takes Zoology class
c) The one who takes Class on Tuesday
d) The one who takes Tamil Class
Answer: option d
28. If all the persons are arranged in the alphabetical order as per their names from
Monday to Sunday, then who take the Tamil class and Social Science respectively?
a) Mahadev and Rajesh

b) Jaipriya and Sanjay
c) Rajesh and Jaipriya
d) Jaipriya and Rajesh
Answer: option d
29. Which of the following combinations is true?
a) Jaipriya-Social Science-Thursday
b) Daniel-Sunday-English
c) Gaurav-Physics-Thursday
d) Vasant-Saturday-Zoology
Answer: option c
30. Who among the following takes class exactly in the middle of the week starting
from Monday and ending on Sunday?
a) Vasant
b) Gaurav
c) Rajesh
d) Either Daniel or Sanja
Answer: option b
Directions (31 – 35) Six persons – Rohit, Ankit, Misti, Vishal, Parul and Sweta, appeared for
an exam. Each of these persons scored different marks – 16, 15, 13, 10, 8 and 5, not
• Marks scored by Rohit were a prime number.

• Vishal scored more marks than Sweta but less than Ankit.
• Marks of Ankit were a multiple of the marks of Misti.
• Sweta scored less marks than Parul.
• Parul didn't score 10 marks.
• The difference of marks scored by Rohit and Parul was 3.
31. Who among the following scored maximum marks?
a) Ankit
b) Vishal
c) Parul
d) Misti
Answer: option c
32. How many persons scored more marks than Vishal?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: option c
33. What marks were scored by Sweta?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 5
d) 13
Answer: option a
34. What was the difference of the marks scored by Vishal and Misti?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: option a
35. How many person(s) scored marks between Rohit and Sweta?
a) None
b) One
c) Two
d) Three
Answer: option b
(Directions 36 – 40) Here are seven boxes from A to G, which are placed one above the
other. The lowermost box is numbered as one and above as two and so on. Each of the
boxes is differentiated with respect to following colors like Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green,
Yellow, Orange and Red. All the above information is not necessarily in the same order.
Box A is placed at odd number position below sixth Box. One Box is placed between Box A
and Box F, which is Green coloured. Box B is neither Indigo colour nor Red colour. Two
Boxes are placed between Box F and Box E. Box C is of Yellow colour and it is placed
immediately above Box E. Box B and Box G are placed adjacent to each other. Two Boxes are
placed between Box A and the Indigo coloured Box. Only one Box is placed between Indigo
coloured box and Violet coloured Box. Box D is not Violet coloured. More than three boxes
are placed between the Red coloured Box and the Orange coloured Box. Box E is neither of
Red colour nor Indigo colour.
36. Which among the following box is placed immediately below Orange coloured
box?
a) None of these
b) Box B
c) Box C
d) Box D
Answer: option a
37. Which of the following statement is true regarding Blue coloured box?
a) Red coloured box is not adjacent to Blue coloured box.

b) Violet coloured box is placed immediately below Blue coloured box. (C.)
c) Only two boxes are placed between Blue coloured box and Green coloured box.
d) None of These.
Answer: option d
38. Which among the following box is placed immediately above Green coloured box?
a) Red coloured box

b) Blue coloured box
c) Orange coloured box
d) Either A or C
Answer: option a
39. How many boxes are placed between Orange coloured box and Indigo coloured
box?
a) One
b) Two
c) None
d) Three
Answer: option c
40. Which among the following box is placed at 6th position?
a) Box B
b) Box G
c) Indigo coloured box
d) Both b & c
Answer: option d
50 Coding Decoding Practice Questions Free Quant e-book
1. If water is called food, food is called tree, free is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of
the following grows a fruit?
a) Free
b) Tree
c) Wall
d) Sky
Answer: option c
2. In a certain code language "FALEN" is coded as "7213615" and "IMPAL" is coded as

"101417213" then what is the code for "LEGACY"?
a) 13571326
b) 13682426
c)13458926
d)13842326
Answer: option b
3. If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code?
A) EDRIRL
B) DCJKLI
C) ESJEMF
D) EIOLHG
Answer: option a
4. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that code?
a) CQOCBZ
b) CPOCBZ
c) CPNCBZ
d) CPNCBX
Answer: option c
5. If ‘SYNDICATE’ is written as ‘SYTENDCAI’, then how can ‘PSYCHOTIC’ be written?
(a) PSYICTCOH
(b) PSYCOHTCI
(c) PSICYOCTH
(d) PSICYCOTH
Answer: option d
6. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is
called black, black is called violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of
human blood?
a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Violet
Answer: option c
7. In a certain code, ‘LATE’ is written as ‘VGZO’. How will ‘SHINE’ be written in that same
code?
(a) VRMSH
(b) VMSHR
(c) VMRSH
(d) MVRSH
Answer: option b
8. If 'orange' is called 'butter', 'butter' is called 'soap', 'soap' is called 'ink', 'ink' is called
'honey' and 'honey' is called 'orange', which of the following is used for washing clothes ?
a) honey
b) butter
c) orange
d) ink
Answer: option d
9. If 'books' is called 'watch', 'watch' is called 'bag', 'bag' is called 'dictionary' and 'dictionary'
is called 'window', which is used to carry the books?
a) dictionary
b) books
c) window
d) watch
Answer: option a
10. If 'bat' is 'racket', 'racket' is 'football', 'football' is 'shuttle', 'shuttle' is 'ludo' and 'ludo' is
'carrom', what is cricket played with?
a) racket
b) football
c) bat
d) shuttle
Answer: option a
11. If 'sand' is called 'air', 'air' is called 'plateau', 'plateau' ia called 'well', 'well' is called 'island'
and 'island' is called 'sky', then from where will a woman draw water?
a) well
b) island
c) sky
d) air
Answer: option b
12. If 'cushion' is called 'pillow', 'pillow' is called 'mat', 'mat' is called 'bedsheet' and 'bedsheet'
is called 'cover', which will be spread on the floor?
a) Cover
b) Bedsheet
c) Mat
d) Pillow
Answer: option b
13. In a certain code language, ‘mink yang pe’ means ‘fruits are ripe’, ‘pe lao may mink’ means
‘oranges are not ripe’ and ‘may pe nue mink’ means ‘mangoes are not ripe’. Which word in
that language means ‘manoges’?
a) may
b) pe
c) nue
d) mink
Answer: option c
14. In a certain code language, ‘si po re’ means ‘book is thick’, ‘ti na re’ means ‘bag is heavy’,
‘ka si’ means ‘interesting book’ and ‘de ti’ means ‘that bag’. What should stand for ‘that is
interesting’ in that code language?
a) ka de re
b) ti po ka
c) ka re na
d) de si re
Answer: option a
15. In a certain code language, ‘col tip mot’ means ‘singing is appreciable’, ‘mot baj min’
means ‘dancing is good’ and ‘tip nop baj’ means ‘singing and dancing’, which of the
following means ‘good’ in that code language?
a) not
b) min
c) baj
d) Can't be determined
Answer: option b
16. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT be written in the same code?
a) APERTN
b) RAPTNE
c) TNERAP
d) ERAPTN
Answer: option a
17. In a certain coding system, APPLE stands for ETTPI. What is the code for "DELHI" ?
a) CQMND
b) CQPLM
c) ZAHDE
d) HIPLM
Answer: option d
18. If ‘Development’ is written as ‘Tnemdevelop’. Then ‘Evaluation’ will be written as
a) Notiaevalu
b) Noitaulave
c) Notievalua
d) Noitevalua
Answer: option d
19. In a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE. How will LIGHT coded?
a) LIGFT
b) LGGHT
c) LLGFE
d) LGGFT
Answer: option d
20. In a certain code ROAD is written as URDG. How is SWAN written in that code?
a) UXDQ
b) VZDQ
c) VXDQ
d) VZCQ
Answer: option b
21. If ACELDNRA stands for CALENDAR, what does LEGIBIEL stands for?
a) LIEGIBLE
b) ELIGIBLE
c) BIGEELIC
d) None of these
Answer: option b
22. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, then how can SUCCESS be coded?
a) VXEEIVV
b) VXFFHVV
c) VYEEHVV
d) None of these
Answer: option b
23. In a certain language ‘GUST’ is coded ‘@7$2’ and ‘SNIP’ is coded ‘$59#’. How will ‘SING’ be
coded in the same code?
a) 9$7#
b) 59#$
c) $95@
d) 7$@9
Answer: option c
24. If D = 4 and READ is coded as 7, then what is HEAR coded as?
a) 32
b) 33
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: option d
25. If UNIVERSITY is 1273948756, how can TRUSTY be written in that code?
a) 542856
b) 531856
c) 541856
d) 541956
Answer: option c
26. If CENTURION is coded as 325791465 and RANK is coded as 1859, what will the figures
7859 represent?
a) BANK
b) SANK
c) TANK
d) TALK
Answer: option c
27. If SENSATIONAL can be written as 1 2 3 1 4 5 6 7 3 4 8, how will STATION be written in that

code?
a) 1 4 5 5 6 7 3
b) 1 5 4 5 7 6 3
c) 1 5 5 4 6 7 3
d) 1 5 4 5 6 7 3
Answer: option d
28. In a certain code, ‘PEAK’ is written as ‘3512’ and DINE is written as ‘6895’. How is KIND
written in that code?
a) 2396
b) 2896
c) 2986
d) 2596
Answer: option d
29. If 'cook' is called 'butler', 'butler' is called 'manager', 'manager' is called 'teacher', 'teacher'
is called 'clerk' and 'clerk' is called 'principal', who will teach in the class ?
a) Cook
b) clerk
c) Manager
d) Teacher
Answer: option b
30. If 'oranges' are 'apples', 'bananas' are 'apricots', 'apples' are 'chillies', 'apricots' are
'oranges' and 'chillies' are 'bananas', then which of the following are green in colour ?
a) apricots
b) apples
c) chilies
d) bananas
Answer: option d
31. If 'rat' is called 'dog', 'dog' is called 'mongoose', 'mongoose' is called 'lion', 'lion' is called
'snake', and 'snake' is called 'elephant', which is reared as pet?
a) rat
b) dog
c) mongoose
d) lion
Answer: option c
32. In a certain code, ‘TEACHER’ is written as VGCEJGT. How is CHILDREN written in that code?
a) EJKNEGTP
b) EGKNFITP
c) EJKNFGTO
d) EJKNFTGP
Answer: option d
33. If in a certain language, NEOMAN is coded as OGRQFT, which word will be coded as
ZKCLUP?
a) YIZHPJ
b) XIAJSN
c) YJBKTO
d) YIAQKJ
Answer: option a
34. If EARTH can be coded as ‘IUSBF’ how can GLOBE be coded?
a) HMPCF
b) FMPCH
c) FPMCH
d) FCPMH
Answer: option d
35. In a code TIGER is written as SHFDQ, how shall HORSE be written in that code?
a) GNRQD
b) GNQRD
c) GRNQD
d) GMQRD
Answer: option b
36. In a particular way the word STAG is coded as HGZT, HORN as SLIM. Using the same
coding, how can NORTH be written?
a) NLGMI
b) MLIGS
c) MGLIS
d) NLGIS
Answer: option b
37. In a certain code RAIN is written as TCKP. How is CLOUD written in that code?
a) ENQWF
b) EMQWF
c) FNQWE
d) ENRWF
Answer: option a
38. If GARMENT is written as 20269142213, how is INDULGE written in that code?
a) 9144211275
b) 914211275
c) 1813326152022
d) 1813236152022
Answer: option d
39. If ‘CONSTABLE’ is coded as 91, what will be the code number for ‘STABLE’?
a) 97
b) 59
c) 79
d) 75
Answer: option b
40. If 3, 1, 11, 5 represents CAKE; 6, 1, 9, 12 is FAIL, what is represents FIRST?
a) 9, 18, 6, 19, 20
b) 6, 18, 9, 19, 20
c) 6, 9, 18, 19, 20
d) 18, 19, 20, 9, 6
Answer: option c
41. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, then how can CALICUT be coded?
a) 5279431
b) 5978013
c) 8251896
d) 8543691
Answer: option c
42. If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded as?
a) 36
b) 38
c) 24
d) 40
Answer: option c
43. In a certain code language, GRAPE is written as 27354 and FOUR is written as 1687. How is
GROUP written in that code?
a) 27384
b) 27684
c) 27685
d) 27658
Answer: option c
44. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned odd numerical value beginning A =
1, B = 3 and so on, what will the total value of the letters for the word ‘HOTEL’?
a) 95
b) 115
c) 125
d) 105
Answer: option b
45. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned an even numerical value by giving
A = 2, B = 4 and so on. What would be the total value of the letters for the word LADY
when similarly coded?
a) 82
b) 74
c) 72
d) 84
Answer: option d
46. In a certain code, the word DEAL is coded 4 – 5 – 1 – 12 following the same rule of coding,
what should be the code of the word GENTS?
a) 7 – 5 – 14 – 20 – 19
b) 6 – 5 – 14 – 20 – 19
c) 5 – 7 – 25 – 19 – 18
d) 7 – 6 – 15 – 21 – 20
Answer: option a
47. In certain code RAIN is written as 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How REMAIN
written in that code?
a) #@7$%6
b) #@&$%6
c) 7@#$%6
d) 8@7$%6
Answer: option d
48. If REQUEST written as S2R52TU, then, how will ACID be written?
a) 1394
b) IC94
c) BDJE
d) None of These
Answer: option d
49. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded?
a) 1677199
b) 1677209
c) 16717209
d) 9207716
Answer: option b
50. In a certain code language OFFICE is written as NGGHDD. How is DENOTE written in that
code language?
a) CDMNSD
b) EDONUD
c) EPOPUF
d) EODNDU
Answer: option b
Reasoning Practice
Questions
RBI Assistant Reasoning Practice Qs
Q1) Anuj is ranked 9th from the Top and 38th from the A. 58
bottom in his class. What is the total strength of the class? B. 60
A. 45 C. 62
B. 46 D. 61
C. 47 Correct Answer: “B”
D. 48
Correct Answer: “B” Q7) In a row, Suman is at the 15th position from the left
and Raman is at the 19th position from the back. There are
Q2) In a row, Vivek’s is at the 9th position from the front 21 students standing between Suman and Raman. So,
and Sunil is at the 7th position from the back. There are 6 What is the total number of students in the row?
students standing between Vivek and Sunil. So What is the A. 55
total number of students in the row? B. 50
A. 20 C. 60
B. 21 D. 52
C. 22 Correct Answer: “A”
D. 23
Correct Answer: “C” Q8) Ramandeep is standing at the 9th position from the
left in a row of 36 students. What is Ramandeep’s position
Q3) Sunaina stays on the 16th floor from the bottom of a from the Right side?
28-floor building. What is the position of her floor from the A. 25
Top? B. 26
A. 13 C. 27
B. 14 D. 28
C. 15 Correct Answer: “D”
D. 16
Correct Answer: “A” Q9) A total of 150 people were standing in a row. Sajid was
standing at the 55th position from the left. Wajid was
Q4) A total of 78 soldiers were standing in a row. Ram standing at 66th position from the right. How many people
Singh was standing at the 25th position from the left. were standing between Sajid and Wajid?
Shyam Singh was standing at 20th position from the right. A. 27
How many soldiers were standing between Ram Singh and B. 28
Shyam Singh? C. 29
A. 31 D. 30
B. 32 Correct Answer: “C”
C. 33
D. 34 Q10) In a row, 75 boys were standing. Param was standing
Correct Answer: “C” at the 42nd position form the left and Vikram was standing
at 49th position from the right. Find out, how may boys
Q5) In the final list of 60 selected candidates, Aunja’s was were standing between Param and Vikram in the row?
rank was 35th from the Top and Binita’s rank was 39th A. 11
from the bottom. So how many candidates were between B. 12
Aunja and Binita on the list? C. 13
A. 11 D. 14
B. 12 Correct Answer: “D”
C. 13
D. 14 Q11) In a class of 90, where girls are twice that of boys,
Correct Answer: “B” Shridar ranked fourteenth from the top, if there are 10 girls
ahead of Shridar, how many boys are after him in rank?
Q6) Akshay is positioned 18th from the left and 43rd from A. 23
the right. What is the total number of persons standing in B. 26
the row? C. 25
D. 22 2) L
Correct Answer: “B” 3) V
4) X
Q12) Reshma and Praveena are ranked ninth and Correct Answer: “4”
thirteenth from the top in a class of 57 students. What will
be their respective ranks from the bottom of the class? Data Sufficiency Questions
A. 48, 44
B. 49, 45 Directions for questions: In the following questions each
C. 45, 49 question is followed by three statements I, II and III. Read
D. 47, 43 the question and the statements carefully and choose your
Correct Answer: “B” answer according to which set of statement(s) is/are
sufficient to answer the question.
Directions (Q 13-17): Answer the given questions based on
the following English alphabet. Q1) What is the distance between city P and city Q?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ I. Two persons A and B started simultaneously from P to Q,
with their speeds in the ratio 4 : 5.
Q13) Which letter is fifth to the right of the eighteenth II. B reached P one hour earlier than A to Q.
letter from your right? III. The difference between speeds of A and B is 20 kmph
1) N
2) M 1: I and III only
3) E 2: II and III only
4) C 3: I and II only
Correct Answer: “1” 4: All I, II and III together
Q14) If the above alphabet is arranged in the reverse
order. Which letter will be 12th to the left of the 16th from Q2) What is the rate of interest on a certain sum?
your left? I. The interest earned on the sum at the same rate of
1) X simple interest after 3 years is Rs.4500.
2) W II. If the rate of interest is 2.5% more, the simple interest
3) V earned will be Rs.900 more.
4) U III. The amount received on the sum at the end of the 2
Correct Answer: “2” years at simple interest is Rs.15,000
Q15) If all the vowels are removed from the alphabet, 1: I and II only
which letter will be the 7TH to the right of the 5TH letter 2: II and III only
from the left? 3: I and III only
1) L 4: Any two statements together
2) V Correct Answer: “4”
3) J
4) P Q3) What is the area of the rectangle?
Correct Answer: “4” I. The ratio of length to breadth of the rectangle is 35 : 12.
II. The perimeter of the rectangle is 188 cm.
Q16) If A and B written as B and A, C and D is written as D III. The length of diagonal of the rectangle is 74 cm
and C and so on. What will be the position of M from your
right ? 1: I and II only
1) 11 2: I and III only
2) 12 3: (I and II) or (II and III
3) 13 4: Any two of the three
4) 14 Correct Answer: “4”
Q4) What is the present age of Rakesh?
Q17) If every alternate letter starting with A, is removed I. The ratio of the ages of Ramesh and Rakesh, three years
from the alphabet. Which letter among the remaining ago, was 4 : 5.
letters would be the third to the right of the fifth letter II. The ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Rakesh, after two
from the right? years, will be 4 : 5.
1) J III. Two years ago the ratio of the ages of Rajesh and
Ramesh was 12 : 13. Rs.9,450 in two years.
III. The difference between the compound interest and the
1: I and II only simple interest on Rs.45,000 when compounded half yearly
2: II and III only after one year is Rs.112.50.
3: I and III only
4: All I, II and III 1: All I, II and III
Correct Answer: “4” 2: I or II or III
Q5) What is the cost of three kg of rice and two kg of 4: I and III only
wheat together? Correct Answer: “2”
I. The cost of four kg of rice, five kg of wheat and three kg
of sugar together is Rs.416. Q9) What is the present age of Akhil?
II. The ratio of prices of one kg of rice to that of wheat is 2 I. Four years ago, the ratio of ages of Arun, Akhil and Alok
: 3. was 5 : 6 : 7.
III. The cost of seven kg of rice, seven kg of wheat and II. After one year from now the age of Akhil will be 16%
three kg of sugar, together, is Rs.608 more than the age of Arun.
III. After six years the ratio of the ages of Arun, Akhil and
1: I and II only Alok will be 15 : 17 : 19.
2: I and III only
3: II and III only 1: I and II only
4: Any two of the three 2: II and III only
Correct Answer: “2” 3: I and III only
4: Any two of I, II and III
Q6) How many men watched the show in the auditorium? Correct Answer: “4”
I. The ratio of the number of men to the number of women Q10) What is the overall profit or loss for the shopkeeper
who watched the show is 7:5. on selling two articles?
II. Had there been 12 more men, the ratio of the number of I. The two articles are sold for Rs.6,930 each.
the men to the number of women who watched the show II. The difference between the cost prices of the two
would be 3 : 2. articles is Rs.1400.
III. The capacity of the auditorium is 300. III. There is a loss of 10% on one article and a gain of 10%
on the other.
1: I and II only 1: Only I and II
2: II and III only 2: Only I and III
3: I and III only 3: Only II and III
4: All I, II and III 4: Only III
Correct Answer: “1” Correct Answer: “2”
Q7) What is the time taken by pipe A to fill a tank? Q11) What is the area of the rectangle ABCD inscribed in a
I. The pipes A and B together can fill half of the tank in two circle?
hours and 24 minutes. I. The radius of the circle is 5 cm.
II. Pipe A can fill the tank along with pipe C which can II. The breadth of the rectangle is three – fourth of its
empty the tank in eight hours. length.
III. The ratio of time taken by pipes A, B to fill the tank and III. The area of the region of the rectangle in one – half of
the time taken by the pipe C to empty the tank is 2 : 3 : 4 the circle is 24 cm^2.
1: I and II only 1: Only I and II

2: II and III only 2: Only I
3: I and III only 3: Only III
4: (I and III) or (II and III) 4: Only III or I and II
Correct Answer: “4” Correct Answer: “4”
Q8) What is the rate of interest? Q12) What is the speed of the boat in still water?
I. The amount of Rs.45,000 yields a simple interest of I. The boat covers 10km in 2hrs in downstream
Rs.13,500 in three years. II. The boat covers same distance in 5hrs in upstream
II. The amount of Rs.45,000 yields a compound interest of III. The speed of stream is one third of that of boat in still
water Answer: option b
A) Only I and II together are sufficient 7. If VICTORY is coded as YLFWRUB, then how can SUCCESS
B) Only I and III together are sufficient be coded?
C) I, II and III together not sufficient a) VXEEIVV
D) I and either II or III are sufficient b) VXFFHVV
Correct Answer: “D” c) VYEEHVV
d) None of these
Input – Output Practice Qs Answer: option b
1. If CUSTOM is written as UCTSMO then how PARENT be 8. In a certain language ‘GUST’ is coded ‘@7$2’ and ‘SNIP’
written in the same code? is coded ‘$59#’. How will ‘SING’ be coded in the same
a) APERTN code?
b) RAPTNE a) 9$7#
c) TNERAP b) 59#$
d) ERAPTN c) $95@
Answer: option a d) 7$@9
Answer: option c
2. In a certain coding system, APPLE stands for ETTPI. What
is the code for "DELHI" ? 9. If D = 4 and READ is coded as 7, then what is HEAR coded
a) CQMND as?
b) CQPLM a) 32
c) ZAHDE b) 33
d) HIPLM c) 7
Answer: option d d) 8
Answer: option d
3. If ‘Development’ is written as ‘Tnemdevelop’. Then
‘Evaluation’ will be written as 10. If UNIVERSITY is 1273948756, how can TRUSTY be
a) Notiaevalu written in that code?
b) Noitaulave a) 542856
c) Notievalua b) 531856
d) Noitevalua c) 541856
Answer: option d d) 541956
Answer: option c
4. In a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE. How will
LIGHT coded? 11. If CENTURION is coded as 325791465 and RANK is
a) LIGFT coded as 1859, what will the figures 7859 represent?
b) LGGHT a) BANK
c) LLGFE b) SANK
d) LGGFT c) TANK
Answer: option d d) TALK
Answer: option c
5. In a certain code ROAD is written as URDG. How is SWAN
written in that code? 12. If SENSATIONAL can be written as 1 2 3 1 4 5 6 7 3 4 8,
a) UXDQ how will STATION be written in that code?
b) VZDQ a) 1 4 5 5 6 7 3
c) VXDQ b) 1 5 4 5 7 6 3
d) VZCQ c) 1 5 5 4 6 7 3
Answer: option b d) 1 5 4 5 6 7 3
Answer: option d
6. If ACELDNRA stands for CALENDAR, what does LEGIBIEL
stands for? 13. In a certain code, ‘PEAK’ is written as ‘3512’ and DINE is
a) LIEGIBLE written as ‘6895’. How is KIND written in that code?
b) ELIGIBLE a) 2396
c) BIGEELIC b) 2896
d) None of these c) 2986
d) 2596 Q2) Who is E’s husband?
Answer: option d 1. B
2. C
14. If 'cook' is called 'butler', 'butler' is called 'manager', 3. A
'manager' is called 'teacher', 'teacher' is called 'clerk' and 4. F
'clerk' is called 'principal', who will teach in the class ? Correct Answer: “3”
a) Cook
b) clerk Q3) How any male members are there in the group?
c) Manager 1. Two
d) Teacher 2. Three
Answer: option b 3. Four
4. Five
15. If 'oranges' are 'apples', 'bananas' are 'apricots', Correct Answer: “3”
'apples' are 'chillies', 'apricots' are 'oranges' and 'chillies'
are 'bananas', then which of the following are green in Q4) How is F related to E?
colour ? 1. Uncle
a) apricots 2. Husband
b) apples 3. Son
c) chilies 4. Daughter
d) bananas Correct Answer: “3”
Answer: option d
Q5) Which of the following is the group of brothers?
16. If 'rat' is called 'dog', 'dog' is called 'mongoose', 1. ABF
'mongoose' is called 'lion', 'lion' is called 'snake', and 2. ABD
'snake' is called 'elephant', which is reared as pet? 3. BFC
a) rat 4. None of these
b) dog Correct Answer: “1”
c) mongoose
d) lion Directions (6-8):
Answer: option c A – B means A is wife of B
A ÷ B means A is brother of B
17. In a certain code, ‘TEACHER’ is written as VGCEJGT. A + B means A is daughter of B
How is CHIL DREN written in that code? A × B means A is son of B
a) EJKNEGTP
b) EGKNFITP Q6) How is A related to D in the given expression?
c) EJKNFGTO A+B–C×D
d) EJKNFTGP 1) Grandson
Answer: option d 2) Granddaughter
3) Daughter
Blood Relations Qs 4) Mother
Directions (1-5): Read the following information carefully
to answer the following questions: There are six persons in Q7) Which of the following symbol will come in place of ?
a family A, B, C, D, E, and F. C is the sister of F. B is the to make the expression Q is daughter-in-law of T true?
brother of E’s husband. D is the father of A and P+Q–R?S–T
grandfather of F. there are two fathers, three brothers and 1) ×
a mother in the group. 2) +
3) –
Q1) Who is the mother? 4) ÷
1. A Correct Answer: “1”
2. B
3. D Q8) In which of the following expressions N is the father of
4. E M?
Correct Answer: “4” 1) M×N÷O – P
2) N-O×P÷M
3) P÷O×M−N
4) None Q2. What is Gagan by profession?
Correct Answer: “1” A) Engineer
Directions (9-11): C) Architect
A is the sister of B. B is married to C. C is the son of D. A is D) Doctor
the mother of E. F is the father of G. F has only 1 son and 1 E) Cannot be determined
daughter. G is the daughter of A. H is the son of B.
Q9) How is H related to D? A) Engineer
1) Granddaughter B) Chartered Accountant
2) Daughter C) Architect
3) Grandson D) Doctor
4) Son E) Cannot be determined
Q4. Height-wise, who among the following lies between
Q10) How is C related to A? Sarthak and Rohan?
1) Brother A) Chartered Accountant
2) Sister B) Engineer
3) Uncle C) Eye Specialist
4) Brother-in-law D) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: “4” E) None of these
Q11) How is E related to B? Q5. Which of the following statements is correct?

1) Uncle A) Gagan lives in Mumbai
2) Son B) Sarthak owns a Verna
3) Niece C) Rohan is a Chartered Accountant
4) Nephew D) Kanika lives in Mumbai
Correct Answer: “4” E) Prachi is an Engineer
Puzzles Correct Answers

Q1 – B
Directions for Questions 01-05: Answer the questions on Q2 – C
the basis of the following information. Q3 – A
Q4 – E
There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Q5 – D
Gagan. Two of them are Doctors, while other three are
Engineer, Architect and Chartered Accountant. A doctor Directions for Questions 06 - 08: Answer the questions on
and the Chartered Accountant own a same car Superb. The the basis of the information given below.
other three own different cars viz. City, Innova and Verna.
Two of the five persons stay in Mumbai, while the other P and Q are two boys and R and S are two girls. There are
three persons live in three different cities viz. Delhi, Pune four adults, out of which A and B are two men and C and D
and Bangalore. The Chartered Accountant is the tallest, are two women. There are two cars - Swift and Jazz - each
while the doctor who is an ENT is the shortest. The other of which can accommodate four persons only. Two
doctor is an eye specialist and lies between the Engineer children and two adults must be in one car. P and B cannot
and Chartered Accountant height wise. Kanika is an eye be in one car. A and S cannot go in one car. C and D cannot
specialist and owns Superb while Gagan lives in Delhi and go in one car. There must be two males and two females in
owns a Verna. The engineer lives in Pune and owns a City. each car.
Prachi lives in Bangalore, while Sarthak lives in Mumbai
and is an ENT. Q6. If A and P go in one car, then who can be the other two
members in the car?
Q1. What is Prachi by profession? A) B and Q
A) Engineer B) D and R
B) Chartered Accountant C) B and C
C) Architect D) D and C
D) Doctor E) None of these
Correct Answer: “Option B”
Q7. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

A) A, D, P and R is not a correct combination
B) B, C, Q and S is not a correct combination
C) A, B, P and R can go in one car
D) A, D, P and R can go in one car
E) None of these
Correct Answer: “Option D”
Q8. Which of the following can be acceptable

combinations of the people in Swift and Jazz cars
respectively?
A) A, B, Q, S and D, R, P, C
B) A, D, P, R and B, C, Q, S
C) D, C, P, R and A, B, Q, S
D) A, D, P, Q and B, C, R, S
E) None of these
Correct Answer: “Option B”

IBPS PO mains-previous year questions of Reasoning
Reasoning is one of the most important and scoring sections in the Bank PO exam. In this e-book we
have compiled IBPS Previous year questions of reasoning. The e-book is based on memory based
questions. Check the questions below for the better preparation of your IBPS PO exam.
Direction (1-2): In the following questions, the symbols #, &, @, * , $, % and © are used with the
following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given
questions:
1. P#Q - P is the son of Q.
2. P@Q - Q is the child of P
3. P©Q - P is the parent of Q
4. P$Q - P is older than Q.
5. P*Q- P is the husband of Q
6. P&Q- Q is the daughter-in-law of P
7. P%Q- P is the wife of Q
Q1. If A@B*D&G%E$F#D then how is F related to A?
1. Grandfather
2. Grandson
3. Daughter
4. Wife
5. None of these
Q2. If H*M©O$N#M, the age of N is 20 years and age of H, is 40 years then what is the probable
age of O?
1. 17 years
2. 15 years
3. 23 years
4. 45 years
5. 12 years
Direction (3-7): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions. Twelve friends
are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance
between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north
and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same
order. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s daughter is immediate neighbour of the one,
who faces R. There are one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. Q is married to F. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother.
Two persons sit between S and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one
of the extreme ends. A is brother-inlaw of B. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is
married to S. only one person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit
one of the extreme ends. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-law sits third to the left of R’s
daughter. P faces E, who sits one of the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits
immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to the left of the one, who
faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is the son-in-law of D.
Q3. Who sits immediate left of the one, who is the sister-inlaw of A?
1. B
2. C’s brother
3. Q’s brother
4. E’s brother-in-law
5. Q
Q4. Who sits second to the left of the one, who faces the person, who sits second to the left of
P?
1. R’s brother
2. Q
3. None are true
4. A
5. S’s husband
Q5. Who is grandmother of B?

1. T
2. D’s mother-in-law
3. Person sits on one of the extreme left ends.
4. E’s mother-in-law
5. All are true
Q6. If P related to A’s sister-in-law in the same way as Q related to R’s daughter. Which of the
following is U related to, following the same pattern?
1. R’s brother
2. C’s brother
3. F
4. A
5. None of these
Q7. Who is the niece of P?

1. B
2. T’s son
3. Q’s wife
4. Q’s sister-in-law
5. Q
Q8. In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Statement: B > C = D ; E < F ; B ≤ A; D ≤ E
Conclusions:
I. A > C
II. B = D
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either conclusion I or II follows
4. Both conclusion I and III follows
5. None follow
Q9. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which
conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Statement:R ≥ T = Q < M; S ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. M < R
II. S ≥ Q
1. Only I is True
2. Only II is True
3. Either I or II is true
4. Both conclusions I and II are True
5. None is True
Q10. DIRECTIONS: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of
the conclusions among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statement: M > N < O ≤ P; S ≥ R > Q = P
Conclusion:
I. S ≥ M
II. S < M
5. None follow
Q11. If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 621754,
then what will be the sum of number/numbers not repeated in the new number?
1. 5
2. 8
3. 6
4. 4
5. 10
Q12. In the word ‘LAVISLY’, replace each vowel with the next letter in the alphabetical series and
each consonant with the previous letter in the Alphabetical Series. How many letters occur more than
once in this newly formed word?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Zero
Q13. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.In a certain
code language,
‘value theme particle around’ is written as ‘tfk dm un ssd’
‘song new theme sing’ is written as ‘dj xy tfk src’
‘sing loud particle mix’ is written as ‘ssd bt src hnm’
‘around theme mix song’ is written as ‘xy un tfk bt’
Q 13. What is the code of ‘around’?
1. Un
2. Dm
3. Dj
4. Src
5. Ssd
Q14. In the coded language, ______ is coded as ‘hnm’
1. Theme
2. Particle
3. Around
4. Loud
5. value
Q15. What is the code of ‘theme sing value’?

1. un xy bt
2. tfk src dm
3. src tfk dj
4. dm src ssd
5. dj hnm bt
Q16. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘73951286’, each of which has as many
digits between them in the number (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them
in the Numeric Series?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. More than Four
5. None
Q17. There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Gagan. Two of them are Doctors,
A Chartered Accountant owns the same car superb. The other three own different cars viz. City,
ENT.
What is Prachi by profession?
1. Engineer
2. Chartered Accountant
3. Architect
4. Doctor
5. Cannot be determined

1. Engineer
3. Architect
4. Doctor

1. Engineer
3. Architect
4. Doctor
Q20. Directions: Use the following information to answer the given questions:
Malad, Andheri, Dadar and ChurchGate respectively after it leaves the base station i.e. Virar.
between only two stations and gets down at ChurchGate station. None of them gets in at
Borivali station.
At which station does Manya get down?

1. Malad
2. Andheri
3. Dadar
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of these

1. Borivali
2. Malad
3. Andheri
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of these

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
1. Next station
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these
Q24. Direction (Q24-25): In each of the following questions, two statements are given & then two
conclusions – I & II are given. Which logical conclusions can be drawn out as per statements?
1. If only the conclusion I is followed.
2. If only conclusion II is followed.
3. If both the conclusions are followed.
4. If both the conclusions are not followed.
1. Statement:
Some fans are walls.
All walls are radio.
Conclusion:
I. Some fans are not radio.
II. All of the radio are not fans.
Correct Answer: 4
Q25. Statement:
Some scooters are trucks.
All trucks are trains.
Conclusion:
Some scooters are trains.
Correct Answer: 1
IBPS PO mains-previous year questions of Reasoning
Reasoning is one of the most important and scoring sections in the Bank PO exam. In this e-book we
have compiled IBPS Previous year questions of reasoning. The e-book is based on memory based
questions. Check the questions below for the better preparation of your IBPS PO exam.
Direction (1-2): In the following questions, the symbols #, &, @, * , $, % and © are used with the
following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given
questions:
1. P#Q - P is the son of Q.
2. P@Q - Q is the child of P
3. P©Q - P is the parent of Q
4. P$Q - P is older than Q.
5. P*Q- P is the husband of Q
6. P&Q- Q is the daughter-in-law of P
7. P%Q- P is the wife of Q
Q1. If A@B*D&G%E$F#D then how is F related to A?
1. Grandfather
2. Grandson
3. Daughter
4. Wife
5. None of these
Q2. If H*M©O$N#M, the age of N is 20 years and age of H, is 40 years then what is the probable
age of O?
1. 17 years
2. 15 years
3. 23 years
4. 45 years
5. 12 years
Direction (3-7): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions. Twelve friends
are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each in such a way that there is equal distance
between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north
and in row 2 P, Q, R, S, T and U, are seated and are facing south, but not necessarily in the same
order. There are four persons sits to the right of R. R’s daughter is immediate neighbour of the one,
who faces R. There are one person sits between R’s son and R’s daughter. Q is married to F. R’s
son-in-law sits third to the left of the one, who faces the person, who is immediate left of A’s brother.
Two persons sit between S and T. R’s brother sits second to the right of R’s sister. S does not sit one
of the extreme ends. A is brother-inlaw of B. A’s father sits second to the right of A’s brother. E is
married to S. only one person sits between A’s brother and R’s mother. R’s son-in-law does not sit
one of the extreme ends. A’s sister-in-law faces S. A’s sister-in-law sits third to the left of R’s
daughter. P faces E, who sits one of the extreme left end. B sits third to the right of E. Q sits
immediate right of the person, who faces R’s wife. R’s mother sits third to the left of the one, who
faces the one, who sits immediate right of R’s son in-law. R’s brother-in-law sits fourth to the left of R’s
wife. C sits diagonally opposite to the one, who is immediate right of U. A is the son-in-law of D.
Q3. Who sits immediate left of the one, who is the sister-inlaw of A?
1. B
2. C’s brother
3. Q’s brother
4. E’s brother-in-law
5. Q
Q4. Who sits second to the left of the one, who faces the person, who sits second to the left of
P?
1. R’s brother
2. Q
3. None are true
4. A
5. S’s husband
Q5. Who is grandmother of B?

1. T
2. D’s mother-in-law
3. Person sits on one of the extreme left ends.
4. E’s mother-in-law
5. All are true
Q6. If P related to A’s sister-in-law in the same way as Q related to R’s daughter. Which of the
following is U related to, following the same pattern?
1. R’s brother
2. C’s brother
3. F
4. A
5. None of these
Q7. Who is the niece of P?

1. B
2. T’s son
3. Q’s wife
4. Q’s sister-in-law
5. Q
Q8. In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the
conclusion(s) among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Statement: B > C = D ; E < F ; B ≤ A; D ≤ E
Conclusions:
I. A > C
II. B = D
5. None follow
Q9. Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which
conclusion among the given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answer accordingly.
Statement:R ≥ T = Q < M; S ≥ R
Conclusions:
I. M < R
II. S ≥ Q
1. Only I is True
2. Only II is True
3. Either I or II is true
4. Both conclusions I and II are True
5. None is True
Q10. DIRECTIONS: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of
the conclusions among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answer
accordingly.
Statement: M > N < O ≤ P; S ≥ R > Q = P
Conclusion:
I. S ≥ M
II. S < M
5. None follow
Q11. If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 621754,
then what will be the sum of number/numbers not repeated in the new number?
1. 5
2. 8
3. 6
4. 4
5. 10
Q12. In the word ‘LAVISLY’, replace each vowel with the next letter in the alphabetical series and
each consonant with the previous letter in the Alphabetical Series. How many letters occur more than
once in this newly formed word?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Zero
Q13. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.In a certain
code language,
‘value theme particle around’ is written as ‘tfk dm un ssd’
‘song new theme sing’ is written as ‘dj xy tfk src’
‘sing loud particle mix’ is written as ‘ssd bt src hnm’
‘around theme mix song’ is written as ‘xy un tfk bt’
Q 13. What is the code of ‘around’?
1. Un
2. Dm
3. Dj
4. Src
5. Ssd
Q14. In the coded language, ______ is coded as ‘hnm’
1. Theme
2. Particle
3. Around
4. Loud
5. value
Q15. What is the code of ‘theme sing value’?

1. un xy bt
2. tfk src dm
3. src tfk dj
4. dm src ssd
5. dj hnm bt
Q16. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number ‘73951286’, each of which has as many
digits between them in the number (both forward and backward direction) as they have between them
in the Numeric Series?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. More than Four
5. None
Q17. There are five persons Sarthak, Prachi, Rohan, Kanika and Gagan. Two of them are Doctors,
A Chartered Accountant owns the same car superb. The other three own different cars viz. City,
ENT.
What is Prachi by profession?
1. Engineer
3. Architect
4. Doctor

1. Engineer
3. Architect
4. Doctor

1. Engineer
3. Architect
4. Doctor
Q20. Directions: Use the following information to answer the given questions:
Malad, Andheri, Dadar and ChurchGate respectively after it leaves the base station i.e. Virar.
between only two stations and gets down at ChurchGate station. None of them gets in at
Borivali station.
At which station does Manya get down?

1. Malad
2. Andheri
3. Dadar
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of these

1. Borivali
2. Malad
3. Andheri
4. Data Inadequate
5. None of these

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
1. Next station
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these
Q24. Direction (Q24-25): In each of the following questions, two statements are given & then two
conclusions – I & II are given. Which logical conclusions can be drawn out as per statements?
1. If only the conclusion I is followed.
2. If only conclusion II is followed.
3. If both the conclusions are followed.
4. If both the conclusions are not followed.
1. Statement:
Some fans are walls.
All walls are radio.
Conclusion:
I. Some fans are not radio.
II. All of the radio are not fans.
Correct Answer: 4
Q25. Statement:
Some scooters are trucks.
Conclusion:
Some scooters are trains.
Correct Answer: 1
Directions [Set of 4 questions]: Ten persons D) F
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I & J are sitting in 2 E) C
parallel rows. five of them are sitting in row 2 ========================
facing south direction while five of them are
sitting in row 1 facing north direction in such Q2. How many shirts were bought by A?
a way that the distance between two adjacent A) 1
neighbours is constant. In giving sitting B) 2
arrangement each member of row faces a C) 3
member of another row. They all bought D) 4
different number of pants & shirts (some
might have equal also). Cost of each shirt is E) None of these
Rs 1200 & cost of each pants is Rs 1800. ========================
Each person bought atleast 1 pants & 1 Q3. Who is facing the person who sits
shirts. All people spent money on buying immediate right of person who spent Rs
pants & shirts only. No two persons spent 9600?
equal amount. No one bought more than A) F
total 7 articles. B) C
A who spent Rs 7,200 sits 3rd to left of C C) D
who faces immediate neighbour of B who
D) H
bought 2 pants. I doesn't sit opposite to
person who bought 2 pants. One of B's E) I
immediate neighbour bought 5 pants. Person ========================
who spent Rs 9000 sits opposite to person Q4. Which of the following statement is false?
who spent Rs 8,400. E faces south & bought A) H spent Rs 9600
5 pants. J faces G. Neither G nor J sit
B) G bought only 1 pants
immediate right of A. Person who sits 3rd to
left of G spent Rs 5,400. Immediate C) F bought equal number of pants & shirts
neighbour of person who spent Rs 5400, D) Number of clothes bought by A is less
spent Rs 9000. Person who spent Rs 6000 than number of clothes bought by person
sits opposite to the person who bought 4 who spent Rs 7800.
pants & 2 shirts. Total amount spent by both E) All are true
the immediate neighbours of H's is Rs ========================
15,000. Person who spent Rs 9600 is not
Directions : First 12 natural numbers are
adjacent to person who spent Rs 9000. Only
written from the bottom to top. The letters of
1 person spent more than I who bought 1
the word 'KITE' are written in alphabetical
shirt. Number of pants bought by J & F is
order against the multiples of 3(One letter
equal. Difference in number of pants bought
against one number from bottom to top).
by H & F is 1. D bought 3 shirts. Number of
Nothing is written against two of these
pants bought by D is equal to number of
numbers and, alphabets L, M, N, O, P and Q
pants bought by G. Amount spent by G is not
were written against rest of the numbers not
the least. Number of pants bought by A & C
is equal. Number of Pants bought by G is half
of number of shirts bought by C. • 3 alphabets were written between T and L
Q1. Four of the following are similar in some • There are two positions in between L and P
way. Find the odd one. • 2 alphabets were written between P and O
A) B • Number of alphabets written between I and
B) I P was equal to the number of alphabets
written between M and O
C) H
• N was written just above Q
• K and L were not written on consecutive means that one is facing towards the centre
positions. and the other is facing outside the centre.
Q5. How many alphabets were written below C sits second to right of A. F is third to right
L? of H. G & H are facing same direction. E is
A) 2 immediate right of D but not opposite to C. D
B) 3 sits third to left of C. A faces towards the
centre. E & F are facing opposite direction.
C) 4 C's immediate neighbours are facing opposite
D) 5 direction. G doesn't sit at the corner. G is not
E) 6 adjacent to A. Not more than 2 people facing
======================== same direction are sitting adjacent to each
Q6. Which of the following alphabets was other.
written against the number 5? B had a pack of well shuffled 52 cards. So,
A) P they decided to change their position
according to the random card picked by
B) M them. They picked card according to
C) O alphabetical order of their names ( like if P, Q
D) No alphabet & R were three friends then P will pick first,
E) N then Q & at last R). Conditions for their
======================== movements are as follows
Directions : Read the following information & 1. If card drawn is spade then person will
answer the question: draw first will move to position 5 facing
towards the centre. Second person to draw
spade card will move to position 6 facing
towards the centre, similarly third person to
position 7 facing towards the centre & So on.
2. If card drawn is heart, then person will not
change his position but will face towards the
centre.
3. If card drawn is diamond then person will
move to the inner circle & will face direction
opposite to his initial direction.
4. If card drawn is club then person who will
draw first will move to position 1 facing same
direction of initial direction. Second person to
draw club card will move to position 2 facing
(here 1, 2, 3, 4 ,5 & so on are position same direction of the initial direction, similarly
numbers) third person to position 3 facing same
8 friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are sitting direction of initial direction & So on.
around the inner square. 4 of them are sitting The cards picked by them are as follows:
at four corners & one on middle of each side a) D picked 5 of spade
of square. some people are facing towards
b) E picked 3 of club
the centre and some opposite to it. If 2
persons are facing the same direction, it c) F picked ace of diamond
means that either both are facing towards the d) A picked 8 of hearts.
centre or both are facing outside the centre. If e) B picked 9 of diamond
2 persons are facing opposite directions, it f) C picked 6 of hearts
g) H picked king of spade Directions : There are two blocks 1 and 2
h) G picked queen of club with two buildings each such that 1 is to the
Q7. How many people changed their west of 2. In each block, the two buildings
direction after shifting? share a common wall and one is to the west
of the other and the western building faces
A) 4 west while the other faces east. Thus, the
B) 5 building facing east of block 1 is facing the
C) 3 building facing west of block 2. The height of
D) 6 each building is 75 ft. There are four flats one
E) N0ne of these above another in each building. Thus, there
are sixteen flats and no two flats have the
======================== same height. The height of each flat is
Q8. Which of the following statements is/are different such that the minimum height of any
true? flat is 9 ft. Each building has a lift whose
I. After shifting, A & H faces same direction. height is equal to the minimum height of a
II. After shifting, 2 people sits between H & E flat in that building. The base of the lift aligns
when counted towards left of H. with the base of the particular floor where it
III. Before shifting, G was second to right of stops. The flats are C, D, E, F, G, H, J, K, L, M,
D. N, O, P, Q, R and S.
A) Only III NOTE: If Y faces Z, then both of them are in
B) Only I & III different blocks facing each other and Y will
C) Only II & III have the same number of flats above and
D) None of these below it as Z. If flat A in building 1 which
faces west and flat Z in building 1 which
E) All of these
faces east have a common back wall, i.e., they
======================== are exactly behind each other, then they are
Q9. Who among the following changed their in the same block and Y will have the same
direction after shifting? number of flats above and below it as Z. If Y
I. A is above Z, then they are in the same
II. C building.
III. D J is immediately above the flat with height 20
IV. H ft. The lowermost flats in each building have
A) Only I , II & III the maximum height among the flats in their
B) Only I & II respective buildings. G is facing K. The flat
C) Only II & III with height 23 ft is immediately below K. P is
exactly behind C. The flat with height 15 ft is
D) All of these
immediately above P. The heights of N and
E) None of these the flat immediately below it are consecutive
======================== numbers. The flats in block 1 which are facing
Q10. After shifting, how many people are east are in ascending order of their heights
facing outside the centre? from top to bottom. There are two floors
A) None above L and it is facing east. The flat with
height 10 ft is above L. The height of S is 28
B) 1
ft and it is facing east. R is below the flat with
C) 2 height 22 ft but not immediately. N is exactly
D) 3 behind the flat with height 18 ft. F is not the
E) 4 topmost flat neither of height 22 ft. There is
======================== one floor in between E and the flat with
height 12 ft. D is facing M. M is facing east.
The height of K is half of that of E. K is above the correct vertical distance from the ceiling
E. There is one floor in between H and Q. The of a lift to the ceiling of the flat where it
height of the flat immediately above H is 13 stands in the corresponding building?
ft. H is below C. A) 2 ft in the building facing west of block 1
Q11. If someone got out of the lift at flat O B) 4 ft in the building facing west of block 2
and the lift stood there and in another C) 8 ft in the building facing east of block 2
building, someone got out at flat E and the
lift stood there. What is the vertical distance D) 4 ft in the building facing east of block 1
between the two lifts (from the base of the lift E) 0 ft in the building facing west of block 2
which is higher from the ground than the ========================
other lift to the ceiling of the other lift)? Directions : Three people A,B and C were
A) 29 ft playing a dice game. According to this game,
B) 41 ft they have to move in certain directions
C) 39 ft according to the number obtained in the dice.
Each of them start from the same point and
D) 53 ft move until any two (or all) of them meet
E) 47 ft again. The rules of the game are as:
======================== · Each of them moves a distance which is
Q12. If somebody got out of the lift at flat H, equal to 10 times the number obtained on
then what is the vertical distance from the the dice.
ceiling of the lift to the ceiling of H? · Each person throws dice alternatively in the
A) 23 ft order A-B-C where A moves on the number
B) 18 ft thrown by B, C moves on the number thrown
C) 10 ft by A and B moves on the number thrown by
C.
D) 24 ft
· The direction for the numbers is as:
E) 0 ft
1- South
========================
2- West
Q13. Which of the following flats are in the
same building? 3- North
A) PJ 4- Moves 90 degrees right
B) ML 5- East
C) OF 6- Moves 90 degrees left
D) LE · There are different rounds of throws no two
observations in any round is same.
E) RG
· The different round observations are given
======================== with some data missing. It is also known that
Q14. Which of the following is a correct the game ends after C's throw in round 6.
combination of a flat and its height? The sum of observations of Round 5 is not
A) F, 10 ft more than 10.
B) M, 9 ft · For each person the observation in any
C) R, 26 ft consecutive round is not same. (For e.g.- if A
D) All of the given gets 1 in round 3, then he cannot get 1 in
round 4 or round 2).
E) Q, 19 ft
======================== A B C
Q15. If all the lifts of the buildings are at the ROUND 1 2 3 5
topmost flats, then which of the following is
ROUND 2 1 4 3 Q19. What would be the dice observation
that B could have got in round 5 and round 6
ROUND 3 6 1 4 respectively?
ROUND 4 4 5 3 A) 4,1
B) 3,2
ROUND 5 5 --- ---
C) 1,4
ROUND 6 3 --- --- D) 6,2
Q16. What would be the dice observation E) 2,6
that C could have got in round 5 and round 6 ========================
respectively? Q20. What is the direction of A with respect
A) 4,3 to B after round 3?
B) 2,5 A) North
C) 1,3 B) East
D) 2,1 C) South east
E) None of these D) North east
======================== E) None of these
Q17. What could be the path followed by C ========================
after round 6 in order to meet if B stops after Directions : Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F
round 6? were seated in a row facing the north. The
I. Move 20m east and then move 60m north. seats were numbered 1-6 from left to right.
Then move 40m west and finally move 10m Each of them rolled a dice only once which
north. had the numbers 1-6. They rolled the dice in
II. Move 40m after turning left. Then move alphabetical order. After each roll, there were
70m north and then move 20m east. some movements based on certain rules.
III. Move 50m west and then move 30m Their final position was based on the
north. Then take a right and move 80m and following points:
finally move 30m north.
• C was 4th to the right of D
A) I only
• The person who rolled 5 was seated at the
B) III only extreme left.
C) I and II • B was 2nd to the left of F who rolled 6
D) II and III • C rolled 2 more than that rolled by A
E) All three paths can be followed • Only B's seat number was same as that the
======================== number he rolled.
Q18. What could be the total number of turns • The one who rolled 1 was seated 2nd from
each person takes till the completion of one of the either ends.
round 6 (order as A-B-C) ? The movements were based on the following
A) 5,5,5 points:
B) 4,5,6 • The one who rolled 1: Swapped places with
C) 6,5,5 the one who rolled 5
D) 4,6,5 • The one who rolled 2: Swapped places with
E) 5,6,6 the one to his immediate left, if not possible,
======================== swapped positions with the person to his
immediate right
• The one who rolled 3: Swapped position D) F
with the person to his immediate right, if not E) A
possible then swapped positions with the ========================
person to his immediate left.
Q25. Which of the following numbers was
• The one who rolled 4: Remained at his rolled by the one who was seated at the
position extreme left end initially?
• The one who rolled 5: swapped position A) 1
with C, if C rolled 5 then swapped position
with B B) 2
• The one who rolled 6: swapped places with C) 3
the one who rolled 2 D) 4
The final arrangement was reached after all E) 5
the above movements were made. ========================
Q21. What was the difference between the Directions : Four couples have come together
initial and final position of A? on a trip such that they are staying in four
A) 1 rooms 101, 102, 103 and 104. They went
B) 2 out for dinner and sat around a circular table
facing centre such that nobody sat
C) 3 immediately next to their spouse.
D) 4 V is sitting third to the left of her husband
E) 5 but they are not staying in room 102. K is
======================== sitting to the immediate left of S. X and his
Q22. What was the position of D with respect wife are staying in room 102. Z is sitting
to the one who rolled 4 in the initial opposite to the man staying in room 103. P
arrangement? is sitting second to the left of the one staying
A) Immediate right in room 102. The immediate neighbor of the
woman staying in room 103 is the man
B) Second to the right staying in room 101. G, who is a male from
C) Third to the right room 101, is sitting adjacent to two females.
D) Fourth to the right Neither P nor the ones staying in room 102
E) Immediate left is a neighbor of V. Neither K, P nor S is
======================== married to V. T is a man and is not sitting
adjacent to anyone from room 104. Only one
Q23. How many persons were seated to the person, who is a male is sitting between X
right of A in the initial arrangement? and S when taken from the right of X. Neither
A) None P nor K is staying in room 103.
B) One Q26. Who is sitting to the immediate right of
C) Two S?
D) Three A) The man staying in room 101
E) Cannot be determined B) The man staying in room 104
======================== C) The woman staying in room 104
Q24. Who was to the immediate left of B in D) The woman staying in room 103
the initial arrangement? E) The man staying in room 103
A) D ========================
B) C Q27. Which of the following is true?
C) E I. K is sitting opposite to his wife.
II. Z is sitting adjacent to two females.
III. Only T is sitting in between X and X's wife ========================
(clockwise from X). Q29. How many vacant floors were there in
A) All the statements R?
B) Both I and II A) 2
C) Both I and III B) 3
D) Both II and III C) 4
E) Only II D) 5
======================== E) 6
Directions : P, Q and R are three adjacent ========================
buildings. P is to the west of Q. Q is to the Q30. What was the difference between the
west of R and P can be considered west of R. floor numbers of A and E?
Each building has different number of floors A) 2
with the lowest floor numbered as 1, floor
above it numbered 2 and so on. The height B) 3
of floors in each building is the same. Only C) 4
few of the floors of these buildings are taken D) 5
and rest are vacant. Maximum of one person E) 6
lives on each floor of a building. ========================
J lived in the floor just above G but in a Directions : Certain number of chairs (more
different building and J was to the west of F. than 5) are placed around the circular table,
F and G lived in different buildings. A lived facing towards the centre. Some of the chairs
3rd from the top of building P. I was to the are vacant and some chairs are occupied by
east of A. I lived on the topmost floor of his persons. Distance between 2 chairs placed
building. I and F lived in the same building. I's adjacent to each other is in consecutive
floor number was thrice as that of J's floor multiples of 3 meters, when we move in
number. B lived in the floor just above H but clockwise direction, starting from the chair of
in a different building. H was to the east of E. person A. Circumference of the circle is 189
H and G lived in different buildings. There meters.
was only one floor between E and J and they
lived in the same building, E's floor number A is sitting on the chair 2nd to the left of the
was more than J's floor number. Building Q chair of F, who is sitting on the chair to the
had more floors than that in building R. D immediate left of P. Only 1 chair is placed
lived in the floor just above A and in another between the chair of A and chair of M, who is
building. D was 5th from the top of his sitting on the chair to the immediate right of
building. D and I lived in different buildings. N. B is sitting on the chair neither adjacent to
B was to the west of C. There were only 2 A nor adjacent to P.
floors between C and I and they lived in the Remaining chairs (if any) are vacant.
same building. No building had more than 15 Q31. How many chairs are placed around the
floors. B lived in the tallest building but not table?
in J's building. A) 6
Q28. How many floors did Q have? B) 7
A) 10 C) 8
B) 11 D) 9
C) 12 E) Cannot be determined
D) 13 ========================
E) 14
Q32. Who among the following is not sitting date of different months. Only the person of
adjacent to vacant chair? 75 kg category will be a guest in October. A's
A) A weight category is less than that of M's.
B) M Based on the conditions, it is known that:
C) P A%, E@, O%, J#
D) N Q34. What is the sum of the weight
E) More than one of the above categories of J and S?
======================== A) 125 kg
Q33. What is the distance (counted along the B) 130 kg
circumference) between F and P, when C) 135 kg
counted from the right of P? D) 140 kg
A) 154 meters E) 145 kg
B) 160 meters ========================
C) 162 meters Q35. How many guests will be there after the
D) 145 meters one whose category is 80 kg?
E) 136 metres A) One
======================== B) Two
Directions : In a sports TV show, seven C) Three
weightlifters have been invited as guests. The D) Four
dates of telecast are 17th, 18th and 19th of E) More than four
August, September and October ========================
consecutively. Each weightlifter plays for
different categories of weight, the lowest Q36. Four of the following five are alike in a
being 60 kg and the rest being consecutive certain way. Find the odd one out.
multiples of 5. Some conditions (with P as an A) MJ
example) are given below regarding the B) SO
players and their weight categories: C) AB
(i) "P@" means that the person who will be a D) BO
guest on the immediate date before P E) EJ
belongs to the category that is just lower
than that of P. ========================
(ii) "P%" means that there is one guest in Directions : Fourteen persons are seated
between P and the one who belongs to the around a rectangular table. Each one has
category that is just lower than that of P. some different amount of money which is a
multiple of 20 and no one has money more
(iii) "P#" means that the difference of the than Rs.290. They are sitting in consecutive
categories of P and the person who will be a alphabetical order going in clockwise
guest on the immediate date before P is 30 direction starting from the person who has
kg. Rs.100.
B and S will be guests in the same month. B's They are sitting such that on each side (edge)
category is heavier than that of S. There are of table, either of 1, 2, 3 or 4 persons are
two guests in between J and the one whose sitting and, no two sides have equal number
weight category is 85 kg. J will not be the of persons sitting along it.
guest in August and his category is not the
heaviest. A will be the guest before S but If any side has even number of persons
after M. M and the one with the lowest sitting along it, then, all the persons of that
weight category will be guests on the same
side face outside while if it is odd, then all D) Either one or two
face inside. E) Either two or three
At each corner one person is sitting who is ========================
either facing inside or outside. Q39. The one having Rs.120 is
The one having maximum amount of money __________________ with respect to the
sits at the corner. Q sits on one of the shorter person immediate right to Q.
sides and is second to left of the one who A) Fourth to left
has Rs.80, who is facing outside. The one
having minimum amount sits third to right of B) Fifth to right
the one having Rs.240, who sits at one of the C) Eighth to right
corner facing inside. The sum of amounts that D) Ninth to right
immediate neighbours of Q have is Rs.260. E) None of these
The ones having Rs.40 and Rs.180 sit on ========================
same side both facing outside and the one
having Rs.40 is second to right of Q, who is Directions : In a certain programme, students
not sitting on that same side. The person have to choose a major subject (among the
sitting immediate right to Q, has Rs.200 and five given below) and one or two minor
is at one of the corners facing outside. The subjects in accordance with the major chosen.
one having Rs.100, who is not adjacent to The programme has 4 semesters. A person in
the one having Rs.240, faces inside and sits 1st semester is junior to the persons in the
immediate left to the one having Rs.160. The other semesters and so on. The conditions for
one having Rs.260 sits on the same side as choosing minor subject are:
the one with Rs.140, who is fifth to left of the (i) If the major subject is Economics, the
one having Rs.220. The sum of amounts with minor subject cannot be Physics or
immediate neighbours of the one having Psychology.
Rs.160 is more than Rs.250. The one having (ii) If the major subject is Mathematics, the
Rs.220 and the one having Rs.60 face in minor subject can be any one subject.
different directions (with respect to (iii) If the major subject is English, the minor
inside/outside). subject has to be Psychology.
Q37. Who among the following are not (iv) If the major subject is Psychology, the
sitting around the given table? minor subjects have to be Accountancy and
I. U any other subject except Mathematics.
II. Y (v) If the major subject is Accountancy, the
III. J minor subjects have to be English and
IV. M Economics.
A) Only I The major and minor subjects for one student
B) Both I and II cannot be the same. The subjects mentioned
C) Both III and IV above are the only subjects taught in the
D) Only III programme each subject must be used at
E) Both II and III least once as a major subject. If a student is
in 2nd semester, his minor subject has to be
======================== Physics (with or without another minor
Q38. Among the ones sitting at the corners, according to his major). If a student is in
how many are facing outside? 3rd semester, his minor subject cannot be
A) None Accountancy or Maths.
B) One Seven friends who were born in seven
C) Two consecutive months of the same year are in
different semesters of the programme. Z was
born in February and has Psychology major. C) Mathematics
Three persons were born in between E and Y. D) Psychology
E was born before Y but E is junior to Y. Only E) None of the above
the youngest person is in 4th semester and
two persons each are in the other semesters. ========================
Both the friends in 3rd semester have Directions : Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G &
Economics major. K was born in the H were sitting around a circular table. Some
immediate month before R. K is senior to R of them were facing towards the centre of the
but not immediately. Both the oldest friends table while others were facing away from the
are in 2nd semester but have different majors. centre of the table. They all had different
D has Accountancy as major subject and is amount of money with them. Not more than 2
junior to Z. D was born after Z. Y was born people facing same direction are sitting
before August but after K. The one born in together. No one has more than Rs 4500.
March has the same major subject as W. W is Amount of money each person has was based
younger than Z. R has English as major on following condition:
subject and was born after May. i) "@" means triple the amount of the person
Q40. What is the minor subject of the person sitting 2nd to right of him (e.g A@ means A's
born in August? amount is triple as that of the amount with
A) Psychology the person sitting 2nd to right of A)
B) Economics ii) "#" means Rs 900 less than the person
C) English sitting to the immediate left (e.g. A# means
A's amount is 900 less than the person
D) Both (b) and (c) sitting immediate left of A)
E) Either of (a), (b) or (c) iii) "%" means Rs 600 more than the person
======================== sitting opposite to him (e.g. A% means A has
Q41. Which of the following is the minor 600 Rs more than the person who is sitting
subject(s) of the person born in the opposite to him)
immediate month before E? iv) "&" means half the amount of the person
A) English and Economics sitting 3rd to the left (e.g. A& means A's
B) Physics and Accountancy amount is half as that of the amount with the
C) Accountancy and English person sitting 3rd to left of A)
D) Accountancy or Physics The sum of amount with F & A is equal to the
amount with E. Both immediate neighbour of
E) Economics or Physics E face opposite direction. G who faces
======================== towards the centre of the table is not
Q42. Who has the same major subject as E? adjacent to A. D who has more than Rs 2500
A) The one who is in the same semester as E is 2nd to left of C. F sits 3rd to right of H who
B) The one who is immediately junior to E is immediate left of the person who has
Rs1600. Both immediate neighbours of
C) The one who is immediately younger to E person who has Rs 1600 face same direction.
D) The one who is immediately senior to E A sits opposite to E. D's immediate neighbour
E) None of the above face opposite directions. The amount with
======================== person sitting immediate left of H is 600 less
Q43. Which of the following subjects is not a than the person sitting 5th to right of H. B
minor subject of at least one person? who faces away from the centre of the circle
sits 2nd to left of E.
A) Accountancy
Also we know, A&, B%, E@, D@, B#
B) Economics
Q44. What is the amount B have?
A) Rs 1600 • M is one of the students, who faces north.
B) Rs 1100 • Sum of roll numbers of students sitting at
C) Rs 1300 the extreme ends is 14, given that both these
D) Rs 2800 roll numbers are even.
E) None of these • M's roll number is multiple of 3.
======================== • P's roll number is half of K's roll number.
Q45. Who sits 3rd to left of the person who • Three students sit between the ones having
has Rs 1600? roll number 12 and 1.
A) No one has Rs 1600 • Sum of roll numbers of students sitting
between K and P is 16, given that both these
B) A roll numbers are less than 10.
C) C • Roll number 2 is sitting fifth to right of roll
D) D number 8.
E) None of these • None of the students facing north have roll
======================== number 3, 4 and 11.
Q46. How many people sit between C & F • Roll number 5 sits second to left of roll
when counted towards right of F? number 7 and, roll number 11 sits second to
A) 3 left of roll number 4.
B) 6 Q48. Who among the following is not sitting
C) None in the given linear row?
I. L
D) 2 II. E
E) 4 III. S
======================== A) Only I
Q47. Which of the following is correct? B) Both I and II
A) H# C) Only III
B) A% D) Both II and III
C) C@ E) All the given
D) F& ========================
E) C# Q49. What is the position of one having roll
======================== number 9 with respect to the one whose roll
Directions : Twelve students are sitting in a number is 3?
linear row from west to east such that taken A) 4th to the right
from west side, first six students are facing in B) 6th to the left
north direction while the remaining six are C) 3rd to the right
facing in south direction. Each one has
different roll number from 1 to 12. D) 5th to the left
The six students who are facing north are E) Immediate right
sitting in consecutive alphabetical order, from ========================
left to right. (as per your left and right) Q50. How many letters in the English
And, the six students who are facing south alphabetical series appear between the
are also sitting in consecutive alphabetical persons sitting at the extreme ends of the
order, from right to left. (as per your left and given row?
right) A) Four
• Two students are sitting between K and P. B) Five
C) Six B) 25th November
D) More than ten C) 26th November
E) Nine D) 21st October
======================== E) 20th October
Directions : Seven persons bought lottery ========================
tickets on different days of the same year. Q53. Which prize did the person who bought
The number of days between the dates of two the tickets immediately after C win?
persons buying tickets immediately before or A) 1st
immediately after is more than 10 days but
less than 14 days (for example, if Y bought B) 2nd
tickets immediately before Z and Y bought it C) 4th
on 1 March, then Z bought tickets on 13, 14 D) 6th
or 15 March). These persons won the seven E) 7th
prizes of the lottery, viz., 1st to 7th. No two ========================
persons bought tickets on the same day or
won the same prize. B bought his tickets Q54. Four of the following five are alike in a
immediately after E and won the 3rd prize. certain way. Find the odd one out.
There were 12 days in between F and the A) 5th, 20th October
one who bought the tickets immediately after B) 6th, 23rd December
him. The one who bought tickets on C) 2nd, 9th December
31st October won the 1st prize. Three persons D) 7th, 31st October
bought tickets between A and G. A won the
E) 3rd, 26th November
immediate prize behind G and bought his
ticket before G. There were 26 days in ========================
between D and F. C bought tickets before E Directions : There are five flats A, B, C, D and
but not immediately. There were 11 days in E on each of the floor of a three floored
between C and the one who bought tickets building. On each floor the flats are such that
immediately after him. The one who won A is to the west of B, B is to the west of C , C
2nd prize bought his tickets before the one is to the west of D and D is to the west of E.
who won 4th prize. The first person to buy the The cost of newly built flats is decided by a
tickets won 5th prize. B bought tickets on builder as below:
14th November. There were 25 days in Cost of each flat (in lakh Rs) from west to east
between E and the one who bought the on each floor is based on the following hints:
tickets immediately before G. C did not buy • The flat worth 61 lakhs was to the
tickets in September. There were 11 days in immediate left of the flat that was worth 89
between A and the one who bought tickets lakhs.
immediately after him.
• The flat worth 72 lakhs was immediately
Q51. On which date did C buy the tickets? below the flat worth 89 lakhs and to the
A) 1st October immediate left of the flat worth 81 lakhs
B) 8th October • The flat that was immediately below the flat
C) 7th October worth 81 lakhs was 3rd to the right of the flat
D) 11th October worth 27 lakhs
E) 13th October • The flat worth 91 lakhs was 3rd to the right
of the flat worth 62 lakhs and was
========================
immediately below the flat that was to the
Q52. On which date did the person who won immediate right of the flat worth 36 lakhs
the 2nd prize buy the tickets?
A) 24th November
• The flat worth 42 lakhs was immediately E) None of these
above the flat worth 56 lakhs and was to the ========================
immediate left of the flat worth 37 lakhs Q56. If both the cards picked are club the
• The flat worth 35 lakhs was 2nd to the left what is the difference between the cost of
flat worth 34lakhs. Flat E on floor 1 and cost of flat B from floor
• One flat on floor 3 was worth 64 lakhs and 2?
one flat on floor 2 was worth 54 lakhs. A) 23lakhs
Note: Any flat exactly above or exactly below B) 35lakhs
means that they have the same flat name (A, C) 19lakhs
B, C, D or E) and were on consecutive floors.
D) 24lakhs
Due to less demands of the flats in the city,
builder decided to offer a strange discount. E) 17lakhs
There is a deck of 10 cards which contains 5 ========================
cards of diamond (♦) and 5 cards of club Q57. If the first card picked is Diamond and
2nd card picked is clubs then what is the
(♣).Two cards are to be picked and the
difference between the cost of flat C from
discount will be given as follows; floor number 3 and cost of flat E from floor
(i) If both cards picked are of diamonds (♦), number 1?
then the cost of flat on floor 3 become equal A) 35lakhs
to the
B) 29lakhs
average cost of flats on floor number 1 and
C) 24lakhs
floor number 2. (The cost of flat A on floor 3
will become the average of cost of flat A from D) 37lakhs
floor 1 and floor 2 and same for flat B, C, D E) 27lakhs
and E) ========================
(ii) If both cards picked are of clubs (♣), Directions : Eight children A, B, C, D, E, F, G
then the cost of flats on floor 1 will become and H were seated around a square park
half of their current cost. The cost of flats on which was built in a way that there were 2
floor 2 will be reduced by 20lakhs. square shaped parks (inner and outer). The
seats were marked as shown below:
(iii) If first card is club (♣) and second is
diamond (♦), the cost of all the flats on each
floor will be equal to the cost of the cheapest
flat of that floor.
(iv) If first card is diamond (♦) and second is
club (♣), then the cost of the flats on floor 1
and floor 3 will be interchanged. (i.e. cost of
flat A on floor 1 will become equal to the
cost of flat A from floor number 3 and vice
versa)
Q55. If the both cards picked are diamond,
then what is the sum of flat A from 3rd floor
and C from floor 1?
A) 84 lakhs Initially they were seated along the inner park
seated facing towards the centre. The
B) 92 lakhs
following information is known about their
C) 94 lakhs initial arrangement:
D) 85 lakhs
1. D's seat number was thrice as that of A's movements, then the person (who was to
seat number. move) remains at his original position.
2. B was seated to the immediate left of D Q58. What was the difference between G's
3. G was seated 3rd to the right of C initial and final seat numbers?
4. H was seated opposite to E who was A) 0
neighbouring G B) 1
5. G's seat number was an even value. C) 2
There were 8 different balls which were D) 3
numbered 1-8 such that no 2 balls had the E) 4
same number. Each person picked a ball ========================
alphabetically without replacement i.e. A
picked a ball followed by B and so on. They Q59. What was the difference between the
changed positions as per the number on the ball numbers of C and D?
ball A) 1
Conditions for their movements was as B) 2
follows: C) 3
1. The person 1st to pick an even valued ball D) 4
moved to position 3 of the outer park. The E) 5
person 2nd to pick an even valued ball shifted ========================
to his immediate right. The person 3rd to pick
an even valued ball moved to position 7 of Q60. What was the position of E with respect
the outer park. The person 4th to pick an to A in the final arrangement?
even valued ball moved to position 2 of the A) Immediate left
outer park. B) Immediate right
2. The person 1st to pick an odd valued ball C) 2nd to the left
moved to position 4 of the outer park. The D) 2nd to the right
person 2nd to pick an odd valued ball moved E) 3rd to the left
to his diagonally opposite seat. The person
========================
3rd to pick an odd valued ball moved to
position 1 of the outer park. The person Directions : Four horizontal lines AB, CD, EF
4th to pick an odd valued ball moved to & GH, each of a different length are stretched
position 8 of the outer park. between different points as shown in figure:
The numbers rolled by them were based on
the following points:
1. Number of the ball picked up by H was 5
more than the ball number of G
2. B's ball number was twice as that of G's • 6 friends Hem, Jim, Raj, Ravi, Ramesh &
ball number Vikas are Sitting in line EF facing north.
3. E's ball number was twice as that of D's Distance between immediate neighbours are
ball number 15 m, 21m, 8m ,12m & 24m (not necessarily
4. The sum of the ball numbers of F and C in same order). Raj sits 45 m to right of
together was 10. C's ball number was greater Vikas. Jim sit 32 m left of Ravi. Neither
than F's ball number Ramesh nor Jim is adjacent to Hem. Hem sits
towards left of Ramesh. Distance between
NOTE: If any required position is already
Ramesh & Jim is a prime number. Person
taken by another person during the
nearest to point F is at the distance of 2m
from point F.
• 6 friends Garima, pooja, Kavya, Kajal, Kanika Directions : Kolkata Night Riders has to play
& Bhanu are sitting in line GH facing north. 2 matches one against Mumbai Indians and
Distance between immediate neighbours are another against Kings XI Punjab. They have
9m, 15m, 16m, 19m & 22m not necessarily already selected 4 player which will play both
in the same order. Garima & Kajal are not the matches & will not charge any fee as they
adjacent. Distance between Pooja & Garima is already had signed a bond with them. Now
not 15m. Distance between Garima & Bhanu they are left with 11 players. They have to
is more than distance between Kanika & select 7 players from these for each match.
Bhanu pooja & Kavya are 41m apart. Kanika Each player plays at least one match.
and Kajal are 9m apart. Pooja sits third to left Fee Charged per
of Kanika who is to immediate right of Kavya. Player Position
match
Bhanu don't sit at extreme position.
There are some movements based on the A Batsman Rs 15,500
following conditions: B Batsman Rs 14,900
Conditions:
Batsman, Wicket-
• In line EF, people whose distance from point C Rs 14,700
Keeper
F is a prime number or a perfect square will
move to line CD. D All rounder Rs 13,000
• In line GH, people whose distance from
Specialist Wicket-
Kajal is a multiple of 3 will move to line AB. E
Keeper
Rs 13,500
Q61. How many people didn't change their
positions? Bowler, Wicket-
F Rs 12,700
Keeper
A) 5
B) 7 P All rounder Rs 12,300
C) 6 Q Bowler Rs 12,900
D) 8
E) None of these R Bowler Rs 11,900
======================== S Bowler Rs 11,500

Q62. After movements, how many people sit
Batsman, Wicket-
in line CD ? T
keeper
Rs 13,800
A) 3
Given conditions are for rest 7 players:
B) 4
· At least 2 players who can play as Wicket
C) 5 keeper (but both players will not play as
D) 6 Wicket-keeper) should be in team.
E) 7 · Team should have atleast 2 batsman, atleast
======================== 1 bowler, Atleast 1 all-rounder & atleast 1
Q63. After movements, who sits 2nd to right wicketkeeper.
of Hem? · If C & F are in same team then C will play as
A) Jim wicket keeper.
B) Raj We have following information about the
C) Ravi team for both the matches.
D) Ramesh · C & T were not playing against same team.
E) No One · Q & S were not playing against same team.
======================== · The team which will play against Kings XI
Punjab has 3 bowlers.
· B is not playing both the games. · G's company was established 5 years after
· The sum of total fee charged by the players H's wife's company
for match against Kings XI Punjab is less than · 2 companies were established between G's
Rs 91,000. company and B's husband's company
Q64. What is the total fees charged by the · B's child established the company
players for the match against Kings XI immediately after C
Punjab? · Three companies were established between
A) Rs 90,900 A's wife's company and D's company
B) Rs 90,600 · C's daughter-in-law established her
C) Rs 90,200 company 3 years after G's son's company
D) Rs 90,100 · A's company was established after B's
E) None of these company but immediately before his mother's
company.
========================
· A's company was not established in 1981
Q65. Who among the following are playing or 1989
against same team?
· A's mother was not the last to establish the
A) A & B company
B) C & B · Not more than 3 persons established the
C) C & A companies before A's sister-in-law
D) D & B · E established the company before F
E) Both (a) & (d) Q67. How was D related to G?
======================== A) Daughter
Q66. Who among the following is/are playing B) Wife
only one match? C) Son
I. D
II. P D) Grand daughter
III. E E) Mother
IV. F ========================
A) I & II Q68. How many companies were established
B) I, II & III before A's father's company?
C) I & IV A) None
D) I, III & IV B) 1
E) IV only C) 2
======================== D) 3
Directions : A family has 8 persons A, B, C, D, E) 4
E, F, G and H. Each person is related to A in ========================
some manner viz. mother, father, brother, Q69. Four of the following bears a similar
sister-in-law, wife, sister and daughter not relationship and hence form a group, who
necessarily in the same order. Each person is among the following is not a part of that
an entrepreneur, and each established his/her group?
own start-up on 10th August but in different A) D
years viz 1973, 1976, 1981, 1983, 1989,
1991, 1992 and 1997 not necessarily in the B) C
same order. Make all the calculations as on C) F
10th august 2019. D) E
E) G
======================== Q71. Which of the following grades did he
Q70. How was G related to the one who get in Geography?
established the company in 1989? A) A
A) Mother B) B
B) Father C) C
C) Brother D) E
D) Sister E) F
E) Daughter ========================
======================== Q72. Which subject apart from Mathematics
Directions : A child got his report card and had a slot of 45 minutes?
saw that he had different grades in different A) Physics
subjects. The grades were A, B, C, D, E and F. B) English
His subjects were History, Geography, C) History
Chemistry, Mathematics, English and Physics
not necessarily in the same order. His D) Chemistry
performance was poor thus, his mother made E) Geography
a timetable for him to follow during his ========================
vacations. The study schedule was divided Q73. At what time did the last slot end?
into six slots of either 45 minutes or 30 A) 11:30AM
minutes each. Each slot was consecutive with
no gap in between. Thus, if he finished one B) 12:00PM
subject at 9:30AM he must start with another C) 12:15PM
subject at 9:30AM. The 1st slot started at D) 12:30PM
8:30AM. E) Cannot be determined
· The subject in which he had 'E' was finished ========================
at 9:45AM Q74. Four of the following bears a similar
· He studied 2 subjects between English and relationship and hence form a group, which
Physics. English was studied before Physics of the following is not a part of that group?
· He had an 'A' in the subject which he started A) F
studying at 10:15AM B) E
· History was finished at 11:30AM C) C
· The subject in which he had a 'D' was D) D
studied for 30 minutes
E) A
· The subject in which he had a 'C' was
========================
studied just after Chemistry
Directions : A mini musical instrument has a
· He had a 'B' in Mathematics which was not
panel which has a grid of buttons which are
studied in the 2nd last slot
in the form of a 7x4 matrix. Each row is of a
· Only Mathematics and one other subject had different colour viz. red, green, black, golden,
a study slot of 45 minutes. white, yellow and blue not necessarily in the
· Chemistry and Mathematics were studied in same order.
consecutive slots · Red row of the panel has 4 buttons with
· He did not have 'F' in Physics numbers in consecutive multiples of 4
· The time period for History slot is greater starting from 16 from the left.
than the time period for Geography slot.
· White row of the panel has 4 buttons with 4 numbers. If the output is negative, ignore the
consecutive primes starting from 23 from the negative sign.
left. 5. If signal has 2 or more same numbers,
· The Black row of the panel has 4 buttons then the same numbers are dropped, and the
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 5 remaining numbers are added to get the
starting from 5 from the left. frequency.
· The Blue row of the panel has 4 buttons Each signal is transmitted in a single string
with numbers in consecutive perfect squares either X or Y or two strings X and Y. The
starting from 9 from the left. resultant value gives the frequency. If there
· The yellow row of the panel has 4 buttons are two strings; values are added.
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 7 Note:
starting from 21 from the left. 1. If only X or Y is given, then only one string
· The green row of the panel has 4 buttons is taken as Input.
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 3 2. The priority of rules is 5>4>3>2>1. Thus,
starting from 12 from the left. if a string has same numbers as well as prime
· The golden row of the panel has 4 buttons numbers, rule 5 will be used to calculate the
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 8 frequency.
starting from 24 from the left. 3. If the resultant value < 45 then P only
· The columns are represented as A, B, C and glows, 45-74: only Q glows, 75-104: only R
D (left to right). The rows are represented as glows, 105-134: only S glows, >134: Only T
@, #, $, %, ^, & and * from bottom to top. glows
There were 3 rows between the black and X = @A, %B, @C; Y=#A, $B, %C
green row. Yellow row was immediately @A denotes value in 1st row and column A
below the black row. There were 2 rows which will be equal to 21
between the yellow and the golden row. The Therefore X = 21 32 35
4th number of the 2nd row from the bottom is
twice as that of its 2nd number (from the left). So, this is satisfying condition 3. Thus,
The blue row was somewhere below the (21x2+35x2)= 42+70= 112
white row but somewhere above the red row. Y = 5 20 40
The instrument panel is connected to a So, this is satisfying condition 4 with prime
display board which has five points P, Q, R, S, number. Thus, frequency will be 60-5= 55
T. Each point has an orange light which glows The values of X and Y are added, and the
after receiving a signal of certain frequency final frequency is 112+55= 167 thus, only
based on certain conditions as follows: signal T glows.
1. If all the values in the string of signal are Q75. What value of Y will make the signal Q
even: The numbers are added, and the sum is glow?
multiplied by 2. A) %A, #C, ^D
2. If all the values of string are odd, then the B) $A, @B, &A
largest number is added to the smallest C) %B, #A, @D
number to get the frequency.
D) ^A, #D, &C
3. If some values in the signals are odd and
rest are even: odd numbers are doubled and E) None of the above
even numbers are dropped. The frequency is ========================
the sum of the resultant numbers. Q76. What minimum value must come in
4. If signal has at least one prime number: the place of '?' in the string so that signal glows
prime numbers are added together, and the at Q. It is known that X= &B, ^C, ?, @C
sum is subtracted from the sum of rest of the A) #C
B) @A and after. The person seated second from the
C) &A west end of row 2 before shifting was
D) #A wearing white shirt. R was seated in the same
row even after shifting and was seated
E) None of the above immediate right of M both the times. P was
======================== not wearing yellow shirt. O was seated to the
Q77. Which of the following signal will glow immediate left of T who was wearing Pink
when X=$A, @C, @D and Y= *C, #A, $D? shirt, both before and after shifting, but in
A) P different rows both the times. S was not
B) Q seated adjacent to either Q or N after shifting.
Q was seated at one of the ends after shifting
C) R and was wearing green coloured shirt.
D) S Q79. Who was seated opposite to the person
E) T wearing red shirt before shifting?
======================== A) R
Q78. Which of the following signal will glow B) M
when X= %D, @B, *A, $D #A? C) T
A) P D) N
B) Q E) None of these
C) R ========================
D) S Q80. Who among the following were seated
E) T in row 1 after shifting?
======================== I. The person wearing green shirt
Directions : Eight people M,N,O,P,Q,R,S and T II. Q
were seated in two different rows such that 4 III. T
people were seated in each row. People A) II and III
seated in row 1 were facing north while B) I and II
people seated in row 2 were facing south. C) II only
After some time, these people took a break
and went for lunch. When they returned, they D) III only
sat in the same two rows but not at the same E) All three
seat in which they were seated before. It is ========================
also known that each of them wore a shirt of Q81. Who among the following were seated
different colour among Pink, White, Green, in same row before shifting among the
Blue, Black, Brown, Yellow and Red. N was following?
seated second from the west end of row 1 I. The person wearing brown shirt
after shifting. The person wearing yellow shirt II. S
was seated to the immediate left of Q but not III. N
opposite to T. The person wearing yellow A) I and III
shirt was seated immediate left of the person
seated opposite to N after shifting. M was B) II and III
seated at one of the ends before shifting and C) I only
opposite to the person seated in row 1 D) II only
wearing black shirt after shifting. P was E) All three
seated at the east end of row 1 before ========================
shifting. The person wearing brown shirt who
was not N was seated to the immediate left of Q82. Four out of 5 are alike in certain way.
the person wearing blue shirt in both before Find the odd from the rest.
A) N,Q D) 31
B) R,S E) 32
C) T,R ========================
D) O,N Q84. How many stacks are in between the
E) Q,O ones to be sent on 4 August and 28
======================== September?
Directions : Some stacks of boxes are kept in A) 21
a linear row from west to east. Each stack of B) 20
boxes contain either books, laptops, or shoes. C) 3
These stacks will be sent to various locations D) 2
on different dates such that no two stacks will E) 13
be sent on the same day. Also, the dates in
which these stacks will be sent are multiples ========================
of 4 only. No two adjacent stacks contain the Q85. Which of the following stacks can be
same thing. No two adjacent stacks will be adjacent to the one to be sent on 4 August?
sent in the same month or on consecutive A) A stack of books to be sent on 4
dates or on the same date of different September
months. There are only seven stacks of shoes B) A stack of shoes to be sent on 12
which will be sent in September. There are September
five stacks to the west of the stack that will C) A stack of mobiles to be sent on 24
be sent on 24 September. A stack of laptops August
will be sent on 12 July. There are eight boxes
in between the stacks to be sent on 12 July D) A stack of shoes to be sent on 8
and 28 October. Less than three stacks are in November
between the ones to be sent on 12 July and E) A stack of books to be sent on 24 October
12 September. The one to be sent on 12 ========================
September is to the right of that of 12 July. Q86. Which of the following stacks can be to
The stack of books to be sent on 4 August is the immediate left of the one to be sent on
kept to the immediate right of that to be sent 12 September?
on 28 October. The stack to be sent on 8 A) A stack of books to be sent on 24 October
September is fourth to the right of the one to
B) A stack of books to be sent on 24 July
be sent on 12 September. The stack to be
sent on 28 September is seventh to the right C) A stack of mobiles to be sent on 16 July
of the one to be sent on 8 September. The D) A stack of laptops to be sent on 24
eastern most stack will be sent on 8 August August
which has books. Five stacks are in between E) Either (a) or (b)
the ones to be sent on 28 September and 8 ========================
August. There are five stacks in between the
Directions : Equal number of people are
stacks to be sent on 24 September and 12
sitting on two parallel benches facing each
September. The ninth stack from the west
other. The persons of bench 1 are facing
does not have laptops. There is at least one
south while those of bench 2 are facing
stack to the west of the one which is sent on
north. Each person of bench 1 is exactly
28 October.
facing another person on bench 2. F is facing
Q83. How many stacks are in the row? J. Three persons are sitting in between F and
A) 27 A. N is facing C. A is facing the person who is
B) 28 sitting to the immediate right of T. S is sitting
C) 29 to the immediate left of T. Four persons are
sitting to the left of S. K is sitting fifth to the
left of C. K is sitting second to the left of the 3 is represented as ##
person facing L. A is sitting fourth to the right 4 is represented as #&&
of L. O is facing south. Y is sitting second to 5 is represented as #&# and so on.
the right of O. Five persons are sitting in
between R and Y. R is sitting to the There are 3 flats A, B and C, on each of the
immediate left of G. G is sitting second to the floor of a three floored building. On each
left of N. B is sitting fourth to the right of C. floor the flats are such that A is to the west of
As many persons are sitting to the left of O B and B is to the west of C. The cost of newly
as to the right of F. built flats is decided by a builder as below:
Q87. How many persons are sitting on both Cost of each flat (in lakh Rs) from west to east
the benches together? on each floor is given as follows:
A) 56 Floor 3: ###&#, #&##&, #&&##&&
B) 54 Floor 2: ####&, #&&&##, ####&&
C) 28 Floor 1: ####&#, ###&#&, #&##&&
D) 50 Due to less demands of the flats in the city,
builder decided to offer a strange discount.
E) 34 There was a dice with him with numbers 1-6.
======================== Each time a customer came to see the flats,
Q88. Which of the following persons is sitting the builder asked the customer to roll the
exactly in the middle of the rows (i.e., equal dice twice.
number of persons are to his left and right)? (i) If both the numbers rolled are even, the
A) C price of all the flats are reduced by the cost
B) The person sitting to the immediate right of the cheapest flat on that floor. The
of N cheapest flat of each floor has no discounts.
C) The person sitting to the immediate left of (ii) If both numbers are odd, the cost of all
N the flats are reduced by 5 lakhs
D) There are even number of persons on each (iii) If first number is even and second number
bench is odd, no discount is applicable unless at
E) The person sitting second to the right of C least one of the numbers is greater than 5. In
that case the cost of each flat is reduce to
======================== half of its original value.
Q89. What is the position of R with respect to (iv) If first number is odd and second number
the person sitting at the extreme right end of is even then the cost of all the flats become
his bench? the reversed values. For example, if the initial
A) 10th to the left price was 63 lakhs, it would become 36 lakhs
B) 11th to the left after the discount. If the new price is more
C) 15th to the left than the initial price for any flat, then no
D) 16th to the left discount is applicable, and the price remains
unchanged.
E) 17th to the left
Note: Any flat exactly above or exactly below
======================== means that they have the same flat name (A,
Directions : In a certain number system there B or C) and were on consecutive floors. The
are only two notations to denote the floors were numbered 1-3 from bottom to
numbers: & and #. top.
0 is represented by & and 1 is represented Q90. If the first number rolled was 6 and the
by # 2nd number rolled was 3 then what would be
2 is represented as #& the difference between the 2nd cheapest and
the 3rd costliest flat in the building (after between the marriages of M and L. M got
discounts)? married on 27th. A got married immediately
A) 17lakhs before T at the same place. Two couples got
B) 13lakhs married between P and J. P got married
before J but after A. F got married in
C) 15.5lakhs February but not with G. D got married in
D) 19lakhs Mumbai. There were 11 days between the
E) None of these marriages of D and E. The ones who married
======================== in February did not get married in Mumbai.
Q91. If a customer rolls 2 numbers such that There were 4 days in between the marriages
the difference between the numbers was 5 of F and V. A got married before E. J did not
and the 1st number was smaller than the get married last or on 2nd February. R did not
2nd number, then which of the following will marry A or D. P did not marry E. P did not
be the sum of all the flat A's? get married on 15th.
A) 56lakhs Q93. Which of the following persons got
married in Mumbai before P?
B) 49lakhs
A) Nobody
C) 48lakhs
B) T
D) 58lakhs
C) D
D) E
========================
E) J
Q92. If a customer rolls 2 and 4 then which
of the following would be the difference ========================
between the 3rd cheapest and the costliest Q94. What is the date of marriage of F?
flat in the building (after discounts)? A) 4 February
A) 38lakhs B) 7 February
B) 29lakhs C) 8 February
C) 44lakhs D) 1 february
D) 40lakhs E) 12 February
E) 46lakhs ========================
======================== Q95. What is the date of the marriage of the
Directions : Seven couples got married on first couple to get married in Mumbai?
different days of the same year. The number A) 8 January
of days between the dates of two couples B) 11 January
who got married immediately before or C) 14 January
immediately after is more than 3 days but
less than 7 days (for example, if Y got D) 15 January
married immediately before Z and Y married E) 27 January
on 1 March, then Z got married on 5, 6 or 7 ========================
March). No two couples got married on the Q96. Who got married in the same month
same day. Each couple got married either in and in the same place as T (apart from his
Mumbai or Delhi. C got married in Delhi on spouse)?
20 January. M and Q married each other in A) E
Mumbai. Three couples got married between
E and G. E got married before G and they B) C
married at the same place. R got married C) P
immediately before L. There were 10 days in D) Q
E) R E) none of these
======================== ========================
Q97. What is the number of days in between Q100. What is the total distance travelled by
the dates of the marriages of C and L? R?
A) 17 A) 150m
B) 16 B) 135m
C) 15 C) 85m
D) 21 D) 175m
E) 22 E) none of these
======================== ========================
Directions : Eight people M,N,O,P,Q,R,S and T Explanation/Solution:-
were seated in a linear row facing north. The • A who spent Rs 7,200 sits 3rd to left of C
distance between any two consecutive people who faces immediate neighbour of B who
was 15m. M was seated third to the left of P. bought 2 pants.
R was seated to the left of S. Three people • One of B's immediate neighbour bought 5
were seated to the right of T. N was seated to pants.
the immediate left of O but not at any end.
Two people were seated between S and Q • J faces G. Neither G nor J sit immediate right
where S was to the left of Q. of A.
After some time some of these people started
moving in certain directions. S moved 10m
south and then certain distance in east
direction and finally some distance in north
direction to reach 10m north of N. R moved
20m north then moved certain distance in
east direction to reach 20m north of Q, Then
he moved certain distance in south direction
and then east to reach 20m south of N.P
moved 30m north and then certain distance • Person who sits 3rd to left of G spent Rs
in west direction and finally south to reach 5,400.
10m north of M. • Each person bought atleast 1 pants & 1
Q98. What is the total distance travelled by shirts.
S? • All people spent money on buying pants &
A) 75m shirts only.
B) 100m So case 2 & case 3 are eliminated.
C) 90m
D) 85m
E) none of these
========================
Q99. How many people were seated between
M and T?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 5
D) 2
• One of B's immediate neighbour bought 5
pants.
• Each person bought atleast 1 pants & 1
shirts.
So case 4 is eliminated.
• Total amount spent by both of H's

immediate neighbour is Rs 15,000.
• No two persons spent equal amount.

• Immediate neighbour of person who spent
Rs 5400, spent Rs 9000.
• Person who spent Rs 9000 sits opposite to
person who spent Rs 8,400.
• E faces south & bought 5 pants.

• One of B's immediate neighbour bought 5
pants.
So for B,
2 * 1800 + S * 1200 = 8400
S= 4 (shirts bought by B).
• E faces south & bought 5 pants.
• Person who spent Rs 6000 sits opposite to Number of pants bought by F is not 5
the person who bought 4 pants & 2 shirts. because then amount spent by F will be Rs
So person who bought 4 pants & 2 shirts 10,200 or Rs 11,400 which is not possible
spent Rs 9600. because no two-person spent equal amount.
• Person who spent Rs 9600 is not adjacent So, J also bought 3 Pants.
to person who spent Rs 9000. Now for J,
3 * 1800 + S * 1200 = 6600
S = 1 (number of shirts bought by J)
As, F bought 3 pants, so he cannot amount
spent by F should be more than Rs 5400. So
F spent Rs 9,000.
Now for F,
3* 1800 + S * 1200 = 9000
S = 3 (number of shirts bought by F)
• Only 1 person spent more than I who

bought 1 shirt.
• No one bought more than total 7 articles.
So, amount spent by I should be more than
Rs 9,600 because E have spent more than Rs • D bought 3 shirts. Number of pants bought
9,600 as (he bought 5 pants that cost 9,000 by D is equal to number of pants bought by
& number of shirts bought by him is unknown G.
but his total amount will exceed Rs10000 • Amount spent by G is not the least.
because at least 1 shirt is bought by each So for D,
person) & amount spent by I cannot Rs
9,600. P * 1800 + 3 * 1200 = 5400
Therefore I bought 5 pants , so I spent Rs P = 1 (number of pants bought by D).
10,200. So number of pants bought by G is 1.
(If I had bought 6 pants then amount spent Now G's amount is not least so it should be
by him will be Rs 12,000 & no one could more than D that means G should buy more
have spent amount more than him as than 3 shirts.
maximum number of articles bought by a Now G cannot buy 4 shirts because then
person is 7) amount spent by him will be equal to amount
So E bought 2 shirts. spent by J.
So case 1-b is eliminated because no place is Also G cannot buy 6 shirts because then
available for I. amount spent by him will be equal to amount
spent by F.
So only option left is 5, So G bought 5 shirts.
• Number of pants bought by J & F is equal.

• Difference in number of pants bought by H
& F is 1. • Number of pants bought by A & C is equal.
So F bought 3 pants. • Number of Pants bought by G is half of
number of shirts bought by C.
So, number of shirts bought by C = 2. 12 T
Now for C,
11
P * 1800 + 2* 1200 = 6000
P = 2 (number of pants bought by C. 10
So number of pants bought by A = 2. 9 K
Now for A,
8
2 * 1800 + S * 1200 = 7200
S = 3 (number of shirts bought by A) 7
6 I
3 E
• I doesn't sit opposite to person who bought
2 pants. 2
So case 1-a-ii is eliminated 1
• 3 alphabets were written between T and L
• L and P were written at a gap of 2 places
• 2 alphabets were written between P and O
Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 Case 4
12 T T T T
11 P
10 xxx P
Q1 - E 9 K K K K
Explanation/Solution:- 8 L O
Except C, all other bought total 6 clothes.
Q2 - C 7 O L L L
Explanation/Solution:- 6 I I I I
A bought 3 shirts
5 xxx
Q3 - A
Explanation/Solution:- 4 P P
F is facing the person who sits immediate 3 E E E E
right of person who spent Rs 9600
2
Q4 - E
Explanation/Solution:- 1 O
All the statements are true. Case 1 is invalid as there are only 2
Explanation/Solution:- alphabets between T and L. Case 4 is invalid
'KITE' when written alphabetically becomes as 2 alphabets cannot be placed between P
'EIKT' and O
Case 1 Case 2 Explanation/Solution:-
No alphabet was written against 5
12 T T
Explanation/Solution:-
11 • C sits second to right of A.
10 • D sits third to left of C.
• A faces towards the centre.
9 K K
8 O
7 L L
6 I I
5 xxx
4 P P
3 E E
1 O
• Number of alphabets written between I and
P was equal to the number of alphabets
written between M and O. Thus, case • E is immediate right of D but not opposite
to C.
• N was written just above Q
case 1 & 4 are eliminated because this
12 T condition is not possible there.
11 N
10 Q
9 K
8 xxx
7 L
6 I
• F is third to right of H.
5 xxx
4 P
3 E
2 M
1 O
Q5 - D
Explanation/Solution:- • G doesn't sit at the corner.
5 alphabets were written below L • G is not adjacent to A.
Q6 - D
So case 3 is eliminated as no such place
available for G.
Q7 - A
C,F, B& D has changed their directions
• F is third to right of H. Q8 - B
• G & H are facing same direction. Explanation/Solution:-
• Not more than 2 people facing same Only option (B) is correct
direction are sitting adjacent to each other.
Q9 - C
So,
Option C is correct.
Q10 - A
After shifting no one is facing outside the
centre.
G is facing K. The flat with height 23 ft is
immediately below K. There is one floor in
between E and the flat with height 12 ft. The
height of K is half of that of E. K is above E.
• E & F are facing opposite direction. So, E cannot have an odd height.
• C's immediate neighbours are facing Case 1: E is facing east.
opposite direction.
So, in the building facing east of block 1: 24

+ 23 + 12 + 16 = 75. The flats in block 1
which are facing east are in ascending order
of their heights from top to bottom. So, case
1 is invalid.
Case 2: E is facing west. P is exactly behind C. The flat with height 15
ft is immediately above P. P can't be the
topmost flat. H is below C. Cases (i) and (ii)b
are invalid. There is one floor in between H
and Q. The height of the flat immediately
above H is 13 ft.
D is facing M. M is facing east.
R is below the flat with height 22 ft but not

immediately. The flats in block 1 which are
facing east are in ascending order of their
There are two floors above L and it is facing heights from top to bottom. So, R can't be in
east. block 1. The flat with height 10 ft is above L.
The height of S is 28 ft and it is facing east.
The heights of N and the flat immediately

below it are consecutive numbers. N is exactly
behind the flat with height 18 ft. N can't be in
block 1 as M can't be of greater height than
G.
J is immediately above the flat with height 20 The lowermost flats in each building have the
ft. maximum height among the flats in their
respective buildings. So, J = 9 ft and H = 33
ft. F is not the topmost flat neither of height
22 ft.
We know height of M < G. M can't be 10, 12

and 13 ft. If M is of height 9 ft, then P = 23
So, the heights of the lifts in the buildings
ft, not valid as N is 23 ft. If M = 14, P = 18
from west to east are respectively: 9 ft, 11 ft,
ft, not valid as L = 18 ft. So, M = 11 ft and P
12 ft and 10 ft.
= 21 ft.
Q11 - B
Lift at O = 10 ft, lift at E = 12 ft.
Now, 75 - 22 (height of O) = 53 ft
Height of lift in building facing west of block
53 - 12 (height of lift at E) = 41 ft 1 = 9 ft, so vertical distance = 0 ft
Q12 - D Height of lift in building facing east of block
Explanation/Solution:- 1 = 11 ft, so vertical distance = 0 ft
Height of lift in building facing west of block
2 = 12 ft, so vertical distance = 16 - 12 = 4
ft
Height of lift in building facing east of block
2 = 10 ft, so vertical distance = 22 - 10 =
12 ft
ROUND 1 -
A (2)- So C will move 20m west
B (3)- So A will move 30m north
C (5)- So B will move 50m east
Height of lift at H = 9 ft
H - 9 = 33 - 9 = 24 ft
Q13 - C
O and F are in the same building.
Q14 - A
F is of height 10 ft.
Q15 - B Round 2-
Explanation/Solution:- A (1)- So C will move 10m south
B (4)- So A will turn 90 degrees right and will
move 40m
C (3)- So B will move 30m north.
So after round 5, C will move 50m east and
after round 6, C will move 30m north.
Note : Red , blue and green colour represent

the movement of C, A and B respectively.
For round 3-
A (6)- So C will turn left 90 degrees and will
move 60m
B (1)- So A will move 10m south
C (4)- So B will turn right 90 degrees and will
move 40m
Now we know that the game ends after round

6, So 2 people have to meet.
For this either A and B will meet or B and C
or C and A or all three of them.
So we can observe that there is no possibility
that either A or B will meet C.
For round 4- So in order to end the game, A and B will
A(4)- so C will move 40m after turning right meet after the end of round 6.
B(5)- so A will move 50m east The sum of observations of Round 5 is not
more than 10.
C(3)- so B will move 30m north
So from the above condition we have only
one possibility where B moves 20m west in
round 5 and in round 6, moves 10m south.
Also A moves 30m north and then 20m west.
So the throws by
B - 3 in round 5 and 2 in round 6
C - 2 in round 5 and 1 in round 6
A B C
ROUND 1 2 3 5
ROUND 2 1 4 3
ROUND 3 6 1 4
ROUND 4 4 5 3
Now after round 5 and round 6 the game has ROUND 5 5 3 2
to end, so we have:
We know the observation of A's throw which ROUND 6 3 2 1
means we can trace the path for C:
• C was 4th to the right of D
• B was 2nd to the left of F who rolled 6
• Only B's seat number was same as that the
number he rolled.
Q16 - D
the dice observation that C got in round 5
and 6 is 2 and 1 respectively.
Q17 - C • C rolled 2 more than that rolled by A, thus,
Explanation/Solution:- 2nd arrangement is invalid.
Path I and path II can be followed by C to Thus, the final arrangement was as follows:
meet B.
Q18 - A
the total number of turns each person takes
till the completion of round 6 (order as A-B- The dice was rolled one by one in the
C) is 5,5,5. alphabetical order i.e. A-F. If we need to
Q19 - B reach the initial arrangement, then we need
to move backwards i.e. from F-A. Also any
movement made in the left when in forward
the dice observation that B could have got in (A-F) should be taken in the right when
round 5 and round 6 are 3 and 2 traced in the backward direction (F-A)
respectively.
F rolled 6: The one who rolled 6: swapped
Q20 - E places with the one who rolled 2
A is in south west direction with respect to B
after round 3.
• The person who rolled 5 was seated at the E rolled 5: swapped position with C, if C
extreme left. rolled 5 then swapped position with B
• The one who rolled 1 was seated 2nd from
one of the either ends.
D rolled 1: Swapped places with the one who C was to the immediate left of B in the initial
rolled 5 thus, with E arrangement
Q25 - D
C rolled 4 and was at the extreme left end
initially.
C rolled 4: Remained at his position
P is sitting second to the left of the one
staying in room 102. Neither P nor the ones
staying in room 102 is a neighbor of V.
B rolled 3: Swapped position with the person X and his wife are staying in room 102. Z is
to his immediate right, if not possible then sitting opposite to the man staying in room
swapped positions with the person to his 103.
immediate left. As the movement is being So, Z is not sitting opposite to X. Also, X is
traced backwards, B must have swapped not the husband of V.
positions with the one to his immediate left Case 1a: P is sitting to the immediate right of
V's husband.
A rolled 2: Swapped places with the one to

his immediate left, if not possible, swapped
positions with the person to his immediate
right. As the movement is being traced
backwards, A must have swapped positions
with the one to his immediate right.
Thus, the initial position was as follows:
Let P is sitting second to the left of X's wife.
So, X cannot sit near his wife. Also, one
person is sitting between X and S. As V is not
married to S. So, X must be sitting to the
Q21 - B immediate right of V.
A was initially on seat 6 and was on seat 4
finally
Q22 - D
D was 4th to the right of C in the initial
arrangement
Q23 - A
Nobody was to the right of A initially But the ones staying in room 102 are not
Q24 - B neighbours of V. So, case 1a is invalid.
Explanation/Solution:- Case 1b: P is sitting to the immediate right of
V's husband. P is sitting second to the left of
X.
But one person is sitting between X and S.
So, case 1b is also invalid. Let Z be V's husband.
Case 2a: P is sitting to the immediate left of
V's husband. P is sitting second to the left of
X's wife.
So, neither V nor S will be in room 103. The

immediate neighbor of the woman staying in
room 103 is the man staying in room 101.
The only seat for X will be second to his If P is the man staying in room 101, then G
wife's right. So, S will be X's wife. K is to the will be between V and S, i.e. S is a woman.
immediate left of S.
But S is not V's husband. So, case 2a is Hence, V is staying in room 104 and T will be
invalid. the woman in 103. But T is a man and G is a
Case 2b: P is sitting to the immediate left of male from room 101. So, case 2b is invalid.
V's husband. P is sitting second to the left of Case 2c: P is sitting to the immediate left of
X. V's husband. P is sitting second to the left of
Only one male is sitting between X and S X. Z will be sitting opposite to V's husband.
when taken from the right of X.
ROOM Husband Wife
101 G S
102 X P
103 T V
104 K Z
Q26 - C
So, G will be between V and P, i.e., P is a Z, the woman staying in room 104, is sitting
woman and T is V's husband. T is not sitting to the immediate right of S.
near to anyone from room 104. Q27 - D
Both II and III are true. K is not sitting
opposite to his wife.
· J lived immediately above G and was to the
west of F.
· F and G lived in different buildings.
· B lived immediately above H
· H was to the east of E. H and G lived in
different building
As nobody is next to their spouse, so: · There was only one floor between E and J
i.e. they lived in the same building, E's floor
number was more than J's floor number.
· B lived immediately above H

· I and F lived in the same building
· B was to the west of C.
So, the final seating arrangement is as · There were only 2 floors between C and I,
follows: i.e. they lived in the same building.
· D was 5th from the top of his building
· A lived 3rd from the top of building P
· I was to the east of A. I lived on the topmost
floor of his building · Building Q had more floors more than that
in building R. Thus, 3rd arrangement is invalid.
· D lived immediately above A. D was 5th from
the top of his building
· No building had more than 15 floors.
· I's floor number was thrice as that of J's
floor number. In either of the cases, J's
minimum floor number will be 2. If J's floor
number is 2, I's floor number will become 8
instead of 6. If J's floor number is 3, I's floor
number will be 9. If J's floor number is 4, then
I's floor number will be 12. D's floor number
will be 13 and his building would have 17
floors, which is not possible. Thus, J's floor
number is 3
· B was to the west of C.

· B lived in the tallest building but not in J's
building. Thus, 1st arrangement is invalid.
· I was to the east of A. I lived on the topmost

floor of his building
· D lived immediately above A. D was 5th from
the top of his building
· A lived 3rd from the top of building P
· Building Q had more floors more than that
in building R.
· D and I lived in different buildings.
Case 2: -
Q28 - E
Q had 14 floors
Q29 - D Case 3: -
There were 5 vacant floors in R
Q30 - C
A lived on floor 9 and E lived on floor 5. The
difference is 4
Total circumference of the circle = 189
meters
Case 1: - Distances = 9 + 12 + 15 + 18 +
21 + 24 + 27 + 30 + 33 = 189 meters
Case 2: - Distances = 18 + 21 + 24 + 27 +
30 + 33 + 36 = 189 meters Only 1 chair is placed between the chair of A
and chair of M, who is sitting on the chair to
Case 3: - Distances = 24 + 27 + 30 + 33 + the immediate right of N.
36 + 39 = 189 meters
So, case 1 is invalid.
A is sitting on the chair 2nd to the left of the
chair of F, who is sitting on the chair to the Case 2: -
immediate left of P.
Case 1: -
Q32 - D
N is sitting adjacent to vacant chair.
Q33 - C
30 + 33 + 9 + 12 + 15 + 18 + 21 + 24 =
162 meters
The dates of telecast are 17th, 18th and
19th of August, September and October
consecutively. Only the person of 75 kg
Case 3: - category will be a guest in October. So, the
dates are 17 August to 17 October.
The lowest category is 60 kg and the rest are
consecutive multiples of 5, so we get the
categories as: 60, 65, 70, 75, 80, 85 and 90.
J# means that the difference of the categories
of J and the person who will be a guest on
the immediate date before J is 30 kg. The
only valid case is 90 - 60 = 30.
J's category is not the heaviest. So, J is of
category 60 kg.
There are two guests in between J and the
one whose weight category is 85 kg. J will
not be the guest in August.
B is sitting on the chair neither adjacent to A
nor adjacent to P. Date of
Case 1 Case 2 Case 3
telecast
So, case 2 is invalid.
Remaining chairs (if any) are vacant. Play Weig Play Weig Play Weig
Final Solution: er ht er ht er ht
17
85
August
18
85
August
19
90 85
August
17
Septemb J 60 90
er
18
Septemb J 60 90
Q31 - D er
9 chairs are placed around the table.
19 18 September B/S J 60
Septemb J 60
er 19 September S/B S/B
17 17 October 75 75
75 75 75
October
E@ means that the person who will be a
M and the one with the lowest weight guest on the immediate date before E
category will be guests on the same date of belongs to the category that is just lower
different months. than that of E. In both the cases, E must be a
guest on 17 October. So, the one on 19
Date of
Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 September is of category 70 kg.
telecast
Date of telecast Case 1 Case 2
Play Weig Play Weig Play Weig
er ht er ht er ht Player Weight Player Weight
17 17 August M 85
/M 85
August
18 August A/ M 85
18
M 85
August 19 August /A 90 A
19 17 September J 60 B/S 90
90 M 85
August
18 September B/S J 60
17
Septemb J 60 90 19 September S/B 70 S/B 70
er
17 October E 75 E 75
18
Septemb J 60 90
Case 2: B's category is heavier than that of S.
er Date of telecast Case 2
19 Player Weight
Septemb J 60
er 17 August O
17 18 August M 85
M/ 75 75 75
October
19 August A
B and S will be guests in the same month. A
will be the guest before S but after M. So, B 17 September B 90
and S must be the guests in September. So, 18 September J 60
case 3 is invalid.
Date of telecast Case 1 Case 2 19 September S 70
Player Weight Player Weight 17 October E 75

O% means that there is one guest in between
17 August M 85
O and the one who belongs to the category
18 August A/ M 85 that is just lower than that of O. But the only
categories left are 80 kg and 65 kg. So, case
19 August /A 90 A 2 is invalid.
17 September J 60 B/S 90
Case 1: B's category is heavier than that of S.
The only categories left are 80 kg and 65 kg.
A's weight category is less than that of M's.
Date of telecast Case 1(i) Case 1(ii)
Player Weight Player Weight
17 August M 85 M 85
18 August A 80 A 65
· The person sitting immediate right to Q, has
19 August O 90 O 90 Rs.200 and is at one of the corners.
17 September J 60 J 60 · The sum of amounts that immediate
neighbours of Q have is Rs.260.
18 September S 65 B 80
Since, one of the neighbour has Rs.200, so,
19 September B 70 S 70 other has Rs.60.
We know,
17 October E 75 E 75
If any side has even number of persons
But there is one guest in between A and the sitting along it, then, all the persons of that
one who belongs to the category that is just side face outside while if it is odd, then all
lower than that of A. So, case 1(i) is invalid. face inside.
Case 1(ii) is the final schedule of the guests. In case I: if Q faces inside, then only Q sits on
Q34 - B that side (1 person) while if Q faces outside,
Explanation/Solution:- then on the Q's side, either 2 or 4 persons
J + S = 60 + 70 = 130 kg might sit.
Q35 - B In case II: only possibility to place one with
Explanation/Solution:- Rs.200 is when Q faces inside, but then at
the Q's side, there should be either 1 or 3
Two guests will be there after B, whose persons, which is not possible. Hence, case II
category is 80 kg. becomes invalid.
Q36 - D In case III: possibility is only when Q faces
Explanation/Solution:- inside, but then the one with Rs.80 is facing
The given pairs will be guests on the same outside, which is not possible, hence, case III
date of different months. BO is the odd pair also becomes invalid.
out as they will be guests on different dates Thus, we get,
(18 and 19 respectively).
There are 14 persons, and no one has more
than Rs.290, so amounts with them are 20,
40, 60, 80, 100, 120, 140, 160, 180, 200,
220, 240, 260 and 280.
· Q sits on one of the shorter sides and is
second to left of the one who has Rs.80, who
is facing outside.
· The ones having Rs.40 and Rs.180 sit on
same side both facing outside and the one
having Rs.40 is second to right of Q, who is
not sitting on that same side.
Thus, on the side of the ones having 40 and Thus, cases I(a)(i) and I(a)(ii), become invalid.
180, either 2 or 4 persons sit as they face Also,
outside (even number). · The one having Rs.260 sits on the same
With this, case I(b) and case I(c) become side as the one with Rs.140, who is fifth to
invalid. left of the one having Rs.220.
We get, Thus, both the persons having 260 and 140
sit on the side having 4 persons.
· The one having maximum amount (Rs.280)

of money sits at the corner.
· The one having minimum amount (i.e. Rs.20)
sits third to right of the one having Rs.240,
who sits at one of the corner facing inside.
We get the following possibilities: · the sum of amounts with immediate
neighbours of the one having Rs.160 is more
than Rs.250.
Thus, 160 will be beside 240.
· The one having Rs.220 and the one having
Rs.60 face in different directions (with respect
to inside/outside).
Remember, they are sitting in consecutive
alphabetical order going in clockwise
direction starting from the person who has
Case I(a) (iv) becomes invalid, as 4 persons Rs.100.
cannot sit on more than one sides.
Hence, we get the final arrangement as
The side of Rs.80 has even numbered follows:
persons.
We get,
We can't determine the direction of facing of

M.
Q37 - E
· The one having Rs.100, who is not adjacent Both J and Y are not sitting around the given
to the one having Rs.240, faces inside and table.
sits immediate left to the one having Rs.160.
Q38 - E
Thus, the one having Rs.100 sits on the side
having odd numbered persons and is not Explanation/Solution:-
immediately next to one having Rs.240.
∵ direction of M is not fixed, so, it can be April
either 2 or 3 persons facing outside. (R, P
and M) May Y 3rd
Q39 - A June
July 4th
One having Rs.120 is L and is 4th to left of P,
who is immediate right to Q. Both the friends in 3rd semester have
Explanation/Solution:- Economics major. Y is in 3rd semester and by
condition (ii), Y cannot have Physics,
Z was born in February and has Psychology
Psychology, Accountancy or Maths as minors.
major. So, either Z is the oldest or the oldest
So, it must be English.
person was born in January. If a student is in
2nd semester, his minor has to be Physics. Birth Perso Semeste
Major Minor(s)
According to condition (iv), Z has Physics and Month n r
Accountancy as his minors. January E 2nd Physics
Case 1: The oldest was born in January.
Only the youngest person is in 4th semester Physics,
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan
and two persons each are in the other y y
cy
semesters. Both the oldest friends are in
2nd semester but have different majors. March
Birth Perso Semeste April
Major Minor(s)
Month n r
Economic
January 2nd Physics May Y 3rd English
s
Physics, June
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan
y y
cy July 4th
March K was born in the immediate month before R.
Y was born after K. K is senior to R but not
April immediately.
May So, R must be in 1st semester and K in
3rd semester. So, K's major and minor will be
June Economics and English just like Y. R has
July 4th English major.
Birth Perso Semeste
Three persons were born in between E and Y. Major Minor(s)
Month n r
E was born before Y but E is junior to Y.
(I) E is the oldest. January E 2nd Physics
Birth Perso Semeste Physics,
Major Minor(s) Februar Psycholog
Month n r Z 2nd Accountan
y y
cy
January E 2nd Physics
Economic
Physics, March K 3rd English
Februar Psycholog s
Z 2nd Accountan
y y
cy April R 1st English Psychology
March
Economic Birth Perso Semest
May Y 3rd English Major Minor(s)
s Month n er
June January 2nd Physics
July 4th Physics,

Februar nd Psycholog
Z 2 Accountan
But R was born after May. So, case 1(I) is y y
cy
invalid.
(II) E was born in March. March E
Birth Perso Semeste Accountan

Major Minor(s) April D 1st
Month n r cy
January 2nd Physics May K 3rd Economics English
Physics, Psycholog
Februar Psycholog June R 1st English
Z 2 nd
Accountan y
y y
cy
July Y 4th
March E
But W is younger than Z. So, case 1(II) is
April invalid as well.
Case 2: Z is the oldest. Y was born before
May
August after K. R was born after May.
June Birth Perso Semeste
Major Minor(s)
Month n r
July Y 4th
K was born in the immediate month before R. Physics,
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan
Y was born after K. K is senior to R but not y y
cy
immediately. R was born after May. So, R
must be in 1st semester and K in March E 2nd Physics
3rd semester.
April
Birth Perso Semeste
Major Minor(s)
Month n r Economic
May K 3rd English
s
January 2nd Physics
June R 1st English Psychology
Physics,
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan July Y
y y
cy
August 4th
March E
D has Accountancy major and is junior to Z.
April D was born after Z. So, D is in 1st semester
and W in 4th. According to condition (v), we
Economic get D's minors as:
May K 3rd English
s
Birth Perso Semest
June R 1st English Psychology Major Minor(s)
Month n er
July Y 4th Physics,
Februar nd Psycholog
Z 2 Accountan
D has Accountancy major and is junior to Z. y y
cy
D was born after Z. So, D must be in
1st semester.
March E 2nd Physics May K 3rd Economics English
Accountan Psycholog
April D 1st June R 1st English
cy y
May K 3rd Economics English July Y 3rd Economics English
Psycholog Any
June R 1st English
y subject
Mathemati
August W 4th except
July Y cs
Mathemati
cs
August W 4th
Q40 - E
So, Y is in 3rd semester.
Birth Perso Semest
Major Minor(s) W can have any subject as his minor subject
Month n er
except Maths.
Physics, Q41 - B
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan
y y Explanation/Solution:-
cy
Z was born in the immediate month before E
March E 2nd Physics and his minor subjects are Physics and
Accountancy.
Accountan English,
April D 1st Q42 - E
cy Economics
May K 3rd Economics English
W has the same major subject as E and he is
Psycholog not in the same semester or immediately
June R 1st English
y junior, senior or younger to E.
July Y 3rd Economics English
Q43 - C
August W 4th Mathematics is not a minor subject of any of
Now from the conditions, only students the persons.
having major Mathematics or Psychology can Explanation/Solution:-
have Physics minor. As the 2nd sem students • F sits 3rd to right of H who is immediate left
have different majors, so E must have of the person who has Rs1600.
Mathematics as major.
• Both immediate neighbours of person who
The one born in March has the same major as has Rs 1600 face same direction.
W.
Birth Perso Semest
Major Minor(s)
Month n er
Physics,
Februar Psycholog
Z 2nd Accountan
y y
cy
Mathemati
March E 2nd Physics
cs
Accountan English, • B who faces away from the centre of the

April D 1st
cy Economics circle sits 2nd to left of E.
• A sits opposite to E.
• Both immediate neighbour of E face
opposite direction. • D who has more than Rs 2500 is 2nd to left
of C.
• B who faces away from the centre of the
circle sits 2nd to left of E. • D's immediate neighbour face opposite
directions.
• The amount with person sitting immediate

left of H is 600 less than the person sitting
5th to right of H.
• G who faces towards the centre of the table

is not adjacent to A.
• B who faces away from the centre of the
circle sits 2nd to left of E.
• Both immediate neighbour of E face Now, we know
opposite direction. • A&
• B%
• The sum of amount with F & A is equal to
the amount with E.
Y + 1100 =2100
Y = 1000.
• E@
So case 1-a is eliminated.
• D@
D will face inwards otherwise his amount will
exceed Rs 4500.
Q44 - C
B has Rs 1300
Q45 - B
A sits 3rd to the left of the person who has Rs
1600
Q46 - A
• B#
3 people sit between C & F when counted
towards right of F
Q47 - A
Option (A) is correct.
The six students who are facing north are
sitting in consecutive alphabetical order, from
left to right. (as per your left and right)
And, the six students who are facing south
are also sitting in consecutive alphabetical
order, from right to left. (as per your left and
right)
so, the arrangement is as follows:
Now, • Sum of roll numbers of students sitting
• Two students are sitting between K and P. between K and P is 16, given that both these
In alphabetical series we have → K, L, M, N, O roll numbers are less than 10.
and P So, only possible case is -
So, we cannot make K and P sit in this order 9 + 7 = 16
from either ends as then, there will be four Thus, Q and R → 7 and 9
students between them.
• Three students sit between the ones having
Thus, one thing gets clear from the statement roll number 12 and 1.
that, among K and P, one sits facing north
Thus, case 2 becomes invalid.
and one facing south.
Also,
We have,
• Roll number 2 is sitting fifth to right of roll
• M is one of the students, who faces north.
number 8.
Thus, M is a part of consecutive series of 6
We get,
students facing north.
We cannot start this K as then P will come as
6th student.
• P's roll number is half of K's roll number.
Thus, it has to be started from either L or M.
Hence, P's roll number = 2/2 = 1
i.e., we get,
• Three students sit between the ones having
roll number 12 and 1.
Thus, we get,
Since, in case (i) the person between Q and K,

must be L, which is not possible as L is • None of the students facing north have roll
already sitting. number 3, 4 or 11.
Thus, case (i) becomes invalid. Thus, N and O have roll numbers → 10 and 5
So, the arrangement will be - It is given,
• Roll number 5 sits second to left of roll
number 7 and, roll number 11 sits second to
Now, it is given that, left of roll number 4.
• Sum of roll numbers of students sitting at Hence, N = 10
the extreme ends is 14, given that both these
O = 5 and, Q = 7, R= 9.
roll numbers are even.
Also, we get, I = 4 and G = 11 and H = 3.
So, possible cases are - (6, 8); (4, 10) and (2,
12) Thus, final arrangement is as follows:
Also, it is given to us that,
• M's roll number is multiple of 3.
Q48 - E
Since, M is at the ends, so, M's roll number
can be either 12 or 6. Explanation/Solution:-
We get, All the given L, E and S are not sitting in the
given linear row of students.
Q49 - A
9 - R and 3 - H. G
R is 4th to right of H.
E
Q50 - C
Explanation/Solution:- 14th November B 3rd
6 letters appear between F and M. The one who bought tickets on 31st October
Explanation/Solution:- won the 1st prize. As there are 13 days in
Three persons bought tickets between A and between 31st Oct and 14th Nov, so E won the
G. G bought his ticket after A. The first person 1st prize.
to buy the tickets won 5th prize. Date of buying Person who Prize
Case 1: If A bought the first ticket among the tickets bought won
given persons.
A 5th
Date of buying Person who Prize
tickets bought won D/F
A 5th C
F/D
G G
31st October E 1st

B bought his tickets immediately after E and
14th November B 3rd
won the 3rd prize. C bought tickets before E
but not immediately. B bought tickets on There were 25 days in between E and the
14th November. one who bought the tickets immediately
before G.
tickets bought won Date of buying Person who Prize
tickets bought won
A 5th
A 5th
D/F
G
C
E
5th October F/D
14th November B 3rd
G
There were 26 days in between D and F. So,
there must be one person in between them, 31st October E 1st
and the number of days will be (13 + 1 +
12). 14th November B 3rd
Date of buying Person who Prize There were 11 days in between C and the
tickets bought won one who bought tickets immediately after
him.
A 5th
D/F tickets bought won
C A 5th
F/D D/F
23rd September C F/D
5th October F/D A
G D/F
31st October E 1st E
14th November B 3rd 14th November B 3rd

But C did not buy tickets in September. So, G
case 1 is invalid.
So, C will be the first one to buy tickets and E
Case 2: If G bought the last ticket among the bought on 31st October.
given persons.
Date of buying Person who Prize tickets bought won
tickets bought won
C 5th
5th
F/D
A
A
D/F
G
31st October E
won the 3rd prize. C bought tickets before E 14th November B 3rd
but not immediately. B bought tickets on G
14th November.
(i) If E bought immediately after A. There were 25 days in between E and the
one who bought the tickets immediately
Date of buying Person who Prize before G. This is not possible. So, case 2(ii) is
tickets bought won invalid.
5th Case 3: A bought the second ticket among
the given persons.
A Date of buying Person who Prize
tickets bought won
E
th rd
5th
14 November B 3
A
G
There is one person in between F and D. But
G
the above arrangement does not validate it.
So, case 2(i) is invalid.
(ii) If E bought after A but not immediately. won the 3rd prize. C bought tickets before E
There is one person in between F and D. but not immediately. B bought tickets on
Date of buying Person who Prize 14th November. There were 25 days in
tickets bought won between E and the one who bought the
tickets immediately before G. This is not
5th
possible. So, B cannot buy the immediate There were 11 days in between C and the
ticket before G. one who bought tickets immediately after
him. There were 11 days in between A and
tickets bought won the one who bought tickets immediately after
him
C 5th
A tickets bought won
31st October E 1st 7th October C 5th
14th November B 3rd 19th October A
31st October E 1st

G
14th November B 3rd
There is one person in between D and F and
26th November F
the number of days (26 days) will be (13 + 1
+ 12). There were 12 days in between F and 9th December G
the one who bought the tickets immediately
after him. So, F is not the last one. 23rd December D
Date of buying Person who Prize A won the immediate prize behind G. It
tickets bought won cannot be 2nd and 4th. So, it must be 6th and
7th.
C 5th
14th November B 3rd 19th October A 7th
F 31st October E 1st
G 14th November B 3rd
D 26th November F
There were 25 days in between E and the 9th December G 6th
one immediately before G.
23rd December D
tickets bought won The one who won 2nd prize bought his tickets
before the one who won 4th prize.
C 5th
14th November B 3rd 19th October A 7th
26th November F 31st October E 1st
9th December G 14th November B 3rd
23rd December D 26th November F 2nd

9th December G 6th • The flat worth 91 lakhs was 3rd to the right
of the flat worth 62 lakhs and was
23rd December D 4th immediately below the flat that was to the
Q51 - C immediate right of the flat worth 36 lakhs
Explanation/Solution:- Case 1:
C bought tickets on 7th October. A B C D E
Q52 - C Floor 3 61 89 36
Floor 2 62 72 81 91
The person who won the 2nd prize is F and he
bought the tickets on 26th November. Floor 1 27
Q53 - E
Case 2:
A B C D E
A won the 7th prize.
Q54 - A Floor 3 61 89
Explanation/Solution:- Floor 2 36 72 81
The winner of the given prize bought the
tickets immediately before the one who Floor 1 62 27 91
bought on the given date. 5th, 20th October • The flat worth 42 lakhs was immediately
are the odd one out. above the flat worth 56 lakhs and was to the
Explanation/Solution:- immediate left of the flat worth 37 lakhs
• The flat worth 61 lakhs was to the Case 1:
immediate left of the flat that was worth 89 A B C D E
lakhs.
• The flat worth 72 lakhs was immediately Floor 3 42 61 89 36
below the flat worth 89 lakhs and to the
Floor 2 56 62 72 81 91
immediate left of the flat worth 81 lakhs
• The flat that was immediately below the flat Floor 1 27
worth 81 lakhs was 3rd to the right of the flat Invalid as the flat worth 37lakhs cannot be
worth 27 lakhs placed in it
Case 1: Case 2:
A B C D E A B C D E
Floor 3 61 89 Floor 3 42 37 61 89
Floor 2 72 81 Floor 2 56 36 72 81
Floor 1 27 Floor 1 62 27 91
Case 2: • The flat worth 35 lakhs was 2nd to the left
A B C D E flat worth 34lakhs.
• One flat on floor 3 was worth 64 lakhs and
Floor 3 61 89
one flat on floor 2 was worth 54 lakhs.
Floor 2 72 81 A B C D E
Floor 1 27 Floor 3 42 37 61 89 64
Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81 Floor 1 31 13.5 17.5 45.5 17
Floor 1 62 27 35 91 34 Thus, difference between the cost of Flat E on

floor 1 and cost of flat B from floor 2= 34-
Q55 - C 17= 17 lakhs
Explanation/Solution:- Q57 - B
The original cost was: Explanation/Solution:-
A B C D E We have:
Floor 3 42 37 61 89 64 A B C D E
Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81 Floor 3 42 37 61 89 64
Floor 1 62 27 35 91 34 Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81
If both cards picked are of diamonds (♦), Floor 1 62 27 35 91 34

then the cost of flat on floor 3 become equal
to the average cost of flats on floor number 1 If first card is diamond (♦) and second is
and floor number 2. club (♣), then the cost of the flats on floor 1
and floor 3 will be interchanged. (i.e. cost of
New cost:
flat A on floor 1 will become equal to the
A B C D E cost of flat A from floor number 3 and vice
versa)
Floor 3 59 40.5 35.5 81.5 57.5
After discount:
Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81
A B C D E
Floor 1 62 27 35 91 34
Floor 3 62 27 35 91 34
Thus, the sum of flat A from 3rd floor and C
from floor 1st floor = 59+35= 94 lakhs Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81
Q56 - E Floor 1 42 37 61 89 64
Explanation/Solution:- Thus, the difference between the cost of flat C
We have; from floor number 3 and cost of flat E from
A B C D E floor number 1= 64-35= 29lakhs
Floor 3 42 37 61 89 64
• D's seat number was thrice as that of A's
Floor 2 56 54 36 72 81 seat number.
• B was seated to the immediate left of D
Floor 1 62 27 35 91 34
If both cards picked are of clubs (♣), then

the cost of flats on floor 1 will become half of
their current cost. The cost of flats on floor 2
will be reduced by 20lakhs.
After discount:
A B C D E
• G was seated 3rd to the right of C
Floor 3 42 37 61 89 64
• G's seat number was an even value.
Floor 2 36 34 16 52 61
1 G
2 B
3 F
4 D
5 A
• H was seated opposite to E who was 6 H
neighbouring G, thus, 1st arrangement is
invalid 7 C
Thus, the initial arrangement is as follows: 8 E
The movements were based on the following
points:
1. The person 1st to pick an even valued ball
moved to position 3 of the outer park. The
person 2nd to pick an even valued ball shifted
to his immediate right. The person 3rd to pick
an even valued ball moved to position 7 of
the outer park. The person 4th to pick an
The numbers picked by them depended on even valued ball moved to position 2 of the
the following points: outer park.
• Number of the ball picked up by H was 5 2. The person 1st to pick an odd valued ball
more than the ball number of G moved to position 4 of the outer park. The
• B's ball number was twice as that of G's ball person 2nd to pick an odd valued ball moved
number to his diagonally opposite seat. The person
3rd to pick an odd valued ball moved to
Case 1 Case 2 Case 3 position 1 of the outer park. The person
1 G 4th to pick an odd valued ball moved to
position 8 of the outer park.
2 B G Thus, A moved to position 4 on the outer
3 G park. B moved to position 3 of the outer
park. C moved to his diagonally opposite
4 B seat. H was already there thus, D remained at
his original position. E moved to position 7 of
5
the outer park. F moved to position 1 of the
6 H B outer park. G moved to position 8 of the
outer park. H moved to position 2 of the
7 H outer park.
8 H Thus, the final arrangement is as follows:
• E's ball number was twice as that of D's ball
number
• The sum of the ball numbers of F and C
together was 10. C's ball number was greater
than F's ball number. Thus, cases 2 and 3
become invalid.
• Pooja & Kavya are 41m apart.
• Garima & Kajal are not adjacent.

• Bhanu don't sit at extreme position.
Q58 - A
Other case is eliminated because no such
G's initial and final seat number was the same place was available for Garima & Bhanu
(8)
• Distance between Pooja & Garima is not
Q59 - C 15m.
Explanation/Solution:- • Distance between Garima & Bhanu is more
Ball number of C is 7 and that of D is 4 than distance between Kanika & Bhanu
Q60 - E
E was 3rd to the left of A
Now we have,
• Raj sits 45 m to right of Vikas.
• Jim sit 32 m left of Ravi.
Step 3: After movement
• Neither Ramesh nor Jim is adjacent to Hem.

• Hem sits towards left of Ramesh.
Case 1 is eliminated because there together

these conditions were not possible. Q61 - A
• Distance between Ramesh & Jim is a prime Explanation/Solution:-
number. 5 people didn't change their position
Q62 - B
After movements 4 people sit in line CD
Step 2:
Q63 - E
• Kanika & Kajal are 9m apart.
• Pooja sits third to left of Kanika who is to
After movements, only 2 people sit in line EF
immediate right of Kavya.
Kolkata Night Riders team against Kings XI Now, 2 batsman can be, (T & B) & (T & A)
Punjab: Since C & T cannot play together, so E will
· Q & S were not playing against same team. play as wicket-keeper.
· The team which will play against Kings XI Case 1-a Case 1-b Case 2-a Case 2-b
Punjab has 3 bowlers.
Now, Q (Bowler) Q (Bowler) S (Bowler) S (Bowler)
Case 1 Case 2 R (Bowler) R (Bowler) R (Bowler) R (Bowler)
Q (Bowler) S (Bowler) F (Bowler) F (Bowler) F (Bowler) F (Bowler)
R (Bowler) R (Bowler) P (all- D (all- P (all- D (all-

rounder) rounder) rounder) rounder)
F (Bowler) F (Bowler)
E (wicket- E (wicket- E (wicket- E (wicket-
keeper) keeper) keeper) keeper)
Total amount: Rs Total amount: Rs

37,500 36,100 Total Total Total Total
amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs
For all rounder they have 2 options, P & D & 63,300 64,000 61,900 62,600
only 1 will play in team against Kings XI
Now,
Punjab
Fee charged by (T & B) = Rs 28,700
Case 1-a Case 1-b Case 2-a Case 2-b
Fee charged by (T & A) = Rs 29,300
Q (Bowler) Q (Bowler) S (Bowler) S (Bowler) The sum of total fee charged by the players
for match against Kings XI Punjab is less than
R (Bowler) R (Bowler) R (Bowler) R (Bowler) Rs 91,000.
F (Bowler) F (Bowler) F (Bowler) F (Bowler) So, we have,
P (all- D (all- P (all- D (all- Case 2-a
rounder) rounder) rounder) rounder)
S (Bowler)
R (Bowler)
Total Total Total Total
F (Bowler)
amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs
49,800 50,500 48,400 49,100 P (all-rounder)
If C & F are in same team then C will play as
E (wicket-keeper)
wicket keeper.
Since F is already in team then C cannot play B (Batsman)
as batsaman, so, 2 batsman can be (T & B), (T
T (Batsman)
& A) & (A & B)
If A & B play as batsman in team then, if E Total amount: Rs 90,600
(whose fees in minimum among Now,
wicketkeepers) will play as wicket keeper ,
then total fee charged by these 3 = 43,900 We know, Atleast 1 match is played by all
players
& Using this combination with any of the
above case, it exceeds the total budget of Case 2-a
Kolkata Night Riders for match against Kings
Team against Kings XI Team against Mumbai
XI Punjab, so, this case is not possible. Punjab Indians
S (Bowler) A (Batsman) In Case 2-a-ii,
T, E, S & B cannot play so, P & R will play
R (Bowler) C against Mumbai Indians.
F (Bowler) D (all-rounder) Case 2-a-i Case 2-a-ii
P (all-rounder) Q (Bowler) Team Team Team Team
against against against against
E (wicket-keeper) Kings XI Mumbai Kings XI Mumbai
Punjab Indians Punjab Indians
B (Batsman)
A A
T (Batsman) S (Bowler) S (Bowler)
(Batsman) (Batsman)
Total amount: Rs Total amount: Rs
C C (Wicket-
90,600 56,100 R (Bowler) R (Bowler)
(Batsman) keeper)
Now If C will play as batsman against Mumbai
Indians, then E will play as wicket keeper & F D (all- D (all-
rounder) rounder)
will not play in the team.
& If C will play as wicket-keeper than E will P (all-
Q (Bowler)
P (all-
Q (Bowler)
not play in team. rounder) rounder)
Case 2-a-i Case 2-a-ii E (wicket- E (wicket- E (wicket-

F (bowler)
keeper) keeper) keeper)
Team Team Team Team
against against against against B P (all- B P (all-
Kings XI Mumbai Kings XI Mumbai (Batsman) rounder) (Batsman) rounder)
Punjab Indians Punjab Indians
T T
R (Bowler) R (Bowler)
A A (Batsman) (Batsman)
S (Bowler) S (Bowler)
(Batsman) (Batsman)
C C (Wicket- amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs
R (Bowler) R (Bowler)
(Batsman) keeper) 90,600 93,800 90,600 93,000
D (all- D (all- · Team should have atleast 2 batsman, atleast

rounder) rounder) 1 bowler, Atleast 1 all-rounder & atleast 1
P (all- P (all-
wicketkeeper.
Q (Bowler) Q (Bowler) So, case 2-a-ii is eliminated.
rounder) rounder)
E (wicket- E (wicket- E (wicket- Case 2-a-i

F (bowler)
keeper) keeper) keeper) Team against Kings XI Team against Mumbai
B B Punjab Indians
(Batsman) (Batsman) S (Bowler) A (Batsman)
T T R (Bowler) C (Batsman)
(Batsman) (Batsman)
F (Bowler) D (all-rounder)
amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs amount: Rs P (all-rounder) Q (Bowler)
90,600 69,600 90,600 68,800
E (wicket-keeper) E (wicket-keeper)
Now, in case 2-a-i,
T, F, S, B cannot play, so P & R will play B (Batsman) P (all-rounder)
against Mumbai Indians.
T (Batsman) R (Bowler) 1989 30
Total amount: Rs Total amount: Rs 1991 28 Father/Brother/A

90,600 93,800
1992 27
Q64 - B
Explanation/Solution:- 1997 22
Required total fees = Rs 90,600 Case 2:
Q65 - C 1973 46
1976 43
Both C & A are playing against Mumbai
Indians 1981 38
Q66 - C
1983 36
Option (3) is correct. 1989 30 Father/Brother/A
Explanation/Solution:- 1991 28
The number of years passed since companies'
1992 27 Mother/Sister-in-law
inception:
1973 46 1997 22 G
1976 43 · C's daughter-in-law established her

company 3 years after G's son's company. C
1981 38 can be A's father or mother.
Case 1:
1983 36
1973 46 A/Brother/Son
1989 30
1976 43 Sister-in-law
1991 28
1981 38 Wife/Father/Mother G
1992 27
1983 36
1997 22
1989 30
· G's company was established 5 years after
H's wife's company. H can be A's father or 1991 28 Father/Brother/A
brother. H's wife can be A's mother or sister-
in-law 1992 27
· 2 companies were established between G's 1997 22
company and B's husband's company. B can
be A's wife, mother or sister-in-law. B's Case 1a:
husband can be A's father, brother or A 1973 46
himself.
1976 43 Mother/Sister-in-law
Case 1:
1973 46 1981 38 Wife/Father/Mother G
1976 43 Mother/Sister-in-law 1983 36
1981 38 G 1989 30 A/Brother/Son
1983 36 1991 28 Father/Brother/A

1992 27 Sister-in-law/Wife 1976 43 Sister-in-law B
1997 22 1981 38 Wife/Father G

Case 2: 1983 36 A
1973 46 A/Brother/Son 1989 30 Mother
1976 43 Sister-in-law/Wife 1991 28 Father/Brother
1981 38 1992 27
1983 36 1997 22
1989 30 Father/Brother/A Case 1.1:
1991 28 1973 46 Brother/Son
1992 27 Mother/Sister-in-law 1976 43 Sister-in-law
1997 22 Wife/Father/Mother G 1981 38 Wife/Father G

Case 2a: 1983 36
1973 46 1989 30
1976 43 1991 28 A
1981 38 1992 27 Mother
1983 36 1997 22
1989 30 Brother/A Case 1a:
1991 28 1973 46
1992 27 Sister-in-law 1976 43 Sister-in-law
1997 22 Father/Mother G 1981 38 Wife/Father G

Invalid as Not more than 3 persons 1983 36
established the companies before A's sister-
in-law 1989 30 A/Brother/Son
· A's company was established after B's 1991 28 Father/Brother/A
company but immediately before his mother's
company. B was A's wife, mother or sister-in- 1992 27 Sister-in-law/Wife
law.
1997 22
· A's mother was not the last to establish the
company Invalid as A's mother and A cannot be placed.
· Not more than 3 persons established the Case 2:
companies before A's sister-in-law 1973 46 Brother/Son
· A's company was not established in 1981
1976 43 Sister-in-law/Wife
or 1989
Case 1: 1981 38
1973 46 Brother/Son 1983 36
1989 30 Father/Brother 1976 43 Sister-in-law/Wife
1991 28 A 1981 38
1992 27 Mother 1983 36
1997 22 Wife/Father G 1989 30 Brother B

· G's company was established 5 years after 1991 28 A
H's wife's company
1992 27 Mother
· 2 companies were established between G's
company and B's husband's company 1997 22 Wife/Father G
· B's child established the company
H will be A's father. Thus, the case will be
immediately after C
invalid as B cannot have a child
· C's daughter-in-law established her
· Three companies were established between
company 3 years after G's son's company
A's wife's company and D's company
Case 1:
· E established the company before F
1973 46 Brother/Son Thus, the final table is as follows:
1976 43 Sister-in-law B 1973 46 Brother H
1981 38 Wife/Father G 1976 43 Sister-in-law E
1983 36 A 1981 38 Father G
1989 30 Mother 1983 36 Wife B
1991 28 Father/Brother 1989 30 Sister F
1992 27 1991 28 A
1997 22 1992 27 Mother C

Invalid as B cannot have a child 1997 22 Daughter D
Case 1.1:
Q67 - D
1973 46 Brother H Explanation/Solution:-
1976 43 Sister-in-law D was the granddaughter of G
Q68 - C
1981 38 Father G
1983 36 Two companies were established before A's
1989 30
father's company
Q69 - E
1991 28 A Explanation/Solution:-
1992 27 Mother C Apart from G others are the female members
of the family
1997 22 Daughter
Q70 - B
B will be A's wife. Explanation/Solution:-
Case 2: G was the father of F who established the
1973 46 Brother/Son company in 1989
· The subject in which he had 'E' was finished 10:15- A
at 9:45AM
· He had an 'A' in the subject which he started
· He studied 2 subjects between English and
studying at 10:15AM
Physics. English was studied before Physics
Case 1:
· History was finished at 11:30AM
8:30-9:00 30 minutes · The subject in which he had a 'D' was
9:00-9:45 E 45 minutes studied for 30 minutes
· The time period for History slot is greater
9:45-10:15 30 minutes than the time period for Geography slot.
10:15- A Case 2:
8:30-9:15 B Mathematics 45 minutes
Case 2: 9:15-9:45 E Chemistry 30 minutes
8:30-9:15 45 minutes
9:45-10:15 C English 30 minutes
9:15-9:45 E 30 minutes
10:15-10:45 A Geography 30 minutes
9:45-10:15 30 minutes
10:45-11:30 F History 45 minutes
10:15- A
11:30-12:00 D Physics 30 minutes
Case 2a:
· He had a 'B' in Mathematics which was not
studied in the 2nd last slot 8:30-9:15 B Mathematics 45 minutes
· Only Mathematics and one other subject had 9:15-9:45 E Chemistry 30 minutes
a study slot of 45 minutes.
· Chemistry and Mathematics were studied in 9:45-10:15 C English 30 minutes
consecutive slots 10:15-11:00 A Geography 45 minutes
· The subject in which he had a 'C' was
studied just after Chemistry 11:00-11:30 D History 30 minutes
Case 1: 11:30-12:00 F Physics 30 minutes
8:30-9:00 30 minutes The case is invalid as he did not have 'F' in
9:00-9:45 E 45 minutes Physics
The final schedule is as follows:
9:45-10:15 30 minutes
8:30-9:15 B Mathematics 45 minutes
10:15- A
9:15-9:45 E Chemistry 30 minutes
This case is invalid as we cannot place 9:45-10:15 C English 30 minutes

Mathematics and Chemistry as per the 10:15-10:45 A Geography 30 minutes
instructions
Case 2: 10:45-11:30 F History 45 minutes
8:30-9:15 B Mathematics 45 minutes 11:30-12:00 D Physics 30 minutes
9:15-9:45 E Chemistry 30 minutes Q71 - A

9:45-10:15 C 30 minutes
He had grade A in Geography
Q72 - C · Yellow row was immediately below the black
Explanation/Solution:- row.
History was studied for 45 minutes Case 1 Case 2
Q73 - B Black Green
The last slot ended at 12:00PM Yellow
Q74 - A
Explanation/Solution:- Green Black
Apart from 'F' others were the grades in Yellow
subjects with slots of 30 minutes.
Explanation/Solution:- · The 4th number of the 2nd row from the
bottom is twice as that of its 2nd number
· Red row of the panel has 4 buttons with
(from the left). Only black satisfies the
numbers in consecutive multiples of 4
condition. Thus, case 1 is invalid.
starting from 16.
· There were 2 rows between the yellow and
· White row of the panel has 4 buttons with 4
the golden row.
consecutive primes starting from 23.
· The Black row of the panel has 4 buttons Green
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 5
starting from 5. Golden
· The Blue row of the panel has 4 buttons
with numbers in consecutive perfect squares Black
starting from 9.
Yellow
· The yellow row of the panel has 4 buttons
with numbers in consecutive multiples of 7 · The blue row was somewhere below the
starting from 21 white row but somewhere above the red row.
· The green row of the panel has 4 buttons White
Green
starting from 12.
· The golden row of the panel has 4 buttons Blue
Golden
starting from 24.
A B C D Red
Red 16 20 24 28 Black
White 23 29 31 37 Yellow
Black 5 10 15 20 Thus, the panel would look as follows:

A B C D
Blue 9 16 25 36
White (*) 23 29 31 37
Yellow 21 28 35 42
Green (&) 12 15 18 21
Green 12 15 18 21
Blue (^) 9 16 25 36
Golden 24 32 40 48
Golden (%) 24 32 40 48
· There were 3 rows between the black and
green row.
Red ($) 16 20 24 28
Black (#) 5 10 15 20
Yellow (@) 21 28 35 42
Q75 - C
Option 1: %A, #C, ^D: 24 15 36; rule 3 will
follow: 2x15= 30- P Glows
Option 2: $A, @B, &A: 16 28 12 : rule 1 will
follow: (16+28+12) x 2= 112- S Glows
Option 3: %B, #A, @D: 32 5 42: rule 4 will N was seated second from the west end of
follow: frequency= 32+42-5= 69- Q Glows row 1 after shifting. The person wearing
Option 4: ^A, #D, &C: 9 20 18: rule 3 will yellow shirt was seated immediate left of the
follow: 2x9=18: P glows person seated opposite to N after shifting.
Q76 - D
X= &B, ^C, #C, @C: 15 25 15 35: Rule 5
follows: 25+35= 60- Q Glows R was seated in the same row even after
X= &B, ^C, @A, @C: 15 25 21 35: Rule 2 shifting and was seated immediate right of M
follows: 35+15= 50- Q Glows both the times. M was seated at one of the
X= &B, ^C, &A, @C: 15 25 12 35: Rule 3 ends before shifting and opposite to the
follows: 2(15+25+35) = 150- T Glows person seated in row 1 wearing black shirt
after shifting.
X= &B, ^C, #A, @C: 15 25 5 35: Rule 4
follows: 15+25+35-5= 70- Q Glows Case 1:
Thus, minimum value will be #A
Q77 - C
X=$A, @C, @D and Y= * C, #A, $D Case 2:
X= 16 35 42 (rule 3)= 35x2= 70
Y= 31 5 28 (rule 4)= 28~ (31+5)= 8
Resultant frequency= 70+8= 78
Thus, R glows Case 3:
Q78 - C
X= %D, @B, *A, $D, #A
X= 48 28 23 28 5 (rule 5) O was seated to the immediate left of T who
Frequency= 48+23+5= 76- R Glows was wearing Pink shirt, both before and after
shifting, but in different rows both the times.
Case 1:
P was seated at the east end of row 1 before
shifting. The person seated second from the
west end of row 2 before shifting was
wearing white shirt.
Case 2:
Q80 - E
All three of them were seated in row 1 after
But here we can observe that O was wearing shifting.
different coloured shirts before and after Q81 - B
shifting, so this case is invalid. Explanation/Solution:-
Case 3: S and N were seated in same row before
shifting among the following.
Q82 - D
All pairs are seated at same position before
Q was seated at one of the ends after shifting
and after shifting except for O,N.
and was wearing green coloured shirt. S was
not seated adjacent to either Q or N after Explanation/Solution:-
shifting. There are only seven stacks of shoes which
Case 1: will be sent in September. There are five
stacks to the west of the stack that will be
sent on 24 September.
Case 3:
A stack of laptops will be sent on 12 July.

There are eight boxes in between the stacks
The person wearing brown shirt who was not to be sent on 12 July and 28 October.
N was seated to the immediate left of the
person wearing blue shirt in both before and
after.
Hence case 1 is invalid.
P was not wearing yellow shirt. So we have:
The person wearing yellow shirt was seated

to the immediate left of Q but not opposite to
T. The stack of books to be sent on 4 August is
So finally we have: kept to the immediate right of that to be sent
on 28 October.
Q79 - B
M was seated opposite to the person wearing
red shirt before shifting.
The easternmost stack will be sent on 8
August which has books. Five stacks are in
between the ones to be sent on 28
September and 8 August.
Less than three stacks are in between the

ones to be sent on 12 July and 12 There are five stacks in between the stacks to
September. So, either two or one stack will be sent on 24 September and 12 September.
be in between these stacks. No consecutive
stack will be sent on the same date. The one
to be sent on 12 September is to the right of
that of 12 July.
Considering case 2 first:
But There are five stacks to the west of the

stack that will be sent on 24 September. So,
case 2 is invalid.
Case 1:
The stack to be sent on 8 September is fourth

to the right of the one to be sent on 12
September. The stack to be sent on 28
September is seventh to the right of the one
to be sent on 8 September.
The stack to be sent on 8 September is fourth

to the right of the one to be sent on 12
September. The stack to be sent on 28
September is seventh to the right of the one
to be sent on 8 September.
There are 2 stacks in between the ones to be
sent on 4 August and 28 September.
Q85 - E
The adjacent stacks to the one to be sent on
4 August cannot have stacks to be sent on 4
of any month or August. Also, shoes are sent
only in September and the stack of shoes to
be sent on 12 September is already in the
row. So, a stack of books to be sent on 24
October is the correct option.
The easternmost stack will be sent on 8 Q86 - A
August which has books. Five stacks are in Explanation/Solution:-
between the ones One stack is in between the stack of laptops
to be sent on 28 September and 8 August. to be sent on 12 July and 12 September. So,
any stack that is to be sent on consecutive
date (8 or 16) or in July or laptops cannot be
adjacent. A stack of books to be sent on 24
October can be to its immediate left.
O is facing south. Y is sitting second to the
right of O. Five persons are sitting in between
R and Y. R is sitting to the immediate left of
G.
There are five stacks in between the stacks to
be sent on 24 September and 12 September.
The ninth stack from the west does not have

laptops. So, case 1(i)) is invalid.
So, there are 29 stacks. G is sitting second to the left of N. N is facing

Q83 - C C.
There are 29 stacks.
Q84 - D
A is facing the person who is sitting to the
immediate right of T. S is sitting to the
immediate left of T.
Four persons are sitting to the left of S.
F is facing J. Three persons are sitting in

between F and A. As many persons are sitting
B is sitting fourth to the right of C. K is sitting to the left of O as to the right of F.
fifth to the left of C.
So, there are 27 persons on each bench.

Hence, a total of 54 persons are on the
benches.
Q87 - B
54 persons are sitting on both the benches
together.
Q88 - A
C is exactly on the middle of the bench.
K is sitting second to the left of the person
facing L. So, case 1 is invalid. Q89 - D
R is sitting 16th to the left of the person
sitting at the extreme right end of his bench
(the one who is sitting second to the right of
F).
Floor 1: ####&# (32+16+8+4+0+1),
A is sitting fourth to the right of L. ###&#& (32+16+8+0+2+0), #&##&&
(32+0+8+4+0+0)
Floor 2: ####& (16+8+4+2+0), #&&&##
(32+0+0+0+2+1), ####&&
(32+16+8+4+0+0)
Floor 3: ###&# (16+8+4+0+1), #&##& the initial price for any flat, then no discount
(16+0+4+2+0), #&&##&& is applicable, and the price remains
(64+0+0+8+4+0+0) unchanged.
A B C After discount:
A B C
3 29 22 76
3 29 22 67
2 30 35 60
2 03 35 06
1 61 58 44
Q90 - C 1 16 58 44
Explanation/Solution:- Sum of all flat A's= 16+3+29= 48lakhs
The original cost was: Q92 - D
A B C Explanation/Solution:-
If both the numbers rolled are even, the price
3 29 22 76 of all the flats are reduced by the cost of the
2 30 35 60 cheapest flat on that floor. The cheapest flat
of each floor has no discounts.
1 61 58 44 Original price:
If first number is even and second number is A B C
odd, no discount is applicable unless at least
one of the numbers is greater than 5. In that 3 29 22 76
case the cost of each flat is reduce to half of
2 30 35 60
its original value
New cost: 1 61 58 44
A B C After discounts:
3 14.5 11 38 A B C
2 15 17.5 30 3 7 22 54
1 30.5 29 22 2 30 5 30
Thus, the difference between the 2nd cheapest 1 17 14 44

and the 3rd costliest= 30-14.5= 15.5 lakhs Thus, the difference between the 3rd cheapest
Q91 - C and the costliest flat in the building= 54-14=
Explanation/Solution:- 40 lakhs
We have; Explanation/Solution:-
A B C Three couples got married between E and G.
E got married before G and they married at
3 29 22 76 the same place. A got married before E. A got
married immediately before T at the same
2 30 35 60
place.
1 61 58 44 Case 1: E was the second to get married.
The numbers would be 1 and 6. If first Date of Persons who got Place of
number is odd and second number is even marriage married marriage
then the cost of all the flats become the
A
reversed values. If the new price is more than
TE L
GJ
G MQ Mumbai
R did not marry A or D. Hence, case 1 is
D got married in Mumbai. There were 11
invalid.
days between the marriages of D and E. So,
one couple got married in between D and E Case 2 (i): E was the third to get married. E
(5 + 5 + 1 days or 6 + 4 + 1 days). married T.
Date of Persons who got Place of Date of Persons who got Place of
marriage married marriage marriage married marriage
A A
TE ET
D Mumbai
G
G
J was not the last one to get married. Two days between the marriages of D and E. So,
couples got married between P and J. P got one couple got married in between D and E
married before J but after A. (5 + 5 + 1 days or 6 + 4 + 1 days).
If D married after E:
Date of Persons who got Place of
marriage married marriage Date of Persons who got Place of
marriage married marriage
A
TE A
P ET
D Mumbai D Mumbai
GJ G
R got married immediately before L. There J was not the last one to get married. Two
were 10 days in between the marriages of M couples got married between P and J. P got
and L. So, one couple got married in between married before J but after A. So, the
M and L (5 + 4 + 1 days). M and Q married arrangement is not valid for this case. Hence,
each other in Mumbai. D must be married before E:
Date of Persons who got Place of Date of Persons who got Place of
marriage married marriage marriage married marriage
A D Mumbai
TE A
P ET
DR Mumbai
G D Mumbai
Even in this case, the arrangement is not valid MQ Mumbai
for P and J. So, case 2(i) is invalid.
G
Case 2 (ii): E was the third to get married. E
married after T. J was not the last one to get married. Two
Date of Persons who got Place of couples got married between P and J. P got
marriage married marriage married before J but after A.
A
T
A
E
TP
ER
G
L
DJ Mumbai
days between the marriages of D and E. So,
one couple got married in between D and E MQ Mumbai
(5 + 5 + 1 days or 6 + 4 + 1 days). If D got
married after E: G
Date of Persons who got Place of There were 4 days in between the marriages
marriage married marriage of F and V, i.e., F got married immediately
before or after V. But the arrangement is not
A valid for F and V. Hence, D must have
T married before E.
E
D Mumbai AD Mumbai
T Mumbai
G
E
R got married immediately before L. There
were 10 days in between the marriages of M
and L. So, one couple got married in between
M and L (5 + 4 + 1 days). M and Q married G
each other in Mumbai. R did not marry A or J was not the last one to get married. Two
D. So, M must have got married after D. couples got married between P and J. P got
Date of Persons who got Place of married before J but after A. P did not marry
marriage married marriage E.
A Date of Persons who got Place of
T
AD Mumbai
ER
TP Mumbai
L
E
J TP Mumbai
E
G
R got married immediately before L. There MQ Mumbai
were 10 days in between the marriages of M JR
and L. So, one couple got married in between
M and L (5 + 4 + 1 days). M and Q married February LF
each other in Mumbai.
GV
marriage married marriage C got married in Delhi on 20 January. The
ones who married in February did not get
AD Mumbai married in Mumbai.
TP Mumbai Date of Persons who got Place of
ER
AD Mumbai
L
TP Mumbai
J
20 January EC Delhi
MQ Mumbai
MQ Mumbai
G
JR
F got married immediately before or after V.
F got married in February. February LF Delhi
Date of Persons who got Place of GV Delhi
There were 11 days between the marriages of
AD Mumbai D and E. P did not get married on 15th. So,
days between D and E: 5 + 1 + 5
TP Mumbai
ER marriage married marriage
L, F/V 8 January AD Mumbai
J, V/F 14 January TP Mumbai
MQ Mumbai 20 January EC Delhi
G MQ Mumbai
So, C must be the last one to get married JR
with G but C got married in January. So, C has
to marry before F. SO, M must have married February LF Delhi
immediately after E:
GV Delhi
F got married in February but not with G.
M got married on 27th. So, it must be 27
Date of Persons who got Place of January. There were 10 days in between the
marriages of M and L. J did not get married
AD Mumbai on 2nd February. So, the days in between M
and L is 4 + 1 + 5.
Date of Persons who got Place of There are 17 days in between the dates of
marriage married marriage the marriages of C and L.
8 January AD Mumbai
Three people were seated to the right of T.
14 January TP Mumbai Two people were seated between S and Q
where S was to the left of Q.
20 January EC Delhi
Case 1:
27 January MQ Mumbai
1 February JR Case 2:
7 February LF Delhi
Case 3:
GV Delhi
There were 4 days in between the marriages M was seated third to the left of P.
of F and V. Case 1:
Case 2a:
8 January AD Mumbai
14 January TP Mumbai Case 2b:

20 January EC Delhi
Case 3:
27 January MQ Mumbai
1 February JR Delhi N was seated to the immediate left of O but

7 February LF Delhi
not any end.
So case 2b and case 3 are invalid.
12 February GV Delhi R was seated to the left of S.
Q93 - C So case 1 is invalid.
Explanation/Solution:- Finally we have:
D got married in Mumbai before P.
Q94 - B S moved 10m south and then certain
Explanation/Solution:- distance in east direction and finally some
F got married on 7 February. distance in north direction to reach 10m
north of N.
Q95 - A
A and D got married in Mumbai on 8 January.
Q96 - D
Explanation/Solution:- R moved 20m north then moved certain
Q got married in January in Mumbai just like distance in east direction to reach 20m north
T. of Q. Then he moved certain distance in south
Q97 - A direction and then east to reach 20m south
of N.
P moved 30m north and then certain distance
in west direction and finally south to reach
10m north of M.
Q98 - C
the total distance travelled by S is 90m.
Q99 - B
3 people were seated between M and T.
Q100 - B
the total distance travelled by R is 135m.
English
Error Detection Qs
Error detection is one of the most important topics in the English
language. In this pdf we have compiled top 75 error detection questions
for IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk, IBPS SO, SBI PO, SBI clerk etc. exam.
1. Pakistan has for the first time admitted to the presence / b) of

India‟s most wanted terrorist, Dawood Ibrahim, / c) on its earth,
but has said that / d) he has now been chased out and could be in
the UAE. / e) No error
2. The Delhi Government will set up seven laboratories / b) in East
Delhi to test, verify and calibrate / c) the work and reference
standards of different types of balances, / d) weights and
measuring equipment used in shops or establishments. / e) No
error
3. a) Samajik Suvidha Sangam, also known as Mission Convergence, /
b) is the most unique initiative of NCT of Delhi / c) for holistic
empowerment of women from vulnerable and / d) most vulnerable
sections of society. / e) No error
4. a) The Supreme Court has sought a response of the Centre /
b) on a PIL seeking effective functioning of the / c) human rights
courts in the country / d) to further the cause of social justice. / e)
No error
5. a) Caught napping by the powerful mining Mafia after a bid / b) on
the life of the SDM, the police has now booked / c) the driver
of the tractor trolley and / d) filed an FIR against him. / e) No error
6. a) A letter of credit is a guarantee issued/ b) by the importer‟s bank
that it will honor/ c) payment up to certain amount of export
bills/ d) to the bank of the exporter./ e) No error.
7. a) A private company is one which/ b) restricts transfer of shares
and does not/ c) invite the public to/ d) subscribe its shares/ e)
No error.
8. a) The char bodies of two women / b) were recovered from a
burning pile / c) of dried cow dung / d)at Sultanpur village / e) No
error.
9. a) A total of ten blocks will be on offer / b) in the third round of coal
auctions / c) Which will take place between / d) August 11 to
August 17. / e) No error.
10. a) The lay-offs come among the continued debate / b)
over immigration reform in the US / c) as the temporary work visas
are / d) at the center of a fierce debate in Congress. / e) No error.
11. a) Economic laws typically aims at balancing / b)
competing interests of various stakeholders / c) as well as interests
of government departments / d) charged with implementing such
laws. / e) No errors.
12. a) On a separate occasion, the High Court rapped / b) the
Director-General of Police for forwarding a complaint / c) against
Raj to the state government / d) instead ordering an enquiry
into it. / e) No error.
13. a) A look at migration data suggests / b) that the number
of deaths do not / c) necessarily indicate the crisis / d) that is
being described / e) No error.
14. a) My elder brother is planning / b) to go abroad / c) as soon
as he will retire / d) in December next year / e) No error.
15. a) To provide two special economic zones / b) exclusively
for Indian investors / c) is a clear reflection of / d) Bangladesh‟s
positive intent. / e) No error.
16. a) With so many options lined up / b) in this competitive
world, one has to watch / c) out for a proper specialization and a
suitable institute / d) before deciding on anything / e) No error.
17. a) Widows by far outnumber widowers,/ b) because studies
show that women live longer/ c) than men and tend to marry/ d)
men older than them./ e) No error.
18. a) The three-day trip that India‟s Prime Minister, Narendra
Modi, made / b) to China is seen in some quarter / c) as a
chance to reset the relationship / d) between Asia‟s two giants / e)
No error.
19. a) For expecting the organization / b) to pay for the
transport / c) of the personal belongings / d) of the employee is not
fair / e) No error.
20. a) Yesterday my car ran out of gas,/ b) and then my phone
ran out of battery/ c) I was up a creek/d) without a paddle/ e) No
error.
21. a) We couldn‟t set up the computer network/ b) ourselves,
so we are banking with/ c) an IT engineer from the university /
d) to set it up for us./ e) No error.
22. a) The decision has immediately drawn a sharp response / b)
from the Congress and the SP, who along with / c) other Opposition
parties have been stalling / d) the Bill‟s passage in the Rajya Sabha
/ e) No error.
23. a) A serial entrepreneur who made his first fortune / b) in the
early days of the world wide web / c) he has since helped find /
d) a solar power company to generate green electricity / e) No
error.
24. a) Ahead of Modi‟s visit to Bangladesh, the External Affairs
Minister said / b) agreements on the contentious issue / c) of
sharing of river waters including that of Teesta / d) would not
be on the agenda / e) No error.
25. a) Lakhdar Brahimi, the UN envoy / b) Syria, said that the
second round / c) of talks in Geneva has failed / d) to make
progress / e) No error.
26. a) Till 1970, India was among first nations / b) having
the highest quota with IMF / c) and due to this status India was
allotted / d) a permanent place in the Executive Board of Directors /
e) No error.
27. a) India has one of the largest / b) road network / c) in the
world, aggregating to / d) about 3.6 million kilometers at present /
e) No error.
28. a) Union members say that little thought / b) has been spared
for families of employees / c) who develops health issues owing
to / d) living and working in unhygienic conditions / e) No error.
29. a) The Superintendent of Dasna Jail in Ghaziabad said / b)
that Koli had been transferred from Dasna to Meerut Jail / c) as the
first had not facilities / d) to carry out the execution / e) No
error.
30. a) Once the demand draft will be deposited / b) the
individual will be eligible / c) to participate in /d) the online bidding
process / e) No error.
31. a) The Delhi government has issued a notification / b)
allowing the opening of new wholesale markets / c) in the capital,
which will be outside / d) the purview of the three existing AMPC
markets /e) No error.
32. a) All government officials above the rank of undersecretary /
b) have been issued circulars by their respective ministries / c) to
ask them to attend yoga classes / d) in the run-up to the event /
e) No error.
33. a).One of the most essential and major asset / b). for
India right now is electricity, / c). therefore it is important that / d).
electricity should reach the end customer. / e). No error
34. a). It has been proven, time and time / b). again, that eggs
and dietary cholesterol / c). does not adversely affect / d).
cholesterol levels in the blood / e). No error
35. a). The man who killed an orthopedic surgeon, / b). his
domestic help and the later’s son said that / c). he was
unhappy with the unnecessary diagnostic tests / d). The surgeon
had recommended it to his daughter. / e). No error
36. a). “Love Jihad” had come to be / b). one of the latest
additions / c). to meaningless polarized debate / d). on a
sensitive issue. e). No errors.
37. a) The poverty estimates indicate that / b) the highest
poverty headcount ratio exist in Bihar / c) at fifty four percent
as against / d) the national average of thirty percent / e) No error.
38. a) The predominant presence of the textile industry in
Indian economy / b) is manifested in its significant contribution to
/ c) industrial production, employment generation, / d) and foreign
exchange earnings. / e) No error
39. a) The only silver line to this recent crisis / (b) over
reservation was her successful handling / (c) of talks with other
OBC groups / (d) who make up 27 percent of the state‟s
population. / (e) No error.
40. a) With the crisis of depleting clean water sources / (b)
looming over us, / (c) considerable alternative sources/ (d) is
imperative. /(e) No error
41. a) The implementation of the Sixth Pay Commission / (b) in
2008-09 and resultant wage increase / (c) have had a positive
rub-off / (d) on sales in urban markets. / (e) No error.
42. a) The governments keenness to keep inflation beyond
check / (b) to provide room for the RBI to cut interest rates further
/ (c) may restrain it from providing any big relief / (d) to farmers by
way of higher MSPs. / (e) No error.
43. a) My teacher used to check that we were / (b) on the right
track and if any mistake occurred, / (c) he would help us to
analyze / (d) and resolve the issues. / (e) No error
44. a) Having a visionary and motivating leader, / (b) she
thinks out of the box and / (c) has her own style of doing things,
one of which / (d) is treating and respecting her employees as
assets, /(e) No error
45. a) The center accepted the report of a judicial commission /
(b) that indicated former chief minister / (c) and six of his
ministerial colleagues against corruption, / (d) favoritism,
nepotism and administrative impropriety. / (e) No error
46. a) Companies like Infosys are moving fast / (b) on
automation to ensure differentiation at a time / (c) where the
technology industry and business models / (d) are undergoing
rapid changes. / (e) No error
47. a) After weeks of talks, / b) the two parties failed to
resolving / c) their differences and the makers eventually / d)
decided to look for an alternative. / e) No error.
48. a) The states dependent on oil and gas revenues / b) are
growing increasingly anxious about / c) the ripple effect that falling
oil prices / d) may have on their local economies. / e) No error
49. a) Although ghost pepper is no longer / b) the most hottest
chilli in the world, / c) as India‟s species export, / d) it packs
quite a punch. /e) No error
50. a) Considering that a large part of the population in India /
(b) does not have access to banking services, / (c) payments banks
are expected to reach far-flung areas /(d) extending the umbrella of
financial inclusion to everyone. / (e) No error.
51. Ancient artifacts are (1)/ a part of global heritage (2)/ and
should not be (3)/ sold to the highest bidder. (4)/No error.(5)
52. Most people like to(1) / rest after a day’s hard work (2)/ but
he seemed to have(3) / an inexhaustive supply of energy.
(4)/No error. (5)
53. None of the student(1) / in the class(2) / scored below
the(3) /given cut-off marks (4)./ No error (5
54. To be a king and(1) / wear a crown are (2)/ more
glamorous to (3)/ see than to bear.(4) / No error(5)
55. The climate (1)/ of Mumbai (2)/ is better than Hyderabad.
(3)/ No error (4)
56. He was for all (A)/ selling the car (B)/ and buying a bicycle.
(C)/ No error (D)
57. These companies have been asked 1)/ to furnish their
financial details 2)/ and information about 3)/ its board members.
4)/ No error 5).
58. The reason for (A)/ his failure is because (B)/ he did not
work hard. (C)/ No error (D)
59. This group of 1)/ rural achievers is very 2)/ different than
the 3)/ ones in the past. 4)/ No error 5).
60. Witnessed the young soldier’s ability 1)/ to repeatedly hit
bull’s eye at 2)/ arms training, instructors pushed him 3)/ to
participate in the Army marksmanship competition. 4)/ No error 5).
61. We were happy that (1)/ the audience responded well(2)/
and gave all the speakers (3)/ a patiently listening (4)/ No error (5)
62. The case was (1)/particularly challenging as the assailants
(2)/ had fled to an unknown destination (3)/ leaving up very few
clues (4)/ No error (5)
63. Airline managements should note (1)/ that the ultimate
passenger unfriendliness (2)/ is to have their planes crash (3)/ due
to the adopted of unsafe procedures (4)/ Ne error (5)
64. Many of the young people (1)/ studying abroad agreed that
(2)/ returning home was always (3) / an attractive option (4)/ No
error (5)
65. Private companies which profits (1)/ have grown due to (2)/
the high price of oil (3)/ should offer discounts on cooking gas
(4)/ No error (5)
66. Despite taking steps to (1)/encourage foreign investment (2)/
there has been any (3)/ substantial improvement In our
economy (4)/ No error (5)
67. Ravi Shankar’s performance was given (1)/ a standing ovation
by the (2)/ people who has come to hear him. (3)/ No error (4)
68. India is one of the (1)/ biggest oil importers but (2)/ is this
practices good (3)/ for the country and Its people (4)/ No error
(5)
69. 1) The country has / 2) adequate laws but problems / 3) arise
when these are not / 4) implemented in letter and spirit. / 5) No
error
70. It is all well known that 1)/ women are generally in favor of
2)/ light topics like jokes and expressions 3)/ that causing
laughter all around . 4)/ No error 5).
71. 1) School children, who so far / 2) have had rationed access
to / 3) the few playgrounds on the city must be / 4) happy by
the recent move. / 5) No error.
72. The manager is having his problems (1)/ but we have
(2)/ ours as well. (3)/ No error (4)
73. We have taken on 1)/ the responsibility of 2)/ arranging the
required training 3)/and supervise the new staff. 4)/ No error
5).
74. 1) A diamond jeweler’s peon/ 2) tipped off a gang / 3) about
the gold / 4) in his employer’s vault. / 5) No error.
75. 1) Acting on a tip-off / 2) the anti-robbery squad led / 3) by
inspectors laid / 4) a trap for the robbers. / 5) No error.
Error Spotting
3. A
1) In the following question, a sentence is given
which is divided into five parts. Part in bold is
4. C
grammatically correct. Out of the other four
parts, one part contains an error. Mark that 5. No error
option as your answer. If none of the parts in the
3) In the following question, a sentence is
following question, a sentence is given which is
given which is divided into five parts. Part in
divided into five parts. Part in bold is bold is grammatically correct. Out of the
grammatically correct. Out of the other four other four parts, one part contains an error.
parts, one part contains an error. Mark that Mark that option as your answer. If none of
option as your answer. If none of the parts has the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as
an error, mark 'No error' as your answer. your answer.
We like (A)/ this approach / because they fit (B)/

In the end (A)/, the problem (B)/ among the in with our (C)/ own preconceptions (D).
(C)/ friends resolved (D)/ amicably.
---------------------------
1. C
2. A 1. B
3. B 2. D
4. D
3. C
5. No errors
4. A
2) In the following question, a sentence is given
which is divided into five parts. Part in bold is 5. No error
grammatically correct. Out of the other four
parts, one part contains an error. Mark that 4) In the following question, a sentence is
option as your answer. If none of the parts has given which is divided into five parts. Part in
an error, mark 'No error' as your answer. bold is grammatically correct. Out of the
other four parts, one part contains an error.
Desperate measures (A)/ are needed (B)/ to Mark that option as your answer. If none of
deal with (C)/ the growing (D)/ drug the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as
problem. your answer.
--------------------------- Neither of / them (A)/ believe her (B)/

father would (C)/ let him live (D).
1. D
---------------------------
2. B
1. A
2. B
3. C 4. D
4. D 5. No error
5. No error 7) In the following question, a sentence is

5) In the following question, a sentence is bold is grammatically correct. Out of the
given which is divided into five parts. Part in other four parts, one part contains an error.
bold is grammatically correct. Out of the Mark that option as your answer. If none of
other four parts, one part contains an error. the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as
Mark that option as your answer. If none of your answer.
the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as
your answer. My father's car's documents (A)/ were
(B)/ seized (C)/ by the police /during the
The sceneries, (A)/ as well as inspection (D).
(B) / the people / of Meghalaya, (C)/ is very
pleasing (D). ---------------------------
--------------------------- 1. B
1. D 2. D
2. A 3. C
3. C 4. A
4. B 5. No error
5. No error 8) In the following question, a sentence is

bold is grammatically correct. Out of the
6) In the following question, a sentence is
Mark that option as your answer. If none of
bold is grammatically correct. Out of the
your answer.
The police reports / claim that (A)/ the raids
your answer.
conducted (B)/ by the inspector (C)/ was
effective (D).
One of / the table's legs (A)/ was (B)/
destroyed (C)/ by termites (D).
---------------------------
---------------------------
1. A
1. C
2. C
2. A
3. D
3. B
4. B 5. No error
5. No error 11) Read each sentence to find out whether

there is any grammatical mistake/error in it.
9) In the following question, a sentence is The error, if any, will be in one part of the
given which is divided into five parts. Part in sentence. Mark the number of that part with
bold is grammatically correct. Out of the error as your answer. If there is no error,
other four parts, one part contains an error. mark (5).
the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as Jyoti and Pankil are aware of what had
your answer. happened in the previous discussions
between the parties.
The car / looks as if (A)/ it was (B)/ decorate
(C)/ by an artist (D). ---------------------------
--------------------------- 1. Had aware of
1. D 2. are aware for
2. A 3. Were aware off
3. B 4. Were aware of
4. C 5. are aware about
5. No error 12) Read each sentence to find out whether

10) In the following question, a sentence is The error, if any, will be in one part of the
given which is divided into five parts. Part in sentence. Mark the number of that part with
bold is grammatically correct. Out of the error as your answer. If there is no error,
other four parts, one part contains an error. mark (5).
the parts has an error, mark 'No error' as Monica should not have blown her top as
your answer. Rachel was only trying to help her.
The fact of (A)/ me being (B)/ a smoker / ---------------------------

would probably (C) affect his health (D).
1. blown her top as
---------------------------
2. blown off her top as
1. C
3. Blown out her top as
2. A
4. Blew her top as
3. B
5. Blown her top though
4. D
13) Read each sentence to find out whether 15) Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. there is any grammatical mistake/error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. Mark the number of that part with sentence. Mark the number of that part with
error as your answer. If there is no error, error as your answer. If there is no error,
mark (5). mark (5).
In the month in which Raman got admission, The arrival of the cloned sheep Dolly seem
Raghav went to America for business to have taken the world by surprise..
--------------------------- ---------------------------
1. In the month in which 1. seem to have taken the world
2. In month in which 2. seems taking the world
3. In month of which 3. seems to have taken the world
4. On the month in which 4. seem to take the world
5. During month in which 5. Appear to have taken the world

14) Read each sentence to find out whether 16) Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. there is any grammatical mistake/error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. Mark the number of that part with sentence. Mark the number of that part with
error as your answer. If there is no error, error as your answer. If there is no error,
mark (5). mark (5).
Although I made up my mind to write a book Mr. Sharma advised the group to start the
on corruption, I did not begin work after the lunch.
--------------------------- ---------------------------
1. Although I made up my mind 1. Started to work after the lunch.
2. Although I had made up my mind 2. Starting of work after the lunch.
3. Although I made my mind 3. To start the work after lunch
4. Although I maked up my mind 4. To start work after the lunch.
5. Although I had make up my mind 5. To start working after the lunch.

17) Read each sentence to find out whether
The error, if any, will be in one part of the
sentence. Mark the number of that part with She was so furious that without listening to
error as your answer. If there is no error, anyone she entered into the room.
mark (5).
---------------------------
The committee demanded a report on black
hole by a team of experts. 1. She enters into the room
--------------------------- 2. She entered in the room.
a. A group of experts
3. She entered the room.
b. A panel of experts
4. She enters the room.
c. A pack of experts
5. She entered to the room.
d. A board of experts
20) Read the given sentence to find out
e. A regiment of experts whether there are any
grammatical/contextual errors in it. The
18) Read each sentence to find out whether errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. the sentence and the combination of those
The error, if any, will be in one part of the parts will be the answer. If no part in the
sentence. Mark the number of that part with sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
error as your answer. If there is no error, answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
mark (5). any).
We booked a deluxe room in the hotel. The When Mindy had finished eating, (A)/ she
room was enough spacious for us. had decided to (B)/ explores the empty (C)/
streets of Venice again (D).
---------------------------
---------------------------
1. Enough large for us.
1. AC
2. Spacious enough for us.
2. CD
3. Enough space for us.
3. BC
4. Too enlarge for us.
4. BD
5. Space enough for us.
5. No error
19) Read each sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. 21) Read the given sentence to find out
The error, if any, will be in one part of the whether there are any
sentence. Mark the number of that part with grammatical/contextual errors in it. The
error as your answer. If there is no error, errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
mark (5). the sentence and the combination of those
parts will be the answer. If no part in the 5. No error
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if 23) Read the given sentence to find out
any). whether there are any
Swami Vivekananda is (A)/ credited from errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
introducing the (B)/ West to the Indian (C)/ the sentence and the combination of those
philosophies to Vedanta and Yoga (D). parts will be the answer. If no part in the
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
--------------------------- answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
any).
a. BD
When lava makes its channel (A)/ through the
b. AD cracks and fissures, he (B)/ solidifies almost (C)/
perpendicular to the grounded (D).
c. BC
---------------------------
d. AB
1. AD
e. No error
2. BC
whether there are any
grammatical/contextual errors in it. The 3. BD
errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
the sentence and the combination of those 4. CD
parts will be the answer. If no part in the
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your 5. No error
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
any). 24) Read the given sentence to find out
Candidates whom are (A)/ successful in the grammatical/contextual errors in it. The
(B)/ written test will be invited (C)/ for a errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
interview (D). the sentence and the combination of those
--------------------------- sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
1. CD any).
2. AD Jerry's passport was confiscate (A)/ by the

police to (B)/ prevent he from (C)/ leaving
the country (D).
3. AB
---------------------------
4. AC
1. CD
2. BC
3. AB 1. AD
4. AC 2. CD
5. No error 3. BD
25) Read the given sentence to find out 4. AB
grammatical/contextual errors in it. The 5. No error
the sentence and the combination of those 27) Read the given sentence to find out
parts will be the answer. If no part in the whether there are any
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your grammatical/contextual errors in it. The
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
any). the sentence and the combination of those
The meeting will have (A)/ to wait unless sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
tomorrow (B)/ because I'm too busy (C)/ answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
for the moment (D). any).
--------------------------- Although there has been (A)/ progress

enormous toward accomplishing (B)/ parts
1. AB of the vision, the core (C)/ problem has
remain unmanageable (D).
2. BC
---------------------------
3. CD
1. AC
4. BD
2. BD
5. No error
3. AB
whether there are any 4. BC
errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of 5. No error
the sentence and the combination of those
parts will be the answer. If no part in the 28) Read the given sentence to find out
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your whether there are any
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if grammatical/contextual errors in it. The
any). errors, if any, will be in two of the phrases of
the sentence and the combination of those
Bonnie has joining (A)/ a debating group to parts will be the answer. If no part in the
(B)/ improve her (C)/ publically speaking sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your
skills (D). answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if
any).
---------------------------
The duration in the (A)/ journey will depend ---------------------------
on (B)/ how long it takes to (C)/ get
throughout the traffic (D). 1. The place was quietly and secluded,
and Sarah would be a sweet person to
--------------------------- work for.
a. AD 2. The drink was garnished with lemon

or a slice of fresh peach.
b. AC
3. He felt a slight twinge of guilt about
c. BC
what he'd had to do to insinuate himself
into their midst.
d. AB
e. No error 4. He's a joy to watch and often worth

the entrance money in an otherwise
humdrum season.
grammatical/contextual errors in it. The 5. All are correct
the sentence and the combination of those 31) Four sentences have been given below,
parts will be the answer. If no part in the out of which one sentence may or may not
sentence has an error, mark 'no error' as your have error(s), read carefully, and select the
answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if incorrect sentence. Mark your answer 'all are
any). correct' in case of no error.
The police officer identified (A)/ him and ---------------------------

asked (B)/ for ours help (C)/ to solved
the case (D). 1. The threads on this screw are gone,
and it keeps coming out.
---------------------------
2. The morning light was too bright for his
1. AB eyes, and he turned to face shelves of
antique books.
2. BC
3. She had some money tuck away in a
3. CD cookie jar in the kitchen and she intended to
pay him something, whether he liked it or
4. BD not.
5. No error 4. When he came into the classroom, his

gaze settled on her.
30) Four sentences have been given below,
out of which one sentence may or may not 5. All are correct
have error(s), read carefully, and select the
incorrect sentence. Mark your answer 'all are 32) Four sentences have been given below,
correct' in case of no error. out of which one sentence may or may not
have error(s), read carefully, and select the
incorrect sentence. Mark your answer 'all are 5. It is imperative to restrict everything
correct' in case of no error. that makes his stomach upset.
--------------------------- 34) Four sentences have been given below,

out of which one sentence may or may not
a. The approach of the crisis was have error(s), read carefully, and select the
heralded by many signs. incorrect sentence. Mark your answer 'all are
correct' in case of no error.
b. The snow began falling before dawn,
drifting down with an urgency that led ---------------------------
to a serious accumulation.
1. Dolphins are gregarious, and large
c. It is interesting to juxtapose the lifestyle herds often follow ships.
of today's teenage generation with their
grandparents' generation.
2. From his youth, he was creative in his
studies and a great reader and during his
d. I would liked to express my gratitude to
college life, he showed a marked talent for
everyone for their hard work.
extemporaneous speaking.
e. All are correct
3. That was a performance enough greater
33) Four sentences have been given below, from the orchestra.
out of which one sentence may or may not
have error(s), read carefully, and select the 4. Josh was no stranger to a fistfight, and
incorrect sentence. Mark your answer 'all are he was considered by many to be a
correct' in case of no error. formidable opponent.
--------------------------- 5. All are correct
1. There are roads, which in many districts 35) Read the sentence to find out whether
are in a deplorable condition. there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part or more of
2. She did not missed the way the others the sentence. Choose the options with parts
move out of his way or the way the aura of with no error as your answer. If there is no
command around him filled up the room. error, mark (e).
Necessary equipments (A)/ in addition to (B)/

3. All are correct cash rewards were (C)/ distributed by (D)/ the
volunteers at the seminar. (E)
4. These problems threaten the very
foundations of modern society. ---------------------------
1. BCDE
2. ACDE
3. ABCD 3. BCDE
4. Other than these options 4. Other than these options
5. No error 5. No error
36) Read the sentence to find out whether 38) Read the sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error in it. The there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part or more of error, if any, will be in one part or more of
the sentence. Choose the options with parts the sentence. Choose the options with parts
with no error as your answer. If there is no with no error as your answer. If there is no
error, mark (e). error, mark (e).
I and you (A)/ will go (B)/ to Delhi (C)/ Themselves had spent (A)/ more time
tomorrow to attend (D)/ Lakshmi's wandering (B)/ on the ranch, (C)/ but that
wedding. (E) was only because (D)/ they wanted to get her
alone. (E)
---------------------------
---------------------------
1. ACDE
1. ABDE
2. BCDE
2. BCDE
3. ABCE
3. ABCE
4. Other than these options
4. Other than these options
5. No error
5. No error
37) Read the sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error in it. The 39) Read the sentence to find out whether
error, if any, will be in one part or more of there is any grammatical error in it. The
the sentence. Choose the options with parts error, if any, will be in one part or more of
with no error as your answer. If there is no the sentence. Choose the options with parts
error, mark (e). with no error as your answer. If there is no
error, mark (e).
It is me (A)/ who is (B)/ responsible for (C)/
the safe custody of the money (D)/ seized The privatised boards (A)/ have given (B)/
yesterday at the airport. (E) themselves an inbuilt incentive (C) to exploit
their (D)/ monopoly position. (E)
---------------------------
---------------------------
1. ACDE
1. ABCD
2. ABDE
2. ABDE
3. ACDE 2. This project is in charge of designing
the library and supplementary materials
4. Other than these options such as like puppets, and games.
5. No error 3. The residents of two tribal settlements

within the limits of the tiger reserve are
40) In the following question, four preparing for the annual festival dedicated
statements are given which may or may not to their local deity.
contain an error. Choose the one that is
grammatically and meaningfully correct. If 4. The Oversight Board was
all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are established as an independent bodies
correct' as your answer. to assist the company in determining
what content is permitted on its
--------------------------- platform.
1. I make it a point not to overeat 5. All are correct

because it's obvious that it is bad for the
health. 42) In the following question, four
statements are given which may or may not
2. The electric vehicle industry is still in their contain an error. Choose the one that is
infancy, with enormous potential but grammatically and meaningfully correct. If
skewed demand. all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are
correct' as your answer.
3. They agreed to the budget for the games
and a few other prop I needed.
4. The real challenge for mobile phone

companies these days are to surprise
1. Aromatherapy is a type of alternative
medicine that uses essential oils to heal
customers with low prices for cutting-edge
the mind and body.
technology.
5. All are correct 2. Some people believe that technology

hinders teaching, while others believe that
it improves the learning experience of
41) In the following question, four
students.
grammatically and meaningfully correct. If 3. John refuses to believe that Mary was the
all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are one who stole all his credit cards.
4. It was a cold and rainy night, and there
--------------------------- was no one in the streets.
1. Earnings for the majority of worker have 5. All are correct

fallen, resulting in an increase in poverty in
the (country.
43) In the following question, four 3. About twenty worker were at the work
statements are given which may or may not site at the time of the accident, but luckily
contain an error. Choose the one that is all of them survived.
grammatically and meaningfully correct. If
all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are 4. All the passengers praised the move, but
correct' as your answer. it urged the government to increase the
number of regular buses on the road.
---------------------------
5. All are correct
1. Microbes living in sediments buried
deep beneath the seafloor can survived
due to their high metabolic rates.
2. From this height, you can enjoyed a view

of the river and the field of ripe corn that
always gives a good harvest.
3. The older siblings were out in the field

working hard, while the younger ones spent
the entire day playing in the park.
4. The villages first suffered due to drought

and then the flood wreaked havoc on it.
5. All are correct
44) In the following question, four

grammatically and meaningfully correct. If
all the sentences are correct, mark 'All are
1. Jame's poem contrasts a lion in the cage

with the lion in its natural habitat.
2. Local fashion labels responds to the

need of the hour by donating almost all of
their profits to non- governmental
organisations.
22) OPTION 2
23) OPTION 3
ANSWERS
24) OPTION 4
1) OPTION 4
25) OPTION 4
2) OPTION 5
26) OPTION 1
3) OPTION 1
27) OPTION 2
4) OPTION 2
28) OPTION 1
5) OPTION 2
29) OPTION 3
6) OPTION 2
30) OPTION 1
7) OPTION 4
31) OPTION 3
8) OPTION 3
32) OPTION 4
9) OPTION 4
33) OPTION 2
10) OPTION 3
34) OPTION 3
11) OPTION 4
35) OPTION 4
12) OPTION 1
36) OPTION 2
13) OPTION 1
37) OPTION 4
14) OPTION 2
38) OPTION 2
15) OPTION 3
39) OPTION 5
16) OPTION 3
40) OPTION 1
17) OPTION 2
18) OPTION 2
19) OPTION 3
20) OPTION 3
21) OPTION 1
Direct Indirect Speech Qs
Q1. The officer said to the clerk, "File these papers immediately"
The officer said to the clerk to file these papers immediately.
The officer ordered to the clerk to file those papers immediately.
The officer ordered the clerk to file those papers immediately.
None.
Q2. He said to Sheela, "you have committed a mistake here.??

He told Sheela that she committed a mistake here.
He told Sheela that she had committed a mistake there.
He told Sheela that she would commit a mistake there.
None.
Q3. The designer said to her, ‘will you have the dress ready by tomorrow evening?’
The designer asked her if she would have the dress ready by next evening.
The designer asked her that she would have the dress ready by next evening.
The designer asked her that if she will like to have the dress by next evening.
The designer asked her that she will have the suit ready by next evening.
Q4. Vamsi said, "We are playing a match today.??

Vamsi said that they were playing a match today.
Vamsi said that they are playing a match today.
Vamsi said that they have been playing a match that day.
Vamsi said that they were playing a match that day.
The driver said to the passerby, “Do you know the way to the market
The driver asked the passerby did he know the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby if he knows the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby whether you know the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby if he knew the way to the market.
Q5. Amit said to me, “Your parents are waiting for you.”
Amit told me that your parents are waiting for you.
Amit told me that his parents were waiting for me.
Amit asked me if my parents were waiting for me.
Amit told me that my parents were waiting for me.
Q6. I said to her, "I am writing an essay now.??
I told her that I was writing an essay then.
I told her that I am writing an essay then.
I told her that I was writing an essay now.
I told to her that I was writing an essay then.
Q7. He said, "Children go to school every day'

He said children go to school every day.
He said that children go to school every day.
He said that children go to school that day.
None.
Q8. The teacher said, "Are you preparing well for the exams?"
The teacher said that they are preparing well for the exams.
The teacher asked if I am preparing well for the exams.
The teacher asked if I was preparing well for the exams.
The teachers asked whether I have been preparing well for the exams.
Q9. She asked the child, "Have you taken your meal?"
She asked the child if he/she had taken his/her meal.
She asked the child if he/she has taken his/her meal.
She asked the child if he/she will take his/her meal.
She asked the child if he/she would take his/her meal.
Q10. She said to the boy, "Where did you learn classical music?"
She asked the boy where he learnt classical music.
She asked the boy where he learns classical music.
She asked the boy where he would learn classical music.
She asked the boy where he had learnt classical music.
Q11. The teacher said to the girl, "What is your name?"

The teacher asked the girl what her name was.
The teacher said to the girl what her name is/was.
The teacher asked the girl what was her name.
The teacher asked the girl what is her name.
Q12. He said to her, "Alas! He lost all his property.??
He told her that he lost all his property.

He exclaimed with sorrow that he had lost all his property.
He exclaimed with sorrow that he lost all his property.
He exclaimed with sorrow that he has lost all his property.
Q13. She said, "They were going/'

She said that they are going.
She said that they have been going.
She said that they will be going.
She said that they had been going.
Q14. The children said to me, "We will go out in the rain.??
The children told me that they would go out in the rain.
The children told to me that they would go out in the rain.
The children said to me that they would go out in the rain.
None.
Q15. He said to me, "You can never get my help.??

He told me that I can never get my help.
He told me that I could never get his help.
He told me that I could never get my help.
He told me that I can never get his help.
Q16. He said to me, "I shall show you the way now."
He said that he should show me the way now.
He told me that he should show me the way then.
He said to me that he should show me the way then.
None.
Q17. He said to her, "Did you plan to go away in summer?"

He asked her if she would plan to go away in summer.
He asked her if she planned to go away in summer.
He asked her if she has planned to go away in summer.
He asked her if she had planned to go away in summer.
Q18. They said, ‘Let us come in’.

They told that let them be allowed to come in.
They requested that they might be allowed to come in.
They said that if they are allowed to come in.
They requested me to let them come in.
Q19. Reshma said to Priya, ‘Why are you sketching on the wall?’
Reshma asked Priya why was she sketching on the wall.
Reshma asked Priya why had she been sketching on the wall
Reshma asked Priya that why is she sketching on the wall.
Reshma asked Priya why she was sketching on the wall.
Q20. ‘Jacob fell as he’d have wished’, the father said.

The father said that Jacob has fallen as he would have wished.
The father said that Jacob had fallen as he would have wished.
The father said that Jocob had fallen as he had wished.
The father said that Jacob had been fallen as he would have been wished.
Q21. Arya said to Tara, ‘David will leave for his mother’s place tomorrow’.
Arya told Tara that David will leave for his mother’s place tomorrow.
Arys told Tara that David will leave for his mother’s place the next day.
Arya told Tara that David would leave for his mother’s place the next day.
Arya informed Tara that David would be leaving for his mother’s place the next day.
Q22. I said to Pramod, “How did you break your leg?”

I asked Pramod how he had broken your leg.
I asked Pramod how did you break your leg.
I asked Pramod how he had broken his leg
I asked Pramod how you broke your leg.
Q23. The driver said to the passerby, “Do you know the way to the market
The driver asked the passerby did he know the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby if he knows the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby whether you know the way to the market.
The driver asked the passerby if he knew the way to the market.
Q24. She said to the boy, "Where did you learn classical music?"
She asked the boy where he learnt classical music.
She asked the boy where he learns classical music.
She asked the boy where he would learn classical music.
She asked the boy where he had learnt classical music.
Q25. Anshul told me that his mother was not at home and that she would be back the following day.
Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She will be back tomorrow.”
Anshul said to me, “My mother was not at home. She will be back the following day.”
Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She would be back the following day.”
Anshul said to me, “His mother was not at home. She would be back tomorrow.”
Q26. Rani said to me, “A monkey bit me in the park.”

Rani told me that a monkey has bitten her in the park.
Rani told me that a monkey had bitten her in the park.
Rani told me that a monkey bit me in the park.
Rani asked me if a monkey bit me in the park.
Q27. I said to Pramod, “How did you break your leg?”

I asked Pramod how he had broken your leg.
I asked Pramod how did you break your leg.
I asked Pramod how he had broken his leg
I asked Pramod how you broke your leg.
Q28. “Press button A to start the machine,” said the instructor to the trainees.
The instructor requested the trainees press button A to start the machine.
The instructor said to the trainees that you should press button A to start the machine
The instructor told the trainees to press button A to start the machine.
The instructor told the trainees that pressing button A would start the machine
Q29. Madhuri told me that I could stay in her flat whenever I was in Kolkata.
Madhuri said to me, “You can stay in my flat whenever you are in Kolkata.”
Madhuri said to me, “I could stay in her flat whenever I was in Kolkata.”
Madhuri said to me, “I can stay in my flat whenever I am in Kolkata.”
Madhuri said to me, “You could stay in her flat whenever she was in Kolkata.”
Q30. The doctor advised the patients to give up smoking.
The doctor said to the patients, "Give up smoking."
The doctor said to the patient, "I am advising you to give up smoking."
The doctor said to the patients, "Why don't you give up smoking?"
The doctor said to the patients, "You should give up smoking."
Q31. He has just said, "My son will be back on Friday."

He has just said that his son will be back on Friday.
He has just said that my son will be back on Friday.
He has just said that his son would have been back next Friday.
He has just said that his son shall be back on Friday.
Q32. Robin said to Peg, "Are you listening? Don't be thick."

Robin invited Peg to listen and not to be thick.
Peg was asked to listen to Robin and not to be thick.
Robin told Peg to listen to him and not to be thick.
Robin asked Peg if he was listening and advised him not to be thick.
Q33. The clerk said to the visitor, “Shall I ask these people to wait for you?”
The clerk told the visitor that he should ask these people to wait for him.
The clerk asked the visitor if he should ask those people to wait for him.
The clerk asked the visitor if he shall ask these people to wait for him.
The clerk asked the visitor if he had asked those people to wait for him
Q34. He said, "She had been weeping for an hour."

He said that she has been weeping for an hour
He said that she had been weeping for an hour.
He says that she was weeping for an hour.
He said that she was weeping for an hour.
Q35. The salesman said that he had verified all the bills while the goods were being
packed.
The salesman said, “He had verified all the bills while the goods was being packed.”
The salesman said, “I have verified all the bills while the goods are packed.”
The salesman said, “I am verifying all the bills while the goods are being packed.”
The salesman said, “I verified all the bills while the goods were being packed.”
Q36. The spectators applauded the young athlete saying that he had broken all
previous records.
The spectators said to the young athlete, “Bravo! You have broken all records.”
The spectators said to the young athlete, “You broke all records.”
The spectators exclaimed to the young athlete, “You have broken all records.”
The spectators said to the young athlete, “You had broken all records.”
Q37. He said, “They will be using my car for the trip.”

He said that we will be using his car for the trip.
He said that they would be using his car for the trip.
He said that they would be using my car for the trip.
He said that they will be using my car for the trip.
Q38. Mother told me that I should listen to her first and then do anything as I pleased.
Mother said to me, “I should listen to me first and then do anything I please.”
Mother said to me, “You should listen to me first and then do anything as you please.”
Mother said to me, “You should listen to me first and then do anything I pleased.”
Mother said to me, “He should listen to her first and then do anything he pleases.”
Q39. The boss said to him, "Please tell me what the old man said today."
The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said today.
The boss requested him to tell him what the old man had said that day.
The boss requested him to tell him what the old man said today.
The boss requested him to tell him what the old man said that day.
Q40. They told us that they had waited at the station for a long time.
They told us "We are waiting at the station for a long time".
They told us "We wait at the station for a long time."
They told us "We waited at the station for a long time".
They told us "We had been waiting at the station for a long time".
Q41. Taru said, “Kavya is going to her grandmother’s house today for the weekend.”
Taru said that Kavya was going to her grandmother’s house that day for the weekend.
Taru said that Kavya was going to her grandmother’s house today for the weekend.
Taru said that Kavya is going to her grandmother’s house today for the weekend
Taru said that Kavya has gone to her grandmother’s house that day for the weekend.
Q42. Amit said to me, “Your parents are waiting for you.”
Amit told me that your parents are waiting for you.
Amit told me that his parents were waiting for me.
Amit asked me if my parents were waiting for me.
Amit told me that my parents were waiting for me.
Q43. Rani said to me, “A monkey bit me in the park.”

Rani told me that a monkey has bitten her in the park.
Rani told me that a monkey had bitten her in the park.
Rani told me that a monkey bit me in the park.
Rani asked me if a monkey bit me in the park.
Q44. Anshul told me that his mother was not at home and that she would be back the
following day.
Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She will be back tomorrow.”
Anshul said to me, “My mother was not at home. She will be back the following day.”
Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She would be back the following day.”
Anshul said to me, “His mother was not at home. She would be back tomorrow.”
Q45. He said, “Gandhi ji faced many awkward situations when he was living in South
Africa.”
He told that Gandhi ji had faced many awkward situations when he was living in South
Africa.
He says that Gandhi ji faced many awkward situations when he was living in South Africa
He said that Gandhi ji had faced many awkward situations when he was living in South
Africa.
He said that Gandhi ji had been facing awkward situations when he was living in South
Africa.
Cloze Test
(Questions 1-10) In the following questions, you have a passage where some of the words have been left
out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each blanks with its particular number,
out of the four alternatives.
Childhood is a time when there are _____ (1 )___ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child ___ (2) ___ good
parents, he is fed, looked ___ (3) ___ and loved, whatever he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his
life ___ (4) ___ given so much without having to do anything ___ (5)___ return. In addition, life is always ___ (6) ___
new things to the child. A child finds ___ (7)___ in playing in the rain or in the snow. His first visit ___ (8) ___ the
seaside is a marvelous adventure. But a child has his pains; he is not so free to do as he wishes; he is continually
being ___ (9) ___ not to do things or is being ___ (10)___. His life is therefore not perfectly happy
1. Find the appropriate word for (1)

A. few
B. more
C. many
D. little
Answer: A

A. has
B. will have
C. have
D. had
Answer: A

A. after
B. around
C. at
D. up
Answer: A

A. be
B. is
C. has
D. are
Answer: A

A. of
B. as
C. for
D. in
Answer: D

A. displaying
B. presenting
C. donating
D. granting
Answer: B
A. pressure
B. pleasure
C. pain
D. progress
Answer: B

A. for
B. in
C. on
D. to
Answer: D

A. restricted
B. forbidden
C. told
D. ordered
Answer: C

A. punished
B. disturbed
C. beaten
D. penalized
Answer: A
Q. Nos. 11 to 20:
Chief minister Yogi Adityanath on Saturday picked up a broom here to convey his seriousness towards making Uttar
Pradesh clean, a day after he expressed regret over the state's poor rating in the cleanliness (11)_________.
Accompanied by ministerial colleague Suresh Khanna and other officials, the chief minister arrived at the congested
Baloo Addar locality in the heart of the city in Ram Mohan ward and sweeped the (12)__________. Only one city of
the state, Varanasi, had figured in the list of 100 clean cities in the government's 'Swachh Survekshan-2017'. Nine
others were among the 15 dirtiest districts in the country with Gonda turning out to be the dirtiest city in India.
"Although this survey was taken up before we took over, our government has (13) __________ to work in this area
and by December 2017 we aim to declare 30 districts and by October 2018 the entire state open defecation-free,"
he said in the press conference on Friday. He also gave instructions to the municipal staff present on the (14)
____________ to maintain cleanliness and said it was among the top priorities of the government. "Why is the state
capital so dirty? It is a matter of concern as to why Lucknow does not figure in the list of 100 clean cities...make all
preparations before the (15) __________ of monsoon to clean the drains so that they do not overflow on the
streets... "All wards should be given clear instructions on cleanliness...people should be made (16) _________ of
not (17) __________ on the roads and use of dustbins" he told the municipal department officials. After taking over
as the chief minister, Yogi had (18) ___________ a pledge of cleanliness to (19) ___________ and asked them to
clean up their (20) _______________.
11:
A) Survey
B) Observe
C) Regard
D) View
E) Contemplate
12:
A) Street
B) Alley
C) Lane
D) Parade
E) Strip
13:
A) Clear-cut
B) Undisputed
C) Unmistakable
D) Decided
E) Assured
14:
A) Occasion
B) Celebration
C) Excuse
D) Opportunity
E) Gathering
15:
A) Creation
B) Inception
C) Onset
D) Rise
E) Opening
16:
A) Well informed
B) Enlightened
C) Aware
D) Switched-on
E) Knowledgeable
17:
A) Littering
B) Mess up
C) Be jumbled
D) Clutter up
E) Be jumbled
18:
A) Administrated
B) Handle
C) Guide
D) Boss
E) Oversee
19:
A) Officials
B) Functionary
C) Administrator
D) Jack-in- office
E) Agent
20:
A) Neighborhoods
B) Zone
C) Quarter
D) Region
E) Environs
Directions (21 -25): Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given.
Uncertainty looms over the revival of Naini Lake, a waterbody in the middle of Model Town in North Delhi, due
to________ (21) in the opinions of residents and local bodies regarding its desilting and________ (22). While the
Corporation claimed that the lake________(23) for years and several attempts by them to initiate a drive to desilt it
were halted because of lack of funds or________ (24) from locals, residents alleged that it is________ (25) fresh
water lake and is free from silt, and only a water treatment plant will be enough to resolve the problem.
21. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1

(1) feuds
(2) protests
(3) objections
(4) differences

(1) evacuation
(2) beautification
(3) moderation
(4) resolution

(1) is desilted
(2) is not to be desilted
(3) hasn’t been desilted
(4) has desilted

(1) activation
(2) applause
(3) resistance
(4) assault

(1) any
(2) some
(3) the
(4) a
Directions (26-30): Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each
blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.
Rajan is salesman. He goes from door to door ___ (A)___ vacuum cleaners. On his first day of work, he decided to
sell his goods by knocking on the doors of a private housing estate. “My first ___(B)___ ,” he thought as he pressed
the doorbell of the first house. A middle-aged woman with curlers in her hair opened the door. Rajan began to
explain who he was and the ___(C)___ he was selling. The next minute, the door was ___(D)___ . “Not interested !”
John heard her shout ___(E)___ the closed door.
26. Find the most appropriate word for (A)

A. Selling
B. Purchasing
C. Purchasing
D. Gifting
Answer: A
27. Find the most appropriate word for (B)

A. Manufacturer
B. Supplier
C. Customer
D. Consumer
Answer: D
28. Find the most appropriate word for (C)

A. Produce
B. Ingredients
C. Material
D. Product
Answer: D
29. Find the most appropriate word for (D)

A. Slammed
B. Crammed
C. Damned
D. Tamed
Answer: B
30. Find the most appropriate word for (E)

A. Behind
B. Before
C. Aside
D. On
Answer: A
Directions (31-35): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is
indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against each letter and fill up the blanks
with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
This year, the world’s largest democracy, India, and the biggest country by _____ 31_____, Russia, are celebrating
the 70th anniversary of establishment of diplomatic relations between them. Russia continues to be among India’s
major politico-diplomatic and defence partner nations. While India has _____ 32 _____ separate strategic
partnership pacts with more than two dozen countries, the Indian and Russian governments in December 2010
_____ 33 _____ their bilateral ‘Strategic Partnership’ to what they termed a “Special and Privileged Strategic
Partnership.” The New Delhi-based _____ 34 _____ ‘Foundation for National Security Research’, which did a
comparative assessment of India’s strategic partnerships — meaning, ‘political-diplomatic, defence and economic
cooperation’ (during the 10-year period prior to November 2011), had said, “Russia emerges as the most important
strategic partner of India (followed by the U.S., France, the U.K., Germany and Japan in that order).” The November
2011 report had found that Russia had provided strong political and diplomatic support to India and helped
enormously in building India’s defence capability. However, it warned that the “economic content of the (India-
Russia) partnership is extremely weak, ” and recommended that “urgent and _____35 _____ steps need to be taken
to improve economic relations if this (India-Russia) partnership is to be sustained and made durable.”
31.
A. Population
B. Density
C. Area
D. Democracy
E. Economy
32.
A. Inked
B. Considered
C. Contemplated
D. Refuted
E. Revoked
33.
A. Called
B. Elevated
C. Refreshed
D. Nullified
E. Revived
34.
A. NGO
B. Startup
C. Personnel
D. Think tank
E. Avenue
35.
A. Various
B. Precarious
C. Vigorous
D. Minuscule
E. Exhilarating
Directions (36-45): In the passage given below there are blanks which are to be filled with the options given
below. Find out the appropriate pair of words in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence
without altering the meaning of the statement.
Two decades after signing the UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or
Punishment, India is yet to (36)_________ it. There can be little justification for such a / an (37)__________ delay in
passing legislation to give effect to the convention. In recent times there is a fresh note of urgency attached to the
need for early ratification, as the country has pending requests for the (38)__________ of its nationals from other
countries. For, as pointed out by the Supreme Court, the absence of a stand-alone law (39)__________ torture may
prevent many countries from agreeing to India’s extradition requests. Such a law may be in the national interest, the
Chief Justice of India observed during the course of a hearing on a public interest petition seeking the enactment of
an anti-torture law in accordance with the country’s (40)______________. The court also noted that India was
subjected to close questioning during the Universal Periodic Review of its human rights obligations at the UN Human
Rights Council in Geneva. It cannot be forgotten that an extradition request relating to Purulia arms drop case
suspect Kim Davy failed owing to the (41)________ that he may be ill-treated in India. In an era of increasing
international cooperation on criminal matters, India will be better served if it is seen as adhering to international
treaties, especially its obligations under the Convention Against Torture, which it signed in 1997. There may be
some doubt whether India needs a fresh law to prevent and punish torture. Provisions relating to causing hurt or
grievous hurt, especially with a view to extracting a confession, criminal (42)_________ and wrongful confinement
already exist in the Indian Penal Code. However, the idea of a stand-alone law ought to be ultimately seen as a
more tangible way of expressing commitment to eliminating torture. A concrete step towards enacting a law was
made when the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, was passed by the Lok Sabha in 2010, but it was referred to a
Select Committee in the Rajya Sabha. In its report submitted in the same year, the committee recommended
exhaustive amendments to the Bill to make it (43)___________ with the language and intent of the Convention.
Thereafter the Bill lapsed. The government now says it has referred the matter to the Law Commission for an
authoritative view. Given the pervasive nature of custodial violence and its complex policing requirements, the
present legislative and administrative framework is obviously inadequate to prevent torture in a country of India’s
size. It is (44)_________ that a strong law that criminalises torture, imposes (45)___________ punishment for it and
contains liberal provisions for those suffering torture to complain against their perpetrators, prosecute them and be
compensated and rehabilitated, is passed at the earliest
36:
1. rigid / stiff
2. powerful / rough
3. ratify / approve
4. picky / poignant
5. critical / inexorable
Answer : 3)
37:
1. prolonged / protracted
2. ambitious / clamorous
3. wearying / trying
4. dismal / crabbed
5. difficult / exigent
Answer : 1)
38:
1. Unrelenting / grim
2. nagging / insistent
3. imperious / exhausting
4. saturnine / critical
5. extradition / expulsion
Answer : 5)
39:
1. stubborn / perverse
2. prohibiting / constraining
3. labored / acrimonious
4. arduous / oppressive
5. peremptory / constrained
Answer : 2)
40:
1. obdurate / inclement
2. resentful / hostile
3. rancorous / vengeful
4. commitment / promise
5. austere / bitter
Answer : 4)
41:
1. punitive / cussed
2. ungracious / wicked
3. dogged / ruthless
4. staunch / intractable
5. apprehension / suspicion
Answer : 5)
42:
1. orderly / docile
2. congruous / logical
3. amenable / submissive
4. intimidation / frightening
5. proportionate / unflagging
Answer : 4)
43:
1. diatribe / invective
2. consistent / steady
3. menace / restraint
4. subdual / caution
5. jeopardy / peril
Answer: 2)
44:
1. befitting / sufficient
2. genial / mellow
3. adaptable / harmonious
4. commensurate / articulate
5. imperative / essential
Answer: 5)
45:
1. stringent / demanding
2. sequential / ensuing
3. monotonous / immutable
4. unruffled / planate
5. tranquil / surfaced
Answer: 1)
Directions (46-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
each case.
Primary school enrolment in India has been a success story, (46) due to various programmes and drives to increase
enrolment even in remote areas. With enrolment reaching at least 96 percent since 2009, and girls (47) up 56
percent of new students between 2007 and 2013, it is clear that many (48) of access to schooling have been (49).
Improvement in infrastructure has been the (50) behind achieving this and now in India 98 percent habitations have
a primary school within one kilometre and 92 percent have an upper primary school within a three kilometre walking
distance.
46:
(a) most
(b) properly
(c) totally
(d) optionally
(e) largely
Correct Answer:”e”
47:
(a) coming
(b) reaching
(c) counting
(d) making
(e) touching
Correct Answer: d“”
48:
(a) issue
(b)opportunities
(c) problems
(d) efforts
(e) exertions
49:
(a) accustomed
(b) addressed
(c) met
(d) forwarded
(e) dissolved
50:
(a) main
(b) forced
(c) force
(d) compulsion
(e) awareness
Cloze Test
(Questions 1-10) In the following questions, you have a passage where some of the words have been left
out. Read the passages carefully and choose the correct answer to each blanks with its particular number,
out of the four alternatives.
Childhood is a time when there are _____ (1 )___ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child ___ (2) ___ good
parents, he is fed, looked ___ (3) ___ and loved, whatever he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his
life ___ (4) ___ given so much without having to do anything ___ (5)___ return. In addition, life is always ___ (6) ___
new things to the child. A child finds ___ (7)___ in playing in the rain or in the snow. His first visit ___ (8) ___ the
seaside is a marvelous adventure. But a child has his pains; he is not so free to do as he wishes; he is continually
being ___ (9) ___ not to do things or is being ___ (10)___. His life is therefore not perfectly happy

A. few
B. more
C. many
D. little
Answer: A

A. has
B. will have
C. have
D. had
Answer: A

A. after
B. around
C. at
D. up
Answer: A

A. be
B. is
C. has
D. are
Answer: A

A. of
B. as
C. for
D. in
Answer: D

A. displaying
B. presenting
C. donating
D. granting
Answer: B
A. pressure
B. pleasure
C. pain
D. progress
Answer: B

A. for
B. in
C. on
D. to
Answer: D

A. restricted
B. forbidden
C. told
D. ordered
Answer: C

A. punished
B. disturbed
C. beaten
D. penalized
Answer: A
Q. Nos. 11 to 20:
Chief minister Yogi Adityanath on Saturday picked up a broom here to convey his seriousness towards making Uttar
Pradesh clean, a day after he expressed regret over the state's poor rating in the cleanliness (11)_________.
Accompanied by ministerial colleague Suresh Khanna and other officials, the chief minister arrived at the congested
Baloo Addar locality in the heart of the city in Ram Mohan ward and sweeped the (12)__________. Only one city of
the state, Varanasi, had figured in the list of 100 clean cities in the government's 'Swachh Survekshan-2017'. Nine
others were among the 15 dirtiest districts in the country with Gonda turning out to be the dirtiest city in India.
"Although this survey was taken up before we took over, our government has (13) __________ to work in this area
and by December 2017 we aim to declare 30 districts and by October 2018 the entire state open defecation-free,"
he said in the press conference on Friday. He also gave instructions to the municipal staff present on the (14)
____________ to maintain cleanliness and said it was among the top priorities of the government. "Why is the state
capital so dirty? It is a matter of concern as to why Lucknow does not figure in the list of 100 clean cities...make all
preparations before the (15) __________ of monsoon to clean the drains so that they do not overflow on the
streets... "All wards should be given clear instructions on cleanliness...people should be made (16) _________ of
not (17) __________ on the roads and use of dustbins" he told the municipal department officials. After taking over
as the chief minister, Yogi had (18) ___________ a pledge of cleanliness to (19) ___________ and asked them to
clean up their (20) _______________.
11:
A) Survey
B) Observe
C) Regard
D) View
E) Contemplate
12:
A) Street
B) Alley
C) Lane
D) Parade
E) Strip
13:
A) Clear-cut
B) Undisputed
C) Unmistakable
D) Decided
E) Assured
14:
A) Occasion
B) Celebration
C) Excuse
D) Opportunity
E) Gathering
15:
A) Creation
B) Inception
C) Onset
D) Rise
E) Opening
16:
A) Well informed
B) Enlightened
C) Aware
D) Switched-on
E) Knowledgeable
17:
A) Littering
B) Mess up
C) Be jumbled
D) Clutter up
E) Be jumbled
18:
A) Administrated
B) Handle
C) Guide
D) Boss
E) Oversee
19:
A) Officials
B) Functionary
C) Administrator
D) Jack-in- office
E) Agent
20:
A) Neighborhoods
B) Zone
C) Quarter
D) Region
E) Environs
Directions (21 -25): Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given.
Uncertainty looms over the revival of Naini Lake, a waterbody in the middle of Model Town in North Delhi, due
to________ (21) in the opinions of residents and local bodies regarding its desilting and________ (22). While the
Corporation claimed that the lake________(23) for years and several attempts by them to initiate a drive to desilt it
were halted because of lack of funds or________ (24) from locals, residents alleged that it is________ (25) fresh
water lake and is free from silt, and only a water treatment plant will be enough to resolve the problem.

(1) feuds
(2) protests
(3) objections
(4) differences

(1) evacuation
(2) beautification
(3) moderation
(4) resolution

(1) is desilted
(2) is not to be desilted
(3) hasn’t been desilted
(4) has desilted

(1) activation
(2) applause
(3) resistance
(4) assault

(1) any
(2) some
(3) the
(4) a
Directions (26-30): Below the passage, four options are given for each blank. Choose the word that fits each
blank most appropriately in the context of the passage, and mark the corresponding answer.
Rajan is salesman. He goes from door to door ___ (A)___ vacuum cleaners. On his first day of work, he decided to
sell his goods by knocking on the doors of a private housing estate. “My first ___(B)___ ,” he thought as he pressed
the doorbell of the first house. A middle-aged woman with curlers in her hair opened the door. Rajan began to
explain who he was and the ___(C)___ he was selling. The next minute, the door was ___(D)___ . “Not interested !”
John heard her shout ___(E)___ the closed door.
26. Find the most appropriate word for (A)

A. Selling
B. Purchasing
C. Purchasing
D. Gifting
Answer: A
27. Find the most appropriate word for (B)

A. Manufacturer
B. Supplier
C. Customer
D. Consumer
Answer: D
28. Find the most appropriate word for (C)

A. Produce
B. Ingredients
C. Material
D. Product
Answer: D
29. Find the most appropriate word for (D)

A. Slammed
B. Crammed
C. Damned
D. Tamed
Answer: B
30. Find the most appropriate word for (E)

A. Behind
B. Before
C. Aside
D. On
Answer: A
Directions (31-35): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is
indicated by a letter. Find the suitable word from the options given against each letter and fill up the blanks
with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
This year, the world’s largest democracy, India, and the biggest country by _____ 31_____, Russia, are celebrating
the 70th anniversary of establishment of diplomatic relations between them. Russia continues to be among India’s
major politico-diplomatic and defence partner nations. While India has _____ 32 _____ separate strategic
partnership pacts with more than two dozen countries, the Indian and Russian governments in December 2010
_____ 33 _____ their bilateral ‘Strategic Partnership’ to what they termed a “Special and Privileged Strategic
Partnership.” The New Delhi-based _____ 34 _____ ‘Foundation for National Security Research’, which did a
comparative assessment of India’s strategic partnerships — meaning, ‘political-diplomatic, defence and economic
cooperation’ (during the 10-year period prior to November 2011), had said, “Russia emerges as the most important
strategic partner of India (followed by the U.S., France, the U.K., Germany and Japan in that order).” The November
2011 report had found that Russia had provided strong political and diplomatic support to India and helped
enormously in building India’s defence capability. However, it warned that the “economic content of the (India-
Russia) partnership is extremely weak, ” and recommended that “urgent and _____35 _____ steps need to be taken
to improve economic relations if this (India-Russia) partnership is to be sustained and made durable.”
31.
A. Population
B. Density
C. Area
D. Democracy
E. Economy
32.
A. Inked
B. Considered
C. Contemplated
D. Refuted
E. Revoked
33.
A. Called
B. Elevated
C. Refreshed
D. Nullified
E. Revived
34.
A. NGO
B. Startup
C. Personnel
D. Think tank
E. Avenue
35.
A. Various
B. Precarious
C. Vigorous
D. Minuscule
E. Exhilarating
Directions (36-45): In the passage given below there are blanks which are to be filled with the options given
below. Find out the appropriate pair of words in each case which can most suitably complete the sentence
without altering the meaning of the statement.
Two decades after signing the UN Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or
Punishment, India is yet to (36)_________ it. There can be little justification for such a / an (37)__________ delay in
passing legislation to give effect to the convention. In recent times there is a fresh note of urgency attached to the
need for early ratification, as the country has pending requests for the (38)__________ of its nationals from other
countries. For, as pointed out by the Supreme Court, the absence of a stand-alone law (39)__________ torture may
prevent many countries from agreeing to India’s extradition requests. Such a law may be in the national interest, the
Chief Justice of India observed during the course of a hearing on a public interest petition seeking the enactment of
an anti-torture law in accordance with the country’s (40)______________. The court also noted that India was
subjected to close questioning during the Universal Periodic Review of its human rights obligations at the UN Human
Rights Council in Geneva. It cannot be forgotten that an extradition request relating to Purulia arms drop case
suspect Kim Davy failed owing to the (41)________ that he may be ill-treated in India. In an era of increasing
international cooperation on criminal matters, India will be better served if it is seen as adhering to international
treaties, especially its obligations under the Convention Against Torture, which it signed in 1997. There may be
some doubt whether India needs a fresh law to prevent and punish torture. Provisions relating to causing hurt or
grievous hurt, especially with a view to extracting a confession, criminal (42)_________ and wrongful confinement
already exist in the Indian Penal Code. However, the idea of a stand-alone law ought to be ultimately seen as a
more tangible way of expressing commitment to eliminating torture. A concrete step towards enacting a law was
made when the Prevention of Torture Bill, 2010, was passed by the Lok Sabha in 2010, but it was referred to a
Select Committee in the Rajya Sabha. In its report submitted in the same year, the committee recommended
exhaustive amendments to the Bill to make it (43)___________ with the language and intent of the Convention.
Thereafter the Bill lapsed. The government now says it has referred the matter to the Law Commission for an
authoritative view. Given the pervasive nature of custodial violence and its complex policing requirements, the
present legislative and administrative framework is obviously inadequate to prevent torture in a country of India’s
size. It is (44)_________ that a strong law that criminalises torture, imposes (45)___________ punishment for it and
contains liberal provisions for those suffering torture to complain against their perpetrators, prosecute them and be
compensated and rehabilitated, is passed at the earliest
36:
1. rigid / stiff
2. powerful / rough
3. ratify / approve
4. picky / poignant
5. critical / inexorable
Answer : 3)
37:
1. prolonged / protracted
2. ambitious / clamorous
3. wearying / trying
4. dismal / crabbed
5. difficult / exigent
Answer : 1)
38:
1. Unrelenting / grim
2. nagging / insistent
3. imperious / exhausting
4. saturnine / critical
5. extradition / expulsion
Answer : 5)
39:
1. stubborn / perverse
2. prohibiting / constraining
3. labored / acrimonious
4. arduous / oppressive
5. peremptory / constrained
Answer : 2)
40:
1. obdurate / inclement
2. resentful / hostile
3. rancorous / vengeful
4. commitment / promise
5. austere / bitter
Answer : 4)
41:
1. punitive / cussed
2. ungracious / wicked
3. dogged / ruthless
4. staunch / intractable
5. apprehension / suspicion
Answer : 5)
42:
1. orderly / docile
2. congruous / logical
3. amenable / submissive
4. intimidation / frightening
5. proportionate / unflagging
Answer : 4)
43:
1. diatribe / invective
2. consistent / steady
3. menace / restraint
4. subdual / caution
5. jeopardy / peril
Answer: 2)
44:
1. befitting / sufficient
2. genial / mellow
3. adaptable / harmonious
4. commensurate / articulate
5. imperative / essential
Answer: 5)
45:
1. stringent / demanding
2. sequential / ensuing
3. monotonous / immutable
4. unruffled / planate
5. tranquil / surfaced
Answer: 1)
Directions (46-50): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against
each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in
each case.
Primary school enrolment in India has been a success story, (46) due to various programmes and drives to increase
enrolment even in remote areas. With enrolment reaching at least 96 percent since 2009, and girls (47) up 56
percent of new students between 2007 and 2013, it is clear that many (48) of access to schooling have been (49).
Improvement in infrastructure has been the (50) behind achieving this and now in India 98 percent habitations have
a primary school within one kilometre and 92 percent have an upper primary school within a three kilometre walking
distance.
46:
(a) most
(b) properly
(c) totally
(d) optionally
(e) largely
Correct Answer:”e”
47:
(a) coming
(b) reaching
(c) counting
(d) making
(e) touching
Correct Answer: d“”
48:
(a) issue
(b)opportunities
(c) problems
(d) efforts
(e) exertions
49:
(a) accustomed
(b) addressed
(c) met
(d) forwarded
(e) dissolved
50:
(a) main
(b) forced
(c) force
(d) compulsion
(e) awareness
Directions for Questions 51 to 60: In the following passage there are blanks, each
of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against
each, five words are suggested, from one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
Rural healthcare in India is (A) by a huge gap between supply and demand. Currently,
rural healthcare needs are (B) either by limited government facilities and private
nursing homes, which have not been able to keep pace with increasing demand, (C)
by a number of quacks who practice medicine in rural areas. The quality of
infrastructure is usually poor and people (D) up having to go to nearby large cities if
they need high-quality care.
Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few
years, driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare
programs. Increasing demand, (E) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale,
has resulted in rural healthcare (F) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable
business model (G) conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an
economic activity that generates incomes and (H) the poor. It is this (I) that
entrepreneurs are looking to (J).
51. A
(1) Displayed
(2) Furthered
(3) Characterised
(4) Made
(5) Performed
Answer: 3
52. B
(1) Met
(2) Elevated
(3) Discussed
(4) Set
(5) Stopped
Answer: 1
53. C
(1) Nor
(2) But
(3) Or
(4) And
(5) Also
Answer: 3
54. D
(1) Give
(2) Fed
(3) Start
(4) Set
(5) End
Answer: 5
55. E
(1) Combined
(2) Mentioning
(3) Engaged
(4) Resulting
(5) Couple
Answer: 1
56. F
(1) Happening
(2) Being
(3) Exists
(4) Is
(5) Become
Answer: 2
57. G
(1) Makes
(2) So
(3) Ceasing
(4) Prevents
(5) To
Answer: 4
58. H
(1) Supplies
(2) Lists
(3) Turns
(4) Serves
(5) Generates
Answer: 4
59. I
(1) Truth
(2) Progress
(3) Catastrophes
(4) Divides
(5) Gap
Answer: 5
60. J
(1) Access
(2) Plug
(3) Form
(4) Distance
(5) Fills
Answer: 2
of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar
system. Most are in a belt, which (A) between Mars and Jupiter. However, the
gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can
knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them (B) the Earth. Many bodies
have struck Earth in the (C), and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an
asteroid for the extinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such
a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike
in Siberia in early 20th century which (D) more than half a million acres of forest.
However, what relieves the common man of the (E) regarding asteroid impact is the
fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and
orbit all around the year. With advanced equipment and technology, they can predict
any upcoming danger much in (F). According to them the chances of finding such an
asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generations’ lifetime is only one in
thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be (G) of time to track it,
measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for (H) it from its orbit away from that of
the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for
all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it
will be (I) long before it actually hits the Earth, it probably would take only a small
measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a
threatening path.
Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all
living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very (J) and it is
unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.
61. A
(1) rotates
(2) appears
(3) strikes
(4) encircles
(5) exists
Answer: 5
62. B
(1) Past
(2) Around
(3) Towards
(4) Against
(5) Inside
Answer: 3
63. C
(1) Future
(2) Centuries
(3) Earliest
(4) Past
(5) History
Answer: 4
64. D
(1) Extinct
(2) Devastated
(3) Wasted
(4) Shrivelled
(5) Fell
Answer: 2
65. E
(1) Apprehension
(2) Expectation
(3) Distrust
(4) Sufferings
(5) Hesitation
Answer: 1
66. F
(1) Sooner
(2) Accuracy
(3) Advance
(4) Time
(5) Distance
Answer: 3
67. G
(1) Dearth
(2) Loss
(3) Most
(4) Lack
(5) Plenty
Answer: 5
68. H
(1) Blocking
(2) Deflecting
(3) Avoiding
(4) Destroying
(5) Changing
Answer: 2
69. I
(1) Experienced
(2) Harmful
(3) Perceived
(4) Noticed
(5) Devastating
Answer: 4
70. J
(1) Low
(2) Large
(3) Narrow
(4) High
(5) Few
Answer: 1
of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against
each, five words are suggested, from one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
Rural healthcare in India is (A) by a huge gap between supply and demand. Currently,
rural healthcare needs are (B) either by limited government facilities and private
nursing homes, which have not been able to keep pace with increasing demand, (C)
by a number of quacks who practice medicine in rural areas. The quality of
infrastructure is usually poor and people (D) up having to go to nearby large cities if
they need high-quality care.
Rural India deserves better, since the ability to pay has gone up over the last few
years, driven by growth in income and penetration of government healthcare
programs. Increasing demand, (E) with the failure of existing infrastructure to scale,
has resulted in rural healthcare (F) a large under-served market. Absence of a viable
business model (G) conversion of the huge rural expenditure on health into an
economic activity that generates incomes and (H) the poor. It is this (I) that
entrepreneurs are looking to (J).
71. A
(1) Displayed
(2) Furthered
(3) Characterised
(4) Made
(5) Performed
Answer: 3
72. B
(1) Met
(2) Elevated
(3) Discussed
(4) Set
(5) Stopped
Answer: 1
73. C
(1) Nor
(2) But
(3) Or
(4) And
(5) Also
Answer: 3
74. D
(1) Give
(2) Fed
(3) Start
(4) Set
(5) End
Answer: 5
75. E
(1) Combined
(2) Mentioning
(3) Engaged
(4) Resulting
(5) Couple
Answer: 1
76. F
(1) Happening
(2) Being
(3) Exists
(4) Is
(5) Become
Answer: 2
77. G
(1) Makes
(2) So
(3) Ceasing
(4) Prevents
(5) To
Answer: 4
78. H
(1) Supplies
(2) Lists
(3) Turns
(4) Serves
(5) Generates
Answer: 4
79. I
(1) Truth
(2) Progress
(3) Catastrophes
(4) Divides
(5) Gap
Answer: 5
80. J
(1) Access
(2) Plug
(3) Form
(4) Distance
(5) Fills
Answer: 2
Directions for Questions 81 to 90: In the following passage there are blanks,
each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the
passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits
the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
Information technology, and the hardware and software (___A___) with the IT
industry, are an (___B___) part of nearly (___C___) major global industry. IT industry
has become one of the most robust industries in the world. IT, more than any other
industry or economic (___D___) has an increased productivity, particularly in the
developed world, and therefore is a key driver of global economic growth. Economies
of scale and (___E___) demand from both consumers and enterprises (___F___) this
rapidly growing sector. The Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)
explains ‘information technology’ as (___G___) all possible aspects of information
systems based on computers. Both software development and the hardware involved
in the IT industry include everything from computer systems, to the design,
implementation, study and development of IT and management systems. (___H___)
to its easy accessibility and the wide range of IT products available, the demand for IT
services has increased (___I___) over the years. The IT sector has emerged as a
major global (___J___) of both growth and employment.
81. A
(1) Use
(2) Amalgamation
(3) Associated
(4) Vision
(5) Regulated
Answer: 3
82. B
(1) Integral
(2) Fundamental
(3) Increased
(4) Vital
(5) Eager
Answer: 1
83. C
(1) Most
(2) All
(3) Every
(4) Few
(5) Some
Answer: 3
84. D
(1) World
(2) Opinion
(3) Stature
(4) Profit
(5) Facet
Answer: 1
85. E
(1) Multiply
(2) Insatiable
(3) Decreasing
(4) Unquenchable
(5) Unreasonable
Answer: 2
86. F
(1) Forage
(2) Thwart
(3) Motivate
(4) Fuelling
(5) Characterize
Answer: 5
87. G
(1) Making
(2) Qualifying
(3) Inclusive
(4) Encompassing
(5) Trusting
Answer: 4
88. H
(1) Owing
(2) Since
(3) Catering
(4) In order
(5) Complementing
Answer: 1
89. I
(1) Regularly
(2) Substantially
(3) Minimally
(4) Exponential
(5) Savagely
Answer: 2
90. J
(1) Fortun
(2) Meltdown
(3) Spring
(4) Source
(5) Economy
Answer: 4
of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and
against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.
As the temperature (A) during the summer season, many households turn to air
conditioners to keep them cool. Air conditioners, which were once regarded as a
residential luxury, have now become a (B). Enjoying a cooler atmosphere during hot
weather is not the only benefit of using the air conditioner. A household, a vehicle, or
a building becomes cleaner and safer for breathing as air conditioning also (C) the
growth and spread of harmful micro-organisms. However, along with the benefits,
some disadvantages are also (D) with it. One of the most controversial topics attached
to the subject of air conditioning deals with some of the materials that are used to
produce the cooling effect —fluorocarbons. These refrigerants (E) to global warming
and are (F) as one of the main ways in which air-conditioning (G) the environment.
Fluorocarbon refrigerants also add to the problems concerning ozone layer depletion.
While air conditioning provides a temporary relief and makes heat wave more
bearable, many questions have been (H) on how much the world will pay in the long
run in terms of the environmental damage that it has caused. Today, scientists are (I)
on making more environmental-friendly products, but for now, individuals are (J) to
part with their instant cool during the thick of summer.
91. A
(1) Decreases
(2) Rises
(3) Deviates
(4) Fluctuates
(5) Varies
Answer: 2
92. B
(1) Irreplaceable
(2) Obligatory
(3) Certainty
(4) Necessity
(5) Redundancy
Answer: 4
93. C
(1) Prevents
(2) Escapes
(3) Kills
(4) Removes
(5) Purifies
Answer: 1
94. D
(1) Resulted
(2) Caused
(3) Associated
(4) Influenced
(5) Created
Answer: 3
95. E
(1) Result
(2) Determine
(3) Affect
(4) Outcome
(5) Contribute
Answer: 5
96. F
(1) Attended
(2) Presumed
(3) Regarded
(4) Valued
(5) Responsible
Answer: 3
97. G
(1) Helps
(2) Impacts
(3) Decline
(4) Disintegrates
(5) Improves
Answer: 2
98. H
(1) Thought
(2) Explained
(3) Expected
(4) Interrogated
(5) Raised
Answer: 5
99. I
(1) Trying
(2) Expected
(3) Developing
(4) Working
(5) Inventing
Answer: 4
100. J
(1) Disabled
(2) Helpless
(3) Unwanted
(4) Aware
(5) Reluctant
Answer: 5
Fillers
Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Q1. The __________ from slavery was one of the major achievements of Abraham Lincoln
as he was morally opposed to it and politically opposed to any expansion of it.
1. facile
2. legalization
3. extortion
4. Emancipation
Question: The college student thought that it was a __________ task to complete the whole
syllabus in two days but he failed miserably.
1. unfeasible
2. feasible
3. detriment
4. Flabbergasted
Question: When the __________ person at the occasion started talking, everyone left one
by one as His story seemed to be endless.
1. garrulous
2. reticent
3. facade
4. Jeer
Question: The __________ of Real Madrid in European football is reflected in their number
of trophies won and no other team is close to them in terms of success.
1. jocund
2. kinship
3. hegemony
4. Jaunt
Question: The season finale of the popular TV series was rated __________ by the
viewers as the writer and the director did a fantastic job on their part.
1. jiffy
2. ludicrous
3. inevitable
4. Impeccable
Question: Betty's job as an accountant is in __________ as she has made a huge blunder
in the financial estimates of the company.
1. jeopardy
2. juvenile
3. insular
4. Safety
Question: The mathematics book launched by the new publishers gained fame over a very
short period of time owing to its __________ written content.
1. standard
2. maliciously
3. structure
4. meticulously
Question: __________ is a trait where a person comprehends that he always rides the high
horse.
1. Disdainful
2. Despicable
3. Disdaining
4. Deferring
Question: No sooner did the gate open than the customers _________ rushed into the
shop to get hold of the goods at a cheap price.
1. defray
2. dubiously
3. calmly
4. obstreperously
Question: The belongings of the businessman are being __________ taken away against
his will by the man with the gun in the deserted alley.
1. vociferously
2. meekly
3. forced
4. pillage
In the question given below, a sentence is given with two blanks, followed by five options,
each having two words that may or may not fit in the blanks. Choose the one that gives the
correct words that fit in the blanks.
Question: One might think that the opacity of unknown languages would give us sober
pause, _______ our separateness, and the ________ differences that exist between us.
1. Emphasis, multiple
2. Adamant, trite
3. Underscoring, irreconcilable
4. Despising, trivial
5. Upbraid, incompatible
Question: With the shrewdness of a politician, and the ______ of the Santa clause, the
Finance Minister has started putting money into peoples' hands by announcing remunerative
schemes and stimulus packages.
1. Pecuniary
2. Lofty
3. Perspicacious
4. Magnanimity
5. Peculiar
Question: A planned cost-cutting exercise was ______ and overhead expenses were
slashed so that cash flow was improved.
1. Eschew
2. Precipitate
3. Expedited
4. Perpetuate
5. Reinstitution
Question: I prefer listening to rock music to help me _______ after a stressful day.
1. wind up
2. wind down
3. wind off
4. wind of
5. wind over
Question: Just then the _________ clamor of alarm bells sounded from all over the house
and from the basement area ahead of him.
1. Atrocity
2. Decorum
3. Bitterness
4. Raucous
5. Rancid
Question: She had ________ him with the fragile framework of her dreams and he had
stumbled.
1. Giving
2. Commit
3. Entrusted
4. Declined
5. Additionally
In the question below, a sentence is given with two words missing. You are given five
options each containing a pair of words that can or cannot fill the blanks grammatically
and/or contextually. Identify the words that are opposite in meaning to each other and make
the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Question: The ______ of the river in the aftermath of the ______ tornado was remarkable.
1. Serenity, uproarious
2. Numerous, vague
3. Obstruction, generous
4. Ignorance, knowledgeable
5. Optimism, flexible
In the question given below, a sentence is given with one blank, followed by five options,
each having a word which may or may not fit in the blank. From the given options, choose
the one that gives the correct word that fits in the blank.
Question: The pitch has largely played well when the sun has been out, becoming ____
only when low cloud has pressed down on the ground.
1. Fidgety
2. Derange
3. Diverge
4. Extend
5. Capricious
Question: For a wife or a girlfriend, the fear of infidelity can have you studying every _____
of his behaviour and questioning what signs you should be looking for.
1. Variations
2. Moments
3. Nuance
4. Detachable
5. Details
Question: But we may reasonably _____ that his subsequent promotions were as much
owing to high birth as to great abilities.
1. Guesswork
2. Hunches
3. Believed
4. Position
5. Surmise
Question: On the morality of the masters - whether personal, domestic, or social - the
effects of the institution were _____.
1. Holocaust
2. Discourage
3. Suppressed
4. Disastrous
5. Vanquished
Question: He resolved to _____ his life to maintaining the cause of the freedom of the
Church from the control of the State.
1. Beset
2. Consecrate
3. Flummox
4. Stagnate
5. Forlorn
Question: The _____ often need to see the body of the deceased or participate in some
activity that expresses the letting go of their dead loved one's presence in this life.
1. Affluent
2. Depart
3. Delegate
4. Bereaved
5. Individual
Question: While no source is perfect and can be subject to human error, a specific fact in a
governmental document is hard to _____.
1. Gainsay
2. Abridge
3. Contrary
4. Consistent
5. Illustration
Question: According to official accounts, nearly 42% of the households _____ waste before
handing it over to the conservancy workers, and this makes it easy for workers to recycle the
waste.
1. Amalgamate
2. Amass
3. Union
4. Squander
5. Segregate
Question: Although the gazette notification issued by the Ministry on the _____ of river
boards last month came into force.
1. Pollution
2. Purview
3. Require
4. Affect
5. Induct
Question: The world owes much to rebels who would dare to argue in the face of the pontiff
and insist that he is not _____.
1. Impede
2. Frail
3. Gullible
4. Infallible
5. Stymie
Question: Under this scenario, Western powers would effectively deter any invasion by
convincing the President that the costs would _______ the benefit.
1. Tender
2. Outward
3. Undermining
4. Supersedes
5. Outweigh
Question: Many people re-evaluated their wellness habits during lockdown, lessening their
drinking, because this alcohol-free romance is ______ interest in a new way.
1. Disdaining
2. Decreases
3. Piquing
4. Lethal
5. Faded
Question: He also _____ upon lyricist to write the song with simple repeated words so that it
would be easy for her to sing.
1. Persuaded
2. Force
3. Enticement
4. Prevailed
5. Unbiased
Question: Liberal education is an approach to learning that _____ our existential condition
to think clearly.
1. Foregrounds
2. Puerile
3. Partisan
4. Obfuscates
5. Conduit
Question: Cognitively playing with threatening simulations can teach us behavioral and
emotional strategies for dealing with _____ situations.
1. Contrite
2. Precarious
3. Debacle
4. Equivocal
5. Fatuous
Question: But hopeful people tend to break down complex or difficult pathways into an
_____ of smaller steps that can be tackled one at a time.
1. Aspersion
2. Array
3. Extol
4. Injunction
5. Obdurate
In the question given below, a sentence is given with two words missing. Identify the choice,
which will fit in the blank grammatically and contextually and mark the options accordingly.
Question: The animals may appear __________, but they are built to __________ the
extremes of high-altitude existence.
I. Delicate, withstand
II. Frail, resist
III. Fragile, handle
1. Both I and II
2. Both II and III
3. Both I and III
4. I, II, and III
5. Only II
Question: When you travel to _________ above 9000 feet, you may __________ a high-
altitude illness.
I. Latitudes, cause
II. Altitudes, develop
III. Elevations, suffered
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both II and III
5. Both I and III
Question: It was yet another __________ reminder of how much she had __________ my
daily routine and habits, including my increased tea consumption.
I. Sharply, impacted
II. Glaring, effects
III. Stark, altered
1. Both II and I
2. Both II and III
3. Both I and III
4. Only III
5. Only II
Question: Changing one's name to _________ is more common than many people
__________, especially on social media.
I. Fit in, realise
II. Fit up, thinks
III. Fit out, understand
1. Only III
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III
5. Only I
In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given
options, choose the word that would fit the blank thereby making the sentence grammatically
and contextually correct.
Question: The _________ cocktail party was attended by the most esteemed guests from
our industry and their responses were overwhelming.
1. Vivid
2. Desultory
3. Secluded
4. Convivial
5. Unwilling
Question: He granted the request because he was _________ to hurt his friend.
1. Irreversible
2. Instil
3. Grandiose
4. Dynastic
5. Reluctant
Question: Without any decorations, the Christmas tree looked ________ so everything
seemed dull.
1. Disheveled
2. Garnered
3. Austere
4. Ostentation
5. Admirable
Question: When the leader was asked to talk about the recent issues of the area, he
appeared ____________ and took a long time to respond to the reporters.
1. Nonplussed
2. Conceited
3. Narcissist
4. Verbose
5. Anticipated
Question: The number of results a search engine returns can help indicate the quality of
your _______ and make finding reliable information more efficient.
1. Haggard
2. Query
3. Pertinent
4. Arduous
5. Utopia
Question: The group of researchers was curious to know which of the injected guinea pig
would reach to the exit of __________ first.
1. Portrayal
2. Labyrinth
3. Muddle
4. Derogatory
5. Dogmatic
Question: My mobile phone was the ________ when I bought it three years ago, but now it
is ________
1. Lately, Peerless
2. Latest, Arcane
3. Recently, Retroactive
4. Justify, Outmoded
5. Kindly, Persuasive
In the question below, a sentence is given with two words missing. You are given five
options each containing a pair of words that can or cannot be filled in the blanks to make the
sentence grammatically or contextually correct. Identify the words that are opposite in
meaning and make the sentence grammatically or contextually correct.
Question: They are very _______ of this odd foreigner and patient with his ______
behaviour.
1. pass, fail
2. sad, bad
3. generous, unusual
4. courteous, boorish
5. old, new
In the question given below, a sentence is given with two blanks, followed by five options,
each having two words that may or may not fit in the blanks. Choose the one that gives the
correct words that fit in the blanks.
Question: The coffee ____ at the grocery store was almost ___.
1. aisle, bear
2. island, bear
3. aisle, bare
4. isle, bear
5. island, beer
In the question given below, a sentence is given with a blank. Choose the word/s that
CANNOT fit in the given blank grammatically or contextually or both.
Question: Once seen as the ultimate Hollywood disrupter, the biggest threat to the very
existence of the movie business, Netflix has now become something of a _______with its
massive reach and little dependence on theatrical distribution.
I. salvage
II. rescuer
III. saviour
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only III
4. Both I and III
5. Only II
Question: Its cargo is composed of goods sold on its own online market; its airport facilities
are close to Amazon's network of ________ centers.
I. attainment
II. delinquent
III. fulfillment
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only III
4. Both I and III
5. Only II
Question: The currency, known _______ as the yuan or the renminbi, has surged in
strength in recent months against the American dollar and other major currencies.
I. otherwise
II. variously
III. similarly
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only III
4. Both I and III
5. Only II
Question: Investors in Goldman Sachs's wealth management division are recommending
their clients stay invested in U.S. equities, _______ an 8 percent of future return in the S&P
500 this year.
I. reporting
II. narrating
III. predicting
1. Only I
2. Both II and I
3. Only III
4. Both II and III
5. Only II
Question: Before becoming president, Mr. Trump had cycled through many lines of
business, including casinos, an airline and reality television and some ventures were wildly
successful, while others were ______ failures.
I. wee
II. massive
III. colossal
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only III
4. Both I and III
5. Only II
Question: While the conspiracy theory has _______ online for years, the social media
companies only moved in recent months to take down content related to it.
I. festered
II. moulder
III. suppurate
1. Only I
2. Both I and III
3. Only III
4. Both II and III
5. Only II
Question: The thing I remember being so ________ by was that the company had not spent
a dime on a branding campaign, ever.
I. fascinate
II. intrigued
III. stupefy
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only III
4. Both I and III
5. Only II
Question: Drug companies, eager to get their products into the hands of consumers, have
used financial incentives to ______ poorly compensated government workers for regulatory
approvals.
I. persuade
II. dissuade
III. sway
1. Only I
2. Both II and III
3. Only II
4. Both I and III
5. Only III
Reading Comprehension
Directions for Questions 1 to 15: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
It was in the offing. With shortages mounting across the board for water as they are for energy,
it was only inevitable that the Central government would be stirred into starting a Bureau of
Water Efficiency (BWE), much like the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) that was launched
some years ago.
Early reports suggest that the draft norms for various sectors consuming water will be
created by the BWE soon. The alarm bells have been ringing for some years now. Water
availability per capita in India has fallen from about 5 million liters in the 1950s to 1.3 million
liters in 2010 -that’s a staggering 75 per cent drop in 50 years. Nearly 60 per cent of India’s
aquifers have slumped to critical levels in just the last 15 years. The rate at which bore wells
are being plunged in every city with no law to ban such extraction, groundwater tables have
depleted alarmingly.
The BEE’s efforts in the last seven years have only been cosmetic. The bureau has looked at
efficiency rating systems for white goods in the domestic sector and has not paid attention to
the massive consumption of energy in metals manufacture, paper, and textiles. These sectors
are very intense in both energy and water consumption. But very little attention has been paid
to the water and energy used per ton of steel or cement or aluminum that we buy, and without
significant changes in these areas, the overall situation is unlikely to change.
Use of water is inextricably interlinked with energy. One does not exist without the other. The
BWE should steer clear of the early mistakes of BEE – of focusing on the ‘softer targets’ in the
domestic sector. Nearly 80 percent of freshwater is used by agriculture, with industry coming
a close second. The domestic sector’s consumption of freshwater is in single digit. So, the
BWE’s priority should be to look at measures that will get farmers and industrialists to follow
good practices in water use. Water resources have to be made, by law, an indivisible national
asset. The protection and withdrawal of this resource, as well as its sustainable development
are of general importance and therefore in the public interest. This will mean that individuals
and organizations may own land but not water or the other resources that lie below the first
20 meters of the surface of those lands. Drilling of bore wells into such ‘national assets’ will
have to be banned, or at the very least they must be regulated. What would be more sensible
for the new water bureau to do would be to look at some of the low-hanging fruits that can
be plucked, and pretty quickly, with laws that can emanate from the Centre, without the risk
of either dilution or inaction from state administrations. The other tactical approach that the
BWE can adopt is to devise a policy that addresses the serious water challenge in industry
segments across a swathe of companies: this will be easier than taking on the more disparate
domestic sector which hurts the water crisis less than industry. Implementing a law is more
feasible when the concentration is dense and identifiable. Industry offers this advantage more
than the domestic or the commercial sector of hotels and offices.
As for agriculture, though the country’s water requirement is as high as 80 per cent, the
growing of water within the loop in agriculture de-risks the challenge of any perceived deficit.
Rice, wheat, sugarcane are crops that need water-logging, which ensures groundwater
restoration. Surface water evaporation doesn’t amount to any more than 7-8 per cent and only
strengthens precipitation and rainfall.
Agriculture and water needs are not quite as much a threat as industry and domestic sectors
that account for the rest of the 20 per cent.
The primary challenge in industry and the building sector is that no conscious legal measures
have been enacted that stipulate ‘growing your own water’ with measures that will ‘put all water
in a loop’ in any residential or commercial building. This involves treating all used water to a
grade that it can be ‘up cycled’ for use in flush tanks and for gardens across all our cities with
the polluter owning the responsibility for treating and for reuse. The drop in fresh water
demand can be dramatic with such upcycle, reuse, and recycling of treated water. Water by
itself in industry and the domestic sector, is not as much a challenge as pollution of water. Not
enough measures exist yet to ensure that such polluters shift the water back for reuse. If
legislation can ensure that water is treated and reused for specific purposes within industry as
well as in the domestic sector, this will make all the difference to the crisis on fresh water.
So is the case in industry, especially in sectors like textiles, aluminum and steel. Agriculture
offers us the amusing irony of the educated urbanites dependent on cereals like rice and wheat
that consume 4000 liters of water for every Kilogram, while the farmer lives on the more
nutritious millets that consume less than half the quantity. Sugarcane consumes as much as
12,000 liters of water for a kilo of cane that you buy!
A listing of such correlations of water used by every product that we use in our daily lives will
make much better sense than any elaborate rating system from the newly formed BWE. Such
sensitization with concerted awareness campaigns that the new Bureau drives will impact the
urban consumer more than all the research findings that experts can present. What is
important for us is to understand the life cycle impact in a way that we see the connection
between a product that we use and the resources it utilizes up to the point where we bring the
visible connection to destruction of natural resources of our ecosystems.
Question 1. How, according to the author, can the bureau sensitize the urban consumer
about careful utilization of water?
(1) By encouraging them to consume more rice instead of millet daily and thereby reduce the
amount of water consumption.
(2) By providing them more insight into the water consumption cycle of the textile, aluminum
and steel industries.
(3) By making them aware of the linkages between water consumption for daily
activities and the resource utilization and subsequent ecological destruction
associated with it.
(4) By publishing research findings of experts in popular media whereby people gain
awareness on the impact of water misuse.
(5) By conducting elaborate drives which notify the urban population about the penalties levied
on misuse of water resources.
Question 2. Why, according to the-author, is the water consumption for agricultural activities
the least risky?
(1) Proportion of water consumed for agricultural activities is much less as compared to that
consumed for domestic and industrial purposes.
(2) Most farmers are aware of the popular methods of water conservation and hence do not
allow wastage of water.
(3) Water is fairly recycled through groundwater restoration due to water-logging and
surface water evaporation.
(4) Farmers in India mostly cultivate crops that require less amount of water.
(5) None of these
Question 3. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
(1) Water Challenges in the New Millennium

(2) The Bureau of Water Efficiency Vs the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(3) Unchecked Urban Consumption of Water
(4) Challenges of the Agricultural Sector and Water Resources
(5) The Route to Conservation of Water Resources
Question 4. What does ‘low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly’
mean in the context of the passage?
(1) The bureau should employ the cheapest methods possible to effectively control the current
situation of improper usage of water resources.
(2) The bureau should target the industrial sector as well as the domestic sector to reduce
water wastage.
(3) The bureau should target the agricultural sector only for producing quick results in reducing
wastage of water.
(4) The bureau should ensure that all the state officials concerned with the measures are
actively involved.
(5) The bureau should start with adopting measures which are simple to execute and
produce immediate results in reducing water wastage.
Question 5. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the indication/s of a water
crisis?
(A) Many agrarian areas in the country are facing a drought like situation.
(B) Almost three-fifth of the naturally available water has been reduced to a very critical level
in a relatively short span of time.
(C) There has been a significant drop in the availability of water over the past fifty years
(1) Only (B)
(2) Only (A) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (B) and (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 6. The author suggests that the Bureau of Water Efficiency devises a strategy or
makes laws to meet water challenges in the industrial segments rather than the domestic
segments because
(1) The industrial sector is the only one that is in a position to reduce its water consumption
by a significant margin.
(2) There is comparatively less serious water misuse in the domestic sector
(3) It would be easy to identify the consumption patterns in the industrial sector because of its
density and visibility.
(4) The industrial sector would be capable of paying the fines levied by the Bureau for water
misuse whereas the domestic sector would be in no such position.
(5) The industrial sector would be easier to manage in terms of making them understand the
importance of water conservation.
Question7. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the step/ s that the Bureau
of Water Efficiency can take to ensure proper utilization of water resources?
(A) Put in place measures that ensure proper water usage.

(B) Concentrate on the water consumption patterns of the domestic sector alone.
(C) Monitor carefully the activity of digging bore wells.
(2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Only (A)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 8. Which of the following is true about the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, in the
context of the passage?
(A) It failed to pay adequate attention to industries like metal, textiles, etc. in terms of energy
consumption.
(B) It focused on rating systems for efficient use of goods in the domestic sector.
(C) It mostly focused on the energy consumption in the domestic sector.
(3) Only (A)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Directions for Questions 9 to 12: Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in
meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Question 9. COSMETIC
(1) enhancive
(2) beauty
(3) augmentative
(4) superficial
(5) aesthetic
Question 10. STAGGERING

(1) weaving
(2) astounding
(3) lurching
(4) stumbling
(5) unsteady
Question 11. CONSCIOUS

(1) unknown
(2) mindful
(3) self – aware
(4) awake
(5) alert
Question 12. DRAMATIC
(1) remarkable
(2) moving
(3) theatrical
(4) histrionic
(5) staged
Directions for Questions 13 to 15: Choose the word/group of words which is MOST
OPPOSITE, in meaning to the word/group of words printed in BOLD as used in the passage.
Question 13. INTENSE

(1) smooth
(2) serious
(3) low
(4) diluted
(5) jovial
Question 14. TACTICAL

(1) unplanned
(2) uniform
(3) devious
(4) premeditated
(5) deformed
Question 15. INEVITABLE

(1) certain
(2) unforeseeable
(3) unavoidable
(4) inescapable
(5) predictable
A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well-known scientist saying, “IT has destroyed
Indian science”. One call speculate about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector
and other similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led to a decline in basic
scientific research in India.
The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are much higher than one can
aspire to in academia. The argument goes: why should a bright B. Tech or M.Sc. Student
enroll in a Ph.D. program when she can make a lot more money writing code? Not only does
a fresh IT employee make a lot more than a fresh M. Tech. Student, his/her pay will rise much
faster in IT than in academia. A professor’s pay at a government-run university, even after the
Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far less than a senior executive’s salary in a major industry.
Second, the social Status of IT and BT Jobs equal or even exceed the social status of
corresponding academic positions, since they are seen as knowledge industries, which play
to the best and worst instincts of the societal Order. As quintessential white collar
professions, neither do they compel a successful entrepreneur to resort to violence and
corruption, nor do they demand any physical labor. Unlike real estate or road construction, it
is felt that IT workers can become rich while staying honest and sweat-free.
Assuming that the labor pool for academia and IT is roughly the same, the difference in our
collective preferences biases the labor market towards IT and away from academia. Further,
when the imbalance between IT and academia continues for years and even decades, a
destructive loop, from academia’s point of view, is created. When our best and brightest take
IT jobs over academic ones for a decade or more, faculty positions in our universities and
research centres are no longer filled by the best candidates.
As faculty quality goes down, so does the capacity to train top-class graduate students who,
after all, are teachers in training. In response to decreasing faculty quality, even those students
who otherwise choose an academic profession, decide to join industry or go abroad for their
studies. These foreign trained graduates prefer to come back to corporate India if at all they
do come back and the downward cycle replicates itself in each generation. In other words,
academia is trapped within a perfect Storm created by a combination of social and economic
factors.
In this socio-economic calculus, the members of our societal classes should prefer an IT job
to an academic one. Or, to put it another way, the knowledge economy, i.e., the creation of
knowledge for profit, trumps the knowledge society, i.e., the creation of knowledge for its own
sake or the sake of the greater good. As is said, “knowledge is power, but money is even more
power. Perhaps the scientist was alluding to this victory of capitalism over the pursuit of pure
knowledge when he accused IT of having a negative influence on Indian science.
Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as a result, knowledge
workers are like any other laborers, who will sell their wares to the highest bidder. One Solution
is to accept and even encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so, Indian universities
and research centres should copy their western counterparts by becoming more and more like
corporations. These centres of learning should convert themselves into engines of growth. In
this logic, if we increase academic salaries and research grants to match IT pay cheques we
will attract good people into academia, where, in any case, it is rumored that a certain elusive
feeling called ‘the quality of life’ is better.
Question 16. According to the passage, what did the scientist actually mean when he said,
“IT has destroyed Indian Science?”
(1) The centers meant for scientific research are being utilized by IT industries
(2) The IT industry does not employ people pursuing higher studies
(3) As information is readily available on the internet because of IT, there is no need to seek
further information
(4) IT has distorted the truth as stated by Indian science
(5) The desire for money has overshadowed the search for knowledge
(1) Is the Future of IT Bright?

(2) The IT Industry and the World Economy
(3) Research and Academics — Losing the Battle against IT
(4) Scientific Research and the Need for Well — Trained Faculty
(5) Information Technology and its Advantages
Question 18. Why does the author say that knowledge has become a commodity?
(1) As it is no longer desirable in any professional field

(2) As there are too many educational Institutes in the country which do not provide quality
education
(3) As knowledge is now available easily as compared to the past
(4) As knowledgeable people sell their Services for the highest price possible
(5) Like commodities knowledge too becomes stale after a certain period
Question 19. What, according to the author, is a destructive loop?
(1) Many people quit their existing jobs to work in the IT industry which in turn leads to the
downfall of the other industries.
(2) The fact that the best minds do not want to become teachers and this in turn leads
to good students seeking knowledge elsewhere
(3) The fact that people working in the IT industry do not pursue higher studies which in turn
leads to the deterioration in quality of employees
(4) The unending use of resources by the IT industry leading to a dearth of resources in the
country
(5) Less grants are being provided by the Government to academic institutes which in turn
leads to poor quality students joining the same
Question 20. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the author’s suggestions to
promote interest in Indian academia?
(A) Research centres should adopt the corporate culture as is done in the West.
(B) Lessening the number of research grants given.
(C) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in IT Industries.
(1) Only (C)

(2) Only (A)
(5) None of these
Question 21. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) It is believed that the quality of life is better when pursuing scientific research.
(B) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater good of the society
(C) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as knowledge.

(2) Only (B)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 22. Which of the following according to the author are factors responsible for the
declining interest in scientific research?(A) Slower progress of work in research
(B) Lesser monetary compensation in research related activities
(C) Societal perception towards research
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 23. Which of the following is true about the perception towards IT jobs as given in
the passage?
(A) They are physically tiring.
(B) They are considered to be managerial level jobs.
(C) They require usage of dishonest means.
(1) Only (B)

(3) Only(C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C) are true
Directions for Questions 24 to 33: Read following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
“We have always known that heedless self-interest was bad morals. We now know that it is
bad economics,” said American President Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1937 in the midst of the
Great Depression. And the world has learnt that enlightened self-interest is good economics
all over again after the Great Recession of 2009. Americans are entering a period of social
change as they are recalibrating their sense of what it means to be a citizen, not just through
voting or volunteering but also through commerce. There is a new dimension to civic duty that
is growing among Americans – the idea that they can serve not only by spending time in
communities and classrooms but by spending more responsibly. In short, Americans are
beginning to put their money where their ideals are.
In a recent poll most said they had consciously supported local or small neighborhood-
businesses and 40 percent said that they had purchased a product because they liked the
social or political values of the company that produced it. People were alarmed about ‘blood
diamonds’ mined in war zones and used to finance conflict in Africa. They were also willing to
pay $2000 more for a car that gets 35 miles per gallon than for one that gives less, though the
former is more expensive but environment friendly. Of course consumers have done their own
doing-well-by doing-good calculation -a more expensive car that gives; better mileage will save
them money in the long run and makes them feel good about protecting the environment.
Moreover since 1995, the number of socially responsible investment
(SRI) mutual funds, which generally avoid buying shares of companies that profit from
tobacco, oil or child labour has grown from 55 to 260. SRI funds now manage approximately
11 percent of all the money invested in the US financial markets -an estimated $ 2.7 trillion.
This is evidence of a changing mind set in a nation whose most iconic economist Milton
Friedman wrote in 1970 that a corporation’s only moral responsibility was to increase
shareholder profits.
At first the corporate stance was defensive: companies were punished by consumers for
unethical behaviour such as discriminatory labour practices. The nexus of activist groups,
consumers and government regulation could not merely tarnish a company but put it out of
business. But corporate America quickly discerned that social responsibility attracts
investment capital as well as customer loyalty, creating a virtuous circle. Some companies
quickly embraced the new ethos that consumers boycotted products they considered
unethical and others purchased products in part because their manufacturers were
responsible. With global warming on the minds of many consumers lots of companies are
racing to ‘outgrow’ each other. The most progressive companies are talking about a triple
bottom line-profit, planet and people – that focuses on how to run a business while trying to
improve environmental and worker conditions.
This is a time when the only thing that has sunk lower than the American public’s opinion of
Congress is its opinion of business. One burning question is how many of these Corporate
Social Responsibility
(CSR) initiatives are just shrewd marketing to give companies a halo effect? After all only 8
percent of the large American corporations go through the trouble of verifying their CSR
reports, which many consumers don’t bother to read. And while social responsibility is one
way for companies to get back their reputations, consumers too need to make ethical choices.
Question 24. Which of the following represents the change/s that has/ have occurred in the
American outlook?
(A) The perception that the government needs to invest resources in business rather than in
education.
(B) Loss of faith in American corporations as they do not disburse their profits equitably among
shareholders.
(C) Americans have cut down on their expenditure drastically to invest only in socially
responsible mutual funds.
(1) None
(2) Only (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 25. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?
(A) The voter turnout during the 2009 American elections was high.
(B) African diamonds are highly valued by the American public.
(C) American firms have to spend vast amounts on advertising because activists cast
aspersions on their images.
(1) None
(2) Only (A)
(4) Only (C)
Question 26. To what does the author attribute the consumers’ willingness to purchase
environment friendly vehicles?
(1) Auto companies sell these types of vehicles at lower rates in order to boost sales in times
of recession.
(2) The realization that consumers’ greed caused the economic recession of 2009.
(3) To show their support for small entrepreneurs who ate the manufacturers of such vehicles.
(4) They have to comply with government guidelines regarding reduction of carbon emissions.
(5) None of these
Question 27. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?
(1) It is beneficial to invest in American companies as they are socially responsible and
profitable
(2) Large corporations should be penalised by the American government for their greed
(3) Ethical consumerism is profitable for organizations as well as society as a whole
(4) Companies should be required by law to account for their impact on the environment, in
their balance sheet
(5) Developing countries should learn how to combat child labour from America
Question 28. Which of the following best describes the widespread view among Americans
about big corporations?
(1) They have been lax in fulfilling their moral responsibility of increasing profits and benefiting
shareholders
(2) They are being too severely penalized by activists and the government for their role in the
economic crisis
(3) Their innovations have brought commercial success and benefited America tremendously
(4) They need to be held accountable for their ruthless business practices
(5) Their balance sheets are often fraudulent and deceive shareholders
Question 29. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase ‘companies are racing
to outgrow each other’?
(1) The competition among companies to boost their bottom line – profit, planet and
peor pie – is very stiff
(2) The conflict facing businesses of whether to benefit their shareholders or the environment
(3) Corporations are vying with each other to solicit investment
(4) Companies are striving to find the necessary funds to finance their environment friendly
initiatives
(5) None of these
Question 30. Which of the following factors has led to corporations adopting more socially
responsible practices?
(1) The desire to be labelled as progressive by the government

(2) Guilt over causing the economic downturn
(3) High attrition rates as employees do not support the companies’ practices
(4) Recognition of the changing demands of customers
(5) Strict penalties imposed by governments against companies with unfair practices
Question 31. What can be inferred from the statistics mentioned about SRI mutual funds in
the passage?
(A) The percentage of child laborers has fallen since 1995.
(B) At present tobacco companies are making huge losses.
(C) The government needs to regulate SRI mutual funds as they handle vast amounts of funds.
(1)None
(2) Only (A)
(4) Only (C)
Question 32. What is the author’s view about companies, documentation of CSR initiatives?
(1) Since it is not certified by the government it cannot be considered authentic
(2) It is the ideal way to earn customer loyalty and set a good example for small businesses
(3) It is a waste of time as neither consumers nor companies bother to determine their
validity
(4) It should be mandatorily incorporated in the statement of accounts of any firm
(5) None of these
Question 33. Which of the following cannot be said about small businesses?
(A) During the recession their profits have been higher than those made by big corporations.
(B) They adopt fair labor practices and environment friendly methods of production.
(C) They have managed to acquire an investment of over 11 percent of American capital.

(2) Only (C)
(3) All (A) (B) and (C)
(4) Only (B)
(5) None of these
India’s colleges and universities, with just a few exceptions, have become large, under-funded,
ungovernable institutions. At many of them, politics has intruded into campus life, influencing
academic appointments and decisions across levels. Under investment in libraries,
information technology, laboratories, and classrooms make it very difficult to provide top-
quality instruction or engage in cutting-edge research. The rise in the number of part-time
teachers and the freeze on new full-time appointments in many places has affected morale in
the academic profession. The lack of accountability means that teaching and research
performance is seldom measured. The system provides few incentives to perform.
Bureaucratic inertia hampers change. Student unrest and occasional faculty agitation disrupt
operations. Nevertheless, with a semblance of normality, faculty administrators are able to
provide teaching, coordinate examinations, and award degrees.
Even the small top tier of higher education faces serious problems. Many IIT graduates, well
trained in technology, have chosen not to contribute their skills to the burgeoning technology
sector in India. Half leave the country immediately upon graduation to pursue advanced study
abroad – and most do not return. A stunning 86 per cent of students in science and technology
fields from India who obtain degrees in the United States do not return home immediately
following their study. Another significant group, of about 30 per cent, decides to earn MBAs in
India because local salaries are higher — and are lost to science and technology. A corps of
dedicated and able teachers work at the IITs and IIMs, but the lure of jobs abroad and in the
private sector makes it increasingly difficult to retain the best and brightest to the academic
profession.
Few in India are thinking creatively about higher education. There is no field of higher
education research. Those in government as well as academic leaders seem content to do
the “same old thing.” Academic institutions and systems have become large and complex.
They need good data, careful analysis, and creative ideas. In China, more than two-dozen
higher education research centers, and several government agencies are involved in higher
education policy for optimum planning.
India has survived with an increasingly mediocre higher education system for decades. Now
as India strives to compete in a globalized economy in areas that require highly trained
professionals, the quality of higher education becomes increasingly important. So far, India’s
large educated population base and its reservoir of at least moderately well-trained university
graduates have permitted the country to move ahead. But the competition is fierce. China in
particular is heavily investing in improving its best universities with the aim of making a small
group of them world class in the coming decade, and making a larger number internationally
competitive research universities.
To compete successfully in the knowledge-based economy of the 21st century. India needs
enough universities that not only produce bright graduates for export but can also support
sophisticated research in a number of scientific and scholarly fields and produce at least some
of the knowledge and technology needed for an expanding economy. How can India build a
higher education system that will permit it to join developed economies? The newly emerging
private sector in higher education cannot spearhead academic growth. Several of the well-
endowed and effectively managed private institutions maintain reasonably high standards,
although it is not clear whether these institutions will be able to sustain themselves in the long
run. They can help produce well-qualified graduates in such fields as management, but they
cannot form the basis for comprehensive research universities. This sector lacks the resources
to build the facilities required for quality instruction and research in the sciences. Most of the
private institutions do not focus on advanced training in the sciences.
Only public universities have the potential to be truly world class institutions. But these
institutions have not been adequately or consistently supported. The top institutions require
sustained funding from public sources. Academic salaries must be high enough to attract
excellent scientists and scholars. Fellowships and other grants should be available for bright
students. An academic culture that is based on merit-based norms and competition for
advancement and research funds is a necessary component, as is a judicious mix of autonomy
to do creative research and accountability to ensure productivity. World class universities
require world class professors and students and a culture to sustain and stimulate them.
Question 34. What, according to the author, is the shortfall of our government officials as
well as academicians when it comes to higher education?
(1) They are of the opinion that India has the best system of higher education in the world.
(2) They believe that it is the responsibility of private intuitions to bring about a change in
higher education.
(3) They are unaware of the new developments in the field of higher education.
(4) They are unwilling to invest money in higher education despite getting sufficient grants for
the purpose.
(5) They do not think innovatively in the direction of bringing about a change in higher
education and are stuck in a rut.
Question 35. Which of the following is/are the problem/s faced by Indian colleges and
universities?
(A) Political interference in decision making
(B) Lack of funding necessary for improvement in classrooms, libraries, etc.
(C) Hiring of teachers on a part time basis only.
(1) Only (A)

(3) Only (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 36. Which of the following steps has China taken to improve higher education?
(A) Their education policy formation involves many governmental bodies for thoughtful
planning.
(B) They are sanctioning grants to their teachers to facilitate the improvement process.
(C) They are investing in universities to make them internationally competitive.
(1) Only (B)

(3) Only (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 37. How, according to the author, hat India progressed despite a mediocre higher
education system?
(1) By borrowing ideas as well at technology from the west
(2) By convincing the world Thai it is more knowledgeable that it actually is
(3) On the basis of its fairly competent graduates and a large number of educated
population.
(4) Because of its sound and progressive economic policies.
(5) On the basis of the goodwill accumulated by it over the years
(1) Literacy in India

(2) State of Higher Education in India
(3) Top Universities of India
(4) Educational Institutes in India
(5) Comparative Study of Higher Education in India and China
Question 39. Which of the following problems do top institutes in India face in terms of
contribution to academics?
(A) The teachers of these institutes get enticed by the openings in foreign countries.
(B) Many graduates from these institutes find opportunities abroad and never return.
(C) Graduates from these institutes who do not migrate to foreign countries are unfit for
teaching in these institutes.
(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (C)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 40. Which of the following is true, in the context of the passage?
(A) Private universities are well equipped to produce graduates who can conduct research.
(B) India needs more universities that can cater to research studies in different scientific fields.
(C) India should completely stop graduates from leaving the country to pursue a career.
(1) Only (B)

(3) Only (A)
(5) All (A) (B) and (C)
Question 41. What, according to the author, is/are the step/s that can make Indian
universities world class?
(A) Students need to be given independence to conduct research
(B) Remuneration of teachers should be increased
(C) Proper support in the form of funds should be provided to universities

(2) Only (C)
(3) All (A) (B) and (C)
(5) Only (A)
English Practice Question
English Practice Questions For Banking Exams
Question 1. Read the following sentence and determine whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is error-free, then select ‘No
Error’ as your answer
Despite of the rain, the parade went(A)/on uninterrupted which was followed by(B)/ the
President’s address and other formal (C)/ festivities of the Republic Day. (D)
Options
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
Question 2. “Lisa is more stronger than(A)/ her opponent”, said the coach(B)/ during the
press briefing(C)/ ahead of the Asian Games.(D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
Question 3. I lost the bag in which I had my all documents, certificates, and academic
records. /(A) I have a job interview tomorrow where I need all these things, /(B) and I have
no clue what will happen. I lodged /(C) a police complaint, but within this short time, nothing
is possible. /(D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
Question 4. The fabric is as softer as cotton, but it is /(A) not pure cotton. That's why she
got so many /(B) allergic reactions on her face after using that mask /(C) and is now under
proper medication and care. /(D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
Question 5. After the(A)/ rise, the (B)/cases started (C)/dropping sudden.(D)./ No Error(E)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
Question 6. Kiva has loaned out (A) nearly a quarter of (B) a billion dollars to (C) small and
medium businesses for 2005
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No Error
The end of World War II was not just the end of a war, but also the __(A)__ of a tense and
dynamic period that affected society on all levels. This “postwar” period, as it became
known, shaped the world as we know it today; likewise, the period was shaped itself both by
the war that had __(B)__ it, and the powerful forces that surrounded it. As the energy of
fundamentally different ideologies—Communism and Democracy— collided with advances
in science such as the nuclear bomb, a dangerous environment ensued that created an
atmosphere of __(C)__ throughout the world and especially, within America. This
atmosphere is known broadly as the “Cold War.” While the Cold War played out step-by-step
between the United States and the Soviet Union, it was __(D)__ playing out in the everyday
lives of the masses within their borders. Paranoia, nevertheless, was not an effect that
followed immediately after the close of the War. In fact, the United States had enjoyed an
extended period of economic __(E)__ during the war, and following the war, the U.S.
economy continued with great strength for more than a decade. The end of World War II was
not just the end of a war, but also the __(A)__ of a tense and dynamic period that affected
society on all levels.
Question 7. Which of the following words most appropriately fits the blank labelled (A)?
1. Significant
2. Advantage
3. Beginning
4. Successfully
5. Staff
Question 8. This “postwar” period, as it became known, shaped the world as we know it
today; likewise, the period was shaped itself both by the war that had __(B)__ it, and the
powerful forces that surrounded it.
1. Preceded
2. Damper
3. Subsequent
4. Arming
5. Static
Question 9. As the energy of fundamentally different ideologies—Communism and

Democracy— collided with advances in science such as the nuclear bomb, a dangerous
environment ensued that created an atmosphere of __(C)__ throughout the world and
especially, within America.
1. Public
2. Radical
3. Politically
4. Paranoia
5. Symbolic
Question 10. While the Cold War played out step-by-step between the United States and
the Soviet Union, it was __(D)__ playing out in the everyday lives of the masses within their
borders. Paranoia, nevertheless, was not an effect that followed immediately after the close
of the War.
1. Warheads
2. Separated
3. Simultaneously
4. Hiding
5. Seek
Question 11. In fact, the United States had enjoyed an extended period of economic
__(E)__ during the war, and following the war, the U.S. economy continued with great
strength for more than a decade
1. Expansion
2. Retrospect
3. Behind
4. Repressive
5. Subject
It is well accorded that COVID-19 extracts a huge toll on the mental health of patients and
leaves behind a slew of neurological sequelae in its wake. However, what is alarming is the
wide gamut of mental and neurological disorders seen even in those with milder symptoms.
Such patients frequently reported being anxious, depressed and having difficulty in sleeping.
A higher incidence of frank psychosis manifesting as disorganization of thought processes
and personality disorders was also reported. Many survivors of COVID19 had to battle
substance abuse in its immediate aftermath. There was a steep increase in the amount of
alcohol consumed by regular drinkers. Persons who had stopped smoking and consuming
alcohol resumed their habit in disconcerting numbers. The occurrence of neurodegenerative
disorders like Parkinsonism is concerning as this would bring long term disability in the form
of impaired mobility and memory decline. It has been hypothesized that the causative
mechanism for many of the neurological conditions due to COVID-19 may be the direct
invasion of the nervous system by the virus, an increased tendency to blood clotting or an
exaggerated immune response by the body. Various other factors like pre-existing
psychiatric illness, prolonged quarantine, perceived lack of organizational support, and social
stigma are risk factors.
Anxiety, Nervousness, and Posttraumatic stress disorder are often fuelled by fear of infecting
other family members, physical distancing, loneliness, and ________ at home in cramped
quarters.
The pandemic has radically transformed the way businesses function and services
delivered. Remote working disrupts a healthy-work life balance. Face to face contact and
human interactions which were considered so essential for emotional well-being has taken a
backseat. Lack of comforting physical contact like shaking hands and hugging friends is
stressful and disconcerting. Online classes and home-schooling have placed a gargantuan
burden both on students and parents. Lack of access to reliable computer hardware and
spotty internet connections, particularly in rural areas and in the economically backward
have created a new class divide. Children have been deprived of co-curricular activities,
participation in group events and sports which is essential for their holistic development.
Mental stress and fatigue have increased many fold due to the rigours imposed by virtual
learning
Question 12. Choose the most appropriate option to fill in the blank for the sentence given
below.
Anxiety, Nervousness, and Post-traumatic stress disorder are often fuelled by fear of
infecting other family members, physical distancing, loneliness, and ________ at home in
cramped quarters
1. Freedom
2. Luxury
3. Independence
4. Confinement
5. Consent
Question 13. What is the hypothesis behind the many neurological conditions arising due to
COVID19?
1. A direct invasion of the nervous system by the virus.
2. An increased tendency to blood clotting.
3. An exaggerated immune response by the body.
4. All of the above
5. None of the above.
Question 14. Choose the statement that is false according to the passage.
1. COVID patients frequently reported difficulty in sleeping
2. Smoking and consumption of alcohol decreased due to prolonged quarantine.
3. Disorders like Parkinson's occurring during COVID is a cause of concern.
4 Prolonged quarantine is a risk factor that can be associated with COVID related
neurological conditions.
5 None of the above
Question 15. How did the pandemic transform the way businesses are run?
1. Remote working has disrupted the work-life balance.
2. There is a constant need to be readily available for work.
3. Face to face contact and human interactions have taken a back seat.
4. Both 1 and 3
5. None of the above
Question 16. Choose the statement that is true according to the passage.
1. People are able to enjoy the work life balance due to work from home.
2. Spending time inside has given people an opportunity for self reflection.
3. Less exposure to the pollution of the outside world is a blessing for many.
4. The imposed virtual learning has increased the mental stress and fatigue in
students.
5. None
Question 17. What is the synonym of the word function given in the passage?
1. Conjugate
2. Break
3. Impede
4. Operate
5. Conclude
Question 18. What is the synonym of the word gargantuan mentioned in the passage?
1. Puny
2. Miniscule
3. Tepid
4. Enormous
5. Opulent
Question 19. According to the passage, what is alarming considering COVID-19's toll on
mental health?
1. The rise of the black fungus wrecking havoc on patients with mild immunity.
2. The steep increase in the amount of alcohol consumption by regular drinkers.
3. The rise of virtual learning and work from home.
4. The wide range of mental and neurological disorders in patients with milder
symptoms.
Question 20. What is the synonym of the word accord ?

1. Transpose
2. Expel
3. Reject
4. Agree
5. Admit
When Gandhi went to England in 1931 to ____________ (A) the Second Round Table
Conference, one of his close aides suggested that he retreat for the weekend to Oxford in
order to reflect on the "big questions of principle involved in negotiations". It would also
afford an opportunity to have informal, relaxed conversations with some British statesmen.
The philosopher, A.D. Lindsay, Master of Balliol College, extended an invitation which
Gandhi ______ (B). He reached on October 26 with his secretary Mahadev Desai, son
Devdas, his English disciple Mira Behn, and his friend C.F. Andrews. To ensure his
_________ (C), he was escorted by a large detective, who seemed even larger in contrast to
the diminutive Gandhi. Whether or not he performed his other duties, I do not know, but he
sure brought a goat from a nearby hill when the master was unexpectedly asked if the
college served goat's milk. The goat, tied to a tree in the college's main quad, came in very
handy. Gandhi was spared from going out of the college and allowed to sit _________ (D)
the floor in his room to have his usual diet of milk and fruits. The Mahatma found time to
address all of Oxford's 50 Indian undergraduates, most of whom ________ (E) up in Indian
clothes, including some women who sat spellbound in resplendent sarees. A few who came
in Western ___________ (F) made sure they wore an Indian turban.
When Gandhi went to England in 1931 to ____________ (A) the Second Round Table
Conference, one of his close aides suggested that he retreat for the weekend to Oxford in
order to reflect on the "big questions of principle involved in negotiations".
Question 21. Which word would come at A?
1. Attend
2. Reject
3. Disregard
4. Neglect
5. Attentive
It would also afford an opportunity to have informal, relaxed conversations with some British
statesmen. The philosopher, A.D. Lindsay, Master of Balliol College, extended an invitation
which Gandhi ______ (B).
Question 22. Which word would come at B?
1. Rejection
2. Ignored
3. Decorate
4. Accepted
5. Celebrated
He reached on October 26 with his secretary Mahadev Desai, son Devdas, his English
disciple Mira Behn, and his friend C.F. Andrews. To ensure his _________ (C), he was
escorted by a large detective, who seemed even larger in contrast to the diminutive Gandhi.
Question 23. Which word would come at C?
1. Threat
2. Endangered
3. Admiration
4. Safety
5. Danger
Gandhi was spared from going out of the college and allowed to sit _________ (D) the floor
in his room to have his usual diet of milk and fruits.
Question 24. Which word would come at D?
1. In
2. At
3. Under
4. About
5. On
The Mahatma found time to address all of Oxford's 50 Indian undergraduates, most of
whom ________ (E) up in Indian clothes, including some women who sat spellbound in
resplendent sarees.
Question 25. Which word would come at E?
1. Wake
2. Bring
3. Turned
4. Gave
5. Sell
A few who came in Western ___________ (F) made sure they wore an Indian turban.
Question 26. Which word would come at F?
1. Address
2. Attire
3. Hat
4. Cap
5. Dreamy
In the following question, a part of the sentence has been highlighted. You need to identify
which of the given options can replace the highlighted part and make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. In case the highlighted part is correct, mark "No
replacement required" as your answer.
Question 27. AI has been used to develop chatbots that can help employees in find
information on subjects ranging from mental health to saving for retirement at any time.
1. To find information
2. By find information
3. With find information
4. After find information
5. No replacement required.
Question 28. Much of what we are doing in increasing atmospheric CO2, extinction of
species and destruction of ecosystems is close irreversible.
1. Is rare irreversible
2. Was nearly irreversible
3. Is nearly irreversible
4. Was close irreversible.
Question 29. Britannia Industries has postponed product launches and expects
consumption to revives in the upcoming 9-12 months.
1. To revive in
2. To revival in
3. To revive on
4. By reviving in
5. No correction required
Question 30. The television industry in India is going through one of its worst years with
sales remain most flat through 2019 despite the cricket World Cup and Diwali.
1. Remained most flatly
2. Remaining most flatly
3. Remaining mostly flat
4. Remain mostly flat
Question 31. As the largest rainforest in the world, the Amazon is a vital carbon store that
slow
down the pace of global warming.
1. Slows down
2. Slows up
3. Slows below
4. Slow by
Question 32. In the following question, four statements are given which are based on same
or different theme and may or may not contain an error. Choose the one that is
grammatically and meaningfully incorrect.
1. Dinosaurs from fossil-rich sites like the Flaming Cliffs are smuggled and find their
way under premier auctions.
2. Four in five 11- to 17-year-olds around the world are not taking enough physical exercise.
3. The World Health Organization report found inactivity was a universal problem.
4. The way participating in sport is promoted often means it appeals more to boys than to
girls.
5. All are incorrect
Question 33.
1. The Swedish activist, Greta Thunberg's name is synonymous with the fight to save the
planet.
2. Identity, boundaries and existence is some of the big themes addressed in the work
of Shiota Chiharu.
3. Scientists suggest that the language we learn to count in could impact our numerical
ability.
4. Nowadays, loss of biodiversity is such an incomprehensible challenge that the solutions
need to be extraordinary.
5. All are incorrect
It would soon be Christmas and Harry Kenton, at his desk in the Pendleton Academy, saw
the snow falling heavily outside. The school stood on the skirt of the town, and the forest
came down to the edge of the playing field. The great trees, oak and ash and elm, were
clothed in white, and they stood out a vast and glittering tracery against the sombre sky. The
desk was of the old kind, intended for two, and Harry's comrade in it was his cousin, Dick
Mason, of his own years and size. They would graduate in June, and both were large and
powerful for their age. There was a strong family resemblance and yet a difference. Harry's
face was the more sensitive and at times the blood leaped like quicksilver in his veins. Dick's
features indicated a quieter and more stubborn temper. They were equal favorites with
teachers and pupils.
Dick's eyes followed Harry's, and he, too, looked at the falling snow and the white forest.
Both were thinking of Christmas and the holiday season so near at hand. It was a rich
section of Kentucky, and they were the sons of prosperous parents. The snow was fitting at
such a time, and many joyous hours would be passed before they returned to school. The
clouds darkened and the snow fell faster. A wind rose and drove it against the panes. The
boys heard the blast roaring outside, and the comfort of the warm room was heightened by
the contrast. Harry's eyes turned reluctantly back to his Tacitus and the customs and
manners of the ancient Germans. The curriculum of the Pendleton Academy was simple, like
most others at that time. After the primary grades it consisted chiefly of the classics and
mathematics. Harry led in the classics and Dick in mathematics.
Bob Turner, the free coloured man, who was janitor of the academy, brought in the morning
mail, a dozen letters and three or four newspapers, gave it to Dr.Russell and withdrew on
silent feet. The Doctor was principal of Pendleton Academy, and he always presided over
the room in which sat the larger boys, nearly fifty in number. His desk and chair were on a
low dais and he sat facing the pupils. He was a large man, with a ruddy face, and thick hair
as white as the snow that was falling outside. He had been a teacher fifty years, and three
generations in Pendleton owed to him most of the learning that is obtained from books. He
opened his letters one by one and read them slowly. Harry moved far away into the German
forest with old Tacitus. He was proud of his Latin and he did not mean to lose his place as
first in the class. The other boys also were absorbed in their books. It was seldom that all
were studious at the same time, but this was one of the rare moments. There was no
shuffling of feet, and fifty heads were bent over their desks.
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following word is antonymous to the
word
'heightened'?
1. Diminish
2. Decrease
3. Diminished
4. Huge
5. Normal
Question 35. According to the passage, what was the difference between the appearance of
Harry and Dick?
1. Harry's face was more sensitive, and Dick's features indicated a quieter and more
stubborn temper.
2. Harry's face was quieter, and Dick's face was more sensitive.
3. Harry's face was more attracting than Dick's.
4. Both a) & c)
Question 36. As per the passage, which of the following is/are TRUE about Dr.Russell?
1. The Doctor was principal of Pendleton Academy.
2. He always presided over the room in which sat the larger boys.
3. His desk and chair were on a low dais.
4. He had been a teacher fifty years, and three generations in Pendleton owed to him most
of the learning that is obtained from books.
5. All of the above
Question 37. According to the passage, what Dick and Harry were thinking while looking at
the
falling snow and the white forest?
1. They were thinking of the cold weather outside.
2. They were busy planning about the Christmas holidays.
3. They were admiring the beauty of the forest.
4. They were thinking of Christmas and the holiday season so near at hand.
Question 38. What is the curriculum of the Pendleton Academy as per the passage?
1. It consisted chiefly of mathematics.
2. After the primary grades it consisted chiefly of the classics and mathematics.
3. It consisted chiefly of the classics.
4. It consisted neither of the classics nor mathematics.
Question 39. According to the passage, which of the following word is synonymous to the
word
'sombre'?
1. Brightness
2. Dull
3. Interesting
4. Darkness
5. Inept
Question 40. As per the passage, what was the 'rare moment' that the narrator was talking
about?
1. The falling snow and the white forest.
2. When Bob Turner brought in the morning mail.
3. When all the boys were studious in the class at the same time.
4. Both a) & b)
5. Both b) & c)
Question 41. As per the passage, which of the following words is synonymous with
'seldom'?
1. Always
2. Rare
3. Slowly
4. Occasion
5. Anytime
In the following question, a sentence is given with two blanks. From the given options
choose the one that gives the correct combination of words that fit in the blanks
grammatically and contextually.
Question 42. In the history of the Jewish people, there have always been freethinkers: Jews
who refused to ______________to the prevailing modes of thought and ____________in
their communities.
1. Confirm, behaviours
2. Conform, conduct
3. Observing, bearing
4. Upholds, deeds
5. Obeyed, actions
Question 43. Exposure to the wildfires and their _______________ toxic smoke causes
short and long-term ___________ to human lives.
1. Following, benefits
2. Subsequent, damage
3. Subsequence, damages
4. Consequence, destruction
5. Consequent, suffer
Question 44. People are being _______________ and are dying at an alarming rate from
______________ using their smartphones while driving.
1. Injured, compulsively
2. Injury, compulsive
3. Injured, compulsion
4. Injuring, compulsory
5. Injure, compulsively
Question 45. The title of best work of English-language fiction published in the United
Kingdom and Ireland has ____________ careers and courted controversy__________ its
creation in 1969.
1. Launch, for
2. Launched, since
3. Catapulted, from
4. Lifted, from
5. Float, for
Question 46. Abominable is the story of a Chinese girl__________ helps a yeti get back to
its home on Mount Everest, is a collaboration ___________ DreamWorks Animation and
China-based Pearl Studio.
1. Who, between
2. Whom, on
3. Whose, in
4. What, for
5. who, among
In the given question, a sentence has been broken into four parts and the parts are jumbled.
Choose the option which provides the correct way to re-arrange the parts to form a
grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence. The rearranged sequence of the parts
will be your answer.
Question 47. Has always been a gap between (A)/ the views of critics(B) /and those of the
general public(C)/ it is true that there (D)
1. ABDC
2. CBAD
3. ADCB
4. DABC
5. CABD
Question 48. A plan to (A)/ to climate change(B)/Russia has published(C)/adapt its

economy and population(D)
1. BACD
2. CBAD
3. ADBC
4. DACB
5. CADB
Question 49. Hope to enjoy total (A) /no individual living in society can(B)/ constraints or
restrictions(C)/ absence of any kind of(D)
1. BADC
2. ACBD
3. CBDA
4. DACB
5. BDAC
Question 50. By punishing wrong doers(A)/ kings should maintain justice(B)/ and rewarding
the virtuous(C)/ Confucius argued that(D)
1. ACDB
2. DABC
3. CADB
4. BDCA
5. DBAC
In the following question, a phrase is given followed by three sentences in which a phrase is
highlighted. Identify the sentence(s) in which the highlighted part of the sentence should be
replaced with the given phrase to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct
if it is not already correct.
Question 51. Talked about
I. We asked him to tell us more about the song, but he talk about something else.
II. We talking about matters of faith, including one of my mom's favorite observations:
"Heaven is my home, but I'm not yet homesick."
III. In fact, I prefer it - and the value of talking via an old-fashioned phone call hit home for
me after a conversation with my brother just before he was hit with a frightening health crisis.
1. Only I
2. I and II both
3. II and III both
4. Only II
5. Only III
Question 52. Challenges of fighting

I. What is the basis of the collective faith, shared by universities, presidents and billionaires?
II. The challenges of leaving a city for the country are numerous.
III. The challenges of living alone are real.
1. I only
2. II only
3. II and III both
4. III only
5. No replacement required
Question 53. Encounter technical problems

I. The history of rocketry shows that maiden outings very often encounter technically
problems.
II. The paper presents the way in which the encountered technical issues were or will be
solved,
although the proposed way may not be the ultimate best solution.
III. The first tests, which did encountered technical problems, were still many steps away
from
demonstrating full orbital capacity.
1. I and III
2. Only II
3. II and III
4. Only I
5. All I, II and III
Question 54. In the following question, few sentences are given. Decide which of the
sentences is/are grammatically and contextually correct and mark the answer accordingly.
I. Scientists have learned how to create the right environment for the stem cells so they can
follow their own genetic instructions to self-organize, forming tiny structures that resemble
miniature organs composed of many cell types.
II. Melancholia is an attunement of despair and despondency that can involve radical disrupt
to
temporal experience.
III. As existential and phenomenological studies in psychiatry and psychology have
demonstrated, temporal disruptions in melancholic time can vary in intense, but are almost
always inducive of significant suffering and distress.
1. Only I
2. Both I & II
3. Both I & III
4. Only III
5. All I, II & III
I. The two-volume novel Sinister Street by Compton Mackenzie (1883 - 1972), a Scottish
writer
more famous now for his latter comic novels, tends to be overlooked in the list of novels
depicting English public school life.
II. Mackenzie's account is fictional but the experience of public school life within Sinister
Street often chimes with reality, even though the chime may distort or mask much of what
we
know from historical record.
III. In alluding to the march of an expanding middle class into the schools, the persistence of
the gentlemanly ethos, the role of sports, and the tensions within the curriculum, the novel
offers insight into the public school experience.
1. Only III
2. Both I & II
3. Both II and III
4. Only I
5. All are correct
I. Management and the organizational scholarship is overdue for a reappraisal of
occupations
and professions as well as a critical review of past and current work on the topic.
II. Indeed, the field has largely failed to keep pace with the rising salience of occupational
and
professional (as opposed to organizational) dynamics in work life.
III. Moreover, not only is there a dearth of studies that explicitly take occupational or
professional categories into account, but there is also an absence of a shared analytical
framework for understanding what occupations and professions entail.
1. Only III
2. Both I & II
3. Only II
4. Both II & III
5. All are correct
I. Despite a proclaimed end to biologisation in a supposed 'post-racial' era, essentialist
reasoning remains central to U.S. race-making.
II. Conflicts tend to be intractable if collective victimhood has become a component of
national
identity, and when conflicting communities claim to be the 'real' or 'only' victims, and that
their
suffering justifies crimes past and present.
III. For a large part of the twentieth century (1926 - 1974), Portugal lived in a nationalist
dictatorship, with elements that were on a par with European fascism.
1. Only I
2. Both I & II
3. Both I & III
4. Only III
5. All I, II & III
Insects and spiders are declining in forests and grasslands across Germany, according
to new research. _____(A)_____They are calling for a "paradigm shift" in land-use policy to
preserve habitat for the likes of butterflies, bugs and flying insects. Recent studies have
reported widespread declines in insect populations around the world. _____(B)_____It is
becoming clearer and clearer that the drivers of insect decline are related to farming
practices, said Dr Sebastian Seibold of the Technical University of Munich in Freising,
Germany. "_____(C)_____ I think it's alarming to see that such a decline happens not only
in intensively-managed areas but also in protected areas - so the sites that we think are
safeguarding our biodiversity are not really working anymore," he told BBC news.
Insects and spiders are declining in forests and grasslands across Germany, according to
new research.
Question 58. Which of the following can replace (A) in the passage?
1. Scientists have described the findings as "alarming", saying the losses
are driven by intensive agriculture.
2. This is advantageous in maintaining the balance in ecosystem.
3. Builders are being encouraged to carry out construction activities at these sites by
recklessly chopping trees.
4. Animals are multicellular eukaryotic organisms that form the biological kingdom Animalia.
5. The birds have been losing their habitats due to deforestation.
Question 59. Which of the following can replace (B) in the passage?
1. The analysis shows that the insect population is on a steady rise.
2. The latest analysis, published in the journal, Nature, confirms that some insect
species are being pushed down the path to extinction.
3. Studies have pointed towards the rise of elephant population in the Amazon rainforests.
4. Climactic changes have accelerated the melting of glaciers.
5. World economy has been experiencing a constant slowdown due to various factors
Question 60. Which of the following can replace (C) in the passage?
1. Our study confirms that insect decline is real - it might be even more widespread
than previously thought considering, for example, that also forests are experiencing
declines in insect populations.
2. Studies have confirmed that declining insect population is just a hokum created
by environmentalists to distract the common masses from more important issues like global
warming.
3. Studies show that insects play a vital role in maintaining a balance in the food chain.
4. Research shows that insects remain unaffected by radiations and radio waves.
5. Advancement of technology has made the lives of human beings easier.
In the following question, a sentence is given with four words marked in bold as A, B, C and
D. One of the words in bold is to be replaced by choosing the correct option such that the
sentence becomes grammatically and contextually correct, but the meaning of the sentence
becomes opposite to its initial meaning.
Question 61. Various (A) recommendations to the draft (B) law from research (C) think
tanks and coastal community groups during the year were largely ignored (D).
1. A - several
2. D - incorporated
3. B - separate
4. C - practical
Question 62. In the question given below, three words are given in bold and are used in
sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). From the options below, choose the sentence that uses
any of the words correctly and is grammatically and contextually correct.
EXHAUSTIVE, CONSTRICT, SCRUTINIZE
1. If you are taking scrutinize medicines for allergies or a cold, stay away from medicines
that
promote sleepiness as this can cause the throat to relax too much and constrict the airway.
2. The arm-muscles have been studied in an absolutely exhaustive manner by
Fiirbringer,
who in his monumental work has tabulated and then scrutinized the chief characters
of
fourteen selected muscles.
3. Its primary function is to help maintain a constant blood pressure by scrutinizing certain
blood vessels to constrict when the blood pressure falls below normal.
4. In the present article it is impossible to give an exhaustive catalogue of the constrict
phenomena and modes of communication of modern spiritualism.
5. The list is by no means constrict and it is hoped it will be continually added to and updated
as new sops are scrutinized.
Question 63. The question below has two or more blanks. There are five options below
each sentence. Choose the combination of words which can be filled up in the blanks in the
sentence in the same order so as to complete the sentence meaningfully.
Data scientists now have unprecedented computing ___________ at their disposal, and
They are __________ algorithms that are ever more _____________.
1. Prowess, locating, inclined
2. Power, devising, sophisticated
3. Advent, developing, aligned
4. Functions, creating, dependent
5. Significance, optimising, accomplished
Question 64. People value their moral __________ to such an extent that they will work to
behave well and cooperate with each other rather than risk being ________ negatively for
their _________, according to a new Stanford research.
1. Reputation, judged, actions
2. Ethics, cautioned, behaviour
3. Behaviour, berated, attributes
4. Principles, derided, character
5. Obligations, manoeuvred, principles
Question 65. Many organizations have multiple ___________ initiatives ____________ to

improve performance, usually ___________ within separate organizational groups.
1. Independent, underway, housed
2. Considerable, tailored, surrounded
3. Substantial, hovering, marginalized
4. Inordinate, surfacing, transfixed
5. Distinguished, introduced, inundated
Question 66. Instead of working on ___________ initiatives inside organizational units,
companies have to think ____________ about how their operations can contribute to
delivering a _____________ customer experience.
1. Sophisticated, sharply, painful
2. Independent, carefully, pleasurable
3. Separate, holistically, distinctive
4. Fraudulent, figuratively, dignified
5. Diminutive, humanely, unique
Question 67. They should focus on entirely ___________ the customer experience, which
often reveals opportunities to simplify and ___________ journeys and processes that
_________ massive value.
1. Pivoting, facilitate, translates
2. Renovating, dictate, undermine
3. Examining, categorize, upholds
4. Reimagining, streamline, unlock
5. Modifying, congregate, represent
Question 68. Whenever I park my Ferrari, there's inevitably someone who wants to come
gawk at it, like
I. a moth to the flame
II. a bull in a china shop
III. getting blood out of a stone
1. Only III
2. Only I & II
3. Only I
4. Only I & III
5. All of I, II & III
Question 69. After two hours of hearing the children shout and argue, I really was
I. at the end of my tether
II. as stiff as a ramrod
III. hot under the collar
1. Only III
2. Only I & II
3. Only II
4. Only I & III
5. All of I, II & III
(Directions 1 - 5 Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follows.)
It’s high time science took a good hard look at religion. Why? Because it has
become evident in recent years that if we are to make progress on the world’s
major problems, we will have to learn more about religions and the influence
they wield over people’s lives and actions. Failure to appreciate the dynamics of
religious allegiance, and the psychological impact of religious differences, may
lead us to invest heavily in counterproductive policies.
The phoenix-like rebound of religion in the former Soviet Union suggests to

many that just as prohibition and the war on drugs have proved to be
disastrous, if well-meant, attempts to deal with the excesses of these popular
indulgences, so any ill-informed effort to rein in the fanatical strains of religion
will probably backfire badly if we don’t study the surrounding phenomena
carefully and objectively. From a biological perspective, religion is a remarkably
costly human activity that has evolved over the millennia. What “pays for” this
profligate expense? Why does it exist and how does it foster such powerful
allegiances? To many people, even asking such a question will seem a sacrilege.
But to undertake a serious scientific study of religious practices and attitudes,
we must set aside the traditional exemption from scrutiny that religions have
enjoyed.
Some people are sure that the world would be a better place without religion. I
am not persuaded, because I cannot yet characterize anything that could replace
it in the hearts of most human beings. (Perhaps we should try to eliminate music
while we are at it. It inflames the passions and seduces many young people into
wasted lives.) What people care about deeply deserves to be taken seriously.
Exempting religion from scrutiny is a patronizing way of declaring it to be all just
fashion and ceremony. Either we take religion as seriously as we take global
warming and el Niño, and study it intensively, or we treat it as mere superstition
and backwardness.
As with the other marvels of nature, I find that paying scrupulous attention to its
elegant designs increases my appreciation of it, but others may think that too
much knowledge of the backstage machinery threatens to diminish their awe, to
break a spell that should not be broken. This is not just a difference in taste, or
a purely academic disagreement. Our futures may well depend on how we
decide to proceed.
Q.1) The author’s attitude towards religion is

a) He looks at religion with awe.
b) He believes in following a religion.
c) He considers questioning religion to be morally wrong.
d) None of the above
Q.2) Which of the following would the author most likely to agree with?
a) God is omnipresent.
b) A scientific study of religion would revive people’s faith in God.
c) People generally do not take religion seriously.
d) Religion may have elements of extremism.
Q.3) Which of the following is implied about religion in Soviet Union?

a) The religion and religious practices were suppressed in Soviet Union
for some period.
b) In Soviet Union religion was used as a weapon to win the war against drugs.
c) In Soviet Union there were riots among different religious groups for some
period.
d) The State religion of Soviet Union was a bone of contention among some
factions.
Q.4) The author draws a comparison between music and religion to signify?
a) that both require extreme dedication.
b) that both have a tendency to lead people to wasteful lives.
c) both have strong allegiances that may be hard to shake off.
d) that it would be difficult to replace one with the other Correct
Q.5) Which one of the following expresses the main point of the passage
accurately?
a) The war on religion could prove to be disastrous.
b) Trying to wish away religion by keeping it away from scrutiny is a bad step for
future.
c) For most people religion is the most important part of their lives.
d) Being religious has both benefits and drawbacks
Direction 6 – 10 ( Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follows.)
It is difficult to compare countries because various factors such as size, culture,

history, geography, natural endowments, geopolitics and internal polity come
into play. There are some goals which can be achieved by smaller countries; but
sometimes smaller countries find it difficult to embark upon certain big
technological plans even if they have the funds, because the size of the domestic
market is too small. If we consider the bigger countries, the closest comparison
to India is China, though there are many crucial differences.
The Chinese vision is to prepare the country for entry into the ranks of mid-level
developed nations by the middle of the twenty-first century. Acceleration of the
nation's economic growth and social development by relying on advances in
science and technology is pivotal in this. Documents describing the Chinese
vision state that science and technology constitute premier productive forces and
represent a great revolutionary power that can propel economic and social
development.
It is interesting to note that the main lessons the Chinese have drawn from their
past performance is their failure to promote science and technology as strategic
tools for empowerment. They also point to the absence of mechanisms and
motivations in their economic activity to promote dependence on science and
technology. English Practice Questions Free CLAT e-book Similarly, they hold
that their scientific and technological efforts were not oriented towards economic
growth. Consequently, they conclude that a large number of scientific and
technological achievements were not converted into productive forces as they
were too far removed from China's immediate economic and social needs.
The Chinese vision is therefore aimed at exploiting state-of-art science and

technology to enhance the nation's overall power and strength, to improve
people's living standards, to focus on resolving problems encountered in large-
scale industrial and agricultural production and to effectively control and
alleviate pressures brought on by population, resources and the environment. By
the year 2000, China had aimed at bringing the main industrial sectors up to the
technological levels achieved by the developed countries in the 1970s or 80s and
by 2020 to the level they would have attained by the early twenty-first century.
The aim is to bridge the overall gap with the advanced world.
There is a special emphasis on research and development of high technologies

that would find defense applications. Some of these technologies are critical for
improving the features of key conventional weapons. Some technologies are
meant for enhancing future military capabilities. Other efforts are aimed at
maintaining the momentum to develop capabilities for cutting-edge defense
technologies. They call for unremitting efforts in this regard with the aim of
maintaining effective self-defense and nuclear deterrent capabilities and to
enable parity in defense, science and technology with the advanced world.
Q6. Comparison between two countries becomes difficult because:

I. The countries differ in their internal political systems.
II. Each country has its own demography.
III. The countries with homogenous backgrounds are many in number.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) I and II
d) All of the above Correct
Q7. What is the goal of China to be accomplished by the middle of 21st century?
a) To become one of the most developed nations.
b) To surpass the level of all middle-level developed nations by a good margin.
c) To be the most influential superpower.
d) None of these Correct
Q8. What, according to the Chinese vision, can boost socio-economic

development of China?
a) Research and development
b) Science and technology
c) Premier productive forces
d) Minds united with revolutionary power
Q9.) Which of the following fields has particularly been valued by China?
a) Building high quality infrastructure
b) Innovation in the field of Medicine
c) Defence applications based on high technologies
d) Agricultural production
Q. 10 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with
an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it
by selecting the appropriate option.
The warning bells ..................several times before anyone realized the danger.
1) were ringing
2) had rung
3) had rang
4) would have rung
Q. 11 Select the antonym of sacred

1) pious
2) hallowed
3) divine
4) profane
Spot the part that has error in the following questions:
Q12. Pakistan has for the first time admitted to the presence / b) of India‟s most
wanted terrorist, Dawood Ibrahim, / c) on its earth, but has said that / d) he
has now been chased out and could be in the UAE. / e) No error
Q13. The Delhi Government will set up seven laboratories / b) in East Delhi to
test, verify and calibrate / c) the work and reference standards of different
types of balances, / d) weights and measuring equipment used in shops or
establishments. / e) No error
Q14. a) Samajik Suvidha Sangam, also known as Mission Convergence, / b) is
the most unique initiative of NCT of Delhi / c) for holistic empowerment of
women from vulnerable and / d) most vulnerable sections of society. / e) No
error
Q15. a) A private company is one which/ b) restricts transfer of shares and does
not/ c) invite the public to/ d) subscribe its shares/ e) No error.
Q16. a) The char bodies of two women / b) were recovered from a burning
pile / c) of dried cow dung / d)at Sultanpur village / e) No error.
Directions- In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an
error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the option
corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose "No error"
Q17. The fight for liberation (1)/ brings out the best and (2)/ a noblest quality in
mankind. (3)/ No error (4)
A. brings out the best and
B. a noblest quality in mankind.
C. The fight for liberation
D. No error
Q18. In my opinion (1)/ a pencil is always (2)/ more preferable to a pen. (3)/ No
error (4)
A. In my opinion
B. a pencil is always
C. more preferable to a pen
D. No error
Q19. This is turned out to be (1)/ one of our most successful projects (2)/ and
we have made quite (3) / a large profit from it (4)/No error (5)
A. a large profit from it
B. one of our most successful projects
C. This is turned out to be
D. and we have made quite
E. No error
Q20. Industry experts points out (1)/ that there is an urgent need (2) / to
overhaul the patent filing (3)/ and generation process (4)/ No error (5)
A. and generation process
B. that there is an urgent need
C. Industry experts points out
D. to overhaul the patent filing
E. No error
Directions(Q.21-Q.25): In the following questions, a sentence has been given in

Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one
which best express the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
Q.21 I said to Pramod, “How did you break your leg?”

(a) I asked Pramod how he had broken your leg.
(b) I asked Pramod how did you break your leg.
(c) I asked Pramod how he had broken his leg
(d) I asked Pramod how you broke your leg.
Q.22 The driver said to the passerby, “Do you know the way to the market
(a) The driver asked the passerby did he know the way to the market.
(b) The driver asked the passerby if he knows the way to the market.
(c) The driver asked the passerby whether you know the way to the market.
(d) The driver asked the passerby if he knew the way to the market.
Q.23 Anshul told me that his mother was not at home and that she would be
back the following day.
(a) Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She will be back
tomorrow.”
(b) Anshul said to me, “My mother was not at home. She will be back the
following day.”
(c) Anshul said to me, “My mother is not at home. She would be back the
following day.”
(d) Anshul said to me, “His mother was not at home. She would be back
tomorrow.”
Q.24 Rani said to me, “A monkey bit me in the park.”

(a) Rani told me that a monkey has bitten her in the park.
(b) Rani told me that a monkey had bitten her in the park.
(c) Rani told me that a monkey bit me in the park.
(d) Rani asked me if a monkey bit me in the park.
Q.25 Amit said to me, “Your parents are waiting for you.”
(a) Amit told me that your parents are waiting for you.
(b) Amit told me that his parents were waiting for me.
(c) Amit asked me if my parents were waiting for me.
(d) Amit told me that my parents were waiting for me.
Q26. Of the given four words, only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the
correctly spelt word.
A. Thoruoghly
B. Thoroughly
C. Thoroghouly
D. Thorougholy
A. Phenomenan
B. Phenominon
C. Phenomenon
D. Phenamenon
A. Corespondent
B. Correspendent
C. Correspondant
D. Correspondent
A. Alleviate
B. Alliveate
C. Allaevate
D. Allaviate
A. anticeptique
B. antiseptic
C. anticeptic
D. anteceptic
SBI Clerk English Practice Questions
Directions (Q 1 to 5): In the following passage some words have been omitted and
replaced by alphabetised blanks. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.
Flowers are feeling the heat as global warming is robbing them of their fragrance. The
scientists at the Hebrew University of Jerusalem in Israel have __________(A)that flowers
are losing their fragrance because of a steady rise in temperature. According to a research
conducted by Alon Can'ani, a PhD student at Hebrew University of Jerusalem,
_________(B) in global climate is "interfering with plant-pollinator mutualism, an interaction
facilitated mainly by floral colour and scent". The research was based on two varieties of
Petunia plants - P720 and Blue Spark. They _____________(C) a decrease in floral scent
production when their ambient temperature increased. Hence, there was a
____________(D) decrease in emission of scent compounds as well.This drop in the
production of floral scent is the result of arrested expression and activity of proteins that help
in biosynthesis of the compounds. Can'ani, who did a research on control mechanisms that
help plants to _____________(E)the process of scent emission, is now investigating a
process called glycosylation.
Q1. Select the most appropriate option for blank A.
1) Guessed
2) Find
3) Establish
4) Found
5) Ignored
Correct Option: 4
Q2. Select the most appropriate option for blank B.
1) Uniformity
2) Stability
3) Change
4) Consistent
5) Diversify
Correct Option: 3
Q3. Select the most appropriate option for blank C.

---------------------------
1) Hide
2) Exhibition
3) Views
4) Showed
5) Conceal
Correct Option: 4
Q4. Select the most appropriate option for blank D.
---------------------------
1) Significant
2) Remark
3) Importantly
4) Irrelevant
5) Significantly
Correct Option: 1
Q5. Select the most appropriate option for blank E.

---------------------------
1) Managed
2) Regulate
3) Damage
4) Controls
5) Displace
Correct Option: 2
Q6. In the following question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the
word or one of its forms has been used. You need to see which of the sentence(s) has/have
correctly used the given word and mark your answer accordingly.
HOSTILE
I. The land was rough and hostile, and yet they made much progress, and ever the Mountain
drew nearer.
II. He knew of the many stories of friends and relatives who, in the harsh glare of life abroad,
became unreliable, even hostile, versions of their former selves.
III. I am absolutely sure that we live in a hostile universe that is always conspiring for our
highest and greatest good.
1) Only II and III
2) Only I
3) Only I and II
4) Only III
5) All I, II and III
Correct Option: 3
Q7. In the following question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the
word or one of its forms has been used. You need to see which of the sentence(s) has/have
correctly used the given word and mark your answer accordingly.
VAGUE
I. As with so much of the language in the wellness and beauty industries, the language
treads a fine line between being scientific-sounding and vague enough to avoid legal action.
II. There are a number of theories, but no vague answer.
III. Below the clouds I see vague ridges of mountains and dark forests.
1) Only II and III

2) Only I
3) Only I and II
4) Only I and III
5) All I, II and III
Correct Option: 4
Q8. In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One of
these four words may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. If all the words are correctly
spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) as your answer.
A monument in remember of the St Lucian soldiers lost in the Second World War was
erected years ago.
---------------------------
1) Monument
2) Soldiers
3) Remember
4) Erected
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 3
Footbal is the world's most popular ball game in numbers of participants and spectators.
---------------------------
1) Popular
2) Participants
3) Spectators
4) Footbal
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 4
Q10. In the question below, a sentence is given with four words highlighted in bold. One
of these four words may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. If all the words
are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) as your answer.
Parliament is debating a proposition which would prohibit smoking in public plases.

1) Proposition
2) Parliament
3) Plases
4) Prohibit
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 3
Economists have looked at factors that increase animocity between the rich and poor and
situations in which they can live harmoniously.
---------------------------
1) Economists
2) Animocity
3) Harmoniously
4) Situations
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 2
The disappearance of tens of thousands of flights from China's skies in recent weeks points
to how the coronavirus has hobbled a nation.
---------------------------
1) Disappearance
2) Flights
3) Skies
4) Hobbled
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 5
Q13. In the question given below, four sentences are given, which may or may not contain
an error. Decide which of the sentence is grammatically correct or meaningful and mark the
answer accordingly.
---------------------------
1) After more than a year, the district have experienced a complete makeover.
2) India's total internet subscriber base stands at 637 million, growing 29% in the past year.
3) The administration provided six sapling's of fruits, vegetables or flowering plants to every
home.
4) More than 180 women entrepreneurs and self-help groups exhibited its organic products
at the festival.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 2
answer accordingly.
---------------------------
1) The reduction in plastic use was accomplished by using paper bags as substitutes for
polythene bags.
2) If one wants to deal with uncertainty, then he/she needs more supervise, not more
regulation.
3) The plant is used to manufacture headlamps and tail lamps for passenger and
commercially vehicles.
4) Environmental concerns has become an important decision-making determinant for
consumers.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 1
answer accordingly.
1) We have a number of commercial deals, which are of great significance, said a senior
official.
2) The study is based on a survey that used a sample of 125 people, interviewed on phone.
3) Lack of education among people has turned many places in the city into garbage dumps.
4) Management of waste cooking oil and fats from household and industry poses a
significant challenge.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 5
answer accordingly.
---------------------------
1) The government was determined to made the business environment more beneficial for
airlines.
2) New York has been the world capital for all manner of industries for a decades.
3) Besides asking employees to work from home, companies are taken up backup office
spaces in other locations.
4) Companies can brings meaningful changes in society through corporate social
responsibility funds.
5) None are correct
Correct Option: 5
answer accordingly.
---------------------------
1) Traditionally, sectors such as health and educate have a clear blueprint and are easy to
undertake.
2) State-wise analysis off expenditure reveals low concentration of economic activities in
poor states.
3) The first 'Khelo India' University Games is to be held in Bhuwaneshwar, Odisha.
4) India has a culture of carrying out plantation drives, and they attracts huge participation.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 3
answer accordingly.
1) Drawing from the experience, we undertook similar initiatives in nearby communities

successfully.
2) Rise in sea surface temperature, due to global warming, drove up humid in the coastal
areas.
3) While other countries are struggling to control there population, India is on the path to
stabilize theirs.
4) The mission aims to preserved the essence of rural community life.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 1
answer accordingly.
1) The main motive of the strategy is to provide access to financially services in an

affordable manner.
2) There are more than 95 lakh milk producers that will be benefitted with this move.
3) It is essential to transform the eating habits, reduced food waste and also improve food
production.
4) The population of the elephant species has declines greatly due to habitat loss.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 2
Q20. In the question given below, a set of four sentences P, Q, R & S is given, which
whenproperly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Arrange the sentences in the correct
order and mark the correct order as your answer.
P. Various celestial bodies such as the Sun and the Moon periodically repeat their
movements.
Q. Both motions eventually correlate with important terrestrial events.
R. Some motions, like the daily "motion" of the Sun, are simple to observe.
S. While others, like the annual "motion" of the Sun, are far more difficult.
1) PRSQ
2) SPQR
3) PQSR
4) SQRP
5) QSRP
Correct Option: 1
Q21. In the question given below, four statements are given which may or may not contain
an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the sentences
are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.
---------------------------
1) Since lightning struck the tree and rendered its centre hollow during the 1600s, it
managed to survive.
2) The project is targeted to go fully live by February 2020 and cover thousands of terminals
in Singapore.
3) Evolution is usually represented as an orderly tree, but in reality its branches can became
intertwined.
4) The ministry observed that the message of protection of rights of children are yet to reach
the masses.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 2
---------------------------
1) Since attaining independence by Britain in 1968, the island nation of Mauritius has
become one of most stable democracies in Africa.
2) Under the project, the plan is to sequesters minimum of 3.5 million tons of carbon dioxide
in the next 30 years.
3) More than 150 delegates from 50 countries participated in the conference to discuss
some of the most pressing global imperatives.
4) The Automobile sector in the country recently cut hundreds of thousands of jobs due to
unprecedented decline on sales.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 3
---------------------------
1) To block selling of counterfeit goods on it's platform, e-commerce giant Amazon has
introduced 'Project Zero' in India.
2) India attending the 8th session of the International Treaty of Plant Genetic Resources for
Food and Agriculture at Rome, Italy.
3) The United States space agency NASA unveiled an early version of their first allelectric
experimental aircraft, named as X-57 "Maxwell".
4) The main objective of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative is to achieve safe, secure and a
stable maritime domain.
5) All are correct
Correct Option: 4
Q24. In the question below, a sentence is given with one blank in it. Choose the option
that provides the correct word to be filled in the blank.
The Moon's formation and early evolution present ____________ which, if understood, could
guide us in planetary studies, and help in understanding exoplanets.
---------------------------
1. Acquisitions
2. Mysteries
3. Adversaries
4. Commissions
Correct Option: 2
Q25. In the following question, a part of the sentence has been highlighted. You need to
identify which of the given options can replace the highlighted part and make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. In case the highlighted part is correct, mark option
(E) as your answer.
There has been a rapid rise in the number of British nationals living in the Netherlands apply
to become Dutch since the UK voted in a referendum to leave the European Union.
---------------------------
1. Applied to become
2. Applies to become
3. Applying to become
4. Applying to became
Correct Option: 3
identify which of the given options can replace the highlighted part and make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct. In case the highlighted part is correct, mark (e) as
your answer.
EU technocrats maintain that leaving a post-Brexit customs border open on the island of
Ireland would compromised food safety and the safety of children's toys.
---------------------------
1) Would compromising food
2) Would jeopardises food
3) Would endangered food
4) Would compromise food
5) No correction required.
Correct Option: 4
identify which of the given options can both grammatically and contextually replace the
highlighted part. In case the highlighted part is correct, mark option E as your answer.
My department drew up the short straw on re-location and from tomorrow we get to work
in remote location of Earlsfield in the London borough for seven weeks.
---------------------------
1) Drew the straw short
2) Drew the short straw
3) Drawn the short straw
4) Drew the shortest straw
5) No improvement required
Correct Option: 2
Q28. In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the
given options, choose the one that provides the correct word to be filled in the blank, thereby
making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
Compared to their terrestrial cousins, studying underwater volcanic features is ______

troublesome and rife with logistical difficulties.
---------------------------
1) incredible
2) spectacle
3) incredibly
4) perplex
5) awesome
Correct Option: 3
Grief has many forms - physical, emotional, and psychological - and how we express it is
both entirely personal and also _____________on how our personal culture responds.
---------------------------
1) Independent
2) Superior
3) Important
4) Dependent
5) Pretext
Correct Option: 4
During this conversation with Amelia, I couldn't help but __________with the question of
how the dreaming mind and the waking mind compare.
---------------------------
1) Reject
2) Surrender
3) Grapple
4) Clear
5) Enlighten
Correct Option: 3
IBPS PO English Practice Paper :
Directions: In the following question, a set of sentences is given, which when properly
sequenced form a coherent paragraph. One of these sentences does not belong to the
passage. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that
follow.
A. But despite intensified diplomacy, the world could soon face devastating consequences of
climate change.
B. Through the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement, countries agreed to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions, but the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere keeps
rising, heating the Earth at an alarming rate.
C. Over the last several decades, governments have collectively pledged to slow global
warming.
D. There are growing concerns from experts, activists, and citizens alike that countries'
commitments under these global accords are not ambitious or urgent enough.
E. Scientists warn that if this warming continues abated, it could bring environmental
catastrophe to much of the world, including staggering sea-level rise, record-breaking
droughts and floods and widespread species loss.
F. In order to scale up the provision of long-term financing for developing countries,
governments decided to establish a Green Climate Fund that will function under the
guidance of, and be accountable to the conference of the Parties (COP
Question 1. Which part has an error in it?

A) In order to scale up the provision of long-term financing
B) for developing countries, governments decided to establish a Green Climate Fund
C) that will function under the guidance of, and be accountable
D) to the Conference of the Parties (COP).
E) The sentence is error free
Question 2. A word is given followed by a sentence using that word or a form of that word.
From the options below, choose the sentence that uses the word with the same contextual
which means as that of the given sentence.
Faze
I. He isn't fazed by the chance of playing in the New York spotlight and is instead excited
about the prospect of joining a Rangers team that includes one of his favorite players,
forward Artemi
Panarin.
II. Nothing ever seems to faze him and he "puts 150% into everything he does".
III. I count Beth, a friend for 20 years, as one of the most feet-on-the-ground, not easily fazed
people in my life.
A) Only I
B) II and III
C) I and II
D) I and III
E) I, II and III
Question 3. A word is given followed by a sentence using that word or a form of that word.
From the options below, choose the sentence that uses the word with the same contextual
meaning as that of the given sentence.
Baited
I. "Everyone is waiting with baited breath to see the results of the commission," said Mike
Dark,
an attorney for California Advocates for Nursing Home Reform, a nonprofit watchdog group.
II. Might there be a silver lining here for those of us waiting with baited breath for the next big
sci-fi, fantasy or comic-book movie?
III. "This is not about my family or his family," Mr. Biden said at one point, after Mr. Trump
tried to
bait him with an attack on his son Hunter.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. only III
Question 4. In the question given below there are two statements, with each statement
consisting of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of
words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order
making them meaningful and grammatically correct.
(i) In nine years, Ramu's six acres of land has gone from _______________, dry and
sparsely vegetated to fertile, moist and _______________ vegetation.
(ii) The unique phenomenon is irreversible and every year one kilometer of
_______________ rocks and soils are submitted under the _______________ layer of ice.
A)infertile, rich
B) solid, huge
C) gentle, deep
D) shiny, vast
E) barren, thick
Question 5. In the question given below there are two statements, with each statement
consisting of two blanks. You have to choose the option which provides the correct set of
words that fits both the blanks in both the statements appropriately and in the same order
making them meaningful and grammatically correct.
(i)There is ________________ evidence that the areas surrounding the Amazon River were
home to complex and large-scale indigenous societies, mainly chiefdoms who __________
large towns and cities.
(ii)________________ time remains for such a plan to be ________________ and made
public before the last call is made during inauguration week.
A) voluminous, matured
B) ample, developed
C) enough, drawn
D) generous, advanced
E) substantial, detailed
Question 6. In the following question, a sentence is given, divided into five parts. The part
given in bold is grammatically and contextually correct. Out of the other four parts, one part
may contain an error. Mark the option containing the part with the error. If none of the parts
contains an error, mark 'No error' as your answer.
Intelligence and reading ability wasn't (A)/ connected, meaning that (B)/ dyslexia could no
longer be (C)/ defined as a condition that (D)/ affected only bright children who struggled to
read (E).
A) B
B) A
C) D
D) C
E) No error
Question 7. On this definition, the (A) actions we've taken in (B) the Anthropocene period
have (C) been immensely well (D) for human empowerment (E).
A) E
B) C
C) D
D) A
E) No error
Question 8. The only silver lining would (A) have been the total annihilation (B) of all the
large predators - (C) the relative tiny survivors could (D) forage for charred scraps in peace
(E).
A) C
B) A
C) D
D) B
E) No error
Question 9. It is strange that (A)/ even after 15 years of experience, (B)/ he is still not (C)/
able to be performed. (D)
AC
BA
CD
DB
E No error
Question 10. A sentence is given with a portion (a phrase or a group of words) marked in
bold. Choose the best replacement for the part in bold, as per the options given below, to
make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct.
The atmosphere at the rally is tense and the police and paramilitary are on hand to make
sure nobody jumps the gun.
I. Act irresponsibly
II. Acts hastily
III. Uses lethal power
A) Only I
B) Only II and III
C) Only I and II
D) Only I and III
E) Only II
Question 11. The rookie player was our favourite in the final playoffs, by a long shot.
I. By far
II. Initially
III. For the time being.
A) Only II
B) Only III
C) Only I and II
D) Only I and III
E) Only I
Question 12. It is as if nature will continue to test mankind, seemingly holding all the aces,
in spite of the great advances in science and technology.
I. Keeping all the secrets
II. Trying all the tricks
III. Having all the advantages
A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Only III
D) Only I and II
E) Only II and III
Question 13. In the following question, a sentence is given with certain words marked as
(A), (B), (C), (D), and (E). Choose the options with the correct sequence of words to make
the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. If no change is required, mark E 'No
change required' as your answer.
The platypus is nature's crazy quilt, as this freaking (A) creature looks like about a half-
dozen different animals all hiding (B) into one, turns out that platypuses were rolled (C) yet
another conspicuous feature that they can strange (D) glow in the dark while their fur
appears (E) brown in visible light.
A) DCBAE
B) BDECA
C) EDABC
D) ABDCE
E) No change required
Question 14. When working remotely (A), you are more likely to spend half your time
battling guilt (B), distractions, or managing (C) energy dips and if you give in to your
distractions, you could wind up devoting (D) productive time to fighting off the procrastination
(E) that comes from
giving in to those distractions.
A) AEDCB
B) BDECA
C) EDABC
D) AECDB
E) No change required
Question 15. If we imagine a/an continuum (A) between a complete direct government (B),
where all the citizens participate in all public decisions, and a pure representative one, where
the democracy (C) of public affairs lies solely in the hands of political or representative elites
(D), we can see that some kind of intermediate formulas might be discussed and applied (E)
in the existing democratic political communities.
A) AECDB
B) ACBDE
C) EDABC
D) ABDCE
E) No change required.
Question 16. Directions : In the following passage, some of the words have been
highlighted in bold (A, B, C, D and E). The highlighted words might be grammatically or
contextually used incorrectly. Replace the highlighted words (A, B, C, D and E) with the
correct option in order to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. In case the
highlighted word is correct then mark 'No improvement' as the correct answer
In the eighteenth century a career with the East India Company was a throw of the dice for
unattached young British men Arriving in India wane (A) and scurvy after a year at sea,
many quickly succumbed to disease, madness, or one of the innumerable little wars that the
company fought in order to insert (B) itself on the subcontinent. The salary was hardly an
incentive. In the 1720s junior clerks, or "writers," received just 55 per year, not enough to live
on in Bengal or Madras and a pittance when set against the handsome 8 percent annual
divided (C) the company's shareholders awarded themselves back in London. Such
drawbacks tended to put off all but those whom circumstances had already disfavoured:
second sons, members of the down-at-heel Anglo-Irish gentry, dispossessed Scottish
landowners who had backed the losing side in a rebellion against the crown. Being on the
company payroll was rather a mean (D) to an end; moonlighting was where the money lay in
one of the richest places on earth. In 1700 India is estimated to have accounted for 27
percent of the world economy and a quarter of the global textile trade. A considerable
number of company employees who survived the shock of arrival went on to make fortunes
from off-books trading in textiles, saltpetre, indigo, opium, salt, tobacco, betel, rice, and
sugar, sidelines also included selling Mughal-issued tax exemptions and lending money to
prosperous (E) Indian farmers and charging exorbitant interest rates.
Question 17. Which of the following words can replace the word 'A' mentioned in the
passage?
A) Strong
B) Strength
C) Wan
D) Elated
E) No improvement
Question 18. Which of the following words can replace the word 'B' mentioned in the
passage?
A) Sink
B) Submerge
C) Embed
D) Control
E) No improvement
Question 19. Fill in the blank with appropriate idiom
No one can put their trust in Rajesh's mood because he is used to _______even with his
friends and family.
A) Vanishing into thin air
B) Jumping out of his skin
C) Getting the sack
D) Playing fast and loose
E) Taking it on the chin
Question 20. In the question below, a paragraph is given with two blanks. From the given
options, choose the correct combination of words that fit in the passage
The annual phenomenon of stubble burning _______ fouls the air across northern and
eastern India, and imposes heavy health and productivity costs. In the absence of pollution
from agricultural residue, there might have been some _______ for a limited quantity of
firecrackers, although climatic conditions at this time of year, of low temperature and
atmospheric circulation, would still leave many in distress.
A) steadily, restraint
B) temporary, scope
C) constantly, limitation
D) brief, chance
E) unfailingly, room
Question 21. The story of Kerala Kalamandalam, among India's most important centres for
the performing arts, is ________ with that of Kathakali, the dance form that once prospered
under royal patronage. As this ________ began to dry up at the beginning of the 20th
century, it practically orphaned the dance theatre and various other classical arts of Kerala.
A) woven, spiteful
B) parted, generosity
C) interlinked, munificence
D) isolated, magnanimity
E) netted, selfish
Question 22. The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) has
invited bids to ______ global consultants to help it monetise non-core assets such as land,
buildings and operational assets held by state-owned firms. The DIPAM ______ the
consultant to prepare feasibility reports for individual assets and to design both the model
and the bidding process for asset sales.
A) Empanel, expects
B) Enlist, expect
C) Enrolled, expect
D) Benign, sounds
E) Meagre, archived
Question 23. Here is the danger with authenticity: it has a ______ to make aspiration look
fake. You are trying to be something you are not. But aspiring to be a better person, or better
at anything, Often involves trying to be something you are (currently) not. Hence the
problem.
Authenticity is often so ______ insisted upon that all efforts at change or self-improvement
appear phoney.
A) Penchant, rude
B) Tendency, bluntly
C) Effects, deeply
D) Change, unlikely
E) Pretence, encourage
Question 24. In the question below, a sentence is given with five words highlighted in bold.
More than one of these five words may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context
of the sentence. Find out the word (s), which is/are wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any.
The boy baby got exited (A) on seeing (B) a large seized (C) teddy beer (D), which his father
(E) gifted him.
A) Only A and D
B) Only D
C) Only B and E
D) Only E and B
E) Only A, C and D
Question 25. The king's brother attempted (A) to exceed (B) his brother's thrown (C) by
devising (D) a plot to exile (E) the king and his family.
A) Only A and B
B) Only B and C
C) Only D and E
D) Only A, E and B
E) Only B, C and D
Question 26. The Premmier (A) lost all his power (B) due to the invation (C) of foreign (D)
power into his hoamland (E).
A) Only A and C
B) Only C and E
C) Only B, C and E
D) Only A, C and E
E) Only A, B and D
Question 27. Willy talks (A) so much care to keep (B) up his English ascent (C) in the most
(D) appropriate manor (E).
A) Only A and C
B) Only C and D
C) Only A, E and C
D) Only B, D and E
E) Only E, C and D
Question 28. In the question given below, four statements are given which may or may not
contain an error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct. If all the
sentences are correct, mark 'All are correct' as your answer.
A. Countries that has invested in human capital, infrastructure, and decent systems of
social protection have made more progress than others in reducing extreme poverty,
according to the World Bank Group's senior vice president for the 2030 Development
Agenda, United Nations Relations.
B. More progress in reducing extreme poverty has being observed in countries that
have invested in human capital, infrastructure, and decent systems of social protection,
C. According to the World Bank Group's senior vice president for the 2030
Development Agenda, United Nations Relations, countries that have invested in
human capital, infrastructure, and decent systems of social protection have made
more progress than others in reducing extreme poverty.
D. Countries that have invested in human capital, infrastructure, and decent systems of
social protection have made most progress than others in reducing extreme poverty,
E. No error
Question 29. Fossil's share price is currently less than one-tenth of what it was the day the
Apple Watch was announced, which is enough to realised the marked impact, the Apple
watch has had on watches in general.
A. The Apple Watch has had a marked impact on watches in general - ask Fossil,
whose share price is currently less than one-tenth of what it was the day the Apple
Watch was announced.
B. The impact the Apple watch have had on watches can be gauged from the fact that
Fossil's share price is currently less than one-tenth of what it was the day the Apple Watch
was announced.
C. The Apple Watch has had a marked impact on watches in general which can be
ascertain from the fact that Fossil's share price is currently less than one-tenth of what it was
the day the Apple Watch was announced.
D. All are correct
Question 30. In the question given below, a phrase is highlighted. From the given options,
choose the one that correctly replaces the given phrase but lends an opposite meaning to
the sentence Under his guidance the company invested in hundreds of millions of dollars to
make the U.S. stores look less like impersonal warehouses, to retrain an often indifferent
sales staff, and to expand a private-label line of toys.
A) the company withdrew hundreds
B) the company will be investing hundreds
C) the company chose to fund hundreds
D) the company divested in hundreds
E) the company pull out hundreds
Question 31. Neural scans show that some have a remarkable ability to remain calm in
response to threatening situations as their brains respond differently to stress, instead of
generating anxiety and fear.
A) anxious in response to innocuous situations
B) calm in response to frightening situations
C) calm in response to harmful situations
D) calm in response to unpleasant situations
E) calm in response to malign situations
Question 32. In the question given below, the word given in bold is used in three sentences
I, II, III, in similar and different forms. Each of the three sentences is also divided into four
parts (A), (B), (C) and (D), excluding the word. You need to identify which of the following
sentences has/have correctly used the word in bold and the part(s) in the sentences which
is/are grammatically or contextually incorrect.
Meditation
I. The site's landmark "Buddhist stupa" (A)/, is a large hemispherical structure (B)/
associated to worship, (C)/ meditation / and burial of monks. (D)
II. The film, beyond its quiet (A)/ meditation / on the politics of a mother-daughter relationship
(B)/ over the span of a single day, was also (C)/ reminiscent of a certain middle-class
sensibility. (D) III. In the monasteries, the candidates for illumination(A)/ are ordered by their
masters to (B)/ meditation / on these enigmas (C)/ and return with answers. (D)
A. Both sentences I and II use the word correctly, B is incorrect in sentence III.
B. Only sentence I uses the word correctly, D is incorrect in sentence III.
C. Both sentences I and II use the word correctly, C is incorrect in sentence I.
D. Only sentence II uses the sentence correctly, D is incorrect in sentence II
E. All are correct
Directions: In the following question, a set of sentences is given, which when properly
sequenced form a coherent paragraph. One of these sentences does not belong to the
passage. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer the questions that
follow.
A. But despite intensified diplomacy, the world could soon face devastating consequences of
climate change.
B. Through the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement, countries agreed to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions, but the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere keeps
rising, heating the Earth at an alarming rate.
C. Over the last several decades, governments have collectively pledged to slow global
warming.
D. There are growing concerns from experts, activists, and citizens alike that countries'
commitments under these global accords are not ambitious or urgent enough.
E. Scientists warn that if this warming continues abated, it could bring environmental
catastrophe to much of the world, including staggering sea-level rise, record breaking
droughts and floods and widespread species loss.
F. In order to scale up the provision of long-term financing for developing countries,
governments decided to establish a Green Climate Fund that will function under the
guidance of, and be accountable to the conference of the Parties (COP)
Question 33. Which of the following does not fit into the theme of the passage?
A) A
B) D
C) F
D) B
E) C
Question 34. Which of the following options gives the second and third sentence,
respectively, after rearrangement?
A) CF
B) AB
C) BE
D) DE
E) BF
Question 35. Which of the following is the last sentence after rearrangement?
A) C
B) A
C) D
D) E
E) F
Question 36. Which among the following words is incorrectly used in the passage?
A) intensified
B) pledged
C) abated
D) agreed
E) All are correctly used
English Practice Question Free E-Book
The Economic Survey (F) ______________ the effect of labour reforms in Rajasthan,
suggesting that the growth rates of firms employing more than 100 workers increased at a
higher rate than the rest of the country after labour reforms. But worker organisations claim
that the implementation of such stringent labour laws in most States is generally (G)
__________. Clearly, a cross State analysis of labour movement and increase in
employment should give a better picture of the impact of these rules.
(F)
1. Emphasized - highlighted
2. Separated - spewed
3. Relieved - participated
4. Purchased - carved
5. Underscored - wrought
(G)
1. Counted - weaken
2. Structure - slowly
3. Parted - demand
4. Remiss - lax
5. Class - created
From the options given below, select the option which states the set of incorrect sentences
A. It was around noon on a sun autumn weekday when I first walked into the town, hoping
to get directions to a nearby winery.
B. Almost five centuries ago, an 11-year-old Irish girl pleaded with her father to allow her to
board the ship and go on the journey with him.
C. The joint statement issued after the meeting makes it clear that both countries want to
work towards normalizing ties and keeping in touch with each other on critical global issues.
1. B and C
2. A and C
3. A only
4. B only
5. A and B
From the options given below, select the option which states the set of correct sentences
A. We're going to need to deal with these climate issues, and so let's develop new mines
while solving this problem out as slowly as possible.
B. Scientists keep a close eye on the sun's temperament because solar outbursts can wreak
havoc on our power grids and communication systems.
C. Until now, scientists strong suspected that radio waves were produced by some of the
youngest compact objects yet observed.
1. A only
2. B only
3. A and B
4. C only
5. B and C only
From the options given below, select the option which states the set of correct sentences
I. In contrast, malicious envy leads to wholly destruction actions, such as hostile thoughts
and behaviour intended to harm the other person.
II. One of the joys of parenthood is the discovery that there is always more to give, that love
is a deep, deep well, and that any concept of balance is bogus.
III. The patterns often symbolised their affectionate for loved ones of the maker and were
also thought to protect the wearer or user from the evil eye.
IV. Kantha also often represented a family's hopes and aspirations, from weddings and
happiness to family and fertility.
1. All except I and III
2. Only I and IV
3. Only III and IV
4. Only I, III and IV
5. All I, II, III, and IV
In the question below a sentence is given followed by four different statements with one
phrase in bold in each statement. Four different phrases A/B/C/D, which may or may not
replace the phrases in bold to make the statement(s) similar in meaning to the original
sentence, is given. From the given options select the one that suggests the correct pair(s) of
statement(s) and replacement phrase(s) resulting in sentences that are similar in meaning to
the original sentence.
An average pilgrim spends three or four days, arriving mostly by flight in Srinagar or Jammu,
and then travelling by road to the base camps.
I. A typical pilgrim spends three to four days on their journey, arriving hardly by plane in
Srinagar or Jammu before continuing by road to the base camps.
II. A typical pilgrim spends three to four days getting to Srinagar or Jammu by plane and
follows a car trip to the base camps.
III. The traditional pilgrim travels to the base camps after three or four days, arriving mostly
by plane in Srinagar or Jammu.
IV. All travellers had to spend three to four days on the flight to travel to Srinagar or Jammu
and then hit the road to the base camps.
A. A regular pilgrim has to spend
B. preceded by a car trip
C. with difficult journey after plane
D. over the course of three or four days
1. Only II-B and III-D
2. Only I-C and IV-A
3. Only IV-C and II-B
4. Only IV-A and III-D
5. Only III-C and I-D
From the options given below, select the option which states the set of incorrect sentences.
A. It do not appear that they bear any testimony on either side of the question.
B. "Do all your people grow on bushes?" asked the boy.
C. Players of both sides and members of the local security club were required to prevent the
possibility of his assaulting the referee.
D. The vacation slipped by quickly and life returned to normal.
1. Only A
2. Both A and D
3. B, C and D
4. Both A, and C
5. Both B and C
From the options given below, select the option which states the incorrect set of sentences
1. Can our planet afford to have any great thinkers become discouraged or intimidated and
give up?
2. A measles outbreak centre in Romania and Italy is spreading across Europe.
3. Outbreaks will continue until every country reaches the level of immunization needed to
fully protect its population.
4. A deluge of rain caused devastating flash floods and landslides in a Colombian city
overnight.
5. For years, dieticians have warned us to steer clear from fat and cholesterol.
1. Only 4
2. Both 1 & 2
3. Both 2 & 5
4. Only 1, 3 & 5
5. All incorrect
In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are divided into four parts (A), (B), (C)
and (D). There is an error in one part of each of these sentences. Select the option with the
parts containing errors in all three sentences and mark it as your answer:
I. Then, after what seemed like an eternal, (A) he was able to untie his tongue - at which
(B) point he delivered not just his own (C) lines but the entire play, non-stop (D).
II. Cobbe, who had been preaching in a (A) chapel in Bombay Fort, proposed to (B) the
bishop of London that a church (C) be build to cater to the English community (D).
III. A massive vaccination campaign mobilised 2 million (A) volunteers, community leaders,
and frontline (B) health workers who improvised and innovated, (C) refusing to live a single
child behind (D).
1. II C, I B, III C
2. I A, III B, II D
3. II C, III A, I C
4. I A, II D, III D
5. III D, II B, I A
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any
part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three
options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an
error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part,
then choose (d) i.e. 'None of the (I), (II) and (III)' as your answer. If the given sentence is
grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e) i.e. 'No correction
required' as your answer.
This isn't to downplay the artist's obvious dedication to the history of painting, but to highlight
how (I)/ he moved away from the established principles of painterly modernism to mine the
relatively (II)/ sideline cultural histories of the decorative arts, textile design and craft. (III)
I. This isn't to downplay the artist's sincere dedication to the history of painting, but to
highlight how
II. he moved away from the established principles of painterly modernism to explore the
relatively
III. sidelined cultural histories at the decorative arts, textile design and craft
1. Both (II) and (III)
2. Both (I) and (III)
3. All (I), (II) and (III)
4. None of the (I), (II) and (III)
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts, with
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in any
part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three
options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an
error in any part of the sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part,
then choose (d) i.e. 'None of the (I), (II) and (III)' as your answer. If the given sentence is
grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (e) i.e. 'No correction
required' as your answer
A system of arrows, some turning widdershins and others colliding head on, discourage
narrative (I)/ linearity; rather, they implying a mixing of the private and the (II)/ public to
suggest the psychological complex of closeted desire. (III)
I. A system of arrows, some turning anticlockwise and others colliding head on, discourage
narrative
II. linearity; rather, they imply a mixing of the private and the
III. public to suggest the psychological complexity of closeted desire.
1. Both (II) and (III)
2. Both (I) and (II)
3. Both (I) and (III)
4. All (I), (II) and (III)
The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically
ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.
A. There's an inherent tension here that laws may delay the development of technology and
hence hurt the competitive advantage of an entrepreneur or even a state.
B. Technological developments, on the other hand, are often oriented toward profit and
change.
C. Take the case of nanotechnology regulation in the European Union versus in the United
States, European law so mitigates risks that it may end up limiting the technology's potential,
losing its competitive edge against the US.
D. Positive law prescribes behaviour and penalises non-compliance, it can encapsulate the
normative ideal that a respective government seeks to achieve, demonstrate an ethical
vision for society or reify the power structure of the current regime.
E. If blockchain technologies are ever to go mainstream, governments will have to set up
new legal frameworks to accommodate its complexities.
1. EDBAC
2. ACDEB
3. BAECD
4. BDAEC
5. ABCDE
The question consists of five statements labelled A, B, C, D and E which when logically
ordered form a coherent passage. Choose the option that represents the most logical order.
A. Open dialogue between scientists and the societies in which they live and work is, of
course, an essential ingredient of democracy.
B. Critics of the March for Science have noted that the march's program is dangerously
close to scientism, the adoption of science as a worldview or a religion to the exclusion of
other viewpoints.
C. It's not a good sign that few are reflecting on the power asymmetries that taints what
science is used in policy and evidence has become a currency used by lobbies to purchase
political influence.
D. The March for Science that took place in cities around the world was intended to speak
for science, defending evidence-based policies, the strength of peer-reviewed facts and
government-funded research.
E. But insisting that science operate under a mandate of consensus, which is the timbre of
numerous debates, from vaccines to climate change to genetically modified organisms, is
not.
1. EDACB
2. DAEBC
3. BAECD
4. BDAEC
5. ABCDE
In the question given below, a word (or a set of words) is marked bold in a sentence. An
idiom/phrase is given in each of the five options. Find the one that can replace the word
given in bold and mark it as your answer The employee union was forced to capitulate and
settle their bitter dispute with the company.
1. lick their wounds
2. throw in the towel
3. proud as a peacock
4. groan inwardly
5. kick the bucket
In the question given below, a sentence is given with three blanks. Choose the correct
combination of words that fit in the corresponding blank
If they believed they were expected to go beyond __________ rules and maximizing
performance, United employees would have stepped in to __________ the situation once
they realized something was going __________ wrong on that flight.
1. Minimizing, relegate, technically
2. Creating, counter, ghastly
3. Breaking, aggravate, forcibly
4. Following, de-escalate, horribly
5. Modifying, freeze, stupendously
In the question given below, a sentence is given with three blanks. Choose the correct
combination of words that fit in the corresponding blank
Instagram is known for its ______________ content moderation, via such methods as
____________ the hashtags for groups and communities that share ___________ harmful
content.
1. Strict, moderating, obscurely
2. Heavy-handed, blocking, potentially
3. Stern, forbidding, supremely
4. Straightforward, limiting, prospective
5. Effortless, de-linking, budding
In the following question, a sentence is given which has been divided into four parts. The
error may be in one or more parts of the sentence. Identify the part(s) with error and mark
your answer accordingly. If the sentence is free from errors, choose 'No error' as your
answer.
From the fiscal deficit standpoint, disinvestment proceeds (A)/ will being key to bridge the
revenue shortfall, given(B)/ the lower-than-expected collections in goods and (C)/ services
tax and the cut into corporate tax (D).
1. Only A & C
2. Only D
3. Only C
4. Only B & D
5. No error
answer.
American taxpayers spend $30 billion annually funding (A)/ biomedical research, but over
half of them studies (B)/ can't be replicated due to poor experimental design, (C)/ improper
methods, and sloppy statistics (D).
1. Only B
2. Only A & C
3. Only C
4. Only B & D
5. No error
answer.
The law of supply and demand is an economic (A)/ theory that explains how supply and
demand (B)/ are related to one other and how that relationship (C)/ affects the price off
goods and services (D).
1. Only A
2. Only C & D
3. Only B
4. Only A & D
5. No error
In the following question, three statements revolving around the same idea or theme are
given. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically correct and meaningful and mark
your answer accordingly.
I. Washington finds it hard to resist the temptation to promote regime change in the Middle
East.
II. Temptation for the Washington is hard to resist to promote the Middle East in the regime
change.
III. The temptation to promote regime change in the Middle East is hard to resist for
Washington.
1. Only II
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. Only III
In the following question, three statements revolving around the same idea or theme are
given. Decide which of the sentences are grammatically correct and meaningful and mark
your answer accordingly.
I. Mahathir Mohammed must go beyond fighting corruption, he must push for political and
social liberalisation.
II. Mahathir Mohammed must go beyond political and social liberalisation, but not fight
corruption.
III. Going beyond fighting corruption, Mahathir Mohammed must liberalise and politicalising
society.
1. Only I
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and III
4. Only III
Directions : In the following question, a set of five sentences is given, which when properly
sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence has three highlighted words which
may or may not be at their correct places and you might have to rearrange the two words to
make a meaningful sentence. Arrange the sentences in the correct sequence and answer
the questions that follow.
A. Property prices in India have increasing remained constant or either a fall, but rentals
have been witnessed year-onyear.
B. However, the most region finding was that Delhi-NCR went against the trend, by being
the only fell among the surveyed cities where rent surprising year-on-year.
C. The Chennai cities which were a part of the other were Delhi-NCR, Bangalore,
Hyderabad, survey and Pune.
D. This has been portal by a report, named 'India Real Estate Report 2019', made by
Nobrokers.com, a broker free real estate suggested.
E. According to it, "rent being was at an all-time high, with 10% and above inflation key
cities, highest across Mumbai with 18%."
Which of the following is the correct order of the highlighted words in the FIFTH sentence of
the final rearrangement?
1. made - suggested - portal
2. other - Chennai - survey
3. increasing - witnessed - either
4. inflation - across - being
5. surprising - region - fell
What will be the correct order of statement A in the final rearrangement?

1. 3rd
2. 1st
3. 5th
4. 2nd
5. 4th
In each of the questions below, two sentences are given which can be combined into a
single grammatically correct sentence. Decide which of the given options can link the two
sentences in a grammatically and meaningfully correct way, without altering their meaning.
The given options may or may not start the combined statement.
A fort had been erected at Detroit, between Lakes Huron and Erie. Through this fort,
communication was kept up between Canada and Louisiana.
1. While ..
2. By means of ..
3. Through which ..
1. Only 3
2. Only 1 and 2
3. Only 1 and 3
4. Only 2 and 3
In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the word
has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences have
correctly used the given word, and mark that as your answer.
School
1. The school was closed on Tuesday, as one of the teachers had passed away the night
before.
2. A school of fish swam past the diver, startling him out of his wits.
3. There are several schools of thought regarding how the universe began.
1. Only 1 and 2
2. Only 2 and 3
3. Only 1 and 3
4. All 1, 2 and 3
In each of these questions, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These
are numbered (A), (B), (C) & (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either
wrongly spelled or inappropriate in context of the sentence. Find out the word which is
wrongly spelled or inappropriate if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the
words printed in bold are correctly spelled and also appropriate in the context of the
sentence, mark E. All correct as your answer.
The protestors at Marina were an inchoate group of young people without any leaderships
when protests began last Tuesday.
1. Protestors
2. Inchoate
3. Leaderships
4. Began
In each of the questions below, four statements are given which may or may not contain an
error. Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully correct.
1. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations may take a severe beating once
the competitions gained momentum.
2. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations did take a severe beating
once the competitions gained momentum.
3. It was indeed a battle for the fittest and reputations will take a severe beating once
the competitions gain momentum.
4. It was indeed a battle for the most fittest and reputations did take a severe beating
once the competitions gained momentum.
The sentence below has a portion in bold text. From the options, choose the option that
improves the given sentence For ages, a deadly conflict has been waged amid a few brave
men and women of thought and genius upon the one side, and the great ignorant religious
mass on the other.
1. deadly conflict was waged between
2. deadly conflict has been waged across
3. deadly conflict has been waged among
4. deadly conflict has been waged between
1. The stealing of small, almost insignificant stuff is different from kleptomania,
which is a recurrent urge to steal, typically without regard for need or profit.
2. Psychologists believe an employee indulges in an errant or ethical behaviour

because he or she was promised certain things - a pay hike, a more flexibility
schedule or even more holidays during the year.
3. Most individuals seek more than just the task they are suppose to perform at their
workplace in the role assigned to them.
4. We have all had colleagues who don’t think twice after taking home pens, post-its
and staple pins from the office.
1) At its time, the Trans-Siberian railroad was a ground-breaking step towards a more
globalized world.
2) The Trans-Siberian railroad was a revolutionary step towards a more globalized world, at
it’s time.
3) A revolutionary step towards a more globalized word was the Trans-Siberian railroad.
4) The Trans-Siberian railroad, at its time, were a revolutionary step towards a more
globalized World.
In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given with three words in bold. Three
answer choices are given, giving replacements to the words in bold. Select the option that
gives the correct combination of the answer choices. In case, the sentence is correct as it is,
select No Improvement required
From the instructions gathered from 2012 and 2013, they homed in on two stations with high
quality data and removed out any interfering sounds from loud waves and regulated glitches.
1. facts, cut, device
2. data, divided, computerised
3. information, sliced, electronic
1. Only 2
2. Only 3
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Both 1 and 3
Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct?
Choose the option which reflects the correct usage of phrase contextually and
grammatically.
The event will kick up the 105-day legislative session that will begin Monday, when
legislators will get to work in Olympia with a focus of creating the budget for the 2011-13
biennium.
1. start up
2. start out
3. kick off
1. Only 2 and 3
2. Only 1
3. Only 2
4. Only 3
Which of the following phrases (1), (2), and (3) given below each sentence should replace
the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the
best option among the five given alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the
context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e
No correction required as the answer.
The Centre’s actions should not amount to undermining the finality of the highest court’s
judgment and should be unwaveringly in aid of its implementation.
1. should undisputed carry out
2. should without hesitate further
3. should unflinchingly assist out
1. Only 1 and 2
2. Only 1 and 3
3. Only 2 and 3
4. No Improvement
In each question, a sentence is given, followed by three choices. From the given options,
choose the one that provides the correct combination of choices that talk along the same
lines, and/ or contain information that is mentioned or implied by the original statement.
Picture yourself in the rarefied atmosphere of the Atacama Desert’s Moon and Mars Valleys,
or on the vista-filled trails of La Campana National Park, a World Biosphere Reserve, or in
the dozens of stunning national parks and reserves in Patagonia, with its colour-saturated
mountains, lakes, and extreme landscapes.
I. Picture yourself in the Atacama Desert’s Moon and Mars Valleys, a World Biosphere
Reserve.
II. Picture yourself in the reserves in Patagonia, with its extreme landscapes.
III. Picture yourself in one of the World Biosphere Reserves - the vista-filled trails of La
Campana National Park.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both II & III
In each of the following questions, a sentence is given with the phrase or idiom highlighted in
bold. Select the option given below that cannot replace the phrase in bold and mark that as
your answer.
Scientists have solved relative uncomplicated problems and moved on to harder ones, like
the mind-body problem and unification of physics.
1. somewhat easy issues
2. relatively easy problems
3. more or less simple problems
4. All can replace
In the question below, two sentences I and II are given. Select the option which contains the
sentence that combines I & II without bringing any changes in the meaning of the given
sentences.
I. I find insects to be one of the best things about summer.

II. It's also the worst thing
1. For me, one of the hardest things about summer is the insects but it's also the worst
thing.
2. For me, one of the worst things about summer is the insects but it's also the bad
thing.
3. For me, one of the best things about summer is the insects but it's also the excellent
thing.
4. For me, one of the worst things about summer is the insects but it's also the
best thing.
In the given question, a word has been given and there are three ways in which the word
has been used, in similar or different forms. You need to see which of the sentences
has/have correctly used the highlighted word, and mark that as your answer.
Mature
I. Humans take longer to mature than most other animals.
II. The composition of the mature given to the plants influences the production.
III. He is not mature enough to be given too much responsibility for taking care of a child.
1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Only I and II
4. Only I and III
In the question given below, four statements are given that may or may not contain error(s).
Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully incorrect.
1. 1. Spirulina is thought to be the first form of plant life
2. 2. It is considered as the powerhouse of nutrition
3. 3. It is also a rich source of protein
4. 4. It has enzymes and minerals that are essential to our bodies
In the question given below, four statements are given that may or may not contain error(s).
Choose the one that is grammatically and meaningfully incorrect.
1. There are so many people who are suffering from inferiority complexes.
2. There are several factors in our society that could contribute it.
3. Too many rely on these factors as excuses for not being all that they could be.
4. Others are hurt and they just say that there is no point in Trying
In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase highlighted in bold. Select the
option given below that can replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically
and contextually correct and mark that as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is,
mark 'No correction required', as the answer.
The chief, with all his men, were massacred.

1. was massacred
2. are massacred
3. have massacred
4. will massacred
In the following question, a sentence is given with a phrase highlighted in bold. Select the
option given below that can replace the phrase in bold to make the sentence grammatically
and contextually correct and mark that as your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is,
mark 'No correction required', as the answer.
Then one of the fishermen said, "Let I follow the command the governor about it and do as
he shall bid us."
1. we talk to
2. us ask
3. we think about
4. he talks to the
Read the following passage carefully and select the option which gives the central idea of
the given passage.
When people think about catastrophes that cause loss of life, they almost always think only
of the immediate harm caused. Over 50 million people died in WWII, around 15 million in
World War One, and around 160,000 in the 2010 Haiti earthquake. But these figures leave
out the long-term effects of catastrophes - the people who never had a chance to live, the
ways that our world would be different. These ramifications can be harder to document. But
that does not make them less important.
1. The most catastrophic disasters of the world like world war I or II recount only the
immediate damage incurred by humanity.
2. Accounting for the long-term impact of catastrophes is as important as
considering the immediate damage.
3. The long-term impacts of catastrophic disasters are inevitable and are always
factored in while calculating the overall damage to humanity.
4. The facts and figures after a disaster present only the surface reality, and the actual
loss of life and property is never accounted for in these figures.
Read the following passage carefully and select the option which gives the central idea of
the given passage.
Working together to insist that governments and corporations take climate action requires a
willingness to acknowledge that there is a serious climate problem, to face it and discuss it.
But it seems extremely difficult for many people to even think or talk about the climate crisis.
Why is this? Some don't believe the crisis is real, or at least downplay its importance. This
denialism is not due to a lack of available, accurate information. The facts about climate
change are available on the internet and are covered regularly in many media outlets.
1. Acknowledging the climate crisis allows us to take action and adopt practices
individually to combat climate change.
2. Lack of information on the subject of climate change and crisis results in denial of
climate crisis which leads to a lack of action on the part of governments and
corporations.
3. Lack of action towards climate change stems from various factors like denial
of the climate crisis or undermining its importance.
4. Climate change is largely denied by first-world nations because these nations do not
face the brunt of the climate crisis.
An idiom/phrase is given below in bold. Following this idiom/phrase are given three
sentences, which use the given idiom/phrase. The idiom phrase may or may not be used
correctly in one or more sentences. Identify the sentence(s) that use(s) the idiom/phrase
correctly, either in terms of grammar or context.
To put it mildly
I. He's a troubled youngster, to put it mildly.
II. He's not very musical, to put it mildly.
III. Bob's response was not really adequate to the task, to put it mildly.
1. All are correct
2. Only I and II
3. Only II and III
4. Only I and III
An idiom/phrase is given below in bold. Following this idiom/phrase are given three
sentences, which use the given idiom/phrase. The idiom/phrase may or may not be used
correctly in one or more sentences. Identify the sentence(s) that use(s) the idiom/phrase
incorrectly, either in terms of grammar or context.
Beat around the bush

I. Radhika asked her team members to not beaten around the bush and start the
presentation.
II. You better not beat around the bush and get to the point.
III. She keeps trying to get her book published, but I think she's beating around the bush.
1. Only I and III
2. Only II and III
3. Only I and II
4. Only I
Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some
of the questions. The outside world has pat answers concerning extremely Impoverished
countries, especially those in Africa. Everything comes back, again and again, to corruption
and misrule. Western officials argue that Africa simply needs to behave itself better, to allow
market forces to operate without interference by corrupt rulers. Yet the critics of African
governance have it wrong. Politics simply can’t explain Africa’s prolonged economic crisis.
The claim-that Africa’s corruption is the basic source of the problem does not withstand
serious scrutiny. During the past decade I witnessed how relatively well governed countries
in Africa: such as Ghana, Malawi Mali and Senegal, failed to prosper, whereas societies in
Asia perceived to have extensive corruption such as Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan,
enjoyed rapid economic growth. What is the explanation? Every situation of extreme poverty
around the world contains some of its own unique causes, which need to be diagnosed as a
doctor would a patient. For example. Africa is burdened with malaria like no other part of the
world, simply because it is unlucky in providing the perfect conditions for that disease; high
temperatures, plenty of breeding sites and particular species of malaria-transmitting
mosquitoes that prefer to bite humans rather than cattle.
Another myth is that the developed world already gives plenty of aid to the world’s poor.
Former U.S. Secretary of the Treasury, Paul O’Neil expressed a common frustration when
he remarked about aid for Africa : “We’ve spent trillions of dollars on these problems and we
have damn near nothing to show for it”. O’Neil was no foe of foreign aid. . Indeed, he wanted
to fix the system so that more U.S. aid could be justified. But he was wrong to believe that
vast flows of aid to Africa had been squandered. President Bush said in a press conference
in April 2004 that as “the greatest power on the face of the earth, we have an obligation to
help the spread of freedom. We have an obligation to feed the hungry”. Yet how does the
U.S. fulfill its obligation? U.S. aid to farmers in poor countries to help them grow more food
runs at around $200 million per year, far less than Si per person per year for the hundreds of
millions of people living in subsistence farm households.
From the world as a whole, the amount of aid per African per year is really very small, just
$30 per subSaharan African in 2002. Of that modest amount, almost $5 was actually for
consultants from the donor countries, more than $3 was for emergency aid, about $4 went
for servicing Africa’s debts and $ 5 was for debt-relief operations. The rest, about $12, went
to Africa. Since the “money down the drain” argument is heard most frequently in the U.S.,
it’s worth looking at the same calculations for U.S. aid alone. In 2002, the U.S. gave $3 per
sub-Saharan African. Taking out the parts for U.S. consultants and technical cooperation,
food and other emergency aid, administrative costs and debt relief, the aid per African came
to a grand total of 6 cents. The U.S. has promised repeatedly over the decades, as a
signatory to global agreements like the Monterrey Consensus of 2002, to give a much larger
proportion of its annual output, specifically upto 0.7% of GNP, to official development
assistance. The U.S. failure to follow through has no political fallout domestically, of course,
because not one in a million U.S. citizens even knows of statements like the Monterrey
Consensus. But no one should underestimate the salience that it has around the world. Spin
as American might about their nation’s generosity, the poor countries are fully aware of what
the U.S. is not doing.
Q1. The passage seems to emphasize that the outside world has
1. correct understanding about the reasonable aid provided by the USA to the poor
countries
2. definite information about what is happening in under developed countries

3. stopped extending any financial aid to under developed countries
4. misconceptions about the aid given to the poor nations by developed
countries
5. None of these
Q2. According to the Westerners the solution to eradicate poverty of African nations lies in
1. corruption
2. improving their own national behavior
3. misrule
4. prolonged economic crisis
5. None of these
Q3. The author has given the example of Bangladesh, Indonesia and Pakistan in support of
his argument that
1. corruption is the major culprit in the way of prosperity
2. mis-governance hampers the prosperity of nations
3. despite rampant corruption, nations may prosper
4. developed nations arrogantly neglect under developed countries
5. None of these
Q4. The author has mentioned Ghana as a country with

1. reasonably good-governance
2. corrupt leadership
3. Plenty of natural resources
4. rapid economic growth
5. None of these
Q5. The cases of malaria in Africa are mainly due to

(a)high temperature
(b) climatic conditions Conducive for breeding.
(c)malaria carriers liking for human blood in preference to that of cattle,
1. None of these
2. Only B and C
3. Only A and C
4. Only A and B
5. All the three
Q6. The remark of former U.S. Secretary of the treasury, Paul O’Neil, is according to the
author
1. a statement of fact
2. not factually correct
3. an underestimation of U.S. aid
4. a ruthless remark by an arrogant bureaucrat
5. None of these
Q7. President Bush’s statement in a Press Conference in April 2004 indicates that
1. the aid given by the U.S. to the poor countries is substantial and sufficient
2. the spread of freedom cannot be achieved through financial aid
3. feeding the hungry millions outside the U.S. is not possible
4. the U.S., on its own, assumes the obligation of helping the poor countries
5. U.S. has spent trillions of dollars on aid
Q8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about U.S. aid to the sub-Saharan African
countries?
1. The U.S. aid meant for per capita African does not reach the incumbent
2. The U.S. aid to African countries is more than that for any other developing or
underdeveloped nation
3. The U.S. aid for fanners in African countries is $ 200 m. per year
4. The donor country charges $5 per individual as the consultancy charges
5. U.S. has been contributing more than 0.7% of its GNP for development assistance
Q9. The purpose of the author in writing this passage seems to.
1. (a) criticize USA for not providing adequate financial help
2. (b) make Africans realize their own problems
3. (c) analyze the actual quantum of aid against the perceived one
4. (d) highlight how American leaders are power-hungry
5. (e) None of these
Directions (10): Choose the word/group of words. Which is most nearly the same in
meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
Q10. OBLIGATION
1. lip sympathy
2. true empathy
3. self pity
4. conditional responsibility
5. moral binding
Q11. SQUANDER
1. se economically
2. Spend wastefully
3. Siphon judiciously
4. Donate generously
5. Donate with ulterior move
Q11. Modest
1. Humble
2. Sufficient
3. Meagre
4. Sober
5. Unpretentious
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Number System Questions

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “”3

Correct Answer: “3”

4) One-fifth of a number is equal to 5/8th of another number. If 35 is added to the

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “D”

7) Find a positive number which when increased by 17 is equal to 60 times the

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “B”

9) If 2(1/2) is added to a number and the sum multiplied by 4(1/2)and 3 is added to

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “4”

13) (a-b) = 1, (b-c) = 2 and (c-a) = 3 then the value of (a3+b3+c3-3abc)/(a+b+c) is

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “3”

15) If 20! is divided by 6, which of the following will be the remainder?

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “2”

19) Which of the following number is divisible by 11?

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “2”

21) If a = -2 and b = -5 then find the value of a3 + b3 – a2 + b2 + 2a – 3b

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “2”

23) The last 3 digits of the multiplication 12345 × 54321 would be

Correct Answer: “2”

24) A number successively divided by 3, 4 and 7 leaves 2, 1 and 4 respectively as

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “1”

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “3”

47) When 1 is added to the numerator of a fraction it becomes 1/4 and 1 is

Correct Answer: “2”

Correct Answer: “4”

Correct Answer: “3”

Correct Answer: “4”

28. 1.9804.059 + 14.01013.009 – 4.003*6.001 = ?