CHROMATOGRAPHY
c) Ions that are dissolved in a solute
1. Chromatography is the process for identification,
purification and separation of components of a mixture on
the basis of
a) Difference in their boiling point
b) Difference in their melting point
c) Difference in their affinity for mobile and stationary
phase
d) Difference in their solubility
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromatography is the process for
identification, purification and separation of components
of a mixture on the basis of difference in their affinity for
mobile and stationary phases. The mixture is dissolved in a
fluid called the mobile phase, which carries it through a
structure holding another material called the stationary
phase.
2. Chromatography involves two mutually
a) Immiscible phases
b) Miscible phases
c) Soluble phases
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Chromatography involves two mutually
immiscible phases (stationary and mobile phases). The
mixture is dissolved in a fluid called the mobile phase,
which carries it through a structure holding another
material called the stationary phase.
3. There is no need of support if packed into a column
when the stationary phase is
a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If the stationary phase is solid, there is no
need of support if packed into a column. In solid phase, all
the molecules are already in a closed packing.
4. Which of the following is not stationary phase?
a) Liquid-liquid chromatography
b) Gas-liquid chromatography
c) Gas-solid chromatography
d) Solid-solid chromatography
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid-solid chromatography is not stationary
phase because solid-solid phase cannot provide any
fluidity.
5. Liquid chromatography is a technique for separating
a) Ions that are not dissolved in a solvent
b) Ions that are dissolved in a solvent
Explanation: The relative solubility of solute in both the
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Liquid chromatography is a technique for
separating ions that are dissolved in a solvent. Solute is the
material which is dissolved and solvent is the solution in
which it is dissolved.
6. In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are
separated based on
a) Molecular geometry and size
b) Molecular composition
c) Molecular phase
d) Molecular formula
Answer: a
Explanation: In exclusion chromatography, solute
molecules are separated based on molecular geometry
and size. These two physical characteristics have a
significance role in exclusion chromatography.
7. The gas-solid chromatography is ______________
chromatography as per basic principle involved.
a) Exclusion
b) Ion-exchange
c) Adsorption
d) Absorption
Answer: c
Explanation: The gas-solid chromatography is adsorption
chromatography as per basic principle involved as the gas
molecules are adsorbed on the solid surface.
8. A proper solvent that is passed through the column for
elution so that separated components can be collected is
called
a) Adsorbent
b) Buffer solution
c) Mobile phase
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A proper solvent that is passed through the
column for elution so that separated components can be
collected is called buffer solution.The eluate is the mobile
phase leaving the column. The eluent is the solvent that
carries the analyte.
9. The relative solubility of solute in both the phases
determines the
a) Rate of movement of solvent
b) Rate of disappearance of solvent
c) Rate of movement of solute
d) Rate of disappearance of solute
Answer: c
a) The lesser the polarity of solute, more strongly it will be
phases determines the rate of movement of solute as
solute is added to the solution.
10. If the mobile phase is gas, movement of solute is
determined by its
a) Boiling point
b) Melting point
c) Solubility
d) Volatility
Answer: d
Explanation: If the mobile phase is gas, movement of
solute is determined by its volatility because gas is always
measure as volatility not as solubility or melting point or
boiling point.
COLUMN CHROMATOGRAPHY
1. Column chromatography is based on the principle of
a) Ion-exchange
b) Exclusion principle
c) Differential adsorption
d) Absorption
Answer: c
Explanation: Column chromatography is based on the
principle of differential adsorption. It means different
compounds have different tendencies to get adsorb on a
particular surface.
2. Arrange the following compounds in order of their
increasing adsorption tendencies.
a) Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >> alumina
b) Cellulose >> starch >> alumina >> charcoal
c) Charcoal >> cellulose >> alumina >> starch
d) Calcium carbonate >>; alumina >> starch >> cellulose
Answer: a
Explanation: Cellulose >> starch >> calcium carbonate >>
charcoal >> alumina is the correct order of increasing
adsorption tendencies.
3. What is the factor responsible for the separation in
column chromatography?
a) Polarity differences between the solvent
b) Polarity differences between the solute
c) Polarity indifference between the solvent
d) Polarity indifference between the solute
Answer: b
Explanation: Polarity differences between the solute
molecules are responsible for the separation in column
chromatography.
4. Select the correct statement from the following options.
adsorbed on a polar surface
b) The greater the polarity of solute, more weakly it will be
adsorbed on a polar surface
c) The greater the polarity of solute, more strongly it will
be adsorbed on a polar surface
d) All of the mentioned option
Answer: c
Explanation: The greater the polarity of solute, more
strongly it will be adsorbed on a polar surface.
5. The correct order of increasing strength of adsorption is
a) Alkanes >> Esters >> Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones
b) Aldehydes >> Phenols >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes
c) Aldehydes >> Ketones >> Esters >> Alkanes >> Phenols
d) Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >> Aldehydes >> Phenols
Answer: d
Explanation: the correct order increasing strength of
adsorption is: Alkanes >> Esters >> Ketones >> Aldehydes
>> Phenols.
6. The components of the mixture in column
chromatography are eluted in order of
a) Increasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
b) Increasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
c) Decreasing polarity and increasing distribution ratio
d) Decreasing polarity and decreasing distribution ratio
Answer: b
Explanation: The components of the mixture in column
chromatography are eluted in order of increasing polarity
and increasing distribution ratio.
7. The elution power of a solvent is determined by
a) Its overall polarity
b) The polarity of the stationary phase
c) The nature of the sample components
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The elution power of a solvent is determined
by its overall polarity, the polarity of the stationary phase
and the nature of the sample components.
8. Which of the following is separated through column
chromatography?
a) Chlorophyll and carotenoids
b) Inorganic cations or complexes
c) Sugar derivatives
d) Amino acids formed by hydrolysis of a protein molecule
Answer: a
Explanation: The main application of column
chromatography is to separate plant pigment (Chlorophyll
and carotenoids).
9. The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene is used in 3. The chromaplate or thin layer chromatography plate is
the elution ratio of made up of
a) 1 : 2 a) Glass
b) 1 : 5 b) Wood
c) 1 : 9 c) Fibre
d) 1 : 12 d) Metal
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The mixture of petroleum ether and benzene Explanation: The chromaplate or thin layer
is used in the elution ratio of 1:9 (V/V). chromatography plate is made up of glass. TLC plates are
usually commercially available, with standard particle size
10. Chloroform fraction is eluted from the column by ranges to improve reproducibility. They are prepared by
passing chloroform through the column which acts as mixing the adsorbent, such as silica gel, with a small
a) Eluter amount of inert binder like calcium sulfate (gypsum) and
b) Eluant water.
c) Elution
d) None of the mentioned option 4. The eluant filled in the closed jar is
a) Mixture of gases
Answer: c b) Mixture of a liquid and a gas
Explanation: Chloroform fraction is eluted from the c) Mixture of solids
column by passing chloroform through the column which d) Mixture of liquids
acts as eluant. The eluate is the mobile phase leaving the
column. The eluent is the solvent that carries the analyte. Answer: d
Explanation: The eluant filled in the closed jar is liquid or
mixture of liquids.
THIN LAYER CHROMATOGRAPHY 5. Select the incorrect statement from the following
options.
1. The principle on which thin layer chromatography is
a) The spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the
based is that the
eyes
a) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to
b) These spots can be detected by putting the plate under
different degrees
ultraviolet light
b) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to
c) These spots can be detected by placing the plate in a
same degrees
covered jar containing iodine crystals
c) Different compounds are adsorbed on an adsorbent to
d) None of the mentioned
different degrees
d) Different compounds are absorbed on an absorbent to Answer: d
same degrees Explanation: All the mentioned options are correct. The
spots of colorless compounds are invisible to the eyes, can
Answer: c
be detected by putting the plate under ultraviolet light and
Explanation: Thin layer chromatography is based on the
can be detected by placing the plate in a covered jar
fact that different compounds are adsorbed on an
containing iodine crystals.
adsorbent to different degrees. It is a chromatography
technique used to separate non-volatile mixtures. 6. The relative adsorption of each components of the
mixture is expressed in terms of its
2. The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about
a) Acceleration factor
a) 0.1 mm
b) Retardation factor
b) 0.2 mm
c) Both acceleration and retardation factor
c) 0.3 mm
d) None of the mentioned
d) 0.4 mm
Answer: b
Answer: b
Explanation: The relative adsorption of each components
Explanation: The size of a thin layer of adsorbent is about
of the mixture is expressed in terms of its retardation
0.2 mm. TLC plates are usually commercially available,
factor (Rf).
with standard particle size ranges to improve
reproducibility. 7. Select the correct statement from the following.
a) Paper chromatography is a type of partition
chromatography
b) A special quality paper is used in paper chromatography
c) Chromatography paper contains water trapped in it,
which acts as stationary phase
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Paper chromatography is a type of partition
chromatography. A special quality paper is used in paper
chromatography which contains water trapped in it, which
acts as stationary phase.
8. Amino acids detected by spraying the plate with
ninhydrin solution is an example of
a) Column chromatography
b) Thin layer chromatography
c) Paper chromatography
d) Liquid chromatography
Answer: c
Explanation: Amino acids detected by spraying the plate
with ninhydrin solution is an example of paper
chromatography. Paper chromatography is an analytical
method that is used to separate colored chemicals or
substances.
9. Paper chromatography is based on continuous
differential partitioning of components of a mixture
between stationary and mobile phases.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Paper chromatography is based on a
continuous differential partitioning of components of a
mixture between stationary and mobile phases. It is an
analytical method that is used to separate colored
chemicals or substances.
10. Retardation factor is the ratio of
a) Distance moved by substance from base line to distance
moved by the solvent from base line
b) Distance moved by solvent from base line to distance
moved by the substance from base line
c) Distance moved by substance from top line to distance
moved by the solvent from top line
d) Distance moved by solvent from top line to distance
moved by the substance from top line
Answer: a
Explanation: Retardation factor is the ratio of distance
moved by substance from base line to distance moved by
the solvent from base line.
CHROMATOGRAPHY APPLICATIONS
1. What are the uses of partition chromatography?
a) Separation of amino acids
b) Analysis of closely related aliphatic alcohols
c) Separation of sugar derivatives
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The uses of partition chromatography are
separation of amino acids, analysis of closely related
aliphatic alcohols and separation of sugar derivatives.
2. Which type of chromatography is used for the structural
analysis?
a) Column chromatography
b) Paper chromatography
c) Partition chromatography
d) Affinity chromatography
Answer: b
Explanation: Paper chromatography is used for the
structural analysis. Paper chromatography is an analytical
method that is used to separate colored chemicals or
substances.
3. Which of the following is not done using column
chromatography?
a) The identification of unknown compounds
b) The determination of homogeneity of chemical
substances
c) Separation of inorganic cations or complexes
d) Separation of geometric isomers
Answer: c
Explanation: Separation of inorganic cations or complexes
is done using paper chromatography. Column
chromatography is a method used to purify individual
chemical compounds from mixtures of compounds.
4. Affinity chromatography is used for the analysis and
isolation of
a) Insoluble starch substances
b) Enzyme tyrosinase
c) Antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on
cellulose column
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the
analysis and isolation of insoluble starch substances,
enzyme tyrosinase and antibodies bound with a
covalently-attached antigen on cellulose column.
5. Purification of enzymes and proteins is done using
a) Affinity chromatography
b) Liquid chromatography
c) Column chromatography
d) Thin layer chromatography
Answer: a
Explanation: Affinity chromatography is used for the
purification of enzymes and proteins. Affinity
chromatography is also used for the analysis and isolation
of insoluble starch substances, enzyme tyrosinase and
antibodies bound with a covalently-attached antigen on
cellulose column.
6. Which of the following is not an application of high
performance liquid chromatography?
a) Analysis of proteins, drugs and explosives
b) Separation of pharmaceutical drugs
c) Elimination of undesirable substances from blood
d) Separation of lipids, fatty acids and steroids
Answer: c
Explanation: Elimination of undesirable substances from
blood is done using affinity chromatography. All the other
options are the application of high performance liquid
chromatography.
7. The checking of purity of samples is the application of
thin layer chromatography.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The checking of purity of samples is the
application of thin layer chromatography. It is a
chromatography technique used to separate non-volatile
mixtures.
8. The analysis and separation of industrial products like
soap and synthetic detergents is done using
a) Thin layer chromatography
b) Gas chromatography
c) Ion exchange chromatography
d) Partition chromatography
Answer: b
Explanation: The analysis and separation of industrial
products like soap and synthetic detergents is done using
gas chromatography. It is a common type of
chromatography used in analytical chemistry for
separating and analyzing compounds that can be
vaporized without decomposition.
9. Which of the following is the application of ion
exchange chromatography?
a) The softening of hard water
b) The demineralisation of water
c) The separation and determination of anions
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The application of ion exchange
chromatography are: softening of hard water,
demineralisation of water and the separation and Answer: b 9. Which of the following is the wavenumber of UV and
determination of anions. Explanation: Wavelength, Amplitude and Wavenumber are Visible radiation?
parameters of electromagnetic radiation. Other a) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m-1
10. The quantitative analysis is done using parameters are Velocity and Frequency. b) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m
a) Ion exchange chromatography c) 13 – 27 m-1
b) Thin layer chromatography 4. Which of the following is not a type of Spectroscopy? d) 1 x 106 to 1.3 x 104 m2
c) Gas chromatography a) Gamma ray
d) Liquid chromatography b) X ray Answer: a
c) Nuclear magnetic resonance Explanation: Wave number of UV, Visible radiation is 1 x
Answer: c d) Sound 106 to 1.3 x 104 m-1. Wave number is the reciprocal of
Explanation: Gas chromatography is used for the wavelength. So, the unit is m-1.
quantitative analysis. It is a common type of Answer: d
chromatography used in analytical chemistry for Explanation: Sound is not a type of electromagnetic 10. Velocity of electromagnetic radiation is more in a
separating and analyzing compounds that can be radiation. Hence, it is not a type of Spectroscopy. vacuum than in any medium.
vaporized without decomposition. a) True
5. Electromagnetic radiation can travel through a vacuum. b) False
a) True
b) False Answer: a
Explanation: Velocity of electromagnetic radiation tends to
Answer: a decrease when a medium is present. Hence, it attains
Explanation: Electromagnetic radiation can travel through maximum speed in a vacuum.
a vacuum. It does not need a medium for propagation.
ANALYTICAL INSTRUMENTATION
6. Which of the following is false about the wavelengths of
COLORIMETRY AND SPECTROMETRY
electromagnetic radiation? INTRODUCTION TO UV VISIBLE SPECTROMETERS
SPECTRAL METHOD OF ANALYSIS a) Radiation with short wavelengths have high energies
b) Energy does not depend on wavelength 1. Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of
1. Spectroscopy deals with interaction of electromagnetic c) Radiation with long wavelengths have low energies the following?
radiation with matter. What is the speed of this radiation d) Energy depends on wavelength a) Reflected radiation and concentration
in vacuum in m/s? b) Scattered radiation and concentration
a) 6 x 108 Answer: b c) Energy absorption and concentration
b) 5 x 108 Explanation: The radiations with short wavelength have d) Energy absorption and reflected radiation
c) 7 x 108 high energies and vice versa. Thus, energy depends on
wavelength. Answer: c
d) 3 x 108
Explanation: Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation
Answer: d 7. Which of the following is the wavelength of microwave between Energy absorption and Concentration. It was
Explanation: Speed of light is also the speed of all radiation? proposed by Beer and Lambert.
electromagnetic radiations. Speed of light is 3 x 108m/s. a) 10 – 780nm
2. In which of the following ways, absorption is related to
b) 0.78 – 30µm
2. Which type of Quantum Transition takes place in Ultra c) 0.6 – 10 m transmittance?
Violet and Visible spectroscopy? d) 0.75 – 3.75 mm a) Absorption is the logarithm of transmittance
a) Rotation of molecules b) Absorption is the reciprocal of transmittance
b) Nuclear Answer: d c) Absorption is the negative logarithm of transmittance
c) Bonding electrons Explanation: The wavelength of Microwave radiation is d) Absorption is a multiple of transmittance
d) Spin of nuclei in a magnetic field 0.75 – 3.75 mm. The rest of the options are the
Answer: c
wavelength of other Electro Magnetic radiations.
Explanation: Transmittance is the ratio of the radiant
Answer: c
Explanation: In UV and Visible Spectroscopy, type of 8. How is the wave number of electromagnetic radiation power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power
Quantum Transmission is Bonding electrons. The rest of related to wavelength? incident on the sample. Absorption is the negative
the options are Quantum Transmission type of other a) It is the reciprocal of wavelength logarithm of transmittance.
spectroscopic methods. b) It is directly proportional to wavelength
3. Which of the following is not a limitation of Beer
c) It is not related to wavelength
Lambert’s law, which gives the relation between
3. Which of the following is not a property or parameter of d) It is equal to wavelength
absorption, thickness and concentration?
electromagnetic radiation?
a) Wavelength Answer: a a) Concentration must be lower
b) Voltage Explanation: Wave number is the number of waves spread b) Radiation must have higher bandwidth
c) Wave number in a length of one centimeter. It is the reciprocal of c) Radiation source must be monochromatic
d) Amplitude wavelength.
d) Does not consider factors other than thickness and 8. Transmittance is given as T = P/Po. If Po is the power detects the amount of radiation which is then inferred d) Space layer is made of a substance having low refractive
concentration that affect absorbance incident on the sample, what does P represent? using read out device. index
a) Radiant power transmitted by the sample
Answer: b b) Radiant power absorbed by the sample 2. Which of the following detectors does not require a Answer: a
Explanation: The law is derived assuming that the c) Sum of powers absorbed and scattered battery and is also known as barrier layer cell? Explanation: It allows continuous selection of wavelength
radiation is monochromatic. So, if bandwidth increases it d) Sum of powers transmitted and reflected a) Photomultiplier tube by using a spacer film of graded thickness. Rest of the
will create deviation. b) Photovoltaic cell options are properties of normal interference filters.
Answer: a c) Photoemissive tubes
4. Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases Explanation: P represents radiant power transmitted by d) Photo reflector 7. Which of the following could be used as the layer of
with respect to ___________ the sample. Transmittance is the ratio of radiant power dielectric in interference filters used in Absorption
a) Concentration transmitted by the sample to the radiant power that is Answer: b Spectroscopy?
b) Distance incident on it. Explanation: Photovoltaic cell does not require a battery a) Graphite
c) Composition for operation. Its working is entirely different from b) MgF2
d) Volume 9. What is the unit of absorbance which can be derived Photomultiplier tube or Photoemissive tubes. c) Fe
from Beer Lambert’s law? d) AgNO3
Answer: a a) L mol-1 cm-1 3. Which of the following detectors is used to detect light
Explanation: Beer’s law states that the intensity of light b) L gm-1 cm-1 intensities which are very weak? Answer: b
decreases with the concentration of the medium. It was c) Cm a) Photomultiplier tube Explanation: MgF2 is used as layer of dielectric in
stated by Beer. d) No unit b) Photovoltaic cell interference filters. Other material that can be used is ZnS.
c) Photoemissive tubes
5. Lambert’s law states that the intensity of light decreases Answer: d d) Photo reflector 8. How can stability of radiation be achieved in
with respect to __________ Explanation: Absorbance has no unit. The units of incandescent or discharge source used in Absorption
a) Concentration absorptivity, distance and concentration cancel each Answer: a Spectroscopy?
b) Distance other. Hence, absorption has no unit. Explanation: PMT is used for detection of light intensities a) Using filters
c) Composition which are weak. As the name suggests, Photomultiplier b) Using monochromators
d) Volume 10. What is the unit of molar absorptivity or absorptivity tube multiplies the incident electrons using dynodes c) Using slits
which is used to determine absorbance A in Beer causing an avalanche of electrons. d) By controlling the source voltage
Answer: b Lambert’s formula?
Explanation: Lambert’s law states that the intensity of light a) L mol-1 cm-1 4. How is Tungsten Halogen lamp differs from normal Answer: d
decreases with respect to the concentration of the b) L gm-1 cm-1 Tungsten filament lamp used in absorption spectroscopy? Explanation: The intensity of radiation in the incandescent
medium. It was stated by Lambert. c) Cm a) It has a tungsten filament and is filled with inert gas source is proportional to the lamp source voltage.
d) No unit b) Iodine is added to normal filling gas Therefore, by controlling the source voltage stability can
6. The representation of Beer Lambert’s law is given as A = c) Iodine is coated on tungsten filament be achieved.
abc. If ‘b’ represents distance, ‘c’ represents concentration Answer: a d) Iodine is added to inert gas
and ‘A’ represents absorption, what does ‘a’ represent? Explanation: The unit of absorptivity is L mol-1 cm-1. If 9. To tolerate high operating temperatures, which of the
a) Intensity concentration is represented as gm per litre it becomes L Answer: b following has to be done in incandescent or tungsten
b) Transmittance gm-1 cm-1. Explanation: In Tungsten filament lamp tungsten filament filament lamps?
c) Absorptivity is enclosed in a bulb of glass filled with inert gas or a) Alloys must be used
d) Admittance vacuum. In Tungsten Halogen lamp iodine is added to the b) Nitrogen be used instead of inert gas
normal filling glass. c) Envelope is fabricated with quartz
Answer: c ABSORPTION INSTRUMENTATION AND BLOCK DIAGRAM d) Envelope is fabricated with copper
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the absorption constant. It is REPRESENTATION 5. Instead of glass filters, why gelatin filters could not be
also known as absorptivity. used for a long period while both are Absorption filters? Answer: c
1. Which is the missing block in the block diagram for a) Gelatin tends to evaporate and hence they deteriorate Explanation: The envelope is fabricated with quartz to
7. Which of the following is not true about Absorption Absorption of Radiation Instrument given below? b) Gelatin is affected by humidity in the environment allow high operating temperatures. Tungsten filament and
spectroscopy? c) They deteriorate due to absorption of heat leading to inert gas are generally used and are not modified.
a) It involves transmission changes in gelatin
b) Scattering is kept minimum d) Gelation is affected by temperature in the environment 10. Which of the following is not a reason for laser not
c) Reflection is kept maximum being generally used as a source of radiation for UV,
d) Intensity of radiation leaving the substance is an a) Filter Answer: c Visible Spectroscopy?
indication of a concentration b) Reflector Explanation: With the absorption of heat they deteriorate a) High cost
c) Converging lens due to changes in gelatin. Bleaching of dye occurs. b) Limited range of wavelength
Answer: c d) Detector c) Less intensity
Explanation: In Absorption spectroscopy, reflection must 6. How does continuous wedge filter differ from normal d) Complex to work with
also be kept minimum along with scattering. Amount of Answer: d interference filter used in absorption spectroscopy?
absorption depends on the number of molecules in the Explanation: To measure the amount of radiation a) It permits continuous selection of different wavelength Answer: c
material. absorbed and transmitted detector is very important. It b) It allows a narrow band of wavelengths to pass Explanation: Laser has high intensity. It is used in special
c) It has two semi-transparent layers of silver
applications where cost is not a matter and a limited range transmitted. This transmitted beam is measured by the c) Splits beam in such a way that a reference beam has mid IR it is 2.5 – 50 mm. The wavelength of far IR is 50 –
of wavelength is required. detector. higher intensity 1000 mm.
d) Merge two equal intensity beams into single beam
5. Colorimeters are used in applications where great 4. Which of the following is not a composition of Nernst
accuracy is required. Answer: a glower or Nernst filament?
SINGLE BEAM AND DOUBLE BEAM INSTRUMENTS a) True Explanation: Beam splitter splits beam into two equal a) Oxides of Zirconium
b) False intensity beams. One beam passes through the sample b) Oxides of Barium
1. Which of the following statements is false about single
and other through the reference. c) Oxides of Yitrium
beam absorption instruments? Answer: b d) Oxides of Thorium
a) Tungsten bulb is used as a source Explanation: Colorimeters are used in applications where 10. Which of the following is a source used in
b) Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam great accuracy is not required. They are also known as spectroscopy? Answer: b
c) Test tube is used as sample holder photometers. a) LASER Explanation: Oxides of Barium is not present in Nernst
d) Photovoltaic cell as detector b) Tube light glower. They are constructed by fusing oxides of
6. In the diagram of single beam photometer given below, c) Sodium vapour lamp Zirconium, yitrium and thorium.
Answer: b identify the component that is not marked. d) Tungsten lamp
Explanation: Single beam instruments make use of one 5. What is the composition of Globar rod which is used as
beam. Therefore, beam splitters are not required in single Answer: d a source in Mid IR spectroscopy?
beam instruments. Explanation: Tungsten lamp is the source used in a) Silicon carbide
spectroscopy. It is the source used in UV, Visible b) Silver chloride
2. Which of the following statement is false about double
a) Monochromator spectroscopy. c) Silicon dioxide
beam absorption instruments?
b) Absorption filter d) Silver carbide
a) It is similar to single beam instruments except two
c) Sample holder
beams are present Answer: a
d) Interference filter
b) Tungsten bulb is used as a source INSTRUMENTATION OF IR Explanation: Globar is a silicon carbide rod. It is 5mm in
c) Reference beam must have a higher intensity than Answer: c diameter and 50mm long.
sample beam 1. Which of the following is not a source used in Mid
Explanation: In single beam spectrophotometer, the beam
d) Both the beams after they pass through respective Infrared Spectrophotometer? 6. Bolometer, a type of detector, is also known as
passed through the sample which is held in the sample
samples are compared a) Nernst glower ___________
holder. The transmitted beam is measured by the
b) High pressure mercury arc lamp a) Resistance temperature detector (RTD)
detector.
Answer: c c) Globar b) Thermistor
Explanation: Reference beam cannot have a higher 7. Colorimeters are used to determine the concentration d) Nichrome wire c) Thermocouple
intensity than sample beam. The beam is split into two of solutions. d) Golay cell
beams of equal intensity. Answer: b
a) True
Explanation: High pressure mercury arc lamp is used as the Answer: b
b) False
3. Which of the following is not an application of source for Far IR Spectrophotometer. Rest of the options Explanation: Bolometers are also known as thermistors. It
colorimeter? Answer: a are used as a source in Mid Infrared Spectrophotometer. is a type of resistance thermometer constructed of metals
a) Paints Explanation: Colorimetry is the science of colour such as platinum or nickel.
b) Inks 2. Which of the following is the wave number of near
measurement. It is used to determine the concentrations
c) Cosmetics infrared spectrometer? 7. Which of the following is not a technique for preparing
of solutions.
d) Composition detection a) 4000 – 200 cm-1 solid samples in IR spectroscopy?
8. Which of the following is the purpose of balance b) 200 – 10 cm-1 a) Solids run in solution
Answer: d indicator in double beam photometer or colorimeter? c) 12500 – 4000 cm-1 b) Mull technique
Explanation: Colorimeter is not used to determine a) Selects a particular wavelength d) 50 – 1000 cm-1 c) Solid films
composition. Its application is paints, dyes, inks, cosmetics b) Splits the wavelength selected into two equal beams d) Thin films
and plastics. Answer: c
c) Detects and indicates the amount of light falling on it
Explanation: The wave number of near infrared Answer: d
d) Indicates the difference between the output of two
4. In photometers, the readings of the specimen are spectrometer ranges between 12500 – 4000. Explanation: Four techniques are generally used to
photometers
initially obtained in the form of which of the following Wavenumber is the reciprocal of wavelength. prepare solid samples. They are: Solids run in solution,
parameters? Answer: d Mull technique, Solid films and pressed pellet techniques.
a) Transmittance 3. Which of the following options are correct in terms of
Explanation: It compares the output of the two
b) Absorption wavelength for the different types of IR spectrometer? 8. Which of the following is not used as pyroelectric
photometers obtained using two beams. It indicates the
c) Wavelengths a) Near IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm material used in pyroelectric transducers in Infrared
output.
d) Volume b) Mid IR: 0.8 – 2.5 mm spectroscopy?
9. Which of the following is the purpose of the beam c) Far IR: 2.5 – 50 mm a) Triglycine Sulphate
Answer: a splitter in double beam photometer or colorimeter? d) Mid IR: 50 – 100 mm b) Deutrated Triglycine Sulphate
Explanation: In photometers, the reading is initially a) Splits beam into two equal intensity beams c) Some Polymers
obtained in the form of transmittance as some radiation is Answer: a
b) Splits beam in such a way that sample beam has higher d) Tetraglycine sulphate
absorbed by the sample and the rest of the beam is Explanation: Wavelength of near IR is 0.8 – 2.5 mm and for
intensity
Answer: d
Explanation: Pyroelectric materials are deutrated triglycine
sulphate, triglycine sulphate and some polymers. They give
rise to potential when subjected to a heating or cooling
effect.
9. Which of the following is the principle of Golay cell
which is used as a detector in IR spectroscopy?
a) Expansion of gas upon heating
b) Increase in resistance due to an increase in temperature
and vice versa
c) Temperature difference gives rise to a potential
difference in the material
d) Decrease in resistance due to an increase in
temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: It is also known as pneumatic detector. The
gases expand on heating and this in turn leads to the
movement of a diaphragm just like in pneumatic sensors.
10. In a solid sample treatment technique, the finely
ground solid sample is mixed with mineral oil to make a
thick paste which is then spread between IR transmitting
windows. What is the name of this solid sample treatment
technique?
a) Pressed pellet
b) Mull technique
c) Solid films
d) Solids run in solution
Answer: b
Explanation: The mentioned technique is Mull technique.
This method is used for qualitative analysis but not
quantitative analysis.
FOURIER TRANSFORM INFRA-RED SPECTROMETERS
1. Which of the following is not true about Fourier
Transform Infrared (FTIR) spectrometer?
a) It is of non-dispersive type
b) It is useful where repetitive analysis is required
c) Size has been reduced over the years
d) Size has increased over the years
c) Ferrous oxide
d) Silver chloride
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally, mylar is the thin film used in beam
splitters. Beam splitter has to pass 50% of the radiation
and reflect 50% of the radiation.
3. Which of the following is not the function of the drive
mechanism in Fourier Transform Infrared
Spectrophotometer?
a) Movement of mirror to obtain a satisfactory
interferogram
b) Acquire a good interferogram pattern
c) Allow 50% of the beam to pass
d) Keep the speed of the moving mirror constant
Answer: c
Explanation: Drive mechanism does the functions specified
in the other options. It the function of the beam splitter to
allow 50% of the beam to pass through.
4. Only pyroelectric transducer or pyroelectric crystals are
used as detectors in Fourier Transform Infrared
Spectrophotometer (FTIR). What is the main reason for
other types of thermal detectors are not being used in
FTIR spectrophotometer?
a) Less accuracy
b) Slower response
c) Less precision
d) Less sensitivity
Answer: b
Explanation: Other thermal detectors are not employed
due to slower response of the detectors. Pyroelectric
transducers or pyroelectric crystals are chosen for their
high speed, accuracy, precision, sensitivity and resolution.
5. Which of the following is not the advantage of Fourier
Transform Spectrometers?
a) Signal to noise ratio is high
b) Information could be obtained on all frequencies
c) Retrieval of data is possible
d) Easy to maintain
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of sample and reference spectra
needs to be computed to determine transmittance and
absorbance. First, reference interferogram is obtained and
then the sample is obtained.
7. Computer accepts analog signals directly.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Computer does not accept analog signals
directly. An A/D converter is required to feed the signals to
the computer.
8. Which of the following is the reference that is generally
used in FTIR interferometer?
a) Air
b) NaCl solution
c) Alcohol
d) Base solution
Answer: a
Explanation: Air is generally used as the reference. It is
scanned for about 20 to 30 times and the results are
stored in a computer.
9. In Michelson Interferometer, if the reflected and
transmitted beams are in phase at the beam splitter, then
maximum intensity will reach the detector.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: If the reflected and transmitted beams are in
phase at the beam splitter then maximum intensity will
reach the detector. If they are out of phase, then
minimum intensity will reach the detector.
10. The diagram given below is the representation of
Fourier transform interferometer. Identify the missing
block in the block diagram.
11. In Michelson’s interferometer, the frequency of the
detector output can be determined by translating the
_________ of movable mirror and the ___________ of
monochromatic radiation.
a) Velocity, wavelength
b) Thickness, intensity
c) Length, velocity
d) Angle, intensity
Answer: a
Explanation: The frequency can be determined by
translating the velocity of the movable mirror and the
wavelength of monochromatic radiation. The reflected
beam passes towards the movable mirror.
12. In Michelson’s interferometer, the __________ of the
detector output will depend upon the intensity of
incoming radiation.
a) Velocity
b) Frequency
c) Amplitude
d) Phase
Answer: c
Explanation: In Michelson’s interferometer, the amplitude
of the detector output will depend upon the intensity of
incoming radiation. If a movable mirror is moved
uniformly, the output will be a sine wave.
13. Why is the computer necessary in Fourier Transform
Spectrometer?
a) To display the detector output
b) To process the detector output
c) To determine the amplitude
d) To determine the frequency
Answer: b
Explanation: The computer is necessary to process the
output of the detector. The Fourier Transform of output is
determined using software using computers.
ATOMIC ABSORPTION SPECTROSCOPY

Answer: d Answer: d 1. Which of the following is the principle of Atomic

Explanation: FTIR is of non-dispersive type of instruments Explanation: The instrument is not easy to maintain and it Absorption Spectroscopy?
and is used for repetitive analysis. Initially, it was bulky and is a disadvantage. The other disadvantage is that the cost a) Pyroelectric crystal a) Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapour
the cost was high and hence, it was limited to a special is high. b) Display state and are excited to higher states
application. Now, the size has been reduced. c) High speed plotter b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is
6. Which of the following has to be computed to d) A/D converter measured
2. In the most widely used beam splitter, a thin film of determine transmittance and absorbance at various c) Colour is measured
________ is sandwiched between two plates of low frequencies? Answer: d d) Colour is simply observed
refractive index solid. Fill the blank with a suitable option. a) Ratio of signal and noise Explanation: Computer does not accept analog signals
a) Mylar b) Ratio of sample and reference spectra directly. An A/D converter is required to feed the signals to Answer: a
b) Silicon carbide c) Sample spectra the computer. Explanation: Atoms in gaseous state absorb the radiation
d) Reference spectra and are excited to a higher state. Since the higher state is
unstable the atom returns the ground state with the
emission of radiation which is measured.
2. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, which of the
following is the generally used radiation source?
a) Tungsten lamp
b) Xenon mercury arc lamp
c) Hydrogen or deuterium discharge lamp
d) Hollow cathode lamp
Answer: d
Explanation: Hollow cathode lamp is the source used in
Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy. It emits stable and
intense radiation.
3. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, with what material
is the cathode in Hollow cathode lamp constructed?
a) Tungsten
b) Quartz
c) Element to be investigated
d) Aluminium
Answer: c
Explanation: The cathode in Hollow cathode lamp is
constructed of the element to be investigated. The anode
is made of tungsten.
4. How can the intensity of radiation be increased in
Hollow cathode lamp?
a) Addition of non-conductive protective shield of mica
b) Addition of nitrogen to neon or argon in the lamp
c) Increasing the pressure of the filling gas
d) Changing the metal of the anode
Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of radiation is increased in
Hollow cathode lamp by the addition of a non-conductive
protective shield of mica. The protective shield can be
made of glass too.
5. Which of the following is the function of the chopper in
Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam into two
b) To break the steady light into a pulsating light
c) To filter unwanted components
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of the chopper in Atomic
Absorption Spectroscopy is to break the steady light into
pulsating light. It is a rotating wheel placed between the
flame and the source.
6. Which of the following is the function of the Flame or
Emission system in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam into two
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
c) To filter unwanted components
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
Answer: d
Explanation: The function of Flame or Emission system in
Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to reduce the sample
into atomic state. In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, the
production of atomic vapour by flame is the most
important phase.
7. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is also called as
Absorption Flame Photometry.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy, sample is
sprayed into the flame. Hence, it is called Absorption
Flame Photometry.
8. Which of the following is not a component of the
emission system in Flame photometer?
a) Burner
b) Atomiser
c) Fuel gases and their regulation
d) Chopper
Answer: d
Explanation: Chopper is not a component of the emission
system in Flame photometer. The parts of flame
photometer are burner, atomiser, fuel gases and their
regulation and flame.
9. Which of the following is the function of the atomiser in
the emission system of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy?
a) To split the beam into two
b) To break the steady light into pulsating light
c) To break large mass of liquid into small drops
d) To reduce the sample into atomic state
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of atomiser in the emission
system of Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is to break
large mass of liquid into small drops. It also introduces
liquid sample into the flame at a stable rate.
10. Which of the following is not a fuel used in flame
photometry?
a) Acetylene
b) Propane
c) Hydrogen
d) Camphor oil
Answer: d
Explanation: The commonly used fuel gases in flame
photometry are acetylene, propane and hydrogen. Oxygen
supply is given to the fuel gases.
11. Which of the following is not the requirement of a
good flame in flame photometer?
a) Liquid sample must be evaporated to form solid residue
b) Solid residue must decompose to form atoms
c) Atoms must be produced such that they have the ability
to get excited to higher states
d) Atoms must be produced such that they are in stable
state
a) Glass tube
Answer: d b) Quartz window
Explanation: Atoms must be produced such that they have c) Non- conducting glass
the ability to get excited to higher states. These atoms in d) Mica shield
higher states return to ground state with the emission of
photons. Answer: b
Explanation: The unmarked portion is Quartz window. The
12. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for the window can be made of quartz or borosilicate glass.
analysis of metals.
a) True
b) False
FLAME EMISSION PHOTOMETERS
Answer: a
Explanation: Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is used for 1. The function of pressure regulators in the emission
the analysis of metals. system of flame photometer is to have a steady flame
which is free from flickers.
13. Which of the following options explains the process of a) True
‘sputtering’ that occurs in Hollow Cathode Lamp? b) False
a) Positive ions collide with cathode surface and metal
atoms from cathode are ejected Answer: a
b) Negative ions collide with cathode surface and metal Explanation: The function of pressure regulators is to have
atoms from anode are ejected a steady flame which is free from flickers. Pressure gauges
c) Positive ions collide with negative ions and metal atoms indicate pressure.
from anode are ejected
2. In Total consumption burner, only samples of particular
d) Positive ions collide with negative ions and photons are
droplet size will enter the burner.
ejected
a) True
Answer: a b) False
Explanation: When potential is applied across the
Answer: b
electrode, the gas filled in tube ionises and flow of current
Explanation: Samples will enter the burner irrespective of
occurs. Positive ions collide with negatively charged
their droplet size. Hence, it has the name Total
cathode surface and metal atoms from a cathode are consumption burner.
ejected.
3. Which of the following is the principle of Flame emission
14. At what pressure should the gases in the sealed tube
photometers?
be maintained in the Hollow cathode lamp? a) Radiation is absorbed by non-excited atoms in vapour
a) 1 to 5 torr
state and are excited to higher states
b) 20 to 30 torr
b) Medium absorbs radiation and transmitted radiation is
c) 40 to 50 torr
measured
d) 50 to 55 torr
c) Colour and wavelength of the flame is measured
Answer: a d) Only wavelength of the flame is measured
Explanation: It consists of a cylindrical cathode and an
Answer: c
anode made of tungsten. The tube is sealed and neon and Explanation: In Flame emission photometers, colour and
argon are filled at a pressure of 1 to 5 torr.
intensity of the flame are measured. The intensity of light
15. The diagram show below is the picture of Hollow emitted when sample is introduced into the flame is also
cathode lamp. Identify the unmarked component. measured.
4. In Flame emission photometers, the measurement of Answer: a 1. Chromatography is a physical method that is used to
_____________ is used for qualitative analysis. Explanation: The advantage of a prism is that dispersion separate and analyse __________
a) Colour that occurs is non-overlapping. The disadvantage is that it a) Simple mixtures
b) Intensity occurs in a non-linear manner. b) Complex mixtures
c) Velocity c) Viscous mixtures
d) Frequency 9. Which of the following is the advantage of grating d) Metals
monochromators?
Answer: a a) Dispersion is non-overlapping Answer: b
Explanation: The colour and the wavelength of the flame b) Dispersion occurs in non-linear manner Explanation: Chromatography is a physical method that is
are used for qualitative analysis. It is used to determine c) Dispersion is overlapping used to separate complex mixtures. The mixture of
the element which is present in the sample. d) Dispersion occurs in a linear manner a) Filter different components is flushed through the system at
b) Atomiser different rates.
5. In Flame emission photometers, the measurement of Answer: d
c) Pressure regulator
_____________ is used for quantitative analysis. Explanation: The advantage of the grating is that 2. In which type of chromatography, the stationary phase
d) Burner
a) Colour dispersion that occurs is linear. The disadvantage is that held in a narrow tube and the mobile phase is forced
b) Intensity the dispersion is overlapping. Answer: d through it under pressure?
c) Velocity Explanation: The unmarked portion is Burner. Burner is a) Column chromatography
d) Frequency 10. Which of the following is not a detector used in Flame b) Planar chromatography
where flame is obtained by mixing sample, fuel and
emission photometers? c) Liquid chromatography
oxygen.
Answer: b a) Photronic cell d) Gas chromatography
Explanation: The intensity of the flame is used for b) Photovoltaic cell 14. Given below is the diagram of evacuated glass tube of
quantitative analysis. It is used to determine the amount c) Photoemissive tube photo emissive tube. Identify the part which is indicated Answer: a
of elements present in the sample. d) Chromatogram with a question mark. Explanation: In Column chromatography, the stationary
phase held in a narrow tube and the mobile phase is
6. Which of the following is not an advantage of Laminar Answer: d forced through it under pressure. It is carried out in a long
flow burner used in Flame photometry? Explanation: Detectors used in Flame emission glass column having a stop-cock near the bottom.
a) Noiseless photometers are Photovoltaic cell and photo emissive
b) Stable flame for analysis tubes. Photovoltaic cell is also known as photronic cell. 3. In chromatography, the stationary phase can be
c) Efficient atomization of sample ___________ supported on a solid.
d) Sample containing two or more solvents can be burned 11. Phototubes are more sensitive than photovoltaic cells. a) Solid or liquid
efficiently a) True b) Liquid or gas
b) False c) Solid only
Answer: d a) Anode
d) Liquid only
Explanation: Sample containing two or more solvents Answer: a b) Cathode
cannot be burned efficiently in Laminar flow burner. One Explanation: Phototubes are more sensitive than c) Grid Answer: a
more advantage of laminar flow burner is that it allows photovoltaic cells. Therefore, it can be used to measure d) Dynode Explanation: In chromatography, there are two phases
steady movement of gas flow. low intensities. namely, stationary phase and mobile phase. The stationary
Answer: b
phase can be solid or a liquid supported on a solid.
7. Laminar flow burner used in Flame photometers is also 12. Which of the following is not an application of Flame Explanation: The cathode is formed of half cylinder. The
known as ____________ emission photometers? anode is a metal ring near the centre of the glass. 4. In chromatography, which of the following can the
a) Turbulent burner a) Analysis of biological fluids mobile phase be made of?
b) Determination of sodium, potassium in soil 15. Which of the following is not an advantage of a
b) Premix burner a) Solid or liquid
c) Determination of metals such as Mn, Cu photovoltaic cell which is used as a detector in Flame
c) Total consumption burner b) Liquid or gas
d) Analysis of complex mixtures emission photometers?
d) Nozzle mix burner c) Gas only
a) Portable
d) Liquid only
Answer: b Answer: d b) No external supply
Explanation: Laminar flow burner used in Flame Explanation: The applications of Flame emission c) Robust in construction Answer: b
photometers is also known as Premix burner. Sample, fuel photometers are the analysis of biological fluids, d) Does not show fatigue Explanation: In chromatography, the mobile phase can be
and oxidant are mixed thoroughly before reaching the determination of sodium and potassium in soil and composed of liquid or gas. It cannot be a solid material.
determination of metals such as Mn and Cu. It is also used Answer: d
burner.
for the analysis of plant materials and industrial cement. Explanation: It does show fatigue. It shows a decrease in 5. Which of the following cannot be used as an adsorbent
8. Which of the following is the advantage of prism response with continued illumination. in Column adsorption chromatography?
monochromators? 13. Given below is the diagram of Flame emission a) Magnesium oxide
a) Dispersion is non-overlapping photometers. Identify the unmarked component. b) Silica gel
b) Dispersion occurs in non-linear manner CHROMATOGRAPHY c) Activated alumina
c) Dispersion is overlapping d) Potassium permanganate
d) Dispersion occurs in a linear manner INTRODUCTION TO CHROMATOGRAPHY
Answer: d
Explanation: The given options are all examples of
adsorbents in Column adsorption except potassium
permanganate. Some other adsorbents are starch and
chromatographic purified siliceous earth.
6. Which of the following types of chromatography
involves the separation of substances in a mixture over a
0.2mm thick layer of an adsorbent?
a) Gas liquid
b) Column
c) Thin layer
d) Paper
Answer: c
Explanation: Thin layer chromatography involves the
separation of substances of a mixture over a 0.2mm thick
layer (thin layer) of an adsorbent. The adsorbent can be
silica gel or alumina.
7. Chromatography cannot be used to purify volatile
substances.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Chromatography can be used to purify
volatile substances if the carrier fluid, operating conditions
and right adsorbent material are employed.
8. In Column chromatography, the stationary phase is
made of _________ and the mobile phase is made of
_________
a) Solid, liquid
b) Liquid, liquid
c) Liquid, gas
d) Solid, gas
Answer: a
Explanation: In Column chromatography, the stationary
phase is made of solid and the mobile phase is made of
liquid. It is carried out in a long glass column which has a
stop-cock near the bottom.
9. Chromatography cannot be used to separate delicate
products.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Chromatography can be used to separate
delicate products. This is because chromatography is not
performed under severe conditions.
10. In Thin layer chromatography, the stationary phase is
made of _________ and the mobile phase is made of
_________
a) Solid, liquid
b) Liquid, liquid
c) Liquid, gas
d) Solid, gas
Answer: a
Explanation: In Thin layer chromatography, the stationary
phase is made of solid and the mobile phase is made of
liquid.
11. In which of the following type of paper,
chromatography does the mobile phase move horizontally
over a circular sheet of paper?
a) Ascending paper chromatography
b) Descending paper chromatography
c) Radial paper chromatography
d) Ascending – descending chromatography
Answer: c
Explanation: In Radial paper chromatography, the mobile
phase moves horizontally over a circular sheet of paper.
Separation takes place based on partition.
12. Liquid chromatography can be performed in which of
the following ways?
a) Only in columns
b) Only on plane surfaces
c) Either in columns or on plane surfaces
d) Neither in columns nor on plane surfaces
Answer: c
Explanation: Liquid chromatography can be performed
either in columns or on plane surfaces. It could be liquid-
solid chromatography or liquid-liquid chromatography.
13. Gas chromatography can be performed in which of the
following ways?
a) Only in columns
b) Only on plane surfaces
c) Either in columns or on plane surfaces
d) Neither in columns nor on plane surfaces
Answer: a
Explanation: Gas chromatography can be performed only
in columns. It could be gas-solid chromatography or gas-
liquid chromatography.
14. In Gas-liquid phase chromatography, the stationary
phase is composed of _________ and the mobile phase is
made of _________
a) Solid, liquid
b) Liquid, liquid
c) Liquid, gas
d) Solid, gas
Answer: c
Explanation: In Gas-liquid phase chromatography, the
stationary phase is made of liquid and the mobile phase is
made of gas. Separation is based on partition.
15. Which of the following types of chromatography
involves the process, where the mobile phase moves
through the stationary phase by the influence of gravity or
capillary action?
a) Column Chromatography
b) High Pressure Liquid Chromatography
c) Gas Chromatography
d) Planar Chromatography
Answer: d
Explanation: In Planar Chromatography, the stationary
phase is supported on a flat plate of paper. The mobile
phase moves by the influence of gravity or capillary action.
OPERATION OF CHROMATOGRAPHY
1. Which of the following steps takes place after injection
of feed in Column chromatography?
a) Detection of components
b) Separation in the column
c) Elution from the column
d) Collection of eluted component
Answer: b
Explanation: The operation that occurs after the injection
of feed is a separation in the column. After that, elution
from the column and detection of components takes
place.
2. Components with a strong attraction to the support
move more slowly than components with weak attraction.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Different components will adsorb to the
stationary phase in varying degrees. Components with a
strong attraction to the support move more slowly than
components with weak attraction.
3. What happens during the ‘elution from the column’
phase in chromatography?
a) Components with greatest affinity elute first
b) Components with least affinity elute first
c) Components elute in a random manner
d) Components elute according to their concentration in
the mixture
Answer: b
Explanation: During the elution phase, different
components elute at different times. Components with
least affinity elute first.
4. In chromatogram, the position of peaks on the time axis
can be used to determine which of the following?
a) Components of the sample
b) Amount of component in the sample
c) Column efficiency
d) Column resolution
Answer: a
Explanation: Chromatogram is a detector that responds to
concentration solute and is placed at the end of the
column. The position of peaks on the time axis can be used
to determine components of the sample.
5. In chromatogram, the area under the peak can be used
to determine which of the following?
a) Components of the sample
b) Amount of component in the sample
c) Column efficiency
d) Column resolution
Answer: b
Explanation: Chromatogram is a detector that responds to
concentration solute and is placed at the end of the
column. The area under the peak can be used to
determine the amount of component in the sample.
6. The stationary phase could be a viscous liquid coated
over a surface of solid particles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The stationary phase could be a viscous liquid
coated over a surface of solid particles. The solid particles
can also be the stationary phase.
7. Given below is a diagram of separation of two
components of a mixture in a chromatographic column.
From the diagram, infer which component has lesser
affinity to the stationary phase.
a) W
b) X
c) Y
d) Z
Answer: c
Explanation: Y will elute from the column first.
Components with least affinity to the stationary phase will
elute first.
8. Using Chromatogram as detector in Chromatography, a
graph is obtained between ____________ and time.
a) Quantity c) Equal Answer: c 10. Which of the following is the ratio of the length of
b) Density d) Not related Explanation: Adjusted retention time is the remaining column packing to dead time?
c) Concentration retention time after subtracting dead time from retention a) Average linear rate of solute migration
d) Specific gravity Answer: a time. It affects the effectiveness of the system. b) Average linear rate of mobile migration
Explanation: In chromatography, molar concentration of c) Relative migration rate
Answer: c solute in stationary phase is directly proportional to molar 6. Which of the following is the volume of mobile phase d) Selectivity factor
Explanation: Using Chromatogram as a detector in concentration of solute in mobile phase. required to make a solute band move from the point of
Chromatography, a graph is obtained between Cs α Cm injection through the column to the detector? Answer: b
concentration and time. The detector is placed at the Cs = k Cm a) Dead volume Explanation: Average linear rate of mobile migration is the
bottom of the column. ‘k’ is the distribution constant. b) Retention volume ratio of the length of column packing to dead time. It
c) Void volume influences the effectiveness of the column in separating
9. In older analytical methods, which of the following 2. If the value of the distribution constant ‘k’ is one, then d) Adjusted retention volume solutes.
methods were used to allow movement of the mobile what could be inferred about the distribution of solute?
phase? a) Its distribution in stationary phase is greater Answer: b 11. Which of the following is the ratio of a length of
a) Pumps b) Its distribution in mobile phase is greater Explanation: Retention volume is the volume of mobile column packing to retention time?
b) Pressure c) It is equally distributed in stationary and mobile phase phase required to make a solute band move from the a) Average linear rate of solute migration
c) Gravity d) It is distributed in a random manner point of injection through the column to the detector. b) Average linear rate of mobile migration
d) Blowing air into the column c) Relative migration rate
Answer: c 7. Adjusted retention volume is the remaining retention d) Selectivity factor
Answer: c Explanation: volume after subtracting ___________ from
Explanation: In older analytical methods, gravity facilitated Cs α Cm _____________ Answer: a
the movement of the mobile phase. The effect of capillary Cs = k Cm a) Solute migration rate and retention volume Explanation: Average linear rate of solute migration is the
action was also employed to allow movement. If k=1, it denotes that the solute is equally distributed in b) Retention volume and solute migration rate ratio of a length of column packing to retention time. It
the mobile and stationary phase. c) Dead volume and retention volume influences the effectiveness of the column in separating
10. Given below is the diagram of ‘Process of d) Retention volume and dead volume solutes.
chromatographic column’. Identify the unmarked 3. The time taken by the analyte after sample injection to
component in the process. reach the detector is called _________ Answer: c 12. Retention distance is the distance between point of
a) Dead time Explanation: Adjusted retention volume is the remaining injection and minimum peak in the recorder or computer
b) Solute migration rate retention volume after subtracting dead volume from generated chart.
c) Adjusted retention time retention volume. a) True
d) Retention time Vadjusted retention = Vretention – Vdead b) False

Answer: d 8. Which of the following is defined as the ratio of moles of Answer: b

Explanation: The time taken by the analyte after sample solute in stationary phase to the moles of solute in the Explanation: Retention distance is the distance between
injection to reach the detector is called retention time. The mobile phase? point of injection and maximum peak in the recorder. The
retention of a solute in the system can be used to identify a) Distribution constant chart is drawn between time and concentration of the
the solute. b) Volumetric phase ratio solute.
c) Retention factor
a) Reservoir 4. The time required for a molecule of the mobile phase to d) Total porosity 13. Retention volume can be obtained by finding the
b) Collection tank pass through the column is called ___________ product of which of the following parameters?
c) Microprocessor a) Dead time Answer: c a) Dead time and total porosity
d) Detector b) Solute migration rate Explanation: Retention factor is defined as the ratio of b) Retention time and volumetric flow rate
c) Adjusted retention time moles of solute in stationary phase to the moles of solute c) Adjusted retention time and volumetric flow rate
Answer: d d) Retention time in the mobile phase. It is used for determining the d) Retention time and total porosity.
Explanation: The unmarked component is detector. It is migration rates of solutes in the column.
placed at the bottom of the column. It responds to solute Answer: a Answer: b
concentration. Explanation: The time required for a molecule of the 9. Which of the following is the ratio of the interstitial Explanation: Retention volume can be obtained by finding
mobile phase to pass through the column is called dead volume of packing to the volume of its total mass? the product of retention time and volumetric flow rate.
time. The effectiveness of the system depends on dead a) Distribution constant Flow rate = Cross section of empty column × Average
time. b) Volumetric phase ratio linear velocity × Total porosity
CHROMATOGRAPHIC BEHAVIOUR OF SOLUTES
c) Retention factor
5. Adjusted retention time is the remaining retention time d) Total porosity 14. Retention factor is also known as the capacitance
1. How is the molar concentration of solute in stationary
after subtracting __________ from ___________ factor.
phase related to molar concentration of solute in the
a) Solute migration rate and retention time Answer: d a) True
mobile phase?
b) Retention time and solute migration rate Explanation: Total porosity is the ratio of the interstitial b) False
a) Directly proportional
c) Dead time and retention time volume of packing to the volume of its total mass. In a
b) Inversely proportional
d) Retention time and dead time capillary column, total porosity is 1.
Answer: a Answer: a and ‘Wb’ is the width at the base of the peak which is Answer: c
Explanation: Retention factor is also known as the Explanation: Eddy diffusion is given as, A = λ dp. It is also equal to 4 standard deviations. Explanation: It should be highly pure. Further, it should be
capacitance factor. It can be denoted as k’. called multipath term. a) 16 tR2/Wb readily available and non-inflammable.
b) 4 tR2/Wb
15. What must be the value of the selectivity factor? 4. Which of the following is the expression for longitudinal c) (4tR/Wb)2 3. Which of the following is the disadvantage of hydrogen,
a) Equal to 1 diffusion in the column, if ‘γ’ represents obstruction factor, d) 4 (tR/Wb)2 which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?
b) Less than 1 ‘dM’ represents particle diameter, ‘DM’ represents Solute a) Dangerous to use
c) Greater than 1 diffusion co-efficient and ‘λ’ represents function for Answer: c b) Expensive
d) Greater than 0 packing uniformity? Explanation: The expression for plate number, N is given as c) Reduced sensitivity
a) λ dM N = (4tR/Wb)2. It is a dimensionless quantity. d) High density
Answer: c b) 2 γ DM
Explanation: Selectivity factor/ Relative retention must c) DM γ 9. It is more difficult to measure the width at half peak Answer: a
always be greater than 1. It is also known as Relative d) λ/dM height than the base width in the detector output. Explanation: Hydrogen is dangerous to use. It has better
migration rate. a) True thermal conductivity and lower density.
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: Longitudinal diffusion is given as, B = 2 γ DM.It 4. Which of the following is the disadvantage of helium,
is also called axial diffusion. Answer: b which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?
COLUMN EFFICIENCY AND COLUMN RESOLUTION Explanation: The width at half peak height is easier to a) Dangerous to use
5. In gas-liquid chromatography, when films are used in measure than the base width. Hence, the plate number is b) Expensive
1. Which of the following is the distance that the solute
the interior of the capillary column, then what is the value calculated at peak height. c) Reduced sensitivity
moves while undergoing one partition?
of Eddy diffusion? d) High density
a) Retention distance 10. The solute, while moving in the column is always in
a) Greater than 1
b) Distribution constant equilibrium with both the stationary phase and the mobile Answer: b
b) Less than 1
c) Plate height phase. Explanation: Helium is expensive. Its advantages are that it
c) Zero
d) Column packing length a) True has low density and it allows greater flow rates.
d) Less than zero
b) False
Answer: c 5. Which of the following is the disadvantage of nitrogen,
Answer: c
Explanation: Plate height is the distance that the solute Answer: a which can be used as carrier gas in gas chromatography?
Explanation: In gas-liquid chromatography, when films are
moves while undergoing one partition. It is expressed in Explanation: The solute, while moving in the column is a) Dangerous to use
used in the interior of the capillary column the value of
length. always in equilibrium with both the stationary phase and b) Expensive
Eddy diffusion (A) is zero. To minimize A, diameter of
packing should be small and uniform. the mobile phase. But, the two phases will never be in c) Reduced sensitivity
2. Which of the following conditions will cause the
equilibrium with each other. d) High density
efficiency of the column to increase?
6. For an unpacked coated capillary column, the
a) Plate number becomes greater, plate height becomes Answer: c
obstruction factor takes which of the following values?
smaller Explanation: Nitrogen has reduced sensitivity. It is still one
a) 0
b) Plate number becomes smaller, plate height becomes GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY of the commonly used carrier gas in gas chromatography.
b) 0.6
smaller
c) 1 1. For the separation of which of the following substances,
c) Plate number becomes greater, plate height becomes 6. Slow injection of large samples leads to band
d) 1.6 Gas-solid chromatography is being used?
larger broadening and loss of resolution.
d) Plate number becomes greater, plate height becomes a) Thermally stable organic components a) True
Answer: c
larger b) Volatile organic components b) False
Explanation: For an unpacked coated capillary column, the
c) Thermally stable inorganic components
value of the obstruction factor is 1. For a packed column,
Answer: a d) Low molecular weight gaseous species Answer: a
the value is 0.6.
Explanation: The efficiency of the column increases when Explanation: Slow injection of large samples leads to band
the plate number becomes greater and the plate height Answer: d broadening and loss of resolution. Hence, for desired
7. Base line resolution is achieved when degree of
becomes smaller. Column efficiency greatly depends on Explanation: Gas-solid chromatography is used for the column efficiency, samples should not be too large.
resolution/separation is ______
plate height and plate number. separation of low molecular weight gaseous species. Its
a) 1
application is limited because of semi-permanent 7. In which of the following methods are liquid samples
b) 0
3. Which of the following is the expression for Eddy retention of the analyte. injected into the column in gas chromatography?
c) 0.5
diffusion in the column, if ‘γ’ represents obstruction factor, a) Gas tight syringe
d) 1.5 2. Which of the following is not a feature of carrier gas
‘dp’ represents particle diameter, ‘DM’ represents Solute b) Micro-syringe
diffusion co-efficient and ‘λ’ represents function for used in gas chromatography? c) Rotary sample valve
Answer: d
packing uniformity? a) It must be chemically inert d) Solid injection syringes
Explanation: Base line resolution is achieved when degree
a) λ dM b) It should be suitable for the detector employed
of resolution/separation is 1.5. The baseline bandwidths of
b) 2 γ DM c) It should not be completely pure Answer: b
adjacent bands are almost constant.
c) DM γ d) It should be cheap Explanation: Liquid samples injected into the column in gas
d) λ/dM 8. Which of the following equations give the expression for chromatography using micro-syringe. Syringes of various
plate number, N when ‘tR’ is the adjusted retention time capacities are available.
8. What must be done to the solid samples for it to be
introduced into the column without using solid injection
syringes in gas chromatography?
a) Introduced in hot-zone of the column
b) Dissolved in volatile liquids
c) Introduced using rotary sample valve
d) Introduced using sampling loops
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid samples must be dissolved in volatile
liquids for introducing it into the column. They can be
introduced directly using solid injection syringes.
9. Which of the following is the commonly used support
material for the packed column in gas chromatography?
a) Glass
b) Metal
c) Diatomaceous earth
d) Stainless steel
Answer: c
Explanation: Diatomaceous earth is the commonly used
support material for the packed column in gas
chromatography. The columns could be made of glass or
metal.
10. Which of the following is the advantage of a straight
packed column?
a) It can be packed uniformly
b) It can be repacked easily
c) It is compact
d) It is easier to heat it evenly
Answer: c
Explanation: The advantage of the straight column is that
it can be repacked easily. It is not compact in size.
11. Which of the following is the disadvantage of coiled or
helical shaped packed chromatographic column?
a) It cannot be packed uniformly
b) It cannot be repacked easily
c) It is not compact
d) It is not easy to heat it evenly
Answer: b
Explanation: The disadvantage of coiled or helical shaped
packed chromatographic column is that it cannot be
repacked easily. It is compact in size and can easily be
heated in an even manner.
12. Capillary columns are open tubular columns
constructed from which of the following materials?
a) Glass
b) Metal
c) Stainless steel
d) Fused silica
Answer: d
Explanation: Capillary columns are constructed using fused
silica. It is a very high purity glass.
13. Sample injection port must be maintained at a
temperature at which rapid vapourisation occurs but
thermal degradation does not occur.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Sample injection port must be maintained at
a temperature at which rapid vapourisation occurs but
thermal degradation does not occur. The column is
maintained at a different temperature.
14. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of the
ovens used in gas chromatography?
a) It must have a fast rate of heating
b) Power consumption should be kept low
c) It must have maximum thermal gradients
d) It should have proper insulation
Answer: c
Explanation: The ovens used in gas chromatography must
have maximum thermal gradients. The temperature must
be uniform over the whole column.
15. Given below is the block diagram of gas
chromatography. Identify the unmarked component.
a) Pumping system
b) Pressure regulator
c) Flow regulator
d) Sample injection system
Answer: d
Explanation: The unmarked component is syringe. Hence,
the answer is sample injection system. It is for the
introduction of sample into the flowing gas stream.
DETECTION SYSTEM OF GAS CHROMATOGRAPHY
1. Which of the following is not an ideal characteristic of a
detector used in gas chromatography?
a) Linear response to the solutes
b) Short response time
c) High reliability
d) Sensitive to the changes in the flow rate of a carrier gas
Answer: d
Explanation: The detector used in gas chromatography
must be insensitive to the changes in flow rate of carrier
gas. There are many detectors used in gas
chromatography.
2. Which of the following is not a type of detector used in
gas chromatography?
a) Argon ionisation detector
b) Thermal conductivity detector
c) UV visible spectrometric detector
d) Electron capture detector
Answer: c
Explanation: UV visible spectrometric detector is not used
in gas chromatography. It is used in liquid
chromatography.
3. Which of the following detectors have high sensitivity to
all organic compounds?
a) Sulphur chemiluminescense detector
b) Thermionic emission detector
c) Flame ionization detector
d) Argon ionisation detector
Answer: c
Explanation: Flame ionization detector has high sensitivity
to all organic compounds. It is the commonly used
detector for gas chromatography.
4. Which of the following is not the advantage of thermal
conductivity detector used in gas chromatography?
a) Simple in construction
b) High sensitivity
c) Large linear dynamic range
d) Non-destructive character
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal conductivity detector has relatively
low density when compared to other detectors used in gas
chromatography. It is based on the principle that all gases
conduct heat in varying degrees.
5. Which of the following detectors is widely used to
detect environmental samples like chlorinated pesticides
and polychlorinated biphenyls?
a) Flame ionization detector
b) Thermal conductivity detector
c) Argon ionisation detector
d) Electron capture detector
Answer: d
Explanation: Electron capture detector is used to detect
environmental samples like polychlorinated biphenyls and
chlorinated pesticides. It is highly sensitive to molecules
containing functional groups such as halogen and
phosphorous.
6. In which of the following detector is the eluent mixed
with hydrogen and burned and then mixed with ozone and
its intensity is measured?
a) Sulphur chemiluminescense detector
b) Thermal conductivity detector
c) Flame ionization detector
d) Electron capture detector
Answer: a
Explanation: In Sulphur chemiluminescense detector, the
eluent is mixed with hydrogen and burned and then mixed
with ozone and its intensity is measured. The resultant is a
measure of sulphur compounds present.
7. Filter photometer detector is primarily responsive to
which of the following compounds/elements?
a) Volatile sulphur or phosphorous compounds
b) Nitrogen
c) Halogen
d) Potassium
Answer: a
Explanation: Flame photometric detector is primarily
responsive to volatile sulphur or phosphorous compounds.
It is also responsive to tin and nitrogen.
8. Which of the following detector uses ultraviolet
radiation from lamps to produce ionisation of solute
molecules?
a) Sulphur chemiluminescense detector
b) Thermal conductivity detector
c) Photo ionization detector
d) Electron capture detector
Answer: c
Explanation: Photo ionization detector uses ultraviolet
radiation from lamps to produce ionisation of solute
molecules. The current produced is measured and
recorded.
9. Flame ionisation detector is also known as
Katharometer.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal conductivity detector is known as
Katharometer. It uses heated filament as a sensing
element and it is placed in the emerging gas stream.
10. Thermionic emission detector used in gas
chromatography is most sensitive to which of the
following elements?
a) Nitrogen of tritium. The sensitivity of nickel is less than that of liquid columns. It can be separated using gas-solid Answer: b
b) Phosphorous tritium. chromatography. Explanation: The lifetime of gas-solid chromatography is
c) Halogen long. It can be used for geometrical isomers.
d) Carbon 15. Given below is a diagram of electron capture detector. 3. Which of the following is not an advantage of gas-solid
Identify the unmarked component in the diagram. chromatography? 8. Gas-solid chromatography can be used only for
Answer: b a) Increased column life separation of certain low molecular weight gaseous
Explanation: Thermionic emission detector used in gas b) Can be used for separation of rare gases species.
chromatography is most sensitive to phosphorous. It is 500 c) Leads to semi-permanent retention of the analyte a) True
times more sensitive to phosphorous than Flame d) Ability to retain some components that cannot be easily b) False
ionization detector. retained by other gas chromatography method
Answer: a
11. Which of the following detectors has a non-volatile Answer: c Explanation: Gas-solid chromatography can be used only
bead of rubidium silicate placed above the flame tip? Explanation: Gas-solid chromatography leads to semi- for separation of certain low molecular weight gaseous
a) Argon ionisation detector permanent retention of the analyte. Hence, it is used for species. This is because of gas-solid chromatography,
b) Thermionic emission detector limited applications. semi-permanent retention of analyte only takes place.
c) Flame ionization detector
d) Electron capture detector 4. The distribution coefficients of Gas-solid 9. Which of the following is a special adsorbent used in
chromatography are greater than that of Gas-liquid gas-solid chromatography?
Answer: b chromatography. a) Molecular sieves
Explanation: Thermionic emission detector has a non- a) True b) Silica gel
volatile bead of rubidium silicate placed above the flame b) False c) Alumina
tip. It is maintained at about 180V with respect to the a) Glass shield d) Starch
collector. Answer: a
b) Electrode
Explanation: The distribution coefficients of Gas-solid Answer: a
c) Quartz shield
12. In which of the following detectors, the carrier gas is chromatography are greater than that of Gas-liquid Explanation: Molecular sieves are a special adsorbent used
d) Radioactive β- emitter
excited by a radioactive source and the atoms of carrier chromatography. The stationary phase is a solid particle. in gas-solid chromatography. It is used in open tubular
gas are excited to a metastable state? Answer: d columns.
a) Argon ionisation detector 5. Which of the following columns can be used in Gas-solid
Explanation: The unmarked component is Radioactive β-
b) Thermionic emission detector chromatography? 10. Which of the following properties of molecular sieves
emitter. Nitrogen and hydrogen are the best carrier gases
c) Flame ionization detector a) Open tubular column make it ideal for exclusion mechanism of separation?
for these detectors.
d) Electron capture detector b) Analytical column a) High thermal stability
c) Separation column b) Large inner surface area
Answer: a d) Guard column c) Variable framework charge
Explanation: In Argon ionisation detector, the carrier gas is GAS SOLID CHROMATOGRAPHY d) Ability to distinguish materials on the basis of their size
excited by a radioactive source and the atoms of carrier Answer: a
gas are excited to a metastable state. It uses argon as 1. Gas-solid chromatography is based on which of the Explanation: Open tubular column can be used in Gas-solid Answer: d
carrier gas. following processes? chromatography. Analytical/separation column and guard Explanation: Molecular sieves have the ability to
a) Partition of the analyte between a gaseous mobile column is used in liquid chromatography. distinguish materials on the basis of their size. This
13. Which of the following is not used as a heating phase and a stationary liquid phase property can be used in separating molecules of linear
element in a Thermal conductivity detector? b) Adsorption of gaseous substances on solid surface 6. Which of the following is not an advantage for the structure from bulky ones.
a) Platinum c) Ion exchange conversion of packed columns into wide bore capillaries?
b) Gold d) Large molecules cannot penetrate through the gel a) Longer retention times
c) Graphite b) Longer life
Answer: b c) Higher efficiency LIQUID CHROMATOGRAPHY
d) Tungsten wire
Explanation: Gas-solid chromatography is based on the d) Greater inertness
1. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
Answer: c adsorption of gaseous substances on a solid surface. It is
Answer: a reciprocating pump used in liquid chromatography?
Explanation: Graphite is not used as a heating element in useful for the separation of rare gases.
Explanation: Wide bore capillary has a shorter retention a) Produces pulsed flow
Thermal conductivity detector. Platinum, gold and
2. Which of the following components cannot be retained time. It is an advantage. It is undesirable to have a longer b) Corrosive components
tungsten wire are used as heating elements.
by gas-liquid columns but can be separated by using gas- retention time. c) Does not have small hold-up value
14. Electron capture detector is much less susceptible to solid chromatography? d) Does not have moderate flow rate
contamination when nickel is used instead of tritium. a) Formaldehyde 7. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of gas-solid
chromatography? Answer: a
a) True b) Hydrogen sulphide
a) Strong retention of polar solutes Explanation: The disadvantage of reciprocating pump used
b) False c) Benzene
d) Carbon dioxide b) Lifetime is short in liquid chromatography is that it produces pulsed flow.
Answer: a c) Occurrence of catalytic changes Therefore, the flow must be damped before it affects the
Explanation: Electron capture detector is much less Answer: b d) Cannot be used for very wide range of components column.
susceptible to contamination when nickel is used instead Explanation: Hydrogen sulphide cannot be retained by gas-
2. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of
Pneumatic pumps used in liquid chromatography?
a) Pulsed output
b) Dependent on solvent viscosity
c) Dependent on back pressure
d) Inconvenient for solvent gradient elution
Answer: a
Explanation: Pneumatic pumps provide pulse free output.
They are inexpensive.
3. Which of the following is not a desired characteristic of
pulse dampers or flow smootheners used in liquid
chromatography?
a) Easy mobile phase change over
b) Constant flow must be maintained
c) Should be effective at low system pressure
d) Maximal dead volume
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse dampers are used to avoid variations in
flow. They must have minimal dead volume.
4. Which of the following will improve the efficiency of the
separation process in liquid chromatography?
a) Increase in sample size, increase in column diameter
b) Reduction in sample size, increase in column diameter
c) Increase in sample size, reduction in column diameter
d) Reduction in sample size, reduction in column diameter
Answer: d
Explanation: Reduction in sample size and reduction in
column diameter will improve the efficiency of the
separation process in liquid chromatography. The effect of
uneven flow will also be reduced.
5. Which of the following are the practical problems that
arise due to the decrease in column diameter?
a) Requirement of large particle size and high pressure
drop
b) Requirement of large particle size and low pressure
drop
c) Requirement of small particle size and high pressure
drop
d) Requirement of small particle size and low pressure
drop
Answer: c
Explanation: The practical problems that arise due to a
decrease in column diameter are the requirement of small
particle size and high pressure drop. But, it increases
column efficiency.
6. Which of the following is not true about the guard
column used in liquid chromatography?
a) It filters particles that clog the separation column
b) It extends the lifetime of separation column
c) It allows particles that cause precipitation upon contact 11. Which of the following types of liquid chromatography c) It provides maximum resolution
with stationary or mobile phase uses immobilized biochemical as a stationary phase? d) It provides maximum sensitivity
d) The size of packing varies with the type of protection a) Ion exchange chromatography
needed b) Exclusion chromatography Answer: a
c) Affinity chromatography Explanation: Solvent programming is done to provide
Answer: c d) Gel permeation chromatography equal bandwidths. It provides maximum sensitivity for
Explanation: Guard column removes particles that cause every solute in the sample.
precipitation upon contact with stationary or mobile Answer: c
phase. It is placed before the separation column. Explanation: In Affinity chromatography, immobilized 5. Which of the following pulse damper takes up some
biochemical is used as stationary phase. It is used to amount of the pulsation energy which is released to
7. Which of the following columns are not used in liquid or separate one or few solutes from hundreds of unretained provide smooth pressure without pulsations?
high performance liquid chromatography? solutes. a) Flexible bellows or compressible gas passed through tee
a) Analytical column columns
b) Separation column b) Flexible inert diaphragm
c) Guard column c) Electronic pulse damper
d) Capillary column HIGH PRESSURE LIQUID CHROMATOGRAPHY d) Electrical pulse damper
Answer: d 1. Which of the following is not true about High pressure Answer: a
Explanation: Capillary column is used in gas liquid chromatography (HPLC)? Explanation: Flexible bellows or compressible gas passed
chromatography. Analytical column is also known as a a) It requires high pressure for the separation of the through tee columns take up some of the pulsation energy
separation column. specious which is released to provide smooth pressure without
b) There is no need to vaporise the samples pulsations. Its main purpose is to avoid pulses.
8. Which of the following is not a Column-type Liquid c) It is performed in columns
chromatography? d) It has high sensitivity 6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the
a) Gel permeation syringe pump used in high pressure liquid
b) Ion exchange Answer: b chromatography?
c) Liquid-solid Explanation: In High pressure liquid chromatography a) Pressure capability is high
d) Paper (HPLC), samples need to be vaporised. It has high b) Maintenance is frequent
sensitivity. c) Limited reservoir capability
Answer: d d) Slight change of flow rate when extremely high pressure
Explanation: Paper chromatography is not a column-type 2. High pressure liquid chromatography can be performed
compresses the solvent
chromatography. It makes use of strips of hollow cylinders only in columns.
of filter paper. a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: In syringe pumps, maintenance is infrequent.
9. Which of the following is not true about the radial However, it has high pressure capability.
compression column when compared to standard Answer: a
separation column? Explanation: High pressure liquid chromatography can be 7. Syringe pumps used in High pressure liquid
a) Internal diameter decreases performed only in columns. This is because the application chromatography are most suitable for which of the
b) Overall operating pressure decreases of high pressure in the open bed will not be effective. following columns?
c) Analysis time decreases a) Capillary columns
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of Syringe
d) Solvent flow increases b) Guard columns
type pumps used in High pressure liquid chromatography?
c) Short-fast columns
Answer: a a) Independent of viscosity
d) Small bore columns
Explanation: Radial compression columns have a wider b) Pulse-less flow
diameter than the standard separation column. The c) High pressure capability Answer: d
cartridges used are of low cost. d) Unlimited solvent capacity Explanation: Syringe pumps used in High pressure liquid
chromatography are most suitable for small bore columns.
10. Which of the following is not true about narrow bore Answer: d
It is the most commonly used piston type pump.
column when compared to standard columns? Explanation: The limitation of Syringe type pump is that it
a) Internal diameter decreases has a limited solvent capacity and is inconvenient when 8. Gravity feed method for solvent delivery is not used
b) Volumetric flow decreases solvents are to be changed. with narrow bore columns packed with fine mesh
c) Solvent cost is saved particles.
4. Which of the following is not true about solvent
d) Detector response time increases a) True
programming which is done in high performance liquid
b) False
Answer: d chromatography?
Explanation: Detector response time increases in narrow a) It provides unequal bandwidths Answer: a
bore columns. High purity solvents must be used in these b) It provides fast overall separation Explanation: Gravity feed method for solvent delivery is
columns. not used with narrow bore columns packed with fine mesh
particles. This is because they cannot deliver solvent at
high pressure.
9. Which of the following cannot be done to reduce ripple
in High pressure liquid chromatography?
a) Using bellows
b) Using restrictors
c) Using long nylon tube between pump and column
d) Avoiding the use of the solvent pump
Answer: d
Explanation: Solvent pumps have to be used to reduce
pulses in a solvent flow. When there is a pulsed flow, the
efficiency of column decreases.
10. Which of the following is not true about Hydraulic
capacitance flow control system used in HPLC?
a) It can be used only for liquids with low viscosity
b) It is irrespective of solvent compressibility
c) It maintains a constant flow
d) It smoothens high pressure pump pulsations
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic capacitance flow control system
used in HPLC is irrespective of the solvent viscosity. It is
also irrespective of the solvent compressibility.
DETECTION SYSTEM OF LIQUID CHROMATOGRAPHY
1. Bulk property detectors used in liquid chromatography
does not respond to which of the following properties?
a) Refractive index
b) Density
c) Properties of solutes
d) Dielectric constant
Answer: c
Explanation: Bulk property detectors respond only to bulk
properties of the mobile phase. It does not respond to
properties of solutes.
2. Which of the following is not a property of a good
detector used in liquid chromatography?
a) Good sensitivity
b) Ability to function in the presence of a large background
signal
c) Short response time
d) Volume of detector must be large
Answer: d
Explanation: The volume of the detector must be small. If
the volume of the detector is large it may lead to band
broadening.
3. Detector selectivity is more important in Liquid
chromatography than in Gas chromatography.
a) True 8. Which of the following detectors can be used for 12. In UV-Visible detectors, the cells are not made of
b) False detection of amino acids in protein hydrolyzates by which of the following materials?
introducing the reagent dansylchloride in the sample? a) Quartz
Answer: a a) Electrochemical detectors b) Teflon
Explanation: Detector selectivity is more important in b) Fluorescence detectors c) Silica
Liquid chromatography than in Gas chromatography. This c) Refractive index detectors d) KELF
is because of liquid chromatography, chances of d) Thermal conductivity detectors
overlapping are higher. Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The cells in UV-Visible detectors are made of
4. Which of the following UV absorbance detectors Explanation: Fluorescence detectors can be used for quartz, KELF and Teflon. They are not made of silica.
provide a real time spectrum of the component of detection of amino acids in protein hydrolyzates by
interest? introducing the reagent dansylchloride in the sample. 13. Which of the following is not a feature of refractive
a) Continuous wavelength detector Other compounds that can be detected are petroleum index type detectors?
b) Variable wavelength detector products and natural products. a) Higher potential sensitivity
c) Scanning wavelength detector b) Low cost
d) Fixed wavelength detector 9. The reference cell is packed with which of the following c) High volume flow rates
in the Adsorption detector used in liquid chromatography? d) Easy cell accessibility
Answer: c a) Inactive glass beads
Explanation: Scanning wavelength detector provides a real b) Porous glass beads Answer: c
time spectrum of the component of interest. UV visible c) Alumina Explanation: Refractive index type detectors have low
detector is the most widely used detection system. d) Silica volume flow rates. It is one of the major advantages of the
refractive index type of detectors.
5. Fluorescence detection is less selective than absorption Answer: a
detection. Explanation: In Adsorption detector used in liquid 14. Which of the following detectors can detect almost any
a) True chromatography, the reference cell is packed with inactive component?
b) False glass beads. The other detector cavity is packed with silica, a) Combining two UV detectors
alumina or porous glass beads. b) Combining RI and UV detectors
Answer: b c) Mass detector
Explanation: Fluorescence detection is more selective than 10. Which of the following is true about Laser detectors d) Laser-based detectors
absorption detection. This is because of its high sensitivity. used in liquid chromatography?
a) Causes thermal distortion has decreased sensitivity Answer: b
6. Which of the following detectors depend on Snell’s law
b) Causes thermal distortion has increased sensitivity Explanation: Combining RI and UV detectors almost any
at the interface between the cell wall and the flowing
c) Does not cause thermal distortion, has decreased component can be detected. In some cases, single
liquid to deflect the light beam?
sensitivity detection system may give incorrect results.
a) Electrochemical detectors
d) Does not cause thermal distortion, has increased
b) Fluorescence detectors 15. Given below is the diagram of Ultraviolet detector
sensitivity
c) Refractive index detectors used in liquid chromatography. Identify the unmarked
d) Thermal conductivity detectors Answer: a component.
Explanation: Laser detectors used in liquid
Answer: c
chromatography cause thermal distortion and have
Explanation: Refractive index detectors depend on Snell’s
decreased sensitivity. This is because of the high energies
law at the interface between the cell wall and the flowing
of a laser.
liquid to deflect the light beam. Changes in refractive index
are monitored by a position sensor. 11. Which of the following detectors used in liquid
chromatography is also called micro-adsorption detector?
7. Refractive index detectors used in liquid
a) Electrochemical detectors
chromatography are not based on which of the following
b) Fluorescence detectors
processes?
c) Refractive index detectors
a) Interference
d) Thermal detectors
b) Refraction
a) Collimator
c) Reflection Answer: d
b) Lens
d) Absorption Explanation: Another name for the thermal detector is
c) Monochromator
micro-adsorption detector. The operation depends upon d) Quartz window
Answer: d
temperature changes taking place due to the heat of
Explanation: Refractive index detectors used in liquid
adsorption. Answer: d
chromatography are not dependent on absorption. It
Explanation: The part that is not marked is quartz window.
depends on reflection, refraction and interference.
This detector is used to detect components that absorb
any wavelength in the UV-Visible region.
AMINO-ACID ANALYSERS
1. What is the drawback that occurs in using ion exchange
chromatography on sulphonated polystyrene resin and
colourimetry for amino-acid analysis?
a) Less accuracy
b) Low resolution
c) Inconvenient to handle many individual samples
d) Slow in operation
Answer: c
Explanation: When ion exchange chromatography is used
for amino-acid analysis, high accuracy is obtained. It is
inconvenient to handle many individual samples and
cleaning of glassware is laborious.
2. Which one of the following methods is the most suitable
for amino-acid analysis?
a) Gas chromatography
b) Ion exchange chromatography
c) Paper electrophoresis
d) Resin column chromatography
Answer: d
Explanation: Resin column chromatography is the most
suitable for amino-acid analysis. Here, ion exchange resin
chromatography is followed.
3. Which of the following colour reagents are used in Resin
column chromatography?
a) Marquis reagent
b) Benedict reagent
c) Ninhydrin
d) Nessler’s reagent
Answer: d
Explanation: Ninhydrin is the colour reagent used in resin
column chromatography. The colour reaction occurs
during a known period and controlled temperature.
4. Which of the following amino-acids is measured at a
wavelength of 440nm using photometric systems?
a) Proline
b) Alanine
c) Glutamine
d) Valine
Answer: a
Explanation: Proline and hydroxyproline are measured at
440nm. All the other amino acids are measured at 570nm.
5. In Automatic amino-acid analyzer, the sample
containing ___________ of each amino compound is
introduced at the top of the ion exchange column. proteins or polypeptides. Further, accuracy is lost while magnetic susceptibility of sphere and that of surrounding
a) 1 to 10 µmoles converting amino-acids into the gaseous phase. gas.
b) 1 to 10 moles
c) 0.05 to 2 moles 10. Resin column chromatography does not involve 4. In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the expression for
d) 0.05 to 2 µmoles breaking of bonds in amino-acids. magnitude of force produced can be expressed as, F = C
a) True (K-KO), where K= magnetic susceptibility of surrounding
Answer: d b) False gas and KO= magnetic susceptibility of sphere. C denotes
Explanation: In Automatic amino-acid analyzer, the sample which of the following?
Answer: b
having 0.05 to 2 µmoles of each amino compound is a) Magnetic field strength
Explanation: Resin column chromatography involves
introduced at the top of the ion exchange column. Buffer b) Magnetic gradient
breaking of bonds in amino-acids. This causes a delay as
is then supplied to the column. c) Function of magnetic field strength and gradient
acid is eluted through the column by a buffer. d) Magnetic flux
6. Which of the following cannot be analysed using resin
column chromatography? Answer: c
a) Peptides Explanation: In the expression for magnitude of force, C
INDUSTRIAL GAS ANALYSERS
b) Amines denotes the function of magnetic field strength and
c) Amino compounds PARAMAGNETIC OXYGEN ANALYSER gradient. The forces are thus a measure of magnetic
d) Components which are ninhydrin negative susceptibility and hence of oxygen.
1. Which among the following gases have diamagnetic
Answer: d 5. In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the electrostatic force
property (ability to be repelled by magnetic fields)?
Explanation: Components which are ninhydrin negative a) Oxygen that is exerted should have which of the following
cannot be analysed using resin column chromatography. b) Nitrogen features?
Only the components that are nindydrin positive are c) Nitrogen dioxide a) It should be greater than the magnetic field and must be
analysed using this method. d) Nitric oxide in the same direction
b) It should be equal to the magnetic field and must be in
7. Trapped air in pumps of Automatic amino-acid analyzer Answer: b the same direction
is eliminated using which of the following ways? Explanation: Nitrogen has diamagnetic property. Other c) It should be greater than the magnetic field and must be
a) Suction pump components that have diamagnetic property are carbon, in the opposite direction
b) De-aerator boron, etc. d) It should be equal to the magnetic field and must be in
c) Overcome naturally by pump pressure the opposite direction
d) Using pulse damper 2. Which of the following gases have paramagnetic
property (ability to get attracted to a magnetic field)? Answer: d
Answer: b a) Nitric oxide Explanation: The electrostatic force that is exerted should
Explanation: De-aerator is used to eliminate trapper air in b) Hydrogen be equal to the magnetic field and must be in the opposite
pumps of an automatic amino-acid analyzer. Here, bubble- c) Helium direction. It is exerted by two charged vanes.
trap type de-aerator is used. d) Nitrogen
6. Which of the following is true about the two charged
8. Amino-acids are distinguishable from each other only by Answer: a vanes that produce electric field in Paramagnetic oxygen
one or two atoms in their structure. Explanation: Nitric oxide has paramagnetic property. analyzer?
a) True Nitrogen dioxide and oxygen are other gases that have a) Both the vanes should be at higher potential than the
b) False paramagnetic property. test body
b) Both the vanes should have the same potential as the
Answer: a 3. The force produced during the operation of
test body
Explanation: Amino-acids are distinguishable from each Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer is proportional to which of c) One vane should be at higher potential than the test
other only by one or two atoms in their structure. They are the following?
body and the other vane should be at lower potential
components of all proteins and are essential for growth of a) Magnetic susceptibility of sphere
d) Both the vanes should be at lower potential than the
organisms. b) Magnetic susceptibility of surrounding gas
test body
c) Difference between magnetic susceptibility of sphere
9. What is the drawback that occurs in using gas
and magnetic field strength Answer: c
chromatography for amino-acid analysis?
d) Difference between magnetic susceptibility of sphere Explanation: In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the two
a) Costly
and that of surrounding gas charged vanes should be such that one vane should be at
b) Cannot be used for proteins or polypeptides
higher potential than the test body and the other vane
c) Slow process Answer: d
should be at lower potential. This electric field produces a
d) Complex in operation Explanation: The paramagnetic property of oxygen is used
force.
in this method for the analysis of oxygen. The force
Answer: b
produced during operation of Paramagnetic oxygen 7. In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, when no oxygen is
Explanation: Gas chromatography cannot be used for
analyzer is proportional to the difference between present the magnetic force balances torque of the fibre.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In Paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, when no
oxygen is present the magnetic force balances torque of
the fibre. If oxygen is present, it would displace the dumb-
bell sphere.
8. To improve paramagnetic oxygen analyzer, the quartz
suspension must be replaced with which of the following?
a) Platinum-iridium
b) Phosphor-bronze
c) Gold-palladium
d) Antimony
Answer: a
Explanation: To improve paramagnetic oxygen analyzer,
the quartz suspension must be replaced with Platinum-
iridium. It is more robust.
9. In the Beckman instrument, the flow rate recommended
when the sample enters through a porous diffusion disc is
which of the following?
a) 100-200 cc/min
b) 50-250 cc/min
c) 40-60 cc/min
d) 200-300 cc/min
Answer: b
Explanation: In the Beckman instrument, the flow rate
recommended when the sample enters through a porous
diffusion disc is 50-250 cc/min. paramagnetic oxygen
analyzer was first described by Pauling.
10. In the Beckman instrument, the flow rate
recommended when the sample enters directly for rapid
response is which of the following?
a) 100-200 cc/min
b) 50-250 cc/min
c) 40-60 cc/min
d) 200-300 cc/min
Answer: c
Explanation: In the Beckman instrument, the flow rate
recommended when the sample enters directly for rapid
response is 40-60 cc/min. paramagnetic oxygen analyzer
was first described by Pauling.
11. Which of the following happens to the magnetic
susceptibility of gases when the temperature changes?
a) It increases with increase in temperature
b) It decreases with increase in temperature
c) It remains constant with increase in temperature
d) It remains constant with decrease in temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic susceptibility of gases decreases
with increase in temperature. Magnetic susceptibility of
oxygen decreases with increase in temperature.
12. If the oxygen content is not greater than 21%, which of
the following gases must be used to set the span point?
a) Oxygen
b) Dry air
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b
Explanation: If the oxygen content is not greater than 21%,
dry air is used to set the span point. This is done for
calibration purposes.
13. If the oxygen content is greater than 21%, which of the
following gases must be used to set the span point?
a) Oxygen
b) Dry air
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: If the oxygen content is greater than 21%,
oxygen is used to set the span point. This is done for
calibration purposes.
MAGNETIC WIND INSTRUMENTS
1. Which of the following does not occur in Hartman and
Braun oxygen analyzer based on the magnetic wind?
a) Oxygen is attracted to the magnetic field
b) Oxygen becomes less paramagnetic due to rise in
temperature
c) Resistance change in a resistance connected to the
Wheatstone bridge occur
d) Wheatstone Bridge becomes balanced due to
temperature change
Answer: d
Explanation: In Hartman and Braun oxygen analyzer, the
magnetic wind cools the heated winding. As a result, the
bridge becomes unbalanced.
2. Which of the following is not a cause of the error that
could occur in Hartman and Braun oxygen analyzer based
on the magnetic wind?
a) The filament temperature could be affected by changes
in thermal conductivity of the carrier gas
b) Hydrocarbons in sample stream may react on the
heated filaments
c) Gravitation chimney flow effect lead to errors when
cross tube is horizontal
d) Combustible gases may react on the heated filaments
Answer: c a) Change in resistance due to cooling by magnetic wind
Explanation: Error occurs when a cross tube is vertical. b) Displacement of membrane by magnetised oxygen
When the cross tube is horizontal, errors due to c) Difference in pressure difference between two gases
gravitation chimney flow effect is avoided. having varying concentration of oxygen
d) By measuring temperature using thermometer
3. Hydrocarbons need to be removed from the sample gas
to avoid errors in Hartman and Braun oxygen analyzer. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: Temperature is not measured in magnetic
b) False wind instruments. The cooling effect of magnetic wind
causes a change in resistance which is measured.
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrocarbons need to be removed from the 8. How are the hydrocarbons in the samples removed in
sample gas to avoid errors. This is because they may react magnetic wind instruments?
on the heated filaments and lead to a change in a) By using a cold trap
temperature and resistance. b) By using a filter
c) By using a semipermeable membrane
4. Magnetic wind analyzers are also known as which of the d) By using magnetic effect
following?
a) Thermo-magnetic analyzers Answer: a
b) Electro-magnetic analyzers Explanation: The hydrocarbons in the samples are
c) Thermo-analytical analyzers removed in magnetic wind instruments by using a cold
d) Hot wire analyzers trap. It is removed to avoid combustion.
Answer: a 9. Which of the following bridges are used in magnetic
Explanation: Magnetic wind analyzers are also known as wind instruments?
Thermo-magnetic analyzers. In Europe, it is known as a) Wheatstone bridge
Magnetic wind analyzers. In the United States, it is known b) Kelvin’s bridge
as Thermo-magnetic analyzers. c) Anderson’s bridge
d) Schering’s bridge
5. In OXYMAT-M oxygen analyser which of the following is
usually used as reference gas? Answer: a
a) Hydrogen Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is generally used in
b) Nitrogen magnetic wind instruments. The change in resistance due
c) Helium to cooling effect is measured using a Wheatstone bridge.
d) Ambient air
10. The extremely high inertia of the thin membrane in the
Answer: d oxygen sensor allows it to rapidly attain equilibrium.
Explanation: In OXYMAT-M oxygen analyser, ambient air is a) True
usually used as a reference gas. Its measuring procedure is b) False
based on pressure difference which develops between two
gases having different oxygen concentration in the Answer: b
Explanation: The extremely low inertia of the thin
magnetic field.
membrane in the oxygen sensor allows it to attain
6. Which of the following is used in magnetic wind equilibrium. It reaches an equilibrium state in 0.25 to 0.5
instruments to determine the amount of oxygen? seconds.
a) Change in resistance
b) Change in capacitance
c) Change in inductance
ELECTROCHEMICAL METHODS FOR OXYGEN ANALYSIS
d) Change in concentration
1. Which of the following is not true about the galvanic
Answer: a
method of oxygen analysis?
Explanation: In magnetic wind instruments to determine
a) Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals
the amount of oxygen, change in temperature leads to a
b) It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
change in resistance. This change in resistance is measured
c) Its principle is based on electrolysis
to determine the amount of oxygen.
d) It utilizes an electronic cell
7. Which of the following concepts are not used in
magnetic wind instruments?
Answer: c
Explanation: Galvanic method of oxygen analysis is based
on the reverse of electrolysis. In this method, the electrical
current developed is related to the rate of oxygen uptake
by the cell.
2. Which of the following is true about Hersch cell which is
one of the arrangements of a galvanic cell?
a) Cell is spherical in shape
b) Cathode is made of porous material
c) Cathode is placed centrally
d) Cathode is formed by gauze which surrounds the anode
Answer: d
Explanation: In Hersch cell, cell is cylindrical in shape.
Anode is placed centrally and is made of porous material.
Cathode is formed by gauze which surrounds the anode.
3. Polarographic cells type of electrochemical method uses
which of the following concepts?
a) Cyclic reactions
b) Exothermic reactions
c) Reversible reactions
d) Redox reactions
Answer: d
Explanation: Polarographic cells type of electrochemical
method uses redox reactions. It is used to measure the
partial pressure of the percentage of oxygen.
4. Which of the following methods, is the widely used
method for trace gas analysis?
a) Galvanic methods
b) Conductometric method
c) Polarographic cells
d) Thermal conductivity method
Answer: b
Explanation: Conductometric method is the widely used
method for trace gas analysis. This method is very
convenient.
5. In the conductometric method, the difference in gas
conductivity before and after passing sample gas denotes
which of the following?
a) Efficiency of the cell
b) Quantity of reagent
c) Concentration of gas
d) Density of the reagent
Answer: c
Explanation: In the conductometric method, the difference
in gas conductivity before and after passing sample gas
denotes the concentration of gas. The sample gas is
passed through the liquid reagent.
6. Conductometric method is not very suitable for
measuring traces of which of the following gases in ppb
range? b) It is a slow process
a) H2S c) It leads to contamination of the sample
b) SO2 NO2 ANALYSER d) It does not produce luminescence
c) NH3
1. Nitrogen dioxide can be detected with a paramagnetic Answer: b
d) CO
analyser. Explanation: During analysis of NO2 using
Answer: d a) True Chemiluminescent analyser, NO2 is not made to react with
Explanation: Conductometric method is not very suitable b) False ozone directly because it is a slow process. Hence, it is
for measuring traces of CO. It is suitable for measuring converted to NO using catalytic reactions or converters.
Answer: a
traces of H2O.
Explanation: Nitrogen dioxide can be detected with a 6. The block diagram of series mode analyser of NO and
7. Polarographic cells are not sensitive to which of the paramagnetic analyser. This is because nitrogen has NO2 is given below. Identify the unmarked procedure.
following gases? paramagnetic property ie. it is attracted by magnetic
a) Carbon monoxide fields.
b) Carbon dioxide
2. Nitrogen oxide cannot be directly analysed using UV and
c) Nitrous oxide
Visible analyzers due to which of the following reasons?
d) Oxygen a) Oxidiser
a) Less accuracy
b) Very low range b) Reducer
Answer: a
c) It leads to contamination of the sample c) Filter
Explanation: Polarographic cells are not sensitive to carbon
d) It is transparent in UV visible regions d) NO Analyser
monoxide. They show 0.1% error while measuring oxygen.
Answer: a
8. In polarographic cell when potential is applied, oxygen is Answer: d
Explanation: The unmarked procedure is NO to
reduced at __________ when KCl is present. Explanation: Nitrogen oxide cannot be directly analysed
NO2oxidiser. NO2 is then analysed by NO2 analyser.
a) Anode using UV and Visible analyzers because it is transparent in
b) Cathode UV visible regions. Hence, it is converted into nitrogen
7. The block diagram for parallel mode analyser of NO and
c) Electrolyte dioxide and then analysed.
NO2 is given below. Identify the unmarked block in the
d) Both the electrode diagram.
3. How is NO converted to NO2 for analysis in UV and
Answer: b Visible analyzers?
Explanation: In polarographic cell when potential is a) Treating sample gas with pressurized oxygen
applied, oxygen is reduced at the cathode. Reduction b) Treating sample gas with ozone
reactions take place at the cathode. KCl is the electrolyte. c) Treating sample gas with oxygen at low pressure
d) Treating sample gas with water at high pressure
9. Polarographic cells are used to measure the partial
pressure of gases only in static gas monitoring systems and Answer: a
not in continuous streams. Explanation: NO is converted into NO2 for analysis in UV
a) True and Visible analyzers by treating sample gas with a) NO Analyser
b) False pressurized oxygen. This is because direct measurement of b) NO2 to NO reduction
NO is not possible using UV and Visible analyzers. c) NO2 remover
Answer: b d) Difference
Explanation: Polarographic cells are not used to measure 4. How is NO converted to NO2 for analysis in
the partial pressure of gases in static gas monitoring Chemiluminescent analyser? Answer: d
systems alone. They can also be used for measuring the a) Treating sample gas with pressurized oxygen Explanation: The unmarked block is Difference. Difference
partial pressure of gases in continuous samples and b) Treating sample gas with ozone between the concentration of NO2 and NO and the
injected samples. c) Treating sample gas with oxygen at low pressure concentration of NO2 alone is determined and the result
d) Treating sample gas with water at high pressure gives the concentration of NO.
10. Polarographic cells used for measuring the partial
pressure of oxygen are temperature-sensitive. Answer: b 8. The instruments based on chemiluminescence maintain
a) True Explanation: NO is converted to NO2 for analysis in linearity in which of the following ranges?
b) False Chemiluminescent analyser by treating sample gas with a) 1ppb to 100ppb
ozone. b) 100ppb to 1000ppb
Answer: a NO + O3 —>NO2 + O2 c) 1ppb to 1000ppb
Explanation: Polarographic cells used for measuring the d) 100ppb to 1000ppb
partial pressure of oxygen are temperature-sensitive. This 5. During analysis of NO2 using Chemiluminescent
is because diffusion co-efficient changes with analyser, why is NO2 not made to react with ozone Answer: c
temperature. directly? Explanation: The instruments based on
a) Less accuracy chemiluminescence maintain linearity between 1ppb to
1000ppb. These are used to measure NO in exhaust gases
in vehicles.
9. How can absorption be enhanced while determining NO
concentration using CO laser?
a) By converting NO into NO2
b) By placing NO in a magnetic field
c) By using proper monochromators
d) By using choppers
Answer: b
Explanation: CO laser emits radiation that can absorb NO.
Absorption is enhanced by placing NO in a magnetic field.
10. Which of the following detectors are generally used for
detection in NO analysis using CO laser?
a) Photomultiplier tube
b) Photovoltaic cell
c) Liquid nitrogen cooled Ge-Au element
d) Photo emissive tube
Answer: c
Explanation: Liquid nitrogen cooled Ge-Au element is used
detection in NO analysis using CO laser. The signal
amplitude varied with the concentration of NO.
11. Which of the following analyzers are used to measure
trace amounts of nitrogen oxides in the stratosphere?
a) Chemiluminescence
b) CO laser method
c) Laser opto-acoustic spectroscopy
d) Colorimetry
Answer: c
Explanation: Laser opto-acoustic spectroscopy is used to
measure trace amounts of nitrogen oxides in the
stratosphere. It was developed for application in air
pollution measurement.
12. A pink coloured dye complex is formed when air
containing NO2 is passed in an absorbing solution
consisting of __________ and diamine dissolved in the
acetic acid medium.
a) Sulphuric acid
b) Sulphonyl
c) Sulphonic acid
d) Sulphanilic acid
Answer: d
Explanation: A pink coloured dye complex is formed when
air containing NO2 is passed in an absorbing solution
consisting of sulphanilic acid and diamine dissolved in the
acetic acid medium. This is called Saltzman method.
13. In Laser Opto-acoustic spectroscopy, the IR beam
excites the molecules to higher states. In which of the
following ways do the molecules return to the ground
state?
a) Collisional de-excitation
b) Random de-excitation
c) By spontaneous emission
d) By stimulated emission
Answer: a
Explanation: The molecules return to the ground state by
collisional de-excitation. This results in an increase in
temperature.
14. To monitor oxides of nitrogen in stack effluents, the
sample containing oxides of nitrogen is passed through a
flask containing solution of H2O2 in sulphuric acid. Nitric
acid is formed. The nitrate ions then react with phenol-
disulphonic acid to produce blue colour.
a)True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The nitrate ions react with phenol-
disulphonic acid to produce yellow colour. This is
measured colorimetrically.
H2S ANALYSERS
1. Which of the following is not an advantage of
electrochemical cells used for analysis of H2S?
a) Portable battery operated instrument
b) Pocket sized instrument
c) No pumps are needed
d) No interference from background gases
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrochemical cells are affected by
interference from background gases. Some of them are
sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitric oxide and
chlorine.
2. Which of the following methods are mainly used in
combustible gas detection equipment?
a) Lead acetate tape staining method
b) Solid state sensor
c) Gold film sensor
d) Electrochemical cells
Answer: b
Explanation: Solid state sensors are mainly used in
combustible gas detection equipment. It is a
semiconductor sensor.
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of solid state
sensor used for analysis of H2S?
a) No sampling system
b) It can be used in conditions involving vibration
c) It can be used in corrosive atmosphere
d) No interference from background gases
Answer: d c) Oxidation-reduction reaction
Explanation: Solid state sensors are affected by d) Change in colour
interference from background gases. Some of them are
hydrogen, isopropanol and ethyl and methyl mercaptan. Answer: c
Explanation: In Electrochemical cells, an oxidation-
4. Which is the compound that forms the stain in Lead reduction reaction occurs in the presence of hydrogen
Acetate Tape Staining method used for the analysis of sulphide. A current starts flowing and it is proportional to
Hydrogen Sulphide and what is the colour of the stain? the concentration of hydrogen sulphide.
a) Lead Sulphide, red colour
b) Lead Sulphide, brown colour 9. Which of the following is not a component of solid state
c) Hydrogen acetate, white colour sensor used for detection of hydrogen sulphide?
d) Hydrogen acetate, green colour a) Heater
b) Thermistor
Answer: b c) Semiconductor film
Explanation: Hydrogen Sulphide reacts with Lead Acetate d) Photo detector
to form Lead Sulphide which is brown in colour. Hydrogen
acetate in other words is acetic acid and is colourless. Answer: d
Explanation: For measuring H2S, the sensor must be
5. Which of the following methods is not used for maintained at a particular temperature. This is done by
detection of hydrogen sulphide? using a heater. The temperature is monitored using a
a) Lead acetate tape staining method thermistor.
b) Solid state sensor
c) Chemiluminescence method 10. The diagram of Electrochemical cell used for the
d) Electrochemical cells detection of hydrogen sulphide is given below. Identify the
unmarked component.
Answer: c
Explanation: Chemiluminescence method cannot be used
for the detection of hydrogen sulphide. Others method
that are used are using photometric analyser and using
gold film sensor.
6. In solid state sensor, when heated to 150o to 300owhich
of the following occurs?
a) Resistance decreases with increase in H2S concentration
b) Resistance increases with H2S concentration
c) No change in resistance occurs
d) Sensor does not respond in this temperature range
Answer: a a) Filter
Explanation: In solid state sensor, when heated to 150oto
b) Gas permeable membrane
300o resistance decreases with increase in H2S
c) Elastic layer
concentration. The decrease in resistance is a logarithmic
d) Electrolyte
function of H2S concentration.
Answer: b
7. In the gold film sensor, the change in resistance is Explanation: The unmarked component is gas permeable
proportional to the concentration of H2S. membrane. Electrochemical cell is an electrochemical gas
a) True diffusion sensor.
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Gold film sensor works on the principle of INFRARED GAS ANALYSERS
absorption. The change in resistance is proportional to the
1. Which of the following is not a detector used in mid
concentration of H2S.
Infrared Spectrophotometer?
8. Which of the following occurs in Electrochemical cells a) Thermopile
used for the detection of hydrogen sulphide? b) Thermistor
a) Change in resistance c) Pyroelectric cell
b) Redox reaction d) Golay cell
Answer: d b) 2-50 Hz 11. Which of the following is not the characteristics of 2. In which of the following conditions can thermal
Explanation: Golay cell is not used in mid Infrared c) 2-100 Hz Indium arsenide photovoltaic detector used in infrared conductivity analyzer be used for multi-component
Spectrophotometer. It is used in a far infrared d) 2-150 Hz analyzers for hydrocarbons? mixtures?
spectrometer. a) It operates at ambient temperature a) When all the components have same thermal
Answer: b b) Has maximum detectivity at 3.4µm conductivities
2. Why is the use of infrared analyzers limited when it Explanation: The chopping frequency used for medical c) Sensitivity increases at longer wavelength b) When all the components have very different thermal
comes to the analysis of inorganic compounds? applications in simple infrared analyser for gas analysis is d) It has no response to radiation of wavelength greater conductivities
a) Slow response occurs 2-50 Hz. The chopper is motor driven. than 4µm c) When all but one component have same thermal
b) Less accurate results occur conductivities
c) Strong absorption of IR radiation by water 7. The movement of diaphragm in simple infrared analyser Answer: c d) When all components have very different thermal
d) Small range for gas analysis results in which of the following? Explanation: The sensitivity of Indium arsenide conductivities except two of them which are the same
a) Variable resistance photovoltaic detector decreases at longer wavelength. It is
Answer: c b) Variable inductance insensitive to radiation having a wavelength greater than Answer: c
Explanation: The use of infrared analyzers is limited when c) Variable capacitance 4µm. Explanation: When all but one component have the same
it comes to the analysis of inorganic compounds because d) Variable conductance thermal conductivities, thermal conductivity analyzer can
of the strong absorption of IR radiation by water. It is 12. Luft detector cell which uses gas as detection be used for multi-component mixtures. The mixture is
particularly used for organic compounds. Answer: c mechanism is not vibration sensitive. then treated as a binary mixture.
Explanation: The movement of diaphragm in simple a) True
3. Which of the following is the chopping frequency used infrared analyser for gas analysis results in variable b) False 3. Which among the following elements has the highest
for industrial analyzers in the simple infrared analyser for apacitance. The diaphragm forms one plate of the thermal conductivity?
gas analysis? capacitor. Answer: b a) Nitrogen
a) 2-10 Hz Explanation: Luft detector cell which uses gas as detection b) Oxygen
b) 2-50 Hz 8. Which of the following is not the drawback of mechanism is vibration sensitive. It is also subject to cross- c) Hydrogen
c) 2-100 Hz conventional infrared analyzers used for gas analysis? talk with other gases. d) Chlorine
d) 2-150 Hz a) Cell is difficult to maintain
b) It is expensive to replace 13. Which kind of filter is used in improved version of Answer: c
Answer: a c) Detector is vibration sensitive infrared gas analyzer at the output end? Explanation: Hydrogen has the highest thermal
Explanation: The chopping frequency used for industrial d) Only one source is used a) Low pass filter conductivity. Chlorine has the lowest thermal conductivity
analysers in the simple infrared analyzer for gas analysis is b) High pass filter in the list.
2-10 Hz. The chopper is motor driven. Answer: d c) Narrow bandpass filter
Explanation: Two sources are used in conventional d) Wide bandpass filter 4. Which of the following materials are generally not used
4. Which of the following is used as a source in the simple infrared analyzers used for gas analysis. To overcome the for the construction of filaments in thermal conductivity
infrared analyzer for gas analysis? drawbacks an improved model was created. Answer: c analyzers?
a) Tungsten filament lamp Explanation: The filter is used in an improved version of a) Tungsten
b) Nernst glower 9. Which of the following is used as detector in improved infrared gas analyzer at the output end is narrow bandpass b) Gold
c) Hot-wire spiral infrared analyzer used for gas analysis? filter. The bandpass characteristics are matched with the c) Platinum
d) Mercury arc lamp a) PbSe absorption spectra of the gas of interest. d) Kovar
b) MgCl2
Answer: c c) ZnCl Answer: b
Explanation: Hot-wire spiral is used as a source in the d) CuCl2 Explanation: Gold is generally not used for the
simple infrared analyzer for gas analysis. Two sources are THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY ANALYSERS
construction of filaments in thermal conductivity
used. Answer: a
1. Thermal conductivity analyzers cannot be used in which analyzers. The materials used have high temperature-
Explanation: PbSe is used as detector in improved infrared
of the following measurements? coefficient of resistance.
5. Vibration excitation occurs only if the sample has analyzer used for gas analysis. It is a solid state detector.
hetero-atomic molecules. a) Hydrogen in blast furnace gases
5. Thermistors have positive temperature-coefficient of
a) True 10. In calibration of CO2 analyser, in order to establish zero b) Determination of argon in oxygen in the process of air
resistance.
b) False calibration which of the following is used as sample? decomposition
a) True
a) Oxygen c) Sulphur dioxide in roasting gases in production of
b) False
Answer: a b) Hydrogen sulphuric acid
Explanation: Vibration excitation occurs only if the sample c) Inert gases d) Oxygen from a mixture of oxygen and nitrogen Answer: b
has hetero-atomic molecules. Hence, infrared analyzers d) Nitrogen Explanation: Thermistors have negative temperature-
are not used for gases whose molecules are formed by two Answer: d
coefficient of resistance. RTDs have positive temperature-
identical atoms. Answer: c Explanation: Thermal conductivity analyzers cannot be
coefficient of resistance.
Explanation: In calibration of CO2 analyser, in order to used in analysing oxygen from a mixture of oxygen and
6. Which of the following is the chopping frequency used establish zero calibration inert gases are used as sample. nitrogen. This is because the thermal conductivity of 6. Which of the following is not the characteristic of
for medical applications in simple infrared analyser for gas Generally, room air is also used. oxygen and nitrogen is almost the same. thermistors used in thermal conductivity analyzers?
analysis? a) High negative temperature coefficient of resistance
a) 2-10 Hz
b) Slow response give rise to changes in thermal conductivity of the gas 5. The use of thermistor eliminates the requirement for amplification is required. The amplified signal is given to
c) Extremely sensitive stream. This principle is used in thermal conductivity amplification. the recorder.
d) Low cost analyzers. a) True
b) False 10. Which of the following is the effective sample volume
Answer: b in analyzers based on gas density?
Explanation: Thermistors have fast response. They are Answer: a a) 10 ml
arranged as heat sensing elements in the Wheatstone ANALYSERS BASED ON GAS DENSITY Explanation: The use of thermistor eliminates the b) 20 ml
bridge. requirement for amplification. Hence, it is generally used c) 5 ml
1. Which of the following is the relationship between the
in analyzers based on gas density. d) 50 ml
7. How can the high speed of response be obtained in density of ideal gas and its molecular weight?
thermal conductivity analyzers? a) Directly proportional 6. In analyzers based on gas density, the unbalance of the Answer: c
a) By increasing the pressure of gas surrounding the b) Inversely proportional bridge is linearly proportional to which of the following? Explanation: The effective sample volume in analyzers
filaments c) Linear a) Temperature of sample detector based on gas density is 5ml. Instruments based on the
b) By reducing the pressure of gas surrounding the d) No relation b) Pressure at sample detector principle of gas-density balance are commercially
filaments c) Pressure difference between both the detectors available.
Answer: c
c) By reducing the temperature of gas surrounding the d) Gas-density difference between both the detectors
Explanation: Density of an ideal gas has a direct linear
filaments
relation with the molecular weight of the gas. Density can Answer: d
d) By increasing the temperature of gas surrounding the
be used to analyse gases. Explanation: In analyzers based on gas density, the METHOD BASED ON IONIZATION OF GASES
filaments
unbalance of the bridge is linearly proportional to a gas-
2. Under which of the following conditions do all real gases 1. Gases emit radiation under which of the following
Answer: b density difference between both the detectors.
behave as ideal gases to some extent? conditions which can be used for determination of gases?
Explanation: High speed of response be obtained in Instruments based on the principle of gas-density balance
a) Low temperature and low pressure a) When mixed with other gases
thermal conductivity analyzers by reducing the pressure of are commercially available.
b) Low temperature and high pressure b) When kept at suitable temperature
gas surrounding the filaments. It is reduced to a few
c) High temperature and low pressure 7. Which of the following bridges are used in analyzers c) With sufficient electrical excitation and at suitable
millimetres of mercury absolute.
d) Room temperature and normal pressure based on gas density? pressures
8. Which of the following bridges are used in thermal a) Wheatstone bridge d) When exposed to radiation
Answer: d
conductivity analyzers? b) Kelvin’s bridge
Explanation: All real gases behave as ideal gases at room Answer: c
a) Wheatstone bridge c) Anderson’s bridge
temperature and normal pressure. Hence, density can be Explanation: Gases emit radiation with sufficient electrical
b) Kelvin’s bridge d) Schering’s bridge
used to analyse gases. excitation and at suitable pressures. Gases emit radiation
c) Anderson’s bridge
Answer: a in different ways. It can be in the form of spark, arc or
d) Schering’s bridge 3. Which of the following detectors are not used in
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is generally used in glow discharge in different parts of the radiation
analyzers based on gas density? spectrum.
Answer: a analyzers based on gas density. Thermistors or hot-wires
a) Hot wire
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is generally used in can be used as detectors.
b) Platinum filament 2. Which of the following measuring technique is utilized
thermal conductivity analyzers. Themistors or hot-wires
c) Thermistor 8. In analyzers based on gas density, if the sample carries a for measuring nitrogen?
can be used as a filament.
d) Thermometer gas having a higher density than the detector which of the a) By using a method based on gas density
9. Which of the following is generally used as indicators in following occurs? b) By using paramagnetic analyzers
Answer: d c) By using magnetic wind instruments
bridges in thermal conductivity analyzers? a) It will cause a net downward flow
Explanation: Thermometer is not used as a detector in d) By using a photospectrometer where a gas sample is
a) Voltmeter b) It will cause a net upward flow
analyzers based on gas density. Thermistors and hot wires analysed and detected with a photocell
b) Ammeter c) It splits into two beams
are generally used.
c) Galvanometer d) There will be no difference in flow
Answer: d
d) Wattmeter 4. When would the recorder indicate a zero base line in
Answer: a Explanation: By using a photospectrometer gas sample is
analyzers based on gas density? analysed, for measuring nitrogen. It is then selectively
Answer: c Explanation: In analyzers based on gas density, if the
a) When the detector on the sample side is cooler than filtered by using a photocell which provides an appropriate
Explanation: Galvanometer is generally used as an sample carries a gas having a higher density than the
that on the reference side electric signal.
indicator in bridges in thermal conductivity analyzers. The detector it will cause a net downward flow. It will obstruct
b) When the detector on the reference side is cooler than
galvanometer reading is a measure of the thermal flow in the lower path.
that on the sample side 3. The characteristic emission of which colour, when
conductivity of the gas.
c) When flow is unbalanced 9. When hot-wires are used as detectors amplification is discharge takes place in a low pressure chamber
10. Changes in the composition of gas stream give rise to d) When both the detectors are equally cooled not required. containing gas sample, will indicate the presence of
changes in thermal conductivity of the gas stream. a) True nitrogen while using photospectrometer?
Answer: d a) Purple
a) True b) False
Explanation: The recorder indicates a zero base line in b) Blue
b) False
analyzers based on gas density when a flow is balanced. Answer: b c) Pink
Answer: a When a flow is balanced both the detectors are equally Explanation: When hot-wires are used as detectors d) Green
Explanation: Changes in the composition of gas stream cooled.
Answer: a a) By modifying the amplifier b) Hydrogen peroxide d) Gas chromatography
Explanation: The characteristic emission of purple colour, b) By adjusting the needle valve c) Iodine View Answer
when discharge takes place in a low pressure chamber c) By modifying the detector d) Formaldehyde
containing gas sample, will indicate the presence of d) By changing chopper frequency View Answer Answer: c
nitrogen while using photospectrometer. These are usually View Answer Explanation: The ability of sulphur dioxide to reduce iodine
employed in medical applications. Answer: b is used in Coulometry method to measure sulphur dioxide.
Answer: b Explanation: The conductivitimetry method, involves The mass of I2 reacted per unit time will indicate the
4. Sample rates of nitrogen meter can be adjusted by Explanation: Nitrogen can be calibrated for dry gases by bubbling sulphur dioxide through a solution containing amount of sulphur dioxide.
doing which of the following? adjusting the needle valve. In this way, the error will be sulphuric acid and hydrogen peroxide. It results in the
a) By modifying the amplifier compensated. formation of sulphuric acid. 7. Which of the following materials are used as electrodes
b) With the help of the needle valve in the coulometric method for the measurement of
c) By modifying the detector 9. The voltage required for striking the discharge in the 3. Which of the following are not the characteristics of sulphur dioxide?
d) By changing chopper frequency presence of nitrogen is 1500V. conductivitimetry method used to measure sulphur a) Gold
a) True dioxide? b) Silver
Answer: b b) False a) Fast response c) Platinum
Explanation: Sample rates of nitrogen meter can be b) High sensitivity d) Nickel
adjusted with the help of a needle valve. Modern nitrogen Answer: a c) Free from interference by other gases View Answer
analyzers have digital displays. Explanation: The voltage required for striking the d) Good accuracy
discharge in the presence of nitrogen is 1500V. This View Answer Answer: c
5. Which of the following is the normal sampling rate used voltage is generated using a DC-DC converter. Explanation: In Coulometric arrangement, the electrodes
in nitrogen meters? Answer: c are made of platinum. These act as the anode and the
a) 13 ml/min 10. The light output from the discharge tube is interrupted Explanation: Conductivitimetry instruments are affected cathode.
b) 33 ml/min by means of a rotating slotted disc. by other gases and they cause interference. The other
c) 3 ml/min a) True gases may produce or remove ions in the solution. 8. Which of the following is the detection limit of the
d) 43 ml/min b) False coulometric method used for measurement of sulphur
4. Which of the following are not the characteristics of dioxide?
Answer: c Answer: a colorimetry method used to monitor sulphur dioxide? a) 0.1 ppm
Explanation: The normal sampling rate used in nitrogen Explanation: The light output from the discharge tube is a) It is simple b) 1 ppm
meters is 3 ml/min. Modern nitrogen analyzers have interrupted by means of a rotating slotted disc. Hence, a b) It has high sensitivity c) 2 ppm
digital displays. chopped output is obtained. c) It has good specificity d) 0.01 ppm
d) It is affected by interference from H2SO4, SO3, NH3, etc View Answer
6. Nitrogen meters are calibrated for which of the View Answer
following to measure nitrogen? Answer: d
POLLUTION MONITORING INSTRUMENTS
a) Mixture of nitrogen and air Answer: d Explanation: The detection limit of the coulometric
b) Water saturated mixture of nitrogen and oxygen SULPHUR DI-OXIDE MONITORING Explanation: Colorimetry method is free from by the method is 0.01 ppm. The shift in anode cathode potential
c) Mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen interference due to other gases such as It is affected by is detected by a third electrode.
d) Nitrogen 1. In West-Gaeke colourimetric procedure, the intensity of interference from H2SO4, SO3, NH3, etc. Colour intensity is
the red purple colour is measured photometically and it is sensitive to temperature. 9. Sensitivity to total sulphur by Flame-photometric
Answer: b proportional to the concentration of sulphur dioxide. What detector is which of the following levels?
Explanation: Nitrogen meters are calibrated for water is the red purple coloured compound? 5. Which of the following is not true about using gas a) 0.1 ppm
saturated mixture of nitrogen and oxygen. Hence, this a) Sodium tetra chloromercurate chromatography for measuring pollutants in the air? b) 1 ppm
calibration cannot be used for dry gases. b) Dicholorosulphitomercurate complex a) Pollutants react rapidly in the column c) 2 ppm
c) Ammonia molybdate b) Pollutants may not be detected by the detectors d) 0.01 ppm
7. Why is nitrogen meters generally not calibrated for dry c) Special column and support materials are required View Answer
d) Paraosaniline sulphonic acid
gases while measuring nitrogen? d) Pollutants may elude rapidly from the column
View Answer
a) It causes error View Answer Answer: d
b) Range decreases Ans: d Explanation: Sensitivity to total sulphur by Flame-
c) Reading tend to be non-linear Explanation: Sulphur dioxide reacts with Sodium tetra Answer: d photometric detector is 0.01 ppm. Here, sample air is
d) It cannot be measured chloromercurate to form Dicholorosulphitomercurate Explanation: Most of the pollutants are extreme reactive introduced into a hydrogen-rich air flame.
View Answer complex which then reacts with formaldehyde and materials. Hence, they may not pass through the column
and appear at the detector. 10. Which of the following methods are not used for the
pararosaniline to form Parapsaniline sulphonic acid which
Answer: a measurement of sulphur dioxide?
is red purple coloured.
Explanation: Nitrogen meters are generally not calibrated 6. The ability of sulphur dioxide to reduce iodine is used in a) Colorimetric method
for dry gases because it will lead to error in the reading. 2. The conductivitimetry method, involves bubbling which of the following methods? b) Correlation spectroscopy
The error will be up to 2%. sulphur dioxide through a solution containing sulphuric a) Colorimetry c) Paramagnetic analyzers
acid and which of the following? b) Conductivitimetry d) Flame-photometry
8. In which of the following ways can nitrogen be c) Coulometry View Answer
a) Water
calibrated for dry gases?
Answer: c the saw-tooth waveform. Current is recorded every 15 Answer: b 6. Which of the following is the wavelength at which CO
Explanation: Sulphur di-oxide cannot be analysed using minutes. Explanation: NO can be analysed by converting it into laser operates?
paramagnetic analyzer. This is because sulphur dioxide NO2 and passing it through potassium permanganate. The a) 1.005 µm
does not have paramagnetic property. 14. In the conductivitimetric method, to measure the main disadvantage of this method is that the dye formed is b) 5.307 µm
conductivity of the cell, 5V ___________ is applied across unstable. Hence, it is not suitable for a collection of 24 c) 4.952 µm
11. Which of the following is the wavelength of the the electrodes. hours sample. d) 6.179 µm
radiation generated when an air stream containing sulphur a) DC View Answer
dioxide is burned in a hydrogen-rich flame? b) AC 3. In Jacob-Hochheiser method, NO2 is passed through a
a) 243 nm c) Pulsating DC dilute solution of sodium hydroxide forming the nitrite ion. Answer: b
b) 394 nm d) DC or AC The nitrite ion is reacted with sulphanilamide and ethylene Explanation: CO laser operates at a wavelength of 5.307
c) 467 nm View Answer diamine in which of the following to form the highly µm. It is a DC-excited continuous working laser.
d) 516 nm coloured azo dye?
View Answer Answer: b a) Sulphuric acid 7. CO laser is operated at liquid nitrogen temperature.
Explanation: In the conductivitimetric method, to measure b) Hydrochloric acid a) True
Answer: b the conductivity of the cell, 5V alternating current is c) Nitric acid b) False
Explanation: The wavelength of the radiation generated applied across the electrodes. This is because alternating d) Phosphoric acid View Answer
when an air stream containing sulphur dioxide is burned in current avoids polarisation. View Answer
a hydrogen-rich flame is 394 mm. A narrow band Answer: a
interference filter is used to shield radiations with all other 15. The response of coulometric method is instantaneous. Answer: d Explanation: CO laser is operated at liquid nitrogen
wavelengths. a) True Explanation: In Jacob-Hochheiser method, NO2 is passed temperature. It is a DC-excited continuous working laser.
b) False through a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide to form the
12. Given below, is the diagram of Ultraviolet Fluorescence View Answer 8. The chemiluminescence reactor with ozonator is specific
nitrite ion. The nitrite ion is treated with sulphanilamide
method. Identify the unmarked component. to which of the following compounds?
and ethylene diamine in phosphoric acid to form the
Answer: b a) N2
highly coloured azo dye. Then, colorimetric analysis is
Explanation: The response of coulometric method is not b) NO
done.
instantaneous. It may take about 4 minutes for 90 percent c) NO2
of the signal to appear for any concentration of SO2. 4. Which of the following methods results in the formation d) N2O
of yellow coloured compound? View Answer
a) Griess-Saltzman method
Answer: b
ESTIMATION OF NITROGEN OXIDES b) Phenoldisul phonoic acid method
Explanation: The chemiluminescence reactor with
c) Chemiluminescence method
ozonator is specific to NO. Here, the sample containing NO
1. In Saltzman method, which of the following are formed d) West-Gaeke method
is converted into NO2 by the ozonator.
when air containing NO2 is passed in an absorbing solution View Answer
a) Filter consisting of the sulphanilic acid and diamine dissolved in 9. In which of the following ways can chemiluminescence
the acetic acid medium? Answer: b
b) Electronic circuit occur in compounds of nitrogen?
a) Blue colour dye complex Explanation: Phenoldisul phonoic acid method results in
c) Supply a) When NO2 returns to ground state from excited state
b) Green colour dye complex the formation of yellow coloured compound. The intensity
d) Fluorescence chamber b) When NO reacts with oxygen
c) Pink colour dye complex of the colour is measured to determine the concentration
View Answer c) When NO reacts with ozone
d) Orange colour dye complex of NOx.
d) When NO2 is reduced to NO
Answer: d View Answer View Answer
5. Which of the following is the most common application
Explanation: The unmarked block is Fluorescence of Chemiluminescence method used for the analysis of
chamber. Here, fluorescence of SO2 is emitted. Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: In Saltzman method, a pink colour dye is Nitrogen oxides?
Explanation: When NO2 returns to ground state from
formed when air containing NO2 is passed in an absorbing a) In medical applications
13. In conductivitimetric method, the concentration of excited state, chemiluminescence occurs. NO2 in excited
solution consisting of the sulphanilic acid and diamine b) In automotive exhaust gases
sulphur dioxide is proportional to which of the following state returns to ground state with the emission of radiant
dissolved in the acetic acid medium. It is sensitive in the c) In manufacturing processes
parameters of the saw-tooth waveform? energy.
ppm range. d) In chemical industries
a) Average voltage
View Answer 10. West-Gaeke colorimetric method is used to analyse
b) Peak voltage
c) Slope 2. NO can be analysed by converting it into NO2 and oxides of nitrogen.
passing it through potassium permanganate. Which of the Answer: b
d) RMS voltage a) True
following is the main disadvantage of this method? Explanation: The most common application of
View Answer b) False
a) Less accuracy Chemiluminescence method used for the analysis of
View Answer
b) Dye formed is unstable Nitrogen oxides is to measure the amount of NO in
Answer: c
c) Dye formed is colourless automotive exhaust gases. Chemiluminescence occurs due Answer: b
Explanation: In conductivitimetric method, the
d) Quantity of dye is low to the formation of new chemical bonds. Explanation: West-Gaeke colorimetric method is not used
concentration of sulphur dioxide is proportional to slope of
View Answer to analyse oxides of nitrogen. It is used to analyse sulphur
dioxide.
ESTIMATION OF CARBON MONOXIDE the characteristic absorption of the CO molecule at a b) False c) Carbon monoxide
wavelength of 4.6 µm. View Answer d) Sulphur dioxide
1. Which of the following is the full scale range of Infrared View Answer
spectroscopy method used for measurement of carbon 5. The zero of the scale is calibrated using which of the Answer: b
monoxide? following as the sample? Explanation: Hydrogen flame ionization detector can be Answer: b
a) 0-2 ppm a) Air used to detect the peak of both CO and methane. The Explanation: Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to
b) 0-500 ppm b) Water accuracy is about 2%. methane since they are sensitive to organic compounds.
c) 0-1 ppm c) Inert gas They are insensitive to non-combustible gases. Hence,
d) 0-50 ppm d) Pure nitrogen 10. CO analyzers based on infrared absorption would give they are not sensitive to carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide
View Answer View Answer greater sensitivity under which of the following and sulphur dioxide.
conditions?
Answer: d Answer: d a) With larger cell path lengths 4. How can carbon monoxide be detected using flame
Explanation: The full scale range of Infrared spectroscopy Explanation: The zero of the scale is calibrated using pure b) With smaller cell path lengths ionization detectors while using gas chromatography
method used for measurement of carbon monoxide is 0- nitrogen as the sample. Optical filters are used to minimize c) By changing the gases in the reference cell technique?
50 ppm. It depends on the characteristic absorption of the the effects of interfering gases. d) By increasing the sample flow rate a) By converting it into carbon dioxide
CO molecule at a particular wavelength. View Answer b) By converting it into methane
6. The disadvantage of Non-dispersive infrared analyzer is c) By mixing it with combustible gases
2. Which of the following is the full scale range of Gas that the effect of flow rate is large. Answer: a d) It cannot be detected
chromatography method used for measurement of carbon a) True Explanation: CO analyzers based on infrared absorption View Answer
monoxide? b) False would give greater sensitivity with larger cell path lengths.
a) 0-200 ppm View Answer If 1m path length is given, the range is from 0 to 50ppm. Answer: b
b) 0-500 ppm Explanation: Carbon monoxide cannot be detected directly
c) 0-1 ppm Answer: b using flame ionization detectors while using gas
d) 0-50 ppm Explanation: In Non-dispersive infrared analyzer, the effect chromatography technique. Hence, it is converted into
of flow rate is small. Optical filters are used to minimize ESTIMATION OF HYDROCARBONS
View Answer methane and is then detected.
the effects of interfering gases.
1. Which of the following methods cannot be used for the
Answer: a 5. Which of the following organic compounds will have the
7. A stripper column used in gas chromatography, can be estimation of hydrocarbons?
Explanation: The full scale range of Gas chromatography highest intensity of response when introduced in a flame
used to retain which of the following when an air sample is a) Mass spectroscopy
method used for measurement of carbon monoxide is 0- ionization detector?
passed through it? b) Chemiluminescence method
200 ppm. The detector used in this method is a flame a) Methane
a) CO c) Ultraviolet absorption
ionization detector. b) Ethane
b) Methane d) Gas chromatography
c) Propane
3. Which of the following are not the characteristics of c) Light hydrocarbons View Answer
d) Butane
Non-dispersive infrared analyzer method? d) Heavy hydrocarbons View Answer
Answer: b
a) Easy to maintain View Answer
Explanation: Chemiluminescence method cannot be used
b) High response speed Answer: d
Answer: d for the estimation of hydrocarbons. This is because
c) Effect of interfering components is high Explanation: Butane will have the highest intensity of
Explanation: A stripper column can be used to retain heavy hydrocarbons do not produce chemiluminescence effect.
d) High sensitivity response when introduced in a flame ionization detector.
View Answer hydrocarbons when an air sample is passed through it. It This is because the intensity of response will be in
2. Which of the following is the most abundant
passes CO and methane into the column. proportion with the number of carbon atoms in the chain.
hydrocarbon which is emitted into the atmosphere by
Answer: c
8. Which of the following is not a component of the biological activity?
Explanation: Effect of interfering components is small for 6. Propane would give three times the intensity of
mixture present in the reference cell of Non-dispersive a) Ethane
Non-dispersive infrared analyzer method. It depends on response as compared to methane.
infrared analyzer? b) Methane
the characteristic absorption of the CO molecule at a a) True
a) CO c) Poly Aromatic hydrocarbons
particular wavelength. b) False
b) Nitrogen d) Pentane
View Answer
4. Non-dispersive infrared analyzer depends on the c) Water vapour View Answer
characteristic absorption of the CO molecule at a d) Hydrogen Answer: a
Answer: b
wavelength of __________ View Answer Explanation: Propane would give three times the intensity
Explanation: The most abundant hydrocarbon which is
a) 5.4 µm of response as compared to methane. This is because the
Answer: d emitted into the atmosphere by biological activity is
b) 4.6 µm intensity of response will be in proportion with the
Explanation: The reference cell contains a fixed quantity of methane. It is also emitted by automobile exhausts,
c) 8.9 µm number of carbon atoms in the chain.
gases. It contains CO, nitrogen and water vapour. burning of coal, etc.
d) 10.8 µm
View Answer 7. In flame ionization detectors, which of the following is
9. Hydrogen flame ionization detector can be used to 3. Flame ionization detectors are sensitive to which of the
the range adequate for atmospheric sampling?
detect only the peak of CO and not methane. following gases?
Answer: b a) 0-1 ppm
a) True a) Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Non-dispersive infrared analyzer depends on b) 0-2 ppm
b) Methane
c) 0-20 ppm d) -log2[H+] 6. The Nernst equation is given by which of the following Answer: b
d) 0-100 ppm View Answer statements? Explanation: Slope factor is dependent on temperature.
View Answer a) E=Eo + 2.303 RT/F log CH Slope factor is given by – 2.303 RT/F.
Answer: b b) E=Eo – 2.303 RT/F log CH
Answer: c Explanation: pH is defined as the negative logarithm of c) E=Eo + 2.303 RT×F log CH
Explanation: In flame ionization detectors, the range hydrogen ion concentration. Hence, its formula is - d) E=Eo – 2.303 RT×F log CH
adequate for atmospheric sampling is 0-20ppm. It is useful log10[H+]. HYDROGEN AND GLASS ELECTRODES
View Answer
for detecting organic compounds.
2. Pure water is known to be which of the following? 1. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a
Answer: a
8. Which of the following methods make use of pyrolysis a) Weak electrolyte reference electrode?
Explanation: The Nernst equation is represented as, E=Eo +
while used for detecting methane? b) Strong electrolyte a) It must have a known output potential
2.303 RT/F log CH. it is used for measuring the potential of
a) Mass spectroscopy c) Neither weak nor strong b) It must have a constant output potential
electrodes.
b) Flame ionization detector d) Not an electrolyte c) Its output potential is dependent on the composition of
c) Ultraviolet absorption View Answer 7. Which of the following is the relation between the the solution
d) Gas chromatography concentration of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in an acidic d) It is employed in conjunction with the indicator or
View Answer Answer: a solution? working electrode
Explanation: Pure water is a weak electrolyte. It dissociates a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is greater View Answer
Answer: b to form hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions. b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is greater
Explanation: Flame ionization detector makes use of Answer: c
c) They are both always the same
pyrolysis while used for detecting methane. It is used to 3. Which of the following is the value of hydrogen ion Explanation: The output potential of a reference electrode
d) The concentrations keep changing
detect organic compounds. concentration of pure water? must be insensitive to the composition of the solution.
View Answer
a) 1×107 moles/litre
9. In flame ionization detector, the ions collected on the b) 1×105 moles/litre 2. Why is Standard hydrogen electrode called as the
Answer: a
negatively charged grid are amplified at the high c) 1×106 moles/litre primary reference electrode?
Explanation: In acidic solution, the value of hydrogen ion
impedance amplifier. d) 1×108 moles/litre a) It has a known output potential
concentration is greater than that of hydroxyl ion
a) True View Answer b) It has a constant output potential
concentration. It can be represented as [H+]>[OH-].
b) False c) Its output potential is independent of the composition
View Answer Answer: a 8. Which of the following is the relation between the of the solution
Explanation: The hydrogen ion concentration of pure concentration of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in a basic d) Its output potential is zero volts
Answer: b water is 1×107 moles/litre. It can be represented as solution? View Answer
Explanation: In flame ionization detector, the ions [H+]=1×107 moles/litre. a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is greater
collected on the positively charged grid are amplified at Answer: d
b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is greater
the high impedance amplifier. Its output is given to the 4. Which of the following is the value of hydroxyl ion Explanation: Standard hydrogen electrode is called the
c) They are both always the same
chart recorder. concentration of pure water? primary reference electrode as its output potential is zero
d) The concentrations keep changing
a) 1×107 moles/litre volts. It is employed in conjunction with the indicator or
View Answer
10. Which of the following is not the characteristic of b) 1×105 moles/litre working electrode.
flame ionization detector? c) 1×106 moles/litre Answer: b
a) Good linearity d) 1×108 moles/litre 3. Which of the following is the simple and most
Explanation: In basic solution, the value of hydroxyl ion
b) Narrow range of concentration View Answer convenient hydrogen electrode?
concentration is greater than that of hydrogen ion
c) High sensitivity a) Pascal Hydrogen electrode
concentration. It can be represented as [H+]<[OH-].
d) Fast response Answer: a b) Bourne Hydrogen electrode
View Answer Explanation: The hydroxyl ion concentration of pure water 9. The measurement of hydrogen ion concentration can be c) Hilderbant Hydrogen electrode
is 1×107 moles/litre. It can be represented as [OH- made by measuring the potential developed in an d) West Hydrogen electrode
Answer: b ]=1×107 moles/litre. electrochemical cell. View Answer
Explanation: Narrow range of concentration is not the a) True
characteristic of flame ionization detector. It has a broad 5. Which of the following is the relation between hydrogen Answer: c
b) False
range of concentration. and hydroxyl ion concentration of pure water? Explanation: The hydrogen electrode given by Hilderbant is
View Answer
a) Value of hydrogen ion concentration is greater the simple and most convenient hydrogen electrode. A
b) Value of hydroxyl ion concentration is greater Answer: a number of hydrogen electrodes are available.
c) They are both always the same Explanation: The measurement of hydrogen ion
pH METERS AND ION ANALYSERS d) The concentrations keep changing 4. Which of the following is not the disadvantage of
concentration can be made by measuring the potential
View Answer hydrogen electrode?
pH MEASUREMENT AND TYPES developed in an electrochemical cell.
a) Platinum can be easily poisoned
Answer: c 10. Slope factor is independent of temperature. b) Presence of oxidising agents alters the potential
1. Which of the following is the formula for pH calculation?
Explanation: In water, the value of hydrogen and hydroxyl a) True c) It gives a salt error
a) log10[H+]
ion concentrations are the same. It can be represented as b) False d) H2 gas at 1 atmospheric pressure is difficult to set up
b) -log10[H+]
[H+]=[OH-]. View Answer and transport
c) log2[H+]
View Answer
Answer: c d) Helium at 10 atm 13. Which of the following is not the advantage of glass SECONDARY REFERENCE ELECTRODES
Explanation: Hydrogen electrode does not give a salt error. View Answer electrodes?
A number of hydrogen electrodes are available. a) It gives accurate results for high as well as low pH values 1. Which of the following cannot be used as secondary
Answer: a b) It is simple to operate reference electrode?
5. In Hydrogen electrode, the electrode is placed in a Explanation: Hydrogen at 1 atm is sent through the side c) It has no salt error a) Calomel electrode
solution of ____ M Hcl. Fill in the blank. tube. The electrode is placed in a solution of 1M Hcl. d) Modern electrodes can withstand severe treatment b) Silver-silver chloride electrode
a) 0.5 View Answer c) Mercury-mercury sulphate electrode
b) 1 9. The composition of glass membrane in glass electrode d) Glass electrode
c) 2 cannot have which of the following? Answer: a View Answer
d) 3 a) Sodium silicate Explanation: It gives accurate results for low pH values
View Answer b) Calcium silicate only ie. from 0 to 9. For high pH values, the glass becomes Answer: d
c) Lithium silicate responsive to sodium and other cations. Explanation: Glass electrode cannot be used as secondary
Answer: b d) Barium silicate reference electrode. It is an indicator electrode. It
Explanation: In Hydrogen electrode, the electrode is View Answer 14. Which of the following is not the disadvantage of glass responds to the changes in the activity of the analyte ion.
placed in a solution of 1M Hcl. H2 gas at 1 atm pressure is electrodes?
passed through the side arm in such a way that the Answer: d a) Poor readings are obtained in buffered or unbuffered 2. Which of the following is known as calomel?
platinum is half immersed in Hcl. Explanation: Glass electrode consists of either sodium or solutions a) Silver chloride
calcium silicate or lithium silicates containing glass b) The electrode must be washed thoroughly with distilled b) Mercury chloride
6. Hydrogen electrode which is the reference electrode membrane. It has lanthanum and barium ions added to water to obtain proper results c) Potassium chloride
can be used as which of the following? the membrane. c) Materials suspended on glass should be wiped out d) Mercury sulphate
a) Anode only neatly to obtain proper results View Answer
b) Cathode only 10. Which of the following is the purpose of added
d) It is affected by oxidation reduction potentials in the
c) Anode or Cathode membranes in the glass membrane of the glass electrode? Answer: b
solution
d) Salt bridge a) They act as tightners Explanation: Mercury chloride is known as calomel. The
View Answer
View Answer b) They act as filters most important general purpose secondary electrode is
c) They act as conditioners Answer: d calomel electrode.
Answer: c d) They act as collectors Explanation: It is affected by oxidation reduction
Explanation: Hydrogen electrode which is the reference View Answer 3. The calomel electrodes are classified based on which of
potentials in the solution. It is an advantage of the glass
electrode can be used as the anode or the cathode. It the following?
electrode.
depends on the half-cell to which it is coupled. Answer: a a) Materials used in the electrode
Explanation: The ions in the added membranes act as 15. Given below is the diagram of glass electrode. Identify b) Amount of mercury present
7. If hydrogen electrode acts as cathode, hydrogen is tightners. They reduce the mobility of sodium ion. the unmarked component. c) Concentration of Kcl
reduced. d) Purity of mercury
a) True 11. Which of the following cannot form the inner View Answer
b) False reference electrode in glass electrodes?
View Answer a) Silver electrode Answer: c
b) Copper electrode Explanation: Several convenient calomel electrodes are
Answer: a c) Calomel electrode available. They are classified based on the concentration
Explanation: If hydrogen electrode acts as cathode, d) Silver chloride electrode of Kcl.
hydrogen is reduced. If hydrogen electrode acts as anode, View Answer
hydrogen is oxidised. 4. Which of the following calomel electrodes are used for
Answer: b accurate work?
8. Given below is a diagram of hydrogen electrode. Explanation: Copper electrode cannot form the inner a) Saturated calomel electrode
Identify the unmarked component. reference electrode in glass electrodes. Inner reference b) Electrode with 0.1M Kcl
electrode is immersed in a buffer solution. c) Electrode with 1M Kcl
d) Electrode with 2M Kcl
12. The pH response of glass electrode is limited entirely a) Platinum leads View Answer
to the area of the special glass membrane bulb. b) Silver wire coated with silver chloride
a) True c) Copper wire Answer: b
b) False d) Platinum reference electrode Explanation: Calomel electrode with 0.1M Kcl is used for
View Answer View Answer accurate work. Saturated calomel electrodes are easy to
prepare and maintain.
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The pH response of glass electrode is limited Explanation: The unmarked component is silver wire 5. Calomel electrode can behave as which of the following
entirely to the area of the special glass membrane bulb. coated with silver chloride. It forms the inner reference components?
a) Hydrogen at 1 atm The response of the electrode is independent of the depth electrode. a) Anode only
b) Hydrogen at 10 atm of immersion. b) Cathode only
c) Helium at 1 atm c) Anode or cathode
d) Salt bridge 9. While using reference electrodes, the internal liquid d) pH4 wide temperature range. The temperature range is
View Answer level should always be kept above that of the sample View Answer between -5 to 100oC.
solution.
Answer: c a) True Answer: d 11. In combination electrodes, both the electrodes must
Explanation: Calomel electrode can behave as anode or b) False Explanation: Good choice for storing combination be maintained at different temperatures.
cathode depending upon the half cell. A salt bridge is used View Answer electrodes is in a buffer solution having pH4. They can be a) True
for coupling. stored in KCl solutions having particular pH values. b) False
Answer: a View Answer
6. When the calomel electrode acts as the cathode which Explanation: While using reference electrodes, the internal 7. The gel used in combination electrodes does not have
of the following does not occur? liquid level should always be kept above that of the which of the following characteristic? Answer: b
a) Mercury ions are discharged at the electrode sample solution. This is done to prevent contamination of a) Non-toxic Explanation: In combination electrodes, both the
b) More calomel passes into the solution the electrolyte solution. b) USP grade electrodes must be maintained at the same temperature.
c) There is a decrease in the concentration of chloride ions c) Inorganic material Measuring error due to small temperature differences
d) There is an increase in the concentration of chloride 10. Which of the following salt bridge solutions must be d) Polyacrylamide between the buffer solution and the sample are negligible.
ions used for silver/silver chloride electrode? View Answer
View Answer a) Saturated KCl
b) Saturated K2SO4 Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: The gel used in combination electrodes is pH METERS
c) Saturated LiCl
Explanation: When the calomel electrode acts as the d) Saturated KNO3 organic. It can also be made of polyacrylamide.
1. pH meters can be considered as voltage sources with
cathode. When the calomel electrode acts as the cathode, View Answer
8. Beckman coulter gel filled combination electrodes which of the following internal resistances?
mercury ions are discharged at the electrode. More
provide which of the following features to overcome a) Very low resistance
calomel passes into the solution. Hence, there is an Answer: a
various problems that occur in gel filled electrodes? b) Moderate resistance
increase in the concentration of chloride ions. Explanation: Saturated KCl is used as the salt bridge
a) Filters c) Very high resistance
solution for silver/silver chloride electrode. It can also be
7. Which of the following is not the characteristics of a b) Semi-permeable membrane d) No resistance
used for calomel electrode.
calomel electrode? c) Gas-permeable membrane View Answer
a) The potential of electrode is not temperature 11. LiCl salt bridge is more suitable in organic solvents than d) Micro-pore junction
Answer: c
dependent KCl. View Answer
Explanation: pH meters can be considered as voltage
b) Preparation of electrode is easy a) True
Answer: d sources with very high internal resistance. In order to
c) Value of potential or emf is higher for lower b) False
Explanation: Beckman coulter gel filled combination eliminate errors, no current should flow from the source.
concentration of Kcl View Answer
d) Value of potential decreases with increasing electrode provides a special micro-pore junction to
2. The electrodes used in pH measurement have which of
concentration of Kcl Answer: a overcome various problems that occur in gel filled
the following internal resistances?
View Answer Explanation: LiCl salt bridge is more suitable in organic electrodes. Here, there is direct contact between the
a) Very low resistance
solvents than KCl. It is used for the measurement of non- sample and the gel.
b) Moderate resistance
Answer: a aqueous solutions.
9. In which of the following solutions must combination c) Very high resistance
Explanation: The potential of calomel electrode is
electrodes be soaked after cleaning? d) No resistance
temperature dependent. When temperature changes
a) KCl View Answer
potential comes to a new value. It cannot be used in places
COMBINATION ELECTRODE b) LiCl
where high temperatures exist. Answer: c
c) KNO3
5. Which of the following is not the advantage of gel-filled Explanation: The electrodes used in pH measurement have
8. Which of the following is not the characteristics of d) K2SO4
electrodes? very high internal resistance. It is of the order of 1000M
silver/silver chloride electrode? View Answer
a) Low maintenance ohm.
a) These electrodes have good electrical and chemical
b) Rugged in construction Answer: a
stability 3. Which of the following is not a failure in pH meters?
c) Easy to maintain Explanation: Combination electrodes can be soaked in KCl
b) It can be used in temperatures greater than 600oC a) Defective electrodes
d) Does not cause clogging solution after cleaning. This will re-condition the bulb and
c) It can be used in places or solutions that have strong b) Defective input circuitry
View Answer increases its life.
reducing agents c) Defective electronic circuitry
d) It should not be used in solutions that contain proteins, Answer: d d) Defective calibration
10. Gel filled combination electrodes operate in a wide
sulphide or bromide Explanation: Gel-filled electrodes cause clogging. Hence, View Answer
temperature range.
View Answer the output becomes less accurate. a) True
Answer: d
Answer: c b) False
6. Good choice for storing combination electrodes is in a Explanation: Defective calibration is not a failure in pH
Explanation: The silver/silver chloride electrode cannot be View Answer
buffer solution having which of the following pH? meters. Failure occurs due to defective electrodes,
used in places or solutions that have strong reducing a) pH1 defective input circuitry and defective electronic circuitry.
Answer: a
agents. They will reduce the silver ions to silver metal. b) pH2 Explanation: Gel filled combination electrodes operate in a
c) pH3
4. Which of the following is the simplest of pH meters? d) It requires balancing process constant and stable the following ions?
a) Null-detector type pH meter View Answer View Answer a) Sodium
b) Direct reading type pH meter b) Hydrogen
c) Digital pH meter Answer: d Answer: d c) Nitrogen
d) Modern pH meter Explanation: Direct reading type pH meters do not require Explanation: In vibrating condenser amplifier type pH d) Chlorine
View Answer balancing process. Its operation is simple and readings can meter, to maintain good performance, both frequency and View Answer
be read directly. amplitude of the vibrator should be constant and stable.
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Null-detector type pH meter is the simplest of 9. Which of the following is not the characteristic of 13. If an instrument fails to balance at zero, it is most likely Explanation: In glass membrane electrode, the glass
all pH meters. It is also known as the potentiometer type. chopper amplifier pH meter? that the electrodes are defective. containing 11% Na2O, 18% Al2O3, 71% SiO2 is highly
a) Direct voltage from the electrodes is chopped at the a) True sensitive to sodium ions. Glass electrodes can be used to
5. In which of the following ways can zero drift be reduced main frequency b) False measure various ions by changing the glass membrane
in pH meters? b) Using choppers for high-input resistance gives rise to View Answer composition.
a) Using filter spikes of waveforms at the output
b) Giving zero adjustment arrangement c) It leads to stability in DC output of phase-sensitive Answer: b 3. In liquid membrane electrode, the liquid ion exchanger
c) Keeping the input impedance high rectifier Explanation: If an instrument fails to balance at zero, it is is held in a porous disc of _____________
d) Using balanced and differential amplifiers d) Magnitude of surge increases in the glass electrode most likely that the electronic circuitry is defective. Errors a) Solid material
View Answer output may also occur due to leakage of capacitance. b) Semi-permeable membrane
View Answer c) Hydrophobic material
Answer: d 14. Given below is the block diagram of digital pH meter.
d) Water absorbing material
Explanation: Zero drift be reduced in pH meters using Answer: c Identify the unmarked component.
View Answer
balanced and differential amplifiers. Their response to Explanation: The use of chopper amplifier in pH meter
external signals are additive and to internal noise are leads to zero instability. It leads to various other problems Answer: c
subtractive. for high-input resistance. Explanation: In a liquid membrane electrode, the liquid ion
exchanger is held in a porous disc of hydrophobic material.
6. Which of the following can be used to provide 10. In which of the following ways can the disadvantages It is water repelling material.
automatic temperature compensation? of chopper amplifier type pH meter be overcome?
a) Proper insulation a) Using zero corrected DC amplifier 4. In recent liquid membrane electrodes, the porous liquid
b) Calibration for different temperatures b) Using modern design membrane is replaced with which of the following?
c) Thermistor c) Using digital design a) Filter a) Polyvinyl chloride
d) Thermometer d) Using vibrating condenser b) Buffer b) Polyacryl chloride
View Answer View Answer c) A/D converter c) Polyester membrane
d) D/A converter d) Polyacryl amide
Answer: c Answer: d View Answer View Answer
Explanation: To provide automatic temperature Explanation: The disadvantages of chopper amplifier type
compensation, thermistors must be used. As the pH meter can be overcome using a vibrating condenser. It Answer: c Answer: a
temperature of the solution changes, the circuit constants is used in the place of the mechanical chopper. Explanation: The unmarked component is A/D converter. Explanation: In recent liquid membrane electrodes, the
are altered accordingly. Microprocessor operates only on digital data. Electrodes porous liquid membrane is replaced with polyvinyl
11. The zero stability of vibrating condenser amplifier type give analog signals. Hence, A/D converter must be present. chloride membrane. The measured potential is a direct
7. Which of the following is not the characteristic of null- pH meter is much better than a direct coupled amplifier. measure of the concentration of specific ion.
detector type pH meter? a) True
a) It can be battery operated b) False 5. Which of the following is used in potassium electrode in
b) It has less accuracy View Answer ION SELECTIVE ELECTRODES-PRINCIPLE AND TYPES liquid membrane electrodes?
c) It is easy to maintain a) Ionomycin
Answer: a 1. Which of the following is not the characteristic of ion
d) Its electronic circuits are simple b) Valinomycin
Explanation: The zero stability of vibrating condenser selective electrodes?
View Answer c) Nonactin
amplifier type pH meter is much better than a direct a) It is fragile
d) Gramicidin
Answer: b coupled amplifier. The capacity can be changed by b) Easy to use
View Answer
Explanation: Null-detector type pH meter has greater vibrating one of its plates. c) Available in different sizes and shapes
accuracy than 0.01 pH. pH value is read from the d) It is insensitive to many ions Answer: b
calibrated precision voltage source dial. 12. In vibrating condenser amplifier type pH meter, to View Answer Explanation: Valinomycin is used in potassium electrode in
maintain good performance which of the following has to liquid membrane electrodes. It is a doughnut shaped
8. Which of the following is not the characteristic of direct be done? Answer: a
electron rich pocket.
reading type pH meters? a) Frequency of the vibrator should be stable Explanation: Ion selective electrode is rugged in
a) Simple operation b) Frequency of the vibrator should be constant construction. It is highly selective to a particular ion. 6. In solid state membranes, the body of the electrodes
b) Quick to use c) Amplitude of the vibrator should be constant are made of which of the following?
2. In glass membrane electrode, the glass containing 11%
c) Continuous indication output d) Both frequency and amplitude of the vibrator should be a) Polyvinyl chloride
Na2O, 18% Al2O3, 71% SiO2 is highly sensitive to which of
b) Plastic measured at the electrode head. Concentration is different 3. How can samples above 1M in ammonia concentration
b) Semi-permeable membrane
c) Polythene from the activity. be measured using ammonia electrode?
d) Teflon c) Hydrophobic material a) It must be diluted and measured
View Answer 11. The value of activity coefficient is always in which of b) It cannot be measured
d) Water absorbing material
the following ranges? c) The electrode has to be modified for measuring
Answer: d a) Zero View Answer d) It can be measured directly
Explanation: In solid state membranes, the body of the b) Less than zero Answer: c View Answer
electrodes are made of Teflon. The membrane is held in c) Less than 1
Explanation: The unmarked component is porous
position using epoxy resin. d) Greater than 1 Answer: a
hydrophobic material. It holds the liquid ion exchanger.
View Answer Explanation: Samples above 1M in ammonia concentration
7. Which of the following is not the characteristic of ion 15. Ion selective electrodes have ________ linear range be measured by diluting the solution. Samples having
selective electrodes? Answer: c concentrations below that can be measured directly.
and _________ detection limit than the pH electrode.
a) Simple to use Explanation: The value of activity coefficient is always less
b) Inexpensive than 1. It is the ratio of activity divided by concentration. a) Lower, lower 4. The dilution of solution must not reduce the level of
c) Narrow concentration range b) Lower, higher ammonia below _________
d) Operates in wide range of temperature 12. Which of the following specifies the relation between a) 10-2 M
View Answer ionic strength and activity coefficient? c) Higher, lower b) 10-5 M
a) Directly proportional d) Higher, higher c) 10-8 M
Answer: c b) Inversely proportional d) 10-9 M
Explanation: Ion selective electrodes have a wide c) Equal View Answer
View Answer
concentration range. It is highly selective to a particular d) No particular relation Answer: b
ion. View Answer Explanation: Ion selective electrodes have a lower linear Answer: b
range and higher detection limit than the pH electrode. It Explanation: The dilution of solution must not reduce the
8. Ion selective electrode are unaffected by colour or Answer: b level of ammonia below 10-5 M. The total level of dissolved
works on effectively narrow pH.
turbidity of the solution. Explanation: Activity co-efficient and ionic strength are species must be below 1M.
a) True inversely proportional to each other. If the ionic strength
b) False increases, the value of activity decreases. AMMONIA AND FLUORIDE ELECTRODE 5. Which of the following factors does not the
View Answer reproducibility of the ammonia electrode?
13. The difference between measured activity and actual 1. In Ammonia electrode, diffusion of dissolved ammonia a) Temperature
Answer: a occurs through the membrane until which of the following b) Drift
Explanation: Ion selective electrode are unaffected by concentration becomes higher at higher concentration. Is c) Noise
conditions occur?
colour or turbidity of the solution. It operates in wide this statement true or false? a) Concentration becomes equal on both sides d) Dilution
range of temperature. b) Activity becomes equal on both sides View Answer
a) True
c) Partial pressure becomes equal on both sides
9. Which of the following is not a problem of ion selective b) False Answer: d
d) Differential pressure is low
electrodes? Explanation: Dilution does not affect reproducibility. The
View Answer View Answer
a) Interference with other ions other three factors affect reproducibility.
b) Output is influences by ionic strength Answer: a Answer: c
c) Drift in electrode potential during a sequence of Explanation: The difference between measured activity Explanation: In Ammonia electrode, diffusion of dissolved 6. The performance of ammonia electrode is not affected
measurements and actual concentration becomes higher at higher ammonia occurs through the membrane until partial by sample colour and turbidity.
d) Can measure only positive ions concentration. Similarly, it decreases at lower pressure becomes equal on both sides. Partial pressure is a) True
View Answer concentrations. proportional to its concentration. b) False
View Answer
Answer: d 14. Given below is the diagram of liquid membrane 2. When electrode potential response is plotted as a
Explanation: Ion selective electrodes can measure both electrode. Identify the unmarked component. function of ammonia concentration on a semi-log graph, Answer: a
positive and negative ions. It is affected by interference the graph obtained will be ____________ Explanation: The performance of ammonia electrode is not
from other ions. a) A straight line affected by sample colour and turbidity. Temperature
b) Parabolic affects its output.
10. Which of the following is the effective concentration
c) Sigmoidal
measured at the electrode head? 7. In fluoride ion electrode, the potential corresponding to
d) A curve
a) Selectivity coefficient level of the fluoride ion is described by which of the
View Answer
b) Ionic strength following equations when E is the measured electrode
c) Activity Answer: a potential, Eo is the reference potential and A is the level of
d) Activity coefficient Explanation: When electrode potential response is plotted fluoride ions in solution?
View Answer as a function of ammonia concentration, the graph a) E=Eo+0.0591 log A
obtained will be a straight line. The slope will be about b) E=Eo-0.0591 log A
Answer: c a) Solid material c) E=Eo+0.0896 log A
58mV per decade.
Explanation: Activity is the effective concentration
d) E=Eo-0.0896 log A curve will not only shift but will change slope with changes 5. Biocatalytic membrane electrode cannot be used for the b) False
View Answer in temperature. A 1o change in temperature causes a 2% measurement of which of the following gases? View Answer
error. a) Ammonia
Answer: b b) Carbon dioxide Answer: a
Explanation: In fluoride ion electrode, the potential c) Hydrogen Explanation: The response time of the biocatalytic
corresponding to level of the fluoride ion is described by d) Nitrogen electrode is a function of the thickness of the enzyme
the equation, E=Eo-0.0591 log A. A is the activity or SPECIAL DESIGNS OF ION SELECTIVE ELECTRODES layer. It is also a function of diffusion of the layer in the
View Answer
effective concentration of fluoride ions. sample solution.
1. Which of the following gas permeable membrane is
Answer: d
8. What does TISAB which is used to overcome used for ammonia gas sensing electrode? 10. In carbon dioxide electrode, the membrane separates
Explanation: Biocatalytic membranes cannot be used for
interferences stand for? a) Silicon rubber which of the following?
the measurement of nitrogen. It can be used for the
a) Total Isolation Strength Absolute Buffer b) Microporous Teflon membrane a) Sodium carbonate, magnesium chloride
measurement of other three gases.
b) Total Ionic Strength Absolute Buffer c) Fluorocarbon b) Magnesium hydrogen carbonate, sodium chloride
c) Total Ionic Strength Adjustment Buffer d) Polythene 6. The biocatalytic membrane used in the ammonia c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate, sodium chloride
d) Total Isolation Strength Adjustment Buffer View Answer selective electrode is which of the following? d) Magnesium carbonate, magnesium chloride
View Answer a) Urea View Answer
Answer: c
b) Urease
Answer: c Explanation: Gas permeable membrane used for ammonia Answer: b
c) Acrylamide
Explanation: TISAB stands for ‘Total Ionic Strength sensing electrode is fluorocarbon membrane. For each gas Explanation: In carbon dioxide electrode, the membrane
d) Polyacrylamide
Adjustment Buffer’. It is added in excess and in exactly the different membranes are used. separates sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium
View Answer
same amount to each of the solutions that is to be chloride. Sodium hydrogen carbonate is the internal
2. Which of the following gas permeable membrane is
measured. Answer: b electrolyte.
used for carbon dioxide gas sensing electrode?
Explanation: The biocatalytic membrane used in the
9. Which of the following causes main interference in a) Silicon rubber
ammonia selective electrode is urease. It is used for the
Fluoride electrode? b) PVC membrane
detection of ammonia.
a) H+ ions c) Fluorocarbon ION ANALYSER
b) OH– ions d) Polythene 7. Which of the following materials are used as a gel to
View Answer 1. If a solid or liquid membrane is placed in pure water, the
c) Li+ ions which biocatalytic membrane is fixed in ammonia selective
membrane dissolves slightly, producing an equilibrium
d) Cl– ions electrode?
Answer: a concentration of the measured ion. This is represented as
View Answer a) Urea
Explanation: Gas permeable membrane used for carbon __________
b) Urease
Answer: b dioxide sensing electrode is silicon rubber membrane. For a) A constant, Eo
c) Acrylamide
Explanation: The main interference in fluoride ions is each gas different membranes are used. b) Activity
d) Polyacrylamide
caused by OH– ions. It has excellent selectivity. c) Blank correction, Cb
3. The response time of the biocatalytic membrane View Answer
d) Concentration of standard solution, Cs
10. Crystal membrane of ion selective electrode can be electrode is poor when used with complex organic View Answer
Answer: c
regenerated by washing with which of the following? molecules.
Explanation: The material used as a gel to which
a) Alcohol a) True Answer: c
biocatalytic membrane is fixed in ammonia selective
b) Iodine solution b) False Explanation: If a solid or liquid membrane is placed in pure
electrode is acrylamide. This is attached to the ion
c) Acidic solution View Answer water, the membrane dissolves slightly, producing an
selective electrode directly.
d) Basic solution equilibrium concentration of the measured ion. This is
Answer: b represented as a blank correction, Cb. This is the constant
View Answer 8. The biocatalytic membrane is attached to the glass
Explanation: The response time of the biocatalytic background for all measurements.
electrode using which of the following materials?
Answer: a membrane electrode is good even when used with
a) Nylon mesh
Explanation: Crystal membrane of an ion selective complex organic molecules. But, the membrane is costly. 2. During which of the following conditions is the blank
b) Teflon
electrode can be regenerated by washing with alcohol. It correction not necessary?
4. Which of the following reference electrode is placed in c) Silicon rubber
can be gently polished with emery paper to remove a) If sample concentration rises in linear response region
the solution of carbon dioxide electrode? d) Polythene
deposits. b) If sample concentration falls in linear response region
a) Calomel electrode View Answer
c) If sample concentration rises in non-linear response
11. For fluoride electrode, the electrode response curve b) Silver/silver chloride electrode region
Answer: a
will not only shift but will change slope with changes in c) Mercury/mercury sulphate electrode d) If sample concentration falls in non-linear response
Explanation: The biocatalytic membrane is attached to the
temperature. d) Glass electrode region
glass electrode using nylon mesh. Cellophane film can also
a) True View Answer View Answer
be used.
b) False
Answer: b Answer: b
View Answer 9. The response time of the biocatalytic electrode is a
Explanation: A silver/silver chloride reference electrode is Explanation: The blank correction is not necessary if
function of the thickness of the enzyme layer.
Answer: a placed in the solution. A glass electrode is also placed in sample concentration falls in the linear response region.
a) True
Explanation: For fluoride electrode, the electrode response the solution but it is not a reference electrode. This is the constant background for all measurements.
3. During which of the following conditions is the blank a) Chassis and electrostatic ground d) Same catalytic activity is present for number of analysis between 10-1 to 10-7 M. It is linear in the range of 10-2 to
correction necessary? b) Digital ground View Answer 10-4 M.
a) If sample concentration rises in linear response region c) Analog ground
b) If sample concentration falls in linear response region d) Reference ground Answer: a 6. Transducers employed in the bulk of enzyme electrodes
c) If sample concentration rises in non-linear response View Answer Explanation: Immobilized enzymes can be reused. This use which of the following principles?
region ensures that the same catalytic activity is present for a a) Amperometric
d) If sample concentration falls in non-linear response Answer: d number of analyses. b) Optical
region Explanation: There is no such point as a reference ground. c) Magnetic
Three types of grounding are provided which are chassis 2. Which of the following is the physico-chemical d) Colorimetric
View Answer
and electrostatic ground, digital ground and analog component? View Answer
Answer: d ground. a) Enzymes
Explanation: The blank correction is necessary if sample b) Anti-bodies Answer: a
concentration falls in non-linear response region. This is 8. The timing for a microprocessor and for all signals is c) Transducer Explanation: Transducers employed in the bulk of enzyme
the constant background for all measurements. generated by the CPU clock. d) Cells or tissues electrodes use amperometric principle. It may also use the
a) True View Answer potentiometric principle.
4. Ion analysers need calibration once in which of the b) False
following durations? View Answer Answer: c 7. Which of these biosensors use the principle of heat
a) Every two or three hours Explanation: Transducer is referred to as the physico- released or absorbed by a reaction?
b) Every nine or ten hours Answer: a chemical component. Enzymes and anti-bodies are a) Potentiometric biosensor
c) Every 24 hours Explanation: The timing for a microprocessor and for all biological components. b) Optical biosensors
d) Every 48 hours signals is generated by the CPU clock. A crystal may be c) Piezo-electric biosensors
present to provide clock signals. 3. An example of biosensor, urea electrode makes use of d) Calorimetric biosensors
View Answer
which of the following electrodes? View Answer
Answer: a 9. Which of the following is the only operator entry a) Carbon dioxide electrode
Explanation: Ion analysers need calibration every two or required in PC-based ion analysers? b) Ammonia electrode Answer: d
three hours. Temperature affects the output. a) Hardware set-up c) Fluoride electrode Explanation: Calorimetric biosensors use the principle of
b) Signal measurement d) Ammonium electrode heat released or absorbed by a reaction. The heat is
5. In ion analysers, which of the following serve the dual c) Calibration View Answer measured to determine the concentration.
purpose of controlling the operating current of FET and d) Sample calculation
providing current gain? View Answer Answer: d 8. Which of the following biosensors use the movement of
a) FET itself does it Explanation: An example of biosensor, urea electrode electrons produced during redox reactions?
b) SCR Answer: c makes use of the ammonium electrode. A urease a) Amperometric biosensor
c) Op-amp Explanation: Calibration is the only operator entry membrane is also present. b) Potentiometric biosensors
d) Diode required in PC-based ion analysers. The operator has to c) Piezo-electric biosensors
enter the concentration of calibration standards. 4. In glucose electrode, glucose oxidase has been coupled d) Optical biosensors
View Answer
to an electrode by which of the following materials? View Answer
Answer: c 10. The analog and digital grounds are connected together a) Ferrocene derivatives
Explanation: In ion analysers, op-amp serves the dual in ion analysers. b) Urease Answer: a
purpose of controlling the operating current of FET and a) True c) Polyacrylamide Explanation: Amperometric biosensor uses the movement
providing current gain. Two FETs are operated as source b) False d) Biochips of electrons produced during redox reactions. Redox
followers. View Answer View Answer reactions involve both reduction and oxidation.

6. The presence of dirt or moisture degrades which of the Answer: b Answer: a 9. Nanoscopic optical biosensors have fast response time
following? Explanation: The analog and digital grounds are not Explanation: In glucose electrode, glucose oxidase has but the sensitivity is reduced.
a) Circuit components connected together in ion analysers. This is to ensure that been coupled to an electrode by using ferrocene a) True
b) High input impedance of buffer amplifier the digital signals never flow through the same conductor derivatives. It is used to measure blood glucose in diabetic b) False
c) Low input impedance of buffer amplifier as analog signals. patients. View Answer
d) Low output impedance of buffer amplifier
5. Biosensors measure glucose concentrations between Answer: b
View Answer
which of the following ranges? Explanation: Nanoscopic optical biosensors have a fast
BIOSENSORS a) 10-1 to 10-2 M response. They also have excellent biochemical sensitivity.
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of dirt or moisture degrades the b) 10-2 to 10-4 M
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the 10. Given below is the diagram of biosensor. Identify the
high input impedance of the buffer amplifier. Solder flux c) 10-1 to 10-4 M
immobilized enzymes? unmarked component.
may also degrade it. d) 10-1 to 10-7 M
a) They cannot be re-used
View Answer
b) It produces reproducible results
7. Which of the following is not a type of ground in ion
c) Stability exists Answer: d
analyser?
Explanation: Biosensors measure glucose concentrations
 d) It does not depend on temperature oxygen analyser. Initially, the bridge is in a balanced SODIUM ANALYSER
a) Microprocessor View Answer condition.
b) Filter
c) Transducer Answer: a 7. In dissolved oxygen analyser, the electrometer consists
Explanation: Solubility of oxygen in water decreases with of which of the following solutions? 1. Which of the following indicate leakages in a
d) A/D converter
increase in temperature. Dissolved oxygen is the measure a) Calcium hydroxide solution condenser?
View Answer
of ability of water to sustain aquatic life. b) Magnesium hydroxide solution a) The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate
Answer: c c) Potassium hydroxide solution are very high
Explanation: The biological signals must be converted into 3. The water to be analysed flows into the condenser d) Calcium oxide solution b) The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate
electrical signals. Transducers are used for this purpose. through which of the following components? View Answer are very low
a) Filter c) The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate
11. In glucose sensor, a measure of change in oxygen value b) Semi-permeable membrane Answer: c are equal
is a measure of the glucose value. c) Throttling device Explanation: In dissolved oxygen analyser, the d) The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate
a) True d) Platinum filament electrometer consists of potassium hydroxide solution. It are not equal
b) False View Answer produces hydrogen due to the electrolysis process. View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c 8. The dissolved oxygen analyser is based on which of the Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: The water to be analysed flows into the following meters? Explanation: If the concentration of sodium in steam and
Explanation: In glucose sensor, a measure of change in condenser through a throttling device. It is cooled in the a) Amperometer condensate are not equal, it means that leakage is present
oxygen value is a measure of the glucose value. It is then condenser. b) Katharometer in the condenser. If the values are equal, then it means
processed and displayed. c) pH meter that no leakage is present.
4. Which of the following is the function of the throttling d) Voltmeter
12. For constructing the glucose sensor, which of the device? View Answer 2. Which of the following are added for pH adjustment in
following is used as a gel? a) Filtering sodium analyser?
a) Urea b) Maintains pH of a water Answer: b a) Acidic solution
b) Urease c) Purifies water Explanation: The dissolved oxygen analyser is based on b) Basic solution
c) Acrylamide d) Maintains constant flow rate katharometer. It works on the principle of thermal c) Hydrazine
d) Polyacrylamide View Answer conductivity detector. d) Ammonia buffer
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d 9. Oxygen content can be controlled by adding which of
Answer: d Explanation: The function of the throttling device is to the following materials with water? Answer: d
Explanation: For constructing the sensor, polyacrylamide is maintain a constant flow rate. The water then passes into a) Acidic solution Explanation: Ammonia buffer is added for pH adjustment
used as the gel. It is used to entrap the glucose oxidase. the condenser. b) Basic solution in sodium analyser. This is added to the reference and
c) Iodine sample solutions.
5. Which of the following section plays a major role in d) Hydrazine
maintaining the accuracy of the dissolved oxygen View Answer 3. Normally, electrodes measure which of the following
DISSOLVED COMPONENT ANALYSERS analyser? parameters?
a) Analysing section Answer: d a) Activity
DISSOLVED OXYGEN ANALYSER
b) Inlet section Explanation: Oxygen content can be controlled by adding b) Activity co-efficient
1. Which of the following transducers must be used for c) Transmitting section hydrazine with water. It is important to maintain dissolved c) Blank constant
dissolved oxygen analyser? d) Condensing section oxygen content in boilers to reduce corrosion. d) Ionic co-efficient
a) Potentiometric View Answer View Answer
10. In dissolved oxygen analyser, normally more than one
b) Polarographic
Answer: c condenser is used. Answer: a
c) Ion-selective electrode
Explanation: Transmitting section plays a major role in a) True Explanation: Normally, electrodes measure activity of the
d) Optical transducer
maintaining the accuracy of the dissolved oxygen analyser. b) False ion. It is a measure of free ions in the solution.
View Answer
It is the section after the analysing section. View Answer
4. Which of the following represent the concentration of a
Answer: b
6. Which of the following bridges are used in dissolved Answer: a solution?
Explanation: Polarographic transducer must be used for
oxygen analyser? Explanation: In dissolved oxygen analyser, normally more a) Only free ions
dissolved oxygen analyser. Dissolved oxygen is the
a) Kelvin’s bridge than one condenser is used. The condensers are present in b) Only bound ions
measure of ability of water to sustain aquatic life.
b) Wheatstone bridge the condenser section. c) Free ions and bound ions
2. How does solubility of oxygen in water change with c) Schering’s bridge d) Either free ions or bound ions
respect to temperature? d) Anderson’s bridge View Answer
a) It decreases with increase in temperature View Answer
Answer: c
b) It increases with increase in temperature
Answer: b Explanation: Concentration refers to the sum of free ions
c) It decreases with decrease in temperature
Explanation: Wheatstone bridge is used in dissolved and bound ions. Activity refers only to free ions.
5. Sodium selective electrode provides a good response in Answer: a 4. The output from both the detectors is given to which of negative terminal)?
measurement when the pH is above which of the following Explanation: Cleaning process gives accuracy and long life. the following devices? a) The concentration of silica in sample and reference
values? Spray nozzles can be used to clean the electrodes. a) Filters solution is equal
a) 2 b) Microprocessor b) The concentration of silica in a reference solution is
b) 3 10. Presence of sodium sulphate in water causes corrosion c) Recorder more than that in the sample solution
c) 5 in boilers. d) Differential Amplifier c) The concentration of silica in sample solution is more
d) 10 a) True View Answer than that in the reference solution
View Answer b) False d) Further processing is required to come to any
View Answer Answer: d conclusion
Answer: d Explanation: The output from both the detectors is given View Answer
Explanation: Sodium selective electrode provides a good Answer: a to the differential amplifier. The amplified signal is read
response in measurement when the pH of the solution is Explanation: Presence of sodium sulphate in water causes through a display. Answer: b
above 10. Hence, the buffer solution is used. corrosion in boilers. Sodium hydroxide and sodium Explanation: If the differential amplifier gives a negative
chloride salts also cause corrosion. 5. If the differential amplifier gives zero as output then it output then, it means that the concentration of silica in a
6. Which of the following are used to free bound ions or infers which of the following (Reference output is given to reference solution is more than that in the sample
liberate bound ions? the positive terminal and sample output is given to the solution. It means that the photodetector’s output is not
a) Colouring agents negative terminal)? equal.
SILICA ANALYSER
b) Ammonia Buffer a) The concentration of silica in sample and reference
c) Reagents 1. Which of the following principles are used in silica solution is equal 8. Which of the following statements are true?
d) Iodine solution analyser? b) The concentration of silica in a reference solution is a) More light is absorbed if the silica content is high in a
View Answer a) Amperometric principle more than that in the sample solution solution
b) Colorimetric principle c) The concentration of silica in sample solution is more b) More light is transmitted if the silica content is high in a
Answer: c than that in the reference solution solution
c) Coulometric principle
Explanation: Reagents are used to free bound ions or d) Further processing is required to come to any c) Less light is absorbed if the silica content is high in a
d) Magnetic principle
liberate bound ions. The addition of reagent prevents conclusion solution
View Answer
unwanted ions from entering into the measurement. View Answer d) More light is absorbed if the silica content is low in a
Answer: b solution
7. In which part of the apparatus is the reference and ion Answer: a
Explanation: The principle used in silica analyser is View Answer
selective electrodes placed? Explanation: If the differential amplifier gives zero as
colorimetric principle. The colour of the final solution is
a) Head tank output then, it means that the concentration of silica in Answer: a
measured.
b) Flow cell sample and reference solution is equal. It means that the Explanation: More amount of light is absorbed if the silica
c) Reservoir 2. Which of the following is not added to the sample photodetectors’ output is equal. content is high in a solution. Less amount of light is
d) Solenoid valve during analysis during silica analysis? transmitted if the silica content is high in a solution.
View Answer a) Ammonium Molybdate 6. If the differential amplifier gives a positive output then
b) Sulphuric acid it infers which of the following (Reference output is given 9. How will the photodetector output be if silica content is
Answer: b to the positive terminal and sample output is given to the high in a solution?
c) Reducing solution
Explanation: The reference and ion selective electrodes negative terminal)? a) The output will be high
d) Iodine solution
are placed in the flow cell. Sample is maintained in the a) The concentration of silica in sample and reference b) The output will be low
View Answer
constant head tank. solution is equal c) The output will be zero
Answer: d b) The concentration of silica in a reference solution is d) Output cannot be determined
8. The output of the electrode in sodium analyser is
Explanation: Iodine solution is not added to the sample more than that in the sample solution View Answer
proportional to which of the following parameters?
during analysis. Ammonium molybdate, sulphuric acid and c) The concentration of silica in sample solution is more
a) Activity Answer: b
reducing solution are added to the sample. than that in the reference solution
b) Concentration Explanation: If silica content is high in a solution, the
d) Further processing is required to come to any
c) Negative logarithm of sodium ion concentration 3. Which of the following detectors are used in silica detector output will be low. This is because more light is
conclusion
d) Logarithm of sodium ion concentration analyser? absorbed by the solution and less amount of light is
View Answer
View Answer a) Photovoltaic cell transmitted.
b) Photo multiplier Answer: c
Answer: d 10. What will be the final colour of the solution obtained
c) Photo emissive tubes Explanation: If the differential amplifier gives a positive
Explanation: The output of the electrode in sodium during silica analysis?
d) Flame emission detector output then, it means that the concentration of silica in
analyser is proportional to the logarithm of sodium ion a) Pink
View Answer sample solution is more than that in the reference
concentration. The value is recorded and indicated. b) Red
solution. It means that the photodetectors’ output is not
Answer: a equal. c) Blue
9. Cleaning process gives accuracy and long life.
Explanation: Photovoltaic cell is used as a detector in silica d) Yellow
a) True
analyser. This detector does not need a battery for 7. If the differential amplifier gives a negative output then View Answer
b) False
operation. it infers which of the following (Reference output is given
View Answer
to the positive terminal and sample output is given to the
Answer: c fall on certain metals. They penetrate through certain d) Not specific lose energy in three modes. Photoelectric effect transfers
Explanation: This method works on the principle of substances that are opaque to ordinary light. View Answer all the energy of the gamma ray to an electron in the inner
molybdenum blue method. Hence, the colour of the final orbit of the atom of the absorber.
solution will be blue. 3. Which of these particles are highly penetrating? Answer: a
a) Alpha particles Explanation: Radiochemical methods eliminate the need 12. The basic unit used to describe the energy of a
11. During the first sequence of the process, sample is b) Beta particles for chemical preparation. In other methods, chemical radiation particle is curie.
added at the last. c) Gamma particles preparation has to be done before the measurement. a) True
a) True d) X-ray particles b) False
b) False View Answer 8. Which of the following formulae gives the expression for View Answer
View Answer half-life of a radioactive isotope when ‘λ’ is the decay
Answer: c constant? Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Gamma particles are highly penetrating. a) 0.762/λ Explanation: The basic unit used to describe the energy of
Explanation: During the first sequence of the process, Upon interaction with matter, they lose energy in three b) 0.693/λ a radiation particle is electron volt (eV). The unit of
sample is added at the last. During the second sequence, modes. c) 0.937/λ radioactivity is curie.
all the solutions are added in a normal manner. d) 0.258/λ
4. Alpha emission is characteristic of heavier radioactive View Answer
12. Blank use compensates for the effect of temperature elements such as thorium, uranium, etc.
variation. a) True Answer: b RADIATION DETECTORS
a) True b) False Explanation: The formula to calculate half-life of a
1. Which of the following is not a type of radiation
b) False View Answer radioactive isotope is 0.693/λ. It is the time required for
detectors?
View Answer half the initial stock of atoms to decay.
Answer: a a) Geiger Muller counter
Answer: a Explanation: Alpha emission is characteristic of heavier 9. Which of the following emissions have low ionizing b) Proportional counter
Explanation: Blank use compensates for the effect of radioactive elements such as thorium, uranium, etc. They power? c) Semiconductor detector
temperature variation. It also compensates for various are most harmful to human tissue. a) Alpha particles d) Flame emission detector
other variables such as ageing of lamps and coloration of b) Beta particles View Answer
the sample. 5. Which of the following is not a mode by which beta c) Gamma particles
particles lose energy on interaction with matter? Answer: d
d) X-ray particles
a) Photoelectric effect Explanation: Flame emission detector is not a type of
View Answer
b) Compton effect radiation detector. Radiation can be detected by several
RADIOCHEMICAL TECHNIQUES c) Pair production Answer: c methods.
d) Collision effect Explanation: Gamma particle emissions have low ionizing
FUNDAMENTALS OF RADIOCHEMICAL METHODS 2. ‘When nuclear radiations pass through, gas ionization is
View Answer power. They also have high penetrating power.
produced.’ This is the principle of which of the following
1. Which of the following are highly effective in producing detectors?
Answer: d 10. Which of the following effect occurs when a gamma
ion pairs when they pass through the matter? a) Proportional counter
Explanation: Upon interaction with matter, gamma rays ray and an electron make an elastic collision?
a) Alpha particles b) Flow counter
lose energy in three modes. They are photoelectric effect, a) Photoelectric effect
b) Beta particles c) Geiger Muller counter
pair production and Compton Effect. b) Compton effect
c) Gamma particles d) Scintillation counter
c) Pair production
d) X-ray particles 6. The stability of the nucleus can be predicted by which of View Answer
d) Collision effect
View Answer the following? View Answer
a) Electron to neutron ratio Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: ‘When nuclear radiations pass through, gas
b) Neutron to proton ratio Answer: d
Explanation: Alpha particles are highly effective in ionization is produced.’ This is the principle of which of
c) Proton to electron ratio Explanation: Upon interaction with matter, gamma rays
producing ion pairs when they pass through the matter. Geiger Muller counter. It is used to measure the intensity
d) Neutron to electron ratio lose energy in three modes. Compton effect occurs when a
They have relatively large mass and charge. of radioactive radiation.
View Answer gamma ray and an electron make an elastic collision.
2. Which of the following can liberate photo electrons 3. Which of the following acts as quenching gas in Geiger
Answer: b 11. Which of the following effects transfers all the energy
when they fall on certain metals? Muller counter?
Explanation: The stability of the nucleus can be predicted of the gamma ray to an electron in the inner orbit of the
a) Alpha particles a) Alcohol
by neutron to proton ratio. The number of protons will atom of the absorber?
b) Beta particles b) Argon gas
always be equal to the number of electrons. a) Photoelectric effect
c) Gamma particles c) Krypton
b) Compton effect
d) X-ray particles 7. Which of the following is true about radiochemical d) Hydrogen
c) Pair production
View Answer methods? View Answer
d) Collision effect
a) Eliminate the need for chemical preparation View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a
b) Not sensitive
Explanation: X-rays can liberate photo electrons when they Explanation: Alcohol acts as quenching gas in Geiger
c) Not accurate Answer: a
Explanation: Upon interaction with matter, gamma rays
Muller counter. It is present in a gas tight envelope along a) Sodium chloride 13. Liquid Scintillators are used for which of the following GAMMA CAMERA
with the electrodes. b) Sodium iodide materials?
c) Sodium sulphate a) Low energy beta materials 1. The first gamma camera is also known by which of the
4. Which of the following acts as ionising gas in Geiger d) Sodium carbonate b) High energy beta materials following names?
Muller counter? View Answer c) Low energy gamma materials a) Hal camera
a) Alcohol d) High energy gamma materials b) Anger camera
b) Argon gas Answer: a View Answer c) Muller camera
c) Krypton Explanation: Scintillation detector is a large flat crystal of d) West camera
d) Hydrogen sodium iodide. It is coated with thallium doping. Answer: a View Answer
View Answer Explanation: Liquid Scintillators are used for low energy
9. When X-ray enters the solid state detector it produces beta materials. Solid scintillators are used for high energy Answer: b
Answer: b ion pair rather than electron-hole pair. beta materials. Explanation: The first gamma camera is also known as an
Explanation: Argon gas acts as ionising gas in Geiger Muller a) True Anger camera. It was developed by Hal Anger.
counter. It is present in a gas type envelope along with the b) False 14. Given below is the block diagram of proportional
electrodes. View Answer counter. Identify the unmarked component. 2. Which of the following is not a component of gamma
camera?
5. Which of the detectors is similar to Geiger Muller Answer: b a) Collimator
counter in construction but is filled with heavier gas? Explanation: When X-ray enters the solid state detector it b) Detector crystal
a) Proportional counter produces electron-hole pair rather than an ion pair. The c) Pre-amplifier
b) Flow counter output signal is taken from an aluminium layer. d) Position logic circuit
c) Semiconductor detector View Answer
d) Scintillation counter 10. Which of the following materials are used as the a) Collimator
View Answer insulation between the inner and outer electrodes of the b) Detector crystal Answer: c
ion chamber? c) Pre-amplifier Explanation: Pre-amplifier is not a component of the
Answer: a a) Polythene d) Position logic circuit gamma camera. It is an imaging device commonly used in
Explanation: Proportional counter is similar to Geiger b) Plastic View Answer medical applications.
Muller counter in construction but is filled with heavier c) Polytetrafluoroethylene
gas. The output is proportional to the intensity of radiation d) Polyacrylamide Answer: c 3. Which of the following is the first object that an emitted
incident on it. View Answer Explanation: The unmarked component is pre-amplifier. gamma photon encounters after exciting the body?
There are two amplifiers namely pre-amplifier and main a) Collimator
6. Which of the following gases are used in the Answer: c amplifier. b) Detector crystal
proportional counter as the ionising gas? Explanation: Polytetrafluoroethylene is used as the c) Photo multiplier tubes
a) Alcohol insulation between the inner and outer electrodes of the 15. Given below is a diagram of Scintillation detector. d) Position logic circuit
b) Argon gas ion chamber. The material has very high resistance. Identify the unmarked component. View Answer
c) Krypton
d) Hydrogen 11. Liquid samples must be counted using ionization Answer: c
View Answer chamber by placing them in which of the following? Explanation: Collimator is the first object that an emitted
a) Test tube gamma photon encounters after exciting the body. In the
Answer: c b) Curvette conventional method, the collimator is placed over the
Explanation: Proportional counter is filled with krypton. It c) Ampoules detector crystal.
acts as ionising gas. Xenon can also be used. d) Flask
View Answer 4. Which of the following is a pattern of holes through
7. Which of the following is the main disadvantage of solid gamma ray absorbing material, usually lead or tungsten?
state semiconductor detector? Answer: c a) Lens a) Collimator
a) Low accuracy Explanation: Liquid samples must be counted using b) Collimator b) Detector crystal
b) Low sensitivity ionization chamber by placing them in ampoules. The c) Dynodes c) Photo multiplier tubes
c) It should be maintained at low temperature ampoules are placed in the chamber. d) Focussing cup d) Position circuitry
d) High pressure has to be produced View Answer View Answer
View Answer 12. Gaseous compounds containing radioactive sources
can be directly introduced into the ionization chamber. Answer: c Answer: a
Answer: c a) True Explanation: The unmarked components are dynodes. Explanation: Collimator is a pattern of holes through
Explanation: The main disadvantage of solid state b) False Scintillation detector is a combination of scintillator and gamma ray absorbing material, usually lead or tungsten. In
semiconductor detector is that it must be maintained at View Answer photo multiplier tube. the conventional method, the collimator is placed over the
low temperature. This is necessary to reduce noise and to detector crystal.
prevent deterioration of detector characteristics. Answer: a
Explanation: Gaseous compounds containing radioactive 5. When the energy of an absorbed gamma photon is
8. Scintillation detector is a large flat crystal of which of sources can be directly introduced into the ionization released, a flash of light is produced. This is similar to
the following materials? chamber. Liquid samples cannot be introduced directly. which of the following effects?
a) Photoelectric effect multiplier tube is known as scintillation counter. 4. The reduction in counting efficiency of the scintillation Answer: c
b) Compton effect Scintillation is the process of turning radioactive energy detector is called as __________ Explanation: Scintillators emit light in the blue region of
c) Pair production into light using a scintillator. a) Disintegration the spectrum. Due to the presence of other colours, colour
d) Collision effect b) Decay quenching may occur.
View Answer 10. Straight bore collimator is used for thyroid work in the c) Quenching
medical field. d) Reduction 9. A quench curve can be constructed by plotting the
Answer: a a) True View Answer counting efficiency versus ____________
Explanation: The given effect is similar to the photoelectric b) False a) Q-number
effect. It occurs in a scintillation detector. View Answer Answer: c b) Quench factor
Explanation: The reduction in counting efficiency of the c) H-number
6. Which of the following components adds all the signals Answer: b scintillation detector is called as quenching. Substances d) Disintegrations
and determines where each scintillation event occurred in Explanation: Straight bore collimator is used for liver, added to the counting vial can reduce efficiency. View Answer
the detector? brain, etc. Pinhole collimator is used for thyroid work.
a) Collimator 5. Which of the following is not a type of quenching? Answer: c
b) Detector crystal a) Chemical quench Explanation: A quench curve can be constructed by
c) Photo multiplier tubes b) Interference quench plotting the counting efficiency versus H-number. This is
LIQUID SCINTILLATION COUNTERS
d) Position circuitry c) Colour quenching done using a set of samples with known activity.
View Answer 1. In liquid scintillation counter, which of the following is a d) Self-absorption
View Answer 10. Photomultipliers used in Liquid scintillation detectors
fluorescent substance?
Answer: d are a source of instability.
a) Solvent
Explanation: Position circuitry adds all the signals and Answer: b a) True
b) Solute
determines where each scintillation event occurred in the Explanation: There are three types of quenching. b) False
c) Crystal
detector. It is an electronic circuit and it receives all the Interference quench is not a type of quenching. View Answer
d) Reagent
signals from photo multiplier tube.
View Answer 6. In which type of quenching, the radiation emitted by the Answer: a
7. Gamma camera uses one scintillation detector. isotope is not detected due to absorption of the radiation Explanation: Photomultipliers used in Liquid scintillation
Answer: b
a) True by the sample itself? detectors are a source of instability. Various factors cause
Explanation: In liquid scintillation counter, a mixture of
b) False a) Chemical quench instability.
solvent and solute is used. The solute is a fluorescent
View Answer b) Interference quench
substance.
c) Colour quenching
Answer: b d) Self-absorption
2. When UV light is absorbed by the fluor molecules the PULSE HEIGHT ANALYSER
Explanation: Gamma camera uses multiple scintillation View Answer
light emitted is in which of the following colours?
detectors. Hence, it is also known as scintillation camera.
a) Pink 1. A discriminator circuit is which of the following circuits?
Answer: d
8. Gamma camera uses which of these components to b) Red a) Wheatstone bridge
Explanation: In self-absorption, the radiation emitted by
produce a position intensity picture of a radioactive area? c) Green b) Instrumentation amplifier
the isotope is not detected due to the absorption of the
a) Collimator d) Blue c) Astable multivibrator
radiation by the sample itself. It may occur due to
b) Scintillation detector View Answer d) Schmitt trigger
precipitates.
c) Photo multiplier tubes View Answer
Answer: d
d) Position circuitry 7. Variation of gain with temperature does not cause
Explanation: When UV light is absorbed by the fluor Answer: d
View Answer instability.
molecules the light emitted is in blue colour. Light is Explanation: A discriminator circuit is a Schmitt trigger
a) True
Answer: b emitted when the molecules return to the ground state. circuit. There are two discriminator circuits in pulse height
b) False
Explanation: Gamma camera uses a scintillation detector analyser.
3. In liquid scintillation counter, which of the following is View Answer
to produce a position intensity picture of a radioactive
used to convert light into electrical signals? 2. Which of the following is the function of the
area. It is an imaging device commonly used in medical Answer: b
a) Photo multiplier tube discriminator?
applications. Explanation: Variation of gain with temperature causes
b) Photo emissive tube a) Rejects signals below a certain voltage
instability. There are various other factors that cause
9. Which of the following is known as a scintillation c) Photo voltaic cell b) Rejects signals above a certain voltage
instability.
counter? d) Photo reflector c) Rejects signal in a range alone
a) Scintillator View Answer 8. Due to the presence of red, green and yellow colour in d) Filters noise alone
b) Scintillator along with a photo multiplier tube the vial, which of the following occurs? View Answer
Answer: a
c) Scintillator along with the crystal a) Chemical quench
Explanation: The photo multiplier tube converts light into Answer: a
d) Scintillator along with position circuitry b) Interference quench
electrical signals in a liquid scintillation counter. Two Explanation: The discriminator can be set to reject signals
View Answer c) Colour quenching
photo multiplier tubes are used in the liquid scintillation below a certain voltage. This is required for excluding
d) Self-absorption
Answer: b counter. scattered radiation and noise.
View Answer
Explanation: Scintillation detector along with a photo
3. The difference between the pulses having amplitudes c) Series array of discriminators Answer: a d) Silver
between the two triggering levels is called __________ d) Parallel array of discriminators Explanation: In X-ray spectrometers, the specimen or the View Answer
a) Pulse width View Answer sample is placed after the X-ray tube. The X-ray tube is the
b) Energy gap source of the X-ray. Answer: c
c) Window width Answer: d Explanation: Gold is not used as a target metal in the
d) Amplitude variation Explanation: Parallel array of discriminators are used when 2. Which of the following components are used to Coolidge tube. The other target metals are copper,
View Answer the number of channels is ten or less. If the number is generate X-rays? molybdenum and chromium.
more than ten this is not preferred. a) Meyer tube
Answer: c b) West tube 7. How can the resolution of the collimator be increased?
Explanation: The difference between the pulses having 8. If number of channels is more than ten, the problems of c) Anger tube a) By reducing the separation between the metal plates of
amplitudes between the two triggering levels is called as stability of discrimination voltages arise. d) Coolidge tube the collimator
window width. It is also called the channel width. a) True View Answer b) By increasing the separation between the metal plates
b) False of the collimator
4. The pulses having amplitudes between the two View Answer Answer: d c) By increasing the number of metal plates
triggering levels are given by which of the following Explanation: Coolidge tube is used to generate X-rays. It d) By decreasing the number of metal plates
components? Answer: a the source of X-rays. Coolidge tube requires stabilised View Answer
a) Pre-amplifiers Explanation: If number of channels is more than ten, the current and high voltage.
b) Linear amplifiers problems of stability of discrimination voltages arise. Answer: a
c) Anti-coincidence circuits Problems also arise with an increase of adequate 3. Using which of the following components is the Explanation: The resolution of the collimator can be
d) Discriminators differential non-linearity. generated x-rays focussed upon the specimen? increased by reducing the separation between the metal
View Answer a) X-ray tube plates of the collimator. Collimator has a series of closely
9. The signal reaching which of the following components b) Monochromator spaced parallel metal plates.
Answer: d is the one lying in the window of pulse height analyser? c) Collimator
Explanation: The pulses having amplitudes between the a) Pre-amplifier d) Detector 8. When x-rays emitted from molybdenum are allowed to
two triggering levels are given by discriminators. There are b) Linear amplifier View Answer pass through a zirconium filter, which of the following
two discriminators. c) Counter occurs?
d) Discriminator Answer: c a) It absorbs radiation of shorter wavelength
5. Schmitt triggers are followed by which of the following View Answer Explanation: Collimator is used to focus the generated x- b) It absorbs radiation of longer wavelength
components? rays upon the specimen. The collimator is in between the c) It allows radiation of shorter wavelength to pass
a) Pre-amplifier Answer: c specimen under analysis and the Coolidge tube. through
b) Linear amplifier Explanation: The signal reaching the counter is the one d) It allows radiation in a particular band to pass through
c) Anti-coincidence circuit lying in the window of pulse height analyser. Scalar and 4. The cathode in the Coolidge tube is made of which of View Answer
d) Discriminator counter follow the anti-coincidence circuit. the following elements?
View Answer a) Quartz Answer: b
10. The measurement of pulse height is useful for energy b) Iron Explanation: When x-rays emitted from molybdenum are
Answer: c determination. c) Tungsten allowed to pass through a zirconium filter, it absorbs
Explanation: Schmitt triggers are followed by anti- a) True d) Barium radiation of shorter wavelength. It allows radiation of a
coincidence circuits. The output of the anti-coincidence b) False View Answer stronger wavelength to pass through.
circuit is given to counters. View Answer
Answer: c 9. When compared to filters, monochromators provide
6. Which of the following components cancels all the Answer: a Explanation: The cathode in the Coolidge tube is made of much signal to noise ratio.
pulses which trigger both the discriminators? Explanation: The measurement of pulse height is useful for tungsten. The anode is made of copper. a) True
a) Pre-amplifier energy determination. This is accomplished by the pulse b) False
b) Linear amplifier height analyser. 5. The cathode in the Coolidge tube is kept in an inclined View Answer
c) Anti-coincidence circuit manner.
d) Discriminator a) True Answer: a
View Answer b) False Explanation: When compared to filters, monochromators
X-RAY SPECTROMETERS
View Answer provide much signal to noise ratio. Monochromators are
Answer: c INSTRUMENTATION OF X-RAY SPECTROSCOPY used for removal of unwanted wavelengths.
Explanation: Anti-coincidence circuit cancels all the pulses Answer: b
which trigger both the discriminators. The output of the 1. In X-ray spectrometers, the specimen or the sample is Explanation: The anode in the Coolidge tube is kept in an 10. Which of the following crystals are not suited for x-ray
anti-coincidence circuit is given to counters. placed after which of the following components? inclined manner. The anode is made of copper. grating?
a) X-ray tube a) Topaz
7. Which of the following is used when the number of 6. Which of the following is not a target metal used in the b) Lithium fluoride
b) Monochromator
channels is ten or less? Coolidge tube? c) Calcium fluoride
c) Collimator
a) Two discriminators in series a) Rhodium d) Sodium fluoride
d) Detector
b) Two discriminators in parallel b) Cobalt View Answer
View Answer
c) Gold
Answer: d a) Quantitative b) Bragg’s equation c) Length
Explanation: The crystal which is not suited for x-ray b) Qualitative c) Debye equation d) Distance between lines
grating is sodium fluoride. Other crystals which are c) Quantitative and qualitative d) Scherrer equation View Answer
suitable for x-ray grating are gypsum and sodium chloride. d) Either quantitative or qualitative View Answer
View Answer Answer: a
11. Given below is the block diagram of X-ray Answer: b Explanation: In Diffractometers, line intensities depend on
spectrometer. Identify the unmarked component. Answer: c Explanation: The distance is calculated from a known number and kind of atomic reflection centres in each set
Explanation: X-ray diffractometers provide quantitative wavelength of the source and measured angle using Bragg’ of plates. Diffraction is a wave property of electromagnetic
and qualitative information about the compounds present equation. The diffracted angle is calculated by the spacing radiation.
in a solid sample. between a particular set of plane.
11. In Diffractometers, the intensities of the diffraction
3. Using the powder method of diffractometers, which of 7. In Diffractometer, the identification of a component of peaks of a given compound in a mixture are proportional
the following can be determined? the sample from its powder diffraction pattern is based to the fraction of the material in the mixture.
a) Percentage of K+ upon the _________ of lines and their relative a) True
a) Filter b) Percentage of Na+ and Cl- ___________ b) False
b) Monochromator c) Percentage of KBr and NaCl a) Number, length View Answer
c) Specimen d) Percentage of Br- b) Number, intensity
d) Amplifier View Answer c) Position, length Answer: a
View Answer d) Position, intensity Explanation: In Diffractometers, the intensities of the
Answer: c View Answer diffraction peaks of a given compound in a mixture are
Answer: c Explanation: Using the powder method of diffractometers, proportional to the fraction of the material in the mixture.
Explanation: The unmarked component is specimen. It is percentage of KBr and NaCl can be determined. Other Answer: d Hence, they are used in qualitative analysis.
the sample under analysis. analytical methods provide the only percentage of K+, Explanation: The identification of a component of the from
Na+, Cl- and Br-. its powder diffraction pattern is based upon the position 12. In powder diffractometer, the sharpness of the lines is
12. The x-rays generated come out of the Coolidge tube of lines and their relative intensities. Diffractometers are greatly determined by which of the following?
through which of the following? 4. In powder method, the powder sample is contained in used for powder diffraction. a) Quality of the sample, size of the slit
a) Beryllium window which of the following? b) Quality of the slit, size of the sample
b) Tungsten window a) Thin walled glass capillary tubes 8. When certain geometric requirements are met, X-rays c) Thickness of the slit, amount of the sample
c) Collimator b) Thin walled test tube scattered from a crystalline solid can constructively d) Number of slits, composition of the sample
d) Target material c) Thin walled curvettes interfere with each other and produce a diffracted beam. View Answer
View Answer d) Thin walled flask a) True
View Answer b) False Answer: b
Answer: a View Answer Explanation: In powder diffractometer, the sharpness of
Explanation: The x-rays generated come out of the Answer: a the lines is greatly determined by the quality of the slit and
Coolidge tube through a beryllium window. Some energy is Explanation: In powder method, the powder sample is Answer: a the size of the sample. The slit should be able to produce a
lost as heat. contained in thin walled glass capillary tubes. Thin walled Explanation: When certain geometric requirements are fine beam.
cellophane capillary tubes can also be used. met, X-rays scattered from a crystalline solid can
constructively interfere with each other and produce a
5. Which of the following is the most common instrument diffracted beam. The relationship among different factors
X-RAY DIFFRACTOMETERS for photographic recording of diffraction patterns? X-RAY ABSORPTION METER
is given by Bragg’s law.
a) Debye-Scherrer powder camera
1. X-ray diffractometers are not used to identify the 1. Absorption meter is __________ and ____________ of
b) Gamma camera 9. Diffractometers are similar to which of the following?
physical properties of which of the following? the chemical state of the element concerned.
c) Geiger tube a) Optical grating spectrometer
a) Metals a) Non-destructive, independent
d) Scintillation counter b) Prism spectrometer
b) Liquids b) Destructive, independent
View Answer c) Photo multiplier
c) Polymeric materials c) Non-destructive, dependent
d) Photovoltaic cell
d) Solids Answer: a d) Destructive, dependent
View Answer
View Answer Explanation: Diffracted x-ray beam can be detected View Answer
photographically or by using a scintillation counter or Answer: a
Answer: b Answer: a
Geiger tube. Debye-Scherrer powder camera is the most Explanation: Diffractometers are similar to optical grating
Explanation: X-ray diffractometers are not used to identify Explanation: Absorption meters give information about
common instrument for photographic recording of spectrometers. The differences are that lenses and mirrors
the physical properties of liquids. It is used to identify the the absorbing material. It is non-destructive and
diffraction patterns. are not used with X-rays.
physical properties of metals, solids and polymeric independent of the chemical state of the element
materials. 6. With the help of which of the following equations is the 10. In Diffractometers, line intensities depend on ______ concerned.
distance calculated from a known wavelength of the and kind of atomic reflection centres in each set of plates.
2. X-ray diffractometers provide ____________ 2. X-ray absorption meters have which of the following
source and measured angle? a) Number
information about the compounds present in a solid major disadvantages?
a) Coolidge equation b) Position
sample. a) Low accuracy
b) Low range ray beam are allowed to fall on the photomultiplier tube. X-RAY FLUORESCENCE SPECTROMETRY – INTRODUCTION a) Luminescence
c) Low sensitivity One beam passes through the sample and the other beam b) Fluorescence
d) It is destructive passes through the reference. 1. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter c) Phosphorescence
View Answer results in the emission of radiation of the same or longer d) Spontaneous emission
7. The photomultiplier tube used is absorption meter is wavelengths for a long or a short time, the phenomenon is View Answer
Answer: c coated with which of the following materials? termed as which of the following?
Explanation: Absorption meters give information about a) Sodium a) Luminescence Answer: b
the absorbing material. X-ray absorption meters have low b) Potassium b) Fluorescence Explanation: Prompt emission of X-ray by an atom ionised
sensitivity. c) Phosphorous c) Phosphorescence by a higher energy X-ray is a type of fluorescence.
d) Chlorine d) Spontaneous emission Fluorescence emissions are characteristic of the particular
3. The applications of X-ray absorption meters are limited View Answer View Answer element.
when compared with X-ray emission procedures.
a) True Answer: c Answer: a 5. The measurement of intensity of fluorescent X-rays
b) False Explanation: The photomultiplier tube used is absorption Explanation: If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation provide a simple and ____________ way of
View Answer meter is coated with phosphorous. Only one by matter results in the emission of radiation of the same _____________ analysis.
photomultiplier tube is commonly present for both the or longer wavelengths for a short or a long time, the a) Destructive, quantitative
Answer: a beams. phenomenon is termed as luminescence. Usually, b) Non-destructive, quantitative
Explanation: The applications of X-ray absorption meters absorption of electromagnetic radiation results in the c) Destructive, qualitative
are limited when compared with X-ray emission 8. In absorption meter, which of the following is adjusted emission of radiation. d) Non-destructive, qualitative
procedures. They are also limited when compared with until the absorption of two X-ray beams are brought into View Answer
fluorescence procedures. balance? 2. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter
a) Collimator results in the emission of radiation of the same or longer Answer: b
4. In absorption meter, which of the following is placed b) Filter wavelengths for a short time, the phenomenon is termed Explanation: The measurement of an intensity of
between the cell and the X-ray tube? c) Photomultiplier tube as which of the following? fluorescent X-rays provide a simple and non-destructive
a) Collimator d) Attenuator a) Luminescence way of quantitative analysis.
b) Filter View Answer b) Fluorescence
c) Chopper c) Phosphorescence 6. The energy of the emitted X-rays depends upon the
d) Attenuator Answer: d d) Spontaneous emission _________ of the atom and their intensity depends upon
View Answer Explanation: In absorption meter, the attenuator is View Answer the __________
adjusted until the absorption of two X-ray beams are a) Atomic number, amount of sample
Answer: c brought into balance. A variable thickness aluminium Answer: b b) Mass number, amount of sample
Explanation: In Absorption meter, chopper is placed attenuator is used. Explanation: If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation c) Mass number, concentration of atoms
between the cell and the X-ray tube. It interrupts the half by matter results in the emission of radiation of the same d) Atomic number, concentration of atoms
of the X-ray beam. 9. In absorption meter, the change in thickness of or longer wavelengths for a short time, the phenomenon is View Answer
aluminium required for different samples is a function of termed as fluorescence. Fluorescence emissions are
5. In absorption meter, which of the following is placed the difference in which of the following parameters? Answer: d
characteristic of the particular element.
between the chopper and the reference cell? a) Amount Explanation: The energy of the emitted X-rays depends
a) Collimator b) Concentration 3. If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation by matter upon the atomic number of the atom and their intensity
b) Filter c) Colour results in the emission of radiation of the same or longer depends upon the concentration of atoms in the sample.
c) Photomultiplier tube d) Composition wavelengths for a long time, the phenomenon is termed X-ray fluorescence spectroscopy is based on this principle.
d) Attenuator View Answer as which of the following?
View Answer a) Luminescence 7. Which of the following is Mosely’s equation if ‘C’ is the
Answer: d b) Fluorescence speed of light, ‘a’ is proportionality constant, ‘σ’ is a
Answer: d Explanation: In absorption meter, the change in thickness constant which depends on electronic transition series, ‘Z’
c) Phosphorescence
Explanation: In absorption meter, attenuator is placed of aluminium required for different samples is a function is the atomic number and ‘λ’ is the wavelength?
d) Spontaneous emission
between the chopper and the reference cell. A variable of the difference in composition. A variable thickness a) Cλ= a(Z-σ)2
View Answer
thickness aluminium attenuator is used. attenuator used allows this function. b) C/λ= a(Z-σ)2
Answer: c c) C(Z-σ)2= aλ
6. In absorption meter, the two halves of the X-ray beam 10. Absorption meters cannot be used to detect broken Explanation: If the absorption of electromagnetic radiation d) C(Z-σ)2= a/λ
are allowed to fall on which of the following components? bones. by matter results in the emission of radiation of the same View Answer
a) Collimator a) True or longer wavelengths for a long time, the phenomenon is
b) Filter b) False Answer: b
termed as phosphorescence. Phosphorescence is a type of
c) Photomultiplier tube View Answer Explanation: The Mosely’s equation is, C/λ= a(Z-σ)2.
luminescence.
d) Attenuator It gives the relationship between the speed of light,
View Answer Answer: b 4. Prompt emission of X-ray by an atom ionised by a higher reciprocal of wavelength and atomic number.
Explanation: Absorption meters can be used to detect energy X-ray is a type of which of the following
Answer: c broken bones. It can also be used to locate trace elements. phenomena?
Explanation: In absorption meter, the two halves of the X-
8. The problem of spectral interference is not severe in X- c) To provide a proper range Answer: b 11. Which of the following is the disadvantage of silicon
ray spectroscopy. d) To reduce unwanted background Explanation: In Energy dispersive system, the energy level semiconductor detector?
a) True View Answer is related to the element involved. The number of pulses is a) Low stable
b) False related to the concentration of the element involved. b) Can be operated only at low temperatures
View Answer Answer: d c) Have low count-rate
Explanation: Mono-energetic radiation source is required 7. The analysis of X-ray beam by diffraction is similar to d) Low resolution
Answer: a in X-ray fluorescent spectrometer to reduce unwanted spectrum analysis carried out with a diffraction grating. View Answer
Explanation: The problem of spectral interference is not background. This occurs due to the scattering occurring a) True
severe in X-ray spectroscopy. This is due to the relative over a broad range of wavelengths. b) False Answer: b
simplicity of the X-ray spectra. View Answer Explanation: The disadvantage of silicon semiconductor
3. Which of the following does not make the X-ray tube detector is that they can be operated only at low
9. In X-ray fluorescence spectrometer, the relationship nearly monochromatic? Answer: a temperatures. They have high stability, high count-rate
between the excitation intensity and the intensity of a) Transmission-anode X-ray tube Explanation: The analysis of X-ray beam by diffraction is and adequate resolution.
fluorescence does not depend on which of the following? b) Secondary fluorescence target similar to spectrum analysis carried out with a diffraction
a) Spectrum of the incident radiation c) Slit grating. Wavelength dispersive type of meter derives its 12. Given below is the diagram of energy dispersive
b) Angle of radiance d) Filters name from this fact. system. Identify the unmarked component.
c) Molecular weight View Answer
d) Incident angle 8. The crystal used as X-ray grating has _______
View Answer Answer: c dimensional lattice arrays.
Explanation: Slits do not make the X-ray tube nearly a) One
Answer: d monochromatic. The most commonly used source is X-ray b) Two
Explanation: In X-ray fluorescence spectrometer, the tubes. c) Three
relationship between the excitation intensity and the d) Four
intensity of fluorescence does not depend on the incident 4. Which of the following components make use of a thin View Answer
angle. It depends on the absorption of path length. metal foil to isolate a nearly mono-energetic excitation
beam? Answer: c
10. Fluorescent X-ray spectrometers would require only a) Transmission-anode X-ray tube Explanation: The crystal used as X-ray grating has three a) Lens
moderate-intensity X-ray tubes. b) Secondary fluorescence target dimensional lattice arrays. Photons can be coherently b) Specimen
a) True c) Slit scattered using the crystals. c) Sample holder
b) False d) Filters d) Energy analyser
View Answer View Answer 9. Which of the following can be done to avoid loss of View Answer
intensities of X-rays due to the absorption of long
Answer: b Answer: d wavelength X-rays? Answer: b
Explanation: Fluorescent X-ray spectrometers would Explanation: Filters make use of a thin metal foil to isolate a) Apparatus must be contained in a chamber Explanation: The unmarked component is specimen. This
require high-intensity X-ray tubes. They also require a nearly mono-energetic excitation beam. Nickel is one of b) Air in the chamber must be replaced by helium system consists of source, sample and detector.
sensitive detectors and suitable X-ray optics. the metals that is used in filters. c) Inert gas atmosphere must be provided
d) Proper slits must be used
5. Energy dispersive system uses which of the following View Answer TOTAL REFLECTION X-RAY FLUORESCENCE
detectors? SPECTROMETER
X-RAY FLUORESCENT SPECTROMETER a) Optical detector Answer: b
b) Semiconductor detector Explanation: Air in the chamber must be replaced by 1. In total reflection X-ray fluorescence spectrometer, the
1. Which of the following components of the X-ray
c) Thermistor helium to avoid loss of intensities of X-rays due to the specimen is excited by the primary X-ray beam at a grazing
fluorescent spectrometer induces fluorescent radiation?
d) Bolometer absorption of long wavelength X-rays. Vacuum chambers angle _______ the critical angle.
a) Excitation source
View Answer can also be used. a) Greater than
b) Energy analyser
c) X-ray spectrometer b) Less than
Answer: b 10. In curved crystal arrangement, angular velocity of the c) Equal to
d) Detection System Explanation: Energy dispersive system uses semiconductor crystal is twice that of the detector.
View Answer d) Which is a complement of
detectors. It consists of an excitation source and a sample. a) True
View Answer
b) False
Answer: a 6. In Energy dispersive system, the energy level and the View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: Excitation source induces fluorescent number of pulses is related to which of the following?
radiation in X-ray fluorescent spectrometer. A mono- Explanation: In total reflection X-ray fluorescence
a) Amount of sample, element involved Answer: b
energetic source is required for this purpose. spectrometer, the specimen is excited by the primary X-
b) Element involved, concentration of the element Explanation: In curved crystal arrangement, angular ray beam at a grazing angle less than the critical angle.
c) Concentration of the element, element involved velocity of the detector is twice that of the crystal. This Total internal reflection occurs at the critical angle.
2. Why is a mono-energetic radiation source required in X-
d) Number of atoms, amount of sample arrangement is suitable for the analysis of small
ray fluorescent spectrometer?
View Answer specimens. 2. The x-ray beam produced by the primary x-ray tube
a) To provide good sensitivity
b) To provide high accuracy passes through which of the following components to
produce the incident radiation? Answer: c corrections? a) Test tube
a) Detector Explanation: The detection system comprises of peltier a) Initial raw intensity data b) Glass capillary tube
b) Slit-collimator arrangement cooled solid state detector. It also has a spectroscopy b) Elemental composition c) Vacuum column
c) Sample reflector amplifier. c) Amount of sample d) Curvette
d) Monochromator d) Amount of radiation View Answer
View Answer 7. Which of the following happens when a large solid angle View Answer
is intercepted as the detector is placed close to the Answer: c
Answer: b sample? Answer: a Explanation: The specimen is mounted inside the vacuum
Explanation: The x-ray beam produced by the primary x- a) Maximum efficiency increases Explanation: In the computer-controlled corrective column in the instrument. It is under the beam as the
ray tube passes through the slit-collimator arrangement. b) Maximum efficiency decreases iteration method, initial raw intensity data is used to target.
This forms the incident radiation. c) Efficiency is not affected estimate absorption corrections. Elemental composition is
d) Process response becomes fast used to calculate absorption corrections. 4. The electrons are accelerated by voltages in which of
3. Which of the following crystals are polished to act as the View Answer the following ranges?
cut-off reflector? 12. Total reflection X-ray fluorescence spectrometer is a) 5 and 50kV
a) Quartz Answer: a attractive for elements which lack reliable wet chemical b) 50 and 500kV
b) Beryllium Explanation: When the detector is placed very close to the methods. c) 500 and 5000kV
c) Silicon sample, the maximum efficiency increases. This is because a) True d) 25 and 250kV
d) Lithium large angle is intercepted. b) False View Answer
View Answer View Answer
8. To monitor the primary beam, which of the following is Answer: a
Answer: c used? Answer: a Explanation: The whole system operates in a vacuum. The
Explanation: Quartz crystals are polished to act as the cut- a) Scintillation counter Explanation: Total reflection X-ray fluorescence electrons are accelerated by voltages in the range of 5 and
off reflector. It is mounted on the first reflector stage. b) GM counter spectrometer is attractive for elements which lack reliable 50kV.
c) Gamma counter wet chemical methods. Example for such elements are
4. The suppression of high energy bremsstrahlung d) Proportional counter tantalum and rare earth metals. 5. Electron probe microanalyser is a method of destructive
radiation improves which of the following? View Answer elemental analysis.
a) Signal to background ratio a) True
b) Accuracy Answer: b b) False
c) Sensitivity Explanation: To monitor the primary beam, Gm counter is ELECTRON PROBE MICROANALYSER View Answer
d) Coherence used. It is placed in the specular reflection direction.
1. Which of the following is not a type of optics employed Answer: a
View Answer
9. The major problem associated with sample preparation in electron probe microanalyser? Explanation: Electron probe microanalyser uses a finely
Answer: a is which of the following? a) Electron optics focussed electron beam to excite the X-rays. It is a method
Explanation: The suppression of high energy a) Preparing sample in the right quantity b) Light optics of destructive elemental analysis.
bremsstrahlung radiation improves the signal to b) Choosing sample holders c) X-ray optics
background ratio. Hence, it is performed in total reflection c) Matrix effects d) Gamma optics 6. Which of the following is the effective resolution limit in
X-ray fluorescence spectrometer. d) Reflection by holders View Answer electron probe microanalyser?
View Answer a) 1mm
5. Which of the following components are used as the Answer: d b) 10mm
sample carrier? Answer: c Explanation: Gamma optics is not a type of optics used in c) 100mm
a) Curvette Explanation: The major problem associated with sample electron probe microanalyser. Electron optics, light optics d) 1000mm
b) Flask preparation is matrix effects. The primary and emitted and X-ray optics are employed. View Answer
c) Capillary tube radiation is absorbed by the element present along with
2. The electron optics consists of an electron gun followed Answer: a
d) Float glass the elements of interest.
by which of the following components? Explanation: The electrons spread laterally and
View Answer
10. Computer-controlled corrective iteration is the only a) Collimator longitudinally in the sample by approximately 1mm.
Answer: d reliable method of matrix effects correction. b) Slit Hence, the effective resolution limit is 1mm.
Explanation: Float glass is used as the sample carrier. It is a) True c) Amplifier
mounted as the second reflector stage. b) False d) Electron beam probe 7. Micro probe analyser cannot be used on
View Answer View Answer inhomogeneous material.
6. Which of the following devices are used as a detector? a) True
a) Thermistor Answer: a Answer: d b) False
b) Optical detector Explanation: Computer-controlled corrective iteration is Explanation: The electron optics consists of an electron View Answer
c) Solid state detector the only reliable method of matrix effects correction. This gun followed by an electron beam probe. This is formed by
d) Golay cell is used in places where an unknown matrix occurs. two electro-magnetic lenses. Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Micro probe analyser can be used on
11. In computer-controlled corrective iteration method, 3. The specimen is mounted inside which of the following inhomogeneous material. It can also be focussed on a very
which of the following is used to estimate absorption components? small area.
8. X-ray emission must be analysed against a background 2. NMR is the study of the absorption of __________ by which is perpendicular to it. This permits the identification Answer: d
of _______ radiation. nuclei in a magnetic field. of atomic configurations in molecules. Explanation: The amount of energy available in radio
a) Blue a) Radioactive radiation frequency radiation is sufficient for affecting the nuclear
b) Yellow b) IR radiation 6. Interaction between matter and electromagnetic spin of an atom. It constitutes the most fundamental part
c) White c) Radio frequency radiation radiation can be observed by subjecting a substance to of spectroscopy.
d) Green d) Microwaves magnetic fields in which of the following manner?
View Answer View Answer a) Both fields should be stationary 10. Nuclei having either the number of protons or
b) Both fields should be varying neutrons as odd have _______ spin.
Answer: c Answer: c c) One field should be stationary and the other should be a) Integral spin
Explanation: X-ray emission must be analysed against a Explanation: NMR is the study of absorption of radio varying b) Half integral spin
background of white radiation. Microprobe has poorer frequency radiation by nuclei in a magnetic field. For a d) It must be subjected to only one field c) Zero spin
sensitivity than XRF spectrometer. particular nucleus, an NMR absorption spectrum may View Answer d) Positive spin
consist of one to several groups of absorption lines. View Answer
9. Which of the following is the limit of detectability of Answer: c
electron microprobe analyser? 3. NMR spectrometer provides ____________ and Explanation: Interaction between matter and Answer: b
a) 10-14 g _____________ method of determining structure in electromagnetic radiation can be observed by subjecting a Explanation: Nuclei having either the number of protons or
b) 10-140 g soluble chemical compounds. substance to two magnetic fields. One magnetic field must neutrons as odd have half-integral spin. Examples are H1
c) 10-7 g a) Accurate, destructive be stationary and the other field must be varying at some and B11.
d) 10-70 g b) Accurate, non-destructive radio frequency.
View Answer c) Inaccurate, destructive 11. If the number of protons or neutrons is even the spin
d) Inaccurate, non-destructive 7. When energy is absorbed by the sample, the absorption of the nucleus will be which of the following?
Answer: a View Answer can be observed as a change in signal developed by which a) Integral spin
Explanation: Electron microprobe analyser allows the of the following components? b) Half integral spin
analysis of extremely small objects. The limit of Answer: b a) Amplifier c) Zero spin
detectability is 10-14 g. Explanation: NMR spectrometer provides an accurate and b) Photodetector d) Positive spin
non-destructive method of determining structure in c) GM counter View Answer
10. The alternative method using laser does not analyse soluble chemical compounds. For a particular nucleus an d) Radiofrequency detector
vapours by which of the following methods? NMR absorption spectrum may consist of one to several View Answer Answer: c
a) Mass spectrometer groups of absorption lines. Explanation: If the number of protons or neutrons is even
b) Optical emission Answer: d the spin of the nucleus will be zero. Examples are C12 and
c) Absorption photometry 4. NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical nature of the Explanation: When energy is absorbed by the sample, the O16.
d) X-ray photometry __________ and spatial positions of _______ absorption can be observed as a change in signal
View Answer a) Electrons, Protons developed by a radiofrequency detector. It is then given to 12. The difference between the field necessary for
b) Neutrons, electrons an amplifier. resonance in the sample and in some arbitrary a chosen
Answer: d c) Nuclei, electrons compound is which of the following?
Explanation: The alternative method using laser does not d) Nuclei, neighbouring nuclei 8. Which of the following are considered to be the lowest a) Field shift
analyse vapours by X-ray photometry. This method is View Answer form of Electromagnetic radiation? b) Matrix effects
gaining popularity. a) IR radiation c) Chemical shift
Answer: d b) Micro waves d) Resonance shift
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy indicates the chemical c) UV radiation View Answer
nature of the nuclei and spatial positions of neighbouring d) Radio waves
NUCLEAR MAGNETIC RESONANCE SPECTROMETER Answer: c
nuclei. It is one of the most powerful techniques for View Answer
chemical analysis. Explanation: The difference between the field necessary
PRINCIPLE OF NUCLEAR MAGNETIC RESONANCE
Answer: d for resonance in the sample and in some arbitrary chosen
SPECTROMETER
5. In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in a strong Explanation: Radio waves are considered to be the lowest compound is called a chemical shift. Chemical shift is
1. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in magnetic field must be irradiated by which of the form of Electromagnetic radiation. NMR uses radio expressed in parts per million.
which of the following materials? following? frequency radiation for detection of the structure of
a) Perpendicular and stronger field substances. 13. Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the idea of
a) Radioactive materials
b) Perpendicular and weaker field how atoms are joined together.
b) Insoluble chemical compounds
c) Parallel and stronger field 9. The amount of energy available in radio frequency a) True
c) Liquids
d) Parallel and weaker field radiation is sufficient for which of the following? b) False
d) Gases
View Answer a) Excite an atom View Answer
View Answer
b) Vibrate an atom
Answer: b c) Vibrate a molecule Answer: a
Answer: c
Explanation: In NMR spectroscopy, the spinning nuclei in a d) Affect the nuclear spin of an atom Explanation: Chemical shift allows a chemist to obtain the
Explanation: NMR spectroscopy is used for determining
strong magnetic field must be irradiated by a weaker field View Answer idea of how atoms are joined together. It is also possible
structure in liquids. It is also used for determining the
structure in soluble chemical compounds.
to know the number of particular atoms present in a a) Slowly varying low voltage Answer: a 3. In field sweep method, which of the following
molecule. b) Rapidly varying low voltage Explanation: Minimal type NMR spectrometer uses a parameters are varied continuously?
c) Slowly varying scan voltage permanent magnet. Hence, it does not require a power a) Magnetic field
14. Elementary particles such as electrons and nucleus d) Rapidly varying scan voltage supply and cooling system. b) RF signal
have the property of spin. View Answer c) Sample concentration
a) True 9. Minimal type of NMR spectrometer is inexpensive. d) Amplification factor
b) False Answer: c a) True View Answer
View Answer Explanation: In wideline NMR spectrometers, slowly b) False
varying scan voltage has to be supplied to the View Answer Answer: a
Answer: a electromagnet. This is injected using a regulator. Explanation: In frequency sweep method, RF signal is held
Explanation: Elementary particles such as electrons and Answer: a constant. Magnetic field is swept or varied continuously.
nucleus have the property of spin. They are known to 5. Which among the following NMR spectrometer is the Explanation: Minimal type of NMR spectrometer is
behave as if they rotate about an axis. more diverse spectrometer? inexpensive. It uses a permanent magnet and does not 4. Which of the following statements are not true about
a) Minimal type require a power supply. permanent magnets?
b) Maximal type a) They are simple
c) Multipurpose type 10. Which of the following is used as a coolant for magnets b) They are inexpensive
TYPES OF NMR SPECTROMETERS in continuous-wave NMR spectrometer?
d) Wideline type c) They don’t require shielding
View Answer a) Water d) They don’t require power supply
1. Which of the following is not a type of NMR
b) Liquid He View Answer
spectrometer?
Answer: c c) Liquid Na
a) Minimal type
Explanation: Multipurpose type NMR spectrometer is d) Heavy water Answer: c
b) Maximal type
more diverse. These instruments are designed mainly for View Answer Explanation: Permanent magnets are simple and
c) Multipurpose type
research. inexpensive. But, permanent magnets require extensive
d) Wideline type Answer: a shielding.
View Answer 6. Permanent magnet cannot be used in wideline type Explanation: Water is used as a coolant for magnets in
NMR spectrometer. continuous-wave NMR spectrometer. Liquid He is used for 5. Which of the following is not true of electromagnets?
Answer: b
a) True FT-NMR spectrometers. a) They are expensive
Explanation: Maximal type is not a type of NMR
b) False b) They require a power supply
spectrometer. Minimal type, Multipurpose type and
View Answer c) They don’t require a cooling system
Wideline type are types of NMR spectrometer.
d) They don’t require extensive shielding
Answer: b CONTINUOUS WAVE NMR SPECTROSCOPY
2. Which of the following NMR spectrometers have View Answer
Explanation: Permanent magnet can be used in wideline
stressed reliability and ease of operation? 1. Which of the following components are used to
type NMR spectrometer. Compact, light-weight Answer: c
a) Minimal type separate the nuclear spin energy states?
electromagnet can also be used. Explanation: Electromagnets require a power supply. They
b) Maximal type a) RF channels
also require cooling systems.
c) Multipurpose type 7. Which of the following NMR spectrometer emphasises b) Magnet
d) Wideline type on high performance versatility with cost being a c) Sample probe 6. For high resolution work the magnetic field over the
View Answer secondary consideration? d) Sweep generator entire sample volume must be maintained uniform in
a) Minimal type View Answer space and time.
Answer: a
b) Maximal type a) True
Explanation: Minimal type has stressed the reliability and Answer: b
c) Multipurpose type b) False
ease of operation. It uses a permanent magnet. Explanation: A magnet is used to separate the nuclear spin
d) Wideline type View Answer
energy states. Permanent magnet or electromagnets can
3. Which of the following type of NMR spectrometer uses View Answer
be used. Answer: a
a frequency synthesizer to generate RF fields?
Answer: c Explanation: For high resolution work the magnetic field
a) Minimal type 2. In frequency sweep method, which of the following
Explanation: Multipurpose type is mainly used for over the entire sample volume must be maintained
b) Maximal type parameters are varied continuously?
research. Hence, it emphasises on high performance uniform in space and time. To do this all the components
c) Multipurpose type a) Magnetic field
versatility with cost being a secondary consideration. must be kept in specified conditions.
d) Wideline type b) RF signal
View Answer 8. Which of the following NMR spectrometer does not c) Sample concentration 7. Which of the following must not be done to maintain
require a power supply and cooling system? d) Amplification factor the magnetic field over the sample uniform in space and
Answer: c View Answer
a) Minimal type time?
Explanation: Wideline type NMR spectrometer uses a
b) Maximal type a) Large pole pieces need to be used
frequency synthesizer to generate RF fields. It is a type of Answer: b
c) Multipurpose type b) Pole faces must be polished
continuous wave NMR spectrometer. Explanation: In frequency sweep method, magnetic field is
d) Wideline type c) Wide pole gap must be present
held constant. RF signal is swept or varied continuously.
4. In wideline NMR spectrometers, which of the following View Answer d) Magnets can be permanent or electromagnet
has to be supplied to the electromagnet? View Answer
Answer: c homogeneous. The inhomogeneity of magnetic fields is b) Maintenance is difficult
Explanation: Narrow pole gap must be present to maintain a) Recorder compensated with small magnetic fields. c) High operating cost
the magnetic field over the sample uniform in space and b) RF channel d) Excitation is inefficient
time. The pole faces must be polished to optical c) Receiver View Answer
tolerances. d) Sweep generator
FOURIER TRANSFORM NMR SPECTROSCOPY Answer: d
View Answer
8. The sample is contained in which of the following Explanation: The disadvantage of conventional mode of a
1. Fourier transform NMR spectrometer allows NMR
components? Answer: d spectrometer or continuous-wave NMR spectrometer is
transitions to be observed simultaneously.
a) Flask Explanation: The unmarked component is sweep that the excitation is inefficient. Only a narrow band of
a) True
b) Capillary tube generator. Either field or frequency can be swept. frequencies are contributing to the signal at a time.
b) False
c) Curvette
12. The voltage generated by the receiver coil is small and View Answer 6. Which of the following must be done to improve
d) Bore glass tube
View Answer it must be amplified. sensitivity?
Answer: a
a) True a) Frequency sweep mode must be preferred
Explanation: Fourier transform NMR spectrometer is a
Answer: d b) False b) Field sweep mode must be preferred
type of NMR spectrometer. It allows samples to be
Explanation: The sample is contained in a bore glass tube. View Answer c) Single channel excitation must be preferred
observed simultaneously instead of serially.
It should be cylindrical and thin-walled. d) Multichannel excitation must be preferred
Answer: a View Answer
2. Fourier transform NMR spectrometer has which of the
9. The single coil probe supplies the RF radiation to the Explanation: The voltage generated by the receiver coil is
following characteristics?
sample and also serves as a part of which of the following small and it must be amplified. It is them fed to the Answer: d
a) Increased sensitivity, long time to obtain data
circuits? recorder or oscilloscope. Explanation: Sweep techniques have less sensitivity. To
b) Decreased sensitivity, long time to obtain data
a) RF channels improve sensitivity, multichannel excitation must be
13. The amplification required for continuous-wave NMR c) Increased sensitivity, reduced time to obtain data
b) Magnet preferred.
is of the order of which of the following? d) Decreased sensitivity, reduced time to obtain data
c) Detector
a) 101 View Answer 7. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
d) Sweep generator
View Answer b) 102 multichannel excitation?
Answer: c
c) 103 a) Low sensitivity
Explanation: Fourier transform NMR spectrometer has
Answer: c d) 105 b) Low resolution
increased sensitivity. It takes less time to obtain NMR data.
Explanation: The single coil probe supplies the RF radiation View Answer c) Small number of frequencies is present
to the sample and also serves as a part of the detector 3. Which of the following cannot be done due to the d) Uneconomical
circuit. It has only one coil. Answer: d View Answer
multiplex advantage?
Explanation: The amplification required for continuous-
a) Repetitive signals can be summed
10. Nuclear induction probes’ one coil is used for signal wave NMR is of the order of 105. The spectrum can be Answer: d
b) Repetitive signals can be averaged
detection. What is the function of the other coil? recorded after amplification. Explanation: Large number of frequencies is present in
c) Increases signal to noise ratio
a) Sample irradiation multichannel excitation. This is uneconomical since a
14. Which of the following can be used instead of magnets d) Decreases signal to noise ratio
b) Magnet receiver is required for each channel.
to produce the magnetic field? View Answer
c) Detector
d) Sweep generator a) Inductor 8. How can the need for an array of narrow-band filters
Answer: d
View Answer b) Motor and detectors be eliminated?
Explanation: The multiplexing advantage allows
c) Generator a) By using multi-channel excitation
improvement of the signal to noise ratio. It also allows
Answer: a d) Superconducting solenoids b) By using a detector for each frequency
repetitive signals to be summed and averaged.
Explanation: Crossed coil probes are also called nuclear View Answer c) By reducing the number of detectors
induction probes. One coil is used for irradiating the 4. Two coils are necessary for Fourier transform NMR d) By using Fourier transform
sample. The other coil is mounted orthogonally for signal Answer: d View Answer
spectroscopy.
detection. Explanation: Superconducting solenoids can be used
a) True
instead of magnets to produce the magnetic field. The Answer: d
b) False
11. Given below is the diagram of Cw NMR spectrometer. magnet must be stable and homogeneous. Explanation: Fourier transform plays the role of a
View Answer
Identify the unmarked component. multichannel receiver. Hence, the need for array of
15. How is the inhomogeneity of magnetic fields narrow-band filters can be eliminated
Answer: b
compensated?
Explanation: Only one coil is necessary for Fourier
a) With large magnetic fields 9. Fourier transform can be accomplished by using which
transform NMR spectroscopy. The coil serves as both
b) With small magnetic fields of the following components?
antenna for transmitting and receiving RF radiation.
c) By using two or more magnets a) Spin decoder
d) By providing required insulation 5. Which of the following is the disadvantage of b) Detector
View Answer conventional mode of spectrometer or continuous-wave c) Spectrum analyser
NMR spectrometer? d) Oscilloscope
Answer: b View Answer
a) They are unstable
Explanation: The magnet must be stable and
Answer: c Answer: d Answer: a power supplied to the oven heaters. The temperature is
Explanation: Fourier transform can be accomplished by Explanation: Time averaging techniques does not enhance Explanation: Suppression of frequencies which contain no maintained at plus or minus 1oC.
using a spectrum analyser. Any complex waveform can be sensitivity by a factor of 10. The other two techniques signal increases S/N ratio. The noise decreases.
converted to frequencies using Fourier transform. enhance sensitivity by a factor of 10 at normal operating 12. In Spin Decoupler, the difference frequency circuit
conditions. 8. The amplitude of the NMR signal caused by the provides a means of mixing two signals and a filter to
10. A 15.4 MHz crystal generates the _________ absorption of RF energy at the radio frequency does not recover which of the following?
resonance frequency. 4. The most common spherical cells have which of the depend upon the power of the RF energy applied. a) Low-frequency component
a) Hydrogen following dimensions? a) True b) High-frequency component
b) Deuterium a) 4mm diameter b) False c) Low-voltage component
c) Tritium b) 40mm diameter View Answer d) High-voltage component
d) Helium c) 8mm diameter View Answer
View Answer d) 80mm diameter Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The amplitude of the NMR signal caused by Answer: a
Answer: b the absorption of RF energy at the radio frequency Explanation: In Spin Decoupler, the difference frequency
Explanation: A 15.4 MHz crystal generates the deuterium Answer: a depends on the power of the RF energy applied. It also circuit provides a means of mixing two signals and a filter
resonance frequency. This resonance signal is used to lock Explanation: The most common spherical cells have 4mm depends on the sweep rate selected. to recover the low-frequency component. It is included to
the magnetic signal to clock frequency. diameter. A 1mm capillary cell is centred along the axis of provide a read-out frequency.
the coil. 9. Which of the following is not involved in signal
averaging?
5. Better sensitivity with good resolution can be achieved a) A system to repeatedly scan the spectral region of
SENSIVITY ENHANCEMENT FOR NMR SPECTROSCOPY by concentrating the sample inside which of the following? interest MASS SPECTROMETER
a) Sample cell b) Some storage device to store information
1. Sensitivity is the ratio of peak signal amplitude to which PRINCIPLE OF OPERATION OF MASS SPECTROMETER
b) Micro cell c) A system to coherently add individual spectra
of the following?
c) Sample tube d) Sweep generator 1. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the
a) Time
d) Cylindrical tube View Answer following?
b) Rms noise
View Answer a) Composition in sample
c) Average noise Answer: d
d) Peak-to-peak noise b) Concentration of elements in sample
Answer: b Explanation: Sweep generator is not involved in signal
View Answer c) Relative mass of atoms
Explanation: Better sensitivity with good resolution can be averaging. This is usually accomplished using a small
d) Properties of sample
achieved by concentrating the sample inside a specially computer.
Answer: b View Answer
designed NMR microcell. It could be a spherical cell or a
Explanation: Sensitivity is the ratio of peak signal 10. In order to have a long measuring time for increasing
capillary cell. Answer: c
amplitude to rms noise. It is a measure of the ability of an sensitivity, it is better to have several fast scans than a
instrument to differentiate signal from surrounding noise. Explanation: Mass spectrometers are used to determine
6. Frequency spectrum of noise occupies a band that is single slow scan.
the relative mass of atoms and molecules. Aston made the
_________ the signal spectrum. Choose the most a) True
2. Which of the following is not an operating technique for instrument more accurate.
appropriate option. b) False
sensitivity enhancement?
a) Narrow than View Answer 2. Who invented mass spectrometers?
a) Optimization of sample volume
b) Wider than a) J.J Thompson
b) Optimization of instrumental parameters Answer: a
c) Different from b) Goldstein
c) Optimization of noise Explanation: In order to have a long measuring time for
d) Same as c) Nikola Tesla
d) Time averaging increasing sensitivity, it is better to have several fast scans
View Answer d) Aston
View Answer than a single slow scan. The sensitivity increases by the
View Answer
Answer: b square root of a number of scans.
Answer: c
Explanation: Frequency spectrum of noise occupies a band Answer: a
Explanation: There are only three operating techniques for 11. In Spin Decoupler, the output of the DC amplifier is
that is wider than the signal spectrum. Filters operate on Explanation: J.J Thompson introduced mass
sensitivity enhancement. Optimization of noise is not an applied to which of the following to control the power
this concept. spectrometers. Aston modified the instrument to make it
operating technique for sensitivity enhancement. supplied to the oven heaters?
more accurate.
7. Suppression of frequencies which contain no signal does a) Power diode
3. Which of the following techniques do not enhance
which of the following? b) Power transistor 3. In mass spectrometer, the sample that has to be
sensitivity by a factor of 10 at normal operating
a) Increases S/N ratio c) Power MOSFET analysed is bombarded with which of the following?
conditions?
b) Decreases S/N ratio d) Power IGBT a) Protons
a) Optimization of sample volume
c) S/N ratio is kept constant View Answer b) Electrons
b) Optimization of instrumental parameters
d) S/N ratio becomes 1 c) Neutrons
c) Optimization of noise Answer: b
View Answer d) Alpha particles
d) Time averaging Explanation: In Spin Decoupler, the output of the DC
View Answer View Answer
amplifier is applied to the power transistor to control the
Answer: b 8. In a mass spectrometer, the ion currents are measured a) Inlet system introduced into the entrance of the chamber. They are
Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the sample which is to using which of the following? b) Sweep generator introduced using silica or platinum probe.
be analysed is bombarded with electrons. As a result, ions a) Scintillation counter c) Ion transducer
are produced. b) Ion counter d) Mass analyser 6. Which of the following is not a type of ionisation?
c) Electrometer tube View Answer a) Field ionisation
4. Mass spectrometer separates ions on the basis of which d) Electric fields b) Spontaneous ionisation
of the following? View Answer Answer: b c) Spark ionisation
a) Mass Explanation: Sweep generator is not a component of a d) Chemical ionisation
b) Charge Answer: c mass spectrometer. It is a component of NMR View Answer
c) Molecular weight Explanation: The ion currents are measured using a spectrometer.
d) Mass to charge ratio sensitive electrometer tube. The ions reaching the Answer: b
View Answer collecting plate are measured. 2. Which of the following can be introduced into the Explanation: Spontaneous ionisation is not a type of
ionization chamber directly? ionisation. In mass spectrometer, ionisation is brought
Answer: d 9. Which of the following ions pass through the slit and a) Solid samples with low vapour pressure about by thermal or electrical energy.
Explanation: Mass spectrometer separates ions on the reach the collecting plate? b) Solid samples with high vapour pressure
basis of mass to charge ratio. Most of the ions are singly a) Negative ions of all masses c) Liquid samples with low density 7. Mass analyser is similar to which of the following in
charged. Hence, the mass to charge ratio is equal to the b) Positive ions of all masses d) Liquid samples with high density optical spectrometer?
mass. c) Negative ions of specific mass View Answer a) Source
d) Positive ions of specific mass b) Monochromator
5. In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out in which View Answer Answer: a c) Detector
of the following ways? Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour pressure can d) Sample
a) By accelerating them through electric field Answer: d be introduced into the ionization chamber directly. View Answer
b) By accelerating them through magnetic field Explanation: Positive ions of specific mass pass through
c) By accelerating them through electric and magnetic field the slit and reach the collecting plate. These ions are 3. Inlet system is also known as which of the following? Answer: b
d) By applying a high voltage measured. a) Initial system Explanation: Mass analyser is similar to monochromator in
View Answer b) Sample reservoir an optical spectrometer. It separates ions according to
10. Which of the following statements is not true about c) Sample handling system their mass/charge ratio.
Answer: c mass spectrometry? d) Element injection system
Explanation: In mass spectrometer, the ions are sorted out a) Impurities of masses different from the one being View Answer 8. Which of the following is not one of the types of mass
by accelerating them through an electric and magnetic analysed interferes with the result analyser?
field. A record of number of different kinds of ions is called b) It has great sensitivity Answer: c a) Magnetic sector analyser
mass spectrum. c) It is suitable for data storage Explanation: Inlet system introduces the sample into the b) Frequency sweep analyser
d) It is suitable for library retrieval ion source. Hence, it is called a sample handling system. c) Double focussing spectrometer
6. No two molecules will be fragmented and ionized in View Answer d) Time of flight analyser
exactly the same manner. 4. Which of the following is normally done to convert the View Answer
a) True Answer: a sample into the gaseous state?
b) False Explanation: Impurities of masses different from the one a) Sample is pressurized Answer: b
View Answer being analysed does not interfere with the result in mass b) Chemical reactions are made to occur Explanation: Frequency sweep analyser is not a type of
spectroscopy. This is a major advantage of this technique. c) Sample is heated mass analyser. There are many devices available for mass
Answer: a d) Sample is cooled analysis.
Explanation: No two molecules will be fragmented and 11. In mass spectrometer, the sample gas is introduced View Answer
ionized in exactly the same manner. This is how different into the highly evacuated spectrometer tube and it is 9. Which of the following is not a type of ion detector used
molecules are identified in a complex mixture. ionised by electron beam. Answer: c in mass spectrometers?
a) True Explanation: The sample must always be in the gaseous a) Electron multiplier
7. The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts with which b) False state. Hence, the liquid sample must be heated before b) Flame emission detector
of the following processes? View Answer introducing them into the ionization chamber. c) Faraday cup collector
a) The sample is bombarded by electron beam d) Photographic plates
b) The ions are separated by passing them into electric and Answer: a 5. Which of the following probes are used for the View Answer
magnetic field Explanation: The sample gas is introduced into the highly introduction of the sample?
c) The sample is converted into gaseous state evacuated spectrometer tube and it is ionised by an a) Silica Answer: b
d) The ions are detected electron beam. The sample has to be in a gaseous state. b) Quartz Explanation: Flame emission detector is not a type of ion
View Answer c) Graphite detector used in mass spectrometers. Ion detectors
d) Silver produce a current on the output side when there are ions
Answer: c View Answer on the input side.
Explanation: The procedure for mass spectroscopy starts COMPONENTS OF MASS SPECTROMETER
with converting the sample into a gaseous state. This is Answer: a 10. Which of the following is used to inject liquid samples?
1. Which of the following is not a component of mass Explanation: Solid samples with low vapour pressure are a) Hypodermic needle
done by chemical processes.
spectrometer? b) Glass bulb
c) Capillary tube Answer: b Answer: c a) Electric sector
d) Curvette Explanation: In glow discharge ion source, the sample is Explanation: Magnetic sector will separate the ions b) Magnetic fold strength
View Answer atomised by the process of sputtering. It not only atomizes according to their mass-to-charge. The magnet will decide c) Magnetic constant
the sample but also provides means by which these atoms the mass to charge ratio. d) Electric constant
Answer: a are ionized. View Answer
Explanation: Liquid samples are injected through 5. Mattauch-Herzog geometry involves a deflection of
hypodermic needles. It is vaporized at low pressure. which of the following radians in a radial electrostatic field Answer: b
analyser? Explanation: Magnetic fold strength is usually varied in
11. Under which of the following temperatures is the MAGNETIC DEFLECTION MASS SPECTROMETER a) √2Π magnetic deflection mass spectrometer. Electric sector is
ionisation chamber maintained? b) Π/2 kept constant.
a) 100oC 1. Which of the following produces the electron beam in
c) Π/3√4
b) 200oC magnetic deflection mass spectrometer? 10. Nier-Johnson geometry involves a deflection of which
d) Π/4√2
c) 300oC a) Tungsten filament of the following radians in a radial electrostatic field
View Answer
d) 400oC b) Quartz rod analyser?
View Answer c) Silica Answer: d a) Π
d) Rhodium filament Explanation: Mattauch-Herzog geometry involves a b) Π/2
Answer: b View Answer deflection of Π/4√2 radians in a radial electrostatic field c) Π/3
Explanation: The ionisation chamber is maintained at analyser. It is followed by a magnetic deflection of Π/2 d) Π/4
200oC. It is also maintained at low pressure. Answer: a
radians. View Answer
Explanation: Tungsten filament produces the electron
12. Given below is the block diagram of mass beam in magnetic deflection mass spectrometer. The 6. Which of the following leads to the limitation of Answer: b
spectrometer. Identify the unmarked component. electrons are produced by the heated filament. resolution? Explanation: Nier-Johnson geometry involves a deflection
a) All ions do not have same energy of Π/2 radians in a radial electrostatic field analyser. A
2. In magnetic deflection mass spectrometer, in which of
b) All ions do not have same charge magnetic deflection of Π/3 radians follows the analyser.
the following ways is acceleration applied to the direction
c) All ions are not of the same size
of motion? 11. An accuracy of 1 part in 102 has been obtained in
d) All ions do not have the same charge
a) Inlet system a) In random manner precision mass measurements.
View Answer
b) Ionisation chamber b) Parallel to it a) True
c) Vacuum system c) Perpendicular to it Answer: a b) False
d) Ion transducer d) Along it Explanation: The resolution is limited as all ions do not View Answer
View Answer View Answer have the same energy. Hence, the ions would not have the
same velocity. Answer: b
Answer: d Answer: c Explanation: An accuracy of 1 part in 109 has been
Explanation: The unmarked component is ion transducer. Explanation: Acceleration in the mass spectrometer, is 7. The electric sector field is not subject to hysteresis. obtained in precision mass measurements. Spectrographs
It will give current at the output at its output side when applied perpendicular to the direction of motion. The a) True with photographic reading are used for analysis of solids.
ions are present on the input side. velocity of the object remains constant. b) False
View Answer
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of 3. Direct focussing is obtained by deflecting the ion beam
nebulizers that are commonly used? along a _________ trajectory through the magnetic field. Answer: a TIME OF FLIGHT MASS SPECTROMETER
a) Low cost a) 120o Explanation: The electric sector field is not subject to
b) Low uptake rate b) 150o 1. Which of the following is not a component of the time
hysteresis. Hence, the relationship between mass to
c) High efficiency c) 190o of flight analyser spectrometer?
charge ratio and accelerating voltage is linear.
d) High uptake rate d) 180o a) Ion source
View Answer View Answer 8. Which of the following components need to be added in b) Field free separation region
order to increase the resolution? c) Electron multiplication region
Answer: d Answer: d a) Ion source d) Photo tube
Explanation: Commonly used nebulizers have a low uptake Explanation: Direct focussing is obtained by deflecting the b) Detector View Answer
rate. They also have low cost and high efficiency. ion beam along a 180o trajectory through a magnetic field. c) Magnetic sector
The gap between the poles must be large enough to Answer: d
d) Electric sector
14. In glow discharge ion source, the sample is atomised contain the ion source. Explanation: Phototube is not a component of time of
View Answer
by which of the following process? flight mass spectrometer. Time of flight mass analyser is a
a) Evaporation 4. Which of the following separate the ions according to Answer: d type of mass spectrometer.
b) Sputtering their mass-to-charge? Explanation: Electric sector needs to be added in order to
c) Heating a) Ion source 2. Time of flight mass spectrometer has an unlimited mass
increase the resolution. This compensates for the decrease
d) Annealing b) Detector range.
in resolution due to varying velocities.
View Answer c) Magnetic sector a) True
d) Electric sector 9. Which of the following is commonly varied in magnetic b) False
View Answer deflection mass spectrometer? View Answer
Answer: a b) Acceleration method mass spectrum at a time 5. The DC ion accelerating voltage is swept from
Explanation: Time of flight mass spectrometer is a type of c) Dynamic method View Answer _________
mass spectrometer. It has unlimited mass range. d) Ion excitation method a) 0 to 50 V
View Answer Answer: d b) 50 to 100 V
3. Which of the following is not an advantage of mass Explanation: Conventional spectrometer detects only one c) 200 to 300 V
spectrometer? Answer: a peak at a time. Time of flight mass spectrometer has the d) 50 to 250 V
a) Simple Explanation: In the time of flight mass spectrometer, ions ability to record the entire mass spectrum at a time. View Answer
b) Rugged are formed by pulsed ionisation method. It is a type of
c) High sensitivity mass spectrometer. Answer: d
d) Unlimited mass range Explanation: The DC ion accelerating voltage is swept from
8. The evacuated tube is also known as which of the RADIOFREQUENCY MASS SPECTROMETER
View Answer 50 to 250 V. This is done twice per second.
following?
1. Which of the following is placed just before the detector
Answer: c a) Pulse tube 6. The resolution of the Bennet tube can be improved by
in a radiofrequency mass spectrometer?
Explanation: Time of flight mass spectrometers have b) Detector tube using which of the following?
a) Ion source
limited sensitivity and resolution. They are simple and c) Drift tube a) Sine wave rf signal
b) Potential energy selector
rugged. d) Acceleration tube b) Square wave rf signal
c) Ionisation chamber
View Answer c) Triangular wave rf signal
4. All the ions entering the tube have the same kinetic d) Reflectron
d) Random signal
energy. Answer: c View Answer
View Answer
a) True Explanation: The evacuated tube is also known as a drift
Answer: b
b) False tube. The electrons move from source to detector through Answer: b
Explanation: A potential energy selector is placed before
View Answer the tube. Explanation: The resolution of the Bennet tube can be
the detector. It balances out the energy of the ion beam.
improved by using square wave rf signal. Usually,
Answer: a 9. The current produced by ions arriving at the collector sinusoidal wave signal is used.
2. Which of the following is applied in one or more stages
Explanation: Separation of ions occurs while they are necessitates the use of which of the following?
where each stage is a series of three equally spaced
moving from the ion source to the detector. All the ions a) Wide band amplifier 7. In Bennet spectrometer, the rf voltage has a fixed
parallel grids?
entering the tube have the same kinetic energy. b) Narrow band amplifier frequency.
a) Ionisation field
c) Wide band filter a) True
5. If all the ions have the same kinetic energy how are their b) Reflection
d) Narrow band filter b) False
masses related to their velocities? c) RF field
View Answer View Answer
a) Mass and velocity are equal d) Acceleration
b) Mass and velocity are not related Answer: a View Answer Answer: a
c) Mass and velocity are directly proportional Explanation: The current produced by ions arriving at the Explanation: In Bennet spectrometer, the rf voltage has a
Answer: c
d) Mass and velocity are inversely proportional collector has very short duration. Hence, it necessitates fixed frequency. It is modulated at 10 percent at 1kHz.
Explanation: RF field is applied in one or more stages. Each
View Answer the use of wide band amplifier.
stage is a series of three equally spaced parallel grids. 8. The spurious lines can be reduced to a minimum by
Answer: d 10. Which of the following is an ion optic device in which using which of the following?
3. The alternating voltage rf voltage is applied to which of
Explanation: If all the ions have the same kinetic energy, ions pass through a mirror and their flight is reversed? a) Single stage tube
the following?
mass and velocity are inversely proportional. This is used a) Reversal device b) Two stage tube
a) All grids
in the separation of ions. b) Reflectron c) Three stage tube
b) Central grid
c) Mirror arrangement d) Reflectron
6. Which of the following is true about time of flight c) Alternate grids
d) Separation chamber View Answer
analyser spectrometers? d) None of the grids
View Answer
a) Lighter particles arrive at the detector earlier View Answer Answer: c
b) Heavier particle arrive at the detector earlier Answer: b Explanation: The spurious lines can be reduced to a
Answer: b
c) Lighter and heavier particles arrive together at the Explanation: Reflectron is an ion optic device in which ions minimum by using three stage tubes. Two stage tubes
Explanation: The alternating voltage rf voltage is applied to
detector pass through a mirror and their flight is reversed. It is used tend to produce spurious lines.
the central grid. All the other grids are kept at ground
d) Lighter particles do not reach the detector in time of flight mass spectrometer.
potential. 9. Which of the following is the disadvantage of using
View Answer
11. Which of the following statements about mass three stage tubes?
4. The rf spectrometer contains a magnet.
Answer: a spectrometers are not true? a) Reduced resolution
a) True
Explanation: Lighter particles arrive at the detector earlier a) Time of flight mass spectrometer has the ability to b) Bulky construction
b) False
than the heavier particles. The time difference is used to record the entire mass spectrum at a time c) Complex
View Answer
separate the electrons according to their mass. b) Time of flight mass spectrometers have poor resolution d) Heavy
c) Conventional spectrometer detects only one peak at a Answer: b View Answer
7. In the time of flight mass spectrometer, ions are formed time Explanation: Rf spectrometer does not contain a magnet.
by which of the following methods? d) All spectrometers have the ability to record the entire Answer: a
Rf field is applied for this type of mass spectrometer.
a) Pulsed ionization method Explanation: The spurious lines can be reduced to a
minimum by using three stage tubes. This results in 3. The mass selection scheme uses a dc potential and not a d) Changing length of drift tube u/v is mass independent, where ‘u’ is the DC voltage and
reduced resolving power. radio frequency potential. View Answer ‘v’ is the peak amplitude. This ratio is kept constant.
a) True
10. Which of the following is not the feature of Bennet b) False Answer: d 12. When a value of q is kept constant, the value of m/e is
type spectrometer? View Answer Explanation: Changing length of drift tube does not affect proportional to which of the following when ‘m’ is the
a) Lightweight the resolution of the instrument. Increase in resolution mass number, ‘e’ is the electric charge, ‘u’ is the DC
b) Simple Answer: b results in an increase in the number of ions reaching the potential, ‘v’ is the peak amplitude and ‘f’ is the
c) Absence of spurious lines Explanation: The mass selection scheme uses a dc detector. frequency?
d) Moderate resolution potential. It also uses radio frequency potential. a) u/v ratio
View Answer 8. In cases where differentiation is required between very b) u
4. If to one pair of electrodes one potential with one sign is similar substances, which of the following techniques c) v
Answer: c applied, which of the following is applied to the other pair making use of quadrupole principle is preferred? d) f
Explanation: Absence of spurious lines is not a feature of of electrodes? a) Evaporation mass spectrometry View Answer
Bennet type spectrometer. Spurious lines can be reduced a) Same potential with same sign b) Pyrolysis mass spectrometry
by adding new features. b) Different potential with same sign c) Plasma mass spectrometry Answer: c
c) Different potential with different sign d) Trapped ion mass spectrometry Explanation: When a value of q is kept constant, the value
11. The resolving power of Bennet type spectrometer is d) Same potential with different sign View Answer of m/e is proportional to ‘v’. By variation of rf amplitude
primarily based on which of the following? View Answer the m/e ratio varies.
a) Distance between detector and reflectron Answer: b
b) Difference between the individual rf accelerating stages Answer: d Explanation: In cases where differentiation is required
c) Length of the drift tube Explanation: If to one pair of electrodes one potential with between very similar substances, pyrolysis mass
d) Laser beam used one sign is applied, same potential with a different sign is spectrometry is used. The sample is usually solid or ION TRANSDUCERS
View Answer applied to the opposite electrodes. involatile liquid in this case.
1. Which of the following is not an ion transducer or
Answer: b 5. Which of the following is the heart of quadrupole 9. In pyrolysis spectrometry, heating is done until which of detector?
Explanation: The resolving power of Bennet type instrument? the following is reached? a) Faraday cup collector
spectrometer is primarily based on the difference between a) Electrodes a) Curie point b) Channeltron
the individual rf accelerating stages. b) Choke b) Boiling point c) Micro-channel plate
c) DC potential c) Until production of superheated vapour d) Flame ionization detector
d) Detector d) Until 100oC View Answer
View Answer View Answer
QUADRUPOLE MASS SPECTROMETER Answer: d
Answer: a Answer: a Explanation: Flame ionization detector is not an ion
1. Which of the following is not a feature of quadrupole transducer. It is a detector used in chromatography.
Explanation: Electrodes are the heart of quadrupole Explanation: In pyrolysis spectrometry, heating is done
mass spectrometer?
instrument. Opposite electrodes are electrically until curie point is reached. At this point, magnetic
a) Low cost 2. Which of the following is similar to photo multiplier
connected. permeability drops abruptly.
b) Light weight transducer?
c) Low speed electronic scanning 6. Which of the following has to be done to increase the 10. Which of the following is used to cool the ion source? a) Faraday cup collector
d) Simple in construction resolution of the quadrupole mass spectrometer? a) Liquid sodium shield b) Channeltron
View Answer a) Increasing distance between detector and reflectron b) Liquid nitrogen shield c) Micro-channel plate
b) Increasing difference between the individual rf c) Water d) Electron multiplier transducer
Answer: c View Answer
accelerating stages d) Freon
Explanation: In quadrupole mass spectrometer, electronic
c) Increasing the length of the drift tube View Answer
scanning takes place. The scanning takes place at high Answer: d
d) Increasing the rod length of the electrode
speed. Answer: b Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer is similar to
View Answer
Explanation: Liquid nitrogen cooled shield is used to cool photo multiplier transducer. The difference is that its
2. Which of the following is not a component of primary cathode detects ions rather than photons.
Answer: d the ion source. It reduces source contamination.
quadrupole mass filter?
Explanation: The resolution depends upon the electrode.
a) Electrodes 11. In quadrupole mass spectrometer, the ratio u/v is mass 3. Which of the following is used in places where ion
The length of the electrode has to be increased for
b) Choke dependent, where ‘u’ is the DC voltage and ‘v’ is the peak currents are very low?
increasing the resolution.
c) DC potential amplitude. a) Faraday cup collector
d) Detector 7. Which of the following does not affect the resolution of a) True b) Channeltron
View Answer the instrument? b) False c) Micro-channel plate
a) Changing length of electrode View Answer d) Electron multiplier transducer
Answer: d View Answer
b) Changing slope of scan line
Explanation: Detector is not a part of the filter. The filter Answer: b
c) Quality of machining of the rods
uses DC potential. Explanation: In quadrupole mass spectrometer, the ratio Answer: d
Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer is used in
places where ion currents are very low. Its primary b) Successive dynodes are held at lower potential Answer: b 2. ICP is used to analyse samples in which of the following
cathode detects ions. c) Successive dynodes are held at higher potential Explanation: Photographic plates are well suited for spark states?
d) All dynodes are held at very low potential source instruments. It has great sensitivity. a) Solids
4. Discrete type electron multiplier transducers can View Answer b) Liquids
provide current gain upto which of the following? 13. Photographic plates have greater sensitivity and c) Gases
a) 102 Answer: c resolution than electron multipliers. d) Solids and liquids
b) 105 Explanation: In discrete dynode electron multiplier, a) True View Answer
c) 107 successive dynodes are held at higher potential. Dynodes b) False
d) 1011 are metal plates with copper or beryllium surfaces. View Answer Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: ICP is used to analyse samples in both solid
9. In which of the following detectors, the collector is Answer: a and liquid states. Atomic emission spectrometer is used to
Answer: c placed in an inclined manner? Explanation: Photographic plates have greater sensitivity analyse only solid samples.
Explanation: Discrete type electron multiplier transducers a) Faraday cup collector and resolution than electron multipliers. This is because
can provide current gain upto 102. Upto 20 dynodes need b) Channeltron they integrate the ion signals over a period of time. 3. Solid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer
to be used for this purpose. c) Micro-channel plate using which of the following?
d) Electron multiplier transducer 14. Which of the following detectors consist of an array of a) Nebulizer
5. Continuous dynode electron multiplier transducer is a View Answer glass capillaries? b) Curvette having glass windows
trumpet shaped device made with which of the following? a) Faraday cup collector c) Probe
a) Glass doped with lead Answer: a b) Photographic plates d) Laser ablation system
b) Steel doped with bronze Explanation: The collector is placed in an inclined manner c) Micro-channel plate View Answer
c) Phosphor bronze doped with iron in a faraday cup collector. This is to reflect the ions away d) Electron multiplier transducer
d) Iron doped with calcium from the entrance of the cup. View Answer Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: ICP spectrometer can be used for solid
10. Which of the following is the least sensitive ion Answer: c samples. They are introduced using a laser ablation
Answer: a detector? Explanation: Micro-channel plate consists of an array of system.
Explanation: Continuous dynode electron multiplier a) Faraday cup collector glass capillaries. They are coated with electron emissive
transducer is a trumpet shaped device made of glass. It is b) Channeltron materials. 4. Liquid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer
heavily doped with lead. c) Micro-channel plate using which of the following?
d) Electron multiplier transducer 15. Which of the following detectors can be used for ions a) Nebulizer
6. The potential maintained across the continuous dynode View Answer with short life time? b) Curvette having glass windows
multiplier transducer is which of the following? a) Faraday cup collector c) Probe
a) 1 to 5kV Answer: a b) Photographic plates d) Laser ablation system
b) 5 to 10kV Explanation: Faraday cup collector is the least sensitive ion c) Micro-channel plate View Answer
c) 2.5 to 6.2kV detector. It is used in places where great sensitivity is not d) Electron multiplier transducer
d) 1.8 to 2kV required. View Answer Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: ICP spectrometer can be used for liquid
11. Photographic plates are coated with which of the Answer: b samples. Aqueous samples are introduced using the
Answer: d following? Explanation: Photographic plates can be used for ions with nebulizer.
Explanation: The potential maintained across the a) Lead short life time. This is because they integrate the ion signal
continuous dynode multiplier transducer is 1.8 to 2kV. b) Quartz over a period of time. 5. Atomisation or ionisation occurs at which of the
Electrons cascade down the tube. c) Silver bromide following conditions?
d) Mercuric sulphate a) Vacuum pressure
7. Which of the following are not the characteristics of an View Answer b) Atmospheric pressure
electron multiplier transducer? INDUCTIVELY COUPLED PLASMA MASS SPECTROMETER
c) Low pressure
a) Rugged Answer: c d) High pressure
1. ICP’s principle is similar to which of the following?
b) Reliable Explanation: Photographic plates are coated with silver View Answer
a) Flame emission spectroscopy
c) Microsecond of response time required bromide. These are sensitive to energetic ions.
b) Fourier transforms spectroscopy
d) High current gain Answer: d
12. Which of the following detectors are well suited for c) Atomic emission spectroscopy
View Answer Explanation: Atomization or ionisation occurs at
spark source instruments? d) Absorption spectroscopy
atmospheric pressure. The interface between the ICP and
Answer: c a) Faraday cup collector View Answer
MS components are crucial in creating a vacuum.
Explanation: Electron multiplier transducer requires the b) Photographic plates
Answer: c
only nanosecond of response time. It provides a high c) Micro-channel plate 6. Ions flow is pumped into the vacuum system using
Explanation: ICP’s principle is similar to atomic emission
current gain. d) Electron multiplier transducer which of the following?
spectroscopy. Samples are decomposed to neural
View Answer a) Orifice
8. Which of the following are true about dynodes used in elements in argon plasma in this method.
b) Nozzle
discrete dynode electron multiplier? c) Venturi meter
a) The dynodes are all kept at same voltage
d) Dall tube 11. Which of the following is the most accurate method of a) It is not a good method chromatography and mass spectroscopy is the difference
View Answer determination of elemental composition? b) It cannot be used for qualitative analysis in operating pressures. The pressure at the exit of the GC
a) Spectroscopy c) It cannot be used for the separation of volatile column is atmospheric.
Answer: a b) Isotope dilution components
Explanation: Ions flow is pumped into the vacuum system c) Isobar dilution d) It does not provide direct identification 7. The carrier gas with low molecular weight would diffuse
using orifice. It expands in the vacuum system. d) Chromatography View Answer at a higher rate than the higher molecular weight sample.
View Answer a) True
7. Which of the following is not the characteristic of ICP Answer: d b) False
spectrometer? Answer: b Explanation: Gas chromatography is a very good method View Answer
a) Easy sample introduction Explanation: The most accurate method of determination for separation of components of a mixture. It does not
b) It can trace multiple elements of elemental composition is isotope dilution. It permits the provide direct identification. Answer: a
c) High detection limits calculation of the concentration of an element. Explanation: The carrier gas with low molecular weight
d) Accurate 3. Cold tray is provided for liquid N2 or CO2 but is used only would diffuse at a higher rate than the higher molecular
View Answer 12. Which of the following is the disadvantage of ICP mass for extremely small samples. weight sample. The carrier gas would diffuse away from
spectroscopy? a) True the line of flow.
Answer: c a) Incapable of multi-element analysis b) False
Explanation: ICP spectrometer has low detection limits of a b) Less sensitivity View Answer 8. Which of the following is the type of separator used in
mass spectrometer. It is capable of tracking multiple c) Impossible to obtain isotopic information commercial GC-MS systems?
elements. d) Not useful for detection of non-metals Answer: a a) Jet type molecular separator
View Answer Explanation: Cold tray is provided for liquid N2 or CO2. It is b) Porous tube
8. ICP spectrometer is a sequential multi-element analyser used only for mass spectral analysis of very small samples. c) Teflon tube
that has scan times less than ____ for one sweep. Answer: d d) Flow type separator
a) 10ms Explanation: ICP mass spectroscopy has a multi-element 4. Which of the following is most often used in the View Answer
b) 20ms capability and high sensitivity. It is not capable of multi- chromatograph in gas chromatograph MS?
c) 50ms element analysis. a) Curvette Answer: a
d) 100ms b) Paper support Explanation: Jet type molecular separator is the type of
View Answer 13. The isobaric interference is not caused in which of the c) Capillary tube separator used in commercial GC-MS systems. Other
following elements? d) Flask methods are porous tube and Teflon tube.
Answer: b a) Argon View Answer
Explanation: ICP spectrometer is a sequential multi- b) Oxygen 9. The system for measurement of ion intensity in GS-MS
element analyser that has scan times less than 20ms for c) Helium Answer: c system consists of which of the following?
one sweep. Quadrupole mass analyser gives a better unit d) Nitrogen Explanation: Capillary tube is most often used in the a) Electrometer
mass resolution. View Answer chromatograph in gas chromatograph MS. This is because b) Ion meter
low pressure has to be maintained. c) Ion transducer
9. Double focussing section analysers offer better Answer: c d) Intensity meter
resolution than ICP spectrometry system. Explanation: The isobaric interference is not caused due to 5. GC- MS has been developed for which of the following View Answer
a) True isotopes of helium. It is caused by isotopes of argon, systems?
b) False oxygen and nitrogen. a) Packed column Answer: a
View Answer b) Open tubular column Explanation: The system for measurement of ion intensity
c) Capillary column in GS-MS system consists of electrometer. It feeds a direct
Answer: a d) Porous layer column writing recorder.
Explanation: Double focussing section analysers offer GAS CHROMATOGRAPH- MASS SPECTROMETER View Answer
better resolution than ICP spectrometry system. Their 10. The system for measurement of ion intensity in GS-MS
disadvantage is that they are large and have a high capital 1. Which of the following is the most sensitive of the Answer: a system consists of which of the following?
cost. spectral methods? Explanation: GC- MS has been developed for packed a) Band pass amplifier
a) Absorption spectroscopy column system. These allow for analyte molecules to be b) Narrow band amplifier
10. The most common type of ion detector found in ICP b) Mass spectroscopy dynamically extracted from the carrier gas stream. c) Wide band amplifier
system is which of the following? c) Flame emission spectroscopy d) Low pass amplifier
a) Faraday cup collector d) Atomic emission spectroscopy 6. Which of the following problems occur when combining View Answer
b) Channeltron View Answer gas chromatography and mass spectroscopy?
c) Micro-channel plate a) Difference in operating pressures Answer: c
d) Flame ionization detector Answer: b b) Reduction in sensitivity Explanation: The system for measurement of ion intensity
View Answer Explanation: Mass spectroscopy is the most sensitive of c) Direct identification is not possible in GS-MS system consists of a wide band amplifier. It feeds
the spectral methods. It permits direct introduction of a d) It does not permit direct introduction of the effluent a direct writing recorder.
Answer: b gas effluent’s stream. View Answer
Explanation: The most common type of ion detector found
in ICP system is channel tron electron multiplier. It is a 2. Which of the following is the disadvantage of gas Answer: a
cone or horn shaped tube. chromatography? Explanation: The problem that occurs when combining gas
LIQUID CHROMATOGRAPH- MASS SPECTROMETER d) 1-15 % a) 1ml/min of water produces 1.2 l/mm of gas d) Thermal activation
View Answer b) 1ml/min of water produces 2.4 l/mm of gas View Answer
1. Introduction of total HPLC effluent into MS is feasible. c) 2ml/min of water produces 3.2 l/mm of gas
a) True Answer: b d) 1ml/min of water produces 4.2 l/mm of gas Answer: a
b) False Explanation: Only 1-5 percent of the effluent of the liquid View Answer Explanation: The mass-selected ions are activated by some
View Answer chromatography must be introduced in the mass means that cause them to fall apart to produce product
spectrometer. Therefore, the total effluent must be split. Answer: a ions. They are activated by collisional activation.
Answer: b Explanation: In LC-mass spectrometry, 1ml/min of water
Explanation: Introduction of total HPLC effluent into MS is 6. Which of the following is the normal nebuliser produces 1.2 l/mm of gas. This is the gas burden that 5. The final MS/MS spectrum consists only of product ions
not feasible. The simplest method is the introduction of temperature used in LC mass spectrometry? conventional flow rates produced. from the selected precursor.
liquid from LC to the MS ion source region. a) 50-100oC a) True
b) 100-200oC b) False
2. The gas burden from conventional LC flow rates creates c) 125-150oC View Answer
nearly _____ times more gas than cryo-pumped vacuum d) 150-200oC TANDEM MASS SPECTROSCOPY
system can handle. View Answer Answer: a
a) 5 1. Tandem mass spectroscopy combines which of the Explanation: The final MS/MS spectrum consists only of
b) 10 Answer: c following devices? product ions from the selected precursor. The chemical
c) 20 Explanation: 125-150oC is the normal nebuliser a) Mass spectrometer and gas-solid chromatograph background and other mixture components are absent.
d) 40 temperature used in LC mass spectrometry. It is suitable b) Mass spectrometer and gas-liquid chromatograph
View Answer for a variety of applications. c) Mass spectrometer and gas chromatograph 6. In reverse-geometry mass spectrometer which of the
d) Mass spectrometer and mass spectrometer following precedes the electric sector?
Answer: c 7. The ions are focussed and de-clustered through which View Answer a) Nebulizer
Explanation: The gas burden from conventional LC flow of the following regions? b) Orifice
rates creates nearly 20 times more gas than cryo-pumped a) Dry helium region Answer: d c) Magnetic sector
vacuum system can handle. b) Wet oxygen region Explanation: Tandem mass spectroscopy combines two d) Mass spectrometer
c) Wet chlorine region mass spectrometers. It is represented as MS/MS. View Answer
3. Which of the following should be in a position to split d) Dry nitrogen region
the effluent? 2. In tandem spectroscopy, the first stage sepatation Answer: c
View Answer
a) Interface device is a mass spectrometer. Explanation: In reverse-geometry mass spectrometer
b) Ion source Answer: d a) True magnetic sector precedes the electric sector. Early work
c) Makeup gas Explanation: The ions are focussed and de-clustered b) False on MS/MS was done with reverse-geometry double
d) Microbore through a dry nitrogen region. It is then sent into the high View Answer focussing mass spectrometer.
View Answer vacuum analyser.
Answer: a 7. A magnetic sector alone can be used as a mass
Answer: a 8. The ions are passed into the high vacuum analyser Explanation: In tandem spectroscopy, the first stage spectrometer, with roughly _____ resolution.
Explanation: Interface should be in a position to split the through which of the following? sepatation device is a mass spectrometer. It is represented a) Low
effluent. LC-MS is a very advantageous method. a) Orifice as MS/MS. b) High
b) Nozzle c) Unit
4. Which of the following is the most commonly used 3. Which of the following is used to separate a single mass
c) Nebulizer d) Infinite
interface? that is characteristic of a given analyte in a mixture?
d) Venturi tube View Answer
a) Nebulizer a) First mass spectrometer
View Answer
b) Chopper b) Second mass spectrometer Answer: c
c) Filter Answer: a c) Filter Explanation: A magnetic sector alone can be used as a
d) Vapourising chamber Explanation: The ions are sent into the high vacuum d) Precursor mass spectrometer, with roughly unit resolution. Early
View Answer analyser through an orifice. It is then mass analysed. View Answer work on MS/MS was done with reverse-geometry double
focussing mass spectrometer.
Answer: a 9. Using an interface would reduce detection limit and Answer: a
Explanation: Nebulizer is the most commonly used sensitivity. Explanation: First mass spectrometer is used to separate a 8. What does the acronym ‘MIKES’ stand for?
interface. The nebulizer gas and the make-up gas are a) True single mass that is characteristic of a given analyte in a a) Mass-analysed ion kinetic energy spectrometer
introduced coaxially into the heated nebulization region. b) False mixture. The single mass is known as the precursor. b) Mass-based induced kinetic energy spectrometer
View Answer c) Mass invasive kinetic electric spectrometer
5. Only ______ percent of the effluent of the liquid 4. The mass-selected ions are activated in which of the
d) Mass-analyser in a kinetic energy-type spectrometer
chromatography must be introduced in the mass Answer: a following ways that cause them to fall apart to produce
View Answer
spectrometer. Explanation: The total effluent must be split. Using an product ions?
a) 1-2 % interface would reduce detection limit and sensitivity. a) Collisional activation Answer: a
b) 1-5 % b) Evaporational activation Explanation: ‘MIKES’ stands for mass-analysed ion kinetic
c) 1-20 % 10. Gas burden from conventional LC flow rates is which of c) Inert gas activation energy spectrometer. It is related to spectrometers having
the following? magnetic field sectors.
9. In MIKES experiments which of the following are Answer: a a) True 7. Which of the following methods utilizes the emission of
measured? Explanation: B/E ratio can be chosen to select ions with a b) False low energy electrons in a process?
a) Product ions given velocity. It is a product ion scan. View Answer a) Auger electron spectroscopy
b) Product ion kinetic energies b) Electron impact spectroscopy
c) Product ions mass to charge ratio 14. Which of the following is located in the region Answer: a c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
d) Product ions masses between two analysers? Explanation: Surface analysis can provide information that d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
View Answer a) Nebuliser classic methods like microscopic cannot. It is better than View Answer
b) Collision cell reflectivity, adsorption isotherms, etc.
Answer: b c) Filter Answer: a
Explanation: In MIKES experiments, mass to charge ratios d) Vacuum chamber 3. In surface spectrometer, which of the following beam is Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy utilizes the
are not measured. Product ion kinetic energies are View Answer analysed? emission of low energy electrons in auger process. It is one
measured in these experiments. a) Reflected beam of the commonly employed techniques.
Answer: b b) Absorbed beam
10. All ions with the same number of charges will have Explanation: Collision cell is located in the region between c) Refracted beam 8. Which of the following is the abbreviation of ESCA?
__________ two analysers. Low energy parent ions are mass analysed. d) Incident beam a) Electron scattering chemical analysis
a) Same kinetic energy View Answer b) Emission spectroscopy combination analysis
b) Different kinetic energies 15. Given below is the diagram of the drift tube of a c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
c) Same mass tandem quadrupole/time of flight instrument. Identify the Answer: a d) Electron spectrum chemically analysed
d) Different mass unmarked component. Explanation: When a beam is focussed on a surface, one View Answer
View Answer beam enters the material and a second beam is reflected.
The reflected beam is analysed. Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: The abbreviation of ESCA is Electron
Explanation: All ions with the same number of charges will 4. Which of the following is a type of electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis. It is a type of electron
have the same kinetic energy. It is assumed that all ions spectroscopy? spectroscopy.
have a single charge. a) MIKES
b) Auger spectroscopy 9. Which of the following methods use soft X-rays to eject
11. A tandem mass spectrometer has which of the c) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy electrons from inner shell orbitals?
following analysers? a) Nebuliser d) Ion scattering spectroscopy a) Auger electron spectroscopy
a) Time of flight mass analyser b) Filter View Answer b) Electron impact spectroscopy
b) Magnetic deflection analyser c) Chopper c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
c) Radiofrequency analyser d) Acceleration lens Answer: b d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
d) Quadrupole analyser View Answer Explanation: Auger spectroscopy is a type of electron View Answer
View Answer spectroscopy. Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
Answer: d is also a type of electron spectroscopy. Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: The unmarked component is acceleration Explanation: Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
Explanation: A tandem mass spectrometer has a filter. The lens. A collision cell is located before the acceleration lens. 5. Surface analysis cannot provide any chemical using soft X-rays to eject electrons from inner shell
filter is followed by a time of flight mass analyser. information directly. orbitals. It is a type of electron spectroscopy.
a) True
12. Which of the following filters are used in tandem b) False 10. Which of the following is the abbreviation of SIMS?
spectrometer? ELECTRON AND ION SPECTROMETERS View Answer a) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy
a) Quadrupole mass filter b) Spectrum ionization mass spectroscopy
b) Low energy filter SURFACE SPECTROSCOPIC TECHNIQUES Answer: b c) Scattering ions mass spectroscopy
c) High energy filter Explanation: Surface analysis can provide chemical d) Spectral ionization mass spectroscopy
1. Surface is usually more than _____ atomic layer deep information. Electron and ion spectroscopic techniques are
d) Time of flight mass filter View Answer
and is a region of ________ atomic potentials. types of surface analysis.
View Answer
a) One, uniform Answer: a
Answer: a b) One, non-uniform 6. Which of the following is also known as X-ray Explanation: Secondary ion mass spectroscopy is the
Explanation: A tandem mass spectrometer has a c) Two, uniform photoelectron spectroscopy? abbreviation of SIMS. It is a type of ion spectroscopy.
quadrupole mass filter. The filter is followed by an d) Two, non-uniform a) Auger electron spectroscopy
analyser. View Answer b) Electron impact spectroscopy
c) Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis
13. B/E scan is which of the following scans? Answer: b d) Secondary ion mass spectroscopy ELECTRON SPECTROSCOPY FOR CHEMICAL ANALYSIS
a) Product ion scan Explanation: Surface is more than one atomic layer deep View Answer
and is a region of non-uniform atomic potentials. The 1. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron energies is
b) Precursor ion scan
outermost layer of atoms is called a surface. Answer: c dependent on _________ of the atom, which makes XPS
c) Mass scan
Explanation: Electron spectroscopy for chemical analysis is useful to identify the oxide state.
d) Charge scan
2. Surface analysis can provide information that classic also known as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. It is an a) Mass
View Answer
methods like microscopic cannot. effective technique for detecting the elements. b) Charge
c) Chemical environment 6. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth c) Binding energy of the electron chemical form. Thus, the specimen chemical composition
d) Volume about ________ armstrong in polymers. d) Mass of atoms can be obtained.
View Answer a) 5-20 View Answer
b) 15-40 15. Which of the following is the detection limit of ESCA?
Answer: c c) 40-100 Answer: c a) 0.1% monolayer
Explanation: The kinetic energy of the photoelectron d) 100-200 Explanation: ESCA focusses on binding energy of the b) 0.5% monolayer
energies is dependent on the chemical environment of the View Answer electrons. It focusses on the binding energy which the c) 1% monolayer
atom, which makes XPS useful to identify the oxide state. electrons had before they left the atom. d) 2% monolayer
It also helps to identify the ligands of the atom. Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up 11. In the spectrum, two main peaks at _________ and
2. Ion etching techniques provides the depth profiling from to a depth about 40-100 armstrong in polymers. ESCA is ________ are observed. Answer: a
the surface. also known as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. a) 284.6, 532.5 Explanation: The detection limit of ESCA is 0.1%
a) True b) 248.6, 523.5 monolayer. It has no x-y resolution.
b) False 7. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth c) 264.8, 535.2
View Answer about ________ armstrong in oxide. d) 246.8, 553.2
a) 5-20 View Answer
Answer: a AUGER ELECTRON SPECTROSCOPY
b) 15-40
Explanation: Ion etching techniques provides the depth c) 40-100 Answer: a
1. The characterisation of auger spectroscopy can be
profiling from the surface. Binding energy can also be d) 100-200 Explanation: In the spectrum, two main peaks at 284.6 and
achieved up to which of the following depths?
used. View Answer 532.5 are observed. The unit for counting energy is
a) 1 nm
electron-volt.
3. Electron spectroscopy is based on the ionization b) 2 nm
Answer: b
phenomenon. 12. 284.6 eV matches which of the following specific atom c) 4 nm
Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up
a) True type? d) 8 nm
to a depth about 15-40 armstrong in oxide. ESCA is also
b) False a) Carbon View Answer
known as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy.
View Answer b) Oxygen
Answer: a
8. ESCA can identify elements in the periodic table above c) Nitrogen
Answer: a Explanation: The characterisation of auger spectroscopy
which of the following? d) Argon
Explanation: Electron spectroscopy is based on the can be achieved up to a depth of 1nm. Best instruments
a) Carbon View Answer
ionization phenomenon. It can be ionization of photon or can characterise few nm.
b) Boron
electron. c) Helium Answer: a
2. Auger electron spectroscopy can be used for surface
d) Potassium Explanation: Each energy matches a specific atom type.
4. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectron is chemical analysis in a way similar to which of the
View Answer 284.6 eV matches carbon.
dependent upon the energy of which of the following? following?
a) Ions around 13. 532.5 eV matches which of the following specific atom a) ESCA
Answer: c
b) Photons around type? b) SIMS
Explanation: ESCA can identify elements in the periodic
c) Material a) Carbon c) ISS
table above helium. Adjacent elements are clearly
d) Impinging photon b) Oxygen d) Ion spectroscopy
distinguished.
View Answer c) Nitrogen View Answer
9. Discrete electrons cannot be observed in electron d) Argon
Answer: d Answer: a
ionization of an atom due to which of the following View Answer
Explanation: The kinetic energy of the ejected Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy can be used for
reasons?
photoelectron is dependent upon the energy of an Answer: b surface chemical analysis in a way similar to ESCA. ESCA is
a) Environmental disturbances
impinging photon. A free electron is ejected. Explanation: Each energy matches a specific atom type. also known as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy.
b) Same mass
c) Same charge 532.5 eV matches carbon.
5. ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up to a depth 3. AES is limited when it comes to very high resolution
d) Electron- electron interaction studies.
about ________ armstrong in metals. 14. By studying which of the following can we determine if
View Answer a) True
a) 5-20 the surface corresponds to C-O or C=O chemical form?
b) 15-40 a) Mass of the electron b) False
Answer: d
c) 40-100 b) Energy of the carbon peak View Answer
Explanation: Discrete electrons cannot be observed in
d) 100-200 electron ionization of an atom because of electron- c) Binding energy
Answer: a
View Answer electron interaction. Therefore, ESCA cannot be observed d) Charge of electron
Explanation: AES is limited when it comes to very high
when using electron ionization. View Answer
Answer: a resolution studies. It is very characteristic for various
Explanation: ESCA gives sufficient chemical information up Answer: b elements.
10. ESCA focusses on which of the following information?
to a depth about 5-20 armstrong in metals. ESCA is also a) Mass of the electron Explanation: By studying energy of the carbon peak it can
4. Qualitative chemical analysis is very often performed
known as X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy. b) Charge of the electron be determined if the surface corresponds to C-O or C=O
using which of the following?
a) ESCA 9. In Auger process, an electron drops to fill which of the d) Frequent filament is held at ground potential. Electrons are
b) SIMS following? View Answer accelerated from the filament.
c) AES a) 1s hole
d) Ion spectroscopy b) 1p hole Answer: d 3. Which of the following is one of the most commonly
View Answer c) 2s hole Explanation: Frequent sample destruction occurs in Auger used anode material?
d) 2p hole electron spectroscopy. It is bad for organics. a) Carbon
Answer: c View Answer b) Tungsten
Explanation: Qualitative chemical analysis is very often 14. How is the specificity of Auger electron spectroscopy? c) Magnesium
performed using AES. Auger nomenclature follows the old Answer: a a) Very bad d) Cesium
x-ray notation. Explanation: In Auger process, an electron drops to fill 1s b) Bad View Answer
hole. It expels a 2p electron. c) Good
5. Electron ionization can produce which of the following? d) Very good Answer: c
a) ESCA electron 10. Auger electron spectroscopy involves the irradiation of View Answer Explanation: Magnesium is one of the most commonly
b) Auger electron the surface to be analysed with a beam of electrons of used anode material. Aluminium is also commonly used.
c) Ion energy in the _________ range. Answer: c
d) Photon a) 1-2 KeV Explanation: The specificity of Auger electron spectroscopy 4. Which is the most intense line in the X-ray spectrum?
View Answer b) 2-4 KeV is good. ESCA has very good specificity. a) Kα1
c) 4-8 KeV b) Kα2
Answer: b 15. AES is more sensitive than XPS because of which of the c) Kα12
d) 1-8 KeV
Explanation: Electron ionization can produce Auger following factors? d) Kα22
View Answer
electron. Photo-ionisation can also produce Auger a) Binding energies of electrons View Answer
electron. Answer: a b) Kinetic energies of electrons
Explanation: Auger electron spectroscopy involves the c) Mass of electrons Answer: c
6. Electron ionisation can produce ESCA electrons. irradiation of the surface to be analysed with a beam of d) Mass to charge ratio of electrons Explanation: Kα12 is the most intense line in the X-ray
a) True electrons of energy in the 1-2 KeV range. Auger and X-ray View Answer spectrum. Different lines have specific energies.
b) False emission are competitive processes.
View Answer Answer: b 5. Which of the following must be used with the X-ray
11. In Auger spectroscopy, beam currents are typically Explanation: AES is more sensitive than XPS because of the source to have high energy resolution?
Answer: b _____ in a beam of diameter 0.5mm. difference in kinetic energies of electrons. Ion etching is a) Chopper
Explanation: Electron ionisation cannot produce ESCA a) 5-10 µA sometimes necessary for AES. b) Vacuum chamber
electrons. It can produce only Auger electrons. b) 5-20 µA c) Accelerator
c) 5-30 µA d) Monochromator
7. Which of the following is an Auger transition starting View Answer
d) 5-50 µA INSTRUMENTATION FOR ELECTRON SPECTROSCOPY
from a hole in 1s levels which would be filled up from the
View Answer
2p level? Answer: d
1. A basic X-ray source includes which of the following
a) KLM transition Answer: d Explanation: Monochromator must be used with the X-ray
components?
b) KLL transition Explanation: In Auger spectroscopy, beam currents are source to have high energy resolution. It will also remove
a) Large target anode
c) LMN transition typically 5-50 µA in a beam of diameter 0.5mm. Auger and the satellite lines.
b) Large target cathode
d) LLM transition X-ray emission are competitive processes. c) Small target anode 6. Magnetic deflection energy analysers are effective than
View Answer
d) Small target cathode electrostatic types.
12. Which of the following is the detection limit of Auger
Answer: b View Answer a) True
Electron Spectroscopy?
Explanation: KLL transition is an Auger transition starting a) 0.1% monolayer b) False
Answer: a
from a hole in 1s levels which would be filled up from the b) 0.5% monolayer View Answer
Explanation: A basic X-ray source includes a large target
2p level. 2p electron would also be emitted. c) 1% monolayer anode. It also has a heating element. Answer: a
d) 2% monolayer
8. In ESCA process, the photon ejects which of the Explanation: Magnetic deflection energy analysers are
View Answer 2. The anode is held at __________ positive potential and
following? effective than electrostatic types. It is less convenient to
the filament is held at ____________ potential.
a) 1s electron Answer: b design and use.
a) High, ground
b) 1p electron Explanation: The detection limit of AES is 0.5% monolayer. b) Ground, high 7. Double-pass cylindrical mirror energy analyser has how
c) 2s electron It has 0.5µ x-y resolution. c) Low, high many mirrors?
d) 2p electron
d) High, low a) One
View Answer 13. Which of the following denotes the sample destruction
View Answer b) Two
that occurs in Auger electron spectroscopy?
Answer: a a) None in 95% of sample c) Three
Answer: a
Explanation: In ESCA process, the photon ejects 1s b) None in 99% of sample d) Four
Explanation: The anode is held at high potential and the
electron. For X-ray, an electron drops from the 2p orbit. c) None in 100% of sample View Answer
Answer: b 12. Which of the following is the ideal vacuum for electron d) Hydrogen be either neutral atoms or ions. The ions can be positive or
Explanation: Double-pass cylindrical mirror energy spectrometers? View Answer negative.
analyser has two mirrors. It is commonly used in electron a) 10-6 torr
spectroscopy. b) 10-7 torr Answer: a 6. Which of the following is the energy range of ISS?
c) 10-8 torr Explanation: In Ion spectroscopy, the primary ion is usually a) 1 keV
8. In spherical sector analyser, __________ is detected and d) 10-9 torr an inert gas ion. When primary ion having particular b) 2 keV
plotted as a function of energy. View Answer kinetic energy is incident on a surface certain phenomena c) 4 keV
a) Mass can occur. d) 8 keV
b) Charge Answer: a View Answer
c) Number of electrons striking the detector Explanation: 10-6 torr is the ideal vacuum for electron 2. The kinetic energy of the primary ion should be in which
d) Mass to charge ratio spectrometers. Vacuum below 10-6 torr can also be used. of the following range? Answer: a
View Answer a) 0.1-4 keV Explanation: The energy range of the ISS is 1 keV. ISS
13. Which of the following is the most commonly used b) 0.2-1 keV stands for ion scattering spectroscopy.
Answer: c magnetic shielding? c) 0.4-2 keV
Explanation: In spherical sector analyser, the number of a) Helmholtz coils d) 0.3-5 keV 7. Which of the following is the spectral range of SIMS?
electrons striking the detector is detected and plotted as a b) Ferro-magnetic shielding View Answer a) 0-10 amu
function of energy. It is detected for a constant potential. c) Faraday shield b) 0-100 amu
d) Magnetometer probe Answer: d c) 0-500 amu
9. Which of the following is the most commonly used View Answer Explanation: The kinetic energy of the primary ion should d) 0-1000 amu
detector in ESCA and AES? be 0.3-5 keV. These primary ions are made incident on the View Answer
a) Electron multiplier Answer: b surface.
b) Dynodes Explanation: Ferro-magnetic shielding is the most Answer: c
c) Photovoltaic cell commonly used magnetic shielding. Helmholtz coil can be 3. If the primary ion is elastically scattered, the kinetic Explanation: The spectral range of SIMS is 0-500 amu.
d) Photomultiplier used as alternative. energy of the reflected primary ion will depend on which SIMS stands for secondary ion mass spectroscopy.
View Answer of the following?
14. Charging effect can be suppressed by supplying flood a) Charge of the primary ion 8. Both ISS and SIMS have depth profiling capability.
Answer: a of electrons having which of the following? b) Charge of the surface ion a) True
Explanation: Electron multiplier is the most commonly a) Uniform low energy c) Mass of the surface ion b) False
used detectors in ESCA and AES. It is similar to b) Uniform low mass d) Number of surface ions View Answer
photomultiplier. c) Uniform high energy View Answer
Answer: a
d) Uniform high mass
10. Electron detector has a _______ doped glass tube with Answer: c Explanation: Both ISS and SIMS have depth profiling
View Answer
a secondary semiconducting coating. Explanation: If the primary ion is elastically scattered, the capability. ISS is slow in depth profiling but SIMS is rapid.
a) Quartz Answer: a kinetic energy of the reflected primary ion will depend on
9. Which of the following is denotes the absolute
b) Silica Explanation: Charging effect can be suppressed by the mass of the surface ion. The reflected ion is measured
quantitative analysis of SIMS?
c) Lead supplying flood of electrons having uniform low energy. It by ISS.
a) 30%
d) Cesium also results in attainment of additional useful information.
4. Which of the following causes the phenomena of b) 70%
View Answer
15. Synchroton radiation has several advantages over sputtering? c) 50%
Answer: c conventional radiation. a) Primary ion gets embedded in the solid d) Not possible
Explanation: Electron detector has a lead doped glass tube a) True b) Primary ion is elastically scattered View Answer
with a secondary semiconducting coating. It has a high b) False c) Primary ion is reflected
Answer: d
secondary electron shield. View Answer d) Primary ion is refracted
Explanation: Absolute quantitative analysis is not possible
View Answer
11. The output of the multiplier is fed to which of the Answer: a in SIMS. It is possible in ISS.
following immediately? Explanation: Synchroton radiation has several advantages Answer: a
10. Which of the following is the amount of matrix effect
a) Pulse amplifier discriminator over conventional radiation. The resolution is very high. Explanation: Primary ion may penetrate through a few
that occurs in SIMS?
b) DAC layers of the surface and get embedded in the solid. This
a) Very low
c) ADC causes scattering.
b) Low
d) Multichannel analyser
ION SPECTROSCOPY 5. The fragments formed during sputtering can be either c) Some
View Answer
neutral atoms or ions. The ions can only be positive. d) Severe
1. In Ion spectroscopy, the primary ion is usually which of View Answer
Answer: a a) True
the following?
Explanation: The output of the multiplier is fed to pulse b) False
a) Inert gas ion Answer: d
amplifier discriminator. It is then fed to a multichannel View Answer
b) Halogen ion Explanation: Severe matrix effects occur in SIMS. Some
analyser.
c) Oxygen group gas ion Answer: b matrix effects occur in ISS.
Explanation: The fragments formed during sputtering can
11. Which of the following is the x-y resolution of ISS? d) Flame ionization detector 8. ISS is sensitive to every element heavier than which of 13. After passing through the pre-filter, ions are passed
a) 1 µ View Answer the following? through which of the following?
b) 10 µ a) Helium a) Quadrupole mass spectrometer
c) 100 µ Answer: b b) Hydrogen b) Time of flight mass spectrometer
d) 1000 µ Explanation: Channel electron multiplier can be used as c) Nitrogen c) Radiofrequency mass spectrometer
View Answer the detector in ion spectroscopy. Solid state detector can d) Neon d) Magnetic deflection mass spectrometer
also be used. View Answer View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The x-y resolution of ISS is 100 µ. It has a poor 4. In order to obtain ISS spectra, the backscattered primary Answer: a Answer: a
x-y resolution. ions are sampled by which of the following? Explanation: ISS is sensitive to every element heavier than Explanation: After passing through the pre-filter, ions are
a) Faraday cup analyser helium. The lightest isotope used as a primary ion is that of passed through quadrupole mass spectrometer. Pre-filter
12. Which of the following is the x-y resolution of SIMS? b) Photographic analyser helium. is a discriminator.
a) 1 µ c) Micro-channel analyser
b) 10 µ d) Cylindrical mirror analyser 9. Which of the following is the lightest isotope used as a 14. Which of the following is the range of quadrupole mass
c) 100 µ View Answer primary ion? spectrometer used in SIMS?
d) 1000 µ a) He a) 100-200 amu
View Answer Answer: d b) 2He b) 200-300 amu
Explanation: In order to obtain ISS spectra, the c) 3He c) 500-1000 amu
Answer: a backscattered primary ions are sampled by cylindrical d) 3H d) 200-500 amu
Explanation: The x-y resolution of SIMS is 1 µ. It has this mirror analyser. Their kinetic energies are then measured. View Answer View Answer
resolution when used with ion microprobe.
5. Which of the following is the energy after collision with Answer: c Answer: c
a surface atom for a scattering angle of 90o when Eo is the Explanation: 3He is the lightest isotope used as a primary Explanation: 500-1000 amu is the range of quadrupole
energy of the incident ion, M1 is the mass of the incident ion. Though hydrogen is lightest it is not used. mass spectrometer used in SIMS. SIMS shows good
INSTRUMENTATION OF ION SPECTROSCOPY ion and M2 is the mass of the target surface? specificity.
a) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1) 10. The specificity will vary depending on the scattering
1. In ion spectroscopy, the positive ions are focussed on
b) Eo(M2+M1)/(M2-M1) gas used. 15. Which of the following is the resolution of quadrupole
the sample at which of the following angles?
c) Eo(M2×M1)/(M2+M1) a) True mass spectrometer used in SIMS?
a) 20o
d) Eo(M2-M1)/(M2×M1) b) False a) 1 amu
b) 30o
View Answer View Answer b) 2 amu
c) 45o
c) 5 amu
d) 90o Answer: a Answer: a d) 3 amu
View Answer Explanation: Eo(M2-M1)/(M2+M1) is the energy after Explanation: The specificity will vary depending on the View Answer
collision with a surface atom for a scattering angle of 90o. scattering gas used. Only a few gases are preferred to
Answer: c
But, this is valid only when M1<M2. avoid side effects. Answer: a
Explanation: In ion spectroscopy, the positive ions are
Explanation: 1 amu is the resolution of quadrupole mass
focussed on the sample at 45o. Ions are formed by 6. It is advantageous to use ions from a variety of gases. 11. ISS is less sensitive than which of the following? spectrometer used in SIMS. SIMS shows good specificity.
bombardment. a) True a) SIMS
b) False b) Auger
2. Only those electrons which are in a selected small solid
View Answer c) ESCA
angle are received in the ________ electrostatic analyser. ELECTRON SPIN RESONANCE SPECTROMETERS
d) AES
a) 100o Answer: a View Answer
b) 127o Explanation: It is advantageous to use ions from a variety ELECTRON SPIN RESONANCE
c) 180o of gases. Few gases are chosen to avoid side effects. Answer: a
d) 263o 1. Electron spin resonance involves detecting the detection
Explanation: ISS is less sensitive than SIMS. It is more
View Answer 7. Which of the following gases is not often used in ion of a physical phenomenon of _________ of
sensitive than Auger or ESCA.
spectroscopy? electromagnetic radiation.
Answer: b a) Helium 12. Which of the following is the detection limit of ISS for a) Adsorption
Explanation: Only those electrons which are in a selected b) Argon monolayer? b) Absorption
small solid angle are received in the 127oelectrostatic c) Nitrogen a) 10 -1 % c) Radiation
analyser. Ions are scattered in all directions. d) Neon b) 10 -2 % d) Reflection
View Answer c) 10 -3 % View Answer
3. Which of the following can be used as the detector in
d) 10 -4 %
ion spectroscopy? Answer: c Answer: a
View Answer
a) Faraday cup collector Explanation: Helium, argon and inert gases are usually Explanation: Electron spin resonance uses the detection of
b) Channel electron multiplier chosen for ion spectroscopy. These gases are chosen to Answer: c a physical phenomenon of absorption of electromagnetic
c) Micro-channel plate avoid side effects. Explanation: 10-3% of the monolayer is the detection limit radiation. Paramagnetic species absorb EM radiation.
of ISS. It can be effectively used for depth profiling.
2. Electron spin resonance is also known as which of the 6. If a weaker radiofrequency alternating magnetic field, 10. ESR sensitivity increases with __________ temperature Answer: c
following? having the frequency of precession of the electron is and with _________ magnetic field strength. Explanation: Waveguides look like rectangular cross-
a) Electron paramagnetic resonance applied at right angles to fixed magnetic field, which of the a) Increasing, increasing section pipes with dimensions of the order of the
b) Electron diamagnetic resonance following occurs? b) Increasing, decreasing wavelength to be transmitted. Waveguides cannot be too
c) Electron paramagnetic reoccurrence a) Fragmentation c) Decreasing, increasing small or too large.
d) Electron diamagnetic reoccurrence b) Scattering d) Decreasing, decreasing
View Answer c) Resonance View Answer 15. Klystron can generate power in which of the following
d) Absorption ranges?
Answer: a View Answer Answer: c a) 10 – 100 mW
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is also known as Explanation: ESR sensitivity increases with decreasing b) 10 – 200 mW
electron paramagnetic resonance. It is a valuable research Answer: c temperature and with increasing magnetic field strength. c) 10 – 500 mW
analysis tool. Explanation: Resonance occurs when a weaker ESR sensitivity means net absorption. d) 100 – 400 mW
radiofrequency alternating magnetic field with the View Answer
3. The value of the magnetic moment is known as which of frequency of precession of the electron is applied at right 11. ESR is remarkably sensitive when compared with NMR.
the following? angles to a fixed magnetic field. a) True Answer: c
a) Thompson magneton b) False Explanation: Klystron can generate power in the range of
b) Bohr magneton 7. If the population of ground state exceeds the population View Answer 10-500 mW. It is a low power device.
c) Goldstein magneton of the excited state a net absorption of __________
d) Rutherford magneton radiation takes place. Answer: a
View Answer a) Infrared Explanation: ESR is remarkably sensitive when compared
with NMR. NMR stands for Nuclear Magnetic Resonance BASIC ESR SPECTROMETER
b) Ultraviolet
Answer: b c) Microwave spectroscopy.
1. Given below is the diagram of Klystron tube. Identify the
Explanation: Electron spin resonance is based on the spin d) X-ray
12. Reflex klystron is used in which of the following component.
associated with the electron. There is a magnetic moment View Answer
the value of which is known as Bohr magneton. frequency ranges?
Answer: c a) 1000 to 2000 MHz
4. When a strong magnetic field is applied to the unpaired Explanation: If the population of ground state exceeds the b) 1000 to 10000 MHz
spins of an electron, the electrons will be split into two population of the excited state a net absorption of c) 1000 to 15000 MHz
groups. microwave radiation takes place. The signal would be d) 1000 to 20000 MHz
a) True proportional to the population difference. View Answer
b) False a) Cathode
View Answer 8. The population ratio can be given by which of the Answer: d b) Anode
following laws? Explanation: Reflex klystron is used in the frequency range c) Grid
Answer: a a) Bohr law of 1000 to 20000 MHz. It is a low power device. d) Reflector electrode
Explanation: When a strong magnetic field is applied to the b) Beer-Lambert law View Answer
unpaired spins of an electron, the electrons will be split 13. Under ideal conditions, a commercial X-band
c) Kelvin law
into two groups. Electron spin resonance is based on the spectrometer can detect of the order of which of the Answer: d
d) Boltzmann law
spin associated with the electron. following number of spins at room temperature? Explanation: The component is the reflector electrode.
View Answer
a) 101 Cathode is on the left side and anode is in the middle.
5. When the electrons are aligned either parallel or Answer: d b) 105
antiparallel to the direction of the external magnetic field, Explanation: The population ratio can be given by c) 1010 2. Microwave frequency can be tuned over a small range
the electrons will precess about the axis at a frequency Boltzmann law. ‘k’ is the Boltzmann constant. d) 1012 by adjusting the distance between which of the following?
that is proportional to which of the following? View Answer a) Cathode and anode
a) Applied magnetic field 9. The sensitivity of measurement is greatly enhanced by b) Anode and the reflector
b) Electron magnetic moment using which of the following? Answer: d c) Cathode and the reflector
c) Applied magnetic field and electron magnetic moment a) High magnetic field Explanation: Under ideal conditions, a X-band d) Cathode and grid
d) Neither applied magnetic field not electron magnetic b) Low magnetic field spectrometer is capable of detecting of the order of View Answer
moment c) High electric field 1012 spins at room temperature. ESR is very sensitive.
View Answer d) Low electric field Answer: c
14. Waveguides look like _________ cross-section pipes Explanation: Microwave frequency can be tuned over a
View Answer
Answer: c with dimensions of the order of the wavelength to be small range by adjusting the distance between anode and
Explanation: When the electrons are aligned either parallel Answer: a transmitted. the reflector. Reflector voltage can also be adjusted.
or antiparallel to the direction of external magnetic field, Explanation: The sensitivity of measurement is greatly a) Triangular
the electrons will start to precess about the axis at a enhanced by using a high magnetic field. Low magnetic b) Circular 3. Microwaves are generated by __________ and the
frequency that is proportional to both applied magnetic field reduces sensitivity. c) Rectangular power level is adjusted with the ________
field and electron magnetic moment. d) Square a) Triode, rectifier
View Answer b) Pentode, attenuator
c) Klystron tube, attenuator
d) Diode, rectifier 8. Which of the following is adjusted as a fine control for Answer: a 2. After detection, the resulting signal will have which of
View Answer frequency tuning? Explanation: The electrons are emitted by the cathode in the following frequencies?
a) Cathode the klystron tube. The cathode is heated. a) 1 kHz
Answer: c b) Anode b) 10 kHz
Explanation: Microwaves are generated by klystron tube c) Reflector voltage 13. Which of the following is the operating frequency of c) 100 kHz
and the power level is adjusted with the attenuator. d) Grid the ESR spectrometer? d) 1000 kHz
Klystron tube is a low power device. View Answer a) 1.7 to 3.4 GHz View Answer
b) 1.5 to 4.2 GHz
4. Which of the following is also known as reflex oscillator? Answer: c c) 3.2 to 5.4 GHz Answer: c
a) Triode Explanation: Reflector voltage is adjusted as a fine control d) 8.8 to 9.6 GHz Explanation: After detection, the resulting signal will have
b) Pentode for frequency tuning. Distance is the coarse frequency View Answer 100 kHz. It contains ESR information.
c) Special tube adjustment.
d) Klystron tube Answer: d 3. Which of the following is the modulation amplitude
View Answer 9. In basic ESR spectrometer, the cavity length is Explanation: The operating frequency of the ESR range of ESR spectrometer?
adjustable. spectrometer is 8.8 to 9.6 GHz. It is an important a) 1mG to 10G
Answer: d a) True parameter. b) 2mG to 15G
Explanation: Klystron tube is also known as the reflex b) False c) 3mG to 20G
oscillator. It is a low power device. View Answer 14. At which of the following frequencies is the magnetic d) 5mG to 40G
field at the sample modulated? View Answer
5. Microwaves reflected back from the cavity are routed to Answer: b a) 1 kHz
which of the following? Explanation: In basic ESR spectrometer, the cavity length is b) 10 kHz Answer: d
a) Attenuator not adjustable. It is of one wavelength. c) 100 kHz Explanation: 5mG to 40G is the modulation amplitude
b) Klystron d) 1000 kHz range of ESR spectrometer. It is applied in steps.
c) Load 10. The cavity resonant frequency should be equal to View Answer
d) Diode detector which of the following? 4. In which of the following ranges will the receiver time
View Answer a) Frequency of electric field Answer: c constant of the ESR spectrometer lie?
b) Klystron frequency Explanation: The magnetic field at the sample is a) 0 to 10 s
Answer: d c) Frequency of magnetic field modulated at 100 kHz. The magnetic field is kept at a b) 0.3 to 1 s
Explanation: Microwaves reflected back from the cavity d) Mechanical frequency maximum. c) 0.03 to 10 s
are routed to diode detector. Power reflected from diode View Answer d) 0.003 to 100 s
is absorbed by a load. 15. The output of the klystron does not pass through View Answer
Answer: b which of the following?
6. Which of the following routes are the microwaves Explanation: The cavity resonant frequency should be a) Isolator Answer: d
entering from the klystron towards the cavity? equal to klystron frequency. It must be tuned in this b) Reflector Explanation: The receiver time constant of the ESR
a) Oscillator manner. c) Power leveller spectrometer lies from 0.003 to 100 s. It is one of the
b) Attenuator d) Directional coupler important parameters of ESR spectrometer.
c) Circulator 11. When klystron frequency is close to the cavity View Answer
d) Reflector resonant frequency, much less power is reflected from the 5. Which of the following is the oscilloscope field width of
View Answer cavity to the diode. Answer: b the ESR spectrometer?
a) True Explanation: The reflector is inside the klystron tube. The a) 0.2 to 40 G
Answer: c b) False output passes through the other three components. b) 0.1 to 20 G
Explanation: Circulator routes the microwaves entering View Answer c) 0 to 10 G
from the klystron towards the cavity. The sample is d) 0.01 to 20 G
mounted in the cavity. Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: When klystron frequency is close to the cavity INSTRUMENTATION OF ESR SPECTROMETER
7. By introducing which of the following, signal-to-noise resonant frequency, much less power is reflected from the Answer: a
ratio can be improved? 1. Which of the following is used as detector crystal in ESR
cavity to the diode. It results in a dip in a power mode. Explanation: The oscilloscope field width of the ESR
a) Small amplitude field modulation spectrometer?
spectrometer lies between 0.2 to 40 G. it is one of the
b) Large amplitude field modulation 12. From which of the following are electrons emitted in a) Silicon rectifier
important parameters.
c) Small amplitude field attenuation the klystron tube? b) Silicon tungsten rectifier
d) Large amplitude field attenuation a) Cathode c) Silicon boron rectifier 6. The magnet used in ESR spectrometer provides a
View Answer b) Anode d) Silicon quartz rectifier magnetic field which can be varied from ________ to
c) Grid View Answer _______
Answer: a d) Reflector electrode a) 20 mgauss, 100mgauss
Explanation: By introducing small amplitude field Answer: b
View Answer b) 200 mgauss, 20kgauss
modulation, signal-to-noise ratio can be improved. This is Explanation: Silicon tungsten rectifier is used as detector
c) 20 mgauss, 20kgauss
because the previous DC measurement is too noisy. crystal in ESR spectrometer. This is the commonly used
detector.
d) 100 mgauss, 10kgauss 11. The klystron body is insulated from ground by an DIGITAL CIRCUITS Answer: b
View Answer insulating gas casket. Explanation: The binary equivalent of the decimal number
a) True 1. In analytical instrumentation, little circuitry is concerned 10 is 1010. The base of binary numbers is 2.
Answer: b b) False with the amplification and processing of signals.
Explanation: The magnet used in ESR spectrometer View Answer a) True 6. 1001 is a data presented on a set of binary coded
provides a magnetic field which can be varied from 200 b) False decimal output lines. What would be the decimal
mgauss to 20kgauss. It is calibrated in steps. Answer: a View Answer equivalent of this number in the case of negative logic?
Explanation: The klystron body is insulated from ground by a) 9
7. Which of the following sensor is used in ESR an insulating gas casket. It is placed between klystron Answer: b b) 6
spectrometer? flange and water cooling flange. Explanation: In analytical instrumentation, most circuitry is c) 1
a) Hall-effect sensor concerned with the amplification and processing of d) 8
b) Load cell 12. The 100 kHz oscillator acts as which of the following? signals. The signals are usually in analog form. View Answer
c) Strain gauge a) Transmitter
d) Bourdon gauge b) Receiver 2. Which of the following samples the analog signals to Answer: b
View Answer c) Modulator obtain their digital equivalent? Explanation: The decimal equivalent of the number 1001
d) Transmitter and receiver a) Analog to digital converter in the case of negative logic is 6. In the case of positive
Answer: a View Answer b) Electronic counter logic, the decimal equivalent will be 9.
Explanation: Hall-effect sensor is used in ESR c) Comparator
spectrometer. It is given as an input to the summation Answer: d d) Digital to analog converter 7. Given below is the equivalent circuit of a logic gate.
circuit. Explanation: The 100 kHz oscillator acts as the transmitter View Answer Identify the logic gate.
and receiver. It is crystal controlled.
8. Which of the following oscillator is used as 1230 Hz Answer: a
oscillator? 13. Which of the following removes residual harmonics Explanation: Analog to digital converter samples the
a) Hartley oscillator from the phase-detected signal? analog signals to obtain their digital equivalent. There are
b) Crystal oscillator a) High-pass filter different types of analog to digital converters.
c) RC oscillator b) Low-pass filter
d) Wien bridge oscillator c) Band-pass filter 3. Which of the following can be used to store
View Answer d) Chopper information?
View Answer a) Gates
Answer: d b) ADC a) AND gate
Explanation: Wien bridge oscillator is used as 1230 Hz Answer: b c) DAC b) OR gate
oscillator. The output level is internally regulated. Explanation: Low-pass filter removes residual harmonics d) Flip-flops c) EX-OR gate
from the phase-detected signal. It removes the residual View Answer d) NOT gate
9. What does AFC stand for? 100 kHz if any. View Answer
a) Auto frequency correct Answer: d
b) Automated frequency correct 14. The oscilloscope is used to display the klystron mode. Explanation: Flip-flops can be used to store information. Answer: a
c) Automatic frequency control a) True They are used in sequential circuits. Explanation: The given circuit is the AND gate. The output
d) Automatic frequency circuit b) False of the gate is, Y=X1.X2
View Answer View Answer 4. Which of the following is known as a nibble?
a) 1 bit 8. Two switches are in parallel and are connected with a
Answer: c Answer: a b) 4 bits lamp and supply in series. This represents which of the
Explanation: AFC stands for automatic frequency control. Explanation: The oscilloscope is used to display the c) 8 bits following logic gate?
A 70 kHz AFC is used. klystron mode. It provides visual observation of rapidly d) 16 bits a) AND gate
changing signals. View Answer b) OR gate
10. Klystron requires _______ for the klystron beam and c) EX-OR gate
up to _____ for the klystron reflector. 15. In the sample cell, which of the following is selected to Answer: b d) NOT gate
a) +400 V, -730 V give maximum optical transmission in the UV-visible Explanation: 4-bit units are known as nibbles. A byte View Answer
b) +650 V, -400 V region? consists of two nibbles.
c) +200 V,-530 V a) Tungsten Answer: b
d) +180 V,-270 V b) Quartz 5. Which of the following is the binary equivalent of the Explanation: Two switches are in parallel and are
View Answer c) Phosphor decimal number 10? connected with a lamp and supply in series. This forms the
d) Potassium a) 1100 OR gate.
Answer: b View Answer b) 1010
Explanation: Klystron requires +650 V for the klystron c) 1011 9. The output will be logic ‘1’ only if all the inputs are ‘0’.
beam and up to -400 V for the klystron reflector. Klystron Answer: b d) 1110 Which gate must be used to execute this condition?
is also known as reflex oscillator. Explanation: In the sample cell, quartz is selected to give View Answer a) AND gate
maximum optical transmission in the UV-visible region. b) NAND gate
Aqueous sample cells are specially designed. c) NOR gate
d) EX-OR gate of emitters equal to the desired fan-in of the circuit. This is Answer: a and processes the physics, chemistry, and evolution of
View Answer a major advantage. Explanation: We can achieve a high speed of gate by sing such objects and processes. A kaleidoscope is an optical
ECL. ECL stands for emitter-coupled logic. instrument, typically a cylinder with mirrors containing
Answer: b 4. Which of the following is the propagation delay of TTL loose, colored objects such as beads or pebbles and bits of
Explanation: The output will be logic ‘1’ only if all the circuits? 9. Which of the following is not the advantage of MOS glass. Anatomy is the branch of biology concerned with
inputs are ‘0’. NAND gate must be used to execute this a) 1 s gates? the study of the structure of organisms and their parts.
condition. b) 1 ms a) Low power dissipation
c) 1 ns b) Small size 2. The energy level with lower energy is called
10. INHIBIT gate is ________ gate with an inhibiting input. d) 1 ps c) Good immunity to noise a) Ground state energy level
a) AND gate View Answer d) High switching speeds b) Initial state energy level
b) OR gate View Answer c) Excited state energy level
c) EX-OR gate Answer: c d) All of the mentioned
d) NOT gate Explanation: The propagation delay of the TTL circuit is 1 Answer: d View Answer
View Answer ns. It is the main characteristic of the TTL circuit. Explanation: MOS gates do not have a high switching
speed. They have limited switching capability. Answer: a
Answer: b 5. The standard TTL gates are marketed as _______ series. Explanation: The lower energy level is called ground state
Explanation: INHIBIT gate is OR gate with an inhibiting a) 80 10. CMOS gates are commercially available as which of the and the higher energy level is called excited state. The
input. The gate is useful for controlling the inputs with an b) 82 following series? excited state of a system (such as an atom, molecule or
inhibiting signal. c) 74 a) 1000 nucleus) is any quantum state of the system that has a
d) 08 b) 2000 higher energy than the ground state.
View Answer c) 3000
d) 4000 3. Absorption spectrum results when an electron in an
LOGIC FAMILIES Answer: c View Answer atom undergoes a transition from
Explanation: The standard TTL gates are marketed as 74 a) Higher energy level to a lower one
1. Which of the following is the most widely employed
series. They can operate up to 700C. Answer: d b) Lower energy level to a higher one
logic family?
Explanation: CMOS gates are commercially available as c) Intermediate levels
a) Emitter-coupled logic 6. Schottky TTL logic family does not have which of the 4000 series. This technique is most suitable for commercial d) All of the mentioned
b) Transistor-transistor logic following features? circuits. View Answer
c) CMOS logic family a) Good fan-in
d) NMOS logic b) Good fan-out 11. The switching of MOS gates can be improved by using Answer: b
View Answer c) High speed capability CMOS. Explanation: Absorption spectrum results when an
d) High propagation delay a) True electron in an atom undergoes a transition from lower
Answer: b
View Answer b) False energy level to a higher one.
Explanation: Transistor-transistor logic is the most widely
View Answer
employed logic family. It is the most popular logic family. Answer: d 4. The energy of a photon is given by
Explanation: Schottky TTL circuits have reduced Answer: a a) h/ν
2. The basic function of TTL gate is which of the following
propagation delay than normal TTL circuits. The Explanation: The switching of MOS gates can be improved b) ν/h
functions?
propagation delay of 10ns is very high for some by using CMOS. CMOS stands for complementary MOS. It c) 1/hν
a) AND
applications. is an inverter. d) hν
b) OR
c) NOR View Answer
7. The logic ‘0’ of ECL is represented as ______V and logic
d) NAND ‘1’ is represented as ______V. Answer: d
View Answer a) 1, 1.65 ABSORPTION SPECTROSCOPY
Explanation: The energy of a photon is given by hν where ν
b) 0.9, 1.75 is the frequency and h is plank constant.
Answer: d ORIGIN OF SPECTRUM
c) 1.2, 2.35
Explanation: The basic function of TTL gate is a NAND
d) 1.9, 4.3 1. The analysis of electromagnetic radiation scattered, 5. Select the incorrect statement from the following
function. It is the most popular logic family.
View Answer absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called option.
3. In TTL logic, the input transistor has a number of a) Kaleidoscopy a) Emission spectrum results when an electron in an atom
Answer: b undergoes a transition from excited state to the ground
________ equal to the desired fan-in of the circuit. b) Astronomy
Explanation: The logic ‘0’ of ECL is represented as 0.9 V state
a) Base c) Spectroscopy
and logic ‘1’ is represented as 1.75 V. ECL stands for b) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with
b) Collect d) Anatomy
emitter-coupled logic. the emission of a photon of energy hν
c) Emitter View Answer
d) Gate c) In the emission spectrum, transition takes place with the
8. ECL is a way of achieving a higher speed of gate.
View Answer Answer: c absorption of a photon of energy hν
a) True
Explanation: The analysis of electromagnetic radiation d) All of the mentioned
b) False
Answer: c scattered, absorbed or emitted by the molecule is called View Answer
View Answer
Explanation: In TTL logic, the input transistor has a number spectroscopy. Astronomy, is the study of celestial objects
Answer: c c) hν should be equal to the energy difference d) Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> E el methods are reliable, reproducible and correct than
Explanation: In the emission spectrum, transition takes d) None of the mentioned View Answer classical methods.
place with the emission of a photon of energy hν. All the View Answer
other options are correct. Emission spectrum results when Answer: a 8. The transition zone for Raman spectra is
an electron in an atom undergoes a transition from excited Answer: c Explanation: The correct order is: Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr. a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
state to the ground state. Explanation: The necessary condition for absorption Electronic enrgy is the highest whereas translational b) Between electronic levels
spectrum is that hν should be equal to the energy energy is the lowest. c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
6. The spectra can be broadly classified into two difference(ΔE = Ee – Eg). d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons
categories. They are 4. The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear View Answer
a) Atomic and molecular spectra 10. Spectroscopy deals with the transition that a molecule magnetic resonance is
b) Atomic and electronic spectra undergoes on the absorption of suitable radiations a) Microwave Answer: a
c) Molecular and electronic spectra determined by quantum mechanical selection rules. b) Radio frequency Explanation: The transition zone for Raman spectra is
d) None of the mentioned a) True c) Infrared between vibrational and rotational levels. Raman
View Answer b) False d) UV-rays spectroscopy is a spectroscopic technique used to observe
View Answer View Answer vibrational, rotational, and other low-frequency modes in
Answer: a a system.
Explanation: The spectra can be broadly classified into two Answer: a Answer: b
categories: atomic and molecular spectra. Atomic spectra Explanation: Spectroscopy deals with the transition that a Explanation: The region of electromagnetic spectrum for 9. The criteria for electronic spin resonance is
is the spectrum of frequencies of electromagnetic molecule undergoes on the absorption of suitable nuclear magnetic resonance is radio frequency. a) Periodic change in polarisability
radiation emitted or absorbed during transitions of radiations determined by quantum mechanical selection b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
rules. The spectra can be broadly classified into two 5. Which of the following is an application of molecular c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
electrons between energy levels within an atom.
categories: atomic and molecular spectra. spectroscopy? d) Presence of chromophore in a molecule
Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an electron
a) Structural investigation View Answer
between the molecular energy levels.
b) Basis of understanding of colors
7. In atomic spectroscopy, only electronic transitions are c) Study of energetically excited reaction products Answer: c
MOLECULAR SPECTROSCOPY d) All of the mentioned Explanation: The criterion for electronic spin resonance is
involved.
a) True View Answer presence of unpaired electron in a molecule. This
1. The different types of energies associated with a
b) False spectroscopy is a method for studying materials with
molecule are Answer: d
View Answer unpaired electrons.
a) Electronic energy Explanation: The various applications of molecular
b) Vibrational energy spectroscopy are- Structural investigation, basis of 10. Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic
Answer: a
c) Rotational energy understanding of colors and study of energetically excited analysis because sample is not chemically affected.
Explanation: In atomic spectroscopy, only electronic
d) All of the mentioned reaction products. a) True
transitions are involved. It is the spectrum of frequencies
View Answer b) False
of electromagnetic radiation emitted or absorbed during
6. Select the correct statement from the following option. View Answer
transitions of electrons between energy levels within an Answer: d a) Spectroscopic methods require less time and more
atom. Explanation: The different types of energies associated amount of sample than classical methods Answer: a
with a molecule are electronic energy, vibrational energy, b) Spectroscopic methods require more time and more Explanation: Sample recovery is possible after
8. Select the correct statement from the following options.
rotational energy and translational energy. amount of sample than classical methods spectroscopic analysis because sample is not chemically
a) Molecular spectra arises from the transition of an
electron between the molecular energy levels c) Spectroscopic methods require less time and less affected.
2. During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule
b) In molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and amount of sample than classical methods
changes, the molecule possess
vibration transitions occurs d) Spectroscopic methods require more time and less
a) Electronic energy
c) Molecular spectra is more complicated than atomic amount of sample than classical methods
b) Rotational energy ELECTRONIC SPECTROSCOPY
spectra View Answer
c) Translational energy
d) All of the mentioned d) Vibrational energy 1. The electronic spectra in the visible range span
Answer: c
View Answer View Answer a) 25000-72000 cm-1
Explanation: Spectroscopic methods require less time and
b) 25000-50000 cm-1
Answer: d less amount of sample than classical methods (1 mg).
Answer: c c) 12500-25000 cm-1
Explanation: Molecular spectra arises from the transition Explanation: During the motion, if the centre of gravity of d) 15000-30000 cm-1
7. The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are less
of an electron between the molecular energy levels. In molecule changes, the molecule possess translational View Answer
reliable, less reproducible and incorrect than classical
molecular transitions, electronic, rotational and vibration energy. Translational refers to the movement in horizontal methods.
transitions occurs and molecular spectra is more or vertical direction. Answer: c
a) True
complicated than atomic spectra. Explanation: The electronic spectra in the visible range
b) False
3. The correct order of different types of energies is span 12500-25000 cm-1 and in the UV region span 25000-
9. The necessary condition for absorption spectrum is that View Answer
a) Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr 72000 cm-1.
a) hν should be greater than the energy difference b) Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> E tr Answer: b
b) hν should be smaller than the energy difference c) Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> E rot Explanation: The results obtained by spectroscopic
2. Which of the following transitions are of weak O2 is not an example of auxochrome. -OH, -SH and -OR are law. It relates the attenuation of light to the properties of 5. Which of the following cannot show a vibrational
intensities and lie in the visible region? the examples of auxochrome. the material through which the light is traveling. absorption spectrum?
a) n→n* a) OCS
b) σ→σ* 7. Which of the following shift leads to the decreased b) H2O
c) π→π* intensity of absorption? c) CO 2
a) Hypochromic VIBRATIONAL SPECTROSCOPY
d) n→σ* d) C H2 = C H2
View Answer b) Hyperchromic View Answer
1. Vibrational spectroscopy involves the transitions falling
c) Hypsochromic
in the spectral range of
Answer: a d) Bathochromic Answer: d
a) 100-1000 cm-1
Explanation: n→n* transitions are of weak intensities and View Answer Explanation: C H2 = C H2 cannot show vibrational
b) 300-3000 cm-1
lie in the visible region. absorption spectrum. OCS, H2O and CO 2 can show a
Answer: a c) 400-4000 cm-1
vibrational absorption spectrum.
3. Arrange the various electronic transitions in the order of Explanation: Hypochromic shift leads to the decreased d) 500-5000 cm-1
increasing energy. intensity of absorption. Hypochromicity describes a View Answer 6. Which of the following is not a type of bending
a) n→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < σ→σ* material’s decreasing ability to absorb light. molecular vibration?
Answer: c
b) n→π* < π→π* < n→σ* < σ→σ* Hyperchromicity is the material’s increasing ability to a) Twisting
Explanation: Vibrational spectroscopy involves the
c) n→σ* < n→π* < π→π* < σ→σ* absorb light. b) Stretching
transitions falling in the spectral range of 400-4000 cm-
d) σ→σ* < π→π* < n→π* < n→σ* 1 c) Wagging
8. Which of the following is an application of electronic (infrared region).
View Answer d) Rocking
spectroscopy? View Answer
2. Which of the region of IR spectra appears between
Answer: b a) Detection of impurities
(1400-600) cm-1?
Explanation: The correct order is- n→π* < π→π* < n→σ* < b) Control of purification Answer: b
a) Functional group region
σ→σ*. c) Study of kinetics of the chemical reaction Explanation: Stretching is not a type of bending molecular
b) Fingerprint region
d) All of the mentioned vibration. Twisting, wagging and rocking are types of
4. What is the position of the band of alkanes? c) Low-frequency region
View Answer bending molecular vibration.
a) 190 nm d) None of the mentioned
b) 185 nm Answer: d View Answer 7. What is the absorption frequency(cm-1) of –C=N
c) 217 nm Explanation: Detection of impurities, control of functional group?
Answer: b
d) 150 nm purification, study of the kinetics of the chemical reaction, a) 3610-3640
Explanation: Fingerprint region of IR spectra appears
View Answer determination of molecular weight and determination of b) 1690-1760
between (1400-600) cm-1.
unknown concentration are the applications of electronic c) 1180-1360
Answer: d spectroscopy. d) 2850-2960
3. Select the correct statement from the following option.
Explanation: The position of the band of alkanes is ≈150 View Answer
a) Infrared spectra can identify the unknown materials
nm. Alkanes refer to any of the series of saturated 9. What will be the absorbance if %T= 80?
b) It can determine the amount of components in a
hydrocarbons including methane, ethane, propane, and a) 0.5 Answer: c
mixture
higher members. b) 0.05 Explanation: The absorption frequency for –C=N group is
c) It can also determine the quality of a sample
c) 0.097 1180-1360 cm-1. Absorption spectroscopy refers to
5. Which of the following organic compound shows d) All of the mentioned
d) 0.97 spectroscopic techniques that measure the absorption of
transition due to conjugation? View Answer
View Answer radiation, as a function of frequency or wavelength, due to
a) Alkenes its interaction with a sample.
Answer: d
b) Saturated aliphatic ketones Answer: c
Explanation: Infrared spectra can identify the unknown
c) Conjugated dienes Explanation: Absorbance (A) = log(1/T) = log(100/80) = 8. Presence of a functional group in a compound can be
materials. It can determine the amount of components in
d) Alkanes 0.097 established by using
a mixture and can also determine the quality of a sample.
View Answer a) Chromatography
10. Which of the following is a limitation of the Lambert- b) IR spectroscopy
4. Which of the following molecule have infrared active
Answer: c Beer’s law? c) Mass spectroscopy
vibrations?
Explanation: Conjugated dienes shows the transitions of a) Scattering of light due to particles d) X-ray diffraction
a) NO
low energy and is due to conjugation. b) Fluorescence of sample View Answer
b) CH4
c) Non-monochromatic radiation
6. Which of the following is not an auxochrome group? c) H2
d) All of the mentioned Answer: b
a) –OH d) All of the mentioned
View Answer Explanation: Presence of a functional group in a compound
b) –SH View Answer
can be established by using IR spectroscopy. It is the
c) –OR Answer: d spectroscopy that deals with the infrared region of the
Answer: a
d) –O2 Explanation: Scattering of light due to particles, electromagnetic spectrum, that is light with a longer
Explanation: NO molecule have infrared active vibrations.
View Answer fluorescence of the sample and non-monochromatic wavelength and lower frequency than visible light.
Infrared spectra can identify the unknown materials. It can
radiation are some of the limitations of Lambert-Beer’s
Answer: d determine the amount of components in a mixture and
Explanation: Auxochrome is the color enhancing group. – can also determine the quality of a sample.
9. Select the incorrect option from the following option. 3. Number of NMR signals obtained in CH3COCH3 will be d) 3, 4
a) IR spectroscopy helps in determination of purity a) 6 View Answer
b) IR spectroscopy helps in determination of force b) 3
constant from vibrational spectrum c) 2 Answer: a
c) IR spectroscopy helps in identifying an unknown d) 1 Explanation: The number of signals in 1-propanol are 4
compound View Answer while those in 2-propanol are 3.
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d 8. For NMR spectrum, carbon tetrachloride and water can
View Answer
Explanation: Number of NMR signals obtained in be successfully used as a solvent.
Answer: d CH3COCH3 will be 1. Nuclear magnetic resonance a) True
Explanation: All the options are correct. IR spectroscopy spectroscopy, is a research technique that exploits the b) False
helps in determination of purity, force constant from the magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei. View Answer
vibrational spectrum and identifying an unknown
4. Propene as well as 2-Butene(cis) will show equal Answer: a
compound.
number of signals in their NMR spectra. Explanation: For the NMR spectrum, carbon tetra-chloride
10. IR spectroscopy helps in detecting the presence of a) True and water can be successfully used as solvent. NMR is
hydrogen bonding. b) False routinely used in advanced medical imaging techniques,
a) True View Answer such as in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
b) False
Answer: b 9. In how many ways –CH3 protons can couple with the
View Answer
Explanation: Propene as well as 2-Butene(cis) will not protons on adjacent carbon atom relative to the external
Answer: a show equal number of signals in their NMR spectra. field.
Explanation: IR spectroscopy helps in detecting the a) 1
presence of hydrogen bonding. It is the spectroscopy that 5. Select the incorrect statement from the following b) 2
deals with the infrared region of the electromagnetic option. c) 3
spectrum, that is light with a longer wavelength and lower a) TMS stands for tetra methyl silane d) 4
frequency than visible light. b) All the hydrogen in TMS have the same chemical shift View Answer
c) TMS has a high boiling point, so it is not easily lost when
holding the NMR sample Answer: d
d) TMS is relatively unreactive with most functional groups Explanation: In four ways –CH3 protons can couple with
NUCLEAR MAGNETIC RESONANCE View Answer the protons on adjacent carbon atom relative to the
external field.
1. The nuclei with a spin quantum number greater than Answer: c
_______ can exhibit the NMR phenomenon. Explanation: TMS has a low boiling point so it can be easily 10. Which of the following is inversely proportional to the
a) 0 removed from a recoverable sample of an organic chemical shifts positions (δ)?
b) 5 compound. All the other options are correct. TMS is a) Frequency of unknown group of protons
c) 10 relatively unreactive with most functional groups. b) Frequency of TMS
d) -5 c) Operating frequency of the instrument
View Answer 6. The NMR spectra of the functional isomers of the d) All of the mentioned
molecular formula C2H6O show _________ and _________ View Answer
Answer: a signals respectively.
Explanation: The nuclei with a spin quantum number a) 1, 2 Answer: c
greater than zero can exhibit the NMR phenomenon. b) 1, 3 Explanation: Operating frequency of the instrument is
Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy, NMR c) 1, 4 inversely proportional to the chemical shifts positions (δ).
spectroscopy, is a research technique that exploits the d) 1, 5
magnetic properties of certain atomic nuclei. View Answer
2. The number of different orientations which a magnetic Answer: b
nucleus can take is Explanation: The NMR spectra of the functional isomers of
a) 2I the molecular formula C2H6O show one and three signals
b) 2I-1 respectively.
c) 2I+1
d) 4I 7. The number of signals in 1-propanol are _________
View Answer while those in 2-propanol are ______
a) 4, 3
Answer: c b) 4, 2
Explanation: The number of different orientations which a c) 2, 4
magnetic nucleus can take is 2I+1.
INTRODUCTION TO ORGANIC COMPOUNDS 5. If a bond is made up of a large number of organic b) H2O 3. Ten covalent bonds in the Lewis structure of Propane
compound, then the bond is termed as? c) CO2 will account for how many valence electrons?
CHEMICAL BOND a) Ionic bond d) NaCl a) 10
1. Which among the following chemical bond were b) Metallic bond View Answer b) 20
c) Covalent bond c) 14
described by Kossel and Lewis? Answer: b
a) Metallic bond d) Dipolar bond d) 12
View Answer Water H2O is both a molecule and a compound. This is View Answer
b) Polar covalent bond because the atoms which make them are not the same.
c) Coordinate bond Answer: c Answer: b
d) Ionic and Covalent bond Explanation: This is because they have the tendency to 10. Bond energy and the corresponding bond length vary Explanation: From the Molecular formula of Propane
View Answer transfer electrons. directly with each other. comment whether the statement (C3H8), 3C has 3*4=12 valence electrons and 8H has 8*1=8
is true or false. valence electrons and hence total valence electrons is
Answer: d 6. Which among the following is not an example of a) True
Explanation: Both Ionic and Covalent bond arise from the given by their sum: 12+8=20.
hydrogen bond? b) False
tendency of atoms to attain stable configuration of a) H20 View Answer 4. What is the hybridization of oxygen in water?
electrons. b) Liquid HCl a) sp
c) NH3 Answer: b b) sp2
2. Which among the following is not a property of Ionic Explanation: Smaller the bond energy, greater will be the
bond? d) CHCl3 c) sp3
View Answer bond length and vice versa and hence the two vary 4) sp3d
a) Losing of electrons inversely with each other. View Answer
b) Gain of electrons Answer: b
c) Sharing of electrons Explanation: There is no hydrogen bond in liquid HCl since Answer: c
d) Transfer of electrons the bond breaks up when dissolved in water. Explanation: water has a linear shape as hydrogen shares
View Answer HYBRID ORBITALS
its electron with p-orbital.
7. Atoms undergo bonding in order to ?
Answer: c 1. The energy which must be transferred to any atom to
a) Attain stability 5. The electronegativity difference between the covalently
Explanation: Ionic bond results from a), b) and d). But the dislodge an electron is called?
b) Lose stability bonded atoms is
transfer of electrons is a property of Covalent bond. a) Free energy
c) Move freely a) Less than 0
b) Ionization Energy
d) increase energy b) 0-0.3
3. Which among the following formation is not an example c) Quantum mechanical energy
View Answer c) 0.3-1.7
of Covalent bond? d) Dissociation Energy
a) LiF View Answer d) Over 1.7
Answer: a View Answer
b) NH3 Explanation: Atoms undergo bonding to attain stable
c) CF4 Answer: b
electronic configuration and to gain energy. Answer: b
d) HF Explanation: If the energy is absorbed it is called
endothermic and if the energy is released it is called Explanation: The electronegativity difference between
View Answer 8. An atom differs from its ion in which among the covalent bond atoms is 0-0.3, whereas for polar covalent
following ? exothermic energy.
bonded atoms it is between 0.3-1.7 and for ionic it is over
Answer: a a) Mass number
Explanation: LiF (Lithium Fluoride) is an example of Ionic 2. Potassium Ion K+ has the same electronic configuration 1.7.
b) Atomic number
bond, as the formation takes place by transfer of electrons as that of which noble gases mentioned below ?
c) Neutrons 6. What is the hybridization of Carbon atom in CF4?
and not by sharing. a) Krypton
d) Number of protons a) sp2
b) Xenon
4. State whether the given statement is true or false “Ionic View Answer c) Argon b) sp
c) sp3d
bonds are non-directional” Answer: d d) Radon
d) sp3
a) True Explanation: When an atom loses or gains electrons its View Answer
View Answer
b) False forms its corresponding ion, and hence it differs in proton
View Answer Answer: c
number. Explanation: Potassium has atomic number 19, hence it Answer: d
Answer: a has 19 electrons and therefore K+ has 18 electrons, which Explanation: CF4 has a tetrahedral structure and carbon in
9. Which among the following is both a molecule and a it has a hybridization of sp3.
Explanation: The ionic bond breaks up when dissolved in compound? is the same as noble gas Argon.
water and allow the charged particles to move freely. a) C6 H12 O6
7. Which one has zero dipole moment? b) Linear d) non- stability a) Methanol
a) C6H6 c) Tetrahedral View Answer b) Ethanol
b) NH3 d) Pyramidal c) Water
c) H2S View Answer Answer: c d) Both methanol and water
d) NO Explanation: A crystalline solid is one which possesses View Answer
View Answer Answer: a perfect geometry, high stability, symmetric and regularly
Explanation: It forms a single bond with one oxygen atom, arranged. Answer: d
Answer: a double bond with another oxygen atom and there exists Explanation: Like water, it is a liquid with boiling point
Explanation: The ring of benzene is completely closed and one more non-bonded atom. Thus, it forms a trigonal 6. Melting is process which can be stated by the below which is abnormally high for a compound of its size and
is of perfect stability and hence it has zero dipole moment. planar structure. statements except, polarity.
a) Change from a highly disordered stated to an ordered
8. Which one have both sigma and pi bonds? 2. In which molecule there is a complete linear state 10. Which among the following does not match with the
a) H2S arrangement of all atoms? b) Change from particles in crystal lattice to liquid state term solubility?
b) NO2 a) BF3 c) Thermal energy of particles overcome the a) The structural units get separated from each other
c) HClO b) NH3 intercrystalline forces that hold them b) The ion-dipole bond is very strong
d) NaCN c) CO2 d) Change from low temperature to high temperature c) The spaces in between the structures are occupied by
View Answer d) CH4 View Answer solvent molecules
View Answer d) The electrostatic attraction between the oppositely
Answer: d Answer: a charged ions and their corresponding ends are called ion-
Explanation: In NaCN both double bond and triple bond is Answer: c Explanation: Melting is a process which proceeds by dipole bond
present and hence it has both sigma Explanation: BF3 has trigonal planar structure,NH3 has a changing from a highly ordered state to a disordered state. View Answer
and pi bonds. trigonal bipyramidal structure, CH4 has tetragonal
structure and hence CO2 is the one with linear structure. 7. Which among the following is not associated with Answer: b
9. PH3, So3, and HF are examples of polar molecules. State intermolecular forces? Explanation: The bond is weak but in the aggregate they
true or false 3. Choose the one which is incorrect a) They hold neutral molecules supply enough energy to overcome the interionic forces.
a) True a) BrO4 – tetrahedral b) Non- electrostatic in nature
b) False b) PF3 – pyramidal c) attraction of oppositely charged particles
View Answer c) ClO4 – tetrahedral d) dipole-dipole interaction and van der Waals forces
d) BeBr2 – linear View Answer ACIDS AND BASES
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: SO3 is not an example of polar molecule as it Answer: b 1. Which one is correctly matched?
does not contain a hydrogen bond. Answer: b Explanation: Intermolecular forces are electrostatic in a) Acids – pH range above7
Explanation: PF3 has a trigonal pyramidal structure as it nature. b) Acids – pH range below 7
10. What is the hybridization of sulphur in H2S? has three bonding pairs and one non-bonding pair. c) Acids – pH range 7( neutral)
a) sp 8. Which among the following statement is not true? d) Acids – pH range 8-9
b) sp2 4. Which among the following is not a physical property? a) In liquid, particles are less regularly arranged and are View Answer
c) sp3 a) Melting point free to move
d) sp3d b) Boiling point b) Boiling involves breaking up of group of molecules in Answers: b
View Answer c) Solubility liquid Explanation: Acids have a pH range less than 7, Water is
d) Reactivity c) Boiling involves clubbing of oppositely charged ions the only solvent that has a pH of 7 (neutral).
Answer: c View Answer d) Thermal energy of particles overcome cohesive forces
Explanation: S has two pairs of electrons and two atoms 2. A Strong acid is same as concentrated acid. State true or
that hold them false
bonded to H with a total of 4 electrons and hence it has a Answer: d View Answer
hybridization of sp3. Explanation: Reactivity is a chemical property and it is not a) False
a physical property. Answer: c b) True
Explanation: Boiling involves separation of oppositely View Answer
5. A crystalline solid possess which one of the following charged ions and makes them as individual ions.
STRUCTURE AND PHYSICAL PROPERTIES property? Answer: a
a) Irregularity 9. When one of the Hydrogen in Methane( CH4) is Explanation: Concentration of an acid depends upon the
1. Name the geometry of the central oxygen atom in the water content whereas the strength of an acid depends on
ozone molecule (o3) b) Non- symmetric replaced by a hydroxyl group, then structurally methane
c) Perfect geometric pattern resembles? dissociation power.
a) Trigonal planar
3. When an acid reacts with a metal, which one of the d) LiOH Answer: b Answer: a
following gas is usually liberated? View Answer Explanation: Isomers are compounds that have same Explanation: Alkenes like 1-hexene when flipped from top
a) ammonia gas molecular formula. to bottom they have identical structures and also they
b) chlorine Answer: b have C=CH2 unit which does not exist as cis- trans isomers.
c) oxygen Explanation: since HCl is a base it turns red litmus to blue. 2. Isomerism that arises out of the difference in spatial
d) Hydrogen gas arrangement of atoms or groups about the doubly bonded 6. Which among the following is formed when an alcohol is
8. What is the pH of 0.0001 molar HCl solution? carbon atoms are called? (In specific) dehydrated?
View Answer
a) 1 a) Structural Isomerism a) alkane
Answer: d b) 2 b) Stereo Isomerism b) alkyne
Explanation: When metal reacts with acid, a soap bubble is c) 3 c) Geometrical Isomerism c) alkene
formed and the bubble contains Hydrogen gas (example: d) 4 d) Optical Isomerism d) aldehyde
HCl, H2SO4). View Answer View Answer View Answer

4. Select the one which is wrongly mapped Answer: d Answer: c Answer: c

a) Sodium carbonate – Washing soda Explanation: It has a H+ concentration of 10-4. The value of Explanation: These geometrical isomers are not mirror Explanation: In elimination reaction, when protic acids
b) Sodium chloride – common salt negative exponent(^-4) gives pH value to be 4. images of each other and they differ in spatial react with alcohol, they lose water molecule to form
c) Calcium carbonate – slaked lime arrangement from one another. alkenes.
9. What will be the product when HNO3 reacts with
d) Sodium hydroxide – caustic soda NH4OH ?
View Answer 3. Isomers with similar groups on the same side are called 7. A fat on hydrolysis would yield?
a) NH4 NO3 as ” trans” isomers. State true or false a) Glycerol and soap
Answer: c b) 2NH4 NO3 a) True b) Ethanol and soap
Explanation: calcium hydroxide is commonly referred as c) NH4 (NO3)2 b) False c) Ethanol and glycerol
slaked lime. d) NH2NO3 View Answer d) Only soap
View Answer View Answer
5. MgO + 2HCl —-> X + H2O Answer: b
a) Mg2Cl Answer: a Explanation: “Trans” isomers are those with similar groups Answer: a
b) 2MgCl Explanation: the reaction takes place as follows: arranged in opposite direction. The Isomers with similar Explanation: During saponification process, fat on
c) MgCl HNO3 + NH4OH —-> NH4NO3 + H2O. groups on the same side are called as “cis” isomers. hydrolysis will yield glycerol and soap.
d) MgCl2
10. Find the odd one out: 4. Which among the following defines Meso forms of 8. Which among the following correctly defines
View Answer
a) Neutral salt : NaCl isomers Diastereomer?
Answer: d b) Acid salt : CuSO4.5H2O a) Meso form is optically inactive due to external a) These have same magnitude but different signs of
Explanation: MgCl2 is the product formed when c) Basic salt: CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 compensation optical rotation
magnesium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid and water d) Nonhydrated salt: KNO3 b) The molecules of the meso isomers are chiral b) Nonsuperimposable object mirror relationship
is formed as a by-product. View Answer c) It can be separated into optically active enantiometric c) These differ in all physical properties
pairs d) Separation is very difficult
6. Select the one which is neither an acid nor base Answer: b
d) It is a single compound View Answer
a) CH3COOH Explanation: CuSO4.5H20 is a hydrated salt. An example of
acid salt is NaHCO3. View Answer
b) HCl Answer: c
c) KCl Answer: d Explanation: Diastereomers differ in all physical properties.
d) CH3OH Explanation: Meso forms of isomers are single compound The rest of the points are related to Enantiomers.
View Answer ISOMERISM and their molecules are achiral
and hence they cannot be separated into pairs. 9. The molecular formula C5H12 contains how many
Answer: c 1. Choose the incorrect option regarding Isomerism: isomeric alkanes?
Explanation: CH3COOH and CH3OH are organic acids, HCl is a) They differ in both physical and chemical properties 5. Which among the following does not exhibit geometric a) 1
strong acid and KCl is a salt. b) They have the different molecular formula isomerism b) 2
c) There are two types of Isomerism : Structural and Stereo a) 1-hexene c) 3
7. Which one will change from red litmus to blue? Isomerism b) 2-hexene d) 4
a) NaCl d) Geometric and optical isomerism are two types of c) 3-hexene View Answer
b) HCl Stereo Isomerism d) 4-hexene
c) KOH View Answer View Answer
Answer: c Answer: b 8. The hydrocarbon in which all the 4 valencies of carbon temperature of 250-400(degree) chlorine and methane
Explanation: n-pentane, 2-ethylpropane, and 2- Explanation: Methane is the simplest member of alkane are fully occupied is called as react vigorously to give hydrogen chloride and
methylbutane are the 3 isomeric alkanes of C5H12 family and indeed the simplest of organic compounds, as a) Alkene chloromethane (CH3Cl).
(pentane). all other compounds are derived by altering this b) Alkyne
compound. c) Alkane 2. The methyl chloride undergoes substitution to form
10. Identify the chiral molecule among the following: d) Cycloalkane a) CHCl
a) Isopropyl alcohol 4. Ethane is obtained by electrolyzing View Answer b) CH2Cl
b) 2-pentanol a) Potassium formate c) CHCl2
c) 1-bromo 3-butene b) Potassium succinate Answer: c d) CH2Cl2
d) Isobutyl alcohol c) Potassium acetate Explanation: Alkanes , the saturated hydrocarbons are View Answer
View Answer d) Potassium fumarate those in which the carbon atoms are bonded covalently to
View Answer each other (fully occupied). Each carbon atom is Answer: d
Answer: d tetrahedrally surrounded by H-atoms Explanation: Chloromethane undergoes further
Explanation: Chirality is the condition for a molecule to be Answer: b substitution to form hydrogen chloride and
optically active and here isobutyl alcohol is the only Explanation: By electrolyzing potassium succinate (the 9. Liquid hydrocarbon is converted into gaseous dichloromethane (CH2Cl2).
compound is optically active and hence it is the chiral process is generally called Kolbe’s electrolysis), ethane is hydrocarbon by:
molecule. obtained. a) Oxidation 3. Methane reacts more readily with chlorine than with
b) Hydrolysis Fluorine. State true or false
HYDROCARBONS 5. “Methane is a product of aerobic respiration”. State c) Cracking a) True
true or false d) Distillation b) False
1. Hydrocarbons are organic compounds with element a) False View Answer
View Answer
a) Hydrogen b) True
b) Oxygen View Answer Answer: c Answer: b
c) Carbon Explanation: Under cracking with high temperature, the Explanation: Methane reacts with chlorine but not as
d) Both hydrogen and carbon Answer: a liquid form of hydrocarbon is converted into gaseous form vigorously as with fluorine. The reactivity order is as
View Answer Explanation: Methane is the end product of anaerobic follows: F2 > Cl2 > Br2 >I2.
decay of plants due to the breakdown of very complicated 10. Chlorination of alkanes is an example of
Answer: d molecules. a) Radical 4. Identify the one which is not a type of chlorination
Explanation: These organic compounds are made up of b) Elimination a) Free radical chlorination
only carbon and hydrogen and hence the name 6. Calcium carbide on reaction with water gives? c) Free radical b) Electrophobic chlorination
hydrocarbons. a) Methane d) Addition c) Ketone chlorination
b) Ethane View Answer d) Chlorine addition reaction
2. Find the odd one out: c) propane View Answer
a) Aromatic d) Acetylene Answer: c
b) Alkanes View Answer Explanation: Free radical chlorination is a reaction that Answer: b
c) Alkynes substitutes a chlorine for a hydrogen on an alkane Explanation: Electrophobic is not a kind of halogenation. It
d) Alkenes Answer: d is electrophilic chlorination, in which aromatic
View Answer Explanation: CaC2 + H20—-> C2H2 + Ca(OH)2. substitutions takes place.

Answer: a 7. Name the process associated with acylation of benzene CHLORINATION 5. Which among the following on chlorination undergoes
Explanation: aromatic is a separate branch of a) Friedel craft reaction substitution at the alkyl group
hydrocarbons. Whereas the alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes b) Wurtz reaction 1. When chlorine gas reacts with methane, the product a) Ethers
are subfamilies of the branch aliphatic hydrocarbons. c) Wurtz fitting reaction formed is b) Hydroxyl groups
d) Debey Huckel reaction a) CHCl c) Carbonyl compounds
3. The simplest member of organic compounds is ? View Answer b) CH2Cl d) Carboxylic acids
a) Methanol c) CH3Cl View Answer
b) Methane Answer: a d) CH4Cl
c) Formaldehyde Explanation: The electrophilic substitution reaction that View Answer Answer: a
d) Formic acid takes place between ethanoyl chloride and benzene is Explanation: In the absence of sunlight, the alpha
View Answer called as Friedel craft reaction Answer: c hydrogen of ethers undergoes substitution when treated
Explanation: Under the influence of UV light or with a with chlorine.
6. In the presence of red phosphorous, chlorine converts 10. The step in which Cl-Cl bond homolysis occurs is called: Answer: c Answer: a
the fatty acids having alpha hydrogen atoms into a) Initiation step Explanation: The frequency of molecular collision increases Explanation: Calcium carbonate has large surface area and
a) Halo acids b) Propagation step varies directly with the concentration of the reactant. hence it increases the reaction rate.
b) Alpha-halo acids c) Intermediate step
c) Alpha,alpha-dihalo acids d) Termination step 4. Identify the true statement regarding catalyst 8. Which is not a type of catalyst:
d) Trihalo acids View Answer a) Always decreases the rate of the reaction a) Positive catalyst
View Answer b) Always increases the activation energy of the reaction b) Negative catalyst
Answer: a c) Actually participates in the reaction c) Autocatalyst
Answer: b Explanation: Each Cl atom in the initiation step has several d) Changes the equilibrium concentration of the product d) homogeneous catalysis
Explanation: The propionic acid, in the presence of Cl2/P valence electrons and is very reactive and hence it View Answer View Answer
gets converted into alpha chloro propionic acid due to the abstracts a hydrogen atom from methane and homolysis
action of the halogen chlorine. occurs. Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: A catalyst is a substance which when added, Explanation: Homogeneous catalysis is a phenomenon in
7. Chlorine in the presence of which among the following only alters the reaction rate temporarily and does not which the catalyst takes part in the reaction and it is not a
generates positively charged species? have a permanent effect on them and hence, only the type of catalyst.
a) Ferric chloride RATE OF REACTION option b) gives a correct info from the given choices.
b) Anhydrous ferric chloride 9. The speed of a chemical reaction
1. The rate of the reaction is equal to the product of three 5. From the choices given below, identify the activation a) Is independent of the contact surface
c) Ferrous chloride factors listed below except
d) Anhydrous ferrous chloride energy of a reaction whose rate constant increases by 100 b) Is constant no matter what the temperature is
a) Collision frequency when the temperature changes from 300K to 360K c) Varies inversely with the absolute temperature
View Answer
b) Energy factor a) 53 d) Is extremely rapid between the ions in aqueous solution
Answer: b c) Orientation factor b) 69 View Answer
Explanation: Ferric chloride is a lewis acid catalyst and in d) pH factor c) 35
the presence of chlorine, it converts nitrobenzene into 3- View Answer d) 42 Answer: d
chloro nitro benzene. View Answer Explanation: The speed of a chemical reaction is extremely
Answer: d rapid between the ions in aqueous solution because there
8. p-nitrotoluene on reaction with chlorine forms Explanation: The reaction rate is given by the product of Answer: b are no bonds that need to be broken.
hydrogen chloride and collision frequency (deals with concentration, pressure, Explanation: By substituting the appropriate values in the
a) p-Nitrobenzyl chloride and arrangement), energy factor ( deals with distribution formula: (R.T1.T2)/(T1-T2)*ln(k1/k2) 10. The overall order for the reaction 2A+ B—> 2C with
b) o-Nitrobenzyl chloride of kinetic energy), and orientation factor (probability we can find the value of activation energy(Ea). rate equation rate=k[A]^2[B] is
c) m-Nitrobenzyl chloride factor). a) 0
d) Nitrobenzyl chloride 6. Identify the unit of “k” in moles/L for the rate law: b) 1
2. Temperature and pressure are the only factors which k[A][B]pow2 c) 2
View Answer affect the reaction rate. state true or false a) L/mol/s d) 3
Answer: a a) True b) L(pow2)/mol/s View Answer
Explanation: p-Nitrotoluene reacts with chlorine in the b) False c) L(pow2)* s(pow2)/mol(pow2)
presence of CCl4 at 80 (degree) C to form p-nitrobenzyl View Answer d) s Answer: d
chloride under the conditions of photochemical initiation. View Answer Explanation: The order of A in this reaction is 2 and the
Answer: b overall reaction is a third order reaction.
9. Chlorination of cyclobutane gives which among the Explanation: The rate of reaction is affected by three Answer: d
following in addition to hydrogen chloride factors temperature, pressure, and concentration. All the Explanation: Rate= k[A][B](pow2) and hence
a) Cyclobutyl chloride three varies directly with the rate of the reaction. k=rate/{[A][B](pow2)}. NOMENCLATURE
b) Cyclobutyl chlorite
3. The frequency of molecular collision increases if 7. Which among the following catalyst increases the rate
c) 1-chlorobutene 1. Saturated hydrocarbons are otherwise referred as
a) The concentration of product increases of the reaction
d) 1,1-chlorobutene a) Alkanes
b) The concentration of product decreases a) Calcium carbonate
View Answer b) Alkenes
c) The concentration of reactant increases b) Calcium chloride
d) The concentration of reactant decreases c) Alkynes
Answer: b c) Calcium hydroxide d) Alkaloids
Explanation: All the hydrogens of cyclobutane are View Answer d) Calcium sulphate
View Answer
equivalent and substitution of any gives the same product View Answer
as that of others.
Answer: a b) False 9. Triple bond with two carbon atoms on either side is Answer: a
Explanation: Saturated hydrocarbons contain large View Answer called Explanation: open chain compounds or acyclic compounds
number of hydrogen atoms in them and hence they are a) Methnyl group are otherwise called as aliphatic compounds.
known as alkanes. Answer: b b) Ethynyl group
Explanation: The first step is to find the number of carbon c) Propionyl group 3. Which among the following is not an example of Acyclic
2. Identify the correct alkane name for the molecular atoms present only in the main/ longest chain of the d) Propargyl group compound
formula C30H62 compound. View Answer a) Acetaldehyde
a) Propdecane b) Ethane
b) Eicosane 6. The substituent in the chain is named by replacing the Answer: b c) Cyclopropane
c) Triacontane “ane” in the alkanes by Explanation: Triple bond with two atoms on either side are d) Isobutane
d) Dodecane a) ene called as ethynyl group and those with one carbon on one View Answer
View Answer b) ic side and two carbon on another side are called as
c) one propargyl group. Answer: c
Answer: c d) yl Explanation: Cyclopropane is a ring (cyclic) compound and
Explanation: Triacontane is the alkane with the molecular View Answer 10. The substituent groups that are commonly associated hence it does not come with the examples of open chain
formula C30H62 as alkanes have the general formula with benzene ring are compounds.
CnH2n+2. Answer: d a) Phenyl and benzyl
Explanation: ene, ic and one are used for representing b) Propyl and phenyl 4. Which among the following is not an example of alicyclic
3. Identify the smallest alkane which can form a ring alkenes, carboxylic acids, and ketones respectively, hence c) Methyl and benzyl compound
structure (cycloalkane) yl is the term which is to be substituted in place on ane in d) Butyl and phenyl a) Cyclohexane
a) Cyclomethane the alkanes. View Answer b) Cyclohexene
b) Methane c) Tetrahydrofuran
c) Cyclopropane 7. The C=C bond in the chain of the compound considered Answer: a d) Acetic acid
d) Propane is shown by Explanation: Phenyl and benzyl are commonly associated View Answer
View Answer a) Specifying the number of carbon atoms associated with with benzene ring due to their closely associated structure
the bond with difference in hydrogen atom. Answer: d
Answer: c b) Specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of Explanation: Acetic acid is a linear chain compound
Explanation: Cyclopropane is the only smallest alkane that the C=C bond (acyclic) and hence it is not an example of ring compound
can form a successful ring structure with C-C bond on c) Specifying the number of carbon atoms at end of the (alicyclic).
removal of a hydrogen atom. C=C bond CLASSIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
d) Specifying the number of carbon atoms in the entire 5. Which among the following is not an aromatic
4. In which among the following alkane, a carbon atom is 1. Organic compounds are broadly classified as compound(in specific)
chain a) Open chain compounds and acyclic compounds
displaced so as to form a compactly structure with the View Answer a) Naphthalene
resemblance of a butterfly wing b) Open chain compounds and linear chain compounds b) Aniline
a) Cyclopropane Answer: b c) Cyclic compounds and alicyclic compounds c) Pyridine
b) Cyclobutane Explanation: According to the rules of IUPAC, The C=C d) alicyclic compounds and acyclic compounds d) Tropolone
c) Cyclopentane bond in the chain of the compound considered is shown View Answer View Answer
d) Cyclohexane by specifying the number of carbon atoms at beginning of Answer: d
View Answer the C=C bond. Answer: c
Explanation: Organic compounds are broadly classified Explanation: Pyridine is heterocyclic aromatic compound.
Answer: b 8. Dienes are the name given to compounds with into open chain and closed chain compounds. Whereas naphthalene and aniline are benzenoid aromatic
Explanation: If one of the carbon atoms of cyclobutane is a) Exactly a double bond 2. Aliphatic compound is the other name for compounds and tropolone is a non-benzenoid aromatic
not displaced, then the C-C bond would be exactly at right b) Exactly a triple bond compound.
a) Acyclic compounds
angles to each other and they do not form a cyclic c) Exactly two double bond
b) Alicyclic compounds 6. Find the odd one among the following:
structure. d) more than two double bond
c) Ring compounds a) Alicyclic compounds
View Answer
5. The first step in IUPAC nomenclature is to identify the d) Closed chain compounds b) Heterogeneous compounds
total number of carbon atoms present in the compound. Answer: c View Answer c) Branched chain compounds
State true or false Explanation: Alkenes are the name given to compound d) Aromatic compounds
a) True with one double bond and dienes are the one given to View Answer
compounds with two double bond.
Answer: c groups 4. Identify the correct sequence with respect to Inductive a) It is not hybridized
Explanation: Branched chain compound is a classification View Answer effects b) It is sp hybridized
of open-chain compounds. Whereas, alicyclic, aromatic a) CF3`> CH2F`> CHF2`> CF3` c) It is sp2 hybridized
and heterogeneous compounds are sub-classifications of Answer: a b) CF3`> CHF2`> CH2F`> CH3` d) It is sp3 hybridized
cyclic compounds. Explanation: The aromatic compounds (4n+2)pi electrons, c) CH3`> CH2F`> CHF2`> CF3` View Answer
which comes under the classification of cyclic compounds d) CH3`> CHF2`> CH2F`v CF3`
7. Identify the odd one among the following and hence they are not associated with aliphatic View Answer Answer: c
a) Indene compounds. Explanation: As a result of its overall structure and
b) Anthracene Answer: b electron delocalization, it becomes a sp2 hybridized,
c) o,m,p-xylene Explanation: As electron withdrawing substituent is aromatic molecule.
d) Azulene RESONANCE AND AROMATICITY greater in CF3, it is more stable and CH3 is the least stable
View Answer one and hence the sequence. 9. Can a linear molecule have aromaticity?
a) Yes
1. Resonance forms are in equilibrium with each other.
Answer: d 5. Stability sequence: primary carbocation> secondary b) No
State true or false
Explanation: Azulene is a non- benzenoid compound. carbocation > tertiary carbocation. View Answer
a) True
Whereas, Indene, anthracene, and o,m,p-Xylene are b) False Is this sequence correct?
examples of benzenoid aromatic compounds. a) Yes Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: A molecule can have aromaticity if it is closed
b) No
8. Organic compounds can be classified even based upon Answer: b View Answer loop or ring-shaped or has p-orbitals and hence linear
the function groups. Identify the one which is not a molecule cannot have aromaticity.
Explanation: Resonance forms are hybrid in nature and
functional group Answer: b
hence it is not correct to say that they are in equilibrium 10. Select the incorrect statement:
a) Isocyanide Explanation: The tertiary carbocation has the highest
with each other. a) A resonance may sometimes cause sp3 atoms to
b) Isocyano stability and the primary carbocation has the least
c) Carboxyl 2. Identify the false statement regarding resonance stability, as it lies close to electron withdrawing group and become sp2 hybridized
d) Carbonyl hence the sequence is not correct. b) Delocalizing one lone pair causes aromaticity
a) As the number of charges increases, the resonance
View Answer c) One lone pair will be counted as two pi electrons
forms gets more significant
6. Identify the incorrect statement regarding aromaticity according to Huckel’s equation
b) Zero charge of resonance is the most significant one
Answer: a a) It is the extra stability possessed by a molecule d) Two sigma bonds make up a double bond
c) Atoms with full octet resonance form are more stable
Explanation: Isocyanide is a compound and it is not a b) p-orbitals must be planar and overlap View Answer
when compared with the one with unfilled octet
functional group. c) Cyclic delocalization takes place
d) Resonance is unstable in case of unfilled octet of Answer: d
nitrogen atom d) It does not follow Huckel’s rule
9. Which among the following is not a class of organic View Answer Explanation: A double bond is one which has a sigma bond
compound View Answer and a pi bond. Each pi bond has two pi electrons.
a) Carbonyl compound Answer: d
Answer: a
b) Nitro compound Explanation: Greater the number of charges, less stable Explanation: It follows Huckel’s rule, according to which a
c) Amides molecule must possess specific number of pi electrons
and less significant gets the resonance form. ORGANIC REACTIONS
d) Electro compounds within a closed ring of p-orbitals.
View Answer 3. Identify the correct sequence according to 1. Identify the one which does not come under the organic
7. Aromatic rings do not have resonance structures. State
electronegativity addition reaction
Answer: d true or false
a) F> NH2> CH3>OH` a) Hydration
Explanation: Classes of organic compounds are those a) False
b) NH2`> F`>CH3`> OH` b) Dehydration
which involves organic compounds such as carbon, c) NH2`>OH`> CH3`>F` b) True c) Halogenation
hydrogen and oxygen. Hence, electro compounds is not a View Answer
d) F`> OH`>NH2`>CH3` d) Hydrohalogenation
class of organic compounds.
View Answer Answer: a View Answer
10. Which among these is not associated with aliphatic Explanation: Aromatic rings have resonance structure due
Answer: d Answer: b
compounds Explanation: In the sequence ” F`> OH`> NH2`> CH3`”, F’ is to cycling double bonds and all aromatic rings must have Explanation: Dehydration comes under elimination
a) They contain (4n+2)pi electrons the most stable one and CH3′ is the least stable one, as the resonance but the converse need not be satisfied. reaction and hence it does not come under addition
b) Contain straight chain compounds
stability of the anions increases on moving towards the 8. Select the correct statement regarding the aromatic reaction.
c) Contain branched chain compounds
right of the periodic table. nitrogen molecule
d) Has appropriate number of H-atoms and functional
2. Choose the correct one which will react faster in the 6. Identify the one which on reaction with carboxylic acid b) Oxidation 4. Which among the following is not a physical method:
SN2 nucleophilic substitution reaction at high temperature gives Ester c) Reduction a) X-ray fluorescence spectroscopy
a) CH2-CH=CH2=Br a) Ketone d) Acylation b) Atomic emission spectroscopy
b) CH2 = CH- CH2 – Br b) Alcohol View Answer c) Inert gas fusion
c) CH2 = CH- CH2 = Br c) Aldehyde d) Trace element analysis
d) CH= CH2 – CH2 – Br d) Sugars Answer: b View Answer
View Answer View Answer Explanation: Primary amides upon heating in the presence
of hydrogen and nickel catalyst, gets reduced to form Answer: c
Answer: b Answer: b primary amines. Explanation: Inert gas fusion is an example of chemical
Explanation: The carbocation character in the transition Explanation: Alcohols on reaction with carboxylic acid at methods of quantitative analysis, as it involves chemical
state causes stabilization of the resonance and hence CH2 high temperature, in the presence of sulphuric acid gives reaction such as oxidation.
= CH- CH2 – Br (2- bromobutane) is the one which will Ester.
QUANTITATIVE AND QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS 5. Select the inappropriate statement regarding
react faster compared to the others.
7. Select the correct statement regarding carboxylic acids quantitative analysis
1. Identify the one which does not come under the
3. What will be the reactivity of chlorobenzene in an a) They form acyl chlorides on reaction with PCl5 a) It helps in determining the outcome of the product
chemical methods of quantitative analysis
electrophilic substitution reaction with benzene? b) Aldehydes in the presence of H+/ Cr2O7 forms a) Gravimetric b) It helps in determining the impurities in the sample
a) Reacts very slowly than benzene carboxylic acids c) It fails to indicate the presence of lead in some
b) Titrimetric
b) Reacts in the same way as benzene c) They combine with alcohols to form esters c) Volumetric compound
c) Reacts faster than benzene d) Upon polymerization, they form polymers d) Magnetic suceptibility d) It could identify the amounts of dosage present in the
d) Does not react with benzene View Answer drug
View Answer
View Answer View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: Carboxylic acids do not undergo Explanation: Magnetic suceptibility comes under physical Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of the reaction depends on the polymerization reaction. Explanation: It can identify the presence of lead and could
methods of qunatitative analysis and hence the answer.
electron density in the ring and here in this case resonance also account for its concentration in case of paints and
is not favorable and the electronegativity dipole 8. Primary alcohols undergo what reaction to form toys.
2. Quantitative analysis is one which is used for separating
dominates. This slows down the reactivity of alkenes?
out the specific constituents from a mixture. This
chlorobenzene. a) Elimination 6. Identify the test which is not a part of qualitative
statement is:
b) Oxidation analysis:
a) True
4. Alcohol on refluxing with Cr2O7 gives: c) Reduction a) Litmus test
b) False
a) Ester d) Hydrolysis View Answer b) Kastle-Meyer test
b) Aldehyde View Answer c) Iodine test
c) Sugar Answer: b d) Flame test
d) Carboxylic acid Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Quantitative analysis is used to measure the
View Answer Explanation: Upon elimination or dehydration, the primary quantity, (i.e the amount) present and the above
alcohols form alkenes. Answer: a
mentioned statement defines qualitative analysis.
Answer: d Explanation: Kastle-meyer test is done for identification of
Explanation: Alcohol (R-OH), when it is refluxed with 9. Carbonyl compounds especially ketones undergo blood, Iodine test is done for identification of starch and
3. Select the incorrect statement regarding analytical
Cr2O7, it forms carboxylic acid (R-COOH). reduction to form Flame test is done to identify Barium.
balance
a) Primary alcohols
a) It is the fundamental kit in quantitative analysis
5. Alkene under high temperature and high-pressure forms b) Secondary alcohols 7. Covalent molecules can be identified using quantitative
b) It measures samples very accurately
a) Alcohol c) Alkanes c) It could measure the difference in mass upto 0.1 mg methods. State true or false
b) Polyalkyne d) Alkenes a) False
d) It is not a sensitive instrument
c) Polyalkane View Answer b) True
View Answer
d) Polyalkene View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: d
Explanation: Ketones in the presence of NaBH4 undergoes Explanation: It is a very sensitive instrument as it could Answer: a
Answer:c reduction to form secondary alcohols. accurately measure the weight of a particular compound Explanation: The qualitative analysis is used to identify
Explanation: Alkenes undergoes polymerization reaction covalent molecules by distinguishing them using physical
10. Primary amides get converted into primary amines by: of upto 0.1 mg.
under high temperature and pressure to form poly alkanes properties such as melting point, etc.
-(C-C)-n. a) Addition
8. Identify the reagent which is not commonly used in i.e; they have two additional hydrogen atoms in Answer: d Answer: c
qualitative analysis comparison with the others. Explanation: Neopentane is an isomer with 5 carbon atoms Explanation: At low pressure both propane and butane
a) 6M NaOH and hence it is not an isomer with 6 carbon atoms. gets liquefied, hence they form the main components of
b) 6M HCl 2. Identify the simplest alkane LPG.
c) 6M HNO3 a) Methane 6. The other name for branched chain alkanes is
d) 6M NH4 b) Methene a) Paraffins 10. An alkane with 6 carbon atoms will have how many
View Answer c) Ethane b) Isoparaffins hydrogen atoms?
d) Ethene c) Neoparaffins a) 11
Answer: d View Answer d) Naphthenes b) 12
Explanation: 6M NH3 is the reagent commonly used in View Answer c) 13
qualitative analysis because it is used in almost every Answer: a d) 14
group procedures. Explanation: Methane, called the parent molecule, is the Answer: b View Answer
simplest among the alkanes and it has the simplest Explanation: Linear and branched chain alkanes have
9. Select the correct statement about the reagent 6M formula with one carbon atom. difference in their physical properties and hence they are Answer: d
HNO3 given different prefix like n- and iso- respectively. Explanation: From the formula CnH2n+2, if n=6 then
a) It forms hydroxo complexes 3. Select the minimum number of carbon atoms, a (2*6)+2=14.
b) It destroys hydroxo and ammonia complexes molecule must possess so as to be regarded as a higher 7. Select the incorrect statement regarding the boiling
c) It forms NH3 complexes alkane points of alkanes
d) It decreases the H+ ion concentration a) 15 a) Boiling point increases with stronger Vander Waal’s
b) 16 forces ALKENES
View Answer
c) 17 b) Surface area is the only factor which determines the
1. In Alkenes the Carbon atoms are connected to each
Answer: b d) 18 boiling point of alkane
other by a
Explanation: It is a good oxidizing agent, dissolves in View Answer c) Boiling point of straight chain alkanes is greater than a) Single bond
insoluble hydroxides and it destroys hydroxo and ammonia that of branched chain alkanes
Answer: c b) Double bond
complexes. d) The boiling point of cycloalkanes is always higher than
Explanation: A molecule with more than 17 carbon atoms c) Triple bond
that of linear alkanes
10. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the reagent are regarded as higher alkanes such as waxes and solids. d) Not connected
View Answer View Answer
6M NH3
a) It increases hydroxide and NH3 concentration 4. Identify the incorrect statement Answer: b
a) Alkanes with repeated –CH2- units constitute a Answer: b
b) It decreases H+ concentration Explanation: Number of electrons and surface area are the
homologus series Explanation: Alkenes have at least one double bond in
c) It is capable of precipitating insoluble hydroxides two factors which determine the boiling point. addition to single bond as they are unsaturated
d) It is capable of forming hydro complexes b) They are very reactive
c) They have very less biological activity 8. Choose the correct statement : hydrocarbons.
View Answer
d) Petroleum and natural gas are the main sources of a) Alkanes have poor conductivity
2. Which among these is not a structural isomer of the
Answer: d alkanes b) They form hydrogen bonds compound C4H8
Explanation: It forms only NH3 complexes and does not View Answer c) They have good solubility in non polar solvents than
a) But-1-ene
form hydro complexes. polar solvents
Answer: b b) But-2-ene
d) Alkanes have less density than that of water c) But-3-ene
Explanation: Alkanes in general are not very reactive, but View Answer
they are associated with functional groups which are d) 2-methylpropene
ALKANES reactive. Answer: b View Answer

1. Select the incorrect statement regarding alkanes Explanation: They undergo polarization and hence they do Answer: c
5. Which among the following is not an alkane isomer with not form hydrogen bonds.
a) It is otherwise known as Paraffin 6 carbon atoms Explanation: The compound but-3-ene have a structural
b) It is an acyclic saturated hydrocarbon a) Hexane 9. Liquified petroleum gas is mainly composed of : formula different from the above three and hence it is not
c) In alkanes, C-C bonds are single b) 2,3-dimethylbutane a) Methane and ethane a structural isomer of C4H8.
d) Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n c) 2,2-dimethylbutane b) Ethane and propane
View Answer 3. Select the incorrect statement regarding alkenes
d) Neopentane c) Propane and butane a) In alkenes, the carbons are connected by pi bonds
View Answer d) Butane and hexane
Answer: d b) Alkenes have almost same physical properties as that of
View Answer
Explanation: Alkanes have the general formula CnH2n+2, the alkanes
c) Alkenes are less reactive than alkanes 7. Which among the following is not colourless: ALKYNES 5. Majority of the alkynes are not prepared from/ by:
d) Alkenes undergo polymerization reaction a) Methene a) Condensation
View Answer b) Ethene 1. Alkynes are more reactive than alkenes’ State true or b) Acetylene
c) Propene false c) Dehydrohalogenation
Answer: c d) Butene a) False d) Hydrogenation
Explanation: Alkenes are not less reactive than alkanes, View Answer b) True View Answer
indeed they are very reactive compared with them due to View Answer
the presence of C=C. Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Methene compound does not exist according Answer: a Explanation: Often, alkynes are obtained from the
4. Identify the addition reaction which is not undergone by to the formula CnH2n and also due to the lack of C=C. Explanation: Alkynes are not as reactive when compared acetylene through the condensation process and
the alkenes with the alkenes and the alkanes as they even more sometimes by dehydrohalogenation.
a) Mercuration 8. Which among the following alkenes is used in the unsaturated when compared with them.
b) Oxymercuration manufacturing of plastics 6. Alkynes cannot be prepared from
c) Hydroboration a) Butadiene 2. Select the incorrect statement a) Ketones
d) Halogenation b) 1,2-butadiene a) The addition reactions occur more frequently in the b) Alcohols
View Answer c) 1,3-butadiene alkenes than the alkynes c) Aldehydes
d) 2-butadiene b) The pi system of the alkynes gets weakened when they d) Other alkynes
Answer: a View Answer lose the pi atoms View Answer
Explanation: Alkenes do not undergo mercuration, indeed c) Alkynes readily undergo oligomerization
they undergo oxymercuration , a process in which an Answer: c d) Alkynes do not undergo polymerization Answer: b
alkene is converted into an alcohol. Explanation: Commonly this 1,3 butadiene is a widely used View Answer Explanation: Only the aldehydes, ketones, and few other
chemical in terms of a monomer as it has a very good alkynes can give rise to a new alkyne compound.
5. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the synthesis electrical resistivity. Answer: d
of alkenes Explanation: Alkynes readily undergo polymerization and 7. The transformation into carboxylic acids of the alkynes
a) Cracking of a hydrocarbon yields alkenes 9. 4-chlorobut-1-ene is the name of which among the form polymers such as polyacetylenes. takes place with the help of which among the following
b) The reactions are exothermic following alkenes reagents?
c) Zeolite catalyst helps in the synthesis of alkenes a) CH2Cl-CH2=CH-CH2 3. Select the incorrect statement regarding terminal a) Potassium chlorate
d) The synthesis of alkenes is otherwise known as b) CH2Cl-CH2-CH-CH2 alkynes b) Potassium permanganate
reforming c) CH2Cl=CH2-CH=CH2 a) Methylacetylene is an example of terminal alkynes c) Potassium dichromate
View Answer d) CH2Cl-CH2-CH=CH2 b) Terminal alkynes are more acidic when compared with d) Potassium chloride
View Answer alkenes View Answer
Answer: b c) Terminal alkynes are not as acidic as alkanes
Explanation: The reactions takes place at high Answer: d d) These have a replaceable acidic hydrogen atom Answer: b
temperatures and hence they are endothermic. Explanation: The structure CH2Cl-CH2-CH=CH2 has the View Answer Explanation: The cycloaddition of the alkynes leads to the
name 4Chlorobut-1-ene according to the IUPAC naming oxidative cleavage among them and hence it results in the
6. Identify the one which shows E-Z mechanism system. Answer: c formation of carboxylic acids.
a) 3-methylpent-2-ene Explanation: Terminal alkynes are very much acidic than
b) 2-methylpent-2-ene 10. Ethylene on reaction with bromine forms which among both alkenes and alkanes as they have a high pKa value. 8. Identify the incorrect statement:
c) Methyl-3-pent-2-ene the following product a) Alkynes exists in gaseous state
d) 2,3-methylpentene a) BrH2C-CH2Br 4. The major alkyne, acetylene compound is produced by b) They are soluble in water
View Answer b) BrH2C=CH2Br which among the following application on natural gas c) They are soluble in organic solvents
c) Br2HC=CHBr2 a) Hydrogenation d) Alkynes have a very good boiling point
Answer: a d) Br2HC-CHBr2 b) Partial oxidation View Answer
Explanation: In ‘z’ mechanism, the compounds with higher View Answer c) Cracking
priority will be located opposite to each other of the d) Hydrohalogenation Answer: b
double bond, in ‘E’ mechanism the compounds with high Answer: a View Answer Explanation: Alkyne molecules being non-polar, they do
priority will be located in z corners and hence 3- Explanation: The above reaction between Ethene and not dissolve in polar solvents like water.
methylpent-2-ene is the one which shows E-Z mechanism bromine is known as electrophilic halogenation reaction Answer: b
in which the priority group is CH3 and CH2CH3. and the products usually formed are ethylene dihalides. Explanation: A huge quantity of acetylene is produced by 9. Which among the following alkynes is used as a rocket
partial oxidation of the natural gas. fuel?
a) Ethyne
b) Propyne 3. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkanes 7. Identify the alicyclic hydrocarbon which is highly 1. Identify the incorrect statement regarding alkadiene
c) But-1-yne a) These have sp3 hybridized carbons flammable a) These are acyclic acids
d) Pent-1-yne b) These have tetrahedral bond angles a) Cycloheptane b) These are unsaturated hydrocarbons
View Answer c) Stability of the cycloalkanes varies directly with their b) Cyclopentane c) These compounds have only one C=C bonds
respective size c) Cyclopropane d) These compounds have the general formula CnH2n-2
Answer: b d) These undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions d) Cyclooctane View Answer
Explanation: Propyne has many advantages and it is not as View Answer View Answer
hazardous as compared to the other fuels, so they are Answer: c
used in rocket fuels. Answer: b Answer: b Explanation: Alkadiene compounds have a minimum of
Explanation: Cycloalkane compounds do not have a Explanation: cyclopentane is a hydrocarbon with 5 carbon two double bonded carbon atoms but they can have more
10. Which among the following product is formed when perfect tetrahedral bond angle, instead they show a minor atoms and they are highly flammable. than two.
ethyne undergoes hydrogenation? deviation from it which leads to destabilizing effect.
a) Formaldehyde 8. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cyclohexane: 2. Alkadienes are classified into how many types?
b) Formic acid 4. Identify the compound with the highest ring strain a) It is non-polar a) 1
c) Acetaldehyde a) Cyclomethane b) It serves as an organic solvent b) 2
d) Acetic acid b) Cyclopropane c) It a hydrophilic hydrocarbon c) 3
View Answer c) Cyclobutane d) It is commercially used for variety of applications d) 4
d) Cyclopentane View Answer View Answer
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: When ethyne undergoes hydrogenation in Answer: c Answer: c
the presence of sulphuric acid, it forms ethanal. Answer: b Explanation: This compound is a hydrophobic hydrocarbon Explanation: Based on the position and location of the
Explanation: Cyclopropane is the compound with the as it is non- polar by nature. double bonds, they are classified into three types.
highest ring strain. This is because the carbon atoms are
arranged in the shape of a triangle thus forming C-C-C. 9. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cycloalkenes 3. Identify the incorrect statement regarding conjugated
a) The bonds in them are fewer compared to those in double bonds in alkadiene:
5. Which among the following compounds explodes on alkenes a) 1,3 alkadienes have conjugated double bond
CYCLOALKANES AND CYCLOALKENES
contact with oxygen b) They occur in gaseous form in nature b) Compounds with a double bond exhibit this type of
1. Cycloalkanes are associated with the general formula a) Cyclopropane c) These undergo polymerization bond
a) CnH2n+2 b) Cyclobutane d) The conjugated double bonds in them increase their c) 1,3 pentadiene is an example for this bond
b) CnH2(n+2) c) Cyclopentane stability d) The conjugated dienes have properties similar to that of
c) CnH2n+1-r d) Cyclohexane View Answer alkenes
d) CnH2(n+1-r) View Answer View Answer
View Answer Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Cycloalkenes mostly appear in liquid state but Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: Cyclopropane reacts very aggressively at sometimes they are even found in solid state. Explanation: Compounds with alternative double and
Explanation: It is almost the same as that in the case of ordinary temperatures and hence it explodes when comes single bonds exhibit this kind of bond.
alkanes. Here the difference is that 2 is replaced by 1-r in contact with oxygen. 10. Cycloalkene exhibits aromatic character. State true or
false 4. Identify the one which is the perfect example for
where r represents the number of rings in them.
6. Identify the incorrect statement regarding cyclobutane a) True Isolated double bond:
2. Cycloalkanes have the same melting and boiling points a) The carbon atoms in the cyclobutane are non-coplanar b) False a) 1,4 pentadiene
as their corresponding alkanes. State true or false b) These exist in nature as colourless gas View Answer b) 1,2 pentadiene
a) True c) Cyclobutane is a commercially important compound c) 1,3 pentadiene
d) These compounds often show butterfly conformation Answer: b d) 1,5 butadiene
b) False
View Answer Explanation: Cycloalkene is a compound which has carbon View Answer
View Answer
atoms arranged in a closed ring but they do not exhibit
Answer: b Answer: c aromatic character. Answer: a
Explanation: The melting and boiling points of the Explanation: Cyclobutane is a compound which as no Explanation: Only the 1,4 alkadiene compounds exhibit
cycloalkanes are much more than the corresponding commercial and medicinal importance but the complex isolated double bonds.
alkanes. derivative forms of them are used for a variety of
ALKADIENES 5. Identify the incorrect statement regarding alkadienes
purposes.
a) Dienes show cis-trans isomerism
b) Conjugated dienes have better stability compared to a) Coordinate bond a) These compounds have very good aromaticity b) False
other dienes b) Isolated double bond b) These compounds have excellent stability View Answer
c) Dienophile supports alkadienes c) Cumulative double bond c) These compounds do not undergo nucleophilic
d) Alkadienes also undergo hydrobromination d) Conjugated double bond substitutions but they undergo electrophilic substitutions Answer: b
View Answer View Answer d) There exists a strong ratio between carbon and Explanation: Arenes are insoluble in water and hence they
hydrogen are non polar compounds.
Answer: c Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: Dienophiles attack the performance of Explanation: As per the definition of isolation, a double 8. Arenes are:
alkadienes rather than supporting them. bond is separated by more than a single bond. Answer: c a) volatile
Explanation: Aromatic hydrocarbons undergo both b) Water soluble
6. Conjugated diene reacts with which among the 10. Isolated dienes are similar in property to electrophilic and nucleophilic aromatic substitutions. c) Non-carcinogenic
following to form a cyclohexene a) Monoolefins d) Mostly gases
a) Phenol b) Diolefins 4. Arenes does not undergo: View Answer
b) Dienophile c) Triolefins a) Dehydrogenation
c) Hexane d) Tetraolefins b) Coupling reaction Answer: a
d) Tribromo phenol View Answer c) Halogenation Explanation: Arenes have a very low boiling point and
View Answer d) Cyclo additions hence they are volatile in nature.
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Isolated dienes behave more like monoolefins 9. The main sources of these arenes are:
Explanation: Dienophile on reaction with conjugated and have properties similar to them. Answer: a a) Petroleum
dienes forms cyclohexene and this reaction is known as Explanations: Arenes undergo hydrogenation reaction and b) Biogas and petroleum
Diels-alder reaction. form saturated ring products. c) Petroleum and coal tar
d) Natural gas
7. Which among the following dienes undergo addition AROMATIC HYDROCARBONS 5. Which among these is not a representative arene View Answer
with the help of radical-chain mechanism? compound?
1. Identify the correct statement which is related to Answer: c
a) Cumulated dienes a) Durene
aromatic hydrocarbon Explanation: As these petroleum and natural gas comprise
b) Isolated dienes b) Picric chloride
a) It has only sigma bonds of naturally occurring compounds such as carbon and
c) Simple dienes c) Aspirin
b) It has only pi bonds hydrogen in abundance, these serve as the main source of
d) Conjugated dienes d) Mesitylene
c) It has a sigma and two pi bonds arenes.
View Answer View Answer
d) It has a sigma and delocalized pi bond
Answer: d View Answer Answer: b 10. Benzene has a stronger Vander-Waal’s force than
Explanation: Conjugated dienes undergoes addition Explanation: Picric acid is a representative arene Methylbenzene. State true or false
Answer: d a) False
reactions and the product usually formed are 1,4 dienes. compound but not picric chloride.
Explanation: An aromatic hydrocarbon always has a sigma b) True
8. Identify the statement which is related to Diels-Alder as well as a delocalized pi bond found between the carbon 6. Which among these is the simplest example for View Answer
reaction atoms. polycyclic arenes?
a) It is very stereospecific a) Benzacephenanthrylene Answer: a
2. Select the incorrect option: Explanation: The benzene molecule is smaller than that of
b) Molecular distortion takes place b) Naphthalene
a) The aromatic hydrocarbon has a pleasant aroma (smell) the methylbenzene and hence it does not have the
c) Cyclic dienes react very slow than the linear chain c) Pyrene
b) Some of the aromatic compounds are ring-shaped Vander-Waal’s forces as equal to those of methylbenzene.
dienes d) Dibenz-anthracene
c) Aromatic hydrocarbon can be either mono or polycyclic
d) Addition of maleic anhydride to cyclopentadiene causes d) Benzene is the simplest hydrocarbon View Answer
diene and dienophile to produce different products
View Answer Answer: b
View Answer ORGANIC CONCEPTS
Explanation: Naphthalene has fused ring of aromaticity
Answer: b
Answer: c and has the simplest structure when compared with other REACTION MECHANISM OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Explanation: All the aromatic hydrocarbon are ring shaped
Explanation: Cyclic dienes are more reactive than linear as all of them are sp2 hybridized with a geometry of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.
chain dienes. 1. Why are aryl halides less reactive towards nucleophilic
trigonal planar. 7. Arenes are polar. State true or false substitution reactions as compared to alkyl halides?
9. A molecule in which more than one single bond 3. Which among the following is not a property of a) True a) The formation of a less stable carbanion
separates two double bonds are called as: aromatic hydrocarbon: b) Longer carbon halogen bond
c) The inductive effect 3. In the following reaction sequence, what will be X? Answer: a formed that are shown below.
d) Sp2-hybridized carbon attached to the halogen Explanation: As we can see hydrolysis is the first step
View Answer which will form a amine group containing compound. This
amino-compound undergoes diazotisation and a rapid
Answer: d reaction will take place between diazonium ion and
Explanation: Overlapping of sp2 orbital of carbon with p- . KNO2 and the ‘a’ product will form.
orbital of halogen is one of the reasons. Due to a) Benzoic acid
conjugation double bond character in alkyl halide. b) Salicylic acid
c) Phenol
d) Aniline 6. Which of the following is not true for SN1 reactions?
View Answer a) They occur through a single step concerted reaction
5. Which of the following structures represent the correct
b) They are favoured by polar solvents
major product for the below reaction?
2. What will be the (X) in the below mentioned reaction Answer: D c) Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this
sequence? Explanation: Aniline will be X as we can see below mechanism
reaction. Free bromination will occur, and bromine will get d) Concentration of nucleophile does not affect the rate of
add to ortho and para position followed diazotisation and such reactions
a rapid reaction will take place between diazonium ion and View Answer
C2H5OH and 1, 3, 5-tribromo benzene will form.
Answer: a
Explanation: SN1 reaction is a two-step reaction, step one
is the leaving group leaves, and the second step is the
a) substrate forms a carbocation intermediate. Formation of
a)
carbocation intermediate is the rate determining step.
Since for the formation of stable intermediate carbocation,
highly polar solvent is required. The bulky substituents
b) 4. What will be the final product in the below reaction? prevent the nucleophiles from approaching the carbon,
which is attached directly to the halogen. SN1is also more
b) favorable as the neighboring alkyl groups are electron
donating, which helps to stabilize the carbocation. SN1
c) reaction because the nucleophile is not a part of the rate-
determining step.

7. What is not true about below reaction?

c)
d)
View Answer
a)
.
Answer: b
a) Major product is given by SN1 reaction
Explanation: As we can see in below reaction, that firstly
b) Through E1 mechanism 3 alkenes are formed
diazotisation reaction will occur. This is followed by d) . c) 3-Methylpentane-3-ol is also formed as one of the
reaction of NaNO2 1 with diazonium ion forming nitro b) View Answer product
benzene, which will undergo reduction and form aniline.
d) Fractional distillation of elimination product will give
Answer: c
two fractions
Explanation: According to following mechanism we can say
View Answer
c) that some are major products. As we can see protonation
of hydroxyl group followed by dehydration will leads to Answer: d
hydride shift to the adjacent positively charged carbon for Explanation: As we see below mechanism major product is
formation of more stable carbocation. This will unleash formed by SN1 mechanism and E1 mechanism forms 3
two possibility of attack by Br- at the new carbocation alkenes. 3-Methylpentane-3-ol is also formed in the
d) .
from upward and backward and two products will be reaction. Fractional distillation of elimination product will
View Answer
give three fractions. Hence statement d is false. 10. How many number of pie e- is present in benzene? 3. With accompanying 1, 2-rearrangement in wolff c) 3o
a) 6 rearrangement, an α-diazocarbonyl compound is d) 4o
b) 7 converted into a ketene by loss of which of the following View Answer
c) 8 compound?
d) 9 a) Dioxygen Answer: c
View Answer b) Dinitrogen Explanation: 3o-carbocation is relatively stable, and has
c) Disulphur been shown to return to pinacol by reaction in the
Answer: b d) Ammonia presence of isotopically labeled water. A 1, 2-methyl shift
Explanation: Pie electron are those which show de- View Answer generates an even more stable carbocation in which the
localization of the electrons, in same plan or p orbitals and charge is delocalized by heteroatom resonance.
8. What will be the total number of isomers formed when that there aren’t alternating double and single bonds. But Answer: b
the electron in one p-p overlapping is present Explanation: The leaving group (N2) and the migrating 7. In which medium Favorskii rearrangement occurs?
2-methyl butane is subjected to monochlorination?
perpendicular to the plane of ring. group (R1) are antiperiplanar, which favors a concerted a) Acidic
a) 5
mechanism, in which nitrogen extrusion occurs b) Basic
b) 4
concurrently with 1, 2-alkyl shift. c) Neutral
c) 3
d) Alkaline
d) 6
4. Which Intermediate is formed in Wolff’s reaction? View Answer
View Answer
a) Carbene
b) Ketene Answer: b
Answer: d
c) Carbocation Explanation: It is a base catalysed reaction:
Explanation: Monochlorination of 2 methyl butane gives
REARRANGEMENT REACTIONS
two pairs of enantiomers. 1st pair of enantiomer is 1- d) Carbanion
chloro-2-methyl butane and 2nd pair of enantiomer is 2- 1. Which types of isomers are formed in rearrangement View Answer
chloro-3-methyl butane. reactions?
Answers: b
1-chloro-3-methyl butane and 2-chloro-2-methyl butane a) structural isomers
Explanation: Ketene is formed as intermediate in Wolff’s
products are also formed. b) Geometrical isomers Mechanism of Favorskii rearrangement: Here OH- group of
reaction. Formation of Diazonium ion will be followed by
c) Optical isomer NaOH is attaching at the keto-group and the ring will open
reaction in presence of heat which leads to rearrangement
d) Conformational isomers for the stability of the molecule.
of bonds and ketene will be formed.
View Answer
9. The number of substitution products formed when Answers: a
metabromo anisole is treated with KNH2/NH3? Explanation: Products formed have the same molecular
a) 1 formula, but their atoms have different arrangements or
b) 2 bonds. For example, Butane and isobutane have the same 8. The benzylic acid rearrangement reaction of a cyclic
c) 3 number of carbon (C) atoms and hydrogen (H) atoms, so 5. Which was the first molecular rearrangement identified diketone leads to _______
d) 4 their molecular formulas are the same. as such by early chemists? a) Ring expansion
View Answer a) Wolff’s rearrangement b) Ring contraction
2. What is the main difference between Hofmann and c) Ring fusion
b) Pinacole rearrangement
Answer: c Curtius rearrangement?
c) Favorskii rearrangement d) Isomers
Explanation: Nucleophile (-NH2)will attack on Br and there a) Products are different
d) Hofmann rearrangement View Answer
will be three possibilities of bond formation and those are b) Intermediate formed is different
View Answer
ortho, para and meta position as shown in the below c) Reactants are different Answer: b
structures number 2, 3 and 1 respectively. d) Isomers Answers: b Explanation: The benzylic acid rearrangement reaction of a
View Answer Explanation: The pinacol rearrangement was the first cyclic diketone leads to ring contraction as shown in below
molecular rearrangement identified as such by early diagram.
Answers: c
chemists.
Explanation: The Hofmann rearrangement occurs with an
amide. The Curtius rearrangement occurs with an acyl 6. Which intermediate carbocation is more stable in
azide. pinacole -pinacolone rearrangement?
a) 1o
b) 2o
9. Which medium is used in benzylic acid rearrangement Answer: c outer shell of a larger atom leads to than the smaller atom. c) Adolf Von Baeyer
reaction? Explanation: The substitution reaction can be classified by So, reactivity is more of smaller size atoms. d) Victor Grignard
a) Neutral an electrophile or a nucleophile, whether a reactive View Answer
b) Strong basic intermediate involved in the reaction is a carbocation, a 5. Which of the following is a not method of electron
c) Mild acidic carbanion or a free radical. movement? Answer: a
d) Strong acidic a) Bond breaking Explanation: arrow pushing was proposed by Sir Robert
View Answer 2. Why the chloroform layer becomes purple, when a b) Bond making Robinson to show movement of electron within a
colourless solution of potassium iodide is passed through a c) Bond movement molecule or between two different species. Curved arrow
Answer: b colourless solution of chloroform? d) Revolution of bond or curly arrow is used to represent the transfer of
Explanation: The mechanism of this benzylic acid a) Iodine View Answer electrons.
rearrangement starts with the attack of hydroxide on one b) Chlorine
of the carbonyl groups. c) Potassium chloride Answer: d 8. Electrons movement take place from __________
d) Potassium iodide Explanation: In bond breaking, bond making and bond a) positively to negatively components
10. Which type of catalytic reaction, does Dienone phenol View Answer movement, the electrons are moved between atoms or b) negatively to positively charged components
rearrangement reaction belong? compounds. This is because all of them have the property c) neutral to charged species
a) Acid catalysed Answer: a of electron transfer or we can say the movement of a pair d) charged species to neutral
b) Base catalysed Explanation: The iodine so liberated, dissolves in the of electrons from an electron rich site (a lone pair of View Answer
c) Acidic chloroform, giving it a purple colour. electrons or a bond) to an electron poor site. But
d) Neutral 2KI + Cl2 –> 2KCl + I2 revolution of bond will not lead to movement of electron Answer: b
View Answer (Iodine) between compounds. Explanation: Electrons are negatively charged means
electron rich spices, and so are attracted to the positive
Answer: a 3. A layer of reddish brown precipitate which is formed on 6. Which of the following statement is false for electron side and repelled by the negative side. So when the
Explanation: The first step in the mechanism of this the iron knife, when an iron knife is dipped in an aqueous movement? transfer takes place the electrons flow through it, they
reaction is the protonation of the most basic atom in the solution of copper sulphate is of which compound or a) The formal charge becomes one unit more positive at flow from negative to positive species.
molecule, the oxygen of the carbonyl group (as shown in element? the starting atom and one unit more negative at the
below reaction). a) Iron sulphate terminal atom 9. Which species are formed due to Homolytic bond
b) Copper b) The last arrow in a chain must be either a bond making breakage?
c) Rust arrow terminating at a sextet atom, or a bond breaking a) Anion
d) Copper sulphate arrow. b) Cation
View Answer c) When a bond is broken, this is represented by a curved c) Free radical
arrow pointing towards from the bond from which d) Atoms
Answer: b electron will be transfered and ending the arrow pointing View Answer
Explanation: copper produced in the below reaction will be away towards the next unoccupied molecular orbital
deposited on iron knife gives reddish brown colour. Answer: c
DISPLACEMENT SUBSTITUTION REACTION & ELECTRON d) Curly arrows are superimposed over the structural Explanation: In homolytic cleavage sharing of unpaired
Fe + CuSO4 –> FeSO4 + Cu formulae of reactants in a chemical equation to show the
MOVEMENT electrons on each of the atoms that were formerly joined
(copper) reaction mechanism by a bond, takes place. This leads to the formation of free
1. Which of the following statement is false for View Answer
4. What is the correct order of reactivity series of the radicals.
substitution reaction?
halogen? Answer: d
a) One functional group in a compound replaces another 10. Which of the following type of reaction shows
a) F > Cl > Br > I Explanation: Due to accepting an electron, the species
functional group heterolytic bond cleavage?
b) I > Cl > Br > F shows negative charge and the donating will experience
b) We can classify substitution reaction by nucleophile and a) SN1 reaction
c) F > Br > Cl > I positive charge. The last arrow pushing will show which
electrophile b) Addition reaction
d) I > Br > Cl > F atom will have what character, so it should be either
c) We can classify substitution reaction only by nucleophile c) Elimination reaction
View Answer breaking or making arrows. If the sigma bond is breakable,
and electrophile d) Free radical halogenation
d) Substitution reactions are divided into three general donation of electrons become easy.
Answer: a View Answer
classes, depending on the type of atom or group that acts Explanation: As we know size of F < Cl < Br < I increases 7. Who proposed arrow pushing method of showing
as the substituent down the group in periodic table. Due to the increase in Answer: d
progression of electons? Explanation: In SN1, Addition and Elimination reaction,
View Answer the radius and the extra shielding in the atom, which a) Sir Robert Robinson distribution of electrons after bond cleavage is different.
means that an electron is more easily attracted into the b) Robert Burns Woodward The electrons are transferred to more electronegative
atoms. But Splitting or homolysis of a chlorine molecule, to & IV reaction undergo via SN1 mechanism. As we know the Answer: d
form two chlorine atoms, initiated by ultraviolet radiation rate of reaction in SN2 reaction is directly proportional to Explanation:
or sunlight. A chlorine atom has an unpaired electron and the concentration of nucleophile.
acts as a free radical.
3. SN1 reaction undergoes through a carbocation
intermediate as follows: a)
NUCLEOPHILIC SUBSTITUTION REACTION
[R = t-Bu, iso-Pr, Et, Me] (X = Cl, Br, I) Here the rate of reaction is directly proportional to the
1. Which of the following compound shows the correct
The correct statements are: concentration of RI and (131I-), so statement is correct.
decreasing order of solvolysis with aqueous ethanol?
I. The decreasing order of rate of SN1reaction is t-BuX > If any molecule undergoes substitution, then it forms
iso-PrX > EtX > MeX inversion product due to SN2 reaction. Hence statement is
b)
II. The decreasing order of ionization energy is MeX > EtX > correct.
iso-PrX > t-BuX For statement, below reaction one (+) molecule converts
III. The decreasing order of energy of activation is t-BuX > into (–) molecular and it also converts one optical reaction
The correct choice is: iso-PrX > EtX > MeX of (+) molecule.
a) III > II > I > IV a) I & II are correct
b) III > II > IV > I b) I & III are correct
c) II and III are correct c)
c) II > III > IV > I
d) III > I > IV > II d) I, II & III are correct
View Answer View Answer
Final solution contains both Iodine (I131) and normal (I). So,
Answer: b Answer: a we can say this is the only incorrect statement about the
Explanation: The solvation of above compound can be Explanation: above reaction.
compared by this trend, i.e. Solvation trend: 3O halide > (1) Formation of carbocation is RDS, more stable the
2O halide > 1O halide > vinylic halide. So, (III) molecule is an cation more easily it will form. Hence rate order is t-BuX > 5. Which one is an excellent substrate for SN2 reaction? d)
example of 3O halide, (II) molecule is an example of iso-PrX > EtX > MeX View Answer
2O halide, (IV) molecule is an example of 1O halide and (I) (2) Formation of carbocation CH3 is most difficult hence
Answer: b
molecule is an example of vinylic halide. ionization energy is highest. Similarly, EtX has lesser
Explanation: As we know rate order in SN2 is CH3X > 1o >
ionization energy than MeX and so on. a)
2. Which of the following reaction will go faster if the 2o > 3o halide and rate order in SN1 is CH3X < 1o< 2o <
(3) Order of energy of activation is MeX > EtX > iso-PrX > t-
concentration of the nucleophile is raised? 3o halide. So according to the following representation.
BuX.

4. Which statement is incorrect about the following b)

reaction? c) CH3 – CH2 – Cl

d)
View Answer

Answer: a
a) The rate of these reaction depends on both [R—I] and
Explanation: Alpha-halo carbonyl undergoes fastest SN2 7. Which configuration will be adopted by X and Y
[131I-]
reaction due to the coupling of π* of CO bond and π* of C– respectively?
a) I and III b) Loss of optical activity was twice as fast as the gain of
X bond.
b) II and IV radioactivity
c) I and II c) Each molecule undergoing substitution suffers Inversion 6. Which of the following curve correctly represents SN1 vs
d) I, II and IV of configuration SN2?
View Answer d) The Final solution has radioactive iodine only
View Answer a) R, R
Answer: c b) R, S
Explanation: I & II reaction undergo via SN2 mechanism. III c) S, S
d) S, R
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When ether reacts with the reactant
nucleophilic substitution conjugate base reaction (i.e.
SNCB) will take place and there will be retention of
configuration and it will be R product. When C5H5NH
reacts with reactant SN2 reaction will take place and
configuration inversion will take place and it will be S
product.
a) Rate of formation of (II) and (IV)would be identical
b) Rate of formation of (I) would be slower than that of (III)
c) Formation of (I) would show primary isotope effect
d) Formation of (III) involves E1 reaction
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rate of formation of II and IV similar because
H & D are approximately of same size.
C–H & C–D bond breaking is the part of RDS hence rate in
(I) is slower than (III)
It undergoes E2 not via E1 because carbocation is not
stable.
Here (PrO) and (CH3) will be at same carbon atom and
(OH) will be at adjacent carbon atom. Hence this reaction
is wrong.
n-PrO– will attack the carbon atom attached to oxygen
above the plane and the above product will be formed.
Hence the reaction is correct.
make use of this to react with an electron deficient species
b) The nucleophilicity of an element (an electron donor)
generally increases on going down a group in the periodic
table
c) A nucleophile is electron-deficient species
d) All good nucleophiles are good bases when we deal
across the period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A nucleophile is a chemical species that
donates an electron pair to an electrophile to form a
chemical bond in relation to a reaction, it is an electron
rich species.

3. What is the correct order of nucleophilicity in the

Attack of Bromine ion (Br–) will be at that carbon atom following options?
where less substitution is present, the a) (CH3)3CO– > CH3–
above product will form. Hence this reaction is correct. b) CH3S– > CH3SH
8. What will be the correct order of SN2 / E2 ratio for the
c) CH3CH2CH2O– < (CH3)3CO–
%yield of the product of the following halide? 10. Among the following reactions, which one is incorrect?
d) (CH3CH2)3N > (CH3CH2)3P
View Answer
NUCLEOPHILIC & ELECTROPHILIC SUBSTITUTION
REACTION Answer: b
a) Explanation: Alkoxides are weaker Nu– than carbanion
1. What is the correct statement for the given reactions?
because negative charge on oxygen is more stable than
carbon. CH3CH2CH2O– is more nucleophilic, due to less
a) III > IV > II > I steric hindrance. The negative charge is more nucleophilic
b) III > II > IV > I than a stable compound.
b) a) B reacts faster than A
c) I > III > IV > II
b) Both give the same product 4. Which of the following order is correct for the solvolysis
d) II > I > III > IV
View Answer c) A gives trans and B gives c is product in 50% aqueous ethanol at 44.6oC?
d) A gives cis and B gives trans product
Answer: a View Answer
c) a)
Explanation: Least hindered halide give fastest SN2
reaction as the hindrance increases. As the hindrance Answer: b
increases, the occurrence of SN2 reaction decreases. Explanation:
b)
d)
View Answer
c)
Answer: b

In reaction A, groups attached to benzene are on opposite

9. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
plane so SNGP mechanism will be followed and B will d)
Explanation:
undergo SN2. Due to SNGP (A) reacts faster than B and View Answer
α-halocarbonyl are the best SN2 substrate. both give same product.
Answer: b
Here nucleophilic substitution reaction will happen and
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Explanation: Solvolysis is a nucleophilic substitution (SN1)
the above product will be formed. Hence this reaction is
nucleophiles? or elimination, where the nucleophile is a solvent
correct.
a) Nucleophiles have an unshared electron pair and can
molecule. Solvolysis order CH3X < 1o halide < 2ohalide < b) Each of the above reactions is likely to be SN1 synchronously, i.e., in one step, so it will undergo SN2
allylic halide < 3o halide. c) First two reactions follow SN2 and next two reactions pathway.
follow SN1 pathway
5. Identify correct step representing SN1 mechanism for d) There is no role of “steric factor” 10. Benzyl chloride is reacted with different nucleophiles
the cleavage of ether with HI. View Answer (HO–, CH3COO–, PhO–, CH3O–). Arrange them in the
decreasing order of reactivity with Benzyl chloride.
Answer: a a) CH3O– > HO– > PhO– > CH3COO–
Explanation: As the steric hindrance increase, attack on b) HO– > CH3O– > PhO– > CH3COO–
carbon attached to Br decreases. It is possible only when a) c) HO– > PhO– > CH3O– > CH3COO–
reaction undergoes via SN2 reaction. d) CH3COO– > CH3O– > HO– > PhO–
View Answer
7. Which of the following reaction is not possible?
Answer: b
b)
Explanation: HO– > CH3O– > PhO– > CH3COO–
Here,CH3O– is most stable as the negative charge is
distributed among two oxygen, followed by oxygen attach
to phenyl group will share electron in resonance. And
a) 1 and 3 c) carbon is more electronegative than hydrogen attached to
a)
b) 2 and 3 oxygen that’s why HO– is less stable than CH3O– and more
c) 1 and 4 nucleophilic.
d) 2 and 4
11. Among the following compounds, what is the
View Answer d) decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic
b) View Answer substitution?
Answer: b
Explanation: As we can see in below reaction first step is a Answer: d
slow step in which carbocation is formed. And the second Explanation: Leaving group center should be anti to each
step is fast where nucleophile will attach carbocation. other and nucleophilic.

c)

a) III > I > II > IV

b) IV > I > II > III
c) II > III > II > IV
d) 9. Which of the following statement is true about the d) I > III > II > IV
View Answer reaction given below? View Answer

Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: In reaction, the nucleophilic attack will be at Explanation: This is a electrophilic substitution and more
aliphatic chlorine atom instead of aromatic chlorine the electrodensity on the ring faster the reaction.
because aromatic carbon SN2 is not possible. a) It involves a carbocation intermediate III > I > II > IV (Reactivity order towards E substitution)

6. The relative rates of nucleophilic substitution for the b) The rearrangement is due to SN1 reaction mechanism
12. Among the following, which one is not a meta directing
given substrates are as follows: c) It proceeds via a concerted SN2 pathway
group in an electrophilic attack?
Compound Approx. Relative rate d) It proceeds via a concerted SN1 pathway
CH3CH2Br 1.0 View Answer
CH3CH2CH2Br 0.28
Answer: c
(CH3)2CHCH2Br 0.030 a)
Explanation: In this reaction nucleophile (–OMe) will
(CH3)3 CCH2Br 0.00000042
8. What will be the starting material (I) in the given attack at carbon attach to oxygen and in this mechanism,
Which of the following statement is correct?
reaction? one bond is broken and one bond is formed
a) Each of the above reactions is likely to be SN2
 a) increases electron density at meta-position
b) increases electrons density at ortho and para-positions
c) decreases electron density at meta-position
d)
d) decreases electron density at ortho and para-positions
View Answer
b) View Answer
d)
Answer: b
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Iodine is a better leaving group than chlorine,
Explanation: Because nitro group decreases electron
so attach will be at iodine site. Answer: b
density at ortho and para-positions, which will leads to
c) Explanation: Here three times Elimination(E2) occurs and
deactivation of ring.
three pie bond will be formed and three water molecule
will be removed as shown below.

ELIMINATION REACTION
d) 3. Which of the following is incorrect statement for the
View Answer 1. Assuming both the reactions as E1, where will the
giver reaction?
expected ratio between KH/KD lies between?
Answer: d
Explanation: d id not a meta directing group in
electrophilic attack because halogen are ortho- para
a) nearly I 5. Which of the following statements is correct for alkyl
directing and ring deactivationg group.
b) nearly 3 halide?
13. What will be the decreasing order of electrophilic c) nearly 5 a) Alkyl halide will always show SN1 mechanism
nitration of the following compounds? d) anything in between 2 and 8 a) Rate of formation of II and IV would be identical b) As branching at carbon increases, E1 mechanism is
View Answer b) Rate of formation of I would be slower than that of III favoured as compared to SN1 mechanism
c) Formation of I would show primary isotope effect c) In unimolecular reaction, increasing the temperature
Answer: a
d) Formation of III involves E1 reaction donot favours E1 mechanism
Explanation: In E1 elimination RDS is the formation of
View Answer d) In most unimolecular reactions of alkyl halide E1
carbocation from halide hence C – H and C – D are not the
reaction is favoured over SN1 reaction
part of RDS there KH/KD is approx. 1. Answer: d
View Answer
a) S > R > P > Q Explanation: Rate of formation of II and IV similar because
b) R > S > P > Q H & D are approximately of same size. Answer: b
c) R > P > S > Q C–H & C–D bond breaking is the part of RDS hence rate in I Explanation: In most unimolecular reactions of alkyl halide
d) P > S > R > Q is slower than III SN1 reaction is favoured over E1 reaction. E1 mechanism
View Answer It undergo E2 not via E1 because carbocation is not stable. is favoured as compared to SN1 mechanism by branching
at carbon increases, as more steric hinderence at the
Answer: c 4. When the all-cis isomer of C6H6Cl6 (2, 3, 4, 5, 6-
attacking site will leads to E1 mechanism.
Explanation: R > P > S > Q 2. Predict the product for the following elimination Hexachlorocyclohexane) is heated with alc.KOH, what will
In R electron donating group is present. In P, Cl will attract reaction. be the most probable product? 6. Which of the following order is incorrect for the rate of
rings electron and donation will increase. In S there is E2 reaction?
electron donating group hence it is more reactive. If a) 5-Bromocycloheptene > 4-Bromocycloheptene
C2H5 is not there than this order reverses. b) 2-Bromo- I -phenylbutane > 3-Bromo- I-phenylbutane
In Q electron pair will get into resonance. a) c) 3-Bromocyclohexene > Bromocyclohexane
d) 3-Bromo-2-methylpentane > 2-Bromo-4-methylpentane
a) View Answer

b) Answer: a
b) Explanation: For 5-Bromocycloheptene > 4-
Bromocycloheptene, more stable product leads to faster
14. Nitro group is meta-directing in electrophilic aromatic
c) rate of reaction. Product formed by E2 of 4-
substitution reactions?
c) Bromocycloheptene is more stable than 5-
Bromocycloheptene. So, rate of reaction 4-
Bromocycloheptene is fater than 5-Bromocycloheptene.
So option 5-Bromocycloheptene > 4-Bromocycloheptene is
incorrect.
For 2-Bromo- I -phenylbutane > 3-Bromo- I-phenylbutane,
it is true rate of reaction for 2-Bromo- I -phenylbutane is
more than 3-Bromo- I-phenylbutane as product formed in
former is more stable due to resonance.
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: E2 is a concerted reaction in which bonds Explanation: Here correct is statement 1 and 4 are true.
break and new bonds form at the same time in a single Due to steric hinderence tert-Butyl alcohol anion will
step. Order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards E2 attack less substituted C-H bond.
dehydrohalogenation is found to be 3o > 2o > 1o. In E2 Ethanol anion will attack more substituted C-H bond to II.
reaction both hydrogen and leaving group should be form more stable alkene.
antiperiplanar and that’s why In E2 elimination different
stereoisomer (diastereomer) converts into different stereo
product.
When leaving group are F & NH2 type then they give
8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
hoffmann product.
the following reaction?
III.

10. Which incorrect about alkyl bromide having molecular

a) Major product is endocyclic alkene formed according to formula C5H11Br?
Saytzeff a) One isomeric alkyl bromide undergoes E1 elimination at
b) Major product is exocyclic alkene formed according to the fastest rate IV.
Saytzeff b) Only one is incapable of reacting by the E2 mechanism
For 3-Bromocyclohexene > Bromocyclohexane, it is true
c) Major product is exocyclic alkene formed according to c) Only one isomer gives a single alkene on E2 elimination
rate of reaction for 3-Bromocyclohexeneis more than
Hoffmann d) 2-Bromopentane gives the most complex mixture of
Bromocyclohexane as product formed in former is more
d) Major product is endocyclic alkene formed according to alkenes on E2 elimination
stable.
Hoffmann View Answer
View Answer
11. In which reaction product formation takes place by
Answer: c hoffmann rule? 12. Which of the following compounds cannot give E1CB
Explanation: Exocyclic alkene are more stable than endo reaction?
beacuse of but due to “steric hindrance” the less a) CF3 – CHCl2
substituted alkene is formed. b) C6h5 – CH2 – CH2F
For 3-Bromo-2-methylpentane > 2-Bromo-4- c) CH3 – CH2 – CH2Br
methylpentane, it is true rate of reaction for 3-Bromo-2-
methylpentane more stable than 2-Bromo-4-
methylpentane as product formed in former is more d)
View Answer

Answer: d
9. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true about a) I and II Explanation:
the following eliminations? b) II and III
c) I, II and III
stable.
d) I, II, III and IV
7. Which of the following statement is correct? View Answer
(1) Hoffmann product is major product in I (2) Saytzeff
a) E2 is a concerted reaction in which bonds break and product is major product in I (3) Hoffmann product is Answer: d Compound d will give E2 reaction, Br is a better leaving
new bonds form at the same time in a single step major product in II (4) Saytzeffproduct is major product in Explanation: All of the above molecules will form product group so formation of carboanion and removal of leaving
b) Order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards E2 II by hoffmann rule that is less substituted C-H bond will be group occurs simultaneously. But E1CB reaction is shown
dehydrohalogenation is found to be 3o > 2o > 1o a) 1 and 2 attacked because more stable product will be formed via by poor leaving group like in compounds a, b and c.
c) In E2 elimination different stereoisomer (diastereomer) b) 1 and 4 this in all cases.
converts into different stereo product c) 2 and 3 I.
d) All of the mentioned d) 3 and 4
View Answer View Answer
13. Incorrect statement (s) is (are) d) 1, 1-dichloropropane C4H9NO2;
View Answer chemical shift = 5.30 (broad, 1H)
chemical shift = 4.10 (q, 2H)
Answer: a chemical shift = 2.80 (d, 3H)
a) X being electronegative, makes the H (on C-2) more Explanation: Only (a) compound has all chemically chemical shift = 1.20 (t, 3H)
acidic equivalent hydrogen. So, give only one peak.
a)
b) Due to electron withdrawal nature of X, it stabilises the
carbanion
c) (X) destabilises the carbanion due to the presence of
lone pairs
d) The reaction proceeds by an E1CB pathway
View Answer b)
As shown in the above compound, doublet, because of
Answer: c 2. The 1H NMR spectrum of CH3OCHCICH2Cl will exhibit neighbouring 1H attached to N and one will be broad as
Explanation: Due to inductive effect of halogen it stabilize ________ because of hydrogen attached to N, quatret becauseof
the negative charge on adjacent to carbon atom, as X will a) A three proton doublet. One proton singlet and a two neighbouring 3H and finally triplet, because
c)
withdraw the electron towards itself. proton doublet of neighbouring 2H.
b) A three proton singlet. One proton singlet and a two
14. Which of the following is not the examples of E1CB 4. Which of the following has three types of hydrogens in
proton doublet
reaction? the following compounds?
c) A three proton singlet. One proton triplet and a two
d) a) Br-CH = CH2
proton doublet
View Answer b) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
d) A three proton triplet. One proton triplet and a two
a) proton triplet c) C6H5CH2
Answer: d
View Answer d) CH3– CH2 – CH(CH3) – N02
Explanation: Compounds a, b and c will follow Addition-
View Answer
Elimination mechanism.
Answer: c
b) Answer: a
Explanation: The 1H NMR spectrum of CH3OCHCICH2Cl
will exhibit three proton singlet, one proton triplet and Explanation:
two proton doublet.
c)
No. of peaks = n + 1
(n = no. of neighbouring chemically equivalent Hydrogen
Compound will follow elimination -addition mechanism, as nuclii)
d)
shown in below reaction. NH– anion first attack on the ring We will replace them by D and check the structure if they
View Answer
which lead to formation of benzyne ring and further are different then they are different.
Answer: d addition of -NH2 will take place.
Explanation: Compound d will give E2 reaction, CL is a
better leaving group so formation of carboanion and
removal of leaving group occurs simultaneously. But E1CB
reaction shown by poor leaving group like in compounds a, 3. Which of the following 1H-NMR spectrum of compound
with molecular formula C4H9NO2 shows delta 5.30 (broad,
IH), 4.10(q, 2H), 2.80 (d, 3H), 1.20 (t, 3H) ppm? both are different
NUCLEAR MAGNETIC RESONANCE – 1 a) CH3NHCOOCH2CH3 so, total 3 type of hydrogen
b) CH3CH2NHCOOCH3 So, three different type of hydrogen is present in
1. Which of the following organic compound with c) CH3OCH2CONHCH3 compound a.
b and c.
molecular formula C3H C12 exhibits only one signal in the d) CH3CH2OCH2CONH2
IH NMR spectrum? View Answer 5. Which of the compound show only one signal is present
15. Which of the following reaction will not show addition
elimination mechanism? a) 2, 2-dichloropropane in the PMR spectra ?
b) 1, 2-dichloropropane Answer: a a) C3H4, C3H6
c) 1, 3-dichloropropane Explanation: b) C4H6, C5H12
c) C8H18, C2H6O a) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 Explanation: d) magnetogyric ratio
d) All of the mentioned All structures have only one type of hydrogen. So, all give View Answer
View Answer single peak.
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: In NMR spectroscopy. the product of Nuclear
Explanation: All of the below compounds have only type of ‘g’ factor (gN), the nuclear magneton (βN) and the magnetic
proton, so only one signal. 6Ha -> 1 group of line; field strength (Bo) gives the energy of transition from
4Hb -> 1 group of line alpha to beta state. As shown below:
10. A proton Hb is coupled to four equivalent protons Ha.
Therefore, Intensity => 6 : 4 => 3 : 2.
The multiplicity and the relative intensity of lines in the
signal Hb is
a) Doublet, I : 4
b) Triplet, I : 4 : 6
c) Quintet, 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 2. An organic compound having the molecular formulae
b)
d) Quartet, 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 C10H14 exhibited two singlets in the 1H NMR spectrum and
9H -> 1 group of line and 1H -> 1 group of line / single
View Answer three signals in the 13C NMR. What is the compound?
peak.
6. How many Hertz does 1 ppm correspond to for an PMR Therefore, Intensity => 9 : 1. Answer: c
spectrometer operating at a radio frequency of 60 MHz
Explanation: Each signal in a proton NMR spectrum may or
and 100 MHz? 8. The distance between the centers of the peaks of
may not be split into one or more peaks, this is called as a)
a) 6 Hz, 10 Hz doublet is called as?
multiplicity. The most common concept associated with
b) 60 Hz, 100 Hz a) Coupling constant
signal multiplicity is the n+1 rule. According to this rule,
c) 100 Hz, 60 Hz b) Spin constant
the signal for the proton under observation will be split
d) 10Hz, 100Hz c) Spin-spin coupling b)
into n+1 peaks by protons attached to adjacent carbons,
View Answer d) Chemical shift
where n is the number of such protons.
View Answer
Answer: b No. of peaks = n + 1
Explanation: Answer: a (n = no. of neighbouring chemically equivalent Hydrogen
c)
Explanation: When the proton under observation is split nuclii)
into several peaks by neighboring protons, the distance So, Hb —-> 4Ha
between these peaks is a constant called the coupling d)
Multiplicity —->n + 1 = 5 (Quintet)
constant (J). Any two sets of protons that exhibit the same View Answer
coupling constant are most likely splitting eachother And, according to Pascal triangle(shown below): Intensity–
signals and are said to be coupled. Answer: a
>1:4:6:4:1
Explanation: In compound a;
1
7. Compound C4H10O gave PMR spectrum consisting of 11
two groups of lines (multiplets) with relative intensities in 121
the ratio 3 : 2. Other compound of the same formula 1331
exhibited two lines with relative area of 9 : 1. What are 14641
these compounds.
a) Diethyl ether and n-butanol
b) t-Butyl alcohol and 1-Methoxypropane
9. H2, CH4, C2H6 and C6H6 exhibit which PMR spectra? NUCLEAR MAGNETIC RESONANCE – 2
c) diethyl ether and t-Butyl alcohol
a) Singlet
d) Diethyl ether and 2-Methoxypropane 1. In NMR spectroscopy, what is the product of Nuclear ‘g’
b) Doublet
View Answer factor (gN), the nuclear magneton and the magnetic field
c) Triplet
d) Quintet strength (Bo)? Here only 2 types of Hydrogen are present (two Ha &
Answer: c
Answer: a a) energy of transition from alpha to beta state twelve Hb). So, 2 singlets only. There is no need to
Explanation:
View Answer b) chemical shift check 13C NMR. Still, if you check three types carbon are
NMR data: Two groups of lines in 3 : 2 and two groups of
c) spin-spin coupling constant present (two C1, four C2 and four C2 carbon). Hence, there
lines in 9 : 1 for same molecular formula
peak for 13C NMR.
3. The 1H NMR spectrum of a dilute solution of a mixture Answer: b types of protons so five peaks will be observed. Hz) ppm. What will be the compound among the choices?
of acetone and dichloromethane in CDCl3 exhibits two Explanation: a) 4-ethylphenol
singlets of 1:1 intensity. What will be the molar ratio of b) 2-ethylphenol
acetone to dichloromethane in the solution? c) 4-methylanisole
a) 3:1 d) 4-methylbenzyl alcohol
b) 1:3 View Answer
Where, I: nucleus spin=1/2
c) 1:1
μn: nuclear magneton=5.05×10-27 Answer: c
d) 1:2
μ: magnetic moment by protons=2.79 Explanation: C8H10O
View Answer
h: Plank constant= 6.63x 10-34joule-seconds.
Answer: b 8. What will be the NMR frequency in MHz of bare 1H in a
6. What are the number of signals in 1H NMR in the given
Explanation: If intensity is 1:1, the ratio must be 1:3 magnetic field of intensity 1.4092 tesla (given gN = 5.585
molecules?
and μN = 5.05 x 10-27 JT-1)?
a) 60 MHz
b) 120 MHz
c) 100 MHz
d) 15 MHz
a) 3, 4, 4, 3 respectively 3Ha –> 3.8, singlet (deshielded because of –I of oxygen)
View Answer
b) 2, 6, 4, 2 respectively 3Hb –>2.5, singlet (No such –I)
4. What will be the strength of coupling between geminal c) 2, 4, 6, 2 respectively Answer: a 2Hc –> 7.2, doublet (deshielded because of anisotropy
protons in the following molecules? d) 2, 4, 2, 6 respectively Explanation: By using the below formula we can calculate effect of benzene as well as because of –I of oxygen)
View Answer NMR frequency, where h is Plank’s constant. 2Hd –>6.8, doublet (deshielded because of anisotropy of
benzene).
Answer: b
Explanation: Different types of proton give the different
a) Decrease as the size of ring increase type of signals, so the different hydrogen will give different
numbers of signals. MASS SPECTROSCOPY
b) Increase as the size of ring increase
As we can see first compound has two type of hydrogen
c) Remains same 1. Which of the following statement is false for mass
d) No relation between the size of the ring & coupling Ha and Hb. Compound second has six type of hydrogen Ha,
9. At room temperature, what is the number of singlet spectroscopy?
View Answer Hb, Hc, Hd, He and H. Compound third has four type of
hydrogen Ha, Hb, Hc, Hd and l forth compound has two resonances observed in the 1H NMR spectrum of a) Mass spectroscopy is used to identify unknown
Me3CC(O)NMe2 (N, N-Dimethylpivalamide)? compounds within a sample, and to elucidate the
Answer: b type of hydrogen Ha and Hb.
a) 3 structure and chemical properties of different molecules
Explanation: Geminal proton 2J coupling i.e. coupling of H
b) 4 b) Particle are characterized by their mass to charge ratios
& H on same carbon.
c) 5 (m/z) and relative abundances
d) 2 c) This technique basically studies the effect of ionizing
View Answer energy on molecules
d) This technique can be used on all state of matter
Answer: a View Answer
as ring size increases, bond angle outside decreases i.e. α1
7. How many peaks are expected in low-resolution NMR Explanation: As shown below; three signals are observed.
> α2 > α3 > α4 (according % s character). If B.A. decreases,
spectrum of vinyl chloride and ethyl cyclopropane? 3Ha will experience shielding due to O–, so They are Answer: d
2J coupling increases.
a) 3,5 different from 3Hb. Explanation: A mass spectrum measures the masses within
5. What is the value of gyramagnetic ratio of proton? b) 5,3 a sample. Particles are characterized by their mass to
a) 41.10 radian/Tesla c) 6,3 charge ratios (m/z) and relative abundances. This
b) 42.57 MHz/Tesla d) 3,6 technique basically studies the effect of ionizing energy on
c) 26.75 radian/Tesla View Answer molecules and is applied to pure samples as well as
d) 41.10 MHz/Tesla complex mixtures. This technique is only possible to
Answer: a perform in the gaseous state.
View Answer
Explanation: Vinyl chloride compound has three types of 10. An organic compound (MF; C8H10O) exhibited the
proton as shown below and ethyl cyclopropane has five following 1H NMR special data: 2. Which of the following main component of mass
62.5 (3H, s), 3.8 (314, s), 6.8 (2H, d, J 8 Hz), 7.2 (2H, d, J 8 spectroscopy deal with resolving the ions into their
characteristics mass components according to their mass- Given: gN = 5.585 and BN = 5.05 x 10-27 JT-I. Answer: a Answer: a
to-charge ratio? a) 7.05 T Explanation: Explanation:
a) Ion Source b) 6.38 T C8H7ClO IR: 1760 cm–1
b) Analyzer c) 7.58 T IR data: 1690 cm–1 Some options are not possible because of IR data.
c) Detector System d) 5.93 T NMR data: two types of protons in 5: 2 ratio. Only two 1760 cm–1 –> Represent either ester or anhydride
d) Analyzer tube View Answer types of protons. ester –>with cross conjugation or anhydride
View Answer Ketone with conjugation shows peaks at 1690 cm–1. chemical reference: 7.2 (1H), d, J = 16.0 Hz
Answer: a This ‘J’ shows it is a trans alkene.
Answer: b Explanation: According this formula of frequency: 8. Which species of the following is used to bombard with
Explanation: The complete process involves the conversion the sample for which mass spectroscopy has been 10. The spectrum of a compound with molecular formula
of the sample into gaseous ions, with or without performed? C5H602 is shown below. IR spectrum shows medium
fragmentation, which is then characterized by their mass a) Alpha particles intensity band at 3270 and 2180 cm-1. What will be the
to charge ratios (m/z) by an analyser. Eventually, the b) Neutrons structure of compound? Chemical reference: 1.3 (3H, t);
second analyzer will analyse fragment the selected ions c) Electrons 2.8 (1H, s), 4.3 (2H, q).
and detect the ions emerging from the last analyzer and d) Protons
measure their and relative abundances with the detector View Answer
that converts the ions into electrical signals.
Answer: c a)
6. What are the main criteria on which mass spectrometer
3. Who discovered the mass spectrometer? Explanation: In the mass spectrometer, the sample which
used for?
a) Francis Aston is to be analysed is bombarded with electrons, which leads
a) Composition in sample
b) J. J Thomson to the formation of the ions. The ions are sorted out by b)
b) Relative mass of atoms
c) Ernest O. Lawrence accelerating them through electric and magnetic field. A
c) Concentration of elements in the sample
d) Walter Kaufmann record of the number of different kinds of ions is called
d) Properties of sample
View Answer mass spectrum.
View Answer c)
Answer: b 9. An organic compound Q exhibited the following spectral
Answer: b
Explanation: The mass spectrometer was invented by JJ data obtained by mass spectroscopy.
Explanation: A mass spectrometer generates multiple ions
THOMSON. He performed a series of experiments in 1897 IR: 1760 cm–1
from the sample under investigation, it then separates
designed to study the nature of electric discharge in a 1
HNMR: chemical reference (ppm): 7.2 (IH, d, 16.0 Hz), 5.1 d)
them according to their specific mass-to-charge ratio (m/z) View Answer
high-vacuum cathode-ray tube. Further modified by F. W. (IH, m), 2.1 (3H, s), 1.8 (3H, d, J = 7.0 Hz)
or we can say on relative mass of atoms, and then records 13
Aston shortly after World War I. He constructs the first CNMR chemical reference (ppm): 170 (carbonyl carbon).
the relative abundance of each ion type. Answer: b
velocity focusing mass spectrograph which has mass What is compound Q?
Explanation:
resolving power of 130. 7. A compound of molecular formula C8H7ClO shows a
We have –>C5H6O2
prominent band in its IR spectrum at 1690 cm-1. 1H NMR IR data: 3270 cm–1, 2180 cm–1 shows it can be an alkyne
4. In which state of matter mass spectroscopy is being
spectrum revealed only two major types of protons in the
performed? a) NMR data: 1.3 (3H, t); 2.8 (1H, s); 4.3 (2H, q)
ratio of 5: 2. Which one of the following structures best fits
a) solid Now out of (a) & (b)
the above data?
b) liquid
c) gaseous
b)
d) plasma a)
View Answer
b)
Answer: c
c)
Explanation: In the mass spectrometric analysis of (a)
compounds is firstly done by production of gas phase ions c) So, no such the electronegative difference between both
of the compound, basically by electron ionization. This
cases C-C Bond.
molecular ion undergoes fragmentation.
d)
d)
5. A PMR spectrometer operates at 300 MHz. Find the View Answer
View Answer
value of magnetic field.
 1. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light? level will decrease respectively so λmax will increase. d) RCOOH = RCOOR’ > RCONH2
a) 400 nm – 700 nm View Answer
b) 700 nm to 1 mm
c) 0.01 nm to 10 nm Answer: b
(b) Explanation:
d) 10 nm to 400 nm
View Answer

So, electronegative difference between both cases C-C
Bond is high. Hence 2H peak will at 4.3.
11. Separation of ions in mass spectrometer take place on
the basis of which of the following?
a) Mass
b) Charge
c) Molecular weight
d) Mass to charge ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mass spectrometer separates ions on the
basis of mass to charge ratio i.e. m/z. In the spectrum of a
pure compound, the molecular ion, if present, appears at
the highest value of m/z (followed by ions containing
heavier isotopes) and gives the molecular mass of the
compound. Most of the ions are singly charged. Hence, the
mass to charge ratio is equal to the mass.
12. Which type of ionic species are allowed to pass
through the slit and reach the collecting plate?
a) Negative ions of all masses
b) positive ions of the specific mass
c) Negative ions of the specific mass
d) Positive ions of all masses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Positive ions of specific mass pass through
the slit and reach the collecting plate. The ion currents are
measured using sensitive electrometer tube. The ions
reaching the collecting plate are measured.
UV – VISIBLE SPECTROSCOPY
Answer: d
Explanation: Ultraviolet (UV) is an electromagnetic
radiation with a wavelength from 10 nm to 400 nm,
shorter than that of visible light but longer than X-rays (the
4. What is the correct order of λmax for n –> π* transition
visible region fall between 380-750 nm and X- rays region
for the R-CN, R-NO2, and R-N=N-R?
fall between 0.01 to 10nm).
a) R-CN < R-NO2 < R-N=N-R
2. Which of the following comparison is correct for solvent b) R-CN = R-NO2 = R-N=N-R
shift on the n –>π* transition of acetone? c) R-CN > R-NO2 > R-N=N-R
a) H20 = CH30H = C2H50H = CHC13 = C6H14 d) R-CN > R-NO2 < R-N=N-R
b) H20 > CH30H > C2H50H > CHC13 > C6H14 View Answer
c) H20 < CH30H < C2H50H < CHC13 < C6H14
d) H20 > CH30H < C2H50H < CHC13 < C6H14 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: λmax for n –> π*
Answer: c
Explanation: H-bonding with ground state in n–> π* results
in increase in energy gap & decrease in wavelength.
And as polar solvents show strong H-bonding. So, the Electronegative difference order: 3 < 2 < 1
correct option is H20 < CH30H < C2H50H < CHC13 < C6H14. If different is less than energy gap between n –> π* is also
less hence more wavelength.
So, energy gap between n –> π* 3 < 2 < 1
λmax–> 3 > 2 > 1
5. What is the correct order of λmax for π –> π* transition
for the following three compounds?
a) R-C=C-R > R2C = CR2 > R-CHO
b) R-C=C-R < R2C = CR2 < R-CHO
c) R-C=C-R = R2C = CR2 = R-CHO
d) R-C=C-R < R2C = CR2 >R-CHO
View Answer
3. What is the correct order of λmax for n –> ς* transition?
Answer: b
a) R-OH > R-NH2 > R-SH
Explanation: MO diagram (C = C), (C = C) & (C = O) and
b) R-OH < R-NH2 < R-SH
shows the energy gap between π – π*, increases among
c) R-OH > R-SH > R-NH2
these three molecules. So λmax will give the reverse trend.
d) R-OH < R-SH < R-NH2
R-C=C-R < R2C = CR2 < R-CHO
View Answer
6. What is the correct order of λmax for n–> π* transition
Answer: b
for the following three compounds?
Explanation: According to molecular orbital energy
a) RCOOH > RCOOR’ > RCONH2
diagram for R-OH, R-NH2, R-SH (shown below), energy
b) RCOOH = RCOOR’ = RCONH2
c) RCOOH = RCOOR’ < RCONH2
As we can see from above diagram: +m1 > +m2; +m3
Here since mesomeric effect shows Bathochromic shift:
i.e. a change of spectral band position in the absorption,
reflectance, transmittance, or emission spectrum of a
molecule to a longer wavelength (lower frequency)
Here, λmax –> 3 ≈ 2 < 1.
7. Which of the following is the correct order of λmax for n–
> π* transition for the given compounds?
a) 1>2>3>4>5
b) 1<2<3<4<5
c) 1>2<3>4<5
d) 1>2>3<4>5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: λmax depends upon +m & I effect, which will
lead to a shift to longer wavelength accompanied by
increased intensity of absorption represents an electronic
level (considering inductive and mesomeric effect) of the
ground and excited states and thus a decrease in transition
energy.
The correct order of λmax is 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 > 5.
8. The ultraviolet spectrum of benzonitrile shows a
primary absorption band at 224 nm. If a solution of
benzonitrile in water, with a concentration of 1x 10-4molar,
is examined at a wavelength of 224 nm, the absorbance is
determined to be 1.30. The cell length is 1 cm.
What is the molar absorptivity of this absorption band?
a) 2.3 x 104
b) 3.3 x 104
c) 1.3 x 104
d) 4.3 x 104
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:
Benzonitrile in water with:
C = 1 x 10-4 M OH at ortho position show +m effect & hence higher frequency in a gaseous state as compared to liquid
A = 1.30 λmaxincreases to 242 nm. and solid states.
l = 1 cm
We know, A = ℇCl 4. In which unit Force constant is not expressed?
ℇ = A/C I = 1.30/ 1X 10-4 X 1 = 1.34 X 104. a) Dynes cm-1
INFRARED SPECTROSCOPY – 1 b) dyne Å-1
9. The ultraviolet spectrum of benzonitrile shows a 1. What is the relation between restoring force, f to the c) Nm-1
secondary absorption band at 271 nm. If a solution of d) kp
displacement q in Hooke’s law?
benzonitrile in water, with a concentration of 1×10-4 molar a) f = -kq View Answer Since, H–Cl has single bond so having least force constant
solution is examined at 271 nm, what will be the and respective q is longest among above three. q is larger
b) f = kq Answer: d
absorbance reading (ℇ = 1000) and what will be the c) f = kq2 when the force constant is smaller.
intensity ratio, IO/I, respectively? Explanation: All of the above units are correct for force
d) f = -kq2 constant except kp, i.e. kilogram force or kilopond, which
a) 0.1, 1.26 7. The vibrations, without a center of symmetry are active
View Answer is the unit of force.
b) 0.2, 2.26 in which of the following region?
c) 0.3, 3.26 Answer: a a) Infrared but inactive in Raman
5. For HCI, = 1.63 x 10-27 kg, the observed frequency =
d) 0.4, 4.26 Explanation: Restoring force f needed to extend or b) Raman but inactive in IR
2890 or v = 8.67 x 1013 Hz. What is the force constant K?
View Answer compress a spring by some distance is proportional to that c) Raman and IR
a) 4.83 m dyn Å-1
distance. d) Inactive in both Raman and IR
Answer: a b) 8.43 dynes cm-1
needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance is View Answer
Explanation: A = ℇCl and ℇ = 1000 (Given) c) 483 μm-1
proportional to that distance. d) 4.83 dyn Å-1
A = 1000 x 1 x10-4 x 1 Answer: c
A = 0.1 2. The intensity of an absorption band is always Explanation: If a molecule has COS, then its vibrational
Answer: a
Also, A = log (IO/l) proportional to which of the following factor? mode will either IR active or Raman Active.
Explanation:
0.1 = log (IO/I) a) Atomic population
8. The frequency of vibration of a bond is a function of
=> IO/I = 1.26. b) Molecular population of the initial state
which factor?
c) Molecular population of the final state
10. Which of the following structural formula that is a) Force constant of the bond
d) Temperature
consistent with the following observations: An acid, b) Masses of the atoms involved in bonding
View Answer
C7H4O2Cl2 shows a UV maximum of 242 nm? c) Force constant of the bond and Masses of the atoms
Answer: b d) Bond order
Explanation: The probability of a transition taking place in View Answer
initial state is the most important factor influencing the
Answer: c
a) intensity of an observed l line. This probability is
Explanation:
proportional to the population of the initial state involved
in the transition. 6. Since the nuclei in a polyatomic molecule do not always
vibrate in a simple harmonic manner, there arises which of
3. On which factors the vibrational stretching frequency of
b) the following situation?
diatomic molecule depend?
a) Harmonicity
a) Force constant
b) Anharmonicity in molecular vibrations
b) Atomic population 9. What is the order of decreasing vibrational frequency
c) Fundamental frequencies
c) Temperature for C — Cl, C — Br, C — C, C — O and C — H?
c) d) Infrared
d) Magnetic field a) C-H, C-C, C-O, C- Cl, C-Br
View Answer
View Answer b) C- Cl, C-Br, C-C, C -H, C-O
Answer: a c) C-O, C-H, C-Br, C- Cl, C-C
Answer: a
Explanation: q → displacement and K →Force constant d) C-Br, C- Cl, C-C, C-O, C-H
Explanation: The value of vibrating stretching frequency is
d) View Answer
shifted if the force constant of a bond changes with its
View Answer
electronic structure. Frequency shifts also take place on Answer: a
Answer: c working with the same substance in different states
Explanation: λx at 242 nm represents it is acid chloride. - (solids, liquids and gas). A substance usually absorbs at
Explanation: Since, vibrational frequency
inversely proportional to masses of the atom involved in Answer: b or one ring. No. of vibration degree of freedom = 3N – 6
bonding the increasing mass trend for above element is H Explanation: C5H10→1380 cm-1. 1380 cm-1 represents a C–C Now, band at 3300 shows C–H bond, 2110 may be because = 3(15) – 6 = 39.
< C < O < Cl < Br. So, correct order of vibration frequency is bond band. All have C – C bond. Option Pentyne does not of C≡C triple bond
C – H > C – C > C – O > C – Cl > C – Br. fulfill the H-atom requirement. So, correct option is Now, we check each option one by one 8. Which of the following molecules will not show infrared
Cyclopentane. Option Octene → octene → does not match m.f. C8 H6. spectrum?
10. What is the correct increasing order of stretching a) H2
frequencies for C ≡ C, C = C and C — C? 3. Why ketenes absorb in IR at a very high frequency (2150 b) HCI
a) C — C > C = C > C ≡ C cm-1)? c) CH4
b) C ≡ C > C = C > C — C a) The inner C is sp hybridized d) H20
c) C — C > C = C < C ≡ C b) The more s character in a bond, the stronger it is View Answer
d) C ≡ C < C — C > C = C c) Inner C is sp2 hybridized
View Answer d) Inner C is sp3 hybridized Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Correct option is H2 as HH2 do not have
Answer: b dynamic dipole moment, so no spectrum will be observed.
Explanation: Since, v ∝ √k , k→ Force constant. Force Answer: c
constant trend is Explanation: Ketenes absorb in IR at a very high frequency 9. The phosphorescence spectrum of the excited species is
Triple bond > Double bond > Single bond. (2150 cm-1) because inner C is sp2hybridized. Bonds with due to which transition?
C≡ C > C = C > C — C. more s character absorb at a higher frequency. a) Singlet to triplet transitions
b) Triplet to singlet transitions
4. What is the effect of ring strain in lactone (cyclic ester) c) Vibration modes
or a lactam (cyclic amide)? d) Electron spin transitions
INFRARED SPECTROSCOPY – 2 C ≡ C → 2110
a) Increases carbonyl stretching frequency View Answer
D.B.E. → 5πbond
1. Why in the IR spectrum of Benzoyl chloride, a weak b) Decreases carbonyl stretching frequency
M.f. → C8 H6. Hence, the correct option is Phenyl Answer: b
c) Increases C = C frequency
band near 1750 cm-1 is formed? acetylene. Explanation: The phosphorescence spectrum of the
d) Decreases C = C frequency
a) Inductive effect excited species is due to triplet to singlet transitions. In an
View Answer 6. What is the relation between wave number of IR
b) Fermi resonance between C = O band and first overtone excited singlet state, the electron is promoted in the same
c) Conjugation effect absorption and the reduced mass?
Answer: a spin orientation as it was in the ground state (paired). In a
d) Hyperconjugation effect a) Wave number is directly proportional to reduced mass
Explanation: Carbonyl stretching order in both the triplet excited stated, the electron that is promoted has
View Answer b) Wave number is inversely proportional to reduced mass
compounds is 6 > 5 > 4 > 3. Ring strain increases, carbonyl the same spin orientation (parallel) to the other unpaired
c) Wave number is independent of the reduced mass
Answer: b frequency increases. electron.
d) Wave number is directly proportional to square of
Explanation: Benzoyl chloride 5. A compound C8 H6 decolorizes Br2 in CCl4 and gives a reduced mass 10. Why Monomeric saturated aliphatic carboxylic acids
white precipitate with Tollen’s reagent. It has sharp band View Answer show carbonyl stretching frequency near 1760 cm-1, while
at 3300 cm-l and weak bands at 3085, 2110 cm-l. What is saturated aliphatic ketones near 1720 cm-1?
Answer: b
this compound? a) Mesomeric (M) effect is dominant in acids over the
Explanation: v ∝ 1⁄√μ, frequency is directly proportional to
a) Phenyl acetylene inductive (I) effect
wave number. So, wave number is inversely proportional
A weak band near 1750 cm-1. Since, band is of weak b) Phenyl propylene
to reduced mass as shown in the above relation.
b) I effect is dominant in carboxylic acids over the
intensity, it must be due to fermi Resonance. So correct c) Phenyl ethylene mesomeric effect
option is Fermi resonance between C = O band and first d) Octene 7. What is the number of vibrational degrees of freedom in c) I effect on ketones is dominant over the M effect
overtone. View Answer C6H5CH3? d) M effect in ketones is dominant
a) 39 View Answer
2. Which compound having molecular formula C5H10shows Answer: a
b) 15
absorption at 1380 cm-1? Explanation: C8 H6 → Sharp band at 3300 cm-l Answer: b
c) 18
a) 2-Methyl-1-butene Weak band at 3085, 2110 cm-l Explanation: Monomeric saturated aliphatic carboxylic
d) 40
b) Cyclopentane Double bond equivalent = C + 1 – H⁄2 – X⁄2 + N⁄2, acids show carbonyl stretching frequency near 1760 cm-1,
View Answer
c) Pentyne (where C→ Carbon, H→ Hydrogen, X→ Halogen, N→ while saturated aliphatic ketones near 1720 cm-1because I
d) Methylcyclobutane Nitrogen) Answer: a effect is dominant in carboxylic acids over the mesomeric
View Answer = 8 + 1 – 6⁄2 = 6. Explanation: C6H5CH3 is nonlinear. effect.
One double bond equivalent represents either one bond
REDOX REACTIONS n × 5 = w⁄M × 2 Answer: b Answer: d
n = 180⁄90 × 2⁄5 = 4⁄5.
1. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation
given below. Here 20 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to 4. What is the mass of K2Cr2O7 required to produce 254 gm
how many mL and molarity of H2C2O4? I2 from KI solution? Given: K2Cr2O7 + 2KI → 2Cr3+ + I2
2MnO4– + 5C2O4– + 16H+ → 2Mn+1 + 10CO2 + 8H2O a) 49 g Explanation:
a) 20 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4 b) 98 g neqFe3O4 = neq K2Cr2O7
w
b) 50 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4 c) 9.8 g ⁄M × nf = 0.3 * 25 * 6
c) 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 d) 4.9 g w = (0.3×25×6×232)/1
d) 20 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 w = 10.44 g.
View Answer Answer: b
7. What is the concentration of H2O2 solution of 20 ml of
Answer: c H2O2 solution which will react completely with 10 ml of 2
Explanation: In any reaction number of equivalent reacted M KMnO4 in acidic medium?
a) 1.25 M Explanation:
are equal
∴ neq (KMnO4) = neq (C2 O42-) Explanation: b) 5 M
9. How many moles of KMnO4 are required for complete
Also, neq = n × nf neqK2Cr2O7 = neqI2 c) 2.5 M
oxidation of 1.25 mol Cu2S?
In given problem: n × nf = n × nf d) 25 M
w Cu2S → Cu+2 + SO2
∴ neq(KMnO4) = neq (C2 O42-) ⁄M × 6 = w⁄M × 2 View Answer
a) 1 mole
n × nf = (n × nf) C2 O4– w/294 × 6= 254/254 × 2
Answer: c b) 3 moles
Also, (M × V × nf ) KMnO4 = 0.1 × 20 × 5 = 10 w = 98g.
c) 2 moles
And, (n × nf) C2 O4– = 50 × 0.1 × 2 = 10 d) 5 moles
5. What is the volume of 0.05 M KMnO4 which will react
with 50 ml of 0.1 M H2S in acidic medium (H2S → S02)? View Answer
2. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then
Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of the statement is a) 60 ml Explanation: Answer: c
incorrect for this reaction? b) 6 ml
a) Na2S2O3 is oxidized c) 12 ml neq (H2O2) = neq (KMnO4)
b) CuI2 is formed d) 120 ml M × 20 × 2 = 2 × 10 × 5
c) Cu2I2 is formed View Answer Ans = 2.5 M.
d) Evolved I2 is reduced Explanation:
Answer: d 8. How many moles of KCI are required to produce 10 mol
View Answer neq (KMnO4) = neq (Cu2S)
Cl2 by the reaction with KCIO3?
n × 5 = 1.25 × 8
Answer: b a) 1.66 mole
n = 2.
Explanation: (1) KI + CuSO4 → I2 b) 13.33 mole
(2) I2 + Na2S2O3 → NaI + Na2S2O6 Explanation: c) 0.66 mole 10. What is the volume strength of H2O2 of its 11.2 ml
(a) Na2S2O3 is oxidized to Na2S2O6 neqKMnO4 = neq H2S d) 16.66 mole requires 30 ml of 0.5 M K2Cr2O7?
(b) Cu2I2 is formed as CuI2 disproportionate. M × V × nf = M × V × n f View Answer a) 35
0.05 × V × 5 = 0.1 × 50 × 6 b) 55
3. How many number of moles of KMnO4 will react with V = 120 mL. c) 25
180 gm H2C2O4 according to given reaction? d) 45
KMnO4 + H2C2O4 → 2C02 + Mn2+ 6. What is the mass of Fe304 if it reacts completely with 25
View Answer
a) 4/5 ml of 0.3m K2Cr2O7?
b) 2/5 a) 1 .44 g Answer: d
c) 1/5 b) 10.44 g Explanation: Volume strength of H2O2 = 11.2 × M H2O2=
d) 4/3 c) 104.4 g 5.6 × N H2O2
View Answer d) 14.4 g
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: neqKMnO4 = neqH2C2O4
n × nf = n × nf neq (H2O2) = neq (KMnO4)
M × 11.2 × 2 = 0.5 × 30 × 6 4. What is the oxidation state of molybdenum in *η7- 7. Which of the following complexes show easy oxidation? (ii) C–C bond order in (i) is larger than in (ii) & carbon-
M = 4.017. Therfore, Volume strength = 11.2 × 4 = 45. tropylium) Mo(CO)3]+? a) (η5-C5H5)2Fe carbon bond length in (i) is smaller.
a) +2 b) (η5-C5H5)2Ru
b) +1 c) (η5-C5H5)2Co
c) 0 d) (η5-C5H5)2Co+
ORGANOMETALLIC COMPOUNDS – 1 ORGANOMETALLIC COMPOUNDS – 2
d) -1 View Answer
1. What are oxidation states of metal ion in following View Answer 1. Which of the following statement is not true about
Answer: c
complexes? ferrocene?
I. PdCl2 Answer: c Explanation: (a) (η5-C5H5)2Fe: VEC = 8 + 5 + 5 = 18 a) decamethyl ferrocene is staggered in solid state
Explanation: Let O.S. of Mo is η. (b) (η5-C5H5)2Ru: VEC = 8 + 5 + 5 = 18
II. Pd(PPh3)4 b) cyclopentadienyl rings in ferrocene are almost eclipsed
III. Pd(OAc)2 η + (0) + 1 = +1 (c) (η5-C5H5)2Co: Since it is one e– extra of stable no., c) cyclopentadienyl ring in ferrocene are staggered
η = 0. oxidation i.e. loss of e– can take place easily, VEC = 9 + 5 +
IV. ArPdBr where Ar is aryl d) ferrocene can be nitrated by reaction with dil. HNO3
a) 2, 4, 2, 2 5 = 19 View Answer
5. Which of the following is the neutral complex which (d) (η5-C5H5)2Co+: VEC = 9 + 5 + 5 – 1 = 18.
b) 2, 0, 2, 1 follows the 18- electron rule?
c) 2, 0, 2, 2 Answer: c
a) (η5-C5H5)Fe(CO)2 8. How many M — M bonds are present in [Cp Mo(CO3)]2? Explanation: Cyclopentadienyl ring in ferrocene are
d) 0, 0, 0, 2 b) (η5-C5H5)2Mo(CO)3 a) 1
View Answer staggered is a wrong statement. Cyclopentadienyl rings in
c) (η5-C5H5)2Co b) 2 ferrocene are eclipsed.
Answer: c d) (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6) c) 0
View Answer d) 4 2. Ferrocene cannot undergo which of the following
Explanation: n → oxidation states of metal ion
View Answer reaction?
PdCl2: n – 2 = 0 ⇒ n = 2 Answer: d
Pd(PPh3)4 : Since PPh3 is neutral, Pd is in 0 Oxidation state. a) Friedal craft acylation
Explanation: Answer: c b) Diels-Alder reaction
Pd(OAc)2: n – 2 = 0 ⇒ n = 2 (a) (η5-C5H5)Fe(CO)2 Explanation: No. of M-M bonds = (18×2-
ArPdBr: n + [(–1) (–1)] ⇒ n = 2. c) Oxidation by Ag + ions
V.E.C. = 8 + 2(2) + 5 = 17 [(6+5+2×3)×2])/2=0.
d) Electrophilic substitution
((b) η5-C5H5)2Mo(CO)3
2. Which of the following complex has a highest oxidation 9. Which of the following is the incorrect statement about View Answer
state of metal? V.E.C. = 8 + 2 + 2 + 5 = 17
(c) (η5-C5H5)2Co Zeise’s salt?
a) (η6-C6H6)2Cr Answer: b
V.E.C. = 9 + 5 + 5 = 19 a) Zeise’s salt is diamagnetic
b) Mn(CO)5Cl Explanation: Ferrocene cannot undergo Diels-Alder
(d) (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6) b) Oxidation state of Pt in Zeis’s salt is +2
c) Na2[Fe(CO)4] reaction because it does not satisfy requirements of Diels-
V.E.C. = 7 + 5 + 6 = 18 c) All the Pt-Cl bond length in Zeise’s salt are equal Alder reaction (dienophile).
d) K[Mn(CO)5] d) C-C bond length of ethylene moiety in Zeise’s salt longer
The correct answer is (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6), obeys 18 e–
View Answer than that of free ethylene molecule 3. Structurally nickelocene is similar to ferrocene but how
rule.
View Answer Nickelocene attains stability?
Answer: c
6. If complex [W(Cp)2(CO)2] follows 18e- rule. What is a) due to formation of a monocation
Explanation: Oxidation State of metal: Answer: c
(a) (η6-C6H6)2Cr ⇒ 0, (b) Mn(CO)5Cl ⇒ +1 Hapticity of Cp? b) due to formation of a dication
a) 5 and 5 Explanation: C2F4 is a better π acceptor than C2H4. So,
(c) Na2[Fe(CO)4] ⇒ +2 and (d) K[Mn(CO)5] ⇒ +1 c) due to formation of a monoanion
b) 3 and 5 metal-carbon bond order is more → Bond length is less in d) due to formation of a dianion
c) 3 and 3 [PtCl3(C2F4)]– than in [PtCl3(C2H4)]–.
3. Which of the following complex is in which organic View Answer
ligand is having only bond with metal? d) 1 and 5 10. For metal olefin complexes (i) [PtCl3(C2F4)]– and (ii)
a) W(CH3)6 View Answer Answer: b
[PtCl3(C2H4)]–, which of the following is the correct Explanation: Nickelocene follows 20 e– rule. S, it attains
b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] statement?
Answer: b stability by formation of dication.
c) (η5-C5H5)2Fe a) carbon-carbon bond length is same both in (i) and (ii)
Explanation: [W(Cp)2(Co)2].
d) (η5-C6H6)2Ru b) carbon-carbon bond length in (i) is smaller
Let hapticity of one Cp ligand = x and another y 4. Which of the following is/are true about ferrocene?
View Answer c) carbon-carbon bond length in (ii) is smaller
VEC = 6 + 2(2) + x + y = 18 I. Ferrocene is diamagnetic
x + y = 18 – 10 = 8 d) a metallacycle is formed in each complex II. Dipole moment is zero
Answer: a
Out of (1,3,5) the combination that is valid is (3 + 5). View Answer III. Kealy and Pauson synthesizes ferrocene from C5H5and
Explanation: CH3 is the only ς-donor ligand while C2H4,
C5H5, C6H6 are π-acceptor ligands. freshly reduced Fe
Answer: b
at 300℃
Explanation: Since Metal-C bond order in (i) is smaller than
IV. Kealy and Pauson synthesises ferrocene from C5H5MgBr Both have deficiency of 1 e– from their stable no. Thus, Answer: b b) 1500 Å and 1000 Å
and FeCl3. [Mn(CO)5] & CH3 are isolobal. Explanation: Cis-platin does not have metal-carbon bond. c) 8000 Å and 2000 Å
The correct answer is: Therefore, cis platin not considered as organometallic d) 19000 Å and 12,000 Å
a) III and IV 7. Which of following pair is not isolobal? chemistry. View Answer
b) I, II and III only a) Mn(CO)5, CH3
c) I, II and IV only b) [Fe(CO)4], O Answer: c
d) II, III and IV only c) Mn(CO)5, Cl Explanation: The region of interest for photochemistry is
d) Mn(CO)5, O PHOTOCHEMISTRY between 8000 Å and 2000 Å of visible and ultraviolet (UV),
View Answer
View Answer 1. The fact that the fluorescence wavelength is often much are only a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Answer: b Longer wavelengths, e.g., far infrared, tend to cause the
Answer: d longer than the irradiation wavelength (Stokes shift) is a
Explanation: Ferrocene is diamagnetic, Dipole moment is consequence of which phenomenon? vibrational excitation of molecules, which results in
zero and Kealy and Pauson synthesizes ferrocene from Explanation: [Mn(CO)5], CH3 are isolobal (Deficiency of 1 e– heating. Shorter wavelength X-rays cause ionization.
) a) low extinction coefficients (Lambert-Beer law)
C5H5 and freshly reduced at 300℃. But Kealy and Pauson b) vertical transitions (Kasha’s rule)
does not synthesise ferrocene from C5H5MgBr and FeCl3. [Fe(CO)4]: VEC = 8 + 4 × 2 = 16 O → 6 4. Which of the following instruments is used to measure
Deficiency of 2e– from stable no., thus they are isolobal. c) high ISC rates (El Sayed rule) the energy of the monochromatic radiation most
5. Which type of boranes are B5H9 and B4H10respectively? [Mn(CO)5, Cl] are isolobal (Deficiency of 1 e–). d) the Franck–Condon principle accurately?
a) Nido and Arachano boranes [Mn(CO)5]: VEC = 17 (Deficiency of 1) View Answer a) Photoelectric cell
b) Nido and closo boranes O: VEC = 6 (Deficiency of 2) Answer: d b) Thermopile
c) Closo and Arachano boranes Thus, [Mn(CO)5], O are not isolobal. Explanation: The reason why Stokes shifts occur is the c) The potential detector
d) Both are Nido d) The chemical actinometer
8. According to wade’s Rule, *C2B10H12] adopts which type Franck–Condon principle, which states that a change in the
View Answer View Answer
of structure? electronic state of some molecule caused by the
Answer: a a) closo structure absorption of a photon occurs so rapidly that the motion Answer: b
Explanation: As shown below B5H9 is Nido and B4H10is b) nido structure of the nuclear coordinates during the transition can be Explanation: A thermopile is an electronic device that
Archano. SIngle-cluster boranes have the following general c) archano structure neglected. After the electronic transition is complete, the converts thermal energy into electrical energy. It is
formulae, where “n” is the number of boron atoms: Nindo- d) hypo structure molecule’s nuclear coordinates then relax into a lower- composed of several thermocouples connected usually in
BnHn+4 and Archano- BnHn+6. View Answer energy configuration in response to the change in the series or, less commonly, in parallel.
B5H9 → (BH)5H4 electronic wave function.
(2(5)+4)/2=5+x Answer: a 5. The molar extinction coefficient of B (MW = 180) is 4 x
Explanation: C2B10H12 → (BH)10H2 2. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 103 L mol-1 cm-1. One-liter solution of C which contains
x = 2, Nido
(2(10)+2)/2 = 10+x a) First step in photochemistry is excited state 0.1358 g pharmaceutical preparation of B, shows an
And, B4H10 → (BH)4H6
x = 1, Closo structure. (photoexcitation) absorbance of 0.411 in a 1 cm quartz cell. What is the
(2(4)+6)/2=6+x
b) Photochemical reactions are caused by absorption of percentage (w/w) of B in the pharmaceutical preparation?
x = 3, Archano.
9. Which property is the same for isolobal molecules? ultraviolet only a) 10.20
6. Mn(CO)5 is isolobal with which of the following a) e– capture c) When a molecule or atom in the ground state (S0) b) 13.60
compound? b) Boiling point absorbs light, one electron is excited to a higher orbital c) 20.40
a) CH4 c) Melting point level d) 29.12
b) CH3 d) Solubility d) it is possible for the excited state S1 to undergo spin
c) CH2 View Answer inversion Answer: b:
d) CH View Answer
Answer: a
View Answer
Explanation: Isolobal molecules have same deficiency of e– Answer: b
Answer: d from their stable no. Thus, they have same e–. Explanation: Photochemical reactions are caused by
Explanation: Two fragments are isolobal if the number, absorption of ultraviolet, (wavelength from 100 to 400
10. Which of the following is not considered as an nm), visible light (400 – 750 nm) or infrared radiation (750
symmetry properties, approximate energy, and shape of organometallic compound?
the frontier orbitals and the number of electrons in them – 2500 nm).
a) Ferrocene
are similar.
b) Cis-platin 3. Which regions of the light radiations of the visible 6. What are the appropriate reasons for the deviation
[Mn(CO)5+: VEC = 7 + 5 × 2 = 17 → Stable No. 18 c) Ziese’s salt ultraviolet lying between – wavelength are chiefly from the Beer’s law among the following?
CH3: VEC = 4 + 3 = 7 → Stable No. 8 d) Grignard reagent concerned in bringing about photochemical reactions? (A) Monochromaticity of light
View Answer a) 1000 Å and 2000 Å (B) Very high concentration of analyte
(C) Association of analyte Dissociation of analyte on dilution and Polychromatic light 1. What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in the 4. What is the type of reaction between alkanes and
(D) Dissociation of analyte (reflective index) will result in deviation from Beer’s law. atmosphere? hydroxyl radical?
a) A, B and D a) 3.5 x 106 ppm a) endothermic
b) B, C and D 9. The quantum efficiency of a photochemical reaction is b) 1.0 x 102 ppm b) exothermic
c) A, C and D defined as _______ c) 1.6 x 105 ppm c) isothermal
d) A, B and C a) ratio of molecules decomposed in a given time to the d) 1.0 x 103 ppm d) isochoric
View Answer number of quanta absorbed in the same time View Answer View Answer
b) number of 11101ecules decomposed in a given time
Answer: b c) number or quanta absorbed percent time Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Reasons for derivation from Beer’s law are d) ratio of’ molecules decomposed in a given time to the Explanation: The concentration of carbon dioxide is 3.5 x Explanation: Because an O-H bond is stronger than a C-H,
very high concentration of analyte, Association or number of quanta emitted in the same time 106 ppm, that makes it sixth abundant molecule in this step is exothermic.
Dissociation of analyte and Refractive index → View Answer atmosphere. CH3 CH3 + OH → CH3 CH2 + H.
Polychromatic light. Monochromaticity of light don’t have
any effect on Beer’s law. Answer: a 2. Which of the following reaction has a faster rate of 5. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
Explanation: According to the definition ratio of molecules reaction for nascent oxygen atom? oxidation number?
7. A 0.1 M solution of compound A shows 50% decomposed in a given time to the number of quanta a) Show electron density and about the tendency of an
transmittance when a cell of 1 cm width is used at λ1 nm. absorbed at the same time is the correct option. atom or molecule to engage oxidation-reduction reactions
Another 0.1 M solution of compound B gives the optical b) The oxidation number is always given in Roman
density value of 0.1761 using 1cm cell at λ1 nm. What will 10. Which of the following are the reactions in which numerals while the formal charge is always given in
be the transmittance of a solution that is simultaneously molecules absorbing light do not themselves react but numbers
0.1 M in A and 0.1 M in B using the same cell and at the induce other molecules to react? a) R1 >> R2 c) To calculate an oxidation number, it is essential to know
same wave length? [log 1.301; log 1.4771; log 50 = 1.699]. a) Free radical reactions b) R1 > R2 which element in a chemical bond is the most
a) 33.3% b) Chain reactions c) R1 << R2 electronegative
b) 50% c) Reversible reactions d) R1 < R2 d) It cannot be a negative number
c) 66.7% d) Photosensitized reactions View Answer View Answer
d) 70% View Answer
Answer: c Answer: d
View Answer
Answer: d Explanation: R1 = k1[O2] [O] and R2 = k2[H2O] [O] In the Explanation: Oxidation numbers are positive or negative
Answer: a Explanation: Photosensitized reactions is the reactions in stratosphere, oxygen atom most often reacts with numbers, but don’t confuse them with positive or negative
Explanation: Case I: Transmittance (T1) = 50% = 50⁄100= 1⁄2 which molecules absorbing light do not themselves react molecular oxygen to regenerate ozone. The troposphere, charges on ions or valences.
Case II: Optical density or Absorbance = 0.17610 but induce other molecules to react. unlike the stratosphere, contains considerable
A2 = 0.1761 concentrations of water vapor and water reacts faster with 6. With respect to enthalpy of combustion which of the
11. A substance absorbs 2.0 x 1016 quanta or radiations per following is correct?
T2 = 10-A2 = 10-0.1761 = 0.67. O than does O2.
second and 0.002 mole of it reacts in 1200 seconds. What a) ∆Hrxn = Σ∆Hf (product) – Σ∆Hf (reactant)
∴ Net Transmittance ‘T’ = T1 × T2 = 1⁄2 × 0.67 = 0.33 = 33%. is the quantum yield or the reaction (N = 6.02 x 1023)? 3. Which of the following is not true about combustion of b) ∆Hrxn = Σ∆Hf (reactant) – Σ∆Hf (product)
8. Which of the following will result in deviation from a) 50 hydrocarbons? c) ∆Hrxn = Σ∆Hf (product) + Σ∆Hf (reactant)
Beer’s law? b) 40 a) All hydrocarbons react in air to form carbon monoxide d) ∆Hrxn = 2 Σ∆Hf (product) – Σ∆Hf (reactant)
(A) Change in a refractive index of medium c) 80 and then carbon dioxide View Answer
(B) Dissociation of analyte on dilution d) 100 b) First step is always the reaction between the
(C) Polychromatic light View Answer hydrocarbon and hydroxyl radical Answer: a
(D) Path length of cuvette c) Alkanes, the hydroxyl radical abstracts a hydrogen atom Explanation: According to the definition of the enthalpy of
Answer: a combustion we compute the enthalpy of the reaction.
a) A, B and C and forms a carbanion
Explanation: Because the enthalpy is a thermodynamic state function, it
b) B, C and D d) With alkenes and alkynes, the electron-deficient
No. of quanta of radiations absorbed in 1200 seconds = 2 × doesn’t depend on the pathway.
c) A, C and D hydroxyl radical adds to the multiple bond
1016 × 1200 So, ∆Hrxn = Σ∆Hf (product) – Σ∆Hf (reactant).
d) A, B and D View Answer
View Answer 7. Equal volumes of C2H2 & H2 are combusted under
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: With alkanes, the hydroxyl radical abstracts a identical condition. What will be the ratio of heat evolved
Explanation: Change in a refractive index of medium, hydrogen atom and forms a carbon-centered radical. for C2H2 and H2?
H2 (g) + 1/2 O2(g) → H2O(g), ∆H=-241.8 KJ
COMBUSTION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
C2H2 (g) + 5/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g), ∆H=-1300 KJ 10. Which of the following is the slow, low-temperature, the following case:
a) 5.37/1 flameless form of combustion, sustained by the heat
b) 1/5.37 evolved when oxygen directly attacks the surface of a b)
c) 1/1 condensed-phase fuel?
d) 2.8/6.1 a) Rapid combustion
View Answer b) Turbulent combustion 3. Which of the reagent will give effective transformation c)
c) Spontaneous combustion of given compounds?
Answer: b d) Smouldering
Explanation: View Answer d)
View Answer
Answer: d
a) CH2N2
Explanation: Smouldering occurs on the surface of the Answer: c
b) CH3Li
solid rather than in the gas phase. Smouldering is a surface Explanation: LiAlH4 will reduce double bond into single
c) (CH3)2CuLi
8. The heat of combustion of carbon is 394 KJ/mol. What phenomenon but can propagate to the interior of a porous bond and aldehyde group into alcohol.
d) Ph3P = CH2
will be the heat evolved in combustion of 6.023 x fuel if it is permeable to flow.
View Answer
1022atoms of carbon? The characteristic temperature and heat released during
a) 64.7 KJ smouldering are low compared to those in the flaming Answer: d
b) 39.4 KJ combustion. Explanation: Ph3P = CH2 will give the most effective
c) 42.4 KJ transformation of ketone into alkene (Wittig reaction). The 6. Which is the correct combination of reagent which can
d) 91.6 KJ Wittig reaction is a popular method for the synthesis of carry out following conversion?
View Answer alkene from ketones and aldehydes. The Wittig reagent
REAGENTS IN ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
can generally tolerate carbonyl compounds containing
Answer: b
1. Which is the suitable catalyst for bringing out the several kinds of functional groups such as OH, OR,
Explanation:
transformation given below? aromatic nitro and even ester groups.
a) (i) CH3 – MgBr then H+ (ii) H2S04 / ∆ (iii) NH2 – NH2 / KOH
4. Which is the mildest reducing agent which reduces only
b) (i) (CH3)2 CuLi then H+ (ii) NaBH4 EtOH (iii) H2S04 / ∆
carbonyl group in presence of nitro, carboxyl, double bond
c) (i) CH3 – Li, then H+ (ii) PCC / ∆
and ester groups?
a) BF3. Et20 d) (i) NaBH4 ∙ CeCl3 then H+ (ii) MnO2 (iii) CH3 – Li
a) LiAIH4
9. The value ∆H transition of C (graphite) → C (diamond) is b) NaOEt View Answer
b) Na-NH3
1.9 kJ/mol at 25℃ entropy of graphite is higher than c) tungsten lamp
c) NaBH4 Answer: c
entropy of diamond. This implies that: d) dibenzoyl peroxide
d) H2-Ni Explanation: Here CH3 will attack at C=O and dehydration
a) C(diamond) is more thermodynamically stable then C View Answer
View Answer will take pass and again water will attack at meta position
(graphite) at 25℃
b) C(graphite) is more thermodynamically stable than C Answer: a as a nucleophile at the ring. PCC will covert -OH into =O.
Answer: c
(diamond) at 25℃ Explanation: BF3 increases the electrophilicity of carbonyl
Explanation: NaBH4 is mild reducing agent for this
c) diamond will provide more heat on complete carbon due to which sulphur attacks on carbonyl carbon.
conversion. It is very effective for the reduction of
combustion at 25℃ aldehydes and ketones to alcohols. By itself, it will
2. Which of the will give effective reduction of 3-hexyne to
d) ∆Gtransition of C (diamond) → C (graphite) is -ve generally not reduce esters, carboxylic acids, or amides
trans-3-hexene? 7. How acetophenone can be converted to phenol by
View Answer (although it will reduce acyl chlorides to alcohols).
a) H2/Lindlar’s catalyst reaction?
Answer: d b) Na/liq. NH3 a) m-CPBA followed by base catalysed hydrolysis
5. What will be the product for the given reactant and
Explanation: C(graphite) → C(diamond) trans ∆H = 1.9 kJ c) Fe/NaCl b) conc. HN03
reagents?
/mole d) DIBAL c) iodine and NaOH
Sgraphite > Sdiamond View Answer d) Singlet oxygen followed by base catalysed hydrolysis
As, Sgraphite is higher so C (graphite) is more stable. product
Answer: b
Diamond will provide more heat on complete combustion View Answer
Explanation: Na/liq. NH3 will give an effective reduction for
because it is more stable and have 3–D structure.
C diamond → Cgraphite Answer: a
∆Gtransition = -ve then process is spontaneous. a) Explanation:
 haloform reaction. The more adjacent methyl groups there are, the larger electronegative Oxygen is present it will decrease electron
hyperconjugation stabilization is because of the increased
number of adjacent C–H bonds.
density of C+.
2. Which one among the following carbocations has the
m-CPBA can convert ketone into amide and after ester
longest half-life? 4. Which of the following is most stable intermediate?
hydrolysis it is reduced into phenol.

8. How can we prepare RR’ R” OH by the action of excess

of a suitable Grignard reagent on which of the following 10. How many isomers of C4H8O when reacts with a)
reactants? CH3MgBr followed by acidification to alcohol (only a)
a) nitrile or an aldehyde consider carbonyl isomers and Including stereoisomers)?
b) ester or an alcohol a) 2
c) aldehyde or a ketone b) 3 b)
d) ketone or an ester c) 4 b)
View Answer d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a c)
Explanation: Preparation of 3o alcohol from ketone and Answer: a c)
ester by the action of excess of a suitable Grignard reagent Explanation:
is carried out as shown below: d)
View Answer
d)
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: Higher the stability of cation more will be its
Answer: c
half-life. As, in the carbocation, p orbital overlap with the
Explanation: Stabilized by +M effect of OH and
compound, will be more stabilizing factor than
hyperconjugation effect (5αH).
aromaticity.
5. Which intermediate is involved in the reaction given
3. The order of decreasing stability of the following cations
below?
9. What is used to carry out the following conversion? is:
REACTION INTERMEDIATES (I) CH3C+HCH3 (II) CH3C+HOCH3 (III) CH3C+HCOCH3
a) III > II > I
1. Which carbocation is the most stable? b) I > II > III
c) II > I > III
a) hydroboration oxidation followed by Jones oxidation d) I > III > II
b) Wacker oxidation followed by haloform reaction View Answer a) free radical
a)
c) oxymercuration-determination followed by Jones b) carbocation
oxidation Answer: a
c) carbanion
d) ozonolysis followed by haloform reaction Explanation: (II) Here, Mesomeric effect stabilizes
d) carbene
b) carbocation. So, it is highly stabilized.
View Answer View Answer

Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The transformation of a terminal or 1,2- c)
Explanation: As we can see, in first step in presence to
disubstituted alkene to a ketone through the action of light carbene is formed.
catalytic palladium(II), water, and a co-oxidant. Because of (I) It is stabilized by hyperconjugation.
the ease with which terminal alkenes may be prepared d)
and the versatility of the methyl ketone group installed by View Answer
the reaction, the Wacker oxidation has been employed
extensively in organic synthesis. This is followed by Answer: b
(III) It is destabilized as because of carbonyl group; more
Explanation: This is stabilized by extended conjugation.
6. Among the following which is most stabilized cation? d) a nucleophile becomes attracted to a full or partial
positive charge
View Answer
a) Answer: c
(III) It is destabilized by –M and less –I effect. Explanation: Because nucleophiles donate electrons, they
are by definition Lewis bases.
b) a) I > III > II > IV
b) II > III > IV > I 2. Which halogen nucleophile is weakest in polar, aprotic
c) III > IV > II > I solvents?
d) I > III > IV > II a) I–
c) View Answer b) F–
(IV) There is no destabilisation by group. c) Cl–
Answer: a d) Br–
Explanation: Mesomeric effect will stabilize carbocation is View Answer
d)
highly stable.
View Answer Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: In polar, aprotic solvents, I– the weakest and
Explanation: The positive charge of carbon will be this is reversed in polar, protic solvents.
stabalised by mesomeric effect of -NH2 group. 10. What is the correct decreasing order of stability of
following cation? 3. Which of the following nucleophile can be used for
7. Arrange the following intermediate into decreasing partial enolization 1,3-Dicarbonyl compound?
order of stability. a) Lithium di-isopropyl amide (LDA)
b) Et-O–
9. What is the correct decreasing order of stability of c) Weak base like NaOH
following cation? d) Sodium acetate
View Answer
a) I > II > III > IV
Answer: d
b) I > IV > II > III
a) I > II > III > IV Explanation: Sodium acetate will do partial enolization of
c) I > III > II > IV
b) II > IV > III > I 1,3-Dicarbonyl compound. Weak base like NaOH and Et-O–
d) IV > III > II > I
will form an alcohol and LDA will do complete enolization.
c) II > I > IV > III View Answer
d) II > I > III > IV
a) II > III > I > IV Answer: c
View Answer
b) IV > II > III > I stability order IExplanation: High +I, > III > II > IV.
Answer: d c) IV > III > I > II
Explanation: Mesomeric effect will stabilize carbocation is d) III > I > II > IV 4. What will be the number of products (excluding
highly stable. View Answer stereoisomers) in the given reaction?
+M effect of –NH2 > –OH C6H5CHO + CH3-CHO + NaOH → Product
Answer: b a) One
Explanation: b) Three
(I) It is destabilized by –M and high –I effect. c) Two
d) Four
NUCLEOPHILES
View Answer
1. Which of the following is not true about nucleophile?
Answer: c
a) donates an electron pair to an electrophile to form a
Explanation: First product will be formed by cross aldol
8. Arrange the following intermediate into decreasing chemical bond
(II) It is destabilized by –I nature only at meta position –M where nucleophile (–OH) will attack at different type or
order of stability. b) all molecules or ions with a free pair of electrons or at
effect. reactant molecule.
least one pi bond can act as nucleophiles
c) nucleophile are Lewis acids by definition
 b) BH3 Answer: b 3. Which of the following is not an electrophile?
c) Br2 Explanation: In polar, aprotic solvents, F– strongest is the a) (CH3)4N+
d) HBr nucleophile, and I– the weakest. b) Cl2
View Answer c) HBr
10. Which of the following cannot react as a nucleophile? d) Br2
Answer: a a) CH3NH2 View Answer
Explanation: Less electronegative atoms make better b) (CH3)2NH
Second type of product will be formed aldol condensation nucleophiles as they are more willing to share electrons. c) (CH3)3N Answer: a
where reaction will occur between same type of molecule. d) (CH3)4N+ Explanation: The ammonium ion cannot react at the N
7. Which of the following statements is true about View Answer with a nucleophile because the N already has an octet of
ammonia and water? electrons.
a) ammonia is more basic and more nucleophilic than Answer: d
water Explanation: Nucleophile donates electron to the 4. Which of the following is not an electrophile?
b) ammonia is less basic and less nucleophilic than water electrophiles and there is no lone pair present on nitrogen a) H2O
c) ammonia is more basic but less nucleophilic than water (CH3)4N+, so donation of electron is not possible. b) Cl2
d) ammonia is less basic but more nucleophilic than water c) HBr
View Answer d) Br2
5. Where will nucleophile (-OH) will attack to form which
ELECTROPHILES View Answer
of the following the product X? Answer: a
Explanation: Because oxygen is more electronegative than Answer: c
1. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
nitrogen, it holds onto its lone pairs more tightly than Explanation: Hydrogen bromide is a strong acid, it is able
electrophiles?
nitrogen, and hence is less likely to donate its lone pairs to to donate a proton to a molecule or anion with a
a) Electrophiles are positively charged or neutral species
form a covalent bond with a carbon atom during a having vacant orbitals nucleophilic site.
nucleophilic attack.
a) b) The electrophiles are attacked by the most electron- 5. In the given molecule where will electrophile will
8. Which of the following statements is true about the populated part of one nucleophile attack?
following two anionic molecules? c) Chemical species that do not satisfy the octet rule such
as carbenes and radicals are electrophiles
b)
d) Electrophiles are Lewis base
View Answer

c) Answer: d a) I
Explanation: Because electrophiles accept electrons, they b) II
a) I is more basic and more nucleophilic than II c) III
are Lewis acids not Lewis base, according to Acid-Base
b) I is less basic and less nucleophilic than II d) IV
reaction theories.
d) c) I is more basic but less nucleophilic than II View Answer
View Answer d) I is less basic but more nucleophilic than II 2. In addition of halogen (Bromine) to an alkene, how can
View Answer we isolate a bromonium in the reaction? Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: -CH3O is a +M group, so it has lone pair to
a) increasing concentration of bromide ion
Explanation: Nucleophile (-OH) will attack at carbon Answer: c donate to upcoming electrophile.
b) decreasing concentration of bromide ion
adjacent to carbonyl bond and form the below product. Explanation: Larger atoms make better nucleophiles due
c) alkene with cation stabilising groups
to polarizability so II containing S will be more nucleophilic 6. In the given molecule where will electrophile will
d) alkene with less electrophilic centre
than I but less basic. attack?
View Answer
9. Which halide ion is the best nucleophile in dimethyl
Answer: c
sulfoxide solution?
Explanation: A bromo-carbenium ion intermediate may be
a) I–
predominant instead of vicinyl dibromide if the alkene has
b) F–
a cation-stabilizing substituent like phenyl group. There is a) I
c) Cl–
an example of the isolation of the bromonium ion. b) II
6. Which reagent is a good nucleophile? d) Br–
c) III
a) NH3 View Answer
d) IV Answer: b make the ring less electron dense, hence more reactive in
View Answer Explanation: Because the non-polar solvent (i.e. CCl4) an aromatic electrophilic substitution as compared to
induces a weaker dipole in Br-Br as compared to the polar electron withdrawing group (benzoic acid, nitrobenzene,
Answer: a solvent (i.e. water), a weaker electrophile (Br+) is aniline).
Explanation: -OCOR is a +M group, it is more electron rich produced that undergoes electrophilic aromatic
than rest of the groups, so it has lone pair to donate to a) 3-Bromophenol substitution with the benzene ring. Consequently, we get 5. What will be the product in the given reaction?
upcoming electrophile. b) 4- Bromophenol mono-bromination with Br (in CCl4) with compared with
c) 3,5-Dibromophenol tri-bromination Br (in aq.).
7. Which of the following is most readily undergo
d) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol
electrophilic attack? 2. What is the electrophile in the electrophilic substitution
View Answer
reaction of benzene using oleum and conc. H2SO4?
Answer: d a) m-chlorophenol
a) SO3
b) o-chlorophenol and p-chlorophenol
Explanation: The polar solvent (i.e. water) induces a b) NO3
stronger dipole in Br-Br. A stronger electrophile (Br+) is c) o-hydroxytoluene and p-hydroxytoluene
c) NO2+
d) m-hydroxytoluene
produced that undergoes electrophilic aromatic d) NO+
substitution with the benzene ring more readily. View Answer
View Answer
Consequently, you get tri-bromination with Br(aq.). Answer: c
a) I
Answer: a
b) II Explanation: -OH is a ortho and para directing group so
10. Which ring will readily undergo electrophilic attack? Explanation: This reaction is sulphonation of benzene ring
c) III attack of electrophile (carbocation- CH3) will attack there,
in which SO3 is the real attacking electrophile and oleum
d) IV as shown below:
will increase the concentration of SO3.
View Answer
3. What will be the attacking electrophile in this reaction?
Answer: a
Explanation: I is most reactive towards electrophilic attack,
as -OH is +M group therefore, here benzene will have
more e- density than rest of the others. a) I
b) II 6. What is the electrophile in the acylation of benzene?
8. What is the correct order for the rate of reaction for the c) III a) Carbanion a) AlCl3
electrophilic attack of the given compounds? b) Halonium
d) Both I and III b) CO+
View Answer c) Radical c) Cl+
d) Transition state d) R-CO+
Answer: b View Answer View Answer
Explanation: Due to the presence of -NH2 group electron
will be transferred to the C of -CONH2 group and that’s Answer: b Answer: d
why it will not withdraw electron from benzene ring. So, Explanation: In halogenation of benzene ring halonium ion Explanation: The electrophile in the electrophilic
electron density of ring II is most in all three rings and that (Cl+) will attack at benzene ring. substitution reaction of acetyl chloride (CH3COCl) and
a) I > II > III is why electrophile will attack at ring II. AlCl3 reacting with benzene is R-CO+.
b) II > I > III 4. Which of the following aromatic compounds undergo
c) I < II < III Friedel–Crafts alkylation with methyl chloride and 7. How would you synthesis the following reaction?
d) III > I > II aluminum chloride?
ELECTROPHILIC AROMATIC SUBSTITUTION a) Benzoic acid
View Answer
b) Nitrobenzene
1. What will be the product formed when phenol reacts
Answer: b c) Toluene
with Br2 in CCl4 medium?
Explanation: Electronegativity trend is N < O < F, so III is d) Aniline a) conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4
a) 3-Bromophenol
the least electron rich ring therefore least favourable for View Answer b) conc. HNO3
b) 4- Bromophenol
electrophilic attack. Similarly, II is the most electron rich c) anhydrous AlCl3 + Ph-NO2
c) 3,5-Dibromophenol Answer: c
ring therefore most favourable for electrophilic attack. d) conc. H2SO4 + Oleum
d) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol Explanation: Toluene will undergo Friedel–Crafts alkylation View Answer
9. Which of the following is the product for the given View Answer with methyl chloride and aluminum chloride as because as
reaction? weak electron withdrawing functional group — will not
Answer: a
Explanation: This reaction is nitration of benzene and conc.
HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 is used to carry out this synthesis
although HNO2 + HNO3 can also be used.
8. Which of the following reactants can be used to carry
out following reaction?
a negative charge on the ortho and para positions. These
positions are thus the most reactive towards an electron-
poor electrophile. The highest electron density is located
on both ortho and para positions, although this increased
reactivity might be offset by steric hindrance between
substituent and electrophile.
Answer: b
Explanation: So, applying the equation,
∆H = ∑∆H (bonds broken in reactants) − ∑∆H (bonds made in products)
ΔH reaction = (436+158)–(2X568) = −542kJ
The overall enthalpy of the reaction is negative, i.e., it’s an
exothermic reaction where energy is released in the form
of heat.
Answer: c
Explanation: The enthalpy change of a reaction is the
overall change in enthalpy as a reaction proceeds, taking
into account the energy consumed by bond cleavage and
the energy liberated by bond formation. The increase in
disorder of the system is represented by its entropy, not
its enthalpy.

4. Compound undergoing homolytic bond cleavage will 7. Which of the following terms describes a reaction in
BOND CLEAVAGE lead to formation of which chemical species? where more energy is released by bond formation than is
1. When a bond is dissociated, what is the change in a) Anion consumed by bond cleavage?
a) conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 b) Cation a) Exothermic
energy in surrounding?
b) HCl + CO + AlCl3 a) Energy is absorbed c) Free radical b) Endothermic
c) anhydrous AlCl3 + Ph-NO2 d) Atoms c) Isothermal
b) Energy is released
d) conc. H2SO4 + Oleum c) No change in energy View Answer d) Adiabatic
View Answer d) Firstly, energy will be absorbed and then released View Answer
Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: During homolytic fission of a neutral molecule Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: This is Gattermann Koch Reaction in which Answer: a with an even number of electrons, two free radicals will be Explanation: Exothermic is the flow of energy out of the
HCl + CO + AlCl3 are used as reactant. H-CO+ is the real Explanation: When a chemical bond is broken energy will
generated. system to its surroundings. By contrast endothermic’
attacking electrophile. describes a reaction in which there is a flow of energy into
be absorbed from surrounding and this is called as bond 5. In which form energy is stored in chemical bonds? the system from its surrounding.
dissociation energy. a) Kinetic energy
9. What will be the product in the given reaction?
b) Chemical energy 8. Which energy is required for homolytic cleavage?
2. Energy released or absorbed in a chemical bond
c) Potential energy a) Singlet
formation or dissociation is measured in which of the
d) Thermal energy b) Doublet
following units?
a) Kelvin View Answer c) Triplet
a) m-chlorotoluene d) Quadruplet
b) Joule Answer: c
b) o-chlorotoluene and p-chlorotoluene View Answer
c) Pascal Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics essentially
c) 1-chloro-3-methylbenzene
d) mol states that the total energy in a chemical universe is Answer: c
d) no reaction
View Answer constant but it can be converted from one form to Explanation: The triplet excitation energy of a sigma bond
View Answer
Answer: b another. The energy stored in chemical bonds is also a is the energy required for homolytic dissociation, but the
Answer: d type of potential (stored) energy, not a type of kinetic actual excitation energy may be higher than the bond
Explanation: Energy is measured in Joules (J). However, we
Explanation: Here no reaction will take place because energy. dissociation energy due to the repulsion between
often express the quantity as kilojoules (kJ) – that is, the
CCl4 + Cl2 show addition reaction and benzene don’t give electrons in the triplet state.
value in Joules divided by 1000. 6. Which one of the following statements best describes
addition reaction.
3. What will be the change in energy for the following the enthalpy change of a reaction? 9. Which energy is required for heterolytic cleavage?
10. Which of the following is the most activating in a) The energy released when chemical bonds are formed a) Singlet
reaction?
electrophilic aromatic substitution? during a chemical reaction b) Doublet
H2(g)+F2(g)→ 2HF
a) -NO2 b) The energy consumed when chemical bonds are broken c) Triplet
Given: To break one mole of H2, energy absorbed is 436 kJ.
b) -NHCOCH3 during a chemical reaction d) Quadruplet
To break one mole of F2, energy absorbed is 158 kJ. To
c) -CN c) The difference between the energy released by bond View Answer
form one moles of HF, energy released is 568 kJ.
d) -NH2 formation and the energy consumed by bond cleavage
a) 542KJ Answer: a
View Answer during a chemical reaction
b) -542KJ Explanation: The singlet excitation energy of a sigma bond
d) The increase in disorder of the system as a reaction
Answer: d c) 26 KJ is the energy required for heterolytic dissociation, but the
proceeds
Explanation: Groups with unshared pairs of electrons, such d) -26 KJ actual singlet excitation energy may be lower than the
View Answer View Answer
as the amino group of aniline, are strongly activating and bond dissociation energy of heterolysis as a result of the
ortho/para-directing by resonance. Such activating groups Coulombic attraction between the two ion fragments.
donate those unshared electrons to the pi system, creating
10. How the bond dissociation enthalpy changes as one What will be the ratio of the new rate of the earlier rate of depend on concentration of reactant & product (only on 8. Which is not true for a second order reduction?
goes along the series of diatomics Li2, B2, C2, N2, O2 and F2? the reaction? nature of reactant & product). a) It can have rate constant 1 x 10-2 L mol-1 s-1
a) Increases a) (1⁄2)m+n b) Its half-life is inversely proportional to its initial
b) Decreases b) m+n 5. The rate of reaction, A + B Products, is given by the concentration
c) Increases then decreases c) n-m equation, r = k[A][B]. If B is taken in excess, what would be c) Time to complete 75% reaction is twice of half-life
d) Decreases then increases d) 2n-m the order of reaction? d) T50 = 1/(ka⋅A0)
View Answer View Answer a) 2 View Answer
b) 1
Answer: c Answer: d c) zero Answer: c
Explanation: On going Li2, B2, C2, N2, O2, F2 the complexity d) unpredictable Explanation:
of the molecular orbitals changes as the p-orbitals can View Answer
interact with each other end on to give ς-bonding and ς-
antibonding molecular orbitals OR they can interact side- Answer: b
ways on to give π-bonding and π-antibonding molecular Explanation: A + B → Products
orbitals that come in degenerate (equal energy) pairs. H = k[A][B] [if B is taken in large excess then according to
Electrons continue to be added according to aufbau, Pauli pseudo first order reaction. B is taken as constant]. So,
& Hund. order = 1.
Explanation:
6. In a reaction, 2A2 + B2 → 2A2B, when the reactant A will
3. Rate = If the volume of reaction vessel is suddenly disappear?
REACTION KINETICS reduced to 1/4th of initial value. How new rate will be a) half the rate that B will decrease
b) the same rate that B will decrease but t75 = 3 * t50
affected?
1. For reaction system given below, volume is suddenly c) double the rate that A2B will form So, option Time to complete 75% reaction is twice of half-
a) 1⁄10
reduced to half of its value by increasing the pressure on d) twice the rate that B will decrease life is wrong statement for n = 2.
b) 1⁄8
it. If the reaction is of first order with respect to O2 and View Answer
c) 8 9. The rate of decomposition of a substance increases
second order with respect to NO, what will be the change
d) 16 concentration of substance at same temperature. Find out
in the rate of reaction? Answer: d
View Answer order of reaction.
2NO(g) + O2(g) + 2NO2(g)
a) diminish to one-fourth of its initial value a) 1
Answer: d
b) diminish to one-eight of its initial value b) 2
Explanation:
c) increase to eight times of its initial value c) 3
d) increase to four times of its initial value d) 0
View Answer View Answer

Answer: c Explanation: Answer: b

So, the reactant A will disappear when A is twice the rate Explanation: Rate = k [A]α
that B will decrease. R1 = k[A]n
R2 = k [1.5 A]n = 2.25 R1
7. The rate of reaction that does not involve gases, is not k(1.5A)n = 2.25*k*[A]n
dependent on: (1.5)n * [A]n = 2.25*[A]n
4. On which factor the rate constant of a reaction does not a) pressure n log (1.5) = log (2.25)
depend upon? b) temperature n = 2.
a) temperature c) concentration
b) activation energy d) catalyst 10. If a reaction is nth order the half-life period ________
c) catalyst View Answer of the initial concentration of the reactants.
d) concentration of reactants and products a) is independent
Explanation: Answer: a
View Answer b) varies inversely as (n-1)th power
Explanation: The rate of reaction that does not involve c) varies inversely as nth power
2. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A Answer: d gases does not depend on pressure. d) varies directly as (n-1)th power
and B is given by rate = K[A]n [B]m. On doubling the Explanation: The rate constant of reaction does not
concentration of A and halving the concentration of B. View Answer
Answer: b The nascent hydrogen formed by the reaction between 7. Why alkyl halides are considered to be very reactive b) PCl5
zinc and HCl acid reduces ethyl chloride to ethane. compounds towards nucleophile? c) SOCl2/ Pyridine
a) they have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group d) PCl3
Explanation: For nth order; So, varies 4. Which alkyl halide out of the following may follow both b) they have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group View Answer
inversely as (n – 1)th power. SN1 and SN2 mechanism? c) they have an electrophilic carbon
a) CH3-X d) they have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving Answer: c
b) (CH3)2CH-X group Explanation: The best method of preparation of alkyl
HALOGEN CONTAINING ORGANIC COMPOUNDS c) (CH3)3C-X View Answer halides is a reaction of alcohol with SOCl2/ Pyridine
d) (CH3)3C-CH2-X because by-products formed in the reaction are SO2and
ALKYL HALIDES View Answer Answer: d HCl which are in gaseous form and escape into the
Explanation: Alkyl halides are considered to be very atmosphere leaving behind pure alkyl chlorides.
1. Which C-X bond has the highest bond energy per mole? Answer: b reactive compounds towards nucleophile because they CH3CH2−OH + SOCl2 → CH3CH2−Cl + SO2↑ + HCl↑
a) C-Br Explanation: (CH3)2CH-X follows both SN1 and SN2 have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group as we
b) C-Cl mechanism because the second CH3 of (CH3)2CH-X further go down the periodic table, halides that are larger in size
c) C-F blocks a nucleophile (such as: OH) in backside SN2 attack, will also be able to distribute their charge over a larger ARYL HALIDES
d) C-I but it increases the stability of the carbocation resulting volume, making them less reactive (less basic). This is why
View Answer from SN1 ionization. As a result, SN1 and SN2 mechanisms fluoride is a much poorer leaving group than any of the 1. Dehydrohalogenation of 1,2 di-bromo cyclohexane gives
are sometimes competitive for (CH3)2CH-X. other halides. So, alkyl halides are good for nucleophilic which of the following compound?
Answer: c
Explanation: Bond energies depend on many factors: 5. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with two moles substitution reactions.
electron affinities, sizes of atoms involved in the bond, of sodium in the presence of ether what will be formed? a)
8. In primary alkyl halides, carbon attached to the halogen
differences in their electronegativity, and the overall a) 2 moles of ethane atom is further attached to how many carbon atoms?
structure of the molecule. There is a general trend in that b) 1 moles of ethane a) 1
the shorter the bond length, the higher the bond energy. c) 2 moles of butane b)
b) 2
d) 1 moles of butane c) 3
2. Which alkyl halide has the highest reactivity for a
View Answer d) 4
particular alkyl group? c)
a) R-F View Answer
Answer: d
b) R-Cl Explanation: Wurtz reaction is method of preparation of Answer: a
c) R-I higher alkanes from lower alkyl halides. This is coupling d)
Explanation: As we can see below, carbon attached to the
d) R-Br reaction. In this reaction alkyl halides are reacted with View Answer
halogen atom is further attached to one carbon atom.
View Answer sodium metal in presence of dry ether and higher alkanes Example: CH3-X → Methyl halide
with even number of carbon atoms only are formed, by Answer: a
Answer: c CH3-CH2-X → Ethyl halide
this method. Explanation: As we can see in below reaction that double
Explanation: Reactivity order for the alkyl halides towards CH3-CH2-CH2-X → n-Propyl halide. E2 elimination yields the conjugated diene, 1,3-
Sn2 reaction is R-I>R-Br>R-Cl>R-F. This can be explained by 6. Which of the following halide can give best SN2 cyclohexadiene. Note the overall transformation is alkene
9. Which of the following is not the method of preparation
which halogen atom is a better leaving group compared to reaction? to conjugated diene.
of alkyl halide?
the other. a) Primary alkyl halide a) Darzen’s method
b) Tertiary alkyl halide b) Halogenation of alkene
3. When ethyl chloride reacts with nascent hydrogen, what
c) Secondary alkyl halide c) Addition of HX on alkenes
is the formed product?
d) All can give SN2 reaction at same rate d) Hydration of alkene
a) Methane
View Answer View Answer
b) Propane
c) Butane Answer: a Answer: d
d) Ethane Explanation: A 1° alkyl halide has only one alkyl group, so it 2. Which one of the following possess highest melting
Explanation: Hydration of alkene is electrophilic addition
View Answer is relatively unstable. It is unlikely to form a 1° carbocation point?
of H2O to alkenes which forms alcohol not alkyl halides.
in an SN1 reaction. Instead, it will take the lower-energy a) Chlorobenzene
Answer: d b) o-dichlorobenzene
SN2 path as 1° alkyl is sterically unhindered. More the 10. Which of the following reactant gives the best method
Explanation: When an alkyl halide is treated with zinc and c) m-dichlorobenzene
steric hinderance the substrate becomes less susceptible of preparation of alkyl halides when reacts with alcohol?
hydrochloric acid, it is reduced to the respective alkane. d) p-dichlorobenzene
to SN2 attack. a) Zn/HCl
View Answer
Answer: d 5. What will be the product for the following reaction? b) Benzene a) Nickel
Explanation: p-dichlorobenzene molecule has symmetrical c) 1, 4-difluorobenzene b) AlCl3
structure. It can fit well in its crystal lattice. The d) 1, 3-difluorobenzene c) Bright sunlight
intermolecular forces of attraction are strong. Hence, it View Answer d) Zinc
possesses highest melting point. View Answer
Answer: a
3. What would be the product formed for the following Explanation: In this reaction aniline is to be treated with Answer: c
reaction? nitrous acid to form benzene diazonium chloride, which is Explanation: Benzene will react with three molecules of
further reacted with HBF₄ to form benzene diazonium chlorine in the presence of sunlight to give benzene
a) fluorobarate. This is when heated, undergoes hexachloride.
decomposition to give fluorobenzene. This reaction is
a)
called as Balz-Shiemann reaction.

8. What is the name of the following reaction? POLYHALOGEN DERIVATIVES

b)
1. What will be the product for the given reaction?
b) a) CCl3CHO
b) C6H6Cl6
c) c) C6H12Cl6
c) d) C6H9Cl2
View Answer
a) Chlorination
b) Sandmeyer’s reaction Answer: b
d) c) Perkin reaction Explanation: Benzyl hexachloride will be formed when
View Answer d)
d) Substitution reaction Benzene reacts with chlorine in presence of U.V light.
View Answer
Answer: d View Answer C6H6 + 3Cl2 + U.V light → C6H6Cl6
Explanation: When 1-Bromo-3-chloro cyclobutane reacts Answer: a Benzene BHC
Answer: b
with two equivalents of metallic sodium in ether it is the Explanation: −CCl3 is a m-directing group. So, attack will be
Explanation: The substitution of an aromatic amino group 2. The molecular formula of DDT has how many chlorine
example of Wurtz reaction. at meta position.
is possible via preparation of its diazonium salt and atoms?
6. Which of the following is true about chlorobenzene? subsequent displacement with a nucleophile (Cl–, I–, CN–, a) 5 chlorine atoms
a) Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzyl chloride RS–, HO–) is known as Sandmeyer’s reaction. b) 2 chlorine atoms
b) Chlorobenzene is more reactive than ethyl bromide c) 3 chlorine atoms
9. Which of the following is the commercial method of d) 4 chlorine atoms
c) Chlorobenzene is nearly as reactive as methyl chloride
preparation of Chlorobenzene? View Answer
4. Which of these can be used as moth repellent? d) Chlorobenzene is more reactive than isopropyl chloride
a) Raschig process
a) Benzene hexachloride View Answer
b) Wurtz Fitting reaction Answer: a
b) Benzal chloride
Answer: a c) Friedel-Crafts reaction Explanation: As we can in below molecular structure of
c) Hexachloroethane
Explanation: Chlorobenzene is less reactive than benzyl d) Grignard reaction
d) Tetrachloroethane
chloride. In chlorobenzene the lone pairs present on Cl View Answer
View Answer
atom get involved in resonance with π electrons of
Answer: a
Answer: c benzene due to which C−Cl bond acquires double bond
Explanation: An industrial process for making
Explanation: Hexachloroethane can be used as moth character Hence, reactivity decreases. C2H5−Cl is more
chlorobenzene (and phenol) by a gas-phase reaction DDT has 5 chlorine atoms.
repellent. It has also been used as a plasticizer for cellulose reactive than C6H5−CH2−Cl.
between benzene vapour, hydrogen chloride, and oxygen
esters in place of camphor, a polymer additive, a 3. What is the IUPAC name of chloroform?
7. In the below process what is the product A? (air) at 230°C. The catalyst is copper(II) chloride.
component of fungicidal and insecticidal formulations, in a) Dichloromethane
2C6H6 + 2HCl + O2 → 2H2O + 2C6H5Cl
the formulation of extreme pressure lubricants, and in the b) Trichloromethane
manufacture of fire extinguishing fluids. 10. Benzene reacts with chlorine to form benzene c) Chloromethane
hexachloride in presence of which of the following d) Carbon tetrachloride
reactant? View Answer
a) Fluorobenzene
Answer: b methylene dichloride the correct molecular formula is 10. Which is the correct formula of Freon-12? b) Ethyl benzoate
Explanation: Chloroform, or trichloromethane, is an a) CCl2F2 c) 4,4-dimethylcyclohexanone
organic compound with formula CHCl3. It is a colorless, b) CClF3 d) 4-heptanone
sweet-smelling, dense liquid that is produced on a large c) CHCl2F View Answer
scale as a precursor to PTFE. CH2Cl2. d) CCl3F
View Answer Answer: d
4. Which among the following is true? 7. Central nervous system can be depressed by the use of Explanation: 4-heptanone does not give a tertiary alcohol
a) Freon does not initiate radical chain reactions in which of the following: Answer: a upon reaction with methylmagnesium bromide, as the
stratosphere a) Chloroform Explanation: As we can see below molecular diagram of Grignard Reaction is the addition of an organomagnesium
b) Iodoform initiates radical chain reactions in b) Freon Freon-12, the correct molecular formula is CCl2F2. halide (Grignard reagent) to a ketone or aldehyde, to form
stratosphere c) Iodoform a tertiary or secondary alcohol, respectively.
c) Freon initiates radical chain reactions in stratosphere d) DDT
d) Chloroform initiates radical chain reactions in 4. Which of the following statements about Grignard
View Answer reagent is false?
stratosphere
View Answer Answer: a a) Grignard reagents (RMgBr) add to the carbonyl group of
Explanation: Acute chloroform intoxication can cause aldehydes and ketones
Answer: c depression of the central nervous system and may lead to b) An organosodium compound is not very reactive
Explanation: Freon (Eg: CFCl3– Freon11) does initiate death from lethal arrhythmias or respiratory arrest. Thus, GRIGNARD REAGENT compared to a Grignard reagent
radical chain reactions in stratosphere, which can upset the organic solvent is no longer in clinical use as an c) Grignard reagents are prepared in ether or
the ozone layer. 1. Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reagents by tetrahydrofuran (THF)
anaesthetic, but still plays a role in cases of suicide,
a) Boiling them with Mg ribbon in alcoholic solution d) Grignard reagents are decomposed by water and
5. CFxCly [where x + y = 4], why these compounds are not homicide or inhalation for psychotropic effects.
b) Warming them with magnesium powder in dry ether alcohol
used? 8. How Benzene hexachloride (BHC) is used? c) Refluxing them with MgCl2 solution View Answer
a) These are fluoro carbons a) Insecticides d) Warming them with Mgcl2
b) These are difficult to synthesise b) Fertilizers View Answer Answer: b
c) They deplete ozone layer c) Anaesthetics Explanation: It is supposed that the Mg-C bond is strongly
d) These are very expensive Answer: b polar covalent, not ionic. Grignard’s reagents are less
d) Antiseptics
View Answer Explanation: Alkyl halides can be converted into Grignard reactive than organosodium, -potassium and -lithium
View Answer
reagents by warming them with magnesium powder in dry compounds, that is the reason why it is more convenient
Answer: c Answer: a ether. to work with them.
Explanation: CFC molecules are made up of chlorine, Explanation: Benzene hexachloride. Benzene hexachloride RX + Mg + Dry ether → R−Mg−X
fluorine and carbon atoms and are extremely stable. This (BHC), any of several stereoisomers of 1,2,3,4,5,6- 5. Which of the following compounds gives a secondary
extreme stability allows CFC’s to slowly make their way 2. Which is not present in Grignard reagent? alcohol upon reaction with methylmagnesium bromide?
hexachlorocyclohexane formed by the light-induced
into the stratosphere (most molecules decompose before a) Methyl group a) Butyl formate
addition of chlorine to benzene. One of these isomers is an
they can cross into the stratosphere from the b) Magnesium b) 3- pentanone
insecticide called lindane, or Gammexane.
troposphere). c) Halogen c) Pentanal
9. Depletion of Ozone is believed to increase which of the d) −COOH group d) Methyl butanoate
6. Which one of the following is the correct formula of following? View Answer View Answer
methylene dichloride? a) Population
a) ClCH = CHCl Answer: d Answer: c
b) Ultraviolet rays
b) ClC ≡ CCl Explanation: Grignard reagents are made from Explanation: Pentanal gives a secondary alcohol upon
c) Pollution
c) CH2Cl2 halogenoalkanes (haloalkanes or alkyl halides) and reaction with methylmagnesium bromide, as the Grignard
d) Greenery
d) CH2(Cl) CH2Cl introduces some of their reactions. A Grignard reagent has Reaction is the addition of an organomagnesium halide
View Answer
View Answer a formula RMgX where X is a halogen, and R is an alkyl or (Grignard reagent) to a ketone or aldehyde, to form a
Answer: b aryl (based on a benzene ring) group. tertiary or secondary alcohol, respectively.
Answer: c Explanation: Ozone layer depletion increases the amount
Explanation: As we can see below molecular diagram of 3. Which of the following compounds does not give a 6. A Grignard’s reagent may be made by reacting
of UVB that reaches the Earth’s surface. Laboratory and
epidemiological studies demonstrate that UVB causes non- tertiary alcohol upon reaction with methylmagnesium magnesium with which of the following compound?
bromide? a) Methyl amine
melanoma skin cancer and plays a major role in malignant
a) 3-methylpentanal b) Diethyl ether
melanoma development.
c) Ethyl iodide b) acetaldehyde 4. Which of the following is considered as allylic carbon
d) Ethyl alcohol c) methyl acetate atom?
View Answer d) acetic anhydride
d)
View Answer
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: A Grignard’s reagent can be formed by Answer: b
Answer: c
reacting magnesium with Ethyl iodide, as shown below; Explanation: Acetaldehyde would not give tert-butyl a) 1
Explanation: When a halogen (F, Cl, Br) is attached to a sp3
C2H5I + Mg + Dryether → C2H5 − Mg − I (Ethylmagnesium alcohol when treated with excess methylmagnesium b) 3
carbon of a propene, it is called an allylic halide. The
iodide) bromide, as the Grignard Reaction is the addition of an c) 2
propene in turn can be attached to other elements. An
organomagnesium halide (Grignard reagent) to a ketone d) 4
7. Which of the following compounds gives a primary allylic halide is an alkyl halide which has one or more
or aldehyde, to form a tertiary or secondary alcohol, View Answer
alcohol upon reaction with phenylmagnesium bromide? halide at allylic carbon.
respectively.
a) 2-methyloxirane Answer: c
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
b) ethylene oxide 10. Which of the following reaction sequence that will best Explanation: An allylic carbon is a carbon atom bonded to
allylic halide?
c) ethyl formate carry out the following preparation? a carbon atom that in turn is doubly bonded to another
a) The positions adjacent to alkene C=C often show
d) carbon dioxide carbon atom.
decrement in reactivity
View Answer
b) SN1 reactions of allylic halides are possible 5. Which of the following allylic halide has commercial
Answer: b c) Allylic bonds are often weaker and therefore more easily usage?
Explanation: Ethylene oxide reacts with Grignard reagents broken a) H2C = CH−CH2Cl
to give, after protonation, primary alcohols with two d) stability of the allylic radical can be utilized in the b) H2C = CH−CH2Br
a) 1) I + MeONa + CH3H2Br 2) neutralize
additional carbon atoms. preparation of allylic halides c) H2C = CH−CH2I
b) 1) I + EtONa 2) CH3CH2Br 3) neutralize
View Answer d) H2C = CH−CH2F
c) 1) CH3CH2Br + Mg, Et2O 2) Add I 3) neutralize
8. Which of the following reagents, when treated with View Answer
d) 1) I + CH3CH2OH + Mg 2) neutralize Answer: c
phenylmagnesiuim bromide followed by acid workup, will
View Answer Explanation: The positions adjacent to alkene C=C often
yield 2-phenylethanol? Answer: a
a) Ethanol show enhanced reactivity compared to simple alkanes due Explanation: As an alkylating agent, allylic chloride is useful
Answer: c
b) Diethyl ether to the proximity of the adjacent π system. Such positions in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals and pesticides,
Explanation: In the first step, the Grignard forms the
c) Ethanal are referred as “allylic”. such as mustard oil.
carbon-carbon bond. This results in an alkoxide (the
d) Oxirane conjugate base of an alcohol). To form the alcohol, it’s 3. How many resonating structure of allylic carbocation is 6. What is the desired product for the following reaction?
View Answer necessary to add acid at the end of the reaction and this present?
reaction usually occurs in Et2O or THF followed by
Answer: d
H3O+ work-ups.
Explanation: When is treated Diethylether with
phenylmagnesiuim bromide followed by acid workup, will
yield 2-phenylethanol. a) 1
Grignard reagents are made by adding the halogenoalkane ALLYL & VINYLIC HALIDES b) 2 a)
to small bits of magnesium in a flask containing c) 3
1. Which of the following is not an allylic halide?
ethoxyethane (commonly called diethyl ether or just d) 4
“ether”). The flask is fitted with a reflux condenser, and View Answer b)
the mixture is warmed over a water bath for 20 – 30 a)
Answer: b
minutes.
Explanation: There are two resonation structures, as
CH3CH2Br + Mg + Diethyl ether → CH3CH2MgBr
shown below. In the two resonance forms of the allylic
Everything must be perfectly dry because Grignard b) c)
cation, the positive charge is located on the terminal
reagents react with water.
carbon atoms and never on the middle carbon.
9. Which of the following compounds would not give tert-
butyl alcohol when treated with excess methylmagnesium
bromide? c)
d)
a) acetyl chloride View Answer
Answer: c c) 1-chloro-2,3-dibutadiene elimination of the halide occurs, leading to the formation
Explanation: We have 1 equivalent of Br2 swimming d) 3-chloro-1,2-dibutadiene of an alkene.
around, of which only a small proportion at any given time View Answer
a) (CH3)3CCH≡CH 3. Which of the following steps is not used in the
will exist as bromine radical [due to the initiation step]. we
b) (CH3)3CCH=CH2 Answer: a fermentation of starch into ethyl alcohol?
had a very low concentration of Br2. If the concentration of
c) (CH3)3CCH=CHOH Explanation: 2-chloro-1,3-dibutadiene the monomer used a) Hydrolysis of starch into maltose by diastase present in
Br2 is kept low, not only will the rate of dibromination be
d) (CH3)3CCH=CHNH2 in the formation of the elastomer neoprene, is prepared barley
lower, the relative rate of bromine radical relative to
View Answer from vinylacetylene by this reaction. b) Conversion of maltose into glucose by maltase present
Br2 will increase. Therefore, the rate of C-H abstraction
relative to dibromination will increase, which will allow our in yeast
Answer: a
allylic bromination product to be formed in a higher yield. c) Conversion of glucose into ethanol by zymase present in
Explanation: Vinyl halides undergo elimination reactions
yeast
similar to alkyl halides, although at slower rates, and they
7. Which of the following is a vinylic halide? d) Conversion of sucrose into glucose and fructose by
normally require very strong bases such as sodium amide
sucrase present in yeast
(NaNH2).
View Answer
a)
OXYGEN CONTAINING ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
Answer: d
PREPARATION OF ALCOHOLS Explanation: Conversion of sucrose into glucose and
b) 10. How can be a vinylic halide converted into Grignard fructose by sucrase present in yeast steps is not used in
reagent? 1. Catalytic reduction (Hydrogenation) of carbon the fermentation of starch into ethyl alcohol.
a) Addition of base monooxide with H2 under high pressure and temperature
b) Addition of acid gives methyl alcohol. What is this process is known as? 4. 15% pure ethyl alcohol (wash) on fractional distillation
c) By adding magnesium a) Baeyer’s test gives 95% ethyl alcohol by weight which is commonly
c) known as which of the following terms?
d) Addition of diethyl ether b) Hofmann’s reaction
View Answer c) Kolb process a) Wash
d) BASF process b) Absolute alcohol
d) Answer: c c) Rectified spirit
View Answer
View Answer Explanation: Vinylic halides may be converted to Grignard d) Methylated spirit
reagents by reaction with magnesium, as shown below; Answer: d View Answer
Answer: c Explanation: Currently, a Cu/ZnO/Al2O3 catalyst system has
Explanation: In vinylic halides the carbon that bears the been employed industrially in MeOH synthesis for over Answer: c
halogen is doubly bonded to another carbon. half a century (a worldwide demand of 75 Mtons•year−1). Explanation: Rectified spirit obtained from the distillation
11. What will be the product when addition of hydrogen It was run mostly at elevated pressures. (5–10 MPa) and of the fermentation liquor wash contains about 95% of
8. Which of the following vinyl halide has industrial chloride to vinyl chloride occurs? ethanol.
high temperature (493–573 K) by feeding a CO (5%)-
application? a) 1,1-dichloroethane CO2 (5%)-H2 syngas stream.
a) Vinyl fluoride b) 1,2-dichloroethane 5. Ethyl alcohol obtained by fermentation of starch or
b) Vinyl chloride c) 1-chloroethane 2. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding molasses is called wash, and what is it’s purity?
c) Vinyl bromide d) 1-chloro 2,2-dichloroethane preparation of alcohols? a) 15%
d) Vinyl iodide View Answer a) Aldehydes and Ketones on catalytic reduction by [H] b) 99%
View Answer give primary alcohol and secondary alcohol respectively c) 99.9%
Answer: a b) Ketones on reaction with Grignard’s reagent gives d) 95%
Answer: b Explanation: The addition of hydrogen chloride to vinyl View Answer
tertiary alcohol
Explanation: Vinyl chloride is an organohalogen compound chloride to yield 1,1-dichloroethane. The product is a c) Aldehydes on reaction with Grignard’s reagent gives
that has important industrial applications. When treated geminal dihalide (both halogens are bonded to the same Answer: a
primary or secondary alcohol
with certain catalysts, vinyl chloride monomers undergo carbon). Explanation: The alcohol obtained from molasses is called
d) Alkyl halides on reaction alcoholic potash gives alcohol
polymerization and form the larger compound known as “wash” which contains the low percentage of ethyl alcohol
12. What will be the product for the given reaction? View Answer
polyvinyl chloride, or PVC. PVC is used in the manufacture (15-30%).
of numerous products, including packaging films and CH2 = CHC ≡ CH + HCl → ? Answer: d
vinylacetylene 6. Which is the only alcohol that can be prepared by the
water pipes. Explanation: Whenever an alkyl halide reacts with
a) 2-chloro-1,3-dibutadiene indirect hydration of alkene?
alcoholic potash (or alcoholic sodium hydroxide), beta-
9. Which of the following is the product for the given b) 1,2-dichloro-1,3-dibutadiene a) Ethyl alcohol
reaction? b) Propyl alcohol
c) Isobutyl alcohol
d) Methyl alcohol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Alkenes can be hydrated directly or indirectly
which results in the formation of alcohols. First step is the
reaction of alkene with sulphuric acid to give alkyl sulphate
esters and second step is Direct hydration i.e. protonation
of alkenesthen reaction with water to give alcohols.
7. Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads
to the formation of which of the following?
a) Mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
b) Mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
c) Secondary or tertiary alcohol
d) Primary alcohol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes except
ethene leads to the formation of mixture of secondary and
tertiary alcohols.
8. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl
alcohol on acid hydration?
a) (CH3)2C=CH2
b) CH3-CH=CH-CH3
c) CH3CH2CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=CH2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When treated with aq. acid, most commonly
H2SO4, alkenes form alcohols. Regioselectivity predicted by
Markovnikov’s rule. Reaction proceeds via protonation to
give the more stable carbocation intermediate. Not
stereoselective since reactions proceeds via planar
carbocation.
9. Which of the following way is not a method of
preparation of alcohol?
a) Grignard reaction
b) Reduction of an aldehyde, ketone, or carboxylic acid
with the appropriate reducing agent
c) Substitution reaction of hydroxide or water on the
appropriate alkyl halide
d) Haber’s process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Haber’s process is not a method for
preparation of alcohol, ammonia is formed via this
method.
10. Isopropyl methyl ether when treated with cold
hydrogen iodide gives which of the following alcohol?
a) isopropyl iodide and methyl iodide
b) isopropyl alcohol and methyl iodide
c) isopropyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
d) isopropyl iodide and methyl alcohol
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When ethers are treated with strong acid in
the presence of a nucleophile, they can be cleaved to give
alcohols and alkyl halides. If the ether is on a primary
carbon this may occur through an SN2 pathway.
REACTION OF ALCOHOLS
1. Which one of the following compound is obtained by
the oxidation of primary alcohol with nascent oxygen?
a) Alkanal
b) Alkanone
c) Ether
d) Amine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxidation of alcohols to aldehydes is partial
oxidation; aldehydes are further oxidized to carboxylic
acids. Conditions required for making aldehydes are heat
and distillation. In aldehyde formation, the temperature of
the reaction should be kept above the boiling point of the
aldehyde and below the boiling point of the alcohol.
2. Which one of the following compound is obtained by
the oxidation of secondary alcohols by [O]?
a) Ketone
b) Aldehyde
c) Ether
d) Amine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ketone compound is obtained by the
oxidation of secondary alcohols by nascent oxygen atom
[O].
3. Secondary alcohols on catalytic dehydrogenation by Cu- d) Unimolecular elimination/E1 reaction
Ni couple gives ___________ View Answer
a) Ketone
b) Aldehyde Answer: d
c) Carboxylic acid Explanation: Alcohol upon reaction with protic acids tends
d) Amine to lose a molecule of water to form alkenes. These
View Answer reactions are known as dehydration of alcohols.
Dehydration of alcohols is an example of Unimolecular
Answer: a elimination reaction.
Explanation: When the vapours of a secondary alcohol are
passed over copper heated at 573K, the corresponding 7. Among the following, which is least acidic?
ketone is formed. a) Phenol
b) O-cresol
4. The reaction of carboxylic acids with alcohols catalysed c) p-nitrophenol
by conc. H2SO4 is called __________ d) p- chlorophenol
a) Dehydration View Answer
b) Saponification
c) Esterification Answer: b
d) Neutralization Explanation: O-cresol is least acidic because Presence of
View Answer electron withdrawing groups at ortho and para position
increases the acidic strength, whereas electron releasing
Answer: c or donating groups at ortho and para position decreases
Explanation: When a carboxylic acid is treated with an acidic strength. In cresol (ortho or para cresol), methyl
alcohol and an acid catalyst, an ester is formed (along with group is +I group, so it destabilises the anion formed after
water). This reaction is called the esterification. ionisation, hence cresol is less acidic than carbolic acid
(phenol).
5. Which one is the correct order of reactivity of different
types of alcohol towards hydrogen halide? 8. Which of the following alcohols would be most soluble
a) 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 3° alcohol in water?
b) 2° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 3° alcohol a) Propanol
c) 3° alcohol > 1° alcohol > 2° alcohol b) Hexanol
d) 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 1° alcohol c) Pentanol
View Answer d) Butanol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reaction of HX with alcohol depends on the Answer: a
degree of carbonation generated due to heterocyclic Explanation: Propanol is the most soluble in water among
cleavage of HX bond. If alcohol is primary alcohol then given alcohols, as solubility of alcohols in water decreases
reaction will proceed through Sn2 for tertiary alcohol it with increase in molecular mass.
will proceed with Sn1. For secondary alcohol it can go
9. What is the best reagent to convert isopropyl alcohol to
through both path (Sn1 or Sn2). Sn1 being ionic in nature
isopropyl bromide?
takes place very fast while Sn2 is molecular in nature
reacts slowly. Hence, we can sum up above, Rate of
reaction is 3° alcohol > 2° alcohol > 1° alcohol.
6. The dehydration of alcohols is an example of ________ a) HBr
a) Bimolecular elimination/E2 reaction b) SOBr2
c) Br2
b) SN2 reaction
d) CH3MgBr
c) SN1 reaction
View Answer
Answer: b Answer: d has maximum -I effect. But at para and ortho position +M Answer: d
Explanation: Thionyl bromide will react with secondary Explanation: As there will be resonance between -COO–. effect will also show effect so they are les acidic than Explanation: Electron withdrawing group stabalises phenol
alcohols and give a reasonable percent yield of the So, it will be more stable and acidic than -OH. meta. ion. More the -M effect, more the stability.
bromide.
3. What is the correct order of acidic strength? 6. What is the correct order of acidic strength? 9. What is the correct order of acidic strength?
10. The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid
than cyclohexanol is ____________
a) it is a better proton donor
b) the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by
induction, which destabilizes the anion formed in the
reaction
a) I > II > III
c) phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the a) I > II > III b) III > II > I
reaction by resonance a) I > II > III b) III > II > I
c) II > III > I
d) the phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by b) II > I > III c) II > III > I d) I > III > II
induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the c) III > II > I d) I > III > II View Answer
reaction d) I > III > II View Answer
View Answer View Answer Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: Electron withdrawing group stabalises phenol
Answer: c Answer: b Explanation: Inductive effect (-I) stabilises phenol ion and II ion and electron donating group destablises it. More the -
Explanation: Whenever resonance exists, it usually is a Explanation: Inductive effect (+I) destabilises phenol ion has maximum -I effect. Less the distance between electron M effect, more the stability, so I is most stable and acidic.
very important factor to be considered in decisions about and III has maximum +I effect and in II -CH3 is at meta withdrawing group and negative charge more the stability
structure and reactivity correlations and in many cases, it position so no effect on phenol ion negative charge. and acidity too. 10. What is the correct order of acidic strength?
is the most important factor. In this case there is
delocalization of the electrons into the benzene ring. 4. Which of the following is more acidic alcohol? 7. What is the correct order of acidic strength?
a) Phenol a) CH3-OH
b) Cyclohexanol b) CH3CH2-OH
c) Methanol c) CH3 CH2 CH2-OH
ALCOHOLS AS ACIDS
d) Ethanol d) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2-OH
1. CH3OH is a which type of acid? View Answer View Answer
a) I > II > III
a) Bronsted acid b) III > II > I
Answer: a Answer: a
b) Lewis acid c) II > I > III
Explanation: Resonance stabalizes the negative charge in Explanation: Inductive effect (+I) destabilises -OH ion, so
c) Arrhenius acid d) I > III > II
phenol ion, negative charge is moving throughout. So, CH3-OH is most acidic alcohol among above, as it has least
d) Lewis and Arrhenius acid View Answer
phenol is more acidic. +I.
View Answer
5. What is the correct order of acidic strength? 8. What is the correct order of acidic strength? Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Electron withdrawing group stabalises phenol
Explanation: Alcohols are very weak Bronsted acids with ion. More the -M effect, more the stability.
pKa values generally in the range of 15 – 20. Because the
hydroxyl proton is the most electrophilic site, proton
transfer is the most important reaction to consider with
nucleophiles. VINYLIC ALCOHOL

a) I > II > III a) I > II > III 1. Which is the vinylic alcohol position in the given
2. Which of the following is more acidic than alcohols?
b) III > II > I b) III > II > I diagram?
a) Arrhenius acid
c) II > III > I c) II > III > I
b) amine
d) I > III > II d) I > III > II
c) alkyne
View Answer View Answer
d) carboxylic acid
View Answer
Answer: c
a) a
Explanation: Inductive effect (-I) stabilises phenol ion and II
b) b
c) c temperature, acetaldehyde (H3CC(O)H) is more stable than
d) d vinyl alcohol (H2C=CHOH) by 42.7 kJ/mol. This
View Answer tautomerization can be catalyzed via photochemical
a)
process.
Answer: c d)
Explanation: A vinyl halide is clearly a species with a 5. Polyvinyl alcohol is soluble in which solvent? View Answer
formula H2C=C(OH)H, in which a halide is directly bound to a) protic
Answer: a
an olefinic bond. b) aprotic b)
Explanation: At low temperature hydrogen from adjacent
c) polar aprotic
2. What is the IUPAC name for vinylic alcohol? carbonyl group will be removed instead of hydrogen from
d) polar protic
a) Ethanol attached to carbon adjacent to alkyl group (R).
View Answer
b) Methanol
c) Ethenol Answer: d c)
d) Methenol Explanation: Polyvinyl alcohol is a water-soluble synthetic
View Answer polymer obtained by polymerisation of vinyl alcohol.

Answer: c 6. Which of the following set of reagents can not be used d)

8. What will be the product for the given reaction?
Explanation: Vinyl alcohol, also called ethenol (IUPAC for the following conversion? View Answer
name), is the simplest enol. Vinyl alcohol or ethenol is
Answer: d
CH₂=CH–OH. Ethanol has very ordinary, straightforward
Explanation: This is alkylation of carbonyl compound, via
behavior, typical of an alcohol. Vinyl alcohol, however,
formation of enol form (vinylic alcohol), as shown in the
because of its double bond (also referred to as its
a) NaOH given reaction.
unsaturation), behaves considerably different.
b) R-OH
3. Which of the following is not an isomer of vinylic c) Net3
a)
alcohol? d) NaH
a) Acetaldehyde View Answer
b) Ethylene oxide
Answer: d 10. What is the final product for the given reaction?
c) Ethanol
Explanation: NaH is a strong base and will completely b)
d) Ethanal
enolise keto form.
View Answer
7. What will be the product for the given reaction?
Answer: c
Explanation: With the formula CH2CHOH, vinyl alcohol is c)
an isomer of acetaldehyde/ethanal and ethylene oxide. It
is not an isomer of ethanol which has formula CH3CH2OH.
a)
4. Which of the statement is not true about vinylic d)
alcohols? View Answer
a) Several metal complexes are known that contain vinyl
alcohol as a ligand Answer: b
a) Explanation: At high temperature hydrogen from attached b)
b) Vinyl alcohol was discovered in the molecular cloud
Sagittarius B, using the 12-meter radio telescope to carbon adjacent to alkyl group (R) will be removed
c) It can be formed by elimination of water from ethylene instead of hydrogen from adjacent carbonyl group will be
glycol at a temperature of 900 °C and low pressure removed. c)
d) Vinylic alcohol shows no tautomerism b)
9. What is the final product for the given reaction?
View Answer

Answer: d d)
Explanation: Under normal conditions, vinyl alcohol View Answer
c)
converts (tautomerizes) to acetaldehyde. At room
Answer: d d) Hock method alcohols and alkyl halides. c) X is Oleum and y is NH3
Explanation: This is alkylation of carbonyl compound, via View Answer d) X is Oleum and y is water
formation of enol form (vinylic alcohol), as shown in the View Answer
given reaction. Answer: d
Explanation: The Hock process (cumene-phenol process, Answer: a
cumene process) is an industrial process for developing 6. What is the reagent which will react with cumene to Explanation: Benzenesulphonic acid can be obtained from
phenol and acetone from benzene and propylene. The give phenol? benzene by reacting it with oleum. Benzenesulphonic acid
term stems from cumene (isopropyl benzene), the a) Oxygen thus formed is treated with molten sodium hydroxide at
intermediate material during the process. b) Hydrogen high temperature which leads to the formation of sodium
PREPARATION OF PHENOLS c) Nitrogen phenoxide. Finally, sodium phenoxide on acidification
4. Reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide on gives phenols.
d) Ozone
1. On heating aqueous solution of benzene diazonium chlorobenzene gives which of the following products?
View Answer
chloride, which of the following is formed? a) o-chlorophenol
a) benzene b) o-chlorophenol Answer: a
b) chlorobenzene c) phenol Explanation: Upon oxidation of cumene
c) phenol d) no reaction (isopropylbenzene) in presence of air (oxygen), cumene
d) aniline View Answer hydroperoxide is obtained. Upon further treatment of 9. Which of the following is not a method for preparation
View Answer cumene hydroperoxide with dilute acid phenols are of phenol?
Answer: c
obtained. a) Dows process
Answer: c Explanation: Chlorobenzene does not undergo hydrolysis
b) From diazonium salt
Explanation: Upon warming with water, these diazonium under normal conditions. However, it undergoes
c) By decarboxylation of salicylic acid
salts finally hydrolyze to phenols. hydrolysis when heated in an aqueous sodium hydroxide
d) By the decarboxylation of sodium benzoate
solution at a temperature of 623 K and a pressure of 300
View Answer
atm to form phenol.
Answer: d
5. What will be the product ‘a’ for the given reaction?
Explanation: The decarboxylation of sodium benzoate is
not the method of preparation of phenol, this method is
7. What will be the product ‘a’ in the given reation? used for the preparation of benezene.
2. Sodium benzene sulphonate reacts with NaOH and then
on acidic hydrolysis, it gives which of the following 10. Phenol is obtained by heating aqueous solution of
compound? which of the following?
a) Phenol a) Aniline
b) Benzoic acid a) b) Benzene diazonium chloride
c) Benzene a) Enolate form c) Benzoic acid
d) Disodium benzaldehyde b) Benzene diazonium chloride d) Benzyl alcohol
View Answer b) c) Benzene View Answer
d) Chlorobenzene
Answer: a Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: Sodium benzene sulphonate reacts with Explanation: Upon warming with water, these diazonium
c)
NaOH and then on acidic hydrolysis, phenol. Answer: b salts finally hydrolyze to phenols.
Explanation: When an aromatic primary amine is treated
with nitrous (NaNO2 + HCl) acid at 273 – 278 K, diazonium
d) salts are obtained. Upon warming with water, these
View Answer diazonium salts finally hydrolyze to phenols.

3. What is the commercial method of preparation of Answer: c 8. What is the reactant ‘x’ and ‘y’ that will react with
phenol? Explanation: When ethers are treated with strong acid in benzene to give phenol?
a) Dows process the presence of a nucleophile, they can be cleaved to give a) X is Oleum and y is molten sodium hydroxide followed
b) From diazonium salt by H+
c) By decarboxylation of salicylic acid b) X is Oleum and y is HCl
REACTIONS OF PHENOLS 4. Phenol reacts with bromine in carbon disulphate at low c) Salicylic acid around makes the ion more stable than it would be if all
temperature to give which of the following product? d) Phthalic acid the charge remained on the oxygen.
1. Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating phenol with a) m-bromophenol View Answer
conc. H2SO4 and which of the following reactant? b) o-and p-bromophenol
a) Benzyl alcohol c) p-bromophenol Answer: c
b) Benzene Explanation: Reacting the nucleophilic phenolate salt with PREPARATION OF ETHERS
d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
c) Benzoic acid View Answer carbon dioxide under high pressure / temperature results 1. Chloroethane reacts with X to form diethyl ether. What
d) Phthalic anhydride in regioselective ortho-substitution. This process is also
is X?
View Answer Answer: b known as the Kolbe-Schmitt synthesis. o-hydroxybenzoic a) NaOH
Explanation: Phenol reacts with bromine in carbon acid is more commonly known as salicylic acid.
Answer: d b) H2SO4
disulphate at low temperature to give o-and p- c) C2H5ONa
Explanation: Phenolphthalein is obtained by heating bromophenol. 8. Picric acid is formed when phenol react with which of
phenol with conc. H2SO4 and phthalic anhydride, as shown the following reactant? d) Na2S2O3
in the given reaction. a) Formaldehyde View Answer
b) Hydrogen
Answer: c
c) Nitric acid Explanation: The reaction of sodium ethoxide with
d) Hydrochloric acid
chloroethane to form diethyl ether and sodium chloride:
View Answer [Na]+[C2H5O]– + C2H5Cl → C2H5OC2H5 + [Na]+[Cl]–
Answer: c
2. The reaction given below is known as by which o the
5. Bromine reacts with phenol and decolorize orange color Explanation: Nowadays picric acid is prepared by treating
following reaction?
and turns it to which of the colored precipitate? phenol first with concentrated sulfuric acid which converts
C2H5ONa+IC2H5→C2H5OC2H5+NaI
2. Salicylaldehyde can be prepared from which of the a) white precipitate it to phenol-2,4-disulfuric acid and then with concentrated a) Kolbe’s synthesis
following reactants? b) pink precipitate nitric acid to get 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.
b) Wurtz’s synthesis
a) Phenol and chloroform c) blue precipitate
9. Bakelite is formed when phenol react with which of the c) Williamson’s synthesis
b) Phenol, chloroform and sodium hydroxide d) black precipitate
following reactant? d) Grignard’s synthesis
c) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride and NaOH View Answer
a) Formaldehyde View Answer
d) Phenol, carbon tetrachloride
View Answer Answer: a b) Hydrogen
Answer: c
Explanation: Bromine reacts with phenol and decolorize c) Nitric acid
Explanation: Williamson Ether Reactions involve an
Answer: b orange color and turns it to white precipitate of d) Sulphuric acid alkoxide that reacts with a primary haloalkane or a
Explanation: Salicylaldehyde is prepared from phenol and brominated phenol. View Answer sulfonate ester. Alkoxides consist of the conjugate base of
chloroform by heating with sodium hydroxide or
6. Which of the following regents may be used to Answer: a an alcohol and are comprised of an R group bonded to an
potassium hydroxide in a Reimer–Tiemann reaction.
distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid? Explanation: Bakelite is a thermosetting polymer which is oxygen atom. They are often written as RO–, where R is
3. When phenol is treated with excess of bromine water, it a) Aqueous NaOH made by reaction between phenol and HCHO. the organic substituent.
gives which of the following product? b) Tollen’s reagent
10. Phenol undergoes ionization to become more stable by 3. The Williamson ether synthesis produces ethers by
a) m-bromophenol c) Molisch reagent
reacting with which of the following chemical species? reacting which of the following?
b) o-and p-bromophenol d) Neutral FeCl3
a) negative ions a) alcohol with a metal
c) 2,4-dibromophenol View Answer
b) positive ions b) alkoxide with a metal
d) 2,4,6-tribromophenol
Answer: d c) radicals c) alkoxide with an alkyl halide
View Answer
Explanation: Neutral FeCl3 test regents may be used to d) neutral atoms d) alkyl halide with an aldehyde
Answer: d distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid as Phenol View Answer View Answer
Explanation: In phenol, the hydroxyl group serves to will give violet coloration but benzoic acid will not give
Answer: a Answer: c
greatly activate the benzene ring, significantly increasing coloration with neutral FeCl3.
Explanation: Phenol undergoes ionization to become more Explanation: It’s a type of reaction we’ve already seen
its reactivity, hence susceptibility to substitution. The
7. What is the major product obtained on interaction of stable by reacting with negative ions as the negative many times before – an SN2 reaction between a
reaction occurs at room temp and even goes to maximum
phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide? charge is no longer entirely localised on the oxygen but is deprotonated alcohol *“alkoxide”+ and an alkyl halide that
substitution of the 3 possible locations (2,4,6). result is
a) Benzoic acid spread out around the whole ion. Spreading the charge forms an ether.
2,4,6-tribromophenol which is a white ppt.
b) Salicyladehyde
4. In which case would a Williamson ether synthesis fail?
a) sodium ethoxide + iodomethane
b) sodium ethoxide + iodoethane
c) sodium ethoxide + 2-iodopropane
d) sodium ethoxide + 2-iodo-2-methylpropane
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Because alkoxides are strong bases,
competition with elimination [E2] pathways becomes a
concern once the alkyl halide becomes more sterically
hindered. For this reason, trying to perform a Williamson
on a secondary alkyl halide is a bit more problematic than
it is for a primary alkyl halide.
5. Which of the following reagents should be used to
prepare tert-butyl ethyl ether?
a) tert-butyl bromide and sodium ethoxide
b) tert-butyl alcohol and ethyl bromide
c) tert-butyl alcohol and ethanol
d) potassium tert-butoxide and ethyl bromide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When ethyl bromide(CH3CH2Br) is added to
potassium tert-butoxide ((CH3)3-O– + K), the product is
ethyl tert-butyl ether(CH3)3-O-CH2CH3).
CH3CH2Br + (CH3)3-O– + K → (CH3)3-O-CH2CH3.
6. Which of the following reagents should be used to
prepare tert-butyl propyl ether?
a) 2-methylpropene and 1-propanol
b) 2-methylpropene, acetic acid and 1-propanol
c) 2-methylpropene, H2SO4 and 1-propanol
d) 1-propyl bromide and tert-butyl alcohol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The dehydration reaction of alcohols to
generate alkene proceeds by heating the alcohols in the
presence of a strong acid, such as sulfuric or phosphoric
acid, at high temperatures. If the reaction is not
sufficiently heated, the alcohols do not dehydrate to form
alkenes, but react with one another to form ethers.
7. What will be the reactant and reaction condition
required for the given reaction?
CH3CH2OH +? → C2H5OC2H5
a) H2SO4, 413K
b) H2SO4, 443K
c) HNO3, 413K d) Preparation of epoxides d) iodoethane and 2-methylpropane
d) HNO3, 443K View Answer View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: The Williamson reaction is of broad scope, is Explanation: Ether + HX → Alkyl halide + Alcohol, Halide
Explanation: In the presence of protic acids (sulphuric widely used in both laboratory and industrial synthesis, attacks at less hindered site to produce alkyl halide. So,
acid), alcohols undergo dehydration to produce alkenes and remains the simplest and most popular method of Ethyl isopropyl ether + HI/Heat/Water → Isopropyl alcohol
and ethers under different conditions. For example: in the preparing ethers. Both symmetrical and asymmetrical + Iodoethane.
presence of sulphuric acid, dehydration of ethanol at 443 K ethers are easily prepared.
yields ethene whereas it yields ethoxyethane at 413 K. This 4. What are the products when tert-butyl ethyl ether is
is an ideal method of preparation through primary cleaved with concentrated HI?
a) iodoethane and tert-butanol
REACTIONS OF ETHERS b) iodoethane and 2-iodo-2-methylpropane
alcohols. c) ethanol and 2-iodo-2-methylpropane
1. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the
d) ethanol and tert-butanol
8. Which of the following is the method of preparation of same molecular formula. What is the reason for this
difference? View Answer
ether?
a) Dows process a) dipolar character of ethers Answer: c
b) alcohols having resonance structures
b) Williamson synthesis Explanation: Ether + HX → Alkyl halide + Alcohol, Halide
c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
c) By decarboxylation of salicylic acid attacks at less hindered site to produce alkyl halide. Clearly
d) Hock method d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols the SN2 is not in play here, as the tertiary carbons are
View Answer View Answer much too hindered for a backside attack. However,
Answer: d tertiary carbocations are relatively stable – and
Answer: b
“ionization” (i.e. loss of a leaving group) leaves us with an
Explanation: In this method, an alkyl halide is reacted with Explanation: The ether are less volatile than alcohol of
alcohol (R-OH) and a tertiary carbocation, which can then
sodium alkoxide which leads to the formation of ether. same molecular mass because in alcohols there is
be attacked by iodide ion to give R-I. Again, if excess HI is
The reaction generally follows SN2 mechanism for primary intermolecular H-bonding which makes it less volatile and
High B.P. But in case of ether there is no intermolecular H- present then that alcohol will be converted into an
alcohol.
alcohol. We’ll have more about that to say in a few posts
Bonding which makes it more volatile and less B.P.
9. Williamson synthesis proceed visa which of the actually.
following mechanism? 2. Ethers may be used as solvents because they react only
with which of the following reactants? 5. Which pair of products would result from the acid
a) SN1
a) Acids cleavage of phenyl propyl ether with excess concentrated
b) SN2
b) Bases HBr at an elevated temperature?
c) E1
a) Phenol and 1-propanol
d) E2 c) Oxidising agent
b) Bromobenzene and 1-propanol
View Answer d) Reducing agents
View Answer c) Bromobenzene and 1-bromopropane
d) Phenol and 1-bromopropane
Answer: b
Explanation: Ethers can be synthesized in standard SN2 Answer: a View Answer
conditions by coupling an alkoxide with a Explanation: Ethers resist the attack of nucleophiles and
Answer: d
haloalkane/sulfonate ester. The alcohol that supplies the bases. However, they are very good solvents in many
Explanation: Ether + HBr —–> Alkyl bromide + Alcohol.
electron rich alkoxide can be used as the solvent, as well organic reactions due to their ability to solvate cations by
donating the electron pair from oxygen atom. Ethers are Halide attacks at less hindered site to produce alkyl halide.
as dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) or hexamethylphosphoric
Ethyl phenyl ether + HBr/Heat/Water —-> Phenol +
triamide (HMPA). generally less reactive and react only with acids.
Bromoethane.
10. Which of the following is the commercial method of 3. What are the products when ethyl isopropyl ether is
6. Select the ether among following that yields methanol
formation of ether? cleaved with concentrated HI?
as one of the products on reaction with cold hydroiodic
a) Dehydration of alcohol a) ethanol and 2-iodo-2-methylpropane
acid.
b) Williamson ether synthesis b) ethanol and 2-methylpropane
a) 1-Methoxybutane
c) Ullmann condensation c) iodoethane and isopropyl alcohol
b) 1-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
c) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
d) Methoxybenzene
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When one group is methyl and the other alkyl
group is a tertiary group, the halide formed is a tertiary
group, the halide formed is a tertiary halide. It is because
the attack by I- takes place at that carbon of alkyl group,
which has a greater electron pushing inductive effect and a
lower electron density.
7. The boiling point of ethyl alcohol is much higher than
that of dimethyl ether though
both have the same molecular weight. Why?
a) Ether is insoluble in water
b) Methyl groups are attached to oxygen in ether
c) Dipole moment of ethyl alcohol is less
d) Ethyl alcohol shows hydrogen bonding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Alcohols have much higher boiling points
than the comparable alkanes or the related ethers
because molecules of alcohols can interact through
hydrogen bonding while those of alkanes and ethers
cannot. Thus, Ethanol has a higher boiling point (78℃)
than dimethyl ether (−25℃) though they have the same
molecular weight.
8. Which pair of products would result from the acid
cleavage of tert-butyl propyl ether with excess
concentrated HBr at an elevated temperature?
a) tert-butyl bromide and propyl alcohol
b) tert-butyl bromide and propyl bromide
c) tert-butyl alcohol and propyl bromide
d) 2-methyl-2-butene and propyl bromide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ether + HX → Alkyl halide + Alcohol, Halide
attacks at less hindered site to produce alkyl halide. Clearly
the SN2 is not in play here, as the tertiary carbons are
much too hindered for a backside attack. However,
tertiary carbocations are relatively stable – and
“ionization” (i.e. loss of a leaving group) leaves us with an
alcohol (R-OH) and a tertiary carbocation, which can then
be attacked by iodide ion to give R-I. Again, if excess HI is
present then that alcohol will be converted into an
alcohol. We’ll have more about that to say in a few posts chemical substance. In a qualitative test a sample is first cannot. Thus, Ethanol has a higher boiling point (78℃)
actually. reacted with a mixture of acetic acid and hydrogen iodide than dimethyl ether (−25℃) though they have the same
in a test tube. molecular weight.
9. Which of the following is the name reaction of the given
reaction? 5. Which of the following has lower boiling point than
dimethyl ether?
2. Which of the following statement is not true about a) Pentane
ethers? b) Propane
a) Wollf’s rearrangement
a) The lower ethers are highly volatile and flammable c) Tetrahydrofuran
b) Favorskii rearrangement
b) Lower ethers also act as anaesthetics d) n-butanol
c) Pinacol rearrangement
c) Ethers are not organic solvents View Answer
d) Claisen rearrangement
d) Simple ethers (such as diethyl ether) are tasteless
View Answer Answer: b
View Answer
Explanation: The difference in molecular weight made
Answer: d
Answer: c difference between boiling point here mainly. It would be
Explanation: The Claisen rearrangement is an organic
Explanation: Because like dissolve like, Diethyl ether is very best to set up a better comparison and then ask the
reaction where an allyl vinyl ether is converted into an
non-polar compared to water so it will dissolve the non- question. diethyl ether is a chain of 5 atoms in a row. The
unsaturated carbonyl compound with the input of heat at
polar substances and precipitate the ionic compounds. appropriate alkane to compare it to is pentane, also 5
200-250oC or a Lewis acid. This reaction belongs to a class
Since like dissolves like, your barely-polar organic ether is atoms in a row. Ethane only has two carbons (CH3-CH3).
of reactions termed “sigmatropic rearrangements” and it
often happy to dissolve your non-polar organic molecules.
is a concerted process where bonds are forming and 6. Which of the following statements about ethers is
breaking at the same time. 3. Why ether is more volatile than an alcohol having the incorrect?
same molecular formula? a) Ethers are flammable
10. Which of the following will be obtained by keeping
a) dipolar character of ethers b) Ethers form peroxides by free radical oxidation
ether in contact with air for a long time?
b) alcohols having resonance structures c) Ethers are widely used as extraction solvents
a) C2H5−O−CH (CH3)−O−OH
c) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers d) An ether oxygen can only be found within an acyclic
b) C2H5−OCH2−OH
d) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols carbon chain
c) C2H5−O−C2H5OH
View Answer View Answer
d) CH3−O CH (CH3)−O−OH
View Answer Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: The ether are less volatile than alcohol of Explanation: Although widely used as extraction solvents
Answer: a
same molecular mass because in alcohols there is ethers are highly flammable and readily form peroxides by
Explanation: When stored in the presence of air or oxygen,
intermolecular H-bonding which makes it less volatile and free radical oxidation. An ether oxygen can be present in
ethers tend to form explosive peroxides, such as diethyl
High B.P. But in case of ether there is no intermolecular H- an open chain or as part of a cyclic system.
ether peroxide. The reaction is accelerated by light, metal
Bonding which makes it more volatile and less B.P.
catalysts, and aldehydes. 7. Which of the following product is formed, when ether is
R−O−R’ + O2/light → C2H5−O−CH(CH3)−O−OH.
4. Why the boiling point of ethyl alcohol is much higher exposed to air?
than that of dimethyl ether though a) Oxide
both have the same molecular weight? b) Alkanes
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF ETHERS a) Ether is insoluble in water c) Alkenes
b) Methyl groups are attached to oxygen in ether d) Peroxide of diethyl ether
1. Which of the following is distinguish test for ether? c) Dipole moment of ethyl alcohol is less View Answer
a) Lucas test d) Ethyl alcohol shows hydrogen bonding
b) FeCl3 test View Answer Answer: d
c) Molisch test Explanation: On exposure to air ether form peroxide of
d) Zeisel test Answer: d diethyl ether, as shown in below reaction.
View Answer Explanation: Alcohols have much higher boiling points
than the comparable alkanes or the related ethers
Answer: d because molecules of alcohols can interact through
8. An organic compound A reacts with sodium metal and
Explanation: The Zeisel determination or Zeisel test is a hydrogen bonding while those of alkanes and ethers
chemical test for the presence of esters or ethers in a forms B. On heating with conc. H2SO4, A gives diethyl
ether. What are A and B? Answer: b Answer: b
a) C2H5OH and C2H5ONa Explanation: Any of a class of alcohols that have two Explanation: Dihydric alcohol have general formula
b) C3H7OH and CH3ONa hydroxyl groups in each molecule are diols or dihydric b) (CH2)n(OH)2, where n = 2,3,4 etc.
c) CH3OH and CH3ONa alcohol.
d) C4H9OH and C4H9ONa 7. Which of the following reagent can be used to carry out
View Answer 2. Which of the following is not the example of dihydric this synthesis?
alcohol?
Answer: d a) Glycerin c)
Explanation: When C2H5OH reacts with sodium metal and b) Parahydroxyphenol
forms C2H5ONa and on heating with H2SO4 giver diethyl c) Resorcinol
a) Seliwanoff reagent
ether. d) Catechol
b) Baeyer’s reagent
View Answer d)
c) Barfoed reagent
View Answer
Answer: a d) Benedict reagent
Explanation: Glycerin is a trihydroxy alcohol i.e. Glycerol, is Answer: c View Answer
a simple polyol compound. It is a colorless, odorless, Explanation: Parahydroxyphenol is dihydric alcohol, in
9. What is the smell of the diethyl ether? Answer: b
viscous liquid that is sweet-tasting and non-toxic. which hydroxyl group is attached at 1, 4 positions to each
a) Vinegar Explanation: Cold dilute alkaline solution of Bayer’s
other in benzene ring.
b) Sweet smell reagent can be used to carry out this synthesis.
c) Rotten egg 5. Which of the following is the correct structure of
d) Fish like smell Structure of glycerin is resorcinol?
View Answer
3. Which of the following is the correct structure of
Answer: b catechol?
a)
Explanation: Diethyl ether has a rather sweet, ethereal 8. Which type of product is formed when Cold dilute
smell. It might have a hint of an alcohol-like odor, very alkaline solution of Bayer’s reagent reacts with alkene?
penetrating. a) Syn-diol
a) b) b) Anti-diol
10. Which of the following Is the correct reason for cyclic c) syn- and anti-geometry will not be there in diol
ether are miscible in water? d) Trans diol
a) Planer structure b) View Answer
b) Larger size
c)
c) Molecular weight Answer: a
d) Hydrogen bonding Explanation: On hydroxylation product is formed when
View Answer c) Cold dilute alkaline solution of Bayer’s reagent reacts with
d) alkene is syn.
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: Cyclic ethers such as tetrahydrofuran and 1,4-
d) Answer: a
dioxane are miscible in water because of the more
View Answer Explanation: Resorcinol is dihydric alcohol, in which
exposed oxygen atom for hydrogen bonding as compared
to linear aliphatic ethers. hydroxyl group is attached at 1, 3 positions to each other
Answer: b
Explanation: Catechol is dihydric alcohol, in which hydroxyl in benzene ring.
group is attached adjacent to each other in benzene ring. 6. What is the general formula for dihydric alcohol? 9. What will be the compound A which can be used to
DIHYDRIC ALCOHOLS a) (CH2)n(OH)2 where n = 2,3…etc
4. Which of the following is the correct structure of carryout this synthesis of diols?
b) (CH2)n(OH)2 where n = 1,2,4… etc
1. How many hydroxyl groups are present in diols? parahydroxyphenol?
c) CnH2n+1OH where n = 1, 2 …etc
a) One
d) (CH2)n(OH)3 where n = 3, 4, 5 …etc
b) Two
View Answer
c) Three
a) a) RCO2OH
d) Four
View Answer b) RCHO
c) RCOR’ b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups the axial position, the direction opposite the -OH group on Dextrin Function. Dextrin is a source of energy; it contains
d) RCOOH c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups carbon C-4. In galactose, the -OH group is oriented in the 3.8-4.1 Calories per gram. Dextrin is not an essential
View Answer d) Carboxyl groups & Others same direction, the equatorial position. nutrient, so you do not need to get it from food to be
View Answer healthy.
Answer: a 6. Which of the following is true about Turanose?
Explanation: A peroxy acid can be used to carryout this Answer: a a) Reducing disaccharides of glucose and fructose 10. Which of the following will not be reactive towards
synthesis as shown in below reaction. Explanation: Carbohydrates are often represented by the b) Non-reducing disaccharide seliwanoff reagent?
chemical formula Cx(H2O)y, where the numerical values of c) 7-methyl sugar a) Maltose
x and y range from 3 to 12, and functional groups are d) a deoxy sugar b) Inulin
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups. View Answer c) Fructose
d) Sucrose
3. Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human Answer: a View Answer
10. How can we detect the presence of resorcinol in the body are of which type stereoisomer? Explanation: Turanose educing sugar (3-O-α-D-glucosyl-D-
solution? a) L-type fructose), an isomer of sucrose, naturally exists in honey. Answer: a
a) Ceric ammonium nitrate test b) D-type Explanation: Maltose is an aldose sugar and only ketoses
c) neutral 7. Which of the following is not a disaccharide? give a positive Seliwanoof’s test. Sucrose, Inulin and
b) Lucas test
d) racemic mixture a) Sucrose fructose contain a ketose, and maltose does not. Only
c) Phthalic acid test
View Answer b) Maltose Therefore, sucrose, Inulin and fructose will give a positive
d) Remini’s test
c) Lactose Seliwanoof’s test, but maltose will not.
View Answer
Answer: b d) Galactose
Answer: c Explanation: Majority of the monosaccharides found in the View Answer
Explanation: Phthalic acid test:The anhydrides of aromatic human body are of D-type stereoisomer. The D-isomer of
glucose predominates in nature and it is for this reason Answer: d PREPARTIONS OF GLYCOLS
1,2-dicarboxylic acids on heating with resorcinol gives a
that the enzymes in our body have adapted to binding this Explanation: Sucrose, maltose and lactose are disaccharide
dye fluorescein. This dye in NaOH solution gives a 1. Which of the following reagent can be used to carry out
form only. and galactose is a monosaccaride.
yellowish red solution with green fluorescence. this synthesis of glycol?
4. Which is the simplest carbohydrate? 8. Which sugars are present in Sucrose?
a) Dihydroxy acetone a) Fructose and glucose
CARBOHYDRATES b) Glycerldehyde b) Glucose and glucose
c) Glucose c) Glucose and galatose
a) Benedict reagent
1. Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the d) Fructose and galatose
d) Gulose b) Baeyer’s reagent
given macromolecules? View Answer
View Answer c) Barfoed reagent
a) Protein
Answer: a d) Seliwanoff reagent
b) Lipids Answer: b
Explanation: Sucrose is commonly known as table sugar View Answer
c) Carbohydrate Explanation: Glyceraldehyde (glyceral) is a triose
d) Vitamins monosaccharide with chemical formula C3H6O3. It is the and is obtained from sugar cane or sugar beets contain
Answer: b
View Answer simplest of all common aldoses. fructose and glucose as monomers.
Explanation: Cold dilute alkaline solution of Bayer’s
9. Which of the following carbohydrate do not have any reagent can be used to carry out this synthesis of glycol.
Answer: c 5. Which of the following is the examples of Epimers?
Explanation: Carbohydrates belong to a group of complex a) Glucose & Galactose essential nutritional value?
biomolecules commonly regarded as the “staff of life.” b) Glucose & Ribose a) Sucrose
They are the most abundant organic compounds in living c) Mannose & Glucose b) Cellulose
organisms and are among the four major classes of d) fructose and glucose c) Dextrin
biomolecules. During photosynthesis, carbohydrates are View Answer d) Glycogen
2. Which of the following is the industrial method of
produced from the reaction of carbon dioxide with water. View Answer
formation of glycol?
Carbohydrates go by several common names, including Answer: a
Answer: c a) Hydroxylation of alkene by Bayer’s reagent
sugars, starches, saccharides, and polysaccharides. Explanation: In stereochemistry, an epimer is one of a pair
Explanation: Dextrins are a group of low-molecular-weight b) From 1,2-dibromoethane
of stereoisomers. The two isomers differ in configuration
carbohydrates produced by the hydrolysis of starch or c) Oxidation of ethylene and using Ag as catalyst
2. In carbohydrates which are the main functional groups at only one stereogenic center. All other stereocenters in
glycogen. Dextrins are mixtures of polymers of D-glucose d) Ethylene treatment with HOCl
are present? the molecules. The sugars glucose and galactose are
units linked by α-(1→4) or α-(1→6) glycosidic bonds. View Answer
a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups epimers. In glucose, the -OH group on the first carbon is in
Answer: c are Ethylene chlorohydrine and glycol respectively. carbonate. Ethylene glycol is produced from carbon
Explanation: In the industrial preparation of ethylene monoxide in countries with large coal reserves and less
glycol, ethylene (IUPAC name: ethene) is oxidized to stringent environmental regulations. Dimethyl oxalate can
ethylene oxide (IUPAC name: oxirane) using oxygen and a be converted into ethylene glycol in high yields (94.7%) by
silver catalyst. Ethylene oxide is then reacted with water at a) RCOR’ hydrogenation with a copper catalyst.
high temperature or in the presence of an acid catalyst to b) RCO2OH
c) RCHO 8. Which compound is used with 1,2- dibromoethane for
produce ethylene glycol. Diethylene glycol is a useful by-
d) RCOOH the formation of glycol?
product of this process.
a) Na2CO3 REACTIONS OF GLYCOLS
View Answer
b) NaHCO3
1. Which catalyst is used for reaction of ethylene glycol
Answer: b c) NaOH
with acetic acid?
Explanation: A peroxy acid can be used to carry out this d) CH3COONa
a) Amberlyst 36
3. Which type of product is formed when Cold dilute synthesis of glycol as shown in below reaction. View Answer
b) Hydrogen peroxide
alkaline solution of Bayer’s reagent reacts with alkene?
Answer: a c) Potassium permanganate
a) Syn-glyol d) Aluminium bromide
Explanation: Na2CO3 compound is used with 1,2-
b) Syn- and anti-geometry will not be there in glycol View Answer
dibromoethane for the formation of glycol, as shown in
c) Anti-glyol
given reaction.
d) Trans glycol Answer: a
6. What will be the catalyst A which can be used to carry
View Answer Explanation: Esterification of ethylene glycol with acetic
out this synthesis of glycol?
acid to ethylene glycol monoacetate and ethylene glycol
Answer: a
diacetate using the acidic ion-exchange resin Amberlyst 36
Explanation: On hydroxylation product is formed when as catalyst were investigated.
Cold dilute alkaline solution of Bayer’s reagent reacts with 9. Which of the following is the most convenient and
inexpensive method of formation of glycol? 2. What is the principle product of the acid catalysed
a) Catalyst Cu, 200 – 400℃
a) Hydroxylation of alkene by Bayer’s reagent reaction of acetone and ethylene glycol?
b) Catalyst Pt, 100 – 200℃
b) From 1,2-dibromoethane
c) Catalyst Ni, 200 – 400℃
c) Oxidation of ethylene and using Ag as catalyst a)
alkene is syn-glycol. d) Catalyst Ag, 200 – 400℃
d) Ethylene treatment with HOCl
View Answer
4. Which of the following statement is not true about View Answer b)
preparation of alcohol? Answer: d
Answer: a
a) French chemist Charles-Adolphe Wurtz (1817–1884) Explanation: Catalyst Ag at 200 – 400℃ can be used to
Explanation: The most convenient and inexpensive c)
first prepared ethylene glycol in 1856 carry out this synthesis of glycol as shown in below
method of preparing a glycol in the laboratory is to react
b) First synthesis of glycol was from “ethylene iodide” reaction.
an alkene with cold dilute potassium permanganate,
(C2H4I2) with silver acetate and then hydrolyzed the d)
KMnO4. Yields from this reaction are often poor and better
resultant “ethylene diacetate” with potassium hydroxide View Answer
yields are obtained using osmium tetroxide, OsO4.
c) It was synthesized from ethylene dichloride in Germany
However, this reagent has the disadvantages of being Answer: b
and used as a substitute for glycerol in the explosives
7. What will be the product A and B for the given reaction? expensive and toxic. Explanation: According to the given reaction between
industry
d) There is no biological process for the synthesis of glycol acetone and glycol, we can show that cyclic ketal is the
10. Which of the following is not a method of preparation
View Answer product.
of glycol?
a) Shell’s omega method
Answer: d a) ethane, glycol
b) From carbon monoxide
Explanation: Glycol can be synthesised biologically, b) glycol, ethylene chlorohydrine
c) From Dimethyl oxalate
example: The caterpillar of the Greater wax moth, Galleria c) Ethylene chlorohydrine, glycol
d) From nitrogen
mellonella, has gut bacteria with the ability to degrade d) ethan-1-ol, Glycol
View Answer
polyethylene (PE) into ethylene glycol. View Answer
Answer: d
5. What will be the compound A which can be used to Answer: c
Explanation: In the OMEGA process, the ethylene oxide is
carry out this synthesis of glycol? Explanation: The product A and B for the given reaction
first converted with carbon dioxide (CO2) to ethylene
3. What will be the product when ethylene glycol and d) Six membered cyclic ring a) Hydrous d) sucrose
terephthalic acid reacts? View Answer b) Anhydrous View Answer
c) Acidic
Answer: b d) Basic Answer: b
Explanation: Lead tetraacetate is used cleave a carbon- View Answer Explanation: Heating fats(triglyceride) will leads to
a) carbon bond in a glycol and involves a favourable five formation of glycerol along with formation of
membered cyclic intermediate, as shown in given reaction. Answer: b corresponding acid.
Explanation: It was heavily stressed by Criegee that the
reaction must be run in anhydrous solvents, as any water 2. What is the name of the process of formation of glycerol
present would hydrolyze the lead tetraacetate; however, via formation of allyl chloride?
b) a) Epichlorohydrine
subsequent publications have shown that if the oxidation
is faster than the rate of hydrolysis, the cleavage can be b) Acrolein
run in wet solvents or even aqueous solutions. c) Propylene oxide
d) Chloroform process
c) 6. What is the name of the reaction when lead 9. What happens when glycol reacts with periodic acid? View Answer
tetraacetate is used cleave a carbon-carbon bond in a a) No reaction
glycol? b) Ketones will be formed Answer: a
a) Criegee oxidation c) Aldehyde will not be formed Explanation: The epichlorohydrin process is the most
b) Swern oxidation d) Monohydric alcohols will be formed important; it involves the chlorination of propylene to give
d)
c) Baeyer-Villiger Oxidation View Answer allyl chloride, which is oxidized with hypochlorite to
View Answer
d) Jones oxidation dichlorohydrins, which reacts with a strong base to give
Answer: d View Answer Answer: b epichlorohydrin. This epichlorohydrin is then hydrolyzed to
Explanation: Chemical Reaction between ethylene glycol Explanation: Oxidation with Periodic Acid is used to cleave give glycerol.
and terephthalic acid yields BHET. Answer: a vicinal diols (a total of two alcohols, one on two adjacent
Explanation: The oxidation of 1,2‐diols (or glycols) to carbons) into two carbonyl molecules. 3. Fatty acids and glycerol (C3H8O3) are produced after
aldehydes or ketones with lead tetraacetate [Pb(OAc)4, hydrolysis of which of the following?
LTA+ via the cleavage of C‐C bond between the 10. Ethylene glycol on treatment with phosphorus tri- a) amino acids
hydroxyl‐carrying carbon atoms is generally known as iodide yields b) fats
Criegee Glycol oxidation. This reaction has been reported a) ethyl iodide c) starch
to occur only in anhydrous organic solvent. b) ethylene di-iodide d) cellulose
c) ethylene View Answer
4. What happens when glycol reacts with lead
7. Which of the following statement is not true about d) ethane
tetraacetate? Answer: b
criegee oxidation? View Answer
a) No reaction a) The oxidative cleavage of an alpha,beta-diol using lead Explanation: On hydrolysis in presence of an alkali, the tri
b) Ketones will be formed tetraacetate to give the corresponding carbonyl Answer: b esters yield glycerol and the fall of the carboxylic acids.
c) Aldehyde will not be formed compounds Explanation: Phosphorus triiodide (PI3) is an unstable red
d) Monohydric alcohols will be formed solid which reacts violently with water. It is a common 4. What is the middle product ‘A’ in the formation of the
b) It is analogous but milder than the Malaprade reaction
View Answer misconception that PI3 is too unstable to be stored; it is, in glycerol by propylene?
c) This oxidation was discovered by Rudolf Criegee and
coworkers and first reported in 1931 fact, commercially available. It is widely used in organic
Answer: b
d) Rate of reaction do not depend upon stereochemistry of chemistry for converting alcohols to alkyl iodides.
Explanation: Lead tetraacetate is used cleave a carbon-
carbon bond in a glycol. This reaction is useful in the glycol
formation of ketones and aldehydes and involves a View Answer a) Allyl chloride
favourable five membered cyclic intermediate. PREPARATIONS OF GLYCEROL b) Vinyl chloride
Answer: d
c) Acyl chloride
5. What is the intermediate form in the mechanism of the Explanation: The rate of the reaction is highly dependent 1. Glycerol can be formed through digestion of which of d) Dichloroalkane
lead acetate and glycol? on the conformation of the diols, so much so that diols the following? View Answer
a) Three membered cyclic ring that are cis on certain rings can be reacted selectively as a) galactose
b) Four membered cyclic ring opposed to those that are trans on them. b) fats Answer: a
c) Five membered cyclic ring c) glucose Explanation: The epichlorohydrin process is the most
8. Criegee oxidation of glycol should be performed in important; it involves the chlorination of propylene to give
which type of medium?
allyl chloride, which is oxidized with hypochlorite to Answer: c a) NBS, NaOH/OH–, OsO4 d) Formaldehyde and formic acid
dichlorohydrins, which reacts with a strong base to give Explanation: Because of the large-scale production of b) NaOH/OH–, NBS, alk. MnO4– View Answer
epichlorohydrin. This epichlorohydrin is then hydrolyzed to biodiesel from fats, where glycerol is a waste product, the c) alk. MnO4–, NaOH/OH–, NBS
give glycerol. market for glycerol is depressed. Thus, synthetic processes d) NBS, NaOH/OH–, OsO4 Answer: d
are not economical. Owing to oversupply, efforts are being View Answer Explanation: Lead tetraacetate, like periodic acid, will
made to convert glycerol to synthetic precursors, such as oxidize polyhydric alcohols with adjacent hydroxyl groups.
acrolein. Answer: a Two moles of formaldehyde and one mole of formic acid
Explanation: Firstly, propene will be brominated by N- are formed from one mole of glycerol.
5. What is the product A formed by the partial oxidation
8. Which of the following is not the step for the isolation of bromo succinimide (NBS), then substitution reaction will
using metal oxides and air of propylene or the given 4. What will be product of the following reaction?
glycerine form spent lye? take place by OH– via SN2 mechanism and finally then
preparation of the glycerol?
a) Brine Solution Preparation addition of hydoxy group on propen-3-ol by OsO4or
b) Saponification and salting alkaline KMnO4, will take place to give glycerol.
c) Zone distillation
a) Propene
d) Glycerin Recovery from Spent Soap Lye
b) Acroline
View Answer REACTIONS OF GLYCEROL
c) Propylene oxide a) Glycolic acids
d) Propanol Answer: c b) Glyceric acid
1. What will be the product for the reaction of catalytic c) Formic acid
View Answer Explanation: Here zone distillation is not possible as hydrogenation of glycerol? d) Formaldehyde
constituents are in liquid phase. Glycerol is a high boiling a) Glycerol carbonate
Answer: b View Answer
liquid with boiling point 290℃. Here distillation will be
Explanation: Processes from propylene include the b) Epichlorohydrine
done under high pressure at different temperature.
synthesis of glycerol from acrolein by partial oxidation of c) Propylene glycol Answer: c
propylene. Acrolein further form propen-3-ol and then 9. What will be the product X in the formation of glycerol? d) Ethylene glycol Explanation: When glycerol is distilled with hydrogen
hydrolyzed to give glycerol. View Answer peroxide which is added intermittently, it is quantitatively
converted into formic acid while glyceric and glycolic acids
6. What is the product A formed by the partial oxidation Answer: c are formed as intermediate products.
using tert- butyl hydroperoxides or hydrogen peroxide of Explanation: Glycerol is easily reduced to propylene glycol
propylene or the given preparation of the glycerol? (1,2- dihydroxypropane) with hydrogen at pressures from 5. What will be the product for the following reaction?
10 to 100 atmospheres and temperatures above 150° C.
a) R-ONa Many catalysts may be used, e.g. Ni, Fe, Pt, Au, Hg, copper
b) RCOH
a) Propene chromite or tungstic acid.
c) RCOONa
b) Acroline
d) R-ONa and RCOONa both can be formed 2. What will be the product for when glycerol is heated
c) Propylene oxide
View Answer with hydriodic acid? a) Glycolic acids
d) Propanol
a) Glycerol carbonate b) Glyceric acid
View Answer Answer: c
b) Epichlorohydrine c) Formic acid
Explanation: On hydrolysis in presence of an alkali, the tri c) Ethylene glycol d) Formaldehyde
Answer: c
esters yield glycerol and the fall of the carboxylic acids. d) Isopropyl iodide View Answer
Explanation: Processes from propylene include the
synthesis of glycerol from propylene oxide is from View Answer
Answer: d
oxidation by H2O2 or tert- butyl hydroperoxides of
Answer: d Explanation: Glycerol oxidized by hydrogen peroxide in a
propylene. Propylene oxide further form propen-3-ol and
Explanation: Glycerol heated to 135 to 140℃ with an strongly alkaline solution results in the formation of
then hydrolyzed to give glycerol.
excess of hydriodic acid is reduced to isopropyl iodide. This formaldehyde and the production of hydrogen, but neither
7. Why synthetic production of glycerol is not reaction is the basis of the Zeisel-Fanto analytical method is formed when the oxidation takes place in a less alkaline
commercially successful? for determining glycerol. medium.
10. What will be the reagent and conditions required for
a) Because process is expensive the given reaction of preparation of glycerol form propene 3. What will be product of the reaction if lead tetraacetate 6. What will happen when glycerol is added into bromine
b) Because no marketing demands from given conditions respectively? and glycerol will react? water and sodium carbonate?
c) Because process is hazardous
a) Glycerol carbonate a) Glycerol carbonate
d) Because of the large-scale production of biodiesel from
b) Ethylene glycol b) Dihydroxyacetone
fats
c) Formic acid c) Ethylene glycol
View Answer
d) Isopropyl iodide pyridine, triethylamine or quinoline. the orange solution containing the dichromate(VI) ions is 5. On heating calcium acetate and calcium formate, the
View Answer reduced to a green solution containing chromium(III) ions. product formed is which of the following?
a) CH3COCH3
Answer: b 2. In the given reaction, what will be the product P? b) CH3CHO
Explanation: Dihydroxyacetone results from the oxidation c) HCHO+CaCO3
of glycerol with bromine and sodium carbonate and by the d) CH3CHO+CaCO3
oxidation of lead glyceroxide with bromine vapors. 9. What will happen when glycerol is added into View Answer
dimethyloxalate? a) RCH2OH
7. What will happen when glycerol is added into dimethyl Answer: d
a) Glycerol carbonate b) RCOOH
carbonate? Explanation: Calcium acetate and calcium formate
b) Dihydroxyacetone c) RCHO
c) Glycerol formate decomposes on heating to form aldehyde and calcium
d) RCH3
d) Glycerol oxalate carbonate.
View Answer
View Answer
6. In the Rosenmund’s reduction, BaSO4 taken with
Answer: c
Answer: d catalyst Pd acts as which of the following?
Explanation: The catalytic hydrogenation of acid chlorides
a) Glycerol carbonate Explanation: Glycerol reacts with methyl oxalate to a) Promotor
allows the formation of aldehydes, is known as
b) Dihydroxyacetone produce glycerol oxalate, which decomposes at 220-225℃ b) Catalytic poison
Rosenmund reaction.
c) Glycerol formate to form ally1 alcohol, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide c) Cooperator
d) Isopropyl iodide and an oil. 3. What is the name of the given reaction of preparation of d) Absorber
View Answer aldehyde? View Answer
10. What will happen when glycerol is added into acid?
Answer: a a) Esterification Answer: b
Explanation: Glycerol carbonate prepared by heating such b) Alcoholysis Explanation: The Pd catalyst must be poisoned, for
esters as dimethyl carbonate with glycerol, or reacting a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction example with BaSO4, because the untreated catalyst is too
c) Transesterification
glycerol with phosgene in the presence of organic bases b) Cannizzaro reaction reactive and will give some overreduction. Some of the
d) No reaction will occur
such as pyridine, triethylamine or quinoline. c) Rosenmund reaction side products can be avoided if the reaction is conducted
View Answer
d) Reformatsky reaction in strictly anhydrous solvents.
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: When glycerol is added into acid 7. Catalyst SnCl2/HCl is used in which of the following
Answer: c method of synthesis of aldehyde?
esterification will occurs, as shown in given reaction.
Explanation: The catalytic hydrogenation of acid chlorides a) Stephen’s reduction
C3 H5 (OH)3+RCOOH → C3 H5 (OH)2 OOCR+ H2O
allows the formation of aldehydes, is known as b) Cannizzaro reaction
Glycerol Acid Ester Water
8. What will happen when glycerol is added into dimethyl Rosenmund reaction. c) Clemmensen’s reduction
carbonate? d) Rosenmund’s reduction
4. Which Catalyst is used in Rosenmund reduction?
View Answer
PREPARATION OF ALDEHYDES a) Pd / BaSO4
b) Zn-Hg couple Answer: a
1. Primary alcohol is gently heated to produce aldehyde in c) LiAlH4 Explanation: Stephen aldehyde synthesis reaction involves
presence of acidified solution of which of the following d) Ni/H2 the preparation of aldehydes (R-CHO) from nitriles (R-CN)
compound? View Answer using tin(II) chloride (SnCl2), hydrochloric acid (HCl) and
a) Glycerol carbonate
a) hydroxide quenching the resulting iminium salt ([R-CH=NH2]+Cl−) with
b) Dihydroxyacetone
b) dichromate Answer: a
c) Glycerol formate water (H2O).
c) ethanol Explanation: The catalytic hydrogenation of acid chlorides
d) Isopropyl iodide
d) ethanal allows the formation of aldehydes, is known as 8. What is the product X in the following reaction?
View Answer
View Answer Rosenmund reaction. The Pd catalyst must be poisoned,
Answer: a for example with BaSO4, because the untreated catalyst is
Answer: b too reactive and will give some overreduction. Some of the a) C6H5CH3
Explanation: Glycerol carbonate prepared by heating such
Explanation: The oxidizing agent used in these reactions is side products can be avoided if the reaction is conducted b) C6H5CH2Cl
esters as urea with glycerol, or reacting glycerol with
normally a solution of sodium or potassium dichromate(VI) in strictly anhydrous solvents. c) C6H5CHO
phosgene in the presence of organic bases such as
acidified with dilute sulfuric acid. If oxidation occurs, then d) C6H5COOH
View Answer
Answer: c d) Ethanol Answer: c dehydrogenation of isopropyl alcohol over a heated
Explanation: Aldehyde will be formed when benzene is View Answer Explanation: Acetophenone is prepared in the laboratory copper catalyst.
reacted with HCl and carbon monoxide in presence of from benzene by a substitution reaction.
anhydrous aluminium chloride. Answer: c 8. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives which of the
Explanation: Alkyne will be converted into aldehyde and following?
9. Which of the following gases when passed through oxidation with Grignard reagent will for alcohol and then a) Acetaldehyde
warm dilute solution of H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4 gives acetone will be formed. b) Ethane
acetaldehyde? c) Acetic acid
a) CH4 d) Acetone
b) C2H6 5. Ketones can be prepared in one step from which of the View Answer
c) C2H4 following process?
d) C2H2 a) Hydrolysis of esters Answer: d
View Answer b) Oxidation of primary alcohol Explanation: Dry heating of calcium acetate gives acetone
2. Acetophenone is prepared from which reaction?
c) Oxidation of secondary alcohol as shown in below reaction.
a) Rosenmund reaction
Answer: d d) Reaction of acid halide with alcohols
b) Sandmayer reaction
Explanation: C2H2 gas when passed through warm dilute View Answer
c) Wurtz reaction
solution of H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4 gives acetaldehyde.
d) Friedel craft reaction Answer: c
10. O3 reacts with CH2=CH2 to form ozonide. On hydrolysis View Answer Explanation: Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ketones –
it forms which of the following? and that’s it. For example, if you heat the secondary 9. Which of the following compound gives a ketone with
Answer: d
a) Ethylene oxide alcohol propan-2-ol with sodium or potassium Grignard reagent?
Explanation: Acetophenone is prepared from Friedel craft
b) HCHO dichromate(VI) solution acidified with dilute sulfuric acid, a) Formaldehyde
reaction, in the presence of acetyl chloride, as shown
c) Ethylene glycol propanone is formed. Changing the reaction conditions b) Ethyl alcohol
below.
d) Ethyl alcohol makes no difference to the product. c) Methyl cyanide
View Answer d) Methyl iodide
6. Ketones are prepared by which of the following name
View Answer
Answer: b reaction?
Explanation: O3 reacts with CH2=CH2 to form ozonide. On a) Clemmensen’s reduction Answer: c
hydrolysis it forms HCHO. Ozone gas is passed into a b) Cannizzaro reaction Explanation: Methyl cyanide gives a ketone with Grignard
solution of the alkene in some inert solvent like carbon 3. Compound which gives acetone on ozonolysis is? c) Rosenmund’s reduction reagent, as shown in below reaction.
tetrachloride; evaporation of the solvent leaves the a) CH3−CH=CH−CH3 d) Oppenaur’s oxidation
ozonide as a viscous oil. This unstable, explosive b) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 View Answer
compound is not purified, but is treated directly with c) C6H5CH=CH2
water, generally in the presence of a reducing agent. If Answer: d
d) CH3CH=CH2
oxidsing reagent is used, aldehyde if oxidisable can further Explanation: Oppenauer oxidation, named after Rupert
View Answer
oxidise into carboxylic acid which is not the case with Viktor Oppenauer, is a gentle method for selectively
reducing agents. Answer: b oxidizing secondary alcohols to ketones.
Explanation: Alkenes can be oxidized with ozone to form 10. Propyne on hydrolysis in presence of HCl and
7. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives which of the HgSO4gives which of the following?
ketones.
following? a) Acetaldehyde
PREPARATION OF KETONES a) Acetone b) Acetone
b) Acetaldehyde c) Formaldehyde
1. What is the end product in the following sequence of 4. Which one of the following compounds is prepared in c) Ether d) Acetophenone
reaction? the laboratory from benzene by a substitution reaction? d) Ethylene View Answer
a) Glyoxal View Answer
b) Cyclohexane Answer: b
a) Acetic acid c) Acetophenone Answer: a Explanation: Alkynes react with water in the presence of
b) Isopropyl alcohol d) Hexabromo cyclohexane Explanation: Isopropyl alcohol can be oxidized to acetone, HgSO4 to give an alcohol with double bond. This alcohol is
c) Acetone View Answer which is the corresponding ketone. This can be achieved called as enol (en for double bond and ol for alcohol).
using oxidizing agents such as chromic acid, or by These enols are highly unstable and undergo migration to
give ketone.
Preparation of Benzaldehyde & Aromatic Ketones b) Oxidation of benzyl chloride c) Stephan’s reaction Answer: d
c) Oxidation of benzyl alcohol d) Gattermann reaction Explanation: Benzaldehyde conveniently prepared by
1. The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl d) Etard reaction View Answer boiling benzyl chloride with copper nitrate or lead nitrate
chloride is called as which of the following? View Answer solution in a current of carbon dioxide.
a) Cannizzaro reaction Answer: c
b) Wurtz reaction Answer: c Explanation: Partial reduction of phenyl cyanide with 11. Formation of aromatic ketone forms from benzene by
c) Etard reaction Explanation: This involves the treatment of benzyl alcohol stannous chloride and passing dry HCl gas in ether solution CH3COCl?
d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction with dil. HNO3 or acidic potassium dichromate or chromic followed by hydrolysis of the aldimine stannic chloride a) Friedal craft alkylation
View Answer anhydride in acetic anhydride or with copper catalyst at with water to form benzaldehyde is called as Stephan’s b) Friedal craft dealkylation
350o C. This process is used for commercial production of reaction. c) Friedal craft acylation
Answer: c benzaldehyde. d) Friedal craft hydroxyalkylation
Explanation: The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by 8. Ozonolysis of styrene will lead leads to formation of View Answer
chromyl chloride is called as Etard reaction. 5. Which of the following is the not a method of benzaldehyde along which compound?
preparation of benzaldehyde? a) O2 Answer: c
a) Gattermann Koch synthesis b) H2O2 Explanation: Friedal craft acylation froms aromatic ketone.
b) Etards reaction c) HCHO A proper choice of acid chloride here gives the desired
2. Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation of toluene c) Stephan’s reaction d) H2O2 and HCHO ketone. The method works for all types of ketones though
by which of the following reagent?
d) Oxidation of secondary alcohol View Answer the bulkier aryl acid chlorides may require stronger /
a) Acidic KMnO4
View Answer longer heating.
b) K2Cr2O7 Answer: c
c) CrO2Cl2 Answer: d Explanation: Ozonolysis of styrene will lead leads to 12. What will be the product for the given reaction?
d) basic KMnO4 Explanation: Oxidation of secondary ketones is the method formation of benzaldehyde H2O2 and HCHO. a) Propanone
View Answer of formation of ketones not aldehydes. b) Acetophenone
c) Diphenylmethanone
Answer: c d) Aliphatic and aromatic
Explanation: Benzaldehyde can be prepared by oxidation View Answer
of toluene by CrO2Cl2. 9. Which of the following cannot be used in formation of
benzaldehyde by Grignard reagent? Answer: d
6. What reagents will be used in the preparation of a) HCN Explanation: Heating solid calcium salts of benzoic acid
benzaldehyde via Gattermann Koch synthesis? b) Carbon monoxide with those of any other carboxylic acid, except methanoic
a) Carbon dioxide and HCl c) Ethyl format acid, gives the ketones in low yields.
b) Carbon monoxide and HCl d) HNC
3. The oxidation of benzyl chloride with lead nitrate gives c) Oxygen and H2SO4 View Answer
which of the following compound? d) Carbon monoxide and H2SO4
a) Benzaldehyde View Answer Answer: c
b) Benzyl alcohol Explanation: Reagents like carbon monoxide or HCN and
13. What will be the product of the given reaction?
c) Benzoic acid Answer: b ethyl format can be used for formation of benzaldehyde
d) p-chlorobenzaldehyde Explanation: Benzene is converted into benzaldehyde by by Grignard reagent.
View Answer passing a mixture of carbon monoxide and HCl gas under
high pressure into the ether solution of benzene in
Answer: a presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride and cuprous a) Propanone
Explanation: The oxidation of benzyl chloride with lead chloride. b) Acetophenone
nitrate gives benzaldehyde as shown in given reaction. c) Diphenylmethanone
Pb(NO3)2 is a mild oxidizing agent so benzaldehyde is 7. Partial reduction of phenyl cyanide with stannous 10. What is the laboratory method for the formation of d) Aliphatic and aromatic
formed during the oxidation of benzyl chloride with chloride and passing dry HCl gas in ether solution followed benzaldehyde? View Answer
Pb(NO3)2. by hydrolysis of the aldimine stannic chloride with water a) Gattermann Koch synthesis
to form benzaldehyde is called as which of the following Answer: b
b) Etards reaction
4. Which of the following is the commercial method of method of preparation of benzaldehyde? Explanation: Aromatic ketones were efficiently prepared in
c) Stephan’s reaction
preparation of benzaldehyde? a) Gattermann Koch synthesis good yields by the reactions of aryl bromides with n-BuLi,
d) Oxidation of benzyl chloride
a) Oxidation of toluene b) Etards reaction followed by the reactions with aromatic aldehydes or
View Answer
aliphatic aldehydes and the subsequent treatment with conditions, to give arylated derivatives which can be 4. What will be the product if we add water to the Answer: b
molecular iodine and K2CO3, in a one-pot method. hydrolysed to aromatic ketones. aldehyde? Explanation: Methanal is a gas (boiling point -21°C), and
a) Alcohols ethanal has a boiling point of +21°C. That means that
14. Which reactant can be used to form aromatic ketone b) Epoxides ethanal boils at close to room temperature. The other
for the following reaction? c) Geminal diols aldehydes and the ketones are liquids, with boiling points
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF ALDEHYDES
d) Peroxides rising as the molecules get bigger.
1. Aldehydes have which type of smell? View Answer
8. Which of the following compound has more boiling
a) Fish like smell
a) Arenes Answer: c point than aldehyde?
b) Bitter almond smell
b) Aldehyde Explanation: It has been demonstrated that water, in the a) Alcohol
c) Pungent smell
c) Alcohol presence of an acid or a base, adds rapidly to the carbonyl b) Alkanes
d) Rotten egg like smell
d) Terperens function of aldehydes and ketones establishing a c) Ketones
View Answer
View Answer reversible equilibrium with a geminal-diol or gem-diol. d) Ether
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volatile aldehydes have pungent odors.
Explanation: Aromatic ketones were efficiently prepared in Answer: a
benzaldehyde have bitter almond type smell. Aldehydes
good yields by the reactions of arenes with n-BuLi, Explanation: The aldehyde (with dipole-dipole attractions
have Pungent type smell.
followed by the reactions with aromatic aldehydes or as well as dispersion forces) has a boiling point higher than
aliphatic aldehydes and the subsequent treatment with 2. What is the name of the process in which aldehyde get 5. In Infrared spectroscopy, at what wave number will the similarly sized alkane which only has dispersion forces
molecular iodine and K2CO3, in a one-pot method. oxidise in presence of air? band of CO bond of aldehyde will occur? and because of more possibility of Hydrogen Bonding and
a) Calcination a) 1500 cm-1 (resonance after so) thus increasing linkage and weight of
15. Aromatic ketones were synthesized from aromatic b) 1495 cm-1
b) Autoxidation molecules making it difficult for boiling off, so aldehyde
compounds via liquid‐phase oxidation at 60 °C and 1 atm c) 1965 cm-1
c) Cannizzaro reaction will have higher boiling point than ether and ketones.
over vanadium‐containing which catalyst? d) 1700 cm-1
d) Baeyer villiger oxidation However, the aldehyde’s boiling point isn’t as high as the
a) MCM-41 View Answer
View Answer alcohol’s. In the alcohol, there is hydrogen bonding as well
b) MCM-48
as the other two kinds of intermolecular attraction.
c) ZSM-5 Answer: b Answer: d
d) ZK-5 Explanation: Autoxidation is oxidation that occurs in open Explanation: Using IR spectroscopy, they display a strong 9. Which of the following is the characteristic smell of
View Answer air or in presence of oxygen (and sometimes UV radiation) CO band of aldehyde will occur near to 1700 cm-1. benzaldehyde?
and forms peroxides and hydroperoxides. It can be a) Fish like smell
Answer: a 6. What is the chemical shift of formyl hydrogen in
considered to be a slow, flameless combustion of b) Bitter almond like
Explanation: Aromatic ketones were synthesized from aldehyde?
materials by reaction with oxygen. Autoxidation is c) Pungent smell
aromatic compounds via liquid‐phase oxidation at 60 °C a) 6
important because it is a useful reaction for converting d) Rotten egg like smell
and 1 atm over vanadium‐containing MCM‐41 catalysts b) 7
compounds to oxygenated derivatives, and also because it View Answer
using a batch reactor. The catalysts were prepared by c) 8
occurs in situations where it is not desired.
direct hydrothermal (4V‐MCM‐41) and wet impregnation d) 9 Answer: b
(9V/MCM‐41) methods. 3. Which of the following aldehyde shows oligomerization? View Answer Explanation: It is a colorless liquid with a characteristic
a) Acetaldehyde almond-like odor. The primary component of bitter
16. Which of the following cannot be used as reactant in Answer: d
b) Propanal almond oil, benzaldehyde can be extracted from a number
preparation of aromatic ketones from diazonium salt? Explanation: In their 1H NMR spectra, the formyl hydrogen
c) Butanal of other natural sources.
a) formaldoxime center absorbs near δH = 9, which is a distinctive part of
d) Benzaldehyde
b) Acetaldoxime the spectrum. This signal shows the characteristic coupling 10. Which of the following aldehyde is most soluble in
View Answer
c) propionaldoxime to any protons on the alpha carbon. water?
d) Terpernes Answer: a a) Acetaldehyde
7. Which of the following aldehyde is present as gas?
View Answer Explanation: The two aldehydes of greatest importance in b) Formaldehyde
a) Acetaldehyde
industry, formaldehyde and acetaldehyde, have c) Butyraldehyde
Answer: d b) Formaldehyde
complicated behavior because of their tendency to d) Benzaldehyde
Explanation: Diazonium salts react with formaldoxime, c) Butyraldehyde
oligomerize or polymerize. View Answer
acetaldoxime, propionaldoxime, and acetaldehyde d) Benzaldehyde
semicarbazone severally, under carefully controlled View Answer
Answer: b d) Aldehyde b) Isopropyl acetone CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF ALDEHYDES
Explanation: As the carbon chain increases in length, View Answer c) butanone
solubility in water decreases. d) Methyl ethyl ketone 1. During a reaction of Tollens test, the formation of mirror
Answer: c View Answer inside the tube is due to which of the following?
Explanation: Because of their inability to serve both as a) silver ions
hydrogen-bond donors and acceptors, ketones tend not to Answer: c b) silver atoms
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF KETONES “self-associate” and are more volatile than alcohols and Explanation: Butanone is an effective and common solvent c) silver compounds
carboxylic acids of comparable molecular weights. and is used in processes involving gums, resins, cellulose d) silver nitrate
1. Which of the following compound has more boiling
point than ketones? acetate and nitrocellulose coatings and in vinyl films. View Answer
4. Why ketones are volatile in nature?
a) Alcohol a) Due to molecular weight 8. Which of the following is also known as model cement? Answer: b
b) Alkanes b) Hydrogen bonding a) Cyclopropenone Explanation: Tollens’ reagent oxidizes an aldehyde into the
c) Aldehyde c) Neither hydrogen bond donor nor acceptor b) butanone corresponding carboxylic acid.
d) Ether d) Weak bonding c) Isopropyl acetone
View Answer View Answer d) Methyl ethyl ketone
Answer: a View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Amongst aldehydes and ketones, ketones Explanation: Because of their inability to serve both as Answer: c The reaction is accompanied by the reduction of silver ions
have higher boiling point. This is due to the presence of hydrogen-bond donors and acceptors, ketones tend not to Explanation: As butanone dissolves polystyrene and many in Tollens’ reagent into metallic silver, which, if the test is
two electron donating alkyl groups around the group “self-associate” and are more volatile than alcohols and other plastics, it is sold as “model cement” for use in carried out in a clean glass test tube, forms a mirror on the
which makes them more polar. As dipole moment is carboxylic acids of comparable molecular weights. connecting parts of scale model kits. test tube.
greater so it is more polar and hence has higher boiling
point. However, the aldehyde’s boiling point isn’t as high 5. Why ketones are used as solvent? 9. Which of the following is a toxic ketone? 2. Reduction of Aldehydes to hydrocarbon take place in
as the alcohol’s. In the alcohol, there is hydrogen bonding a) Due to molecular weight a) butanone the presence of which of the following?
as well as the other two kinds of intermolecular attraction. b) Hydrogen bonding b) Acetone a) Zn amalgam and HCl acid
c) Neither hydrogen bond donor nor acceptor c) Methyl ethyl ether b) Pd/BaSO4
2. Which of the following has highest boiling point? d) Weak bonding d) Methyl vinyl ketone c) Anhydrous AlCl3
a) 2-hexanone View Answer View Answer d) Ni/Pt
b) 2-pentanone View Answer
c) butanoic acid Answer: c Answer: d
d) 3-methyl-2-butanone Explanation: Because of their inability to serve both as Explanation: Although it is difficult to generalize on the Answer: a
View Answer hydrogen-bond donors and acceptors, ketones tend not to toxicity of such a broad class of compounds, simple Explanation: Reduction of Aldehydes to hydrocarbon take
“self-associate” and are more volatile than alcohols and ketones are, in general, not highly toxic. Exceptions to this place in the presence of Zn amalgam and HCl acid, is a
Answer: d carboxylic acids of comparable molecular weights. These rule are the unsaturated ketones such as methyl vinyl clemmensen reduction.
Explanation: 2-hexanone has a carbon chain length of 6 factors relate to the pervasiveness of ketones as solvents. ketone with LD50 of 7 mg/kg (oral).
whereas 2-pentanone has a carbon chain length of 5. 2- 3. For C6H5CHO which of the following is incorrect?
hexanone therefore has a higher boiling point than 2- 6. Which of the ketones are used in nail paint removers? 10. Which of the following cannot be used for the a) On oxidation it yields benzoic acid
pentanone. Therefore, the descending order of all four of a) Cyclopropenone characterisation of ketone by spectroscopy? b) It is used in perfumery
the provided compounds is butanoic acid, 2-hexanone, 2- b) Isopropyl acetone a) 1H NMR c) It is an aromatic aldehyde
pentanone then 3-methyl-2-butanone. It can also be c) butanone b) Infra-red spectrum d) On reduction yields phenol
concluded that the boiling point of compounds are d) Methyl ethyl ketone c) 13C NMR View Answer
affected by the strength of the intermolecular forces View Answer d) UV spectroscopy
Answer: d
present, the chain length of the carbon backbone of the View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: On reduction of benzaldehyde it gives
compound and the presence of any branching within its
structure. Explanation: Isopropyl Acetone is a commonly used Answer: a
solvent and is the active ingredient in nail polish remover Explanation: Ketones absorb strongly in the infra-red
3. Which of the following is more volatile? and some paint thinners. spectrum near 1700 cm−1. The exact position of the peak
a) Carboxylic acid depends on the substituents. Whereas 1H NMR benzyalcohol not phenol.
b) Alcohol 7. Which of the following is the used as solvent in gums, spectroscopy is generally not useful for establishing the
resins, nitrocellulose? 4. Which of the following compound will undergo self-
c) Ketones presence of a ketone, 13C NMR spectra exhibit signals
a) Cyclopropenone aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute alkali?
somewhat downfield of 200 ppm depending on structure.
a) C6H5CHO Answer: a d) A secondary alcohol D2O undergoes enolisation, deutration (addition of D2O)
b) CH3CH2CHO Explanation: The Grignard reagent adds across the carbon- View Answer and dehydration (removal of H2O). The repeated
c) CH≡C−CHO oxygen double bond: enolisation, deutration and dehydration ultimately gives
d) CH2=CH−CHO Answer: d CD3.COCD3.
View Answer Explanation: One of the R groups is hydrogen and the
other CH3 in ethanal. So, the final product has one
Answer: b CH3group and one hydrogen attached:
Explanation: Carbon−carbon bond formation using strong Dilute acid is then added to this to hydrolyse it, an alcohol
and weak anion-exchange resins as green catalysts for self- is formed. One of the key uses of Grignard reagents is the
and cross-aldol condensation of propanal in aqueous ability to make complicated alcohols easily.
media was investigated. The reaction pathway followed
the route of aldol condensation to a β-hydroxy aldehyde A secondary alcohol has two alkyl groups (the same or 3. Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an
and dehydration to an α,β-unsaturated aldehyde. The different) attached to the carbon with the -OH group on it. example of which type of reaction?
resulting products were further converted to hemi-acetal. 8. To distinguish between formaldehyde and a) electrophilic addition
acetaldehyde, we require which of the following reagent? b) electrophilic substitution
5. Which of the following will not undergo aldol
a) Tollen’s reagent CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF KETONES c) nucleophilic addition
condensation?
b) Fehling’s solution d) nucleophilic substitution
a) Acetaldehyde
c) Schiff’s reagent 1. Which of the following reaction is not shown by View Answer
b) Propanaldehyde
d) Caustic soda solution ketones?
c) Benzaldehyde Answer: c
View Answer a) reaction with HCN
d) Trideuteroacetaldehyde Explanation: In the reaction, Acetone reacts with HCN to
b) reaction with NaHSO3
View Answer Answer: d form a cyanohydrin, dissociated proton from HCN
c) reaction with 2,4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine
Explanation: Reaction of formaldehyde is a Cannizzaro d) reaction with Fehling solution activates the carbonyl, which facilitates the nucleophilic
Answer: c
reaction when react with Dil. NaOH and reaction of View Answer attack of CN.
Explanation: Deuterium behaves like H and hence
acetaldehyde is aldol condensation reaction when react
trideuteroacetaldehyde also undergoes aldol condensation 4. Which of the following has most acidic hydrogen?
with Dil. NaOH. Answer: d
but benzaldehyde does not since it has no a-hydrogen. a) 3-Hexaone
Explanation: Fehling’s can be used to distinguish aldehyde
vs ketone functional groups. The compound to be tested is b) 2,4- Hexanedione
6. Acetaldehyde cannot show which of the following test?
added to the Fehling’s solution and the mixture is heated. c) 2, 3-Hexanedione
a) Iodoform test
Aldehydes are oxidized, giving a positive result, but d) 2, 5-Hexanedione
b) Lucas test
ketones do not react, unless they are alpha-hydroxy- View Answer
c) Benedict’s test 9. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get which
d) Tollen’s test ketones.
of the following compound? Answer: b
View Answer a) Acetylene Explanation: 2, 4-hexanedione (a 1, 3-diketone) has the
2. The enol form of acetone, after treatment with D2O,
b) Methane gives which of the following product? most acidic hydrogen. This is because the carbanion left
Answer: b
c) Methyl alcohol after the removal of H+ is resonance stabilised in this case.
Explanation: Lucas reagent is a solution of anhydrous
d) Ethyl formate
ZnCl2 & concentrated HCl. This solution is used to classify a)
View Answer
alcohols of low molecular weight. This reaction is
substitution in which a chloride replaces hydroxyl group. It Answer: c
is to differentiate between Primary, Secondary & tertiary Explanation: Methyl alcohol is formed when formaldehyde b)
alcohols. and KOH are heated.
ROH + HCl → RCl + H2O 5. Which of the following will fail to react with potassium
c)
dichromate and dilute sulphuric acid?
7. What will be the product if aldehyde reacts with NaOH?
10. Acetaldehyde reacts with C2H5MgCl the final product is a) Ethyl alcohol (ethanol)
a) Benzyl alcohol
which of the following? b) Acetaldehyde (ethanal)
b) Benzoic alcohol d)
a) An aldehyde c) Secondary propyl alcohol (2-propanol)
c) Hydrobenzamide View Answer
b) A ketone d) Acetone (propanone)
d) Cinnamic acid
c) A primary alcohol Answer: b View Answer
View Answer
Explanation: The enol form of acetone on treatment with
Answer: d Answer: a 2. What is the major organic product obtained from the
Explanation: Acetone oxidise by K2Cr2O7 & conc. H2SO4 into Explanation: The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration following reaction?
carboxylic acid. It is not oxidised by dilute H2SO4. (HgSO4+H2SO4) of 1-butyne would be what?) of 1-butyne is
butan-2-one. d)
6. Which of the following reactions give benzophenone? View Answer
a) 2C6H6 + CCl4 + AlCl3 + H2O→
b) C6H6 + C6H5COCl + AlCl3→ Answer: a
c) o−CH3C6H4COC6H5 + Heat→ Explanation: Ozonolysis of an alkene results in cleavage of
9. Benzophenone does not react with which of the the carbon-carbon double bond to form two carbonyl
d) o−HOOC−C6H4−COC6H5 + Cu260oC→
following compound? bonds. Ozonolysis of a cyclic alkene in which the double
View Answer a)
a) RNH2 bond has a hydrogen atom on each of the carbon atoms of
Answer: b b) SO3 the carbon-carbon double bond will lead to the formation
Explanation: The C6H6 + C6H5COCl + AlCl3→ reaction is a c) NaOH of a dialdehyde.
b)
Friedel craft acylation and the mechanism is as follow, d) Na2CO3
which give benzophenone. View Answer 4. What is the major organic product obtained from the
following reaction?
Answer: d c)
Explanation: Except Na2CO3 benzophenone react with rest
of options.

10. The conversion of acetophenone to acetanilide is best d)

accomplished by using which reaction? View Answer
a) Backmann rearrangement a)
b) Curtius rearrangement Answer: c
7. Which of the following statements regarding chemical c) Lossen rearrangement Explanation: Di-isobutyl aluminium hydride (DIBAH) is a
properties of acetophenone are wrong? d) Hofmann rearrangement selective reducing agent. It does not reduce esters to 1°
b)
I. It is reduced to methyl phenyl carbinol by sodium and View Answer alcohols (lithium aluminium hydride can be used to reduce
ethanol esters to 1° alcohols).
Answer: a c)
II. It is oxidised to benzoic acid with acidified KMnO4 3. What is the major organic product obtained from the
Explanation: The conversion of acetophenone to
III. It does not undergo iodoform electrophilic substitution following reaction?
acetanilide is best accomplished by using Backmann
like nitration at meta position
rearrangement. d)
IV. It does not undergo iodoform reaction with iodine and
alkali View Answer
a) I and II
Answer: b
b) II and IV
Explanation: Treatment of an alkyne with aqueous acid in
c) III and IV
the presence of Hg2+ results in a hydration reaction to
d) I and III NUCLEOPHILIC ADDITION REACTIONS
form an enol, which tautomerizes to form a ketone. The
View Answer a)
1. What type of reaction takes place upon treatment of a regiochemistry of the addition is that predicted by
Answer: c ketone with HCN to form a cyanohydrin? Markovnikov’s rule, with the oxygen adding to the more
Explanation: It undergoes electrophilic substitution at m- a) Nucleophilic addition substituted end of the carbon-carbon triple bond.
position and also gives iodoform test. b) Nucleophilic substitution
b) 5. What is the major organic product obtained from the
c) Electrophilic addition
8. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration following reaction?
d) Electrophilic substitution
(HgSO4+H2SO4) of 1-butyne would be what? View Answer
a) CH3CH2COCH3
b) CH3CH2CH2CHO Answer: a c)
c) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO Explanation: The atoms of HCN add to the carbon-oxygen
d) CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH double bond of the ketone by nucleophilic attack of the
View Answer cyanide anion on the electrophilic carbon of the carbonyl.
 d) 4-penten-2-ol CONDENSATION REACTIONS
View Answer
1. Condensation reaction is the reverse of which of the
a)
Answer: d following reaction?
a)
Explanation: Lithium aluminium hydride (LiAlH4) is a a) lock and key hypothesis
reducing agent which reacts with ketones to give 2° b) oxidation
alcohols. It does not react with carbon-carbon double c) hydrolysis
b)
bonds. d) glycogen formation
b) View Answer
c) 8. What is the major organic product obtained from the
following reaction? Answer: c
d) Explanation: This reaction example is the reverse of
View Answer hydrolysis, which splits a chemical entity into two parts
c)
through action from the polar water molecule, which itself
Answer: b splits into hydroxide and hydrogen ions.
Explanation: Silver(I) oxide in aqueous ammonia (“Tollens
reagent”) is a mild oxidizing agent which oxidizes 2. Condensation reaction always results in the formation
aldehydes to carboxylic acids without reacting with d) of complex sugar (disaccharide or polysaccharide) and
carbon-carbon double bonds or many other functional View Answer which of the following?
groups. a) amino acids
a)
Answer: a b) lipids
6. What is the major organic product obtained from the Explanation: Hydroxylamine reacts with ketones by c) water
following reaction? nucleophilic addition followed by elimination to give an d) maltose
oxime. View Answer

b) 10. What is the major organic product obtained from the Answer: c
following reaction? Explanation: Condensation reaction always results in the
formation of complex sugar (disaccharide or
polysaccharide) and water.
a) 2,4-dimethyl-4-heptanol
b) 4,7-dimethyl-4-heptanol 3. In which condensation an enol or an enolate ion reacts
c)
c) 3,5-dimethyl-4-heptanol a) 2-methylpropene with a carbonyl compound to form a β-hydroxyaldehyde
d) 3,5-dimethyl-3-heptanol b) 2-butene or β-hydroxyketone (an aldol reaction), followed by
View Answer c) 1-butene dehydration to give a conjugated enone happens?
d) 2-methyl-1-propanol a) Aldol condensation
Answer: d
d) View Answer b) Claisen reduction
Explanation: It is also important that products are
View Answer c) Henry condensation
identified accurately using IUPAC nomenclature: 4,7- Answer: a
d) Knoevenagel condensation
Dimethyl-4-heptanol is not an IUPAC name. Explanation: Reaction of a ketone with a phosphonium
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: 1° Amines react with ketones by nucleophilic ylide results in a nucleophilic addition reaction to form a
7. What is the major organic product obtained from the
addition to form a carbinolamine intermediate which betaine which undergoes ring closure followed by Answer: a
following reaction?
undergoes dehydration to give an imine, not an 2° amine. elimination of a phosphine oxide to make a new carbon- Explanation: Aldol condensation in which condensation an
carbon double bond of an alkene. This is a Wittig reaction. enol or an enolate ion reacts with a carbonyl compound to
9. What is the major organic product obtained from the It is important to recognize that the new carbon-carbon form a β-hydroxyaldehyde or β-hydroxyketone (an aldol
following reaction? double bond in the product is formed between the carbon reaction), followed by dehydration to give a conjugated
atom of the carbonyl and the phosphorus-substituted enone happens.
a) 4-hydroxy-2-pentanone carbon atom of the ylide. It is also useful to draw out the
mechanism for this reaction to determine the structure of 4. Which combination of carbonyl compounds gives phenyl
b) 2-pentanol
the product. vinyl ketone by an aldol condensation?
c) 2-pentanone
 Answer: a b) α-nitro ketone Answer: a
Explanation: With malonic compounds the reaction c) nitroalkene Explanation: A more substituted double bond is generally
product can lose a molecule of carbon dioxide in a d) β-amino alcohol more stable.
a) Acetophenone and ketone subsequent step. In the so-called Doebner modification View Answer
b) Acetophenone and aldehyde the base is pyridine. For example, the reaction product of 2. Which of the following is the least abundant aldol
c) Benzaldehyde and aldehyde acrolein and malonic acid in pyridine is trans-2,4- Answer: c adduct formed from an equimolar mixture of ethanal and
d) Benzaldehyde and ketone Pentadienoic acid with one carboxylic acid group and not Explanation: This is a Henry Reaction, it is the combination propanone in aqueous NaOH solution?
View Answer two. of a nitroalkane and an aldehyde or ketone in the
presence of a base to form β-Nitro alcohols, followed by
Answer: a 7. What will be the product of the following reaction? dehydration of nitroalkene. a)
Explanation: Draw the structures of the possible aldol
products (3-hydroxy carbonyl compounds) before 10. What will be the product ‘B’ in the reaction?
b)
dehydration from the pairs of reactants shown below,
then identify which aldol will lead to phenyl vinyl ketone
upon dehydration.
a) –Nitro alcohol
c)
5. Which ester will not give a good yield of the Claisen b) -nitro alcohol a) α-nitro alcohol
condensation product with NaOEt in EtOH? c) Nitroalkene b) α-nitro ketone
d) -amino alcohol c) nitroalkene
View Answer d) β-amino alcohol d)
a) View Answer View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is a Henry Reaction, it is the combination Answer: d Answer: d
of a nitroalkane and an aldehyde or ketone in the Explanation: This is a Henry Reaction, it is the combination Explanation: Adduct (d) is the propanone dimer which is
b) presence of a base to form β-Nitro alcohols. of a nitroalkane and an aldehyde or ketone in the destabilized by the steric strain caused by the geminal
presence of a base to form β-Nitro alcohols, followed by methyl groups; the aldol reaction is reversible and a less
8. What will be the product ‘B’ in the reaction?
reduction of the nitro group to yield β-amino alcohols. stable product will be less abundant.
c)
3. An acetoacetic ester synthesis of a ketone proceeds by
alkylation of the enolate of the acetoacetic ester followed
ENOLATES
d) by ester hydrolysis and decarboxylation of the β-ketoacid.
View Answer a) α-nitro alcohol 1. Which of the following is the structure of the most Which of the following methyl ketones is difficult to
b) α-nitro ketone stable enol form of 2-methylpentan-3-one? prepare by this method?
Answer: c
c) nitroalkene
Explanation: The Claisen condensation is reversible and it
d) β-amino alcohol
is formation of a stabilized enolate of the product which a)
View Answer
leads to a high yield at equilibrium. When the product a)
cannot give a stabilized enolate, the yield will be poor. Answer: b
Explanation: This is a Henry Reaction, it is the combination b)
6. What will be the product for the following reaction?
of a nitroalkane and an aldehyde or ketone in the b)
presence of a base to form β-Nitro alcohols, followed by
c)
oxidation of the secondary alcohol to yield α-nitro
ketones.
a) trans-2,4-pentadienoic acid c) d)
9. What will be the product ‘B’ in the reaction?
b) cis -2,4-pentadienoic acid View Answer
c) 3-aminobenzoic acid
d) 2-aminobenzoic acid Answer: a
d)
View Answer Explanation: The alkylation of the enolate is an SN2
View Answer
a) α-nitro alcohol reaction, and sterically hindered alkyl groups are difficult
to introduce. However, even dialkylation is possible with order in the concentration of the base
reactive alkylating agents. b) The rate constant for the base-catalysed α-halogenation
a) of propanone decreases in the order Cl2 > Br2 > I2
4. A malonic ester synthesis of a carboxylic acid proceeds a)
c) The base-catalysed α-halogenation of propanone
by alkylation of the enolate of the malonic ester followed proceeds easily to give 1,1,1-trihalopropanone
by ester hydrolysis and decarboxylation of the β- d) Polyhalogenation of propanone is difficult under acidic
b) b)
dicarboxylic acid. Which of the following carboxylic acids is conditions, but the products are the same as those
difficult to prepare by this method? obtained under basic conditions
a) PhCH2CH2CO2H c) View Answer
b) (CH3)2CHO2H c)
c) PhCH2CO2H Answer: b
d) Explanation: The rate-determining step of the base-
d) catalyzed α-halogenation is usually the initial proton
d) View Answer
View Answer abstraction to give the enolate, so the rate constant is
View Answer
Answer: b independent of the identity (or concentration) of the
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: For enolate ions of 1,3-dicarbonyl halogen.
Explanation: Conjugation of the C=C double bond with the
Explanation: The alkylation of an enolate is an SN2 compounds. Conjugation of the C=C double bond with the
remaining carbonyl provides a more stable enol, which
reaction, and halobenzene do not react by this remaining carbonyl provides a more stable enol, which
rules out. Enols may all be obtained by protonation of the rules out. Enols may all be obtained by protonation of the
mechanism; consequently, phenyl cannot be introduced in ACETALS
same enolate or the readily interconverting stereoisomeric
this way. However, even dialkylation is sometimes possible same enolate or the readily interconverting stereoisomeric
enolates. Of these, It allow stabilizing intramolecular
with primary alkyl halides. enolates. Of these, allow stabilizing intramolecular 1. Which of the following statements is wrong?
hydrogen bonding; it is the more stable of the two owing hydrogen bonding. NMR evidence indicates that is the a) Hydrolysis of an acetal is catalysed by acids
5. Which of the following is the most stable enolate to the conjugative stability of the remaining ester group. more stable of the two presumably owing to the b) Hydrolysis of an acetal is catalysed by aqueous acid
derived from 4-methylhexan-3-one? conjugative stability of the remaining amide group. c) Oximes are stabilized by conjugation between the C=N
7. Which is a wrong structure as a resonance contributor
to the most stable enolate form of pentan-2,4-dione? and OH groups
9. Which enolate derived from 1-phenylbutan-2-one is
d) Enamines are formed between secondary amines and
most stable?
the carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketones
a)
a) View Answer
a)
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrolysis of an acetal is catalysed by
b) b) aqueous acid, Acetals are not stable to aqueous acid and
are very readily hydrolyzed back to the parent alcohol and
b)
carbonyl compound under these reaction conditions.
c)
c)
2. Acetal on acid hydrolysis generates which of the
c) following?
d) a) Alcohol
View Answer b) Amine and aldehyde
d) d) c) Ketone and alcohol
View Answer Answer: d View Answer d) Ketone and ether
Explanation: Structure is of a different enolate ion (the
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: c position of a hydrogen atom is changed).
Explanation: A more substituted double bond is generally Explanation: Formation of the double bond in conjugation Answer: c
more stable. The difference in stability between the 8. Which enol form of the following dicarbonyl compound with the phenyl group leads to a more stable enolate, and Explanation: A series of cyclic and acyclic acetals and ketals
stereoisomeric enolates. is predominant at equilibrium? it is probably more stable (less sterically strained) than the were hydrolyzed to their corresponding carbonyl
stereoisomeric. compounds by a catalytic amount of CBr4 (20%) in
6. Which enol form of ethyl 3-oxobutanoate is
10. Which of the following statements is wrong? CH3CN/H2O solvent mixture under different energy
predominant at equilibrium?
a) The base-catalysed α-halogenation of propanone is first sources, thermal or ultrasound.
3. Which combination of an aldehyde and an alcohol most with an acid catalyst? 9. Dimethoxymethane is dimethyl acetal of which of the
readily forms a hemiacetal with base catalysis? following?
a) Formaldehyde
a) b) Acetaldehyde
a)
a) c) Tolualdehyde
d) Propionaldehyde
b) View Answer
b)
Answer: a
c) Explanation: Dimethoxymethane is dimethyl acetal
b) formaldehyde.
c)
d) 10. Which of the following is not polyacetal?
View Answer a) Dimethoxymethane
d) c) b) Dioxolane
Answer: c
View Answer c) Starch
Explanation: The reaction conditions given are those for
d) Cellulose
acetal formation.
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: An electron-withdrawing substituent (e.g., Cl) 6. Which is normally the main product when a mixture of
facilitates nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl of an Answer: d
aldehyde RCHO and an excess of alcohol R’OH is treated
aldehyde whereas bulky groups in an alcohol lead to steric d) Explanation: Cellulose is a ubiquitous example of a
with a base catalyst?
hindrance in its addition to a carbonyl in the formation of View Answer polyacetal. Dimethoxymethane, dioxolane and starch is an
a hemiacetal; for formation of hemiacetals. The balance of example of a polyacetal.
Answer: b
these effects in the following leads to being the most a)
Explanation: It does not represent a legitimate
reactive system.
intermediate in this reaction, Consider the mechanism of
TAUTOMERISM
4. Which of the following most readily forms a cyclic the acid-catalysed formation of cyclic acetals from ketones
b)
hemiacetal with acid catalysis? and diols, it does not form the desired acetal form. 1. How many enolisable hydrogens are there in the
following compound?
8. Which of the following structures is a hemiacetal?
c)
a)

d)
a) a) 4
b) View Answer
b) 5
Answer: a c) 6
c) Explanation: In the presence of a base rather than an acid, d) 7
b)
the reactants go no further than formation of the View Answer
hemiacetal.
d) Answer: a
View Answer 7. Consider the mechanism of the acid-catalysed formation Explanation: The hydrogen atom present on the carbon
of cyclic acetals from ketones and diols, which of the c) which is adjacent to the carbon attached to the functional
Answer: c following structures does not represent a legitimate group, and here it is 4.
Explanation: Hydroxy aldehydes and ketones of the right intermediate in this reaction?
carbon chain length form cyclic hemiacetals with acid 2. How many tautomers can you draw for the following
d)
catalysis; ones leading to a five-membered product usually ketone?
View Answer
give the highest yields, and hydroxy aldehydes generally
give better yields than hydroxy ketones. Answer: d
Explanation: An acetal is a functional group with the
5. Which is normally the main product when a mixture of following connectivity R2C(OR’)2, where both R’ groups are
aldehyde RCHO and an excess of alcohol R’OH is treated organic fragments. a) 1
b) 2 Answer: a a) I > II > III
c) 3 Explanation: For Keto-Enol tautomerism, keto form should b) II > I > III
d) 4 have α-hydrogen, as shown in below example. c) III > II > I
View Answer d) I > III > II
d)
View Answer
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: Two isomers can be drawn as shown below: Answer: b
Answer: c
Explanation: The keto–enol tautomerization, less stable
Explanation: According to the tautomerism the tautomer
enolate ion will be formed faster as it is
thermodynamically stable, so III is more stable than I.
II is most sable as it is keto form.

of phenol is c. 10. Which of the following structure can show

3. How many tautomers can you draw for the following
tautomerism?
ketone?
5. Which of the following compound exhibit tautomerism? 7. Which of the following tautomeric form is more stable?
CH3-CH=O ↔ CH2=C-OH
(I) (II)
a) I
a) 1 b) II
b) 2 c) Both are equally stable
a) I
c) 3 d) Both are unstable
b) II
d) 4 View Answer
a) I c) III
View Answer
b) II Answer: a d) I and III
Answer: b c) I and II Explanation: The keto–enol tautomerization chemical View Answer
Explanation: Two isomers can be drawn as shown below. d) Neither I nor II equilibrium is highly thermodynamically driven, and at
Answer: b
View Answer room temperature the equilibrium heavily favors the
Explanation: Quinone has an α-hydrogen; however, it is a
formation of the keto form.
Answer: c vinylic hydrogen (hydrogen attached to a carbon atom
Explanation: For Keto-Enol tautomerism, keto form should 8. What is the stability order for the following compounds? which is sp2 hybridized), it is very difficult to abstract such
have α-hydrogen. a hydrogen, and hence it becomes very less acidic.
Therefore, no abstraction of α-hydrogen from it, by a base,
4. Which of the following is a tautomer of phenol? hence, it does not show tautomerism, same is for III.

a) I > II > III

b) II > I > III PREPARATION OF CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
a) c) III > II > I
1. Hydrolysis of CH3CH2NO2 with 85% H2SO4 gives which of
d) I > III > II
the following compound?
View Answer
a) CH3CH2OH
Answer: b b) C2H6
b) Explanation: The keto–enol tautomerization, less stable c) CH3CH=NOH
6. In keto-enol from presence of which type of hydrogen is d) CH3COOH
enolate ion will be formed faster as it is
must? View Answer
thermodynamically stable, so III is more stable than I.
a) Alpha
II is most sable as it is keto form.
b) Beta Answer: d
c) c) Gamma 9. What is the stability order for the following compounds? Explanation: Hydrolysis of CH3CH2NO2 with 85%
d) Any position of hydrogen H2SO4 gives carboxylic acid as shown in below chemical
View Answer equation:
2. Acetic acid is obtained when which of the given reaction Answer: d V2O5 the product is phthalic acid. Answer: c
takes place? Explanation: Benzyl chloride gives benzoic acid on Explanation: BrCH2CH2COOH is least acidic or has less Ka
a) Methyl alcohol is oxidised with potassium oxidation. i.e., dissociation constant. It is A due to lesser -I effect of Br
permanganate C6H5CH2CI + 2 KOH + 2 *O+ → C6H5COOK + KCl + H2O. than F and B Br atom further away form −COOH group.
b) Calcium acetate is distilled in the presence of calcium
formate 6. In the below sequence of reactions, A and B are which 2. The vapour of a carboxylic acid HA when passed over
c) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with potassium dichromate of the following? MnO2 at 573 K yields propanone. What is the acid HA?
and sulphuric acid 9. The below reaction is called as which of the following a) Methanoic acid
d) Glycerol is heated with sulphuric acid name reaction? b) Ethanoic acid
View Answer c) Propanoic acid
a) (CH3)2C(OH)CN, (CH3)2C(OH)COOH
d) Butanoic acid
b) (CH3)2C(OH)CN, (CH3)2C(OH)2
Answer: c View Answer
c) (CH3)2C(OH)CN, (CH3)2CHCOOH
Explanation: Acetic acid is obtained when acetaldehyde is a) Wurtz reactions
d) (CH3)2C(OH)CN, (CH3)2C=O Answer: b
oxidised with potassium dichromate and sulphuric acid. b) Koch reaction
View Answer Explanation: The vapour of ethanoic acid (HA) when
c) Clemenson’s reduction
passed over MnO2 at 573 K yields propanone.
Answer: a d) Kolbe’s reaction
Explanation: In the below sequence of reactions, A and B View Answer
3. Acetic acid is manufactured by the fermentation of are a shown below (a):
which of the following reaction? Answer: b
3. Which acid is strongest or Which is most acidic?
a) Ethanol Explanation: The Koch reaction is an organic reaction for
a) Cl2CH.COOH
b) Methanol the synthesis of tertiary carboxylic acids from alcohols or
b) ClCH2COOH
c) Ethanal alkenes.
7. Formic acid is obtained when which of the given c) CH3COOH
d) Methanal reaction occurs? d) Cl3C.COOH
10. By aerial oxidation, which one of the following gives
View Answer a) Calcium acetate is heated with conc. H2SO4 View Answer
phthalic acid?
b) Calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate a) Naphthalene
Answer: a Answer: b
c) Glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 110℃ b) Benzene
Explanation: Ethanol fermentation leads to the formation Explanation: Presence of -I effect chlorine atom increases
d) Acetaldehyde is oxidised with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 c) Mesitylene
of acetic acid. the acidic nature by withdrawing electrons.
View Answer d) Toluene
Cl3CCOOH > Cl2CHCOOH > Cl−CH2−COOH > CH3COOH
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 110℃ 4. The acid which reduces Fehling solution is which of the
4. When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO4, the Answer: a
gives formic acid. following?
product obtained is which of the following compound? Explanation: By aerial oxidation naphthalene, we can get
a) Methanoic acid
a) Benzaldehyde phthalic acid.
b) Ethanoic acid
b) Benzoic acid c) Butanoic acid
c) CO2 and H2O
d) Propanoic acid
d) Benzophenone
View Answer
View Answer 8. o-xylene when oxidised in presence of V2O5 the product
is which carboxylic acid? Answer: a
Answer: a a) Benzoic acid Explanation: Methanoic acid resemble with aldehyde due
Explanation: When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO4, b) Phenyl acetic acid to its structure. So, it reduces Fehling reagent.
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
the product obtained is benzoic acid. c) Phthalic acid
d) Acetic acid 1. Which of the following acids has the smallest 5. Which class of compounds shows H-bonding even more
5. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on oxidation? than in alcohols?
View Answer dissociation constant?
a) Chlorophenol
a) CH3CHFCOOH a) Phenols
b) Chlorotoluene Answer: c b) FCH2CH2COOH b) Carboxylic acids
c) Chlorobenzene Explanation: o-xylene when oxidised in presence of c) BrCH2CH2COOH c) Ethers
d) Benzyl chloride d) Aldehydes
d) CH3CHBrCOOH
View Answer
View Answer View Answer
Answer: b Answer: b 3. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a a) CaCO3
Explanation: Forms H-bonding by means two highly Explanation: CH3COOH is slightly ionised than H2SO4. product C b) CaO
electronegative atoms present in it. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because It has c) CaC2O4
less degree of ionization. d) Ca(OH)2
6. Which of the following is the strongest acid? What would be product C? View Answer
a) CH3COOH 10. In CH3COOH and HCOOH, HCOOH will be which of the a) CH3−C-C2H5(OH)C6H5
b) BrCH2COOH following? b) CH3CH(OH)C2H5 Answer: c
c) ClCH2COOH a) Less acidic c) CH3COC6H5 Explanation: CaC2O4 is a salt of oxalic acid which is more
d) FCH2COOH b) Equally acidic d) CH3CH(OH)C6H5 acidic than acetic acid, so it is insoluble in acetic acid.
View Answer c) More acidic View Answer
d) cannot say about acidic behaviour 7. Identify the wrong statement from the following?
Answer: d View Answer Answer: a a) Salicylic acid’s a monobasic acid
Explanation: Presence of -I effect fluorine atom increases Explanation: In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid b) Methyl salicylate is an ester
the acidic nature by withdrawing electrons. Answer: c yielded a product C is CH3−C-C2H5(OH)C6H5. c) Salicylic acid gives violet colour with neutral ferric
F−CH2−COOH > Cl−CH2−COOH > Br−CH2−COOH > Explanation: Presence of methyl group decreases the chloride as well as brisk effervescence with sodium
CH3COOH. acidic character of acetic acid due to positive inductive bicarbonate
effect (+I). d) Methyl salicylate does not occur in natural oils
7. The reaction of HCOOH with conc.H2SO4 gives which of View Answer
the following compound?
a) CO2 Answer: d
b) CO CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF CARBOXYLIC ACIDS 4. Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenol and alcohol Explanation: Methyl salicylate occurs in natural essential
c) Oxalic acid because of which of the following? oils like winter green.
1. Hydrogenation of C6H5CHOH−COOH over
d) Acetic acid Rh−Al2O3catalyst in methanol gives which of the following? a) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
View Answer b) Formation of dimers 8. When CH3COOH reacts with CH3−Mg−X, which of the
a) C6H5CH2COOH following is formed?
c) Highly acidic hydrogen
Answer: b b) C6H11CHOHCOOH a) CH3COX is formed
c) C6H5CHOHCH2OH d) Resonance stabilization of their conjugate base
Explanation: The reaction of HCOOH with conc.H2SO4gives View Answer b) Hydrocarbon is formed
carbon monoxide and water. d) C6H11CH2COOH c) Acetone is formed
View Answer Answer: d d) Alcohol is formed
Explanation: Resonance stabilization of their conjugate View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogenation of C6H5CHOH−COOH over base i.e., carboxylate ion.
8. Which one is strongest acid among following options? Answer: b
a) CH2FCOOH Rh−Al2O3 catalyst in methanol gives C6H11CHOHCOOH. 5. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium Explanation: When CH3COOH reacts with CH3−Mg−X
b) CH2ClCOOH bicarbonate CO2 is liberated. The ‘C’ of CO2 comes from formed as hydrocarbon.
c) CHCl2COOH which of the following? CH3COOH + CH3 – Mg – X → CH3 – CH3
d) CHF2COOH a) Methyl group
View Answer b) Carboxylic acid group 9. Hydrolysis of an ester gives a carboxylic acid which on
c) Methylene group Kolbe’s electrolysis yields ethane. The ester is which of the
Answer: b following?
d) Bicarbonate
Explanation: CHF2−COOH. Difluoroacetic acid is strongest 2. In the anion HCOO− the two carbon-oxygen bonds are a) Ethyl methonoate
View Answer
because presence of two F atoms increases its acidic found to be of equal length. What is the reason for it? b) Methyl ethanoate
nature. a) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are hybridised Answer: d c) Propylamine
b) The C = O bond is weaker than the C – O bond Explanation: When propionic acid is treated with aqueous d) Ethylamine
9. Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid because
c) The anion HCOO− has two resonating structures sodium bicarbonate CO2 is liberated and ‘C’ of CO2 comes View Answer
which of the following reasons?
d) The anion is obtained by removal of a proton form the from bicarbonate.
a) It decomposes on increasing temperature Answer: b
acid molecule CH3CH2COOH(aq) + NahCO3(aq) → CH3CH2COONa + CO2 +
b) It has less degree of ionisation Explanation: Hydrolysis of an ester gives a carboxylic acid
View Answer H2O.
c) It has -COOH group which on Kolbe’s electrolysis yields ethane, this ester is
propionic acid sod.bicarbonate
d) It has more inductive effect Answer: b methyl ethanoate.
View Answer Explanation: Anion HCOO− has two resonating structure 6. The compound not soluble in acetic acid is which of the
(identical). following?
10. Sulphonation of benzoic acid produces mainly which of 3. When formic acid reacts with PCl5 it forms which of the Answer: c d) Acetyl chloride
the following? following? Explanation: C6H5CCl3 + C6H5CO2H → 2 C6H5COCl + HCl View Answer
a) o-sulphobenzoic acid a) Formyl chloride Benzoyl chloride is produced along HCl with from
b) m-sulphobenzoic acid b) Acetyl chloride benzotrichloride using either water or benzoic acid. Answer: b
c) p-sulphobenzoic acid c) Methyl chloride Explanation: Alcohols react with acyl chlorides to give
d) o- and p-sulphobenzoic acid d) Propionyl chloride 7. What will be the product B in the given reaction? esters:
View Answer View Answer 2 C6H5COCl + H2O2 + 2 NaOH → B + 2 NaCl + 2 H2O RCOCl + R′OH → RCO2R′ + HCl
a) Chlorophenol
Answer: b Answer: a b) Chlorotoluene 10. For synthesis of carboxylic acid, the intermediate
Explanation: Sulphonation of benzoic acid produces mainly Explanation: When formic acid reacts with PCl5 it forms c) Chlorobenzene product needed is which of the following?
m-sulphobenzoic acid. formyl chloride. d) Benzyl peroxide a) Acyl chloride
HCOOH + PCl5 → HCOCl + POcl3 + HCl View Answer b) aryls
Formic acid Formyl chloride c) benzene
Answer: d d) carboxylic acid
4. Laboratory method for the preparation of acetyl Explanation: Benzoyl peroxide, a common reagent in View Answer
chloride is which of the following? polymer chemistry, is produced industrially by treating
a) CH3COOH + SOCl2→CH3COCl benzoyl chloride with hydrogen peroxide and sodium Answer: a
b) CH3COOH + PCl3→CH3COCl hydroxide: Explanation: For synthesis of carboxylic acid, the
c) CH3COONa + PCl3→CH3COCl 2 C6H5COCl + H2O2 + 2 NaOH → (C6H5CO)2O2 + 2 NaCl + 2 intermediate product needed is acid chloride.
ACID CHLORIDES
d) CH3COONa + PCl3→CH5COCl H2O
1. Which of the following is the name given to the given View Answer
compound? 8. What is the product in the given reaction when benzyl
ACID ANHYDRIDES
Answer: a chloride reacts with phenol?
Explanation: Acetyl chloride is produced in the laboratory 1. What is the major product of the following reaction?
by the reaction of acetic acid with chlorodehydrating
a) Acetyl chloride
agents such as SOCl2.
b) Formyl chloride
c) Chloretone 5. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on oxidation?
d) Oxochloromethane a) Chlorophenol a) Chlorophenol
View Answer b) Chlorotoluene b) Benzophenone
c) Chlorobenzene c) Chlorobenzene
Answer: b d) Benzyl peroxide
d) Benzyl chloride
Explanation: Formyl chloride is the organic compound with View Answer
View Answer
the formula HC(O)Cl.
Answer: d Answer: b
2. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by which Explanation: It undergoes the Friedel-Crafts acylation with a)
Explanation: Benzyl chloride gives benzoic acid on
of the following? aromatic compounds to give the corresponding
oxidation.
a) Cl2, hv benzophenones and related derivatives.
b) SO2, Cl2
c) SOCl2
d) Cl2, H2O
View Answer b)

Answer: c
Explanation: Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic 6. What is the product D in the given reaction?
9. Which of the following is the product B when acid c)
acid be SOCl2. C6H5CCl3 + C6H5CO2H → 2 C6H5COCl + D
a) Cl2 chloride reacts with alcohol?
b) H2O RCOCl + R′OH → B + HCl
a) Chlorophenol d)
c) HCl
b) Ester View Answer
d) H2
View Answer c) Ether
Answer: c carboxylic acids would naturally re-form the two carboxylic 6. Which of the following compounds would be converted 8. Which of the following is most reactive?
Explanation: In order for this product to form, a second acids from which they were obtained.) to acetic anhydride when treated with sodium acetate?
methyl amine nitrogen atom would have to attack the a) Acetaldehyde
carbonyl carbon of the carboxylate anion (the leaving 4. Which of the following compounds is not an acid b) Acetyl chloride
group of the original anhydride) and this is energetically anhydride? c) Methyl acetate
a) 1
not favoured due to repulsion by the negative charge on d) Acetamide
b) 2
View Answer
c) 3
Answer: b d) 1 and 2
the oxygen atom. Explanation: The acid chloride can then be converted to a View Answer
a) less reactive derivative such as an anhydride.
2. What will be the reactivity order of the following with Answer: a
water? 7. Which will be the product of the following reaction? Explanation: Acid anhydrides are more reactive than
a) acid halide > ester > acid anhydride > amide esters, which are more reactive than amides. This is due to
b) acid anhydride > amide > acid halide > ester b) the electronegative group, polarizing the carbonyl group
c) amide > ester > acid anhydride > acid halide more strongly than an alkoxy group (ester) or an amino
d) acid halide > acid anhydride > ester > amide group (amide).
View Answer
9. What is the formed product when acid anhydride is
Answer: d c) hydrolyzed?
Explanation: Acid halide are more reactive than a) Aldehyde
anhydrides, which are more reactive than esters, which b) Ketone
are more reactive than amides. This is due to the d) c) Alcohols
View Answer a)
electronegative group, such as chlorine, polarizing the d) Carboxylic acid
carbonyl group more strongly than an alkoxy group (ester) View Answer
Answer: b
or an amino group (amide).
Explanation: An organic acid anhydride is an acid Answer: d
3. Which of the following is an anhydride? anhydride that is an organic compound. An acid anhydride Explanation: Hydrolysis of acid anhydrides in water occurs
b)
is a compound that has two acyl groups bonded to the at a slow rate and may also need heating (boiling) with
same oxygen atom. A common type of organic acid water – a reaction rate which contrasts rather strongly
anhydride is a carboxylic anhydride, where the parent acid with the acid halides and leads to formation of carboxylic
a) is a carboxylic acid, the formula of the anhydride being acid.
(RC(O))2O.
c) 10. What will be the product for the following reaction?
5. Acetic anhydride is less reactive toward attack by a
b) nucleophile than which of the following?
a) Acetic acid
b) Ethyl acetate
c) Acetyl chloride
c) d) Acetonitrile d) a) Ester and carboxylic acid
View Answer View Answer b) Ether and carboxylic acid
c) Ketones and ester
Answer: c Answer: d
d) Aldehyde and carboxylic acid
d) Explanation: Nucleophilic substitution reactions usually Explanation: The product when reaction of acid anhydride
View Answer
View Answer take place in two steps: addition of the nucleophile and with ethanol is the ester ethyl ethanoate, as shown in
elimination of a leaving group. Although both steps can given reaction. Answer: a
Answer: b
affect the overall rate of the reaction, it is generally the (CH3CO)20 + ROH → CH3COOR + CH3COOH Explanation: Phenol and ethanoic anhydride reacts to
Explanation: Acid anhydrides, or simply anhydrides, are
first step that is rate-limiting. Therefore, any factor that But, here the acid anhydride is closed so both ester and
compounds which would react additively with water to
makes the carbonyl group of the carboxylic acid derivative carboxylic part will be in same molecule.
form two molecules of the parent carboxylic acid. (Mixed
more easily attacked will favor the reaction.
anhydrides, RCOOCOR’, i.e. anhydrides derived from two
form, phenyl ethanoate with ethanoic acid. amides. With an alkyl amine the lone pair electron is a) Aniline d) Methyl cyanide
localized on the nitrogen. However, the lone pair electron b) Chlorobenzene View Answer
on an amide are delocalized between the nitrogen and the c) Benzyl amine
oxygen through resonance. This makes amides much less d) Benzonitrile Answer: b
basic compared to alkyl amines. And more the stabilization View Answer Explanation: Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of
in amide less will be basic, here PhCH2CONH2 will be bromine and caustic potash on propionamide.
stabilizes by resonance. Answer: d CH3 – CH2 – CO – NH2 + Br2 + 4KOH → CH3CH2NH2+ K2CO3 +
Explanation: POCl3 is a dehydrating agent so Benzamide on 2KBr + 2H2O
AMIDES
4. By refluxing unsubstituted amide with acid, it will yield reaction with POCl3 propionamide
1. When acetamide is treated with HNO2, the gas is which of the following product(s)? gives benzonitrile.
evolved which of the following? a) ammonia
a) H2 b) carboxylic acid
ESTERS
b) O2 c) nitrogen gas
c) N2 d) ammonia and carboxylic acid 1. Which of the following compounds is an ester?
d) CH4 View Answer
View Answer Answer: d 8. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction
Explanation: By refluxing unsubstituted amide with acid, it named after which of the following reaction?
Answer: c a)
will yield and ammonia and carboxylic acid. a) Perkin
Explanation: When acetamide is treated with HNO2, the
b) Claisen
gas is evolved in nitrogen gas. 5. Which one of the following reducing agents is likely to c) Hoffmann
CH3 – CO – NH2 + HNO2 → CH3COOH + N2↑ + H2O b)
be the most effective in bringing about the following d) Kolbe
Acetamide Acetic acid
change? View Answer
2. On heating acetamide in presence of P2O5, which of the R−CONH2 → RCH2NH2
a) H2−Ni Answer: c
following is formed?
b) NaBH4 Explanation: Amides may be converted into amines by c)
a) Ammonium acetate
c) LiAlH4 reaction named after Hoffmann bromamide reaction.
b) Acetonitrile
c) NH3 d) Na-alcohol
d) Methylamines View Answer
View Answer 9. What will be the product for the given reaction? d)
Answer: a
View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: H2−Ni reducing agents is likely to be the most
Explanation: On heating acetamide in presence of P2O5, effective in conversion of amide to amine. Answer: c
acetonitrile is formed. a) CH3Br Explanation: Esters are characterized by their possession
b) CH4 of a modified carboxyl group, in which the H of the -OH
c) CH3COBr group is replaced by an alkyl group, to form the general
d) CH3NH2 functional group -COOR.
6. Ethyl amine on acetylation gives which of the following? View Answer
3. Decreasing order of basicity of the given compound is a) N-ethyl acetamide 2. Which of the following is used as catalyst for the
which of the following? b) Acetamide Answer: c esterification of carboxylic acid and alcohol?
(1) CH3CONH2 c) Methyl acetamide Explanation: Amide on reacting with NaOBr will give an a) Nitrous acid
(2) CH3CH2NH2 d) N,N-dimethyl acetamide amine as shown below. b) Sulphuric acid
(3) PhCH2CONH2 View Answer c) Sulphurous acid
a) 1 > 2 > 3 d) Nitric acid
b) 2 > 1 > 3 Answer: a View Answer
c) 3 > 2 > 1 Explanation: Ethyl amine on acetylation gives N-ethyl 10. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine
d) 1 > 3 > 2 acetamide, as shown in given reaction. and caustic potash on which of the following? Answer: b
View Answer CH3CH2NH2 + CH3COCl → CH3CH2NHCOCH3 + HCl a) Acetamide Explanation: The classic synthesis is the Fischer
b) Propionamide esterification, which involves treating a carboxylic acid
Answer: b 7. Benzamide on reaction with POCl3 gives which of the c) Formamide with an alcohol in the presence of a dehydrating agent:
Explanation: Comparing the basicity of alkyl amines to following?
RCO2H + R′OH ⇌ RCO2R′ + H2O 6. What is the characteristic smell for ester? b) Aldehyde 2. What is the geometry of the intermediate formed in the
The equilibrium constant for such reactions is about 5 for a) Fruity like smell c) Alcohol mechanism of transesterification?
typical esters, e.g., ethyl acetate. The reaction is slow in b) Fish like smell d) Alkene a) Octahedral
the absence of a catalyst. Sulfuric acid is a typical catalyst c) Rotten egg smell View Answer b) Square planner
for this reaction. d) Alcoholic smell c) Tetrahedral
View Answer Answer: a d) Square bipyramidal
3. What will be the product for the given reaction? Explanation: The Fries rearrangement is a rearrangement View Answer
CH3OH + CO →? Answer: a reaction of a phenolic ester to a hydroxy aryl ketone by
a) Ethyl formate Explanation: Many esters have distinctive fruit-like odors, catalysis of Lewis acids. Answer: c
b) Methyl formate and many occur naturally in the essential oils of plants. Explanation: In the transesterification mechanism, the
c) Ethyl acetate This has also led to their commonplace use in artificial 10. What is the order or solubility in water of the following carbonyl carbon of the starting ester reacts to give a
d) Methyl acetate flavorings and fragrances when those odors aim to be compound? tetrahedral intermediate, which either reverts to the
View Answer mimicked. 1) ethyl methanoate starting material, or proceeds to the transesterified
2) ethyl butanoate product.
Answer: b 7. Salts of carboxylate anions can be alkylating agent with 3) ethyl ethanoate
Explanation: The carbonylation of methanol yields methyl alkyl halides to give esters. In the case that an alkyl 4) ethyl propanoate 3. What chemical reaction makes biodiesel?
formate, which is the main commercial source of formic chloride is used, an iodide salt can catalyze the reaction. a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 a) Transesterification
acid. What is the name reaction for the given reaction? b) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 b) Sublimation
CH3OH + CO → CH3O2CH a) Favorskii rearrangement c) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 c) Polymerization
b) Baeyer–Villiger oxidation d) 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 d) Fermentation
4. Hydrolysis of ester leads to the formation of which of c) Pinner reaction View Answer View Answer
the following products in basic medium? d) Finkelstein reaction
a) Ether and alcohol View Answer Answer: b Answer: a
b) Alcohol and sodium carboxylate Explanation: As chain length increases, the hydrocarbon Explanation: Transesterification chemical reaction makes
c) Aldehyde and alcohol Answer: d portion forces itself between water molecules, breaking biodiesel. The most common method of transesterification
d) Sodium carboxylate Explanation: Salts of carboxylate anions can be alkylating the relatively strong hydrogen bonds between water is the reaction of the ester with an alcohol in the presence
View Answer agent with alkyl halides to give esters. In the case that an molecules without offering an energetic compensation; of an acid catalyst.
alkyl chloride is used, an iodide salt can catalyze the furthermore, the water molecules are forced into an
Answer: b reaction this reaction is known as Finkelstien reaction. ordered alignment along the chain, decreasing the entropy 4. Polyethylene terephthalate is prepared by a
Explanation: Under basic conditions, hydroxide acts as a in the system. This makes the process thermodynamically transesterification reaction.
nucleophile, while an alkoxide is the leaving group. 8. What will be the product of given reaction? less favorable, and so solubility decreases. a) True
b) False
View Answer

a) Ether and alcohol TRANSESTERIFICATION Answer: a

b) Alcohol and sodium carboxylate Explanation: By transesterification reaction between
5. What will be the product for the given reaction? 1. Which of the following is true about transesterification?
c) Aldehyde and alcohol dimethyl terephthalate and the dihydric alcohol, ethylene
C2H4 + CH3CO2H + 1⁄2 O2 →? a) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the
d) Carboxylic acid and alkene glycol, polyethylene terephthalate is prepared along with
a) Ethyl formate organic group alkyl of an alcohol
View Answer methanol, which is evaporated to drive the reaction
b) Vinyl formate b) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an alcohol with forward.
c) Ethyl acetate the organic group alkyl of an ester
Answer: d
d) Methyl acetate c) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the 5. What type of solution is used in transesterification for
Explanation: Ester pyrolysis in is a vacuum pyrolysis
View Answer organic group alkyl of an alkane the determination of fatty acid compositions?
reaction converting esters containing a β-hydrogen atom
into the corresponding carboxylic acid and the alkene. d) exchanging the organic alkyl group of an ester with the a) Methanol in NaOH
Answer: b
organic group alkyl of an ether b) Methanol in NaCl
Explanation: In the presence of palladium-based catalysts,
View Answer c) Methanol in KOH
ethylene, acetic acid, and oxygen react to give vinyl
d) Methanol in H2O
acetate: Answer: a View Answer
C2H4 + CH3CO2H + 1⁄2 O2 → C2H3O2CCH3 + H2O 9. Fries rearrangement reaction of phenol ester leads to Explanation: Transesterification is the process of
the formation which type of product? exchanging the organic group R″ of an ester with the Answer: a
a) Ketone organic group R′ of an alcohol. Explanation: In aqueous warm solution of methanol in
NaOH esterification for the determination of fatty acid hydrochloric acid? d) Sodium acetate b) The shorter the chain of fatty acid, the higher is the
compositions. a) Ethyl ethanoate View Answer saponification value
b) Methyl ethanoate c) The higher the saturation in chain of fatty acid, the
6. Transesterification reaction is an irreversible reaction. c) Ethyl propanoate Answer: c lower is the saponification value
a) True d) Propyl ethanoate Explanation: The soap has the formula C17H35COONa and d) The lower the saturation in chain of fatty acid, the
b) False View Answer its name is sodium stearate. higher is the saponification value
View Answer View Answer
Answer: c 3. Lye is used in soap-making. Lye is a concentrated
Answer: b Explanation: Methyl propanoate reacts with ethanol in the solution of which ionic compound? Answer: a
Explanation: The most common method of presence of hydrochloric acid to form ethyl propanoate a) K2CO3 Explanation: The shorter the chain of fatty acid, the higher
transesterification is the reaction of the ester with an and methanol. b) CuSO4 is the saponification value, the long chain fatty acids found
alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst. Since both the c) NaOH in fats have a low saponification value because they have a
reactants and the products are an ester and an alcohol, 10. Which of the following is the product formed when d) NaCl relatively fewer number of carboxylic functional groups
the reaction is reversible and the equilibrium constant is butyl acetate and ethanol in presence of hydrochloric View Answer per unit mass of the fat as compared to short chain fatty
close to one. acid? acids.
a) Ethyl ethanoate Answer: a
7. Which of the following is the product formed when b) Methyl acetate Explanation: Lye is another name for a strongly basic 7. Which of the following fat or oil is unsaponifiable?
methyl ethanoate and ethanol in presence of hydrochloric c) Ethyl acetate solution. Mostly it is a solution of sodium hydroxide. a) Paraffin wax
acid? d) Propyl ethanoate b) Bee wax
a) Ethyl ethanoate 4. Which of the following term describe saponification?
View Answer c) Olive oil
b) Methyl ethanoate a) Cleaving of ester molecules into carboxylic acid and
d) Shea butter
c) Ethyl propanoate Answer: c alcohol
View Answer
d) Propyl ethanoate Explanation: Butyl acetate reacts with ethanol in the b) Dehydration synthesis by removing water
View Answer presence of hydrochloric acid to form ethyl acetate and c) Hydrolysis of a salt by adding a weak acid Answer: a
butanol. d) Synthesis of two alkyl groups to make an ether Explanation: Unsaponifiables are components of an oily
Answer: a View Answer (oil, fat, wax) mixture that fail to form soaps when treated
Explanation: Methyl ethanoate reacts with ethanol in the with sodium hydroxide (lye) or potassium hydroxide.
presence of hydrochloric acid to form ethyl ethanoate and Answer: a
Unsaponifiable value of paraffin wax is approximately 100.
methanol. SAPONIFICATION Explanation: Cleaving of ester molecules into carboxylic
acid and alcohol that is triglyceride is treated with a strong 8. Saponification value is the number of milligrams of KOH
1. Which of the following processes can saponification be base, which cleaves the ester bond, releasing fatty acid
used for? required to saponify what present in the 1g of oil or fat?
salts (soaps) and glycerol. a) Salts
a) For the production of plastics
8. Which of the following is the product formed when b) In blow glass artistry 5. Which of the following is considered a useful alkali in b) Hydrocarbon
alkylene carbonate and alcohol in presence of hydrochloric c) Fatty acids
c) To make soap saponification reactions?
acid? d) unsaturation
d) The formation of alloys a) CCl4
a) Dialkyl carbonate View Answer b) Cl– View Answer
b) Methyl ethanoate c) NaOH
c) Alkyl carbonate Answer: c Answer: c
d) Pb+ Explanation: The saponification is the value of oil
d) Propyl ethanoate Explanation: Saponification is a process that produces View Answer determined as the number of mgs of KOH needed to
View Answer soap. Soaps are salts of fatty acids.
saponify the fatty acids present in the 1g of oil.
Answer: c
Answer: a 2. What is the name of the soap produced through the Explanation: Depending on the nature of the alkali used in 9. Which of the following compound is an industrial
Explanation: The transesterification reaction implies an saponification of this triglyceride? their production, soaps have distinct properties. Sodium manufacturing product by saponification?
alkylene or cyclic carbonate and an alcohol in the presence hydroxide (NaOH) gives “hard soap”; hard soaps can also a) Sodium chloride
of either a homogeneous or heterogeneous acidic or basic be used in water containing Mg, Cl, and Ca salts. b) Potassium hydroxide
catalyst to coproduce dialkyl carbonate and the alkane diol
c) Glycerol
or glycol. 6. Which of the following statement is true about
d) Sodium hydroxide
a) Sodium dececanoate saponification value of oil?
9. Which of the following is the product formed when View Answer
b) Sodium oleate a) The shorter the chain of fatty acid, the higher is the
methyl propanoate and ethanol in presence of saponification value
c) Sodium stearate
Answer: c 2. Which ester will not give a good yield of the Claisen Answer: a sodium ethoxide, affords β-keto esters.
Explanation: The triglyceride is treated with a strong base condensation product with NaOEt in EtOH? Explanation: The product is a β-keto ester which gets
which cleaves the ester bond, releasing fatty acid salts deprotonated by the strong base in the reaction mixture
(soaps) and glycerol. This process is also the main and get converted into simple keto group.
industrial method for producing glycerol. In some soap- a)
making, the glycerol is left in the soap. 5. What will be the product of the following reaction?
7. What will be the product of the following reaction?
10. Soap can be precipitated out by salting by using which b)
chemical compound?
a) Sodium chloride a) Ethyl acetoacetate
b) Potassium hydroxide c) b) Methyl acetoacetate
c) Glycerol c) Propyl acetoacetate
d) Sodium hydroxide d) Butyl acetoacetate a)
View Answer d) View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a Answer: a
b)
Explanation: If necessary, soaps may be precipitated by Answer: c Explanation: The Claisen Condensation between esters
salting it out with sodium chloride. Explanation: The Claisen condensation is reversible and it containing α-hydrogens, promoted by a base such as
is formation of a stabilized enolate of the product which sodium ethoxide, affords β-keto esters.
c)
leads to a high yield at equilibrium. When the product
CLAISEN AND CROSS CLAISEN CONDENSATION cannot give a stabilized enolate, the yield will be poor.

1. Which of the following reaction shows Claisen 3. Which of the following is a product formed in Claisen d)
condensation? condensation? 6. What will be the product of the following reaction? View Answer
a) β- ester
b) β-ketone Answer: b
c) β-keto ester Explanation: If one of the ester partners has enolizable α-
d) Y-diketone hydrogens and the other does not (e.g., aromatic esters or
a)
View Answer carbonates), this will be the mixed reaction or cross
Claisen condensation.
Answer: c
Explanation: The Claisen condensation is a carbon–carbon a)
b)
bond forming reaction that occurs between two esters or
c)
one ester and another carbonyl compound in the presence
b) 8. What will be the product of the following reaction?
of a strong base, resulting in a β-keto ester or a β-
diketone.

4. Which of the following stamen is incorrect about Claisen c)

condensation?
a) The product is a β-keto ester which resists
d) deprotonation by the strong base in the reaction mixture d) a)
View Answer b) The reaction involves the condensation of two esters in View Answer
the presence of strong base
Answer: c c) A strong base is required to remove H+ from an α-H Answer: d b)
Explanation: The Claisen condensation is a carbon–carbon position in one of the starting esters Explanation: The Claisen Condensation between esters
bond forming reaction that occurs between two esters or d) A strong base is required to remove H+ from an α-H containing α-hydrogens, promoted by a base such as
one ester and another carbonyl compound in the presence position in one of the starting esters c)
of a strong base, resulting in a β-keto ester or a β- View Answer
diketone.
d)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If one of the ester partners has enolizable α-
hydrogens and the other does not (e.g., aromatic esters or
carbonates), this will be the mixed reaction or cross
Claisen condensation.
9. which of the following is the reactant precursor for the
given product?
a) I and III
b) II and III
c) III and IV
d) I and II
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Claisen condensation, the driving force is
the formation of the stabilized anion of the β-keto ester. If
two different esters are used, an essentially statistical
mixture of all four products is generally obtained, and the
preparation does not have high synthetic utility.
10. Which of the following mechanism shows the correct
curve arrow of the reaction of the enolate ion from ethyl
acetate with ethyl acetate in the Claisen condensation?
View Answer
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanism of Claisen condensation consist Explanation: This is an example of an intramolecular
of main three steps. First, an acid-base reaction. The Claisen condensation. These reactions occur for 1,6 and d)
alkoxide functions as a base and removes the acidic a- 1,7 diesters, as these substances result in the formation of View Answer
hydrogen giving the reactive ester enolate. The compounds containing five and six membered rings,
nucleophilic ester enolate attacks the carbonyl C of respectively. Answer: c
another ester in a nucleophilic substitution process giving Explanation: Favours the formation of the more stable 5-
the tetrahedral intermediate. The intermediate collapses, 3. What is the other name for the intramolecular Claisen or 6-membered rings, as the ring stain in 5 and 6
reforming the C=O, resulting in loss of the leaving group, condensation? membered rings are less.
the alkoxide, leading to the b-ketoester product. a) Perkin condensation
b) Stobbe condensation
c) Knoevenagel condensation
d) Dieckmann condensation
INTRAMOLECULAR CLAISEN CONDENSATION View Answer 6. Which is the main product of the following
intramolecular Claisen condensation?
1. Which type of precursor is used as reactant in Answer: d
intramolecular Claisen condensation? Explanation: Diester compounds can be used to give an
a) One molecule with an ester end intramolecular Claisen condensation which is known as the
b) Two molecules of ester Dieckmann condensation.
c) One molecule with two ester ends
d) One molecule of ester and enolate 4. Dieckmann Condensation is intramolecular
View Answer condensation of ……. to form cyclic product.
a) diamide
Answer: c b) diol a)
Explanation: In intramolecular Claisen condensations, c) diester
reactions occur for 1,6 and 1,7 diesters, as these d) diketone
substances result in the formation of compounds View Answer
b)
containing five and six membered rings, respectively.
Answer: c
2. Which is the main product of the following reaction? Explanation: These reactions occur for 1,6 and 1,7 diesters,
c)
as these substances result in the formation of compounds
containing five and six membered rings.
5. What will be the product of the following intramolecular
d)
Claisen condensation?
View Answer
Answer: d
a)
Explanation: This reaction is an intramolecular Claisen
condensation, which is followed by attack of carbocation
on carbon attached to ester group.
b)
a)
c)
7. Which is the main product of the following
b) intramolecular Claisen condensation?
d)
View Answer
c)
 9. Which is the main product of the following primary amine.
intramolecular Claisen condensation?
a) c)
3. Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of bromine
and caustic potash on which compound?
a) Acetamide
b) d) b) Propionamide
View Answer c) Formamide
d) Methyl cyanide
c) a) Answer: a
View Answer
Explanation: This reaction is an intramolecular Claisen
condensation, favours the formation of the more stable 5- Answer: b
or 6-membered rings, as the ring stain in 5 and 6 Explanation: Ethylamine can be prepared by the action of
d) b) membered rings are less and 6-membered rings are more bromine and caustic potash on propioamide.
View Answer stable than 5 membered. But in case bridge ring is present CH3 – CH2 – CO – NH2 + Br2 + 4KOH → CH3CH2NH2+ K2CO3 +
Answer: b which is unstable as compared to 5 and 6 membered ring. 2KBr + 2H2O
Explanation: This reaction is an intramolecular Claisen c) propioamide
condensation, in which the product is a β-keto ester which
4. Reduction of nitroalkanes yields which compound?
gets deprotonated by the strong base in the reaction NITROGEN CONTAINING ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
a) Acid
mixture and get converted into simple keto group.
PREPARATION OF AMINES – 1 b) Alcohol
d) c) Amine
View Answer 1. The amine formed from an amide by means of bromine d) Diazo compounds
and alkali has how many number of carbon atoms? View Answer
8. What will be the product(s) of the following Answer: b a) Same number of C atoms as that of amide
intramolecular Claisen condensation? Explanation: This reaction is an intramolecular Claisen b) One less C atom than that of amide Answer: b
condensation, favours the formation of the more stable 5- c) One more C atom than that of amide Explanation: Reduction of nitroalkanes yields amines, as
or 6-membered rings, as the ring stain in 5 and 6 d) Two more C atoms than that of amide shown in below reaction.
membered rings are less and 6-membered rings are more View Answer
stable than 5 membered.
Answer: b
Explanation: The amine formed from an amide by means 5. What is the name of the reaction when acetamide
of bromine and alkali has one less C atom than that of changes into methylamine?
amide. a) Hofmann bromamide reaction
10. Which is the main product of the following b) Hofmann reaction
intramolecular Claisen condensation? c) Friedel-Craft’s reaction
a) I d) Hinsberg reaction
b) II View Answer
2. The compound X is which of the following?
c) I and II
Answer: a
d) II and III
Explanation: When an amide is treated with bromine in an
View Answer a) CH3CONH2
b) CH3CH2NH2 aqueous or ethanolic solution of sodium hydroxide,
Answer: d degradation of amide takes place leading to the formation
c) C2H6
Explanation: This reaction is an intramolecular Claisen of primary amine. This reaction involving degradation of
d) CH3NHCH3
a) amide and is popularly known as Hoffmann bromamide
condensation, favours the formation of the more stable 5- View Answer
or 6-membered rings, as the ring stain in 5 and 6 degradation reaction.
membered rings are less. In both II and III five membered Answer: b
6. When methyl iodide is heated with ammonia, what is
ring is formed. Explanation: Reduction of nitriles leads to formation of
b) the product obtained?
a) Methylamine
b) Dimethylamine d) Oxime d) CH3−CH2−CH2−NH2 Answer: c
c) Trimethylamine View Answer View Answer Explanation: Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for
d) A mixture of the above three amines synthesising primary amines. Phthalimide is alkylated with
View Answer Answer: b Answer: b alkyl or benzyl halide and then hydrolysed or
Explanation: Nitriles of reduction gives amine and on Explanation: Starting from propanoic acid, the following hydrazinolysis to get pure primary amine.
Answer: d hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid. reactions were carried out, the compound is ethylamine.
Explanation: When methyl iodide is heated with ammonia, 6. What will be the product of the following reaction?
the product obtained is mixture of methylamine,
dimethylamine, trimethylamine.

10. When ethanol is mixed with ammonia and passed over

alumina the compound formed is which compound?
7. The Hinsberg’s method is used for which of the a) Propanamine
a) C2H5NH2
following? b) N-methylpropaneamine
b) C2H4
a) Preparation of primary amines 3. In the given equation, what is the final product C? c) N, N-dimethylpropanemamine
c) C2H5OC2H5
b) Preparation of secondary amines d) Ethyl amine
d) CH3OCH3
c) Preparation of tertiary amines View Answer
View Answer
d) Separation of amine mixtures
a) Ammonium acetate Answer: a
View Answer Answer: a
b) Acetamide Explanation: Amides yield primary amines on reduction by
Explanation: When ethanol is mixed with ammonia and
Answer: d c) Amino methane lithium aluminium hydride.
passed over alumina the compound formed is amine.
Explanation: The Hinsberg reaction is a test for the d) Ethanal
detection of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. In View Answer
this test, the amine is shaken well with Hinsberg reagent in
Answer: c
the presence of aqueous alkali (either KOH or NaOH). A
Explanation: Carboxylic acid with PCl5 forms acid chloride
reagent containing an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution PREPARATION OF AMINES – 2 and acid chloride reacts with NH3 to give amide which on 7. What will be the product of the following reaction?
and benzenesulfonyl chloride is added to a substrate. reduction gives amine.
1. Which of the following reaction does not form amines?
8. Which one of the following compound gives a secondary
amine on reduction?
a) Nitromethane 4. Which of the following reactions will not give primary
b) Nitrobenzene amine? a) Propanamine
c) Methyl isocyanide a) CH3CONH2 + KOH.Br2 b) N-methylpropaneamine
d) Methyl cyanide b) CH3CN + LiAlH4 c) N, N-dimethylpropanemamine
View Answer c) CH3NC + LiAlH4 d) Ethyl amine
View Answer d) CH3CONH2 + LiAlH4 View Answer
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: Methyl isocyanide gives a secondary amine Answer: c Answer: b
on reduction. Explanation: Nitrile gives carboxylic acid on hydrolysis and Answer: c Explanation: N‐substituted Amides on reduction by lithium
amines on reduction. Explanation: Nitrile on reduction gives secondary amine. aluminum hydride yield secondary amines.

9. In the given reaction what is the X?

2. Starting from propanoic acid, the following reactions 5. Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis is used for the
were carried out, what is the compound Z? preparation of which amine?
a) Primary aromatic amine 8. What will be the product of the following reaction?

a) Isonitrile b) Secondary amine

a) CH3−CH2−Br c) Primary aliphatic amine
b) Nitrile
b) CH3−CH2−NH2 d) Tertiary amine
c) Nitrite
c) CH3-CH2-COBr View Answer
a) Propanamine PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF AMINES more electronegative so donation of electron will be easy, c) C6H5NH2 > C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3
b) N-methylpropanamine so basicity increases. d) CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > C6H5NH2 > NH3
c) N, N-dimethylpropanmamine 1. Which of the following compound is expected to be View Answer
d) Ethyl amine most basic? 5. What is the characteristic smell of liquid amines?
View Answer a) Aniline a) Fish like smell Answer: b
b) Methylamine b) Rotten egg smell Explanation: All of the amines are more basic than
Answer: b c) Hydroxylamine c) Fruity smell ammonia, but primary and secondary amines are the most
Explanation: N, N‐disubstituted Amides on reduction by d) Ethylamine d) Bitter almond smell basic.
lithium aluminum hydride yield tertiary amines. View Answer View Answer
9. Unpleasant smelling carbylamines are formed by
Answer: d Answer: a heating alkali and chloroform with which of the following?
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG). So, Explanation: Amines possess a characteristic ammonia a) Any amine
the alkyl group stabilizes the positive charge on the smell, liquid amines have a distinctive “fishy” smell. b) Any aliphatic amine
attached nitrogen atom. c) Any aromatic amine
9. Which type of amine is produced by reaction of ketones 6. Which of the following have less melting point than d) Any primary amine
with primary amines, followed by reduction? 2. A solution of methyl amine shows which type of amine? View Answer
a) Secondary Aromatic amine property with litmus paper? a) Alcohol
b) N-substituted amine a) Turns blue litmus red b) Phosphine Answer: d
c) N, N-disubstituted amine b) Turns red litmus blue c) Carboxylic acid Explanation: The unpleasant smell is due to formation of
d) Primary aromatic amine c) Does not affect red or blue litmus d) Ether isocyanide.
View Answer d) Bleaches litmus View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: N‐substituted amines are produced by Answer: b Explanation: Hydrogen bonding significantly influences the
10. Which statement is an incorrect statement?
reaction of ketones with primary amines, followed by Explanation: Methyl amine changes red litmus blue, this properties of primary and secondary amines. Thus, the
a) Amines form hydrogen bond
reduction. litmus paper test shows basic nature of methyl amine. melting points and boiling points of amines are higher than
b) Ethyl amine has higher boiling point than propane
those of the corresponding phosphines, but generally
3. Which of the following statement is true about methyl c) Methyl amine is more basic than ammonia
lower than those of the corresponding alcohols and
amine? d) Dimethyl amine is less basic than methyl amine
carboxylic acids, ether.
a) Methyl amine is slightly acidic View Answer
b) Methyl amine is less basic than NH3 7. Which of the following amine has highest boiling point?
Answer: d
c) Methyl amine is stronger base than NH3 a) Butyl amine
Explanation: In methyl amine only one electron releasing
10. Which type of amine is produced by reaction of d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkali b) Diethylamine
group is present but in dimethyl amine two electron
ketones with secondary amines, followed by reduction? View Answer c) Triethylamine
releasing groups are present which increase the basicity
a) Secondary Aromatic amine d) Dipropylamine
Answer: c higher in dimethyl amine.
b) N-substituted amine View Answer
Explanation: Presence of alkyl group increases electron
c) N, N-disubstituted amine 11. Which of the following is most basic?
density on nitrogen atom due to +I effect. Thus, basic Answer: d
d) Primary aromatic amine a) C6H5NH2
nature increases. Explanation: Primary and secondary amines have higher
View Answer b) (CH3)2NH
boiling because they can engage in intermolecular
4. By the presence of a halogen atom in the ring, what is c) (CH3)3N
Answer: c hydrogen bonding. The boiling points of tertiary amines,
the effect of this on basic properties of aniline? d) NH3
Explanation: N, N‐disubstituted amines can be produced which cannot engage in hydrogen bonding because they
a) Increased View Answer
by reaction of 2° amines with ketones followed by have no hydrogen atom on the nitrogen atom, and d is
b) Decreased correct option because it has more molar mass than other
reduction. Answer: b
c) Unchanged primary, secondary and tertiary amine, more +I effect of Explanation: In dimethyl amine two electron releasing
d) Doubled propyl group. groups are present which increase the basicity higher in
View Answer
dimethyl amine.
8. What is the correct decreasing order of the basic
Answer: a character of the three amines and ammonia? 12. If methyl is alkyl group, then which order of basicity is
Explanation: By the presence of a halogen atom in the a) NH3 > CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > C6H5NH2 correct?
ring, basic properties of aniline is increased because it is b) C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3 > C6H5NH2 a) R2NH > RNH2 > R3N > NH3
b) R2NH > R3N > RNH2 > NH3 effect), due to increase in electron density on N atom. As a Answer: d
c) RNH2 > NH3 > R2NH > R3N rule, the basicity of 3° amine should be more than that of Explanation: Nitroso amines (R2N−N=O) are soluble in
d)
d) NH3 > RNH2 > R2NH > R3N 2° amine, but actually it is found to be lesser than 2° water. On heating them with concentrated H2SO4 they
View Answer
View Answer amines. This is due to more solvation by water in give secondary amines, this reaction is called as
secondary amine. Hence the correct order of basicity is: Answer: c Liebermann’s nitroso reaction.
Answer: a (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2. Explanation: This reaction is Hoffman degradation of
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG), so 7. Ethyl amine undergoes oxidation in the presence of
amide.
they stabilize the positively charge ammonium ions, i.e., KMnO4 to form which compound?
R – CONH2 + Br2 + 4KOH → R – NH2 +2KBr + k2CO3+ 2H2O.
the methyl ammonium ion is more stable than the parent a) An acid
ammonium ion because the alkyl group stabilizes the CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF AMINES – 1 b) An alcohol
4. Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form which of the
positive charge on the attached nitrogen atom. In dimethyl 1. Which of the following is converted into an alcohol on following? c) An aldehyde
amine two electron releasing groups are present which a) Schiff’s base d) A nitrogen oxide
treatment with HNO2?
increase the basicity higher in dimethyl amine. a) Methyl amine b) Carbylamine View Answer
b) Aniline c) Immine
13. Among the following, which one is the strongest base? Answer: c
c) Dimethyl amine d) Diazonium salt
a) C6H5NH2 Explanation: Ethyl amine undergoes oxidation in the
d) Triethyl amine View Answer
b) p−NO2C6H4NH2 presence of KMnO4 to form an aldehyde.
c) m−NO2−C6H4NH2 View Answer
Answer: c
d) C6H5CH2NH2 Answer: a Explanation: Aniline reacts with acetaldehyde to form
View Answer Schiff base.
Explanation: Methyl amine is converted into an alcohol on
8. Reaction of primary amines with aldehyde yields which
Answer: d treatment with HNO2.
of the following compound?
Explanation: Alkyl groups are electron donating (EDG) and a) Amides
NO2 group is electron withdrawing group. So, the alkyl b) Aldimines
group stabilizes the positive charge on the attached c) Nitriles
2. The action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives which of
nitrogen atom. d) Nitro compounds
the following?
View Answer
14. Which of the following is true characteristic feature of a) Ethane 5. p-chloroaniline and anilinium hydrochloride can be
aniline? b) Ammonia distinguished by which test? Answer: b
a) Colourless solid c) Ethyl acohol a) Sandmeyer reaction Explanation: Reaction of primary amines with aldehyde
b) Brown coloured solid d) Nitroethane b) NaHCO3 yields aldimines.
c) Colourless liquid View Answer c) AgNO3 R – CH2 – NH2 + O = CH – R → R – CH2 – N = CH – R + H2O
d) Brown coloured liquid d) Carbylamine test 1oamine aldehyde Aldimine
Answer: c View Answer
View Answer
Explanation: The action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine 9. When primary amines are treated with HCl, the product
Answer: c gives ethyl alcohol, along with nitrogen and water. Answer: b obtained is which of the following?
Explanation: Pure aniline is a colourless liquid, but the CH3CH2NH2 + HNO2 → CH3CH2OH + N2 + H2O Explanation: Anilinium hydrochloride is an acid salt and a) An alcohol
colour of aniline changes to dark brown on storage due to liberates CO2 from b) A cyanide
3. Indicate which nitrogen compound amongst the NaHCO3. But p-chloro aniline is basic not acidic it does not
atmospheric oxidation. c) An amide
following would undergo Hofmann’s reaction (i.e. reaction liberate CO2. p-chloro aniline does not contain ionic d) Ammonium salt
15. The correct order of basicity of amines in water is with Br2 and strong KOH) to furnish the primary amine. chlorine to it does not give white ppt with AgNO3. View Answer
which of the following?
a) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 6. Nitroso amines (R2N−N=O) are soluble in water. On Answer: d
a) heating them with concentrated H2SO4 they give
b) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N Explanation: When primary amines are treated with HCl,
c) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 secondary amines. What is this reaction called as? the product obtained is ammonium salt.
d) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH a) Perkin’s reaction CH3 – CH2 – NH2 + HCl → CH3CH2 – NH3+Cl–
View Answer b) b) Fittig’s reaction
c) Sandmeyer’s reaction 10. Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary
Answer: a d) Liebermann’s nitroso reaction and tertiary amines by reacting with which of the
Explanation: Basicity of amines increase with increase in c) View Answer following?
number of −CH3 groups (or any group which cause +I a) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH
b) Methyl iodide 14. When an organic compound was treated with sodium 2. The amine which can react with C6H5−SO2−Cl to form a Answer: b
c) Chloroform alone nitrite and hydrochloric acid in the ice cold, nitrogen gas product insoluble in alkali shall be, is which of the Explanation: Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is a
d) Zinc dust was evolved copiously. What is the compound? following? condensation reaction. Aniline react by initially attacking
View Answer a) A nitrocompound a) Primary amine the carbonyl carbon, followed by hydrogen transfers to
b) A primary amine b) Secondary amine give an amine where the nitrogen is bonded to a carbon
Answer: a c) An aliphatic primary amine c) Tertiary amine that also contains a hydroxy group. Under acidic
Explanation: Primary amine reacts with CHCl3 and alc. KOH d) An aromatic primary amine d) Both primary and secondary amines conditions, the hydroxyl group is protonated, followed by
to form isocyanide while secondary and tertiary amines do View Answer View Answer loss of water to give the conjugate acid of the observed
not react. product(imine). The condensation step to give water is
Answer: c Answer: b acid catalyzed and is the rate-determining step of the
11. When chloroform reacts with ethyl amine in presence Explanation: When an aliphatic primary amine was treated Explanation: C6H5SO2Cl is called Hinsberg’s reagent they sequence.
of alcoholic KOH, the compound formed is which of the with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid in the ice cold, react with sec amine to form a product in soluble in
following? nitrogen gas was evolved. alkalies. This reaction used to separate primary, secondary 6. In the reaction, what is the compound C6H5N=CHC6H5is
a) Ethyl cyanide and tertiary amine from their mixture. known as?
b) Ethyl isocyanide 15. Primary amines react with nitrous acid to yield which C6H5CHO + C6H5NH2 → C6H5N=HCC6H5 + H2O
c) Formic acid of the following? 3. A mixture of benzene and aniline can be separated by a) Aldol
d) An amide a) Insoluble nitrite salts which of the following? b) Schiffs reagent
View Answer b) Yellow oily layer a) Hot water c) Schiffs base
c) Nitrogen gas b) dil. HCl d) Benedict reagent
Answer: b d) Azo dye c) dil. NaOH
Explanation: When chloroform reacts with ethyl amine in View Answer
View Answer d) Alcohol
presence of alcoholic KOH, the compound formed is ethyl View Answer Answer: c
isocyanide. 16. The reaction of HNO2 with ‘A’ gives quaternary Explanation: Aniline react by initially attacking the
ammonium salt. A is which of the following? Answer: b carbonyl carbon (benzaldehyde), followed by hydrogen
12. The compound which on reaction with aqueous nitrous a) Methyl amine Explanation: A mixture of benzene and aniline can be transfers to give an amine where the nitrogen is bonded to
acid on HNO2 at low temperature produces an oily b) Dimethyl amine separated by dil. HCl. The mixture is treated with dil. HCL. a carbon that also contains a hydroxy group. Under acidic
nitrosoamine is which of the following? c) Trimethyl amine Only aniline dissolves. It is then shaken with ether. conditions, the hydroxyl group is protonated, followed by
a) Diethylamine d) Aniline Nitrobenzene goes into ether layer. It is separated. loss of water to give the conjugate acid of the observed
b) Ethylamine View Answer product(imine). Hydrogen ion transfer then gives the Schiff
c) Aniline 4. An organic amino compound reacts with aqueous
d) Methylamine Answer: c nitrous acid at low temperature to produce an oily nitroso base product. The condensation step to give water is acid
catalyzed and is the rate-determining step of the
View Answer Explanation: The reaction of HNO2 with trimethyl amine amine. What is this compound?
sequence.
gives quaternary ammonium salt. a) CH3NH2
Answer: a R3N + HONO → R3N . HONO b) CH3CH2NH2
Explanation: The compound which on reaction with 7. Electrophilic substitution of aniline with bromine in
c) CH3CH2NH.CH2CH3 presence of gacial acetic acid gives which of the following?
aqueous nitrous acid on HNO2 at low temperature d) (CH3CH2)3
produces an oily nitrosoamine is diethylamine. a) 1, 4, 6-tribromo aniline
CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF AMINES – 2 View Answer b) 2, 4, 6-tribromo aniline
(C2H5)2NH + (aq.)HONO → (C2H5)2N – N = O + H2O
c) 4-bromo aniline
Answer: b
13. Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine water 1. A primary amine can be converted to an alcohol by the d) 3-bromo aniline
Explanation: Secondary amines gives oily nitrosamine with
which of the following? action of which of the following? View Answer
nitrous acid.
a) Aniline bromide a) Alkali
b) Nitrous acid (CH3CH2)2NH + HONO → (CH3CH2)2N.NO + H2O Answer: c
b) o-bromoaniline
c) Reducing agent Explanation: In water,bromine is ionised up to greater
c) p-bromoaniline 5. Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is which type of
d) Oxidizing agent extent to form large number of bromonium ions.Hence
d) 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline reaction?
View Answer Br+ ions attack on aniline from either side to form 2,4,6,-
View Answer a) Polymerisation
b) Condensation tribromoaniline. In order to obtain monobromo aniline,
Answer: d Answer: b reaction is carried out in presence of acetic acid. In glacial
c) Addition
Explanation: Aniline on treatment with excess of bromine Explanation: A primary amine can be converted to an acetic acid, bromine is ionised to lesser extent and hence
d) Substitution
water is a nucleophilic substitution reaction and will form alcohol by the action nitrous acid. relatively less number of bromonium ions are formed.Thus
View Answer
2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline. R – NH2 + HNO2 → R – OH + N2 + H2O interference of water is ceased.
8. During acetylation of amines what is replaced by acetyl d) o-Bromoacetanilide position Answer: a
groups? View Answer c) In strong acidic medium, nitration of aniline is a Explanation: Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared
a) Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom nucleophic substitution reaction by this method because aryl halides do not undergo
b) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom Answer: a d) In strong acidic medium aniline present as anilinium ion nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by
c) One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom Explanation: p-Bromoaniline is formed. For the protection View Answer phthalimide.
d) Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or of p- position for bromination, reaction of aniline with
nitrogen atom acetic anhydride is done and followed by bromination of Answer: b 3. What are A and B in the given sequence, respectively?
View Answer the product (acetanilide). And then removal of protective Explanation: The reason for this is that, in acidic condition
group in p-bromoacetanilide is done by hydrolysis, and p- protonation of −NH2 group gives anilinium ion (+NH3),
Answer: c Bromoaniline is formed. which is of deactivating nature and of m-directive nature.
Explanation: During acetylation of amines One or more
hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom are removed. 15. The reductive amination of an aldehyde (e.g. the
a) Aldehyde, nitro compound
reaction of propanal with ethylamine) can be carried out in
b) Nitro compound, phenyl amine
the laboratory using which of the following as a reducing
c) Phenyl amine, nitro compound
agent?
d) Phenthalene, phenyl amine
12. Aniline reacts with which of these to form Schiff base? a) NaBH3CN
View Answer
a) Acetic acid b) LiAlH4
9. Ethyl amine on acetylation gives which of the following?
b) Benzaldehyde c) BH3 Answer: b
a) N-ethyl acetamide
c) Acetone d) NaBH4 Explanation: Nitrobenzene is reduced to phenyl
b) Acetamide
d) NH3 View Answer ammonium(A) ions using a mixture of tin and
c) Methyl acetamide
View Answer concentrated hydrochloric acid. The phenylamine(B) is
d) Propyl acetamide Answer: a
formed together with a complicated mixture of tin
View Answer Answer: b Explanation: The reductive amination of an aldehyde (e.g.
compounds from reactions between the sodium hydroxide
Explanation: Aniline reacts with benzaldehyde and forms the reaction of propanal with ethylamine) can be carried
Answer: a solution and the complex tin ions formed.
Schiff’s base (benzal aniline) or anils. out in the laboratory by using NaBH3CN reagent.
Explanation: Ethyl amine on acetylation gives N-ethyl
4. Which reducing agent is used for the reduction of nitro
acetamide.
compound to phenyl amine?
CH3CH2NH2 + CH3COCl → CH3CH2NHCOCH3 + HCl
PREPARATION OF AROMATIC AMINES a) LiAlH4
13. Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the b) Sn/HCl
10. p-chloro aniline and anilinium hydrogen chloride can
presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a compound 1. Aniline is usually purified by which of the following c) Na/alcohol
be distinguished by which of the following?
if water during the reaction is continuously removed. method? d) H2/Ni
a) Sandmaeyer reaction
What is the compound formed is generally known as? a) Steam distillation View Answer
b) Carbyl amine reaction
a) A Schiff’s base b) Simple distillation
c) Hinsberg’s reaction
b) An enamine c) Vacuum distillation Answer: b
d) AgNO3
c) An imine d) Extraction with a solvent Explanation: Aromatic amines were prepared in good
View Answer
d) An amine View Answer yields by a novel reduction of aromatic nitro compounds
Answer: d View Answer with tin metal in hydrochloric acid.
Explanation: Anilinium hydrogen chloride produces Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Aniline is usually purified by Steam
chloride ion which gives white precipitate with AgNO3. In
Explanation: Reaction of cyclohexanone with distillation. The separation is long, tedious and potentially
fact, anilium chloride is a part of aniline. 5. What is the known name of the reaction given below?
dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an dangerous – involving steam distillation, solvent extraction
11. Identify the product Z in the following reaction. acid forms a compound if water during the reaction is and a final distillation.
continuously removed. This compound is known as
enamine. 2. Which of the following method cannot be used for
preparation of aromatic amine?
14. Nitration of aniline also gives m-nitro aniline, in strong a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis (where, X=Cl, Br, I, OTf; R2=Alkyl, aryl, H; R3=alkyl, aryl)
a) p-Bromoaniline acidic medium because of which of the following reasons? b) Reduction of nitro compound a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
b) p -Bromoacetophenone a) In electrophilic substitution reaction amino group is c) Reduction of nitrile with LiAl4 b) Buchwald-Hartwig Reaction
c) o-Bromoacetophenone meta directive d) Decarboxylation of amino acids c) Chan-Lam coupling
b) Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to m- View Answer
d) Ullmann reaction d) aqueous d) Esterification reaction
View Answer View Answer View Answer
BENZENE DIAZONIUM CHLORIDE – 1
Answer: b Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The Buchwald–Hartwig amination is a Explanation: Various anilines are prepared by treatment of 1. What is the general formula of Diazonium salt? Explanation: The aryl group can be coupled to another
chemical reaction used in organic chemistry for the functionalized aryl boronic acids with H2N-OSO3H (HSA) as a) RN2+X– using aryldiazonium salts. For example, treatment of
synthesis of carbon–nitrogen bonds via the palladium- a common, inexpensive source of electrophilic nitrogen, b) RN+ benzene diazonium chloride with benzene (an aromatic
catalyzed cross-coupling of amines with aryl halides. under basic aqueous conditions. c) RXI compound) in the presence of sodium hydroxide gives
d) RN2+HSO–2 diphenyl. This reaction is known as the Gomberg–
6. What is the known name of the reaction given below? View Answer Bachmann reaction.
Answer: a 5. What is the known name of the given reaction?
9. What will be the product for the following reaction? Explanation: Diazonium compounds or diazonium salts are [C6H5N+2]BF−4 → C6H5F + BF3 + N2
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis a group of organic compounds sharing a common a) Gattermanns reaction
b) Buchwald-Hartwig Reaction functional group R−N2+X– where R can be any organic b) Sandmeyers reaction
c) Chan-Lam coupling group, such as an alkyl or an aryl, and X is an inorganic or c) Dehydrogenation reaction
d) Ullmann reaction organic anion, such as a halogen. d) Balz-Schiemann reaction
View Answer View Answer
a) secondary aliphatic amine 2. What is the known name of the given reaction?
Answer: d b) primary aromatic amine C6H5N+2 + CuCl → C6H5Cl + N2 + Cu+ Answer: d
Explanation: The Ullmann reaction or Ullmann coupling is c) tertiary aromatic amine a) Gattermanns reaction Explanation: Fluorobenzene is produced by thermal
a coupling reaction between aryl halides and copper and d) secondary aromatic amine b) Sandmeyers reaction decomposition of benzene diazonium fluoroborate. The
substituted ammonia to form aromatic amines. The View Answer c) Dehydrogenation reaction conversion is called the Balz-Schiemann reaction.
traditional version of the Ullmann reaction requires harsh d) Esterification reaction
Answer: c View Answer 6. What is the known name of the given reaction?
reaction conditions, and the reaction has a reputation for
Explanation: this reaction is N- arylation of acyclic [C6H5N+2]Cl− + ArCH=CHCO2H → ArC=C−C6H5 + N2 + CO2 +
erratic yields.
secondary amine, in which CuI and DMPAO are catalyst. Answer: b HCl
7. What is the known name of the reaction given below? Explanation: Benzene diazonium chloride heated with a) Gattermanns reaction
cuprous chloride or cuprous bromide respectively b) Sandmeyers reaction
dissolved in HCl or HBr yield chlorobenzene or c) Meerwein reaction
Bromobenzene, respectively. d) Balz-Schiemann reaction
a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
3. What is the known name of the given reaction? View Answer
b) Buchwald-Hartwig Reaction
c) Chan-Lam coupling 10. In the direct amination of alkyl and aryl pinacol C6H5N+2 + CuX → C6H5X + N2 + Cu+ Answer: a
d) Ullmann reaction boronates to form aromatic amine, which of the following a) Gattermanns reaction Explanation: Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with
View Answer is used as reagent with pinacol? b) Sandmeyers reaction compounds containing activated double bonds to
a) Aryl boric acid c) Dehydrogenation reaction produces phenylated products. The reaction is called the
Answer: c b) Copper oxide d) Esterification reaction Meerwein arylation.
Explanation: This reaction allows aryl carbon-heteroatom c) Pd(OAc)2 View Answer
bond formation via an oxidative coupling of boronic acids, d) Lithiated methoxyamine 7. Benzene diazonium chloride when reacts with
stannanes or siloxanes with N-H containing compounds in View Answer Answer: a hypophosphorus acid produces which of the following
air. The reaction is induced by a stoichiometric amount of Explanation: In the Gatterman reaction, benzene compound?
copper(II) or a catalytic amount of copper catalyst which is Answer: d diazonium chloride is warmed with copper powder and a) Benzene
reoxidized by atmospheric oxygen or another primary Explanation: The direct amination of alkyl and aryl pinacol HCl or HBr to produce chlorobenzene and bromobenzene b) Phenyl phosphate
oxidant. boronates with lithiated methoxyamine provides aliphatic respectively. c) Phenol
and aromatic amines, stereospecifically, and without d) Phenyl isocyanide
8. Which type medium is required for the formation of 4. What is the known name of the given reaction?
preactivation of the boronate substrate. View Answer
aniline by reaction of aryl boric acid and HAS? [C6H5N+2]Cl− + C6H6 → C6H5−C6H5 + N2 + HCl
a) Acidic a) Gattermanns reaction Answer: a
b) Basic aqueous b) Sandmeyers reaction Explanation: Arene diazonium cations are reduced by
c) Neutral dry c) Gomberg–Bachmann reaction
hypophosphorous acid or sodium stannite gives benzene: BENZENE DIAZONIUM CHLORIDE – 2 b) Benzophenol
[C6H5N+2]Cl− + H3PO2 + H2O → C6H6 + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl c) Resorcinol
1. Replacement of diazo group by other groups is helpful in d) Methanol
8. p-amino azo benzene is obtained by treating diazonium preparing those substituted aromatic compounds which View Answer
chloride with which of the following compound? cannot be prepared which type of reaction?
a) Benzene a) Direct elimination Answer: c a) C6H5CH2NH2
b) Aniline b) Addition reaction Explanation: Benzene diazonium chloride forms orange b) C6H5NHCH2CH3
c) Phenol c) Direct substitution red dye with resorcinol, Reaction of benzene diazonium c) C6H5NHOH
d) Benzoic acid d) Replacement reaction chloride with resocinol in basic medium is a coupling d) C6H5CH2OH
View Answer View Answer reaction,in which p-hydroxyazobenzene is obtained .Which View Answer
is nothing but orange dye.
Answer: b Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: p-amino azo benzene is obtained by treating Explanation: Replacement of diazo group by other groups 5. Which of the following is compound A for following Explanation: First of all, diazonium will be formed and then
diazonium chloride with aniline. The reactions are is helpful in preparing those substituted aromatic sequence of reaction gave benzoic acid benzoic acid? it will show Sandmeyer reaction with CuCN and then
specifically acid catalyzed and involve pre‐equilibrium compounds which cannot be prepared by direct reduction of cyanide and oxidation to benzyl alcohol.
formation of amine and diazonium salt followed by substitution.
rate‐limiting attack of the diazonium ion at a C‐atom
(C‐coupling) to give the corresponding aminoazo 2. What happens when benzene diazonium chloride is
compounds. treated with potassium cyanide in presence of Cu powder? a) Nitrobenzene
a) Benzophenone b) Aniline 8. Azo dye is prepared by the coupling of phenol and which
9. When hypophosphorous acid is treated with diazonium b) Methyl isocyanide c) Benzaldehyde of the following compound?
salts, it is reduced to which of the following compound? c) Acetonitrile d) Amides a) Diazonium chloride
a) Arene d) Benzonitrile View Answer b) o-nitro aniline
b) Methane View Answer c) Benzoic acid
c) Ethyl alcohol Answer: b
d) Chlorobenzene
d) Amines Answer: d Explanation: In the following sequence reaction between
View Answer
View Answer Explanation: By treating diazonium salts with cuprous aniline and NaNO2/HCl will form diazonium salt and with
cyanide or KCN and copper powder it forms aryl nitrile. KCN it will form cyanide and at last carboxylic acid will be Answer: a
Answer: a Illustrative is the preparation of benzonitrile using the formed. Explanation: The most widely practiced reaction of
Explanation: When hypophosphorous acid is treated with reagent cuprous cyanide: C6H5N+2 + CuCN → C6H5CN + Cu+ diazonium salts is azo coupling. In this process, the
diazonium salts it is reduced to arene. Arene diazonium + N2. 6. In the series of reaction, what are X and Y are
diazonium compound is attacked by, i.e., coupled to,
cations are reduced by hypophosphorous acid or sodium respectively?
electron-rich substrates. When the coupling partners are
stannite gives benzene: 3. By treating diazonium salts with cuprous cyanide or KCN
arenes such as anilines and phenols, the process is an
[C6H5N+2]Cl− + H3PO2 + H2O → C6H6 + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl. and copper powder it forms which of the following
example of electrophilic aromatic substitution.
compound? a) C6H5−N=N−C6H5, C6H5N+2Cl–
10. Which of the following amine will form stable a) Citric acid b) C6H5N+2Cl–, C6H5−N=N−C6H5 9. Identify the product in following order when 3,4,5-
diazonium salt at 273-283 K? b) Benzoic acid c) C6H5N+2Cl–, C6H5NO2 Tribromoaniline undergoes diazotisation followed by
a) C6H5NH2 c) Aryl nitrile d) C6H5NO2, C6H6 attack of H3PO2?
b) C6H5N(CH3)2 d) Oxalic acid View Answer a) 3, 4,5-Tribromobenzene
c) C2H5NH2 View Answer b) 1, 2, 3-Tribromobenzene
d) C6H5CH2NH2 Answer: c
c) 2, 4, 6-Tribromobenzene
View Answer Answer: c Explanation: In the following sequence reaction between
Explanation: By treating diazonium salts with cuprous d) 3, 4, 5-Tribromo nitro benzene
aniline and NaNO2/HCl will form diazonium salt and with
View Answer
Answer: a cyanide or KCN and copper powder it forms aryl nitrile. HNO2 nitrobenzene will be formed.
Explanation: Diazonium salts are prepared by treatment of The cyano group usually cannot be introduced by Answer: a
aromatic amines i.e. aniline (C6H5NH2) with nitrous acid nucleophilic substitution of haloarenes, but such Explanation: When 3,4,5-Tribromoaniline undergoes
and additional acid. Usually the nitrous acid is generated in compounds can be easily prepared from diazonium salts. diazotisation followed by attack of H3PO2, 1, 2, 3-
7. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D. The
situ (in the same flask) from sodium nitrite and the excess
4. Benzene diazonium chloride forms orange red dye with structure of product D would be
mineral acid.
which of the following compound?
a) Nitrophenol
Tribromobenzene is formed. nitrite (NaNO3) replaces an alkyl halide. In the so-called Ter hydroxide ions act as a strong nucleophile and replace the a) 1) HNO3/H2SO4, 2) CH3CH2CH2Cl/AlCl3
Meer reaction (1876) named after Edmund ter Meer. halogen atom in an alkyl halide. b) 1) CH3CH2CH2Cl/AlCl3, 2) HNO3/H2SO4
c) 1) CH3CH2COCl/AlCl3, 2) HNO3/H2SO4, 3) H2NNH2/NaOH
3. In Ter Meer reaction, a method of preparation of nitro 6. Which of the following is not a natural occurring nitro d) 1) HNO3/H2SO4, 2) CH3CH2COCl/AlCl3, 3) H2NNH2/NaOH
compound, which of the following used as reagent? compound? View Answer
a) HNO2 a) Chloramphenicol
b) HNO3 b) 2-Nitrophenol Answer: d
10. When diazonium salt solution is treated with KI, it c) NaNO2 c) 3-Nitropropionic acid Explanation: Friedel-Crafts reactions are not usually
forms which of the following compound?
d) RX (alkyl halide) d) nitrobenzene successful with strongly deactivated arenes such as
a) Bromobenzene View Answer View Answer nitrobenzene, and that linear alkyl groups longer than
b) Iodobenzene ethyl easily rearrange to secondary alkyls during the
c) Phenol Answer: c Answer: d Friedel-Crafts alkylation.
d) Acid Explanation: In Ter Meer reaction, which is a nucleophilic Explanation: No information about the natural occurrence
View Answer aliphatic substitution, sodium nitrite (NaNO2) is used as of nitrobenzene was found in the readily-available 9. Nitration of furan using acetyl nitrate also leads to a 2,5-
reactant which replaces an alkyl halide. literature. Chloramphenicol is a rare example of a naturally addition product. How can this competing process be
Answer: b
occurring nitro compound. At least some naturally suppressed?
Explanation: Iodine is not easily introduced into the 4. What will be the product if 1,1-halonitroalkane occurring nitro groups arose by the oxidation of amino a) By using concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids instead of
benzene ring directly. However, it can be introduced by undergoes nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reaction in groups. 2-Nitrophenol is an aggregation pheromone of acetyl nitrate
treating aryldiazonium cations with potassium iodide: presence of ethanol? ticks. 3-Nitropropionic acid found in fungi and plants. b) By carrying out the reaction at higher temperatures
C6H5N+2 + KI → C6H5I + K+ + N2. a) 1,1-dinitro dimer c) By carrying out the nitration in the presence of pyridine
b) 1,2-dinitro dimer 7. Which gives a meta-nitro compound as the main d) By using nitric acid instead of acetyl nitrate
c) 1.-nitro compound product upon nitration with a nitric acid-sulfuric acid View Answer
PREPARATION OF NITRO COMPOUNDS d) 2-nitrocompound mixture?
View Answer Answer: c
1. Which of the following is used as a reactant for the Explanation: 2-Nitrofuran may be nitrated with 70% nitric
nitration of benzene to form nitrobenzene? Answer: a a) acid and then affords 2,5-dinitrofuran (67%) and 2,4-
a) HNO2 Explanation: 1,1-dinitro dimer along with sodium chloride dinitrofuran (5%). The acetyl nitrate method usually
b) HNO3 will be the products if 1,1-halonitroalkane undergoes proceeds by an addition–elimination mechanism and in
c) Mixture of HNO2 AND HNO3 nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reaction in presence of certain cases the addition products may be isolated and
b)
d) Mixture of HNO2 and H2SO4 ethanol. require treatment with a base such as pyridine to effect
View Answer elimination of acetic acid.

Answer: c c) 10. Predict the major product of the following reaction.

Explanation: Nitration is achieved using a mixture of nitric
acid and sulfuric acid, which produce the nitronium ion 5. What will be the product if 1,1-halonitroalkane
(NO2+), which the electrophile. undergoes nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reaction in d)
presence of potassiam hydroxide? View Answer
2. What is the name of the following reaction?
a) 1,1-dinitro dimer
a) o-nitrobenzaldehyde and p-nitrobenzaldehyde
b) 1,2-dinitro dimer Answer: c
b) m-nitrobenzaldehyde
c) 1.-nitro compound Explanation: This activation or deactivation of the benzene
c) o-formylbenzenesulfonic acid and p-
d) 2-nitrocompound ring toward electrophilic substitution may be correlated
a) Ter meer reaction formylbenzenesulfonic acid
View Answer with the electron donating or electron withdrawing
b) Riemer tiemann reaction d) m-formylbenzenesulfonic acid
influence of the substituents, as measured by molecular
c) Perkin condensation Answer: b View Answer
dipole moments. Methoxy group(-OCH3) is an electron
d) Ullmann reaction Explanation: 1,1-dinitro dimer along with sodium chloride donating substituent, which activates the benzene ring Answer: b
View Answer will be the products if 1,1-halonitroalkane undergoes toward electrophilic attack and direct substitution to the Explanation: This activation or deactivation of the benzene
nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reaction in presence of meta location.
Answer: a ring toward electrophilic substitution may be correlated
potassium hydroxide. Aqueous KOHKOH is alkaline in
Explanation: In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution, sodium with the electron donating or electron withdrawing
nature i.e. it dissociates to produce a hydroxide ion. These 8. Which combination of reagents used in the indicated
influence of the substituents, as measured by molecular
order with benzene will give m-nitropropylbenzene?
dipole moments. CHO- group is a deactivating substituent, used for enamine synthesis due to the preferential TiCl4 into the reaction mixture (to act as a water a) Condensation reaction
and direct substitution to the meta location. formation of the more thermodynamically stable imine scavenger). This is an example of an aldehyde reacting b) Alkylation reaction
species. with a secondary amine to form an enamine via a c) Rearrangement reaction
carbinolamine intermediate. d) Redox reaction
4. Enamine shows which type of behavior? View Answer
ENAMINES a) Basic 7. What is the name of the compound A in the given
1. What is the name of the given compound? b) Electrophilic and acidic reaction of enamine? Answer: b
c) Nucleophilic and basic Explanation: This reaction is an alkylation reaction, in
d) Nucleophilic which, the enamine nucleophile can attack haloalkanes to
View Answer form the alkylated iminium salt intermediate which then
hydrolyzes to regenerate a ketone. This reaction was
Answer: c pioneered by Gilbert Stork, and is sometimes referred to
a) Amine Explanation: Enamines are both good nucleophiles and by the name of its inventor.
b) Imine good bases. Their behaviour as carbon-based nucleophiles a) Imine salt
c) Enamine are explained with reference to the following resonance b) Amine 10. Which cyclic ketone enamine is most reactive?
d) Amide c) Carbinoamine a) Five membered
View Answer d) Amide b) Six membered
View Answer c) Seven membered
Answer: c structures.
d) Eight membered
Explanation: An enamine is an unsaturated compound Answer: a View Answer
5. What is the type of the following reaction?
derived by the condensation of an aldehyde or ketone Explanation: The enamine nucleophile can attack
with a secondary amine. Enamines are versatile haloalkanes to form the alkylated iminium salt Answer: a
intermediates. intermediate which then hydrolyzes to regenerate a Explanation: Cyclic ketone enamines follow a reactivity
a) Condensation reaction ketone (a starting material in enamine synthesis). trend where the five membered ring is the most reactive
2. The phenomenon or process by which imine are b) Acylation reaction due to its maximally planar conformation at the nitrogen.
converted into enamine is which of the following? c) Rearrangement reaction 8. What is the name of the compound formed when
a) Imination d) Redox reaction alkylation of enamine is followed by hydrolysis?
b) Enamination View Answer a) Carboxylic acid
c) Amination STEREOCHEMISTRY
b) Ketone
d) Tautomerism Answer: a c) Amide 1. Compounds which have different arrangements of
View Answer Explanation: An enamine is an unsaturated compound d) ester atoms in space while having same atoms bonded to each
derived by the condensation of an aldehyde or ketone View Answer
Answer: d other are said to have
with a secondary amine.
Explanation: The enamine-imine tautomerism may be a) position isomerism
Answer: b
considered analogous to the keto-enol tautomerism. In 6. What is the name of the compound A in the given b) functional group isomerism
Explanation: The enamine nucleophile can attack
both cases, a hydrogen atom switches its location between reaction of formation of enamine? c) chain isomerism
haloalkanes to form the alkylated iminium salt
the heteroatom (oxygen or nitrogen) and the second d) stereoisomerism
intermediate which then hydrolyzes to regenerate a
carbon atom. View Answer
ketone.

3. Which of the following is not true about enamines? Answer: d

a) Enamine are derived by the condensation of an Explanation: Stereoisomer his contrasts with structural
aldehyde or ketone with a primary amine isomers, which share the same molecular formula, but the
a) Imine bond connections or their order differs. By definition,
b) Enamines are versatile intermediates b) Amine
c) Enamines are considered to be nitrogen analogs of enols molecules that are stereoisomers of each other represent
c) Carbinoamine the same structural isomer.
d) They are tautomeric form of imine 9. What is the name of the following reaction of enamine?
d) Amide
View Answer View Answer 2. Which of the following can make difference in optical
Answer: a isomers?
Answer: c a) heat
Explanation: An enamine is an unsaturated compound
Explanation: Methyl ketone self-condensation is a side- b) temperature
derived by the condensation of an aldehyde or ketone reaction which can be avoided through the addition of
with a secondary amine. Primary amines are usually not c) polarized light
d) pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An optically active substance is one which can
rotate the plane of polarisation of plane polarised light. if
you shine a beam of polarised monochromatic light (light
of only a single frequency – in other words a single colour)
through a solution of an optically active substance, when
the light emerges, its plane of polarisation is found to have
rotated.
3. Which of the following Fischer projections is different
from the other three?
a) They are equatorial to one another shown below: structural isomers, then they could be separated by
b) They are axial to one another
c) They are cis to one another
d) They are trans to one another
View Answer
physical means.
Answer: d
Explanation: Axial and equatorial are terms that describe .
the orientation of a single group with respect to a chair
8. What is the molecular formula for the alkane of smallest 10. Which of the following statements can be deduced
and can therefore be ruled out. The bromine and chlorine
molecular weight which possesses a stereogenic center? about the stereochemistry of this compound?
are both oriented downward, on the same side of the
a) C4H10
chair. By definition, they are cis to one another.
b) C5H12
6. What is the stereochemical relationship between the c) C6H14
following two molecules? d) C7H16
View Answer

Answer: d a) This compound is optically active because it has

Explanation: See as the compounds who shows optical stereogenic centers that create cis-trans isomers
a) 1 isomerism have a chiral carbon so an unsymmetrical b) This compound is optically active because the
b) 2 alkane can show the optical isomerism. 6 carbon and 8 compound contains a center, plane, or axis of chirality
c) 3 a) Geometrical isomers carbon alkane is not the answer. So, the smallest alkane is c) This compound is not optically active since there are no
d) 4 b) Enantiomers 7 carbon alkane is 3 methyl hexane which have 3rd carbon stereogenic centers
View Answer c) Diastereomers as chiral carbon. d) This compound is not optically active because of its
d) Identical symmetry
4. Which of the following terms best describes the 9. Which of the following statements most accurately
View Answer View Answer
following pair of molecules? describes the stereochemistry between the various
Answer: d cyclohexanes? Answer: a
Explanation: Both molecules have the same molecular a) Cis-1,2-dichlorocyclohexane and trans-1,2- Explanation: In identifying stereogenic centers, any
a) Isomers formula (C9H16BrCl) and the same connectivity. Each dichlorocyclohexane rotate plane-polarized light in quaternary or tertiary carbons would be a good place to
b) Constitutional isomers molecule also has three stereocenters, marked above with opposite directions, and together in equal proportions look. There are no quaternary carbons, and all the tertiary
c) Configurational isomers an asterisk, and does not contain a plane of symmetry. form a racemic mixture carbons are part of a benzene ring structure.
d) Geometrical isomers Therefore, both molecules are chiral. Using one of the b) The diaxial and diequatorial forms of trans-1,3-
View Answer methods outlined in this tutorial, it can be determined that dichlorohexane can be separated by their differing
these molecules are superimposable. Therefore, the physical properties
STEREOISOMERS
Answer: d molecules are identical. c) Only cis-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane is achiral due to a
Explanation: These molecules have the same molecular plane of symmetry, and cis-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane is 1. What is the complete IUPAC name of the following
formula (C7H14), making them isomers. However, the 7. Which of the following is an alkane which can exhibit diastereomeric to trans-1,4-dichlorocyclohexane substance?
molecules differ in their spatial orientations due to a optical activity? d) The conformational isomers of trans-1,2-
double bond. Therefore, the molecules can best be a) Neopentane dichlorocyclohexane are enantiomers, which are not
described as geometric isomers. b) Isopentane interconvertible, but resolvable
c) 3–Methylpentane View Answer
5. What is the relationship between the two groups in the d) 3–Methylhexane
following molecules? View Answer Answer: d
a) (1S,3S)-1-methylcyclopentane-1,3-diol
Explanation: In the below given diagram of trans-1,3-
b) (1R,3R)-1-methylcyclopentane-1,3-diol
Answer: d dichlorohexane the chlorines cannot be positioned diaxial
c) (1S,3R)-1-methylcyclopentane-1,3-diol
Explanation: 3-Methyl pentane shows optical activity as or diequatorial but can only be axial and equatorial or vice
d) (1R,3S)-1-methylcyclopentane-1,3-diol
versa. Additionally, if they were diastereomers or
View Answer
Answer: d Answer: a kits are often useful). Another way to determine which of d) 5
Explanation: The IUPAC name will be (1R,3S)-1- Explanation: 2,3-Butanediol has two chirality centers but these structures are identical is to determine the View Answer
methylcyclopentane-1,3-diol, where 1 position shows R the sets of four substituents on each chirality center are configuration of each chirality center. In this case, for each
and 3 position shows S. identical. Each chirality center can have either an S or R chirality center the priority of the substituents is -Cl >; - Answer: a
configuration. The (2R,3R) and (2S,3S) compounds are CHClCH3 >; -CH3 >; -H. For example, the configurations of Explanation: 3 structural isomers, but if you are
2. How many stereoisomers are there for the following enantiomers of one another, but the structures drawn as the chirality centers of compound 1 are both S. However, 1 considering chirality/diastereomers, there are two chiral
structure? (2R,3S) and (2S,3R) compounds are identical (this is the and 3 are not identical. carbons, so the maximum number of stereoisomers is
achiral meso compound), so there are only three different 22=4, from which cis-1,2-dichlorocyclopentane and cis-1,3-
stereoisomers. For a compound with n chirality centers 7. Which of the following compounds can exhibit dichlorocyclopentane will have same structure in their
there is the possibility of a maximum of 2n stereoisomers. geometrical isomerism? individual 4 isomers as shown below, so total isomers will
However, if the sets of four substituents on each chirality a) 1-Hexene be 7.
center are identical there will be fewer than 2n b) 2-Methyl-2-Pentene
a) 1 c) 3-methyl-1-pentene
stereoisomers.
b) 2 d) 2-Hexene
c) 3 5. What is the complete IUPAC name of the following View Answer
d) 4 stereoisomer?
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: There are several isomers of hexene,
Answer: c depending on the position and geometry of the double
Explanation: In the case of 2,3-dihydroxybutanedioic acid, bond in the chain. One of the most common industrially
known as tartaric acid, the two chiral centers have the useful isomers is 1-hexene an alpha-olefin.
same four substituents and are equivalent. As a result, two POLARIMETER
a) (1S)-2-ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclopentane
of the four possible stereoisomers of this compound are 8. How many number of stereoisomers possible for 2, 3-
b) (1R)-2-ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclopentane 1. What does a polarimeter measure?
identical due to a plane of symmetry, so there are only pentanediol?
c) (1S)-1-ethyl-,3,3-diimethylcyclopentane a) Polarity of the substance
three stereoisomeric tartaric acids. a) 3
d) (1S)-3-ethyl-1,1-diimethylcyclopentane b) Angle of rotation of an optical active compound
b) 4
3. How many stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol, View Answer c) Concentration of the substance
c) 5
CH3CH(OH)CHBrCH3, exist? d) 6 d) pH of the substance
Answer: c
a) 3 View Answer View Answer
Explanation: The IUPAC name will be (1S)-1-ethyl-,3,3-
b) 1
diimethylcyclopentane, where at 1 position it is S. Answer: b
c) 2 Answer: b
Explanation: 2, 3-pentanediol contains two chiral atoms. Explanation: A polarimeter is a scientific instrument used
d) 4 6. Which of the following structures represent the same
So, the number of possible stereoisomers is 4 (22). to measure the angle of rotation caused by passing
View Answer stereoisomer?
polarized light through an optically active substance.
Answer: d 9. How many chiral stereoisomers can be drawn for
CH3CHFCHFCH(CH3)2? 2. A solution of 0.1 g/mL of a pure R enantiomer in a 1.0
Explanation: 3-Bromo-2-butanol has two chirality centers
a) 4 dm (i.e., 10 cm) polarimeter rotates plane polarized light
with different sets of four substituents. Each chirality
b) 5 by +4.8°. What is the rotation observed on this solution in
center can have either an S or R configuration. For a
c) 6 a 2 dm polarimeter?
compound with n chirality centers there is the possibility
a) Only 1 and 2 d) 7 a) +2.4°
of a maximum of 2n stereoisomers. In this case there is
b) Only 2 and 3 View Answer b) +4.8°
more than one stereoisomer.
c) 1, 2 and 3 c) +19°
4. How many stereoisomers of 2,3-butanediol, d) Only 3 and 1 Answer: a d) +9.6°
CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3, exist? View Answer Explanation: CH3CHFCHFCH(CH3)2 contains 2 chiral atoms. View Answer
a) 3 So, the number of possible stereoisomers is 4 (22).
Answer: b Answer: d
b) 4
Explanation: It is important that you can rotate around 10. What is the total number of isomers, stereoisomers Explanation: The specific optical rotation of a sample, *α+,
c) 1
carbon-carbon single bonds to make different included, designated by the dichlorocyclopentane? is calculated using the equation *α+ = α/cl, where α is the
d) 2
conformations, and to rotate molecules in three- a) 7 observed rotation, c is the concentration (in g/mL), and l is
View Answer
dimensions to compare their chirality chemistry (model b) 6 the pathlength (in dm). *α+ is a constant for a sample.
c) 4
3. Polarimeter works on the principle of which of the
following?
a) polarisation of light
b) change of the electrical conductivity of solution with
composition
c) change of angle of refraction with composition
d) change of electrical conductivity of solution with
temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If light encounters a polarizer, only the part of
the light that oscillates in the defined plane of the
polarizer may pass through. That plane is called the plane
of polarization. The plane of polarization is turned by
optically active compounds. According to the direction in
which the light is rotated, the enantiomer is referred to as
dextro-rotatory or levo-rotatory.
4. What is the effect of the I on the specific optical rotation
(α), if I gets double?
a) α gets double
b) α gets halved
c) α gets four times
d) α eight times
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific rotation, *α+, is a fundamental
property of chiral substances that is expressed as the angle
to which the material causes polarized light to rotate at a
particular temperature, wavelength, and concentration.
Doubling l will double the value of α.
5. If a solution of a compound (30.0 g/100 mL of solution)
has a measured rotation of +15° in a 2 dm tube, what is
the specific rotation?
a) +50°
b) +25°
c) +15°
d) +7.5°
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific optical rotation of a sample, *α+,
is calculated using the equation *α+ = α/cl, where α is the
observed rotation, c is the concentration (in g/mL), and l is
the pathlength (in dm). *α+ is a constant for a sample.
6. Which of the following groups has the highest priority
according to the Cahn-Ingold-Prelog sequence rules?
a) CH3
b) CH2Cl
c) CH2OH
d) CHO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: R/S and E/Z descriptors are assigned by using
a system for ranking priority of the groups attached to
each stereocenter. This procedure, often known as the
sequence rules, is the heart of the CIP system. Compare
the atomic number (Z) of the atoms directly attached to
the stereocenter; the group having the atom of higher
atomic number receives higher priority.
7. What is the percent composition of a mixture of (S)-(+)-
2-butanol, α= +13.52°, and (R)-(-)-2-butanol, α = -13.52°,
with a specific rotation α = +6.76°?
a) 75%(R) 25%(S)
b) 25%(R) 75%(S)
c) 50%(R) 50%(S)
d) 67%(R) 33%(S)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific optical rotation of a sample, *α+,
is calculated using the equation *α+ = α/cl, where α is the
observed rotation, c is the concentration (in g/mL), and l is
the pathlength (in dm). *α+ is a constant for a sample.
8. What can be said with certainty if a compound has α= -
9.25°?
a) The compound has the (S) configuration
b) The compound has the (R) configuration
c) The compound is not a meso form
d) The compound possesses only one stereogenic center
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Compounds which rotate the plane of
polarization of plane polarized light counterclockwise are
said to be levorotary and correspond with negative values.
It is optically active substance.
9. Which of these is a comparatively insignificant factor
affecting the magnitude of specific optical rotation?
a) Concentration of the substance of interest
b) Purity of the sample
c) Temperature of the measurement
d) Length of the sample tube
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific rotation of a molecule is the
rotation in degrees observed upon passing polarized light
through a path length of 1 decimetre (dm) at a
concentration of 1 g/mL. Specific rotation is almost always
reported along with the temperature, wavelength of light
used, the solvent, and the concentration, since it is
sensitive to these factors as well.
10. What is the specific optical rotation of (S)-malic acid at
a concentration of 5.5 g/ mL in the solvent pyridine at 20°C
at a wavelength of 589 nm?
a) the specific rotation is –27°
b) the specific rotation is +27°
c) the specific rotation is –17°
d) the specific rotation is +17°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The specific optical rotation of a sample, *α+,
is calculated using the equation given below, α (is the
measured rotation in degrees, l is the path length in
decimeters, and ρ (Greek letter “rho”) is the concentration
of the liquid in g/mL, for a sample at a temperature T
(given in degrees Celsius) and wavelength λ (in
nanometers).
ENANTIOMERISM
1. Which of the following is the definition for
enatiomerism?
a) A pair of stereoisomers each of which has two chirality
centres
b) A pair of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of
one another
c) A pair of stereoisomers that are non-superimposable
mirror images of one another
d) Any pair of stereoisomers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The relationship between two stereoisomers
having molecules that are mirror images of each other;
enantiomers have identical chemical and physical
properties in an achiral environment but form different
products when reacted with other chiral molecules and
exhibit optical activity. A pair of stereoisomers that are
non-superimposable mirror images of one another are
enantiomers.
2. Which of the following statements is not true regarding
pairs of enantiomers?
a) They have identical boiling points
b) They rotate plane polarized light in opposite directions
c) They react at identical rates with chiral reagents
d) They have identical melting points
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This statement is true. All (+) enantiomers are
levorotatory, corresponding to rotation of plane polarized
light in a clockwise direction.
3. Which of the following statements regarding optical
rotation is not true?
a) All R enantiomers are dextrorotatory
b) All (+) enantiomers are laevorotatory
c) All (-) enantiomers rotate plane polarized light in a
counter clockwise direction
d) (+) and (-) enantiomers rotate plane polarized light in
opposite directions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This statement is false. Pairs of enantiomers
react at different rates with chiral reagents.
4. How many enantiomers are there of the molecule
shown below?
a) 6
b) 2
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chiral centers are carbons that have four non-
identical substituents on them and are designated as
either of R stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a
molecule has one stereocenter of R configuration, then in
the mirror image of that molecule, the stereocenter would
be of S configuration, and vice-versa. And above
compound does not satisfy these conditions to show
enantiomerism.
5. Which of the following notations is not used to
distinguish between pairs of enantiomers?
a) R and S
b) E and Z
c) + and –
d) D and L
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All four of these notations are used to
distinguish between isomers, but only three are used
specifically in the context of enantiomers. The fourth – E
and Z – is used to differentiate between geometric
isomers, not enantiomers.
6. Which among the following is true about
enantiomerism?
a) Assignments of R and S labels and (+) and (–) labels are
not connected
b) The labels R and S refer to different conformers
c) The labels (+) and (–) are used to distinguish
enantiomers
d) The specific rotation of enantiomers is equal and
opposite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: R and S not refers to different conformers.
Chiral centers are carbons that have four non-identical
substituents on them and are designated as either of R
stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a molecule has
one stereocenter of R configuration, then in the mirror
image of that molecule, the stereocenter would be of S
configuration, and vice-versa.
7. Which of the following molecules does not possess
enantiomers?
a) CH3CH2CH2CHBrCH3
b) CH3CH2CBr2CH3
c) CH3CHBrCH2CH3
d) CHBr2CH2CHBrCH3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For being an enantiomer it is necessary that
carbon atom has four non-identical substituents around it,
making this carbon a chiral center, and as proof of its
chirality the molecule has a non-superimposable mirror
image. Molecules that are mirror images of each other is
enantiomers.
8. Which of the following is true of any (S)-enantiomerism?
a) It rotates plane-polarized light to the right
b) It rotates plane-polarized light to the left
c) It is a racemic form
d) It is the mirror image of the corresponding (R)-
enantiomer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stereocenters, (sometimes called chiral
centers) are carbons that have four non-identical
substituents on them and are designated as either of R
stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a molecule has
one stereocenter of R configuration, then in the mirror
image of that molecule, the stereocenter would be of S
configuration, and vice-versa.
9. Which of the following is not true of enantiomers? They
have the same:
a) boiling point
b) melting point
c) specific rotation
d) density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enantiomers have identical chemical and
physical properties in an achiral environment but form
different products when reacted with other chiral
molecules and exhibit optical activity. A pair of
stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images
of one another are enantiomers.
10. In the absence of specific data, it can only be said that
(R)–2–bromopentane is which of the following?
a) dextrorotatory (+)
b) levorotatory (–)
c) optically inactive
d) analogous in absolute configuration to (R)–2–
chloropentane
View Answer
Answer: d d) Only A
Explanation: In the absence of specific data, it can only be View Answer
said that (R)–2–bromopentane analogous in absolute
configuration to (R)–2–chloropentane. Answer: d
Explanation: Chiral molecules are non-superimposable on
their mirror images. A good way to determine whether a
molecule is chiral is to determine whether it has a plane of
CHIRALITY symmetry. A molecule with a plane of symmetry is achiral
1. Which statement about a chiral compound A is (not chiral). Molecule 1 does not have a plane of symmetry
so it is chiral. Molecules 2 and 3 both have planes of
incorrect?
a) A racemate contains equal amounts of (+)-A and (–)-A symmetry, so they are not chiral.
b) If A is resolved, it is separated into its enantiomers 4. Which symmetry element makes the given compound
c) (+)-A can also be labelled R-A, because (+) means the
achiral?
same as R
d) (+)-A and (–)-A will rotate polarized light equally but in
opposite directions
View Answer
Answer: c
a) Plane of symmetry (POS)
Explanation: Follow the direction of the remaining 3
b) Center of symmetry (COS)
priorities from highest to lowest priority (lowest to highest
c) Axis of symmetry (AOS)
number, 1<2<3). A clockwise direction is an R (rectus, Latin
d) Alternating axis of symmetry (AAOS)
for right) configuration. A dextrorotary compound is often
View Answer
prefixed “(+)-” or “d-“
Answer: a
2. Which of the following is the definition of chirality?
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be achiral, it must
a) The superimposability of an object on its mirror image
be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules with a
b) A molecule with a mirror image
plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry meet this
c) The non-superimposability an object on its mirror image
criterion.
d) A molecule that has a carbon atom with four different
substituents 5. Which of the following compound(s) is/are chiral?
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chirality is not restricted to molecules. While
it is common for the presence of a carbon atom in a
molecule with four different substituents to be the origin
of chirality of a compound, it is not a requirement for
a) Both A and B
chirality.
b) Only B
3. Which of the following compound(s) is/are chiral? c) Only A
d) Neither A nor B
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be chiral, it must
not be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules
a) Only A and B
with a plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry do not
b) Only B
meet this criterion. Molecule A has a plane of symmetry
c) Only B and C
(shown above in fuchsia), molecule B has no symmetry.
6. The given compound is a chiral molecule.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be chiral, it must
not be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules
with a plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry do not
meet this criterion. This molecule is having plane of
symmetry, it is an achiral molecule.
7. Which symmetry element makes the given compound
achiral?
a) Plane of symmetry (POS)
b) Center of symmetry (COS)
c) Axis of symmetry (AOS)
d) Alternating axis of symmetry (AAOS)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be achiral, it must
be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules with a
center of symmetry meet this criterion.
8. The given compound is a chiral molecule.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be chiral, it must
not be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules
with a plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry do not
meet this criterion. This molecule is not having any
symmetry element, it is a chiral molecule.
9. Which of the following compound(s) is/are achiral?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) I and II
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be chiral, it must
not be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules
with a plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry do not
meet this criterion. Molecule II and III are not having
symmetry element, they are chiral molecule. Molecule ‘I’
is having plane of symmetry, it is an achiral atom.
10. Which of the following compound(s) is/are chiral?
a) I
b) II
c) III
d) I and II
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order for a molecule to be chiral, it must
not be superimposable on its mirror image. Molecules
with a plane of symmetry or a center of symmetry do not
meet this criterion. Molecule I and II are not having plane
of symmetry, they are chiral molecule. Molecule ‘III’ is
having plane of symmetry, it is an achiral atom.
ENANTIOMERS
1. Which of the following statements regarding
enantiomers not true?
a) All (+) enantiomers are levorotatory
b) All (-) enantiomers rotate plane polarized light in a
counterclockwise direction
c) (+) and (-) enantiomers rotate plane polarized light in Answer: d
opposite directions Explanation: Priorities are assigned to each of the four
d) All R enantiomers are dextrorotatory different groups attached to a given chiral center (one
View Answer through four, one being the group of highest priority). (It
should be understood that each chiral center has to be
Answer: d treated separately.) Orient the molecule so that the group
Explanation: This statement is true. (+) and (-) enantiomers of priority four (lowest priority) points away from the
rotate plane polarized light in opposite directions. observer. Draw a circular arrow from the group of first
priority to the group of second priority. If this circular
2. Which of the following is/are the S-enantiomer of
alanine? motion is counterclockwise, it is the S enantiomer.
5. Which of the following is the pair of enantiomer from
the following substance?
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
a) I and II
c) 1 and 3
b) II and III
d) 2 and 3
c) III and IV
View Answer
d) I and V
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: 1 and 3 have an S configuration, but 2 has an
Answer: c
R configuration. The priority of the substituents on the
Explanation: Stereocenters, (sometimes called chiral
chirality center of alanine is: -NH2 > -COOH > -CH3 > -H.
centers) are carbons that have four non-identical
3. Would the following compound have an enantiomer? substituents on them and are designated as either of R
stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a molecule has
one stereocenter of R configuration, then in the mirror
image of that molecule, the stereocenter would be of S
configuration, and vice-versa.
a) True 6. Is the given pair of compound enantiomers?
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
a) True
Explanation: Yes, this compound has enantiomer because
b) False
of the steric bulk of the phenyl groups, the molecule
View Answer
would be held in place.
Answer: a
4. Which of the following is true of any (S)-enantiomer?
Explanation: Stereocenters, (sometimes called chiral
a) It rotates plane-polarized light to the right
centers) are carbons that have four non-identical
b) It rotates plane-polarized light to the left
substituents on them and are designated as either of R
c) It is a racemic form
stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a molecule has
d) It is the mirror image of the corresponding (R)-
one stereocenter of R configuration, then in the mirror
enantiomer
image of that molecule, the stereocenter would be of S
View Answer
configuration, and vice-versa.
7. Which of the following is the enantiomer for the b) trans-1,3-Cyclohexanediol d) A pair of stereoisomers that are non-superimposable
following substance? c) cis-1,4-Cyclohexanediol mirror images of one another
d) trans-1,4-Cyclohexanediol View Answer
View Answer d)
Answer: c View Answer
Answer: b Explanation: Not all stereoisomers are diastereomers. For
Explanation: Trans-1,3-Cyclohexanediol exist as example, a pair of molecules which are non- Answer: a
a) enantiomer. (S,S)-cyclohexane-1,3-diol is shown below. superimposable mirror images of one another are Explanation: Both molecules are chiral. It can be
enantiomers, not diastereomers. determined that these molecules are non-superimposable
and are not mirror images. Therefore, the molecules are
2. What is the relationship between given compound? diastereomers.
b) 4. Which of the following can exist as diastereomers?
10. Which of the following is capable of existing as a pair a) Lactic acid
of enantiomers? b) 1-Butene
a) 2-methylpropane c) 2-Butene
c) a) Diastereomer
b) 2-methylpentane d) Ethane
b) Enantiomer
c) 3-methylpentane View Answer
c) Identical
d) 3-methylhexane
d) Don’t have any relation Answer: c
View Answer
d) View Answer Explanation: The two possible geometries of 2-butene are
View Answer Answer: d cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene; cis indicates that
Answer: a
Explanation: 3-methylhexane exists as a pair of substituents are arranged on the same side of the double
Answer: a Explanation: Both molecules have the same molecular
enantiomer. This carbon atom has four non-identical bond, while trans indicates opposite sides. These are
Explanation: Stereocenters, (sometimes called chiral formula (C9H17Cl) and the same connectivity. Each
substituents around it, making this carbon a chiral center, stereoisomers; the atoms are connected in the same way
centers) are carbons that have four non-identical molecule also has three stereocenters and does not
and as proof of its chirality the molecule has a non- but arranged differently in space.
substituents on them and are designated as either of R contain a plane of symmetry. Therefore, both molecules
superimposable mirror image. A fancy term used in
stereochemistry or S stereochemistry. If a molecule has are chiral. It can be determined that these molecules are
textbooks and in the literature to describe molecules that
one stereocenter of R configuration, then in the mirror non-superimposable and are not mirror images. Therefore,
are mirror images of each other is enantiomers, as in “the
image of that molecule, the stereocenter would be of S the molecules are diastereomers.
enantiomer of the left molecule above is the molecule on
configuration, and vice-versa.
the right, its mirror image.” 3. Which of the following is the diastereomer of the
8. Which of the following molecules exists as a pair of following compound? 5. Which structure(s) represent(s) diastereomer(s) of the
enantiomers? following compound?
a) 2-Bromopropane
b) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane
c) 2-Cyclohexen-1-ol
d) cis-1,2-Dichlorocyclobutane
View Answer

Answer: c
a)
Explanation: 2-Cyclohexen-1-ol can exist as enantiomers as
shown below tis compound is called as (1R)-2-Cyclohexen- DIASTEREOMERS

1. Which of the following is the definition of a pair of a)

diastereomers? b)
a) A pair of stereoisomers each of which has two chirality
1-ol.
centers
9. Which of the following diols exists as a pair of b) Any pair of stereoisomers
enantiomers? c) A pair of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of c) b)
a) cis-1,3-Cyclohexanediol one another
 8. What is the relation between the given compound? tartaric acid. The amine also has to be chiral in order to 4. Which statement is not true for a meso compound?
make the diastereomeric salt, so quinoline which is achiral. a) The specific rotation is 0°
b) There are one or more planes of symmetry
c) A single molecule is identical to its mirror image
c) d) The stereochemical labels, (R) and (S), must be identical
MESO STRUCTURES
for each stereogenic center
1. Which of the following is the definition of a meso View Answer
a) diastereomers
compound?
b) constitutional isomers Answer: d
a) A molecule with chirality centers which is chiral
c) enantiomers Explanation: Statement stereochemical labels, (R) and (S),
d) b) A chiral compound with more than one chirality center
View Answer d) identical c) A diastereomer with no chirality centers must be identical for each stereogenic center is not true
View Answer about meso compounds, stereochemical labels, (R) and
d) A molecule with chirality centers which is not chiral
Answer: b View Answer (S), can or cannot be identical for each stereogenic center.
Answer: a
Explanation: It can be determined that these molecules
Explanation: It can be determined that these molecules 5. Which is a meso compound?
are non-superimposable and are not mirror images. Answer: d
Therefore, the molecules are diastereomers. are non-superimposable and are not mirror images. a) (2R,3R)-2,3-Dibromobutane
Explanation: Meso compounds are not chiral. Molecule
Therefore, the molecules are diastereomers. b) (2R,3S)-2,3-Dibromopentane
with chirality centers which is chiral are false. So, other
6. What is the relation between the given compound? statements are false. c) (2R,4R)-2,4-Dibromopentane
9. What is the relation between the given compound? d) (2R,4S)-2,4-Dibromopentane
2. A compound whose molecules are superimposable on View Answer
their mirror images even though they contain asymmetric
Answer: d
carbon atoms is called
a) A threo compound Explanation: (2R,4S)-Dibromopentane is superimposable
a) constitutional isomers on its mirror image, so it is achiral (i.e., not chiral). Achiral
b) A meso compound
b) enantiomers molecules which have chirality centers are called meso
c) A unsymmetric compound
c) diastereomers compounds. Meso compounds are possible if two (or
a) diastereomers d) An erythro compound
d) identical more) chirality centers in a molecule have the same set of
b) constitutional isomers View Answer
View Answer four substituents. Examination of molecular models might
c) enantiomers
d) identical Answer: b help you when examining stereoisomers.
Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Meso compounds are possible if two (or
Explanation: It can be determined that these molecules 6. Which of the following is a mesocompound?
more) chirality centers in a molecule have the same set of
are non-superimposable and are not mirror images.
Answer: a four substituents. Examination of molecular models might
Therefore, the molecules are diastereomers.
Explanation: It can be determined that these molecules help you when examining stereoisomers.
7. What is the relation between the given compound? are non-superimposable and are not mirror images.
Therefore, the molecules are diastereomers. 3. Which of the following compounds is a meso
compound?
a) I
10. Which of the following compounds would be suitable a) (2R,3R)-dibromobutane
b) II
for preparing the necessary diastereomeric salts in b) (2R,3S)-dibromobutane
c) III
preparation of Naproxen? c) (2R,3S)-3-bromo-2-butanol
a) constitutional isomers d) IV
a) Quinoline d) (2R,3R)-3-bromo-2-butanol
b) enantiomers View Answer
b) Tartaric acid View Answer
c) diastereomers c) Malic acid Answer: a
d) identical d) Cinchonidine Answer: b
Explanation: Compound I is superimposable on its mirror
View Answer View Answer Explanation: (2R,3S)-Dibromobutane is superimposable on
image, so it is achiral. Achiral molecules which have
its mirror image, so it is achiral (i.e., not chiral). Achiral
Answer: c chirality centers are called meso compounds. Meso
Answer: d molecules which have chirality centers are called meso
Explanation: It can be determined that these molecules compounds are possible if two (or more) chirality centers
Explanation: The correct answer is cinchonidine. Because compounds. Meso compounds are possible if two (or
are non-superimposable and are not mirror images. in a molecule have the same set of four substituents.
naproxen contains a carboxylic acid, it will be necessary to more) chirality centers in a molecule have the same set of
Therefore, the molecules are diastereomers. Examination of molecular models might help you when
use an amine to form a salt. This rules out malic acid and four substituents. Examination of molecular models might
examining stereoisomers.
help you when examining stereoisomers.
7. The given compound is meso compound. more) chirality centers in a molecule have the same set of angle. Thus, cycle gains stability. That is why 5-membered Answer: a
four substituents. Examination of molecular models might rings are less stable than 6-membered. Explanation: Pyrrole is more reactive than furan and
help you when examining stereoisomers. thiophene in electrophilic reactions. Therefore; pyrrole is
2. Which of the following is a not a five membered ring? more prone to electrophilic substitution than furan. The
10. Which is the meso isomer of butane-1,2,3,4-tetraol? a) Pyridine nitrogen atom in pyrrole can conjugate with the π-
a) True b) Pyrrole electrons on the ring, so the density of the π-electrons on
b) False c) Furan the ring will increase.
View Answer d) Thiophene
a)
View Answer 6. What is the product when thiophene reacts with Br2 in
Answer: a
benzene?
Explanation: The given compound is superimposable on its Answer: a a) 2-bromothiophene
mirror image, so it is achiral. Achiral molecules which have b) Explanation: Pyridine is a basic five membered heterocyclic b) 3-bromothiophene
chirality centers are called meso compounds. Meso organic compound with the chemical formula C5H5N. It is c) 2,5-dibromothiophene
compounds are possible if two (or more) chirality centers structurally related to benzene, with on (=CH–) group d) 3,4-dibromothiophene
in a molecule have the same set of four substituents. c) replaced by a nitrogen atom. View Answer
Examination of molecular models might help you when
examining stereoisomers. 3. Which of the following five membered rings is most Answer: c
resonance stabilized? Explanation: This is electrophilic substitution reaction,
8. Which of the following is(are) not meso compound(s)? d) a) Furan bromination of thiophene in presence of benzene leads to
View Answer b) Thiophene formation of 2,5-dibromothiophene.
c) Pyrrole
Answer: b
d) Pyridine
Explanation: If we redraw each structure with the OH
View Answer
groups (for example) on C2 and C3 eclipsed, or re-write
the structures as Fischer projections, then we can see Answer: b
a) II 7. What is the product when pyrrole reacts with Br2 in
more easily which structure has a mirror plane between C2 Explanation: Thiophene is most resonance stabilized five
b) II and III ethanol?
and C3. And this condition will satisfy the meso membered rings among above compounds. As thiophene
c) I and III a) 2,3-dibromopyrrole
compound. has Sulphur and least electronegativity ring than nitrogen
d) I and II b) 2,3,4,5-tetrabromopyrrole
View Answer and oxygen in pyrrole and furan respectively. c) 2,5-dibromopyrrole
d) 3,4-dibromopyrrole
Answer: a 4. Five membered rings come under which category of
HETEROCYCLIC COMPOUNDS View Answer
Explanation: Meso compounds are possible if two (or heterocycle classification on the basis of chemical
more) chirality centers in a molecule have the same set of FIVE MEMBERED RINGS behavior? Answer: b
four substituents. Examination of molecular models might a) -excessive heterocycle Explanation: This is electrophilic substitution reaction,
1. Which of the following is not true about the five b) -deficient heterocycle
help you when examining stereoisomers. bromination of pyrrole in presence of ethanol leads to
membered rings? c) -equivalent heterocycle formation of 2,3,4,5-tetrabromopyrrole.
9. Which of the following is(are) not meso compound(s)? a) Five membered rings are more stable than 4 membered d) Can’t say about the five membered rings
rings View Answer 8. What is the name of the following reaction?
b) Five membered rings are more stable than 6 membered
rings Answer: a
c) Five membered rings are more stable than 7 membered Explanation: In five membered ring, 6 π electrons are
rings distributed between 5 atoms, each atom shares more than
d) Five membered rings are more stable than 8 membered 1 e– (1.2e–).
a) I a) Gattermann reaction
rings
b) II and III 5. What is the reactivity order in the following five b) Riemer tiemann reaction
View Answer c) Friedal craft reaction
c) I and III membered heterocyclic compounds?
d) I and II Answer: b a) Pyrrole d) Blanc’s chloromethylation
View Answer Explanation: 6-membered rings can have 3D b) Furan View Answer
conformations, such as the chair conformation (the more c) Thiophene
Answer: b Answer: b
stable) and the boat conformation. These conformations d) Pyridine
Explanation: Meso compounds are possible if two (or Explanation: This is a Riemer tiemann reaction, in which
relax the angles, getting them closer to the tetrahedral View Answer
boiling pyrrole will react with aqueous or alcoholic potash The only way we can have five carbons, a nitrogen, and stability of molecule. 9. Which of the following is the correct range for the bond
and chloroform. only five hydrogens is if the carbons and nitrogen form a length in the pyridine molecule?
ring with alternating double bonds. a) 1.34 – 1.40 A°
9. What is the name of the following reaction? b) 1.24 – 1.32 A°
2. Which element is present as hetero atom in pyridine? c) 2.4 – 2.49 A°
a) Sulphur d) 1.02 – 1.17 A°
b) Nitrogen View Answer
6. Pyridine come under which category of heterocycle
c) Oxygen
classification on the basis of chemical behavior?
d) Sulphur and nitrogen Answer: a
a) Gattermann reaction a) -excessive heterocycle
View Answer Explanation: As shown in below diagram, 1.34 – 1.40 A° is
b) Riemer tiemann reaction b) -deficient heterocycle
the correct range for the bond length in the pyridine
c) Friedal craft reaction Answer: b c) -equivalent heterocycle
d) Blanc’s chloromethylation Explanation: Pyridine is an analogue of benzene in which d) can’t say about the five membered rings
View Answer one -CH unit is replaced by N. The chemical formula for View Answer
pyridine is: C5H5N.
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Nitrogen is more electronegative than other molecule.
Explanation: This is a Gattermann reaction, in which 3. The electron of Nitrogen participating in the resonance
boiling pyrrole will react with HCN and HCl followed by in pyridine is present in which orbital? carbon atom in pyridine, so distribution of 6 e– is unequal
10. What is the greatest angle in pyridine ring?
addition of water and leads to formation of pyrole-2- a) p-orbital (more electron on N). a) 116°
carbaldehyde. b) sp2-orbital b) 140°
7. What is the smallest angle in pyridine ring?
c) sp3-orbital c) 124°
10. What will be the reagent used for the completion of a) 116.7°
d) sp -orbital d) 118°
the following reaction? b) 115.0°
View Answer View Answer
c) 124.0°
Answer: b d) 118.1° Answer: c
Explanation: In pyridine, from three sp2 orbital, one hybrid View Answer
Explanation: As shown in below diagram, the angle
orbital is used for one electron which is utilized in the π- between C-C-N is the greatest angle which is 124°.
a) Concentrated acid Answer: a
cloud.
b) Dilute acid Explanation: As shown in below diagram, the angle
c) Concentrated base 4. Pyridine is a not a planner compound? between C-N-C is the smallest angle which is 116.7°.
d) Dilute base a) True
View Answer b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In dilute acid for a brief time, pyrrole form Answer: b
trimer. Explanation: Pyridine is planner monocyclic compound and
contains 6 πe- the aromatic sextet. It fulfils the criteria for
the Huckel’s rule. SOURCE OF PYRIDINE COMPOUNDS
STRUCTURE OF PYRIDINE 8. What is the dipole moment of the pyridine?
5. How many number of resonating structure stabilises a a) Zero 1. Which of the following plant is the natural source of
1. Pyridine is a which type of heterocyclic compound from pyridine molecule? b) 2.2 D pyridine?
the following options? a) 4 c) 1.17 D a) Atropa belladonna
a) Six membered heterocyclic compound b) 5 d) 4.3 D b) Ocimum tenuiflorum
b) Seven membered heterocyclic compound c) 6 View Answer c) Azadirachta indica
c) Four membered heterocyclic compound d) 7 d) Ficus religiose
d) Five membered heterocyclic compound View Answer Answer: b View Answer
View Answer Explanation: The dipole moment of the pyridine is 2.2D
Answer: b Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Like benzene, pyridine also has 2 kekule Explanation: Pyridine is not abundant in nature, it is
Explanation: Pyridine is a five membered heterocyclic structure (a and b) along with 3 more resonating structure present in the leaves and roots of belladonna (Atropa
compound. The chemical formula for pyridine is: C5H5N. (c, d and e) which contributes to a lesser extent to the belladonna).
towards the nitrogen molecule.
2. Why is extraction of pyridine from coal tar or as a nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD). These condensation from the acetaldehyde and formaldehyde. It cyclooctadiene) as a catalyst, and can be performed even
byproduct of coal gasification ineffective? compounds assist dehydrogenase enzymes in the is then condensed with acetaldehyde and ammonia into in water.
a) Less concentration of desired compound catabolism of fat, carbohydrates, and amino acids, and in dihydropyridine.
b) This method is expensive the enzymes involved in synthesis of fats and steroids and 12. What is the name reaction of the following reaction?
c) Reactive is rare other vital metabolites. 9. Which of the following reagent can’t be used as the
d) Dangerous procedure reagent in the dealkylation of alkylpyridines in the pyridine
View Answer 6. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Escherichia coli synthesis?
produce nicotinic acid by condensation of which of the a) Vanadium oxide
a) Chichibabin synthesis
Answer: a following compounds? b) Nickel based catalyst
b) Dealkylation of alkylpyridines
Explanation: The process was labor-consuming and a) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate c) Silver or platinum-based catalyst
c) Hantzsch pyridine synthesis
inefficient because coal tar contains only about 0.1% b) Kynurenine d) Copper catalyst
d) Bönnemann cyclization
pyridine, and therefore a multi-stage purification was c) Pyrrole View Answer
View Answer
required, which further reduced the output. d) Tryptophan
View Answer Answer: d
Answer: d
3. Which of the following derivative of pyridine is mostly Explanation: The oxidative dealkylation is carried out
Explanation: The trimerization of a part of a nitrile
found in mycobacterium tuberculosis? Answer: c either using air over vanadium(V) oxide catalyst, by vapor-
molecule and two parts of acetylene into pyridine is called
a) Niacin Explanation: Mammals synthesize nicotinic acid through dealkylation on nickel-based catalyst, or hydrodealkylation
Bönnemann cyclization.
b) Nicotinamide oxidation of the amino acid ‘tryptophan’, where an with a silver- or platinum-based catalyst. There are no
c) Nicotinic acid intermediate product, aniline, creates a pyridine evidences found when copper is used as catalyst in this 13. What is the name reaction of the following reaction?
d) Strychnine derivative, kynurenine. reaction.
View Answer
7. What is the name of the reaction given below when 10. What is the name reaction of the following reaction?
Answer: c condensation of acrolein and acetaldehyde take place? a) Chichibabin synthesis
Explanation: The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis and b) Ciamician–Dennstedt rearrangement
Escherichia coli produce nicotinic acid by condensation. c) Kröhnke pyridine synthesis
d) Bönnemann cyclization
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Escherichia coli a) Chichibabin synthesis View Answer
produce nicotinic acid by condensation of which of the a) Chichibabin synthesis b) Dealkylation of alkylpyridines
following compounds? b) Dealkylation of alkylpyridine Answer: b
c) Hantzsch pyridine synthesis
a) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate c) Hantzsch pyridine synthesis d) Bönnemann cyclization Explanation: The Ciamician–Dennstedt rearrangement
b) Amino acid d) Bonnemann cyclisation View Answer entails the ring-expansion of pyrrole with dichlorocarbene
c) Pyrrole View Answer to 3-chloropyridine.
d) acetylene Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: The Hantzsch pyridine synthesis typically uses
View Answer
Explanation: The reaction can be described as a
a 2:1:1 mixture of a β-keto acid (often acetoacetate), an
Answer: c condensation reaction of aldehydes, ketones, α, β- ELECTROPHILIC SUBSTITUTION IN PYRIDINE
aldehyde (often formaldehyde), and ammonia or its salt as
Explanation: The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis and unsaturated carbonyl compounds, or any combination of the nitrogen donor. 1. Electrophilic substitution reaction of pyridine is most
Escherichia coli produce nicotinic acid by condensation by the above, in ammonia. In particular, unsubstituted
effective in which of the conditions?
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and aspartic acid. pyridine is produced from acetaldehyde, which are 11. Which of the following catalyst can be used in the
a) In slightly acidic conditions
inexpensive and widely available. synthesis of pyridine by Bönnemann cyclization?
5. Which of the following derivative of pyridine is mostly b) In slightly basic conditions
a) Vanadium oxide
found in mammals? 8. In the synthesis of pyridine by Chichibabin synthesis, c) In neutral medium
b) Nickel based catalyst
a) Nicotinamide synthesis of acroloien is done which method? d) In vigorous conditions
c) Silver or platinum-based catalyst
b) Vitamin B6 a) Knoevenagel Condensation View Answer
d) Cobalt catalyst
c) Nicotinic acid b) Aldol condensation View Answer Answer: d
d) Strychnine c) Dieckmann condensation
Explanation: When electrophilic substitution reaction of
View Answer d) Claisen condensation Answer: d
pyridine is carried out in acidic conditions then pyridine
View Answer Explanation: The trimerization of a part of a nitrile
Answer: c ring will further get deactivated forming pyridinium ion.
molecule and two parts of acetylene into pyridine is done
Explanation: Mammals synthesize nicotinic acid through Answer: a However, under more vigorous conditions the usual
with CoCp2(cod) (Cp = cyclopentadienyl, cod = 1,5-
oxidation. The coenzyme forms of nicotinic acid are Explanation: Acrolein is formed in a Knoevenagel
electrophilic substitution reaction can be possible but yield at 3-position is more stable as it will have 3-resonating d) 3- methyl-pyridine-1-sulphonic acid
will be less. structure and none of will have positive charge on N. View Answer

2. Which of the following electrophilic substitution 5. Which of the following is the product for the below Answer: a
reaction is not possible in pyridine? reaction? Explanation: Alkyl group activate the pyridine ring towards
a) Nitration electrophilic substitution, however, directive influence of a) 4-amino -pyridine-5-sulphonic acid
b) Sulphonation the ring predominates regardless of the position of b) 4- amino -pyridine-3-sulphonic acid
c) Bromination alkylation i.e. attack at 3-position. c) 4- amino -pyridine-6-sulphonic acid
d) Friedel craft reaction d) 4- amino -pyridine-2-sulphonic acid
a) 3- bromopyridine 8. Which of the following is the product for the below View Answer
View Answer
b) 2- bromopyridine reaction?
Answer: d c) 2- bromopyridine and 3- bromopyridine Answer: a
Explanation: Common alkylations and acylations, such as d) 3- bromopyridine and 3,5- dibromo pyridine Explanation: Amino group dominates the ring orientation
Friedel–Crafts alkylation or acylation, usually fail for View Answer effect and direct the incoming electrophile to o– and p–
pyridine because they lead only to the addition at the position. 4-amino group directs the incoming electrophile
Answer: d predominantly to the 3-position.
nitrogen atom. Substitutions usually occur at the 3- a) 5- bromo-2-aminopyridine
Explanation: Electrophilic substitution reaction at position
position, which is the most electron-rich carbon atom in b) 3- bromo-2-aminopyridine
the 3-position 5 position is preferred over attack at 2 and
the ring and is, therefore, more susceptible to an c) 4- bromo-2-aminopyridine
4-position because the intermediate found by electrophilic
electrophilic addition. d) 6- bromo-2-aminopyridine NUCLEOPHILIC SUBSTITUTION IN PYRIDINE
addition at 3-position is more stable as it will have 3-
View Answer
3. At which position of pyridine electrophilic substitution resonating structure and none of will have positive charge 1. At which position of pyridine nucleophilic substitution
reaction is most preferred? on N. Answer: a reaction is most preferred?
a) First Explanation: Amino group dominates the ring orientation a) First and third
6. Which of the following is the product for the below
b) Second effect and direct the incoming electrophile to o- and p- b) Second
reaction?
c) Third position. 2-amino group directs the incoming electrophile c) Third
d) Forth predominantly to the 5-position. d) Second and Forth
View Answer View Answer
9. Which of the following is the product for the below
Answer: c reaction? Answer: d
a) 3- pyridinesulphonic acid
Explanation: Electrophilic substitution reaction at position Explanation: When the nucleophile is at the 2 and 4
b) 2- pyridinesulphonic acid
the 3-position is preferred over attack at 2 and 4-position positions, the intermediate anion is stabilized by the
c) 4- pyridinesulphonic acid
because the intermediate found by electrophilic addition electronegative nitrogen atom. This results in a more
d) 2,4- pyridinedisulphonic acid
at 3-position is more stable as it will have 3-resonating stable anion as compared to the intermediate anion when
View Answer a) 2- Nitro-3-aminopyridine
structure and none of will have positive charge on N. the nucleophile is at the 3 positions. Hence, the 2 and 4
b) 4- Nitro-3-aminopyridine
Answer: a positions is preferred for nucleophilic substitution.
4. Which of the following is the product for the below c) 5- Nitro-3-aminopyridine
Explanation: Electrophilic substitution reaction at position
reaction? d) 6- Nitro-3-aminopyridine 2. Pyridine undergoes nucleophilic substitution with
the 3-position is preferred over attack at 2 and 4-position
View Answer NaNH2 at 100℃ to give which of the following?
because the intermediate found by electrophilic addition
at 3-position is more stable as it will have 3-resonating a) 3-aminopyridine
Answer: a
structure and none of will have positive charge on N. b) 2-aminopyridine
Explanation: Amino group dominates the ring orientation
c) 3,5-diaminopyridine
a) 3- Nitropyridine effect and direct the incoming electrophile to o- and p-
7. Which of the following is the product for the below d) 2,5-diaminopyridine
b) 2- Nitropyridine position. 3-amino group directs the incoming electrophile
reaction? View Answer
c) 4- Nitropyridine predominantly to the 2-position.
d) 2,4- dinitropyridine Answer: b
View Answer 10. Which of the following is the product for the below
Explanation: Here, sodium amide is used as the
reaction?
nucleophile yielding 2-aminopyridine. The hydride ion
Answer: a
released in this reaction combines with a proton of an
Explanation: Electrophilic substitution reaction at position a) 3- methyl-pyridine-5-sulphonic acid available amino group, forming a hydrogen molecule.
the 3-position is preferred over attack at 2 and 4-position b) 3- methyl-pyridine-4-sulphonic acid
because the intermediate found by electrophilic addition c) 3- methyl-pyridine-6-sulphonic acid
3. Pyridine undergoes nucleophilic substitution with excess followed by aromatic nucleophilic substitution. d) they slow down the sorption on sodium amide dihydropyridine when undergoes partial hydrogenation of
of NaNH2 at 100℃ to give which of the following? View Answer
a) 3-aminopyridine
b) 2,6-diaminopyridine Answer: a
c) 3,5-diaminopyridine Explanation: Electron-withdrawing groups inhibit the
pyridine take place.
d) 2,5-diaminopyridine Chichibabin reaction they decrease the basicity of the ring
View Answer nitrogen by decreasing the density of electron on nitrogen. 4. When Lithiumtetrahydroborate in the presence of water
So the donation of an electron is less. reacts with pyridine, which product is formed?
Answer: b 6. Nucleophilic substitution reaction of pyridine is most a) Piperidine
Explanation: Sodium amide in excess is used as the effective in which of the conditions? b) 1,4-dihydropyridine
nucleophile yielding 2,6-diaminopyridine. The hydride ion a) In slightly acidic conditions REDUCTION OF PYRIDINE c) 1,2-dihydropyridine
released in this reaction combines with a proton of an b) In slightly basic conditions d) 2,5-dihydropyridine
available amino group, forming a hydrogen molecule. c) In neutral medium 1. What will be the product if reaction with hydrogen gas View Answer
d) No specific condition requirements in the presence of Raney nickel takes place?
4. What will be the product of the following reaction? Answer: b
View Answer a) Pyrimidine
b) Piperdine Explanation: Selective synthesis of 1,4-dihydropyridine is
Answer: d c) Pyrylium salt achieved in the presence of organometallic complexes of
Explanation: The nitrogen atom makes pyridines more d) Pentazine magnesium and zinc, and Lithiumtetrahydroborate in the
reactive towards nucleophilic substitution, particularly at View Answer presence of Water.
a) 3-aminopyridine
the 2- and 4-positions, by lowering the LUMO energy of
b) 2-aminopyridine 5. When lithium aluminium hydride reacts with pyridine,
the π system of pyridine. Answer: a
c) 3,5-diaminopyridine which product is not formed?
Explanation: Hydrogen-saturated piperidine is obtained
d) 2,5-diaminopyridine 7. What is the name of the following reaction? a) Piperidine
through reaction with hydrogen gas in the presence of
View Answer b) 1,4-dihydropyridine
Raney nickel.
c) 1,2-dihydropyridine
Answer: b
2. What is name of the reaction when piperdine is d) 2,5-dihydropyridine
Explanation: We can see the ease of replacement of
converted by pyridine commercially? View Answer
halogens in these positions by nucleophiles. The a) Chichibabin reaction a) Dehydrogenation
intermediate anion is stabilized by electronegative b) Dealkylation of pyridine Answer: a
b) Hydrogenation
nitrogen and by delocalization round the ring. c) Hantzsch pyridine synthesis Explanation: Partially hydrogenated derivatives are
c) Hydrogenolysis
d) Bonnemann cyclisation d) Transfer hydrogenation obtained under milder conditions, reduction with lithium
View Answer View Answer aluminium hydride yields a mixture of 1,4-dihydropyridine,
1,2-dihydropyridine, and 2,5-dihydropyridine.
Answer: a Answer: b
5. What will be the product of the following reaction? Explanation: The Chichibabin reaction is a method for Explanation: Piperidine is commercially obtained by the 6. What will be the product of the following reaction?
producing 2-aminopyridinederivatives by the reaction of hydrogenation of pyridine using nickel catalyst at about
pyridine with sodium amide. The direct amination of 200℃.
pyridine with sodium amide takes place in liquid ammonia.
Following the addition elimination mechanism first, a 3. By which of the following agent there will be incomplete
nucleophilic NH2− is added while a hydride (H−) is leaving. reduction of pyridine?
a) Na-NH2, EtOH
a) 3-chloropyridine 8. Electron-withdrawing groups inhibit the Chichibabin b) H2/RaNi, 200℃
b) 2-dichloropyridine reaction. Which of the following statement is not true c) Na/C2H5OH
c) 3,5-dichloropyridine about this fact? a)
d) NaBH3
d) 2,5-dichloropyridine a) they increase the basicity of the ring nitrogen View Answer
View Answer b) these electron-withdrawing groups can also form
complexes with sodium amide Answer: a
Answer: b
c) for single electron transfer pathway, altering the Explanation: NaNH2 in presence of ethanol will form 1, 4- b)
Explanation: This is the direct conversion to
distribution of spin density of the intermediate radical
chloropyridines with POCl3. The reaction starts by attack of
anion
the oxygen atom at phosphorus to create a leaving group,
 gives you 3-aminopyridine.The mechanism finishes when multiple polypeptide chains. The quaternary structure hydroxyl groups on other molecules to form two ester
the basic reactant donates electrons to acquire a proton refers to the number and arrangement of the protein bonds, as in nucleic acid.
and regenerate the reactant NH−2. This is obviously hard subunits with respect to one another. Examples of
(you’re generating an extremely strong base, which proteins with quaternary structure include hemoglobin, 7. Animals store glucose in the form of which
prefers not to be free!), so it’s one of the reasons why heat DNA polymerase, and ion channels. macromolecule?
c) a) Amylose
is needed.
4. Amylose is soluble in which of the following solvent? b) Glycogen
a) Water c) Glycerol
b) Alcohol d) Cellulose
POLYMERISATION & BIOMOLECULES c) Partially soluble in alcohol View Answer
d) d) Soluble in acidic solution
MACROMOLECULES – 1 Answer: b
View Answer View Answer
Explanation: Glycogen is a multibranched polysaccharide
1. Macromolecule described as large molecules built up
Answer: b Answer: a of glucose that serves as a form of energy storage in
from small repeating units called as which of the
Explanation: Hydrogen-saturated piperidine is obtained Explanation: A dry form of amylose has been prepared humans, animals, fungi, and bacteria. The polysaccharide
following?
through reaction with hydrogen gas in the presence of that is easily soluble in water at all temperatures. It can go structure represents the main storage form of glucose in
a) Biopolymer
Raney nickel. Group –COOH will remain same. into solution even at high concentrations (up to 10%), the body.
b) Dimers
c) Monomers forming very viscous liquids that are indistinguishable in
7. Pyridine undergoes nucleophilic substitution with 8. In the formation of a macromolecule, what type of bond
d) Metamers appearance and properties from those prepared by
phenyl lithium at 100℃ to give which of the following? would join two amino acid subunits?
autoclaving amyloses.
a) 3-phenylpyridine View Answer a) Ionic bond
b) 2-phenylpyridine 5. Proteins, which are tremendously complex molecules, b) Phosphodiester bond
Answer: c
c) 3,5-diphenylpyridine what are their basic units or building blocks? c) Hydrogen bond
Explanation: Monomer is a molecule that “can undergo
d) 2,5-diaphenylpyridine a) Carbohydrates d) Peptide bond
polymerization thereby contributing constitutional units to
View Answer b) NH2 View Answer
the essential structure of a macromolecule.
c) Polypeptides
Answer: b Answer: d
2. Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy compounds of d) Amino acids
Explanation: Nucleophilic substitution takes place Explanation: The bond that holds together the two amino
_______________ View Answer
preferentially at the 2- and 4- positions as the acids is a peptide bond, or a covalent chemical bond
a) Glucose
intermediate anion is stabilised by the electronegative Answer: d between two compounds (in this case, two amino acids). It
b) Oligosaccharides
c) Aldehyde and ketone Explanation: The basic building block of a protein is called occurs when the carboxylic group of one molecule reacts
d) Glyceraldehyde an amino acid. There are 20 amino acids in the proteins with the amino group of the other molecule.
View Answer you eat and in the proteins within your body, and they link
together to form large protein molecules. The variety of 9. In the formation of a macromolecule, what type of
nitrogen.
Answer: c ways they mix and match allows for the great diversity of reaction would join two subunits together?
8. What will be the product of the following reaction? proteins in nature. a) Hydrophobic reaction
Explanation: The carbohydrates contain a chemically
b) Hydrolysis reaction
reactive group that is either an aldehyde group or a keto
group, they are frequently referred to as aldopentoses or 6. Nucleic acids are chains of 5-carbon sugars linked by c) Dehydration reaction
which type of bonds with an organic base protruding from d) Denaturation reaction
ketopentoses or aldohexoses or ketohexoses.
each sugar? View Answer
a) 3-phenylpyridine
3. There are several levels of protein structure, which is a) Amino
b) 4-phenylpyridine Answer: c
the most complex protien? b) Phophodiester
c) 3-phenylpyridine and 4-phenylpyridine Explanation: A dehydration reaction is a chemical reaction
a) Primary c) Carbonyl
d) No reaction that involves the loss of a water molecule from the
b) Secondary d) Phosphate
View Answer reacting molecule. Dehydration reactions and dehydration
c) Tertiary View Answer
synthesis has the same meaning, and are often used
Answer: c d) Quaternary
Answer: b interchangeably. Two monosaccharaides, such as glucose
Explanation: A benzyne intermediate is generated when View Answer
Explanation: A phosphodiester bond occurs when exactly and fructose, can be joined together (to form sucrose)
bromide leaves. This intermediate can be attacked on
Answer: d two of the hydroxyl groups in phosphoric acid react with using dehydration synthesis. The new molecule, consisting
either carbon-3 or carbon-4, giving you both possible
Explanation: Many proteins are actually assemblies of of two monosaccharides, is called a disaccharide.
products. Path 1 gives you 4-aminopyridine, and path 2
10. Assuming that all of the below given compound had a) C and O b) mineral salts a) lipid molecules are hydrophilic
the same number of carbon atoms, which of the following b) OH and H c) proteins b) lipid molecules are hydrophobic
has the most C-H bonds? c) CH and NH2 d) carbohydrates c) lipid molecules are neutral
a) Unsaturated fat d) COOH and H View Answer d) lipid molecules are zwitterions
b) Polysaturated fat View Answer View Answer
c) Polysaccharide Answer: c
d) Saturated fat Answer: b Explanation: Proteins show enormous diversity because of Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Hydrolysis, which means to split water, a different proportions and sequences of 20 amino acids Explanation: Insolubility of lipids in water is due to the fact
reaction in which a water molecule is used during the within the protein molecule. Proteins are the most that the polar groups they contain are
Answer: d breakdown. Dehydration reaction is a chemical reaction abundant and most varied of the macromolecules having much smaller than their nonpolar portions. The nonpolar
Explanation: From a chemical standpoint, saturated fats that involves the loss of a water molecule from the one or more polypeptides (chains of amino acids). The chains are long complex hydrophobic hydrocarbon chains.
are simply fat molecules that have no double bonds reacting molecule. proteins constitute almost 50% of the total dry weight of If shaken in water lipids often form small droplets or
between carbon molecules because they are saturated the cell. micelles.
with hydrogen molecules. So, saturated fat will have a 4. What type of macromolecule carries out catalysis in
maximum number of C-H bonds. biological systems? 7. In which of the following groups are all polysaccharides? 10. Macromolecules like Enzymes, vitamins and hormones
a) proteins called enzymes a) sucrose, glucose and fructose can be classified into a single category of biological
b) carbohydrates called starches b) maltose, lactose and fructose chemicals. Why?
c) lipids called steroids c) glycogen, sucrose and maltose a) all of these help in regulating metabolism
MACROMOLECULES – 2 d) nucleic acids called DNA d) glycogen, cellulose and starch b) all of these are exclusively synthesized in the body of a
View Answer View Answer living organism as at present
1. What happens when a macromolecule undergoes
c) all of these are conjugated proteins
hydrolysis reaction? Answer: a Answer: d d) all of these enhance oxidative metabolism
a) protein coils into its secondary structure Explanation: Enzymes are proteins functioning as catalysts Explanation: Polysaccharides are complex long chain View Answer
b) the bond between two subunits of a macromolecule is that speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy. carbohydrates which are formed by dehydrate synthesis or
broken A simple and succinct definition of an enzyme is that it is a polymerisation of more than 10 but generally very large Answer: c
c) a bond is formed between two subunits of a biological catalyst that accelerates a chemical reaction number of units called monosaccharide. Starch, glycogen Explanation: A conjugated protein is a protein that
macromolecule without altering its equilibrium. and cellulose are all polysaccharides. functions in interaction with other (non-polypeptide)
d) water breaks ionic bonds chemical groups attached by bonding or weak
View Answer 5. Amino acids and proteins are ionized at typical 8. Cellulose is the most important constituent of plant cell interactions. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are
biological pH such that both the amino group and the wall. What are its constituents? conjugate proteins.
Answer: b carboxyl group gain hydrogen ions to become -NH3+ and - a) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by (3-1, 4
Explanation: Macromolecules (Polymers) are broken down COOH, respectively. glycosidic bond in straight chain and a-1, 6 glycosidic bond
into monomers in a process known as hydrolysis, which a) True at the site of branching
means to split water, a reaction in which a water molecule b) false b) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by (3-1, 4 FREE RADICAL VINYL POLYMERISATION
is used during the breakdown. View Answer glycosidic bond)
1. Which of the following is an initiator molecule in the
2. Which of the following is not a disaccharide? c) branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 6 free radical polymerisation?
Answer: a glycosidic bond at the site of branching
a) Sucrose Explanation: An amino acid has both a basic amine group a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Maltose d) unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by a-1, 4 b) Sulphuric acid
and an acidic carboxylic acid group. There is an internal glycosidic bond
c) Lactose transfer of a hydrogen ion from the -COOH group to the - c) Potassium permanganate
d) Amylose View Answer d) Chromium oxide
NH2 group to leave an ion with both a negative charge and
View Answer a positive charge, called as zwitterion. If we increase the Answer: b View Answer
pH of a solution of an amino acid by adding hydroxide Explanation: Cellulose molecule is composed of 1600 to
Answer: d Answer: a
ions, the hydrogen ion is removed from the -NH3+ group. If 6000 glucose molecules joined together. Those polymers
Explanation: Amylose is a polysaccharide made of α-D- Explanation: The whole process of free radical
glucose units, bonded to each other through α(1,4) we decrease the pH by adding an acid to a solution of an form long twisting macromolecules of cellulose. The chains polymerisation starts off with a molecule called an
amino acid, the -COO– part of the zwitterion picks up a are unbranched and linear, which are linked by 3-1, 4
glycosidic bonds. initiator. This is a molecule like benzoyl peroxide. When
hydrogen ion. glycosidic bond.
they split, the pair of electrons in the bond which is broken
3. Dehydration and hydrolysis reactions involve removing will separate. This is unusual as electrons like to be in pairs
6. What are the most diverse macromolecules in the cell? 9. Lipids are insoluble in water because of which of the
or adding which of the following to macromolecule whenever possible. When this split happens, we’re left
a) lipids following reason?
subunits? with two fragments, called initiator fragments.
2. Why is vinyl polymerization also known as addition Answer: d 8. What is the name for polymers with Z groups only on repeat units together successively along the chain,
polymerization? Explanation: Termination reaction in which our unpaired one side of the carbon chain? therefore, here number of monomers are four.
a) monomers are unsaturated compounds electrons can shut down the polymerization: it’s is called a) Enatiometric
b) it is a chain reaction disproportionation. This is a rather complicated way in b) Atactic
c) most monomers contain (CH2=CH─) group which two growing polymer chains solve the problem of c) Syndiotactic
COPOLYMERISATION
d) it proceeds through radical their unpaired electrons. d) Isotactic
View Answer View Answer 1. Which of the following is true about copolymerisation?
6. Which of the following reagents may be used to initiate
a) radical, coordination, anionic, or cationic
Answer: c radical polymerization of styrene? Answer: d polymerization, depending on the type of initiation
Explanation: In addition polymerisation, polymer are a) HCl Explanation: Isotactic polymers are composed of isotactic
b) addition of monomer to a metal complex, propagation
formed by simple linking of monomers without the co- b) Peroxides macromolecules. In isotactic Macromolecules all the is by successive insertion of monomer at the metal, and
generation of other products. Most of the monomers c) Hydroxide ion substituents are located on the same side of the
termination occurs when the metal complex separates
involves in chain polymerization contains (CH2=CH─) d) BF3 macromolecular backbone. from the polymer
group, known as vinyl group. View Answer
9. Which of the following is the structure of the radical c) monomers react by eliminating small molecules like
3. Which of the following happens in initiation step of the Answer: b intermediate formed in the first propagation step of the H2O, NH3, CH2O and NaCl in a repetitive manner, Indefinite
free radical polymerisation? Explanation: The whole process of free radical polymerization of methyl methacrylate? growth of the polymer occurs at both ends
a) Decomposition of initiator polymerisation starts off with a molecule called an d) a mixture of more than one (or different) monomeric
b) Renewal of inhibitor initiator. This is a molecule like peroxide or AIBN. species is allowed to polymerize
c) Addition of monomer molecules to the growing chains View Answer
d) Disproportionation 7. Which polymer will be formed when vinyl acetate reacts a)
with peroxides? Answer: d
View Answer
Explanation: When two or more different monomers unite
Answer: a together to polymerize, the product is called a copolymer
Explanation: The breakdown of the initiator molecule to b) and the process is called copolymerization. If M and N are
form radicals, followed by the radical’s reaction with a present together, Random type MM MN NNN MM N M
a)
monomer molecule is called the initiation step of the MM N N…… and Alternating type M N M N M N M N M
polymerization. ………
c)
4. Which of the following happens in propagation step of 2. Gradient copolymer comers under which of the
b) following copolymer category?
the free radical polymerisation?
a) Decomposition of initiator a) Linked copolymer
b) Renewal of inhibitor d) b) Branched copolymer
c) Addition of monomer molecules to the growing chains View Answer c) Terepolymer
c)
d) Disproportionation d) Brush copolymer
10. How many monomer units of ethylene are present in View Answer
View Answer
the given polyethylene formed by?
Answer: b Answer: a
d)
Explanation: The adding of more and more monomer Explanation: Linear copolymers consist of a single main
View Answer
molecules to the growing chains, is called propagation. chain and gradient copolymers are single chain of polymer
Self-perpetuating reactions like this one are called chain Answer: a in which the monomer composition changes gradually
a) 1 along the chain.
reactions. Explanation: Polyvinyl acetate, or PVA for short, is one of
b) 2
those low-profile behind-the-scenes polymers. It is found
5. Which of the following happens in termination step of c) 3 3. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer
in the case with polyethylene or polystyrene.
the free radical polymerisation? d) 4 with regular alternating A and B units?
a) decomposition of initiator View Answer a) Alternating copolymer
b) addition of free radical to monomer b) Periodic copolymer
Answer: d c) Statistical copolymer
c) addition of monomer molecules to the growing chains
Explanation: A repeat unit or repeating unit is a part of a d) Block copolymer
d) disproportionation
polymer whose repetition would produce the complete View Answer
View Answer
polymer chain (except for the end-groups) by linking the
Answer: a —- B-B-B-B-B-A-A-A-A-A-B-B-B-B-B—- Answer: a termination occurs when the metal complex separates
Explanation: Alternating copolymers are with regular Explanation: Copolymers copolymer consisting of three from the polymer.
alternating A and B units, as shown below. This sequence 7. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer in distinct monomers, are called as terepolymer copolymer
will not change. which the main chain is formed from one type of as it is in star shape, as shown in below. This sequence will 2. Which catalyst is commonly used in coordination chain
—- A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-B—- monomer A and branches are formed from another not change. polymerization?
monomer B? a) nickel
4. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer a) Terepolymer copolymer b) ziegler- Natta catalyst
with A and B units arranged in a repeating sequence? b) Graft copolymer c) zeolite
a) Alternating copolymer c) Statistical copolymer d) platinum
b) Periodic copolymer d) Star copolymer View Answer
c) Statistical copolymer View Answer 10. Which of the following is the condition for ideal
d) Block copolymer copolymerization? Answer: b
View Answer Answer: b a) r1r2=1 Explanation: A Ziegler–Natta catalyst, named after Karl
Explanation: Copolymers in which the main chain is b) r1r2=0 Ziegler and Giulio Natta, is a catalyst used in the synthesis
Answer: b formed from one type of monomer A and branches are c) r1=r2 of polymers of 1-alkenes (alpha-olefins).
Explanation: Copolymers with A and B units arranged in a formed from another monomer B, are called as graft d) r1=1
repeating sequence are periodic polymers as shown copolymer, as shown in below. This sequence will not 3. Which of the following is true about homogenous
View Answer
below. This sequence will repeat itself to form a polymer. change. Ziegler Natta polymerisation?
(A-B-A-B-B-A-A-A-A-B-B-B)n Answer: a a) This is based on titanium tetrachloride
Explanation: The composition and structural type of the organoaluminium co-catalyst
5. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer copolymer depend on the reactivity ratios r1 and b) This is based on Kaminsky catalyst
with sequence of monomer residues follows a statistical r2according to the Mayo–Lewis equation also called the c) This is based on neodymium-based catalyst
rule? 8. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer copolymerization equation. d) This is based on organoaluminium co-catalyst
a) Alternating copolymer with several polymer chains connected to a central core? Ideal copolymerisation happens when chain radicals have View Answer
b) Periodic copolymer a) Terepolymer copolymer equal preference to add one of the monomers over the
c) Statistical copolymer b) Graft copolymer Answer: b
other.
d) Block copolymer c) Statistical copolymer Explanation: The Homogenous Ziegler Natta coordination
View Answer d) Star copolymer polymerization is done with the help of homogenous
View Answer catalyst such as the Kaminsky catalyst. Kaminsky catalysts
Answer: c COORDINATION POLYMERISATION are based on metallocenes of group 4 metals (Ti, Zr, Hf)
Explanation: Copolymers with sequence of monomer Answer: d activated with methylaluminoxane (MAO).
1. Which of the following is true about coordination
residues follows a statistical rule, are called as statistical Explanation: Copolymers with several polymer chains
polymerisation? 4. Which of the following olefine undergo coordination
copolymer, as shown in below. This sequence will not connected to a central core, are called as star copolymer
a) radical, coordination, anionic, or cationic polymerisation in the presence of Ziegler-Natta catalysts?
change. as it is in star shape, as shown in below. This sequence will
polymerization, depending on the type of initiation a) vinyl chloride
—- A-B-B-B-A-B-A-B-A-B-A-A-B-B-B-A-A-B—- b) polymerization that is catalysed by transition metal salts b) vinyl ethers
and complexes c) acrylate esters
6. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer c) monomers react by eliminating small molecules like d) ethylene
which comprises two or more homopolymer subunits H2O, NH3, CH2O and NaCl in a repetitive manner, Indefinite View Answer
linked by covalent bonds? growth of the polymer occurs at both ends
a) Alternating copolymer not change. d) a mixture of more than one (or different) monomeric Answer: d
b) Periodic copolymer species is allowed to polymerize Explanation: The mixing of TiCl4 with trialkylaluminium
c) Statistical copolymer 9. Which of the following copolymers is the copolymer complexes produces Ti(III)-containing solids that catalyze
View Answer
d) Block copolymer consisting of three distinct monomers? the polymerization of ethylene. Many alkenes do not
View Answer a) Terepolymer copolymer Answer: b polymerize in the presence of Ziegler-Natta or Kaminsky
b) Graft copolymer Explanation: Coordination polymerisation is a form of catalysts. This problem applies to polar olefins such as
Answer: d c) Statistical copolymer polymerization that is catalysed by transition metal salts vinyl chloride, vinyl ethers, and acrylate esters.
Explanation: Copolymers which comprises two or more d) Star copolymer and complexes. In this addition of monomer to a metal
homopolymer subunits linked by covalent bonds, are View Answer complex take place, followed by propagation is by 5. Which of the following is true about heterogeneous
called as block copolymer, as shown in below. This successive insertion of monomer at the metal, and Ziegler Natta polymerisation?
sequence will not change. a) This is based on titanium tetrachloride
b) This is based on Kaminsky catalyst
c) This is based on neodymium-based catalyst
d) This is based on titanium tetrachloride organo-
aluminium co-catalyst
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coordination polymerization with
heterogeneous Ziegler-Natta catalysts is based on titanium
tetrachloride and organoaluminium co-catalyst. The
mixing of TiCl4 with trialkylaluminium complexes produces
Ti(III)-containing solids that catalyse the polymerization of
ethylene and propylene.
6. Homogenous Ziegler Natta coordination polymerization
occurs via which mechanism?
a) Cossee–Arlman mechanism
b) Mechanism of free-radical polymerization
c) Cationic polymerization mechanism
d) Anionic polymerization mechanism
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Cossee–Arlman mechanism is the
pathway for the formation of C–C bonds in the
polymerization of alkenes. The mechanism features an
intermediate coordination complex that contains both the
growing polymer chain and the monomer (alkene), these
ligands combine within the coordination sphere of the
metal to form a polymer chain that is elongated by two
carbons.
7. Which catalyst is used for the coordination
polymerisation of polybutadiene?
a) titanium tetrachloride organo-aluminium co-catalyst
b) kaminsky catalyst
c) neodymium-based catalyst
d) organo-aluminium co-catalyst
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The salt of neodymium has been widely used
in industrial polymerization of 1,3-butadiene. The
neodymium catalyst causes high catalytic activity during
the polymerization of dienes, however good control has
not been achieved with regard to molecular weight and
molecular weight distribution.
8. Titanium tetrachloride organoaluminium co-catalyst is
used in which of the following polymerisation?
a) Ziegler-Natta polymerization
b) Anionic vinyl polymerization
c) Free-radical polymerization
d) Metathesis polymerization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coordination polymerization with
heterogeneous Ziegler-Natta catalysts is based on titanium
tetrachloride and organo-aluminium co-catalyst. The
mixing of TiCl4 with trialkylaluminium complexes produces
Ti(III)-containing solids that catalyse the polymerization of
ethylene and propylene.
STEP REACTION POLYMERISATION
1. Which of the following is true about Step-growth
polymerisation?
a) radical, coordination, anionic, or cationic
polymerization, depending on the type of initiation
b) polymerization that is catalysed by transition metal salts
and complexes
c) monomers react by eliminating small molecules like
H2O, NH3, CH2O and NaCl in a repetitive manner, Indefinite
growth of the polymer occurs at both ends
d) monomers react to form first dimers, then trimmers,
longer oligomers and eventually long chain polymers
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Step-growth polymerization refers to a type
of polymerization mechanism in which bi-functional or
multifunctional monomers react to form first dimers, then
trimmers, longer oligomers and eventually long chain
polymer.
2. Which of the following is not true about step growth
polymerisation?
a) Molar mass of backbone chain increases rapidly at early
stage and remains approximately the same throughout the
polymerization
b) Similar steps repeated throughout reaction process
c) Initiator are required for the step growth polymerisation
d) Rapid loss of monomer early in the reaction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Initiator is not required for the step growth
polymerisation. Step-Growth polymerization occurs by
consecutive reactions in which the degree of
polymerization and average molecular weight of the
polymer increase as the reaction proceeds.
3. Which of the following is polymer formed by step-
growth polymerization is not classified under
condensation polymerisation?
a) Polyester
b) Polyurethane
c) Polysiloxane
d) Polyamide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most step-growth polymers are classified as
condensation polymers, but not all step-growth polymers.
Polyurethanes formed from isocyanate and alcohol
bifunctional monomers) release condensates; in this case,
we talk about addition polymers.
4. Which monomers are required for the formation of
Bakelite via a typical step-growth polymerization?
a) phenol and formaldehyde
b) isocyanate and alcohol
c) diamine and formaldehyde
d) ester and phenol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The synthesis of first truly synthetic polymeric
material, Bakelite, was announced by Leo Baekeland in
1907, through a typical step-growth polymerization
fashion of phenol and formaldehyde.
5. Formation of polytriazole polymers via step-growth
polymerization is produced from which of the following
monomers?
a) Compound which bears both alkyne and azide
functional group
b) Compound which bears both alkene and azide
functional group
c) Compound which bears both alkane and azide
functional group
d) Compound which bears both vinyl and azide functional
group
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Poly-Triazole polymers are produced from
monomers which bear both an alkyne and azide functional
group. The monomer units are linked to each other by the
a 1,2,3-triazole group; which is produced by the 1,3-
Dipolar cycloaddition, also called the Azide-alkyne Huisgen
cycloaddition.
6. How does the reaction rate vary with increasing extent
of reaction beyond 94% conversion in self catalyzed
reaction?
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) first increases than decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetics of the step-growth
polymerization can be described with Flory’s equal
reactivity principle. If the polymerization is carried out in
the presence of a strong acid (sulfonic acids) and if the
catalyst concentration is kept constant throughout the
process the average degree of polymerization increases
linearly with the reaction time, which is a much more
favorable situation for obtaining high average molecular
weight polymers than the weak-acid catalyzed third-order
reaction.
7. What is the trend in the molecular weight of step
growth polymer at lower conversion and higher
conversion respectively?
a) Increase then decrease
b) Decreases an increases
c) Remains same
d) Can’t say about molecular weight
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Step-growth polymers increase in molecular
weight at a very slow rate at lower conversions and reach
moderately high molecular weights only at very high
conversion (i.e., >95%).
8. Which of the following is not prepared by Ziegler-Natta
coordination polymerisation?
a) High density Polyethylene (HDPE)
b) Ultrahigh molecular weight Polyethylene (UHMWPE)
c) Ethylene-1-alkenebcopolymer (linear low density
polyethylene, LLDPE)
d) Polyvinyl acetate (PVAc)
View Answer
Answer: d 4. To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen d) cysteine phosphate molecule, a 5-carbon deoxyribose sugar and a
Explanation: Vinyl chloride is polar olefins and such bonds in DNA? View Answer nitrogenous base.
alkenes do not polymerize in the presence of Ziegler-Natta a) adenine
or Kaminsky catalysts. b) thymine Answer: c 11. Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids
c) cytosine Explanation: The triplet code for phenylalanine can be in which of the following structure?
d) guanine UUU or UUC. For serine it can be UCU, UCC, AGU or AGC. a) Hemoglobin
View Answer For tyrosine, it is UAU or UAC. For cysteine it can be UGU b) Myoglobin
AMINO ACIDS, DNA AND RNA or UGC. c) Insulin
1. In double helix of DNA, the two DNA strands show Answer: a d) Collagen
Explanation: In molecular biology, two nucleotides on 8. To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen View Answer
which type of characteristics? bonds in DNA?
a) coiled around a common axis opposite complementary DNA strands that are connected
via hydrogen bonds are called a base. In the Watson-Crick a) adenine Answer: d
b) coiled around each other b) thymine Explanation: Glycine and proline are the most abundant
c) coiled differently DNA base pairing, Adenine (A) forms a base pair with
Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) forms a base pair with c) cytosine amino acids in collagen. The most common motifs in the
d) coiled over protein sheath d) guanine amino acid sequence of collagen are glycine-proline-X and
View Answer Cytosine (C).
View Answer glycine-X-hydroxyproline, where X is any amino acid other
5. What term is used to describe the process by which than glycine, proline or hydroxyproline.
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The DNA molecule consists of two long, DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA molecules?
a) reproduction Explanation: In molecular biology, two nucleotides on 12. Which of the following statements about amino acids
parallel chains which are joined together by short opposite complementary DNA strands that are connected is correct?
b) replication
crossbars at regular intervals. The two chains are spirally via hydrogen bonds are called a base. In the Watson-Crick a) Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH
c) translation
coiled around a common axis in a regular manner to form DNA base pairing, Adenine (A) forms a base pair with b) Amino acids are classified according to the structures
d) transcription
a right handed double helix. Thymine (T) and Guanine (G) forms a base pair with and properties of their side chains
View Answer
Cytosine (C). c) Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-
2. A nucleotide is formed of which of the following units?
Answer: b configuration
a) nitrogen base and phosphate 9. A nucleoside is formed of which of the following units?
Explanation: Replication is the copying of DNA into two d) Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein
b) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate a) nitrogen base and phosphate
c) nitrogen base and sugar daughter DNA molecules. Translation is the process by synthesis
which the genetic code for a specific protein (carried in b) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate View Answer
d) sugar and phosphate c) nitrogen base and sugar
messenger RNA) is used for the synthesis of a new protein.
View Answer d) sugar and phosphate Answer: b
Answer: b 6. What term is used to describe the process by which a View Answer Explanation: Amino acids are usually classified by the
Explanation: Nucleotide is an organic compound consisting segment of DNA is copied to produce a molecule of properties of their side chain into four groups. The side
messenger RNA? Answer: c chain can make an amino acid a weak acid or a weak base,
of a nitrogen-containing purine or pyrimidine base linked Explanation: A nucleoside consists simply of a nucleobase
a) reproduction and a hydrophile if the side chain is polar or a hydrophobe
to a sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) and a phosphate group. (also termed a nitrogenous base) and a five-carbon sugar
b) replication if it is nonpolar.
c) translation (either ribose or deoxyribose).
3. Which of the following nitrogenous base is not present
d) transcription 13. Which of the following amino acids is mostly likely to
in RNA? 10. DNA is composed of repeating units of
a) adenine View Answer disrupt an alpha helix?
a) ribonucleosides a) Proline
b) thymine b) deoxyribonucleosides
Answer: d b) Leucine
c) cytosine c) ribonucleotides
Explanation: Transcription is the term used to describe c) Glycine
d) guanine d) deoxyribonucleotides
View Answer how the genetic code relevant for the synthesis of one d) Valine
protein (a gene) is copied from DNA to form messenger View Answer View Answer
Answer: a RNA.
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: Though both RNA and DNA contain the Explanation: It is a long, double” chain of
7. What amino acid is coded by the triplet of bases UAU? Explanation: Certain amino acids with simple side chains,
nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine and cytosine, RNA deoxyribonucleotide, or deoxyribotide, units. The two
a) phenylalanine such as alanine, are very favorable for formation of alpha
contains the nitrogenous base uracil instead of thymine. deoxyribonucleotide chains are twisted around a common
b) serine helices, whereas cyclic amino acids like proline tend to
Uracil pairs with adenine in RNA, just as thymine pairs with axis to form a right-handed double helix (spiral) that
c) tyrosine disrupt alpha helices.
adenine in DNA. encloses a cylindrical space in it. Each deoxyribonucleotide
unit, in turn, consists of three different molecules:
14. Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds? REACTIVITY OF MOLECULES REACTION MECHANISM 5. Which of the following is a permanent electron 9. Relative basic strength of amines does not depend upon
a) Proline displacement effect? a) Inductive effect
b) Leucine INDUCTIVE EFFECT a) Inductomeric b) Mesomeric effect
c) Cysteine 1. Electronegativity is defined as the power of an atom in a b) Electromeric c) Steric effect
d) Valine c) Inductive d) Stabilisation of cation by hydration
molecule to
View Answer a) Repel electrons towards itself d) All of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c b) Attract electrons towards itself Answer: b
Explanation: Cysteine aminoacid can form disulphide c) Expand itself Answer: c Explanation: Relative basic strength of amines does not
bond(bond which joins two atoms of sulphur atom) d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Inductive effect is the permanent electron depend upon mesomeric effect. This effect is used in a
because this is the only amino acid with a sulphydryl group View Answer displacement effect and inductomeric and electromeric qualitative way and describes the electron withdrawing or
in its side chain is cysteine. are temporary electron displacement effect. releasing properties of substituents based on relevant
Answer: b
Explanation: Electronegativity is defined as the power of resonance structures.
15. Which of the following amino acid is a limiting amino 6. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing
acid in pulses? an atom in a molecule to attract electrons towards itself. (+I) effect. 10. Due to presence of C – X polar bond in alkyl halide,
a) Leucine Fluorine is the most electronegative element. a) C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > CHR2 > H alkyl halides are
b) Lysine b) C6H5O– > H > CR3 > CHR2 > COO– a) More reactive than corresponding alkane
2. The factors on which electronegativity depends upon
c) Methionine a) Valence state of atom c) CR3 > C6H5O– > H > COO– > CHR2 b) Less reactive than corresponding alkane
d) Glutamine b) Hybridisation d) C6H5O– > COO– > CHR2 > CR3 > H c) Equally reactive as corresponding alkane
View Answer View Answer d) None of the mentioned
c) Both valence state and hybridisation
View Answer
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: Amino acids that are present in low View Answer Explanation: The correct order is- C6H5O– > COO– > CR3 > Answer: a
proportion limit the functioning of the proteins, and are so CHR2 > H. Explanation: Due to presence of C – X polar bond in alkyl
Answer: c
called limiting amino acids of those particular proteins. halide, alkyl halides are more reactive than corresponding
Explanation: The factors on which electronegativity 7. Arrange the following groups in the order of decreasing
Generally proteins in pulses like beans are limited in alkane.
depends upon is valence state of atom and hybridisation. (-I) effect.
methionine.
a) CN > F > Br > Cl > COOH > I > H
3. How does the electronegativiy gets affected with the
16. Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid b) COOH > CN > F > Br > Cl > I > H
negative oxidation state? ELECTROMERIC EFFECT
Glycine? c) H > COOH > CN > I > Cl > F > Cl
a) It decreases
a) Optically inactive b) It increases d) CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br > I > H 1. Which of the following is a temporary effect brought
b) Hydrophilic, basic and charged c) It remains constant View Answer into play at the requirement of attacking reagent?
c) Hydrophobic d) None of the mentioned a) Inductive effect
d) Hydrophilic, acidic and charged Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: The correct order is- CN > COOH > F > Cl > Br b) Mesomeric effect
View Answer
> I > H. c) Electromeric effect
Answer: a d) Inductomeric effect
Answer: a
Explanation: Electronegativity decreases with the negative 8. Which of the following is an application of inductive View Answer
Explanation: The entire class of amino acids has a common oxidation state since the tendency to attract an electron
backbone of an organic carboxylic acid group and an effect?
will decrease with the negative charge of the anion. a) Bond length Answer: c
amino group attached to a saturated carbon atom. The
2 b) Dipole moment Explanation: Electromeric effect is a temporary effect
simplest member of this group is glycine, where the 4. The electronegativity of sp hybridised atom will be
c) Strength of carboxylic acids brought into play at the requirement of attacking reagent.
saturated carbon atom is unsubstituted, rendering it a) 3.29 Electromeric effect refers to a molecular polarizability
optically inactive. d) All of the mentioned
b) 2.48 effect occurring by an intra-molecular electron
View Answer
c) 3.69 displacement.
d) 2.75 Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Bond length, dipole moment and strength of 2. Select the correct statement from the following option
carboxylic acids are some of the applications of inductive a) When multiple bonds are present between two
Answer: d different atoms, electromeric shift towards the more
effect.
Explanation: The electronegativity of sp2 hybridised atom electronegative atom takes place
will be 2.75. Fluorine is the most electronegative element. b) When multiple bonds are present between two similar
atoms, the first possibility is symmetric alkenes or alkynes d) All of the mentioned d) (+I) effect 3. The phenomenon in which 2 or more structures,
c) When multiple bonds are present between two similar View Answer View Answer involving identical position of atoms can be written for a
atoms, the second possibility is asymmetric alkenes or particular molecule, is called
alkynes Answer: a Answer: d a) Conjugation
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: The positively charged and electron deficient Explanation: Those groups which are electron repelling b) Resonance
View Answer compounds which have a tendency to form a bond by and have lesser electron attracting power than hydrogen c) Hyper conjugation
accepting the electron pair are known as electrophiles. show (+I) effect. d) Vibration
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: When multiple bonds are present between 6. Which of the following is an example of lewis base? 10. Which of the following molecule will show highest
two different atoms, electromeric shift towards the more a) ZnCl2 dipole moment? Answer: b
electronegative atom takes place. When multiple bonds b) BF3 a) CH3Cl Explanation: The phenomenon in which 2 or more
are present between two similar atoms, the first possibility c) NH3 b) CH3Br structures, involving identical position of atoms can be
is symmetric alkenes or alkyne and the second possibility is d) FeCl2 c) CH3F written for a particular molecule, is called resonance. The
asymmetric alkenes or alkynes. View Answer d) CH3I mesomeric effect is a permanent effect and operates in
View Answer compounds containing at least one double bond.
3. Select the correct statement from the following option. Answer: c
a) Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect Explanation: NH3 is an example of lewis base and ZnCl2, Answer: c 4. Select the incorrect option from the following option.
b) Conjugate effect is weaker than (-I) effect BF3 and FeCl2 are the examples of lewis acid. Explanation: CH3F will show the highest dipole moment a) Resonating structures have a real existence
c) Conjugate effect is same as (-I) effect because it is the most electronegative compound. b) The actual structure lies between various possible
7. Which of the following is an incorrect statement about
d) None of the mentioned resonating structures
the nucleophiles?
View Answer c) Resonating structures are useful as they allow us to
a) They are electron rich
MESOMERIC EFFECT describe molecules
Answer: a b) They possess an empty orbital to receive the electron
d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Conjugate effect is stronger than (-I) effect. pair 1. In mesomeric effect, the electrons are transferred from
c) They attack electron deficient centres View Answer
Conjugate effect (or delocalization) is an effect in which a) A multiple bonds to an atom
molecular orbitals (MOs) are conjugated to new molecular d) Examples are: OH–, NH3, H2O etc Answer: a
b) A multiple bonds to a single covalent bond
orbitals that are more delocalized and therefore generally View Answer Explanation: Resonating structures have no real existence.
c) An atom with a lone pair to the adjacent single covalent
lower in energy. bond All the other options are correct. The actual structure lies
Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned between various possible resonating structures,
4. When the complete transfer of π-electrons take place Explanation: Nucleophiles possess an unshared electron
View Answer resonating structures are useful as they allow us to
away from the atom at the requirement of attacking pair which is not firmly held to the nucleus. All the other
describe molecules.
agent, it is called options are correct. They are electron rich and attack on
Answer: d
a) (-E) effect electron deficient centres. Examples are: OH–, NH3, H2O Explanation: In mesomeric effect, the electrons are 5. The resonance energy is defined as a difference in
b) (+E) effect etc. energy between
transferred from a multiple bonds to an atom, a multiple
c) (-I) effect bond to a single covalent bond and an atom with the lone a) Two consecutive resonating structures
8. Lewis acids are the examples of nucleophilic reagents.
d) (+I) effect a) True pair to the adjacent single covalent bond. b) Resonance hybrid and most unstable resonating
View Answer b) False structure
2. Which of the following is a resonance effect? c) Resonance hybrid and most stable resonating structure
Answer: b View Answer
a) Inductive effect d) First and last resonating structures
Explanation: When the complete transfer of π-electrons b) Electromeric effect View Answer
Answer: b
take place away from the atom at the requirement of c) Mesomeric effect
Explanation: Lewis acids are the examples of electrophilic
attacking agent, it is called (+E) effect. reagents and Lewis bases are the examples of nucleophilic d) Inductomeric effect Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The resonance energy is defined as a
5. The positively charged and electron deficient reagents.
difference in energy between resonance hybrid and most
compounds which have a tendency to form a bond by Answer: c stable resonating structure. The resonance energy of a
9. Those groups which are electron repelling and have
accepting the electron pair are known as Explanation: Mesomeric effect is also known as resonance compound is a measure of the extra stability of the
lesser electron attracting power than hydrogen show
a) Electrophiles effect. The mesomeric effect is a permanent effect and conjugated system compared to the corresponding
a) (+E) effect
b) Nucleophiles operates in compounds containing at least one double number of isolated double bonds.
b) (-E) effect
c) Homophiles bond.
c) (-I) effect
6. Which of the following is an application of mesomeric 10. Phenyl group show b) 6 7. On increasing the number of α-hydrogens, the number
effect? a) (+M) effect c) 9 of hyperconjugation structures will
a) Dipole moment b) (+E) effect d) 12 a) Decrease
b) Strength of acids and bases c) (+I) effect View Answer b) Increase
c) Bond length d) (-M) effect c) Remains same
d) All of the mentioned View Answer Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
View Answer Explanation: Number of hyperconjugation structures in View Answer
Answer: d isopropyl radical is 6. Isopropyl is C3H7.
Answer: d Explanation: Phenyl group show (-M) effect. The phenyl Answer: b
Explanation: Dipole moment, strength of acids and bases group or phenyl ring is a cyclic group of atoms with the 4. The resonance energy (kCal/mol) of tertiary butyl is Explanation: On increasing the number of α-hydrogens,
and bond length are some of the applications of formula C6H5. a) 9 the number of hyperconjugation structures will increase.
mesomeric effect. b) 10 Hyperconjugation is directly proportional to the number of
c) 11 α-hydrogens. α-hydrogen is the hydrogen atom attached
7. Dipole moment of CH3-CH2-Cl > CH2=CH-Cl. d) 12 to the carbon which is attached to a functional group.
a) True HYPERCONJUGATION View Answer
b) False 1. Which of the following is known as Baker-Nathan 8. When the contributing structure contains the same
View Answer Answer: d number of two-electron bonds as the normal lewis
effect? Explanation: The resonance energy of tertiary butyl is 12
a) Mesomeric effect formula, it will be
Answer: a kCal/mol. It is also called tert-butanol, is the simplest a) Heterovalent hyperconjugation
Explanation: Dipole moment of CH3-CH2-Cl > CH2=CH-Cl. b) Inductive effect tertiary alcohol, with a formula of (CH3)3COH It is one of b) Sacrificial hyperconjugation
This is due to resonance in vinyl chloride. c) Hyperconjugation the four isomers of butanol. c) Isovalent hyperconjugation
d) Electromeric effect
d) All of the mentioned
8. Select the correct statement from the following option. View Answer 5. Larger the number of hyperconjugation structures, the
View Answer
a) Benzene ring has two different types of bond length for stability of free radicals will
single and double bonds Answer: c a) Increase Answer: c
b) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to Explanation: Hyperconjugation is also known as Baker- b) Decrease Explanation: When the contributing structure contains the
hyperconjugation Nathan effect. Hyperconjugation is the stabilising c) Remains same
interaction that results from the interaction of the same number of two-electron bonds as the normal lewis
c) All the bond length in benzene ring is equal due to d) None of the mentioned formula, it will be isovalent hyperconjugation.
resonance electrons in a ς-bond (usually C-H or C-C) with an adjacent View Answer
d) All of the mentioned empty or partially filled p-orbital or a π-orbital to give an 9. The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is
View Answer extended molecular orbital that increases the stability of Answer: a a) Benzene
the system. Explanation: Larger the number of hyperconjugation b) Toluene
Answer: c structures, greater will be the stability of free radicals. c) Nitrobenzene
Explanation: All the bond length in benzene ring is equal 2. Hyperconjugation involves the delocalisation of
d) Chlorobenzene
due to resonance. All the bond lengths are equal in a) ς bond orbital 6. Which of the following is a consequence of Baker-
View Answer
benzene ring i.e. double bond as well as single bond due to b) π bond orbital Nathan effect?
resonance. c) Both ς and π bond orbital a) It is helpful in explaining the directive influence of alkyl Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned groups in aromatic alkyl benzene Explanation: The compound that can be most readily
9. Greater the number of resonating structures for a given View Answer b) It is helpful in explaining the relative stability of alkenes sulphonated is toluene. Toulene contains a methyl group
intermediate, c) It is helpful in explaining the relative stabilities of alkyl with benzene ring and is a colorless, water-insoluble liquid
a) Less will be its stability Answer: a carbocations with the smell associated with paint thinners.
b) More will be its stability Explanation: Hyperconjugation involves the delocalisation d) All of the mentioned
c) It will not affect its stability of ς bond orbital. It is the stabilising interaction that View Answer 10. Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so
d) None of the mentioned results from the interaction of the electrons in a ς-bond hyperconjugation is not possible.
View Answer (usually C-H or C-C) with an adjacent empty or partially Answer: d a) True
filled p-orbital or a π-orbital to give an extended molecular Explanation: Baker-Nathan effect is helpful in explaining b) False
Answer: b orbital that increases the stability of the system. the directive influence of alkyl groups in aromatic alkyl View Answer
Explanation: Greater the number of resonating structures benzene. It is helpful in explaining the relative stability of
for a given intermediate, more will be its stability. More 3. Number of hyperconjugation structures in isopropyl alkenes and relative stabilities of alkyl carbocations. Answer: a
resonating structure increases the stability. radical is Explanation: Ethene is devoid of any alpha hydrogen so
a) 3 hyperconjugation is not possible because the presence of
alpha hydrogen is the necessary condition for pair is called homolytic fission. Homo refers to same and in 7. Which of the following is intermediate organic species CARBOCATIONS
hyperconjugation. this fission every atom has same number of electrons. based on carbon formed by homolytic fission?
a) Carbenes 1. Stability of free radicals can be explained on the basis of
4. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that both b) Carbo-cations a) Inductive effect
the electrons of shared pair are carried away by one of c) Carbanions b) Electromeric effect
FISSION OF COVALENT BOND atom is called c) Hyperconjugation
d) Free radicals
1. A covalent bond between two atoms may be broken in a) Morpholytic fission View Answer d) Mesomeric effect
b) Monolytic fission View Answer
different ways depending upon
a) Nature of given organic compound c) Heterolytic fission Answer: d
d) Homolytic fission Explanation: Free radicals are intermediate organic species Answer: c
b) Nature of attacking reagent Explanation: Stability of free radicals can be explained on
c) Reaction conditions View Answer based on carbon formed by homolytic fission. Free radicals
are different from cations and anions. They do not carry the basis of hyperconjugation effect and ease of
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c formation.
View Answer any charge with them.
Explanation: The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way
that both the electrons of shared pair are carried away by 8. Which of the following is intermediate organic species 2. The hybridisation of carbocation is
Answer: d a) Sp
Explanation: A covalent bond between two atoms may be one of atom is called heterolytic fission. Hetero refers to based on carbon formed by photolysis?
different and in this fission every atom has different a) Carbenes b) Sp2
broken in different ways depending upon nature of given c) Sp3
organic compound, nature of attacking reagent and number of electrons. b) Carbo-cations
c) Carbanions d) Sp3d
reaction conditions. 5. Heterolytic fission takes place between two atoms of View Answer
d) Free radicals
widely different View Answer
2. Select the incorrect statement from the following Answer: b
a) Conductivity
option. Explanation: The hybridisation of carbocation is sp2. A
a) Fission of covalent bond leads to the generation of b) Viscosity Answer: a
c) Electronegtivity Explanation: Carbenes are intermediate organic species carbocation is molecule in which a carbon atom bears
intermediate organic species three bonds and a positive charge.
d) All of the mentioned based on carbon formed by photolysis. A carbene is a
b) They are stable and long-lived
View Answer molecule containing a neutral carbon atom with a valence
c) The presence of reactive intermediates is confirmed by 3. Arrange the following carbocations in the order of
their detection by spectroscopic methods of two and two unshared valence electrons. increasing stability.
Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Heterolytic fission takes place between two 9. Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet carbene. a) Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10
View Answer atoms of widely different electronegativity. The more a) True b) Benzyl > 10 > 20 > 30
electronegative atom will not attract the electron as b) False c) 30 > 20 > 10 > Benzyl
Answer: b d) 10 > 20 > 30 > Benzyl
Explanation: The intermediate species are unstable and compared to less electronegative atom. View Answer
View Answer
short-lived. All the other options are correct. Fission of 6. Select the incorrect statement from the following Answer: a
covalent bond leads to the generation of intermediate option. Explanation: Triplet carbene is more stable than singlet Answer: a
organic species. The presence of reactive intermediates is a) Heterolytic fission takes place generally in a polar carbene. A carbene is a molecule containing a neutral Explanation: The correct stability order of carbocation is-
confirmed by their detection by spectroscopic methods. solvent carbon atom with a valence of two and two unshared Benzyl > 30 > 20 > 10. Benzyl carbocation is the most stable
b) Heterolytic fission takes place usually at higher valence electrons. and 10 carbocation is least stable.
3. The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way that each
temperatures
atom separates with one electron of the shared pair is 10. The shape of carbanion is 4. The shape of carbocation is
c) Cations and anions formed are generally carbon-based
called a) Linear a) Pyramidal
d) None of the mentioned
a) Homolytic fission b) Trigonal planar b) Bent
b) Heterolytic fission View Answer c) Linear
c) Pyramidal
c) Monolytic fission Answer: b d) Bent d) Trigonal planar
d) Morpholytic fission Explanation: Heterolytic fission takes place usually at View Answer View Answer
View Answer lower temperatures. All the other options are correct.
Answer: c Answer: d
Heterolytic fission takes place generally in a polar solvent
Answer: a Explanation: The shape of carbanion is pyramidal. A Explanation: The shape of carbocation is trigonal planar. It
and cations and anions formed are generally carbon-
Explanation: The breaking of a covalent bond in such a way carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an unshared is sp2 hybridised. A carbocation is molecule in which a
based.
that each atom separates with one electron of the shared pair of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with carbon atom bears three bonds and a positive charge.
three substituents for a total of eight valence electrons.
5. Carbonium ions are the intermediates in which the to +1. A carbocation is molecule in which a carbon atom c) Sp3 b) (-I) effect and resonance
positive charge is carried by the carbon atom with bears three bonds and a positive charge. d) Sp3d c) Hyperconjugation
___________ electrons in the valence shell. View Answer d) (+M) effect and resonance
a) 6 9. The homolytic bond dissociation energy is inversely View Answer
b) 5 proportional to the Answer: c
c) 4 a) Bond length Explanation: The hybridisation of carbanion is sp3. A Answer: b
d) 3 b) Ease of formation carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an unshared Explanation: Negative charge of carbanion can be
View Answer c) Dipole moment pair of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with dispersed by (+I) effect and resonance. A carbanion is a
d) All of the mentioned three substituents for a total of eight valence electrons. nucleophile. The stability and reactivity of a carbanion is
Answer: a View Answer determined by several factors.
Explanation: Carbonium ions are the intermediates in 3. The formal charge at the carbanion is
which the positive charge is carried by the carbon atom Answer: b a) +1 7. Which of the following carbanion is least stable?
with six electrons in the valence shell. It is an organic Explanation: The homolytic bond dissociation energy is b) -1 a) 10
cation in which the positive charge is located on a carbon inversely proportional to the ease of formation of free c) 0 b) 20
atom. radicals. Free radicals do not carry any charge. d) +2 c) 30
View Answer d) CH3
6. Positive charge of carbocations can be dispersed by 10. Which of the following free radical has the maximum View Answer
a) (+I) effect of alkyl group ease of formation? Answer: b
b) Resonance in allyl or benzyl carbocation a) 10 Explanation: The formal charge at the carbanion is -1. A Answer: c
c) Hyperconjugation in 10, 20 and 30 carbocations b) 20 carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an unshared Explanation: 30 carbanion is the least stable carbanion. The
d) All of the mentioned c) 30 pair of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with same factors that determine the stability of the carbanion
View Answer d) CH3 three substituents for a total of eight valence electrons. also determine the order in pKa in carbon acids.
View Answer
Answer: d 4. The geometry of carbanion is 8. Which of the following carbanion is most stable?
Explanation: Positive charge of carbocations can be Answer: c a) Pyramidal a) 10
dispersed by (+I) effect of alkyl group or by resonance in Explanation: 30 free radical has the maximum ease of b) Linear b) 20
allyl or benzyl carbocation or by hyperconjugation in 10, formation. Free radicals do not carry any charge. c) Tetrahedral c) 30
20 and 30 carbocations. d) Trigonal planar d) CH3
View Answer View Answer
7. Alkyl substitution at the carbon bearing positive charge
CARBANIONS Answer: a Answer: d
stabilizes carbocations.
a) True Explanation: The geometry of carbanion is pyramidal. A Explanation: CH3 carbanion is the most stable carbanion.
1. Select the correct statement from the following option.
b) False a) Carbanion is the intermediate compound carbanion is an anion in which carbon has an unshared The same factors that determine the stability of the
View Answer pair of electrons and bears a negative charge usually with carbanion also determine the order in pKa in carbon acids.
b) In carbanion, central carbon atom carries negative
charge three substituents for a total of eight valence electrons.
Answer: a 9. On increasing the number of alkyl groups, the stability
c) It possess an unshared pair of electron 5. The structure of carbanion is pyramidal but it undergoes of carbanions
Explanation: Alkyl substitution at the carbon bearing
d) All of the mentioned rapid inversion similar to those of amines. a) Increases
positive charge stabilizes carbocations. Carbocation is a View Answer
molecule in which a carbon atom bears three bonds and a a) True b) Decreases
positive charge. b) False c) Remains same
Answer: d
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Carbanion is the intermediate compound in
8. The formal charge at the carbocation is equal to which central carbon atom carries a negative charge and it View Answer
a) -1 Answer: a
possess the unshared pair of electron. It is an anion in Explanation: The structure of carbanion is pyramidal but it Answer: b
b) 0
which carbon has an unshared pair of electrons and bears undergoes rapid inversion similar to those of amines. The Explanation: On increasing the number of alkyl groups, the
c) +1
a negative charge usually with three substituents for a carbanion exists in a trigonal pyramidal geometry. stability of carbanions decreases. The alkyl groups have (-I)
d) +2
total of eight valence electrons. Formally, a carbanion is the conjugate base of a carbon effect.
View Answer
2. The hybridisation of carbanion is acid.
Answer: c 10. Due to (+I) effect, the methyl groups are electron
a) Sp 6. Negative charge of carbanion can be dispersed by accepting in nature.
Explanation: The formal charge at the carbocation is equal
b) Sp2 a) (+I) effect and resonance a) True
b) False Answer: a 8. Which step in SN1 reaction is a slow rate determining b) SN2
View Answer Explanation: The halide ion is an extremely weak base step? c) SNAr
because hydrogen halide are acidic as they release a a) Attack of nucleophile d) SNi
Answer: b proton. b) Formation of a racemic mixture View Answer
Explanation: Due to (+I) effect, the methyl groups are c) Formation of a transition state
electron releasing in nature. The same factors that 4. When the nucleophile :OR attacks the RX, the resultant d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
determine the stability of the carbanion also determine product will be View Answer Explanation: Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 proceeds with
the order in pKa in carbon acids. a) R – OH retention of configuration via substitution nucleophilic
b) ROR Answer: c internal (SNi) mechanism.
c) R:CN Explanation: The first step of formation of the transition
d) RNHR state is a slow rate determining step in SN1 reaction. 13. The nucleophilic substitutions do not occur in
NUCLEOPHILLIC SUBSTITUTION REACTION haloarenes because
View Answer
9. A low concentration of nucleophile favours the a) The carbon-halogen bond is much shorter
1. The atom which defines the structure of a family of
Answer: b a) SN2 reaction b) The carbon-halogen bond is stronger compared to that
organic compounds and their properties is called
Explanation: When the nucleophile :OR attacks the RX, the b) SN1 reaction in haloalkanes
a) Resonating structure
b) Homologous structure resultant product will be ROR. X will be separated. c) Both SN1 and SN1 reaction c) The lone pair of electrons on the halogen participates in
d) None of the mentioned delocalisation with the π-electrons of benzene ring
c) Functional group 5. Select the correct statement from the following option.
d) Nucleophile View Answer d) All of the mentioned
a) SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics View Answer
View Answer b) No intermediate is involved in SN2 mechanism Answer: b
c) SN2 reactions are one-step reaction Explanation: A low concentration of nucleophile favours Answer: d
Answer: c
d) All of the mentioned the SN1 reaction but high concentration of nucleophile Explanation: The nucleophilic substitutions do not occur in
Explanation: The atom which defines the structure of a
family of organic compounds and their properties is called View Answer favours the SN2 reaction. haloarenes because the carbon-halogen bond is much
shorter and stronger compared to that in haloalkanes and
a functional group. Functional groups are specific groups Answer: d 10. Which of the following reactions are favoured by polar the lone pair of electrons on the halogen participates in
of atoms or bonds within molecules that are responsible Explanation: SN2 reaction follows second order kinetics aprotic solvent? delocalisation with the π-electrons of benzene ring.
for the characteristic chemical reactions of those and no intermediate is involved in it. So, SN2 reactions are a) SN1 reactions
molecules. one-step reaction. b) SN2 reactions 14. Which of the following drastic condition is required for
c) Both SN1 and SN1 reactions the substitution in haloarenes?
2. The functional group in alkyl halide is 6. The reactivity order of alkyl halides in SN2 is d) None of the mentioned a) High temperature
a) Hydroxyl group a) CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30
b) Halogen atom View Answer b) High pressure
b) CH3 X > 20 > 10 > 30 c) Strong concentrated reagent
c) Inert gas c) CH3 X > 30 > 10 > 20 Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
d) CH3 X > 30 > 20 > 10 Explanation: SN1 reactions are favoured by polar protic View Answer
View Answer View Answer solvents whereas SN2 reactions are favoured by polar
aprotic solvent. Answer: d
Answer: b Answer: a Explanation: Drastics conditions like high temperature,
Explanation: The functional group in alkyl halide is a Explanation: The correct order of reactivity in alkyl halide 11. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of
halogen atom. Halide refers to halogen. Halogens are a high pressure and strong concentrated reagents are used
is- CH3 X > 10 > 20 > 30. CH3 X is most reactive whereas 30 is leaving group in nucleophilic substitution reaction. to carry substitution in haloarenes.
group in the periodic table consisting of five chemically least reactive. a) H– > Cl– > HO– > Br– > CH3COO–
related elements: fluorine (F), chlorine (Cl), bromine (Br), b) Cl– > Br– > HO– > H– > CH3COO– 15. The rate of nucleophilic substitution reactions are
iodine (I), and astatine (At). 7. SN1 reaction involves heterolysis to form the c) Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > HO– > H– higher in the presence of
carbocation as an intermediate. d) HO– > CH3COO – > H– > Br– > Cl– a) Electron withdrawing groups
3. The halide ion is an extremely a) True View Answer b) Electron releasing groups
a) Weak base b) False c) Both electron withdrawing and releasing groups
b) Weak acid View Answer Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
c) Strong base Explanation: The correct order is- Cl– > Br– > CH3COO – > View Answer
d) Strong acid Answer: a HO– > H–.
View Answer Explanation: SN1 reaction involves heterolysis to form the Answer: a
carbocation as an intermediate. 12. Reaction of alcohol with SOCl2 is Explanation: The rate of nucleophilic substitution reactions
a) SN1 are higher in the presence of electron withdrawing groups.
ELECTROPHILLIC SUBSTITUTION REACTION – I Answer: a b) Isopropyl benzene Answer: b
Explanation: The necessary condition for desulphonation c) O-xylene Explanation: An activating substituent group activates the
1. Which of the following is rate determining step in is- Use dilute acid, high concentration of water and d) P-xylene ortho and para positions. It does not activate the meta
electrophilic substitution reaction? remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation. View Answer position.
a) Generation of electrophile
b) Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene ring 5. Which of the following act as electrophile in Answer: b 2. A deactivating substituent group directs
c) Formation of product halogenation? Explanation: p-xylene is not a product of reaction of a) Ortho position
d) All of the mentioned a) Nitronium ion benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3. Toulene, isopropyl benzene b) Para position
View Answer b) Sulphonium ion and O-xylene are the products of such reaction. c) Both ortho and para positions
c) Halonium ion d) Meta position
Answer: b d) Acylium ion 9. The product of Friedel-Crafts Acylation reactions are View Answer
Explanation: Attack by an electrophilic reagent on benzene View Answer a) Alkylbenzene
ring is a rate determining step in electrophilic substitution b) Alkylamine Answer: d
reaction. It is also the slowest step of the reaction. Answer: c c) Arylketone Explanation: A deactivating substituent group directs only
Explanation: Halonium ion act as electrophile in d) Halobenzene meta position. It does not activates ortho or para
2. Which of the following act as a catalysis in the nitration halogenation. Nitronium ion is used in nitration. View Answer positions.
of benzene? Sulphonium ion is used in sulphonation. Acylium ion is
a) Conc. HCl used in acylation. Answer: c 3. Which of the following is ortho-para directing group?
b) Dil. HCl Explanation: The product of Friedel-Crafts Acylation a) –NHCOCH3
c) Conc. H2SO4 6. Aromatic bromination catalyzed by the Lewis acid reactions are Arylketone. The acylated products may easily b) –NO2
d) Dil. H2SO4 thalium acetate gives be converted to the corresponding alkanes via c) –CN
View Answer a) Para isomer Clemmensen Reduction or Wolff-Kishner Reduction. d) –CHO
b) Ortho isomer View Answer
Answer: c c) Meta isomer 10. How will you convert benzene into n-propyl benzene?
Explanation: Conc. H2SO4 act as a catalysis in the nitration d) Para and ortho isomer a) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation Answer: a
of benzene. Benzene is treated with a mixture of View Answer b) Friedel-Crafts Acylation Explanation: NHCOCH3 is ortho-para directing group. NO,
concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid at c) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation followed by clemmensen CN and CHO are meta-directing groups.
a temperature not exceeding 50°C. Answer: a reduction
Explanation: Aromatic bromination catalyzed by the Lewis d) Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by clemmensen 4. Which of the following is meta directing group?
3. Fuming sulphuric acid is the solution of _________% acid thalium acetate gives only para isomer. It is not Ortho reduction a) –NHCOCH3
SO3 in conc. H2SO4. and meta directing. View Answer b) –COOH
a) 10 c) –OH
b) 9 7. The reaction in which benzene reacts with alkyl halide in Answer: d d) –OCH3
c) 8 presence of a lewis acid as a catalyst to produce Explanation: Friedel-Crafts Acylation followed by View Answer
d) 7 alkylbenzene is known as clemmensen reduction of ketone will give n-propyl
View Answer a) Nitration benzene. Clemmensen reduction is a chemical reaction Answer: b
b) Halogenation described as a reduction of ketones (or aldehydes) to Explanation: -COOH is meta directing group. All the other
Answer: d c) Friedel-Crafts Acylation alkanes using zinc amalgam and hydrochloric acid. options are ortho-para directing groups.
Explanation: Fuming sulphuric acid is the solution of 7% d) Friedel-Crafts Alkylation
SO3 in conc. H2SO4. It is also called Oleum which is 5. The most stable carbonium ion is
View Answer
produced in the contact process, where sulphur is oxidized a) Methyl carbonium ion
to sulphur trioxide which is subsequently dissolved in Answer: d ELECTROPHILLIC SUBSTITUTION REACTION – II b) 20 carbonium ion
concentrated sulphuric acid. Explanation: The reaction in which benzene reacts with c) 10 carbonium ion
1. An activating substituent group activates d) 30 carbonium ion
alkyl halide in presence of a lewis acid as a catalyst to
4. Which of the following is the necessary condition for a) Ortho position View Answer
produce alkylbenzene is known as Friedel-Crafts
desulphonation? b) Para position
Alkylation. With anhydrous ferric chloride as a catalyst, the
a) Remove volatile hydrocarbon by steam distillation c) Both ortho and para positions Answer: d
alkyl group attaches at the former site of the chloride ion.
b) Low concentration of water d) Meta position Explanation: The most stable crbonium ion is 30carbonium
c) High concentration of sulphonating agent 8. Which of the following is not a product of the reaction View Answer ion. The least stable is primary or 10carbonium ion.
d) A large excess of fuming sulphuric acid of benzene with CH3Cl and AlCl3?
View Answer a) Toulene
6. Which of the following has the highest activation of
benzene ring?
a) – NHCOCH3
b) –OH
c) –NH2
d) –C6H5
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: –NH2 among the following has the highest
activation of benzene ring. In cases where the substituents
is esters or amides, they are less activating because they
form resonance structure that pull the electron density
away from the ring.

7. HBr reacts fastest with

a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
b) Propan-1-ol
c) Propan-2-ol
d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: HBr reacts fastest with 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
Hydrogen bromide is the diatomic molecule and a
colorless compound.

8. The compound that can be most readily sulphonated is

a) Benzene
b) Nitrobenzene
c) Toluene
d) Chlorobenzene
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The compound that can be most readily
sulphonated is toluene. Toulene contains CH3 group.

9. In Cannizaro reaction, two molecules of aldehydes are

reacted to produce
a) Alcohol only
b) Carboxylic acid only
c) Alcohol and carboxylic acid
d) Alcohol, carboxylic acid and ketone
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In Cannizaro reaction, two molecules of
aldehydes are reacted to produce alcohol and carboxylic
acid using a hydroxide base.